Question 36 Begins The Closed Book Portion of This Exam

Closed Book API 510 Practice Exam B
Question 36 begins the closed book portion of this exam

36. _________is the reduction in toughness due to a metallurgical change that can occur in some low
alloy steels as a result of long term exposure in the temperature range of about 650 oF to 1070oF
(343oC to 577oC) .
1. Mechanical fatigue
2. Brittle fracture
3. Temper embrittlement
4. Ductile failure
37. The minimum number of penetrameters used for a complete girth seam of a cylinder which is
radiographed in a single exposure containing 30 film holders is;
1. 30, one on each film holder.

2. 15 one every other film holder.
3. 3 which are 120 degrees apart.
4. 10 one every third film holder.
38. The following describes _________’the distance from the tip of the welding electrode to the adjacent
surface of the weld pool’.
1. arc blow
2. arc stand off
3. arc length
4. arc wash
39. Which of the following would be an appropriate SMAW electrode for welding a 9Cr 1Mo material?
1. E80XX-C1 or E70XX-C1L
2. E70XX-B2L or E80XX-B2
3. E80XX-B6 or E80XX-B6L
4. E80XX-B8 or E80XX-B8L
40. Which of the following methods may not be used to determine the minimum thickness of a pressure
vessel?
1. UT Thickness.
2. Depth drilling.
3. Radiography.
4. Guide Wave UT.
41. A person who assists the inspector by performing specific nondestructive examination (NDE) on
pressure vessel components but does not evaluate the results of those examinations in accordance
with API 510, unless specifically trained and authorized to do so by the owner/user is defined by the
API 510 Code as being _______.
1. a junior inspector
2. an examiner
3. an apprentice inspector
4. May be 1, 2, or 3 above depending on circumstances.
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42. What is the purpose of a welding procedure?
1. To prove that welders can perform a given weld.

2. To prove that a weldment will provide the desired properties for construction.
3. To prove that the manufacturer has meet Section X requirements.
4. To prove that anyone can perform the weld satisfactorily if qualified.
43. What is the definition of a PQR?
1. A record that supports a WPS.

2. A Procedure Qualification Record.
3. A record of the essential variables used to weld a test coupon.
4. Pre-qualifying Record of a weld.
44. The following is a true statement about tensile testing specimens from Section IX.
1. They are never allowed to fail below the stated UTS of the base metal.
2. They are never allowed to fail in weld metal.
3. They must not fail more than 5% below the listed UTS of the base metal.
4. They must never fail by breaking.
45. When performing a radiograph where is the lead letter B placed?
1. On the front of the film holder.

2. On the outside surface of the vessel.
3. On the back of the film holder.
4. On the inside surface of the vessel.
46. In the Standard Practice For Measuring Thickness by the Manual Ultrasonic Pulse Echo Method
SE797 the scope statement includes an temperature limit which is___________.
1. 250 o F
2. 200 o F
3. 50 o F
4. 150 o F
47. When performing a visual inspection of a tower which of the following tools are not required to be
available;
1. A flashlight.
2. A pit depth gauge.
3. UT thickness measurement equipment.
4. A Bronson Corrosion Metric Device (BCMD).
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48. Liquid penetrant testing is capable of detecting;
1. Subsurface porosity.
2. Discontinuities open to the surface.
3. Embrittlement.
4. Internal flaws.
49. Which of the following is not an alteration to a vessel
1. Increasing the MAWP.

2. Increasing the maximum design temperature.
3. Increasing the RV settings above the marked MAWP.
4. Adding a 4 in. (100mm) nozzle to a vessel which has other 4 in. (100mm) nozzles.
50. Hammer testing is not advisable when a vessel;
1. Is suspected of having very thin areas.

2. Is made of a soft metal such as aluminum.
3. Is under pressure.
4. Has a flange face exposed.
51. Which of the following contained in sludge will cause rapid corrosion?
1. Solid particles.
2. Liquid droplets.
3. Acidic components.
4. Gas suspended solid particles.
52. Requalification by written exam is required for an API inspector who has not been actively engaged
in API inspections in the past;
1. One year.
2. Two years.
3. Three years.
4. Four years.
53. One primary reason for inspecting pressure relief devices is to;
1. Determine the remaining life of the pressure relief device.

2. Measure and record the thickness data on the body of the valve.
3. Determine whether the device is functioning properly.
4. Clear the outlet piping of rainwater.
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54. Which of the following best describes a part of the definition of maximum allowable working
pressure for a vessel?
1. The vessel's design pressure.

2. The vessel's design pressure plus the hydrostatic head.
3. The maximum gage pressure permitted at the bottom of the vessel.
4. The maximum gage pressure permitted at the top of the vessel, in its operating position.
55. The symbol PHT on a vessel's name plate indicates;
1. A combination pneumatic and hydrostatic test.

2. The vessel has been post-weld heat treated.
3. The vessel is good for high temperatures.
4. The vessel was partially heat treated.
56. Which of the following describes types of Image Quality Indicators (IQIs) required in Section V Art
2?
1. IQIs shall be either the hole type or the shim type.

2. IQIs shall be either the wire type or the shim type.
3. IQIs shall be either the shim type or the stepped type.
4. IQIs shall be either the hole type or the wire type.
57. The primary purpose of metallic linings is;
1. Increase the thickness of the vessel wall to resist internal pressure.

2. Protect the pressure vessel wall from corrosion and or erosion.
3. Serve as internal insulation.
4. Prevent contamination of the contents.
58. If an duplicate ASME Code name plate is to be attached to pressure vessel it must be placed only on;
1. The skirt.
2. One of the heads (does not matter which).
3. On the shell.
4. Any permanent attachment to the vessel.
59. A welded carbon steel joint has a MDMT which is lower than 120 o F above what thickness must
impact tested material be used.
1. 6 inches.
2. 4 inches.
3. 2 inches.
4. 3 inches.
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60. For alteration or repairs, half bead/temper bead welding may be used as an alternative for postweld
heat treatment on vessels that require notch toughness tests, but is limited to;
1. P No. 1
2. P No. 3.
3. P Numbers 1, 3, and 4 steels.
4. P Numbers 3 and 1 but are restricted to certain group numbers.
61. A safety valve must be tested using;
1. Water.
2. Steam.
3. Air.
4. Product fluids only.
62. Temper embrittlement _______________if the material contains critical levels of the embrittling
impurity elements and is exposed in the embrittling temperature range.
1. is not serious
2. can be permanently corrected by heat treatment
3. can be prevented
4. cannot be prevented
63. The welding position referred to as 2G in pipe is defined as;
1. The weld joint being horizontal and the part being vertical.
2. The weld joint being vertical and the part being horizontal.
3. The weld joint being at 45 degrees + or - 15 degrees.
4. The weld joint being at 45 degrees + or - 5 degrees.
64. The maximum inspection interval for a vessel with a remaining life of 16 years is;
1. 10 years.
2. 5 years.
3. 8 years.
4. 16 years.
65. A crack shall not be repaired by using a fillet weld patch without the permission of the;
1. The unit engineer.

2. A pressure vessel engineer.
3. A professional engineer.
4. Plant Manager.
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66. If a hydrostatic pressure test is deemed necessary by the API inspector, and the vessel was
constructed to the 1998 edition of the ASME Code it shall be at a pressure that is determined by;
1. 1.3 x MAWP
2. 1.5 x MAWP
3. 1.25 x MAWP
4. 1.1 x MAWP
67. All pressure relieving devices must be tested and repaired by;
1. The original valve manufacturer.

2. The Authorized Inspector.
3. A repair concern which holds the NBIC VR symbol.
4. A repair concern experienced in valve maintenance.
68. Sometimes it is allowed to substitute a higher preheat as an alternative to PWHT, if this is done a;
1. Professional engineer must be consulted.

2. The authorized inspector must perform UT readings.
3. Metallurgical review must be performed.
4. Two PQRs must be completed.
69. What document should be consulted when assessing damage mechanisms found in a vessel?
1. RP 577
2. NBIC-23
3. RP 571
4. RP 572
70. If distortion of a vessel’s parts are suspected;
1. It should be shut down immediately.

2. The overall dimensions of the vessel’s parts should be checked for the extent of distortion.
3. It should be subjected to profile radiography.
4. It should be decommissioned.
71. When calculating the MAWP of a vessel after it is in service, the resulting MAWP from these
calculations cannot be higher than the original MAWP unless;
1. The actual thickness as determined by inspection is used in calculations.

2. The actual thickness minus any expected corrosion loss before the next inspection date is used in
calculations.
3. The actual thickness is minus twice any expected corrosion loss before the next inspection date is
used in calculations.
4. A re-rating is performed per the API 510 Code.
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72. The minimum actual thickness and maximum corrosion rate for any part of a vessel may be;
1. Estimated.
2. Adjusted at any inspection.
3. Changed to fit production schedules.
4. Ignored if the vessel is not operating at pressures above 30 psig.
73. The item(s) that must be given attention when inspecting riveted vessels are;
1. Caisson straps for leaks.

2. Strapped bars for corrosion.
3. Fayed edges for deterioration.
4. Caulked edges for leaks.
74. If inspecting a vessel using non-destructive inspections, where can guidance be found to accept or
reject a condition in a weld that has been discovered during the inspection?
1. Section V of the ASME Code.

2. Section VIII of the ASME or Code of construction.
3. API 510 Inspection Code.
4. NBIC.
75. Per API 510 Code the definition of the thickness used for calculating the MAWP of a vessel in order
to set the next inspection date is;
1. the most critical value of the average thickness that has been determined
2. the actual measured thickness minus 2 times the present corrosion rate
3. the original thickness less the original corrosion allowance
4. the actual measured thickness minus 4 times the present corrosion rate
76. When measuring the thickness of a corroded area of a ellipsoidal head, the governing thickness may
be as follows;
1. The thickness of the serrated region.

2. The thickness of the skirt of the head.
3. The wall reading at the spin hole within the head.
4. The thickness of the knuckle and/or the spherical regions.
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77. Before any repairs or alterations are performed, all proposed methods of design, execution, materials,
welding procedures, NDE, and testing must be approved by the ___________________________;
1. inspector and, if an alteration, by an engineer

2. inspector
3. engineer
4. owner/user
78. All repair and alteration welding must be performed in accordance with;
1. acceptable company standards

2. API approved welding procedures
3. the ASME Code, or the applicable construction or repair code
4. NBIC or jurisdiction
79. Vessels with the following dimensions are exempt from both the API 510 and the ASME Section VIII
codes.
1. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure of not more than 50 psi.
2. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure of not more than 15 lbf/in.2 (103.4 KPa)
with a limitation on size.
3. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure of not more than 50 psi with no limit on
size.
4. Vessels with an internal or external working pressure cannot exceed 15 psig (103.4 KPa).
80. Strip lining for vessels are;
1. Refractory impregnated with alloy metals.

2. Corrosion Resistant alloys of sheet or strip.
3. Butt strap, Jacobson modified, joggle/cap and the shingle.
4. Shingle, Jacobson modified, fillet butt.
81. What is one of the most important elements in providing reliability in a vessel's operation?
1. Proper welding procedures in accordance with the ASME code.

2. Regular scheduled external inspections made during equipment operation.
3. Highly trained operations personnel.
4. Avoidance of operational upsets and alerts.
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82. Several criteria should be considered when developing an effective inspection plan. Which of the
following is not a consideration?
1. Known or anticipated degradation modes.

2. Primary areas of degradation.
3. Expected degradation rate.
4. High temperature, low temperature and environmental corrosion.
83. API ____ provides detailed guidance in evaluating degradation mechanisms. In addition, common
inspection techniques are identified that should allow for effective inspection and identification of
flaws.
1. 576
2. 580
3. 579
4. 571
84. Certain insulated vessels are subject to CUI, among these are vessels who are;
1. Going from low temperature to high temperature conditions.

2. Going from high temperature conditions to low temperature conditions.
3. Undergoing metallurgical and chemical changes in the metal.
4. Externally insulated vessels subject to moisture ingress.
85. The degree of surface preparation required for external inspection will depend on
__________________;
1. the time available for preparation

2. the available cleaning equipment
3. the manpower available
4. the type and extent of deterioration expected
86. Portable hardness testers can be used to detect _____________ .
1. out of plumb shells

2. soft components attacked by Intergranular Corrosion
3. faulty heat treating
4. Out of alignment source piping.
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87. If a filler metal is used that has a minimum specified tensile strength lower than the minimum
specified tensile strength of the base metal, the compatibility of the filler metal chemistry with the
base metal chemistry shall be considered regarding weldability and service damage and
___________________.
1. the repair thickness shall not be more than 50% of the required thickness of the base metal (this
excludes corrosion allowance)
includes corrosion allowance)
excludes corrosion allowance)
includes corrosion allowance)
88. One advantage of doing external inspections while a vessel is in service is;
1. The vessels do not then require an internal inspection.

2. The plant can continue to operate until the vessels shows signs of failing.
3. Repair and replacement requirements can be planned for shutdowns.
4. Extra personnel can be eliminated during shut down periods.
89. The use of NDE devices for inspection is subject to safety requirements customarily met in gaseous
atmospheres, which are listed in API _____.
1. 2201
2. 575
3. 263
4. 2214
90. On occasion, it may be desirable to enter a vessel before it has been properly cleaned, if this is
the case what API publication describes the precautions necessary for entry?
1. API 2245A.
2. API 2256C
3. API 2134B.
4. API 2217A.
91. Use of nondestructive devices for inspection of vessels is subject to requirements customarily met in
gaseous atmospheres, where can a list of these gaseous atmospheres be found?
1. OSHA 1910 (j).

2. API publication 2214.
3. API RP 572.
4. API RP 576.
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92. External corrosion on stairs and ladders is most likely to occur where;
1. Stagnant pools of chemicals collect.

2. On parts where moisture is allowed to collect in depressions.
3. The ladders are not painted with an epoxy.
4. Vessels are located with a northern exposure.
93. Spalling of a foundation's fire proofing can be found by;
1. Radiography.
2. Dye Penetrant.
3. Using a straight edge.
4. Visual external inspection.
94. In order to inspect anchor bolts beneath the surface of concrete foundations we;
1. Use eddy current testing on the top of the bolt.

2. Probe carefully with a pick along the bolts base.
3. Probe aggressively along the bolts base.
4. Use a sideways blow with a hammer.
95. If settling of a vessel is evident, the things that must be checked in the vessel are;
1. Adjacent machinery for settlement.

2. Ground conditions for water leaks that undermine the vessel foundation.
3. Condition of connected piping.
4. Sinking of the water table in the area.
96. The degree of surface preparation needed for internal inspection will vary with several factors.
Foremost among these factors are the following:
1. The temperature at which the vessel operated such as greater than 454 oC (850 o F).
2. The type of deterioration expected.
3. The fluid service if dirty.
4. The material of construction.
97. The following is a true statement about grounding connections for vessels;
1. The mandatory resistance maximum value is 15 ohms.

2. The mandatory resistance maximum is 10 ohms.
3. 5 to 25 ohms or less, but jurisdictional rules may determine maximum values of resistance and
should be checked.
4. 35 ohms maximum.
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98. The following type(s) of external evidence of corrosion may not be found on vessels;
1. Atmospheric.
2. Caustic embrittlement.
3. Hydrogen blistering.
4. Kline’s Erosive Phenomena.
99. Leaks in a vessel are best found using what test method?
1. Radiography.
2. Acoustic emissions testing.
3. Pressure testing or vacuum testing.
4. Variable augmented pressure testing.
100. Fractionators, processing high temperature sulfur crude are susceptible to sulfide corrosion. Where is
the corrosion the most intense?
1. In the heat affected zones of welds.

2. In stagnant areas of the vessel which has poor circulation that allows concentration of the
chemicals.
3. In the bottom head and shell course, especially around nozzles.
4. In the top head and shell course.
101. What can make the installation of heat exchanger bundles extremely difficult?
1. The length of the bundle.

2. The diameter of the bundle.
3. Out of roundness in the exchanger shell.
4. Dilter-Johnson bundles.
102. When a vessel is initially hydrostatically tested one of the good side effects can be;
1. Beneficial stress redistribution at defects.

2. A thorough internal flushing.
3. Distortion.
4. The vessel’s shell often becomes perfectly round.
103. An in-situ chemical test can be administered to vessel parts to determine the type of material that has
been used in the vessel’s construction. Which of the following is the name of one such chemical?
1. Boric acid in a 20% solution of distilled water.

2. Nitric acid.
3. Phosphoric acid.
4. No such tests are possible in-situ, trepan samples must be sent to a laboratory.
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104. As regards a heat exchanger that has two fixed tube sheets, the major disadvantage it has is;
1. It is limited in its diameter.

2. The bundles are hard extract.
3. The shell side cannot be exposed for cleaning.
4. Its length is limited to 30 feet.
105. If there is a concern about even slight leakage in an exchanger the proper type to use is one which
has;
1. One fixed tube sheet with a floating head.

2. One fixed tube sheet with U tubes.
3. Two fixed tube sheets.
4. Double tube sheets.
106. Which of the following describes an induced draft air cooled exchanger?
1. The tubes are finned.

2. The tubes are usually made of aluminum.
3. The fan is located above the tubes.
4. The fan is located below the tubes.
107. Which of the following is not an advantage that a Fin-Type exchanger has over a standard type?
1. Dissipate more heat for a given size of exchanger.

2. Be fit into a smaller area.
3. Can be used effectively with two fluids that have widely different heat conductivity.
4. Requires more internal tube surface area.
108. When inspecting heat exchanger bundles, an overall heavy buildup of scale on steel tubes should raise
a suspicion that it has experienced what condition?
1. Loss of process control during operations.

2. Very dirty cooling mediums (usually cooling water).
3. General corrosion of tubes.
4. Has suffered from microbiological attack.
109. Tubes may be tested for thickness during visual inspections using many different techniques, one of
the most common and fastest is to;
1. Tap the tubes using a light ball peen hammer.

2. Ultrasonic thickness testing of the tubes.
3. Measure the thickness using outside calipers.
4. Eddy current testing.
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110. Locations where erosion or impingement corrosion in an exchanger is most likely to occur include;
1. The outside surfaces of tubes at each end of the exchanger.

2. The outside surfaces of tubes opposite shell inlet nozzles.
3. The outside surfaces of tubes opposite shell outlet nozzles.
4. The inside surfaces of tubes opposite the channel head.
111. A very common problem with Air-Cooled exchangers is the presence of corrosion at the inlets, this is
best found by;
1. Inspecting using eddy current NDE.

2. Visual inspections through the header-box plug holes.
3. Removal of the tube bundle.
4. Pressure testing.
112. Which of following does not describes a Rupture Disk Device’s use?
1. Protecting the upstream side of relief valves against corrosion.

2. Protecting the relief valves from plugging or clogging.
3. Minimizing leakage through relief valves.
4. The only pressure protection of vacuum vessels.
113. For graphite pre-bulged metal rupture disks installed so that pressure is against the concave side, the
operating pressure of the protected system is usually limited to;
1. 65 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.

2. 70 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
3. 75 - 95 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
4. 75 - 80 % of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
114. Which of the following does not describe the main reasons for inspecting relief devices?
1. To protect personnel and equipment.

2. To determine the condition of a device.
3. To evaluate the inspection frequency.
4. To insure that the device’s protective coating is of the proper type.
115. An important element in the accurate setting of all relief valve’s lifting pressure is use of;
1. Salisbury Test Blocks.

2. Properly calibrated gauges.
3. New seats and springs.
4. Soap bubble testing.
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116. What chemical substance often causes stress corrosion failure of springs in relief devices?
1. Polymers.
2. Mono-chlorides.
3. H2S.
4. Monosodium Glutamate
117. If damaged valve seats are discovered in a relief device what should be suspected as the cause?
1. Erosion.
2. Severe under sizing.
3. Improper or short piping spools at the inlet.
4. Corrosion, severe over sizing, improper or lengthy piping at the inlet.
118. Sticking of newly installed relief valves can often be traced to;
1. Poor alignment of the valve disk.

2. Incorrect valve disk.
3. Short pipe inlet runs.
4. Long pipe inlet runs.
119. In hydrogen sulfide service one issue that must be considered critical when choosing over pressure
protection is;
1. Hydrogen chloride attack on any carbon steel used in the construction of the valve.
2. Picking the correct material for this service.
3. Nitric acid corrosion.
4. Elastrometric seals must be used.
120. One of the many things that must be considered when evaluating the failure of newly installed relief
device to open at its set pressure is;
1. The type of the gaskets used.

2. The possibility of rough handling during shipment or installation.
3. The possibility of turning the valve flanges by a single bolt hole causing distortion.
4. The valve being to far from the protected pressure vessel.
121. When the hydrostatic testing of discharge piping for pressure relief devices is to be performed what
can happen if precaution(s) are not taken?
1. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be damaged.
2. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the discharge of the valve are fouled.
3. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be damaged.
4. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be fouled.
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122. When setting time intervals between the inspections of relief devices, which of the following best
apply?
1. They must be done at least every 8 years.

2. They must be done at least every 3 years.
3. Definite time intervals must be established.
4. None of the above.
123. As regards unscheduled inspections of relief devices, if a relief device opens but fails to reseat
properly;
1. It must be immediately repaired.

2. The urgency of repair will depend on the nature of the leakage and production requirements.
3. The urgency will depend only on the value of the leaking fluid.
4. The urgency will depend on the type of leakage, and the characteristics of the leaking substance
such as whether it is toxic, flammable, or fouling.
124. A visual on-stream inspection of a relief device is not meant to ensure which of the following items?
1. Installation of the correct device, and the company ID such as a tag.

2. No gags or blinds left in place and all intervening block valves being open.
3. Upstream block valves are locked or chained in the proper position.
4. The valve’s discharge is pointed in the right direction.
125. Hot cracking is ________________________________________________________.
1. cracking formed at 350 o F during operations of stainless vessels and piping

2. cracking formed at 550 o F during operations carbon and low alloy steel piping and vessels
3. cracking formed at temperatures near the completion of solidification during welding
4. cracking formed above a 250 o F preheat during welding
126. Who is responsible for confirming that welding equipment has been calibrated?
1. The inspector
2. The welding foreman
3. The welder using the equipment
4. The owner/user
127. The _______________is responsible for quality craftsmanship of weldments.
1. Welder
2. Inspector
3. Welding Foreman
4. Quality Control Manager
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128. With SMAW depending on the type of electrode being used, the covering performs one or more of
the following functions:
1. Absorbs moisture stabilize the arc

2. Provides scavengers, deoxidizers, and fluxing agents to cleanse the weld and promote grain
growth in the weld metal.
3. Establishes the electrical characteristics of the electrode
4. Provides a protective layer for inner core wire
129. CUI Damage is aggravated by contaminants that may be leached out of the insulation, such as______.
1. chlorides
2. fluorides
3. Hydroxides and nitrous oxide.
4. Cyanides and hydrogen oxide.
130. One commonly accepted advantages of the GTAW process is:
1. No post-weld cleaning is required.

2. Produces high purity welds, generally free from defects
3. Allows for excellent control of filler pass penetration
4. Can be used with or without filler metal in all situations.
131. GMAW equipment is _________, __________, and ______portable than that for SMAW.
1. less complex, less costly and more

2. more complex , more costly, and less
3. more complex, less costly and less
4. less complex, more costly and more
132. Corrosion fatigue affects _____________________________.
1. Carbon Steel and Stainless Steels

2. Stainless Steels only
3. all metals and alloys
4. Nickel and Duplex Stainless alloys
133. Atmospheric corrosion affects _____________________________.
1. Carbon steel, low alloy steels and copper alloyed nickel.

2. Carbon steel, low alloy steels and copper alloyed aluminum
3. Molybdenum alloys, carbon steel and copper alloyed aluminum
4. Carbon steels only
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134. Cast structures, depending on their chemical composition can exhibit a wide range of mechanical
properties for several reasons. In general, it is desirable to keep the size of grains small, which
improves ____________________.
1. weldability
2. strength and toughness
3. machining methods
4. corrosion resistance
135. Copper/zinc alloys can suffer dezincification in fresh, brackish and salt water systems. The
copper/zinc alloys can suffer ______if any ammonia or ammonia compounds are present in the water.
1. CL SCC
2. SCC
3. HTHA
4. Intergranular corrosion
136. The ______________is adjacent to the weld and is that portion of the base metal that has not been
melted, but whose mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by the preheating
temperature and the heat of welding.
1. fusion line
2. heat-affected zone (HAZ)
3. root interface
4. bevel of a butt weld
137. Boiler condensate oxygen scavenging treatments typically include ____________or hydrazine
depending on the system pressure level along with proper mechanical deareator operation.
1. disassociated sulfur
2. deprecated hydrazine
3. deprecated sodium sulfite
4. catalyzed sodium sulfite
138. Corrosion of carbon steel and other alloys resulting from their reaction with sulfur compounds is
____.
1. Carburezation0
2. decarburization
3. Sulfidation
4. Sulfur attack
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139. Thicker material sections also have a lower resistance to brittle fracture due to higher constraint
which increases ______stresses at the crack tip.
1. biaxial.
2. triaxial
3. coaxial.
4. penaxial.
140. A pure metal has a definite melting temperature that is just above its solidification temperature.
However, complete melting of alloyed materials occur ___________________________.
1. when the highest melting element of the alloy has reached its melting point
2. over a range of temperatures
3. when the lowest melting element of the alloy has reached its melting point
4. at two distinct tempertures points.
141 The Vickers test is a ______________________.
1. microscopic test
2. hardness test
3. Incipient melting test
4. ductility test
142. Materials test reports, can be a very valuable tool for the inspector and welding engineer. There are
typically two types, ___________________________________ reports.
1. ferrite and martensite assay type

2. martensite and cementite chemistry
3. stalactite and martensite analysis.
4. heat analysis and a product analysis
143. When speaking of materials acceptable for use in welding processes the term S number refers to;
1. Materials which are listed in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code Material specification.
2. Materials which are not listed in the ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code Material
specifications of Section II
3. Alternative numbers for P Nos.
4. Alternative number for F Nos.
Rev.15 2018
144. You are reading a WPS and see that it was qualified using P No. 5A to P No. 5A, you know that;
1. This WPS can be used to weld any P or S No 5 material.

2. This WPS can be used to weld any P or S No 5A to any metal from P or S Nos. 5A, 4, 3, or 1.
3. This WPS can be used to weld only P or S No 5A.
4. This WPS can be used to weld any P or S No 5A to any metal from P or S Nos. 5A, 4, or 3.
145. A welding procedure must be requalified if;
1. There is a change in any essential variable.

2. There is a change in any nonessential variable.
3. There is Code revision which makes it obsolete, such as a base material being dropped from the
list of approved ASME Code materials.
4. The welder is dissatisfied with the procedure.
146. A welder must requalify if he has previously;
1. Not qualified without backing and is now required to perform a weld without backing.
2. Has qualified without backing and is required to now weld with backing.
3. Not welded with a given process.
4. Has welded with a process in two years.
147. The dimensions of a plate test coupons for welding procedure qualification tests can be found in;
1. Article 2 of Section V.
2. Article II of Section IX.
3. Article IV of Section IX.
4. Article 4 of section V.
148. Which of the following markings cannot be found on an ASME Code vessel's nameplate?
1. The manufacturer's serial no.

2. The manufacturer's name.
3. The year built.
4. The names of all welders who worked on the vessel.
149. A relief valves in hydrofluoric acid service must be;
1. Be neutralized immediately after removal.

2. Set using water only.
3. Set using hydrofluoric acid.
4. Set using air only
Rev.15 2018
150. The following is true about the hydrostatic testing of vessels;
1. Tests must be performed using non-volatile fluids.

2. Tests must be performed using water.
3. This test is the most dangerous of all pressure tests.
4. This test is the least dangerous of all pressure tests.
Rev.15 2018
36. 3 571 4.2.3.1

37. 3 V T.277.2 (b)(1)(a)
38. 3 577 3.4
39. 4 RP 577 Annex D Table D1
40. 4 API 572 9.2
41. 2 API 510 3.1.2.1
42. 2 IX QW-100.1
43. 3 IX QW-200.2
44. 3 IX QW-153.1
45. 3 V ART T-223
46. 2 SE-797 1.1
47. 4 API 572 B.4.1
48. 2 V ART 6 T-620
49. 4 API 510 3.1.1
50. 3 API 572 9.7.1
51. 3 API 572 9.4.3
52. 3 API 510 Appendix B 3.1
53. 3 API 576 6.1.2
54. 4 UG-98
55. 4 UG-116
56. 4 V T-233.1
57. 2 API 572 9.47
58. 4 VIII UG-119(f)
59. 2 VIII UCS-66 (a)(1)(d)
60. 3 API 510 8.1.7.4.3..3
61. 2 VIII UG-125
62. 4 571 4.2.3.6
63. 1 IX ART IV 461.4
64. 3 API 510 6.5.1.1
65. 2 API 510 8.1.6.1.2.1
66. 2 API 510 6.6
67. 4 API 510 5.8.2.1
68. 3 API 510 8.1.7.4.3.1.2
69. 3 API 572 6.2
70. 2 API 510 5.5.4.1.3
71. 4 API 510 7.3.1
72. 2 API 510 7.4.1
73. 4 API 572 9.3.7
Rev.15 2018
74. 2 VIII APPENDIX 4, 6 AND 8

75. 2 API 510 7.3.3
76. 4 API 510 7.4.6.1
77. 1 API 510 8.1.2
78. 3 API 510 8.1.1
79. 4 API 510 ANNEX A 8)
80. 2 API 572 B.4.5.4
81. 2 API 572 5.3
82. 4 API 572 6.1
83. 4 API 572 6.2
84. 4 API 572 9.3.12
85. 4 API 572 9.3.13
86. 3 API 572 9.6
87. 1 API 510 8.1.6.3.2 (a)
88. 3 API 572 5.3

89. 4 API 572 8.1
90. 4 API 572 8.1
91. 2 API 572 8.1
92. 2 API 572 9.3.2
93. 4 API 572 9.3.3
94. 4 API 572 9.3.4
95. 3 API 572 9.3.3
96. 2 API 572 9.4.2
97. 3 API 572 9.3.10
98. 4 API 572 9.3.14
99. 3 API 572 9.3.14
100. 3 API 572 9.4.3
101. 3 API 572 9.4.4.5
102. 1 API 572 9.7.2
103. 2 API 572 9.6
104. 3 API 572 A.2.3
105. 4 API 572 A.2.5
106. 3 API 572 A.5
107. 4 API 572 A.7
108. 3 API 572 A.9.1
109. 1 API 572 A.9.1
110. 2 API 572 A.9.2
111. 2 API 572 A.12
Rev.15 2018
112. 4 API 576 4.10.3
113. 2 API 576 4.10.2.6
114. 4 API 576 6.1.
115. 2 API 576 5.4.5
116. 3 API 576 5.6.2
117. 4 API 576 5.2.2
118. 1 API 576 5.5.4
119. 2 API 576 5.6.2
120. 2 API 576 5.8.1
121. 2 API 576 5.10
122. 3 API 576 6.4.1.2
123. 4 API 576 6.5.3
124. 4 API 576 6.3
125. 3 577 3.1.32
126. 1 577 4.2.5
127. 1 577 4.3.1.1(a)
128. 3 577 5.2.2(c)
129. 1 571 4.3.3.3(i)
130. 2 577 5.3.2(a)
131. 2 577 5.4.7 (a)
132. 3 571 4.5.2.2
133. 2 571 4.3.2.2
134. 2 577 10.2.2
135. 2 571 4.3.4.3
136. 2 577 10.2.4
137. 4 571 4.3.5.6(a)
138. 3 571 4.4.2.1
139. 2 571 4.2.7.3(d)
140. 2 577 10.3.2
141. 2 577 10.4.4
142. 4 577 10.8
143. 2 IX QW-420.2
144. 2 IX QW- 424.1
145. 1 IX QW-202 (c)
146. 1 IX QW-353
147. 3 IX fig. QW-462.1(a)
148. 4 UG-116
149. 1 API 576 6.2.6.2
150. 4 UG-99
Rev.15 2018
Spacing Page
Rev.15 2018

Question 36 Begins The Closed Book Portion of This Exam

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Closed Book API 510 Practice Exam B

Question 36 begins the closed book portion of this exam

1. 30, one on each film holder.

42. What is the purpose of a welding procedure?

1. To prove that welders can perform a given weld.

43. What is the definition of a PQR?

1. A record that supports a WPS.

45. When performing a radiograph where is the lead letter B placed?

1. On the front of the film holder.

48. Liquid penetrant testing is capable of detecting;

49. Which of the following is not an alteration to a vessel

1. Increasing the MAWP.

50. Hammer testing is not advisable when a vessel;

1. Is suspected of having very thin areas.

1. Determine the remaining life of the pressure relief device.

1. The vessel's design pressure.

55. The symbol PHT on a vessel's name plate indicates;

1. A combination pneumatic and hydrostatic test.

1. IQIs shall be either the hole type or the shim type.

57. The primary purpose of metallic linings is;

1. Increase the thickness of the vessel wall to resist internal pressure.

61. A safety valve must be tested using;

63. The welding position referred to as 2G in pipe is defined as;

1. The unit engineer.

1. The original valve manufacturer.

1. Professional engineer must be consulted.

70. If distortion of a vessel’s parts are suspected;

1. It should be shut down immediately.

1. The actual thickness as determined by inspection is used in calculations.

1. Caisson straps for leaks.

1. Section V of the ASME Code.

1. The thickness of the serrated region.

1. inspector and, if an alteration, by an engineer

1. acceptable company standards

80. Strip lining for vessels are;

1. Refractory impregnated with alloy metals.

1. Proper welding procedures in accordance with the ASME code.

1. Known or anticipated degradation modes.

1. Going from low temperature to high temperature conditions.

1. the time available for preparation

86. Portable hardness testers can be used to detect _____________ .

1. out of plumb shells

1. The vessels do not then require an internal inspection.

1. OSHA 1910 (j).

1. Stagnant pools of chemicals collect.

93. Spalling of a foundation's fire proofing can be found by;

1. Use eddy current testing on the top of the bolt.

1. Adjacent machinery for settlement.

1. The mandatory resistance maximum value is 15 ohms.

1. In the heat affected zones of welds.

1. The length of the bundle.

1. Beneficial stress redistribution at defects.

1. Boric acid in a 20% solution of distilled water.

1. It is limited in its diameter.

1. One fixed tube sheet with a floating head.

1. The tubes are finned.

1. Dissipate more heat for a given size of exchanger.

1. Loss of process control during operations.