(Career Endeavour) GATE Chemistry Test Series (B-Ok - Xyz)

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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed

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Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Abrogate
(a) Freedom (b) abolish (c) begin (d) coercion
2. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Fecund
(a) Fruitful (b) Fruitless (c) Juicy (d) Smooth
3. If a and b are real numbers and a > b, then which of the following is true always
(a) a  b (b) a 2  b 2 (c) a  a  1  b  b  1 (d) 2b  1  2a  1
4. The difference between the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by which of the
following numbers.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
5. If the sum of five consecutive integers is S, what is the largest of those integers in terms of S?

S  10 S  10 S  10 S  10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 5 10
Q.6-Q. 10 carry TWO marks each.
6. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Prior to liberalization _______ computer industries, the Indian Government’s policy was on self
reliance through import substitution.
(a) Of (b) At (c) In (d) None of the above
7. What will come in place of ? mark?

5 8 4 9 4 12
126 78 ?
9 6 6 7 11 5
(a) 240 (b) 336 (c) 180 (d) none of these
8. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses the relation in the original pair:
Exercise: Strong
(a) Perform: Timid (b) Guard: Alert (c) Decide: Shrewd (d) Read: Knowledgeable
9. What is the remainder when 211(210 + 1) is divided by 15
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 10
10. Karan and Arjun run a 100 metre race, where Karan beats Arjun by 10 metres. To do a favour to Arjun, Karan
starts 10 metres behind the starting line in a second 100 metre race. They both run at their earlier speeds which
of the following is true in connection with the second race?
(a) Karan and Arjun reach the finishing line simultaneously
(b) Arjun beats Karan by 1 metre.
(c) Arjun beats Karan by 11 metre.
(d) Karan beats Arjun by 1 metre.
Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. The correct pair of lanthanoids having lower boiling and melting point?
(a) Gd and Lu (b) Eu and Yb (c) Eu and Lu (d) Ce and Pr
12. The correct criterion of spontaneity among the following is
(a)  S U ,V  0 (b)  S  H ,V  0 (c)  S  H , P  0 (d)  S U , P  0

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13. The ratio of velocity of cation and anion is 1 : 2. The transport number of cation in the solution is
(a) 0.50 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.33 (d) 0.90
14. Correct decreasing order of pKa value of the following compounds is
N N
HN NH

N N

H H

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)


(a) A > B > C > D > E (b) C > B > D > A > E
(c) E > A > D > B > C (d) C > B > E > D > A
15. Find out the absolute configuration of the astericked chiral centres of each of the following compounds (A and
B) are, respectively
OH
H3CH2COH2C *C
CH2CH2OCH2CH3 H3C C C CH3
*
H

O
(A) (B)
(a) R, R (b) R, S (c) S, S (d) S, R
H

(i) BH3, THF


(P)
16. (ii) NaOH, H2O2 Major product
O
H
H H H H
H H HO HO

(a) (b) (c) (d)


O O O O
HO H HO H H H H H
17. The major product (P) is
O

(i) SPh2 BF4


(P)
KOH, DMSO Major products
(ii) HBF4

O
O O
O

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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O OH
Condition-A O
O
18. NH2 Condition-B N
H
(A) (B)
Incorrect option regarding to the conversion of product (A & B)
(a) Product A convert into product B by acid as a condition A
(b) Product B convert into product A by base as a condition B
(c) In the formation of product B from product A and product A from B, same intermediate is formed
(d) Different intermediate is formed in the conversion of A to B and B to A.
19. The major product formed (A) and (B) are, respectively
O ZnCl2 MeCO2K
(A) (B)
+ cat. NaI
Cl
O
(a) HO Cl and I Cl

O O
(b) Cl O and H O

O H O
O O
(c) Cl O and
O O
O
O

Cl
(d) HO Cl and

O
20. The major product (P) is
O
Ph + KOH (P)
Ph Ph Ph EtOH Major product
O O
O
O
Ph
Ph Ph Ph
(a) (b)
Ph Ph Ph
Ph
O
O
Ph Ph
O
Ph O Ph
(c) (d) Ph

Ph Ph Ph

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21. The major product (P),
OH

(i) Ph–S–Cl , Base


(P)
(ii) LDA
(iii) Me–I
(iv) P(OMe)3/MeOH

O S Ph O S Ph OH OH

Me Me

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Me Me OH
22. The major product (P) is

hv
O (P)

O OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)

3
23. An electron is confined in a cubic box of side ‘a’. The degeneracy of the state having momentum is
a
__________________
24. The Hermitian operator(s) is/are
 d 
(a) e d / dx (b) ei  dx  (c) both (d) none
25. U 235 nucleus splits into two new nuclei whose mass numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of the radii of
the new nuclei is
(a) 1.26 : 1 (b) 63 : 2 (c) 63 : 21 (d) 8 : 1
26. In a magnetic field of strength 2.349 T, the resonance frequency of 15N nuclei is 10.13 MHz. The resonance
frequency of 15N in a magnet of 11.745T is _____________________Hz.
27. If 0.0033 M of a substance quenches the fluoresence efficiency by 25%. The value of the stern volmer constant
in M–1 is _____________

28.  Cp 2 Fe  (ferrocinium cation) is given in coloured and paramagnetic. The colour arrises due to
(a)   * (b)   * (c) LMCT (d) MLCT

29. Which of the following types of silicate represents the mineral Mg 3  OH 2 Si 4O10  ?
(a) Linear silicate (b) Cyclic silicate (c) 3-D-silicate (d) Sheet silicate

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30. A  SbF5 
B

  tert  butyl  X   H 2
B  tert  butane 
then A is
(a) HCl (b) HF (c) HBr (d) HI
31. The most populated rotational state for HCl (B = 8.5 cm–1) at 300 K is ______________
32. The experimental magnetic moment of K3[Fe(CN)6] is 2.3µB and is attributable to the
(a) spin-only value of a low-spin Fe (b) spin-only value of a high-spin Fe
(c) low-spin Fe with orbital contribution (d) high-spin Fe with orbital contribution
33. Which of the follwoing compounds would you expect to be aromatic

O Na
S
Me
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(a) i, iii, v (b) i, ii, v (c) i, iv, v (d) ii, iv, v
34. Two aqueous uni-univalent electrolyte system A and B are at different temperature TA and TB and CA and CB
T C
concentrations, respectively. Their Debye-Hückel lengths will equal if A  B will be __________
CA TB
35. In Langmuir adsorption of a gas onto a solid surface the value of slope and intercept was found to be 0.45 cm 3
and 5×103 Torr cm–3. The value of distribution coefficient will be ______________
Q.36-Q.65 carry TWO marks each.
36. Correct order of substituent (X = F, Cl, Br, H) for equilibrium constant of following reaction is
X

S N S X S N S X

X N N X N N

S N S X S N S X

X
(a) H > F > Cl > Br (b) F > Cl > Br > H (c) F > Cl > H > Br (d) F > Br > Cl > H
37. The slope of a plot of pressure Vs temperature is 3.15×10–4 atmk–1 at 500K. The change in volume of a
substance at the given temperature, if enthalpy of transition is 5×104 Jmol–1, is
(a) 2.85×105 L (b) 2.81×103 L (c) 2.8×104 L (d) 28 L
38. In the beginning of polarographic experiment of 10–3 M the current observed was 0.1µA. After the experiments
the maximum current observed was 10.1µA. The diffusion current observed for a solution of 10–5 M solution
is _______________
39. 20 mL of 0.01M HCl is titrated with 10 mL of 0.01 M Ca(OH)2. The pH of the solution at 25ºC is
(a) Less than 7 (b) More than 7 (c) Equal to 7 (d) Cannot predict

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H NBn2

40. + MeLi Products (A + B)


Me CHO
Incorrect option regarding product (A and B) with appropriate statement
Me

(a) HO H
is major product, according to Cram's rule
Bn2N H

Me
Me

H OH
(b) is major product, according to Cram's rule
Bn2N H

Me
H

Me OH
is major product, according to Cram's rule
(c) Bn2N H

Me
Me

H OH
is major product, according to anti-Cram's rule
(d) Bn2N H

Me
CO2Et

(i) TMSCl, Et3N, DMF (iv) Na, EtOH, NH3(l)


(A) (B)
41. (ii) O3, MeOH, CH2Cl2, –70ºC (v) H+, H2O, workup
O (iii) NaBH4
H
The major product (A) and (B) formed, respectively, are
CO2Et CO2Et

HO
(a)
B=
A= HO O
C
H
O O

CO2Et OH
HO
(b) O
A= B=
HOOC
O
H

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CO2Et CO2Et
HO O
(c)
B=
A= HOOC

H
CO2Et CO2Et

HO
(d) B=
A= O
HOOC
H
O

OH (i) TrCl (1 eq.)


42. MeO2C Py cat. DMAP (iii) LiBH4, THF
(A) (B)
(ii) TBSOTf (iv) Ph3P, I2, Imid
OH
2, 6-lutidine, CH2Cl2
O
The major product (B) is
I
OTr OTBS

(a) (b)
OTBS OTr
O O

I HO
OTBS OTBS

(c) (d)
OTr I
O O

43. The major product (P)

(i) CBr4, Ph3P, Zn


(ii) n-BuLi (2.1 eq) hexane, THF
(ii) H2O, workup
CHO (P)
O
(iv) B H
O

(v) Pd(PPh3)4, cat.


Br NaOEt, toulene, 80ºC

(a) Me (b)
Me Me

Me

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Me

Me Me

(c) (d)
Me H
H

44. The major product (P) is


O
(i) Mg(OEt)2
CO2Et (P)
Ph (ii) O Major product
Br
Br

(iii) Et3N
(iv) H2SO4
O
Ph O O EtO2C O
EtO2C
O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
H Ph
O O Ph O
Ph
45. The major product (P) is
Me

O2N
N (i) H2SO4, 
(P)
OH (ii) H2O
Br
Me Me

O2N O2N
N N
(a) (b)
OH
O OH
O
O

O2N O2N NH
NHMe Me
(c) (d)

Br Br
46. The major product (P) is

(i) HNMe2/HCHO/H+
(P)
(ii) Me–I
N
H (iii) KCN
(iv) H3O+

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O
OH
(a) (b) N
N OH H
H O
O
OH
OH
O
(c) (d)
N
H N
H
47. The major product (P) is
O
(i) /H+
D-Glucose (P)
(ii) Me–I excess, Ag2O
(iii) H3O+

OMe OMe

O O
(a) MeO (b) MeO
MeO MeO
OH OH OMe OH

OH OH

O O
(c) MeO (d) HO
MeO MeO
OH OMe OH OH
48. Consider the following statments
(A) For a system in thermodynamics equilibrium, the population of molecular energy levels always decreases
as the energy levels increases
(B) It is impossible for a higher energy molecular state to have a greater population of molecule than lower
energy state
(C) For a thermodynamics system in equilibrium molecular state that have same energy must have same popu-
lation
(a) True, False, True (b) False, True, False (c) False, False, False (d) False, False, True
49. In case of NH3 molecule, the direct product E(X)E will have the dimensions
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
50. The structure factor of a fcc lattice for (111) planes
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
51. For the following sequence of reactions
k1

2 A   4 B  3C ; 2 B 
k3
P
k2

d  B
The is given by
dt

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1 2 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 1 4 3 2
(a) k1  A  k 2  B  C   k3  B  (b) k1  A  k2  B  C   k3  B 
4 4 2 2 2
2 4 3 2 2 4 3 2
(c) 2k1  A  2k2  B   C   k3  B  (d) 4k1  A  4k2  B   C   2k3  B 

52. Consider a particle of mass ‘m’ moving under a potential of the form
 1 2
V  x    2 kx for x  0

 , otherwise
The 3rd excited state corresponds to n equals
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) none
53. The correct intensity of Mössbauer lines for potassium ferricyanide in the effect of external magnetic field will
be.
(a) 3:4:1:3:4:1 (b) 1:3:4:4:3:1 (c) 3:5:1:1:5:3 (d) 3:4:1:1:4:3
54. Distribution of velocity of molecules is represented by the curve as shown

A
B
fraction
of C
molecules

a b c

velocity
velocities at point a, b and c represents average velocity, most probable velocity and rms velocity (not neces-
sarily in that order). Points b represents which of the following velocity
3RT 2RT 8RT 2RT
(a) (b) (c) (d)
M M M M
55. Propionyl chloride is reacted with acetylene gas in presence of AlCl3 an obtained compound A. The NMR
data of compound A are given, identify it.
A: 1H NMR: 0.96 (t, J 7.0 Hz, 3H), 2.40 (q, J 7.0 Hz, 2H), 6.31 (d, J 14.0 Hz, 1H), 7.11 (d, J 14.0 Hz, 1H).
O
O O O
(a) (b) Me (c) H2C (d) Me Cl
Me Cl Cl Cl
Me
56. At 298K, the EMF of the cell
Pt | H 2 1 bar  | H   solution  || Cl | Hg 2Cl2 | Hg
is 0.7530 V. If pH of the solution is 8. The value of E0 is _________________volt.
 2Hg     2Cl  aq 
Hg 2Cl2  s   2e  
57. The crystal of KCoF3 show three absorption bands in its absorption spectrum at 7150 cm–1, 15200 cm–1 and
19200 cm–1. In this compound Co2+ ion is surrounded octahedrally by six F– ligands. The magnitude of 0 is
__________ (cm–1).
58. The rate of electron transfer in the following reaction is rapid because
2 3 3 2
 Ru  NH3 6    Ru  NH 3 6    Ru  NH 3  6    Ru  NH 3 6 

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(a) It is an inner sphere reaction
(b) It is an outer sphere reaction.
2 3
(c) Electron transfer takes place from * of  Ru  NH 3  6  to * of  Ru  NH3 6  without any input of
energy.
2 3
(d) Electron transfer takes place from * of  Ru  NH 3 6  to * of  Ru  NH 3 6  with any input of
energy.

[CPh3]BF4
P
59. Fe CH3
OC
CO CH
3

The major product ‘P’ in the above reaction is


CPh3
[CPh3] [BF4]
+ CH3
CH3
(a) Fe CH3 (b) Fe CH3 (c) Fe (d) Fe
OC OC OC CO OC
CO CO CO CO CH3

Ph
Cl
Cl
Ph Ph3P CH2
60. [Na2Cr(CO)5] (P) Q
–20ºC, THF
The major product P and Q in the above synthetic transformation are respectively
Ph
and  CO 5 Cr   C 2 H 4  
2
(a)  Cr  CO 5  Cl 2   and  Cr  CO 5  PPh 3   (b) (OC)5Cr
Ph
Ph Ph

(c)  CO 5 Cr  PPh 3   and (OC)5Cr (d) (OC)5Cr and  CO 5 Cr  PPh 3  
Cl
Ph Ph
61. Identify correct statement for mercury as an environment pollutant
(A) carbanionic biomethylation converts it to MeHg+
(B) thiol group of cysteine has strong affinity for mercury
(C) mercury containing industrial catalyst release caused minimata disease
The correct answer is
(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) B and C (d) A, B and C

  
62. cis  Co  en  2 Cl2  , cis  Co  en  2  OH  Cl  , trans   Co  en 2  NO 2  Cl  ,
 
cis  Co  en  2  CN  Cl  , trans  Co  en  2  OH  Cl 

The complexes which show retention in configuration on acidic hydrolysis are ______________

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63. The m/z value of the detectable fragment formed by McLafferty like rearrangement of the following compound
in mass spectrometer is ____________
O

O O
O B
64. A
,
O O

C
CHO COOH
O O
Choose the correct statement regarding A, B and C
A B C
(a) SeO2 DDQ Ag2O
(b) PCC DDQ Ag2O
(c) SeO2 Pd/C Alk. KMnO4
(d) PCC DDQ Alk. KMnO4
65. A potassium salt ‘A’ reacts with dil. HCl to produce a colourless gas. This colourless gas turns lime water
milky and the excess of this gas destroys milkiness. The compound ‘A’ is:
(a) KCl (b) K2SO4 (c) KNO3 (d) K2CO3.

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Space for rough work

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CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 08-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-A

ANSWER KEY

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)


6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (3 to 3) 24. (b) 25. (a)
26. (49.5 to 50.5) 27. (905 to 915) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (2.9 to 3.1) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (1 to 1) 35.(88 to 92)
36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (0.1 to 0.1) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c)
46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (b)
56. (0.26 to 0.30) 57. (8040 to 8060) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (4 to 4) 63. (58 to 58) 64. (a) 65. (d)

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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed

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Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Privacy is _________ by laws relating to defamation, under the Indian Penal Code.
(a) secluded (b) derived (c) protected (d) confined
2. Four persons are chosen at random from a group of 3 men, 2 women and 4 children. The change that
exactly 2 of them are children is
1 1 1 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 5 12 21
3. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5 the hour hand has turned through
(a) 145º (b) 150º (c) 155º (d) 160º
4. If every side of a triangle is doubled, the area of the new triangle is k times the area of the old one. K is
equal to
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
5. Find the wrong term of series
4 9 19 43 90 185 375
(a) 9 (b) 19 (c) 90 (d) 185

Q.6-Q. 10 carry TWO marks each.


6. Which one of the following options is the closest in meanings to the word given below?
Mitigate:
(a) Diminish (b) Divulge (c) Dedicate (d) Denote
7. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word below- “Circuitous”
(a) Cyclic (b) Indirect (c) Confusing (d) Crooked
8. Following diagram showing four persons stationed at the four corners of a square piece of plot as shown
A D
W
S N

E
C B
From the original position, D and B move one and a half length of sides, clockwise and anticlockwise respectively.
Which one of the statement is true
(a) B and D are both at the mid point between A and C
(b) D is the mid point between A and C and B is at the corner originally occupied by C
(c) B is at the mid point between original position of A and D and D is at the mid point between original
positions of B and C
(d) B is at the mid point between A and C and D is at the mid point between original positions of B and C
9. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by
B in
(a) 18 min (b) 27 min (c) 38 min (d) 9 min
10. Find missing number
3 3 3

1 12 5 3 20 7 2 7

6 8 6
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25

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Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. Under adiabatic condition to increase the pressure from P1 to P2, the system
(a) must loss the energy (b) must gain the energy
(c) above process is not possible as q = 0 (d) it can happen by either gain or loss of energy
12. The major product (P) is
OH

(i) POCl3
(ii) Bn-NH2
(P)
(iii) H2, Pd/C
N
OH OH NH2 NHBn

(a) (b) (c) (d)

N NH2 N NHBn N N

13. The reaction between red phosphorous and NaClO2 yield hypophosphoric acid. The molecular formula of
hypophosphoric acid is
(a) H5P3O10 (b) H4P2O7 (c) H3PO4 (d) H4P2O6
14. The number of P-P and P–O–P bond in hypophosphoric acid is/are respectively
(a) 1 and 1 (b) 0 and 1 (c) 1 and 0 (d) 0 and 3

N
L N
15. Rh
Cl PPh3
L = PPh3 PMe3 PF3 and P(OMe)3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Arrange the dinitrogen complex in order of their increasing N–N bond length
(a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (b) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 (c) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3 (d) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2
16. The I.R. active vibrations in ClF3 molecule are
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
17. The electronic energy levels of any hypothetical atom ‘X’ is determined from spectroscopy, are as follows:
Energy Level Energy
2
P3 2 0

2 kT
P12
2
2
D 52 2kT
The electronic partition function (qel) for the atom ‘x’ is:
1 1 1
1   
(a) e 2  e 2 (b) 1  e 2  e 2 (c) 4  2e 2  6e 2 (d) 1  2e 2  6e2
18. Mass average and viscosity average molar mass become equal for the Mark-Houwink exponent is
_________________

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19. The angular nodes corresponding to the angular wave function
5
2

sin  cos  7 cos 2   3 is/are
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
20. The 2nd order reaction is represented by

1
–1
Ct Ct Ct
(a) (b) (c) (d) none
t t t
21. The angle between the planes (100) and (110) is
(a) 30º (b) more than 30º but less than 45º
(c) 45º (d) more than 45º

1
22. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of is
n
(a) 1 in case of physiosorption (b) 1 in case of chemisorption
(c) between 0 and 1 in all cases (d) between 2 and 4 in all cases
23. The number of signal for 31P NMR in P4S9 molecule is
(a) doublet and triplet (b) two doublet
(c) two triplet (d) singlet and doublet
2
24. Number of chloro ligand coordinate with Cr(III) species formed soon after electron transfer between  IrCl6 
2
and  Cr  H 2O 6  is/are ___________________

25. Consider the given four entities

Ph Ph

NC CN
O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O

Which of the following above compounds exhibit aromaticity


(a) A and D only (b) A, B and D only (c) B, C and D only (d) All of the above
26. The major product (P) is
O

Ph
O (i) LDA
(P)
O (ii) Br
t-Bu (iii) H+, H2O

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O
HOOC

Ph O
(a) (b)
O t-Bu O
t-Bu

HOOC
O
(c) (d)
Ph OH O
t-Bu
27. The major product (P) is

O
N
O
Cl (i)
SNa
(P)
(ii) t-BuSH, PhH, reflux
CO2Me

N
(a) (b) O

(c) (d)
CO2Me CO2Me

28. The major product (P) is

(i) N / TsOH
H
(P)
(ii) CHCl3/Base
(iii) H3O+

O O
O O Cl
Cl
CHO
(a) (b) (c) O (d)

Cl

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29. The incorrect order of acids and bases is
(a) CH 3 NH 2  NH 3  H 2 N  NH 2  NH 2 OH  bases 

(b) SiF4  SiCl4  SiBr4  SiI 4  acids 

(c) SnF4  CH 3SnF3   CH3 2 SnF2   CH 3 3 SnF  acids 

(d) BH 3  BMe3  BF3  BCl 3  acids 


235 142 90
30. The number of neutron emitted when 92 U undergoes controlled nuclear fission to 54 Xe and 30 Sr is
___________
31. The total number of Alkene possible by dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3-cyclopentylhexane using alcoholic
KOH is ____________
32. Match the incorrect relationship with appropriate statement
Br CH3

and Br Enantiomer
(a) H3CH2C OH
HO
CH3 CH2CH3

OH OH

(b) and Diastereoisomer


Br Br
CH3 CH3
Cl OH HO Cl
and Homomer
(c)
Br H H Br
H H
SCH3 HS

(d) HS and Diastereoisomer


SCH3

(i) H3O+
33. (B)
(ii)(a) NaBH4, (b) PTSA
OH OH (iii) O3/Me2S
(iv) Base
(v) NaOH/H2O2
(vi) MeOH

O
O O O H
OH H H

(a) (b) (c) (d)


MeO MeO MeO H3C

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34. The major prouct formed on nitration of N, N–dimethyl aniline with conc. H2SO4 and conc. HNO3?

N N
N N NO2
NO2
(a) (b) (c) (d)

NO2
NO2 NO2

35. When a reduced cytochrome transfer an electron from its Fe (II) to the bound O2
(a) the bond order of O2 is reduced by one and O2 decreases

(b) A metal bound super oxide is formed and O2 decreases

(c) A metal bound super oxide is formed and O2 increases

(d) the bond order of O2 is reduced by one and O2 increases

Q.36-Q.65 carry TWO marks each.


36. Indentify intermediate A and product B for given reaction. The spectroscopic data are given
Cl C2H2, AlCl3 KOH, MeOH
(A) B
O
1
A : H NMR : 0.96  t,J7.0 Hz, 3H  , 2.40  q, J 7.0 Hz, 2H  ,6.31 d, J 14.0 Hz, 1H  ,7.11 d, J 14.0 Hz, 1H 
B : 1H NMR : 0.99 t,J 7.0 Hz, 3H , 2.39 q, J 7.00 Hz, 2H ,2.57  d,J 5.0 Hz, 2H ,3.28 s, 6H ,4.68 t, J 5.0 Hz,1H
O O OMe
(a) Me Me
Cl and OMe
O O OMe
Me and Me
(b) OMe
Cl

O
O OMe
Me
(c) Cl and Me

OMe
O
O OMe
Me and Me
(d)
Cl
OMe
37. The temperature of reserviours are maintained at 300K and 500K. The work done required to transfer 90 kJ
of energy from reservoir at lower temperature to reserviour at high temperature is ____________kJ
38. The dielectric constant of 0.2M NaCl solution is 144 and 0.2 M MgCl2 solution is 225. The relation of
temperature at which the Debye-Huckel screening length is same for both solution is
(a) TMgCl2  0.39 TNaCl (b) TMgCl2  0.93 TNaCl

(c) TNaCl  0.39 TMgCl2 (d) TNaCl  0.93 TNaCl

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39. In polarographic experiment, diffusion current was 10 µA with 10–2 M solution of MX2. On doing the experi-
ment with same metal solution of 0.10 M, the applied voltage was –0.72V when current recorded was 7 µA.
The value of E1/2 is ________________V.
40. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction is

HO O
HO
(i) m-CPBA/DCM
(P)
(ii) NaOH/H2O
Me
HO
H
O

HO O HO O
HO HO
O
(a) (b)
HO O Me HO OH
H H

O O
H H
HO HO
O
(c) (d)
HO O Me HO OH
H H
41. The major product (P) is
O

O
hv
(P)
hexane

CN

O O O O
C

O CN CN CN
(a) (b) (c) (d) H

O O O
42. Among the following the incorrect statement(s) about the amino acids is/are
(A) Proline is the amino acid which doesn’t undergo diazotization reaction with HNO2.
(B) Phenylisothiocyanate is called an Edmann reagent
(C) Methionine has –SMe group
(D) Tyrosine gives the negative phenol test
(a) A and B only (b) C only (c) B and C only (d) C and D only

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43. The intermediate (P) and the rearrangement involved in the following reaction sequence is
CHO
OH
Me Me

OEt 190ºC
(P)
Me Hg(OAc)2 Me

Me Me
H H

O O
Me Me

(a) and [2, 3] S.T.R. (b) Me and [3, 3] S.T.R.


Me

Me Me
H H

O
Me Me OEt
O

(c) and [4, 5] S.T.R. (d)


Me Me and [3, 3] S.T.R.
Me Me
H H
44. Considre the Ni(O) catalysed synthesis of 2 pyrone
L2 Ni(COD)

L = PR3 –COD
Et2C2 (1)

Et (2)

L2Ni CO2

Et Et Et Et
Et Et

(4)
L2Ni
Et O O O
O
Et Et
(3)
C2E2 Et2C2
Et
L2Ni
Et
O
O
The step (1), (2), (3) and (4) involvd in above catalytic cycle are respectively
(a) Coordination of Et2C2, insertion of CO2, insertion of Et2C2 and release of 2-pyrone.

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(c) Coordination of Et2C2, insertion of CO2 oxidative addition of Et2C2 and  -elimination
(c) Oxidative addition of Et2C2, insertion of CO2, oxidative addition of Et2C2 and reductive elimination of 2-
pyrone.
(d) Coordination of Et2C2, insertion of CO2 oxidative addition of Et2C2 and  -elimination
O O
45. OC  Mo  CO 5   OC  CH 2 ; Cp  CO 2 Mo  CR   Acetylene
O
CpRh  CO 2 µCH 2    Cyclopropane
Number of complexes with correct isolobal relationship is/are _____________
46. Identify the correct statement
When the ligand donot sterically control the coordination geometry then
(a) 4 coordinate complexes of Cu(I) is square planar geometry
(b) 4 coordinate complex of Pd (II) is tetrahedral geometry
(c) 4 coordinate complex of Zn(II) is square planar geometry
(d) 4 coordinate complex of Zn(II) is tetrahedral geometry

47. Arrange the following complex in decreasing wavelength LMCT absorption   max in nm 

A  Re O 4 , B  MoO 42 , C  WS42 , D  ReS42


(a) A > B > C > D (b) B > C > A > D (c) C > B > D > A (d) D > C > B > A
48. Select the true statement about Fluorescence spectroscopy of the molecules in the UV-visible region
(a) Emission usually occurs at energies that are greater than the energies of excitation
(b) Emission usually occurs at energies that are less than the energies of excitation
(c) Emission usually occurs at the energies that are equal to the energies of the excitation
(d) none of the above
49. The symmetry operation S62 brings some molecule in an orientation that can also be obtained by performing
(a) Inversion centre (b) A two-fold axis of symmetry
(c) A three fold axis of symmetry (d) A six-fold axis of symmetry
50. The co-ordination number of anion in case of sphelerite and wurtzite structure are respectively
(a) 4 and 4 (b) 4 and 8 (c) 8 and 4 (d) none
51. The difference between two consecutive energy levels in a 1-D box of width a is
 2 h2  2 2  2 2  2 2
(a)  2n  1 (b)  2n  1 (c)  2n  1 (d)  2n  1
2ma 2 2ma 2 4ma 2 2ma 2
52. Consider the reactions,
A  B 
 Product ... 1

C  D 
 Product ...  2 
species M  g/mole  Diameter  nm 
A 2 1
B 4 3
C 6 2
D 8 4
The ratio of squares of pre-exponential factors of reaction (1) and (2) is __________________

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53. The rate dependence for a particular reaction at a particular temperature is given by
13000
ln k  5 
T
The activation energy at 130K is (R = 2 cal K–1 mole–1) ________________kcal mole–1
54. In cyclobutadiene molecule, according to Huckel molecular orbital theory the transition leading to electric
excitaion for MINIMUM wavelength corresponds to an energy gap of
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The chemical shift values for inner and outer-protons in 18-annulene appears respectively at
(a) 6 Hs at 9 ppm and 12 Hs at –1.8 ppm (b) 6 Hs at –1.8 ppm and 12 Hs at 9 ppm
(c) 8 Hs at 9 ppm and 10 Hs at –1.8 ppm (d) 8 Hs at –1.8 ppm and 10 Hs at 9 ppm.
56. In a one-dimensional oscillator, two orthonormal states are defined as
 1  0  21  32
 2  0  1  2
The expectation value of energy in  2 state is
1 3
(a)  (b)  (c) 0 (d) none
2 2
57. The correct statement in the following mode of vibrational acetylene molecule is/are

(1) H C C H (infrared active vibration) (2) H C C H (infrared inactive vibration)

(3) H C C H (infrared inactive vibration) (4) H C C H (infrared inactive vibration)

(a) 1, 3 (b) 2, 3 (c) 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4


58. The first rotational absorption of 12C 16O is found to occur at 3.842 cm–1 while that of 13C 16O at 3.6734
cm–1 (assuming the molar masses of 16O and 12C as 15.999 gmol–1 and 12.000 g mol–1. The molar mass
of 13C is ___________g/mol.
59. Correct statement(s) regarding f-block elements are
(I) LaI2, CeI2, GdI2 show metallic conductivity
(II) An3+ ions generally have more intense colour than Ln3+ ions.
(III) Ce3+ and Tb3+ show broad peak in UV region
(IV) Reducing power of Ln2+ follows the order, Eu2+ < Yb2+ < Sm2+ < Tm2+
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV (c) I, II, IV (d) II, III, IV
60. Trimeric phosphozenes are usually planer but can be forced out of this geometry. In contrast benzene
derivatives are strictly planar. This is due to
(a) more diffuse nature of d-orbitals
(b) more diffuse nature of p-orbital
(c) strong p  p bonding in phosphazenes in non-planar structure
(d) weak p  d bonding in phosphazenes in planar structure.

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61. The major product (P) is
OR (i) (MeO)2P(O)CH2CO2Me, NaH
(P)
(ii) DIBAL
CHO
(iii) (+) – DET, Ti(OiPr)4
t-BuOOH, 3A sieves
(iv) HO–, PhS–
OR OR OR OR

OH OH OH SPh

(a) (b) (c) (d)


SPh HO HO HO

OH SPh SPh OH

62. The major product (P) is


(i) TsCl
HO (P)
(ii) K2CO3, MeOH
O
O
(iii)
CuLi
2

(a) O (b) O
O

CO2Me
(c) O
O (d)
OH

63. The major product (P) is


O
(i) AcO
OEt
(Ph3P)4Pd
(ii) NBS, H2O
(P)
(iii) Ph3P
(iv) K2CO3
O

O O

O
O
H
H O
(a) (b) O
(c) (d)
HO
O
O O
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64. The total number of stereoisomer possible for the given compound ________________
H3C  HO  HC  CH  CH  CH  OH  CH 3
65. The major product (P) is
O O
R NaN(SiMe3)2, THF, –78ºC
N O (P)
O
N
Ph
SO2Ph

O O O O
R R
N O N O

(a) O (b) OH

O O O O
R R
N O N O

(c) OH (d) NH
PhO2S

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Space for rough work

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CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 13-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-B

ANSWER KEY

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d)


5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c)
9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a)
17. (c) 18. (1) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (0)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d)
29. (d) 30. (3) 31. (5) 32. (b)
33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (60 to 60) 38. (c) 39. (–0.74 to –0.76) 40.(b)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (a)
45. (3) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (b)
49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (0.49 to 0.51)
53. (26 to 26) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (b)
57. (d) 58. (13 to 13) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (6)
65. (c)

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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed

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Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. In an examination, 35% of total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both find the
percentage of those who passed in both the subjects?
(a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 30% (d) 20%

2. If  x  6  11 , then the possible value of 2 x  x 2 will be


(a) 250 (b) –250 (c) 255 (d) –255
3. Find the missing number

916 436 ?

3 4 2 6 1 5
(a) 625 (b) 255 (c) 225 (d) 125
4. Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the word given below?
FAD :
(a) Apathetic (b) Expensive (c) Vogue (d) Benevolent
5. Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Cantankerous
(a) Freedom (b) meticulous (c) bad tempered (d) coercion
Q.6-Q. 10 carry TWO marks each.
6. If log 2 log3  log 2 x    1 then x is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 12 (c) 128 (d) 512
7. Find the odd one out
(a) Ring (b) Bangle (c) Tyre (d) Plate
8. The ratio of male to female students in a college for five years in the following line graph. If the number of female
students in 2008 and 2009 is equal. What is the ratio of male students in 2009 to male students in 2008?

3.5
3
3
2.5
2.5
2 1.5
2

1.5

1
1
0.5

2008 2009 2010 2011 2012

(a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 1

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9. A cube is coloured red on all of its faces. It is then cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. How many smaller
cubes have no face coloured?
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 10
10. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses the relation in the original pair:
Exercise: Strong
(a) Perform: Timid (b) Guard: Alert (c) Decide: Shrewd (d) Read: Knowledgeable
Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. The major product (P) is,
Me
O Cl2
(P)
N Me
H

Cl Cl
Me Cl Me
O O
(a) (b)
Cl N Me N Me
H H

Cl Me Me
O O
(c) (d)
N Me N CH2
H
Cl
Cl Cl
12. The major product (P) is

(i) Br2
(P)
(ii) EtO–, EtOH
O

CO2Et

(a) O (b) O (c) (d)


CO2Et
Br

13. The major product ‘P’ in the above synthetic transformation is:

BnO2CHN O
O Ph H2, 10% Product(100mg)
O P
MeOH(60mL) rt, 3h
N Ph
O H

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H2N O H2N O
O O Ph
(a) OH (b) O
N N Ph
O H O

O NH2 OH

(c) N (d) N
O O H
14. When nitrobenzene is treated with Br2 in presence of FeBr3, the major product formed in m-
bromonitrobenzene, statements which are related to obtain the m-isomer is/are
(I) The electron density on meta carbon is more than that on ortho and para positions
(II) The intermediate carbonium ion formed after initial attack of Br+ at the meta position is less destabilised.
(III) Loss of aromaticity when Br+ attacks at the ortho and para position and not at meta positions.
(IV) Easier loss of H+ to regain aromaticity from meta position than from ortho and para positions.
The correct option is
(a) I, IV (b) III, IV (c) II, III (d) I, II
15. Total number of possible alkene formed ____________
O
O
TiCl3
+ C Zn/Cu
H3C C2H5 Ph Ph

3 3
16. The difference in CFSE of  Fe  H 2O 6  and  Fe  CN 6  is ______________ 0

17. Correct order of rates of exchange of coordinated and solvent H2O is


2 2 2 2
(a)  Os  H 2O 6    Ru  H 2O 6    Fe  H 2O 6    Zn  H 2O 6 

2 2 2 2
(b)  Fe  H 2O 6    Zn  H 2O 6    Ru  H 2O 6    Os  H 2O 6 

2 2 2 2
(c)  Zn  H 2O 6    Fe  H 2O 6    Ru  H 2O 6    Os  H 2O 6 

2 2 2 2
(d)  Fe  H 2O 6    Zn  H 2O 6    Os  H 2O 6    Ru  H 2O 6 

18. Match the complexes with correct IR stretching frequency of   CO  cm –1

Complexes ν  CO  cm –1

(I)  dien  Mn  CO 3  (A) 2090

(II)  Mn  CO 6  (B) 1960

(III)  en  Mn  CO 4  (C) 2000

(IV)  MeH 2 N  Mn  CO 5  (D) 2043
(a) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C (b) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (d) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
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19. Number of sp3 hybridized boron atom present in borax is/are ________________
20. The shape of [ClF4]– and [ClF2]– ions is respectively.
(a) see-saw and linear (b) see-saw and bent
(c) tetrahedral and linear (d) square planar and linear
21. Choose the correct order of ionic radius from given option
(a) Ce3  Pr 3  Dy3  Eu 3 (b) Pr3  Dy3  Eu 3  Ce3
(c) Dy3  Eu 3  Ce3  Pr3 (d) Ce3  Pr 3  Eu 3  Dy3
22. The major product formed in the following reaction is
NaH
(P)
CHO PPh3Br
N
H

(a) (b)
N N
H H

(c) (d)
N N

23. In the following reactions sequence

CH3
(i) NBS/(PhCO)2O
(ii) Mg/Et2O
(X)
(iii) HCHO
S
The product (X) is
CH3 OH OH CH3

(a) (b) (c) (d) OH


Br Br
S S S S
24. The most stable conformation in the following:
H H

O O
H t-Bu H3C
O
(a) (b) O
CH3 t-Bu

CH3 CH3

O O
H H
(c) O (d) O

t-Bu t-Bu

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25. In the following reaction, the structure of major product and characteristic IR absorption frequency (cm–1)
are respectively.
O
hv
Product
MeOH
N2

CO2H C

(a) , 1715 cm–1 (b) , 2160 cm–1

CO2Me

(c) (d) , 1650 cm–1


, 1735 cm–1

26. The number of compound behave as acid in liquid HF is/are ________


ClF3 , BF3 , SbF5 , SiF4

27. For the following two reactions A and B, the correct statement is
Ph CH3

H CH3 NaOEt Ph H NaOEt


(A) (B)
TsO H EtOH TsO H EtOH

CH3 CH3

Ph H Ph CH3
(a) A gives , B gives
H3C CH3 H3C H
Ph CH3 Ph H
(b) A gives , B gives
H3C H H3C CH3

Ph CH3
(c) Both A and B
H3C H
Ph H
(d) Both A and B
H3C CH3

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28. The packing fraction of is

(a) 19.82 (b) 26.28 (c) 34.25 (d) 58.87


29. The unit of Michaelis menton constant in enzyme catalyses
k1 k

E  S   ES 
3
 E  P is
k 2
(a) sec–1 (b) ltr mole–1 s–1 (c) mole litr–1 s–1 (d) none of these
30. The Hermitian operator is/are

(I) A  A † 
(II) i A  A


(a) Only I (b) only II (c) both I and II (d) neither I nor II
3/2
 Z    Zr/2a 0 Zr  Zr/2a0 
31. The orbital represented by R n  2   e  e  is
 2a 0   2a 0 
(a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 2p (d) 3p

32. The point group of is


X
(a) C 2h (b) C2V (c) D2h (d) D2d

33. The emf of the cell, Ag | AgCl  s  | KCl  aq  | Hg 2Cl2  s  | Hg is 0.0455V at 298K and the temperature
coefficient is 3.38  104 VK 1 . The enthalpy  H  at 298K is _____________ kJ mol–1.
34. An aqueous solution of urea had freezing point of –0.52ºC. What is osmotic pressure of the same solution
at 37ºC. Assume that molar concentration and molality are numerically equal  K f  1.86 
(a) 7.1 atm (b) 34.1 atm (c) 27.1 atm (d) 5.2 atm
35. What is the maximum work done when pressure on 10g of hydrogen is reduced from 20 atm to 1 atm at
constant temperature of 273 K.
(a) –81.80 kcal (b) 81.80 kcal (c) 8180 kcal (d) –8180 kcal
Q.36-Q.65 carry TWO marks each.
36. Predict the order of reactivity of the following in oxidative addition reaction of HCl
A  IrCl  CO   PPh 3 2 ; B  IrCl  CO   PMe3  2

C  IrMe  CO   PMe3  2 ; D  IrPh  CO   PMe3 2


(a) B > C > A > D (b) C > B > D > A (c) C > D > B > A (d) D > A > B > C

37. The reaction of CrCl3 with liq. NH3 to give yellow  Cr  NH 3 6  Cl3 often has low yield, since the reaction

tends to stop with production of pink  Cr  NH 3 5 Cl  Cl2 . On addition of a small piece of Na metal to liq.

NH3 yield of  Cr  NH 3 6  Cl3


(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remain constant (d) can not predicted
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CO 2
38. Cp 2 Zr  Ph 2   Product

O
O O
+ O O
C
Cp2Zr
(a) Cp2Zr O (b) Cp2Zr (c) Cp2Zr (d)
Ph CO
39. When graphite is treated with alkali metal which of the following change(s) occur
(1) electrical conductivity of graphite increase
(2) distance between layer of graphite increases
(3) conductivity of graphite decreases with increase in temperature
(4) paramagnetic character in graphite increases
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 3
CO2H O
(i) HNO3 (iv) , Et2NH
40. (A) (B)
(ii) Base, nPrCl (v) H2/Pd/C
HO (iii) SOCl2

The major product (A) and (B) formed respectively are

COCl NEt2
O
(a) A = , B=
O NO2 O NH2

O2N COCl H2N NEt2


O
(b) A = , B=
O O
O

COCl OH
N
(c) A = , B= Et
O NO2 O NH2

O2N COCl H2N NH2


O
(d) A = , B=
O O

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41. Select the incorrect option with appropriate R/S configuration
Compound Configuration

HOOC Br
C C C
(a) ‘S’
H NO2

SO3H H

(b) ‘S’

H HO3S

O O
(c) ‘R’

Br
O
(d) * ‘S’

42. Incorrect possible synthesis of the products with appropriate reaction

+ (i) Cu(I) X O
CO2Et
(a) MgBr (ii) LiAlH4

OH
(b) + MgBr
O OR 2

OH

O BrMg
+
(c)

O
(i) m-CPBA
O
(d)
(ii) CH2(CO2Et)2, OEt
(iii) H+
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43. Sum of the pI value of the following salt of Glu and Lys as shown below
HO
pKa = 4.5 pKa = 2.2 H3N pKa = 2.1
O
OH OH
pKa = 10.5
H3N H3N
O
O
pKa = 9.0 pKa = 8.5

44. The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that are possible on mono-chlorination of the
following compound, is CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3
45. The major product formed in the following reaction is
O
NHTs n-BuMgBr
O N Et2O
P
O

Bu Bu
NHTs NHTs
N N
(a) O (b) O
O OH O OH

OH OH

O Bu Bu
(c) (d) O
O O

46. The major product and the reaction involved is

hv
(P)

O Ph

O O

Ph Ph
(a) P = and N.T(I) (b) P = and N.T(II)
O

Ph
(c) P = and N.T(II) (d) P = and N.T(I)
Ph
OsO4
P
47. K3Fe(CN)6, K2CO3
Ph
(DHQD)2PHAL

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The major product P is
HO Ph HO Ph HO Ph Ph Ph

(a) (b) (c) (d)


Ph OH Ph OH Ph OH HO OH

CH3
O 300ºC C3H9PCPh2
48. A B
CH3

Compound A and B are


O OH

(a) H3C , H3C (b) H3C O CH3 H3C O CH3


Ph ,
Ph Ph
O OH Ph Ph
O C
(c) H3C , H3C (d) H C , H3C
Ph 3

CCl4  cold 
49. S4 N 4  AgF2  X
(a) X = NSF (b) X = NSF3 (c) X = S4N4F4 (d) X = NSF3
4
50. The complex formation ability of alkali metal with  P2O7  follow order
    
(a) Cs   Rb   K   Na   Li  (b) Li  Na  K  Rb  Cs
    
(c) K  Na  Li  Cs  Rb (d) Na   Li   K   Rb   Cs
51. Which among the following statement is correct for F3C–CF2–CF3?
(a) all C–F bond length are identicle
(b) two C–F bond attached to middle carbon atom are longer as compared to other C–F bond at terminal
carbon
(c) Two C–F bond attached to middle carbon atom are shorter as compared to other C–F bond at terminal
carbon
(d) none of these
52. Match the Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(P) Feritin (I) Electron transport
(Q) Vitamin B12 (II) Ionophore
(R) Cytochromes (III) Oxygen transport
(S) Valinomycin (IV) Nitrogen fixation
(V) Organometallic enzyme
(VI) Ioron storage
(a) P-VI, Q-IV, R-II, S-V (b) P-I, Q-III, R-VI, S-IV
(c) P-III, Q-V, R-IV, S-VI (d) P-VI, Q-V, R-I, S-II

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H H

m-CPBA KMnO4
53. (B) C C (A)
OH–

HOOC COOH
Relation between the major product (A) and (B)
(a) enantiomers (b) diastereomers (c) homomers (d) constitutional isomers

54. The number of atoms per unit cell of diamond cubic crystal are _____________
55. The atomic masses of Fluorine and hydrogen are 19.0 a.m.u. and 1.0 a.m.u. respectively. The bond
length of HF is 4Å. The moment of inertia of HF is ______________10–47 kg mtr2 .
56. Given that the mean average speed of oxygen is 200 m/s. The most probable speed of oxygen under the
same condition is _____________m/s.
57. The spherical harmonics regarding H-atom, P3  x  is given by
1 1
(a) x
2
3x2  1
(b) (c)
2

5 x 2  3x   (d) 0

58. The angular momentum operator Lˆ is given by x

    
(a) i   sin   cot  cos   (b) i
    
       
(c) i sin   cot  cos   (d) i sin   cot  sin  
       
59. The uncertainty in the NMR frequency of a compound in liquid state (relaxation time = 2s) is 0.002 Hz. The
uncertainty in the frequency (in Hz) of a same compound in solid state (relaxation time = 10–6 s) is
_____________________
1
60. The efficiency of the carnot engine is . On decreasing the temperature of the sink by 65K, the efficiency
6
increases to 1/3. The temperature of source is ________________K.
61. The sum of 1H NMR and 13C NMR signals in the following compound is __________

H
H
62. An organic compound (molecular formula C8H7Br) yields a primary alcohol on hydroboration and gives the
following spectral data :
UV : max 282   max 450 

cm1  3033  w  , 1646  m  , 1602  m  , 1582  w  , 870  s  , 770  s  , 710  m 


IR : max
b  c a
1
HNMR :  5.14  dd  5.70  dd  6.70  dd  7.26  7.38
Integration 1 : 1 : 1 : 4

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H H
C CH2 C CHBr
(a) (b)
Br
H H
H H
C C
C C
H
(c) (d)
H
Br
Br

63. The enthalpy of vaporisation of a liquid is 30 kJmol–1 and entropy of varpourisation is 75J mol–1k–1. The boiling
point of the liqud at 1 atm is ____________ K

64. In Langmuir adsorption of a gas onto a solid surface the value of slope and intercept was found to be 0.45 cm 3
and 5×103 Torr cm–3. The value of distribution coefficient will be ______________
65. Given that
E 0Fe3 |Fe  0.04 V; E Fe
0
2
|Fe
 0.44 V

The Gibb’s free energy for the transformation from Fe3 to Fe 2  is :


(a) –38.6 kJ (b) – 73.34 kJ (c) 38.6 kJ (d) 73.34 kJ

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Space for rough work

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CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 18-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-C

ANSWER KEY

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a)


5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a)
9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (1) 14. (d) 15. (4) 16. (2)
17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (2) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (2) 27. (d) 28. (d)
29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (b)
33. (10.60 to 10.70) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (12.80 to 12.90) 44. (8)
45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (d)
53. (b) 54. (8) 55. (25 to 26) 56. (175 to 178)
57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (4000) 60. (390)
61. (5) 62. (c) 63. (400) 64. (90)
65. (d)

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2. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific
GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions.
Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35
are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.
3. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer type.
4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only ONE is the correct
answer.
5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices.
6. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type
questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in
deduction of ⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
7. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICALANSWER TYPE.
8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed

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Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.
1. The digit in the unit position of the integer
1  2  3  ..................  99 is __________________
x4 2
2. If 2
 2 , then
x  6 x  6
(a) x  2 (b) x  2 (c) x  6 (d) x  6
3. In a flag, there are 50 paise coins, 25 paise coins and rupee coins, proportional to the numbers 3, 4 and
1
2 . If the amount to Rs, 210, then number of rupee coins is
2
(a) 42 (b) 105 (c) 83 (d) 157
4. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
Privacy is _________ by laws relating to defamation, under the Indian Penal Code.
(a) secluded (b) derived (c) protected (d) confined
5. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best
expresses the relation in the original pair:
After : Before ::
(a) First: Second (b) Present : Past
(c) Contemporary : Historic (d) Successor : Predecessor

Q.6-Q. 10 carry TWO marks each.


6. The graph shows the production of rice in 6 states in 2015, 2016 and 2017.
What is the ratio of minimum production and maximum production in any of the given states in any of the given
years?

70

60

50

40

30

20

10

A B C D E F
STATE 
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 4
7. If ‘FRIEND’ is coded as ‘HUMJTK’, how is ‘CANDLE’ written in that code?
(a) EDRIRL (b) DCQHQV (c) ESJFME (d) FYOBOC

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8. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best
expresses the relation in the original pair:
Stutter : Speech ::
(a) Blare : Hearing (b) Aroma : Smell
(c) Novacain: Touch (d) Astigmatism : Sight
9. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
The age of satellite communication _________ in 1962 with the launching of Early Bird, the first Communication
Satellite.
(a) dawned (b) negated (c) ended (d) estimated
10. Consider the statement
“Every house in every locality has atleast one member serving in either, Indian army or Indian airforce”
Negation of this statement is
(a) There is a house in every locality that has no member serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(b) There is a house in a locality that has all the members serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(c) There is a house in a locality that has no member serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
(d) Every house in a locality has all the members serving in either Indian army or Indian airforce.
Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.
11. The escaping tendency of electron can be enhanced by
(a) applying positive potential (b) applying negative potential
(c) both potential will have same effect (d) By removing the potential
12. The correct statement about the following engine is

Source (T)1

w
system

sink(T)2

(a) above cycle represents carnot engine


(b) above cycle is non-spontaneous, as it represents refrigerator
(c) above cycle is non-spontaneous, as it violates II law of thermodynamics
(d) cycle is spontaneous
13. What would happen to solid carbondioxide when placed in microwave oven
(a) Solid CO2 will direct convert to gas (sublimation)
(b) Solid CO2 will first convert into liquid, liquid would turn into gas
(c) CO2 will dissociate.
(d) Nothing will happen.
14. The major product (P) is

(i) HNO3/H2SO4
(P)

MeO N NH2
NO2

(a) (b)
MeO N NH2 MeO N NH2
H
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NO2
O2N

(c) (d)
MeO N NH2
MeO N NH2

15. Which among the following compounds can not undergo the Diels-Alder reaction ______________

(I) (II) (III) (IV)


N N

Ts Me

(V) (VI)

16. Products ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the following reaction are, respectively
O
H

Na LiAlH4
X Y
EtOH

OH
OH
H OH H OH
H H

(a) X is and Y is (b) X is and Y is

H
H
H H
OH OH
H H

(c) Both X and Y is (d) Both X and Y is

H H
17. The major product formed in the following reaction is
OTf
SnBu3
Me3Si
Product (P)
(Ph3P)4Pd, CO

O O

(a) (b)

SnBu3 Bu3Sn

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O O

(c) (d)
Me3Si SiMe3

18. HOMO and LUMO in N2 if the molecules axis is y?


(a)  2 pz and  2* p y (b)  2 p z and  2* pz
(c)  2 p y and  2* p x (d)  2 px and  2* p y
19. For trigonal prismatic geometry, highest energy d-orbital is
(a) d 2z
(b) d xy (c) d 2 2 x y (d) d xz
SMe
Ph Zn(BH4)2
20. (X)
O
The major product (X) in the above reaction is
SMe SMe SH SMe
Ph Ph Ph Ph
(a) (b) (c) (d)
OH OH OH OH
21. Among the rate of hydrolysis of following alkyl halide in decreasing order

(I) CBr (II) CHBr (III) CH2Br (IV) PhCH2Br


3 2
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) II > I > III > IV (c) IV > III > II > I (d) III > II > IV > I

22. If  n , , m are eigen functions of Lˆ2x  Lˆ2y . The eigen value is

(a)     1  2  m2  2 (b)     1  2  m 2  2

(c)     1  2  m (d) none


23. A polymer sample has the following composition
Number of molecule Molar mass
10 1000
50 2000
40 4000
The number average molar mass is _____________________
P
24. The unit of the slope for vs P plot for Langmuir equation is
V
(a) cm3 (b) cm–3 (c) Pa cm–3 (d) Pa–1

25. The mass of meta stable ion produced due to decomposition of X+ in the following mass fragmentation
sequence is _______________________________

Y  X  
  X 1  N 2
 M  , 380 230

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SiMe2Ph
TsOH C4H9 KH
26. (Q) C5H11 (P)
OH
Me
The major product (P) and (Q) in the above synthetic transformation is
C4H9
(a) P = Q = C5H11
Me
Me
(b) P = Q = C5H11
C4H9
C4H9 Me
(c) P = C5H11 Q = C5H11
Me C4H9
Me C4H9
(d) P = C5H11 Q = C5H11
C4H9 Me

Me3N H H NMe3
NaOEt NaOMe
Ph (P) Ph (Q)
27. Ph  Ph 
Me Me
H H
The major product (P) and (Q) in the above reaction is
Ph Ph
Ph P=Q=
(a) P = Q = (b)
Ph Me
Me
Ph
(c) P = Ph Q= Ph Ph (d) P = Ph Ph Q=
Me Ph
Me Ph Me Me

H
28. TBDMSO
PdCl2
O (P)
O2, CuCl
DMF, H2O
H
CN

The major product (P) in the above synthetic transformation is

H O

O
H H
(a) TBDMSO (b) TBDMSO
O O

H H
CN CN

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O O
H H
(c) TBDMSO (d) TBDMSO
O O

O
H H
CN CH2NH2

31
29. The solution P NMR spectrum of a mixture of isomers of the square planar complex
 Pt  SCN 2  Ph 2 PCH 2PPh 2   shows two singlet and two doublet at 228K. The number of possible isomer

for  Pt  SCN 2  Ph 2 PCH 2PPh 2   complex is


(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
2
30. Identify the classification and structure of  MeC3 B6 H 5 
(a) closo and dodecahedron (b) Nido and trigonal prismatic
(c) closo and tricapped trigonal prism (d) Nido and tricapped trigonal prism
31. Select the incorrect statement among the following
(a) aqueous solution of Fe3+ is acidic (b) aqueous solution of Al2O3 is neutral
(c) aqueous solution of Ca2+ is basic (d) Al2O3 forms AlO2.2H2O in alkaline solution
32. At 300K, the Debye-Huckel screening length of 0.1M KCl and 0.1 M AlCl3 has the same value. The
dielectric constant of AlCl3 is ___________________times of KCl.

N N 2+
N N N
N 30º 30º
Fe (P) Fe (Q)
33. t1/2 15 days t1/2 ~ 10–3 sec
N Et N Et
Et Et

N
where, N Bipyridyl ligand

The major product (P) and (Q) in the above reaction is


(a) P = Q = C2H6 (b) P = Q = C4H10
(c) P = C2H6 and Q = C4H10 (d) P = C4H10 and Q = C2H6
CH NO
34.  CpFe  CO   PPh 3   Et   
3
* CO  
2 P

The major product (P) in the above reaction


O

(a) [CpFe(C–Et)(*CO)(PPh3)]  
(b)  CpFe  CO  * CO  Et    PPh 3

(c) [CpFe(*C–Et)(CO)(PPh3)] 
*

(d)  CpFe CO  PPh 3   Et    CO

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35. Identify the pair of compound which have same number of lone pair (on central atom) as well as shape
(A) HXeO 4 and SF4 (B) ICl2 and XeF2
2
(C) ClF3 and IF32 (D)  PtCl4  and Ni  CO  4
(a) A and C (b) B and D (c) A and B (d) A, B and C

Q.36-Q.65 carry TWO marks each.


36. Select the incorrect statement among the following
(a) RIESKE functions as electron transfer in plants and bacteria
(b) Oxaliplatin is used in chemotherapy.
(c) The metal ions responsible for functioning of nerve system are Na+ and K+.
(d) When transferrin binds iron in stomach, it is oxidized to Fe3+ by cerruloplasmin.

37.  2NH 3


For the reaction, N 2  3H 2 
The unit of kp is
(a) atm2 (b) atm–2 (c) dimensionless (d) atm
38. On performing a Joule-Thomson experiment. The change in temperature at T = 300K for ideal gas is
(a) heating (b) cooling
(c) no change in temperature (d) cannot be predicted
–1 –1
39. For a subtance, Cp(JK mol ) = 23.43 + 0.00628 T. The change in enthalpy if 3 mole of substance is raised
from 25ºC to 961ºC under 1 atm pressure is _________J.
40. A measurement of the vibrational energy levels of 12C 16O gives the relationship
2
 1  1
v  n   2170.21 n   cm 1  13.461 n   cm 1
 2  2
when n is vibrational quantum number. The depth of Morese potential for 12C 16O is
(a) 87471.42 joule (b) 1.738×10–21 joule (c) 9.134×10–21 joule (d) 9134.36 joule
41. The ratio of translational and rotational partition function for H2 molecule contained in 1 mm2 rectangular box
at 27ºC is ____________________×1012 (moment of inertial of H2 =1.28×10–46 kgm2, characteristic rota-
tional tempeature = 3K, !Hypothetical data is provided).
42. The graph shows correct variation of entropy with temperature and molar mass of structureless non-interacting
particle.

(a) (b)
M T M T

(c) (d)
M T M T
43. The major product product (P) is

(i) NaBH4/CeCl3
(P)
MeOH
O
(ii) (EtO)3–C–CH3/H+

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(a) (b)
OH

OEt
(c) O C(OEt)2 (d)
O
CH3
44. Among the following statements, the incorrect one is/are
(1) In Norrish-Type- II reactions   H transfer occurs, interamolecularly followed by the  -cleavage.
(2) In Barton-reaction there is the intramolecular   H transfer..
(3) In Hoffmann-Loffler Freytag reaction   H transfer occurs intramolecularly..
(4) In Norrish-Type II reaction Mac-Lafferty rearrangement occurs.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) all of the above
45. Which among the following compounds decolourizes the reddish-brown colour of bromine water solution
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose (3) Fructose
(4) Cellobiose (5) Xylose
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3
46. In the following reaction sequence, products A and B are, respectively
CN
(iii) LiAlH4 (2.2 equiv)
CO2Et
(i) Boc2O, CHCl3 THF, –05ºC
[A] [B]
(ii) NaOEt, EtOH (iv) Boc2O, Dioxane
N
H
O HO
CO2Et
N Boc , N Boc
CH2 , EtO2C Boc
(a) N N (b)
H
Boc Boc N Boc
NC

O CN HO NHBoc NC
BocHN

, ,
(c) (d) O N
N N N

Boc Boc Boc Boc


47. Correct pair of Lanthanoid showing absorption in UV and IR region respectively
(I) Gd, Eu (II) Ce, Yb (III) La, Lu (IV) Sm, Eu
(a) I, II (b) II, IV (c) II only (d) I, II, IV
48. Consider the correct statement(s) from following
(I) The NCS– ion is a good colorimetric reagent for Fe(III)
(II) Complexes in which two metal of different oxidation state are close together are fequently highly coloured.
(III) Many complexes exhibiting charge transfer bands in the visible region are unstable in sunlight
(IV) Dynamic Jahn-Teller distortion is favoured when t2g/t2 orbitals are electronically non-degenerate.
The correct option is
(a) II, IV (b) IV only (c) I, II, III (d) I, II, IV

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49. Consider the following electron transfer reactions
II III
O Cr(H2O)5 O Cr(NH3)5
III II
(1) (H3N)5Rh N (H3N)5Rh N

NH2 NH2

II III
O Cr(H2O)5 O Cr(H2 O)5
III II
(2) (H3N)5Ru N (H3N)5Ru N

NH2 NH2
Correct statement about above reaction is
(a) rate of I is faster than II (b) rate of II is faster than I
(c) both I and II occurs at same rate (d) can not be predicted
50. In the given reaction,

H+/EtOH
H2C O (P)
O
The product (P) has the following spectral informations, 13C NMR   , ppm  : 203, 170, 62, 39, 22, 15 .
The structure of compound (P) is
O O O O
(a) (b)
O OEt
O
O O
O Et
(c) (d) O
H
O
51. The decreasing order of chemical shift values for proton (A–C) in the following compounds is
NO2 NMe2 OSiMe3

HA HB HC
(a) HA > HB > HC (b) HC > HA > HB (c) HA > HC > HB (d) HC > HB > HA
52. Major product formed in the reaction given below is

H3O+

O O
H H
HOOC HOOC
O
O O OH OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O
H H

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Li
53. P

The product ‘P’ is:


(a) Non-aromatic (b) Aromatic (c) Antiaromatic (d) Homoaromatic
OMe
Li, NH3 O3, MeOH
54. (P) (Q)
EtOH Me2S, –75ºC
H3C then NaBH4
The major product (Q) in the above synthetic transformation is
MeO2C

CO2Me
(a) (b)
Me OH
Me OH

CO2Me
OH

(c) (d)
Me OH
Me OH
55. Stereotopological relation between Ha and Hb in given molecules respectively.
Ha Ha
Ha

Hb Hb Hb

Y Z
X
(a) Enantiotopic, Diastereotopic and identical (b) Identical, Enantiotopic and Diastereotopic
(c) Enantiotopic, Identical and Diastereotopic (d) Diastereotopic , enantiotopic and identical
56. The maximum adsorptive power is of
(a) Silica gel (b) Al2O3 (c) MgO (d) CaCO3.
57. The first excited state wave function for a 1-D SHO is
 

(a) x (b) x (c) x (d) None

2
58. The average value of r is orbital is

3 2 1 2
(a) a0 (b) 3a02 (c) a0 (d) none
2 3
59. The atoms are present in an end centred unit cell is _____________
60. A second order reaction is 50% completed in 5 mins, the time required for 75% completion of this reaction
is __________________________(in mins)
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12
61. The t½ of cobalt-60 is 5.26 years. Percentage activity after 4 years will be
(a) 70% (b) 40% (c) 59% (d) 50%
62. A radical contains 31P (I = ½) with hyperfine constant 1.40 mT and three equivalent protons (I = ½) with
hyperfine constant 0.70 mT. The ESR spectrum and intensity ratio will exihibit
(a) 7, 1 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 (b) 6, 1 : 3 : 4 : 4 : 3 : 1
(c) 8, 1 : 3 : 1 : 1 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 6, 1 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1

63. Predict the products A and B in the following reactions


CO2Et
(i) Na, Me3SiCl
Product (A)
(ii) H3O+
CO2Et

CO2Et
Na, Me3SiCl
Product (B)
CO2Et

H H
O O

(a) A = B=
OH OH
H H

H
O OSiMe3
(b) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H

H H
O OSiMe3

(c) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H H

H
O OSiMe3

(d) A = B=
OH OSiMe3
H

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64. The products A and B in the following reaction sequence are
O

Ph O

OH
NaH, CS2 Bu3SnH, AlBN
(A) (B)
then MeI PhMe, 110ºC

OSiMe2t-Bu
OMe
OMe
OH
OH
B=
(a) A = ,
O
O
OH
OSiMe2t-Bu

OH
Ph O
OMe
OMe
B=
(b) A = ,
O
O
OSiMe2t-Bu
OSiMe2t-Bu

OH
OMe
OH
OH
B=
(c) A = ,
O
O
OH
OSiMe2t-Bu

O O

Ph O Ph O

O SMe

(d) A = , B=
S
O O

OSiMe2t-Bu OSiMe2t-Bu

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65. The compound 5CpCo  CO 2  A  upon UV iiadiation, resulted in the evolution of a gas an formation of a
new compound (B). While the IR of A showed absorption around 1988 cm–1, the spectrum as (B) showed
absorptions only 1798 cm–1. Compound (A) and (B) obey the 18 electron rule and both have Cp ring in
5 mode. Then which of the following statement is not consistent with above result.
(a) The bond order of compound (A) and (B) is 2
(b) The compound (B) have ‘CO’ at µ2-bridging position.
(c) The bond order of compound (B) is 2
(d) All Co’s of compounds (A) are terminal.

***** END OF THE QUESTION PAPER *****

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North Delhi : 33-35, Mall Road, G.T.B. Nagar (Opp. Metro Gate No. 3), Delhi-09, Ph: 011-65462244, 65662255
15
Space for rough work

South Delhi : 28-A/11, Jia Sarai, Near-IIT Hauz Khas, New Delhi-16, Ph : 011-26851008, 26861009
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16

CHEMISTRY - CY
Date: 23-01-2018
GATE TEST SERIES-D

ANSWER KEY

1. (3) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c)


5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d)
9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (4) 16. (b)
17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (2700 to 2700)24. (b)
25. (201 to 204) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a)
29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (6 to 6)
33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (79298 to 79300) 40. (b)
41. (4 to 4) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a)
45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (a)
53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b)
57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (2 to 2) 60. (15 to 15)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d)
65. (a)

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