Biology Exercise Term 1

C h apter
ontents
Class–XII
Syllabus I
Syllabus (Term-I) III
1. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 1-16
2. Human Reproduction 17-30
3. Reproductive Health 31-42
4. Principles of Inheritance and Variation 43-60
5. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 61-76
6. Sample Paper 77-89
7. Sample Paper Solution 90–92
8. Model Paper–1 93-97
9. Model Paper–1 Solution 98–100
10. Model Paper–2 101-109
11. Model Paper–2 Solution 110–112
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 I
BIOLOGY (Code No. 044)

COURSE STRUCTURE
CLASS XII (2021 - 22)
EVALUATION SCHEME
THEORY
Units Term – I Marks
VI Reproduction 15
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
Units Term – II Marks
VIII Biology and Human Welfare 14
IX Biotechnology and its Applications 11
X Ecology and Environment 10
Total Theory (Term – I and Term – II) 70
Practicals Term – I 15
Practicals Term – II 15
Total 100
THEORY
TERM – I
UNIT-VI REPRODUCTION
Chapter-1: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Flower structure; development of male and female gametophytes; pollination - types, agencies and
examples; outbreeding devices; pollen-pistil interaction; double fertilization; post fertilization events -
development of endosperm and embryo, development of seed and formation of fruit; special modes-
apomixis, parthenocarpy, polyembryony; Significance of seed dispersal and fruit formation.
Chapter-2: Human Reproduction
Male and female reproductive systems; microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; gametogenesis -
spermatogenesis and oogenesis; menstrual cycle; fertilisation, embryo development upto blastocyst
formation, implantation; pregnancy and placenta formation (elementary idea); parturition (elementary
idea); lactation (elementary idea).
Chapter-3: Reproductive Health
Need for reproductive health and prevention of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs); birth control -
need and methods, contraception and medical termination of pregnancy (MTP); amniocentesis;
infertility and assisted reproductive technologies - IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (elementary idea for general
awareness).
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II 
UNIT-VII GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

Chapter-4: Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Heredity and variation: Mendelian inheritance; deviations from Mendelism – incomplete dominance,
co-dominance, multiple alleles and inheritance of blood groups, pleiotropy; elementary idea of
polygenic inheritance; chromosome theory of inheritance; chromosomes and genes; Sex determination
- in human being, birds and honey bee; linkage and crossing over; sex linked inheritance - haemophilia,
colour blindness; Mendelian disorders in humans -thalassemia; chromosomal disorders in humans;
Down's syndrome, Turner's and Klinefelter's syndromes.
Chapter-5: Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA and RNA; DNA
packaging; DNA replication; Central Dogma; transcription, genetic code, translation; gene expression
and regulation - lac operon; Genome, Human and rice genome projects; DNA fingerprinting.
TERM – II
UNIT-VIII BIOLOGY AND HUMAN WELFARE

Chapter-6: Human Health and Diseases
Pathogens; parasites causing human diseases (malaria, dengue, chikungunya, filariasis, ascariasis,
typhoid, pneumonia, common cold, amoebiasis, ring worm) and their control; Basic concepts of
immunology - vaccines; cancer, HIV and AIDS; Adolescence - drug and alcohol abuse.
Chapter-7: Microbes in Human Welfare

Microbes in food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment, energy generation and microbes
as bio-control agents and bio-fertilizers. Antibiotics; production and judicious use.
UNIT-IX BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Chapter-8: Biotechnology - Principles and Processes

Genetic Engineering (Recombinant DNA Technology).
Chapter-9: Biotechnology and its Application

Application of biotechnology in health and agriculture: Human insulin and vaccine production, stem
cell technology, gene therapy; genetically modified organisms - Bt crops; transgenic animals; biosafety
issues, biopiracy and patents.
UNIT-X ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

Chapter-10: Organisms and Populations
Organisms and environment: Habitat and niche, population and ecological adaptations; population
interactions - mutualism, competition, predation, parasitism; population attributes - growth, birth rate
and death rate, age distribution.
Chapter-11: Biodiversity and its Conservation
Biodiversity - Concept, patterns, importance; loss of biodiversity; biodiversity conservation; hotspots,
endangered organisms, extinction, Red Data Book, Sacred Groves, biosphere reserves, national parks,
wildlife, sanctuaries and Ramsar sites.
E
 III
BIOLOGY Code No. 044)

COURSE STRUCTURE
CLASS XII (2021 - 22)
EVALUATION SCHEME
THEORY
Units Term – I Marks
VI Reproduction 15
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
THEORY
TERM – I
UNIT-VI REPRODUCTION
Chapter-1: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Flower structure; development of male and female gametophytes; pollination - types, agencies and
examples; outbreeding devices; pollen-pistil interaction; double fertilization; post fertilization
events - development of endosperm and embryo, development of seed and formation of fruit; special
modes- apomixis, parthenocarpy, polyembryony; Significance of seed dispersal and fruit formation.
Chapter-2: Human Reproduction
Male and female reproductive systems; microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; gametogenesis
- spermatogenesis and oogenesis; menstrual cycle; fertilisation, embryo development upto blastocyst
formation, implantation; pregnancy and placenta formation (elementary idea); parturition (elementary
idea); lactation (elementary idea).
Chapter-3: Reproductive Health
Need for reproductive health and prevention of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs); birth
control - need and methods, contraception and medical termination of pregnancy (MTP);
amniocentesis; infertility and assisted reproductive technologies - IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (elementary idea
for general awareness).
UNIT-VII GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

Chapter-4: Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Heredity and variation: Mendelian inheritance; deviations from Mendelism – incomplete dominance,
co-dominance, multiple alleles and inheritance of blood groups, pleiotropy; elementary idea of
polygenic inheritance; chromosome theory of inheritance; chromosomes and genes; Sex determination
- in human being, birds and honey bee; linkage and crossing over; sex linked inheritance - haemophilia,
colour blindness; Mendelian disorders in humans -thalassemia; chromosomal disorders in humans;
Down's syndrome, Turner's and Klinefelter's syndromes.
Chapter-5: Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA and RNA; DNA
packaging; DNA replication; Central Dogma; transcription, genetic code, translation; gene expression
and regulation - lac operon; Genome, Human and rice genome projects; DNA fingerprinting.
E
IV 
IMPORTANT NOTES
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 1
CHAPTER 1
Apocarpous:- There are two or more carpels in a gynoecium which are free from each other.
Autogamy:-When pollen grains of a flower are transferred from anther to stigma of the same flower.
Albuminous seeds:-Have residual endosperm
Allogamy:- Reaching of pollen grains to the stigma of different plant.
Apomixis :- Formation of new individuals through asexual reproduction without involving the
formation and fusion of gametes.
Bagging:-The emasculated flowers are covered with a suitable size of bags.
Chasmogamous Flowers:- Flowers with exposed anthers and stigma.
Cleistogamous Flowers :- Flowers which never open.
Coleorhiza :- A protective sheath of radicle in monocot seed.
Coleoptile:- A protective sheath of plumule in monocot speed.
Dormancy:-The embryo enter a state of inactivity.
Egg apparatus:-The three cells are grouped together at the micropyle end and constitute it.
Endosperm:-A group of cells which ploidy is triploid and provide nutrition to embryo.
Endothecium:- A fibrous layer is the anther next to epidermis.
Emasculation:-The removal of anther from immature bud during artificial hynridization.
Epicotyl:- The portion of embryonic axis between the plumule and cotyledon.
Exine:-The outer wall of pollen grain consist by sporopollenin.
False fruits:-The type of fruits develops rather than overy
Functional Megaspore:- The haploid cells which give rise to complete embryo sac after
successive mitosis division.
Funicle:-The small stalk like structure for attachment of ovule to placenta.
Geitonogamy:- Self pollination between flowers of the same plant.
Germpore:-The exine of pollen grain has prominent apertures where sporopollenin is absent.
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2 
Hypocotyl:- The region of embryonic axis between the radicle and the point of attachment of the
cotyledons.
Hilum:-The body of ovule fused with funicle in the region called as hilum.
Integuments:-The outer protective envelopes of ovule.
Intine:-The inner wall of pollen grain consist by pectin and cellulose.
Micropyle:- A small pore in the ovule where integuments are absent.
MMC:- Microspore mother cell/ Megaspore mother cell.
Monocarpellary Condition:- Gynoecium represented by single carpel.
Monosporic development:-Development of female gametophytes from a single functional
megaspore.
Multicarpellary:- Gynoecium represented by more than one carpel.
Non albuminous seeds:- Have no residual endosperm.
Nucellus :- Multicellular tissue in the centre of ovule where embryo sac is present.
Ovule:- The megasporangium where megaspore are developed.
Parthenocarpy:-Production of seedless fruits.
Perisperm:-The residual, persistent nucellus.
Pollination:-The transfer of pollen grains (shed from the anther) to the stigma of a pistil.
PEN-: Primary endospern nucleus.
PEC:- Primary endosperm cell.
Plumule:-The stem tip from where shoot will developed.
Polyembryony:- Presence of more than one embryo in a seed.
Radicle:- The root tip from where root will developed.
Scutellum:- Partially developed single cotyledon of monocot seed.
Syncarpous Condition:-Two or more carpels fused together to form a single compound ovary.
Tapetum:- The innermost wall layer of microsporangium it nourishes the developing pollen
grains.
Triple fusion:-The fusion of three haploid nuclei.
True fruits:- The fruits which developed from ovary.
Viability of Seed:- Ability of seed to retain the power of germination.
Xenogamy:- A method of pollination between plants of same species.
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 3
(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A typical angiosperm anther is _________ and _________.
(1) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate (2) Bilobed, monosporangiate
(3) Bilobed, bisporangiate (4) Tetralobed, monosporangiate
Ans. (1) Bilobed, Tetrasporangiate
2. The innermost wall layer of anther
(1) Is nutritive in function
(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(3) Is haploid and protective in function
(4) Forms microspores
Ans (1) Is nutritive in function
3. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell is called
(1) Megasporogenesis (2) Microsporogenesis
(3) Megagametogenesis (4) Microgametogenesis
Ans (2) Microsporogenesis
4. The pollen grain represents
(1) Male gamete (2) Male gametophyte
(3) Microsporophyll (4) Microsporangium
Ans (2) Male gametophyte
5. The most resistant organic material known which makes up the outermost layer of pollen wall is
(1) Pectin (2) Cellulose (3) Sporopollenin (4) Lignin
Ans (3) Sporopollenin
6. The ploidy level of nucellus and female gametophyte respectively is
(1) n, n (2) n, 2n (3) 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n
Ans (3) 2n,n
7. The number of nuclei in a mature embryo sac are
(1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Six (4) Four
Ans (1) Eight
8. The largest cell of the mature embryo sac is
(1) Antipodal cells (2) Synergids (3) Central cell (4) Egg cell
Ans (3) Central cell
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4 
9. The structures which guide the pollen tube into synergid is

(1) Antipodals (2) Germ pore (3) Aril (4) Filiform apparatus
Ans (4) Filiform apparatus
10. Geitonogamy is
(1) Genetically autogamous (2) Ecologically autogamous
(3) Genetically allogamous (4) Functionally autogamous
Ans (1) Genetically autogamous
11. Which of the following plant provides safe place to insect for laying eggs?
(1) Sage plant (2) Amorphophallus
(3) Ophrys (4) Mango
Ans (2) Amorphophallus
12. Production of seed without fertilization is called
(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Apomixis (4) Apogamy
Ans (3) Apomixis
13. Examples of water pollinated flowers are
(1) Zostera, Lotus, Water lily (2) Lotus, Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(3) Potamogeton, Vallisneria, Lotus (4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
Ans (4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
14. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the
(1) PEC (2) PEN (3) Endosperm (4) Embryo
Ans (1) PEC
15. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the function of the germ pore.
(1) It allows growth of pollen tube (2) It allows water absorption in seed
(3) It helps dehiscence of pollen grain (4) More than one option is correct
Ans (1) It allows growth of pollen tube
16. The thin and continuous wall layer of pollen is
(1) Exine (2) Intine (3) Germ pore (4) Endothecium
Ans (2) Intine
17. The two-celled stage of mature pollen grain consists of
(1) Vegetative cell, generative cell (2) Vegetative cell, one male gamete
(3) Two male gametes (4) Generative cell, one male gamete
Ans (1) Vegetative cell, generative cell
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 5
18. In 40% angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at

(1) Four-celled stage (2) Three-celled stage (3) Two-celled stage (4) Five-celled stage
Ans (2) Three-celled stage
19. Pollen allergy is caused by pollens of
(1) Rose (2) Clematis (3) Parthenium (4) Sunflower
Ans (3) Parthenium
20. The pollen viability period of rice and pea respectively, is
(1) 30 minutes and several months (2) Several months and 30 minutes
(3) Few days and few months (4) Few days in both the cases
Ans (1) 30 minutes and several months
21. Integumented megasporangium is known as
(1) Ovule (2) Pollen sac (3) Pollen grain (4) Embryo sac
Ans (1) Ovule
22. The nutritive tissue present in the ovule is called
(1) Nucellus (2) Funicle (3) Embryo (4) Integuments
Ans (1) Nucellus
23. The number of embryo sac in an ovule is generally
(1) One (2) Many (3) Four (4) Three
Ans (1) One
24. The role of triple fusion in angiosperms is to produce
(1) Cotyledons (2) PEN (3) Endocarp (4) Seed
Ans (2) PEN
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of insect pollinated flowers?
(1) Fragrance (2) Nectaries
(3) Foul odour (4) Mucilaginous covering on pollen grains
Ans (4) Mucilaginous covering on pollen grains
26. Pollen robbers
(1) Consume pollen or nectar (2) Are effective in bringing about pollination
(3) Do not visit flowers for pollen (4) Take pollen from other insects
Ans (1) Consume pollen or nectar
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6 
27. Dioecious condition prevents

(1) Autogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Both (1) & (2)
Ans (4) Both (1) & (2)
28. The diploid and triploid product of double fertilization respectively are
(1) Zygote and primary endosperm nucleus (2) Endosperm and cotyledons
(3) Embryo and perisperm (4) Zygote and scutellum
Ans (1) Zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
29. Double endosperm is found in

(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Pea (4) Coconut
Ans (4) Coconut
30. Ex-albuminous seeds are of

(1) Wheat, pea, groundnut (2) Castor, pea, groundnut
(3) Pea, groundnut, beans (4) Wheat, castor, rice
Ans (3) Pea, groundnut, beans
31. The single cotyledon in monocots is
(1) Scutellum which is lateral in position (2) Aleurone layer which is terminal in position
(3) Scutellum which is centrally placed (4) Epiblast which is haploid and lateral in position
Ans (1) Scutellum which is lateral in position
32. The sheath enclosing plumule and radicle respectively in monocot seed are
(1) Coleoptile and coleorhiza (2) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
(3) Scutellum and epiblast (4) Aleurone layer and pericarp
Ans (1) Coleoptile and coleorhiza
33. Suitable environmental conditions for seed germination are
(1) Adequate moisture, light, anaerobic conditions
(2) Adequate moisture, low temperature, light
(3) Adequate moisture, suitable temperature and oxygen
(4) Light, water, absence of oxygen
Ans (3) Adequate moisture, suitable temperature and oxygen
34. Pericarp is dry in
(1) Guava, mango, mustard (2) Mango, groundnut, orange
(3) Groundnut, mustard (4) Orange, guava, mango
Ans (3) Groundnut, mustard
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 7
35. Mark the incorrect statement:-

(1) Outer three layers of anther wall are protective in function
(2) Sporogenous tissue, occupies the centre of each microsporangium
(3) Cells of tapetum and endothecium show increase in DNA contents by endomitosis and
polyteny
(4) Ploidy level of microspore tetrad is haploid
Ans (3) Cells of tapetum and endothecium show increase in DNA contents by endomitosis and
polyteny
36. Which of the following statement is applicable for all flowering plants?
(1) Monosiphonous pollen tube
(2) Non-motile and morphologically dissimilar gametes
(3) Presence of pollinium
(4) Division of generative cell after pollination
Ans (2) Non-motile and morphologically dissimilar gametes
37. Which is/are incorrect statement?
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is capable of giving rise to microspore tetrad.
II. The pollen grain represent male gametophyte.
III. Pollen grains are usually triangular and 10-15 m in diameter.
IV. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic material which can be destroyed only by
strong acids and alkali.
(1) I, II are incorrect statement (2) III, IV are incorrect statement
(3) I, III are incorrect statement (4) II, IV are incorrect statement
Ans (2) III, IV are incorrect
38. An angiospermic plant is having 24 chromosomes in its leaf cells. The number of chromosomes
present in synergid, pollen grain, nucellus & endosperm will be respectively
(1) 12, 12, 12, 72 (2) 8, 8, 12, 36 (3) 12, 12, 24, 36 (4) 12, 12, 12, 36
Ans (3) 12, 12, 24, 36
39. Pick out incorrect statement.
(1) Double fertilization is unique feature of angiosperms.
(2) Sequoia, a gymnosperm, is one of the tallest tree.
(3) Exine has apertures where sporopollenin is present.
(4) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin.
Ans (3) Exine has apertures where sporopollenin is present.
40. In majority of angiosperms
(1) Egg has a filiform apparatus
(2) There are numerous antipodal cells
(3) Reductional division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
(4) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac
Ans (3) Reductional division occurs in the megaspore mother cells
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8 
41. Which one is female gametophyte?

(1) Embryo (2) Embryosac (3) Endosperm (4) Pistil
Ans (2) Embryosac
42. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of
(1) Water (2) Insects or wind (3) Birds (4) Bats
Ans (2) Insects or wind
43. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to
(1) Megasporangium (2) Megasporophyll
(3) Megaspore mother cell (4) Megaspore
Ans (1) Megasporangium
44. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes.
(2) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.
(3) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin.
(4) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies.
Ans (2) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
45. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
(1) Thalamus or petal (2) Anther
(3) Connective (4) Placenta
Ans (1) Thalamus or petal
46. The coconut water from tender coconut represents
(1) Free nuclear endosperm (2) Endocarp
(3) Fleshy mesocarp (4) Free nuclear proembryo
Ans (1) Free nuclear endosperm
47. Mature male gametophyte in angiosperms have
(1) Three sperms (2) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(3) Single sperm and a vegetative cell (4) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
Ans (2) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
48. The phenomenon where in the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilization is called
(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Apomixis
(3) Asexual reproduction (4) Sexual reproduction
Ans (1) Parthenocarpy
49. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of :
(1) Synergids (2) Generative cell
(3) Nuclear embryo (4) Aleurone cell
Ans (1) Synergids
50. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large shield-shaped cotyledon known as:
(1) Coleoptile (2) Epiblast (3) Coleorrhiza (4) Scutellum
Ans (4) Scutellum
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 9
(B) ASSERTION & REASON QUESTIONS

 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion : Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the first male gametophytic cells.
Reason : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens.
Ans (4)
2. Assertion: Gynoecium consists of pistil.
Reason: It represents the male reproductive part in flowering plants.
Ans (3)
3. Assertion: Flowers are the structures related to sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
Reason: Various embryological processes of plants occur in a flower.
Ans (1)
4. Assertion: A typical microsporangium of angiosperms is generally surrounded by four wall
layers.
Reason: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscenc of
anther to release the pollen.
Ans (2)
5. Assertion: Exine of a pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin which are resistant to high
temperatures, strong acids or alkali as well as enzymatic degradation.
Reason: Sporopollenins are absent in the region of germ pores.
Ans (2)
6. Assertion: An angiospermous flower represents the modified condensed shoot which performs
the functions of sexual reproduction.
Reason: The fertile leaves of the shoot become modified into microsporophylls and
magasporophylls which bear ovules and anthers respectively.
Ans (3)
7. Assertion: In angiosperms, the male gametophyte is the pollen grain.
Reason: Pollen grain contains stigma, style and ovary.
Ans (3)
8. Assertion: Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of microspores from tetrad.
Reason: It shows callose activity.
Ans (1)
9. Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid gametes.
Reason: Megaspore mother cell is 2n, meiosis gives haploid structure.
Ans (1)
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10 
10. Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiotic division.

Reason: All four megaspores form female gametophyte.
Ans (3)
11. Assertion : Double fertilization is characteristic feature of angiospersms.
Reason : Double fertilization involves two times fusion of gametes.
Ans (2)
12. Assertion: Xenogamy is pollination between two flowers on different plants.
Reason: Pollination between two flowers on the same plant is autogamy.
Ans (3)
13. Assertion: Endosperm development precedes embryo development in angiosperms.
Reason: Double fertilization ensures that the nutritive tissue is formed only when the formation
of embryo has taken place so that the energy spent on the formation of endosperm does not get
wasted.
Ans (1)
14. Assertion: Some fruits are seedless or contain non-viable seeds.
Reason: They are produced without fertilisation.
Ans (1)
15. Assertion: The first step in artificial hybridisation is removal of anthers.
Reason: It prevents contamination of anthers.
Ans (3)
16. Assertion: Coconut water represents the cellular endosperm and the surrounding white kernel
represents the free-nuclear endosperm in Cocos nucifera.
Reason: PEN undergoes a number of free nuclear divisions all of which are subsequently
followed by wall formation.
Ans (4)
17. Assertion: Ex-albuminous seeds do not possess any residual endosperm, as it is completely
consumed during embryo development.
Reason: Wheat, castor, pea and groundnut all are the examples of ex-albuminous seeds.
Ans (3)
18. Assertion: Formation of nuclear endosperm occurs by subsequent nuclear division without wall
formation.
Reason: Coconut is an example of such endosperm, where the endosperm remains nuclear
throughout the development of the fruit.
Ans (3)
19. Assertion: Cellular endosperm is formed by both nuclear division and wall formation.
Reason: The ploidy of endosperm is 2n.
Ans (3)
20. Assertion: Mango is a true fruit.
Reason: The thalamus also contributes to formation of fruit in false fruits.
Ans (2)
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 11
(C) CASE BASED QUESTIONS
(1) Read the following and answer any four questions from 1 (i) to 1(v) given below:
The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower. The gynoecium may
consist of a single or more than one pistil. They may be fused or may be free. The placenta is
located inside the ovarian cavity. Megasporangium (ovule) consists of a small structure attached
to the placenta by a stalk called a funicle. The body of the ovules fuses with a funicle in the
region called hilum. The nucleus is located in the embryo sac. The process of formation of,
megaspore from the megaspore mother cell is called Megasporogenesis. Meiosis result in the
formation of four megaspore.
(i) Gynoecium with a single pistil is known as:

(1) Multicarpellary (2) Monocarpellary (3) Syncarpous (4) Apocarpous
(ii) Which of the following is not a part of the ovary?
(1) Stigma (2) Style (3) Ovule (4) Stamen
(iii) The protective covering of the ovule is called:
(1) Integument (2) Micropyle (3) Chalaza (4) Helium
(iv) Which of the following have only one ovule in the ovary?
(1) Papaya (2) Watermelon (3) Mango (4) Orchids
(v) Assertion: Flowers are the structures related to sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
Reason: Various embryological processes of plants occur in a flower.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Ans- (i) (2) Monocarpellary
(ii) (4) Stamen

(iii) (1) Integument
(iv) (3) Mango
(v) (1)
E
12 
2. Read the following and answer any four questions from 2(i) to 2(v) given below:
All flowering plants show sexual reproduction. In the flowering plants male reproductive part is
androecium while the female reproduction part is gynoecium. The male reproduction part
consists of filament and anther. The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus. A
typical angiosperm anther is bilobed. The anther is a four-sided structure consisting of 4
microsporangia appear near-circular in outline. It is surrounded by 4 layers. The microspores
dissociate from each other and develop in the pollen grain. pollen grain represents the male
gametophytes. pollen grain made up of two-layer.
(i) Each lobe in typical angiosperm anther have ____.

(1) two theca (2) three theca (3) four theca (4) one theca
(ii) The innermost layer of microsporangium:
(1) epidermis (2) tapetum (3) endothecium (4) middle layer
(iii) The center of the microsporangium is occupied by:
(1) epidermis (2) tapetum (3) sporogenous tissue (4) cytoplasm
(iv) The process of formation of microspores from pollen mother cell through meiosis is called
(1) microsporangia (2) microsporogenesis
(3) megasporangia (4) megasporogenesis
(v) Assertion- The epidermis, endothecium and middle layer collectively function the protection of
micropsporangium.
Reasons- Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both the statements are false.
Ans - (i) (1) two theca
(ii) (2) tapetum
(iii) (3) sporogenous tissue
(iv) (2) microsporogenesis
(v) (2)
E
 13
A typical angiospermic ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by means of a stalk
called funicle. The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum. Each ovule
has one or two protective envelopes called integuments. Integuments encircle the nucellus except
at the tip where a small opening called the micropyle is formed. Mature ovules are classified on
the basis of funiculus. It can be orthotropous, anatropous, hemitropous, campylotropous, etc.
(i) The body of the ovule consists of a mass of parenchymatous cells called
(1) Integuments (2) Nucellus (3) Hilum (4) Funiculus
(ii) The end, opposite to micropyle end is called
(1) Funicle (2) Chalaza (3) Germpore (4) Hilum
(iii) How many mitotic division takes place for complete development of embryo sac?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
(iv) Typical female gametophyte is
(1) 7-celled 8 nucleate (2) 6-celled 8 nucleate
(3) 4-celled 6 nucleate (4) 5-celled 6 nucleate
(v) Assertion: The micropyle covers by integument.
Reason: It helps a protective layer of ovule.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both the statements are false.
Ans- (i) (2) Nucellus
(ii) (2) Chalaza
(iii) (2) 3
(iv) (1) 7-celled 8 nucleate
(v) (4)
E
14 
4. Read the following and answer any four questions from 4 (i) to 4 (v) given below:-
In angiosperm, the seed is the final product of sexual reproduction. It is described as a fertilized
ovule. The seeds are formed inside the fruit. The seed consists of a seed coat, cotyledon, and the
embryo axis. A mature seed is usually non - albuminous or albuminous. Integument of ovules
harder as tough protective seed coat. Sometimes due to reduced water content, the general
metabolic activity of the seed slows down and the seed enters a state of inactivity. In the mature
plant, the fruit develops from the ovary they are called true fruit. The fruit is the result of
fertilization. There are a few species in which fruit develop without fertilization banana is such
an example.
(i) Which of the following have non-albuminous seed?

(1) Sunflower (2) Groundnut (3) Maize (4) Barley
(ii) The entry of oxygen and water in the seed during germination:
(1) Micropyle (2) Chalazal (3) Epicotyls (4) hypocotyl
(iii) The embryo enters in the state of inactivity called:
(1) Pericarp (2) Dormancy (3) Apomixes (4) none of these
(iv) The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called:
(1) Scutellum (2) Pericarp (3) Plumule (4) radicle
(v) The figure given below represent
(1) true fruit of mango (2) parthenocarpic fruit of banana

(3) false fruit of apple (4) false fruit of strawberry
Ans- (i) (2) Groundnut
(ii) (1) Micropyle
(iii) (2) Dormancy
(iv) (2) Pericarp
(v) (4) false fruit of strawberry
E
 15
(5) There is a case followed by 6 questions liked to this case. Study the case and give the answer
of asked questions.
Study the given case carefully related to the gametogenesis in angiosperm plants and given the
answer of asked questions.
v v
(i) Select out the right labelling for X, Y and Z into given process of gametogenesis.
X Y Z
(1) Megaspore mother cell Microspore tetrad Central cell
(2) Microspore mother cell Megaspore tetrad Antipodals
(3) Megaspore mother cell Megaspore tetrad Polar nuclei
(4) Microspore mother cell Microspore tetrad Pollen grains
(ii) If an “X” cell contains 48 chromosomes, than what will be the number of chromosomes in “Y”?
(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 72 (4) 36
(iii) How many meiotic and mitotic division are required for complete given gametogenesis process?
(1) 1 meiotic and 2 mitotic division (2) 1 meiotic and 3 mitotic division
(3) 2 meiotic and 2 mitotic division (4) 2 meiotic and 3 mitotic division
(iv) Triple fusion in Capsella plant is fusion of male gamete with
(1) egg (2) synergid (3) secondary nucleus (4) antipodal.
(v) If an “X” cell contains 48 chromosomes than what will be the number of chromosomes in PEC?
(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 72 (4) 36
(iv) From the statements given below choose the option that are true for a typical female gametophyte
of a flowering plant.
(a) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
(b) It is free-nuclear during the development
(c) It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
(d) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
(1) a and d (2) b and c (3) a and b (4) b and d
Ans.
(i) (3) X- Megaspore mother cell ,Y- Megaspore tetrad Z- Polar nuclei
(ii) (2) 24
(iii) (2) 1 meiotic and 3 mitotic division
(iv) (3) secondary nucleus
(v) (3) 72
(vi) (3) a and b
E
16 
of asked questions.
The given below are types of pollination, study it and given the answer of asked question.
Subject- 1 Subject-2
(i) What are appropriate terms for Method “X” and Method “Y” of subject-1 and subject-2 respectively.
X Y X Y
(1) Autogamy Geitonogamy (2) Geitonogamy Xenogamy
(3) Xenogamy Geitonogamy (4) Geitonogamy Autogamy
(ii) From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and
geitonogamy.
(1) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(3) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(4) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
(iii) The method “X” in subject-1 is
(1) Functionally cross-pollination and genetically similar to geitonogamy
(2) Functionally self-pollination and genetically similar to xenogamy
(3) Functionally cross-pollination and genetically similar to autogamy
(4) Functionally self -pollination and genetically similar to geitonogamy
(iv) If plant -A and Plant-B are Viola (common pansy) in subject- 2, than which of the following will
be correct statement?
(1) Plant -A have cleistogamous flowers while plant-B have chasmogamous flowers
(2) Plant -A have chasmogamous flowers while plant-B also have chasmogamous flowers
(3) Plant -A have chasmogamous flowers while plant-B have cleistogamous flowers
(4) Plant -A have cleistogamous flowers while plant-B also have cleistogamous flowers
(v) If the plant -A and Plant-B are belong from the grass family , than which of the following will be
work as pollination agent?
(1) Wind (2) Water (3) Insect (4) Birds
(vi) Assertion:-The geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination and genetically similar to autogamy.
Reason: In geitonogamy there is involvement of pollinating agents and pollen grains come from
the same plant.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (i) (2) X- Geitonogamy, Y- Xenogamy
(ii) (2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(iii) (3) Functionally cross-pollination and genetically similar to autogamy
(iv) (2) Plant -A have chasmogamous flowers while plant-B also have chasmogamous flowers
(v) (1) Wind
(vi) (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
E
 17
CHAPTER 2
Acrosome: A small cap like an extension in the head of sperm which is filled with enzymes that
help in fertilization.
Antrum:-The secondary follicle soon transforms into a tertiary follicle which is characterised by
a fluid filled cavity called antrum.
Blastula : A stage of embryogenesis comes after morula and has a hollow fluid filled space
called blastocoel.
Clitoris :- The is a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia
minora above the urethral opening.
Colostrum: Milk produced during the initial few days of lactation. It has several anti-bodies
(IgA).
Cleavage:- The mitotic division starts in the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct
called cleavage.
Embryogeny: The development of an organism during embryonic stage.
Endometrium: Inner most glandular layer lining the uterine cavity.
Ejaculation : Expulsion of semen by male.
Fimbriae:- The edges of the infundibulum possess finger like projections called fimbriae.
Foetus : An advanced stage of embryo within the uterus.
Foetal ejection reflex:- The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed fetus and
the placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
Foreskin:- The enlarged end of penis called the glans penis is covered by a loose fold if skin
called foreskin.
Gastrulation : Movement of cells during the development of an embryo at the end of cleavage to
form three germ layers.
Gonad : A gamete producing gland - either testis in male or an ovary in female.
Graafian follicle: A fluid filled vacuole containing egg, present in an ovary of mammals.
Gestation Period : A period between fertilization of ovum and the birth of a baby.
Hymen: A thin membrane partially covering the vaginal aperture.
Implantation: Fixing of embryo/fertilized egg in uterus. It leads to pregnancy.
Infundibulum:- The funnel shaped part of fallopian tube closer to the ovary is called as
infundibulum.
Insemination : Discharge of semen into the vagina of the female.
Labia majora :- They are fleshy folds of tissue, which extend down from the mons pubis and
surround the vaginal opening.
Lactation:- The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and
starts producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called lactation.
E
18 
Menarche: The beginning of first menstruation in female on attaining puberty.

Menopause : Permanent cessation of menstrual cycle in female. It occurs between the age 45 to
50 years in human female.
Menstrual cycle :- In human females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about
28/29 days, and the cycle of events starting from one menstruation till the next one is called the
menstrual cycle.
Mons pubis :- It is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair.
Myometrium:- The middle thick layer of smooth layer of uterus called as myometrium.
Oogenesis : Formation and development of ova in ovary.
Ovulation :- Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH
surge induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby the release of ovum called as ovulation.
Placenta :- The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and
jointly form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal
body called placenta
Parturition: Process of delivery of the foetes (Child birth).
Perimetrium:- The external thin layer of uterus called perimetrium.
Primary oocytes :-These cells start division and enter into prophase-I of the meiotic division and
get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocytes.
Primary follicle :- Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells and
then called the primary follicle.
Scrotum: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
Secondary follicles :- The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and
a new theca and called secondary follicles.
Semen: Seminal plasma along with sperms.
Spermatocyte: Diploid cell derived from spermatogonia during meiosis in male.
Spermatogenesis : Formation and development of sperm in testis of male.
Spermiation: Process by which sperms are released from the seminiferous tubules.
Spermiogenesis : Process of transformation of non-motile spermatid into motile sperm.
Stem Cells : Specialised cell which have the potency to give rise to all tissues and organs.
Trophoblast: Outer layer of cells of blastula which absorb the nutrient secreted by uterus
membrane.
Zona Pellucida : Non-cellular layer clearly seen around mammalian egg.
Abbrevation:
ICSH : Interstitial cell stimulating hormone.
FSH: Follicle stimulating hormone.
GnRH: Gonadotropin releasing hormone.
hCG: Human chorionic gonadotropin.
LH: Luetinising hormone.
hPL: Human Placental lactogen.
E
 19

1. Semen is constituted of –
(1) Sperm (2) Spermatogonia (3) Seminal Plasma (4) Both (1) & (3)
Ans (4) Both (1) & (3)
2. Seminiferous tubules are composed of
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Sensory epithelium (4) Germinal epithelium
Ans (4) Germinal epithelium
3. Cells of Leydig occur in
(1) Liver (2) Ovary (3) Testis (4) Spleen
Ans (3) Testis
4. Which piece of a sperm is called power house ?
(1) Head piece (2) Neck piece (3) Middle piece (4) Tail piece
Ans (3) Middle piece
5. Which is not a secondary sex organ ?
(1) Vagina (2) Penis (3) Prostate (4) Mammary gland
Ans (4) Mammary gland
6. At puberty woman start producing
(1) Sperms (2) Urine (3) Young ones (4) ovum
Ans (4) ovum
7. Release of sperm from testes is called :-
(1) Spermiation (2) Semination (3) In semination (4) Ejaculation
Ans (2) Semination
8. Which part of the spermatid forms acrosome of sperm ?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi body (3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome
Ans (2) Golgi body
9. Polar body is produced during the formation of :
(1) Sperm (2) Secondary oocyte (3) Oogonium (4) Spermatocyte
Ans (2) Secondary oocyte
E
20 
10. First meiotic division during oogenesis occurs in :

(1) First polar body (2) Second polar body (3) Primary oocytes (4) Secondary polar
Ans (3) Primary oocyte
11. Humans are ____ and ____ organisms.
(1) Sexually reproducing, oviparous (2) Asexually reproducing, ovoviviparous
(3) Asexually reproducing, viviparous (4) Sexually reproducing, viviparous
Ans (4) Sexually reproducing, viviparous
12. The formation of gametes is termed as
(1) Gametogamy (2) Syngamy (3) Gametogenesis (4) Gestation
Ans (3) Gametogenesis
13. The transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is called
(1) Insemination (2) Gametogenesis (3) Fertilization (4) Gestation
Ans (1) Insemination
14. The fusion of male and female gametes is known as
(1) Insemination (2) Fertilization (3) Implantation (4) Parturition
Ans (2) Fertilization
15. The following statements are true except
(1) In an individual, reproductive changes occur after puberty.
(2) Sperm formation occurs even in old men.
(3) Formation of ovum continues in women after fifty years.
(4) Humans are sexually producing and viviparous
Ans (3) Formation of ovum continues in women after fifty years.
16. The testes are situated ____ the abdominal cavity within a pouch called ____.
(1) inside, testicular lobules (2) outside, scrotum
(3) outside, vas deferens (4) inside, scrotum
Ans (2) outside, scrotum
17. The scrotum helps in maintaining a temperature ____ lower than the internal body temperature.
(1) 1 to 1.5°C (2) 2 to 2.5°C (3) 3 to 3.5°C (4) 4 to 4.5°C
Ans (2) 2 to 2.5°C
18. Male germ cells are known as
(1) Sperms (2) Spermatogonia (3) Spermatid (4) Sertoli cells
Ans (2) Spermatogonia
E
 21
19. Seminiferous tubules contain ____ for providing nutrition to sperm cells.
(1) Leydig cells (2) Interstitial cells (3) Sertoli cells (4) Germ cells
Ans (3) Sertoli cells
20. The cells which secrete androgens are
(1) Spermatozoa (2) Interstitial cells (3) Sertoli cells (4) Germ cells
Ans (2) Interstitial cells
21. Select the correct anatomical sequence.
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vasa deferens → Epididymis
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vasa deferens
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Vasa deferens → Epididymis
(4) None of these
Ans (2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vasa deferens
22. The enlarged end of penis is known as
(1) Glans penis (2) Foreskin (3) Urethra (4) Prostate
Ans (1) Glans penis
23. The layer of uterine tissues responsible for strong contractions during childbirth is
(1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium (3) Mesoderm (4) Myocardium
Ans (2) Myometrium
24. Clitoris lies at the junction of
(1) Labia majora (2) Labia minora (3) Mons pubis (4) Pubis symphysis
Ans (2) Labia minora
25. The clitoris is a tiny ____ shaped structure which lies above the urethral opening
(1) Flagellated (2) Finger like (3) Bean shaped (4) Pear
Ans (2) Finger like
26. The only statement correct about hymen is
(1) It is an opening of cervix.
(2) It is a reliable indicator of virginity.
(3) It is always torn after first coitus.
(4) It can be broken by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of vaginal tampon, cycling, etc.
Ans (4) It can be broken by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of vaginal tampon, cycling, etc
27. Cluster of cells in mammary lobes is known as
(1) Mammary duct (2) Alveoli (3) Ampulla (4) Lactiferous duct
Ans (2) Alveoli
E
22 
28. The terminal structure of the mammary glands through which milk is sucked out is known as
(1) Lumen of alveoli (2) Mammary duct
(3) Lactiferous duct (4) Mammary lobe
Ans (3) Lactiferous duct
29. Several mammary ducts join to form
(1) Mammary lobe (2) Alveoli (3) Mammary ampulla (4) Lactiferous duct
Ans (3) Mammary ampulla
30. Immature male germ cells are known as
(1) Spermatid (2) Spermatozoa (3) Spermatogonia (4) Sperm
Ans (3) Spermatogonia
31. Spermatogonium undergoes ____.
(1) Reduction division (2) Meiotic division
(3) Mitotic division (4) None of these
Ans. (3) Mitotic division
32. LH surge causes
(1) Rupture of graafian follicle (2) Release of ovum
(3) Endometrial shedding (4) Both (1) and (2)
Ans. (4) Both (1) and (2)
33. The ovulation phase is followed by ____ phase.
(1) Gestation (2) Luteal (3) Menstrual (4) Oogenesis
Ans (2) Luteal
34. After ovulation, Graafian follicle transforms into
(1) Corpus cavernosa (2) Corpus pellucida
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Corpus metrium
Ans (3) Corpus luteum
35. Large amounts of progesterone is secreted by
(1) Corpus germinativum (2) Corpus luteum
(3) Corpus cavernosa (4) Corpus pellucida
Ans. (2) Corpus luteum
36. If fertilization does not occur the corpus luteum ____.
(1) Proliferates (2) Degenerates (3) Regenerates (4) Divides
Ans (2) Degenerates
37. The stage in human female when menstrual cycle ceases at the age of 50 is known as
(1) Ovopause (2) Menarche (3) Menopause (4) Menstruation
Ans (3) Menopause
E
 23
38. The human female has which of the following sex chromosome pattern?
(1) XX (2) YY (3) XY (4) XYX
Ans (1) XX
39. The human male has which of the following sex chromosome pattern?
(1) XYX (2) XY (3) XX (4) YY
Ans (2) XY
40. Female produces only
(1) One type of gamete Y (2) One type of gamete X
(3) Either X or Y type of gamete (4) All of these
Ans (2) One type of gamete X
41. Scientifically, sex of the baby is determined by
(1) Only mother (2) Only father
(3) Either mother or father (4) Gestational phase
Ans (2) Only father
42. After formation of zygote, it cleaves into 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells called
(1) Blastocyst (2) Morula (3) Trophoblast (4) Blastomere
Ans (4) Blastomere
43. The placenta is connected to embryo through ____ cord.
(1) Chorionic (2) Umbilical (3) Amniocentic (4) Uterine
Ans (2) Umbilical
44. Placenta also acts as a/an ____ tissue.
(1) Endocrine (2) Exocrine (3) Paracrine (4) Mepacrine
Ans (1) Endocrine
45. Which of the following hormone is released by placenta?
(1) FSH (2) HCG (3) Relaxin (4) LH
Ans (2) HCG
46. Relaxin is secreted by
(1) Ovary (2) Uterus (3) Cervix (4) Oviduct
Ans (1) Ovary
47. How many germinal layers does embryo consist of initially, after implantation?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
Ans (2) 2
48. In human embryonic development, which layer develops between the ectoderm and endoderm?
(1) Mesothelium (2) Mesoderm (3) Myoderm (4) Myometrium
Ans (2) Mesoderm
49. Acrosome is a modified
(1) Golgi body (2) ER (3) Vacuole (4) Ribosome
Ans (1) Golgi body
50. Antrum is present in
(1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle (3) Tertiary follicle (4) All of these
Ans (3) Tertiary follicle
E
24 
(B) ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

1. Assertion : In human male, testes are extra abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs.
Reason : Scrotum acts as thermo regulator and keeps testicular temperature lower by 2-2.5°C for
normal spermatogenesis.
Ans (1)
2. Assertion : Testicular lobules are the compartments present in testes.
Reason : These lobules are involved in the process of fertilization.
Ans (3)
3. Assertion : Interstitial cell is present in the region outside the seminiferous tubule called
interstitial spaces.
Reason : Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the sertoli cells.
Ans. (3)
4. Assertion: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within the scrotum.
Reason: Muscles in scrotum helps to maintain low temperature of testes, necessary for
spermatogenesis.
Ans (1)
5. Assertion: The bulbourethral gland is a male accessory gland.
Reason: Its secretion helps in the lubrication of the penis, thereby facilitating reproduction.
Ans (1)
6. Assertion: Human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during coitus.
Reason: Only few reach the isthmus ampullary junction for process of fertilisation.
Ans (1)
7. Assertion: Epididymis is divided into three parts.
Reason: Epididymis is the organ that stores spermatozoa
Ans (2)
8. Assertion: Graafian follicle ruptures at the mid of menstrual cycle releasing the ovum.
Reason: Both LH and FSH attain a peak level at the middle of cycle.
Ans (1)
9. Assertion: Progesterone is required for maintenance of the endometrium.
Reason: Endometrium is essential for implanation of embryo.
Ans (2)
10. Assertion: The endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
Reason: The myometrium exhibits strong contractions during delivery of the baby.
Ans (2)
11. Assertion: Placenta acts as a major endocrine organ.
Reason: In mammals fetal components of the placenta derive initially from the chondroblast.
Ans (3)
E
 25
12. Assertion : Corpus luteum degenerates in the absence of fertilization.

Reason : Progesterone level decreases.
Ans (2)
13. Assertion : Implantation is the process of attachment of blastocyst on uterine endometrium.
Reason : Implantation is controlled by trophoblast and occurs by decidual cell reaction.
Ans (2)
14. Assertion: In humans, the gamete contributed by the male determines whether the child
produced will be male or female.
Reason: Sex in humans is a polygenic trait. Depending upon a cumulative effect of some genes
on X-chromosome.
Ans (3)
15. Assertion: Head sperm consists of acrosome and mitochondria.
Reason: Acrosome contains spiral row of mitochondria.
Ans (4)
16. Assertion : Size of breasts increases at puberty in human female.
Reason : Prolactin secretion starts at puberty.
Ans (2)
17. Assertion: A woman passes out hCG in the urine during pregnancy.
Reason: The presence of hCG in urine is the basis for pregnancy test.
Ans (2)
18. Assertion: Breast feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended.
Reason: Colostrum contains several antibodies, essential to render immunity in newborns.
Ans (1)
19. Assertion : Ovulation is the release of egg.
Reason : Ovulation takes of 14 days after fertilization.
Ans (3)
20. Assertion : In morula stage, cells divide without increase in size.
Reason : Zona pellucida remains undivided till cleavage is complete.
Ans (1)
E
26 

(1) Read the following and answer any four questions from 1 (i) to 1 (v) given below:
The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries along with a pair of oviducts, uterus,
cervix, vagina and the external genitalia located in the pelvic region. These parts of the system
along with a pair of the mammary glands are integrated structurally and functionally to support
the processes of ovulation, fertilisation, pregnancy, birth and child care. Each ovary is about 2 to
4 cm in length and is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments. The oviducts which
consist of 3 parts, uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts. The uterus is single
and it is also called the womb. The shape of the uterus is like an inverted pear. The wall of the
uterus has three layers of tissue.
(i) The ovarian stroma is divided into two zones ________ and ________.
(1) peripheral cortex (2) inner medulla
(3) fimbriae and ampulla (4) (1) and (2)
(ii) Which of the following is not the part of the fallopian tube?
(1) Labia majora (2) Fimbriae (3) Infundibulum (4) Isthmus
(iii) The last part of the oviduct is called
(1) Isthmus (2) Ampulla (3) Fimbriae (4) Infundibulum
(iv) The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called
(1) Clitoris (2) Majora (3) Isthmus (4) Hymen
(v) Assertion: Graafian follicle ruptures at the mid of menstrual cycle releasing the ovum.
Reason: Both LH and FSH attain a peak level at the middle of cycle.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
Ans- (i) (4) (1) and (2)
(ii) (1) Labia majora
(iii) (1) Isthmus
(iv) (4) Hymen
(v) (1)
E
 27
(2) Read the following and answer any four questions from 2(i) to 2(v) given below:
Oogenesis is the process of formation of ovum in ovaries. It consists of three phases:

multiplication, growth and maturation. Oogenesis is controlled by hormones GnRH, LH, FSH.
GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete LH
and FSH.
(i) What is the function of hormone FSH?

(1) It inhibits the formation of estrogen.
(2) It induces the release of secondary oocyte
(3) It stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles.
(4) It causes ovulation.
(ii) Which hormone induces the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle?
(1) Follicle stimulating hormone (2) Gonadotropin releasing hormone
(3) Progesterone (4) Luteinising hormone
(iii) Which cell division is involved in the formation of secondary oocyte .
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis I (3) Amitosis (4) Meiosis II
(iv) Identify the function(s) of LH.
(A) Release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle
(B) Stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
(C) Stimulates estrogen formation.
(D) Promotes development of egg to form secondary oocyte.
(1) (A) (B) Only, (2), (C), (B) Only (3) (A),(C),(D) (4) (B) Only
(v) Assertion: The increase in progesterone level exerts positive feedback on GnRH.
Reason: The rising level of progesterone stimulate production of FSH and L.H.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans (i) (3) It stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles.
(ii) (4) Luteinising hormone
(iii) (2) Meiosis I
(iv) (1)
(v) (4)
E
28 
During copulation, semen is released by the penis into the vagina. The motile sperms swim
rapidly, fuse with ovum in the ampullary region, resulting in fertilisation. Haplold nucleus of
sperm fuse with that of ovum to form diploid zygote.
(i) In female genital tract, sperms are made capable of fertilising the egg. This phenomenon of
sperm activation is called
(1) amphimixis (2) cortical reaction (3) capacitation (4) acrosomal reaction.
(ii) Select the correct sequence of various physical and chemical events that take place during
fertilisation.
P. Fusion of cortical granules with plasma membrane of
Q. Formation of fertilisation cone to receive sperm.
R. Release of sperm lysin from acrosome.
S. Mixing up of chromosomes of a sperm and an ovum.
(1) R→Q→P→S (2) Q→ S→ R→ P (3) Q→ R→ S→ P (4) R→ P→ Q→S
(iii) Assertion: Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
Reason: The secretion of acrosome help the sperm to enter into cytoplasm of ovum through zona
pellucida and plasma membrane.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
(iv) What is the significance of fertilization?
(1) It restores haploid number of chromosomes.
(2) If produces offspring genetically identical to parents.
(3) It initiates cleavage.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(v) Site of fertilization in humans is
(1) endometrium of uterine cavity (2) ampullary isthmic junction of oviduct
(3) cervix of uterus (4) infundibulum of fallopian tube
Ans. (i) (3) capacitation
(ii) (4) R→ P →Q→S
(iii) (2)
(iv) (3) It initiates cleavage.
(v) (2) Ampullary isthmic junction of oviduct.
E
 29
of asked questions.
The following us the illustration of sequence of ovarian events during menstrual cycle in human female.
Observe it and give the answer of question that follow:
(i) Which structure in subject-1 and subject-2 form corpus luteum?

(1) Secondary oocyte (2) Graafian Follicle (3) Corpus albicans (4) None of Above
(ii) Ovulation takes place in/on
(1) ovary (2) about the 14th day (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(iii) Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events in subject -1 and subject-2?
(1) Menstruation: breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised
(2) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
(3) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle.
(4) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
(iv) In subject-1 structure ‘C’ is?
(1) Corpus luteum (2) Corpus albicans (3) Primary Follicle (4) Graafian Follicle
(v) Withdrawal of which hormone causes degeneration of corpus luteum in subject-1?
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Progesterone (4) Estrogen
(vi) Which of the following statements is true about the subjects?
(1) Subject 1 is pregnant (2) Subject 2 is pregnant
(3) Both subject 1 and 2 are pregnant (4) Both subject 1 and 2 are not pregnant
Ans.
(i) (2) Graafian Follicle
(ii) (3) Both (1) and (2)
(iii) (4) Development of corpus luteum: Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
(iv) (2) Corpus albicans
(v) (2) LH
(vi) (2) Subject 2 is pregnant
E
30 
(5) There is a case followed by 6 questions liked to this case. Study the case and give the
To answer the questions, study the diagram below for Subject 1 and 2 showing different types of
structure.
(i) In subject-1 structure E contain autosomes and

(1) Only one Y-chromosome (2) Only one X- chromosome
(3) Both X and Y-chromosome (4) Either X or Y-chromosome
(ii) At the end of first meiotic division in subject-1 the structure A differentiate into:
(1) Spermatid (2) Spermatogonia
(3) Primary spermatocytes (4) Secondary spermatocytes
(iii) Structure-a in subject-2 is produced during the formation of
(1) Primary oocyte (2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Spermatid (4) Spermatids and Spermatocytes
(iv) The second maturation division of the subject-2 structure D occur
(1) In the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division
(2) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube.
(3) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(4) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
(v) What is the correct sequence of structure-E formation in subject-1?
(1) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
(2) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid
(3) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid
(4) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(vi) What is ploidy of b in Subject-2
(1) Diploid (2) Haploid (3) Triploid (4) None of these
Ans. (i) (4) Either X or Y-chromosome
(ii) (4) Secondary spermatocytes
(iii) (2) Secondary oocyte
(iv) (3) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(v) (4) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(vi) (2) Haploid
E
 31
CHAPTER 3
Amniocentesis : A foetal sex determination test based on chromosomal pattern in amniotic fluid
surrounding the developing embryo.
Barriers:- Ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of barriers.
Contraceptive: Any device which prevents fertilization of ovum.
Coitus : Sexual intercourse.
Condom: A rubber/latex sheath used to cover penis/vagina during coitus.
Infertility:- A couple are unable to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual co-habitation.
Mortality: Death rate (number of persons removed from a population by death) at a given time.
Sterilization: A permanent method of birth control through surgery in male or female.
Tubectomy: Procedure of sterilization in human female in which fallopian tubes are cut and tied.
Vasectomy: Procedure of sterilization in human male in which vasa deferentia are cut and tied.
Abbreviation:
HIV: Human Immuno Deficiency virus.
IUI: Intera uterine insemination.
IUT: intra uterine transfer.
ART: Assisted Reproductive Technologies
GIFT: Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
IMR: Infant Mortality Rate
IVF: In Vitro Fertilisation
MTP: Medical Termination of Pregnancy
RCH: Reproductive and Child Health care
STD: Sexually Transmitted Disease
ZIFT: Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
AIDS: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
ET: Embryo transfer.
AI: Artificial Insemination
CDRI: Central Drug Research Institute
ICSI: Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
IUCD: Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device
MMR: Maternal Mortality Rate
PID: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
RTI : Reproductive Tract Infection
VD: Veneral Disease
E
32 

1. What is the full form of WHO?
(1) Ware House Organization (2) War and Health Organization
(3) World Health Office (4) World Health Organization
Ans (4) World Health Organization
2. What are the various aspects of reproduction covered by WHO?
(1) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural
(2) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural, Social
(3) Physical, Emotional, Gestational, Social
(4) Physical, Emotional, Social
Ans (2) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural, Social
3. Which was the first country in the world to initiate a nationwide programme for reproductive
health?
(1) China (2) USA (3) India (4) Russia
Ans (3) India
4. The figure indicates which contraceptive device?
(1) Condom for female (2) Condom for male

(3) Diaphragm (4) Cervical cap
Ans (2) Condom for male
5. The programme of ‘Family Planning’ was initiated in the year ________.
(1) 1950 (2) 1947 (3) 1949 (4) 1951
Ans (4) 1951
6. The reproductive program RCH stands for
(1) Reproductive and Community Health Care (2) Restorative and Communal Health Care
(3) Reproductive and Child Health Care (4) Reproductive and Congenital Health Care
Ans (3) Reproductive and Child Health Care
7. In context of reproductive health, STIs stands for
(1) Sexually Terminal Infections (2) Sexually Transmitted Infections
(3) Sexually Transformed Infections (4) Sexually Transducted Infections
Ans (2) Sexually Transmitted Infections
8. The fluid which envelops the developing foetus is called
(1) Chorionic fluid (2) Placental fluid (3) Amniotic fluid (4) Uterine fluid
Ans (3) Amniotic fluid
9. Statutory ban has been laid on ________ to check female foeticide.
(1) Choriocentesis (2) Amniocentesis (3) Uterocentesis (4) Embryocentesis
Ans (2) Amniocentesis
10. The amniocentesis test is based on ________ to determine the sex of developing foetus.
(1) External genitalia (2) Secondary sexual characters
(3) Chromosomal pattern (4) Embryonic enzymes
Ans (3) Chromosomal pattern
E
 33
11. CDRI, Lucknow developed which new female contraceptive?

(1) ‘Sakhi’ (2) ‘Saheli’ (3) ‘Saloni’ (4) ‘Smiti’
Ans (2) ‘Saheli’
12. CDRI stands for
(1) Contraceptive Drug Research Institute (2) Central District Research Institute
(3) Central Drug Research Institute (4) Central Dermatologic Research Institute
Ans (3) Central Drug Research Institute
13. The world population was 2000 million in the year
(1) 1980 (2) 1970 (3) 1960 (4) 1990
Ans (4) 1990
14. Which IUD is shown in the given figure?
(1) Lippes loop (2) Progestasert (3) Copper T (4) Multiload-375

Ans (3) Copper T
15. Coitus interrupts/withdrawal method concerns with
(1) Withdrawal of penis from vagina before ejaculation
(2) Withdrawal of penis from vagina after ejaculation
(3) Prevention of coitus
(4) Alternate prevention of coitus
Ans (1) Withdrawal of penis from vagina before ejaculation
16. After parturition, which natural contraception way can be utilized?
(1) Lactational menorrhea (2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Lactational deficiency (4) Lactational prevention
Ans (2) Lactational amenorrhea
17. In lactational amenorrhea, which event does not occur in menstrual cycle?
(1) Menstrual flow (2) Ovulation (3) Funicular phase (4) Luteal phase
Ans (2) Ovulation
E
34 
18. Lactational amenorrhea is effective only up to a maximum of ________ months.

(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight
Ans (3) Six
19. ________ is a popular brand of condom for males.
(1) ‘Nishodh’ (2) ‘Nirodh’ (3) ‘Nidosh’ (4) ‘Nirdosh’
Ans (2) ‘Nirodh’
20. Which of the following is not applicable to females for contraception?
(1) Diaphragms (2) Vasectomy (3) Condoms (4) Cervical caps
Ans (2) Vasectomy
21. Multiload 375 is a
(1) Disease resistant crop (2) New viral vector
(3) Intra uterine Device (4) Biological warfare device
Ans (3) Intra uterine Device
22. IUD stands for
(1) Intra Ureter Device (2) Intrinsic Uterine Device
(3) Intra uterine Device (4) Intra Urinogenital Device
Ans (3) Intra uterine Device
23. Lippes loop is a
(1) Structure associated with nephron
(2) Structure associated with male reproductive system
(3) Structure associated with ligamentous tissue
(4) A non-medicated IUD
Ans (4) A non-medicated IUD
24. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?
(1) CUT (2) Multiload 375 (3) Cu 7 (4) All of these
Ans (4) All of these
25. Progestasert is a
(1) Oral contraceptive (2) Natural contraceptive
(3) Hormonal IUD (4) Implant contraceptive
Ans (3) Hormonal IUD
26. LNG-20 is a
(1) Fuel (2) Modified crop (3) Hormonal IUD (4) Cu releasing IUD
Ans (3) Hormonal IUD
27. Which of the following is a most widely used contraceptive in India?
(1) IUD (2) Pills (3) Barrier method (4) Natural method
Ans (1) IUD
28. The pills used by females to prevent conception contain
(1) Only oestrogen (2) Only progestogen
(3) Combination of oestrogen progestogen (4) Both (2) and (3)
Ans (4) Both (2) and (3)
E
 35
29. The pills have to be taken for contraception continuously for a period _________ days.
(1) 22 (2) 21 (3) 24 (4) 25
Ans (2) 21
30. Which infections can be transmitted by sharing of injection needles, surgical instruments, etc.,
with infected persons; through transfusion of blood, or from an infected mother to the foetus?
(1) AIDS (2) Hepatitis B (3) Genital herpes (4) Both (1) and (2)
31. Which of the following STIs is not completely curable?
(1) Gonorrhoea (2) Genital warts (3) Genital herpes (4) Chlamydiasis
Ans (3) Genital herpes
32. Which of these options is correct with regards to statements X and Y?
Statement X: Some STIs do not show symptoms in females.
Statement Y: Some STIs in females may remain undetected for long time.
(1) Statement ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct and ‘Y’ is the correct explanation for ‘X’.
(2) Only statement ‘X’ is correct.
(3) Only statement ‘Y’ is correct.
(4) Statement ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
Ans (1) Statement ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct and ‘Y’ is the correct explanation for ‘X’.
33. Severe complications of STIs lead to further complications like
(1) Abortion (2) Still birth (3) Ectopic pregnancy (4) All of these
34. The age group of ________ years is quite vulnerable to STIs.
(1) 10 to 19 (2) 15 to 22 (3) 17 to 27 (4) 15 to 24
Ans (4) 15 to 24
35. In order to prevent STIs, one of the following is not correct?
(1) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(2) Go to an unqualified doctor at earliest instance of STIs.
(3) Always use condoms during coitus.
(4) Participate in sex education sessions.
Ans (2) Go to an unqualified doctor at earliest instance of STIs
36. The reasons for infertility can be
(1) Physical (2) Diseases (3) Psychological (4) All of these
37. In India, which gender is generally wrongly blamed for being infertile?
(1) Woman (2) Man
(3) Either man or woman (4) Genetic factors
Ans (1) Woman
38. In India, most of the infertility cases are because of the
(1) Male (2) Female
(3) Either (1) and (2) (4) Hereditary disorders
Ans (1) Male
39. In order to combat infertility, special techniques are used like ________.
(1) Stimulated reproductive technologies (2) Assisted reproductive technologies
(3) Fertile reproductive technologies (4) In vitro fertilization
Ans (2) Assisted reproductive technologies
E
36 
40. On which days of the menstrual cycle is ovulation expected –

(1) 10th – 30th (2) 1st – 10th (3) 10th – 17th (4) 18th – 25th
Ans (3) 10th – 17th
41. What is the marriageable age for the females and males in India –
(1) 18, 18 (2) 18, 25 (3) 21, 18 (4) 18, 21
Ans (4) 18, 21
42. The following are indicative signs which indicate improved reproductive health of society.
Choose the correct combination.
(i) Better awareness about sex related problem
(ii) Better detection and cure of STIs
(iii) Better postnatal care
(iv) Increased number of couples with large families
(1) i and iv only (2) ii, iii and iv only (3) i and ii only (4) i, ii and iii only
Ans (4) i, ii and iii only
43. Every ________ person in the world is an Indian.
(1) 4th (2) 6th (3) 8th (4) 10th
Ans (2) 6th
44. Sterilization procedure in females is known as
(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy (3) Hysterectomy (4) Oophorectomy
Ans (2) Tubectomy
45. In vasectomy, a small portion of which duct is removed and tied up?
(1) Testis (2) Epididymis (3) Vas deferens (4) Vasa efferentia
Ans (3) Vas deferens
46. In tubectomy, which part of reproductive system is removed and/or tied up?
(1) Cervix (2) Oviduct (3) Uterus (4) Ovary
Ans (2) Oviduct
47. Which of the following is/are the ill-effect/effects of using contraceptives?
(1) Abdominal pain (2) Breast cancer
(3) Irregular menstrual bleeding (4) All of these
48. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called ________.
(1) Medical transformation of pregnancy (2) Median terminal pregnancy
(3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (4) None of these
Ans (3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
49. Nearly ________ MTPs are preformed in a year all over the world.
(1) 45 to 50 billion (2) 45 to 50 million
(3) 45 to 50 thousands (4) 45 to 50 lacs
Ans (2) 45 to 50 million
50. Government of India legalized MTP in the year ________.
(1) 1970 (2) 1971 (3) 1972 (4) 1973
Ans (2) 1971
E
 37

1. Assertion: A person should be considered reproductively healthy if they have healthy
reproductive organs but are emotionally imbalanced.
Reason: This statement about reproductive health was given by WHO.
Ans (4)
2. Assertion: Family planning is an action plan to attain reproductive health among people.
Reason: Improved programmes covering reproduction related areas were propagated by RCH to
create awareness among people.
Ans (2)
3. Assertion: Reproductive and Child Healthcare Programmes is for reproduction related areas.
Reason: It deals with creating awareness among various reproduction related aspects.
Ans (1)
4. Assertion : Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Reason : This will encourage children to believe in myths about sex related aspects.
Ans (3)
5. Assertion: Natality increases both population density and population size.
Reason: Natality increases the number of individuals in an area by births.
Ans (1)
6. Assertion: Zero population growth should be achieved as early as possible to control human
population.
Reason: This as requires not two children per couple but a lilttle more.
Ans (1)
7. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a method in which couples avoid from coitus from day 17 to
27 of menstrual cycle.
Reason: It is a very effective method and 100% sure of birth control.
Ans (4)
E
38 
8. Assertion: Syphilies, gonorrhoea and AIDS are STIs.

Reason: These diseases are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Ans (1)
9. Assertion : HIV infection can be avoided by use of condoms.
Reason : Condoms secrete anti-viral interferons.
Ans (3)
10. Assertion: STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
Reason: STIs can be prevented by using barrier contraceptives like condoms.
Ans (1)
11. Assertion: Infertility is the inability to produce children inspite of unprotected sex.
Reason: Infertile couples could have children using assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
Ans (2)
12. Assertion: IVF in fertilization is carried out outside the body of woman.
Reason: The zygote upto 8 blastomeres could be transferred into the fallopian tube.
Ans (2)
13. Assertion: Both male and female can be infertile.
Reason: Infertility can result due to any fertility related disorder.
Ans (2)
14. Assertion : IUT is the transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tubes.
Reason : This is a very popular method of forming embryos in-vivo.
Ans (4)
15. Assertion : Test-tube baby has raised several legal problems.
Reason : It involves in vitro fertilization followed by embryo transfer
Ans (2)
16. Assertion: Biologically, woman is superior to man.
Reason : A woman provides nutrition to developing foetus during gestation and also nourishes
the baby on her milk after birth.
Ans (1)
17. Assertion: Oral contraceptive pills check ovulation.
Reason : Oral pills always contains combination of progesterone and estrogen.
Ans (3)
18. Assertion: Enterobiasis is a sexually transmitted diseases caused by pinworm.
Reason : Enterobiasis is treated with antihelminthic drugs.
Ans (2)
19. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples abstain from coitus.
Reason : Coitus from day 5-10 should be avoided because this is the time of ovulation.
Ans (3)
20. Assertion: In GIFT, fertilization takes place invitro.
Reason : The results of GIFT are less better then invitro fertilization.
Ans (4)
E
 39

Over population causes number of family problems. Strategies like birth control methods help to
control population explosion. Natural methods of birth control do not involve medications or
devices to prevent pregnancy but rather rely on behavioural practices and/or making observations
about menstrual cycle.
(i) Which method helps in contraception by temporary absence of sex?

(1) Coitus interruptus (2) Withdrawal method
(3) Rhythm method (4) Lactational amenorrhea method
(ii) Why is lactational amenorrhea effective for about 4-5 months after parturition?
(1) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(2) Ovulation does not occur during intense lactation.
(3) This method inhibits mobility of sperms.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(iii) Which fact is not the basis of periodic absence method of birth control?
(1) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(2) Ovulation occurs on about 14th day of menstruation.
(3) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(4) Alternation in uterine endometrium.
(iv) On which days of menstrual cycle should coitus be avoided to prevent fertilisation?
(1) 10-17 (2) 6-13 (3) 1-5 (4) 15-28
(v) Assertion: The effectiveness of coitus interruptus method is limited.
Reason: Some sperms may pass into vagina before ejaculation.
Ans - (i) (3) Rhythm method
(ii) (2) Ovulation does not occur during intense lactation.
(iii) (4) Alteration in uterine endometrium
(iv) (1) 10-17
(v) (1)
E
40 
Intra uterine devices are most widely accepted methods of contraception. These are used by
females and are inserted by doctor or nurses in the uterus through vagina. However these devices
are not recommended for those who eventually intend to conceive.
(i) How does CuT prevent conception?
(1) Cu ions make uterus unsuitable for implantation.

(2) Cu ions make cervix hostile to the sperms.
(3) Cu ions suppress sperms motility.
(4) Cu ions inhibit ovulation.
(ii) Which of the following IUDs makes uterus unsuitable for implantation?
(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload 375 (3) Cu7 (4) Lippes loop
(iii) Identify the correct statement for IUDs.
(1) They slowly release synthetic progesterone in the body.

(2) They increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(3) They block entry of sperms through the cervix.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(iv) Select the correct matched pair.
(1) Hormone releasing IUD - LNG-20 (2) Non-medicated IUD-Progestasert

(3) Copper releasing IUD - Lippes loop (4) None of these
(v) Assertion: IUDs can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
Reason: IUDs can perforate uterus.

Ans. (i) (3) Cu ions suppress sperms motility.

(ii) (1) LNG-20
(iii) (2) They increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(iv) (1) Hormone releasing IUD - LNG-20
(v) (2)
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 41
The following us the illustration of male reproductive system. Observe it and give the answer of
question that follow:
(i) In subject-1 a small portion of which duct is removed and tied up?
(1) Testis (2) Epididymis (3) Vas deferens (4) Vasa efferentia
(ii) Which subject needs barrier?
(1) Subject-1 (2) Subject-2
(3) Both subject-1 and 2 (4) None of these
(iii) Subject-1 shows infertility due to
(1) low sperm production (2) abnormal sperm function
(3) blockages (4) Vasectomy
(iv) Subject-2 shows infertility due to
(1) low sperm production (2) abnormal sperm function
(3) Vasectomy (4) Both (1) and (2)
(v) Which subject does not show spermatogenesis?
(1) Subject-1 (2) Subject-2 (3) Both subject-1 and 2 (4) None of these
(vi) Which are the permanent method of family planning?
(1) Vasectomy, Tubectomy (2) Condom for female and male
(3) Copper T and pills (4) Vasectomy, copper T
Ans. (i) (3) Vas deferens
(ii) (2) Subject-2
(iii) (4) Vasectomy
(iv) (4) Both (1) and (2)
(v) (4) None of these
(vi) (1) Vasectomy, Tubectomy
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42 
The following us the illustration of female reproductive system. Observe it and give the answer
of question that follow:
(i) Which part is removed in a subject-1?

(1) Funnel of the fallopian tube (2) Ovaries
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Uterus
(ii) Ovulation occur in
(3) Both subject-1 and subject-2 (4)None of these
(iii) In which subject fertilization does not occur
(3) Both subject-1 and subject-2 (4) None of these
(iv) In which subject does not show menstruation cycle
(3) Both subject-1 and subject-2 (4) None of these
(v) Where is fertilization occur in the subjects
(1) In subject-1 fertilization occur in fallopian tubes
(2) In subject-2 fertilization does not occur
(3) Both subject-1 and subject-2
(4) None of these
(vi) Which of the following statements is true about the subjects?
(1) Subject 1 will conceive (2) Subject 2 will conceive
(3) Both subject 1 and 2 will conceive (4) Both subject 1 and 2 will not conceive
Ans. (i) (3) Fallopian tube
(ii) (3) Both subject-1 and subject-2
(iii) (1) Subject-1
(iv) (1) Subject-1
(v) (3) Both subject-1 and subject-2
(vi) (2) Subject 2 will conceive
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 43
CHAPTER 4
Allele : Alternative forms of a gene having same locus on chromosome.
Autosomes : All chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes are autosomes.
Aneuploidy: It is the condition of addition or reduction of one or two chromosomes in a
homologous pair of chromosomes.
Co-dominance : The alleles which do not show dominance-recessive relationship and are able to
express themselves independently when present together
Contrasting traits :-Two different trait of a character.
Chromosome Mapping : The representation of relative position of genes on the chromosome. The
frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome is a measure of the
distance between genes.
Chromosome Theory : Proposed by Sutton and Boveri. According to this theory-genes are located
on chromosomes and the inheritance and genes is similar to the inheritance of chromosomes.
Down's Syndrome : Genetic disorder caused due to trisomy of chromosome no. 21.
Dominant Allele: The allele which expresses it self in a pair of dissimilar alleles.
Dihybrid Cross : A cross in which two pair of contrasting characters are considered e.g. RRYY x
rryy in pea.
Factors: Unit of heredity which is responsible for inheritance and appearance of characters.
Female Heterogamety : A condition where two different types of gametes in terms of sex
chromosomes are introduced by females eg. In birds female bird introduces Z and W gametes
Filial progeny:- The first hybrid generation of a cross.
Genetics : Branch of Biology that deals with the study of reasons behind inheritance and
variations.
Gene: Unit of inheritance of characters.
Genotype: The genetic constitution of an organism.
Heterozygous: An individual possessing two different alleles of a gene at a particular locus on
homologous chromosome e.g., Tt.
Homozygous : An individual possessing two identical alleles of a gene at a particular locus on
homologous chromosome e.g., TT or tt.
Haemophilia : Sex linked recessive disease which shows its transmission from unaffected carrier
female to some male progeny due to lack of a blood clotting factors.
Incomplete dominance :When one of the two alleles of a gene is incompletely dominant over the
other allele
Inheritance: It is the process by which characters are passed from parent to progeny making them
similar or dissimilar.
Klinefelter's Syndrome: Genetic disorder caused due to additional copy of X chromosome of sex
in male resulting in a karyotype of 47 chromosomes (XXY).
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44 
Law of Dominance: When two individuals of a species differing in a pair of contrasting

characters/traits are crossed, the trait that appears in the F1 hybrid is dominant and that remain
hidden, is called recessive.
Law of Independent Assortment: When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation
of one pair of characters is independent of the other.
Law of Segregation: The members of allelic pair that remained together in the parent,
segregate/separate during gamete formation and only
Linkage: It is tendency of genes present on the same chromosome to inherit together.
Monohybrid Cross: A cross in which a single pair of contrasting characters are considered e.g, TT x tt.
Multiple Alleles: Where more than two alleles given the same character in a population e.g. IA, IB,
and I0, alleles are responsible for blood group.
Male Heterogamety : Condition where two different types of gametes in terms of sex
chromosomes are produced by males e.g., In human, male produces X and Y gametes.
Mutation: Sudden, heritable discontinuous variations in organisms due to changes in genes and
chromosomes.
Mutagen: Chemical or physical factors that induce mutation e g., UV radiations.
Phenylketonuria : Inborn error of metabolism inherited as autosomal recessive trait. Affected
individual lacks an enzyme that converts amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine which comes out
through urine.
Punnett Square : It is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible
genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.
Phenotype: The observable structural and functional traits produced by the interaction of genes and
environment.
Point Mutation: Change in a single base pair of DNA e.g. Sickle cell anaemia.
Pedigree Analysis: It is the analysis of a trait in several generations of a family in humans.
Polyploid: An increase in multiple of haploid set of chromosomes in an organism e.g.. 3n, 4n, 5n
and 6n etc.
Recessive Allele: The allele which is unable to express itself in the presence of the dominant allele
but expresses it self in the absence of dominant allele.
Recombination : It is the generation of non-parental gene combinations in 'the offsprings.
Sex Chromossomes: The chromosomes involved in the determination of sex characters. The last
pair of chromosome is generally considered as sex chromosome e.g, XX and XY in humans.
Sex Linked Inheritance: Type of inheritance which is carried from generation to generation along
the sex determining genes located on the sex chromosomes.
Sickle Cell Anaemia: Autosome linked recessive trait, controlled by single pair of alleles. HbA and
HbS Due to substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the 6th position of globin chain
of haemoglobin molecule.
Test Cross: When offspring or individual with dominant phenotype, whose genotype is not,
known, is crossed with an individual who is homozygous recessive for the trait.
Trisomy: The condition in which a particular chromosome is present in three copies in a diploid
cell/nucleus.
True breeding line : A true breeding line is one that ,having undergone continuous self pollination,
show the stable trait inheritance and expression for several generation.
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 45

1. An organism’s genetic constitution is called its
(1) Genotype (2) Phenotype (3) Holotype (4) None of these
Ans (1) Genotype
2. An organism with two identical alleles for a given trait is
(1) Homozygous (2) Segregating (3) Dominant (4) A hermaphrodite
Ans (1) Homozygous
3. What type of gametes will be formed by genotype RrYy?
(1) RY, Ry, YY, ry (2) RY, Ry, ry, ry (3) RY, Ry, rY, ry (4) Rr, RR, Yy, YY
Ans (3) RY, Ry, rY, ry
4. Which genotype characterizes an organism that is heterozygous for two genes?
(1) RRYy (2) RrYY (3) RRYY (4) RrYy
Ans (4) RrYy
5. Which of the following is the dominant character according to Mendel?
(1) Dwarf plant and yellow fruit (2) Terminal fruit and wrinkled seed
(3) White testa and yellow pericarp (4) Green coloured pod and rounded seed
Ans (4) Green coloured pod and rounded seed
6. Self-pollination between Tt and Tt plants results into the genotype ratio of
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 4 : 0
Ans (2) 1 : 2 : 1
7. Mendel’s law of heredity can be explained with the help of
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis
(3) Both mitosis and meiosis (4) None of these
Ans (2) Meiosis
8. Genes do not occur in pair in :-
(1) Gametes (2) Embryo (3) Zygote (4) Somatic Cell
Ans (1) Gametes
9. When heterozygous tall plants are self-pollinated, then tall and dwarf plants are obtained. This
explains
(1) Law of purity of gamete (2) Law of segregation
(3) Division in spores (4) Independent assortment
Ans (2) Law of segregation
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46 
10. Mendel’s principle of segregation was based on the separation of alleles in the garden pea during
(1) Pollination (2) Embryonic development
(3) Seed formation (4) Gamete formation
Ans (4) Gamete formation
11. A cross between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygous plant is called
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Dihybrid cross (3) Test cross (4) Back cross
Ans (3) Test cross
12. Cross between F1 plant and recessive female plant is called
(1) Back cross (2) Test cross (3) Out cross (4) Mutation
Ans (2) Test cross
13. In F2 generation, a phenotypic ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 exhibits
(1) Back cross (2) Monohybrid test cross
(3) Lethality (4) Dihybrid test cross
Ans (4) Dihybrid test cross
14 . Which of the following depicts the Mendel’s dihybrid ratio?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) 9 : 7 (4) 15 : 1
Ans (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
15. Inheritance of ABO blood group system is an example of
(1) Multiple allelism (2) Partial dominance
(3) Epistasis (4) Dominance
Ans (1) Multiple allelism
16. Genotype of blood group ‘A’ will be
(1) IAIA (2) IBIB (3) IAIA or IAIO (4) IAIO
Ans (3) IAIA or IAIO
17. Blood group ‘B’ will have alleles
(1) ii (2) IAIA (3) IBIB (4) IAIB
Ans (3) IBIB
18. Identify A to E in this figure.
(1) A: Petal; B: Stigma; C: Anther; D: Stamen; E: Carpel

(2) A: Anther; B: Petal; C: Stigma; D: Carpel; E: Stamen
(3) A: Carpel; B: Stamen; C: Anther; D: Stigma; E: Petal
(4) A: Stigma; B: Petal; C: Stamen; D: Anther; E: Carpel
Ans (1) A: Petal; B: Stigma; C: Anther; D: Stamen; E: Carpel
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 47
19. The below diagram represents
(1) Back cross (2) Out cross (3) Test cross (4) Dihybrid cross
Ans (3) Test cross
21. If in a dihybrid cross, Mendel had used two such characters which have linked, he would have
faced difficulty in explaining the results on the basis of
(1) Law of segregation (2) Law of multiple factor hypothesis
(3) Law of independent assortment (4) Law of dominance
Ans (3) Law of independent assortment
22. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
(1) Dominance of genes (2) Linkage between genes
(3) Segregation of alleles (4) Recombination between genes
Ans (4) Recombination between genes
23. The percentage of crossing over will be more if
(1) Linked genes are located far apart from each other
(2) Linked genes are located close to each other
(3) Genes are not linked
(4) Genes are located in a different cell
Ans (1) Linked genes are located far apart from each other
24. Linkage was first observed in
(1) Field pea (2) Sweet pea (3) Pea (4) Grass pea
Ans (2) Sweet pea
25. Common name of Drosophila melanogaster is ?
(1) Fruit fly (2) House fly (3) Dragon fly (4) Honey bee
Ans (1) Fruit fly
26. Linkage in Drosophila was first discovered by
(1) Morgan (2) Bateson and Punnett
(3) Sturtevant (4) Bridges
Ans (1) Morgan
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48 
27. Who coined the term linkage?

(1) Mendel (2) Tschermak (3) Sturtevant (4) T. H. Morgan
Ans (4) T. H. Morgan
28. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by :
(1) Mendel (2) Correns (3) De vries (4) Sutton & Boveri
Ans (4) Sutton & Boveri
29. The below diagram shows
(1) M and F drosophila, respectively (2) M and F housefly, respectively

(3) F and M drosophila, respectively (4) F and M housefly, respectively
Ans (1) M and F drosophila, respectively
30. Why Mendel’s work was not recognized till 1900?
(1) His work could not be widely published.
(2) His concept of factor (stable and discrete units that control expression of trait) was not
accepted by his contemporaries.
(3) His approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomenon was totally new and
unacceptable by many of the biologists of his time.
(4) All of these
31. Cytological observation made in a many number of ________ led to the development of the
concept of genetic/chromosomal basis of sex determination
(1) Mammals (2) Birds (3) Humans (4) Insects
Ans (4) Insects
32. Who discovered X-body but could not explain its significance?
(1) Mendel (2) Morgan (3) Henking (4) De vries
Ans (3) Henking
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33. X-body of Henking was
(1) Nucleus (2) Lipid (3) Chromosome (4) Ribosomes
Ans (3) Chromosome
34. X-chromosome is used in the determination of sex; therefore, it is known as
(1) Autosomes (2) Sex chromosomes
(3) Microsomes (4) Oxysomes
Ans (2) Sex chromosomes
35. Which type of sex-determination is found in grasshopper?
(1) XO type (2) XY type (3) ZW type (4) Any of these
Ans (1) XO type
36. In the number of insects and mammals the type of sex determination is
(1) XO type (2) XY type (3) ZW type (4) Any of these
Ans (2) XY type
37. Male is homogametic in
(1) Drosophila (2) Human (3) Fowl (4) All of these
Ans (3) Fowl
38. How many chromosomes are present in human male?
(1) 22 Pairs + XX (2) 22 Pairs + YY (3) 22 Pairs + XY (4) 21 Pairs + XY
Ans (3) 22 Pairs + XY
39. Deletion or insertion of base pairs of DNA causes
(1) Point mutation (2) Frameshift mutation
(3) Transversion (4) All of these
Ans (2) Frameshift mutation
40. Mutation that arises due to the change in single base pair of DNA is known as
(1) Point mutation (2) Frameshift mutation
(3) Silent mutation (4) Recombination
Ans (1) Point mutation
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50 
41. Which of the diagrams represents independent assortment?
(1) A only (2) B only (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
42. Down’s syndrome occurs due to the gain in extra copy of
(1) Chromosome 19 (2) Chromosome 5 (3) Chromosome 21 (4) Chromosome 24
Ans (3) Chromosome 21
43. Turner’s syndrome occurs due to the loss of
(1) Chromosome 5 (2) Chromosome 21 (3) Chromosome ‘X’ (4) Chromosome ‘Y’
Ans (3) Chromosome ‘X’
44. Gynaecomastia is seen in case of
(1) Down’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome (4) All of these
Ans (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
45. Karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome is

(1) 44 + XXY (2) 44 + XO (3) 44 + XYY (4) 44 + XXXY
Ans (1) 44 + XXY
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 51
46. Identify the syndrome of diagrams a and b, respectively.
(a) (b)
Tall stature Short stature and
with feminised underdeveloped
character feminine character
(1) A: Down’s syndrome, B: Turner’s syndrome

(2) A: Klinefelter’s syndrome, B: Turner’s syndrome
(3) A: Turner’s syndrome, B: Klinefelter syndrome
(4) A: Turner’s syndrome, B: Down’s syndrome
Ans (2) Klinefelter's syndrome, B: Turner’s syndrome
46. Which of the following is sex-linked recessive disorder?
(1) Myotonic dystrophy (2) Sickle-cell anaemia
(3) Haemophilia (4) Phenylketonuria
Ans (3) Haemophilia
47. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glue) by ________ at the
sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
(1) Asn (Aspargine) (2) Gly (Glycine) (3) Arg (Argenine) (4) Val (Valine)
Ans (4) Val (Valine)
48. The standard symbol used for consanguineous mating in pedigree analysis is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans (2)
49. Predict from the following chart
(1) Character is dominant and carried by x chromosome.

(2) Character is carried by y chromosome.
(3) Character is sex-linked recessive.
(4) Character is autosomal recessive
Ans (3) Character is sex-linked recessive
50. Haemophilia is a :
(1) Sex linked recessive disorder (2) Sex linked dominant disorder
(3) Autosomal recessive disorder (4) Autosomal dominant disorder
Ans (1) Sex linked recessive disorder
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52 

1. Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood group system.
Reason: When IA and IB alleles are present together in ABO blood group system, they both
express their own types of sugar.
Ans (2)
2. Assertion : In Mirabilis, selfing of F1 pink flower plants produces same phenotypic & genotypic
ratio.
Reason : Flower colour gene shows incomplete dominance.
Ans (1)
3. Assertion: By means of dihybrid cross, the law of independent assortment can be studied.
Reason: The law of independent assortment is applicable only to linked genes.
Ans (3)
4. Assertion : In case of incomplete linkage, linked gene show new combination along with
parental combination.
Reason : In case of incomplete linkage, linked genes are separated by crossing over.
Ans (1)
5. Assertion: When white eyed, yellow bodied drosophila females were hybridized with red eyed,
brown-bodied males; and F1 progeny was intercrossed, F2 ratio deviated from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
Reason: When two genes in a dihybrid are on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental
gene combinations are much higher than the non parental type.
Ans (1)
6. Assertion: The maximum frequency of recombination, that can result from crossing over
between linked genes, is 50 percent.
Reason: Higher frequency of crossing over is shown in linked genes if distance between them is
longer.
Ans (2)
7. Assertion : The linked genes tend to get inherited together.
Reason : The link between them fails to break.
Ans (1)
8. Assertion : The females are diploid having 32 chromosomes in honeybee.
Reason : The male are haploid having 16 chromosomes in honeybee.
Ans (2)
9. Assertion : Most of experiments regarding sex determination were done on Drosophila.
Reason : It is fruit fly.
Ans (2)
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 53
10. Assertion : In birds, the chromosome composition of the egg determines the sex.
Reason : Female birds are heterogametic.
Ans (1)
11. Assertion : In humans, most sex-linked genes are present on the X-chromosome.
Reason : X-chromosome contains a large number of genes with major effects on phenotype.
Ans (2)
12. Assertion : In humans, the gamete contributed by the male determines whether the child
produced will be male or female.
Reason : Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of some genes
on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome.
Ans (3)
13. Assertion: Insects have female homogametic.
Reason: In insects males shows XX sex chromosome and females shows XY sex chromosome.
Ans (3)
14. Assertion: In pigeons, males are homogametic and females are heterogametic.
Reason: In pigeons, males have ZZ sex chromosomes and females have ZW sex chromosomes.
Ans (1)
15. Assertion : Six different genotypes are possible of the human.
Reason : The phenotypes are also ABO blood groups system six types.
Ans (3)
16. Assertion : Polyploidy is multiplication of chromosome number.
Reason : Polyploidy increase the tolerance of plants towards climatic extremes.
Ans (2)
17. Assertion: Aneuploidy may be of hypoploidy or hyperploidy type.
Reason: Monosomy lacks one pair of chromosomes.
Ans (3)
18. Assertion : Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism.
Reason : Phenylalanine is not converted into alanine in individuals suffering from this disease.
Ans (3)
19. Assertion: In case of phenylketonuria, phenylpyruvic acid is excreted through urine.
Reason: Enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase is absent in the affected individual.
Ans (1)
20. Assertion : Phenylketonuria is a recessive hereditary disease caused by body’s failure to oxidize
an amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine, because of a defective enzyme.
Reason : It results in the presence of phenylalanine acid in urine.
Ans (2)
E
54 

During a study of inheritance of two genes, teacher asked students to perform an experiment. The
students crossed white eyed, yellow bodied female Drosophila with a red eyed, brown bodied
male Drosophila (i.e., wild). They observed that progenies in F2 generation had 1.3 percent
recombinants and 98.7 percent parental type combinations. The experimental cross with results is
shown in the given figure.
(i) By conducting the given experiment, teacher can conclude that

A. Genes for eye colour and body colour are linked
B. Genes for eye colour and body colour show complete linkage
C. Linked gene remain together and are inherited
(1) A and B only (2) B only (3) A and C only (4) A.B and C
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 55
(ii) Teacher asked to conduct an experiment on Drosophila because
(1) the male and female flies are easily distinguishable
(2) it completes its life cycle in about two weeks
(3) a single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies
(4) all of these.
(iii) Genes white eyed and yellow bodied located very close to one another on the same chromosome
tend to be transmitted together are called
(1) allelomorphs (2) identical genes (3) linked genes (4) recessive genes
(iv) Select the correct statement regarding the given experiment.
(1) The physical distance between two genes determines strength of linkage.
(2) The physical distance between two genes determines frequency of crossing over.
(3) The two linked genes always segregate independently of each other.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(v) Assertion: When yellow bodied, white eyed Drosophila females were hybridised with brown-
bodied, red eyed males; and F₁ progeny was intercrossed, F₂ ratio deviated from 9:3: 3:1.
Reason: When two genes in a dihybrid are on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental
gene combinations are much higher than the non-parental type.
Ans. (i) (3) A and C only

(ii) (4) all of these.
(iii) (3) linked genes
(iv) (4) Both (1) and (2)
(v) (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
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56 
Turner's syndrome is an example of monosomy. It is formed by the union of an allosome free egg
and a normal 'X' containing sperm or a normal egg and an allosome free sperm. The individual
has 2n = 45 chromosomes = (44 + X0) instead of 46. Such individuals are sterile females who
have rudimentary ovaries, under developed breasts, small uterus, short stature, webbed neck and
abnormal intelligence. They may not menstruate or ovulate . This disorder can be treated by
giving female sex hormone to the women from the age of puberty to make them develop breasts
and have menstruation. This makes them feel more normal.
(i) Number of Barr body present in a female with Turner's syndrome is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4)< 2
(ii) Turner's syndrome is an example of
(1) aneuploidy (2) euploidy (3) polyploidy (4) abnormality
(iii) Turner's syndrome is a/an
(1) autosomal recessive Mendelian disorder (2) autosomal dominant Mendelian disorder
(3) sex linked Mendelian disorder (4) chromosomal disorder.
(iv) Which of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is incorrect?
(1) It is a case of monosomy of chromosomes.
(2) The suffering individual is a sterile female having one 'X' chromosome missing in the cells.
(3) The problem is due to an extra chromosome.
(4) The individual are of short stature.
(v) Assertion: Turner's syndrome is caused due to absence of any one of the X and Y sex
chromosome.
Reason: Individuals suffering from Turner's syndrome show masculine as well as feminine
development.
Ans. (i) (1) 0
(ii) (1) aneuploidy
(iii) (4) chromosomal disorder
(iv) (3) The problem is due to an extra chromosome.
(v) (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
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 57
Haemophilia is a sex linked disease which is also known as bleeder's disease as the patient will
continue to bleed even from a minor cut since he or she does not possess the natural phenomenon
of blood clotting due to absence of anti-haemophilic globulin or factor VIII and plasma
thromboplastin factor IX essential for it. As a result of continuous bleeding the patient may die of
blood loss. Colour blindness is another type of sex linked trait in which the eye fails to
distinguish red and green colours. Vision is however, not affected and the colour blind can, lead a
normal life, reading, writing and driving (distinguishing traffic lights by their position).
(i) If a haemophilic man marries a woman whose father was haemophilic and mother was normal
then which of the following holds true for their progenies?
(1) Of the total number of daughters, 50% daughters are carrier and 50% are haemophilic.
(2) All the daughters are haemophilic.
(3) All sons are haemophilic and all daughters are normal.
(4) All sons are normal, all daughters are carriers.
(ii) A man whose father was colour blind and mother was normal marries a woman whose father was
haemophilic and mother was normal . Which of the following is true for their progenies?
(1) 25% female progenies carry the gene for both haemophilia and colourblindness.
(2) 25% male progenies carry only the gene of colourblindness.
(3) 25% female progenies carry only the gene of colourblindness.
(4) 25% male progenies and 25% female progenies carry the gene of haemophilia.
(iii) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding haemophilia?
(1) It is a dominant disease.
(2) A single protein involved in clotting of blood is affected.
(3) It is recessive disease.
(4) It is Mendelian disorder.
(iv) In which of the following disorder a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins
involved in blood clotting is affected?
(1) Thalassemia (2) Sickle-cell anaemia
(3) Haemophilia (4) Phenylketonuria
(v) Assertion: Haemophilia is commonly found in males.
Reason: Haemophilia is X- linked recessive disorder.
Ans. (i) (1) of the total number of daughters, 50% daughters are carrier and 50% are haemophilic.
(ii) (4) 25% male progenies and 25% female progenies carry the gene of haemophilia.
(iii) (1) It is a dominant disease
(iv) (3) Haemophilia
(v) (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
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58 
The given below is inheritance pattern of plant height (Subject-1) and flower colour in
snapdragon plant (Subject-2) study it give the answer of asked questions.
Subject- 1 Subject-2
(i) What type of cross represented by subject-1 and subject-2 respectively?

Subject-1 Subject-2
(1) Dihybrid cross Monohybrid cross
(2) Monohybrid cross Incomplete Dominance
(3) Dihybrid cross Incomplete Dominance
(4) Incomplete Dominance Co- Dominance
(ii) What are genotype and phenotype ratio of F2 generation of subject -1?
Genotype Phenotype Genotype Phenotype
(1) 1:3 1:2:1 (2) 1:2:1 1:3
(3) 1:3 1:2:1 (4) 1:2:1 1:3
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(iii) What are genotype and phenotype ratio of F2 generation of subject -2 ?
Genotype Phenotype Genotype Phenotype
(1) 1:3 1:2:1 (2) 1:2:1 1:2:1
(3) 1:3 1:2:1 (4) 1:2:1 1 :3
(iv) The appearance of dwarf plants and white flower in F2 generation of subject -1 and subject-2
respectively is due to
(1) Law of segregation (2) Law of dominance
(3) Law of independent assortment (4) All of these
(v) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of
(1) complete dominance (2) over dominance
(3) incomplete dominance (4) epistasis.
(vi) What will be the test cross ratio of both the subject-1 and subject-2 ?
Subject-1 Subject-2 Subject-1 Subject-2
(1) Tall : Dwarf Red : Pink (2) Tall : Dwarf Red : White
1:3 1:1 1:1 1:1
(3) Tall : Dwarf Pink : White (4) Tall : Dwarf Pink : White
1:3 1:1 1:1 1:1
Ans. (i) (2) Subject-1- Monohybrid cross, Subject-2- Incomplete Dominance
(ii) (2) Genotype- 1: 2 :1 , Phenotype- 1: 3
(iii) (2) Genotype- 1: 2 :1 , Phenotype- 1: 2: 1
(vi) (1) Law of segregation
(v) (3) incomplete dominance
(vi) (4) Subject -1 Tall : Dwarf , Subject -2 Pink : White
1:1 1:1
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Given below is the representation of amino acid composition of the relevant translated portion
of β-chain of haemoglobin, related to the shape of human red blood cells.
Subject-1 Subject-2
(i) What is the sequence of “X” and “Y” of mRNA in subject-1 and subject-2 respectively?
X Y X Y X Y X Y
(1) GAG GTG (2) GUG GAG (3) GAG GUG (4) GTG GAG
(ii) Due to mutation (Subject – 2) the shape of RBC under low oxygen tension will be
(1) Biconcave disc like shaped (2) Elongated and sickle shaped
(3) Circular shaped (4) Spherical shaped
(iii) Which of the mutation (Subject – 2) responsible for change for RBC structure ?
(1) Single base substitution (2) Frameshift mutation
(3) Point mutation (4) Both (1) and (3)
(iv) Due to mutation (Subject-2) in normal gene (Subject-1) the amino acid from 6th position of
polypeptide glutamic acid is substituted by valine, causes change in RBC structure that
responsible for a disease which is
(1) Autosomal dominant disease. (2) Sex- linked recessive disease.
(3) Autosomal recessive disease. (4) Sex- linked dominant disease.
(v) Which of the following genotype shows diseased phenotype due to mutation (Subject-2).
(1) HbA HbA (2) HbS HbS (3) HbA HbS (4) Both (2) and (3)
(vi) Study the given pedigree chart for Subject-2 and select the most appropriate option for the
genotype.
Genotype of parents Genotype of 1st and 3rd child in (II)

(1) HbA HbS and HbA HbA HbA HbA and HbA HbS
(2) HbA HbS and HbA HbS HbA HbA and HbA HbA
(3) HbA HbA and HbA HbS HbA HbA and HbS HbS
(4) HbA HbS and HbA HbS HbA HbS and HbS HbS
Ans. (i) (3) X- GAG, Y-GUG (ii) (2) Elongated and sickle
(iii) (4) Both (1) and (3) (iv) (3) Autosomal recessive disease.
(v) (2) HbS HbS
(vi) (4) Genotype of parents HbA HbS and HbA HbS
Genotype of 1st and 3rd child in (II) HbA HbS and HbS HbS
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CHAPTER 5
Anticodon: A triplet in the tRNA complementary to the codon on mRNA.
Bioinformatics: It is a discipline in which database of biological information are created and

maintained.
BAC: Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes.
Coding Strand : The DNA strand with 5' -3'polarity which does not code for RNA.
Chromatin:- Nucleosome constitute the repeating units of a structure in nucleus called

chromatin.
Cistron: Segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide.
Capping: Adding of methyl guanosine triphosphate to the 5' end of hnRNA.
Codon: A triplet nitrogenous base sequence that specifies a single amino acid present on mRNA.
DNA Polymorphism: Variation at genetic level which arises due to mutation.
DNA Ligase: The enzyme that joins the DNA fragments of the discontinuous strand.
Exons: The regions of a gene which become part of mRNA and code for different regions of
proteins.
Expressed Sequence Tags: Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA.
Euchromatin: Region of chromatin which is loosely packed and transcriptionally active.
Frameshift Mutation: Mutation which causes a change in the reading frame from the point of
insertion or deletion of base/bases.
Histones : Set of positively charged basic proteins found in Nucleosome.
Histone Octamer : Histones organized to form a unit of eight molecules.
Heterochromatin: Chromatin that is more densely packed, stains dark and transcriptionally
inactive.
hnRNA : Heterogenous nuclear RNA; is a precursor of m RNA.
HGP: Human Genome Project.
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Intron: Sequences which do not appear in mature or processed RNA.
Inducer: Substrate which regulates switching on of an operon.
Monocistronic:- In eukaryotes the structural gene in a transcription unit called monocistronic.
Negative Regulation:- Regulation of operon by repressor protein.
Nucleosome:- The structure formed by the negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively
charged histone octamer.
Non-histone Chromosomal Proteins:- Set of proteins involved in packaging of chromatin.
Operon:- Group of genes making up a regulatory or control unit.
Polycistronic:- In prokaryotes the structural gene in a transcription unit called monocistronic.
Repetitive DNA : Small stretch of DNA which is repeated many times.
Replication fork:- A small opening of DNA helix referred to as replication fork.
Satellite DNA: The repetitive DNA sequences which form a large portion of genome and have
high degree of polymorphism but do not code for any proteins.
Structural Gene: A gene in a operon that codes for a polypeptide.
Sequence Annotation: Sequencing of the whole set of genome that contains all the coding and
noncoding sequences and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions.
Semiconservative DNA Replication: After completion of replication, each DNA molecule has
one parental and one newly synthesized strand.
Splicing: The process in eukaryotic genes in which introns are removed and the exons are joined
together to form mRNA.
SNPs: Single Nucleotide Polymorphism.
Template Strand: The DNA strand with polarity 3'-5'acts as template for RNA synthesis.
Translation: Process of polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide.
Transformation: The phenomenon by which the DNA isolated from one type of a cell, when
introduced into another type, is able to express some of the properties of the form into the latter.
VNTR: Variable Number Tandem Repeats.
YAC: Yeast Artificial Chromosomes.
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1. In eukaryotic cell circular and double stranded DNA occurs in -
(1) Golgibody (2) Mitochondria (3) Nucleus (4) Ribosome
Ans (2) Mitochondria
2. Double helix model of DNA which was proposed by watson and crick was of-
(1) C-DNA (2) B-DNA (3) D-DNA (4) Z-DNA
Ans (2) B-DNA
3. If there are 10,000 nitrogenous base pairs in a DNA then how many nucleotides are there-
(1) 500 (2) 10,000 (3) 20,000 (4) 40,000
Ans (3) 20,000
4. Double helix model of DNA is proposed by-

(1) Watson and Crick (2) Schleiden schwann
(3) Singer and Nicholson (4) Kornberg and Khurana
Ans (1) Watson and Crick
6. Substance common in DNA and RNA -

(1) Hexose Sugar (2) Histamine (3) Thymine (4) Phosphate groups
Ans (4) Phosphate groups
7. Nucleotide is -
(1) N2 - base, pentose sugar and phosphoric acid
(2) Nitrogen, Hexose sugar and phosphoric acid
(3) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar
(4) Nitrogen base, trioses and phosphoric acid
Ans (1) N2 - base, pentose sugar and phosphoric acid
8. Unit of nucleic acids are-

(1) Phosphoric acid (2) Nitrogenous bases (3) Pentose Sugar (4) Nucleotides
Ans (4) Nucleotides
9. Nucleic acid (DNA) is not found in-

(1) Nucleus & nucleolus (2) Peroxysome & ribosome
(3) Mitochondria & plastid (4) Chloroplast & nucleosome
Ans (2) Peroxysome & Ribosome
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10. A nucleic acid contains thymine or methylated uracil then it should be -

(1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) Either DNA or RNA (4) RNA of bacteria
Ans (1) DNA
11. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide is not having -
(1) Phosphate (2) Sugar
(3) Phosphate & sugar (4) Nitrogen base
Ans (1) Phosphate
12. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of
(1) Hershey and Chase (1952) (2) Frederic Griffith (1928)
(3) Watson and Crick (1953) (4) Meselson and Stal (1958)
Ans (1) Hershey and Chase (1952)
13. Genetic information are transferred from nucleus to cytoplasm of cell through :-
(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Lysosomes (4) ACTH
Ans (2) RNA
14. Short DNA segment has 80 thymine and 90 guanine bases. The total number of nucleotides are-
(1) 160 (2) 40 (3) 80 (4) 340
Ans (4) 340
15. Prokaryotic DNA is :-
(1) double stranded circular (2) single stranded circular
(3) double stranded linear (4) double stranded RNA as nucleic acid
Ans (1) double stranded circular
16. DNA molecule has uniform diameter due to -
(1) Double stranded
(2) Presence of phosphate
(3) Specific base pairing between purine and pyrimidine
(4) Specific base pairing between purine and purine
Ans (3) Specific base pairing between purine and pyrimidine
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17. Which of the following sugar present in RNA ?
(1) Deoxyribose (2) Ribose (3) Sucrose (4) Maltose
Ans (2) Ribose
18. In a nucleotide H3PO4 binds to which carbon atom of pentose sugar :-
(1) Only 1st carbon (2) Only 3rd carbon
(3) Only 5th carbon (4) Both 3rd and 5th carbon
Ans (3) Only 5th carbon
19. DNA is acidic due to :-
(1) Sugar (2) Phosphoric acid (3) Purine (4) Pyrimidine
Ans (2) Phosphoric acid
20. If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is known then the sequence in other strand can be
predicted on the basis of:-
(1) Antiparallel (2) Complementary (3) Polarity (4) Coiling
Ans (2) Complementary
21. Length of one loop of B- DNA-
(1) 3.4 nm. (2) 0.34 nm. (3) 20 nm. (4) 10 nm.
Ans (1) 3.4 nm.
22. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and
(1) RNA primers are not involved (2) is facilitated by telomerase
(3) moves in one direction of the site (4) moves in bi-directional way
Ans (4) moves in bi-directional way

23. Semiconservative mode of replication of DNA was given by
(1) Watson and Crick (2) Bateson and Punnett
(3) Messelson and Stahl (4) Avery, McCarty and Mactleod
Ans (1) Watson and Crick

24. Mode of DNA replication in E. coli is :-
(1) Conservative and unidirectional (2) Semiconservative and unidirectional
(3) Conservative and bidirectional (4) Semiconservative and bidrectional
Ans (4) Semiconservative and bidrectional
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25. DNA replication includes :-

(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA polymerase and ligase
(3) RNA primase and ligase (4) All of these
26. In DNA replication, the primer is :-
(1) A small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
(2) A small ribonucleotide polymer
(3) Helix destabilizing protein
(4) Enzyme taking part in joining nucleotides of new strand
Ans (2) A small ribonucleotide polymer
27. During DNA replication discontinuosly synthesized fragments are later joined by the enzyme .
(1) DNA Ligase (2) DNA polymerage (3) RNA primer (4) Primase
Ans (1) DNA Ligase
28. Replication fork is .
(1) Large opening of the DNA helix (2) Small opening of the DNA helix
(3) Tightly coiled part of DNA helix (4) Loosely coiled part of DNA helix
Ans (2) Small opening of the DNA helix
29. Main enzyme of DNA replication is .
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
Ans (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
30. The process by which DNA of the nucleus passes genetic information to m-RNA is called-
(1) Transcription (2) Translocation (3) Translation (4) Transportation
Ans (1) Transcription
31. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called :-
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator (3) Receptor (4) Enhancer
Ans (1) Promoter
32. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is
ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be
(1) TATGC (2) TCTGG (3) UAUGC (4) UATGC
Ans (3) UAUGC
33. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA .
(1) DNA dependant RNA polymerase (2) DNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase (4) RNA polymerase
Ans (3) Reverse transcriptase
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34. The enzyme responsible for transcription is :-

(1) DNA polymerase-I (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase (4) DNA polymerase-III
Ans (2) RNA polymerase
35. If the base sequence in DNA is 5' AAAA 3' then the bases sequence in m-RNA is :-
(1) 5' UUUU 3' (2) 3' UUUU 5' (3) 5' AAAA 3' (4) 3' TTTT 5'
Ans (3) 5' AAAA 3'
36. Method by which information reaches from DNA to RNA is :-
(1) Transcription (2) Translation (3) Transformation (4) Transduction
Ans (1) Transcription
37. Portion of gene which is transcribed but not translated is :-
(1) exon (2) intron (3) cistron (4) codon
Ans (2) intron
38. Who proposed the central dogma in molecular biology :
(1) Watson (2) Crick (3) Temin (4) Khorana
Ans (2) Crick
39. Mature eukaryotic mRNA is recognised by
(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end
(2) 7 methyl guanosine at 5' end and polyadenine bases at 3' end
(3) Anti shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end
(4) Presence of coding and noncoding sequence
Ans (2) 7 methyl guanosine at 5' end and polyadenine bases at 3' end
40. Transcription unit in DNA includes :
(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene (3) Terminator (4) All
Ans (4) All
41. A codon in mRNA has :-
(1) 3-bases (2) 2-bases (3) 1-base (4) Number of bases vary
Ans (1) 3-bases
42. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except-
(1) Another DNA (2) tRNA & mRNA (3) rRNA (4) Protein
Ans (4) Protein
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43. Genetic code was discovered by-
(1) Nirenberg & Mathei (2) Kornberg & Crick
(3) Khorana & Kornberg (4) Gamow
Ans (1) Nirenberg & Mathei
44. Genetic code was deciphered by enzymatically synthesizing the trinucleotides by-
(1) Watson & Crick (2) Beadle & Tatum (3) Briggs & King (4) M.W. Nirenberg
Ans (4) M.W. Nirenberg
45. Codons constitute genetic code because-
(1) There was 64 types of amino acid (2) 64 types of tRNA
(3) Genetic code is triplet (4) There are 64 enzymes

Ans (3) Genetic code is triplet
46. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because.
(1) One cistron contains many genes (2) One gene contains many cistrons
(3) One gene contains one cistron (4) One gene contains no cistron
Ans (3) One gene contains one cistron
47. What does "lac" refer to, in what we call the lac operon :-
(1) Lactose (2) Lactase (3) Lac insect (4) The number 1,00,000
Ans (1) Lactose
48. Which of the following is initiation codon ?
(1) UUU (2) AUG (3) CUU (4) GAC
Ans (2) AUG

49. Which of the following is not produced by E.Coli in the lac operon .
(1) -galactosidase (2) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
(3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Lactose permease
Ans (3) Lactose dehydrogenase
50. Which step does not involve in DNA finger printing
(1) Autoradiography (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Restriction enzyme digestion (4) Hybridization with unknown probe
Ans (4) Hybridization with unknown probe
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1. Assertion: The sugar phosphate backbone of two chains in DNA double helix show anti-parallel
polarity.
Reason: The phosphodiester bonds in one strand go from a 3' carbon of one nucleotide to a 5'
carbon of adjacent nucleotide, whereas those in complementary strand go vice versa.
Ans (1)
2. Assertion: DNA is considered to be better genetic material than RNA for most organisms.
Reason: 2'-OH group present in DNA makes it labile and less reactive.
Ans (3)
3. Assertion : Histones are basic proteins of major importance in packaging of eukaryotic DNA.
Reason : Histones are of five major types H1,H2A H2B,H3 and H4 .
Ans (2)
4. Assertion: Histones are basic in nature.
Reason: Histones are rich in the amino acids lysine and arginine.
Ans (1)
5. Assertion: The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments
of Hershey and Chase.
Reason: They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages.
Ans (2)
6. Assertion: DNA acts as a genetic material in all organisms.
Reason: It is a single-stranded biomolecule.
Ans (4)
7. Assertion: In Griffith's experiment, a mixture of heat-killed virulent bacteria R and live
non-virulent bacteria S, lead to the death of mice.
Reason: 'Transforming principle' got transferred from heat killed R strain to S strain and made
virulent.
Ans (4)
8. Assertion: The genetic material should be stable chemically and structurally.
Reason: It should be able to generate its replica.
Ans (2)
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9. Assertion : Central dogma is the flow of information from DNA to mRNA and then decoding
the information present in mRNA in the form of protein.
Reason : In retroviruses, reverse of central dogma occurs.
Ans (2)
10. Assertion: DNA act as the genetic material in most of the organisms.
Reason: DNA is chemically and structurally a stable molecule; it has the power of replication.
Ans (1)
11. Assertion: Replication on one strand of DNA is continuous and on another is discontinuous.
Reason: The DNA polymerase works in 3'  5' direction.
Ans (1)
12. Assertion: The mechanism of DNA replication is semiconservative in nature.
Reason: Each of the complementary strand of the parental double helix is conserved during the
process.
Ans (1)
13. Assertion: Synthesis of daughter or new strand occurs continuously along the parent 3'  5'
strand.
Reason: DNA polymerase can polymerise nucleotides in 3'  5' direction on 5'  3' strand.
Ans (1)
14. Assertion: One of the two strands of DNA is called sense strand and other is called antisense
strand.
Reason: Sense strand of DNA forms complementary RNA.
Ans (2)
15. Assertion: The nitrogen bases of the two chains of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds.
Reason: Both chains of DNA are antiparallel.
Ans (2)
16. Assertion : Replication and transcription occurs in cytoplasm in eukaryotic cell.
Reason : mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino
acids are available for protein synthesis.
Ans (4)
17. Assertion: Ribosomes protect mRNA from ribonuclease.
Reason: mRNA is located in the gap between the two ribosomal subunits.
Ans (1)
18. Assertion: Human genome project (HGP) was a mega project.
Reason: The total estimate cost of the project would be approximately 9 billion US dollars.
Ans (2)
19. Assertion: Lac operon is a repressible operon.
Reason: The product of gene activity stops the activity of the lac operon.
Ans (4)
20. Assertion: Initiation step of protein synthesis in prokaryotes and eukaryotes has several
differences.
Reason: They both form mRNA-tRNA complex with smaller subunit of ribosome.
Ans (2)
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1. Read the following and answer any four questions from 1 (i) to 1 (v) given below:-
Nucleic acids are long polymers of nucleotides. While DNA stores genetic information, RNA
mostly helps in transfer and expression of information. Though DNA and RNA both function as
genetic material, but DNA being chemically and structurally more stable is a better genetic
material. However, RNA is the first to evolve and DNA was derived from RNA. The hallmark of
the double stranded helical structure of DNA is the hydrogen bonding between the bases from
opposite strands. The rule is that Adenine pairs with Thymine through two H-bonds, and Guanine
with Cytosine through three H-bonds. This makes one strand complementary to the other. The
DNA replicates semiconservatively, the process is guided by the complementary H-bonding. A
segment of DNA that codes for RNA may in a simplistic term can be referred as gene.
(i) Nucleotide is formed by-

(1) Nitrogen base, hexose sugar, and phosphoric acid.
(2) Nitrogen base, triose sugar, and phosphoric acid
(3) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar, and phosphoric acid
(4) Nitrogen, pentose sugar, and phosphoric acid
(ii) In DNA purine nitrogen bases are:-
(1) Uracil and Guanine (2) Guanine and Adenine
(3) Adenine and Cytosine (4) Cytosine and Uracil
(iii) What is the nature of the 2 strands of a DNA duplex:-
(1) Identical and Complementary (2) Antiparallel and Complementary
(3) Disimillar and Non-complementary (4) Anti-parallel and Non-complementary
(iv) Mode of DNA replication in E.coli is :-
(1) Conservative and unidirectional (2) Semi-conservative and unidirectional
(3) Conservative and bidirectional (4) Semi-conservative and bidirectional
(v) Short DNA segment has 20% thymine calculate the amount of cytosine in this DNA segment?
(1) 40% (2) 60% (3) 80% (4) 30%

Ans. (i) (3) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar, and phosphoric acid
(ii) (2) Guanine and Adenine
(iii) (2) Antiparallel and Complementary
(iv) (4) Semi-conservative and bidirectional
(v) (4) 30% (According to chargaff Rule for ds DNA, A = T and G = C)
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2. Read the following and answer any four questions from 2 (i) to 2 (v) given below:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types of nucleic acids
found in the living systems. DNA acts as the genetic material in most of the organisms. Although
RNA also acts as a genetic material in some organisms. RNA though it also acts as a genetic
material in some viruses. A nucleotide has three components – a nitrogenous base, a pentose
sugar (ribose in case of RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA), and a phosphate group. There are two
types of nitrogenous bases – Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and Pyrimidines (Cytosine, Uracil
and Thymine). Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is present in DNA.
Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.
(i) In which of the following organisms, RNA acts as a genetic material?
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Lactobacillus
(3) Tobacco Mosaic viruses (4) Both (2) and (3)
(ii) What is the reason for the additional stability of DNA in comparison to RNA?
(1) Presence of thymine (2) Presence of uracil
(3) Presence of OH group (4) Presence of deoxyribose sugar
(iii) Which of the following criteria a molecule must fulfill to act as a genetic material?
(1) It should be able to generate its replica.
(2) It should be stable chemically and structurally.
(3) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian character.
(4) All of these
(iv) Read the given statement and select the option that correctly fill in the blanks.
Pyrimidines present in DNA are...... (i)....... and.....(ii......) while pyrimidines present in RNA
are.... (iii)...... and ....(iv).....
(1) (i)- Adenine, (ii)- Guanine, (iii)- Cytosine, (iv)- Thymine
(2) (i)- Cytosine, (ii)- Thymine, (iii)- Cytosine, (iv)- Uracil
(3) (i)- Cytosine, (ii)- Uracil, (iii)- Adenine, (iv)- Guanine
(4) (i)- Cytosine, (ii)- Uracil, (iii)- Cytosine, (iv)- Thymine
(v) Assertion: Adenine and guanine are double - ring bases.
Reason: Adenine and guanine are pyrimidines.
Ans. (i) (3) Tobacco Mosaic viruses
(ii) (1) Presence of thymine
(iii) (4) All of these
(iv) (2) (i)-Cytosine, (ii)-Thymine, (iii)-Cytosine, (iv)-Uracil
(v) (3)
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 73
DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Meischer in 1869.
He named it as ‘Nuclein’. However, due to technical limitation in isolating such a long polymer
intact, the elucidation of structure of DNA remained elusive for a very long period of time. It was
only in 1953 that James Watson and Francis Crick, based on the X-ray diffraction data produced
by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin, proposed a very simple but famous Double Helix
model for the structure of DNA. One of the hallmarks of their proposition was base pairing
between the two strands of polynucleotide chains. However, this proposition was also based on
the observation of Erwin Chargaff that for a double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine
and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals one.
(i) Name the linkage present between the nitrogen base and pentose sugar in DNA.
(1) Phosphodiester bond (2) N-glycosidic bond
(3) Hydrogen bond (4) None of these
(ii) How many types of nucleic acids are found in living systems?
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
(iii) Watson and Crick utilized X-ray diffraction data produced by
(1) Griffith (2) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
(3) Sutton and Boveri (4) None of these
(iv) Erwin Chargaff found that
(1) Ratios of adenine and cytosine & thymine and guanine are constant.
(2) Ratios of adenine and thymine & guanine and cytosine are constant.
(3) Ratios of adenine and guanine & thymine and cytosine are constant.
(4) Ratios of adenine – guanine & thymine – cytosine are constant.
(v) Assertion:The two strands of DNA helix have uniform distance between them.
Reason: A large sized purine always paired opposite to a small sized pyrimidine.
Ans. (i) (2) N-glycosidic bond
(ii) (3) 2
(iii) (2) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
(iv) (2) Ratios of adenine and thymine and guanine and cytosine are constant.
(v) (1)
E
74 
Gene regulation is the mechanism of switching OFF and ON of the genes depending upon the
requirement of cells and the state of development. Gene regulation is two type : negative and
positive .The given gene diagram is Operon model of gene regulation study it and give the
(i) What are “X” and “Y” in subject-1 and subject-2 respectively?
(1) X-Inducer, Y- Repressor (2) X- Repressor, Y-Inducer
(3) X- Corepressor, Y- Repressor (4) X- Repressor, Y- Corepressor
(ii) The gene z, y, and a synthesized a mRNA, which translated and form the product A, B and C.
Identified the A, B and C in subject-2.
A B C
(1) β- galactosidase Transacetylase Permease
(2) β- galactosidase Permease Transacetylase
(3) Transacetylase Permease β- galactosidase
(4) Permease β- galactosidase Transacetylase
(iii) The type of gene regulation in which the genes continue expressing their effect till their activity
is suppressed is called
(1) Negative regulation (2) Positive regulation
(3) Neutral regulation (4) All of these
(iv) The type of gene regulation in which the genes remain non-expressed unless they are induced to
do it.
(1) Negative regulation (2) Positive regulation
(3) Neutral regulation (4) All of these
(v) Inducible operon system usually occur in …(M)… pathway. Nutrient molecules serve as …(N)…to
stimulate production of the enzyme necessary for their breakdown. Genes for inducible operon are
usually switched…(O)…and the repressor is synthesized in an…(P)…form.
M N O P
(1) anabolic corepressor on inactive
(2) anabolic inducer off active
(3) catabolic inducer off active
(4) catabolic corepressor on inactive
E
 75
(vi) Which statement correctly describe the control of transcription of the genes involved in the
breakdown of lactose in E.coli.
(1) A repressor protein binds to the operator and the gene are switched on.
(2) A repressor protein binds to the operator and the gene are switched off.
(3) A transcription factors binds to the promoter and the gene are switched on.
(4) A transcription factors binds to the promoter and the gene are switched off.
Ans. (i) (2) X- Repressor, Y-Inducer
(ii) (2) A- β- galactosidase, B- Permease, C- Transacetylase
(iii) (1) Negative regulation
(iv) (2) Positive regulation
(v) (3) M- catabolic, N -inducer, O- off, P- active
(vi) (2) A repressor protein binds to the operator and the gene are switched off.
The given case is an experiment related to the discovery of genetic material is DNA. The
experiment is show in the subject-1 and subject-2. Studies it and give the answer of followed
questions.
Subject-1 Subject-2
(i) What are “X” and “Y” in subject-1 and subject-2 respectively?
(1) X- 36S, Y- 32P (2) X- 35S, Y- 32P (3) X- 32S, Y- 35P (4) X- 35S, Y- 34P
(ii) The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of
(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (2) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
(3) Frederick Griffith (4) James Watson and Francis Crick
E
76 
(iii) What are detected as A and B is subject-1 after centrifugation process?
A B
(1) Radioactive 35S detected in cells Radioactive 35S detected in supernatant
(2) No radioactive 35S detected in cells No radioactive 35S detected in supernatant
(3) No radioactive 35S detected in cells Radioactive 35S detected in supernatant
(4) Radioactive 32P detected in cells No radioactive 35S detected in supernatant
(iv) What are detected as C and D is subject-2 after centrifugation process?
C D
32 32
(1) No radioactive P detected in cells Radioactive P detected in supernatant
32
(2) Radioactive P detected in cells Radioactive 35S detected in supernatant
(3) No radioactive 32P detected in cells No Radioactive 32P detected in supernatant
(4) Radioactive 32P detected in cells No radioactivity in supernatant
(v) The viral coat were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a blender, process is called
as
(1) Infection (2) Blending (3) Centrifugation (4) Gel-electrophoresis
(vi) Assertion:- Bacteria which infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive .
Reason: It indicate that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
Ans.
(i) (2) X- 35S, Y- 32P
(ii) (1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(iii) (3) A - No radioactive 35S detected in cells, B - Radioactive 35S detected in supernatant
(iv) (4) C - Radioactive 32P detected in cells, D - No Radioactivity in supernatant
(v) (2) Blending
(vi) (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
E
 77
CBSE SAMPLE PAPER (2021-22)

BIOLOGY (TERM-I) CLASS-XII
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions:
1 The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions, attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions, attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions, attempt any 10 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION-A
Consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted 20
questions would be evaluated.
1. The structure of bilobed anther consists of

(A) 2 thecae, 2 sporangia (B) 4 thecae, 4 sporangia
(C) 4 thecae, 2 sporangia (D) 2 thecae, 4 sporangia
2. In the figure of anatropous ovule given below, choose the correct option for the characteristic
distribution of cells within the typical embryo sac.
Number of cells Number of cells at Number of nuclei

at chalazal end micropylar end left in central cell
A 3 2 3
B 3 3 2
C 2 3 3
D 2 2 4
3. The coconut water from tender coconut is
(A) cellular endosperm. (B) free nuclear endosperm.
(C) both cellular and nuclear endosperm. (D) free nuclear embryo.
4. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of presence of
(A) sporopollenin (B) cellulose (C) lignocellulose (D) pectocellulose
E
78 
5. Which of the following statements are true related to Seed X and Y?
SEED X SEED Y
(i) Seed X is dicot and endospermic or albuminous.
(ii) Seed X is dicot and non-endospermic or non-albuminous.
(iii) Seed Y is monocot and endospermic or albuminous.
(iv) Seed Y is monocot and non-endospermic or non-albuminous.
Choose the correct option with the respect to the nature of the seed
(A) (i), (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) (C) (i), (iv) (D) (ii), (iv)
6. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to hormones secreted by placenta?
(i) Placenta secretes relaxin during later stage of pregnancy.
(ii) Placenta secretes high amount of FSH during pregnancy.
(iii) Placenta secretes relaxin during initial stage of pregnancy.
(iv) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during pregnancy.
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
7. Figure A shows the front view of the human female reproductive system and Figure B shows the
development of a fertilized human egg cell.
Figure A Figure B
X
Identify the correct stage of development of human embryo (Figure B) that takes place at the site
X, Y and Z respectively in the human female reproductive system (Figure A).
Choose the correct option from the table below :
X Y Z
A Morula Fertilized egg Blastocyst
B Unfertilized egg Fertilized egg Morula
C Blastocyst Fertilized egg Unfertilized egg
D Fertilized egg Morula Blastocyst
E
 79
8. Penetration of the sperm in the ovum is followed by

(A) formation of first polar body. (B) completion of meiosis II.
(C) first meiosis. (D) dissolution of zona pellucida.
9. The correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is :
(A) FSH, progesterone, estrogen. (B) estrogen, FSH, progesterone.
(C) FSH, estrogen, progesterone. (D) estrogen, progesterone, FSH.
10. In the dioecious aquatic plant shown, identify the characteristics of the male flowers that reach
the female flowers for pollination :
Size of the flower Colour of flower Characteristic feature of pollen grain

A Small Brightly coloured Light weight and non-sticky
B Large Colourless Large and sticky
C Small White Small, covered with mucilage
D Large Colourless Non sticky
11. The thalamus contributes to the fruit formation in
(A) banana. (B) orange. (C) strawberry. (D) guava.
12. How many types of gametes would be produced if the genotype of a parent is AaBB?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
13. Which of the following statements indicates parallelism in genes and chromosomes?
(i) They occur in pairs
(ii) They segregate during gamete formation
(iii) They show linkage
(iv) Independent pairs segregate independently
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
E
80 
14. Which of the following amino acid substitution is responsible for causing sickle cell anemia?
(A) Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the  globin chain at the sixth position.
(B) Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the  globin chain at seventh position.
(C) Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the  globin chain at the sixth position.
(D) Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the  globin chain at the sixth position.
15. In human beings, where genotype AABBCC represents dark skin colour, aabbcc represents light
skin colour and AaBbCc represents intermediate skin colour; the pattern of genetic inheritance
can be termed as :
(A) Pleiotropy and codominance (B) Pleiotropy and incomplete dominance
(C) Polygenic and qualitative inheritance (D) Polygenic and quantitative inheritance
16. Which of the following combination of chromosome numbers represents the correct sex
determination pattern in honey bees?
(A) Male 32, Female 16 (B) Male 16, Female 32
(C) Male 31, Female 32 (D) Female 32, Male 31
17. Rajesh and Mahesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. Rajesh has too few
globin molecules while Mahesh has incorrectly functioning globin molecules. Identify the
disorder they are suffering from.
Rajesh Mahesh
A Sickle cell anaemia-an autosome Thalassemia-an autosome linked dominant trait
linked recessive trait
B Thalassemia-an autosome linked Sickle cell anaemia-an autosome linked recessive
recessive blood disorder trait
C Sickle cell anaemia-an autosome Thalassemia-an autosome linked recessive blood
linked recessive trait disorder
D Thalassemia-an autosome linked Sickle cell anaemia-an autosome linked
recessive blood disorder dominant trait
18. Which of the following criteria must a molecule fulfil to act as a genetic material?
(i) It should not be able to generate its replica
(ii) It should chemically and structurally be stable
(iii) It should not allow slow mutation
(iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian Characters
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv)
19. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
(A) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(B) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(C) the 5' (upstream) end of the transcription unit
(D) the 3' (downstream) end of the transcription unit
E
 81
20. Which of the following is correct about mature RNA in eukaryotes?

(A) Exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
(B) Exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
(C) Introns appear, but exons do not appear in the mature RNA.
(D) Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA.
21. In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when
(A) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor.
(B) repressor binds to operator.
(C) RNA polymerase binds to the operator.
(D) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
22. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty used enzymes to purify biochemicals such
as proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat-killed S cells to see which ones could transform live R
cells into S cells in Griffith's experiment. They observed that
(A) Proteases and RNases affected transformation.
(B) DNase inhibited transformation.
(C) Proteases and Lipases affected transformation.
(D) RNases inhibited transformation.
23. AUG on the mRNA will result in the activation of which of the following RNA having correct
combination of amino acids :
A
B
AUG
Site A Site B
A UAC Methionine
B Methionine UAC
C Methionine AUG
D AUG Methionine
24. Short stretches of DNA used to identify complementary sequence in a sample are called
(A) probes (B) markers (C) VNTRs (D) primers
E
82 
SECTION-B
Consists of 24 questions (No.25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first
attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
Question No. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is False but R is true
25. Assertion : Lactational amenorrhea is the natural method of contraception.
Reason: It increases the phagocytosis of sperm.
26. Assertion: Saheli, an oral contraceptive for females, contains a steroidal preparation.
Reason: It is a "once a week" pill with very few side effects.
27. Assertion: Parturition is induced by a complex neuro endocrine meachanism.
Reason: At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary releases prolactin which causes
uterine contractions.
28. Assertion: When the two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome, the
proportion of parental gene combinations is much higher than non-parental type.
Reason: Higher parental gene combinations can be attributed to crossing over between two
genes.
29. Concentration of which of the following substances will decrease in the maternal blood as it
flows from embryo to placenta through the umbilical cord?
(i) Oxygen
(ii) Amino Acids
(iii) Carbon dioxide
(iv) Urea
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iv (C) iii and iv (D) i and iv
E
 83
30. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in
(A) antipodal, zygote and endosperm (B) zygote, nucellus and endosperm
(C) endosperm, nucellus and zygote. (D) antipodals, synergids and integusments
31. A botanist studying Viola (common pansy) noticed that one of the two flower types withered and
developed no further due to some unfavorable condition, but the other flower type on the same
plant survived and it resulted in an assured seed set. Which of the following will be correct?
(A) The flower type which survived is Cleistogamous and it always exhibits autogamy
(B) The flower type which survived is Chasmogamous and it always exhibits geitonogamy.
(C) The flower type which survived is Cleistogamous and it exhibits both autogamy and
geitonogamy.
(D) The flower type which survived is Chasmogamous and it never exhibits autogamy.
32. During parturition, a pregnant woman is having prolonged labour pains and child birth has to be
fastened. It is advisable to administer a hormone that can
(A) increase the metabolic rate. (B) release glucose in the blood.
(C) stimulate the ovary. (D) activate smooth muscles.
33. A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked fallopian tubes. The technique by which the
embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into the female for further development
is
(A) ZIFT (B) GIFT (C) IUT (D) AI
34. The mode of action of the copper ions in an IUD is to
(A) increase the movement of sperms.
(B) decrease the movement of the sperms.
(C) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(D) make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
35. To produce 400 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be
(A) 400 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 800
E
84 
36. A cross is made between tall pea plants having green pods and dwarf pea plants having yellow
pods. In the F2 generation, out of 80 plants how many are likely to be tall plants?
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 45 (D) 60
37. In Antirrhinum, RR is phenotypically red flowers, rr is white and Rr is pink. Select the correct
phenotypic ratio in F1 generation when a cross is performed between RR X Rr :
(A) 1 red: 2 Pink: 1 white (B) 2 Pink: 1 white
(C) 2 Red: 2 Pink (D) All Pink
38. What would be the genotype of the parents if the offspring have the phenotypes in
1:1 proportion?
(A) Aa × Aa (B) AA × AA (C) Aa × AA (D) Aa × aa
39. What is the pattern of inheritance in the given pedigree chart?
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Autosomal recessive

(C) Sex -linked dominant (D) Sex -linked recessive
40. A couple has two daughters. What is the probability that the third child will also be a female?
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 100%
41. Genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is obtained in a cross between

(A) AB × AB (B) Ab × Ab (C) Ab × ab (D) ab × ab
42. Total number of nucleotide sequences of DNA that codes for a hormone is 1530. The proportion
of different bases in the sequence is found to be Adenine = 34%, Guanine = 19%, Cytosine =
23%, Thymine = 19%.
Applying Chargaff’s rule, what conclusion can be drawn?
(A) It is a double stranded circular DNA.
(B) It is a single stranded DNA.
(C) It is a double stranded linear DNA.
(D) It is a single stranded DNA coiled on Histones.
E
 85
43. A stretch of an euchromatin has 200 nucleosomes. How many bp will there be in the stretch and
what would be the length of the typical euchromatin?
(A) 20,000 bp and 13,000 × 10–9 m (B) 10,000 bp and 10,000 × 10–9 m
(C) 40,000 bp and 13,600 × 10–9 m (D) 40,000 bp and 13,900 × 10–9 m
44. Observe structures A and B given below. Which of the following statements are correct?
A B
(A) A is having 2'-OH group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable, whereas B is
having 2'-H group which makes it more reactive and unstable.
(B) A is having 2'-OH group which makes it more reactive and structurally unstable, whereas B
is having 2'-H group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable.
(C) A and B both have -OH groups which make it more reactive and structurally stable.
(D) A and B both are having -OH groups which make it less reactive and structurally stable.
45. If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for sixth generations in bacteria, the ratio of
Heavy strands 15N/15N : Hybrid15N/14N : light 14N/14N containing DNA in the sixth generation
would be
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 0 : 1 : 7 (C) 0 : 1 : 15 (D) 0 : 1 : 31
46. Two important RNA processing events lead to specialized end sequences in most human
mRNAs: ___(i)___ at the 5’ end, and___(ii)___at the 3’ end. At the 5’ end the most distinctive
specialized end nucleotide,___(iii)___is added and a sequence of about 200___(iv) is added to
the 3’ end.
(A) (i) Initiator codon (ii) Promotor (iii) Terminator codon (iv) Release factors
(B) (i) Promotor (ii) Elongation (iii) Regulation (iv) Termination.
(C) (i) Capping (ii) Polyadenylation (iii) mGppp (iv) Poly(A).
(D) (i) Repressor (ii) Co repressor (iii) Operon (iv) Release factors
47. What are minisatellites?
(A) 10-40 bp sized small sequences within the genes
(B) Short coding repetitive region on the eukaryotic genome
(C) Short non-coding repetitive sequence forming large portion of eukaryotic genome
(D) Regions of coding strands of the DNA
E
86 
48. There was a mix-up at the hospital after a fire accident in the nursery division. Which of these
children belong to the parents?
(A) All of the children (B) Children 2, 3 & 6 (C) Children 1 & 3 (D) Children 2 & 4
SECTION-C
Consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q.No.49 to 54). Besides this, 6
more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.
The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.
Case: To answer the questions, study the graphs below for Subject 1 and 2 showing different
levels of certain hormones.
Peak Peak
Ovulation Ovulation
HCG
Follicular phase Luteal phase Follicular phase Luteal phase
Cycle start 7 days 14 days 21 days Cycle stoped Cycle start 7 days 14 days 21 days Cycle stoped
49. The peak observed in Subject 1 and 2 is due to

(A) estrogen (B) progesterone
(C) luteinizing hormone (D) follicle stimulating hormone
E
 87
50. Subject 2 has higher level of hormone B, which is

(A) estrogen (B) progesterone
(C) luteinizing hormone (D) follicle stimulating hormone
51. If the peak of Hormone A does not appear in the study for Subject 1, which of the following
statement is true?
(A) Peak of Hormone B will be observed at a higher point in the graph
(B) Peak of Hormone B will be observed at a point lower than what is given in the graph
(C) There will be no observed data for Hormone B
(D) The graph for Hormone B will be a sharp rise followed by a plateau
52. Which structure in the ovary will remain functional in subject 2?
(A) Corpus Luteum (B) Tertiary follicle (C) Graafian follicle (D) Primary follicle
53. For subject 2 it is observed that the peak for hormone B has reached the plateau stage. After
approximately how much time will the curve for hormone B descend?
(A) 28 days (B) 42 days (C) 180 days (D) 280 days
54. Which of the following statements is true about the subjects?
(A) Subject 1 is pregnant (B) Subject 2 is pregnant
(C) Both subject 1 and 2 are pregnant (D) Both subject 1 and 2 are not pregnant
A B
55. The gene that controls the ABO blood group system in human beings has three alleles - I , I and
i. A child has blood group O. His father has blood group A and mother has blood group B.
Genotypes of other off springs can be :
(i) IBIB (ii) IAi (iii) IBi (iv) IAIB (v) ii
(A) i, ii, iii, v (B) ii, iii ,iv, v (C) iii, iv, v (D) iv, iii, i
56. Placed below is a karyotype of a human being..
On the basis of this karyotype, which of the following conclusions can be drawn :
(A) Normal human female
(B) Person is suffering from Colour Blindness
(C) Affected individual is a female with Down’s syndrome
(D) Affected individual is a female with Turner’s syndrome
E
88 
57. Given below is a dihybrid cross performed on Drosophila.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of this cross?
When yellow bodied (y), white eyed (w) Drosophila females were hybridized with brown bodied
(y+), red eyed males (w+) and F1 progenies were intercrossed, F2 generation would have shown
the following ratio :
(A) 1 : 2 : 1 because of linkage of genes
(B) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 because of recombination of genes
(C) Deviation from 9:3:3:1 ratio because of segregation of genes
(D) Deviation from 9:3:3:1 ratio because of linkage of genes
E
 89
58. Which cellular process is shown below?
(A) DNA Replication (B) Translation - Initiation
(C) Translation - Elongation (D) Translation – Termination
59. Origin of replication of DNA in E. coli is shown below, Identify the labelled parts (i), (ii), (iii)
and (iv).
(A) (i)-discontinuous synthesis, (ii)-continuous synthesis (iii) 3’ end (iv) 5’end
(B) (i)-continuous synthesis, (ii)-discontinuous synthesis (iii) 5’ end (iv) 3’end
(C) (i)-discontinuous synthesis, (ii)-continuous synthesis (iii) 5’ end (iv) 3’end
(D) (i)-continuous synthesis , (ii)-discontinuous synthesis (iii) 3’ end (iv) 5’end
60. Transcription unit is represented in the diagram given below.
Identify site (i), factor (ii) and Enzyme (iii) responsible for carrying out the process.
(A) (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Rho factor (iii) RNA polymerase
(B) (i) Terminator Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) RNA polymerase
(C) (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) RNA polymerase
(D) (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) DNA polymerase
E
90 
SOLUTION SAMPLE PAPER

ANSWER KEY
SECTION-A
1. (D) 2 thecae, 4 sporangia
2. (B) 3,3,2,3 in chalazar end 3 in the micropolar end and 2 nuclei in the center.
3. (B) Free nuclear endosperm
4. (A) sporopollenin
5. (B) ii, iii
6. (A) (i) and (iv)
7. (C) blastocyst, Fertilized egg, Unfertilized egg
8. (B) completion of meiosis II
9. (C) FSH, estrogen,progesterone
10. (C) small, White, Small, covered with mucilage
11. (C) strawberry
12. (B) 2
13. (D) i, ii and iv
14. (D) Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in chain at the sixth position.
15. (D) Polygenic and quantitative inheritance
16. (B) Male 16, Female 32
17.
Rajesh Mahesh
(B) Thalassemia-an autosome Sickle cell anemia-an
linked recessive blood disorder autosome linked recessive
trait
18. (D) (ii) and (iv)
19. (B) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit.
20. (B) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
21. (A) lactose is present, and it binds to the repressor
22. (B) DNase inhibited transformation
23.
(B) Methionine UAC
24. (A) Probes
E
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SECTION-B
25. (C) A is true but R is false
26. (D) A is False but R is true
27. (C) A is true but R is False.
28. (C) A is true but R is false
29. (A) i and ii
30. (A) antipodal, zygote and endosperm
31. (A) The flower type which survived is Cleistogamous and it will always exhibit autogamy
32. (D) Activate smooth muscles
33. (C) IUT
34. (B) Decrease the movement of the sperms
35. (C) 500
36. (D) 60
Out of 9:3:3:1 = 16
9+3 will be tall.
Therefore, 12/16 × 80 = 60.
37. (C) 2 Red: 2 Pink
38. (D) Aa × aa
39. (B) Autosomal recessive
40. (B) 50%
41. (B) Ab × Ab
42. (B) It is a single stranded DNA
43. (C) 40,000 bp and 13,600 × 10–9 m
44. (B) A is having 2'-OH group which makes it more reactive and structurally unstable whereas B is
having 2'-H group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable.
45. (D) 0:1:31
46. (C) (i) Capping (ii) Polyadenylation (iii) mGppp. (iv) Poly(A).
47. (C) Short non-coding repetitive sequence forming large portion of eukaryotic genome.
48. (C) Children 1 & 3
E
92 
SECTION-C
49. (C) luteinizing hormone
50. (B) Progesterone
51. (C) There will be no observed data for Hormone B
52. (A) Corpus Luteum
53. (D) 280 days
54. (B) Subject 2 is pregnant
55. (B) ii, iii, iv, v
56. (C) Affected individual is a female with Down’s syndrome
57. (D) Deviation from 9:3:3:1 ratio because of linkage of genes
58. (C) Translation- Elongation
59. (D) (i)-continuous synthesis, (ii)-discontinuous synthesis (iii) 3’ end (iv) 5’end
60. (C) (i) Promotor Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) RNA polymerase.
E
 93
MODEL PAPER–1
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY – CLASS-XII
SECTION-A
Consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.
1. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
(A) Commelina (B) Zostera (C) Salvia (D) Fig
2. Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in
(A) Papaya (B) Bottle gourd (C) Maize (D) All of these.
3. Feathery stigma occurs in
(A) Pea (B) Wheat (C) Datura (D) Caesalpinia
4. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
(A) Bees (B) Butterflies (C) Birds (D) Wind
5. Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant ?
(A) Zostera (B) Vallisneria (C) Hydrilla (D) Cannabis
6. Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively coloured flowers are associated with
(A) Hydrophily (B) Entomophily (C) Ornithophily (D) Anemophily
7. Endospermic seeds are found in
(A) Castor (B) Barley (C) Coconut (D) All of these
8. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely ?
(A) Corpus luteum will distintegrate. (B) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines.
(C) Estrogen secretion increases. (D) Primary follicle starts developing.
9. A human female reaches menopause aroung the age of
(A) 50 years (B) 15 years (C) 70 years (D) 25 years.
10. A reaction of granules content which harden the zona pellucida and ensures sure block to
polyspermy is
(A) Acrosomal reaction (B) Cortical reaction
(C) Acrosin reaction (D) Binding reaction.
E
94 
11. Which part of the sperm plays an important role in penetrating the egg membrane ?
(A) Allosome (B) Tail (C) Autosome (D) Acrosome
12. Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings ?
(A) Independent assortment of genes (B) Crossing over
(C) Linkage (D) Mutation
13. Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the
(A) Non-homologous chromosomes (B) Homologous chromosomes
(C) Extra nuclear genetic element (D) Same chromosome.
14. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
(A) Multiple allelism (B)Mmosaicism (C) Pleiotropy (D) Polygeny.
15. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are
(A) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 16 (B) phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
(C) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8 (D) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9.
16. The colour based contrasting traits in seven contrasting pairs, studied by Mendel in pea plant
were
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
17. _________ pairs of contrasting traits were studied by Mendel in pea plant.
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 10
18. Control of gene expression takes place at
(A) processing level (B) transcription level (C) translation level (D) All the above
19. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
(A) Chromosome 1 (B) Chromosome 11 (C) Chromosome 21 (D) Chromosome X
20. In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
(A) A – DNA (B) B – DNA (C) cDNA (D) rDNA.
21. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ –
ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
(A) 5’ – AUGAAUG – 3’ (B) 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
(C) 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’ (D) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
22. The RNA polymerase transcribes
(A) the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region.
(B) the promoter and the terminator region
(C) the structural gene and the terminator region
(D) the structural gene only.
23. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it
must be
(A) 5’ – UAC – 3’ (B) 5’ – CAU – 3’ (C) 5’-AUG – 3’ (D) 5’ – GUA – 3’
24. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
(A) 5’- end (B) 3’ – end (C) anticodon site (D) DHUloop.
E
 95
SECTION-B
25. Assertion: The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle.
Reason: The myometrium exhibits strong contractions during delivery of the baby.
26. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples abstain from coitus.
Reason: Coitus from day 5 -10 should be avoided because this is the time of ovulation.
27. Assertion: Fetal chromosomal disorder can be diagnosed by chorionic villi sampling.
Reason: Karyotyping can be done for mitotically dividing cells of chorionic villi.
28. Assertion: Polygenic inheritance is called quantitative inheritance.
Reason: Several genes control the expression of a trait.
29. An embryo may sometimes develop from other cells of embryo sac other than egg. It is termed as
(A) apospory (B) apomixis (C) parthenogenesis (D) parthenocarpy
30. Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
(A) Stamen (B) filament (C) pollen grain (D) androecium
31. The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively
(A) endothecium and tapetum (B) epidermis and endodermis
(C) epidermis and middle layer (D) epidermis and tapetum.
32. Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is
(A) spermiation (B) cortical reaction
(C) spermiogenesis (D) capacitation.
33. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from
(A) seminiferous tubuls (B) vas deferens
(C) epididymis (D) prostate gland
34. Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable
environment ?
(A) IUD (B) GIFT (C) IUI (D) ICSI
35. Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very low sperm
count ?
(A) IUD (B) GIFT (C) IUI (D) None of these
E
96 
36. What is the probability of production of dwarf offspring's in a cross between two heterozygous
tall pea plants ?
(A) Zero (B) 50 % (C) 25 % (D) 100 %
37. Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions ?
(A) TT × tt (B) Tt × tt (C) TT × Tt (D) tt × tt
38. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW – ZZ type of sex determination ?
(A) It occurs in birds and some reptiles.
(B) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
(C) 1:1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings.
(D) All of these
39. A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of their having a girl next time ?
(A) 10 % (B) 50 % (C) 90 % (D) 100 %
40. Number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is
(A) 22 autosomes (B) 22 pairs (C) 23 autosomes (D) 23 pairs
41. Haplodiploidy is found in
(A) grasshoppers and cockroaches (B) birds and reptiles
(C) butterflies and moths (D) honeybees, ants and waspe.
42. To initiate translation, the mRNA first bind to
(A) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit (B) the larger ribosomal sub-unit
(C) the whole ribosome (D) no such specificity exists.
43. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when
(A) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(B) repressor binds to operator
(C) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(D) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
44. In a DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
(A) glycosidic bonds (B) phosphodiester bonds
(C) peptide bonds (D) hydrogen bonds.
45. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
(A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 30% (D) 60%
46. If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of
bases on complementary strand ?
(A) ATGCATGCA (B) AUGCAUGCA (C) TACGTACGT (D) UACGUACGU
47. How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
(A) 2 nm (B) 3.4 nm (C) 34 nm (D) 0.34 nm
48. Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
(A) central dogma reverse (B) reverse transcription
(C) Teminism (D) all of these.
E
 97
SECTION-C
Case :- The following us the illustration of sequence of ovarian events during menstrual cycle in
human female .Observe it and give the answer of question that follow:
49. Which structure in subject-1 and subject-2 form corpus luteum?

(A) Secondary oocyte (B) Graafian Follicle (C) Corpus albicans (D) None of Above
50. Ovulation takes place in/on
(A) ovary (B) about the 14th day (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
51. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events in subject -1 and subject-2?
(A) Menstruation: breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised
(B) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
(C) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle.
(D) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
52. In subject-1 structure ‘C’ is?
(A) Corpus luteum (B) Corpus albicans (C) Primary Follicle (D) Graafian Follicle
53. Withdrawal of which hormone causes degeneration of corpus luteum in subject-1?
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) Progesterone (D) Estrogen
54. Which of the following statements is true about the subjects?
(A) Subject 1 is pregnant (B) Subject 2 is pregnant
(C) Both subject 1 and 2 are pregnant (D) Both subject 1 and 2 are not pregnant
55. If linkage was known at the time of Mendel then which of the following laws, he would not have
been able to explain ?
(A) Law of dominance (B) Law of independent assortment
(C) Law of segregation (D) Law of purity of gametes
56. Which of the following are reasons for Mendel’s success ?
(i) Usages of pure lines or pure breeding varieties
(ii) Consideration of one character at a time
(iii) Maintenance of statistical records of experiments
(iv) Knowledge of linkage and incomplete dominance
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) only (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
57. XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex determination are the examples of
(A) male heterogamety (B) female heterogamety
(C) male homogamety (D) both (B) and (C)
58. The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA to RNA is termed as ____ .
(A) replication (B) transcription (C) translation (D) reverse transcription
59. The enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation reaction in
___________direction.
(A) only 5’ → 3’ (B) only 3’ → 5’ (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
60. The process where in trons are removed and exons are joined in a defined order is called as.
(A) Tailing (B) Capping (C) Splicing (D) Transcription
E
98 
SOLUTION MODEL PAPER–1

ANSWERS
SECTION-A
1. (A) Commelina
2. (A) papaya
3. (B) wheat
4. (D) wind
5. (D) Cannabis
6. (B) entomophily
7. (D) all of these
8. (C) Estrogen secretion increases.
9. (A) 50 years
10. (B) cortical reaction
11. (D) Acrosome
12. (C) Linkage
13. (A) Non-homologous chromosomes
14. (C) pleiotropy
15. (D) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9.
16. (C) 3
17. (B) 7
18. (D) All the above
19. (A) Chromosome 1
20. (C) cDNA
21. (A) 5’ – AUGAAUG – 3’.
22. (D) the structural gene only
23. (B) 5’ – CAU – 3’
24. (B) 3’ – end
E
 99
SECTION-B
25. (B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
26. (C) A is true but R is false.
27. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
28. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
29. (B) apogamy
30. (C) pollen grain
31. (D) epidermis and tapetum.
32. (A) spermiation
33. (A) seminiferous
34. (B) GIFT
35. (C) IUI
36. (C) 25 %
37. (B) Tt × tt
38. (B) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
39. (B) 50 %
40. (B) 22 pairs
41. (D) honeybees, ants and waspe.
42. (A) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
43. (A) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
44. (B) phosphodiester bonds
45. (C) 30%
46. (C) TACGTACGT
47. (D) 0.34 nm
48. (D) all of these.
E
100 
SECTION-C
49. (B) Graafian Follicle
50. (C) Both (A) and (B)
51. (D)Development of corpus luteum: Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
52. (B) Corpus albicans
53. (B) LH
54. (B) Subject 2 is pregnant
55. (B) Law of independent assortment
56. (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
57. (A) male heterogamety
58. (B) transcription
59. (A) only 5’ → 3’
60. (C) Splicing
E
 101
MODEL PAPER–2
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY – CLASS-XII
SECTION-A
Consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.
1. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
(A) endothecium (B) microspore mother cells
(C) microspore tetrads (D) pollen grains
2. From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium.
(A) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta (B) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(C) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum (D) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
3. Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and arrangement of flowers is called
(A) arboriculture (B) floriculture (C) horticulture (D) anthology
4. Nonessential floral organs in a flower are
(A) sepals and petals (B) anther and ovary
(C) stigma and filament (D) petals only.
5. The stamens represent
(A) microsporangia (B) male gametophyte
(C) male gametes (D) microsporophylls.
E
102 
6. A Choose correct option for A, B, C and D of a dicot embryo.
(A) A – Hypocotyl; B – Cotyledons; C – Root cap; D – Radicle

(B) A – Cotyledons; B – Hypocotyl; C – Root cap; D – Radicle
(C) A – Cotyledons; B – Hypocotyl; C – Radicle; D – Root cap
(D) A – Cotyledons; B – Radicle; C – Hypocotyl; D – Root cap
7. The anther wall consists of four wall layers where
(A) tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
(B) middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
(C) endothecium lies inner to middle layers
(D) tapetum lies next to epidermis.
8. Besides activating the egg another role of a sperm is to carry to egg
(A) RNA (B) mitochondria (C) DNA (D) ribosomes.
9. Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is
(A) spermiation (B) cortical reaction (C) spermiogenesis (D) capacitation.
10. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from
(A) seminiferous (B) vas deferens (C) epididymis (D) prostate gland
11. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around
(A) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle (B) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(C) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle (D) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle.
12. The inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum (dog flower) is an example of
(A) incomplete dominance (B) co-dominance
(C) multiple alleles (D) linkage.
13. In Antirrhinum (dog flower), phenotypic ratio in F2 generation for the inheritance of flower
colour would be
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
14. Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of
(A) complete dominance (B) incomplete dominance
(C) over dominance (D) epistasis.
15. What can be the blood group of offspring when both parents have AB blood group ?
(A) AB only (B) A, B and AB (C) A, B, AB and O (D) A and B only
16. Inheritance of roan coat in cattle is an example of
(A) incomplete dominance (B) codominance
(C) multiple allelism (D) none of these
E
 103
17. ABO blood grouping in human beings cites the example of

(A) incomplete dominance (B) co-dominance
(C) multiple allelism (D) both(B) and (C)
18. Which RNA carries the amino acids from the amino acid pool to mRNA during protein
synthesis?
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) hnRNA
19. During translation, activated amino acids get linked to tRNA. This process is commonly called as
(A) charging of tRNA (B) discharging of tRNA
(C) aminoacylation of tRNA (D) both (A) and (C)
20. To prove that DNA is the genetic material, which radioactive isotopes were used by Hershey and
Chase (1952) in experiments ?
(A) 33S and 15N (B) 32P and 35S (C) 32P and 15N (D) 14N and 15N
21. RNA is the genetic material in
(A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes
(C) Tabacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) (D) E.coli.
22. Which one among the following was the first genetic material ?
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Protein (D) Nuclein
23. Which of the following life processes is evolved around RNA ?
(A) Metabolism (B) Translation (C) Splicing (D) All of these
24. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) stable as compared to DNA.
(A) (i) equally, (ii) equally (B) (i) less, (ii) more
(C) (i) more, (ii) less (D) (i) more, (ii) equally
SECTION-B
25. Assertion: Man dose not urinate and ejaculate at the same time
Reason: Membranous and penile part of urethra forms the outflow pathway for the urine and for
the seminal fluid.
26. Assertion: Karyotypes study is used to detect of chromosomal aberrations.
Reason: Karyotypes can be used to know the sex of unborn child.
E
104 
27. Assertion: Y chromosome causes maleness.

Reason: If the number of X chromosomes is more than one, femaleness dominants.
28. Assertion: The uptake of DNA during transformation is an active, energy requiring process.
Reason: Transformation occurs in only those bacteria, which possess the enzymatic machinery
involved in the active uptake and recombination.
29. The figure below show five steps (A, B, C, D and E) of embryo development. Select the option
giving correct identification together with what is represent.
(A) C-Represent torpedo shaped embryo (B) D-Formed by meiosis in zygote

(C) C-Represent globular embryo (D) A-Formed by triple fusion
30. The cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in the
gametes ?
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 23 (D) 32
31. The true embryo develops as a result to fusion of
(A) two polar nuclei of embryo sac (B) egg cell and male gamete
(C) synergid and male gamete (D) male gamete and antipodals.
32. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
(A) epididymis (B) ejaculatory duct (C) efferent ductile (D) ureter
33. Urethral meatus refers to the
(A) urinogenital duct (B) opening of vas deferens into urethra
(C) external opening of the urinogenital duct (D) muscles surrounding the urinogenital duct.
34. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called
(A) GIFT (B) ZIFT (C) ICSI (D) ET
35. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(A) cause rapid increase in growth rate (B) result in decline in growth rate
(C) not cause significant change in growth rate (D) result in an explosive population.
36. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(A) suppression of gonadotropins (B) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(C) suppression of gametic transport (D) suppression of fertilisation.
37. RCH stands for
(A) Routine Check-up of Health (B) Reproduction Cum Hygiene
(C) Reversible Contraceptive Hazards (D) Reproductive and Child Health care.
E
 105
38. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by

(A) Morgan et al (B) Sutton and Boveri
(C) Hugo deVries (D) Gregor J. Mendel
39. Experimental verification of ‘chromosomal theory of inheritance’ was done by
(A) Sutton and Boveri (B) Morgan et al
(C) Henking (D) Karl Correns.
40. Given below is the representation of amino acid composition of the relevant translated portion of
β-chain of haemoglobin, related to the shape of human red blood cells.
The given chromosomal disorder causes by

(A) Chromosomal mutation (B) Gene mutation
(C) Point Mutation (D) All of these
41. What is true about the crossing over between linked genes?
(A) No crossing over at all (B) High percentage of crossing over
(C) Hardly any crossing over (D) None of these
42. Chromosome maps/genetic maps were first prepared by
(A) Sutton and Boveri (1902) (B) Bateson and Punnett (1906)
(C) Morgan (1910) (D) Sturtevant (1911)
43. In transcription in eukaryotes, heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is trascribed by
(A) RNA polymerase I (B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA poly merase II (D) all of these.
44. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in a process of
(A) splicing (B) capping (C) tailing (D) none of these
45. The listones are rich in the basic amino acid residues such as
(A) Histidine and Methionine (B) Lysine and Arginines
(C) Histidine and Lysine (D) Methionine and Arginine
46. In a n/RNA molecule, untranslated regions (UTRs) are present at
(A) 5’ – end (before start codon) (B) 3’ – end (after stop codon)
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) 3’- end only.
E
106 
47. Transcription unit is represented in the diagram given below. Identified process (X) and structure
(Y) and (Z).
X Y Z
(A) Initiation RNA Polymerase Rho factor
(B) Elongation Sigma factor RNA Polymerase
(C) Initiation RNA Polymerase Sigma factor
(D) Elongation Rho factor RNA Polymerase
48. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ribosomes ?
(A) Most of a cell’s DNA molecule are stored there.
(B) Complete polypeptide is released from there.
(C) mRNAs are produced there.
(D) DNA replication takes place there.
SECTION-C
Case :- Study the two cases carefully regarding the pattern of inheritance of disease.
Case Mother Father Children
Case-I With disease Normal Sons always with disease
Case-II With disease Normal Sons and daughter could show disease
49. Which of the following type of trait represent by case-I?

(A) Autosomal recessive (B) Autosomal dominant
(C) Sex linked recessive (D) Sex linked dominant
50. Which of the following disease is not an example of case-I?
(A) Haemophilia (B) Colour blindness (C) Thalassemia (D) Night blindness
E
 107
51. Which of the following is impossible for a case-I?
(A) Carrier mother to pass the gene to her son
(B) Diseased father to pass the gene to his daughter
(C) Diseased father to pass the gene to his son
(D) Carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter
52. If the inheritance pattern of disease is as case-II and both parents are carrier of disease what are
the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
(A) 25 % (B) 100 % (C) 0% (D) 50 %
53. Disease that follow inheritance pattern as case-I is linked with
(A) Autosomes (B) X chromosomes (C) Y chromosomes (D) Chromosome -21
54. Study the given pedigree showing the inheritance pattern as case-II
What will be the genotype of individuals A, B, C, D and E respectively?
(A) Aa, aa, aa AA, aa (B) Aa, aa, Aa, AA, Aa
(C) Aa, Aa, aa, AA, AA (D) Aa, AA, Aa, Aa, aa
55. Which of the following is correct about mammalian testes ?
(A) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig’s cells
(B) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules
(C) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leyding’s cells
(D) Graafian follicle, leyding’s cells, Seminiferous tubule
E
108 
56. The following diagram belongs to human sperm identify X, Y and Z.
(A) X-Lysosome, Y-46 chromosome, C-Golgi body
(B) X-Acrosome, Y-23 chromosome, C-Mitochondria
(C) X-Lysosome,Y-23 chromosome, C-Mitochondria
(D) X-Acrosome, Y-46 chromosome, C-Spirilum
57. It is a diagrammatic presenation of ovum which surrounded by few sperms, choose the correct
option about X, Y, and Z:
X Y Z
(A) Vitelline membrane Zona pellucida Cells of the Corona radiata
(B) Zona pellucida Vitelline membrane Cells of the Corona radiata
(C) Plasma Membrane Vitelline membrane Perivitelline space
(D) Cells of the Corona radiata Zona pellucida Perivitelline space
E
 109
58. Which of the following statements is correct about the role of regulatory proteins in transcription
in prokaryotes?
(A) They only increase expression
(B) They only decrease expression
(C) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression
(D) They can act both as activators and as repressor
59. The representative figure showing an individual inflicted with a chromosomal disorder.
What is the causes of given chromosomal disorder?

(A) Due to the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21.
(B) Due to the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 18.
(C) Due to presence of an additional copy of X chromosome.
(D) Due to absence of an additional copy of X chromosome.
60. Identify A, B and C of a nucleosome
(A) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

(B) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer
(C) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1 histone
(D) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer
E
110 
SOLUTION MODEL PAPER–2

ANSWERS
SECTION-A
1. (B) microspore mother cells
2. (A) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
3. (B) floriculture
4. (A) sepals and petals
5. (D) microsporophylls
6. (B) A – Cotyledons; B – Hypocotyl; C – Root cap; D – Radicle
7. (B) middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
8. (C) DNA
9. (A) spermiation
10. (A) seminiferous
11. (B) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
12. (A) incomplete dominance
13. (B) 1 : 2 : 1
14. (B) incomplete dominance
15. (B) A, B and AB
16. (B) codominance
17. (D) both (B) and (C)
18. (C) tRNA
19. (D) both (A) and (C)
20. (D) 14N and 15N
21. (C) Tabacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
22. (B) RNA
23. (D) All of these
24. (C) (i) more, (ii) less
E
 111
SECTION-B
27. (C) A is true but R is false.
29. (C) C-Represent globular embryo
30. (A) 8
31. (B) egg cell and male gamete
32. (B) ejaculatory duct
33. (C) external opening of the urinogenital duct
34. (C) ICSI
35. (B) result in decline in growth rate
36. (A) suppression of gonadotropins
37. (D) Reproductive and Child Health Care.
38. (B) Sutton and Boveri
39. (B) Morgan et al
40. (C) Point Mutation
41. (C) Hardly any crossing over
42. (D) Sturtevant (1911)
43. (B) RNA polymerase II
44. (B) capping
45. (B) Lysine and Arginine
46. (C) both (A) and (B)
47. (C) X- Initiation, Y- RNA Polymerase, Z- Sigma factor
48. (B) Complete polypeptide is released from there.
E
112 
SECTION-C
49. (C) Sex linked recessive
50. (C) Thalassemia
51. (C) Diseased father to pass the gene to his son
52. (A) 25%
53. (B) X chromosomes
54. (B) Aa, aa, Aa, AA, Aa
55. (C) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leyding’s cells
56. (B) X-Acrosome, Y-23 chromosome, C-Mitochondria
57. (D) X- Cells of the Corona radiata , Y- Zona pellucida ,Z- Perivitelline space
58. (D) They can act both as activators and as repressor
59. (A) Due to the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21.
60. (A) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer

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C h apter

BIOLOGY (Code No. 044)

UNIT-VII GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

UNIT-VIII BIOLOGY AND HUMAN WELFARE

Chapter-7: Microbes in Human Welfare

UNIT-IX BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS

Chapter-8: Biotechnology - Principles and Processes

Chapter-9: Biotechnology and its Application

UNIT-X ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

BIOLOGY Code No. 044)

UNIT-VII GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

Albuminous seeds:-Have residual endosperm

Allogamy:- Reaching of pollen grains to the stigma of different plant.

formation and fusion of gametes.

Bagging:-The emasculated flowers are covered with a suitable size of bags.

Chasmogamous Flowers:- Flowers with exposed anthers and stigma.

Cleistogamous Flowers :- Flowers which never open.

Coleorhiza :- A protective sheath of radicle in monocot seed.

Coleoptile:- A protective sheath of plumule in monocot speed.

Dormancy:-The embryo enter a state of inactivity.

Endothecium:- A fibrous layer is the anther next to epidermis.

Emasculation:-The removal of anther from immature bud during artificial hynridization.

Exine:-The outer wall of pollen grain consist by sporopollenin.

False fruits:-The type of fruits develops rather than overy

successive mitosis division.

Funicle:-The small stalk like structure for attachment of ovule to placenta.

Geitonogamy:- Self pollination between flowers of the same plant.

(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

9. The structures which guide the pollen tube into synergid is

18. In 40% angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at

27. Dioecious condition prevents

Ans (4) Both (1) & (2)

Ans (1) Zygote and primary endosperm nucleus

29. Double endosperm is found in

Ans (4) Coconut

30. Ex-albuminous seeds are of

35. Mark the incorrect statement:-

41. Which one is female gametophyte?

(B) ASSERTION & REASON QUESTIONS

10. Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiotic division.

(C) CASE BASED QUESTIONS

formation of four megaspore.

(i) Gynoecium with a single pistil is known as:

Reason: Various embryological processes of plants occur in a flower.

(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Ans- (i) (2) Monocarpellary

(ii) (4) Stamen

typical angiosperm anther is bilobed. The anther is a four-sided structure consisting of 4

microsporangia appear near-circular in outline. It is surrounded by 4 layers. The microspores

gametophytes. pollen grain made up of two-layer.

(i) Each lobe in typical angiosperm anther have ____.

the basis of funiculus. It can be orthotropous, anatropous, hemitropous, campylotropous, etc.

(1) Integuments (2) Nucellus (3) Hilum (4) Funiculus

(ii) The end, opposite to micropyle end is called

(1) Funicle (2) Chalaza (3) Germpore (4) Hilum

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

(iv) Typical female gametophyte is

(1) 7-celled 8 nucleate (2) 6-celled 8 nucleate