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(Career Endeavour) GATE Chemistry Test Series (B-Ok - Xyz)
(Career Endeavour) GATE Chemistry Test Series (B-Ok - Xyz)
(Career Endeavour) GATE Chemistry Test Series (B-Ok - Xyz)
2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed
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2
Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Abrogate
(a) Freedom (b) abolish (c) begin (d) coercion
2. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Fecund
(a) Fruitful (b) Fruitless (c) Juicy (d) Smooth
3. If a and b are real numbers and a > b, then which of the following is true always
(a) a b (b) a 2 b 2 (c) a a 1 b b 1 (d) 2b 1 2a 1
4. The difference between the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by which of the
following numbers.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
5. If the sum of five consecutive integers is S, what is the largest of those integers in terms of S?
S 10 S 10 S 10 S 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 5 10
Q.6-Q. 10 carry TWO marks each.
6. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Prior to liberalization _______ computer industries, the Indian Government’s policy was on self
reliance through import substitution.
(a) Of (b) At (c) In (d) None of the above
7. What will come in place of ? mark?
5 8 4 9 4 12
126 78 ?
9 6 6 7 11 5
(a) 240 (b) 336 (c) 180 (d) none of these
8. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses the relation in the original pair:
Exercise: Strong
(a) Perform: Timid (b) Guard: Alert (c) Decide: Shrewd (d) Read: Knowledgeable
9. What is the remainder when 211(210 + 1) is divided by 15
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 10
10. Karan and Arjun run a 100 metre race, where Karan beats Arjun by 10 metres. To do a favour to Arjun, Karan
starts 10 metres behind the starting line in a second 100 metre race. They both run at their earlier speeds which
of the following is true in connection with the second race?
(a) Karan and Arjun reach the finishing line simultaneously
(b) Arjun beats Karan by 1 metre.
(c) Arjun beats Karan by 11 metre.
(d) Karan beats Arjun by 1 metre.
Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. The correct pair of lanthanoids having lower boiling and melting point?
(a) Gd and Lu (b) Eu and Yb (c) Eu and Lu (d) Ce and Pr
12. The correct criterion of spontaneity among the following is
(a) S U ,V 0 (b) S H ,V 0 (c) S H , P 0 (d) S U , P 0
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13. The ratio of velocity of cation and anion is 1 : 2. The transport number of cation in the solution is
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.33 (d) 0.90
14. Correct decreasing order of pKa value of the following compounds is
N N
HN NH
N N
H H
O
(A) (B)
(a) R, R (b) R, S (c) S, S (d) S, R
H
O
O O
O
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O OH
Condition-A O
O
18. NH2 Condition-B N
H
(A) (B)
Incorrect option regarding to the conversion of product (A & B)
(a) Product A convert into product B by acid as a condition A
(b) Product B convert into product A by base as a condition B
(c) In the formation of product B from product A and product A from B, same intermediate is formed
(d) Different intermediate is formed in the conversion of A to B and B to A.
19. The major product formed (A) and (B) are, respectively
O ZnCl2 MeCO2K
(A) (B)
+ cat. NaI
Cl
O
(a) HO Cl and I Cl
O O
(b) Cl O and H O
O H O
O O
(c) Cl O and
O O
O
O
Cl
(d) HO Cl and
O
20. The major product (P) is
O
Ph + KOH (P)
Ph Ph Ph EtOH Major product
O O
O
O
Ph
Ph Ph Ph
(a) (b)
Ph Ph Ph
Ph
O
O
Ph Ph
O
Ph O Ph
(c) (d) Ph
Ph Ph Ph
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21. The major product (P),
OH
O S Ph O S Ph OH OH
Me Me
Me Me OH
22. The major product (P) is
hv
O (P)
O OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3
23. An electron is confined in a cubic box of side ‘a’. The degeneracy of the state having momentum is
a
__________________
24. The Hermitian operator(s) is/are
d
(a) e d / dx (b) ei dx (c) both (d) none
25. U 235 nucleus splits into two new nuclei whose mass numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of the radii of
the new nuclei is
(a) 1.26 : 1 (b) 63 : 2 (c) 63 : 21 (d) 8 : 1
26. In a magnetic field of strength 2.349 T, the resonance frequency of 15N nuclei is 10.13 MHz. The resonance
frequency of 15N in a magnet of 11.745T is _____________________Hz.
27. If 0.0033 M of a substance quenches the fluoresence efficiency by 25%. The value of the stern volmer constant
in M–1 is _____________
28. Cp 2 Fe (ferrocinium cation) is given in coloured and paramagnetic. The colour arrises due to
(a) * (b) * (c) LMCT (d) MLCT
29. Which of the following types of silicate represents the mineral Mg 3 OH 2 Si 4O10 ?
(a) Linear silicate (b) Cyclic silicate (c) 3-D-silicate (d) Sheet silicate
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30. A SbF5
B
tert butyl X H 2
B tert butane
then A is
(a) HCl (b) HF (c) HBr (d) HI
31. The most populated rotational state for HCl (B = 8.5 cm–1) at 300 K is ______________
32. The experimental magnetic moment of K3[Fe(CN)6] is 2.3µB and is attributable to the
(a) spin-only value of a low-spin Fe (b) spin-only value of a high-spin Fe
(c) low-spin Fe with orbital contribution (d) high-spin Fe with orbital contribution
33. Which of the follwoing compounds would you expect to be aromatic
O Na
S
Me
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(a) i, iii, v (b) i, ii, v (c) i, iv, v (d) ii, iv, v
34. Two aqueous uni-univalent electrolyte system A and B are at different temperature TA and TB and CA and CB
T C
concentrations, respectively. Their Debye-Hückel lengths will equal if A B will be __________
CA TB
35. In Langmuir adsorption of a gas onto a solid surface the value of slope and intercept was found to be 0.45 cm 3
and 5×103 Torr cm–3. The value of distribution coefficient will be ______________
Q.36-Q.65 carry TWO marks each.
36. Correct order of substituent (X = F, Cl, Br, H) for equilibrium constant of following reaction is
X
S N S X S N S X
X N N X N N
S N S X S N S X
X
(a) H > F > Cl > Br (b) F > Cl > Br > H (c) F > Cl > H > Br (d) F > Br > Cl > H
37. The slope of a plot of pressure Vs temperature is 3.15×10–4 atmk–1 at 500K. The change in volume of a
substance at the given temperature, if enthalpy of transition is 5×104 Jmol–1, is
(a) 2.85×105 L (b) 2.81×103 L (c) 2.8×104 L (d) 28 L
38. In the beginning of polarographic experiment of 10–3 M the current observed was 0.1µA. After the experiments
the maximum current observed was 10.1µA. The diffusion current observed for a solution of 10–5 M solution
is _______________
39. 20 mL of 0.01M HCl is titrated with 10 mL of 0.01 M Ca(OH)2. The pH of the solution at 25ºC is
(a) Less than 7 (b) More than 7 (c) Equal to 7 (d) Cannot predict
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H NBn2
(a) HO H
is major product, according to Cram's rule
Bn2N H
Me
Me
H OH
(b) is major product, according to Cram's rule
Bn2N H
Me
H
Me OH
is major product, according to Cram's rule
(c) Bn2N H
Me
Me
H OH
is major product, according to anti-Cram's rule
(d) Bn2N H
Me
CO2Et
HO
(a)
B=
A= HO O
C
H
O O
CO2Et OH
HO
(b) O
A= B=
HOOC
O
H
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CO2Et CO2Et
HO O
(c)
B=
A= HOOC
H
CO2Et CO2Et
HO
(d) B=
A= O
HOOC
H
O
(a) (b)
OTBS OTr
O O
I HO
OTBS OTBS
(c) (d)
OTr I
O O
(a) Me (b)
Me Me
Me
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Me
Me Me
(c) (d)
Me H
H
(iii) Et3N
(iv) H2SO4
O
Ph O O EtO2C O
EtO2C
O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
H Ph
O O Ph O
Ph
45. The major product (P) is
Me
O2N
N (i) H2SO4,
(P)
OH (ii) H2O
Br
Me Me
O2N O2N
N N
(a) (b)
OH
O OH
O
O
O2N O2N NH
NHMe Me
(c) (d)
Br Br
46. The major product (P) is
(i) HNMe2/HCHO/H+
(P)
(ii) Me–I
N
H (iii) KCN
(iv) H3O+
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O
OH
(a) (b) N
N OH H
H O
O
OH
OH
O
(c) (d)
N
H N
H
47. The major product (P) is
O
(i) /H+
D-Glucose (P)
(ii) Me–I excess, Ag2O
(iii) H3O+
OMe OMe
O O
(a) MeO (b) MeO
MeO MeO
OH OH OMe OH
OH OH
O O
(c) MeO (d) HO
MeO MeO
OH OMe OH OH
48. Consider the following statments
(A) For a system in thermodynamics equilibrium, the population of molecular energy levels always decreases
as the energy levels increases
(B) It is impossible for a higher energy molecular state to have a greater population of molecule than lower
energy state
(C) For a thermodynamics system in equilibrium molecular state that have same energy must have same popu-
lation
(a) True, False, True (b) False, True, False (c) False, False, False (d) False, False, True
49. In case of NH3 molecule, the direct product E(X)E will have the dimensions
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
50. The structure factor of a fcc lattice for (111) planes
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
51. For the following sequence of reactions
k1
2 A 4 B 3C ; 2 B
k3
P
k2
d B
The is given by
dt
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1 2 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 1 4 3 2
(a) k1 A k 2 B C k3 B (b) k1 A k2 B C k3 B
4 4 2 2 2
2 4 3 2 2 4 3 2
(c) 2k1 A 2k2 B C k3 B (d) 4k1 A 4k2 B C 2k3 B
52. Consider a particle of mass ‘m’ moving under a potential of the form
1 2
V x 2 kx for x 0
, otherwise
The 3rd excited state corresponds to n equals
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) none
53. The correct intensity of Mössbauer lines for potassium ferricyanide in the effect of external magnetic field will
be.
(a) 3:4:1:3:4:1 (b) 1:3:4:4:3:1 (c) 3:5:1:1:5:3 (d) 3:4:1:1:4:3
54. Distribution of velocity of molecules is represented by the curve as shown
A
B
fraction
of C
molecules
a b c
velocity
velocities at point a, b and c represents average velocity, most probable velocity and rms velocity (not neces-
sarily in that order). Points b represents which of the following velocity
3RT 2RT 8RT 2RT
(a) (b) (c) (d)
M M M M
55. Propionyl chloride is reacted with acetylene gas in presence of AlCl3 an obtained compound A. The NMR
data of compound A are given, identify it.
A: 1H NMR: 0.96 (t, J 7.0 Hz, 3H), 2.40 (q, J 7.0 Hz, 2H), 6.31 (d, J 14.0 Hz, 1H), 7.11 (d, J 14.0 Hz, 1H).
O
O O O
(a) (b) Me (c) H2C (d) Me Cl
Me Cl Cl Cl
Me
56. At 298K, the EMF of the cell
Pt | H 2 1 bar | H solution || Cl | Hg 2Cl2 | Hg
is 0.7530 V. If pH of the solution is 8. The value of E0 is _________________volt.
2Hg 2Cl aq
Hg 2Cl2 s 2e
57. The crystal of KCoF3 show three absorption bands in its absorption spectrum at 7150 cm–1, 15200 cm–1 and
19200 cm–1. In this compound Co2+ ion is surrounded octahedrally by six F– ligands. The magnitude of 0 is
__________ (cm–1).
58. The rate of electron transfer in the following reaction is rapid because
2 3 3 2
Ru NH3 6 Ru NH 3 6 Ru NH 3 6 Ru NH 3 6
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(a) It is an inner sphere reaction
(b) It is an outer sphere reaction.
2 3
(c) Electron transfer takes place from * of Ru NH 3 6 to * of Ru NH3 6 without any input of
energy.
2 3
(d) Electron transfer takes place from * of Ru NH 3 6 to * of Ru NH 3 6 with any input of
energy.
[CPh3]BF4
P
59. Fe CH3
OC
CO CH
3
Ph
Cl
Cl
Ph Ph3P CH2
60. [Na2Cr(CO)5] (P) Q
–20ºC, THF
The major product P and Q in the above synthetic transformation are respectively
Ph
and CO 5 Cr C 2 H 4
2
(a) Cr CO 5 Cl 2 and Cr CO 5 PPh 3 (b) (OC)5Cr
Ph
Ph Ph
(c) CO 5 Cr PPh 3 and (OC)5Cr (d) (OC)5Cr and CO 5 Cr PPh 3
Cl
Ph Ph
61. Identify correct statement for mercury as an environment pollutant
(A) carbanionic biomethylation converts it to MeHg+
(B) thiol group of cysteine has strong affinity for mercury
(C) mercury containing industrial catalyst release caused minimata disease
The correct answer is
(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) B and C (d) A, B and C
62. cis Co en 2 Cl2 , cis Co en 2 OH Cl , trans Co en 2 NO 2 Cl ,
cis Co en 2 CN Cl , trans Co en 2 OH Cl
The complexes which show retention in configuration on acidic hydrolysis are ______________
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63. The m/z value of the detectable fragment formed by McLafferty like rearrangement of the following compound
in mass spectrometer is ____________
O
O O
O B
64. A
,
O O
C
CHO COOH
O O
Choose the correct statement regarding A, B and C
A B C
(a) SeO2 DDQ Ag2O
(b) PCC DDQ Ag2O
(c) SeO2 Pd/C Alk. KMnO4
(d) PCC DDQ Alk. KMnO4
65. A potassium salt ‘A’ reacts with dil. HCl to produce a colourless gas. This colourless gas turns lime water
milky and the excess of this gas destroys milkiness. The compound ‘A’ is:
(a) KCl (b) K2SO4 (c) KNO3 (d) K2CO3.
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Space for rough work
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CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 08-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-A
ANSWER KEY
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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed
E : info@careerendeavour.com w : Near-IIT
South Delhi : 28-A/11, Jia Sarai, ww w.careerendeavour.com
Hauz Khas, New Delhi-16, Ph : 011-26851008, 26861009
North Delhi : 33-35, Mall Road, G.T.B. Nagar (Opp. Metro Gate No. 3), Delhi-09, Ph: 011-65462244, 65662255
2
Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Privacy is _________ by laws relating to defamation, under the Indian Penal Code.
(a) secluded (b) derived (c) protected (d) confined
2. Four persons are chosen at random from a group of 3 men, 2 women and 4 children. The change that
exactly 2 of them are children is
1 1 1 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 5 12 21
3. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5 the hour hand has turned through
(a) 145º (b) 150º (c) 155º (d) 160º
4. If every side of a triangle is doubled, the area of the new triangle is k times the area of the old one. K is
equal to
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
5. Find the wrong term of series
4 9 19 43 90 185 375
(a) 9 (b) 19 (c) 90 (d) 185
E
C B
From the original position, D and B move one and a half length of sides, clockwise and anticlockwise respectively.
Which one of the statement is true
(a) B and D are both at the mid point between A and C
(b) D is the mid point between A and C and B is at the corner originally occupied by C
(c) B is at the mid point between original position of A and D and D is at the mid point between original
positions of B and C
(d) B is at the mid point between A and C and D is at the mid point between original positions of B and C
9. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by
B in
(a) 18 min (b) 27 min (c) 38 min (d) 9 min
10. Find missing number
3 3 3
1 12 5 3 20 7 2 7
6 8 6
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
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Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. Under adiabatic condition to increase the pressure from P1 to P2, the system
(a) must loss the energy (b) must gain the energy
(c) above process is not possible as q = 0 (d) it can happen by either gain or loss of energy
12. The major product (P) is
OH
(i) POCl3
(ii) Bn-NH2
(P)
(iii) H2, Pd/C
N
OH OH NH2 NHBn
N NH2 N NHBn N N
13. The reaction between red phosphorous and NaClO2 yield hypophosphoric acid. The molecular formula of
hypophosphoric acid is
(a) H5P3O10 (b) H4P2O7 (c) H3PO4 (d) H4P2O6
14. The number of P-P and P–O–P bond in hypophosphoric acid is/are respectively
(a) 1 and 1 (b) 0 and 1 (c) 1 and 0 (d) 0 and 3
N
L N
15. Rh
Cl PPh3
L = PPh3 PMe3 PF3 and P(OMe)3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Arrange the dinitrogen complex in order of their increasing N–N bond length
(a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (b) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 (c) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3 (d) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2
16. The I.R. active vibrations in ClF3 molecule are
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
17. The electronic energy levels of any hypothetical atom ‘X’ is determined from spectroscopy, are as follows:
Energy Level Energy
2
P3 2 0
2 kT
P12
2
2
D 52 2kT
The electronic partition function (qel) for the atom ‘x’ is:
1 1 1
1
(a) e 2 e 2 (b) 1 e 2 e 2 (c) 4 2e 2 6e 2 (d) 1 2e 2 6e2
18. Mass average and viscosity average molar mass become equal for the Mark-Houwink exponent is
_________________
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19. The angular nodes corresponding to the angular wave function
5
2
sin cos 7 cos 2 3 is/are
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
20. The 2nd order reaction is represented by
1
–1
Ct Ct Ct
(a) (b) (c) (d) none
t t t
21. The angle between the planes (100) and (110) is
(a) 30º (b) more than 30º but less than 45º
(c) 45º (d) more than 45º
1
22. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of is
n
(a) 1 in case of physiosorption (b) 1 in case of chemisorption
(c) between 0 and 1 in all cases (d) between 2 and 4 in all cases
23. The number of signal for 31P NMR in P4S9 molecule is
(a) doublet and triplet (b) two doublet
(c) two triplet (d) singlet and doublet
2
24. Number of chloro ligand coordinate with Cr(III) species formed soon after electron transfer between IrCl6
2
and Cr H 2O 6 is/are ___________________
Ph Ph
NC CN
O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O
Ph
O (i) LDA
(P)
O (ii) Br
t-Bu (iii) H+, H2O
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O
HOOC
Ph O
(a) (b)
O t-Bu O
t-Bu
HOOC
O
(c) (d)
Ph OH O
t-Bu
27. The major product (P) is
O
N
O
Cl (i)
SNa
(P)
(ii) t-BuSH, PhH, reflux
CO2Me
N
(a) (b) O
(c) (d)
CO2Me CO2Me
(i) N / TsOH
H
(P)
(ii) CHCl3/Base
(iii) H3O+
O O
O O Cl
Cl
CHO
(a) (b) (c) O (d)
Cl
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29. The incorrect order of acids and bases is
(a) CH 3 NH 2 NH 3 H 2 N NH 2 NH 2 OH bases
and Br Enantiomer
(a) H3CH2C OH
HO
CH3 CH2CH3
OH OH
(i) H3O+
33. (B)
(ii)(a) NaBH4, (b) PTSA
OH OH (iii) O3/Me2S
(iv) Base
(v) NaOH/H2O2
(vi) MeOH
O
O O O H
OH H H
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34. The major prouct formed on nitration of N, N–dimethyl aniline with conc. H2SO4 and conc. HNO3?
N N
N N NO2
NO2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
NO2
NO2 NO2
35. When a reduced cytochrome transfer an electron from its Fe (II) to the bound O2
(a) the bond order of O2 is reduced by one and O2 decreases
O
O OMe
Me
(c) Cl and Me
OMe
O
O OMe
Me and Me
(d)
Cl
OMe
37. The temperature of reserviours are maintained at 300K and 500K. The work done required to transfer 90 kJ
of energy from reservoir at lower temperature to reserviour at high temperature is ____________kJ
38. The dielectric constant of 0.2M NaCl solution is 144 and 0.2 M MgCl2 solution is 225. The relation of
temperature at which the Debye-Huckel screening length is same for both solution is
(a) TMgCl2 0.39 TNaCl (b) TMgCl2 0.93 TNaCl
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39. In polarographic experiment, diffusion current was 10 µA with 10–2 M solution of MX2. On doing the experi-
ment with same metal solution of 0.10 M, the applied voltage was –0.72V when current recorded was 7 µA.
The value of E1/2 is ________________V.
40. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction is
HO O
HO
(i) m-CPBA/DCM
(P)
(ii) NaOH/H2O
Me
HO
H
O
HO O HO O
HO HO
O
(a) (b)
HO O Me HO OH
H H
O O
H H
HO HO
O
(c) (d)
HO O Me HO OH
H H
41. The major product (P) is
O
O
hv
(P)
hexane
CN
O O O O
C
O CN CN CN
(a) (b) (c) (d) H
O O O
42. Among the following the incorrect statement(s) about the amino acids is/are
(A) Proline is the amino acid which doesn’t undergo diazotization reaction with HNO2.
(B) Phenylisothiocyanate is called an Edmann reagent
(C) Methionine has –SMe group
(D) Tyrosine gives the negative phenol test
(a) A and B only (b) C only (c) B and C only (d) C and D only
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43. The intermediate (P) and the rearrangement involved in the following reaction sequence is
CHO
OH
Me Me
OEt 190ºC
(P)
Me Hg(OAc)2 Me
Me Me
H H
O O
Me Me
Me Me
H H
O
Me Me OEt
O
L = PR3 –COD
Et2C2 (1)
Et (2)
L2Ni CO2
Et Et Et Et
Et Et
(4)
L2Ni
Et O O O
O
Et Et
(3)
C2E2 Et2C2
Et
L2Ni
Et
O
O
The step (1), (2), (3) and (4) involvd in above catalytic cycle are respectively
(a) Coordination of Et2C2, insertion of CO2, insertion of Et2C2 and release of 2-pyrone.
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(c) Coordination of Et2C2, insertion of CO2 oxidative addition of Et2C2 and -elimination
(c) Oxidative addition of Et2C2, insertion of CO2, oxidative addition of Et2C2 and reductive elimination of 2-
pyrone.
(d) Coordination of Et2C2, insertion of CO2 oxidative addition of Et2C2 and -elimination
O O
45. OC Mo CO 5 OC CH 2 ; Cp CO 2 Mo CR Acetylene
O
CpRh CO 2 µCH 2 Cyclopropane
Number of complexes with correct isolobal relationship is/are _____________
46. Identify the correct statement
When the ligand donot sterically control the coordination geometry then
(a) 4 coordinate complexes of Cu(I) is square planar geometry
(b) 4 coordinate complex of Pd (II) is tetrahedral geometry
(c) 4 coordinate complex of Zn(II) is square planar geometry
(d) 4 coordinate complex of Zn(II) is tetrahedral geometry
47. Arrange the following complex in decreasing wavelength LMCT absorption max in nm
C D
Product ... 2
species M g/mole Diameter nm
A 2 1
B 4 3
C 6 2
D 8 4
The ratio of squares of pre-exponential factors of reaction (1) and (2) is __________________
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53. The rate dependence for a particular reaction at a particular temperature is given by
13000
ln k 5
T
The activation energy at 130K is (R = 2 cal K–1 mole–1) ________________kcal mole–1
54. In cyclobutadiene molecule, according to Huckel molecular orbital theory the transition leading to electric
excitaion for MINIMUM wavelength corresponds to an energy gap of
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The chemical shift values for inner and outer-protons in 18-annulene appears respectively at
(a) 6 Hs at 9 ppm and 12 Hs at –1.8 ppm (b) 6 Hs at –1.8 ppm and 12 Hs at 9 ppm
(c) 8 Hs at 9 ppm and 10 Hs at –1.8 ppm (d) 8 Hs at –1.8 ppm and 10 Hs at 9 ppm.
56. In a one-dimensional oscillator, two orthonormal states are defined as
1 0 21 32
2 0 1 2
The expectation value of energy in 2 state is
1 3
(a) (b) (c) 0 (d) none
2 2
57. The correct statement in the following mode of vibrational acetylene molecule is/are
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61. The major product (P) is
OR (i) (MeO)2P(O)CH2CO2Me, NaH
(P)
(ii) DIBAL
CHO
(iii) (+) – DET, Ti(OiPr)4
t-BuOOH, 3A sieves
(iv) HO–, PhS–
OR OR OR OR
OH OH OH SPh
OH SPh SPh OH
(a) O (b) O
O
CO2Me
(c) O
O (d)
OH
O O
O
O
H
H O
(a) (b) O
(c) (d)
HO
O
O O
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64. The total number of stereoisomer possible for the given compound ________________
H3C HO HC CH CH CH OH CH 3
65. The major product (P) is
O O
R NaN(SiMe3)2, THF, –78ºC
N O (P)
O
N
Ph
SO2Ph
O O O O
R R
N O N O
(a) O (b) OH
O O O O
R R
N O N O
(c) OH (d) NH
PhO2S
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Space for rough work
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CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 13-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-B
ANSWER KEY
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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed
E : info@careerendeavour.com w : Near-IIT
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Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. In an examination, 35% of total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both find the
percentage of those who passed in both the subjects?
(a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 30% (d) 20%
916 436 ?
3 4 2 6 1 5
(a) 625 (b) 255 (c) 225 (d) 125
4. Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the word given below?
FAD :
(a) Apathetic (b) Expensive (c) Vogue (d) Benevolent
5. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Cantankerous
(a) Freedom (b) meticulous (c) bad tempered (d) coercion
Q.6-Q. 10 carry TWO marks each.
6. If log 2 log3 log 2 x 1 then x is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 12 (c) 128 (d) 512
7. Find the odd one out
(a) Ring (b) Bangle (c) Tyre (d) Plate
8. The ratio of male to female students in a college for five years in the following line graph. If the number of female
students in 2008 and 2009 is equal. What is the ratio of male students in 2009 to male students in 2008?
3.5
3
3
2.5
2.5
2 1.5
2
1.5
1
1
0.5
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9. A cube is coloured red on all of its faces. It is then cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. How many smaller
cubes have no face coloured?
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 10
10. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses the relation in the original pair:
Exercise: Strong
(a) Perform: Timid (b) Guard: Alert (c) Decide: Shrewd (d) Read: Knowledgeable
Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. The major product (P) is,
Me
O Cl2
(P)
N Me
H
Cl Cl
Me Cl Me
O O
(a) (b)
Cl N Me N Me
H H
Cl Me Me
O O
(c) (d)
N Me N CH2
H
Cl
Cl Cl
12. The major product (P) is
(i) Br2
(P)
(ii) EtO–, EtOH
O
CO2Et
13. The major product ‘P’ in the above synthetic transformation is:
BnO2CHN O
O Ph H2, 10% Product(100mg)
O P
MeOH(60mL) rt, 3h
N Ph
O H
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H2N O H2N O
O O Ph
(a) OH (b) O
N N Ph
O H O
O NH2 OH
(c) N (d) N
O O H
14. When nitrobenzene is treated with Br2 in presence of FeBr3, the major product formed in m-
bromonitrobenzene, statements which are related to obtain the m-isomer is/are
(I) The electron density on meta carbon is more than that on ortho and para positions
(II) The intermediate carbonium ion formed after initial attack of Br+ at the meta position is less destabilised.
(III) Loss of aromaticity when Br+ attacks at the ortho and para position and not at meta positions.
(IV) Easier loss of H+ to regain aromaticity from meta position than from ortho and para positions.
The correct option is
(a) I, IV (b) III, IV (c) II, III (d) I, II
15. Total number of possible alkene formed ____________
O
O
TiCl3
+ C Zn/Cu
H3C C2H5 Ph Ph
3 3
16. The difference in CFSE of Fe H 2O 6 and Fe CN 6 is ______________ 0
2 2 2 2
(b) Fe H 2O 6 Zn H 2O 6 Ru H 2O 6 Os H 2O 6
2 2 2 2
(c) Zn H 2O 6 Fe H 2O 6 Ru H 2O 6 Os H 2O 6
2 2 2 2
(d) Fe H 2O 6 Zn H 2O 6 Os H 2O 6 Ru H 2O 6
Complexes ν CO cm –1
(I) dien Mn CO 3 (A) 2090
(II) Mn CO 6 (B) 1960
(III) en Mn CO 4 (C) 2000
(IV) MeH 2 N Mn CO 5 (D) 2043
(a) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C (b) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (d) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
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19. Number of sp3 hybridized boron atom present in borax is/are ________________
20. The shape of [ClF4]– and [ClF2]– ions is respectively.
(a) see-saw and linear (b) see-saw and bent
(c) tetrahedral and linear (d) square planar and linear
21. Choose the correct order of ionic radius from given option
(a) Ce3 Pr 3 Dy3 Eu 3 (b) Pr3 Dy3 Eu 3 Ce3
(c) Dy3 Eu 3 Ce3 Pr3 (d) Ce3 Pr 3 Eu 3 Dy3
22. The major product formed in the following reaction is
NaH
(P)
CHO PPh3Br
N
H
(a) (b)
N N
H H
(c) (d)
N N
CH3
(i) NBS/(PhCO)2O
(ii) Mg/Et2O
(X)
(iii) HCHO
S
The product (X) is
CH3 OH OH CH3
O O
H t-Bu H3C
O
(a) (b) O
CH3 t-Bu
CH3 CH3
O O
H H
(c) O (d) O
t-Bu t-Bu
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25. In the following reaction, the structure of major product and characteristic IR absorption frequency (cm–1)
are respectively.
O
hv
Product
MeOH
N2
CO2H C
CO2Me
27. For the following two reactions A and B, the correct statement is
Ph CH3
CH3 CH3
Ph H Ph CH3
(a) A gives , B gives
H3C CH3 H3C H
Ph CH3 Ph H
(b) A gives , B gives
H3C H H3C CH3
Ph CH3
(c) Both A and B
H3C H
Ph H
(d) Both A and B
H3C CH3
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(I) A A †
(II) i A A
†
(a) Only I (b) only II (c) both I and II (d) neither I nor II
3/2
Z Zr/2a 0 Zr Zr/2a0
31. The orbital represented by R n 2 e e is
2a 0 2a 0
(a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 2p (d) 3p
33. The emf of the cell, Ag | AgCl s | KCl aq | Hg 2Cl2 s | Hg is 0.0455V at 298K and the temperature
coefficient is 3.38 104 VK 1 . The enthalpy H at 298K is _____________ kJ mol–1.
34. An aqueous solution of urea had freezing point of –0.52ºC. What is osmotic pressure of the same solution
at 37ºC. Assume that molar concentration and molality are numerically equal K f 1.86
(a) 7.1 atm (b) 34.1 atm (c) 27.1 atm (d) 5.2 atm
35. What is the maximum work done when pressure on 10g of hydrogen is reduced from 20 atm to 1 atm at
constant temperature of 273 K.
(a) –81.80 kcal (b) 81.80 kcal (c) 8180 kcal (d) –8180 kcal
Q.36-Q.65 carry TWO marks each.
36. Predict the order of reactivity of the following in oxidative addition reaction of HCl
A IrCl CO PPh 3 2 ; B IrCl CO PMe3 2
37. The reaction of CrCl3 with liq. NH3 to give yellow Cr NH 3 6 Cl3 often has low yield, since the reaction
tends to stop with production of pink Cr NH 3 5 Cl Cl2 . On addition of a small piece of Na metal to liq.
O
O O
+ O O
C
Cp2Zr
(a) Cp2Zr O (b) Cp2Zr (c) Cp2Zr (d)
Ph CO
39. When graphite is treated with alkali metal which of the following change(s) occur
(1) electrical conductivity of graphite increase
(2) distance between layer of graphite increases
(3) conductivity of graphite decreases with increase in temperature
(4) paramagnetic character in graphite increases
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 3
CO2H O
(i) HNO3 (iv) , Et2NH
40. (A) (B)
(ii) Base, nPrCl (v) H2/Pd/C
HO (iii) SOCl2
COCl NEt2
O
(a) A = , B=
O NO2 O NH2
COCl OH
N
(c) A = , B= Et
O NO2 O NH2
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41. Select the incorrect option with appropriate R/S configuration
Compound Configuration
HOOC Br
C C C
(a) ‘S’
H NO2
SO3H H
(b) ‘S’
H HO3S
O O
(c) ‘R’
Br
O
(d) * ‘S’
+ (i) Cu(I) X O
CO2Et
(a) MgBr (ii) LiAlH4
OH
(b) + MgBr
O OR 2
OH
O BrMg
+
(c)
O
(i) m-CPBA
O
(d)
(ii) CH2(CO2Et)2, OEt
(iii) H+
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43. Sum of the pI value of the following salt of Glu and Lys as shown below
HO
pKa = 4.5 pKa = 2.2 H3N pKa = 2.1
O
OH OH
pKa = 10.5
H3N H3N
O
O
pKa = 9.0 pKa = 8.5
44. The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that are possible on mono-chlorination of the
following compound, is CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3
45. The major product formed in the following reaction is
O
NHTs n-BuMgBr
O N Et2O
P
O
Bu Bu
NHTs NHTs
N N
(a) O (b) O
O OH O OH
OH OH
O Bu Bu
(c) (d) O
O O
hv
(P)
O Ph
O O
Ph Ph
(a) P = and N.T(I) (b) P = and N.T(II)
O
Ph
(c) P = and N.T(II) (d) P = and N.T(I)
Ph
OsO4
P
47. K3Fe(CN)6, K2CO3
Ph
(DHQD)2PHAL
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The major product P is
HO Ph HO Ph HO Ph Ph Ph
CH3
O 300ºC C3H9PCPh2
48. A B
CH3
CCl4 cold
49. S4 N 4 AgF2 X
(a) X = NSF (b) X = NSF3 (c) X = S4N4F4 (d) X = NSF3
4
50. The complex formation ability of alkali metal with P2O7 follow order
(a) Cs Rb K Na Li (b) Li Na K Rb Cs
(c) K Na Li Cs Rb (d) Na Li K Rb Cs
51. Which among the following statement is correct for F3C–CF2–CF3?
(a) all C–F bond length are identicle
(b) two C–F bond attached to middle carbon atom are longer as compared to other C–F bond at terminal
carbon
(c) Two C–F bond attached to middle carbon atom are shorter as compared to other C–F bond at terminal
carbon
(d) none of these
52. Match the Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(P) Feritin (I) Electron transport
(Q) Vitamin B12 (II) Ionophore
(R) Cytochromes (III) Oxygen transport
(S) Valinomycin (IV) Nitrogen fixation
(V) Organometallic enzyme
(VI) Ioron storage
(a) P-VI, Q-IV, R-II, S-V (b) P-I, Q-III, R-VI, S-IV
(c) P-III, Q-V, R-IV, S-VI (d) P-VI, Q-V, R-I, S-II
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H H
m-CPBA KMnO4
53. (B) C C (A)
OH–
HOOC COOH
Relation between the major product (A) and (B)
(a) enantiomers (b) diastereomers (c) homomers (d) constitutional isomers
54. The number of atoms per unit cell of diamond cubic crystal are _____________
55. The atomic masses of Fluorine and hydrogen are 19.0 a.m.u. and 1.0 a.m.u. respectively. The bond
length of HF is 4Å. The moment of inertia of HF is ______________10–47 kg mtr2 .
56. Given that the mean average speed of oxygen is 200 m/s. The most probable speed of oxygen under the
same condition is _____________m/s.
57. The spherical harmonics regarding H-atom, P3 x is given by
1 1
(a) x
2
3x2 1
(b) (c)
2
5 x 2 3x (d) 0
(a) i sin cot cos (b) i
(c) i sin cot cos (d) i sin cot sin
59. The uncertainty in the NMR frequency of a compound in liquid state (relaxation time = 2s) is 0.002 Hz. The
uncertainty in the frequency (in Hz) of a same compound in solid state (relaxation time = 10–6 s) is
_____________________
1
60. The efficiency of the carnot engine is . On decreasing the temperature of the sink by 65K, the efficiency
6
increases to 1/3. The temperature of source is ________________K.
61. The sum of 1H NMR and 13C NMR signals in the following compound is __________
H
H
62. An organic compound (molecular formula C8H7Br) yields a primary alcohol on hydroboration and gives the
following spectral data :
UV : max 282 max 450
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H H
C CH2 C CHBr
(a) (b)
Br
H H
H H
C C
C C
H
(c) (d)
H
Br
Br
63. The enthalpy of vaporisation of a liquid is 30 kJmol–1 and entropy of varpourisation is 75J mol–1k–1. The boiling
point of the liqud at 1 atm is ____________ K
64. In Langmuir adsorption of a gas onto a solid surface the value of slope and intercept was found to be 0.45 cm 3
and 5×103 Torr cm–3. The value of distribution coefficient will be ______________
65. Given that
E 0Fe3 |Fe 0.04 V; E Fe
0
2
|Fe
0.44 V
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Space for rough work
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15
CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 18-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-C
ANSWER KEY
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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed
E : info@careerendeavour.com w : Near-IIT
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Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. The digit in the unit position of the integer
1 2 3 .................. 99 is __________________
x4 2
2. If 2
2 , then
x 6 x 6
(a) x 2 (b) x 2 (c) x 6 (d) x 6
3. In a flag, there are 50 paise coins, 25 paise coins and rupee coins, proportional to the numbers 3, 4 and
1
2 . If the amount to Rs, 210, then number of rupee coins is
2
(a) 42 (b) 105 (c) 83 (d) 157
4. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Privacy is _________ by laws relating to defamation, under the Indian Penal Code.
(a) secluded (b) derived (c) protected (d) confined
5. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best
expresses the relation in the original pair:
After : Before ::
(a) First: Second (b) Present : Past
(c) Contemporary : Historic (d) Successor : Predecessor
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
A B C D E F
STATE
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
7. If ‘FRIEND’ is coded as ‘HUMJTK’, how is ‘CANDLE’ written in that code?
(a) EDRIRL (b) DCQHQV (c) ESJFME (d) FYOBOC
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8. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best
expresses the relation in the original pair:
Stutter : Speech ::
(a) Blare : Hearing (b) Aroma : Smell
(c) Novacain: Touch (d) Astigmatism : Sight
9. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
The age of satellite communication _________ in 1962 with the launching of Early Bird, the first Communication
Satellite.
(a) dawned (b) negated (c) ended (d) estimated
10. Consider the statement
“Every house in every locality has atleast one member serving in either, Indian army or Indian airforce”
Negation of this statement is
(a) There is a house in every locality that has no member serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(b) There is a house in a locality that has all the members serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(c) There is a house in a locality that has no member serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(d) Every house in a locality has all the members serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. The escaping tendency of electron can be enhanced by
(a) applying positive potential (b) applying negative potential
(c) both potential will have same effect (d) By removing the potential
12. The correct statement about the following engine is
Source (T)1
w
system
sink(T)2
(i) HNO3/H2SO4
(P)
MeO N NH2
NO2
(a) (b)
MeO N NH2 MeO N NH2
H
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NO2
O2N
(c) (d)
MeO N NH2
MeO N NH2
15. Which among the following compounds can not undergo the Diels-Alder reaction ______________
Ts Me
(V) (VI)
16. Products ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the following reaction are, respectively
O
H
Na LiAlH4
X Y
EtOH
OH
OH
H OH H OH
H H
H
H
H H
OH OH
H H
H H
17. The major product formed in the following reaction is
OTf
SnBu3
Me3Si
Product (P)
(Ph3P)4Pd, CO
O O
(a) (b)
SnBu3 Bu3Sn
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O O
(c) (d)
Me3Si SiMe3
(a) 1 2 m2 2 (b) 1 2 m 2 2
25. The mass of meta stable ion produced due to decomposition of X+ in the following mass fragmentation
sequence is _______________________________
Y X
X 1 N 2
M , 380 230
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SiMe2Ph
TsOH C4H9 KH
26. (Q) C5H11 (P)
OH
Me
The major product (P) and (Q) in the above synthetic transformation is
C4H9
(a) P = Q = C5H11
Me
Me
(b) P = Q = C5H11
C4H9
C4H9 Me
(c) P = C5H11 Q = C5H11
Me C4H9
Me C4H9
(d) P = C5H11 Q = C5H11
C4H9 Me
Me3N H H NMe3
NaOEt NaOMe
Ph (P) Ph (Q)
27. Ph Ph
Me Me
H H
The major product (P) and (Q) in the above reaction is
Ph Ph
Ph P=Q=
(a) P = Q = (b)
Ph Me
Me
Ph
(c) P = Ph Q= Ph Ph (d) P = Ph Ph Q=
Me Ph
Me Ph Me Me
H
28. TBDMSO
PdCl2
O (P)
O2, CuCl
DMF, H2O
H
CN
H O
O
H H
(a) TBDMSO (b) TBDMSO
O O
H H
CN CN
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O O
H H
(c) TBDMSO (d) TBDMSO
O O
O
H H
CN CH2NH2
31
29. The solution P NMR spectrum of a mixture of isomers of the square planar complex
Pt SCN 2 Ph 2 PCH 2PPh 2 shows two singlet and two doublet at 228K. The number of possible isomer
N N 2+
N N N
N 30º 30º
Fe (P) Fe (Q)
33. t1/2 15 days t1/2 ~ 10–3 sec
N Et N Et
Et Et
N
where, N Bipyridyl ligand
(a) [CpFe(C–Et)(*CO)(PPh3)]
(b) CpFe CO * CO Et PPh 3
(c) [CpFe(*C–Et)(CO)(PPh3)]
*
(d) CpFe CO PPh 3 Et CO
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35. Identify the pair of compound which have same number of lone pair (on central atom) as well as shape
(A) HXeO 4 and SF4 (B) ICl2 and XeF2
2
(C) ClF3 and IF32 (D) PtCl4 and Ni CO 4
(a) A and C (b) B and D (c) A and B (d) A, B and C
(a) (b)
M T M T
(c) (d)
M T M T
43. The major product product (P) is
(i) NaBH4/CeCl3
(P)
MeOH
O
(ii) (EtO)3–C–CH3/H+
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(a) (b)
OH
OEt
(c) O C(OEt)2 (d)
O
CH3
44. Among the following statements, the incorrect one is/are
(1) In Norrish-Type- II reactions H transfer occurs, interamolecularly followed by the -cleavage.
(2) In Barton-reaction there is the intramolecular H transfer..
(3) In Hoffmann-Loffler Freytag reaction H transfer occurs intramolecularly..
(4) In Norrish-Type II reaction Mac-Lafferty rearrangement occurs.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) all of the above
45. Which among the following compounds decolourizes the reddish-brown colour of bromine water solution
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose (3) Fructose
(4) Cellobiose (5) Xylose
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3
46. In the following reaction sequence, products A and B are, respectively
CN
(iii) LiAlH4 (2.2 equiv)
CO2Et
(i) Boc2O, CHCl3 THF, –05ºC
[A] [B]
(ii) NaOEt, EtOH (iv) Boc2O, Dioxane
N
H
O HO
CO2Et
N Boc , N Boc
CH2 , EtO2C Boc
(a) N N (b)
H
Boc Boc N Boc
NC
O CN HO NHBoc NC
BocHN
, ,
(c) (d) O N
N N N
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49. Consider the following electron transfer reactions
II III
O Cr(H2O)5 O Cr(NH3)5
III II
(1) (H3N)5Rh N (H3N)5Rh N
NH2 NH2
II III
O Cr(H2O)5 O Cr(H2 O)5
III II
(2) (H3N)5Ru N (H3N)5Ru N
NH2 NH2
Correct statement about above reaction is
(a) rate of I is faster than II (b) rate of II is faster than I
(c) both I and II occurs at same rate (d) can not be predicted
50. In the given reaction,
H+/EtOH
H2C O (P)
O
The product (P) has the following spectral informations, 13C NMR , ppm : 203, 170, 62, 39, 22, 15 .
The structure of compound (P) is
O O O O
(a) (b)
O OEt
O
O O
O Et
(c) (d) O
H
O
51. The decreasing order of chemical shift values for proton (A–C) in the following compounds is
NO2 NMe2 OSiMe3
HA HB HC
(a) HA > HB > HC (b) HC > HA > HB (c) HA > HC > HB (d) HC > HB > HA
52. Major product formed in the reaction given below is
H3O+
O O
H H
HOOC HOOC
O
O O OH OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O
H H
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Li
53. P
CO2Me
(a) (b)
Me OH
Me OH
CO2Me
OH
(c) (d)
Me OH
Me OH
55. Stereotopological relation between Ha and Hb in given molecules respectively.
Ha Ha
Ha
Hb Hb Hb
Y Z
X
(a) Enantiotopic, Diastereotopic and identical (b) Identical, Enantiotopic and Diastereotopic
(c) Enantiotopic, Identical and Diastereotopic (d) Diastereotopic , enantiotopic and identical
56. The maximum adsorptive power is of
(a) Silica gel (b) Al2O3 (c) MgO (d) CaCO3.
57. The first excited state wave function for a 1-D SHO is
2
58. The average value of r is orbital is
3 2 1 2
(a) a0 (b) 3a02 (c) a0 (d) none
2 3
59. The atoms are present in an end centred unit cell is _____________
60. A second order reaction is 50% completed in 5 mins, the time required for 75% completion of this reaction
is __________________________(in mins)
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61. The t½ of cobalt-60 is 5.26 years. Percentage activity after 4 years will be
(a) 70% (b) 40% (c) 59% (d) 50%
62. A radical contains 31P (I = ½) with hyperfine constant 1.40 mT and three equivalent protons (I = ½) with
hyperfine constant 0.70 mT. The ESR spectrum and intensity ratio will exihibit
(a) 7, 1 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 (b) 6, 1 : 3 : 4 : 4 : 3 : 1
(c) 8, 1 : 3 : 1 : 1 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 6, 1 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
CO2Et
Na, Me3SiCl
Product (B)
CO2Et
H H
O O
(a) A = B=
OH OH
H H
H
O OSiMe3
(b) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H
H H
O OSiMe3
(c) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H H
H
O OSiMe3
(d) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H
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64. The products A and B in the following reaction sequence are
O
Ph O
OH
NaH, CS2 Bu3SnH, AlBN
(A) (B)
then MeI PhMe, 110ºC
OSiMe2t-Bu
OMe
OMe
OH
OH
B=
(a) A = ,
O
O
OH
OSiMe2t-Bu
OH
Ph O
OMe
OMe
B=
(b) A = ,
O
O
OSiMe2t-Bu
OSiMe2t-Bu
OH
OMe
OH
OH
B=
(c) A = ,
O
O
OH
OSiMe2t-Bu
O O
Ph O Ph O
O SMe
(d) A = , B=
S
O O
OSiMe2t-Bu OSiMe2t-Bu
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65. The compound 5CpCo CO 2 A upon UV iiadiation, resulted in the evolution of a gas an formation of a
new compound (B). While the IR of A showed absorption around 1988 cm–1, the spectrum as (B) showed
absorptions only 1798 cm–1. Compound (A) and (B) obey the 18 electron rule and both have Cp ring in
5 mode. Then which of the following statement is not consistent with above result.
(a) The bond order of compound (A) and (B) is 2
(b) The compound (B) have ‘CO’ at µ2-bridging position.
(c) The bond order of compound (B) is 2
(d) All Co’s of compounds (A) are terminal.
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Space for rough work
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16
CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 23-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-D
ANSWER KEY
South Delhi : 28-A/11, Jia Sarai, Near-IIT Hauz Khas, New Delhi-16, Ph : 011-26851008, 26861009
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