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Biology Sample Paper
Biology Sample Paper
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As per CBSE Sample Paper
Issued On 02 Sep, 2021...
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Sample
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Papers
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Biology
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Authors
Rakhi Bisht
Yukta Khatri
Juhi Bhatia
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© Publisher
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Head Office
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ISBN : 978-93-25795-23-5
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PO No : TXT-XX-XXXXXXX-X-XX
Published by Arihant Publications (India) Ltd.
For further information about the books published by Arihant, log on to
www.arihantbooks.com or e-mail at info@arihantbooks.com
Follow us on
Contents
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þ One Day Revision 3-14
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þ The Qualifiers 17-31
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þ Latest CBSE Sample Paper 35-52
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Sample Paper 1 ch 55-71
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THEORY
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Units Term I Marks
VI Reproduction: Chapter - , and
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VII Genetics and Evolution: Chapter and
Units Term II
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VIII Biology and Human Welfare: Chapter and
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IX Biotechnology and its Applications: Chapter and
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Total
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Unit-VI Reproduction
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Need for reproductive health and prevention of Sexually Transmitted
Diseases STDs ; birth control - need and methods, contraception and
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medical termination of pregnancy MTP ; amniocentesis; infertility and
assisted reproductive technologies - IVF, ZIFT, GIFT elementary idea for
general awareness . ch
Unit-VII Genetics and Evolution
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Chapter- Principles of Inheritance and Variation
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Cracking an MCQ-based examination identify your weak & strong
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requires you to be familiar with the topics/chapter by analyzing of incorrect
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question format, so continuous practice answers, in this way you will get an
will make you more efficient in solving awareness about your weaker topics.
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MCQs.
Practice through Sample Papers
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Speed & Accuracy Solving more & more papers will make
In MCQ-based examination, you need you more efficient and smarter for
both speed and accuracy, if your
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exams. Solve lots of Sample Papers
accuracy is good but speed is slow then given in a good Sample Papers book.
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you might attempt less questions,
resulting in low score.
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which you are confident. Now move of time, you will not get extra marks
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ONE DAY
REVISION
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Revise All the Concepts in a Day
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Just Before the Examination...
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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
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1. Sexual Reproduction epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and
It is a process of development of new organisms due ch tapetum (nourishing tissue).
to the fusion of male and female gametes. l
Pollen grains are known as male
It occurs through flowers in plants. Such plants are gametophytes. Each pollen grain has a
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called angiospermic or flowering plants. two-layered wall, i.e. sporoderm. The outer
layer is hard and known as exine. It is made up
2. Flower
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These include the development of male and female The main parts of a pistil are stigma, style and
gametophyte. ovary.
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Megasporogenesis It is the process of formation of 7. Fertilisation
megaspores (4) from megaspore mother cell by It occurs just after pollination. Fusion of male and
meiotic division. female gametes is called fertilisation. Pollen tube
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Embryo sac or female gametophyte is formed enters in ovary and after fertilisation embryo is
when the nucleus of functional megaspore divides formed.
mitotically to form two nuclei, which move to the
opposite poles and form 2-nucleate embryo sac, 8. Double Fertilisation
which then results into the formation of 4-nucleate It was discovered by SG Nawaschin in Fritillaria and
and later 8-nucleate stage. This event is known as Lilium plants in 1898. In this, one of the male
megagametogenesis. gametes fuses with egg cell and forms diploid
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The mature embryo sac contains 7-cells and zygote.
8-nuclei (polygonum type). The 6 out of 8-nuclei This is called syngamy. The other male gamete fuses
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get surrounded by cell wall and are organised into with polar nuclei and forms 3n (triploid) Primary
cells. Three cells present towards the micropylar Endosperm Nucleus (PEN), so this is called triple
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end, grouped together constitute the egg fusion. Since, two fusions, i.e. syngamy and triple
apparatus, i.e. two synergids and one egg cell.
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fusion occur in an embryo sac, this is called double
The 3-cells of the chalazal end are called fertilisation.
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antipodals.
4. Pollination 9. Post-Fertilisation Events
The major post-fertilisation events include
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Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma is
called pollination. Stamen and other whorls fall down development of endosperm and embryo, maturation
after pollination. Pollination is of two types of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruits. These
A. Self-Pollination When pollen grains reach to the
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Endosperm development is of three types, i.e.
stigma of the same flower (autogamy) or to the
nuclear type, cellular type and helobial type. Out of
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stigma of the another flower of the same plant
these, nuclear type is the most common one in which
(geitonogamy), it is known as self-pollination. It is
the PEN undergoes repeated mitotic divisions without
found in both unisexual and bisexual flowers.
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5. Pollen-Pistil Interaction Embryos are of two types, i.e. dicot embryo which
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It is an essential step in fertilisation of angiosperms consists of two cotyledons and monocot embryo
because it determines the compatability and which consists of only one cotyledon (called
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pollen on the stigma till the pollen tube enters ovule. fertilisation, ovary converts into fruit. The wall of ovary
This pollen-pistil interaction comprises of three develops into pericarp, a fleshy part of fruits. It has
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(ii) Growth of a pollen tube coat, cotyledon and embryonal axis. The seed coat
contains two layers, i.e. outer called testa (hard) and
(iii) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule
inner called tegmen.
6. Artificial Hybridisation l
Types of fruits are as follows
ONE DAY REVISION
Hu an Reproduction
Humans are sexually reproducing viviparous testis which opens in vasa efferentia. They open
organisms, i.e. give birth to young ones. They are into epididymis and carry sperms outside the
unisexual organisms, i.e. male and female sexes are body.
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separate. l
Epididymis is a mass of long narrow closely
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1. Human Reproductive Organs coiled tubules lying along the inner side of each
testis. It temporarily stores immature sperms. It
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These organs are divided into primary sex organs and
secondary sex organs. Primary sex organs produce helps the sperms in attaining maturity, acquiring
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gametes and sex hormones while secondary sex organs increased motility and fertilising capacity.
play an important role in reproduction. l
Vasa deferentia emerge from cauda epididymis
on each side, leave the scrotal sac and enter the
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2. Male Reproductive System
abdominal cavity through inguinal canal.
It is located in the pelvis region. It consists of
following organs l
Ejaculatory ducts are two short tubes each
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formed by the union of the duct from a seminal
A. Primary Sex Organs Testes are the primary sex
organs in men. vesicle and a vas deferens.
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Testes are the site where formation of male
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Urethra provides a common pathway for the flow
gametes or sperms takes place. These are of urine and semen.
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suspended in the scrotum by spermatic cords. C. Male accessory glands are of two types. These are
Each testis is divided into 200-300 compartments described below
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20-30% of semen volume. The secretion contains
arising from the lower abdominal wall present lipids, enzymes, citric acid, etc.
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specialised cells. They are as follows and alkaline fluid into urethra. The mucus helps in
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Sertoli cells (nurse cells) are pyramidal cells lubrication of penis and neutralises urinary acids
which provide nutrition to germinal cells. present in urethra.
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Male germ cells produce spermatogonia by D. External genitalia consist of penis. It is the male
ONE DAY REVISION
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These are covered by cubical epithelium, A. Spermatogenesis is the formation of spermatozoa
i.e. germinal epithelium. These cubical (sperms) in testes which originate from Primordial
epithelia enclose ovarian stroma and it is Germ Cells (PGCs). It includes following stages
divided into two zones, i.e. peripheral cortex l
Multiplication Phase In this phase, the
and inner medulla. undifferentiated germ cells present on the inner
B. Secondary sex organs constitute following organs wall of seminiferous tubules of the testes increase
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Fallopian tubes (oviducts) are 10-12 cm long in number by repeated mitotic divisions.
and consist of l
Growth Phase In this phase, some of the
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Infundibulum is broad and funnel-shaped spermatogonia differentiate into primary
with its motile and finger-like projections called spermatocytes.
fimbriae. l
Maturation Phase Each of these primary
Ampulla is the widest and longest part of spermatocytes undergoes first meiotic division
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Isthmus a short, narrow and thick-walled
portion that follows ampulla. meiotic division to produce haploid spermatids. The
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Uterine part passes through uterine wall spermatids transform into spermatozoa (sperms) by
the process of spermiogenesis.
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and communicates with uterine cavity.
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Uterus is 7.5 cm long and 5 cm wide. It is like
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Differentiation Phase After spermiogenesis,
an inverted pear in shape. It lies between sperms get embedded in Sertoli cells and are
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urinary bladder and rectum. It receives ovum finally released from the seminiferous tubules by
from the Fallopian tube and forms placenta for spermiation.
the development of foetus. The cervix is a
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Structure of Sperm A mature spermatozoa (sperm) is
narrow opening of uterus into vagina. microscopic and tadpole-shaped, about 2-5 µm in
diameter and 6 µm long. It consists of head, neck,
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Vagina is about 10 cm long. It is adapted for
receiving male’s penis during copulation, for middle piece and a tail.
allowing menstrual flow and for serving as a l
A cap-like structure called acrosome is present over
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birth canal during parturition. the head of sperm. It contains hydrolytic enzymes that
help in sperm penetration during fertilisation.
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excitement. It serves as a lubrication during development stage, but is completed only after
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breast in females. Breasts are rounded paired
structures located over the pectoral muscles on undergo mitotic division producing undifferentiated
the front wall of thorax. germ cells called oogonia or egg mother cells. They
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The glandular tissue of each breast is divided get temporarily arrested at prophase-I of meiotic
division. These cells (at this stage) are called primary
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tubules. l
Growth Phase Each primary oocyte when gets
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Each breast contains a nipple in its middle, surrounded by a single layer of granulosa cells is
which is surrounded by circular and pigmented called primary follicle. At puberty stage,
area called areola. 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each
ONE DAY REVISION
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cytoplasm called ooplasm with large nucleus endometrium of uterus. This is called implantation,
called germinal vesicle. which leads to pregnancy.
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8. Placenta
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5. Menstrual Cycle
It is the reproductive cycle in female primates, e.g. It is the structural and functional unit formed between
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monkeys, apes and human beings. At puberty, the mother and foetus. Its functions are as follows
first menstruation begins and it is called menarche. l
Provides nutrients and oxygen to the developing
In females, menstruation is repeated at an average embryo.
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interval of about 28/29 days. l
Removes CO 2 and waste material from the embryo.
The cycle stops at 50 years of age and the stage is l
Acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several
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called menopause. hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen, progesterone,
The cycle consists of the following four phases etc.
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Menstrual (Bleeding) Phase It lasts for 3-5 days. The
unfertilised egg undergoes autolysis which reduces LH 9. Embryonic Development
level and causes regression of corpus luteum. Following changes take place in embryo after
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implantation
The endometrial lining of uterus breaks down due to
the deficiency of progesterone. The blood vessels
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Inner cell mass of blastula differentiates into an
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rupture causing bleeding through vagina. outer layer called ectoderm and inner layer
called endoderm. Mesoderm develops between
Proliferative (Follicular) Phase It lasts for 14 days.
these two layers.
The primary follicles in ovary grow to become
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The secretion of LH and FSH increases gradually becomes fully developed and is ready for delivery.
during follicular phase. 10. Parturition
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Ovulatory Phase Both LH and FSH attain a peak in It is the process of delivery of the foetus. It is
the middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid secretion induced by complex neuroendocrine mechanism and
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of LH induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby the oxytocin hormone, produced due to the
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Reproductive Health
1. Reproductive Health l
Chemical Methods Spermicides available in the
It refers to the state of healthy reproductive organs form of cream, jellies and foams are usually used
with normal functions. According to WHO, along with the above stated barriers to increase
reproductive health can be defined as the total contraceptive efficiency. The spermicides include
well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical, lactic acid, citric acid, boric acid, zinc sulphate and
emotional, social and behavioural. potassium permanganate.
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Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are a form of long
2. Reproductive and Child Healthcare reversible contraceptive methods. These are
(RCH) Programmes categorised as
These programmes are for creating awareness n
Copper releasing IUDs, e.g. Cu-T, Cu-7,
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among people about various aspects of reproduction.
Multiload-375 and Paragard.
They provide facilities and support the buildup of a
Copper ions released from IUDs, suppress the
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reproductively healthy society. NOTE
motility and fertilisation capacity of sperms.
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Some measures taken for RCH are n
Hormone releasing IUDs, e.g. Progestasert,
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Use of audio-visual and print media. LNG-20 and Mirena. These make uterus
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Introduction of sex education in schools. unsuitable for implantation and the cervrix hostile
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Awareness about sexually transmitted diseases. to sperms.
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Instruct people about pre and post-natal care.
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Non-medicated IUDs, e.g. Lippes loop.
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Oral contraceptives are preparations of
3. Population Explosion
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The rapid increase in population over a relatively short
oestrogen combinations in the form of pills, e.g.
period is called population explosion. Expected
Saheli These pills inhibit ovulation and fertilisation.
reasons for the population explosion may be
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They also modify the quality of cervical mucus to
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A rapid decline in death rate (mortality). prevent or retard the entry of sperms. The emergency
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A reduction in Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR). contraceptives are taken within 3 days of intercourse
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Decline in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR). to prevent unwanted pregnancy, e.g. i-pill, etc.
Increase in number of people of reproducible age. Implants These are surgically placed under skin. They
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Consequences of Overpopulation Some direct act similar to oral contraceptives by blocking ovulation,
consequences of overpopulation are reduced food e.g. nor-plant (synthetic progesterone.)
supply, unemployment, lack of education and poverty. l
Injection Contraceptives These are injection which
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non-interfering with the sexual drive/desire and/or the tubectomy in women and vasectomy in men.
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Natural/Traditional Methods These are based on MTP is intentional or voluntary termination or abortion
the principle of avoiding the chances of meeting of of pregnancy before full term or before foetus
sperms and ovum, e.g. becomes viable. Government of India legalised
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Period abstinence (10-17th days of menstrual MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to prevent
ONE DAY REVISION
phase) misuse.
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Coitus interruptus or withdrawal before ejaculation
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Lactational amenorrhea (absence of
6. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
These are the diseases that are mainly passed from
menstruation during lactation)
one person to another during sexual activities. These
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Barrier Methods These prevent sperms and are called as Venereal Diseases (VDs) or
ovum from physically meeting with each other in Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs). Some common
order to prevent fertilisation, e.g. condoms, cervical STDs are genital herpes, syphilis, gonorrhoea,
caps, diaphragms and vaults. chlamydiasis, genital wart, hepatitis-B and AIDS. Early
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 9
symptoms of STDs are swelling in genital regions, 8. Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs)
itching, fluid discharge, etc. STDs like hepatitis-B These include IVF, ICSI, ZIFT, etc., which now provide
and HIV can also be transmitted by the following hope to many infertile couples.
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In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) or Test Tube Baby
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Sharing of contaminated injection needles, surgical Programme It is a technique of initiating the fertilisation
instruments, etc., with infected persons. process outside the female body. It is followed by
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Transfusion of blood. embryo transfer in which the embryo is placed inside
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From infected mother to foetus. the uterus with the intention to establish pregnancy.
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ZIFT and IUT When the 8-celled blastomere stage
Preventive Measures for STDs
embryo obtained by in vitro fertilisation is transferred
Prevention from STDs is possible and one could be
into the Fallopian tube, the process is termed as
free of these infections by following these simple
Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT).
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principles
If more than 8-celled blastomere stage is placed
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Avoid sex with unknown/multiple partners.
directly into the lining of uterus for further
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Always use condoms during coitus. development is called Intrauterine Transfer (IUT).
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Use sterilised needles and syringes. l
In Vivo Fertilisation In this, embryos are formed when
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Awareness about STDs.
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the fusion of the gametes takes place within the female
7. Infertility body or surrogates. This method is used to assist
It is also one of the major aspects of reproductive those females who cannot conceive or maintain
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health. It is mainly of two types pregnancy to full term.
(i) Primary infertility refers to those who never had
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Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) The ovum
children.
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collected from donor is transferred to the Fallopian tube
of another female, who cannot produce ova, but can
(ii) Secondary infertility refers to a situation, when a
provide a suitable environment for fertilisation and
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couple had children or achieved pregnancy
further development. This is termed as Gamete Intra
previously, but are unable to conceive the next
Fallopian Transfer (GIFT).
time.
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Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) In this, a
Some common causes of infertility in males are single sperm is carefully injected into an egg using a
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Low semen quality microneedle. It is beneficial in case of male infertility,
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Oligospermia (low sperm count) where sperm count is low.
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Azospermia (absence of sperms)
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Some common causes of infertility in females are abnormalities and foetal infection.
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Polycystic ovarian syndrome • Unfortunately this technique is being misused for
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Damage or blockage of Fallopian tube sex-determination. If the sex determined comes out
to be a girl, people undertake actions that lead to
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Age-related factors female foeticide. Thus, this procedure has certain
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Uterine problems legal restrictions in gender based countries.
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Previous tubal ligation
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from one generation to the next. It is the basis of character are called alleles, e.g. colour of flower (red
heredity. Gene is the unit of inheritance. and white), stem height (tall and dwarf).
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Variation is the degree by which progeny differs Homozygous A diploid condition, in which both alleles
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Heterozygous A diploid condition, in which both The following table shows the phenotypic and genotypic
alleles are different, e.g. Tt. ratio(s) of a monohybrid cross for better understanding
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Monohybrid Cross A cross in which only one of the above two laws
pair of character is taken. Generations/Ratios F1 F2
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Dihybrid Cross A cross in which two pairs of
Phenotypic 1 3:1
characters are taken.
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Reciprocal Cross A cross where sexes of Genotypic 1 1:2:1
parents are reversed. C. Law of Independent Assortment It states that when
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Back Cross A cross between homozygous two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation
dominant parent and heterozygous F1-hybrid is of one pair of characters is independent on the other
known as back cross. pair of characters at the time of gamete formation. It
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Test Cross A cross between homozygous also gets randomly rearranged in the offspring
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recessive parent and heterozygous F1-hybrid is producing both parental and new combinations of
known as test cross. By this cross, it can be characters. The following table explains the law of
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identified that a plant is homozygous or independent assortment on the basis of ratio(s)
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heterozygous. obtained through dihybrid cross.
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2. Mendel’s Experiments Generations/Ratios F1 F2
Mendel conducted his experiments on garden Phenotypic 1 9:3:3:1
pea for seven years to investigate inheritance
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Genotypic 1 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
pattern. He had applied statistical analysis and
mathematical logic to his experiments.
4. Deviations from Mendel’s Laws
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The following contrasting traits were studied by All patterns of inheritance could not be explained on the
Mendel in pea basis of Mendel’s principles which are as follows
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Characters Dominant Recessive (i) Incomplete Dominance It is a phenomenon in which
phenotype of the F1 hybrid offspring does not resemble
Stem height Tall Dwarf
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humans.
Flower colour Purple White
(iii) Multiple Alleles More than two alternative forms (allele) of
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Seed coat colour Yellow Green a gene occupying the same locus on a chromosome in a
population are known as multiple alleles, e.g. ABO blood
3. Mendel ’s Laws of Inheritance grouping.
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called factors. A A b A, AB O, A IA I A or IA I°
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Factors occur in pairs.
B B a B, AB O, B IB IB or IB I°
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In a pair of dissimilar factors, one member of
the pair is dominant while the other is AB A or B None AB O, A, B, AB IA IB
(universal
recessive. receiver)
B. Law of Segregation It states that the parents
contain two alleles during gamete formation. 5. Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
The factors or alleles of a pair segregate from It was proposed by Boveri and Sutton in 1902. It is the
each other, such that a gamete receives only fundamental unifying theory of genetics, which identifies
one of the two factors. chromosomes as the carriers of genetic material.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 11
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suffering from this disorder is not able to form
following types of sex-determination mechanisms blood clots when hurt or wounded. The
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observed in various organisms continuous bleeding causes death of the
Male Heterogamety
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person. This disorder is caused due to X-linked
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XX-XY type is seen in insects like Drosophila recessive gene.
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melanogaster and humans. Males have XY type (iii) Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive
(heteromorphic) chromosomes while females have disease, which occurs due to either mutation or
XX type (homomorphic) chromosomes. deletion of genes. It results in reduced rate of
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Female Heterogamety synthesis of one of the globin chains ( α or β) of
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ZZ-ZW type is seen in birds, fowls and fishes. It is haemoglobin.
an example of female heterogamety because female
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B. Chromosomal Disorders These are caused by the
absence, excess or abnormal arrangement of one or
produces two different types of gametes.
more chromosomes. Some of the disorders are
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ZZ-ZO type female is heterogametic (ZO) and male
is homogametic (ZZ), e.g. in butterflies and moths. described below
Haplo-diploidy is a sex-determination mechanism in (i) Down’s Syndrome or Mongolism It is caused
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which males develop from unfertilised eggs and are by the presence of an extra copy of
haploid. Females develop from fertilised eggs and chromosome number 21 in autosomes, i.e.
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are diploid. It is common in insects like honeybee, trisomy. An individual suffering from Down's
wasps, etc. syndrome is short statured, have furrowed
tongue, slow motor and mental development.
8. Sex-Determination in Human
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females have only one type of gamete, i.e. XX. If have 45 (44+X) chromosomes. Females are
an ovum gets fertilised with a sperm carrying sterile with less developed uterus, short height
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X-chromosome, the zygote develops into a female (XX). and webbed neck are the symptoms.
If an ovum fertilises with a sperm carrying (iii) Klinefelter's Syndrome It is due to the presence of
Y-chromosome then it will develop into a male (XY).
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The disorders or illness which are caused by one structures, little growth of hairs on face and
or more abnormalities in autosomes or sex body, sterility (no sperm formation), mental
chromosomes of a person are called autosomal retardation, etc.
ONE DAY REVISION
12 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
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while RNA acts as the genetic material in some H—bonds and vice-versa. Thus, a purine always
viruses, but has additional roles as well. RNA comes opposite to a pyrimidine forming a uniform
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functions as adapter, structural and in some cases, distance between the two strands.
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as catalytic molecule.
5. Central Dogma
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2. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) In 1957, Francis Crick proposed the central dogma
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It is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides. The in molecular biology. According to this, the genetic
length of DNA is usually defined as number of information flows from DNA → RNA → Protein.
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nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotide referred to as DNA Transcription Translation
base pairs) present in it. replication DNA mRNA Protein
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For example, a bacteriophage known as φ × 174 has
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The flow of information can be in reverse direction
5386 nucleotides, bacteriophage lambda has 48502 also, i.e. from RNA to DNA in some viruses, such as
bp, Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 10 6 bp and haploid
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TMV.
content of human DNA is 3.3 × 10 9 bp.
6. Packaging of DNA Helix
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pentose sugar and a phosphate group. have a defined nucleus. DNA (being negatively
(i) A nitrogenous base It is the nitrogen containing charged) is held with some proteins (that are
organic molecule having similar physical properties positively charged) in a region termed as nucleoid.
The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held
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of a base.
by proteins.
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There are two types of nitrogenous bases
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In eukaryotic cells, there is a set of positively
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Purines Adenine and Guanine.
charged proteins called histones. Histones are rich
Pyrimidines Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine.
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in basic amino acid residuces lysine and arginine.
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Thymine is present in DNA, while uracil is present These are organised to form a unit of eight molecules
in RNA in place of thymine (5-methyl uracil, called histone octamer.
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Alternate deoxyribose and phosphate residues proved that DNA is the genetic material
join to form the polynucleotide chain. that is passed from one generation to the next.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 13
8. RNA World (ii) In eukaryotes, the genes are split. The coding
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Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) is said to be the first genetic sequences, i.e. exons are interrupted by
material. non-coding sequences, i.e. introns. Introns are
removed and exons are joined together to produce
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There are following three types of RNA, i.e. messenger
functional RNA. This is called splicing. A
RNA ( mRNA), which provides the template for
transcription unit in DNA has three regions, i.e. a
transcription, transfer RNA (tRNA) which brings amino
promoter, the structural gene and a terminator.
acids and reads the genetic code and ribosomal RNA
( rRNA), which plays structural and catalytic role during Post Transcriptional Modifications
translation. Heteronuclear RNA (hnRNA) The hnRNA
Differences between DNA and RNA undergoes two additional processes
DNA RNA (i) Capping, where methyl guanosine
triphosphate, is added to the 5′ end of
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It is double-stranded with It is generally hnRNA.
exception of some viruses. single-stranded.
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(ii) Tailing, where adenylate residues (200-300)
It is the genetic material in It is the genetic material are added at 3′ end in a template
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all living organisms. in some viruses only. independent manner.
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The sugar is deoxyribose. The sugar is ribose.
11. Genetic Code
Nitrogenous bases Nitrogenous bases It is the relationship between the sequence of
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present are adenine, present are nucleotides on mRNA and the sequence of amino
guanine, thymine and adenine, guanine, acids in the polypeptide.
cytosine. cytosine and uracil.
(i) Artificial Synthesis of Genetic Code Dr. Har
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Gobind Khorana, developed a chemical method
9. Replication of DNA for the synthesis of RNA molecule with defined
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The DNA replicates semiconservatively. According to base combination to develop a genetic code.
this scheme, the two strands of double-helix would
(ii) Important Features of Genetic Code It has
separate and act as a template for the synthesis of
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following features
new complementary strands. The process is guided by l
Genetic code is unambiguous and specific, i.e.
complementary H-bonding. The process is catalysed
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by various sets of enzymes which are as follows one codon codes for only one amino acid.
l
Codon is triplet and degenerate.
(i) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase, uses DNA
template to catalyse the polymerisation of
l
The genetic code is universal, i.e. one codon
d
12. Translation
begins at a specific and fixed position of DNA
The process of polymerisation of amino acids to
do
information from one strand of the DNA into RNA. In i.e. small subunit and large subunit.
this, only a segment of DNA or only one out of the two (ii) Different phases of translation are
strands is copied into RNA. l
Initiation of polypeptide synthesis
(i) In prokaryotes, like bacteria, the transcribed mRNA l
Elongation of polypeptide chain
is functional, so it can be directly translated. l
Termination of polypeptide synthesis
14 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
13. Gene Expression in Prokaryotes The operon is regulated by the amount of lactose in the
and Eukaryotes medium, where the bacteria are grown. Therefore, this
l
Gene expression results in the formation of a regulation can also be viewed as regulation of enzyme
polypeptide. synthesis by its substrate.
l
Regulation of gene expression occurs at various 14. Human Genome Project
levels. It was a mega project of 13 years. It was aimed to
(i) In prokaryotes, it is regulated by the rate sequence every base in human genome. This project has
of initiation of transcription. yielded a lot of new information. Many new areas and
(ii) In eukaryotes, regulation is achieved at the avenues have opened up as a consequence of this
following four levels project.
l
Transcriptional level (formation of primary
15. DNA Fingerprinting
transcript).
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It is a technique used to find out variations in individuals
l
Processing level (regulation of splicing). of a population at DNA level. It works on the principle of
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l
Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the polymorphism in DNA sequences.
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cytoplasm. It has immense applications in the field of forensic
l
Translational level. science, genetic biodiversity, evolutionary biology and
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l
Operon is a transcriptionally regulated system, kinship relationships.
where a polycistronic structural gene is regulated The technique has the following steps
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by a common promoter and regulatory genes, (i) DNA isolation
e.g. lac (lactose) operon, ara (arabinose) operon,
(ii) Amplification
his (histidine) operon, val (valine) operon, etc. ch
Lac operon was proposed by Francois Jacob (iii) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
and Jacque Monod. (iv) Blotting (transfer of the separated DNA fragments to
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l
Lac operon is the prototype (inducible) operon in synthetic membranes like nylon or nitrocellulose)
bacteria, which codes for genes responsible for (v) Hybridisation
the metabolism of lactose.
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(vi) Autoradiography
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ONE DAY REVISION
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CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 17
THE
QUALIFIERS
Chapterwise Set of MCQs to Check Preparation
Level of Each Chapter
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1. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
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Direction (Q. Nos. 1-15) Each of the question has four options out of which only one is correct.
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Select the correct option as your answer.
1. An angiosperm flower receives many pollens out of which only one, carrying two male
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gametes is allowed to enter. What is the function of these male cells in a flower?
(a) Each one fertilises a separate egg cell to give rise to two seeds
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(b) One fertilises an egg cell and the other fertilises another cell which gives rise to tissue of
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the fruit
(c) Both fertilise a single egg cell
(d) One fertilises an egg cell and other fertilises the cell that forms endosperm
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IV. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
The sequential order of their occurrence is
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(a) III ® I ® IV ® II
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(b) II ® IV ® III ® I
(c) III ® IV ® II ® I
(d) II ® III ® I ® IV
3. Akash, in his experiment, directed a ray of laser light on the pollen grain to observe the
THE QUALIFIERS
results. He concluded that even though the laser beam killed the generative cell of the
pollen, it was still able to germinate and grow a pollen tube. What could be the
possible reason for this?
(a) Laser beam stimulated pollen germination and pollen tube growth
(b) Laser beam activated the region from which pollen tube emerges
(c) Contents of the killed generative cells permitted germination and pollen growth
(d) Vegetative cell was not damaged
18 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
4. How many pollen grains are formed from 5 microspore mother cells, when they
undergo meiosis?
(a) 40 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 30
5. Observe the figure given below and select the label that matches correctly with its
feature or function.
A
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C
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D
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(a) B–Style, connects stigma to ovules
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(b) C–Synergids, assist in pollen tube guidance
(c) A–Stigma, landing platform for pollens
(d) D–Ovary, develops into seed ch
6. Which of the following sets of statements is incorrect with regard to pollination in
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flowering plants?
I. Myrmecophily is the pollination of flowers by means of wind.
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II. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators.
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of anemophilous flower.
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(a) I, III and V (b) I, III and VI (c) II, III and VI (d) II, III and V
7. Ritu, in order to achieve successful results for the desired flower, performed a cross
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that involved only the desired pollen grains for pollination. However, the recipient
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flower was bisexual. So, she decided to remove the anthers of the plant. Which among
the following technique had she applied?
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8. Read the following statements and identify the correct option from the ones given
below.
THE QUALIFIERS
C
A B
D
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(a) A–Two-celled stage, B–Heart-shaped, C–Globular type, D–Mature embryo
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(b) A–Two-celled stage, B–Mature embryo, C–Heart-shaped, D–Globular type
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(c) A–Two-celled stage, B–Globular type, C–Heart-shaped, D–Mature embryo
(d) A–Mature embryo, B–Heart-shaped, C–Globular type, D–Two-celled stage
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10. Which of the following statements is not true about development of embryo?
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(a) In majority of angiosperms, the zygote divides by an asymmetric mitotic division
(b) The smaller daughter cell with dense cytoplasm is situated towards the chalazal pole. It
is called terminal cell
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(c) A smaller daughter cell situated towards the micropylar cell is called basal cell
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(d) The early stages of embryo development are similar in monocots and dicots
11. If the haploid number in a flowering plant is 14. What shall be the number of
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Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
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13. Assertion (A) Self-pollination helps to purify of races, wastage of pollen is avoided and
THE QUALIFIERS
pollination is sure.
Reason (R) Cleistogamy favours self-pollination.
14. Assertion (A) Synergids play an important role in directing the pollen tube growth.
Reason (R) They secrete some chemotropically active substance.
20 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
15. Assertion (A) Nuclear endosperm does not involve wall formation after pre-nuclear
division.
Reason (R) Coconut milk is an example of cellular endosperm.
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2. Human Reproduction
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1. Given below are the structures of male reproductive system along with their
characteristics and/or functions.
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I. Vasa efferentia – arise from rete testis
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II. Epididymis–leads to vas deferens
III. Leydig cells–present in the epidermis of testis
IV. Seminiferous tubules – lined by squamous germinal epithelial cells
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Choose the option(s) which contain the incorrectly matched pairs.
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(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) II and IV (d) I and III
Hypothalamus
Inhibit GnRH and LH production
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GnRH
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Anterior lobe of
pituitary gland
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A B
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Leydig Sertoli
Testis
cells cells
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C Stimulates D
spermatogenesis
Reproductive tract
and other organs
THE QUALIFIERS
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6. Observe the given graph carefully related to menstrual cycle in females and choose the
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correct option.
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Ovulation
Uterine events hormone levels
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Ovarian
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Y
Menses
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Days 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1
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7. Medical reports of a teen-age girl suggested that the girl lacked the capacity to ovulate
at regular monthly intervals due to underlying health issues.
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Which hormone(s) in the form of pills or injections should be given to the girl so that
she could ovulate every month?
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(a) Relaxin
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(b) Progesterone
(c) LH
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8. Ovulation in a normal human female takes place during which time of the menstrual
cycle?
(a) At the mid secretory phase
THE QUALIFIERS
OVUM
B
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(a) A–Cytoplasm, B–Zona pellucida, C–Cells of corona radiata, D–Plasma membrane
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(b) A–Cells of corona radiata, B–Cortical granules, C–Zona pellucida, D–Perivitelline space
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(c) A–Zona pellucida, B–Cytoplasm, C–Cell of corona radiata, D–Perivitelline space
(d) A–Cytoplasm, B–Cortical granules, C–Zona pellucida, D–Cell of corona radiata
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10. Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to hormones and their role during
pregnancy.
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(a) hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during the time of pregnancy
(b) During pregnancy, the level of hormones like oestrogens, progestogens, prolactin,
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thyroxine, etc., increases to several folds in maternal blood
(c) Increased production of hCG, hPL, etc., is necessary to support foetal growth and
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support pregnancy
(d) All of the above
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11. A 9 month pregnant lady was unable to give birth to her child due to lack of uterine
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(a) I and III (b) III and IV (c) II and IV (d) II and III
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
THE QUALIFIERS
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
13. Assertion (A) Semen is a collective product of the testes, seminal vesicles and prostate
gland.
Reason (R) Cowper’s glands, seminal vesicles and prostate gland constitute the
accessory reproductive gland.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 23
14. Assertion (A) In testis, spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules and
testosterone is secreted by interstitial cells.
Reason (R) Testosterone promotes growth and maturation of primary sex organs but
has no role in accessory sex characters.
15. Assertion (A) One polar body is released by the oocyte when sperm penetrates it.
Reason (R) When the oocyte is in Fallopian tube, it is in second metaphase stage.
Answers
For Detailed Explanations
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
Scan the code
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6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)
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3. Reproductive Health
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1. Which technique(s) is/are used for the detection of foetal disorder
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
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(c ) Foetoscopy
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(d) All of the above
2. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Read the statements given
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3. Observe the diagram given below and identify it. Also identify which of the following
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A
THE QUALIFIERS
(a) A–Male condom, it shields the user from sexually transmitted infections
(b) A–Female condom, it is kept in place after insertion with the help of ring(s)
(c) A–Female condom, it opens from both ends
(d) A–Female condom, it is more effective and user friendly than male condom
24 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
4. Observe the diagrams A and B given below and identify the option that correctly
match their features with their respective.
A B
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Diagrams Side effects
(a) A–Copper-T Signs of pregnancy
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B–Condom Foul vaginal discharge
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(b) A–Copper-T Headache, nausea
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B–Implants Abdominal pain
(c) A–Implants Headache, ovarian cyst
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B–Copper-T Unexplained fever, heavy blood flow
(d) A–Implants Headache ch
B–Copper-T Ovarian cyst
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5. Following the rules desinged for the control of population, a woman who wants to
delay pregnancy or space her children should use
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(a) Condoms
(b) Pills of combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
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(d) Tubectomy
7. Following statements are given with regard to MTP. Choose the option which is true
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for MTP.
I. Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term.
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(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III, IV and V
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10. Which of the following is associated with GIFT?
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(a) Transfer of fertilised embryo into Fallopian tube
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(b) Fertilised egg is transferred in the uterus
(c) Ovum and sperm are transferred into uterus of the recipient
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(d) It is an infertility treatment
12. A childless couple underwent a treatment at the IVF centre. Concludingly, the embryo
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Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
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13. Assertion (A) Reproductive and Child Healthcare Programmes belong to areas related
to reproduction.
Reason (R) Such programmes create awareness about various reproduction related
aspects.
14. Assertion (A) Surgical methods prevent conception.
Reason (R) They block gamete transport.
26 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
15. Assertion (A) In test tube baby programme, ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms
from the husband/donor (male) are collected and induced to form zygote under
stimulated conditions in the laboratory.
Reason (R) It is one of the special techniques which assist infertile couples to have
children.
Answers
For Detailed Explanations
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
Scan the code
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b)
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4. Principles of Inheritance and Variation
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1. Consider the following statements and select the statements which are correct with
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respect to the reasons as to why Mendel’s work remains unrecognised for a long time.
I. Communication was not easy.
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II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted.
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological problems was unacceptable.
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IV. He could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors.
Codes
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2. Observe and read the table given below of contrasting traits in pea plants as studied by
Mendel.
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I. Seed colour
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Yellow Green
II. Flower
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colour
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Violet White
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Full Constricted
IV. Flower
THE QUALIFIERS
position
Axial Terminal
Which of the given traits are placed correctly according to Mendel’s experiment?
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV
(c) II and III (d) II, III and IV
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 27
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(a) I, II and III (b) II and IV
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(c) III and IV (d) II and III
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4. If a cross is made between AA and aa, the nature of F1 progeny will be
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(a) genotypically AA, phenotypically a
(b) genotypically Aa, phenotypically a
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(c) genotypically Aa, phenotypically A
(d) genotypically aa, phenotypically A
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5. A scientist while performing an experiment on a certain plant found that red fruit (R) is
dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). Now, if
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he crosses a plant with RRTt genotype with a plant, with rrtt genotype, what
percentage of tall plant with red fruits he find in progeny?
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8. The following statements are regarding sex-determination. Choose the incorrect one.
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9. If Mohan have 6 girls, the percentage of probability of 7th child being a girl is
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%
THE QUALIFIERS
12. If a colourblind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision,
the probability of their son being colourblind is
(a) 0 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.75 (d) 1
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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13. Assertion (A) The law of independent assortment can be studied by means of dihybrid
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cross.
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Reason (R) A dihybrid cross is a cross between heterozygous individuals at two
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different loci.
14. Assertion (A) In a dihybrid cross, the two pairs of factors are located in two pairs of
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homologous chromosomes.
Reason (R) Each chromosome bears two pairs of factors.
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15. Assertion (A) Appearance of pink coloured flowers in F2 -generation of Mirabilis jalapa
is seen.
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Reason (R) It is due to epistatic suppression of white colour alleles by red colour
alleles.
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Answers
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11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c)
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1. Scientist while working with sea urchin, extracted its DNA, which is double-stranded
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3. Lets assume that the occurrence of nitrogen bases in adjacent position in a DNA strand
is random.
Identify the minimum number of nucleotides in a DNA strand where GAAT can occur
once on the basis of probability.
(a) 512 (b) 256
(c) 1024 (d) 4096
4. Removal of introns and joining the exon in a defined order in a transcription unit is
called
(a) tailing (b) transformation
(c) capping (d) splicing
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5. Consider the following statements.
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I. Six codons do not code for any amino acid.
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II. Codon is read in mRNA in a continuous fashion.
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III. Three codons function as stop codons.
IV. The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.
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Choose the option containing incorrect statement(s).
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
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(d) Only I
6. Khorana and his colleague synthesised RNA molecules with repeating sequence of UG
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nitrogenous bases (UGUGUGUGUGUG). It produced a tetrapeptide with alternating
sequence of cysteine and valine. It proves that the codons for cysteine and valine is
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III. is catalysed by its own activating enzyme called aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.
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IV. involves movement of second amino acid tRNA complex from A-site to P-site.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) II and IV
THE QUALIFIERS
9. Similarity between hairpin model and Clover leaf model of tRNA is that
(a) Both models show three arms
(b) Both models show presence of variable arm or lump
(c) Both models show CCA nucleotide at 3 ¢ acceptor end
(d) None of the above
30 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
10. In the following diagrams of protein synthesis, name the stages (A-D).
Amino end of A
growing Aminoacyl tRNA
polypeptide
5′ end of
mRNA Large subunit of ribosome
5′ 3′
A-site
Small subunit
of ribosome
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C
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D
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E-site
Free polypeptide
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Release factor
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P-site
Termination codon
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11. You have created a fusion between trp operon and lac operon which encodes the
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enzymes for tryptophan biosynthesis, under the regulatory control of the lac operator.
Under which of the following conditions will tryptophan synthase be induced in the
strain that carries the chimeric operator fused operons?
(a) Only when both lactose and glucose are absent
(b) Only when both lactose and glucose are present
THE QUALIFIERS
12. Given below is a list of few processes. Choose the correct site of occurrence of the
processes.
I. Transcription (eukaryotic) II. Transcription (prokaryotic)
III. Replication (eukaryotic) IV. Translation (prokaryotic)
V. Translation (eukaryotic)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 31
Codes
(a) I–Nucleus, II–Cytoplasm, III–Nucleus, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Cytoplasm
(b) I–Nucleus, II–Nucleus, III– Cytoplasm, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Cytoplasm
(c) I–Cytoplasm, II–Cytoplasm, III–Nucleus, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Nucleus
(d) I–Nucleus, II–Cytoplasm, III–Nucleus, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Cytoplasm
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
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(d) A is false, but R is true
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13. Assertion (A) The uptake of DNA during transformation is an active process.
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Reason (R) Transformation occurs only in those bacteria which have enzymatic
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machinery involved in active uptake and recombination.
14. Assertion (A) Polycistronic mRNA is capable of forming a number of different
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polypeptide chains.
Reason (R) It has terminator codons. ch
15. Assertion (A) Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus, but translation takes
place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes.
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Reason (R) In eukaryotes, mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into cytoplasm
where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis.
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Answers
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11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a)
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THE QUALIFIERS
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CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 35
Latest CBSE
SAMPLE PAPER
The Latest Sample Question Paper for Class XII
Term I Exam Issued by CBSE
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Biology Class 12 (Term I)
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General Instructions
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1. The question paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark. ch
3. There is NO negative marking.
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Maximum Marks : 35 Time : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)
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2. In the figure of anatropous ovule given below, choose the correct option for the
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Funicle
Micropyle
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Micropylar pole
Outer integument
Inner integument
Nucellus
Embryo sac
Chalazal pole
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(d) pectocellulose
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Seed X Seed Y
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(i) Seed X is dicot and endospermic or albuminous.
(ii) Seed X is dicot and non-endospermic or non-albuminous.
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6. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to hormones secreted by
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placenta?
(i) Placenta secretes relaxin during later stage of pregnancy.
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7. Figure A shows the front view of the human female reproductive system and figure B
shows the development of a fertilised human egg cell.
X
Figure A
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Figure B
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Inner cell
mass
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Sperm Trophectoderm
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Unfertilised Fertilised Morula Blastocyst
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egg oocyte egg zygote (3-4 days) (5 days)
Identify the correct stage of development of human embryo (Figure B) that takes
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place at the site X, Y and Z, respectively in the human female reproductive system
(Figure A).
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Choose the correct option from the table below.
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X Y Z
(a) Morula Fertilised egg Blastocyst
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10. In the dioecious aquatic plant shown, identify the characteristics of the male flowers
that reach the female flowers for pollination.
Male flower Pistillate flowers
Water level
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Staminate
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flowers
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Sizes of Colours of Characteristic features
the flower the flower
ch of pollen grain
(a) Small Brightly coloured Light weight and non-sticky
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(b) Large Colourless Large and sticky
(c) Small White Small, covered with mucilage
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12. How many types of gametes would be produced if the genotype of a parent is
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AaBB?
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(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
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14. Which of the following amino acid substitution is responsible for causing
sickle-cell anaemia?
(a) Valine is substituted by glutamic acid in the a-globin chain at the sixth position
(b) Valine is substituted by glutamic acid in the b-globin chain at seventh position
(c) Glutamic acid is substituted by valine in the a-globin chain at the sixth position
(d) Glutamic acid is substituted by valine in the b-globin chain at the sixth position
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 39
15. In human beings, where genotype AABBCC represents dark skin colour, aabbcc
represents light skin colour and AaBbCc represents intermediate skin colour; the
pattern of genetic inheritance can be termed as
(a) pleiotropy and codominance
(b) pleiotropy and incomplete dominance
(c) polygenic and qualitative inheritance
(d) polygenic and quantitative inheritance
16. Which of the following combination of chromosome numbers represents the correct
sex-determination pattern in honeybees?
(a) Male 32, Female 16 (b) Male 16, Female 32
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(c) Male 31, Female 32 (d) Female 32, Male 31
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17. Rajesh and Mahesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. Rajesh has
.c
too few globin molecules while Mahesh has incorrectly functioning globin molecules.
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Identify the disorder they are suffering from.
Rajesh Mahesh
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(a) Sickle-cell anaemia–an Thalassemia – an autosome
autosome linked recessive trait linked dominant trait
(b) Thalassemia–an autosome
linked recessive blood disorder
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Sickle-cell anaemia – an
autosome linked recessive trait
te
(c) Sickle-cell anaemia – an Thalassemia – an autosome
autosome linked recessive trait linked recessive blood disorder
(d) Thalassemia – an autosome Sickle-cell anaemia
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18. Which of the following criteria must a molecule fulfil to act as a genetic material?
(i) It should not be able to generate its replica.
d
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19. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
do
(a) 3’ (downstream) end and 5’ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(b) 5’ (upstream) end and 3’ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(c) the 5’ (upstream) end of the transcription unit
(d) the 3’ (downstream) end of the transcription unit
22. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty used enzymes to purify
biochemicals such as proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat-killed S cells to see which
ones could transform live R cells into S cells in Griffith’s experiment. They observed
that
(a) Proteases and RNases affected transformation
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(b) DNase inhibited transformation
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(c) Proteases and lipases affected transformation
.c
(d) RNases inhibited transformation
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23. A
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ch
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B
A U G
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AUG on the mRNA will result in the activation of which of the following RNA having
correct combination of amino acids?
d
Site A Site B
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24. Short stretches of DNA used to identify complementary sequence in a sample are
w
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called
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(a) probes
(b) markers
(c) VNTRs
(d) primers
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 41
Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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25. Assertion (A) Lactational amenorrhea is the natural method of contraception.
o
Reason (R) It increases the phagocytosis of sperm.
.c
26. Assertion (A) Saheli, an oral contraceptive for females, contains a steroidal
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preparation.
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Reason (R) It is ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects.
27. Assertion (A) Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
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Reason (R) At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary releases prolactin
which causes uterine contractions.
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28. Assertion (A) When the two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same
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Reason (R) Higher parental gene combinations can be attributed to crossing over
between two genes.
d
29. Concentration of which of the following substances will decrease in the maternal blood
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Cavity of
uterus
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its vessels
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Plug of mucus
in cervix
The human foetus within the uterus
31. A botanist studying Viola (common pansy) noticed that one of the two flower types
withered and developed no further due to some unfavourable condition, but the other
flower type on the same plant survived and it resulted in an assured seed set. Which of
the following will be correct?
(a) The flower type which survived is cleistogamous and it always exhibits autogamy
(b) The flower type which survived is chasmogamous and it always exhibits geitonogamy
(c) The flower type which survived is cleistogamous and it exhibits both autogamy and
geitonogamy
(d) The flower type which survived is chasmogamous and it never exhibits autogamy
32. During parturition, a pregnant woman is having prolonged labour pains and
m
childbirth has to be fastened. It is advisable to administer a hormone that can
o
(a) increase the metabolic rate
.c
(b) release glucose in the blood
(c) stimulate the ovary
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(d) activate smooth muscles
33. A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked Fallopian tubes. The technique by
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which the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into the female for
further development is ch
(a) ZIFT (b) GIFT
(c) IUT (d) AI
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34. The mode of action of the copper ions in an IUD is to
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35. To produce 400 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be
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36. A cross is made between tall pea plants having green pods and dwarf pea plants
having yellow pods. In the F 2 -generation, out of 80 plants, how many are likely to be
nl
tall plants?
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(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 45 (d) 60
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37. In Antirrhinum, RR is phenotypically red flowers, rr is white and Rr is pink. Select the
correct phenotypic ratio in F 1 -generation, when a cross is performed between RR ´ Rr.
(a) 1 red : 1 pink : 1 white (b) 2 pink : 1 white
(c) 2 red : 2 pink (d) All pink
38. What would be the genotype of the parents if the offspring have the phenotypes in 1:1
proportion?
(a) Aa ´ Aa (b) AA ´ AA
(c) Aa ´ AA (d) Aa ´ aa
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 43
39.
I
II
III
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40. A couple has two daughters. What is the probability that the third child will also be a
female?
o
(a) 25% (b) 50%
.c
(c) 75% (d) 100%
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41. Genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is obtained in a cross between
(a) AB ´ AB (b) Ab ´ Ab
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(c) Ab ´ ab (d) ab ´ ab
42. Total number of nucleotide sequences of DNA that codes for a hormone is 1530. The
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proportion of different bases in the sequence is found to be
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Adenine = 34%, Guanine = 19%, Cytosine = 23%, Thymine = 19%.
Applying Chargaff’s rule, what conclusion can be drawn?
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43. A stretch of an euchromatin has 200 nucleosomes. How many bp will there be in the
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44. Observe structures A and B given below. Which of the following statements are
Latest CBSE SAMPLE PAPER
w
correct?
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5′ 5′
HOCH2 O OH HOCH2 O OH
4′ C C 1′ 4′C C 1′
H H H H
H 3′ 2′ H H 3′ 2′ H
C C C C
OH OH OH H
A B
(a) A is having 2¢—OH group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable, whereas
B is having 2¢—H group which makes it more reactive and unstable
(b) A is having 2¢—OH group which makes it more reactive and structurally unstable,
whereas B is having 2¢—H group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable
(c) A and B both have —OH groups which make it more reactive and structurally stable
(d) A and B both are having —OH groups which make it less reactive and structurally
stable
44 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
45. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for sixth generations in bacteria, the
ratio of heavy strands 15 N/ 15 N : hybrid 15
N/ 14 N : light 14
N/ 14 N containing DNA in
the sixth generation would be
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 0 : 1 : 7
(c) 0 : 1 : 15 (d) 0 : 1 : 31
46. Two important RNA processing events lead to specialised end sequences in most
human mRNAs, …(i)… at the 5 ¢ end and …(ii)… at the 3 ¢ end. At the 5 ¢ end, the most
distinctive specialised end nucleotide, …(iii)… is added and a sequence of about 200
…(iv)… is added to the 3 ¢ end.
(a) (i) initiator codon, (ii) promoter, (iii) terminator codon, (iv) release factors
m
(b) (i) promoter, (ii) elongation, (iii) regulation, (iv) termination
o
(c) (i) capping, (ii) polyadenylation, (iii) m G ppp , (iv) poly (A)
.c
(d) (i) repressor, (ii) co-repressor, (iii) operon, (iv) release factors
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47. What are minisatellites?
(a) 10-40 bp sized small sequences within the genes
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(b) Short coding repetitive region on the eukaryotic genome
(c) Short non-coding repetitive sequence forming large portion of eukaryotic genome
(d) Regions of coding strands of the DNA
ch
48. There was a mixup at the hospital after a fire accident in the nursery division. Which of
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these children belong to the parents?
FATHER MOTHER CHILD 1 CHILD 2 CHILD 3 CHILD 4 CHILD 5 CHILD 6
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d
de
oa
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Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos.49 to 54). Besides this,
6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.)
m
hCG
o
.c
Follicular phase Luteal phase Follicular phase Luteal phase
Cycle start Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Cycle end Cycle start Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Cycle end
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49. The peak observed in subjects 1 and 2 is due to
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(a) oestrogen (b) progesterone
(c) Luteinizing hormone (d) follicle stimulating hormone
51. If the peak of hormone A does not appear in the study for subject 1, which of the
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(d) The graph for hormone B will be a sharp rise followed by a plateau
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After approximately, how much time will be the curve for hormone B descend?
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w
On the basis of the karyotype, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
(a) Normal human female
m
(b) Person is suffering from colour blindness
o
(c ) Affected individual is a female with Down’s syndrome
.c
(d) Affected individual is a female with Turner’s syndrome
57. Given below is a dihybrid cross performed on Drosophila.
du
Cross A
& %
y+ w+
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y w
Parental
y w
Yellow, white
ch Wild type
& %
y w y w
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F1-generation
y+w+
Wild type Yellow, white
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Parental Recombinant
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Wild type
d
White
y w y w+
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F2-generation
y+w+ y+ w
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y w y w
Wild type White
w
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y w y w+
do
y w y w
Yellow, white Yellow
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the cross?
When yellow bodied (y), white eyed (w) Drosophila females were hybridised with
brown bodied (y + ), red eyed males (w + ) and F 1 progenies were intercrossed,
F 2 -generation would have shown the following ratio.
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 because of linkage of genes
(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 because of recombination of genes
(c) Deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio because of segregation of genes
(d) Deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio because of linkage of genes
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 47
5′
m
(b) Translation - Initiation
(c) Translation - Elongation
o
(d) Translation - Termination
.c
59. Origin of replication of DNA in E. coli is shown below, identify the labelled parts (i), (ii),
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(iii) and (iv).
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ch
(i) (ii)
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(iv) (iii)
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(a) (i) Discontinuous synthesis, (ii) Continuous synthesis, (iii) 3’ end, (iv) 5’ end
(b) (i) Continuous synthesis, (ii) Discontinuous synthesis, (iii) 5’ end, (iv) 3’ end
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(c) (i) Discontinuous synthesis, (ii) Continuous synthesis, (iii) 5’ end, (iv) 3’ end
(d) (i) Continuous synthesis, (ii) Discontinuous synthesis, (iii) 3’ end, (iv) 5’ end
d
3¢ 5¢
5¢ 3¢
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(ii) (iii)
nl
Identify site (i), factor (ii) and enzyme (iii) responsible for carrying out the process.
Latest CBSE SAMPLE PAPER
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(a) (i) Promoter site, (ii) Rho factor, (iii) RNA polymerase
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(b) (i) Terminator site. (ii) Sigma factor, (iii) RNA polymerase
(c) (i) Promoter site, (ii) Sigma factor, (iii) RNA polymerase
(d) (i) Promoter site, (ii) Sigma factor, (iii) DNA polymerase
48 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
Explanations
1. (d) A typical mature anther is a bilobed second meiosis is completed in the ovum and
structure with each lobe having two thecae it results in the formation of second polar body
(dithecous). It is a tetragonal structure having and a haploid ovum.
four microsporangia, which are located at the 9. (c) Before the start of the menstrual cycle, the
corners of the two lobes. oestrogen and progesterone levels are low.
2. (b) An anatropous ovule, has one or two Low levels of oestrogen and progesterone
protective envelops called integuments, which signal the pituitary gland to generate FSH.
encircle the ovule except at the tip where a FSH begins the process of maturing of ovarian
small opening called micropyle is located. The follicles. The follicle produces more oestrogen.
basal part of an ovule just opposite to Increased oestrogen levels trigger a sharp rise
m
micropyle is called chalaza. There are 3 cells at in LH from the pituitary gland, causing the
the chalazal end, called antipodals, release of egg from the follicle. The ruptured
o
3 cells are present at the micropylar end and follicle called the corpus luteum then secretes
.c
the central cell is left with 2 nuclei. more progesterone and oestrogen to prepare
the uterus for pregnancy. If fertilisation of
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3. (b) The coconut at the initial development
stage is called tender coconut. The coconut ovum does not occur, oestrogen and
water in it represents the free nuclear progesterone levels drop and menstrual cycle
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endosperm and it surrounded by kernel that begins.
represents cellular endosperm. 10. (c) A dioecious plant is an unisexual plant
ch
4. (a) Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because it has either male or female flowers.
due to the presence of sporopollenin. It makes The characteristics of male flower include
te
up the exine (outer layer) and it is one of the small, white coloured flowers having small,
most resistant organic material as it can mucilaginous pollens.
withstand high temperature as well as strong 11. (c) Thalamus contributes to the fruit formation
m
5. (b) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct as thalamus contributes to fruit formation, the
fruits are termed as false fruits.
Seed X is a dicot seed, having two cotyledons.
It is non-albuminous since it has no residual 12. (b) The number of gametes are calculated by
the formula 2 n , where n = number of
d
Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and segregate independently of another pair thus,
showing parallelism.
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Placental Lactogen (hPL), oestrogens This disease is caused due to genetic mutation
progesterone and so on. In the later phase of which results in substitution of the glutamic
pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also acid by valine at the sixth position of the beta
released by ovary and placenta. (b) globin chain. This causes the production of
7. (c) In humans, the blastocyst is formed abnormal haemoglobin and abnormal RBCs.
approximately five days after fertilisation. Its The RBCs produced are sickle-shaped. They
development and implantation takes place at get entangled during the blood flow and get
site X (uterus). Fertilisation of egg occurs at destroyed thus, resulting in anaemia.
site Y (Fallopian tube) and thus fertilised egg is 15. (d) Controlling of a character by two or more
present at site Y and unfertilised egg is located genes is called multifactor or polygenic and
at site Z (ovary). quantitative inheritance. Inheritance of skin
8. (b) When the sperm penetrates into the colour of human beings is a polygenic
secondary oocyte during fertilisation, the quantitative inheritance pattern.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 49
16. (b) In honeybees, females are diploid having 22. (b) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty applied
32 chromosomes and males are haploid several techniques to large bacterial cultures in
having 16 chromosomes. This is termed as order to extract and purify the ‘transforming
haplodiploid sex-determination system. principle’. These experiments depicted that most
17. (b) Thalassemia is an inherited blood probably DNA was the ‘transforming principle’.
disorder. It occurs due to the mutation in one One of the observations leading to this
gene encoding for haemoglobin, resulting in conclusion was that enzymes that degrade
excessive destruction of erythrocytes. This proteins or RNA has no effect on the
leads to lack of RBCs or anaemia and it is an ‘transforming principle’. On the other hand,
autosomal recessive blood disorder. enzymes degrading DNA (DNase) destroyed the
Sickle-cell anaemia is also autosomal extract’s transforming capacity.
recessive trait that affects RBCs and change 23. (b) AUG codes methionine and the
m
its shape. The red blood cells die early and complementary codon of AUG will be UAC.
o
are also incorrectly functioning due to 24. (a) Probes are small segments of DNA that
impaired shape.
.c
recognise complementary sequences in DNA or
Therefore, Rajesh is suffering from RNA molecules that allow identification and
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thalassemia and Mahesh is suffering from isolation of these specific sequences from an
sickle-cell anaemia. organism.
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18. (d) Criteria for molecule to act as a genetic 25. (c) A is true, but R is false because
material is as follows Lactational amenorrhea is based on the principle
(i) Should be able to generate its replica.
This property can be observed in DNA
ch
that during the period of intense lactation after
parturition, the menstrual cycle or ovulation
and RNA. does not occur. It does not increase the
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(ii) Molecule should be stable and not change phagocytosis of sperm.
its shape by the influence of any other 26. (d) A is false, but R is true because
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physical and chemical changes. ‘Saheli’ the new oral contraceptive for the
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(iii) Molecules should be able to mutate and females contains a non-steroidal preparation
change itself and these changes should be called centchroman. It is ‘once a week pill’ with
stable and heritable. very few side effects and high contraceptive
d
front of the start site or upstream to it in the neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals of
5¢ end and the terminator should lie in the parturition originate from the fully developed
nl
3¢ end downstream as transcription proceeds foetus and the placenta which induces mild
in the 5¢ to 3¢ direction. uterine contractions called foetal-ejection reflex.
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m
central cell. At the chalazal end, 3 cells are (Red colour) (Pink colour)
present termed as antipodal cells that are
R R R r
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haploid (n). Now, when a male gamete (n)
.c
fuses with egg (n) it results in the formation of
diploid zygote (2n). The other male gamete
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(n) fuses with secondary nucleus (2n) to form RR Rr RR Rr
triploid endosperm (3n).
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31. (a) The flower type which survived is Red Pink Red Pink
cleistogamous. Cleistogamous flowers have 2 Red : 2 Pink
both male and female reproductive whorls 38. (d) When Aa is crossed with aa parents,
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and are closed even at maturity. They depict gametes produced are A, a, a, and a. The
self-fertility. Cleistogamy is a type of progeny will consist of Aa, Aa, aa, aa. So, there
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self-pollination in which pollens are is 1:1 phenotypic ratio in the progeny.
transferred from the anther to stigma of same
39. (b) The pattern of inheritance shown in the
flower. Hence, they show autogamy.
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having prolonged labour, hormones (e.g. skips a generation and as the trait is occurring
oxytocin) should be administered to activate in both the sexes, it is autosomal and not
smooth muscles in the uterine wall to sex-linked.
d
stimulate contractions.
40. (b) Each pregnancy has a 50% chance of
de
33. (c) When an embryo containing more than resulting in a boy or girl and this does not
8 blastomeres (cells) is transferred into uterus include the possibility or chance of multiples.
of female’s body then, it is referred to as IUT
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an IUD is to suppress the motility (decrease 41. (b) Ab ´ Ab cross will result in a genotypic ratio
Latest CBSE SAMPLE PAPER
42. (b) According to Chargaff’s base pairing rule, 46. (c) Two essential RNA processing events lead to
the amount of adenine is always equal to specialised end sequencing in most human
thymine amount and the amount of guanine mRNAs that includes capping (i) at 5¢ end and
is always equal to cytosine amount. polyadenylation (ii) at 3¢ end. During capping,
m
Also, the ratio of A to T and G to C is always G ppp (iii) is added and a sequence of
equal to 1 for double-stranded DNA approximately 200 poly (A) (iv) is added to 3¢
molecule. Thus, for the data given in end.
question, A ¹ T and G ¹ C. Hence, it can be 47. (c) Minisatellites are short non-coding
concluded that it is single-stranded DNA (10-60 base pairs long) repetitive sequence
structure. throughout the chromosome. These are repeated
43. (c) Nucleosomes are fundamental typically 5-50 times. A Variable Number
organisational units of euchromatin which Tandem Repeat (VNTR) is a location in genome
m
appear as ‘beads on strings’ arrangement. where a short nucleotide sequence is organised
Each bead of nucleosome has 200 bp which is
o
as tandem repeat. These can be found on many
wound 1. 65 times around histone octamers. chromosomes especially in minisatellites.
.c
The bead and linker DNA (20-40 bp average
48. (c) The two alleles (paternal and maternal) of a
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18 bp) leads to next bead and forms the
chromosome also contain different copy number
nucleosome.
of VNTR. It is clear from the banding patterns of
Therefore, euchromatin stretch with 200
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DNA that parental DNA matches with child 1
nucleosomes contain 218 ´ 200 = 43 ,600 bp and 3.
DNA on an average with a typical length of
13 ,600 ´ 10 -9m. 49. (c) The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and
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FSH) increases gradually during the follicular
44. (b) In structure A, 2 ¢¾ OH group is present
phase and stimulates follicular development as
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which makes it comparatively more reactive
well as oestrogens secretion by growing follicle.
and structurally unstable whereas structure
Luteinizing Hormone (LH) attains a peak level
B lacks 2 ¢¾ OH group replaced by 2 ¢¾ H
m
53. (d) For subject 2, the curve for hormone B the same chromosome, the proportion of
should descend in 280 days (around 9 month) parental gene combination are higher than
after the foetus is delivered and endometrium non-parental type. This occurs due to physical
lining is no longer required for foetus association or linkage of two genes while
implantation. non-parental gene combinations are formed
54. (b) Subject 2 is pregnant as there is no due to recombination between genes. Thus,
descending in it hormone 2 graph, which linkage leads to the deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
means corpus luteum is not degenerated and ratio.
the endometrium lining is being sustained for 58. (c) The given diagram represents elongation
fertilised egg implantation. phase of translation. During the elongation
55. (b) If father has blood group ‘A’, mother has stage, complexes composed of an amino acid
linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
m
blood group ‘B’ and the child with blood
group ‘O’ appears in progeny, this means that appropriate codon in mRNA by forming
o
the parents are heterozygous. complementary base pairs with tRNA
anticodon. The ribosomes move from codon to
.c
Parents Man × Woman codon along the mRNA, amino acids are added
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Genotype A
I i × IBi one by one, translated into polypeptide
sequences, dictated by DNA and represented
Gametes IA i IB i by mRNA.
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Genotypes of progeny IAIB, IAi IBi, ii 59. (d) There are two strands in DNA, leading
Blood groups AB A B O ch strand and lagging strand. DNA replication
can take place in one direction from 5¢®3¢.
56. (c) It can be clearly observed in the karyotype Thus, in leading strand (3¢®5¢), continuous
that there is trisomy of chromosome 21 and
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synthesis (i) occurs and in lagging strand
affected individual is a female (two (5¢®3¢), discontinuous synthesis (ii) takes
X-chromosomes). Thus, the affected person is place. (iii) represents 3¢ end and (iv) represents
m
57. (d) In Drosophila, the genes for body and eye 60. (c) The labels (i), (ii) and (iii) in the given
colour are located on X-chromosome. When diagram represents promoter site, sigma factor
two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on and RNA polymerase, respectively.
d
de
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do
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nl
oa
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d
fro
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CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 55
SAMPLE PAPER 1
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
m
General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
o
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
.c
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
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3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
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2. Given below is a diagram of castor seeds. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
oa
labelled parts.
nl
Seed coat
w
Endosperm
Shoot apical
Cotyledon meristem
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(a) Seed coat protects the seed from physical, temperature or water damage
(b) Endosperm provides nourishment to the developing embryo
SAMPLE PAPER 1
(c) Castor seed has single cotyledon, i.e. monocotyledonous and is albuminous
(d) Hypocotyl terminates at its lower end in the root tip
Endocarp Mesocarp
(A ) (B)
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A. Fruit of apple B. Fruit of strawberry
o
Select correct statement regarding the above fruits.
.c
(a) Both are parthenocarpic fruits which develop without fertilisation
(b) Both are true fruits which develop only from the ovary
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(c ) Both are false fruits in which thalamus also contributes to fruit formation
(d) A is false fruit and B is true fruit
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6. Read the following statements.
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I. Each testis has about 25 compartments called testicular lobules.
II. Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in
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which sperms are produced.
III. Sertoli cells act as nurse cells of testicles.
m
7. Identify the hormones A, B and C that are labelled in the given flowchart.
Hypothalamus
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A
Pituitary
nl
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B C
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Ovary Testis
Ovum Androgen
8. Stages of fertilisation are divided into four processes, sperm preparation, sperm-egg
binding, sperm-egg fusion pronucleus and activation of zygote.
Fertilisation is a process by which
(a) a haploid spermatozoan unites with a haploid ovum to produce diploid zygote
(b) a diploid spermatozoan unites with a diploid ovum to produce diploid zygote
(c) a haploid spermatozoan unites with a haploid ovum to form haploid zygote
(d) a diploid spermatozoan unites with a haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 57
10. Given below is the sectional view of mammary gland. Identify A, B, C and D.
o m
.c
B
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C
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D
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(a) A–Alveolus, B–Subcutaneous fat, C–Areola, D–Alveoli
(b) A–Alveolus, B–Lactiferous duct, C–Mammary duct, D–Areola
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diseases
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(b) includes a number of special techniques which assist infertile couples to have children
(c) includes research organisation working in order to produce new and effective
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contraceptives
(d) Both (b) and (c)
nl
14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to the law of
segregation?
(a) Alleles do not show blending
(b) The paired factors or alleles segregate from each other such that a gamete receives the
two factors as in the original paired form
(c) Homozygous parent produces similar types of gametes whereas heterozygous ones
produce two types of gametes each having one allele with unequal proportion
(d) All of the above
15. First husband of Asha had blood group A and their child had blood group O. She
remarried and her second husband had blood group B and their child had blood group
m
AB. What is the ABO genotype of Asha and also name her blood group?
(a) ii, blood group O
o
(b) I B i, blood group B
.c
(c) I A I B , blood group AB
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(d) I A i, blood group A
16. A tall plant of F2 -generation was crossed with a dwarf plant. This test determines the
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………… of the tall plant and the cross is known as ………… .
ch
Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) phenotype, back cross (b) genotype, test cross
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(c) genotype, reciprocal cross (d) phenotype, reciprocal cross
18. Which of the following statements about Hershey and Chase experiment are correct?
de
Codes
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(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I, II and IV
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19. Which one of the following ratio is constant in DNA of different species?
(a) A + T/C + G (b) A + G/T + C
(c) A + C/U + G (d) A + U/C + G
20. Short repeating units/sequences of DNA which play important role in identifying
SAMPLE PAPER 1
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A B C
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(a) DNA-dependent RNA-dependent DNA-dependent
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DNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase
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(b) DNA-dependent DNA-dependent RNA-dependent
DNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase
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(c) DNA-dependent DNA-dependent RNA-dependent
RNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase
(d) RNA-dependent DNA-dependent
ch RNA-dependent
DNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase
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24. tRNA binds to mRNA through
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Section B
d
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
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Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
nl
25. Assertion (A) During pregnancy, increased levels of oestrogen and progesterone are
observed.
SAMPLE PAPER 1
Reason (R) The increased production of these hormones is essential for the growth of
foetus.
26. Assertion (A) In angiosperms, the first fertilisation is called syngamy and involves the
fusion of egg nucleus with sperm nucleus.
Reason (R) Second fertilisation is called vegetative fertilisation.
27. Assertion (A) Amniocentesis gives information of any abnormality in the foetus and
many other complications regarding pregnancy.
Reason (R) Now-a-days amniotic fluid test is banned.
60 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
28. Assertion (A) Sense strand that has 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢ polarity, does not participate in
transcription.
Reason (R) Anti-sense strand that has 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢ polarity, takes part in transcription.
29. Study the figure of the human female reproductive system given below.
C
B
D
E
m
A
o
.c
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Read the following statements and select the option containing the incorrect
statement(s).
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I. A–Ovary produces oestrogens required for the development of female primary sex
characters. ch
II. A–Vagina receives the penis during copulation.
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III. B–Uterus serves as the site for implantation of the fertilised egg.
IV. C–Oviduct serves as the site for fertilisation of the egg.
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Codes
(a) I and III (b) Only I (c) Only II (d) II and IV
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33. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
(a) Intrauterine devices — Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility
and fertilising capacity of sperms
(b) Hormonal contraceptives — Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and
fertilisation
(c) Vasectomy — Prevents spermatogenesis
(d) Barrier methods — Prevent fertilisation
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 61
35. In angiosperms, if the cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What will be the
number of chromosomes in the gametes?
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 23 (d) 32
m
36. What is the probability of production of dwarf offspring in a cross between two
heterozygous tall pea plants?
o
(a) Zero (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 100%
.c
37. What will be the ratio of offspring in a cross between the red coloured and pink
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coloured flowers of Mirabilis jalapa?
(a) Red : Pink = 1 : 1 (b) Red : Pink = 3 : 1
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(c) Red : Pink = 1 : 3 (d) Red : Pink = 2 : 3
39. Inheritance of which of the following traits is shown in the given cross?
XXc
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XY ×
(Normal man) (Carrier woman)
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XXc XcY
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XX XY
(Carrier daughter) (Normal daughter) (Normal son) (Diseased son)
(a) X-linked dominant trait
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40. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of
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children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group :
‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals
the presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an
example of
SAMPLE PAPER 1
42. In one political strand of a DNA molecule, the ratio of A + T/ G + C is 0.3. What is the
A + G / T + C ratio of the entire DNA molecule?
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 (c) 1.2 (d) 1
62 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
44. Observe the diagram given below and choose the correct name of the scientist who
proposed this structure of DNA.
20 Å
Guanine G C Cytosine
Thymine T A Adenine
C G
om
T A
34 Å
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G C
T A
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Minor A
Major
groove G groove Sugar-phosphate
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G C backbone
C G
3.4 Å
T
ch A
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Hydrogen bonds
m
5′ 3′
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45. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?
d
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46. In prokaryotes (such as E. coli), ...A... nucleus is not present, the DNA is not scattered
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throughout the cell. DNA is ...B... charged and holded by the ...C... charged proteins.
This structure in prokaryotes is called ...D... .
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
SAMPLE PAPER 1
48. Observe the tRNA molecule shown below and choose the incorrect option regarding it.
Tyr
tRNA
m
A U G
U A C
mRNA
o
3¢
.c
(a) It has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the code
(b) It has an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to amino acids
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(c) tRNAs are not specific for each amino acid
(d) tRNA looks like a clover leaf
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Section C
ch
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(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54).
Besides this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section).
m
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows.
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Q
d
T
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R
S
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P
nl
w
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49. Identify P in the figure above and choose its correct function from the options below.
(a) P is rete testis. It transports sperms to outside
(b) P is epididymis. It secretes fluid that nourishes the sperm
(c) P is epididymis. It carries secretion of seminal vesicle
SAMPLE PAPER 1
52. Choose among the following the structure that passes through prostate gland and
carries sperms and secretion of seminal vesicle.
(a) P (b) R
(c) S (d) T
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53. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen is contributed by
o
I. Seminal vesicle
.c
II. Prostate gland
III. Urethra
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IV. Bulbourethral gland
Codes
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(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV ch (d) I and IV
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
nl
5′ 3′
5′
SAMPLE PAPER 1
3′
A B
Newly
3′5′ synthesised 5′
strands 3′
(a) A–Continuous strand, B–Template strand, C–Discontinuous strand
(b) A–Leading strand, B–Lagging strand, C–Parental strand
(c) A– 5¢-3¢ strand, B– 3¢-5¢ strand, C–Parental strand
(d) All of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 65
AB
B 5%
8%
O
A 51%
36%
m
Choose the correct option from the given statements.
(a) Only 10% of individuals are heterozygous for blood group allele
o
(b) Group A is the most common as it is the homozygous recessive group
.c
(c) The alleles for blood group A and O are dominant to the allele for blood group O
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(d) Any individual, selected at random from the sample population, has 1 in 20 chance of
being blood group AB
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58. Given below is a highly simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from
a karyotype. ch
Gene a
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Gene b
m
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Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
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59. A diagram of the chromosomes of a fruitfly is given below. Labels A, B, C and D are
marked to various chromosomes. Choose the correct option that indicates an autosome
labelled.
SAMPLE PAPER 1
C
A D B
(a) C (b) A
(c) B (d) D
66 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
60. Study the diagram given below of translation and choose the correct option for labels
A, B, C and D.
P-site
(Peptidyl tRNA site) A-site
Gly Leu Tyr (Amino acyl tRNA site)
Growing Ser
polypeptide chain Leu Transferase enzyme
Gly forming peptide bond
Asn
A Ser B
U
G
U
E Val
A
Amino acid
tRNA complex
m
tRNA tRNA
CGU CAA
o
Large ribosomal
subunit
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C U C U UGGGU C CGC A G U U A AU U U C A U C
C D
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mRNA Ribosome Small ribosomal subunit
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A B C D
(a) Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA Uncharged tRNA
ch 5¢ end 3¢ end
(b) Uncharged tRNA Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA 5¢ end 3¢ end
te
(c) Uncharged tRNA Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA 3¢ end 5¢ end
(d) Uncharged tRNA Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA 5¢ end 3¢ end
m
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d
de
oa
nl
w
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SAMPLE PAPER 1
OMR SHEET SP 1
Roll No.
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
m
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
o
Multiple markings are invalid.
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1 21 41
2 22 42
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3 23 43
4 24 ch 44
5 25 45
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6 26 46
7 27 47
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8 28 48
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9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
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14 34 54
15 35 55
nl
16 36 56
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17 37 57
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18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. (a) Sepals and petals have only supportive (C). FSH stimulates ovarian follicles to grow
roles and hence, are accessory or non-essential while LH stimulates Leydig’s cells to secrete
m
floral organs. testosterone (Androgen).
Anther and filament belong to the male 8. (a) Fertilisation is a process of fusion of a
o
reproductive organs of the flower whereas haploid spermatozoan (male gamete) with a
.c
stigma, style and ovary constitute the female haploid ovum (female gamete) to produce a
reproductive organs. Hence, they are essential diploid zygote.
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floral organs. 9. (d) Scrotum in male reproductive system is a
2. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can thin external sac of skin that is divided into
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be corrected as two compartments. Each compartment
Castor seed is dicotyledonous, i.e. with two contains one of the two testes, the glands that
cotyledons and is albuminous, i.e. having ch produce sperm and one of the epididymis,
residual endosperm. where the sperm is stored. It also contains a
Rest of the statements are correct regarding the spermatic cord and part of vas deferens.
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labelled parts. 10. (d) A–Subcutaneous fat, B–Mammary duct,
3. (b) In archesporium, the archesporial cell is C–Lactiferous duct, D–Areola
m
often divided into outer primary parietal and 11. (b) Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
inner primary sporogenous cell that acts as includes a number of special technique which
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megaspore mother cell. It forms four haploid help infertile couples to have children. It is
megaspores after undergoing meiosis. Out of increasingly being used to overcome infertility
the four megaspores, three degenerate and one among couples.
d
remains functional. It further undergoes three 12. (c) Statement in option (c) is false and can be
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and is heterogametic.
formed.
13. (b) Statement I is false and can be corrected as
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statements are incorrect and can be corrected as get inherited together and show less or no
The fruit of apple (A) and fruit of strawberry recombinant.
(B), are false fruits, in which thalamus also Rest of the statements are true.
contributes to fruit formation alongside ovary.
These fruits are not parthenocarpic because 14. (a) Statement in option (a) is correct with
SAMPLE PAPER 1
parthenocarpic fruits are seedless and are respect to the law of segregation.
formed without fertilisation. Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
6. (b) Statement I is incorrect and can be
n The paired factors or alleles segregate from
corrected as
each other such that a gamete receives only
Each testis has about 250 compartments called one of the factor present in the origin at paired
testicular lobules. form.
Rest of the statements are correct. n Homozygous parent produces similar types of
7. (c) Hypothalamus secretes GnRH (A) gametes whereas heterozygous ones produce
two types of gametes each with one allele to
(Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone), which
equal proportion.
stimulates pituitary to release FSH (B) and LH
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 69
15. (d) Asha’s child from her first husband has 22. (c) In Griffith’s experiment, he was found out
blood group O, i.e. genotype (ii). It means that that something from dead organisms could
the child received two recessive alleles, one change the living cells. From his experiment, he
from each of his parents (i from father and i showed that dead S-bacteria (virulent) are
from Asha). Asha’s child from second husband changing (transforming) the R-bacteria
had blood group AB, i.e. genotype IA IB. As the (non-virulent) into S-type, i.e. the virulent strain.
child’s father had blood group B, it means that 23. (b) In 1956, Francis Crick proposed the Central
the child received IB allele from father and IA Dogma hypothesis. This explains the flow of
allele from Asha. This makes it clear that genetic information in any biological system.
Asha’s blood group contains i and IA genes, Enzymes used in this process are
thus her blood group is A with genotype IA i.
A–DNA–dependent DNA polymerase
16. (b) A tall plant of F2-generation was crossed
m
(replication)
with a dwarf plant to determine the genotype of B–DNA–dependent RNA polymerase
o
the tall plant. Such a cross is called test cross. (transcription)
.c
17. (a) Whenever mother is a colourblind, all her C–RNA–dependent DNA polymerase (reverse
sons will be colourblind irrespective of their transcription)
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father’s genotype because transmission of this 24. (a) tRNA binds to mRNA through anticodon
disease is done in criss-cross fashion, i.e. mother loop, as it bears bases complementary to those
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to son and father to daughter. on mRNA being translated.
Xc Xc × XY Other options are explained as
Colourblind woman Normal man ch
The amino acid loop of tRNA is involved in
binding the respective amino acid. The TyC
Xc Xc X Y
loop helps in binding the amino acid, while the
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D-loop of tRNA is the binding site for
aminoacyl synthetase.
XXc XcX XcY
m
XcY
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
Carrier for colour blindness correct explanation of A.
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Colourblind
(daughters) sons Oestrogen and progesterone are chief
pregnancy hormones which enable the uterus
So, option (a) is correct. and placenta to improve the formation of
d
18. (d) Statements I, II and IV are correct. blood vessels. The increased production of
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Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected as these hormones is necessary for foetal growth.
35 26. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
S will end up in the supernatant after
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gametes.
bases, i.e. total amount of purines = total
The second male gamete fuses with the polar
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28. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the 36. (c) In a cross between two heterozygous tall
correct explanation of A. pea plants, the probability of production of
Non-template or sense strand having 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢ dwarf offspring is 25% and tall offspring is
polarity does not take part in transcription. As 75%.
its sequence is similar to mRNA except when 37. (a) The cross between red flowered and pink
uracil is replaced by thymine. flowered plants of Mirabilis jalapa is depicted
Template or anti-sense strand having 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢ below
polarity, participates in transcription. % &
29. (b) Only statement I is incorrect and can be RR × Rr
Red Pink Parents
corrected as
D represents ovary which produces oestrogen,
m
required for the development of secondary R R r Gametes
sexual characters in females.
o
Rest of the statements are correct. F1-generation
.c
& r
30. (c) Autogamy is self-pollination. In R
%
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chasmogamous flower, anthers and stigma are
exposed. For autogamy in such a flower to take R RR Rr
place, pollen and ovule should mature
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simultaneously and anther and stigma should Thus, the ratio of offspring produce would be
lie close to each other.
ch Red : Pink = 1 : 1
31. (c) Option (c) is correct as
38. (a) The formula to calculate the number of
In vegetative/asexual and apomictic gametes from a given genotype is 2 n .
te
reproduction, mitotic cell division takes place,
Where, n = number of heterozygosity in the
due to which the resultant progeny are
given genotype. Thus, number/types of
identical to the parents and to each other
m
32. (d) Extrusion of second polar body from egg heterozygous individual of genotype Aa is
nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm, but 2 ( 1) = 2 .
before fertilisation.
39. (b) In the given cross, the disease is inherited
d
(MPF) and turns on Anaphase Promoting inheritance). Any trait that shows criss-cross
Factor (APF). Hence, the secondary oocyte inheritance is located on the sex chromosome.
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completes its meiotic division after fertilisation Presence of a single recessive gene, i.e. Xc in
and is said to be activated. carrier individuals (XXc ) does not cause the
disease, thus the trait is recessive.
nl
42. (d) According to Chargaff’s rule (1950), purine 52. (b) R, showing ejaculatory ducts, pass through
and pyrimidine base pairs are present in equal prostate glands and carry sperms and
amounts in a DNA molecule. secretions from seminal vesicle.
[A + G] 53. (b) Seminal vesicles, prostate and
i.e. [A + G] = [T + C] or =1
[T + C] Bulbourethral glands are the male accessory
glands whose secretions constitute the semen.
43. (a) Approximately 200 bp are present per
Urethra does not secrete semen. The transport
nucleosome. Total number of base pairs in
of sperms from the testis to outside occurs
human’s genetic material is 6.6 ´ 10 9. through urethra.
6.6 ´ 10 9 54. (c) The urethra originates from the urinary
Number of nucleosome = 3.3 ´ 10 7
200 bladder and extends through the penis to its
external opening called urethral meatus. In
m
44. (a) Watson and Crick, proposed a very simple
other words, it is the external opening of
double helix model for the structure of DNA in
urogenital duct.
o
1953 based on X-ray diffraction data.
.c
55. (d) Statements I, II and III are correct.
45. (b) Option (b) gives the sequence of mRNA
Statement IV is incorrect and can be corrected as
produced by the given stretch of DNA. The
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mRNA will be complementary to the DNA Presence of uracil in place of thymine in RNA
strand, but in RNA, uracil will be present in makes it less stable.
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place of thymine. If the template strand is Hence, option (d) is correct.
3¢–ATGCATGCATGCATG–5¢ then the base 56. (b) The labels A, B and C in the given diagram
sequence of mRNA for the given DNA strand represent leading strand, lagging strand and
ch
will be 5¢–UACGUACGUACGUAC–3’. the parental strand.
46. (c) In prokaryotes (such as E. coli), defined (A) 57. (d) As given in the pie chart, the AB blood
te
nucleus is not present, the DNA is not group percentage is 5% in India. So, it can be
scattered throughout the cell. DNA is said that any individual, selected at random
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negatively (B) charged and holded by the from sample population, has 1 in 20 chance of
positively (C) charged proteins. This structure being blood group AB.
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in prokaryotes is called nucleiod (D). 58. (c) The genes ‘a’ and ‘b’ cannot be I, II and IV
47. (d) Linker DNA is double-stranded DNA, because
which is 38-53 bp long with histone H1, holds The gene for body height and attached ear
d
the cores (octamer) together. Linker + DNA is lobes are not present on sex-chromosome and
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seen as the string in beads and string model. phenylketonuria is a autosomal recessive trait.
So, it is a part of nucleosome. But genes ‘a’ and ‘b’ can be of haemophilia and
Thus, option (d) is correct.
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initiation, there is a specific initiator tRNA. 59. (c) Drosophila have 3 pairs of autosome and one
w
Rest of the options are correct for tRNA. pair sex chromosome. Sex-determination in
49. (b) Labelled part ‘P’ is epididymis. It is a long, Drosophila is exactly similar to the human
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coiled tube that is present on the backside of beings, i.e. female is homogametic and male is
each testicle. It secretes a fluid that provides heterogametic.
nourishment to the sperm. In the given diagrams, first diagram belongs
50. (b) Option (b) is correctly matched pair. to the female Drosophila and second diagram
SAMPLE PAPER 1
Rest options are incorrectly matched pairs and belongs to the male Drosophila.
A indicates X-chromosome in female Drosophila.
can be corrected as
B indicates autosome
Q–Vas deferens
C indicates X-chromosome in male Drosophila.
S–Cowper’s gland or Bulbourethral gland
D indicates Y-chromosome in male Drosophila.
T–Seminal vesicle
Thus, option (c) is correct.
51. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can
be corrected as 60. (b) The labels A, B, C and D in the given
Q which is vas deferens, arises from cauda diagram represent uncharged tRNA, charged/
epididymis. aminoacylated tRNA, 5¢ end and 3¢ end,
respectively.
Rest all statements are correct with respect to Q.
72 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
SAMPLE PAPER 2
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
m
General Instructions
o
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
.c
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
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3. There is NO negative marking.
ch Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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m
Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)
d
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2. The following is the diagram of TS of anther. Identify the parts labelled as A, B and C.
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A
B
SAMPLE PAPER 2
5.
D
m
B
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C
F
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A
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E
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In the above diagram, parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E and F are respectively identified as
(a) Synergids, Polar nuclei, Central cell, Antipodals, Filiform apparatus and Eggs
ch
(b) Polar nuclei, Egg, Antipodals, Central cell, Filiform apparatus and Synergids
(c) Egg, Synergids, Central cell, Filiform apparatus, Antipodals and Polar nuclei
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(d) Central cells, Polar nuclei, Filiform apparatus, Antipodals, Synergids and Eggs
Codes
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A
I
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Foetal life
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II
Birth
Childhood
SAMPLE PAPER 2
Puberty
C
First
Adult polar body
III
reproductive
life Ovum
Second
polar body
10. Identify the contraceptives shown below and select the correct option.
o m
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A B C D
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A B C D
(a) Implants Cu-T
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Condom for male Condom for female
(b) Condom for male Implants Cu-T Condom for female
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(c) Cu-T Implants Condom for male Condom for female
m
12. Which is correct about traits chosen by Mendel for his experiment on pea plant?
(a) Terminal pod was dominant (b) Constricted pod was dominant
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(c) Green pod colour was dominant (d) Tall plants were recessive
I. used purelines.
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15. When a pure tall plant (TT) having rounded seeds (RR) is crossed with dwarf plant (tt)
having wrinkled seeds (rr) and their F1 progeny are crossed among themselves to
produce F2 -generation, how many phenotypes will be observed?
(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 4 (d) 2
17. Suraj and Vijay both have genetic disorders. Suraj shows an over all masculine
development along with sterility, whereas Vijay is short statured with furrowed
m
tongue. Identify the disorders they are suffering from.
Suraj Vijay
o
(a) Klinefelter‘s syndrome Down’s syndrome
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(b) Down‘s syndrome Klinefelter‘s syndrome
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(c) Turner‘s syndrome Down’s syndrome
(d) Klinefelter‘s syndrome Klinefelter‘s syndrome
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18. Choose the correct statements about biochemical characterisation of transforming
principle in Griffith’s experiment. ch
I. It was done by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty.
II. Scientists purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA, etc.) from heat-killed S-cell.
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III. It was seen that DNA alone from heat-killed S-type bacteria caused R-type bacteria
to become transformed into S-type virulent bacteria.
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Codes
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
d
32
22. A viral DNA is labelled with P and the protein of the virus is labelled with 35 S.
Which molecules would be present inside the bacterial cell after transduction?
(a) 32 P (b) 35 S
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
23. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the
blanks A to C.
Proposed by C
A B
DNA mRNA Protein
m
(a) A–Transcription, B–Replication, C–James Watson
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(b) A–Translation, B–Transcription, C–Erwin Chargaff
.c
(c) A–Transcription, B–Translation, C–Francis Crick
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(d) A–Translation, B–Extension, C–Rosalind Franklin
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(a) positive (b) negative
(c) negative and positive, respectively ch (d) zero
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Section B
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(Section-B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
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Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
d
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
oa
25. Assertion (A) Exine of pollen grain is composed of sporopollenin which is resistant to
nl
26. Assertion (A) In vasectomy, a small portion of vas deferens is either removed or tied
up.
Reason (R) In tubectomy, a small portion of Fallopian tube is either tied up or
SAMPLE PAPER 2
removed.
27. Assertion (A) Uterus looks like an inverted pear.
Reason (R) The inner glandular layer that lines the uterine cavity is termed as
myometrium.
28. Assertion (A) The gamete contributed by male is responsible for sex-determination in
humans.
Reason (R) Sex in humans is a polygenic trait that depends upon a cumulative effect of
certain genes on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 77
29. Observe the diagram given below and identify the correct statements with respect to it.
Head
Middle piece
Tail
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.c
I. Middle piece of the sperm utilises fructose as a source of energy to provide motility
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to the sperm.
II. Head of the sperm contains a cap-like structure called acrosome.
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III. An elongated haploid nucleus marks its presence inside the head.
IV. Tail helps the sperm cell in digestion of the egg wall.
ch
Codes
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
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(c) I, II and III (d) I and II
m
31. A scientist working on Calotropis tries to pollinate the same flower from which he took
d
pollens but failed to do so, what could be the possible reason for it?
de
32. A young girl in her early 20s consult to her doctor regarding her irregular
w
menstruation cycle. Her doctor prescribes some medicines to her. What can be the
reason for her irregular menstrual cycle?
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33. A female who is unable to ovulate, but can provide a suitable environment for
SAMPLE PAPER 2
fertilisation and for the development of the foetus. Which ART technique will be useful
for her?
(a) Artificial insemination (b) GIFT
(c) MTP (d) ZIFT
34. Stage of cells at which it is transferred into uterus after induced fertilisation of ova in
the laboratory is
(a) embryo at 4 blastomeres stage (b) embryo at 2 blastomeres stage
(c) morula (d) zygote
78 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
36. If a boy’s father has haemophilia and his mother has one gene for haemophilia, what is
the chance that the boy will inherit the disease?
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) 100%
m
37. If both parents of a male child are normal, what are the chances of the child being
colourblind?
o
(a) It is impossible
.c
(b) It is possible only if father’s mother was colourblind
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(c) It is possible only if mother’s father was colourblind
(d) It is possible even when all the four grandparents had normal vision
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38. In sex linkage, reciprocal cross yields
(a) criss-cross result ch (b) identical result
(c) distinct result (d) None of these
39. In a cross indulding two traits or characters, what does the ratio 9:3:3:1 denote?
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(a) Interaction of the alleles from the two genes involved
(b) Multigenic inheritance
m
(b) chromosome 13
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(c) chromosome 14
(d) sex chromosome
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41. Homologous chromosomes which are present in male and female both are known as
nl
42. The type of RNA specifically responsible for directing the proper sequence of amino
do
43. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids and the
base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how
many codons will be altered?
(a) 1 (b) 11
(c) 33 (d) 333
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 79
44.
Tyr
A
m
A U G
o
U A C C mRNA
.c
What does the anticodon loop of the tRNA contain?
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(a) A site for binding the amino acids
(b) Bases that are complementary to the codes
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(c) They have UAA codons
(d) They have UAG codons
ch
45. In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the transcription of mRNA, tRNA and rRNA?
(a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
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(b) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(c) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
m
C
SAMPLE PAPER 2
Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.
Y
Z
m
W
V
o
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49. Identify the labels V, W and Y.
(a) Cytoplasm, Zona pellucida, Plasma membrane
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(b) Cortical granules, Corona radiata, Zona pellucida
(c) Cortical granules, Plasma membrane, Corona radiata
ch
(d) Cytoplasm, Corona radiata, Zona pellucida
50. The structure with label W is formed of radially elongated follicular cells.
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(a) True (b) False
(c) Cannot say (d) Partially true or false
m
52. In humans, at which stage does ovum get released from ovary?
oa
54. Which of the following structures does the sperm come in contact with, during
fertilisation?
(a) V (b) Z
(c) Y (d) X
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 81
m
TT × tt
o
T t
B t
.c
T
A C
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D
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(a) A–tt, B–TT, C–TT, D–TT (b) A–Tt, B–Tt, C–Tt, D–Tt
(c) A–TT, B–TT, C–Tt, D–TT (d) A–Tt, B–Tt, C–Tt, D–TT
ch
57. In an experiment, the following crosses were obtained in the fruitfly, Drosophila. True
breeding red-eyed flies with plain thoraxes were crossed with pink-eyed flies with
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striped thoraxes. The F 1 flies were then test crossed against the double recessive ones.
Red eye plain thorax ´ Pink eye striped thorax
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80 16 12 92
What percentage number of recombinants can result from the test cross?
(a) 12 (b) 14
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(c) 16 (d) 28
A B C
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i p o z y a
compound
Repressor
59. Given diagram depicts the experiment of Meselson and Stahl. Identify the type of
isotopic DNA formed after 40 minutes (A, B, C and D).
Generation-I Generation-II
15N-DNA 14N-DNA
A
15N-DNA
B
20 min 40 min C
D
m
(c) A– 14 N-DNA, B– 14 N-DNA, C– 15 N-DNA, D– 15 N-DNA
(d) A– 14 N-DNA, B– 15 N-DNA, C– 15 N-DNA, D– 15 N-DNA
o
.c
60. Observe the diagram given below and identify the correct statement.
5′ 3′
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C
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5′
3′
A ch B
3′5′ 5′
3′
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(a) On A and B replications are discontinuous
(b) On A replication is continuous while on B replication is discontinuous
m
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
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Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.
o
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1 21 41
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2 22 42
3 23 43
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4 24 44
5 25 ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
8 28 48
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9 29 49
fro
10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
14 34 54
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15 35 55
16 36 56
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17 37 57
w
18 38 58
do
19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
m
1. (d) Unisexuality of flowers can prevent 11. (d) An ideal contraceptive should be user
autogamy wherein pollen moves to the female friendly, easily available with minimal side
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part of the same flower, but not geitonogamy effects and reversible. Hence, irreversible is
.c
wherein pollen is transferred to another flower not a characteristic feature of an ideal
on the same plant. contraceptive.
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2. (a) A–Connective tissue, B–Endothecium, 12. (c) Option (c) is correct about traits chosen
C–Pollen grains by Mendel for his experiment on pea plant
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3. (b) The cells of the primary parietal layer as green pod colour is dominant.
obtained from archesporial cells divide to form ch Other options are incorrect and can be
endothecium, middle layers and tapetum. corrected as
4. (a) Pollen exine is made up of sporopollenin Terminal position of flower and constricted
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which is resistant to enzyme actions leading to pod-shape is recessive trait whereas tall
chemical and biological decomposition. It plant height is a dominant trait.
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preserves pollen grains during fossilisation. 13. (b) Mendel performed his experiments using
5. (a) A – Synergids, B – Polar nuclei, purelines and considered one character at a
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dominance.
IV are incorrect. Incorrect statements can be
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C – Secondary oocyte
observed, i.e. tall round, tall wrinkled, dwarf
8. (a) Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of
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degenerate. This leads to menstrual flow in to the codominance. IA and IB are completely
which the endometrial wall gets shed off. dominant over i.
9. (b) The main function of fimbriae of Fallopian Thus, option (d) is correct.
tube is to collect the egg released from ovary 17. (a) Suraj suffers from Klinefelter’s syndrome
after ovulation and draw it into the Fallopian in which there is an additional copy of
tube. X-chromosome, i.e. XXY. Such individuals
10. (b) A represents a male condom have masculine development along with
B represents implants female development and are sterile.
C represents copper-T Vijay suffers from Down‘s syndrome. There
D represents female condom is an extra copy of chromosome 21 in this
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 85
disorder. Individuals with Down’s syndrome 25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
are short with small round head, furrowed correct explanation of A.
tongue with physical and mental development Wall or covering of pollen grain is called
is retarded. sporoderm. It is composed of two layers, outer
18. (d) All the given statements are correct. exine and inner intine. The outer exine is made
up of sporopollenin which is resistant to
Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn
chemical and biological decomposition so
McCarty worked to determine the biochemical
pollens remain preserved for long periods. At
nature of transforming principle in Griffith
certain places, exine remains thin and lacks
experiment. They purified biochemicals from
sporopollenin. These places are termed as
heat-killed S-cells and discovered that DNA
germ pores.
alone from heat-killed S-type bacteria existed
m
R-type bacteria transformed into virulent 26. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
S-type bacteria. They also discovered that correct explanation of A.
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protein and RNA digesting enzymes, i.e. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens
.c
proteases and RNases did not affect is removed or tied up via., a small cut on the
transformation and that the transforming scrotum while in tubectomy, a small part of
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substance was neither protein nor RNA. Fallopian tube is removed or tied up via., a
small cut in abdomen or through vagina.
19. (c) In the presence of an inducer like lactose,
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the repressor gets inactivated by its interaction 27. (c) A is true, but R is false because
with inducer. This allows RNA polymerase The shape of the uterus is like an inverted
access to the promoter and as a result, pear. The wall of the uterus has three layers,
ch
transcription proceeds. Thus, lac operon gets external membranous perimetrium, middle
switched on. layer of smooth myometrium and inner
te
20. (b) Option (b) is correct as glandular layer of endometrium.
Pyrimidines consist of cytosine, thymine and 28. (c) A is true, but R is false because
m
uracil. Purines include adenine and guanine. In humans, sex is determined by sex
chromosomes. Sex chromosomes in human
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22. (a) Bacteria infected with virus having determine sex of offspring and it is a
radioactive DNA (with 32 P) were radioactive, monogenic trait.
which indicated that DNA was the material
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(with 35 S) were not radioactive. a head, neck, middle piece and tail. Head of
the sperm contains a cap-like structure called
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23. (c) A–Transcription, B–Translation, C–Francis acrosome that has enzymes which help in
Crick digestion of egg wall. It also contains an
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The process of copying genetic information elongated haploid nucleus. Middle piece of the
from one strand of DNA into RNA is sperm utilises fructose as its energy source to
transcription. The process of formation of provide motility to the sperm.
polypeptide by the polymerisation of amino Statement II is incorrect and can be corrected
SAMPLE PAPER 2
31. (c) The scientist was unable to self-pollinate the 38. (a) In the case of sex linkage, reciprocal cross
flower due to herkogamy. When a some form shows a criss-cross inheritance pattern, i.e. male
of physical barrier makes self-pollination transmits its sex-linked genes to all daughters,
impossible, the condition is referred as who in turn transmit them to half of their male
herkogamy. Such a condition is found in progeny.
Calotropis. 39. (d) Obtaining a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio in case of a
32. (a) Lack of oestrogen in her body is the leading cross involving two characters (dihybrid
cause of her irregular menstrual cycle because cross), denotes that the alleles of the two genes
oestrogen regulates the manstrual cycle. Rise have segregated independently.
in oestrogen level helps in the growth of uterus 40. (d) The characters are said to be sex- linked if
lining and fall of oestrogen level help in their genes are located on the sex chromosome.
shedding of endometrium lining.
m
According to modern genetics, the
33. (b) GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian X-chromosome linked character, is called
o
Transfer. It involves transfer of an ovum sex-linked character, while Y-linked characters
.c
collected from donor into the Fallopian tube of are called male limited characters.
another female who cannot produce one, but 41. (d) Autosomes are homologous chromosomes,
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can provide suitable environment to i.e. chromosomes which contain the same
fertilisation and further development of foetus. genes (regions of DNA) in the same order
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34. (c) After induced fertilisation, embryo at along their chromosomal arms.
morula stage more than 8 celled blastomere 42. (b) Messenger RNA (mRNA) brings coded or
ch
stage is transferred into the uterus for further genetic information from the nucleus or from
development. DNA to the cytoplasm and takes part in
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protein synthesis. They are responsible for
35. (a) Each pollen grain contains vegetative cells
directing the proper sequence of amino acids
and a generative cell. In flowering plants, the
in protein synthesis.
m
(Father) (Mother)
× So, 99 bases = 33 codons will be altered due to
XhY XhX deletion of one base at 901 th position.
oa
Gametes Xh Y Xh X
44. (b) The stop codons are UAA, UAG and UGA.
These codons are absent in the tRNA
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Haemophilic Carrier Haemophilic Normal amino acids. Finally, the anticodon loop of the
daughter daughter son son
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unaffected. Hence, this is 50% chances that the Only one DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
boy will inherit the disease. catalyses the formation of all types of RNAs. In
37. (c) Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive case of eukaryotes, there are three types of
disease in which an X-linked recessive allele is RNA polymerase for catalysing different types
passed from an affected male, to a daughter of RNAs.
who is a heterozygous carrier and 46. (a) RNA primers are removed by DNA
subsequently to an affected grandson. polymerase-I. It also plays role in DNA repair.
Thus in given case, maternal father is likely to 47. (b) VNTR is referred to as minisatellite DNA,
be colourblind. Such criss-cross trait is called as which repeats about 20-50 times.
diagynic trait.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 87
m
51. (d) X- Perivitelline space, Z- Nucleus = 80 + 16 + 12 + 92 = 200
52. (a) In humans, ovum is released from the ovary 38
Recombinant frequency = ´ 100
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at ovulatory phase. 200
.c
53. (d) Statement in option (d) is not a characteristic = 14%
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of an ovum and can be corrected as Hence, option (b) is correct.
An ovum consists a lot of ooplasm.
58. (a) A–Regulatory gene. It is responsible for
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54. (c) During fertilisation, the sperm comes in producing repressor proteins.
contact with structure Y which is zona pellucida B–Promoter. It is the binding site for RNA
layer of ovum and induces change in the polymerase in order to carryout
ch
membrane to block the entry of other sperm. transcription.
55. (d) Statements I and II are correct, while III and C–Operator. It controls the gene expression
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IV are incorrect. Incorrect statements can be by binding the receptor and inhibiting
corrected as transcription.
m
TT × tt
which the tamplate with polarity 3¢ ® 5¢, i.e.
T t
‘A’, replication is continuous and the
tamplate with polarity 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢, i.e. ‘B’
nl
SAMPLE PAPER 2
88 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
SAMPLE PAPER 3
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
m
General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
o
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
.c
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
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3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
m
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
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3. In the figure given below, find out the type of seed and identify coleoptile, coleorhiza
w
B
SAMPLE PAPER 3
E
F
G
4. Patterns and designs in the exine of pollen grains are the characteristic features of
(a) species of plants (b) genus of plants
(c) order of plants (d) None of these
m
A B
o
I. A can be left in place for upto 10 years.
.c
II. B contains progestogens only.
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III. A supress fertilising capacity of sperm.
IV. B has similar mode of action as that of pills.
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Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
ch
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV
(c) Nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore tetrad, megaspore, female gametophyte
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(d) Megaspore tetrad, nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore, female gametophyte
II. Primary oocytes surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells are called primary
follicles.
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8. Given below is the diagram of human ovary showing different stages of follicles.
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B C
A D
SAMPLE PAPER 3
E
F
90 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
Select the option which correctly identifies the parts labelled as C, D and F.
C D F
(a) Primary follicle Secondary follicle Corpus luteum
(b) Secondary follicle Graafian follicle Corpus luteum
(c) Tertiary follicle Primary follicle Secondary follicle
(d) Tertiary follicle Graafian follicle Corpus luteum
m
(b) chorionic fluid from developing embryo
(c) chromosomal pattern after childbirth
o
(d) chromosomal pattern before fertilisation
.c
10. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla, which is connected to
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(a) lactiferous duct (b) seminiferous duct
(c) seminiferous tubules (d) nipple
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11. The given figure is the enlarge view of microsporangium showing wall layers
A, B, C and D. ch A
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B
C
m
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D
d
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Which of the following layers has dense cytoplasm and more than one nucleus?
(a) B and C (b) Only D
nl
15. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect match of codon and amino acid coded by
it?
(a) CCA – Proline
(b) CGU – Arginine
(c) UCG – Alanine
(d) UAU – Tyrosine
m
16. Theoretically in incomplete dominance one allele functions as normal, while another
allele may function as
o
(a) normal allele (b) non-functional allele
.c
(c) normal but less efficient allele (d) All of these
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17. A marriage between normal vision man and colourblind woman will produce which of
the following types of offspring?
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(a) Normal sons and carrier daughters
(b) Colourblind sons and carrier daughters ch
(c) 50% colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughters
(d) 50% colourblind sons and normal daughters
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18. Given below are four diseases paired with their characteristics. Find which of the
following is incorrectly matched pair.
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20. Which of the following statements stands incorrect regarding DNA polymerase
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enzyme in eukaryotes?
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strand
21. The fact that a purine always base pair through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine
base leads to ……… in the DNA double helix.
(a) the antiparallel nature
(b) the semiconservative nature
(c) uniform width throughout DNA
(d) uniform length in all DNA
92 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
22. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes was explained by
(a) Gregor J Mendel (b) Alfred Sturtevant
(c) Sutton-Boveri (d) TH Morgan
23. If both the strands of DNA act as template during transcription, then what will
happen?
(a) The segment of DNA would code for two RNAs with different sequences
(b) Two RNA will be produced simultaneously complementary to each other
(c) There will be formation of double-stranded RNA
(d) All of the above
m
24. Refer to the given mRNA segment which can be translated completely into a
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polypeptide.
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A B
CGUGUU AUC
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5’ 3’
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Which of the following codons may correspond with A and B?
(a) A–AUG, GUG, B–UAA, UAG or UGA ch
(b) A–UAA, UGA, B–AUG, GUG or UAG
(c) A–AUG, UGA, B–GUG, UAA or UGA
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(d) A–AUG, GAG, B–UAA, UUU or UGA
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Section B
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
d
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
de
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
nl
27. Assertion (A) Study of karyotypes is used for detection of chromosomal aberrations.
Reason (R) Karyotypes can be utilised for sex-determination of unborn child.
28. Assertion (A) Untranslated regions are RNA sequences before initiation codon and after
termination codon.
Reason (R) Untranslated regions give stability to mRNA and elevates translational
efficiency.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 93
29. Observe the given diagram and select the incorrect statement regarding it.
I
II
III
m
(b) I is single - layered protective covering
(c) Cells of II degenerate to provide nourishment to growing microspore mother cells
o
(d) The cells of III are uninucleated and monoploid
.c
30. After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called … A… .
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They are surrounded by … B… and maternal blood.
Here, A and B refer to
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(a) A–chorion, B–foetal cell
(b) A–chorionic villi, B–uterine tissue
(c) A–uterine tissue, B–chorionic villi
ch
(d) A–foetal cell, B–chorion
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31. For some reasons if the vasa efferentia in the human male reproductive system get
blocked, then the gamete transport will not occurs from
m
32. X is a colourless, nectarless and odourless flower having light and non-sticky pollen
grain and large feathery stigma. Then by which of the following means pollination is
d
possible in flower X?
de
33. An ‘ART’ in which the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus is
nl
34. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect
reproductive organs?
(a) Genital warts and hepatitis-B (b) Syphilis and genital herpes
(c) AIDS and hepatitis-B (d) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
SAMPLE PAPER 3
35. Human skin colour is a classic example for polygenic trait. The phenotype reflects the
contribution of each allele, i.e. the effect of each allele is additive. Let us assume that
three genes, i.e. A, B and C control skin colour in human with the dominant forms A, B
and C responsible for dark skin colour and the recessive forms a, b and c for light skin
colour. Then which of the following genotype will show darkest skin colour?
(a) AABBCc (b) AaBbCc
(c) AABBCC (d) AaBBCc
94 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
36. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and
independent. His proposition was based on the
(a) results of generation of a cross
(b) observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two
contrasting characters shows only one character without any blending
(c) self-pollination of F1 offsprings
(d) cross-pollination of F1 -generation with recessive parent
37. Read the given cross carefully and identify the type of disorder.
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X X
X Y
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Unaffected carrier
mother Unaffected father Normal Changed
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X X X X X Y X Y
Unaffected Unaffected Affected Unaffected
carrier daughter son ch son
daughter
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(a) Thalassemia (b) Phenylketonuria
(c) Haemophilia (d) Myotonic dystrophy
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38. In a maternity ward, nurse forgot to put the identity bracelets on babies. There were
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three babies that were not distinguished easily. The parents wanted to be sure and
asked for blood tests. A particular father was homozygous type A and mother was type
O. Among the listed options, there baby could be
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(a) AB (b) O
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39. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a
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43. Genes A, B and C are linked. Genes A and B are more close than A and C.
I. A might be present before B and C.
II. B might be between A and C.
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III. C might be present between A and B.
IV. More crosses cannot occur between A and C than A and B.
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Find out the correct option for the given information.
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(a) I and II (b) II and III
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(c) III and IV (d) I, II and IV
44. In E. coli, which of the following events will not occur when lactose is present?
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I. Lactose acts as an inducer which binds to the repressor and forms an inactive
repressor. ch
II. The repressor fails to bind to the operator region.
III. The RNA polymerase binds to the operator and transcript lac mRNA.
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IV. The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and as a result
prevents RNA polymerase to bind to the operon.
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45. Observe the given sequence of steps and select the correct option.
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A B C
DNA ¾® hnRNA ¾® mRNA ¾® Proteins
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A B C
(a) Replication Transcription Translation
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(b) HGP will help in developing new ways to diagnose, treat and some day prevent
disorders affecting humans
(c) Fragment sequenced during HGP are done by method developed by Frederick Sanger
(d) Repetitive DNA sequences are stretches of DNA repeated 2-3 times in a DNA sequence
48. Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact with RNA polymerase and
affect its role in transcription. Which of the following statements is correct about
regulatory protein?
(a) They only increase expression
(b) They only decrease expression
(c) They interact with RNA polymerase, but do not affect the expression
(d) They can act both as activators and as repressors
Section C
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(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54).
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Besides this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted
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10 questions would be evaluated.)
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Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.
X
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Y
Z
ch Cells shed by
growing foetus
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Foetus
Syringe with needle
withdraws a small
amount of fluid
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and cells
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d
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X Y
(a) Amnion Chorion
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51. Which of the following diseases cannot be diagnosed by the technique shown in
diagram?
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Jaundice (d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 97
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54. Which of the following is correct for hPL that is secreted by structure Y?
(a) Stimulate corpus luteum to secrete progesterone till the end of pregnancy
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(b) Stimulate growth of mammary glands during pregnancy
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(c) Support foetal growth and maintain pregnancy
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(d) Inhibit uterine contractions
55. A, B and D are three independently assorting genes with their recessive alleles a, b and
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d, respectively. A cross was made between individuals of Aa bb DD genotype with aa
bb dd. Find out the type of genotypes of the offspring produced.
ch
I. AabbdD II. aabbDD
III. AabbDd IV. aabbDd
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V. aAbbDd
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56. The given figure represents an individual inflicted with chromosomal disorder.
d
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Many loops on
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finger tips
Palm crease
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Congenital
heart disease
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SAMPLE PAPER 3
57. Given below is a Punnett‘s square which represents the patterns of inheritance in a
dihybrid cross where yellow (Y) and round (R) seed condition is dominant over white
(y) and wrinkled (r) seed coat.
% YR Yr yR yr
&
YR F L W X
Yr I M O V
yR G C B A
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yr N D E H
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A plant of type ‘G’ will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds produced
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by the plants of
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(a) D (b) L (c) B (d) W
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Tyr
A
ch
B
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C
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A U G
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– D mRNA
3¢
A
5′ 3′
Terminator
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RNA σ
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3′ 3′
B
5′ 5′
Promoter σ DNA helix
RNA polymerase Sigma factor
SAMPLE PAPER 3
3′ 5′
C
5′ 3′
ρ RNA
RNA polymerase
Rho factor
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DNA hybridisation using D
¯
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Detecting of hybridised DNA by E
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Complete the accompanying A, B, C, D and E in the flowchart are
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(a) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis, C–Nitrocellulose or Nylon membrane,
D–Labelled VNTR probe, E–Autoradiography
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(b) A–Electrophoresis, B–Restriction endonuclease, C–Nitrocellulose or Nylon, D–Labelled
VNTR probe, E–Autoradiography
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(c) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis, C–Labelled VNTR probe,
D–Nitrocellulose or Nylon, E–Autoradiography
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(d) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis, C–Nitrocellulose or Nylon,
D–Autoradiography, E–Labelled VNTR probe
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d
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oa
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SAMPLE PAPER 3
OMR SHEET SP 3
Roll No.
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
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Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
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Multiple markings are invalid.
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1 21 41
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2 22 42
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3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25
ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
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8 28 48
9 29 49
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10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
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14 34 54
15 35 55
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16 36 56
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17 37 57
18 38 58
do
19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
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1. (b) In coconut, the surrounding white kernel 7. (d) All the given statements are correct.
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known as coconut meal is cellular endosperm 8. (d) The given figure represent LS of ovary
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and coconut milk (coconut water) in the where C, D and F represents tertiary follicle,
centre is free nuclear endosperm, made up of Graafian follicle and corpus luteum,
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thousands of nuclei. respectively.
2. (a) The primary spermatocytes undergoes The other labelling are
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meiosis-I during spermatogenesis and form
two haploid cells called secondary A–Blood vessels, B–Primary follicle and
spermatocytes which have 23 chromosomes E–Ovum.
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only. 9. (a) Amniocentesis is a foetal sex-determination
3. (c) The given diagram is a LS of monocot test based on the analysis of chromosomal
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embryo where B, G and D represents pattern using the amniotic fluid surrounding
coleoptile, coleorhiza and epiblast. Monocot the developing embryo.
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seed possesses only one cotyledon. 10. (a) Several mammary ducts join to form a wider
4. (a) Patterns and designs in the exine of pollen mammary ampulla, which is connected to the
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grains are the characteristic features of species lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked
of plants as it differ from one species to out by infants.
another. 11. (b) The cells of tapetum contain dense
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5. (c) Both statements III and IV are correct for cytoplasm and more than one nucleus. It also
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uterus by expert nurses or doctors. These 12. (a) The formula to calculate the number of
release copper ions which supresses the gametes from a given genotype is 2 n .
nl
combined with oestrogen. These are placed genotype AABB is 2 ( 0) = 1 and by heterozygous
under the skin and act similar to pills, but individual of genotype AaBB is 2 ( 1) = 2 .
their effective period are much longer than 13. (b) Statement II is the only correct statement
pills. about linkage.
SAMPLE PAPER 3
6. (c) In angiosperms, the ovule body consists of Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
a mass of parenchymatous cells known as corrected as
nucellus. In the hypodermal region towards
l Genotype which were present in F1 hybrid,
the micropylar end develops a primary cell,
reappear in low frequency in F2 -generation.
which due to further division forms a diploid
megaspore mother cell. The latter undergoes l Linkage is the phenomenon in which two genes
are physically linked.
meiotic division to form megaspore tetrad.
Usually the chalazal megaspore remains 14. (c) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the
functional while other three degenerate. The technique in which many copies of DNA can be
functional megaspore is the first cell of female produced in a short period of time. It can
gametophyte. increase the sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting.
102 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
15. (c) Option (c) represents incorrectly matched proportional to the distance between these two
pair and it can be corrected as genes.
UCG codon codes for serine amino acid. Rest It can be used to determine the exact location
other pairs are correctly matched. of a gene on the chromosome.
16. (d) In incomplete dominance, the two genes of 23. (d) If both the strands of DNA acts as template,
an allelomorphic pair are not related as two molecules of RNA having different
dominant or recessive, but each of them sequences would produce. They may get
express themselves partially. In this wound to form double stranded RNA as
phenomenon, one allele may function sequences of two strands will be
normally and the other may either function complementary to each other.
normally, may be non-functional or may 24. (a) Here, A would represents start codon and
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perform normally, but with less efficiency. This B would be a stop condon.
occurs due to some changes in the allele which
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modifies the information present in it. A–AUG, GUG, B–UAA, UAG or UGA
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Thus, option (d) is correct. 25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
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17. (b) The marriage between colourblind woman
Placenta is a ridge of tissue in the inner wall of
and normal vision man will result in
ovary which bears one or more ovules and the
colourblind sons and carrier daughters.
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way in which placenta is distributed with the
XY × X CX C
ovary is known as placentation.
(Normal man) (Colourblind woman)
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26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
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There are mitochondria in the middle piece of
XX C XX C X CY X CY
the human sperm coiled around the axial
Carrier daughters Colourblind sons filament called mitochondrial spiral. They
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when both the parents are unaffected carrier that provides description of number, types and
for the gene. other characteristics of chromosomes. Any
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19. (d) When the DNA replication initiates, the change in the chromosome number is detected
hydrogen bonds that are present between the immediately. Chromosomal abnormality
nl
two nucleotides of the two strands will break. detection technique has made it possible to
20. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can identify the sex of developing foetus by
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constant due to a pairing of purine (adenine and after the termination codon are termed as
and guanine) and pyrimidine (cytosine and untranslated sequences. Untranslated regions
thymine). This specific bonding gives uniform are one of the crucial gene expression
width to the DNA. regulators. They provide stability of mRNA
and elevates translational efficiency too.
22. (b) Alfred Sturtevant was the first to explain
the concept of chromosomal mapping. It is 29. (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and it
constructed on the basis of recombination can be corrected as
frequency between gene pairs on the same The cells of III, i.e. tapetum are multinucleate
chromosome. This frequency is directly and polyploid. These are nutritive in function.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 103
30. (b) After implantation finger-like projections male progeny while the female progenies are
appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi either carrier or unaffected.
(A). They are surrounded by uterine tissue (B) Hence, it is sex- linked recessive disease. From
and maternal blood. the given options only haemophilia is sex
31. (a) Vasa efferentia arises from rete testis and linked recessive disease while
opens into narrow closely coiled tubule lying phenylketonuria, thalassemia are autosomal
in testis called epididymis which stores linked recessive disorder and myotonic
sperms. Thus, if vasa efferentia gets blocked dystrophy is autosomal dominant disorder.
then sperms will not be transported from testes 38. (c) Father Mother
to epididymis. IA IA × i i
32. (a) Anemophily is the mode for transferring
pollen grain from a mature anther to stigma % IA IA
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&
accomplished by pollinating agent, i.e. wind. i A
I i IAi
Anemophilic flowers are colourless, odourless
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i IAi IAi
and nectarless. Also the pollens are light and
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non-sticky whereas stigma is large and Thus, the baby of this couple will have A blood
feathery.
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group only.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
39. (c) Polysome is a string of ribosomes associated
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33. (b) Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) is method with a single mRNA. Polysome helps to
of ART in which the semen collected either produce a number of copies of the same
from donor or husband is artificially polypeptide.
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introduced into the vagina or into the uterus of
40. (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and
female.
can be corrected as
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34. (c) AIDS and hepatitis-B are sexually The coding sequences or expressed sequences
transmitted diseases, which do not specifically are called exons. Intervening sequences or
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affect reproductive organs. AIDS affects the non-coding sequences in an unprocessed RNA
overall immune system of the individual and are called introns.
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contrasting characters shows only one releasing energy after dissociating the
character without any blending.
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phosphate group.
When plants having two contrasting characters 42. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect. It can
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RNA polymerase.
stay together and only one of them is
expressed. At the time of formation of gametes, 43. (a) Since, genes A and B are more close than
these two factors obviously separate or genes A and C, therefore gene A has to be
segregate, otherwise recessive type will not present before genes B and C with gene B
appear in F2-generation. The gametes which present in between genes A and C.
are formed are always pure for a particular Other options are incorrect and can be
character. That is why it is called as principle corrected as
of segregation or law of purity of gametes. l Gene C is not present between genes A and B.
37. (c) The given cross show the transmission l More crosses would occur between A and C
mutant gene from carrier female to some of the than A and B.
104 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
44. (c) In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on 52. (c) Non-invasive techniques are available to
when lactose is present. The events which occurs determine the foetal condition. These
in the presence of lactose are techniques does not harm the foetus.
(i) Lactose acts as an inducer which binds to the Therefore, ultrasound imaging is a
repressor and forms an inactive repressor. non-invasive technique.
(ii) The repressor fails to bind to the operator 53. (a) The hormones secreted by structure Y or
region. placenta to maintain pregnancy are hCG,
hPL, progestogens and oestrogens.
(iii) The RNA polymerase binds to the operator
and transcript lac mRNA. 54. (b) human Placental Lactogen (hPL) is also
known as human Chorionic
45. (b) The given sequence of steps will be Somatomamotropin (hCS), it stimulates the
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Transcription Splicing growth of mammary glands during
DNA ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® hnRNA ¾ ¾ ¾¾®
pregnancy. hCG stimulate corpus luteum to
mRNA ¾Translation
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¾ ¾ ¾¾® Proteins secrete progestogen and oestrogen.
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46. (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as Progesterone support foetal growth maintain
Repetitive DNA sequences are stretches of DNA pregnancy and inhibit utrine contraction.
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sequences that are repeated many times, 55. (b) The given cross Aa bb DD X aa bb dd, is
sometimes hundred to thousand times. a trihybrid cross, accordingly the type of
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Rest of the options are correct. offspring produced would be,
47. (c) There are about 1.4 million locations where AabbDD aabbdd Parents
single base DNA differences occurs. These
ch ×
genes are promoters, terminators, operators and one extra copy of chromosome number 21.
repressor. 57. (d) The ‘G’ is formed by the fusion of YR and
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To regulate the process of transcription, yR, hence has the genotype of YyRR.
transcription factors (a sequence of specific Similarly plant ‘W’ is formed by the fusion
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DNA-binding factor) alone or with other of yR and YR and also has the same
proteins, promote (as an activator) or stop the genotype of YyRR.
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49. (b) The labels X and Y represent uterine wall and 58. (c) In the given tRNA, A, B, C and D
placenta, respectively. represents A–Amino acid arm B–T-loop,
C–Variable arm and D–UAC. Since, it is
50. (a) Z represents amniotic fluid which helps the
tRNA here uracil will bind with adenine
developing baby to move inside the mother’s
instead of thymine.
SAMPLE PAPER 3
SAMPLE PAPER 4
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
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General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
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(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
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3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
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1. Seed is a result of
(a) meiotic division occurring in an unfertilised ovule
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2. Identify A, B and C given in the figure of an embryo sac by choosing correct labelling
nl
A
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B
SAMPLE PAPER 4
3. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy
and geitonogamy.
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
4. To achieve 3-celled stage in angiosperms, which cell of the pollen grain divides to form
two male gametes?
(a) Vegetative cell
(b) Generative cell
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(c) Microspore mother cell
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(d) None of the above
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5. Which of the following statements are true for the given structures X and Y.
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Carpels
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Stigma
ch
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Structure X Structure Y
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Codes
(a) I and III (b) III and IV
(c) II and III (d) I, II and IV
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II. The extrusion of second polar body from nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm
and completion of fertilisation.
III. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation under the control of FSH and
SAMPLE PAPER 4
testosterone.
IV. A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is the formation of second polar body.
V. The secondary oocyte in the Graafian follicle forms a new membrane called zona
pellucida surrounding it.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I, II, III and V (b) I and III
(c) Only III (d) II, III, IV and V
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 107
7. The figure given below represents embryonic development. Select from the options
given below, the correct explanation for the labelled parts A, B, C and D.
B
C
A
A B C D
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(a) A– represents the fertilised zygote (b) B– represents stage of morula formation
(c) C– represents blastocyst (d) D– represents blastocyst implantation
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8. Cleavage is the rapid mitotic division occurring on the way through isthmus to
oviduct. It occurs in
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(a) gametes (b) zygote
(c) sperm (d) ova
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9. Mammary glands are considered to be the part of reproductive system in the female
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because
(a) mammary glands are the secondary sexual characters
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(b) they are well-developed in female and vestigial in male
(c) after puberty, breast size increases due to the secretion of oestrogen
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X Y Z
(a) Tubectomy Male Fallopian tubes
(b) Vasectomy Female Vas deferens
SAMPLE PAPER 4
11. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is assisted by reproductive
technology is called
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI (d) ET
108 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
12. Which among the following cannot be detected in a growing foetus with the help of
amniocentesis?
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Tetanus
(c) Colour blindness (d) Cystic fibrosis
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Codes
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
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(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and IV
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14. Identify the incorrect statement for sex-determination in humans.
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(a) Humans contain 23 pairs of autosomes
(b) Females produce only one type of ovum
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(c) Genetic makeup of sperm determine the sex of the child
(d) In males, two types of gametes are produced
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15. A colourblind man, whose parents had normal vision and whose paternal and
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maternal grandparents had normal vision, probably he inherited the gene for colour
blindness from his
(a) maternal or paternal grandmother (b) maternal or paternal father
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16. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine
development, gynaecomastia and is sterile?
d
17. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups,
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(a) Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group
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(b) Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group
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(c) Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group
(d) Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group
18. Which of the following statements about Griffith’s experiment are correct?
SAMPLE PAPER 4
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21. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac i gene products
o
is
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(a) positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
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(b) negative and inducible because its repressor protein prevents transcription
(c) negative and repressible because its repressor protein prevents transcription
(d) feedback inhibition because excess of b-galactosidase can switch off transcription
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22. Mendel selected pea plant to carry out his experiments because pea plant has all
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characters. Identify and choose from the options below, the character that is not
Mendelian.
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Characters Dominant Recessive
(a) Flower position Axillary Terminal
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23. Observe the diagram given below and answer the question that follows.
d
Bacteriophage
Radioactive ( 32P) labelled DNA
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Infection
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Blending
SAMPLE PAPER 4
Centrifugation
Hershey and Chase used 35 S and 32 P to prove that DNA is the genetic material. Their
experiments proved that DNA is genetic material because
(a) progeny viruses retained 32 P, but not 35 S
(b) retention of 32 P in progeny viruses indicated that DNA was passed on
(c) loss of 35 S in progeny viruses indicated that proteins were not passed on
(d) All of the above
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III. Synthesis of RNA primer.
IV. Activation of deoxyribonucleotides.
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V. Formation of chain.
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VI. Proofreading and DNA repair.
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VII. Attachment of DNA polymerase enzyme at the ori site.
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Select the correct arrangement of events occurring during replication.
(a) III ® I ® VII ® II ® V ® IV ® VI (b) VII ® IV ® I ® III ® II ® V ® VI
(c) VII ® III ® I ® II ® V ® IV ® VI (d) I ® III ® II ® VII ® IV ® V ® VI
ch
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Section B
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
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(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
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Reason (R) The only way to prevent self-pollination in bisexual flowers is self sterility.
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26. Assertion (A) Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy causes in
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expulsion.
Reason (R) Stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion
results in stronger contractions.
SAMPLE PAPER 4
27. Assertion (A) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from meeting
physically.
Reason (R) Barrier methods can be used during intercourse to prevent the entry of
ejaculated semen into the reproductive tract of the female.
28. Assertion (A) Pairing and segregation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the
separation of a pair of factors that they carry.
Reason (R) Two alleles from a pair of genes are located on similar sites of
non-homologous chromosomes.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 111
A D
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Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) B – Antrum is fluid-filled cavity found in it
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(b) C – Primary oocyte completes its Ist meiotic division inside it
.c
(c) F – Haploid cell formed after Ist meiotic division
(d) D – Mature tertiary follicle which ruptures during ovulation
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30. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large numbers and its
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stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by
(a) insects (b) water (c) wind (d) animals
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31. A pregnant women recently visited a gynaecologist and was suggested to get a blood
test. which of the following hormones will be increased in blood due to gonadotropin
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activity in a normal pregnent female.
(a) High levels of FSH and LH stimulate the thickening of endometrium
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32. A married couple want to follow a birth control measure which is easy to use and have
d
Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the most effective
and reliable in this case?
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(c) cellular thickening at synergid cells (d) cellular thickening at nuclear end
35. Small, inconspicuous flowers which are colourless and without nectar are the
characteristics of
(a) anemophilous flowers (b) ornithophilous flowers
(c) chiropterophilous flowers (d) entomophilous flowers
36. A cross between pure tall pea plant with green pods and dwarf pea plant with yellow
pods will produce ............ tall F2 plants out of 16.
(a) 15 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) 13
112 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
37. Rrrr (progeny) Red (dominant) flowered (heterozygous) were crossed with white
flower (rrrr). The result will be
(a) 350 red: 350 white (b) 450 red: 250 white
(c) 380 red: 320 white (d) None of these
38. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and white flowered
individual, phenotype in the progeny is dwarf and white. What will be the genotype of
tall and red flowered individual?
(a) TTRR (b) TtRR (c) TtRr (d) TTRr
39. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal, but carrier female to
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only some of the male progeny, the disease is
(a) autosomal dominant (b) autosomal recessive
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(c) sex-linked dominant (d) sex-linked recessive
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40. There are five daughters and no son in a family. It may be due to
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(a) father produced only X containing sperms
(b) father produced no sperms at all
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(c) Y type sperms are weaker and not effective
(d) by chance each time X sperm fertilised the egg
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41. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize
plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridised, the F2 segregation will show
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(a) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
(b) segregation in 3:1 ratio
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42. In a DNA, percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be the percentage of guanine?
d
43. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of
base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 ´10 9 bp , then the
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A B C D
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5′ 3′
A B C D
(a) Methylated cap Initiation codon Termination codon Poly A tail
SAMPLE PAPER 4
46. It took .............years to study the human genome project entirely and it was completed
in ......... .
(a) 12, 2013 (b) 13, 2003 (c) 10, 2000 (d) 3, 1993
47. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
(a) translocation (b) inversion (c) crossing over (d) duplication
48. Identify the RNA strand transcribed from the below transcription unit along with its
polarity.
A T GC A T GC A T A C
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U A C G U A C G U A U G U A C G U A C G U A T G
(a) (b)
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5′ 3′ 3′ 5′
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U T C G U A C G U A T G U A C G U A G C A A T G
(c) (d)
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5′ 3′ 5′ 3′
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Section C
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(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54).
Besides this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted
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10 questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows
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X
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Y
Z
d
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W
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49. The labelled part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen is
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52. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule is
(a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument (b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg (d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus
114 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
54. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing
meiosis and if one of the megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be
(a) haploid (b) diploid
(c) a few haploid and a few diploid (d) with varying ploidy
55. ‘A’ is a sex-linked recessive disorder which occur due to mutation in certain genes
present in the X-chromosome. Identify ‘A’
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(a) Klinefelter (b) Haemophilia
(c) Phenylketonuria (d) Thalassemia
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56. The given figure represents karyotype of an individual who inflicts with this
chromosomal disorder.
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1 2 3 4 5
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6 7 8 9 10 11 12
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13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
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or
21 22
XY 23 XX
d
Choose the correct statement regarding those who suffer from this chromosomal
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disorder.
(a) This disorder occurs due to failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division
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male female
XX XXc XY XcY
Offspring Normal Normal Normal Colourblind
daughter daughter son son
(Carrier)
Inactive repressor
(a) Lac A (b) b-galactosidase
(c) Amylase (d) Lipases
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59. Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic cell.
o
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DNA polymerase (A) RNA splicing (B)
DNA hn RNA Spliced RNA
Methyl
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guanosine
triphosphate (D)
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mRNA (C)
5′ 3′
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What would be the result if step (D) does not occur during this process?
(a) Transcription is halted/affected (b) Translation is affected
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(c) Translation is increased (d) None of these
Paternal chromosome
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Maternal chromosome
Chromosome 7 Chromosome 7
d
Chromosome 2 Chromosome 2
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Chromosome 16 Chromosome 16
DNA from individual A DNA from individual B
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Number of short C A B
Number of short tandem repeats
tandem repeats 12
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11
0 1 10
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9
8
Chromosome 7 7
6
5
Chromosome 2
SAMPLE PAPER 4
4
3
2
Chromosome 16 1
Unknown DNA sample (C) Amplified repeats, separated by size on a gel
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
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Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
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Multiple markings are invalid.
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1 21 41
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2 22 42
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3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25
ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
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8 28 48
9 29 49
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10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
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14 34 54
15 35 55
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16 36 56
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17 37 57
18 38 58
do
19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
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1. (b) Seed is a result of mitotic division occurring start with the same tissues, but normally only
in a fertilised egg. females generate the correct hormonal signals
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2. (c) A represents antipodals. They provide to promote development of this glands at
.c
nourishment to egg cell. puberty. Thus, these are vestigial in males. Its
size increases due to the secretion of oestrogen.
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B represents polar nuclei. They act as food
supply unit for seed in dormancy after Hence, option (d) is correct.
fertilisation. 10. (d) Tubectomy is the surgical method in
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C represents synergids. They guide the entry females in which small part of Fallopian tube is
of pollen tube and release of sperm cells. removed surgically. These techniques are
3. (b) Dioecious plants (bearing only male or
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highly effective, but poorly reversible.
female flowers) prevent both autogamy and 11. (c) ICSI (Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is
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geitonogamy. a specialised procedure to form an embryo in
4. (b) The generative cell of a pollen grain divides laboratory. In this process a sperm is directly
injected into the ovum placed in a nutrient
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5. (a) Both the given structures are the pistil of 12. (b) Amniocentesis is a procedure to detect
different flowers. In which structure X is genetic disorders like Down’s syndrome,
syncarpous and structure Y is apocarpous colour blindness, etc., by using the sample
d
while both are multicarpellary. collected from the amniotic fluid of the
expecting mother.
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6. (d) Statements II, III, IV and V are correct. However, tetanus is not a genetic disorder thus
Statement I is incorrect and can be corrected as cannot be detected.
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Spermatogonia are diploid and spermatids are 13. (b) Statement I is correct. Statements II, III and
haploid. IV are incorrect and can be corrected as
nl
7. (d) From the given figure, it is clearly observed l A recessive allele is not weaker than the
that dominant allele.
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A represents fusion of male and female l A recessive allele does not show its effect
because of modified or different enzymes. A
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gametes
recessive allele can express in few cases, e.g.
B represents 2-celled blastomere
incomplete dominance.
C represents 8-celled blastomere
D represents blastocyst implantation l It is not necessary that dominant allele is
always better.
SAMPLE PAPER 4
16. (a) In Klinefelter’s syndrome, the affected 22. (d) Mendel selected pea plant as it had all the
individual has overall masculine development, seven characters which included stem height,
gynaecomastia and is sterile. This condition is flower colour, flower position, seed-shape,
due to the presence of an extra X-chromosome seed colour, pod-shape and pod colour.
in males. It can be represented by the karyotype However, leaf-shape was not included in
(44 + XXY). those characters.
17. (c) When both mother and father are 23. (d) Hershey and Chase used 35 S and 32 P to
heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups, prove that DNA is genetic material. Their
respectively. Then few of their progeny would experiments prove DNA as genetic material
have ‘O’ blood group. This can be explained as because
Father Mother 32 35
Parents
(i) Progeny viruses retained P, but not S.
(B group) (A group)
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32
I Bi I Ai (ii) Retention of P in progeny virus indicates
that DNA was passed on.
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(iii) Loss of 35 S in progeny viruses indicated
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Gametes IB i IA i that the proteins were not passed on.
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24. (b) The correct sequence of events which occur
during replication is
F1-generation I A I B I Bi IAi ii
VII ® IV ® I ® III ® II ® V ® VI
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'AB' blood 'B' blood 'A' blood 'O' blood
group group group group DNA polymerase enzyme attaches at the ori
ch site and activation of deoxyribonucleotides
18. (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct. Statement
occurs. The DNA strands are exposed and
III is incorrect and can be corrected as
synthesis of RNA primer occurs on the
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Transforming principle is associated with template DNA. Base pairing occurs which
genetic material of S-strain. leads to chain formation and elongation.
19. (c) UTRs present on mRNA refer to Proofreading and DNA repair is done at the
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(before start codon) and 3¢ end (after stop 25. (c) A is true, but R is false.
codon). These are the additional sequences that In unisexual flowers like hemp, cross
are not translated. These are required for pollination becomes obligatory.
efficient translation process.
d
20. (a) Double-stranded RNA have more stability self-pollination can be prevented by self
than the single-stranded DNA. sterility, dichogamy, heterostyly, etc. Plants in
If double-stranded RNA is formed during which pollen of a flower is unable to bring
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transcription, then it would be difficult to about fertilisation in same flower are called
separate the strands of RNA, due to which the self sterile.
nl
translation will be halted. 26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation for A.
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The repressor binds to the operator gene and acts on uterine muscle and cause stronger
stops its working. Repressor is meant to block uterine contractions. The stimulatory reflex
the operator gene, so that structural genes are between uterine contraction and oxytocin
unable to form mRNA, thus stopping the secretion continues, resulting in stronger
transcription of genes. contraction.
On the other hand, lactose operon is inducible 27. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
operon system. It is a regulated unit of genetic explanation of A.
material which is switched on in response to Barrier methods include preventing the sperms
the presence of a chemical. and ovum to meet physically.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 119
m
and the two alleles from a pair of genes are progeny with white flower is shown below
located on similar sites of a homologous Rrrr × rrrr
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(Red dominant) (White recessive)
chromosome.
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rr rr
29. (a) Option (a) contains the incorrect match. It
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can be corrected as Rrrr Rrrr
Rr
(Red) (Red)
Antrum is the fluid-filled cavity which is
found in tertiary follicle or Graafian follicle rr rrrr rrrr
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(White) (White)
(C and D).
Rest of the matches are correct. Ratio Red : White
30. (c) Wind pollination requires light and
ch 1 : 1
350 : 350
non-sticky pollen grains so that, they can be
Thus, option (a) is correct.
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transported with wind currents and its stigma
are long and feathery to easily trap airborne 38. (c) Recessive allele in a zygote appears only if
pollen grains. both of its parents have this allele, i.e. they are
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the statements are incorrect and can be Thus, individual would have TtRr genotype.
corrected as 39. (d) The sex-linked recessive disease shows its
l High levels of FSH and LH stimulates transmission from unaffected carrier female to
d
ovulation not the thickening of endometrium some of the male progeny, e.g haemophilia.
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32. (b) Use of physical barriers like condoms are haemophilic is extremly rare because mother of
easily available and have least side effects and such a female has to be at least carrier and
nl
33. (a) Implants are inserted under the skin of the 40. (d) There are five daughters and no son in the
inner arm above the elbow. These steroid family because by chance, each time X sperm
do
finger-like cellular thickening of synergid If two closely located genes show linkage, they
cells. It guards the pollen tube inside the do not show crossing over and result in
ovule towards the embryo sac. formation of higher number of the parental
35. (a) Small, inconspicuous flowers which are type.
colourless, odourless and nectarless are 42. (c) According to Chargaff’s rule, the ratio of
characters of anemophilous flowers (flowers purine bases to pyrimidine bases is equal.
pollinated by wind). A=T;C=G
36. (c) Tall is dominant over dwarf and yellow If T is 20% then A is 20% similarly C and G are
pods are dominant over green pods. 30% each.
120 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
43. (b) The distance between two consecutive base 52. (b) Starting from the innermost part, the
pairs is 0.34 nm (0.34×10 -9m). The length of correct sequence of parts in an ovule is egg,
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell embryo sac, nucellus and integument.
can be calculated by multiplying the total 53. (c) Micropyle is found in both seed and ovule.
number of bp with distance between the two In seed, it is the pore through which water
consecutive bp, i.e. 6.6 ´10 9 bp ´ 0 .34 ´ 10 -9 goes inside during germination. In ovule, the
m/bp = 2.2 m (the length of DNA). absence of integument forms micropyle.
Thus, option (b) is correct.
54. (b) If MMC (Megaspore mother cell) forms
44. (c) In the given figure megaspores without meiosis, the megaspores
A–Methylated cap will be diploid (2n). If this diploid megaspore
B–Non-coding region develops into embryo sac its nuclei would also
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C–Coding region be diploid except for the polar cell which
D–Poly A tail would be tetraploid.
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45. (a) Hershey and Chase grew some viruses on a Hence, option (b) is correct.
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medium that contained radioactive 55. (b) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
phosphorus ( 32 P) and some others on medium
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disorder which occurs due to the mutation in
that contained radioactive sulphur ( 35 S). certain genes which are involved in blood
Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive clotting. This defect mostly affect males as they
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phosphorus contained radioactive DNA, but have only one X-chromosome whereas females
not radioactive protein because DNA contains remain carrier.
phosphorus, but protein coat lacks it. ch
56. (a) The given karyotype is of a person
Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive suffering from Down’s syndrome. This
sulphur contained radioactive protein coat but
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syndrome occurs due to failure of segregation
not radioactive DNA because DNA does not of chromatids during cell division resulting in
contain sulphur. a gain of chromosome.
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46. (b) Human genome project was completed in 57. (b) Colour-blindness is a X-linked recessive
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separation of a chromosome segment and its This defect mostly affect male because the gene
for colour blindness is located on
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carrier.
U A C G U A C G U A U G
58. (b) The gene product of lac z is b-galactosidase
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SAMPLE PAPER 5
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
m
General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
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(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
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3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)
1. An ovule is a
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2. The given diagram shows discharge of gametes in the egg apparatus. Identify the
labelled parts as A, B and C.
nl
A
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B
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C
SAMPLE PAPER 5
3. Advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) higher genetic variability (b) more vigorous offspring
(c) no dependence on pollinators (d) vivipary
4. Flowers, which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are
usually pollinated by
(a) water (b) bee (c) wind (d) bat
om
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X Y
I. X is a type of pistil present in Michelia. ch
II. X is a type of pistil present in Papaver.
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III. Y is a type of pistil present in Michelia.
IV. Y is a type of pistil present in Papaver.
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Codes
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(a) I and III (b) II and IV (c) II and III (d) I and IV
temperature.
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II. Each testicular lobule contains 5 to 6 highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which
sperms are produced.
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III. Seminiferous tubule is the structural and functional unit of testes in which sperms
are produced.
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(a) I and III (b) I and II (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
A B
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10. Lactational amenorrhea is the
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(a) absence of menses in adult age (b) absence of menses in elderly age
.c
(c) absence of menses during lactation (d) no menses during pregnancy
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11. The following graph shows relative concentrations of the four hormones present in the
blood plasma of a woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones A, B, C
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and D.
ch
C
Increasing concentration
D
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B
of hormone
A
m
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 2122 23 24 25 26 27 28
Days
d
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
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(c) 2 : 1 : 1 (d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
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14. Select the incorrect statements from the options given below with respect to dihybrid
cross.
I. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
II. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
III. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II, III and IV
124 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
15. A person with type A blood group may safely receive a transfusion of
(a) type-AB (b) type-A and type-O
(c) type-A and type-AB (d) type-AB and type-O
16. The popular blood grouping, called the ABO grouping, is named ABO and not ABC.
The ‘O’ in it, refers to having.
(a) Overdominance of this type of genes for A and B types
(b) No antigens of A and B on RBCs
(c) Either anti-A or anti-B on RBCs
(d) Other antigens beside A and B on RBCs
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17. Two columns I and II are given below where Column I contains some scientist names
while Column II contains their discoveries. Identify the incorrectly matched pair of
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scientist and his discovery.
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Column I Column II
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(Scientists ) (Discoveries)
(a) Gregor J Mendel Law of inheritance
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(b) Sutton and Boveri Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(c) Henking Discovered X-body
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(d) de Vries Linkage
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18. DNA fingerprinting involves separation of negatively charged DNA fragments based
on their size using
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19. Which among the following is a factor due to which the two strands of a long DNA
molecule fail to separate in its entire length?
d
22. The human chromosome with the highest number of genes in them is
(a) chromosome 21 (b) chromosome X
(c) chromosome 1 (d) chromosome Y
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 125
23. The result of which of the following reaction experiments carried out by Avery et al., on
Streptococcus pneumoniae has proved conclusively that DNA is the genetic material?
(a) Live R-strain + DNA from S-strain + RNase
(b) Live R-strain + DNA from S-strain + DNase
(c) Live R-strain + Denatured DNA of S-strain + Protease
(d) Heat-killed R-strain + DNA from S-strain + DNase
24. Identify the RNA and its amino acid which will activate due to the presence of UAC on
mRNA.
B
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A
U A C
ch
Site A Site B
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(a) AUG tyr
(b) tyr AUG
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Section B
d
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
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Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
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(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
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28. Assertion (A) If the base sequence of one DNA strand is known, the sequence of other
DNA strand can be predicted.
Reason (R) Both the DNA strands are complementary in nature.
29. A pouch commonly known as scrotum, enclosed the human testes outside the
abdominal cavity. What is the purpose served by scrotum?
(a) Acceleration of maturation of sperms
(b) Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
(c) Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the body temperature
(d) Providing a secondary sexual feature in order to exhibit the male sex
m
30. Xenogamy involves transfer of pollen grain from the anther of a flower to the stigma of
different flower. Which of the following can be exemplified under xenogamy?
o
I. Papaya II. Mirabilis
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III. Oxalis IV. Maize
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Codes
(a) Only I (b) I and II
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(c) Only III (d) I and IV
31. ‘Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma is known as pollination’. Many events
ch
occur in order to achieve fertilisation. Here, some statements are given regarding those
events. Choose the correct statement.
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(a) Pollination gives the guarantee of the promotion of post-pollination events that lead to
fertilisation
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(b) The events ‘from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule’ are
together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction
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32. Which of the following contraception are made up of rubber and are inserted into the
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(a) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division
(b) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
(c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division
(d) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
SAMPLE PAPER 5
34. In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures are
(a) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
(b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
(c) antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
(d) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 127
35. If an endosperm has 36 number of chromosomes then find out the number of
chromosome in an male and female gamete.
(a) 18, 18 (b) 17, 18
(c) 20, 20 (d) 12, 12
36. Mendel’s principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive
(a) one pair of alleles
(b) one quarter of the genes
(c) either one allele from father or one allele from mother
(d) any pair of alleles
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37. The number of different genotypes observed in the F2 -generation of a dihybrid cross
are
o
(a) 9 (b) 12
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(c) 4 (d) 6
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38. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of disorder in humans.
Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?
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Female
(mother)
Male
(father)
ch
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Daughter Son
m
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(a) 44 autosomes and XXY sex chromosome (b) 44 autosomes and XO sex chromosome
(c) 44 autosomes and XYY sex chromosome (d) 44 autosomes and XXX sex chromosome
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40. A man whose father was colourblind marries a woman, who had a colourblind mother
and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be
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colourblind ?
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41. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one trait. The phenomenon is
called
(a) multiple allelism (b) mosaicism
SAMPLE PAPER 5
44. If the percentage of cytosine is 18% then what will be percentage of adenine?
(a) 32% (b) 64%
(c) 36% (d) 23%
45. Which of the following option shows the correctly labelled region in the given DNA
replication fork?
Template DNA
(parental strands)
Continuous 5′ Discontinuous
5′
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synthesis synthesis
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5′ 5′
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3′ 3′
B
A
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(a) Only A (b) Only B
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
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46. In prokaryotes, control of the rate of ...A... is the pre-dominant site for the control of
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gene expression. In a transcription unit, the activity of ...B... at a given promoter is in
turn regulated by interaction with ...C... proteins, which affect its ability to recognise
the start sites.
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Complete the statement by filling the correct options in given blanks.
(a) A–RNA replication, B–DNA polymerase, C–accessory
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47. The fact that a purine always paired with a pyrimidine through hydrogen bonds. This
d
leads to
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48. Given below is the model of lac operon showing events in the presence of inducer.
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Transcription
Inducer
(Inactive repressor)
But if the inducer is absent, then which of the following event will not occur
(a) i gene regulates and produces repressor mRNA which translates repressor
(b) the repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and as a result prevent
RNA polymerase to bind to the operon
(c) the operon is switched ON
(d) Both (a) and (b)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 129
Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions that follows
B
tRNA
o m
.c
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A U G
U A C mRNA
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5¢ 3¢
Codes
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51. The presence of an adapter molecule that would on one hand read the code and on the
other hand attach to particular amino acids was postulated by
nl
54. In the protein synthesis, tRNA carrying the amino acid enters from which site of the
ribosome?
(a) A-site (b) P-site
(c) Anticodon site (d) R-site
130 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
55. By choosing the correct option from the ones given below, correctly identify the parts
labelled as A, B and C in the given figure.
A
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A B C
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(a) Chalaza Nucellus Micropyle
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(b) Chalaza Embryo sac Micropyle
(c) Micropyle Nucellus Chalaza
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(d) Micropyle Embryo sac Chalaza
C
B
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A
Positive feedback
receptors on
C
uterus
Stimulates more
contractions of uterus
SAMPLE PAPER 5
58. Choose the correct option for the labellings A, B, C and D given in the following
diagram.
C B
D
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(a) A– Testis–possesses 3-4 testicular lobule (b) B– Seminal vesicle–storage of sperm
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(c) C– Vas deferens–helps in sperm transfer (d) D– Prostate gland–secretes seminal fluid
.c
59. The given diagram X shows birth control method.
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ch
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X
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Read the given statements carefully and choose the correct option for X.
fro
Codes
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60. The chart given below shows embryonic development in various months of pregnancy.
nl
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
m
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.
o
.c
1 21 41
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2 22 42
3 23 43
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4 24 44
5 25 ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
8 28 48
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9 29 49
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10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
14 34 54
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15 35 55
16 36 56
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17 37 57
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18 38 58
do
19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
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1. (c) An ovule is an integumented 8. (d) The correct sequence of sperm formation is
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megasporangium found in angiosperms, Spermatogonia ® Spermatocyte ® Spermatid
.c
which develops into seeds after fertilisation. ® Spermatozoa.
Spermatogonia are present on the inside wall
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2. (d) In the diagram, A represents polar nuclei,
B represents male gametes, one them will fuse of seminiferous tubule which undergoes
with female gamete and other will fuse with mitotic division and increase their number.
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polar nuclei to form PEN (Primary Endosperm Primary spermatocytes are some of the
Nucleus), while C represents synergids cell. spermatogonia, which periodically undergo
meiosis and form secondary spermatocytes.
ch
3. (c) Cleistogamous flowers are not dependent These undergo the second meiotic division to
on pollinators. These are bisexual flowers produce four, equal haploid spermatids. The
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which never open, i.e. always remain closed. In spermatids are further transformed into
such flowers, the anthers and stigma lie very spermatozoa (sperm) and are finally released.
close to each other. When anthers dehisce in
m
autogamy occurs. So, these flowers produce Maternal pituitary secretes oxytocin during
assured seed set, even in the absence of parturition. It is not a function of the placenta.
pollinators. The functions of placenta are to supply oxygen
d
pistil of Papaver, while Y is multicarpellary, mother due to the absence of ovulation. This
apocarpous (free) pistil of Michelia.
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n Genes far apart on the same chromosome show 23. (b) R-strain is rough and harmless, while
higher recombinations. S-strain is smooth and virulent form of
n Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome Streptococcus pneumoniae. In their experiment,
show high recombinations than tightly linked Avery et al., found out that only when DNA
ones. from S-type bacteria was added to a culture of
Thus, option (d) is correct. R-type bacteria, R-type got converted to S-type
strain.
15. (b) A person with type A blood group may
receive blood A and O type. Blood transfusion This transformation of R into S-type did not
can be done either with the same group, i.e. A occur on addition of RNA or protein from
or O as O blood has no antigen and is S-type bacteria. Also, when DNase enzyme
considered as universal donor. was added, i.e. live R-strain + DNA (S-strain)
+ DNase, the transformation did not occur. It
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16. (b) The most popular blood grouping is named proved conclusively that DNA, indeed is the
ABO and not ABC as ‘O’, here refers to no genetic material.
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antigens on RBC, A and B blood groups have A
24. (a) The RNA and its amino acid which will
.c
and B antigens, respectively. The blood group
AB have both antigens A and B on RBCs. activate due to the presence of UAC on mRNA
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is AUG and tryosine.
17. (d) All the match pairs are correct except option
(d). Incorrect match pair can be corrected as 25. (c) A is true, but R is false.
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Linkage was first discovered by TH Morgan. Wall of the pollen grain is composed of two
layers, outer exine, which is a hard outer layer
18. (c) DNA fingerprinting involves separation of ch made up of sporopollenin and inner intine.
DNA fragments based on their size by using Only exine has sporopollenin depositions,
electrophoresis. intine is devoid of sporopollenin.
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In this technique, DNA samples are loaded into
well at one end and an electric current is 26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
applied to segregate them based on their size.
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tRNA. 27. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
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4 base paired stems and 3 loops and not five showing multiple allelism.
double-stranded regions. In ABO blood group system, IA and IB alleles
w
n tRNA looks like a clover leaf in the secondary present together, express their own
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21. (b) In mRNA of eukaryotes, exons appear, but pairings which are complementary to each
introns do not. This is because introns are other. Thus, if the base sequence of one strand
intervening or non-coding sequences and exons is known, the sequence of the other can be
are coding or expressed sequences. Through easily predicted.
splicing introns are removed and exons are
joined to form mRNA. 29. (c) Scrotum enclosed the human testes outside
the abdominal cavity to maintain the scrotal
22. (c) The human chromosomes having the temperature lower than the body temperature
highest number of genes, is chromosome 1 with by 2 to 2.5°C. Since, it favours the process of
2968 genes. spermatogenesis.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 135
30. (d) Xenogamy is a type of cross-pollination in formation of gametes. Half of the gametes
is transferred to stigma of another flower. It is carry one allele and other half carry other allele
observed in both maize and papaya. for a character.
31. (b) Statement in option (b) is correct. 37. (a) The genotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
corrected as Thus, we see that 9 different genotypes are
observed in the F2-generation.
n Pollination does not give the guarantee of the
promotion of post-pollination events that lead 38. (c) Haemophilia could be an example of this
to fertilisation. pattern. It is a sex-linked or X-linked disease.
n Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process The gene of haemophilia goes to son from
involving pollen recognition followed by mother and to daughter from father. In this
m
promotion or inhibition of the pollen. disease, the blood fails to clot when exposed
n The pistil has the ability to recognise the to air resulting in continuous bleeding that
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pollen, whether it is of the right type leads to death.
.c
(compatible) or of the wrong type (in
compatible). 39. (b) A person with Turner’s syndrome has
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44 autosomes and XO sex chromosome. Such
32. (d) Diaphragm, vaults and cervical caps are disorder is caused due to the absence of one of
made up of rubber and insertid into female the X-chromosome.
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reproductive tract to cover the cervix during
intercourse. 40. (c) Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive
genetic disorder involving the X-chromosome.
ch
33. (c) Option (c) contains the correct statement. Thus, according to the situation given in the
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be question, a man whose father was colourblind
corrected as
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will be normal, i.e. XY and a woman whose
n Spermatogonia are diploid cells present on the mother was colourblind and father was normal
inside wall of seminiferous tubules that is a carrier, i.e. XXC .
m
endosperm is 3n.
pleiotropy.
Number of chromosome in given endosperm
= 36 42. (c) There are two types of nitrogenous bases
36 purines (adenine and guanine) and
\Haploid number = = 12 pyrimidines (cytosine, uracil and thymine).
SAMPLE PAPER 5
3
Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA.
Male and female gametes are haploid in
Thymine is present in DNA whereas uracil is
nature. Therefore, they contain number (n) of
present in RNA at the place of thymine.
chromosomes, i.e. 12.
43. (b) Rate of DNA polymerisation of DNA
36. (c) Mendel’s principle of segregation means
polymerase is 2000 bp/s.
that the germ cells (gametes) always receive
either one allele from father or one allele from 44. (a) According to Chargaff’s rule, the ratio
mother. The law of segregation states that between adenine and thymine and guanine
hereditary characters in the form of allele and cytosine are constant and equal.
segregate from each other during the \ If Cytosine = 18%
136 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
m
A = 32% and nucellus are joined.
Hence, percentage of adenine will be 32%. 56. (c) A is nucellus. It acts as a nourishing tissue
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45. (b) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase for the growing embryo.
.c
catalyses polymerisation only in one direction B is Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC). It
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that is 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢. On one strand (the template develops into a female gametophyte.
with polarity 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢), the replication is C are megaspore dyad.
continuous, while on the other (the template
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with polarity 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢), it is discontinuous. 57. (b) A-Oestrogen, B- Oxytocin, C-Prostaglandin
During parturition, fully developed foetus
46. (b) A–transcriptional initiation, B–RNA ch sends signal which in turn induce mild uterine
polymerase, C–accessory contraction which result in stretching of cervix,
47. (c) The distance between the two strands of referred as foetal-ejection reflex. This
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the DNA helix is always uniform due to the stretching exert positive feedback on posterior
pairing of a purine (adenine and guanine) with pituitary to secrete oxytocin and prostaglandin
m
throughout the DNA. 58. (c) Option (c) is the correct whereas options (a),
48. (c) In absence of inducer (lactose), the operon (b) and (d) are incorrect and can be corrected as
is switched OFF as the repressor protein binds n Each testis (A) possesses about 250
d
prevents RNA polymerase to bind to the n Seminal vesicle (B) secretes mucus and a
operon. watery alkaline fluid rich in nutrients like
Hence, event given in option (c) will not occur fructose, citric acid, inositol and
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molecule of tRNA. But its 3D structure or 60. (a) Gestation period in human beings is of
compact form was identified by Klug in 1974. 9 months. In this time period, zygote develops
52. (c) tRNA was termed as sRNA (soluble RNA) from a cell to a fully grown foetus. The first
before the postulation of genetic code. Its role movement of foetus and appearance of hair on
as an adapter molecule was reported later. head are observed during 5th month of
53. (c) The difference between mRNA and tRNA is pregnancy while by the end of 6th month, its
that tRNA has more elaborated 3D structure body is covered with fine hair, eyelashes are
than mRNA due to the extensive base pairing. formed and eyelids starts to separate.
tRNA is also smaller than mRNA. Hence, option (a) is correct.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 137
SAMPLE PAPER 6
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
General Instructions
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1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
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(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
.c
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
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2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
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Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)
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1. Which among the following events takes place after double fertilisation?
(a) Pollen grain germinates on stigma
d
A
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B
SAMPLE PAPER 6
5. The diagram shown below represents the structure of flower. Which of the following
m
option is true for X, Y and Z?
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.c
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Y
x Z
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ch
(a) X is the site of pollination and Y is fertilisation site
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(b) Y is the pollination site and X is the site for fertilisation
(c) Y is the pollination site and Z is the fertilisation site
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6. Read the following statements about menstrual cycle and select the correct statements.
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Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
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7. The figure given below represents the human foetus within the uterus.
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A
SAMPLE PAPER 6
B
D
C
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 139
m
9. Which sequence of events is correct?
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(a) Menstruation ® Ovulation ® Fertilisation ® Implantation
.c
(b) Menstruation ® Ovulation ® Implantation ® Fertilisation
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(c) Ovulation ® Menstruation ® Fertilisation ® Implantation
(d) Ovulation ® Menstruation ® Implantation ® Fertilisation
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10. Which of the following contraceptive methods has poor reversibility?
ch
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
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11. Pills have to be taken daily for period of …A… days, starting preferably within first
five days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of …B… days, it has to be repeated in the
d
same pattern.
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(c) 12 (d) 27
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I. It is a dominant disease.
II. It is a recessive disease.
III. A single protein involved in blood clotting is affected.
SAMPLE PAPER 6
14. Among the following, which cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s law of
dominance?
(a) Factors control a particular trait
(b) Out of a pair of factors, one is dominant and other is recessive
(c) Factors always occur in pair
(d) Alleles do not show any blending. Both characters recover as such in F1 -generation
15. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, when heterozygous round yellow are self- crossed, round
green offspring are represented by the genotype
(a) RrYy, RrYY, RRYy (b) Rryy, RRyy, rryy
(c) rrYy, rrYY (d) Rryy, RRyy
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16. ZZ-ZW type of sex-determination found in
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(a) honeybee (b) moths
.c
(c) fishes (d) butterflies
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17. A tall plant and a small plant are crossed and produce offspring that are all tall. What
is the genotype of the offspring and to which generation do they belong?
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Genotypes Generations
(a) Heterozygous F1 ch
(b) Heterozygous F2
(c) Homozygous F1
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(d) Homozygous F2
18. Read the statements given below and select the correct option.
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IV. The double helical structure of nucleic acid is a consequence of its secondary
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structure.
Codes
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19. What is the difference in the transformation experiment of Griffith and that of Avery,
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22. Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the
double helix model for the structure of DNA?
(a) Rosalind Franklin (b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Erwin Chargaff (d) Meselson and Stahl
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23. Observe the sequence of nucleotides in the given segment of mRNA and the respective
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amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain to answer the following question.
.c
mRNA AUG UUU AUG CCU GUU UCU UAA
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Polypeptide Met→Phe→Met→Pro→Val→Ser
Nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand from which this mRNA was transcribed is
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(a) TAC AAA TAC GGA CAA AGA ATT
(b) AUG UUU AUG CCU GUU UCU UAA ch
(c) UAC AAA UAC GGA CAA AGA AUU
(d) ATG TTT ATG CCT GTT TCT TAA
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24. Which term describes the alternative forms of a factor controlling a particular
m
characteristic?
(a) Alleles (b) Genes
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Section B
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
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(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
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28. Assertion (A) Cutting the DNA sequences of two different people using the same
restriction enzyme yields different fragments of variable length.
Reason (R) DNA sequence is arranged tandemly in many copy numbers that varies
from chromosome to chromosome in an individual.
29. Observe the diagram of sperm shown below and answer the question regarding it.
Head
Neck
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Body
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.c
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Tail
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ch
Regarding male pronucleus which among the following statement is correct?
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I. Only the sperm nucleus enter the ovum during fertilisation.
II. Both head and neck of sperm contribute to pronucleus formation.
m
Codes
(a) Only II (b) III and IV (c) Only I (d) II and IV
d
30. Among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the
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gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, Ovule, Embryo sac, Placenta (b) Thalamus, Pistil, Style, Ovule
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(c) Ovule, Ovary, Embryo sac, Tapetum (d) Ovule, Stamen, Ovary, Embryo sac
32. During parturition, the prolonged pain faced by the mother has to be relieved. It is
advisable to administer a hormone that can
(a) relax the pelvic ligaments (b) decrease the metabolic rate
SAMPLE PAPER 6
33. A female has accidently conceived a baby due to failure of contraceptive. She is willing
to get an abortion done. MTP is of much risk in which phase of pregnancy?
(a) 2nd trimester (b) 1st trimester (c) 1st week (d) 2nd week
34. Spermicidal creams are used in addition to condoms, diaphragms, cervical cap and
vaults for
(a) lubrication (b) killing germs
(c) increasing contraceptive effectiveness (d) None of these
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 143
35. In an angiospermic plant, the number of mitotic divisions, required to form 200 pollens
are
(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 50 (d) 400
36. What will be the genetic constitution of the offspring of a cross of individuals
heterozygous (Zz) for an allele?
(a) All ZZ (b) All zz
(c) 1/2 ZZ: 1/2 zz (d) 1/4 ZZ: 1/2 Zz : 1/4 zz
37. When heterozygous red (dominant) flower is crossed with white flower the progeny
would be
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(a) 100 red : 100 white (b) 450 red : 250 white
(c) 380 red : 320 white (d) None of these
o
.c
38. If a tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant and obtained progeny is half tall and half
dwarf plants. Then, the genotype of the progeny will be
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(a) TT ´ tt (b) Tt ´ tt (c) TT ´ Tt (d) Tt ´ Tt
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39. If a character is always transmitted directly from the father to all his sons and from
their sons to all their sons, then which chromosome carries the gene for the character?
(a) Autosomes (b) X-chromosome
ch
(c) Y-chromosome (d) None of these
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40. Parents of blood groups O and AB cannot have a child of group AB because
(a) gene A or B is absent in one of the parent
m
41. Which of the following cross will produce terminal flower in garden pea?
d
42. In one polynucleotide strand of a DNA molecule, the ratio of A + T/G + C is 0.7. What is
the A + G/T + C ratio of the entire DNA molecule?
oa
43. Find out the number of base pairs in E. coli DNA, if its DNA is 1.36 mm long.
(a) 4 ´ 10 6 bp (b) 3 ´ 10 6 bp
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(c) 2 ´ 10 6 bp (d) 7 ´ 10 6 bp
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45. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment using E. coli, the duration between the appearance
of equal amounts of light and heavy DNA was
(a) two generations (b) 30 minutes
(c) 20 minutes (d) four generations
144 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
46. Enzyme …A… acts over the ori site and unwinds the two strands of DNA by
destroying …B… bonds.
(a) A-helicase, B-glycosidic (b) A-helicase, B-hydrogen
(c) A-unwindase, B-phosphodiester (d) A-helicase, B-phosphodiester
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48. From the diagram shown below, identify which children belong to the parents?
o
.c
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ch
te
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Section C
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(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
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this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10
questions would be evaluated.)
nl
Observe the diagram given below and answer the following questions regarding
w
Negative feedback
Positive feedback
Uterus
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(a) Fallopian tube, ova production (b) Fallopian tube, fertilisation
(c) ovary, fertilisation (d) ovary, ova production
o
.c
53. Which hormone induces the rupture of Graafian follicle?
(a) Hormone A (b) Hormone B
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(c) Hormone D (d) Both hormones A and B
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54. Which hormone’s increasing level will have a bad effect on hormone B?
(a) GnRH (b) Progesterone
(c) GH
ch
(d) Erythropoitin
56. The DNA fingerprinting analysis of four family members is shown below.
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W X Y Z
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w
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SAMPLE PAPER 6
Study the obtained band pattern and assign designation to each family member W, X,
Y and Z.
(a) W – Father X – Mother
Y – Child Z – Paternal uncle
(b) W – Child X – Father
Y – Mother Z – Maternal uncle
(c) W – Father X – Child
Y – Mother Z – Paternal uncle
(d) W – Child X – Father
Y – Maternal uncle Z – Mother
146 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
A B C D
a b c d
a b c d
m
(c) B and c, b and C (d) A and d, a and D
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58. Refer to the polypeptide chain, that is being translated by mRNA.
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Met - Pro - Lys - Gly - Arg -Cys
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The possible codon sequence of this chain would be
(a)AUG CCU AAA GGU CGU UGU
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(b)AUG CUU AUA GCG GAG UAU
(c)GUG UUA UUU AUG UAG CGA ch
(d)CUC ACA CAC GAG UGG CGG
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59. Study the following tRNA molecules related with their anticodon pairing with
respective codons. Which type of tRNA is impossible?
m
Sar Tyr AA AA AA
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T1 T2 T3 T4 T5
tRNA
d
U C A Anticodon A U G A U U A U C A C U
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A G U Codon U A C mRNA U A A U A G U G A
5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
m
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
o
Multiple markings are invalid.
.c
1 21 41
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2 22 42
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3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25
ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
8 28 48
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9 29 49
fro
10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
14 34 54
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15 35 55
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16 36 56
17 37 57
w
18 38 58
do
19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
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1. (b) Options (a), (c) and (d) show events taking 7. (c) The labels in the figure represent
place before fertilisation. A–Placental villi B–Yolk sac
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PEN is formed after double fertilisation. The egg C–Embryo D–Umbilical cord
.c
cell fuses with first male gamete and the fusion 8. (a) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are
of second male gamete with secondary nucleus,
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arranged into an outer layer called
forms PEN which later develops into trophoblast and the inner cell mass.
endosperm and provides nourishment to the Trophoblast layer gets attached to
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developing embryo. endometrium and the inner cell mass
2. (b) A is endothecium. It is the inner lining of a differentiates into embryo.
mature anther. It helps in production of pollens.
ch 9. (a) Fertilisation is expected to occur after
B is middle layer. It is located between ovulation, not after menstruation when the
endothecium and tapetum (C).
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uterus wall is discharged and need to be built
3. (b) Statement given in option (b) is incorrect and up again. Similarly, implantation follows
can be corrected as fertilisation.
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Tapetum does not form tetrads rather provides 10. (c) Figure (c) is of vasectomy which is a
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4. (d) Long projecting stigmas act as a net to trap small cut on the scrotum. This prevents
sperm transport. Vasectomy has poor
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l
Lack of menstruation may be indicative of in the same pattern till the female desires to
pregnancy. During pregnancy, the levels of prevent conception.
do
l
On 14th day of the menstrual cycle, there is a
heterozygous genes present in pairs on
rapid increase in LH called LH surge that
homologous chromosomes (n).
induces ovulation.
The relation is given as 2 n , where n is the
Statements II and IV are incorrect and can be
number of heterozygous gene pairs. In this
corrected as
case, we have 2 pairs of such genes Bb and
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The changes in the ovary and the uterus are Dd. AA and CC are homozygous pairs and
induced by changes in levels of ovarian and
will not cause different combinations on their
pituitary hormones.
own.
l
If fertilisation occurs, corpus luteum secrete
Thus, the correct answer is 2 2 = 4.
progesterone and till 16th week of pregnancy.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 149
13. (c) Statement I is incorrect and can be corrected 21. (d) All the given statements are correct.
as Thus, option (d) is correct.
Haemophilia is not a dominant disease rather is
22. (d) Meselson and Stahl proved that DNA
a recessive one that affects more males than
replication is a semiconservative process by
females. In this, a single protein involved in
experimenting with E. coli. Thus, they did not
blood clotting gets affected. Due to this, a
have any contribution in the development of
simple cut in an affected individual result in
DNA double helix.
non-stop bleeding.
23. (a) The mRNA strand is complementary to
14. (d) Blending of alleles is not explained on the
DNA strand with U in place of T.
basis of law of dominance.
Thus, option (a) is correct.
15. (d) In Mendelian dihybrid cross, when
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heterozygous round yellow (Rr Yy) are self 24. (a) There are alleles on each corresponding
crossed, round green offsprings are chromosome. Alleles of a gene act to control
o
represented by RRyy, Rryy genotypes . certain inborn characteristics.
.c
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
Parents Rr Yy Rr Yy
correct explanation of A.
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¯ ¯ Chasmogamous flowers require external
pollinating agents to carry out pollination.
Gametes RY Ry rY ry × RY Ry rY ry
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These flowers open at maturity to expose
¯ pollen and stigma for cross pollination,
%
RY Ry rY ry
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e.g. Oxalis.
Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex
& organs to avoid cross pollination,
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RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy e.g. Cammelina.
26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
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RR, Rr – Round
copulations does not lead to pregnancy.
rr – Wrinkled
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pregnancy.
that the parent plants are pure strains of tall
and short plants. Hence, all offsprings show 28. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
do
30. (a) Gynoecium is the female reproductive part white flowered plants will be produced in
of a flower and is also called pistil. Each pistil equal ratios. The cross can be given as
has three parts, i.e. stigma, style and ovary. Rr rr
Inside the ovarian cavity, the placenta is (Red flower) (White flower)
located. Arising from placenta is the ovule. The
functional megaspore undergoing the meiotic R r r
division develops into embryo sac. Thus,
option (a) is correct.
F1 → Rr rr
31. (c) If the female parent produces unisexual 1 : 1
(dioecious) flowers, there is no need for 38. (b) It is a test cross and thus the genotype of
emasculation. Because in a dioecious flower, progeny will be Tt ´ tt.
only single reproductive structure is present,
m
39. (c) As all the sons have the gene for the
thus chances of self-pollination are not there.
character therefore, Y-chromosome is the
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32. (a) Relaxin hormone relaxes the pelvic carrier as Y-chromosome is a sex chromosome
.c
ligaments of mother to prepare for the only present in males and not in females.
childbirth.
40. (d) AB individual contain IA IB genotype.
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33. (a) MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is Whereas O individual do not contain any of
considered safe until Ist trimester (12 weeks) of these alleles. Thus, IA IB could not be produced
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the pregnancy. It becomes more risky after the in progeny.
Ist trimester period of pregnancy as the foetus
becomes intimately associated with the 41. (b) Axillary position (A) is dominant over
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maternal tissue. terminal (a) position.
When Aa ´ Aa is crossed, we get 3:1 ratio, i.e.
34. (c) Spermicidal creams contain chemicals,
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three axillary flowers and one terminal flower.
which kill the sperms. If they are used along
Parents Aa Aa
with the barrier contraceptive methods, then
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A AA Aa
grains.
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[A + G]
z Zz zz Or =1
[T + C]
When two heterozygous individuals (Zz
43. (a) In the given case, the number of base pairs
crossed with Zz) are crossed then two types of
for E. coli would be 4 ´ 10 6 bp. It can be
SAMPLE PAPER 6
m
l
Linked genes do not separate frequently.
Rest of the statements are correct. These genes remain together because linked
o
45. (a) Equal amount of heavy and light DNA was gene lie very closely to each other.
.c
observed in E. coli culture after the two 56. (c) DNA fingerprinting is a technique of
generations in Meselson and Stahl’s determining nucleotide sequence of certain
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experiment. In forming two generations, E. coli areas of DNA, which are unique to each
needs about 40 minutes. individuals.
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46. (b) Enzyme helicase (A) acts over the ori site In the given analysis, X has bands similar to
and unwinds the two strands of DNA by both W and Y; upper band is common between
destroying hydrogen (B) bonds.
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X and Y while lower band is common between
X and W. Z has band similar to W while it has
47. (c) Transcription unit is the distance between
no similarity with X and Y. This indicates that
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sites of initiation and termination by RNA
Z is relative to W and can be paternal uncle
polymerase. It include more than one gene.
to X.
RNA polymerase produce transcription unit
m
that extends from the promoter to terminator 57. (d) Increase in distance between two genes
increases the frequency of crossing over while
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sequences.
closeness of the genes reduces the chances of
48. (d) The two alleles (paternal and maternal) of a
crossing over. Since, A and d, a and D are
chromosome contain different copy number of
located far away, maximum crossing over
d
that parental DNA matches with children 1 58. (a) Option (a) represents correct sequence of
and 3. codons. Methionine is coded by AUG, proline
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and progesterone. Both of these (oestrogen and 59. (d) According to the question, we observe
progesterone) are important for sexual T1, that have sequence of anticodon UCA and
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SAMPLE PAPER 7
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
m
General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
o
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
.c
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
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3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
fro
I II
(a) They show microsporogenesis (b) I represents the part of ovule
SAMPLE PAPER 7
(c) II represents mature embryo sac (d) Both (b) and (c)
4. Out of the following hormones, which hormone is not a secretory product of human
placenta?
(a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin
(c) Oestrogen (d) Progesterone
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 153
C
E
D
F
m o
(a) A–Pollen tube, B–Ovary, C–Ovule, D–Antipodal cell, E–Pollen grain, F–Polar nuclei
.c
(b) A–Polar nuclei, B–Antipodal cell, C–Ovule, D–Ovary, E–Pollen tube, F–Pollen grain
(c) A–Pollen grain, B–Pollen tube, C–Ovary, D–Ovule, E–Antipodal cell, F– Polar nuclei
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(d) A–Antipodal cell, B–Ovule, C–Ovary, D–Polar nuclei, E–Pollen grain, F–Pollen tube
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I. The uterus is present in single pair and is also called womb.
II. The shape of uterus is like an inverted pear.
ch
III. The uterus opens into vagina through a narrow cervix.
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IV. Birth canal is formed by cervical canal and vagina.
V. Perimetrium of uterus wall is external and thick, myometrium is middle thin layer
m
7. Read the graph and correlate the uterine events that take place according to the
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hormonal levels on A. 6-15 days, B. 16-25 days, C. 3-5 days (if the ovum is not
fertilised).
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nl Ovarian hormone levels
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Oestrogen
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Progesterone
1 5 10 15 20 25 29
SAMPLE PAPER 7
Days
(a) A–Degeneration of endometrium, B–Myometrium thickness, becomes vascularised ready
to receive and implant embryo, C–Regeneration of endometrium
(b) A–Degeneration of endometrium, B–Endometrium thickness increases, becomes
vascularised, ready to receive and implant ovum, C–Regeneration of endometrium
(c) A–Regeneration of endometrium, B–Endometrium becomes thick and vascularised,
ready to receive and implant embryo, C–Degeneration of endometrium
(d) A–Regeneration of myometrium, B–Endometrium becomes thick and vascularised, ready
to receive and implant embryo, C–Degeneration of endometrium
154 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
9. Level of LH is maximum
(a) just before ovulation (b) just after ovulation
(c) at the time of ovulation (d) during menstrual bleeding phase
om
.c
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(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy
ch (d) Vasectomy
11. To ensure the results of available contraceptive measures, a paid survey was conducted
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by a firm. Group A was advised to use the preparation of progestin to check ovulation.
Whereas group B was advised to avoid intimacy for a certain period.
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Group A Group B
(a) Saheli Coitus interruptus
d
14. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to monohybrid and dihybrid
cross?
(a) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation whereas dihybrid cross is
performed for two generations
(b) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involved two
parents
(c) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny whereas a dihybrid cross produces two
progenies
(d) A monohybrid cross involves individuals with one heterozygous character, whereas a
dihybrid cross involves individuals with two heterozygous characters
m
15. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are
crossed, 75% of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of
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the parents having red coloured flowers will be
.c
(a) Both homozygous (b) One homozygous and other heterozygous
(c) Both heterozygous (d) Both hemizygous
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16. Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by Mendel, the
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number of traits related to flower, pod and seed, respectively were
(a) 2, 2, 2 (b) 2, 2, 1 (c) 1, 2, 2 (d) 1, 1, 2
ch
17. Shruti took a survey and found out that when a haemophilic man marries a normal
woman, progeny population would have girls who will be carrier and boys who will
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be normal. Which among the following determines their genotypes correctly?
Offsprings Genotypes
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(a) 1 girl Xh Xh
(b) 2 girls Xh X
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(c) 1 boy Xh Y
(d) 2 boys XY h
d
22. Heat-killed S-cells along with R-cells were injected into the mice to conclude that
(a) mice survived and showed live S-cells (b) mice died and showed live S-cells
(c) mice survived and showed live R-cells (d) mice died and showed live R-cells
156 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
23. Observe the diagrams A and B carefully and choose the correct option.
Bacteriophage
Radioactive ( 32P) labelled DNA
Radioactive (35S) labelled
protein capsule
Infection
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Blending
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Centrifugation
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A B
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A B
35 32
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(a) Radioactive S detected in cells No radioactive P detected in cells
35 32
(b) Radioactive S detected in Radioactive P detected in
supernatant
35
ch supernatant
32
(c) Radioactive S detected in cells Radioactive P detected in cells
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35
(d) Radioactive S detected in No radioactivity detected in
supernatant supernatant
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24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about chromosomal theory of
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inheritance?
(a) All hereditary characters must be with sperms and egg cells as they provide bridge one
generation to the next
d
(c) Chromosomes are also found in pairs like the Mendelian alleles
(d) All of the above
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Section B
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
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Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
SAMPLE PAPER 7
27. Assertion (A) Inability to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual practices is
called infertility.
Reason (R) The reasons for infertility could be physical injury, congenital disease,
drugs, etc.
28. Assertion (A) Eukaryotic mRNA requires post-transcription processing for the
formation of functional mRNA.
Reason (R) Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra non-functional segments called
introns.
29. The function of D in the figure given below is
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C
.c
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D B
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ch
(a) production of female gamete (b) nourishment of developing embryo
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(c) collection of ovum (d) lubrication of vagina during intercourse
Female flower
31. Raman took Vallisneria plant in order to collect information for
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32. A class X student, Aakash, wanted to observe the phenomenon of pollination. So, he
SAMPLE PAPER 7
took a complete flower. However, he later observed that the flower had already lost its
stamens. What will happen in this condition?
(a) The flower will reproduce parthenogenetically
(b) The flower will self pollinate
(c) New flowers will not be produced
(d) Same variety of flowers are formed
158 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
33. With increasing population, the government has decided to rule in certain schemes and
strategies which could help to bring down the population graph. Select the statements
which include steps implemented by the government to control the growing
population?
(a) Advertising the benefits of small family, slogans like ‘hum do hamare do’, etc.
(b) Raising the marriageable ages, 18 for females and 21 for males
(c) Controlling the contraceptive measures
(d) Both (a) and (b)
34. What are the early symptoms of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)?
(a) Fever, constipation and slight pain in joints
m
(b) Nausea, headache and severe joint pain
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(c) Itching, fluid discharge, swelling in the genital region
.c
(d) None of the above
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35. In which species both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?
(a) Oxalis (b) Mirabilis (c) Cucurbita (d) Papaya
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36. A normal-visioned man whose father was colourblind and mother was normal, marries
a woman whose father was also colourblind, but mother was normal. They have their
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first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colourblind?
(a) 100% (b) 0 % (c) 25% (d) 50 %
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37. The transference of genes from one chromosome to another during synapsis is termed as
(a) linkage (b) dominance
m
(a) Red ´ Red (b) Red ´ Pink (c) Red ´ White (d) Pink ´ Pink
Promoter Terminator
Structural gene Template strand
3′ 5′
5′ 3′
Coding strand
43. In DNA, 20% bases are adenine. What percentage of bases are pyrimidines?
(a) 30% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 20%
m
5′ m
Gppp D
5′
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mG
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ppp m 3′
5′ Gppp
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5′
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
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(a) It represents replication in prokaryote
(b) It represents transcription in prokaryote
(c) It represents transcription in eukaryote ch
(d) It represent transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
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45. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animals cell?
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) mRNA (d) miRNA
m
…(ii)… condition.
(a) (i) autosomal, (ii) X h X h (b) (i) dominant, (ii) X h Y
(c) (i) recessive, (ii) X h X h (d) (i) dominant, (ii) X h X h
d
48. Refer to the diagram showing DNA replication and choose the incorrect option
regarding it.
nl
5′ 3′
w
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5′ Discontinuous
3′
synthesis
SAMPLE PAPER 7
3′ 5′
5′ 3′
Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.
The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows
m
P
o
.c
Q
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S
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T
51. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to label ‘P’?
(a) It acts as a conduit to transport the male gametes from pollen grain to the ovule
d
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(d) A and C are homozygous, B and D are heterozygous
56. Observe the diagram given below and answer the following questions that follows.
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Possibility I Possibility II
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Anaphase-I (Meiosis-I) Anaphase-I (Meiosis-I)
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ch
Anaphase-II (Meiosis-II) Anaphase-II (Meiosis-II)
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m
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57. Observe the cross given below and identify the phenomenon responsible for it.
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AA aa Parents
Red White
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A a Gametes
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Aa F1-generation
Pink
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A a Gametes
a
Aa A
A Pink a
AA aa
Red White F2-generation
Aa
SAMPLE PAPER 7
Pink
58. Given below is the diagram of DNA structure as proposed by Watson and Crick.
Guanine G C Cytosine
Thymine T A Adenine
C G
T A
G C
T A
A
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G
G C
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C G
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T A
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Hydrogen bonds
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5′ 3′
A B
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C
d
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60. The two figures A and B given below show structures of pentose sugar.
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HOCH2 OH HOCH2 OH
O O
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SAMPLE PAPER 7
OH OH OH H
A B
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
m
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
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Multiple markings are invalid.
.c
1 21 41
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2 22 42
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3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25
ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
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8 28 48
9 29 49
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10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
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14 34 54
15 35 55
nl
16 36 56
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17 37 57
18 38 58
do
19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
1. (d) Both spermatids and secondary Phase C is the menstrual phase during which
m
spermatocytes have got haploid number of endometrium degenerates and it lasts for
chromosomes as these are formed after meiotic 3-5 days in case the egg is not fertilised. The
o
divisions. level of progesterone and oestrogen falls
.c
2. (b) In the given diagrams, parts of ovule are during this phase.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
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shown. I represents large megaspore mother
cell whereas II represents the dyad of 8. (b) Option (b) represents the incorrect pair and
megaspores. can be corrected as
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3. (a) Chalazal pole is present just opposite to the Ampulla is the wider part of oviduct.
micropylar end and represents the basal part of ch Rest all the pairs are correct.
the ovule.
9. (c) The level of LH is maximum at the time of
4. (a) Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior ovulation (i.e. ovulatory phase) in the
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pituitary gland during parturition. It contracts menstrual cycle. It is called as LH surge. It
the uterus and promotes progress of labour. induces rupture of Graafian follicles and
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5. (c) A represents pollen grains. They represent thereby the release of ovum, i.e. ovulation.
the male gametophyte. 10. (c) Tubectomy is a surgical method in females
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B represents pollen tube which helps in wherein Fallopian tubes are cut and tied
transfer of male gametes through style to reach surgically in order to prevent further
egg. pregnancies.
d
C represents ovary. It develops into fruit. Though this method is highly effective, it
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6. (b) Statements II, III and IV are correct, 13. (c) Statements I and IV are correct. Whereas II
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whereas I and V are incorrect. Incorrect and III are incorrect. Incorrect statements can
statements can be corrected as be corrected as
l The uterus is single and is also called womb. l Characters blend in both homozygous and
l Perimetrium of uterus is external and thin, heterozygous conditions.
myometrium is the middle thick layer of Not all characters (only some) show
SAMPLE PAPER 7
smooth muscles and endometrium is the inner dominance in humans, e.g. straight hair and
glandular layer. fair skin are recessive characters.
7. (c) During A, i.e. 6-15 days, there is 14. (d) Statement in option (d) is correct with
regeneration of endometrium lining through respect to monohybrid cross and dihybrid
proliferation. This is called follicular phase. cross.
Phase B, i.e. 16-25 days, mark the thickening of Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
endometrium in order to receive and implant corrected as
embryo. Progesterone level increases during l Both monohybrid and dihybrid crosses can be
this phase. performed for one or more generations.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 165
l Both monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross into a mouse, the mouse develop pneumonia
involves two parents. and died. When Griffith took a blood sample
l Both monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross from the dead mouse, he found that it
can produce two or more progenies. contained living S bacteria.
15. (c) In given situation, genotype of parents 23. (d) Hershey and Chase used 35 S and 32 P to
having red coloured flowers will be prove that DNA is genetic material.
heterozygous. In diagram A, no radioactive 35 S was detected
Rr Rr in cells, however, it was detected in
(Red) ´ (Red) supernatant. Similarly in diagram B,
radioactive 32 P was detected in cells and not in
R r R r the supernatant.
m
Thus, option (d) is correct.
24. (d) All given statements are correct about
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chromosomal inheritance.
.c
RR Rr Rr rr
Thus, option (d) is correct.
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White
25. (d) A is false, but R is true because
Red
3 1 Tapetum is the microsporangium’s innermost
75% 25% wall layer. It nourishes the developing pollens.
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The tapetal cells enlarge radially and become
16. (a) Mendel worked on garden pea and choose
filled with dense protoplasmic contents as well
seven characters for his study. He studied 2 ch
as nutrients. Tapetal cells are generally
traits related to flower, i.e. colour and position,
multinucleate or their nucleus becomes
2 traits related to pod, i.e. shape and colour
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polyploid. Microsporogenesis refers to the
and 2 traits related to seed, i.e. shape and
process of formation of haploid microspores
colour and one trait related to stem, i.e. height.
from microspore mother cell via meiosis.
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18. (a) The given statements are the symptoms which is a small group of cells called inner cell
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caused due to Down‘s syndrome or trisomy 21. mass. Trophoblast contributes to fetal
19. (d) B-DNA is right-handed DNA where the membrane systems, while the inner cell mass is
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between adjacent base pairs is 0.34 nm. having unprotected sexual intercourse, they
are termed as infertile. These are lots of reason
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20. (a) Chargaff’s rules state that DNA from any for infertility that involve physical injury, use
cell of any organisms should have a 1:1 ratio of drugs, disease and so on.
(base pair rule) of pyrimidine and purine
28. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
bases. More specifically, the amount of
explanation of A.
guanine should be equal to cytosine and the
SAMPLE PAPER 7
29. (a) D is ovary. It is an important part of female This trait is passed to children but daughters
reproductive system as it produces the female produced by this couple are carrier, not the
gamete or ovum. colourblind.
30. (a) In angiosperms, during megasporogenesis, XXc XY
Parents Carrier Normal
the primary archaesporial cell develops in the woman man
hypodermal region of nucellus towards the Gametes X Xc X Y
micropylar end of the ovule. It grows in size,
develops a prominent nucleus and undergoes
further divisions. Progeny XX XY XcX XcY
Normal Normal Carrier Colourblind
31. (d) Statements I, II and IV are correct. girl boy girl boy
Female Vallisneria flowers have long pedicel
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and single white flowers grow on long stalks. 37. (c) Crossing over is the reciprocal exchange of
Pollen grains are light and thread-like. segments between non-sister chromatids of a
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pair of homologous chromosomes.
Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected
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It results in recombination of genes. The
as
non-sister chromatids in which exchange of
Pollination in case of Vallisneria is achieved by
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segments take place, are known as crossovers
water and is called hydrophily.
or recombinants, while other chromatids which
32. (c) The stamen is responsible for half of the are not involved in exchange of segments are
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reproductive phase in flowering plants. called non-crossovers or parental types.
Without the stamen and the pollens, new
38. (d) An unfertilised human egg contains only
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flowers could not be produced.
one X-chromosome.
33. (d) In order to control the growing population, A human sperm has either of an X or a Y
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the government has implemented various chromosome therefore, it determines the sex of
strategies which help in bringing the
the child after fertilisation.
population graph down.
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34. (c) Sexually transmitted diseases are defined as So, laws of Mendel which is not completely
diseases that can be transmitted during sexual applicable are law of independent assortment
and law of dominance.
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36. (b) In the given condition, the man would be the promoter, the structural gene and the
normal and his wife would be carrier of this terminator.
disease. Rest all statements are correct.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 167
43. (c) The percentage of pyrimidines bases will be Rest all statements are correct with respect to
50%. According to Chargaff’s rule, label P.
\ If A = 20%, then T =20% 52. (d) The structure with label ‘A‘ is stigma. It is
A + T = 40% the top of the female part of the flower. It also
acts as a landing platform for pollen grains.
Thus, G + C = 100 - 40 = 60% Thus, option (d) is correct.
Thus, G = 30% and C = 30% 53. (b) Double fertilisation is a unique
Hence, total percentage of pyrimidine bases phenomenon that occurs in angiosperms only.
(T + C) are 20 + 30 = 50%. It involves two types of fusion, i.e. syngamy
44. (c) The given diagram represent transcription and triple fusion.
in eukaryotes because post-transcriptional 54. (b) 5 nuclei take part in double fertilisation,
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modifications in hnRNA occur in eukaryotes i.e. 2 sperm nuclei, 2 polar nuclei and 1 egg
only. nucleus.
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55. (b)
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45. (a) rRNA is the most abundant form of RNA as
TT × tt
it is responsible for coding and protein
T
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synthesis in cell and is also associated with t
ribosomes. T Tt (B) t
Tt (C)
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46. (c) Haemophilia rarely occurs in woman as it is Tt (A)
a recessive (i) gene disease. It is lethal in X h X h Tt (D)
(ii) condition. ch
47. (b) The backbone of RNA is made up of ribose
Thus, A, B, C and D are heterozygous.
sugar ( C5H10O5 ).
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56. (b) The process of gametogenesis or gamete
48. (d) All the given statements are correct. Thus,
formation is shown in the diagram given in
option (d) is correct.
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in most of the angiosperms which provide The two factors of each character assort or
nourishment to egg cell. separate independent of the factors of other
S–Egg cell. It is haploid female gamete that characters at the time of gamete formation
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forms a zygote after fertilisation. The zygote (gametogenesis) and get randomly rearranged
in the offspring thus, producing both parental
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tube growth and release of sperm cells. incomplete dominance, thus showing pink
flowers as intermediate results.
50. (c) Growth of pollen tube towards the embryo
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sac is induced by the chemicals like auxin 58. (b) The structure of DNA proposed by Watson
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Statement in option (c) is not correct and can 59. (a) The linker DNA attaches to site B (Histone
be corrected as H1) of the nucleosome core.
The growth of pollen tube is influenced by the 60. (a) Pentose sugar shown in figure A is more
interaction between stigma, style and the reactive due to the presence of —OH group at
SAMPLE PAPER 7
SAMPLE PAPER 8
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
General Instructions
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1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
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(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
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2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
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Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
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2. In the figure of an anther given below, choose the correct option for the number of
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Pollen sacs
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Line of a
dehiscence
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SAMPLE PAPER 8
Filaments
3. Megasporogenesis is the
(a) formation of fruits (b) formation of seeds
(c) formation of megaspores (d) Both (b) and (c)
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X Y
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6. Which of the following statements are correct for human female reproductive system?
I. Vagina opens to the interior by an aperture called cervix.
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II. Uterine part passes through the uterine wall and communicates with the uterine
cavity.
III. Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length and is connected by an ovarian ligament to the
SAMPLE PAPER 8
uterus.
IV. Birth canal is formed by cervical canal and vagina.
V. Perimetrium of uterus wall is external and thick, myometrium is middle thin layer
of smooth muscles and endometrium is inner glandular layer.
Codes
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) IV and V (d) I and V
170 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
7. In Column I, diagram of male reproductive is given and in Column II, list of male
reproductive parts.
Column I Column II
1. Ejaculatory duct
2. Rectum
3. Prostate gland
4. Glans penis
D A 5. Penis
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6. Bulbourethral
B gland
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C
7. Vas deferens
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Identify the reproductive part from Column I and its correct labelling from Column II
by choosing correct option given below.
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(a) A–7, B–5, C–6, D–3 (b) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–6
(c) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–6 (d) A–1, B–4, C–6, D–3
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8. What happens during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?
(a) Proliferation of endometrium
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(b) Reduction in blood supply to endometrium
(c) Regression of endometrium
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10. In case of a couple, where the male is having erectile dysfunction, which technique will
be suitable for fertilisation?
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11. Contraceptive methods or devices are used to limit the number of offsprings. One of
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the contraceptive method is given below. Identify its basic action and use.
SAMPLE PAPER 8
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 171
12. In haemophilia, the affected protein is a part of a cascade of protein which is involved
in the
(a) formation of RBCs (b) formation of WBCs and platelets
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(c) coagulation of blood (d) anticoagulation
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13. Which of the following statements are false?
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I. A dominant allele determines the phenotype both in homozygous and
heterozygous conditions.
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II. A recessive allele is weaker than a dominant allele.
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III. A recessive allele shows its effects in heterozygous condition only.
IV. A dominant allele is always better for an organism.
Codes
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(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
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(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and IV
(a) Aa ´ Aa (b) Aa ´ aa
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(c) AA ´ aa (d) AA ´ Aa
16. Which of the following combination of sex chromosomes represent the correct sex-
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dominant
(b) Thalassemia–Sex-linked recessive disease Klinefelter–Sex-linked dominant disease
(c) Klinefelter’s–Aneuploidy Thalassemia–Autosome-linked recessive
trait
(d) Thalassemia–Autosome-linked recessive Klinefelter–Polyploidy
trait
172 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
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(b) A nucleotide contains pyrimidine bases and purine bases
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(c) A nucleotide contains protein, carbohydrates and fats
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(d) A phosphate group is present in a nucleotide
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20. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Ribosome consists of structural RNA and proteins
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(b) Protein synthesis begins when large subunits of ribosome encounter mRNA
(c) Prokaryotes use same RNA polymerase to transcribe all the genes
(d) Transcription and translation in a bacterial cell occurs simultaneously
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21. Splicing is the process where
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(a) exons are removed from growing tRNA strand
(b) introns are removed from growing polypeptide chain
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22. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon concept, it
is applicable for
d
(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans
23. Which of the following groups of codons, code for amino acid serine?
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(a) CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG (b) UAU, UAC, UGU and UGC
(c) UCU, UCC, UCA and UCG (d) UGU, UGC, UGA and UAC
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24. The given figure shows the structure of transcription unit. Identify A, B and C from the
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C
A
3′ 5′
5′ 3′
B
SAMPLE PAPER 8
A B C
(a) Coding strand Promoter Structural gene
(b) Template strand Promoter Terminator
(c) Template strand Coding strand Terminator
(d) Coding strand Template strand Structural gene
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 173
Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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25. Assertion (A) Parthenocarpy involves the formation of seedless fruits.
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Reason (R) Apomixis occurs without fertilisation.
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26. Assertion (A) Ovum retains most of the contents of the primary oocyte and is much
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larger than a spermatozoa.
Reason (R) It needs energy to go about in search of a spermatozoa for fertilisation.
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27. Assertion (A) Rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR have lead to staggering rise
in population.
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Reason (R) Increased population growth rate has lead to an absolute scarcity of even
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the most basic requirements, i.e. food and shelter.
28. Assertion (A) In transcription, the strand with 3¢ ® 5¢ polarity acts as the template
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strand.
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29. The hormone ‘A’ acts on one of the structure ‘B’ shown in figure and stimulate secretion
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of some factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis. What are ‘A’ and ‘B’?
IV
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III
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II
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I
SAMPLE PAPER 8
A B
(a) Testosterone IV
(b) ICSH I
(c) FSH II
(d) LH III
174 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
30. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?
(a) All fuse with the egg
(b) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus
(c) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei
(d) One fuses with the egg other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid
31. A botanist treated some pollen grains with enzymes, chemical and high termperature
to break exine. After that he observed the pollen under the microscope and found that
exine is still intact. Why exine is not broken down?
(a) Because exine is cellulosic in nature
(b) Because pollen grains are small
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(c) Because exine is coated with sporopollenin
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(d) None of the above
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32. Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands and connective tissues are broken in menstrual
phase. This is due to
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(a) oversecretion of FSH
(b) lack of oestrogen
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(c) lack of progesterone
(d) overproduction of progesterone ch
33. In which ‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART), ‘test tube baby’ procedure is
applied?
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(a) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(b) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
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(a) ovulation
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(b) implantation
(c) fertilisation
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36. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea
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plant. When the F 1 plants were selfed, the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(b) 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
SAMPLE PAPER 8
38. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yield identical results. From that, it was
concluded
(a) there is no dominance of any trait
(b) sex has no influence on the dominance of traits
(c) there is independent assortment of traits
(d) sex plays a role in deciding the dominance of a trait
39. Father has blood group A and mother’s blood group is B. Both are heterozygous. If
they have identical twins, the percentage probability of both having blood group A is
(a) 100% (b) 50%
(c) 25% (d) 6.25%
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40. A colourblind man marries the normal daughter of a colourblind man. In their progeny,
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(a) all their sons will be colourblind
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(b) half of their sons and daughters will be colourblind
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(c) none of their daughters will be colourblind
(d) all their daughters will be colourblind
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41. Which of the following cross will give recessive progeny in F 1-generation?
(a) TT ´ tt (b) Tt ´ tt
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(c) tt ´ tt (d) TT ´ TT
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42. Which of the following is correctly depicted in the below diagram?
Generation-I Generation-II
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A-DNA
15N-DNA
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B-DNA
20 min 40 min C-DNA
D-DNA
d
(a) Equal amount of light DNA and hybrid DNA was observed in E. coli culture after two
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generations
(b) The generation time of E. coli culture is 40 minutes
(c) DNA replicates semiconservatively
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(d) Amount of light DNA was more than that of hybrid DNA in E. coli culture after two
generations
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43. The double helix of the DNA is made up of polynucleotide chains. Towards which side
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45. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment (1958), DNA extracted from the culture one
generation after the transfer from 15 N to 14 N medium had a hybrid (or intermediate)
density. Why?
(a) Because the generation time of E. coli (culture) was about 20 minutes
(b) Because it would take 20 minutes for RNA replication
(c) Because it would take 20 minutes for replication of DNA to RNA (transcription)
(d) Because it would take 20 minutes for translation RNA to protein
46. For initiation, the ribosomes bind to the ...A... at the start codon and ...B... is
recognised by the initiator ...C... .
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
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(a) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C– tRNA (b) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA
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(c) A–rRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA (d) A–rRNA B–AUG, C– mRNA
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47. How genetic and physical maps were generated in HGP?
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(a) By using DNase (b) By using RNase
(c) By using restriction endonuclease (d) By using automated DNA sequences
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48. Find the binding sequence of the following amino-acyl tRNA complexes during
translaton to a mRNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence
3¢ TACATGGGTCCG 5¢.
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Amino
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acid
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A U G U A C C C G G G U Anticodon
a b c d
d
Choose the right answer in which the correct alphabets are shown.
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(a) b, a, d, c (b) a, b, d, c
(c) b, a, c, d (d) a, b, c, d
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Section C
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(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q.Nos.49 to 54). Besides this, 6
more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10 questions would be
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evaluated.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions that follows.
E C
SAMPLE PAPER 8
D
B
A
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 177
49. Which of the following event cannot occur in a woman having blockage at site F ?
(a) Ovulation (b) Copulation
(c) Fertilisation (d) Parturition
51. Female with block structure F can become mother by which one of the following ART?
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT (c) IUT (d) ICSI
52. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining thick blood lining in structure ‘E’
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during pregnancy?
(a) Oestrogen (b) Oxytocin
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(c) LH (d) Progesterone
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53. A contraceptive method in which the structure F is blocked, is
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(a) hysterectomy (b) ovariotomy (c) tubectomy (d) vasectomy
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54. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
(a) ampulla (b) isthmus
(c) infundibulum
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(d) cervix
55. Consider the following statements and select the statement(s) which are correct with
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respect to the reasons as to why Mendel could not find out about linkage?
I. Some genes are linked, but they are too far apart for crossing over to be
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II. Linked genes were never tested for the same time in same cross.
III. All seven genes were present on the same chromosomes.
IV. All seven genes were present on seven different chromosomes.
d
Codes
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(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) Only IV
56. On the basis of given figure which of the following conclusion can be drawn?
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SAMPLE PAPER 8
Meiosis Mitosis
Gametes
16 16 16
m
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the sex-determination in honeybees?
(a) Offspring formed by the union of a sperm and egg develops into male
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(b) Unfertilised egg develops as a drones
.c
(c) Haplo-diploid sex-determination is seen in honeybees
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(d) None of the above
58. Refer to the diagram given below and choose the correct option.
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5′ 5′
3′
ch 3′
A
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Intron
Cap
mG Polyadenylation
m
ppp
or tailing
5′ Exon
3′
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mG
ppp
B
5′ Poly A tail
d
mG
ppp
mG 3′
C
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5′ ppp
5′
(a) A represents the formation of a polypeptide chain
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59. The diagram represents the ‘central dogma’ of molecular biology. Choose the correct
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combination of labelling.
D
SAMPLE PAPER 8
60. Strand X in the figure shows a small part of a nucleic acid molecule.
T
Strand X
G
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C
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Which of the following strands are complementary to strand X?
1. 2. 3. 4.
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A T A U
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C A C A
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A C A C
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G T G U
T G U G
d
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(a) 3 (b) 4
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SAMPLE PAPER 8
OMR SHEET SP 8
Roll No.
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
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Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
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Multiple markings are invalid.
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1 21 41
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2 22 42
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3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25
ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
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8 28 48
9 29 49
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10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
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14 34 54
15 35 55
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16 36 56
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17 37 57
18 38 58
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19 39 59
20 40 60
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
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1. (a) Each human testis is oval in shape, with a 9. (b) The main function of mammalian corpus
length of about 4-5 cm and a width of about luteum is the secretion of progesterone, which is
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2-3 cm. essential for the maintenance of endometrium.
.c
2. (b) A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed 10. (c) Artificial insemination is commonly used in
with each lobe having two thecae cases, where male partners are unable to
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(dithecous). The anther consists of four inseminate the female due to very low sperm
microsporangia, located at the corner, two in counts in the ejaculate or erectile dysfunctioning.
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each lobes. Hence, option (b) is correct. In this method, the semen is collected either
3. (c) Megasporogenesis is the process of from husband or a healthy donor and then
formation of megaspores. artificially introduced into the vagina or into the
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uterus of the female.
4. (c) Endospermogenesis and embryogenesis
11. (b) Oral contraceptives contain either oestrogen
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are the post-fertilisation events during which
formation of endosperm and embryo take or combination of both progesterone and
place. Whereas, megasporogenesis is the oestrogen. These prevent egg development and
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formation of megaspores and it is a inhibit ovulation. These are very reliable if taken
pre-fertilisation event. daily for 3 weeks (21 days), after a gap of 7 days
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correct.
13. (b) Statements II, III and IV are false and can be
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myometrium is the middle thick layer of recessive allele can express in few cases, e.g.
smooth muscles and endometrium is the incomplete dominance.
inner glandular layer. l It is not necessary that dominant allele is always
7. (d) A–1, B–4, C–6, D–3 better.
A–Ejaculatory duct B–Glans penis 14. (c) Men normally have X and Y combination of
C–Bulbourethral gland D–Prostate gland sex chromosome while women has two X
chromosomes. Since, men only have one X
8. (a) During the follicular phase of menstrual
chromosome and women has two X
cycle, the endometrium of the uterus
chromosomes therefore only men are affected
regenerates through proliferation.
while women are carrier of X-linked recessive
182 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
disorders. So, if a man A is affected it will pass about 80 different proteins. In its inactive state,
on the trait to daughter ‘B’ which can be a it exists as two subunits, a large subunit and a
carrier but the grandson of men ‘A’ will be small subunit. When the smaller subunit
affected. Hence, in men, the mechanism of encounters the mRNA, the process of
sex-linked inheritance occurs generally from translation of the mRNA to protein begins with
daughter to grandson. the binding of the mRNA to the smaller
15. (b) If a cross between two individuals ribosome unit. Rest statements are correct.
produces offspring with 50% dominant 21. (c) In splicing, introns (non-coding regions) are
character (A) and 50% recessive character (a), removed from heterogeneous nuclear RNA
then the genotype of parents are Aa and aa. and exons (coding regions) are joined to form a
Parents Aa aa mature mRNA.
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A a 22. (a) Jacob and Monod studied lactose
a Aa aa metabolism in E.coli and proposed operon
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F1-generation concept. This concept is applicable for all
a Aa aa
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prokaryotes.
Genotypic ratio of offspring = 1:1 23. (c) The group of codons, code for amino acid
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Hence, the offspring in F1- generation shows serine are UCU, UCC, UCA and UCG.
50% dominant character and 50% recessive Hence, option (c) is correct.
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character.
24. (c) In the given structure of transcription unit,
16. (b) In peacock (bird), females have dissimilar A–Template strand (has polarity 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢)
chromosome pair, i.e. ZW, while male have
two similar chromosome pairs, i.e. ZZ.
ch B–Coding strand
C–Terminator [located toward 3¢-end
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Hence, option (b) is correct.
(downstream) of coding strand]
17. (c) Arjun and Ridhima, both are suffering from
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
genetic disorders. Arjun is suffering from
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correct explanation of A.
Klinefelter’s syndrome which occurs due to
Parthenocarpy involves the formation of
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18. (d) Statements II and III are correct. egg cell is formed without meiotic division and
Statements I and IV are incorrect and can be develops into embryo without fertilisation, e.g.
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Whereas mRNA serves as template for protein Sperm needs energy to move about in female
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19. (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and Rapid decline in death rate, MMR (Maternal
can be corrected as Mortality Rate) and IMR (Infant Mortality
Nucleotides do not have proteins, Rate) have all happened due to significant
carbohydrates and fats. They contain a sugar, a improvement in quality of life, increased
phosphate group and a nitrogenous base. medical facilities, awareness about
Rest of the statements are correct about reproduction related facts such as pre and
nucleotides. post-natal care of mother, vaccination of
20. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can children, etc., supported by better living
be corrected as conditions.
Ribosome consists of structural RNAs and As a result, there has been a staggering rise in
population.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 183
28. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 37. (a) TtRr × TtRr Parents
explanation of A.
In transcription, the strand with 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢
polarity acts as the template from which TR Tr tR tr TR Tr tR tr Gametes
mRNA is transcribed and is called the
template strand. TR Tr tR tr
This is because the enzyme DNA-dependent
TR TTRR TTRr TtRR TtRr
RNA polymerase catalyses the
polymerisation in only one direction 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢. Tr TTRr TTrr TtRr Ttrr F1-generation
29. (c) Hormone FSH (A) acts on Sertoli cells (B) tR TtRR TtRr ttRR ttRr
and stimulates the secretion of factors which tr TtRr Ttrr ttRr ttrr
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help in the process of spermiogenesis.
30. (c) The male gametes enter into ovary Plants with dwarf and pink characters (ttRr) are
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through filiform apparatus of synergids. One 2/16.
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of male gamete fuses with the egg and the 38. (b) In most plants, any cross can be made in two
other fuses with the central cell nuclei.
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ways, depending on which phenotype is used as
31. (c) The exine of pollen grain is intact despite male or female. For example, the two crosses.
treating it with chemical and high Phenotype A (female) ´ Phenotype B (male),
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temperature because of the sporopollenin Phenotype B (female) ´ Phenotype A (male) are
present in the exine. reciprocal crosses.
32. (c) Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands
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Mendel made reciprocal crosses in which he
pollinated a white flower with pollen from a
and connective tissues are broken in
purple-flowered plant and in one he did the
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menstrual phase due to lack of progesterone.
reverse and produced the same result (all purple
33. (c) ARTs are the technologies adopted for the flowers).
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correction of infertility in males and females. He concluded that it makes no difference which
In in vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer, way the cross is made. If one pure-breeding
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test tube baby proceduce is applied where parent is purple-flowered and the other is white
the egg and sperm are fertilised under flowered, all plants in the F1 have purple flowers.
laboratory conditions and then embryo is The purple flower colour in the F1-generation is
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transferred into female or donor uterus for identical with that in the purple-flowered
further development.
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parental plants.
34. (c) The copper ions released by Cu-T So, Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses
suppress sperm motility and their fertilising yield identical results. From that it was
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IB I AI B I Bi
F1 -generation Tt (Heterozygous tall) F1-generation
i I Ai ii
On selfing T t
Pollen ® Possible blood group = AB, A, B and O
SAMPLE PAPER 8
XCX × X Y
C mRNA sequence would be AUG UAC CCA
(Carrier woman) (Affected man) GGC. Thus, among tRNA sequences given in
XC X
diagram, binding would occur in following
sequence UAC AUG GGU CCG.
C C C
XC X X X X F1-generation 49. (c) Female having blocked Fallopian tubes (F)
Y XC Y XY can copulate and ovulate but the process of
fertilisation is not possible as the transport of
50% of their daughter will be colourblind, while gamete is blocked.
the other 50% will be carrier. Similarly, 50% of 50. (c) Copper-T is an IUD inserted in female
their son will colourblind, while the other 50% uterus (E) through vagina by doctors and
will be unaffected. trained nurses.
41. (c) Out of the crosses given in the option, the 51. (c) Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT) is a
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appropriate option is the cross between both procedure in which embryo with more than
homozygous recessive parents, i.e. tt ´ tt. 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus
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As only parents having recessiveness can have for further development, when female’s
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recessive, F1 progeny. Fallopian ducts (F) are blocked.
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tt × tt Parents 52. (d) Progesterone is responsible for
t t Gametes maintaining blood lining in uterus (E) for
implantation of fertilised egg.
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tt F1-generation
53. (c) Tubectomy is a surgical contraceptive
42. (a) The given diagram is from Meselson and method in which the Fallopians tubes are cut
Stahl experiment and clearly depicts that equal
amount ot light DNA and hybrid DNA was
ch and tied surgically to block the transport of
gametes.
observed in E. coli culture after two generations.
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54. (c) Infundibulum is closest to the ovary.
43. (a) Watson and Crick proposed that DNA
55. (a) Statements I and II are the correct reasons
consists of two strands that are helically coiled.
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44. (d) Lac operon is regulated by lac repressor and 56. (c) The affected individual is suffering from
CAP-cAMP complex. Lac repressor turns the chromosomal disorder (Klinefelter’s
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gene off. Such a regulation is called negative syndrome) resulting in tall stature and
regulation. feminine character like development of
45. (a) In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, the breasts, etc.
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generation time (replication time) of E. coli 57. (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and
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the experiment had heavy 15 N incorporated in and egg develops into female. Rest
its genetic material and had a hybrid density. statements are correct with respect to the
sex-determination in honeybees.
46. (a) For initiation, the ribosomes bind to the
mRNA (A) at the start codon and AUG (B) is 58. (c) The diagram shows transcription
SAMPLE PAPER 8
SAMPLE PAPER 9
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
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General Instructions
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1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
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(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
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3. There is NO negative marking.
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Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
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2. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the given figure and select the correct
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option.
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A
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C
SAMPLE PAPER 9
A B C D
(a) Seed coat Scutellum Epicotyl Hypocotyl
(b) Seed coat Scutellum Hypocotyl Epicotyl
(c) Seed coat Cotyledon Endosperm Hypocotyl
(d) Seed coat Endosperm Cotyledon Hypocotyl
186 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
5. The given diagrams depict two plants of the same species. Identify the true statements
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regarding P1 and P2 .
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P1
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P2
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Codes
(a) Only I (b) II and III
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6. Consider the following statements related to the human male reproductive system.
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III. The secretion of prostate gland also helps in lubrication of the penis.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and III (b) II and III
(c) I and II (d) Only I
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 187
A
C
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A B C
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(a) Proliferative phase Menstrual phase Secretory phase
(b) Menstrual phase Proliferative phase Secretory phase
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(c) Secretory phase Menstrual phase Proliferative phase
(d) Menstrual phase Secretory phase Proliferative phase
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8. Vasa efferentia are the ductules that lead from
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(a) testicular lobules to rete testis (b) rete testis to vas deferens
(c) vas deferens to epididymis (d) epididymis to urethra
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(a) A woman ovulates during pregnancy, but the oviducts are plugged with protective
mucus to prevent sperm from entering
(b) High levels of hCG in women’s bodies kill sperm
d
(c) A woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy due to the presence of a protective
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10. The given figure represents locations in human female reproductive system that are
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affected by different birth control measures. Identify them and select the correct
option.
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Uterus
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Fallopian tube
SAMPLE PAPER 9
Q P
Cervix
Vagina
188 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
P Q R S
(a) Copper-T Birth control pills Tubectomy Condom
(b) Birth control pills Copper-T Tubectomy Diaphragm
(c) Birth control pills Diaphragm Tubectomy Copper-T
(d) Copper-T Birth control pills Condom Diaphragm
11. Which of the following factors can cause problems related to reproductive health?
(a) Misuse of amniocentesis
(b) Myths and misconceptions regarding sex-related aspects
(c) Congenital or acquired infertility
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(d) All of the above
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12. If F1 -generation consists of all tall progenies and the ratio of F2 -generation is 3 : 1
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(tall : dwarf), then it describes
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(a) law of segregation (b) law of dominance
(c) incomplete dominance (d) law of independent assortment
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13. Which of the following is true about linkage ?
I. It is phenomenon in which more recombinants are produced in F 2 -generation.
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II. More parental combinations are produced in F 2 -generation.
III. Genotypes which were present in F 1 hybrid, reappear in high frequency in
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F 2 -generation.
IV. It is a phenomenon in which two chromosomes are linked.
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15. A cross is performed on wheat plant for the determination of grain colour in progeny.
Following the cross, AABBCC (dark colour) ´ aabbcc (light colour), in F 2 -generation,
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less than 5% progeny is likely to resemble either of the parent. This cross is an example
do
of
(a) polygenic inheritance
(b) pleiotropic inheritance
(c) recombination
SAMPLE PAPER 9
17. A homozygous tall plant (T) bearing red (R) flowers is crossed with a homozygous
dwarf plant (t) bearing white flowers (r). What is the dihybrid ratio of the cross and the
phenotype in F 2 -generation?
Dihybrid ratios Phenotypes
(a) 13 : 3 Tall and red, dwarf and red
Tall and red, tall and white, dwarf and red and
(b) 9:3:3:1
dwarf and white
(c) 13 : 3 Tall and red, dwarf and white
Tall and red, tall and white, dwarf and white or
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(d) 9:3:3:1
dwarf and red
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18. Read the following statements and choose the option with incorrect statements.
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I. DNA is composed of A + T + U + G.
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II. Adenine is a nitrogenous base.
III. Living state is non-equilibrium steady state.
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IV. Pitch of DNA is 34Å.
Codes ch
(a) I, III and IV (b) Only I
(c) II, III and IV (d) I and II
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19. Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzymes are also called
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20. During chain elongation, formation of peptide bond between carboxyl group of 1st
amino acid and amino group of 2nd amino acid by
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22. Few steps involved in polypeptide synthesis are given below. In which of the following
steps does tRNA participates?
I. Activation of amino acids by binding with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme.
II. Elongation of polypeptide chain.
SAMPLE PAPER 9
23. The given diagram of the lac operon showing an operon of inducible enzymes. Identify
components and enzymes (A, B, C, D and E).
i p o z y a
mRNA Transcription
lac mRNA
D Translation
Enzymes
A B C
E
(a) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase, D–Repressor protein,
m
E–Inducer (lactose)
(b) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase, D–Inducer (lactose),
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E–Repressor protein
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(c) A–Galactosidase, B–Transacetylase, C–Permease, D–Repressor protein,
E–Inducer (lactose)
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(d) A–Permease, B–Transacetylase, C–-Galactosidase, D–Repressor protein,
E–Inducer (lactose)
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24. Which of the following are all nucleotides?
(a) Adenosine, cytidylic acid, cytosine ch
(b) Adenylic acid, cytidylic acid, guanylic acid
(c) Cytidine, adenine, adenylic acid
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(d) Uracil, thymidine, thymidylic acid
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Section B
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
d
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Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
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25. Assertion (A) Exalbuminous seeds do not have any residual endosperm, as it is
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Reason (R) The myometrium exhibits strong contractions during delivery of baby.
27. Assertion (A) Use of condoms safeguards a person against STDs like AIDS and also
keep a check on unwanted pregnancy.
Reason (R) Certain contraceptives are planted under the skin of upper arm to the
prevent pregnancy.
28. Assertion (A) Y-chromosome causes maleness.
Reason (R) If the number of X-chromosome is more than one, femaleness dominates.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 191
29. Observe the diagram of cleavage shown below. Choose the correct statements
regarding cleavage.
Zona pellucida Blastomeres
Micromeres
Macromeres
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smaller.
III. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into two layers, i.e. trophoblast and
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endometrium.
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IV. Cleavage divisions result in a solid ball of cell called morula.
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Which of the above two statements are correct?
(a) I and III (b) II and IV
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(c) I and II (d) III and IV
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30. The portion of embryonal axis between plumule (future shoot) and cotyledons is called
(a) hypocotyl (b) epicotyl
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(c) coleorhiza (d) coleoptile
31. A botanist studying Citrus, noticed that Citrus have embryos that were generated by
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(a) synergids
(b) maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
(c) antipodal cells
d
32. A regular cycling woman is not menstruating, which one of the following is the most
likely to be the root cause?
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33. A childless couple wants to conceive a child of their own. Which technique can be used
to help them overcome this infertility?
(a) Vasectomy (b) Tubectomy
(c) ART (d) Oral pills
SAMPLE PAPER 9
35. If endosperm cell has 27 number of chromosomes then find out the chromosome
number in the definitive nucleus.
(a) 9 (b) 18 (c) 28 (d) 36
192 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
36. A tobacco plant heterozygous for a recessive character is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds
are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype?
(a) 1200 (b) 600
(c) 300 (d) 750
37. Short hair is due to a dominant gene L and long hair is due to its recessive allele l (in
rabbit). A cross between a short-haired female and a long-haired male produces a litter
of 1 long-haired and 7 short-haired bunnies. What are the genotypes of the parents?
(a) LL (male) ´ ll (female)
(b) ll (male) ´ LL (female)
(c) Ll (female) ´ ll (male)
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(d) Ll (male) ´ ll (female)
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38. Genes A and B are necessary for normal hearing. A deaf man marries a deaf woman
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and all their children have normal hearing. The genotype of the parents are
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(a) AAbb and AAbb (b) Aabb and aaBb
(c) AAbb and aaBB (d) aaBB and aaBb
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39. Which two processes are best represented by diagram shown below?
Tt ch Tt
T t T t
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TT Tt Tt tt
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40. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded
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plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded
plants would you expect in F1-generation?
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(a) 50 : 50 (b) 9 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
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42. If a double-stranded DNA consists of 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of
SAMPLE PAPER 9
adenine in it.
(a) 20% (b) 40%
(c) 60% (d) 30%
Many loops on
finger tips
Palm crease
Big and wrinkled
tongue
Congenital
heart disease
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(a) Turner’s syndrome (b) Down’s syndrome
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(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome (d) Haemophilia
15
45. Escherichia coli fully labelled with N is allowed to grow in 14 N medium. The two
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strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have
(a) different density and do not resemble parent DNA
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(b) different density, but resemble parent DNA
(c) same density and resemble parent DNA
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47. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is
called
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p i p o z y a
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Repressor mRNA
SAMPLE PAPER 9
Which of the following statements concerning the regulatory genes (i), associated with
the lac operon are correct?
(a) mRNA is transcribed from the i gene whether lactose is present or not
(b) mRNA is transcribed from the i gene only when the lactose is present
(c) mRNA is transcribed from the i gene only when the lactose is not present
(d) Lactose inhibits the translation of i gene mRNA
194 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10
questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.
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A
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B
.c
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D
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C
E
ch
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49. Identify the labels C and D.
(a) C–Interlobular connective tissue, D–Pectoralis major muscle
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51. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes containing
clusters of cells called ………… .
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55. Consider the following statements regarding ABO blood group in human.
I. ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.
II. It is controlled by multiple alleles.
III. Codominance can be manifested phenotypically in human.
IV. It follows the Mendel’s law of inheritance.
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) Only I (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) IV and II
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& %
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Rr × Rr
(Pink) (Pink)
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Parents
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Gametes R r R r
F1 - generation
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& r
R
%
R RR
ch Rr
r Rr rr
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Genotypic ratio RR : Rr : rr
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1:2:1
Phenotypic ratio Red : Pink : White
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(b) Codominance
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57. Study the given test cross and choose the correct option for F2 -generation.
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AB AB ´ ab ab Genotypes
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F1-generation
AB/ab
Dihybrid
AB AB ab ab Gametes
SAMPLE PAPER 9
F2-generation
58. Identify and choose which of the following is incorrect regarding this project.
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(c) Methodologies involve expressed sequence tags and sequence annotation
(d) It is not associated with non-human organisms DNA sequences
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59. Which is A and B in given diagram?
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′
ch
B
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m
A
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d
de
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A B
(a) Lagging strand Movement of helicase
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60. Which option shows correctly labelled region in the given diagram of DNA
replication?
5′
SAMPLE PAPER 9
A
3′
Lagging strand C
5′
B
3′
(a) A and C (b) Only C (c) A and B (d) B and C
OMR SHEET SP 9
Roll No.
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
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Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.
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1 21 41
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2 22 42
3 23 43
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4 24 44
5 25 ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
8 28 48
m
9 29 49
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10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
14 34 54
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15 35 55
16 36 56
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17 37 57
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18 38 58
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19 39 59
20 40 60
EXPLANATIONS
1. (d) Wind-pollinated flowers are small, their The secretions of Bulbourethral glands help in
petals are either absent or reduced, while lubrication of penis.
m
pollen grains are light, small and dusty and 7. (c) The arrow '¯' represents the beginning of the
thus easy to be carried by wind. cycle. Day 1-5 is the bleeding phase or menstrual
o
Whereas in the insect pollinating flowers, the phase. Hence, B is menstrual phase.
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petals are bright and scented, so that the C is proliferative phase as Graafian follicle mature
insects get attracted to it. after the end of menstrual phase.
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Thus, wind-pollinated plants differ from On day 14, the ovulation occurs and if the ovum
insect-pollinated plants in having no petals does not fertilise then it forms corpus luteum and
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and light pollen. this phase is called secretory phase represented by
2. (d) The labels A, B, C and D in the given A.
figure are seed coat, endosperm, cotyledon
and hypocotyl.
ch 8. (b) The seminiferous tubules are closed at one end
but on the opposite side, they join the network of
Thus, option (d) is correct. rete testis where fine ciliated ductules, the vasa
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3. (a) 60% of angiosperms shed their pollens at efferentia arise. Cilia help in the conduction of
2-celled stage and in rest 40%, the pollens are sperms. The rete testis is thus, a network of tubules
m
l
Genetic recombination in cross-pollination
any ovulation.
produces healthier progenies generation to
generation whereas in self-pollination, As a result, a woman cannot get pregnant during
nl
to diseases. 10. (b) Birth control pills (P) are a kind of medicine
So, the cross-pollination is preferred over with hormones. They alter or inhibit ovulation and
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self-pollination because the new varieties are fertilisation and also modify the quality of cervical
formed. mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
5. (c) P1 is geitonogamy which is a type of
l
Diaphragm (S) prevents the sperm from entering
pollination in which pollens of one flower the uterus by covering the cervix.
SAMPLE PAPER 9
m
l
Genomic RNA may be single-stranded or
13. (a) Only statement I is correct about linkage. double-stranded.
o
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be l
Synthesis of rRNA occurs in nucleolus.
corrected as
.c
22. (d) Steps in statements I, II and III are related
l
Less parental combinations are produced in
with t RNA as these are steps of polypeptide
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F2 -generation.
synthesis, i.e. translation. Steps in statement
l
Genotypes which were present in F1 hybrid, IV is not related with t RNA.
reappeared in low frequency in F2 -generation.
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l
Linkage is the phenomenon in which two genes This is because transcription involves copying
are physically linked. of genetic information from the template
cumulative effects of many genes. Grain colour in 24. (b) Adenylic acid, cytidylic acid and guanylic
wheat is an example of polygenic inheritance. acid are nucleotides. A nucleotide is made up
16. (a) After observing, the white-eye inheritance of three components, nitrogen base
d
pattern, Morgan hypothesised that a factor or (adenosine, cytosine, guanine), ribose sugar
gene, controlling eye colour was located on and a phosphate group. These are monomer
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X-chromosome. Female flies have two X unit of nucleic acid, i.e. RNA and DNA.
chromosomes and males have one X and one Y Whereas adenine, cytidine, thymidine are
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chromosome. nucleosides.
17. (b) The dihybrid ratio of the cross will be Uracil, cytosine and adenosine are
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(cytosine [C] and thymine [T]). Uracil (U) is exalbuminous, e.g. pea, gram, etc.
present in RNA in place of thymine (T).
26. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
Rest all statements are correct. correct explanation of A.
19. (b) Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme is used The wall of uterus has three layers of tissue.
in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a The external thin membranous perimetrium,
template independent manner (enzymatic middle thick layer of smooth muscle,
synthesis of RNA). It is also called Servo Ochoa myometrium and inner glandular layer called
enzymes. endometrium lines the uterine cavity. The
20. (a) During translation, polypeptide elongation endometrium undergoes cyclic changes
occurs by regular addition of varying amino acids. during menstrual cycle while the
200 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
myometrium exhibits strong contractions 34. (d) GIFT refers to Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
during delivery of baby. in which an ovum is collected from a donor into
27. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the the Fallopian tube another female. It is useful for
correct explanation of A. women with atleast one potent Fallopian tube. It
can help those fimbriae does not function
STDs like AIDS can be prevented by using
efficiently or presence of spermicidal antibodies
condoms that are a kind of barrier
in cervical secretions.
contraception as it prevents the meeting of
Thus, option (d) is correct.
sperm and ovum. Some contraceptives are
planted under the skin are called implants 35. (b) The endosperm is triploid in nature.
and these have synthetic steroid preparation. Thus, 3n = 27. Whereas, definitive nucleus is
It works similar to contraceptive pills. diploid in nature.
m
28. (c) A is true, but R is false. Thus, 2n = 18. Hence, option (b) is correct.
In mammals, presence of Y-chromosome is
36. (b) When heterozygous plants are self-pollinated,
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needed for the development of male sex
50% of the progeny would be parental type.
.c
phenotype. Hence Y-chromosome is needed
Hence, 600 seeds would have parental genotype.
for maleness. If moreover the presence of
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single Y-chromosome is enough even if 37. (c) Out of 8 bunnies, 1 is long-haired and 7
several X-chromosomes are present. However short-haired. For female (short-haired) Ll and
that individual will suffer from klinefelter’s long-haired male its ll. When these two are
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syndrome. crossed, it produces Ll, Ll, ll and ll, where it
produces 50% short-haired and 50% long haired.
29. (b) Statements II and IV are correct while I and ch
III are incorrect. Incorrect statements can be 38. (c) The genotype of the parents are AAbb and
corrected as aaBB because both the genotypes lack A and B
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l
Cleavage divisions bring about considerable genes, respectively and thus, the parents are deaf.
decrease in the mass of protoplasm. But the cross of AAbb and aaBB produces
genotypes AaBb which has both A and B gene
m
l
Blastomeres arrange themselves to form
inner cell mass and trophoblast. and thus the children have normal hearing.
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30. (b) The seed coat encloses an embryo which is 39. (b) Correct answer is segregation and
differentiated into plumule, radicle and recombination. These are the processes that occur
cotyledons. Plumule is the upper terminal part during the formation of sex cells. In these
processes, a pair of similar that is homologous
d
radicle, which develops into future root. In a mutually recombine. In recombination, the DNA
seed, one (in monocots) or two (in dicots) molecule is broken at the same place in both
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cotyledons may be present. The part of homologous chromosomes. If the original parts of
embryonic axis between the plumule and the some chromosomes subsequently rejoin, no
point of attachment of cotyledons is called recombination occurs.
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epicotyl. 40. (a) Yellow (Y) seeds are dominant to green (y). So,
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31. (b) In Citrus, apomictic embryos arise from a heterozygous yellow seeded plant will have
maternal sporophytic tissue-like nucellus and genotype Yy.
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Yy yy
integuments in ovule. This type of embryo is
called adventive embryo. Y y
y Yy yy F1
32. (d) For fertilisation to take place, one of the
sperm must attach itself to the ovum and y Yy yy
SAMPLE PAPER 9
33. (c) Couples who are not able to produce 41. (a) Dihybrid cross is a cross between two
children inspite of unprotected sex are called different lines or genes that differ in two observed
infertile. Various methods are now available traits. According to Mendel’s statement, between
to help such couples these special techniques the alleles of both these loci, there is a
are called Assisted Reproductive Technologies relationship of completely dominant recessive
(ARTs). traits. And in the F2 progeny, the proportion of
dominant trait seems to appear 3 times out of 16.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 201
Therefore, in the F2 progeny of a dihybrid cross, 50. (a) Several mammary ducts join to form
the expected genotypic proportions of individual wider mammary ampulla (B) which stores
homozygous for both the dominant character will milk (i.e. milk reservoir) and is thus,
be 1/16. connected to lactiferous duct through which
42. (d) According to Chargaff’s rule, the amount of milk is sucked out.
adenine is always equal to thymine and amount of 51. (d) Structure E represents alveoli. The cell of
guanine is equal to cytosine. Also, purines and alveoli secretes milk, which is stored in the
pyrimidines are always in equal amounts, that is cavities (lumens) of alveoli.
A + G =T + C 52. (b) Structure E opens into mammary tubules.
Thus, cytosine = 20%. So, guanine will also be 20% The tubules of each lobe join to form a
and adenine and thymine are 30% each. mammary duct.
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43. (c) Human genome has 3.1647 million nucleotide 53. (b) The ejection of milk into the mammary
base pairs (3 ´ 109 bp). Whereas the average gene ducts (A) is stimulates by oxytoxin hormone.
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size is 3000 bP. The human genome consists of 54. (c) The mammary glands are modified form
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approximately 20,500-25,000 genes. of sweat glands in both males and females.
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44. (b) Babies with Down’s syndrome have an extra 55. (b) Statements I and II are correct whereas III
copy of the 21st chromosome. The symptoms and IV are incorrect. Incorrect statements can
include be corrected as
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(i) Broad and flat facial features l
Codominance cannot be manifested
(ii) small and flat head phenotypically in humans as ABO blood
(iii) Short neck
ch group in humans has three alleles of gene I
(IA , IB , i).
(iv) Big and wrinkled tongue
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l
ABO blood grouping system in humans
(v) Eyes that slant upward
does not follow Mendel’s laws of
(vi) Palm crease inheritance.
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45. (b) This experiment was performed by Meselson 56. (a) It can be observed that dominant allele
and Stahl to demonstrate the semiconservative (R) have incomplete dominance over
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nature of DNA replication, i.e. each parent strand recessive allele (r), which made it possible to
of DNA serves as template for the synthesis of distinguish RR as red, Rr as pink and rr as
new daughter strands. white.
d
continuously working, whether lactose (inducer) point of DNA synthesis in the lagging strand.
is present or not. It transcribes mRNA which B is DNA helicase that unwinds the two
codes for repressor. When this repressor binds strands during replication.
with lactose (inducers) it inhibits translation of
operator gene (not i gene). Thus, lactose presence 60. (b) According to the diagram given in the
affects operator gene not i gene. question, only part that is correctly labelled is
C that is lagging strand because replication in
49. (b) The labels C and D in the given figure lagging strand is opposite to leading strand
represent areola and pectoralis major muscle, with short Okazaki fragments being formed
respectively. which later gets linked together.
202 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
SAMPLE PAPER 10
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination
General Instructions
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1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
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(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
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2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
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Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. ch Time allowed : 90 Minutes
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Section A
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(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
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2. Given below is the TS of testis showing sectional view of a few seminiferous tubules.
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Identify the parts labelled as A-D and select the correct option.
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D
A
B
C
SAMPLE PAPER 10
4. Which structure is a short narrow lumen that follows ampulla and joins the uterus?
(a) Infundibulum (b) Ampulla
(c) Cervical canal (d) Isthmus
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I. ‘X‘ inhibits transport of gametes.
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II. ‘X’ involves cutting and tieing of vasa efferentia.
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III. ‘Y‘ inhibits implantation.
IV. ‘Y‘ inhibits transport of gametes.
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Choose the correct option.
(a) I and III (b) II and III (c) Only IV
ch (d) II and IV
6. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the female reproductive
organs of flower?
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I. The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.
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II. Ovarian cavity is also known as ovarian locule and is present inside the ovary.
III. Placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.
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(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I and III (d) I, II, III and IV
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7. In Column I, diagram of female reproductive system is given and in Column II, list of
female reproductive parts is given.
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Column I Column II
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1. Rectum
A
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2. Clitoris
B
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3. Vaginal orifice
C 4. Pubic symphysis
5. Uterus
D
SAMPLE PAPER 10
6. Urinary bladder
7. Cervix
Identify the correct labelling and part given in columns I and II by choosing correct
option.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 6 4 1 (b) 7 5 4 3
(c) 2 6 4 5 (d) 5 4 3 2
204 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
8. In monocot embryo,
(a) scutellum is absent
(b) two cotyledons are found
(c) suspensor cell is 6-10 layers
(d) suspensor is single-celled
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(d) Mammary tubules, Mammary duct, Lactiferous duct, Alveoli lumen
10. In oogenesis, when a diploid cell in the ovary undergoes meiosis, how many ova
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result?
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(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
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11. Given below is the graph showing hormonal secretion during menstrual cycle.
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Ovarian hormone levels
Oestrogen
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Progesterone
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1 5 10 15 20 25 29
Days
Following are the events of menstrual cycle. Which of these are correctly paired with
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12. When there are more than two alleles controlling the same character. These are called
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13. Which of the following statements are correct reasons for why fruitfly is excellent
model for genetics?
SAMPLE PAPER 10
14. Which of the following option is correct for starch synthesis in pea seeds controlled by
single gene which has two allelic forms, B and b?
(a) BB is round seed with large starch synthesis
(b) bb is wrinkled seed with large starch synthesis
(c) Bb is round seed with less starch synthesis
(d) All of the above
15. Identify the incorrect statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood
groups.
(a) A person will have only two of the three alleles
(b) When I A and I B are present together, they express same type of sugar
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(c) Allele ‘I’ does not produce any sugar
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(d) The gene I has three alleles
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16. A plant of F1 -generation has genotypes ‘AABbCC’. On selfing of this plant, the
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phenotypic ratio in F2 -generation will be
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
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(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
17. Some terms and their information is given in columns I and II, identify which of the
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following is incorrect matched pair.
Column I Column II
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The observations that genetic elements
(a) Law of segregation 1.
separate when gametes are formed
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expresses itself
An organism that has one copy of each allele
(c) Heterozygous 3.
for a given characteristic
d
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18. Which of the following statements about Hershey and Chase experiment are correct?
I. The viruses grown in the presence of 32 P contained radioactive DNA.
nl
20. According to operon concept, the regulatory gene regulates biochemical reaction in a
cell by
(a) inhibiting transcription (b) inactivating enzymes
(c) inactivating replication (d) inhibiting migration of mRNA
21. Which of the following is/are incorrect about the promoter gene?
(a) The promoter is located toward 3¢ end (downstream) of the structural gene
(b) Promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase
(c) The presence of promoter in a transcription unit defines the template and coding strands
(d) Both (b) and (c)
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22. If following is the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA, predict the sequence of amino
acids coded by it
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AUG UUU UUC UUC UUU UUU UUC
.c
(a) Met–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe (b) Met–Phe–Leu–Leu–Phe–Phe–Leu
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(c) Ser–Leu–Phe–Leu–Phe–Leu–Phe (d) Arg–Leu–Leu–Leu–Leu–Leu
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(a) 2 ¢ C pentose sugar (b) 3¢ C pentose sugar
(c) 5¢ C pentose sugar ch (d) 1¢ C pentose sugar
N
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NH
Section B
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(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
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Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
SAMPLE PAPER 10
25. Assertion (A) Infertility is the inability to produce children inspite of unprotected
intercourse.
Reason (R) ART can help out such infertile couples.
26. Assertion (A) IUT is transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the
Fallopian tubes.
Reason (R) IUT is a popular method to form embryos via., in vitro fertilisation.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 207
27. Assertion (A) Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis division to form megaspore.
Reason (R) All the four megaspores form female gametophyte.
28. Assertion (A) Mendel conducted artificial pollination experiments for his genetic
studies using true breeding pea lines.
Reason (R) A true breeding line is unstable and can only express for the one or two
generations.
29. Placenta is the life support system for the foetus. It connects the foetus with the mother
during gestation period.
Placental villi
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Cavity of
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uterus
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Yolk sac
Umbilical cord
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with its vessels Embryo
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ch Plug of mucus
in cervix
30. Which of the following statements is incorrect in accordance with the viability of the
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mammalian sperm?
(a) Structure of the sperm represents a head, middle piece and a tail.
nl
31. Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
(a) Decrease in oestradiol
SAMPLE PAPER 10
32. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because
(a) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation
(b) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
(c) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
(d) Both (b) and (c)
208 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
33. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of
moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
(a) Banana (b) Yucca (c) Hydrilla (d) Viola
34. …A… makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to …B… .
(a) A–Hormone releasing IUD, B–spermatogonia
(b) A–Hormone releasing IUD, B–sperms
(c) A–Sperms, B–hormonal releasing IUD
(d) A–Sperms, B–ova
35. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does
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not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis (b) AIDS
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(c) Gonorrhoea (d) Genital warts
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36. Obtaining 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio in a dihybrid cross denotes
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(a) that the alleles of two genes are interacting with each other
(b) that it is a multigenic inheritance
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(c) that it shows multiple allelism
(d) that the alleles of two genes segregate independently
ch
37. If Mendel had studied 8 traits using pea plant with 14 chromosomes, he would
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(a) not have proposed that chromosomes are carriers of hereditary factor
(b) not have discovered the law of independent assortment
(c) have not discovered sex linkage
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38. Among the following, which can be explained on the basis of Mendel’s law of
segregation?
d
(a) When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters
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(d) Alleles do not show any blending. Both characters recover as such in F2 -generation
nl
Chromosome 16 Chromosome 11
A B C
SAMPLE PAPER 10
Name of genes
(a) A–HBA3, B–HBA1, C–HBA2 (b) A–HBA1, B–HBA2, C–HBB
(c) A–HBB, B–HBA1, C–HBA2 (d) A–HBA1, B–HBB, C–HBA2
40. In four ’O’ clock plants, the gene for red flower colour, denoted by R, shows
incomplete dominance over the gene for white flower colour denoted by r. The
resultant progeny is heterozygous (Rr) and have pink flowers. What will be the ratio of
the offsprings if a cross is made between red and pink flowers?
(a) 75% red flowers, 25% pink flowers (b) 100% red flowers
(c) 50% red flowers, 50% pink flowers (d) Red: Pink: White in ratio 1 : 2 : 1
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 209
42. E. coli has only 4.6 ´ 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication within
18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerisation is approximately
(a) 2000 bp/s (b) 3000 bp/s
(c) 4000 bp/s (d) 1000 bp/s
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43. While analysing the DNA of an organism, a total number of 5386 nucleotides were
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found out of which the proportion of different bases were Adenine = 29%, Guanine =
17%, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%. Considering the Chargaff‘s rule it can be
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concluded that
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(a) it is a double-stranded circular DNA (b) it is single-stranded DNA
(c) it is a double-stranded linear DNA (d) No conclusion can be drawn
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44. Observe the given process of transcription in bacteria given below.
3′ 5′
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5′ 3′
I
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3′ 5′
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5′ 3′
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RNA II
3′ 5′
d
5′ 3′
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III
RNA
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I II III
(a) s r s
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(b) s r r
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(c) s s r
(d) r s s
45. In a 3.2 kbp long piece of DNA, 820 adenine bases were found. What would be the
SAMPLE PAPER 10
Thymine T A
C G Adenine
T A
G C
T A
A
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Sugar-phosphate
G backbone
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G C
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C G
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T A
Hydrogen
bonds
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5′
ch 3′
Which of the following statements is not related to the structure of double helical DNA?
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(a) The helix makes one complete spiral turn every 34 Å
(b) The diameter of the helix is 20 Å
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48.
15N15N 14N15N 14N14N 14N15N
d
Which heavy isotope is used in above experiment for proving the semiconservative
mode of DNA?
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Section C
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(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.
The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.)
SAMPLE PAPER 10
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.
P
Q
R
X Y
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 211
49. What gets transferred between plants X and Y in the process indicated by Q?
(a) Ova (b) Nutrients (c) Pollen (d) Seeds
50. Which of the following is correct in accordance with the three processes shown in the
diagram?
(a) All the three processes bring about genetic variability in the offspring of the plants
X and Y
(b) Wind acts as an agent for the process Q if both the plants belong to genus-Salvia
(c) Flowers of both the plants X and Y should have fragrance and nectar in order to
complete the processes P and Q if they are entomophilous
(d) Flowers of both the plants X and Y need to produce sticky pollens in order to complete
m
‘Q’ if both of them belongs to the genus–Cannabis
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51. Among P, Q and R, the one that would result in greater adaptability of a certain species
.c
to environmental changes is/are
(a) P (b) P and Q (c) Q (d) All of these
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52. Which type of pollination is shown by R and P ?
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(a) Xenogamy, Autogamy (b) Autogamy, Geitonogamy
(c) Chasmogamy, Xenogamy (d) Cleistogamy, Autogamy
54. To prevent self-pollination as shown in ‘P’ and ‘R‘ anther from flower bud are removed
before they dehisce by the process of
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55. Which of the following options demonstrate tall and dwarf pea plants in the same
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proportions?
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TT tt Tt tt TT Tt tt tt
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Meiosis Mitosis
Gametes n n n
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Identify in which of the following organisms, this type of sex-determination is found.
(a) Cockroaches and ants
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(b) Birds and reptiles
.c
(c) Butterflies and moths
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(d) Honeybees, ants and wasps
58. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase made a big contribution proving DNA role as the
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hereditary molecule. The experiment is shown in the figure A and C are the presence or
absence radioactivity detected in cells B and D are the presence or absence of
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radioactivity detected in supernatant cells. Identify the labelled parts as A, B, C and D,
respectively.
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Bacteriophage
Radioactive ( 32P) labelled DNA
Radioactive (35S) labelled Experiment 2
protein capsule
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Experiment I
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1. Infection
d
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2. Blending
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3. Centrifugation
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C
A +
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+ D
B
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Base
Which of the following figures show two nucleotides correclty joined together?
(a) (b)
om
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(c) (d)
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ch
60. The process by which a DNA molecule makes its identical copies is known as DNA
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replication. Given below is the parental strand of DNA.
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Parent strand
of DNA
d
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Identify which of the following new strand shows the semeiconservative mode of
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replication?
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SAMPLE PAPER 10
OMR SHEET SP 10
Roll No.
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
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Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
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Multiple markings are invalid.
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1 21 41
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2 22 42
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3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25
ch 45
6 26 46
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7 27 47
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8 28 48
9 29 49
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10 30 50
11 31 51
d
12 32 52
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13 33 53
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14 34 54
15 35 55
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16 36 56
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17 37 57
18 38 58
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19 39 59
20 40 60
EXPLANATIONS
1. (a) Sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each 12. (c) When there are more than two alleles
microsporangium. Each cell of this tissue is a controlling the same character.
m
potential pollen mother cell and can give rise to These are called multiple alleles.
microspore tetrad.
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13. (d) Statements I, II, III and IV are correct
2. (d) In the given diagram, A–Sertoli cells (which
.c
while statement V is incorrect. Incorrect
provide nourishment), B–Spermatogonia (these
statement can be corrected as
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are diploid and contain 46 chromosome ),
C–Interstitial cells (secrete testicular hormone), In fruitfly (Drosophila) many heredity
D–Spermatozoa (the male gamete) variations can be seen with low power
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microscope.
3. (b) The dehiscence (release of pollen grain) of
anther occurs through the line of dehiscence 14. (a) Option (a) is correct. This can be
which is the running groove on anther
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explained as
longitudinally. It separates the theca of anther. Occasionally a single gene product may
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4. (d) Isthmus is a short narrow lumen that follows produce more than one effect. Like starch
ampulla and joins the uterus. synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one
gene having two alleles (B and b). Thus, the
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female is cut and tied surgically, so as to inhibit l BB–round seed, large starch synthesis.
sperm transport in males and gametes transport l bb–wrinkled seed, less starch synthesis.
(sperm and ovum) in female to prevent l Bb–round seed, intermediate starch
d
6. (d) All the given statements are correct. Thus, if we take size as a phenotype, allele B
7. (b) A–7, B–5, C–4, D–3 shows complete dominance over ‘b’, but if
we take starch synthesis as a phenotype,
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can be corrected as
9. (b) The correct pathway of milk flow in human
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duct ® Mammary ampulla ® Lactiferous duct both express their own sugar and thus
behave as codominant alleles.
10. (a) In oogenesis, when a diploid cell in the ovary
undergoes meiosis, one ovum is produced. 16. (a) Genotype of F1-generation is AABbCC,
SAMPLE PAPER 10
11. (c) Option (c) is correctly matched pair. number of gametes produced by it
Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation = 2n = 21 = 2
during 11-18 days. Hence, there will be two gametes, ABC and
Rest other options are incorrectly matched pairs AbC. On selfing, the phenotype of F2 would
and can be corrected as be 3:1.
l Release of egg (ovulation) occurs on the 14th day. %
& ABC AbC
l The endometrium lining starts regenerating
during the 5th and the 13th day. It is the ABC AABBCC AABbCC
proliferative phase.
l Rise in progesterone levels is seen during 15th to AbC AABbCC AAbbCC
27th day of the 28 days menstrual cycle.
216 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
17. (b) Match pair in option (b) is incorrect and can 26. (d) A is false, but R is true because
be corrected as-When in a heterozygous IVF method, popularly called test tube baby
organism both alleles express themselves is programme involves collection of ova from
called codominance. female and sperms from male. These are then
18. (d) Statements I, II and IV are correct. introduced to form zygote under artificial but
Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected as similar conditions in the laboratory followed
35
S will end up in the supernatant after by Embryo Transfer (ET) either by ZIFT in
centrifugation as sulphur is present in proteins. which the zygote (with upto 8 blastomeres)
can be transferred to the Fallopian tube or by
19. (a) The process of translation requires transfer of IUT in which the embryos with more than 8
genetic information from a polymer of blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.
nucleotides to a polymer of amino acids.
27. (c) A is true, but R is false because
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20. (a) According to operon concept, the regulatory
Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis
gene regulates biochemical reaction in a cell by
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only which results in the formation of four
inhibiting transcription.
.c
haploid megaspores.
21. (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and can Out of four megaspores, only the chalazal
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be corrected as megaspore remains functional and gives rise
The promoter is located toward 5 ¢ end to female gametophyte. Rest three undergo
degeneration.
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(upstream) of the structural gene.
22. (a) AUG codes Methionine (Met) 28. (c) A is true, but R is false because
UUU codes Phenylalanine (Phe) ch Mendel conducted artificial pollination
UUC codes Phenylalanine (Phe) experiments for his genetic studies using true
Thus, the sequence of amino acid coded will be breeding pea lines.
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Met-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe. A true breeding line is purely stable and can
express for several generations.
23. (d) In a DNA polynucleotide chain, a
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nitrogenous base is linked to the hydroxy 29. (d) Secretion of oxytocin is not the function of
placenta. During parturition oxytocin is
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N
N is covered by acrosome that contains
O
N
enzymes which helps the sperm to enter the
N
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Phosphate
OH H
with haploid nucleus in ovum.
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Deoxyribose
Rest all the statements are correct in
sugar accordance with the viability of the
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mammalian sperm.
24. (b) The given structure is of adenine, it is a
nitrogenous base. 31. (a) Decrease in oestradiol is not associated
with ovulation in human female. Oestradiol
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
is also known as oestrogen which is a
SAMPLE PAPER 10
correct explanation of A.
primary female sex hormone. During the
Infertility is defined as the inability to produce ovulation in human females, level of
children despite unprotected intercourse. oestradiol increases. Its main function is to
Couples which fail to give birth to young ones mature and maintain the reproductive tract.
inspite of unprotected intercourse are said to be
32. (a) No new follicles develop in the luteal
infertile.
phase of menstrual cycle because after
Assisted Reproductive Technique (ART) that ovulation, follicles do not remain in the
further includes techniques like GIFT, ZIFT can ovary. It is because during this phase,
help out infertile couples to have children. It Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle
also helps in reducing the infection risks at the Stimulating Hormone (FSH) levels decrease.
time of parturition, pregnancy and lactation.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 217
Instead, the already ruptured follicle closes with pink flowers then in F1-generation, 50%,
after releasing the egg and forms a corpus red flowers and 50% pink flowers are obtained.
luteum during luteal phase, which produces Parents R R (Red flowers) × R r (Pink flowers)
progesterone.
Gametes R R r
33. (b) Out of the given options, only Yucca
gloriosa has developed an obligate symbiotic
Progeny RR Rr
relationship with the moth, Pronuba yuccasella. (Red flowers) : (Pink flowers)
The moth cannot complete its life cycle 1 : 1
without the association with Yucca flowers.
The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the 41. (d) Sex-linked characters are inherited due to
ovary and the flower in turn gets pollinated the X-linked gene. Only X-linked recessive
by the moth. The larvae of the moth come out characters follow criss-cross inheritance. The
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of the eggs as the seeds start developing. criss-cross inheritance characters are inherited to
the second generation through the carrier of
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34. (b) Hormone releasing IUDs (A) make the first generation, which is always a female
.c
uterus unsuitable for implantation and the because they have two X-chromosomes while
cervix hostile to sperms (B). man have only one X-chromosome so, they are
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35. (b) AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency always affected.
Syndrome) is caused by HIV virus in humans. 42. (c) E. coli has 4.6 ´ 10 6 base pairs.
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It is transmitted through sexual contact from
It completes replication process in 18 minutes,
infected person to a healthy person. The HIV
i.e. 18 ´ 60 seconds.
virus does not directly affect sex organs as ch
such but produces other set of symptoms in 4.6 ´ 10 6 bp
Rate of polymerisation =
the body of infected person. 18 ´ 60 s
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36. (d) Cross that involves two contrasting traits 4.6 ´ 10 5 46 ´ 10 4
is called dihybrid cross. The two factors of = =
18 ´ 6 108
m
plant with 14 chromosomes, he would not 43. (b) According to Chargaff’s rule, A = T, G = C
have discovered the law of independent also the ratio of A to T and G to C is 1 for
double-stranded DNA but here A ¹ T and G ¹ C
oa
38. (d) Option (d) can be explained using law of 44. (c) The factors involve in initiation is sigma (s ) it
w
blending and both characters are recovered as 45. (a) According to Chargaff’s equivalency rule.
such in F2-generation. A+ G
=1
39. (b) a-thalassemia is controlled by two closely T+ C
linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on
A = T, G = C
chromosome 16. While b-thalassemia is
controlled by a single gene HBB on If A = 820 then T = 820
chromosome 11. A + T = 820 + 820 = 1640
40. (c) Incomplete dominance is reported in 3. 2 kbp = 3200 bp \ (1kbp= 1000 bp)
Mirabilis jalapa. When red flowers are crossed
218 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
m
1:1
of a population.
56. (b) Statements II, III and IV are correct, while
o
47. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can
be corrected as-The distance between adjacent statement I is incorrect. Incorrect statement
.c
nucleotide is 3.4 Å. can be corrected as
du
48. (a) 15 NH4Cl was used by Meselson and Stahl Incomplete (partial or mosaic) dominance is
the phenomenon where none of the two
in order to prove the semiconservative mode of contrasting alleles or factors are dominant. The
oe
DNA. expression of the character in a hybrid or F1
49. (c) The process indicated by Q is pollination. It individual is intermediate or a fine mixture of
involves transfer of pollen grains from anther
to the stigma of a flower. However, the stigma
ch the expression of the two factors (as found in
homozygous state). Incomplete or mosaic
can be of the same flower (self-pollination) or inheritance is not an example of pre-Mendelian
te
of other flower of another plant (cross- concept of blending inheritance because the
pollination). parental types also reappear in the
m
insects. These insects act as pollinating agents Therefore, the female is diploid (2n) and the
de
because here transfer of pollen takes place insects such as honeybees, wasps, sawflies and
from anther to stigma of same flower while in
do
ants.
P shows geitonogamy because here transfer of
pollen grain takes place from anther to stigma 58. (b) A–No radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in cells
of different flower, but of same plant. B–Radioactivity ( 35 S ) detected in supernatant
C–Radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in cells
SAMPLE PAPER 10