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Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.

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4. 2019£Éà ¸Á°£À ¥ÀzäÀ ²æà ¥Àæ±¹ À ÛUÉ ¥ÁvÀægÁzÀ (2) CzÀgÀ ªÀÄÆ® ¸ÁÜ£ÀªÀ®èzÀ (¨ÁºÀå)
PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ ¥ÀÄgÁvÀvÀédÕgÄÀ AiÀiÁgÀÄ ? ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ¸ÀAgÀPëÀuÉ
(1) ÎÅàÊÜᣠ±ÁgÀzÁ ²æäªÁ¸À£ï (3) ©Ã¼ÀÄ ¨sÀÆ«ÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ
(2) ªÀ¸ÀÄAzsÀgÁ ¦ü°AiÉÆÃeÁvï ¥Àr¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(3) ZÀÆqÁªÀÄt £ÀAzÀUÆ É Ã¥Á¯ï (4) CgÀtå ¨sÀÆ«Ä/¥ÀæzÃÉ ±À C©üªÈÀ ¢Þ
(4) ªÀÄAdļÀ aAZÉÆý ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ

389 (2–A)
1. The Government of Karnataka has 5. What is the maximum area of
recently banned __________ plantation in construction allowed under Pourakarmika
Malnad area. Gruha Bhagya Yojana ?
(1) Shikakai (1) 1000 sq.ft.
(2) Eucalyptus (2) 1200 sq.ft.
(3) Tamarind (3) 750 sq.ft.
(4) Teak (4) 500 sq.ft.
2. Which among the following is/are threats
for the Great Barrier Reef in Australia ? 6. Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, is
A. Surface water temperature rising notified based on the provisions made
B. Crown-of-Thorns Starfishes under ________.

C. Oil transportation (1) The Environment Protection Act,

1986
D. Tourism
Choose the correct answer from the (2) The Water (Prevention and Control
options given below : of Pollution) Act, 1974
(1) Only A (3) The Karnataka Municipalities Act,
1964
(2) Only C
(4) The Karnataka Municipal
(3) Only C and D
Corporations Act, 1976
(4) Only A and B
3. The Government of Karnataka, through 7. Karnataka Government has launched
its 6th October, 2018 order to create __________ scheme to meet nutritional
end-to-end infrastructure for startups and needs of pregnant and lactating women in
entrepreneurs from marginalised rural areas of the State.
background has initiated a scheme known
as ___________ . (1) Mathru Poorna

(1) Abhivrudhi (2) Mid-day meal

(2) Unnathi (3) Udisha
(3) Pragathi (4) None of the above
(4) Hosabelaku
8. “Eco-development” means ________ .
4. Name the Archaeologist from Karnataka
who has been awarded Padma Shree in (1) In situ conservation of biological
2019. diversity involving local communities
(1) Smt. Sharada Srinivasan
(2) Ex situ conservation
(2) Vasundhara Filliozat
(3) Development of waste land
(3) Choodamani Nandagopal
(4) Manjula Chincholi (4) Development of forest land

389 (3–A)
F PɼÀV£À ¥À±æ ÉßUÀ¼À£ÀÄß (9 – 11) PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ 12. PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀt¹ :
ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ£ÀÄß DzsÀj¹ GvÀÛj¹ : A. UÀAUÁ £À¢AiÀÄ ¤Ãj£À UÀÄtªÀÄlÖª£
À ÀÄß
J¯ÉãÀgï ¨sÁµÀtPÁgÀgÀ£ÀÄß MAzÀÄ ªÉÄÃf£À°è PÀÆj¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄgÀ½ ¥ÀƪÀð¹ÜwUÉ vÀgÄÀ ªÀ PÁAiÀÄðPÀæªÀÄzÀ
ºÉÆuÉ ºÉÆwÛzÁÝgÉ. ªÀiÁqÀgÉÃlgïgÉÆA¢UÉ ªÀiÁUÀðzÀ±Àð£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÄðéZÁgÀuÉUÁV
ºÉZÀÄѪÀjAiÀiÁV M§â «ªÀiÁ£À ZÁ®PÀ, M§â ¯ÉÃRPÀ, PÉÃAzÀæ UÀAUÁ ¥Áæ¢Pü ÁgÀª£ À ÀÄß ¥s§
É ÄæªjÀ
CmÁ¤ð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C£ÉéõÀPÀ EzÁÝg.É ¨sÁµÀtPÁgÀgÀ 1985 gÀ°è gÀa¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ UÁåj, ºÉ¯ÁAiÀiïì, dgÉÆÃqï, PÉÃmï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B. ¥Áæ¢Pü ÁgÀªÀÅ gÁµÁÖçzåsÀ PÀëgÀ CzsÀåPÀëvÉAiÀÄ°è
¯Éãï. UÀAUÁ PÁAiÀÄðAiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ MmÁÖgÉ
• ¸ÀªÀÄ£ÀéAiÀÄPÁgÀgÀÄ (ªÀiÁqÀgÉÃlgï) 3£Éà D¸À£ÀzÀ ¥ÀæUÀwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤AiÀÄ«ÄvÀ CªÀ¢üUÀ¼À°è
ªÀÄzsåÀ zÀ°è PÀĽwgÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ. ¥ÀÄ£ÀgÁªÀ¯ÉÆÃPÀ£À ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
• CmÁ¤ð C£ÉéõÀPÀgÀ §¢ PÀĽwgÀ¯ÁgÀgÄÀ . ªÀiÁUÀðzÀ±Àð£À MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
• ¯ÉÃ£ï «ªÀiÁ£À ZÁ®PÀ. F ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ ?
• ¯ÉÃRPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CmÁ¤ð ¸ÀªÄÀ £ÀéAiÀÄPÁgÀgÀ JgÀqÀÆ PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
§¢UÀ¼À°è PÀĽwgÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ.
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ :
• ºÉ¯ÁAiÀiïì, PÉÃmï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ dgÉÆÃqï ªÀÄzsÀåzÀ°è
(1) A ¸Àj
PÀĽwgÀĪÀgÄÀ DzÀgÉ ¸ÀªÀÄ£ÀéAiÀÄPÁgÀgÀ®è.
(2) B ¸Àj
• dgÉÆÃqï CxÀªÁ ¯ÉÃ£ï ¥ÀPÀÌz°
À è
¸ÀªÀÄ£ÀéAiÀÄPÁgÀgÀÄ PÀÆgÀĪÀÅ¢®è. (3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÆ À ¸Àj
• CmÁ¤ðAiÀiÁzÀ UÁåjAiÀĪÀgÄÀ 4£Éà D¸À£ÀzÀ°è (4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÆ À vÀ¥ÄÀ à
PÀĽwzÁÝgÉ. 13. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ ªÉÄà 2019gÀ°è MAzÀÄ
DzÉñÀª£ À ÀÄß ºÉÆgÀr¹, ¸ÀPÁðj, C£ÀÄzÁ¤vÀ
9. ¸ÀªÀÄ£ÀéAiÀÄPÁgÀ ¿ÞÃÜá ?
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C£ÀÄzÁ£ÀªÀ®èzÀ J¯Áè ¸ÀA¸ÉÜU¼
À ÀÄ/
(1) ¯Éãï
±Á¯ÉU¼ À À£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆAqÀAvÉ gÁdåzÀ J¯Áè
(2) UÁåj ±Á¯ÉU¼ À ÀÄ, ±Á¯Á aîzÀ vÀÆPÀªÅÀ ªÀÄUÀÄ«£À
(3) ºÉ¯ÁAiÀiïì vÀÆPÀzÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÀ JµÀÖgÀQÌAvÀ ºÉZÁÑVgÀ¨ÁgÀzÄÀ
(4) PÉÃmï J£ÀÄߪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß SÁwæ¥Àr¸À¨ÃÉ PÉAzÀÄ ¤zÉÃð²¹zÉ ?
10. dgÉÆÃqï J°è PÀĽvÀÄPÉƼÀÄîªg
À ÄÀ ? (1) ªÀÄUÀÄ«£À vÀÆPÀzÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 5

(1) D¸À£À #1 (2) ªÀÄUÀÄ«£À vÀÆPÀzÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 8

(2) D¸À£À #2 (3) ªÀÄUÀÄ«£À vÀÆPÀzÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 10

(3) D¸À£À #3 (4) ªÀÄUÀÄ«£À vÀÆPÀzÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÀ 15

(4) D¸À£À #4 14. 1964gÀ PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ªÀÄĤ¹¥Á°nUÀ¼À PÁAiÉÄÝ

¥ÀæPÁgÀ £ÀUg
À À ªÀÄĤ¹¥À¯ï ¥ÀjµÀwÛ£À CzsÀåPÀëgÀ
11. dgÉÆÃqïgÀ ªÀÈwÛ K£ÀÄ ? ¸ÉêÁªÀ¢üAiÀÄÄ ________ .
(1) ¸ÀªÀÄ£ÀéAiÀÄPÁgÀgÀÄ (1) 12 wAUÀ¼ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) «ªÀiÁ£À ZÁ®PÀgÄÀ (2) 18 wAUÀ¼ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) CmÁ¤ð (3) 24 wAUÀ¼ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) C£ÉéõÀPÀgÀÄ (4) 30 wAUÀ¼ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ

389 (4–A)
Answer the following questions (9 – 11) on 12. Consider the following statements :
the basis of the information given below : A. The Central Ganga Authority was
Eleanor is incharge of seating arrangements of constituted in February 1985 to
the speakers on a table. In addition to the guide and oversee the
moderator, there will be a pilot, a writer, an implementation of a programme for
restoring the water quality of the
attorney, and an explorer. The speakers’
river Ganga.
names are Gary, Heloise, Jarrod, Kate and
Lane. B. The authority under the
Chairmanship of the President
• The moderator must sit in the middle, in reviews the overall progress of
seat #3. Ganga Action Plan at regular
• The attorney cannot sit next to the intervals and provides guidance.
explorer. Which of the statement/(s) is/are correct ?
• Lane is the pilot. Choose the correct answer from the
• The writer and the attorney sit on either options given below :
side of the moderator. (1) A is correct
• Heloise, who is not the moderator, sits (2) B is correct
between Kate and Jarrod. (3) Both A and B are correct
• The moderator does not sit next to Jarrod (4) Both A and B are incorrect
or Lane.
13. The Karnataka Government on May
• Gary, who is the attorney, sits in seat #4.
2019, issued an order directing all schools
9. Who is the moderator ? in the State, including government aided
(1) Lane and unaided institutions, to ensure that
(2) Gary the weight of a school bag is not more
(3) Heloise than what percentage of the child’s
weight ?
(4) Kate
(1) Five percent of child’s weight
10. Where does Jarrod sit ? (2) Eight percent of child’s weight
(1) Seat #1
(3) Ten percent of child’s weight
(2) Seat #2
(4) Fifteen percent of child’s weight
(3) Seat #3
(4) Seat #4 14. The term of the President of Town
Municipal Council is ______ as per The
11. What occupation does Jarrod hold ? Karnataka Municipalities Act, 1964.
(1) Moderator (1) 12 months
(2) Pilot (2) 18 months
(3) Attorney (3) 24 months
(4) Explorer (4) 30 months

389 (5–A)
15. MAzÀÄ ºÉƸÀ eÁwAiÀÄ UÉPÉÆÌÃ, MAzÀÄ «zsÀzÀ 19. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¨ÁåAPï PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ
ºÀ°èAiÀÄÄ ¸ÁªÀiÁ£ÀåªÁV GµÀÚ ªÁvÁªÀgÀtzÀ°è ºÉzÁÝjUÀ¼À ªÉÄîÝeÉðUÉÃj¸ÀÄ«PÉ AiÉÆÃd£ÉUÉ
PÀAqÀÄ §gÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. EzÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÊzÀgÁ¨Á¢£À $ 346 «Ä°AiÀÄ£ï ¸Á®ªÀ£ÀÄß C£ÀĪÉÆâ¹zÉ ?
G¸Áä¤AiÀiÁ «±Àé «zÁå®AiÀÄzÀªg À ÀÄ _____ E°è
(1) «±Àé ¨ÁåAPï
UÀÄgÀÄw¹zÀgÄÀ .
(2) AiÀÄ¸ï ¨ÁåAPï
(1) ¨É¼ÀUÁ«
(2) PÀqÀÆgÀÄ (3) K¶AiÀÄ£ï qɪ® À ¥ïªÉÄAmï ¨ÁåAPï
(3) ºÀA¦ (4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è.
(4) ²ªÀªÉÆUÀÎ
F UÀÄA¦£À vÁQðPÀ ¸ÀªÀĸÉåU¼ À ÀÄ (20 – 24) ªÀÄÆgÀÄ
16. 2019£Éà ¸Á°£À PÉÃAzÀæ ¸Á»vÀå CPÁqÉ«ÄAiÀÄ
ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉÆAqÀªÅÀ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 1, ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw
À ÛAiÀÄ (Central Literary Academy 2 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 3 £ÀAvÀgÀ ¤ªÀÄUÉ ªÀÄÆgÀÄ
¥Àæ±¹
Award) «eÉÃvÀ F PɼÀV£ÀªgÀ À°è AiÀiÁgÀÄ ? ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ÃrzÉ, (I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III JAzÀÄ
(1) PÉ.i. £ÁUÀgÁd¥Àà ºÉ¸Àj¸À¯ÁVzÉ) ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤ÃªÀÅ EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ,
(2) PÉ.«. wgÀĪÀįÉÃÍÜ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÆ À EzÀÝ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw JAzÀÄ
(3) qÁ. «dAiÀÄ ¤zsðÀ j¸À¨ÃÉ PÀÄ JA§ÄzÀÄ ¸ÀºÀ MAzÀÄ ¸ÀvåÀ ¸ÀAUÀw.
(4) gÀºÀªÀÄvï vÀjÃPÉgÉ MAzÀÄ CxÀªÁ JgÀqÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¤d«gÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ,
J®è ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¤d EgÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ CxÀªÁ AiÀiÁªÀ
17. zÉêÀgÁeï CgÀ¸ï UÀȺÀ AiÉÆÃd£ÉUÉ
ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¤d«®è¢gÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F PɼÀV£ÀªÅÀ UÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀt¹ :
20. ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 1 : f¹PÁUÉ £Á®ÄÌ ªÀÄPÀ̼ÀÄ.
A. ¥s¯À Á£ÀĨsÀ«AiÀÄ ªÁ¶ðPÀ DzÁAiÀĪÀÅ
< 32,000/- CxÀªÁ CzÀQÌAvÀ PÀrªÉÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 2 : JgÀqÀÄ ªÀÄPÀ̼ÀÄ ¤Ã° PÀt£ ÂÚ ÀªÀgÀÄ
EgÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ. ªÀÄvÀÄÛ JgÀqÀÄ ªÀÄPÀ̼ÀÄ PÀAzÀÄ
B. ¸ÀܽÃAiÀÄ MLA CzsÀåPÀëgÁVgÀĪÀ f¯Áè PÀt£
ÂÚ ÀªÀgÄÀ .
¸À«ÄwAiÀÄÄ ¥s¯
À Á£ÀĨsÀ«UÀ¼À£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 3 : CzsÀð ªÀÄPÀ̼ÀÄ ºÀÄqÀÄVAiÀÄgÀÄ.
ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ªÉÆzÀ® ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀwUÀ¼ÁzÀgÉ
F ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ ? F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÆ ¸ÀºÀ
PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ MAzÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw ?
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ :
I. PÀ¤µÀ× MAzÀÄ ºÀÄqÀÄV ¤Ã° PÀtÄÚUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
(1) A ªÀiÁvÀæ ºÉÆA¢zÁݼÉ.
(2) B ªÀiÁvÀæ
II. E§âgÄÀ ªÀÄPÀ̼ÀÄ ºÀÄqÀÄUÀgÄÀ .
(3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÀÆ
(4) A DUÀ°Ã CxÀªÁ B DUÀ°Ã C®è III. ºÀÄqÀÄUÀjUÉ PÀAzÀÄ PÀtÄÚUÀ½ªÉ.
18. gÁfêï DªÁ¸ï AiÉÆÃd£É CrAiÀÄ°è ______ PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
ªÀµÀðPÉÌ PÉƼÀUÉÃj ªÀÄÄPÀÛ gÁdåªÁV¸À®Ä GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ :
PÀ£ÁðlPÀªÀ£ÀÄß DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. (1) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(1) 2020
(2) 2022 (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) 2024 (4) F ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÁªÀŪÀÅ UÉÆwÛgÄÀ ªÀ ¸ÀvÀå
(4) 2026 ¸ÀAUÀwUÀ¼À®è

389 (6–A)
15. A new species of Gecko, a type of lizard 19. For highways upgradation project in
usually found in warm climates, was Karnataka, which of the following bank
spotted by researchers from the Osmania
has approved a loan of $ 346 million ?
University in Hyderabad at ________ .
(1) Belagavi (1) World Bank
(2) Kadur (2) Yes Bank
(3) Hampi
(3) Asian Development Bank
(4) Shivamogga
(4) None of the above
16. Who among the following won the 2019
Kendra Sahitya Akademi Prashasti The logic problems in this set (20 – 24) present
(Central Literary Academy Award) ? you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2
(1) K.G. Nagarajappa and Fact 3. Then you are given three more
(2) K.V. Tirumalesh statements (labelled I, II and III), and you must
(3) Dr. Vijaya determine which of these, if any, is also a fact.
(4) Rahamat Tarikere One or two of the statements could be true; all
of the statements could be true; or none of the
17. Consider the following regarding Devaraj statements could be true.
Urs Housing Scheme :
A. The annual income of the 20. Fact 1 : Jessica has four children.
beneficiary should be < 32,000/- or
Fact 2 : Two of the children have blue
less.
eyes and two of the children
B. The selection of beneficiaries is done
have brown eyes.
by District Committee headed by
the local MLA. Fact 3 : Half of the children are girls.
Which of the statement/(s) is/are correct ? If the first three statements are facts,
Choose the correct answer from the which of the following statement/(s) must
options given below : also be a fact ?
(1) Only A
I. At least one girl has blue eyes.
(2) Only B
II. Two of the children are boys.
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B III. The boys have brown eyes.

Choose the correct answer from the

18. Under Rajiv Awas Yojana, Karnataka has
been selected to make a slum-free State options given below :
by _______. (1) Only II
(1) 2020 (2) Only I and III
(2) 2022
(3) Only II and III
(3) 2024
(4) None of the statements is a known
(4) 2026 fact

389 (7–A)
21. ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 1 : J®è ºÁålÄUÀ½UÀÆ CAZÀÄ EzÉ. 23. ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 1 : §ºÀÄvÉÃPÀ vÀÄA©j¹zÀ
¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 2 : PÀ¥ÀÄà ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤Ã° ºÁålÄUÀ½ªÉ. UÉÆA¨ÉU¼ À ÀÄ ©Ã£ïìU½ À AzÀ
vÀÄA©zÀªÅÀ .
¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 3 : ¨Éøï¨Á¯ï mÉÆæUÀ¼ÀÄ
¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 2 : vÀÄA©j¹zÀ PÀgr À UÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
ºÁålÄUÀ¼ÀÄ. vÀÄA©j¹zÀ ºÀÄ°UÀ½ªÉ.
ªÉÆzÀ® ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀwUÀ¼ÁzÀgÉ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw 3 : PÉ®ªÀÅ PÀÄaðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉ/UÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÆ ©Ã£ïìU½ À AzÀ vÀÄA©j¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
¸ÀºÀ MAzÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw ? ªÉÆzÀ® ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀwUÀ¼ÁzÀgÉ
F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÆ ¸ÀºÀ
I. J®è mÉÆæUÀ½UÀÆ CAZÀÄ EzÉ. MAzÀÄ ¸ÀvÀå ¸ÀAUÀw ?
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(3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) F ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÁªÀŪÀÇ UÉÆwÛgÄÀ ªÀ ¸ÀvÀå
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389 (8–A)
21. Fact 1 : All hats have brims. 23. Fact 1 : Most stuffed toys are stuffed
with beans.
Fact 2 : There are black hats and blue
hats. Fact 2 : There are stuffed bears and
stuffed tigers.
Fact 3 : Baseball caps are hats.
Fact 3 : Some chairs are stuffed with
If the first three statements are facts, beans.
which of the following statement/(s) must If the first three statements are facts,
also be a fact ? which of the following statement/(s) must
I. All caps have brims. also be a fact ?
I. Only children’s chairs are stuffed
II. Some baseball caps are blue. with beans.
III. Baseball caps have no brims. II. All stuffed tigers are stuffed with
beans.
Choose the correct answer from the III. Stuffed monkeys are not stuffed
options given below : with beans.
(1) Only I Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(2) Only II
(1) Only I
(3) I, II and III
(2) Only II
(4) None of the statements is a known (3) Only II and III
fact (4) None of the statements is a known
fact
22. Fact 1 : All chickens are birds.
24. Fact 1 : Pictures can tell a story.
Fact 2 : Some chickens are hens.
Fact 2 : All storybooks have pictures.
Fact 3 : Female birds lay eggs.
Fact 3 : Some storybooks have words.
If the first three statements are facts, If the first three statements are facts,
which of the following statement/(s) must which of the following statement/(s) must
also be a fact ? also be a fact ?
I. Pictures can tell a story better than
I. All birds lay eggs. words can.
II. Hens are birds. II. The stories in storybooks are very
simple.
III. Some chickens are not hens.
III. Some storybooks have both words
Choose the correct answer from the and pictures.
options given below : Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(1) Only II
(1) Only I
(2) Only II and III
(2) Only II
(3) I, II and III (3) Only III
(4) None of the statements is a known (4) None of the statements is a known
fact fact

389 (9–A)
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«ªÀgu À ÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
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(2) ºÉýPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁgÀtUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸Àj DzÀgÉ
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ ¸Àj ?
PÁgÀtªÀÅ ºÉýPÉAiÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ A. ¨sÁgÀvz À À ¸ÀÆ¥Àgï PÀA¥ÀÆålgï
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389 ( 10 – A )
25. The Government of Karnataka has 28. Who among the following was awarded
launched a scheme in 2020 to provide ‘Basava Prashasti 2018’ by the
Government of Karnataka ?
doorstep government services to the
(1) M.M. Kalaburgi
citizens of Karnataka. Name the scheme.
(2) Patil Puttappa
(1) Jana Shakti (3) H.S. Doreswamy
(2) Jana Dhan (4) Chandrashekar Patil

(3) Jana Sevak 29. Name the recently deceased Kannada

scholar and researcher, who had launched
(4) Jana Kendra a campaign to save the monuments of
Hampi.
26. Consider the following statements :
(1) S. Srikanta Sastri
Assertion (A) : Tropical rain forests are
disappearing fast from (2) B.M. Srikantaiah
developing countries like (3) M. Chidananda Murthy
India.
(4) K. Srinivas
Reason (R) : No value is attached to
these forests because they 30. After a person quits smoking, the lungs
are poor in biodiversity. can heal to a certain extent, because of
________ .
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below : (1) Decrease in carbon monoxide
(2) Increase in oxygen uptake
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is the correct (3) Synthesis of new mucosa
explanation of the Assertion. (4) Long-term inflammatory changes
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true 31. Which of the following is/are correct with
but the Reason is not the correct regard to Supercomputing in India ?
explanation of the Assertion.
A. India’s supercomputer programme
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is was started in late 1980s.
false.
B. PARAM 8000 is considered as
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are India’s first supercomputer.
false.
C. Aaditya is a series of
supercomputers designed and
27. “Yeshasvini” scheme in Karnataka is
developed by Bhabha Atomic
related to which of the following ? Research Centre (BARC) for their
(1) Cooperative Farmers Health Care internal use.
Scheme Choose the correct answer from the
(2) Encouraging women entrepreneurs options given below :
(1) Only A and B
(3) Encouraging higher education for
girls (2) Only B and C
(3) Only B
(4) Reduce maternal and infant
mortality rates (4) A, B and C

389 ( 11 – A )
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PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ UÀtÂUÁjPɬÄAzÀ ªÉÆzÀ®ÄUÉÆAqÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ : £ÀÆåQèAiÀÄgï vÁådåzÀ «¯ÉAiÀÄ°è
(1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ªÀÄÄPÁÛAiÀĪÁUÀÄvÀÛª.É
C. MAzÀÄ £ÀÆåQèAiÀÄgï ¸ÁܪÀgz À À°è §¼ÀPU É ÁV
(2) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
AiÀÄÄgÉäAiÀÄA£ÀÄß ¹zÀÞ¥Àr¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. CzÀÄ
(3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C UÀtÂUÁjPÉ, ¥ÀÄrªÀiÁqÀÄ«PÉ, ¥ÀjªÀvÀð£É
(4) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ¸ÀªÀÄÈ¢ÞÃPÀgÀt ªÀÄvÀÄÛ EAzs£ À À vÀAiÀiÁjPÉAiÀÄ
35. £ÀA¢vÀ £ÁUÀ£ÀUËqÀgï AiÀiÁªÀ QæÃqÉUÉ ºÀ A vÀ U À ½ UÉ M¼À U ÁUÀ Ä ªÀ
Å zÀ Ä .
PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀªÀgÀÄ ?
GvÀÛgª À À£Áßj¹ :
(1) FdÄ
(1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) ¥Àªð À vÁgÉÆúÀt
(2) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) ¨ÁQìAUï (3) A ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) ºÁQ (4) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C

389 ( 12 – A )
32. Who presided over the 84th ‘Akhila 36. A team of Indian astronomers have
Bharatha Kannada Sahitya identified previously unknown, extremely
Sammelana’ ? large supercluster of galaxies located in
(1) Dr. H.S. Venkatesh Murthy the direction of constellation Pisces. With
regard to this, which of the following
(2) Dr. Chandrashekhar Kambar
statement/(s) is/are correct ?
(3) Dr. Siddalingaiah
A. It has been named “Saraswati”.
(4) Baraguru Ramachandrappa
B. It was discovered by astronomers
33. ___________ is the recipient of Rajyotsava from Inter University Centre for
Astronomy and Astrophysics
Award for the year 2019 in the field of
(IUCAA) and Indian Institute of
Bayalata (Open field play).
Science Education and Research
(1) Shylashree (IISER).
(2) Sridhar Bhandari C. It is estimated to be stretched over
(3) B.V. Mallikarjunaiah 650 million light years in distance.
(4) Y. Mallappa Gavayi Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
34. Consider the following four conditions (A (1) Only A and B
to D) and select the correct pair of (2) Only B and C
adaptations to environment in desert
(3) Only B
lizards.
(4) A, B and C
A. Burrowing in soil to escape high
temperature. 37. Which of the following statement/(s) is/are
B. Losing heat rapidly from the body true with regard to “Nuclear Fuel
during high temperature. Cycle” ?
C. Bask in sun when temperature is low. A. It is the series of industrial
processes which involve the
D. Insulating body due to thick fatty
production of electricity from
dermis.
uranium in nuclear power reactors.
Choose the correct answer from the
B. The nuclear fuel cycles start with
options given below :
the mining of uranium and end with
(1) A and B the disposal of nuclear waste.
(2) C and D C. To prepare uranium for use in a
(3) A and C nuclear reactor, it undergoes the
(4) B and D steps of mining, milling, conversion,
enrichment and fuel fabrication.
35. Nandita Naganagoudar is associated with Choose the correct answer from the
which of the following sport ? options given below :
(1) Swimming (1) Only A and C
(2) Mountaineering (2) Only B and C
(3) Boxing (3) Only A
(4) Hockey (4) A, B and C

389 ( 13 – A )
F UÀÄA¦£À°è ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ ¥Àæ±ßÉ UÀ¼ÀÄ (38 – 42) ¤¢ðµÀÖ 39. ¤ÃªÀÅ AiÀiÁjAzÁzÀgÀÆ (CªÀ£À/CªÀ¼À) D¹ÛUÉ
¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðPÉÌ ºÉÆA¢PÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ ªÁåSÁå£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÆ À jÃwAiÀÄ°è dRA ªÀiÁrzÀÝgÉ
ºÉÆA¢¸À®Ä PÉüÀĪÀAvÀzÁÝVzÉ. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ßÉ UÀÆ MAzÀÄ
¥ÀjºÁgÀ ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀªÄÀ Ad¸À. EzÀ£ÀÄß ªÀÄgÀÄ
ªÁåSÁå£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ £Á®ÄÌ ¸ÁzsÀåvAÉ iÀÄ GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À
DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ. ¥Àæw ªÁåSÁå£ÀAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀæzÁs £À (£ÀµÀÖ ¨sÀwð) JAzÀÄ PÀgÉAiÀÄĪÀgÄÀ . F
£Á®ÄÌ DAiÉÄÌUÀ¼À£ÀÄß JZÀÑg¢ À AzÀ N¢ ¤ÃrgÀĪÀ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨Àðs ªÀÄgÀÄ ¥ÀæzÁs £ÀPÉÌ GvÀÛªÀÄ
ªÁåSÁå£ÀPÉÌ CvÀÄåvÀÛªÀÄ GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀ GzÁºÀgÀuÉ ?
GvÀÛgªÀ À£ÀÄß PÀAqÀÄ»r¬Äj.
(1) eÉÃPï, ¯É¹èAiÀÄPÁåªÉÄgÁªÀ£ÀÄß JgÀª®
À Ä
38. UÀȺÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ ÄZÀA
Ñ iÀÄ PÀgÁgÀ£ÀÄß «ÄÃgÀĪÀÅzÉAzÀgÉ
±Üv橨Ü᪠A¨Üá £É®zÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É ©zÀÄÝ
¨ÁrUÉzÁgÀgÁzÀ CªÀ£ÀÄ/CªÀ¼ÀÄ vÀ£Àß ¨sÀÆ
MqÉAiÀÄ£ÉÆA¢UÉ ¸À» ªÀiÁrzÀ PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ §zÀÞ ÊÜáÓÜãÃÜÊÜâ MqÉzÀÄ ºÉÆìÄvÀÄ. HPæí¨ÜÃæ
zÁR¯ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß §»µÀÌj¹zÁUÀ GzÀ㫸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. AÊÜ®Üá ¸ÀAzÀÆPÀª£À ÀÄß f¥ï¤AzÀ ªÀÄÄZÀÑ®Ä
F PɼÀV£À ¸ÀAzÀ¨Àð s UÀ¼À ¥ÉÊQ UÀȺÀ ¸ÀªÀÄÄZÀÑAiÀÄzÀ «¥sÀ®£ÁVzÀÝ®Üá. eÉÃPï PÁåªÀÄgÁªÀ£ÀÄß
UÀÄwÛUÉ PÀgÁgÀÄ ¨sÀAUÀ ªÀiÁrzÀÝPÉÌ CvÀÄåvÀÛªÄÀ »A¢gÀÄV¸ÀĪÁUÀ CzÀgÀ zÀÄgÀ¹Û ªÉZÀÑ
GzÁºÀgÀuÉ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ?
¨sÀj¸ÀĪÀÅzÁV ¯É¹èÃUÉ ºÉüÀÄvÁÛ£É.
(1) nªÀiï E£ÉÆßAzÀÄ £ÀUÀgÀPÉÌ ºÉÆÃUÀ®Ä
wêÀiÁð¤¹zÀ£ÀÄ. DzÀÝjAzÀ vÀ£Àß ¨sÀÆ (2) gɨÉPÁÌ vÀ£Àß £ÉgÉAiÀĪÀjAzÀ PÁgÀÄ
MqÉAiÀÄ£À£ÀÄß PÀgÉzÄÀ ¨sÉÆÃUÀå £À«ÃPÀgÀt JgÀªÀ¯ÁV ¥ÀqÉzÄÀ PÉÆAqÀÄ ºÉÆÃV ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
ªÀÄÄA¢£À wAUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄÄVAiÀÄ°zÀÄÝ, CzÀ£ÀÄß CzÀ£ÀÄß »AwgÀÄV¹zÁUÀ C¤® ¸ÀAUÁæºÀPª À ÀÅ
£À«ÃPÀj¸À®Ä D¸ÀQ۬ĮèªÉAzÀÄ ºÉüÀÄvÁÛ£É. SÁ°AiÀiÁVvÀÄÛ. DPÉ C¥ÁgÀ PÀëªÉÄ
(2) ªÉ¯ÉÃj EwÛÃZÉUÉ vÀ£Àß GzÉÆåÃUÀªÀ£ÀÄß PÉüÀÄvÁÛ¼É. ªÀÄÄA¢£À ¨Áj ºÉZÀÄÑ JZÀÑjPÉ
PÀ¼ÉzÀÄPÉÆArzÀÄÝ, 8 wAUÀ¼À »AzÉ UÀȺÀ ªÀ»¸ÀĪÀÅzÁV £ÉgÉAiÀĪÀjUÉ ºÉüÀÄvÁÛ¼É.
¸ÀªÀÄÄZÀÒAiÀÄPÉÌ ºÉÆÃUÀĪÁUÀ ¥Àæw wAUÀ¼ÀÄ (3) DgÉÆ£ï, vÁ£ÀÄ £ÀUÀgÀzÀ ºÉÆgÀVzÁÝUÀ vÀ£Àß
¨ÁrUÉ ¥ÁªÀw¸ÀĪÀ PÀÄjvÀÄ vÀ£Àß ¨sÀÆ
ªÀÄ£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀjÃQë¸ÀĪÀAvÉ mÁªÀiï£À£ÀÄß
ªÀiÁ°PÀ£ÉÆA¢UÉ °TvÀªÁV
§gÉzÀÄPÉÆnÖgÄÀ ªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß ¤®ðQë¹ PÀ¼ÉzÀ PÉÆÃgÀÄvÁÛ£É. mÁªÀiï §AzÁUÀ ¥ÉÊ¥ÀÄ
ªÀÄÆgÀÄ wAUÀ½¤AzÀ ¨ÁrUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸ÉÆàÃlUÉÆAqÀÄ UÀt¤ÃAiÀÄ ¥ÀæªiÀ ÁtzÀ°è
¥ÁªÀw¹gÀĪÀÅ¢®è. ¤ÃgÀÄ ºÁ¤ DVgÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß PÀAqÀÄ
(3) ªÀiÁPïð vÁ£ÀÄ JgÀqÄÀ ªÀµÀðUÀ½UÉ ¨ÁrUÉ »rAiÀÄÄvÁÛ£É. PÉƼÁ¬Ä zÀÄgÀ¹ÛUÁgÀ£À£ÄÀ ß
¥ÀqÉ¢gÀĪÀ UÀȺÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ ÄZÀÒAiÀÄzÀ°è£À zÀÄgÀ¹Û ªÀiÁqÀ®Ä PÀgA
É iÀÄÄvÁÛ£É.
C¸ÀASÁåvÀ zÀÆgÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀnÖªiÀ Ár ¨sÀÆ (4) PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄ ¤®ÄUÀqÉ (¥ÁQðAUï) ¸Àܼz À À°è
ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀ¤UÉ ¥ÀvæÀ §gÉz£
À ÀÄ.
UÀÄAr EzÀÄÝzÀÝjAzÁV mÉÊgÀÄ ZÀ¥ÀàmÉ DzÀ
(4) ¯É¹èà vÀ£Àß ¨sÀƪÀiÁ°ÃPÀ vÁ£ÀÄ §UÉÎ °Ã¸Á ¸ÀA±ÀAiÀÄ ¥ÀqÀÄvÁÛ¼É. CzÀgÀ
¨ÁrUÉVgÀĪÀ PÀlÖqÀª£ À ÀÄß zÀÄgÀ¹ÛAiÀÄ ªÉZÀѪÀ£ÀÄß vÀ£Àß PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ
G¥ÉÃQë¸ÀÄwÛzÁÝ£ÉAzÀÄ/¤®ðQë¸ÀÄwÛzÁÝ£ÉAzÀÄ
¨sÀj¸À¨ÉÃPÉAzÀÄ vÁ£ÀÄ CAzÀÄPÉƼÀÄîwÛgÄÀ ªÀÅzÁV
¨sÁ«¹, vÀ£Àß ªÀQî£À£ÀÄß ¸À®ºÉUÁV
DPÉAiÀÄÄ vÀ£Àß ¨Á¸ï£ÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉüÀÄvÁÛ¼É.
PÀgÉ¢zÁݼÉ.

389 ( 14 – A )
The questions in this set (38 – 42) ask you to
39.
match definitions to particular situations. For
each question, you are given a definition and
four possible answer choices. Read each
definition and all four choices carefully and
find the answer that provides the best example
of the given definition.
38. Violating an apartment lease occurs when
a tenant does something prohibited by the
legally binding document that he or she
has signed with a landlord. Which
situation below is the best example of
Violating an Apartment Lease ?
(1) Tim has decided to move to another
city, so he calls his landlord to tell
him that he is not interested in
renewing his lease when it expires
next month.
(2) Valerie recently lost her job and, for
the last three months, has neglected
to pay her landlord the monthly
rent they agreed upon in writing
when she moved into her apartment
eight months ago.
(3) Mark writes a letter to his landlord
that lists numerous complaints
about the apartment he has agreed
to rent for two years.
(4) Leslie thinks that her landlord is
neglecting the building in which she
rents an apartment. She calls her
attorney to ask for advice.
389 ( 15 – A )
It is appropriate to compensate someone
if you have damaged his or her property
in some way. This is called Restitution.
Which situation below is the best example
of Restitution ?
(1) Jake borrows Leslie’s camera and
the lens shatters when it falls on
the ground because he fails to zip
the case. When Jake returns the
camera, he tells Leslie that he will
pay for the repair.
(2) Rebecca borrows her neighbour’s
car, and when she returns it, the
gas tank is practically empty. She
apologizes profusely and tells her
neighbour she will be more
considerate the next time.
(3) Aaron asks Tom to check in on his
apartment while he is out of town.
When Tom arrives, he discovers
that a pipe has burst and there is a
considerable amount of water
damage. He calls a plumber to
repair the pipe.
(4) Lisa suspects that the pothole in her
company’s parking lot caused her a
flat tire. She tells her boss that she
thinks the company should pay for
the repair.
40. C¤uÁðAiÀÄPÀ ¥ÀÄgÁªÉ¬ÄAzÀ d£À MAzÀÄ 41. SÁvÀj JAzÀgÉ ªÀZÀ£À ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ E®èªÉ
¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðªÀ£ÀÄß PÀÄjvÀÄ K£À£ÉÆßà H»¹ CzÉÃ
¨sÀgÀªÀ¸ÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ GvÀà£ÀߪÉÇAzÀgÀ
¤dªÉAzÀÄ H»¸ÀÄvÁÛg.É F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ
¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ H»¸ÀÄ«PÉUÉ CvÀÄåvÀÛªÄÀ UÀÄtªÀÄlÖªÀ£ÄÀ ß GvÁàzÀPÀjAzÀ °TvÀªÁV
GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁVzÉ. CxÀªÁ ªÀiËTPÀªÁV GvÀà£ÀߪÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁgÀĪÀAvÉ
w½¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. F ¥ÉÊQ SÁvÀjUÉ CvÀÄåvÀÛªÄÀ
(1) ¥sÁæA¹£ï vÀ£Àß ºÉƸÀ PÀbÉÃjUÉ
GzÁºÀgÀuÉAiÀiÁzÀ ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀð AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ?
ºÉÆÃUÀĪÁUÀ ±ÀÄPÀæªÁgÀzÀAzÀÄ fãïì

zsj
À ¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ ¸ÀªÀÄAd¸ÀªÉAzÀÄ (1) §¼ÀPz
É ÁgÀjAzÀ C¢üPÀ gÉÃnAUïì

GzÉÆåÃVUÀ¼À PÉʦrAiÀÄ°è£À “PÁåµÀÄAiÀÄ¯ï ¥ÀqÉ¢gÀĪÀ r.«.r. UÀ¼À ªÀUð

À zÀ°è

¥sæöÉ ÊqÉÃ¸ï” N¢zÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ ¤zsð

À j¸ÀÄvÁÛ¼É. MAzÀ£ÀÄß ªÉÄ°¸Á Rjâ¸ÀÄvÁÛ¼É.

(2) ªÉÄÃj 30 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ªÁºÀ£ÀzÀ (2) JgïPÀAr±À£ï PÉƼÀÄîªÀ ªÉÆzÀ®Ä GvÀà£ÀßPÉÌ

zÀlÖuÉAiÀÄ°è PÀ¼ÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛ¼É ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÁ£Éà SÁvÀj EgÀĪÀÅzÉà JA§ÄzÀ£ÀÄß

RavÀ¥Àr¹PÉƼÀÄîªA
À vÉ ªÀiÁgÁlUÁgÀ£ÀÄ
ZÁ®£É ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀgÀ §zÀ®Ä gÉÊ°£À°è
PÀmïðUÉ ¸À®ºÉ ¤ÃqÀÄvÁÛ£É.
ºÉÆÃUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ GvÀÛªÀĪÉAzÀÄ

CAzÀÄPÉƼÀÄîvÁÛ¼É. (3) ¸ÀܽÃAiÀÄ DmÉÆà ªÁºÀ£À CAUÀrAiÀÄÄ

§¼ÀPÉ ªÀiÁrzÀ PÁgÀÄUÀ¼À £À«ÃPÀgÀt ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
(3) C£ÉÃPÀ ªÀiÁUÀðzÀ²ð ¥ÀĸÀÛPÀU¼
À ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
ªÀiÁgÁlzÀ°è «±ÉõÀvÉ ºÉÆA¢zÉ.
vÀ£Àß ¥ÀæªÁ¹ KeÉAlgÉÆA¢UÉ

¸ÀªÀiÁ¯ÉÆÃa¹zÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ eɤ¥sÀgï vÁ£ÀÄ (4) ¯ÁjAiÀÄÄ G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¹zÀ rfl¯ï

DAiÉÄÌ ªÀiÁrzÀ ºÉÆÃmÉ¯ï ªÉÆzÀ® PÁåªÉÄgÁ MAzÀ£ÀÄß CzÀgÀ
zÀeð
É AiÀÄzÉÝAzÀÄ «±Áé¸Àª£
À ÀÄß vÀ¼ÉAiÀÄÄvÁÛ¼É. PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄÄ
CvÀÄåvÀÛªÀĪÁV®è¢zÀÝ°è, ¯ÁjAiÀÄ ºÀtªÀ£ÀÄß
(4) J«Ä° C¼ÀÄvÁÛ ¨ÁV®Ä vÉgz
É ÁUÀ DPÉAiÀÄ
»A¢gÀÄV¸ÀĪÀÅzÁV ºÉüÀ®àlÖ CªÀ¼À
ªÀÄ£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¸ÁªÀÅ DVgÀ¨ÃÉ PÉAzÀÄ yAiÉÆÃ
¸ÀºÉÆÃzÉÆåÃV¬ÄAzÀ¯ÉÃ
H»¸ÀÄvÁÛ£É. PÉÆAqÀÄPÉƼÀÄîvÁÛ¼É.

389 ( 16 – A )
40. People speculate when they consider a 41. A Guarantee is a promise or assurance
situation and assume something to be that attests to the quality of a product

true based on inconclusive evidence. that is either given in writing by the

Which situation below is the best example manufacturer or given verbally by the
of Speculation ? person selling the product. Which

situation below is the best example of a

Guarantee ?
(1) Francine decides that it would be

appropriate to wear jeans to her

(1) Melissa purchases a DVD player
new office on Friday after reading
with the highest consumer ratings
about “Casual Fridays” in her
in its category.
employee handbook.

(2) The salesperson advises Curt to be

(2) Mary spends thirty minutes sitting sure that he buys an air conditioner

in traffic and wishes that she took with a guarantee.

the train instead of driving.

(3) The local auto body shop specializes

in refurbishing and selling used

(3) After consulting several guidebooks
cars.
and her travel agent, Jennifer feels

confident that the hotel she has

(4) Lori buys a used digital camera
chosen is first-rate.
from her coworker who says that

she will refund Lori’s money if the

(4) When Emily opens the door in tears, camera’s performance is not of the
Theo guesses that she had a death highest quality.

in her family.

389 ( 17 – A )
42. ¸ÀvÀåªÀ£ÀÄß CzÀÆÞjPÀj¸ÀĪÀÅzÉAzÀgÉ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ 43. UÁæ«ÄÃt PÉÊUÁjQÃPÀgÀtªÀ£ÀÄß UÁA¢üÃf
PÁ®à¤PÀ «ªÀgÀ ¸ÉÃj¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CxÀªÁ EgÀĪÀ «gÉÆâü¸À®Ä PÁgÀt
CA±ÀU¼ À À£ÀÄß CxÀªÁ ¸ÀvÀåzÀ PÀxÉU¼À À£ÀÄß A. CzÀÄ §qÀªÀgÀ ¥ÀgÀªÃÉ «£Á ¹jªÀAvÀgÀ
GvÉàçÃQë¹zÁUÀ F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À ¥ÉÊQ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¥ÀgÀ C®è.
¸ÀvÀåzÀ CzÀÆÞjPÀgÀtPÉÌ GvÀÛªÄÀ GzÁºÀgÀuÉ ?
B. CzÀÄ UÁæ«ÄÃtgÀ P˱À®åªÀ£ÀÄß £Á±À
(1) E¸Á¨É¯ï gÀAUÀ ªÀÄA¢gÀPÉÌ ºÉÆÃUÀÄvÁÛ¼É ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÀiÁgÀ£É ¢£À vÀ£Àß
C. CzÀÄ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ¸ÀA¸ÀÌøw «£Á±ÀPÀ.
¸ÀºÉÆÃzÉÆåÃVUÀ½UÉ £ÁlPÀ
D. CzÀÄ UÁæ«ÄÃt ¸ËAzÀAiÀÄðªÀ£ÀÄß
CvÀÄåvÀÛªÀĪÁVzÉ JAzÀÄ ºÉüÀÄvÁÛ¼É.
ºÁ¼ÀĪÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(2) ªÀÄ£É zÀ¼Áî½AiÀÄÄ, ªÀÄ£ÉAiÀÄÄ ¸ÁUÀg¢ À AzÀ
ºÀ£ÉÆßAzÀÄ ¨ÁèPÀÄUÀ¼ÀµÄÀ Ö zÀÆgÀ EzÀÝgÀÆ, PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
¥ÀæzÁs £ÀªÁV ¸ÁUÀgÀªÄÀ ÄT ¸ÀévÄÀ Û JAvÀ¯Éà GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ :
ªÀÄ£ÉAiÀÄ §UÉÎ «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÁÛ£É. (1) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
(3) GzÉÆåÃUÀ ¸ÀAzÀ±Àð£ÀªÉÇAzÀgÀ°è, ¥sæÉqï (2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
vÁ£ÀÄ ¥ÁæxÀ«ÄPÀ ±Á¯ÉUÀ¼À°è ºÀvÄÀ Û
(3) B ªÀiÁvÀæ
ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À PÁ® ¨sÉÆÃzÀ£É ªÀiÁrzÀÄÝ vÁ£ÀÄ
M§â CvÀåAvÀ C£ÀĨsÀ« ²PÀëPÀ JAzÀÄ (4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D

vÀ£ÀߣÀÄß vÁ£ÀÄ §tÂÚ¸ÀÄvÁÛ£É.

44. UÁA¢üÃfAiÀĪÀgÀ UÁæ«ÄÃt ¸ÉÆUÀr£À ¸ÀéUð
À zÀ
(4) ¨Á¸ÉÌmï ¨Á¯ï vÀgÀ¨ÃÉ vÀÄzÁgÀ CvÀåAvÀ
PÀ£À¸À£ÀÄß ºÀAaPÉƼÀîzª
À ÀgÄÀ
¥Àæw¨sÁ¤évÀ DlUÁgÀjUÉà PÁ¯ÉÃdÄ
«zÁåyðªÉÃvÀ£À zÉÆgÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÁV A. zÉñÀzÀ PÉÊUÁjQÃPÀgÀtªÀ£ÀÄß £ÀA§zÀªÀgÀÄ.
ºÉüÀÄvÁÛ£É. B. UÁA¢üÃfAiÀĪÀgÀ£ÀÄß gÁµÀÖç¦vÀ£ÉAzÀªÀgÄÀ .

F PɼÀV£À ¨sÁUÀªÀ£ÀÄß N¢ ¥À±æ Éß ¸ÀASÉå (43 – 44) PÉÌ C. ¸ÁévA

À vÉÆåçÃvÀÛgÀ C¢üPÁgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ¥Àqz
É Àªg
À ÀÄ.
GvÀÛj¹j : D. UÁæªÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸Àé¸ÀA¥ÀÆuÁðªÀ®A©UÀ¼ÉAzÀÄ
ªÀĺÁvÁä UÁA¢üAiÀĪÀgÀÄ PÉÊUÁjQÃPÀgt À ªÉà ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ £ÀA©zÀªÀgÄÀ .
§ºÀĸÀASÁåvÀ §qÀªÀgÀ ¸ÀªÀĸÉåUÉ GvÀÛgª À À®èªA
É zÀÄ PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½
À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
ºÁUÀÆ UÁæ«ÄÃtjUÉ DºÁgÀz°À è ¸ÁéªÀ®A§£É,
À À£Áßj¹ :
GvÀÛgª
ºÉÆAzÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß, ºÀwÛ¬ÄAzÀ vÀªÄÀ ä §mÉÖUÀ¼À£ÀÄß vÁªÉÃ
£ÉÃAiÀÄÄåªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß ºÁUÀÆ 20£Éà ±Àvª À ÀiÁ£ÀªÀÅ ¤ÃqÀĪÀ (1) C ªÀiÁvÀæ
PÁtÂPÉU¼ À À£ÀÄß zÀÆjÃPÀj¸À®Ä PÀ°¸À¨ÉÃPÉAzÀÄ £ÀA©zÀÝgÄÀ . (2) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
CAvÀºÀ UÁæ«ÄÃt ¸ÉÆUÀqÄÀ ¨sÀjvÀ ¸ÀéUð À ªÀÅ C¢üPÁgÀzÀ (3) C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
ZÀÄPÁÌuÉ »rzÀªÀjUÉ ªÀÄ£À¹ìUÉ »r¸À°®è.
(4) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D

389 ( 18 – A )
42. Embellishing the Truth occurs when a 43. Gandhiji’s views opposed
person adds fictitious details or industrialization of villages because

exaggerates facts or true stories. Which A. it would help the poor and not the
situation below is the best example of rich.
Embellishing the Truth ? B. it would take away the skills of the
villagers.
(1) Isabel goes to the theater, and the
C. it would affect the culture of the
next day, she tells her co-workers
Indians.
that the play was excellent.
D. it would undermine the beauty of
(2) The realtor describes the house, the villages.
which is eleven blocks away from
Choose the correct answer from the
the ocean, as prime waterfront
options given below :
property.
(1) C and D
(3) During the job interview, Fred, who
(2) A and B
has been teaching elementary
(3) Only B
school for ten years, describes
himself as a very experienced (4) A and D
teacher.
44. Gandhiji’s dream of an idyllic and rural
(4) The basketball coach says it is likely paradise was not shared by
that only the most talented players A. those who did not believe in
will get a college scholarship. industrialization of the country.
B. those who called him the father of
Read the following passage and answer
the nation.
the questions (43 – 44) :
C. those who inherited political powers
Mahatma Gandhi believed that
after independence.
industrialization was no answer to the
problems that plague the mass of India’s poor D. those who believed that villages
should be self-sufficient.
and that villagers should be taught to be
self-sufficient in food, weave their own cloth Choose the correct answer from the
from cotton and eschew the glittering prizes options given below :

that the 20th century so temptingly offers. (1) Only C

Such an idyllic and rural paradise did not (2) A, B, C and D
appeal to those who inherited the reins of (3) C and D
political power.
(4) A and D

389 ( 19 – A )
45. ¸ÀgÀPÄÀ UÀ¼À ¨sËUÉÆýPÀ ¸ÀÆZÀ£É (£ÉÆÃAzÀt ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 49. ¥ÀnÖ-I gÉÆA¢UÉ ¥ÀnÖ-II £ÀÄß ºÉÆA¢¹.
gÀPÀëuÉ)PÁAiÉÄÝ 1999 PÀÄjvÀAvÉ F ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¥ÀjUÀt¹ : ¥ÀnÖ-I ¥ÀnÖ-II
A. CzÀ£ÀÄß PÀȶ, £ÉʸÀVðPÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ GvÁà¢vÀ A. d£À¸ÀASÉå I. dUÀwÛ£À J¯Áè fë
¸ÀgÀPÄÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉêÉU½
À UÉ §¼ÀPÉ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜUÀ¼À£ÄÀ ß
ªÀiÁqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. M¼ÀUÉÆArgÀĪÀ
B. GvÀà£ÀߪÉÇAzÀPÌÉ ¨sËUÉÆýPÀ ¸ÀÆZÀ£É (GI) ¨sÆ
À «ÄAiÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¨sÁUÀ
DUÀ¨ÃÉ PÁzÀ°è D ¥ÀæzÃÉ ±Àz°À è ¸ÀgÀQ£À
B. ¸ÀªÄÀ ÄzÁAiÀÄ II. MAzÀÄ ¥ÀæzÉñÀz° À è
GvÁàzÀ£É, ¸ÀA¸ÀÌgÀt ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀAiÀiÁjPÉ PÀAqÀÄ §gÀĪÀ ««zsÀ
DUÀ¨ÃÉ PÁV®è. ¥À¨
æ ÃÉ zsÀUÀ½UÉ ¸ÉÃjzÀ
F ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ ? ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ UÀÄA¥ÀÄUÀ¼À
PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ eÉÆÃqÀuÉ
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ :
C. fë III. MAzÀÄ ¥ÀæzÉñÀz° À è
(1) A ªÀiÁvÀæ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ PÀAqÀÄ §gÀĪÀ MAzÉÃ
(2) B ªÀiÁvÀæ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜ ¥À¨
æ ÃÉ zsÀzÀ ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ
(3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B JgÀqÀÆ UÀÄA¥ÀÄ
(4) F ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÇ C®è
D. fë IV. fëUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
46. PÀȶ ºÀªÁªÀiÁ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzs£ À Á PÉÃAzÀæªÅÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ CªÀÅUÀ¼À ¨sËwPÀ
EgÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀ ________ . UÉÆüÀ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀzÀ ¥ÀgÀ¸ÀàgÀ
(1) ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ
MqÀ£Ál
(2) ¨ÁUÀ®PÉÆÃmÉ
(3) zsÁgÀªÁqÀ V. ¥Àj¸ÀgÁzsÁjvÀ fë
(4) ªÉÄʸÀÆgÀÄ ªÀVÃðPÀgt À
47. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ¨É¼ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß EwÛÃZÉUÉ
¨sËUÉÆýPÀ ¸ÀÆZÀåAPÀ mÁåUï£ÉÆA¢UÉ
PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½
À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
C£ÀÄgÀÆ¥ÀUÉƽ¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ :
(ºÉÆA¢PÉUÉƽ¹vÀÄ) ?
(1) ©eÁ¥ÀÄgÀzÀ eÉÆüÀ
(2) PÀ®§ÄgÀVAiÀÄ vÉÆUÀj ¨ÉÃ¼É A B C D
(3) gÁAiÀÄZÀÆj£À ºÀwÛ
(4) ©ÃzÀgï£À UÉÆâü (1) I IV V III
48. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è ‘Kgï-lÄ-Kgï’ Që¥ÀtÂ
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ? (2) V II III I
(1) C¸ÀÛç
(3) II III V IV
(2) DP籕
(3) ¨ÉPÉég¯ À ï (4) III II IV I
(4) ¥ÀÈyé

389 ( 20 – A )
45. Consider the following about 49. Match List-I with List-II.
Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 : List-I List-II
A. It is used for agricultural, natural
A. Population I. Part of the Earth
and manufactured goods and
consisting of all the
services.
ecosystems of the
B. For a product to get GI tag, the world
goods need not be produced or
processed or prepared in that B. Community II. Assemblage of all
region. the individuals
belonging to
Which of the statement/(s) is/are correct ? different species
Choose the correct answer from the occurring in an area
options given below : C. Ecosystem III. Group of similar
(1) Only A individuals
belonging to the
(2) Only B
same species found
(3) Both A and B in an area
(4) None of the above D. Ecosphere IV. Interaction between
the living organisms
46. The Agromet Forecasting and Research and their physical
Centre is located at __________ . environmental
components
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Bagalkot V. Classification of
(3) Dharwad organisms based on
(4) Mysuru the type of
environment
47. Recently, which of the following crop was
accorded with Geographical Indication Choose the correct answer from the
(GI) Tag ? options given below :
(1) Jowar of Bijapur
(2) Tur dal of Kalaburagi
(3) Cotton of Raichur A B C D
(4) Wheat of Bidar
(1) I IV V III
48. Which one of the following is an
‘Air-to-Air’ missile ?
(2) V II III I
(1) Astra
(2) Akash (3) II III V IV
(3) Becquerel
(4) Prithvi (4) III II IV I

389 ( 21 – A )
50. ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆj£À°è £ÀqÉzÀ 2019gÀ 12£Éà KgÉÆà 53. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ 2019gÀ ¥s§ À 28
É æªj
EArAiÀiÁ ±ÉÆãÀ D±ÀAiÀĪÀÅ _______ . gÀAzÀÄ d¯ÁªÀÄÈvÀ AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
(1) ºÁgÀ®Ä PÀ° ZÁ®£ÉUÉƽ¹vÀÄ.
(2) £ÀªÄÀ ä ¸ÁºÀ¸ÀU¼ À ÀÄ ¥ÁægÀA¨sÀUÉƼÀÄîªÀ ¸ÀܼÀ A. d® PÁAiÀÄUÀ¼À gÀPëÀuÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
DPÁ±À ¥ÀÄ£ÀgÀÄfÓêÀ£ÀªÀ£ÉÆß¼ÀUÉÆAqÀAvÉ §gÀ
(3) ©°AiÀÄ£ï (±ÀvÀPÉÆÃn) CªÀPÁ±ÀUÀ¼À ¤gÉÆÃzsÀPÀ ¥ÀjºÁgÀU¼ À À ªÉÄïÉ
MAzÀÄ gÀ£ïªÉà AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄÄ PÉÃA¢æÃPÀÈvÀUÉƽ¹vÀÄ.
(4) ©°AiÀÄ£ï (±ÀvÀPÉÆÃn) CªÀPÁ±ÀUÀ½UÁV B. PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ d®¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä® E¯ÁSÉAiÀÄÄ
ºÁgÀÄ d¯ÁªÀÄÈvÀ AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
C£ÀĵÁ×£ÀUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀ £ÉÆÃqÀ¯ï
51. JgÉ UÉƧâgÀ vÀAiÀiÁjPÉUÉ §¼ÀPÉ DUÀĪÀ E¯ÁSÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
JgɺÀļÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ C. EzÀÄ MAzÀÄ ¸ÀªÀÄÄzÁAiÀÄ ZÁ°vÀ
A. L¸É¤AiÀiÁ ¥sÉnqÁ (Eisenia fetida) AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
D. AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄrAiÀÄ d® ¸ÀAgÀPÀëuÁ
B. ®A©æPÄÀ ¸ÀÄ樮
É Äè¸ï PÁAiÀÄðvÀAvÀæªÅÀ EzÀ£ÀÄß M¼ÀUÉƼÀÄîªÀÅzÀÄ-
(Lumbricus rubellus) d® ¸ÁPÀëgv À É, d® PÁAiÀÄUÀ¼À
C. PÉ£ÉÆÃgïºÁ©Ýn¸É®UÀ£ïì ¥ÀÄ£ÀgÀÄfÓêÀ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤ÃgÀÄ,
(Caenorhabditis elegans) CgÀtÂåÃPÀgÀtzÀ §UÉÎ CjªÀÅ.
D. ¥ÁènºÉ°äAw¸ï (Platyhelminthes) F ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ/ªÀÅ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ ?
PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ : GvÀÛgª À À£Áßj¹ :
(1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
(1) A ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
(2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ªÀiÁvÀæ (3) A, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
(3) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀiÁvÀæ (4) ªÉÄð£À J®èªÇ À
(4) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D F PæÙÜX®Ü ÊÜÞ×£¿á®Üá° ¥ÀjUÀt¹ ¥À±æ Éß ¸ÀASÉå
52. ¤µÀÌøµÀÖ PÀȶAiÀÄÄ MAzÀÄ ªÉÊeÁÕ¤PÀ (54 – 56) PÉÌ GvÀÛj¹j :
¥ÀæAiÀÄvÀߪÁVzÀÄÝ, EzÀÄ PÀȶ ¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß LªÀgÀÄ ªÀÄ»¼ÉAiÀÄgÀÄ GzÁå£ÀªÀ£ÀzÀ ¨ÉAa£À ªÉÄïÉ
¸ÀÄzsÁj¸À®Ä ___________________ C£ÀéAiÀÄ¢AzÀ bÁAiÀiÁavÀæ vÉU¹ É PÉƼÀî®Ä ¹zÀÞªÁV PÀĽwzÁÝgÉ.
ªÀiÁqÀĪÀAvÀºÀzÄÀ . ²Ã£Á gɪiÀ Áå¼À JqÀPÉÌ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ©Ã£Á¼À §®PÉÌ
(1) EwÛÃa£À PÀȶ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀĽwzÁݼÉ. ªÉÆäPÁ gɪiÀ Áå¼À §®PÉÌ PÀĽwzÁݼÉ.
¸À®PÀgÀuÉUÀ¼À §¼ÀPÉ jãÁ, gɪiÀ Áå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ªÉÆäPÁ £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ PÀĽwzÁÝgÉ.
(2) GvÀÛªÀÄ UÀÄtªÀÄlÖzÀ ©Ãd ¨ÉÊjUÉU¼ À À 54. jãÁ¼À ¤PÀl §®¨sÁUÀzÀ°è PÀĽvÀªÀgÀÄ
§¼ÀPÉ AiÀiÁgÀÄ ?
(3) ªÀiÁ»w vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ G¥ÀUÀæºÁzsÁjvÀ (1) ªÉÆäPÁ
vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£ÀzÀ C£ÀéAiÀÄ¢AzÀ (2) gɪiÀ Áå
(4) ¸ÀgÀPÄÀ UÀ¼À §¼ÀPÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥À槮 «¸ÀÛgt À (3) ©Ã£Á
£ÉÊ¥ÀÄtåvÉ (4) ²Ã£Á

389 ( 22 – A )
50. The theme of 12th Aero India Show 2019 53. The Government of Karnataka has
held at Bangalore is __________ . launched Jalamrutha scheme on
(1) Learn to fly February 28, 2019.
(2) Sky is the place where our A. The scheme focuses on drought
adventures begin proofing measures including
(3) The runway to a billion protection and rejuvenation of water
opportunities bodies.

(4) Fly for a billion opportunities B. The Department of Water Resources

of Karnataka is the nodal
51. Earthworms used for Vermicomposting department to implement the
Jalamrutha scheme.
is/are
C. It is a community driven scheme.
A. Eisenia fetida
D. The water conservation strategy
B. Lumbricus rubellus under the scheme comprises —
Water literacy, Rejuvenation of
C. Caenorhabditis elegans
Water bodies and Awareness about
D. Platyhelminthes Water, Afforestation.

Choose the correct answer from the Which of the statement/(s) is/are correct ?
options given below : Choose the correct answer from the
options given below :
(1) Only A
(1) A and B
(2) Only A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) Only A, B and C (3) A, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D (4) All of the above

52. Precision agriculture is a scientific Consider the following information and

answer the questions (54 – 56) :
endeavour to improve the agricultural
Five ladies are sitting on a bench in a park
management by the application of
ready to be photographed. Sheena is to the left
________ .
of Remya and to the right of Beena. Monica is
(1) Latest agricultural tools and to the right of Remya. Reena is between
implements
Remya and Monica.
(2) Use of good quantity seed drills 54. Who is sitting on the immediate right to
(3) By application of information Reena ?
technology and satellite based (1) Monica
technology (2) Remya
(4) Use of goods and powerful extension (3) Beena
strategies (4) Sheena

389 ( 23 – A )
55. ±ÝQì®ÜÈÉ ¨ÉAa£À ªÀÄzsÀåzÀ°ègÄÀ ªÀªÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁgÀÄ ? 59. PÉưѹ£ï ¥ÀævÁåªÀÄ誣
À ÀÄß ___________ ¤AzÀ
(1) ©Ã£Á ¥ÀqA
É iÀįÁVzÉ.
(1) C¦üêÀÄÄ (Opium)
(2) jãÁ
(2) ¥ÉÊgÉxæª
À Àiï (Pyrethrum)
(3) gɪiÀ Áå
(3) UÉÆèÃj°° (Glory lily)
(4) ²Ã£Á
(4) ¸À¥ÀðUÀAzsÀ (Sarpagandha)

56. gɪiÀ Áå¼À ¤PÀl JqÀ ¥ÀPÀÌz°

À è PÀĽvÀªÀgÀÄ 60. JgÀqÀÄ ¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À UÀÄt®§ÞªÅÀ 47,915 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
AiÀiÁgÀÄ ? CªÀÅUÀ¼À H.C.F. 37, DUÀ CªÀÅUÀ¼À ªÉÆvÀÛªÀÅ.
(1) jãÁ (1) 333
(2) ªÉÆäPÁ (2) 444
(3) ©Ã£Á (3) 555
(4) ²Ã£Á (4) 666

57. ²æúÀj £ÀlgÁeïgÀªÀgÀÄ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ 61. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ UÁAiÀÄPÀgÀ£ÀÄß CvÀÄåvÀÛªÄÀ
QæÃqÉUÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÁÝgÉ ? ªÀÄ»¼Á »£Àß¯É UÁAiÀÄQ JAzÀÄ 66£ÉÃ
gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ZÀ®£ÀavÀæ ¥Àæ±¹
À ÛU¼
À À ¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðzÀ°è
(1) ¨Áåqï«ÄAl£ï
¤tð¬Ä¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ ?
(2) ºÁQ
(1) C£À£Àå ¨sÀmï
(3) ¹é«ÄäAUï
(2) ©AzÀĪÀiÁ°¤
(4) mɤ߸ï
(3) ±ÉæÃAiÀiÁ WÉÆõÁ¯ï
58. “gÉqï qÉÃmÁ §ÄPï” JA§ÄzÀÄ MAzÀÄ «gÀ¼À (4) ªÁt ºÀjPÀȵÀÚ
ºÁUÀÆ «¥ÀwÛ£À°ègÀĪÀ eÁwUÀ¼À _________ 62. ºÁ°£À ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ°è §ÈºÀvï
°TvÀ zÁR¯ÉAiÀiÁVzÉ. ªÀåvÀåAiÀÄ£ÀU¼ À ÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ CAvÀºÀ ¸ÀAAiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ
A. ¥ÁætÂU¼ À ÀÄ ªÀåvÀåAiÀÄ£ÀPÉÌ PÁgÀtªÁzÀ CA±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ _______ .
B. ¸À¸ÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ A. QëÃgÉÆÃvÀàwÛ WÀlÖ
C. ²°ÃAzÀæ B. ºÁ®Ä PÀgÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀgÀ £ÀqÄÀ ªÀt CAvÀgÀ
D. ¸ÀA¢ü¥À¢UÀ¼ÀÄ C. ºÁ®Ä PÀgÉAiÀÄĪÁV£À ¥Àj¸ÀgÁvÀäPÀ ¹Üw
D. ªÉÊAiÀÄQÛPÀ ªÀåvÀåAiÀÄ£À
PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½
À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
GvÀÛgªÀ À£ÀÄß Dj¹ : PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ :
(1) A ªÀiÁvÀæ
(1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B
(2) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
(2) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C
(3) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
(3) B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D
(4) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C (4) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D

389 ( 24 – A )
55. Who is in the middle of the bench in the 59. Colchicine alkaloid is obtained from
park ? _______ .
(1) Beena (1) Opium

(2) Reena (2) Pyrethrum

(3) Glory lily
(3) Remya
(4) Sarpagandha
(4) Sheena
60. If the product of two numbers is 47,915
56. Who is sitting on the immediate left to and their H.C.F. is 37, then their sum is
Remya ?
(1) 333
(1) Reena (2) 444
(2) Monica (3) 555
(3) Beena (4) 666
(4) Sheena 61. Which of the following singer was
adjudged as the best female playback
57. Srihari Nataraj is related to which of the singer at the 66th National Film
following sport ? Awards ?
(1) Badminton (1) Ananya Bhat
(2) Hockey (2) Bindhumalini
(3) Swimming (3) Shreya Ghoshal
(4) Tennis (4) Vani Harikrishna

58. The “Red Data Book” is the 62. There is a great deal of variation in the
documentation of rare and endangered composition of milk. The factors
responsible for such variation in the
species of _______ .
composition are _______.
A. Animals
A. Stage of Lactation
B. Plants B. Intervals between milking
C. Fungi C. Environmental conditions at milking
D. Arthropods D. Individual variation
Choose the correct answer from the Choose the correct answer from the
options given below : options given below :
(1) Only A (1) A and B
(2) A, B, C and D (2) B and C
(3) A and D (3) B, C and D
(4) B and C (4) A, B, C and D

389 ( 25 – A )
63. 3 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 4 WÀAmÉUÀ¼À ªÀÄzsåÀ zÀ AiÀiÁªÀ 67. «zÁåyðAiÉƧâ 180 CAPÀ EgÀĪÀ ¨sËvÀ±Á¸ÀÛçzÀ
¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è UÀrAiÀiÁgÀzÀ ªÀÄļÀÄîU¼
À ÀÄ «gÀÄzÀÞ ªÉÆzÀ® ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è ±ÉÃ. 30 gÀµÀÄÖ CAPÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
©QR®ÜÈÉÃÜáñܤÊæ. É À½AzÀ PÀ¤µÀ× ±ÉÃ. 50
UÀ½¹zÁÝ£É, JgÀqÀÄ ¥ÀwæPU
1 gÀµÀÄÖ CAPÀU¼
À À£ÀÄß UÀ½¸À¨ÉÃPÀÄ. JgÀq£
À ÉÃ
(1) 3 UÀAmÉAiÀiÁzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ 49 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ½UÉ
11
¥ÀwæPA
É iÀÄ°è 150 CAPÀU½
À ªÉ. JgÀq£
À ÉÃ
(2) 3 UÀAmÉAiÀiÁzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ 50 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ½UÉ
¥ÀwæPA
É iÀÄ°è DvÀ UÀ½¸À¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ±ÉÃPÀqÁªÁgÀÄ
5
(3) 3 UÀAmÉAiÀiÁzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ 49 ¤«ÄµÀUÀ½UÉ
11 CAPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ _________ .
10
(4) 3 UÀAmÉAiÀiÁzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ 49
11 (1) 80%
¤«ÄµÀUÀ½UÉ
(2) 76%
64. CT® ¨sÁgÀvÀ ºÀÄ° CAzÁdÄ ªÀgÀ¢-2018gÀ
(3) 74%
ªÉÄÃgÉUÉ PÀ£ÁðlPÀz°
À è£À ºÀÄ°UÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉå ____ .
(4) 70%
(1) 526
(2) 524 68. gÀAUÀ¨sÀÆ«Ä PÉëÃvÀæz°
À è£À CvÀåzÀÄãvÀ ¸ÀägÀtÂÃAiÀÄ
(3) 512 ¸ÁzsÀ£U
É ÊÉ zÀ d£ÀjUÁV ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁUÀĪÀ qÁ|| UÀÄ©â
(4) 442 «ÃgÀtÚ ¥Àæ±À¹ÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß 2018£Éà ¸Á°£À°è
65. ¸À¨sÉAiÉÆAzÀÄ ¨É¼ÀV£À 11:00 UÀAmÉUÉ ________ gÀªÀjUÉ PÉÆqÀ¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
£ÀqA É iÀĨÉÃPÁVzÀÄÝ ‘P’ JA§ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄÄ vÁ£ÀÄ
(1) vÉgÃÉ ¸ÀªÀÄä r’¸Ëdû
¨sÁUÀª» À ¸À¨ÉÃPÁzÀ ¸À¨És £ÀqA
É iÀÄĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀ¢AzÀ
100 km zÀÆgÀzÀ°èzÁÝ£É. ‘P’ AiÀÄÄ 09:45 PÉÌ (2) Dgï. ¥Àgª
À ÄÀ ²ªÀ£ï
vÀ£Àß PÁj£À°è ºÉÆgÀlÄ 60 kmph ªÉÃUÀzÀ°è (3) aAzÉÆÃr ²æÃPÀAoÉñï
§AzÀgÉ ¸À¨sÉUÉ JµÀÄÖ ¤«ÄµÀ vÀqª À ÁV (4) ¥ÀæPÁ±ï PÀqÀ¥ÀnÖ
§gÀĪÀ£ÄÀ ?
(1) 5 ¤«ÄµÀ 69. ________ MAzÀÄ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ £É¯É(¸ÁÜ£À) (Niche)
(2) 15 ¤«ÄµÀ AiÀÄ£ÀÄß «ªÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛz.É
(3) 25 ¤«ÄµÀ (1) MAzÀÄ fëAiÀÄÄ ªÁ¹¸À§ºÀÄzÁzÀ C£ÉÃPÀ
(4) 35 ¤«ÄµÀ DªÁ¸ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
66. EwÛÃZÉUÉ ©qÀÄUÀqAÉ iÀiÁzÀ ‘‘²æêÀvìÀ ¸Àäøw’’ (2) MAzÀÄ fëAiÀÄÄ ªÁ¹¸ÀĪÀ MAzÀÄ
¥ÀĸÀÛPÀªÀ£ÄÀ ß §gÉzÀªg
À ÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ/ªÁvÁªÀgÀt
(1) J¸ï.J¯ï. ¨sÉÊgÀ¥àÀ (3) vÀ£Àß ¸ÀªÀÄÄzÁAiÀÄzÀ°è MAzÀÄ fëAiÀÄÄ
(2) ¸ÀĪÀÄwÃAzÀæ £ÁrUÀ ¤ªÀð»¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÁvÀæ
(3) §gÀUÀÆgÀÄ gÁªÀÄZÀAzÀæ¥àÀ (4) MAzÀÄ ¥ÀæzÃÉ ±ÀzÀ°è£À CeÉÊ«PÀ, ¤fÃðªÀ
(4) PÀÆVð ±ÀAPÀgÀ£ÁgÁAiÀÄt G¥ÁzsÁåAiÀÄ CA±ÀU¼
À ÀÄ
389 ( 26 – A )
63. At what time between 3 and 4 o’clock will 67. A student who scored 30% marks in the
the hands of a watch point in opposite first paper of Physics out of 180 marks,
directions ?
has to get an overall score of at least 50%
1 in two papers. The second paper is of
(1) 49 minutes past 3
11 150 marks. The percentage of marks he
should score in the second paper to get
(2) 50 minutes past 3
the overall average score is __________ .
5
(3) 49 minutes past 3 (1) 80%
11

10 (2) 76%
(4) 49 minutes past 3
11
(3) 74%
64. The number of tigers in Karnataka as per
(4) 70%
the 2018 All India Tiger Estimation
Report is __________ .
68. Dr. Gubbi Veeranna Award, the award
(1) 526
given to people for tremendous feats in
(2) 524
the field of theatre and rangabhumi, for
(3) 512
the year 2018, was awarded to _________ .
(4) 442
(1) Theresamma D’Souza
65. A meeting is scheduled at 11:00 AM and a
person ‘P’, who is at a distance of 100 km (2) R. Paramashivan
from the meeting place, has to attend. If
‘P’ starts at 09:45 AM in his car which (3) Chindodi Srikantesh
moves with a speed of 60 kmph, then ‘P’ is (4) Prakash Kadapatti
late to the meeting by how many
minutes ?
69. An ecological “Niche” can be defined as
(1) 5 minutes
_________ .
(2) 15 minutes
(3) 25 minutes (1) The various habitats an organism
may inhabit
(4) 35 minutes

66. The recently released book “Srivatsa (2) The specific environment an
Smriti” is written by organism inhabits
(1) S.L. Bhyrappa
(3) The role an organism plays in its
(2) Sumatheendra Nadig community
(3) Baraguru Ramachandrappa
(4) Korgi Shankaranarayana (4) The inorganic, non-living aspects of
Upadhyaya a given area

389 ( 27 – A )
70. F PɼÀV£À PÁgÀtUÀ½AzÁV £É®UÀqÀ¯É PÉÃPï 73. gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ DºÁgÀ ¸ÀÄgÀPÁë ¤AiÉÆÃUÀzÀ (NFSM)
CxÀªÁ «ÄãÀÄ »lÄÖ (Fish Meal) §zÀ°UÉ zsåÉ ÃAiÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ EªÀÅUÀ¼À GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
¸ÉÆÃAiÀiÁ©Ã£ï »nÖ£À G¥ÀAiÉÆÃUÀPÉÌ DzÀåvÉ ªÀ¢üð¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ :
(1) CQÌ, UÉÆâü, ºÀtÄÚU¼ À ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
A. «ÄãÀÄ »lÄÖ (Fish Meal) C£ÉÃPÀ ªÉüÉ
ºÉaÑ£À ªÀÄlÖzÀ ªÀÄgÀ¼ÀÄ, ¹°PÁ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀgPÀ ÁjUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀiÁvÀæ
G¦à¤AzÀ PÀ®Ä¶vÀªÁVgÀÄvÀÛz.É (2) CQÌ, UÉÆâü ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀgP À ÁjUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀiÁvÀæ
B. ¸ÉÆÃAiÀiÁ©Ã£ï «ÄÃ¯ï £À°èAiÀÄ
C«ÄãÉÆà DªÀÄèU¼ À À £ÀªÀÄÆ£ÉAiÀÄÄ ºÉZÀÄÑ (3) CQÌ, UÉÆâü, ºÀtÄÚU¼ À ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
C¥ÉÃPÀëtÂÃAiÀĪÁVzÉ. ¢éz¼ À ÀzsÁ£ÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀiÁvÀæ
C. ¦üµï «ÄÃ¯ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÉÆÃAiÀiÁ©Ã£ï
(4) CQÌ, UÉÆâü, ¢éz¼ À ÀzsÁ£ÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
«ÄïïVAvÀ £É®UÀq¯ À É PÉÃPï ºÉZÀÄÑ
¨É¯ÉAiÀÄzÁÝVzÉ. MgÀlÄ KPÀz¼ À À zsÁ£ÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀiÁvÀæ.
D. ¸ÉÆÃAiÀiÁ©Ã£ï «ÄÃ¯ï ¥ÉÆæÃnãï£À
¥ÀZÀ£ÀvAÉ iÀÄÄ ¸ÀĪÀiÁgÀÄ 97%. 74. PÀÄlÄA§ªÉÇAzÀgÀ°è J, K, L, M, N ªÀÄvÀÄÛ O
PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ JA§ DgÀÄ ªÀÄA¢ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ EzÁÝgÉ. CzÀgÀ°è
GvÀÛgªÀ À£Áßj¹ : E§âgÄÀ ªÀÄzÀĪÉAiÀiÁzÀ zÀA¥ÀwUÀ¼ÀÄ. K AiÀÄÄ
(1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ªÀiÁvÀæ
ªÉÊzÀå ªÀÄvÀÄÛ N £À vÀAzÉ, O £ÀÄ L £À CdÓ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
(2) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ C ªÀiÁvÀæ
UÀÄwÛUz É ÁgÀ. M JA¨ÁPÉ N £À CfÓ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
(3) B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ UÀÈ»tÂ. F PÀÄlÄA§zÀ°è M§â ªÉÊzÀå, M§â
71. 36 ªÁºÀ£ÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤¯ÁÝtzÀ°è MAzÉà ¸Á°£À°è UÀÄwÛUz É ÁgÀ, M§â UÀÈ»tÂ, M§â £À¸ïð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
eÉÆÃr¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ªÉÆzÀ® PÁj£À C£ÀAvÀgÀ E§âgÄÀ «zÁåyðUÀ½zÁÝgÉ ºÁVzÀÝgÉ J AiÀÄ ªÀÈwÛ
MAzÀÄ ¸ÀÆÌlgï, JgÀqÀ£Éà PÁj£À C£ÀAvÀgÀ K£ÀÄ ?
JgÀqÀÄ ¸ÀÆÌlgïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤°è¸À¯ÁVzÉ. ºÁUÉAiÉÄà (1) £À¸ïð
ªÀÄÄAzÀĪÀgÉzÀ°è JgÀq£ À Éà GvÀÛgÁzsÀðzÀ°è£À
(2) ªÉÊzÀå
¸ÀÆÌlgïUÀ¼À ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¯ÉPÀÌ ªÀiÁr.
(1) 10 (3) UÀÄwÛUz É ÁgÀ
(2) 12 (4) UÀÈ»tÂ
(3) 15
(4) 17 75. 2019 – 20 gÀ PÀ£ÁðlPÀ §eÉmï£À MlÄÖ
72. D PæÙÜX®ÜÊÜÃÜ ±æçQ AiÀiÁgÀÄ ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀ PÉëÃvÀæzÀ «¤AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ°è, JµÀÄÖ ±ÉÃPÀqÀ
¸ÉêÉUÁV, 2019 gÀ PÀ£ÁðlPÀ gÁeÉÆåÃvÀìªÀ UÁæ«ÄÃuÁ©üªÀÈ¢Þ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvï gÁeïUÉ
¥Àæ±¹
À Û ¥ÀqÉ¢zÁÝgÉ ? ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁVzÉ ?
(1) ©.«. ªÀÄ°èPÁdÄð£À (1) 7%
(2) gÀªÄÉ Ã±À ªÉÊzÀå (2) 5%
(3) PÀnÖUÉ ZÉ£ÀߥÀà (3) 6%
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁgÀÆ C®è (4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è.

389 ( 28 – A )
70. Utilization of Soyabean meal is preferred 73. The National Food Security Mission
over Groundnut cake or Fish meal (NFSM) aims to enhance the production
because of the following reasons :
of ________ .
A. Fish meal is often contaminated
with high level of sand, silica and (1) Rice, wheat, fruits and vegetables
salt. only
B. The amino acid pattern of Soyabean (2) Rice, wheat and vegetables only
meal is the most desirable.
(3) Rice, wheat, fruits and pulses only
C. Groundnut cake is costlier than
Fish meal and Soyabean meal. (4) Rice, wheat, pulses and coarse
D. Digestibility of Soyabean meal cereals only
protein is around 97%.
Choose the correct answer from the 74. A family consists of six members J, K, L,
options given below : M, N and O. There are two married
(1) Only A and B couples. K is a doctor and the father of N.
(2) Only A and C O is the grandfather of L and is a
(3) Only B and D contractor. M is the grandmother of N
(4) Only A, B and D and is a housewife. There are one doctor,
one contractor, one nurse, one housewife
71. Thirty-six vehicles are parked in a and two students in the family. What is
parking area in a single row. After the the profession of J ?
first car, there is one scooter. After the
second car, there are two scooters and so (1) Nurse
on. Work out the number of scooters in (2) Doctor
the second half of the row.
(3) Contractor
(1) 10
(2) 12 (4) Housewife
(3) 15
(4) 17 75. In 2019 – 20 Karnataka Budget, what
percentage of Gross Allocation went to
72. Who among the following won the Rural Development and Panchayat Raj ?
Karnataka Rajyotsava Award, 2019 for
Cooperation ? (1) 7%

(1) B.V. Mallikarjunaiah (2) 5%

(2) Ramesh Vaidya
(3) 6%
(3) Kattige Chennappa
(4) None of the above (4) None of the above

389 ( 29 – A )
76. ªÉÇåªÀÄAiÀiÁ£ÀzÀ CªÀ¢üAiÀÄ°è RUÉÆüÀAiÀiÁ¤UÀ¼ÀÄ 80. DºÁgÀ eÁ®zÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ ±ÀQÛ ªÀUÁðªÀuÉAiÀÄ
ªÀÄÆvÀzæ À ªÀÄÆ®PÀ PÁå°ìAiÀÄA£À ¸ÁgÀ¨sÀÆvÀ zÀPÀëvÁ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåðzÀ §UÉÎ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ
¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ £ÀµÀÖPÉÆ̼ÀUÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ PÀAqÀħA¢zÉ ºÉýPÉ ¸Àj¬Ä®è ?
EzÀPÉÌ PÁgÀt _________ . (1) MAzÀÄ ¥ÉÆõÀPÀ ªÀÄlÖªÀÅ ¸À¸ÁåºÁjUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
ªÀiÁA¸ÁºÁjUÀ½VAvÀ ºÉZÀÄÑ
(1) C¢üPÀ UÀÄgÀÄvÀé
¨ÉA§°¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(2) ¸ÀÆPÀëöä UÀÄgÀÄvÀé
(2) ºÀQÌUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀÛ¤UÀ¼ÀÄ PÀrªÉÄ GvÁàzÀ£Á
(3) ¤dð°ÃPÀÈvÀ DºÁgÀ ªÀiÁvÉæAiÀÄ ¸ÉêÀ£É zÀPÀëvÉAiÀĪÀÅ.
(4) ªÉÇåêÀÄzÀ°è PÀrªÉÄ vÁ¥À (3) ±ÀQÛ ªÀUÁðªÀuÉAiÀÄ zÀPÀëvÉAiÀÄÄ MAzÀÄ
77. J, ©, ¹, r ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E JA§ 05 UɼÉAiÀÄgÀÄ ¤¢ðµÀÖ ¥ÉÆõÀPÀ ªÀÄlÖzÀ°è MlÄÖ
¨ÉAa£À ªÉÄÃ¯É PÀĽwzÁÝg.É GvÁàzÀ£ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É CªÀ®A©¹zÉ.
I. J AiÀÄÄ © ¥ÀPÀÌ PÀĽwzÁÝ£É. (4) ªÉÄÊUÀÆr¹PÉƼÀÄî«PÉAiÀÄ zÀPÀëvU É É
II. ¹ AiÀÄÄ r AiÀÄ ¥ÀPÀÌ PÀĽwzÁÝ£É. ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ ªÀiÁA¸ÁºÁjUÀ½VAvÀ
III. r AiÀÄÄ E £ÉÆA¢UÉ PÀĽw®è. ¸À¸ÁåºÁjUÀ¼ÀÄ PÀrªÉÄ zÀPÀëvÉAiÀĪÀÅ.
IV. E AiÀÄÄ ¨ÉAa£À JqÀ vÀÄ¢UÉ PÀĽwzÁÝ£É. 81. zÉÆqÀØ PÀgÄÀ ½UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ F
V. ¹ AiÀÄÄ §®¢AzÀ JgÀqÀ£É ¸ÁÜ£ÀzÀ°è PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVªÉ ?
PÀĽwzÁÝ£É. A. ¹ÃPÀªÀiï, PÉƯÉÆ£ï, gÉPïÖA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
VI. J AiÀÄÄ © ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E AiÀÄ §®¨sÁUÀPÉÌ
ªÀÄ®/UÀÄzÀzÁégÀª£ À ÀÄß CzÀÄ M¼ÀUÉÆArzÉ.
PÀĽwzÁÝ£É.
VII. J ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¹ MnÖUÉ PÀĽwzÁÝgÉ. B. zÉÆqÀØ PÀgÀĽ£À°è DUÀĪÀ gÁ¸ÁAiÀĤPÀ
© AiÀÄ ¸ÁÜ£ÀªÃÉ £ÀÄ ? fÃtÂðPÉAiÀÄ PÉÆ£ÉAiÀÄ ºÀAvÀU¼ À ÀÄ
(1) JqÀvÄÀ ¢ ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁUÀ¼À QæAiÉÄAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄSÁAvÀgÀ
(2) §®vÀÄ¢ £ÀqA É iÀÄÄvÀÛzÉ. ¥ÀzÁxÀð ªÀÄÄAzÉ
(3) §®¢AzÀ JgÀq£ À ÉAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄ fÃtðªÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÉ®ªÀÅ
(4) JqÀ¢AzÀ JgÀqÀ£ÉAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄ
«l«Ä£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀA±ÉèõÀuÉUÉƼÀÄîvÛÀª.É
78. 2019£Éà ¸Á°£À ±ËAiÀÄð ¥Àæ±¹ À Û ¥ÀqÉzÀ C. zÉÆqÀØ PÀgÄÀ ¼ÀÄ ¤ÃgÀÄ, CAiÀiÁ£ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
«l«Ä£ïUÀ¼À£ÀÄß »ÃjPÉƼÀÄîvÛÀª.É
PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ E§âgÄÀ «eÉÃvÀgÄÀ __________ .
D. UÀÄzÀ¢AzÀ ªÀÄ®ªÀ£ÀÄß ºÉÆgÀºÁPÀĪÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß
(1) ªÉAPÀmÉÃ±ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DgÀw
ªÀÄ® «¸Àdð£É (±ÀÄ¢ÞÃPÀgtÀ )
(2) DgÀw ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀÄgÉñï
J£À߯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ. ªÀÄ® «¸Àdð£ÉAiÀÄÄ
(3) ¨sÀgÀvï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ±ÀgÀvï ¥ÀgÁªÀwðvÀ ¥ÀæwQæAiÉÄ DVzÀÄÝ, EzÀÄ ªÀ¥É
(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁgÀÆ C®è. ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Q¨ÉÆâmÉÖAiÀÄ LaÒPÀ ¸ÀAPÉÆÃZÀ£ÀU¼ À À
79. _____ C£ÀÄß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃV¹zÁUÀ eÁw/¥Àæ¨ÃÉ zsÀU¼ À À £ÉgÀ«¤AzÀ DUÀĪÀ ¥ÀgÁªÀwðvÀ ¥Àw æ QæAiÉÄ.
¸ÀªÀÄ jÃwAiÀÄ ºÀAaPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C¼ÉAiÀħºÀÄzÀÄ. PɼÀUÉ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ DAiÉÄÌU½ À AzÀ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀ
(1) eÁw/¥Àæ¨ÃÉ zsÀU¼ À À ¸ÀªÀÄÈzÀÞvÉ GvÀ Û gªÀ À £ Áßj¹ :
(1) A ªÀÄvÀÄÛ B ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) vÀ½ ªÉÊ«zsÀåvÉ
(2) A, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) ¹A¥Àì£ï ¸ÀÆZÀåAPÀ (3) B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) PÀÄ® ¸ÀASÉå (4) A, B, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D

389 ( 30 – A )
76. It has been observed that the astronauts 80. Which of the following statement
lose substantial quantity of calcium regarding efficiency of energy transfer
through urine during space flight. This is through food webs is false ?
due to _______.
(1) A trophic level can support more
(1) Hypergravity herbivores than carnivores.
(2) Microgravity
(2) Birds and mammals have low
(3) Intake of dehydrated food tablets production efficiency.
(4) Low temperature in cosmos (3) The efficiency of energy transfer
77. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting depends on the total production at a
on a bench. particular trophic level.
I. A is sitting next to B. (4) Herbivores are less efficient with
II. C is sitting next to D. respect to assimilation efficiency
III. D is not sitting with E. than carnivores.
IV. E is on the left end of the bench.
81. Which of the following statements about
V. C is on second position from the
large intestine are correct ?
right.
VI. A is on the right side of B and E. A. It includes caecum, colon, rectum
VII. A and C are sitting together. and anal canal.

What is the position of B ? B. The last stages of chemical digestion

(1) Extreme left occur in the large intestine through
bacterial action. Substances are
(2) Extreme right
further broken down and some
(3) Second from right
vitamins are synthesized.
(4) Second from left
C. The large intestine absorbs water,
78. National Bravery Award winners for the ions and vitamins.
year 2019 from Karnataka are _______ . D. The elimination of faeces from the
(1) Venkatesh and Aarti rectum is called defecation.
(2) Aarti and Suresh Defecation is a reflex action aided
(3) Bharath and Sharath by voluntary contractions of the
(4) None of the above diaphragm and abdominal muscles.

79. Evenness in the distribution of species is Choose the correct answer from the
measured when we use _______ . options given below :
(1) Species richness (1) Only A and B
(2) Genetic diversity (2) Only A, C and D
(3) Simpson index (3) Only B, C and D
(4) Number of genera (4) A, B, C and D

389 ( 31 – A )
82. MAzÀÄ vÀg¨ À ÉÃw PÁ¯ÉÃdÄ ªÉÄPÁå¤Pïì, ªÀÄ£ÀB±Á¸ÀÛç, 83. 2020 – 21£Éà ¸Á°£À DAiÀĪÀåAiÀÄzÀ°è PÀ£ÁðlPÀ
vÀvÛÀ÷é±Á¸ÀÛç, ¸ÀªÀiÁd±Á¸ÀÛç, CxÀð±Á¸ÀÛç, «eÁÕ£À ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÅÀ ªÀĺÀzÁ¬Ä ¤ÃgÁªÀjUÉ ¸ÀA§AzsÀ¥ÀlÖ
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ EAf¤AiÀÄjAUï F K¼ÀÄ ««zsÀ PÁªÀÄUÁjUÉ ______ ÖÜíbPæ¿ÞX¨æ.
«µÀAiÀÄUÀ¼À ²PÀëPÀgÄÀ UÀ½UÉ dįÉÊ 22 jAzÀ 29 (1) < 505 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
gÀªÀgÉUÉ ¥ÀÄ£À±ÃÉÑ vÀ£À PÉÆøïð C£ÀÄß £Àq¸ É À¨ÉÃQzÉ. (2) < 500 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) < 650 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
I. PÉÆøïð ªÀÄ£ÀB±Á¸ÀÛçzÆ É A¢UÉ (4) < 1500 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
ªÉÆzÀ¯ÁUÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ. 84. 2019 – 20£Éà ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ªÀµÀðzÀ PÀ£ÁðlPÀ
¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ ªÀÄÄAUÀqÀ ¥ÀvæÀzÀ UÁvÀæ _______ .
II. 23£Éà dįÉÊ ¨sÁ£ÀĪÁgÀªÁzÀ PÁgÀt gÀeÁ
(1) < 2,34,150 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
¢£À.
(2) < 2,34,153 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) < 2,34,200 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
III. «eÁÕ£À «µÀAiÀĪÀÅ EAf¤AiÀÄjAUï
(4) < 2,34,500 PÉÆÃnUÀ¼ÀÄ
«µÀAiÀÄzÀ »A¢£À ¢£À EgÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ.
85. UÀq¸À ÀÄ ¤Ãj£À°ègÄÀ ªÀ ¯ÉÆûÃAiÀÄ WÀlPÀU¼ À ÀÄ
IV. PÉÆøïð ªÉÄPÁ¤Pïì «µÀAiÀÄzÉÆA¢UÉ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ ?
ªÀÄÄPÁÛAiÀÄ DUÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ. (1) ªÉÄVßöAiÀÄA, PÁå°ìAiÀÄA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀªgÀ À
(2) PÀ©ât, vÀªÀgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÁå°ìAiÀÄA
V. vÀvÛÀ÷é±Á¸ÀÛçªÀÅ gÀeA
É iÀÄ ªÀiÁgÀ£É ¢£ÀªÃÉ (3) PÁå°ìAiÀÄA, ªÉÄVßöAiÀÄA ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀ©ât
EgÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ. (4) ªÉÄVßöAiÀÄA, vÀªÀgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ PÀ©ât
86. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ¥ÀæªÁ¸ÉÆÃzÀåªÀÄ E¯ÁSÉAiÀÄÄ
VI. CxÀð±Á¸ÀÛç ªÀÄvÀÄÛ EAf¤AiÀÄjAUï £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ
¸ÀAWÀn¹zÀÝ 2019gÀ ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ N¥À£ï UÁ¯ïá
MAzÀÄ ¢£ÀzÀ CAvÀgÀ EgÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ. ZÁA¦AiÀģﶥï£ÀÄß UÉzÀݪÀgÄÀ AiÀiÁgÀÄ ?
(1) PÀgÀ£ï¢Ã¥ï PÉÆÃZÀgï
VII. ¸ÀªÀiÁd±Á¸ÀÛç ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CxÀð±Á¸ÀÛçzÀ £ÀqÄÀ ªÉ
(2) D¢¯ï ¨ÉÃr
JgÀqÀÄ ¢£ÀzÀ CAvÀgÀ EgÀ¨ÃÉ PÀÄ.
(3) GzÀAiÀÄ£ï ªÀiÁ£É
(4) C©ü£Àªï ¯ÉÆúÀ£ï
F ªÀiÁ»w Dzsj À ¹ «eÁÕ£ÀzÀ vÀgÀ¨ÃÉ w »A¢£À
¢£À AiÀiÁªÀ «µÀAiÀĪÀÅ EgÀÄvÀÛzÉ ? 87. MAzÀÄ ¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄÄ JgÀqÄÀ CAQUÀ¼ÀzÁVzÀÄÝ,
CzÀgÀ CAQUÀ¼À UÀÄt®§ÞªÅÀ 14. F ¸ÀASÉåUÉ 45
(1) ¸ÀªÀiÁd±Á¸ÀÛç £ÀÄß ¸ÉÃj¹zÀgÉ CAQUÀ¼À ¸ÁÜ£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ CzÀ®Ä
§zÀ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ. (CAzÀgÉ 12+9 = 21) D ¸ÀASÉå
(2) EAf¤AiÀÄjAUï AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ?
(1) 54
(3) CxÀð±Á¸ÀÛç (2) 27
(3) 36
(4) ªÉÄPÁå¤Pïì (4) 72

389 ( 32 – A )
82. A training college has to conduct a 83. The Government of Karnataka has
allocated ________ for works related to
refresher course for teachers of seven Mahadayi Irrigation in 2020 – 21 Budget.
different subjects, Mechanics, Psychology, (1) < 505 Crores
Philosophy, Sociology, Economics, Science (2) < 500 Crores
and Engineering from 22nd July to (3) < 650 Crores
29th July. (4) < 1500 Crores
84. The Budget size of the Government of
I. Course should start with
Karnataka for the year 2019 – 20 is
Psychology. __________ .
(1) < 2,34,150 Crores
II. 23rd July, being Sunday, should be a
(2) < 2,34,153 Crores
holiday.
(3) < 2,34,200 Crores
III. Science subject should be on the (4) < 2,34,500 Crores
previous day of Engineering subject. 85. What are the metallic constituents of
hard water ?
IV. Course should end with Mechanics
(1) Magnesium, Calcium and Tin
subject.
(2) Iron, Tin and Calcium
V. Philosophy should be immediately (3) Calcium, Magnesium and Iron
after the holiday. (4) Magnesium, Tin and Iron
86. Who won the Bengaluru Open Golf
VI. There should be a gap of one day Championship 2019, which was organized
between Economics and by Karnataka Tourism Department ?
Engineering. (1) Karandeep Kochhar
(2) Aadil Bedi
VII. There should be a gap of two days
(3) Udayan Mane
between Sociology and Economics.
(4) Abhinav Lohan
Based on the above information, which
87. A two-digit number is such that the
subject precedes Science ? product of its digits is 14. When 45 is
added to this number the digits
(1) Sociology interchange their position (like
12+9 = 21). What is that number ?
(2) Engineering
(1) 54
(3) Economics (2) 27
(3) 36
(4) Mechanics
(4) 72

389 ( 33 – A )
88. ¤ÃªÉà f¯Áè £ÁåAiÀiÁ¢üñÀgÉAzÀÆ ¤ªÀÄä f¯ÉèAiÀÄ°è 90. ¸Á«gÁgÀÄ CAZÉ £ËPÀgÀgÀ ¤¸Áéxð À ¸ÉêÉUÁV
¸ÀPÌÀ gÉ PÉÆgÀvÉ EzÉAiÉÄAzÀÆ ¨sÁ«¹PÉƽîj. CªÀgÀ ¸ÀägÀuÉUÁV ¨É¼ÀUÁ«AiÀÄ°è 2018gÀ°è 2£ÉÃ
¸ÀPÁðgÀªÀÅ ªÀÄzÀĪÉU½ À UÉ UÀjµÀ× 30 kg ¸ÀPÀÌgÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ ¥ÉÆøïÖªÉÄ£ï ¥ÀæwªÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¸Áܦ¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ.
¥ÀÆgÉʸÀ®Ä DzÉò¹zÉ. ¤ªÀÄä DwäÃAiÀÄ UɼA É iÀÄ£À DzÀg,É PÀ£ÁðlPÀz° À è ªÉÆzÀ®£ÉAiÀÄ ¥ÉÆøïÖªÉÄ£ï
¥ÀæwªÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß J°è ¸Áܦ¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ ?
ªÀÄUÀ ªÀÄzÀÄªÉ DUÀÄwÛzÀÄÝ, ¤ªÀÄä UɼA É iÀÄgÀÄ PÀ¤µÀ×
(1) ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ
50 kg ¸ÀPÌÀ gÉ ¤ÃqÀ®Ä PÉÆÃjzÁÝgÉ. DUÀ ¤ÃªÀÅ
(2) PÀ®§ÄVð
ªÀÄÄdÄUÀgPÀ ÉÆ̼ÀUÁV ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ ¤§ðAzsÀzÀ
(3) ªÉÄʸÀÆgÀÄ
§UÉÎ ºÉüÀÄ«j. ¤ÃªÉà f¯Áè
(4) ºÀħâ½î
£ÁåAiÀiÁ¢üñÀgÁVgÀĪÀÅzÀjAzÀ JµÀÄÖ ¨ÉÃPÁzÀgÀÆ
©qÀÄUÀqÉ ªÀiÁqÀ§ºÀÄzÉAzÀÄ ¤ªÀÄä UɼA É iÀÄgÀÄ 91. PÀ£ÁðlPÀ ¸ÀܼÀd£Àå zÀ£À vÀ½AiÀÄ ºÉ¸ÀgÀÄ _____ .
ºÉüÀĪÀgÄÀ . CªÀgÉÆA¢V£À ¤ªÀÄä Uɼv É À£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß (1) gÉqï/PÉA¥ÀÄ ¹A¢ü

PÀ¼z É ÀÄPÉƼÀî®Ä ¤ªÀÄUÉ EZÉÒ E®è. DUÀ ºÉÃUÉ (2) Vgï

¸ÀAzÀ¨sÀðªÀ£ÀÄß ¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄ«j. (3) CªÀÄÈvÀ ªÀĺÀ¯ï

(4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è.
(1) UɼÉAiÀÄgÀ PÉÆÃjPÉAiÀÄAvÉ ºÉZÀÄѪj À
¸ÀPÌÀ gA
É iÀÄ£ÀÄß ©qÀÄUÀqÉ ªÀiÁqÀÄ«j. 92. PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ gÉÊvÀ ¸ÁgÀy AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄÄRå
GzÉÝñÀªÅÀ _______ .
(2) ¤ªÀÄä UɼÉAiÀÄjUÉ ºÉZÀÄѪÀjAiÀiÁV
(1) ©.¦.J¯ï. gÉÊvÀ¤UÉ G¼ÀĪÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£U À ¼
À À£ÀÄß
¥ÀÆgÉʸÀ®Ä ¤gÁPÀj¹, ¤AiÀĪÀĪÀ£ÀÄß
MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
PÀlÄÖ¤mÁÖV C£ÀĸÀj¸ÀÄ«j.
(2) PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ gÉÊvÀjUÉ mÁæöåPÀÖgï ZÁ®£À
(3) ¤ªÀÄä UɼÉAiÀÄjUÉ ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ ¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉAiÀÄ vÀgÀ¨ÃÉ w ¥ÀgÀªÁ£ÀV ¤ÃqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
¥ÀæwAiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÉÆÃj¹, CªÀjUÉ (3) ªÁ¸ÀÛ«PÀªÁV G¼ÀĪÀªÀ£Éà ¨sÀÆ«ÄAiÀÄ
¤AiÀĪÀÄUÀ¼À°ègÀĪÀAvÉ PÀrªÉÄ MqÉAiÀÄ
¥Àª
æ ÀiÁtªÀ£ÀÄß M¥Àà®Ä ªÀÄ£ÀªÇÉ °¸ÀÄ«j. (4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è
(4) ¥ÀÆgÉÊPÉ ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¥Áæ¢P ü ÁgÀPÉÌ £ÉÃgÀªÁV 93. ________ MAzÀÄ gÉʯÉé ¥Àxz À À MAzÀÄ wgÀÄ«£À°è
Cfð ¸À°è¸À®Ä ¸À®ºÉ ¤Ãr F ºÉÆðPÉ ªÀiÁrzÁUÀ ºÉÆgÀ ¥ÀxÀ/CAZÀÄ
«µÀAiÀÄzÀ°è ¤ÃªÀÅ ªÀÄzsåÀ M¼ÀV£ÀzÀQÌAvÀ JvÀÛgÀz° À è KjPÉAiÀiÁVgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
¥ÀæªÃÉ ²¸ÀĪÀÅ¢®èªÉAzÀÄ ºÉüÀÄ«j.
(1) ¥ÀxÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ZÀPæU À À¼À WÀµÀðuÁvÀäPÀ §®ªÀ£ÀÄß
89. EAlgï¥sÉgÁ£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ UÉèöÊPÉÆÃ¥ÉÆæÃn£ïUÀ¼ÁVzÀÄÝ vÀ¦à¸À®Ä
CªÀÅ _______________ UÀ¼À ¸ÀA±ÉèõÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß (2) gÉÊ°£À vÀÆPÀzÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ vÀ® WÀlPÀ¢AzÁzÀ
¥ÀæZÉÆâ¸ÀÄvÀÛª.É CUÀvåÀ ªÁzÀ PÉÃAzÁæ¥ÀUÁ«Ä §®ªÀ£ÀÄß
(1) ¥Àæw¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀiÁ ¥ÉÆæÃnÃ£ï ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄ®Ä
(3) gÉÊ°£À vÀÆPÀzÀ ¸ÀªÄÀ vÀ® WÀlPÀ¢AzÁzÀ
(2) ¥Àæw²°ÃAzsÀæ ¥ÉÆæÃnãï
CUÀvåÀ ªÁzÀ PÉÃAzÁæ©üUÁ«Ä §®ªÀ£ÀÄß
(3) ¥ÀæwªÉÊgÀ¸ï ¥ÉÆæÃnÃ£ï ¥ÀqAÉ iÀÄ®Ä
(4) ¥Àæw T-PÉÆñÀ ¥ÉÆæÃnãï (4) gÉÊ°£À ªÉÃUÀªÀ£ÀÄß vÀVθÀ®Ä

389 ( 34 – A )
88. There is a shortage of sugar in your 90. In the year 2018, 2nd postman statue was
District where you are the District erected in Belagavi as a tribute to the
selfless service of millions of postal
Magistrate. The Government has ordered
workers. Where was the first postman
that only a maximum amount of 30 kg statue erected in Karnataka ?
sugar is to be released for wedding (1) Bengaluru
celebrations. A son of your close friend is (2) Kalaburagi
getting married and your friend requests (3) Mysuru
you to release at least 50 kg sugar for his (4) Hubli
son’s wedding. You express annoyance
when you tell him about the 91. The name of the cattle breed indigenous
Government’s restrictions on this matter. to Karnataka is _______ .
He feels that since you are the District (1) Red Sindhi
Magistrate you can release any amount. (2) Gir
You do not want to spoil your friendship (3) Amrit Mahal
with him. In such circumstances, how (4) None of the above
would you deal with the situation ?
92. The main objective of Raita Sarathi
(1) Release the extra amount of sugar Yojana in Karnataka is __________ .
which your friend has requested for. (1) Providing Tilling implements to the
BPL farmers of Karnataka
(2) Refuse your friend the extra amount
(2) Tractor Driving Training
and strictly follow the rules.
permission for farmers of
(3) Show your friend the copy of the Karnataka
Government instructions and then (3) Actual Tiller is the owner of the
land
persuade him to accept the lower
(4) None of the above
amount as prescribed in the rules.
93. In a railway track at a curve, the outer
(4) Advise him to directly apply to the
track/edge is comparatively raised in
allotting authority and inform him
height than the inner edge in order to
that you do not interfere in this _________ .
matter. (1) Avoid frictional force between the
track and wheels
89. Interferons are glycoproteins which
(2) Obtain the necessary centrifugal
stimulate the synthesis of __________ .
force from the horizontal component
(1) Antibacterial proteins of the weight of the train
(3) Obtain the necessary centripetal
(2) Antifungal proteins
force from the horizontal component
(3) Antiviral proteins of the weight of the train
(4) Anti T-cell proteins (4) Decrease the speed of the train

389 ( 35 – A )
94. «gÀÄzÀÞ ¢QÌ£À°è ZÀ°¸ÀĪÀ JgÀqÀÄ gÉÊ®ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ 97. ¨É¼ÉAiÀÄĪÀ ¸À¸ÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ ¨É¼ÀQ£À ªÀÄÆ®zÀ MAzÉÃ
¥Áèöåmï¥sÁgÀA ªÉÄÃ¯É ¤AwgÀĪÀ M§â ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß MAzÀÄ §¢UÉ ªÀiÁvÀæ ¨ÁUÀÄvÀÛª.É F «zÀåªÀiÁ£ÀPÉÌ
27 ¸ÉPA É qÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 17 ¸ÉPA É qÀÄUÀ¼À°è GvÀÛªÀÄ «ªÀgÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
C£ÀÄPÀæªÀĪÁV CqÀØ ºÁAiÀÄÄvÀÛªÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ D (1) ¥ÀæPÁ±ÀªiÀ Á£À ¥Á±ÀéðzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É GzÀݪÅÀ
gÉÊ®ÄUÀ¼Éà MAzÀPÆ É ÌAzÀÄ 23 ¸ÉPA É qÀÄUÀ¼À°è ºÉZÁÑUÄÀ ªÀAvÉ ¨É¼ÀPÄÀ , PÉÆñÀU¼À À£ÀÄß
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__________ . (2) PÀÄrAiÀÄ vÀÄ¢UÀ¼ÀÄ ¨É¼ÀQ¤AzÀ
(1) 1 : 3 DPÀ¶ðvÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛªÉ
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(3) 3 : 4
CªÀ±ÀåPÀ«zÉ
(4) PÀvÛÀ°£À ¨sÁUÀzv À ÛÀ DQì£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ MlÄÖUÀÆr
(4) EªÀÅ AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÇ C®è.
PÉÆñÀUÀ¼À ®A§£É ºÉZÁÑUÀĪÀAvÉ
95. 2020 gÀ°è gÁ§mïð §Ææ¸ï ¥ÀÆmï ¥ÀÄgÁvÀvÀé ¥ÉæÃj¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ
ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ ¸ÀAUÀæºÁ®AiÀÄÊÜ®Üá° PÜ®ÝìoPܨÜÈÉ C£¤àaæWæ 98. MAzÀÄ ¥ÀjÃPÉëAiÀÄ°è GwÛÃtðgÁUÀ®Ä UÀjµÀ×
_______ CÈÉ Óݧ²ÓÜÇÝÀáñÜá. 36% CAPÀU¼ À À£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉAiÀĨÉÃPÁVzÉ. M§â
(1) ªÉÄʸÀÆgÀÄ «zÁåyðAiÀÄÄ 113 CAPÀU¼ À À£ÀÄß ¥ÀqÉzÄÀ 85
(2) zsÁgÀªÁqÀ CAPÀUÀ½AzÀ C£ÀÄwÛÃtð£ÉAzÀÄ ¥ÀæPÀn¸À®ànÖzÉ.
(3) §¼Áîj ºÁUÁzÀgÉ UÀjµÀ× CAPÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ______ .
(4) ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ (1) 500
96. fêÀ ªÉÊ«zsåÀ ¥ÀæªÀÄÄR vÁt (Hotspot) UÀ¼ÉAzÀÄ (2) 550
ªÁåSÁ夸À®àqÀ®Ä F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀŪÀÅ (3) 640
(4) 1000
ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀªÁVªÉ ?
A. ¥Àæ¨sÉÃzÀU¼
À À ªÉÊ«zsåÀ vÉ 99. ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ (¥Àj²µÀÖ ¥ÀAUÀqÀ) DzÉñÀ (2£ÉÃ
wzÀÄÝ¥Àr) ªÀĸÀÆzÉ 2019 gÀ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ
B. ¸À¸Àå ¸ÁAzÀævÉ/zÀlÖvÉ
ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ¥Àj²µÀÖ ¥ÀAUÀqU À ¼
À À£ÀÄß ¸ÉÃj¸À®Ä
C. ªÁå¥ÀÛvÉ C£ÀĪÉÆâ¸À®ànÖz.É CªÀÅUÀ¼ÉAzÀgÉ _______ .
D. d£ÁAVÃAiÀÄ ¸À¸Àå±Á¹ÛçÃAiÀÄ ¥ÁæªÄÀ ÄRå (1) ¥ÀjªÁgÀ, vÀ®ªÁgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¹¢Ý
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(1) A, B ªÀÄvÀÄÛ F (1) < 1 ®PÀë
(2) B, D ªÀÄvÀÄÛ F (2) < 2 ®PÀë
(3) A, C ªÀÄvÀÄÛ E (3) < 1.5 ®PÀë
(4) C, D ªÀÄvÀÄÛ F (4) ªÉÄð£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è.

389 ( 36 – A )
94. Two trains running in opposite directions 97. The growing plant bends towards the
cross a man standing on the platform in source of light only on one side. Identify
27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively the best explanation for this phenomenon.
and they cross each other in 23 seconds. (1) Light stimulates the cells on the
The ratio of their speeds is _______ . illuminated side to increase in
(1) 1:3 length
(2) Shoot apices are attracted by light
(2) 3:2
(3) They need light for photosynthesis
(3) 3:4
(4) Auxin accumulates towards darker
(4) None of these
side to induce greater cell
elongation
95. The Robert Bruce Foot Archaeological
Museum, recently established in 2020 in 98. In an examination, it is required to get
36% of maximum marks to pass. A
Karnataka, is located at ____________ .
student gets 113 marks and is declared
(1) Mysuru failed by 85 marks. The maximum marks
(2) Dharwad is __________ .
(1) 500
(3) Bellary
(2) 550
(4) Bengaluru
(3) 640
(4) 1000
96. Which of the following criteria are used to
define biodiversity hotspots ? 99. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
A. Species diversity Order (Second Amendment) Bill, 2019 has
B. Vegetation density been passed to include three Scheduled
Tribes of Karnataka. They are _________ .
C. Endemism
(1) Parivara, Talwara and Siddi
D. Ethno-botanical importance
E. Threat perception (2) Dond, Shikari and Misbi

F. Adaptation of the species to local (3) Naga, Gondawa and Sapru

climate (4) Chapri, Tribupa and Budhi

Choose the correct answer from the 100. What is the amount of cash prize received
options given below : by the Karnataka Ekalavya Awardees ?
(1) A, B and F (1) < 1 lakh
(2) B, D and F (2) < 2 lakh
(3) A, C and E (3) < 1.5 lakh
(4) C, D and F (4) None of the above

389 ( 37 – A )
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

389 ( 38 – A )
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

389 ( 39 – A )
 DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

2020 Question Paper Version Code

A
QUESTION BOOKLET
PAPER II

SUBJECT CODE : 389

Maximum Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the Examination, you should check that the Question Booklet does NOT have any
unprinted or torn or missing pages or questions etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete ‘Question Booklet’ of the same Question
Paper Version Code as printed in your OMR Answer Sheet. If the candidate uses faulty question paper without checking the
pages of the question paper, then the candidate himself shall be held responsible.
2. Read the instructions on the OMR Answer Sheet and Admission Ticket.
3. Candidate shall ensure that Question Paper Version Code of the Question Booklet given is the same as the
Question Paper Version Code printed on the OMR Answer Sheet. If any discrepancy is found, it should be reported
to the Invigilator and get the same Question Paper Version Code as printed on the OMR Answer Sheet.
4. All questions carry equal marks.
5. You have to enter your Register Number in the Question Booklet in the box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Question Booklet.

6. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions and each question contains four choices. Select the response which you want to
mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the most appropriate. In any case, choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question. If the candidate encodes more than one
answer, then that answer shall be considered as invalid.
7. Questions are printed both in Kannada and English. If any confusion arises in the Kannada Version, refer to the English Version
of the questions. Note that in case of any confusion in the questions, the English Version of the Question Booklet is final.
8. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided and ONLY in Black or Blue Ball Point
Pen.
9. The candidate shall ensure that the Question Paper Version Code printed in the personalized OMR Answer Sheet
matches with the Question Paper Version Code printed on the nominal roll. In case of any discrepancy the
candidate shall give declaration regarding the actual Question Paper Version Code used by the candidate. If the
candidate fails to give such declaration, then the version code printed on the OMR Answer Sheet shall be
considered for evaluation.
10. In case if a candidate uses the personalized OMR Answer Sheet belonging to another candidate, then the OMR Answer Sheet
shall be considered as ‘invalid’.
11. The candidate shall affix his/her signature in the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided without fail. If the candidate fails to
do so, then such OMR Answer Sheet shall be considered as ‘invalid’.
12. In case if the candidate uses the Non-personalized OMR Answer Sheet, then the candidate shall write the Register Number in
the space provided and also encode the relevant circles. Also, the candidate shall write the Question Paper version code
compulsorily and affix his/her signature in the space provided. If the candidate fails to do so, then such OMR Answer Sheet
shall be considered as ‘invalid’.
13. Candidate shall sign in the Nominal Roll (Attendance Sheet) without fail.
14. If the candidate violates any of the above instructions, then the OMR Answer Sheet shall be considered as ‘invalid’.
15. Immediately after the final bell indicating the conclusion of the examination, stop any further markings in the OMR Answer
Sheet. The candidate shall not leave the examination hall till the OMR Answer Sheets are collected and accounted for by the
Invigilator.
16. Candidate shall retain Carbonless copy of the OMR Answer Sheet (candidate copy) till the announcement of final list and in case
if the Commission directs the candidate to produce the candidate copy, then the candidate shall produce the same without fail.
17. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end. You should not make any marking on any other part of
the Question Booklet.
18. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which wrong answer has been given by
the candidate, one-fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
Possession of Mobile Phones, Smart watches, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication gadgets
of any kind is strictly prohibited inside the Examination venue.

WÜÊÜá¯Ô : ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ PܮܰvÜ BÊÜ꣤¿áá D ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ÊÜááí»ÝWܨÜÈÉ ÊÜáá©ÅÓÜƳqr¨æ.

389 ( 40 – A )