CAT-2019

Slot-1
EXPLANATORY
ANSWERS
 SECTION-I
VERBAL ABILITY & READING COMPREHENSION

Q.1)Examples of Casper and Glossier first appear in the 2nd paragraph: “For a relatively new class of
consumer-products start-ups, there’s another method entirely. Casper (mattresses), Glossier (makeup),
Away (suitcases), and many others have sprouted up to offer consumers freedom from choice…” Option
3 is true as per the passage. However, option 2 is a better answer to the question; refer the last
paragraph: “For start-ups that promise accessible simplicity, their very structure still might eventually
push them toward overwhelming variety.” Paragraph 3, according to which only a certain tier of
consumer has been has benefited from one-thousand-dollar mattresses and $300 suitcases, contradicts
option 4. The paragraph further explains this: “As options have expanded for people with disposable
income, the opportunity to buy even basic things … has contracted for much of America’s lower classes.”
Thus, option 1 can also be rejected. Hence, [2].

Q.2) Susceptibility to marketing images—like influencers on Instagram or online ads—is what causes
choice fatigue or choice anxiety in consumers [as implied in paragraph 1]. Reject option 1. Option 2
defines ‘choice anxiety’, a condition caused by the endless sea of choice offered by contemporary
internet shopping. Reject option 2. Paragraph 2 states that certain companies-- with fewer, selective
stuff-- are selling a confidence in those things, and an ability to opt out of the stuff rat race. The
implication is that too many options have affected consumers’ trust in them. Reject option 4. The
passage doesn’t draw a distinction between startups and established companies, based on consumers’
preferences for their products. Hence, [3]

Q.3) In the last paragraph, the author predicts the fate of start-ups offering few product options: “…their
very structure still might eventually push them toward overwhelming variety. Most of these companies
are based on hundreds of millions of dollars of venture capital, the investors of which tend to expect a
steep growth rate…”We’re required to find the statement that least supports the prediction. Option 1
strengthens it; higher tax rates will only further the pressure from investors to bring in higher revenues.
Reject option 1. Option 2 is irrelevant; it’s only a rewording of the author’s argument on the ‘uneven
distribution of products’ *Paragraph 3+. Reject option 2. Option 3 also supports the author’s argument;
with fewer products, they were selling a confidence in those things [Paragraph 2]. On the other hand, if
this promise of accessible simplicity has earned them an exponential surge in sales, enabling them to
meet the desired profit goals [Option 4], there no longer remains a need to expand their product
catalog, and this proves the author’s prediction invalid. Hence, *4+.

Q.4) From the passage, we can infer that the author is for ‘fewer choices that are affordably priced and
accessible to all’. Therefore, options 2 and 4 can be rejected— a range of 10 products is better than 25.
Between options 1 and 3, the former gives a more affordable price range [$5-$10] than option 3 [$10-
$25]. Hence, [1].

Q.5) All options except one weaken the author’s claims. We’re required to find the exception; it may be
either neutral or in favour of the same. Option 1, which implies that influencers are no guarantee of
higher sales, weakens the author’s claims that consumers gravitate toward lifestyle influencers on
Instagram… [Paragraph 1] Reject option 1. As per option 2, the wider the choice, the better the
purchasing power of the poor. This contradicts the passage: As options have expanded for people with
disposable income, the opportunity to buy even basic things such as fresh food or quality diapers has
contracted for much of America’s lower classes. [Paragraph 3] Option 4 is against what the author
describes as ‘the choice fatigue’. Reject option 4. Option 3 implies that there was greater growth for
those that provided customers the ‘freedom from choice’ in comparison to those that provided an
‘endless sea of choice’ that was curated for easier navigation. This doesn’t weaken any of the author’s
claims. The author doesn’t state conclusively that either form of business would achieve a greater sales
growth. Hence, [3].

Q.6) Antoine Galland, the 1st European translator of Arabian Nights, heard the tale of Aladdin from
Hanna Diyab, a Syrian storyteller from Aleppo. We get this information from Galland’s as well as Diyab’s
memoirs. Diyab’s writings also point to a further possibility that he himself maybe the real-life Aladdin:
“…describes his own hard-knocks upbringing and the way he marveled at the extravagance of Versailles
… very similar to the descriptions of the lavish palace that ended up in Galland’s version of the Aladdin
story.” [Paragraph 2] From the above excerpt, options 1 and 2 can be concluded to be facts [about
Diyab’s life+ that suggest that the character of Aladdin is based on Hanna Diyab. By virtue of option 2,
option 4, which is closely linked to option 2, also supports the truth of the speculation. Option 3, on the
other hand, is insufficient to conclude that the character could be based on Diyab’s life. Hence, [3].

Q.7) Though the author of the passage is only quoting Paulo Lemos Horta at many places in the passage,
the overall tone suggests that he also believes in what Horta and other scholars have surmised about
the true origins of the tale of Aladdin. Option 1 is clearly incorrect as it disproves Horta’s findings
according to which the tale contains many autobiographical elements from Diyab’s life. Option 2 is also
incorrect; refer to the 1st paragraph: “Arabian Nights [which] started as a series of translations of an
incomplete manuscript of a medieval Arabic story collection. . . But, though those tales were of medieval
origin, Aladdin may be a more recent invention.” Option 3 contradicts the passage as it states that both
Galland’s and Diyab’s memoirs point to the fact that Diyab narrated the tale of Aladdin to Galland.
Reject option 3. The author of the passage is most likely to chooseoption 4 as the right explanation for
the origins of the story of Aladdin. Hence, [4]

Q.8) Refer to the last paragraph; it isn’t just its narrative dramaor the fact that it reflects the history of
the French and the Middle East that attract the storytellers still. Both options 1 and 4 can be rejected as
they are not the primary reasons. Refer to the 3rd paragraph; that the story was a by-product of French
Orientalism also loses its credibility with the idea that the tale may be based onthe experiences of a
Middle Eastern man encountering the French, not vice-versa. Thus, option 2 contradicts the passage.
Option 3 states the primary reason for why storytellers are still fascinated by the story of Aladdin; refer
to the last paragraph: It reflects … also … Middle Easterners coming to Paris and that speaks to our world
today… Diyab’s memoir reveals a narrator adept at capturing the distinctive psychology of a young
protagonist, as well as recognizing the kinds of injustices and opportunities that can transform the path
of any youthful adventurer…” Hence, [3].

Q.9) The phrase appears in paragraph 3. It is used with reference to the belief that the tale was a by-
product of French Orientalism, a fascination with stereotypical exotic Middle Eastern luxuries that was
prevalent then. As per the passage, Diyab was spellbound by the West, specifically the French, not vice-
versa as the tale indicates. We are required to find the option that proves this wrong. Option 1
contradicts an important evidence indicating that Diyab could be the real-life Aladdin. This is turn affects
the conclusion thatthe tale was based onthe experiences of a Middle Eastern man encountering the
French, not vice-versa. Thus, option 1 is a possible answer. Retain it. Option 2 doesn’t really affect the
existing narrative regarding the source of the tale of Aladdin. Reject option 2. Option 3 contradicts an
already abandonedtheory [Paragraph 3], and therefore, has nothing to do with the current narrative.
Reject option 3. Option 4, like option 2, doesn’t makeany significant changes to the narrative regarding
the source of the tale of Aladdin. Reject it. Hence, [1].

Q.10) Authorship means ‘the state or fact of being the writer of a book, article, or document, or the
creator of a work of art’. Hence, the question specifically refers to the passage’s claim that Hanna Diyab
is the ‘author’of the tale of Aladdin [irrespective of whether he himself was the real-life Aladdin or not].
Option 1 definitely contributes to this claim; refer to paragraph 1: “Galland, who wrote in his diary that
he first heard the tale from a Syrian storyteller from Aleppo named Hanna Diyab…”This is further
validated by the manuscript of the story that predates Galland’s version published in 1712-- a travelogue
… In it, he *Diyab+ recalls telling Galland the story of Aladdin *and+ describes his own hard-knocks
upbringing and the way he marveled at the extravagance of Versailles. The descriptions he uses were
very similar to the descriptions of the lavish palace that ended up in Galland’s version…” Hence, option 3
also contributes to the claim. Reject options 1 and 3. Option 4, that Diyab was a gifted narrator
[Paragraph 4] as his travelogue indicates, only strengthens the possibility of his authorship of the tale.
Reject option 4. Option 3 indicates the similarity between the plots of French fairy tales and that of
Aladdin [Paragraph 3]. If this is enough to prove that the talemight’ve been inspired by the French fairy
tales, it actually weakens the passages’ claims that Diyab is the author of the tale. Hence, *2+.

Q.11) The 1st paragraph states that penguins minimize heat loss by keeping the outer surface of their
plumage below the temperature of the surrounding air. The word paradoxicallyappears in paragraph 2:
“… by keeping their outer surface below air temperature, the birds might paradoxically be able to draw
very slight amounts of heat from the air around them.” The paradox here is simply that instead of losing
their body heat, they gain some amount of heat from the surroundings by lowering the temperature of
their plumage. Option 1 states the inverse: it’s not ‘heat loss through radiation’ that is the paradox, but
‘heat gain through convection’. Reject option 1. Option 2 is inaccurate: in this case, radiation causes
heat loss and convection causes heat gain. Option 4 presents a faulty reasoning; as per the passage,
keeping their plumage at a lower temperature helps penguins to keep their body warmer through
convection. Option 3 accurately states the paradox. Hence, [3]

Q.12) The study reported in the passage found that penguinsminimize heat loss by keeping the outer
surface of their plumage below the temperature of the surrounding air.[Paragraph 1] Paragraph 2 details
the procedure that was followed by the researchers. From the options given, we’re required to find that
which doesn’t challenge the finding. Option 1 concerns the temperature of the feet of penguins. In the
passage, the average temperature of the feet of penguins, their warmest body part, has been given only
to illustrate that the rest of their body (except eyes and beaks) was kept at freezing levels for a specific
reason. Unless the given measure of the average temperature of the feet of penguins is less than the
temperature of their plumage, option 1 doesn’t influence the study. Retain option 1. According to
option 2, the air temperature recorded during the month of June were minus 10 °F; this is less than the
recorded temperature of the outer body of the penguins,--the plumage on their heads, chests and backs
were -1.84, -7.24 and -9.76 °F respectively—thus invalidating the research finding. Reject option 2.
Option 3 also invalidates the study; with such a mechanism as described in option 3, it’s unnecessary for
the penguins to adjust the temperature of their plumage. Reject option 3. As per option 4, the
temperature of the plumage was found to be higher than that of the surrounding air. This again
challenges the study. Reject option 4 as well. Hence, [1]

Q.13) Options 1, 2 and 3 help Emperor Penguins retain or gain heat. Refer to paragraph 3: “To maintain
body temperature while losing heat, penguins … rely on the metabolism of food.” Reject option 1. Refer
to the same paragraph: “Since their outer plumage is even colder than the air … they might gain back a
little of this heat through thermal convection…”Reject both options 2 and 3. Refer to the last paragraph:
“And given the Emperors’ unusually demanding breeding cycle, every bit of warmth counts…”Therefore,
out of the four choices, only ‘reproduction process’ contributes to penguins’ loss of body heat. Hence,
[4]

Q.14) The additional strategy, i.e.thermal convection, used by the penguins to maintain their body
temperature is discussed in the context: “… their outer plumage is even colder than the air… As the cold
Antarctic air cycles around their bodies, slightly warmer aircomes into contact with the plumage and
donates minute amounts of heat back to the penguins, then cycles away at a slightly colder
temperature.” Clearly, slightly warmer air refers to ‘the cold Antarctic air’ whose temperature is higher
than that of the plumage. The phrase at a slightly colder temperature also refers to the same, (after it
has transferred the excess heat to the plumage). Option 1 rightly states this. Retain it. The rest of the
options are nonsensical. Reject them. Hence, [1].

Q.15) The passage talks about how the British idea of folk has become increasingly flexible ‘in our own
time’. Refer to paragraph 2: “…the word "folk” … has achieved the rare distinction of occupying
fashionable and unfashionable status simultaneously.”The term folk, which typically refers to ‘something
traditional to the people of a particular group or country’, has been modified to accommodate the old as
well as the new—from the floral prints of William Morris to the latest forms of popular art. Also, within
what is considered folk, there are those that came out as radical, only to be part of convention in the
later years—“Just as the effusive floral prints of the radical William Morris now cover genteel
sofas…”*Paragraph 2+ Though option 1 is not incorrect, it doesn’t state the primary purpose of
thereference to Morris’ floral prints. Option 2 inverses what the passage says about the floral prints--
that what was once derided as revolutionary is now consideredgenteel. Option 3 is incorrect; the
passage states that the folk, by being open to modification, continues to enjoy the same relevance or
popularity as in the preceding eras. Option 4 states the answer to the question. Hence, [4].

Q.16) The 3rd and 4th paragraphs talk about folk revivalism of the 1940s and 1960s. In the 40s, the 2nd
wave of folk revivalists was inspired by ‘communism's dream of a post-revolutionary New Jerusalem’. In
the 60s, ‘the lyrical freedom of Dylan and the unchained melodies of psychedelia created the conditions
for folk-rock's own golden age’. Reject option 1; it’s inferable from the passage—communism and
unchained melodies of psychedeliaare key terms pointing to the idea of freedom and rebellion that filled
the folk revivalism of the 1940s and 1960s. Cecils’ observation appears in the 3rd paragraph: “…folk
songs existed in constant transformation, a living example of an art form in a perpetual state of
renewal.” Reject option 2; the 3rd and 4th paragraphs describe the gradual transformation that folk songs
underwent over the 20thC. Reject option 4; refer to paragraph 3: “In the late 1960s, purists were
suspicious of folk songs recast in rock idioms.” The passage doesn’t claim anywhere that rock music
promoted ‘electrification of music’; the passage uses the term electrification in two senses—literally, to
refer to ‘electric music technology’ and metaphorically, to refer to ‘inspiration’. However, the term, as
used in option 3, makes it quite vague; Hence, [3].

Q.17) Refer to paragraph 1: “In Britain, folk may often appear a cosy, fossilised form, but when you look
more closely the idea of folk – who has the right to sing it, dance it, invoke it, collect it, belong to it or
appropriate it for political or cultural ends –has always been contested territory…”We’re required to
choose that option which explains why, on the surface, folk [in Britain] seems to be old-fashioned or
stagnant. The same paragraph answers the question: the anti-capitalist conservationism or the vision of
a preindustrial golden age that was propagated by those like William Morris. Retain option 3. We don’t
have enough information to conclude the verity of option 1; even if true, it doesn’t answer the question.
Reject option 1. Option 2 is true—“…the idea of folk … has always been contested territory…” However,
it doesn’t answer the question. Reject option 2. Option 4 appears at the end of paragraph 2; it is part of
a broader definition of English folk and not directly related to the question. Reject it. Hence, [3].

Q.18) We are required to find the option which is not a cause for plurality and diversity within the British
folk tradition. Refer to paragraph 3: “One man sings a song, and then others sing it after him, changing
what they do not like…” This is how Cecil Sharp puts the constant transformation of folk songs; they
point to the history of the oral mode of transmission of folk forms [Option 1]. Both options 3 and 4 are
true as per the passage. Refer to the 2nd paragraph: “Folk is a sonic "shabby chic", containing elements
of the uncanny and eerie, as well as an antique veneer, a whiff of Britain's heathen dark ages. The very
obscurity and anonymity of folk music's origins open up space for rampant imaginative fancies…” The
passage also talks about the history and development of British folk over the 20th C [Paragraphs 3 and
4]. As can be seen, all these factors regarding British folk forms—the long history starting from the dark
ages, the various influences, the oral tradition etc…— can be inferred [from the passage] to have
contributed to the plurality and diversity within the British folk tradition. Reject options 1, 3 and 4. The
same cannot be said about option 2. Hence [2].

Q.19) The phrase unusual poise and homogeneity is against the characteristics of the folk forms that are
said to be in constant transformation with ‘tension in the newness’ *Paragraph 3+. Retain option 1 as the
question requires us to choose that option which the author is least likely to agree with. Paragraphs 3
and 4 talk about folk revivalism of the 20thC where it states how different people contributed to this
process. Option 2 conveys the same idea. Reject option 2. The purpose of the passage itself is to
emphasize the continuing relevance of folk forms; refer paragraph 2:“And yet – as newspaper columns
periodically rejoice – folk is hip again, influencing artists, clothing and furniture designers, celebrated at
music festivals, awards ceremonies and on TV, reissued on countless record labels.” Reject option 3. The
same paragraph describes how folk “has achievedthe rare distinction of occupying fashionable and
unfashionable status simultaneously.” Overall, the paragraph is consistent with option 4. Reject it.
Hence, [1].

Q.20) The opening line gives a definition for the concept of topophilia: “As defined by the geographer Yi-
Fu Tuan, topophilia is the affective bond between people and place.”Based on this, the author of the
passage discusses the many aspects that constitute this concept. Paragraph 2 describes the various
topophilic bonds—aesthetic appreciation, acquired bond and sensory response. Topophobia is the
converse of topophilia, i.e. the sense of dread or anxiety that one may feel towards a place [Last
paragraph+. Out of the given options, we’re asked to identify that which describes best the author’s
understanding of topophilia. Option 1 is incorrect; the passage doesn’t correlate nomadic lifestyle with
topophobia. Besides, the option doesn’t communicate the author’s understanding of topophilia. Reject
option 1. Paragraph 4 uses the example of ‘patriotism’ ‘to explore the darker affiliations between people
and place’. Option 2 rephrases this idea; retain option 2. Option 3 is irrelevant—topophilia doesn’t
concern patriotism rooted in language. Option 4 is also irrelevant— ‘a strong sense of
topography’*the physical appearance of the natural features of an area of land+ doesn’t influence
topophilic bonds as far as the passage is concerned. Reject options 3 and 4. Hence, [2].

Q.21) The last paragraph explores ‘the darker affiliations between people and place.’ One of the two
examples points to how “Residents of upscale residential developments … maintain their community’s
distinct identity, often by casting themselves in a superior social position and by reinforcing class and
racial differences.”Reject option 1; the passage doesn’t claim that environments are designed *by
architects and planners] tominimise the social exclusion of their clienteles. Option 4 is incorrect;
‘topophobia’ as well as ‘nationalist projects’ are unrelated to the example—the former is another type
of affective bond between people and place, and the latter concerns patriotism, an aspect of topophilia.
Reject option 4. Option 2 is vague about the intention of the residents of upscale residential
developments-- it doesn’t convey the social exclusion practiced by them. Option 2 communicates this
aptly. Hence, [2]

Q.22) We’re required to find that option which backs the argument put forward in the passage. Refer to
paragraph 3: “…new urbanism seeks to counter the perceived placelessness of modern suburbs and the
decline of central cities through neo-traditional design motifs.”However, the author beliefs that
topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify. Therefore, option 1, if true, would
contradict the author’s claim. Reject option 1. In the 1st paragraph, the author is in agreement with Yi-Fu
Tuan, according to whom topophilia is very much personal--the emotive ties with the material
environment vary greatly from person to person and in intensity, subtlety, and mode of expression.
Option 2 contradicts this. Reject it. Tactile and olfactory response is just one of the three types of
topophilic bonds that the passage talks about. It’s not themost important, even fundamental, response
to our environment as option 3 claims. Reject option 3. 4 is the correct option; refer to paragraph 4:
“Topophilia connotes a positive relationship, but it often is useful to explore the darker affiliations
between people and place. Patriotism, literally meaning the love of one’s terra patria or homeland, has
long been cultivated by governing elites for a range of nationalist projects, including war preparation
and ethnic cleansing.”Hence, [4]

Q.23) Refer to the last paragraph: “And just as a beloved landscape is suddenly revealed, so too may
landscapes of fear cast a dark shadow over a place that makes one feel a sense of dread or anxiety—or
topophobia.” Simply put, topophobiais the inverse of topophilia. Option 1 gives an apt answer. Retain it.
None of the options have any connection with the term. Reject options 2, 3 and 4. Hence, [1]

Q.24) The statement appears in paragraph 3. Topophilia is said to be an elusive experience: “…its most
articulate interpreters have been self-reflective philosophers…” In the 1st paragraph, the passage quotes
Yi-Fu Tuan: “…emotive ties with the material environment vary greatly from person to person and in
intensity, subtlety, and mode of expression.” This can be inferred to be a reason for its elusiveness.
Another reason is stated in paragraph 3: “As Tuan noted, purely aesthetic responses often are suddenly
revealed, but their intensity rarely is long-lasting.”As per option 1, architects can’t be topophilic as they
are expected to objectively quantify spaces. This doesn’t explain why topophilia can’t be quantified.
Reject option 1. The passage talks about placelessness of modern suburbs and the decline of central
cities, but not about the anomie (a state of no moral or social principles in a person or in society) of
modern urbanisation. Reject option 2. Option 3 is incorrect; the statement, ‘the most articulate
interpreters [of topophilia] have been self-reflective philosophers’ doesn’t imply that architects who are
philosophers are uniquely suited to develop topophilic design. Reject option 3. Option 4 is the closest
answer that can be inferred from the passage. Hence, 4.

Q.25) The passage talks about Van Packard, who, through his work, The Hidden Persuaders, alerted the
public to the psychoanalytical techniques used by the advertising industry. However, he dealt mainly
with the impact of supraliminal (related to conscious thoughts) advertising, and not subliminal
advertising as often wrongly assumed by critics and reporters. Note that all the options focus on
Packard’s views on the advertising industry, as explained in his work The Hidden Persuaders; the rest of
the information can be ignored while solving this question. According to Packard, the ad industry uses
supraliminal messages to influence the conscious mind (of the consumers) that they are not always
aware of. Option 1 presents a comparable statement. Retain it. Option 2 is incorrect— the idea that
advertising works at the subliminal levelis associated with the misinterpretation of Packard’s argument
by critics and reporters. Option 4 too can be rejected for the same reason. Option 3 incorrectly states
that the consumers are aware of being persuaded. Reject option 3. Hence, [1]

Q.26) The passage talks about displaced reference—the human capacity to think about absent things,
which in turn, lets us speak about them. By thoughts, the passage means ‘the mental categories that is
invoked even in the absence ofimmediate stimuli’. Option 1 is incorrect; the passage doesn’t claim that
thoughts can emerge in the absence any stimulus: …bring distant referents to mind in the absence of any
obvious (or immediate) stimuli.Besides, the passage concerns only human language. Reject option 1.
Option 4 also can be rejected for a similar reason. Option 2 is not incorrect; however, it is incoherent—
the two ideas in it are not connected. Reject option 2. According to the passage, referential
communication is a distinctive characteristic of human language, and this derives from our capacity to
think about absent things. Option 3 presents a comparable statement. Retain it. Hence, [3].

Q.27) Sentence 3 is the best starter. It introduces the topic: how social media affects our reaction to
legitimate criticism. Sentence 2 puts forward a suggestion about handling it the ideal way-- by
condensing the feedback. This, according to sentence 4, will lead to a new norm, where people will think
twice before posting reply that echoes a point that dozens of others have already made. Thus, we get
the sequence 3-2-4. Sentence 1, which points to ‘mob rule’ *the current culture of criticism and the
reception of it], concludes the passage. Hence, 3241

Q.28) At a glance, the passage seems to talk about organizational identity. Sentence 4 introduces the
concept, by stating it as one of the most important features of organizations. Sentence 3 talks about the
two types of organizational identities—complex/ multidimensional and narrow identities. Sentences 5
and 2 illustrate the ‘opposing viewsamong sociologists’ (Sentence 4). It may be inferred that sentence 1
talks about the limitations of having complex identities *…actors that do not fit within a single, well-
defined category…], and, therefore, continues from sentence 2. However, it introduces a new idea, and
hence, deviates from other sentences. Hence, 1

Q.29) Sentence 3 gives the meaning of the phrase carpe diem, based on its current usage. Sentence 2
gives a literal translation of the same, asparticularly seen in the context of its source. Together, both
points to how we mistranslate metaphors from one language to another (sentence 4). Thus, we get the
sequence 3-2-4. According to sentence 1, however subtle the mistranslation is, they are a crucial
reflection of the values of a community:…enjoying a moment that is rooted in the sensory experience of
nature, unrelated to the force implied in seizing[Sentence 2]. It is a reassertion of what is stated in
sentence 4, and thus, follows the sequence 3-2-4. Another possible sequence is 1-3-2-4. However, this
can be rejected as the connection between sentence 1 and others is not established until sentence 4;
this causes a break. Reject 1-3-2-4. Hence, 3241

Q.30) His in sentence 1 corresponds to Pedro Ponce de León, who created a formal sign language for the
hearing impaired. Thus, we have the mandatory pair 4-1. Sentences 5 and 3 talk about the
discriminations faced by those with hearing impairments. Sentence 5 introduces the idea of
marginalization that the deaffaced, and sentence 3 gives an example. Thus, we get another mandatory
pair, 5-3. Sentence 2, though closely related to the passage, cannot be directly connected with any of
the given sentences. Hence, 2

Q.31) The passage is about collaborative filtering—algorithms that track the behaviours of customers to
make recommendations. Sentence 4, which defines this idea, is the starter. Sentence 1 gives an example
for collaborativefiltering. 4-1 could be a valid pair. Consider sentences 2 and 3; while sentence 2 talks
about the limitations of collaborative filtering sentence 3 provides an example for the same. They clearly
form a mandatory pair with sentence 3 following 2. The two pairs—4-1 and 2-3— can be brought
together to form the sequence, 4-1-2-3. Hence, 4123

Q.32) The passage describes the relation and difference between pure physics and engineering. As per
the passage, engineering is the applied science of pure physics; while largely dependent upon the
knowledge of physical theories, an engineer also modifies this knowledge as per demand. Option 1 talks
about pure and applied science, while the passage is specific about pure physics and its correlative
applied science, engineering. Reject option 1. Option 2 is an acceptable choice. Retain it. Option 3 fails
to mention anything about pure physics. Reject it. Option 4 contradicts the passage in stating that the
two—engineering and physics—are fundamentally different. Reject option 4. Hence, [2]

Q.33) Sentence 2, which talks of ‘an example of a lost cognitive instinct’, can be considered for the
starter because there is no sentence that can precede it (ideally giving a general description of a
‘cognitive instinct’). The terms literacy and scripts in sentence 3 refer to print-reading. Together,
sentences 2 and 3 suggest the similarity between print-reading and mind-reading, two cognitive
instincts. For instance, both are subject to developmental disorders [Sentence 4]. Thus, we get the
sequence 2-3-4. Sentence 1 illustrates this further by stating two developmental disorders that can
impair these cognitive instincts. Hence, 2341

Q.34) . The paragraph talks about suffixes ‘-tron’, ‘-matic’ and ‘-stat’, and their relevance in the atomic
and electronic field. In sentence 4, the historian Robert Proctor calls them embodied symbols. Sentence
1 corroborates this by stating what each of the suffixes represents. Sentences 3 and 5 illustrate the pride
of the modern science over attaining these morphemes (or suffixes). If they are put in order, the
sequence would be 4315. It may be inferred that sentence 2 talks about the suffix; however, the
statement introduces a new idea about it—that it was integral to ‘high modernism’. This differentiates it
from the rest of the sentences that speak about what the suffixes mean to the scientific world. Hence,
[2]
 SECTION-II
DATA INTERPRETATION& LOGICAL REASONING

Q.35) There are 5 types of biscuits, 3 types of candies and 4 types of savouries. Among 16 shelves, there are
4 empty shelves.
It is given that all items of same type are clustered together with no empty shelf between items of the
same type.
From (3) and (4), it can be concluded that D, E, F and K are savouries.
From (2) and (5), L, I and J are of one type and H is the other type. Therefore from (6), as C is a candy, L, I
J must be types of biscuits and H is a type of candy. Now using (1), we can conclude that A and B are of
one type but not candies as there are only 3 types of candies.
Therefore,
Biscuits: A, B, I, J, L Candies: C, H, G Savouries: D, E, F, K
From (3), (4), (6) and (7), there shelf number 12 must be an empty shelf. Also, D, E, F and K are placed in
shelves numbered 13, 14, 15 and 16 respectively.
Now from (1), (2) and (7), the sequence (from left to right) in which biscuits are kept is:
(Empty shelf), L, A, B, (I/J), (J/I).
From (6), the candies must be in the following order: (Empty shelf), (Empty shelf), C, (H/G), (G/H)
Thus, we have

In each case, J and I can be arranged in 2 ways and G and H can be arranged among them in 2 ways.
Thus, 2 × 2 = 4 ways.
Total number of ways the items can be arranged on the shelves = 4 + 4 = 8
Hence, option 2.

Q.36) Refer to the table and explanation in the solution of the first question.
G is not a type of biscuit. It is a candy.
Hence, option 4.

Q.37) Refer to the table and explanation in the solution of the first question.
G is not a type of biscuit. It is a candy.
Hence, option 4.

Q.38) Refer to the table and explanation in the solution of the first question.
Considering case (ii), 1, 2, 6, 12 are empty shelves.
Hence, option 4.

Q.39) The approximate values in the bar chart can be tablated as follows.
 All the above states/UTs are arranged in descending order according to the number of cases. The 'Rank'
column in the table lists the rank given to each state/UT among all states/UTs of India.

Note that Maharashtra and Karnataka are ranked 3. This means the two states with higher number of
cases than Maharashtra and Karnataka have to be ranked as 1 and 2. So Delhi and Goa are ranked 1 and
2 respectively.
Since two states have been given the same rank (3), so the next state will be ranked 5.
So Kerela is ranked 5.
Answer: 5.

Q.40) The two states where the highest total number of cases are registered are West Bengal and Delhi.
Total number of cases across both these cities in the category;
IPC = 0 + 62 = 62.
SLL = 520 + 35 = 555.
Required ratio = 62/555 = 0.1117 ≈ 1/9.
Hence option 3.

Q.41) The approximate values in the bar chart can be tablated as follows.
 All the above states/UTs are arranged in descending order according to the number of cases. The 'Rank'
column in the table lists the rank given to each state/UT among all states/UTs of India.

Since Telangana and Maharashtra are both ranked 8, so all the states having more than 6 cases (Other
crimes) are ranked 1 to 7.

So the final ranking is as follows.

 So, Tamil Nadu is ranked 2 and Puducherry is ranked 3. Hence both statements (i) and (ii) are true.

Hence option 4.

Q.42) The approximate values in the bar chart can be tablated as follows.

Following table is sorted list for all three crime categories where in each category, states are arrranged
in descending order (from top to bottom) according to the number of cases. The 'Rank' column
determines the rank of each state among all states/UTs of India.

Observe that in IPC crimes category, Maharashtra and Karnataka are ranked 3. So Delhi and Goa would
be ranked 1 and 2 respectively.

In Other crimes category, Delhi is clearly ranked 1 as it has the highest number of cases.

In SLL crimes category, West Bengal and Karnataka are ranked 1 and 2 respectively. Since Goa and
Maharashtra have been ranked 4. Also Delhi's number of cases (36) is lesser than that of Karnataka (49),
so Delhi cannot be ranked 2. So it has to be ranked 3. Please note that Delhi having 36 cases was an
approximate value.

Required sum = 1 + 3 + 1 = 5.

Answer: 5.
Q.43) Tanzi, Umeza, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca got 1,2,3,1,2 chances to shoot in the bonus rounds respectively.
Therefore, in the compulsory round, 9 bull’s eye were hit. From (4), it can be concluded that number of
bull’s eye hit in Rounds 1, 2 and 3 were 3, 4 and 2 respectively.

Note that Xyla got three chances in the bonus round. So she must have hit three bull’s eye in the
compulsory rounds. Therefore, Xyla’s minimum score is 5 × 4 + 1 + 1 = 22.

Zeneca’s maximum score could be 5 × 4 + 4 = 24. Her minimum score could be 5 × 4 + 1 = 21. If her score
was the maximum score, it must be an odd number. So, 23 is the maximum score. Now using (3), the
lowest score = 11. But both 11 and 23 are not divisible by 3. Using (2), we can conclude that 23 is not the
maximum score. So, Xyla’s must have scored maximum. And Zeneca’s score was either 21(5 × 4 + 1) or
24(5 × 4 + 4).

Thus, Xyla scored 5 in each of the compulsory rounds and 4 in round 6.

Tanzi hit one bull’s eye either in round 1 or in round 3. So her minimum score = 5 + 4 + 1 + 5 = 15 and
her maximum score = 5 + 4 + 4 + 5 = 18.

Yonita’s maximum score = 5 + 4 + 3 + 5 = 17.

So from (1) and (2), Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita each had total score 15. And hence, Wangdu scored least
points i.e., 12 points. The only possible combination is 4 points in each of the compulsory rounds.

So, Tanzi scored 1 and 5 in rounds 1 and 3 in some order. Assume that she scored 1 in round 1 and 5 in
round 3. From (5), Zeneca scored 1 in round 1. But then she must also have scored 5 in round 3 as she
hit bull’s eye twice in the compulsory rounds. But this is contradiction to (5). So, Tanzi and Zeneca
scored 5 in round 1. Tanzi scored 1 in round 3.

Thus, Tanzi, Zeneca and Xyla hit bull’s eye in round 1. Therefore Yonita (total score =15) must have hit
bull’s eye in the second round and scored 2 points in the first round.

Umeza must have hit two bull’s eye in rounds 2 and 3. Also, she must have scored 2 points in the first
round.

Thus, Umeza and Xyla hit the bull’s eye in the third round. Therefore, Zeneca hit bull’s eye in the second
round and scored 4 points in the third round.

Thus, we have

So, the highest total score was 25.

Hence, option 4.
Q.44) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

Zeneca’s total score was 24.

Hence, option 4.

Q.45) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

Xyla was the highest scorer.

Hence, option 1.

Q.46) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

Tanzi’s score in Round 3 was 1.
Hence, option 1.

Q.47) There is exactly one prize of type a.

There can be 99 items of type b. Thus, there can be only two types of items.

Answer: 2.

Q.48) There is exactly one prize of type a.

As we need to find maximum possible different types of prizes, number of prizes of type b has to be
minimum possible and hence must be 2, number of items of type c = 4 …and so on.

1(type a) + 2(type b) + 4(type c) + 8(type d) + 16(type e) + 32(type e) = 63

Suppose there is prize of type f then number of items has to be at least 64. But then there are more than
100 items, which is not true. So there cannot be prize of type f.

Answer: 6.

Q.49) There is exactly one prize of type a.

[1]. If there are 30 items of type b, then items of type c = 100 – 30 −1 = 69. So this case is possible.

[2]. There are 75 items of type e, then items of type b, c and d = 100 – 75 −1 = 24.

Some of the values of (b, c, d) are (2, 4, 18) or (2, 5, 17) or (3, 6, 15). So this case is possible.

[3]. If there are 60 items of type d, then items of type b and c = 100 – 60 −1 = 39. So this case is possible
as we can find many combinations for (b, c).

[4]. If there are 45 items of type c, then items of type a, b and c in all cannot be more than 1 + 22 + 45 =
68. Now items of type dhas to be more than 90. But then total number of items exceed 100. So this case
is not possible.
 Hence, option 4

Q.50) Considering the given options, the maximum number of different types can be 6.
Assume that there are 6 items.
Now number of items of same type as the one in box 45 = 1 + 31 + 43 = 75
So number of remaining items = 25
1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 = 31. If there are 5 types of items, the minimum number of items of 5 types = 31.
31 + 75 >100
So, there cannot be 6 types of items.
Now consider that there are 5 types of items.
Now number of items of same type as the one in box 45 = 1 + 31 + 43 = 75
So number of remaining items = 25
Now, 25 = (1 + 2 + 4 + 17) or (1 + 3 + 6 + 16) ,… etc
So there can be 5 types of different items.
Hence, option 1.

Q.51) Units place of (F + F) is F; F = 0 or 5 Units place of (H + H) or (H + H + 1) is also F. This is possible only

when H is 5 and there is no carry over.
So, F = 0 and H = 5
∴ (1 + B + A) = (10A + A) ⇒ A = 1 and B = 9
As units place of (G + K) = 1, actual value of G + K = 11
So, 1 + F + A = 1 + 1 + 0 = 2 = C
Now, 1 + J = G and G + K = 11
Also, G, J and K ∈ {3, 4, 6, 7, 8}
Therefore, (G, J, K) = (8, 3, 7) or (7, 4, 6) or (4, 7, 3), accordingly D and E can be represented by (4,6) or
(3, 8) or (6, 8) in some order.
The letter A represents digit 1.
Answer: 1.

Q.52) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

B represents the digit 9.
Answer: 9.

Q.53) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

The digit 7 cannot be represented by the letter D.
Answer: 7

Q.54) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

The digit 6 cannot be represented by the letter G.
Answer: 6.

Q.55) Four music composers assigned one item; among items 1 to 4; to each of the four finalist. These four
composers assigned one item; among items 5 to 8; to different finalists.
From (v), as items assigned by Ashman were performed consecutively, these must be the fourth and the
fifth performances.
From (iii), (iv) and (v), the first, the fourth, the fifth and the eighth performances were composed by
Badal, Ashman, Ashman, Gagan respectively. Also as the number of performances between items
 assigned by each of the remaining composers was the same, Badal and Gagan must have composed 6th
and 3rd items. Therefore, the second and the seventh items were composed by Dyu. As Ashman and
Gagan composed items for Rani, using (ii), we can concluded that Gagan’s other composition was
performed by Queen. Also, using (i), Badal’s other composition was performed by Samragni.
Thus, we have

It can be seen that the second performance was composed by Dyu.

Hence, option 3.

Q.56) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

Queen performed third item composed by Gagan. So statement given in option 4 is FALSE.
Hence, option 4.

Q.57) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

Queen performed third item composed by Gagan. So statement given in option 4 is FALSE.
Hence, option 4.

Q.58) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

The first and the sixth performances were composed by the same composer.
Hence option 4.

Q.59) The approximate data is tabulated as follows.

For each aspect, the five values are arranged in ascending order (from left to right) as shown below. Also
shown is the median value as shaded below.
 The least median score is 50 and that corresponds to 'Customer Service'
Hence option 2.

Q.60) The average score of that vendor is highest who has the highest total score across all the six aspects.
The totals of all vendors are shown in the table below.

So,Vendor 3 (396) has the highest final score.

Hence option 4.

Q.61) Following table lists down the top two vendors (highlighted in blue) in each aspect.

As observed, Vendor 1 is among the top two in 3 aspects (Reach, Quality and Customer Service). Vendor
5 is also among top two in 3 aspects (Reliability, Reach and Features).

All other vendors are among top two in 2 aspects only.

Hence option 2.

Q.62) Following table lists down the top three vendors (highlighted in blue) in each aspect.
 As observed, only Vendor 3 is among the top three in all the six aspects.
Hence option 4.

Q.63) From (1), X, U, Z are at b,c, g or at b, f, g in some order. Thus, X, U or Z is definitely at g.

Let X is at g.

Case (i): U and Z at b and f.

From (4), U has to be at b, Z at f and V at j. From (2), no one is at c, e, k and h. As Y sees both U and W, Y
must be at a and W at i. But then W sees V, which contradicts (5).
Thus, this case is not valid.

Case (ii): U and Z at b and c.

From (4), U has to be at c, Z at b and V at a. From (2), no one is at c, e,f, k and h. But then Y must be at I, j
or l. But in that case Y cannot see U. Thus, this case is not valid.

Therefore, X cannot be at g.

Let Z is at g.

From (4), U is at c or f.

Case (i) U is at c and hence V is at k and X is at a. Again there is no place for V. This case is invalid.

Case (ii) U is at f, X is at b and V at h. V will be at e as he sees U. But then he will be able to see Z also. So
this case is also invalid.

Thus, U is at g. Therefore, Z is at f, V at e and X at b. So, from (2) no one will be at a, c and j. From (3) and
(5), it can be concluded that Y is at k and W at l. Thus, we have

No one is standing at intersection a.

Hence option 1.

Q.64) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

 V can see only U and Z.
Hence option 3.

Q.65) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

X must reach Y via g so that he would cross minimum street segments. i.e., he would cross 2 street
segments.
Hence option 1.

Q.66) Refer to the explanation in the solution of the first question.

A new person standing at d would see W and X only.
Hence option 2.
 SECTION-III
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY
Q.67) Resulting hexagon will be regular only if the hexagon is symmetrical wrt the original triangle. That is
only possible when the corners cut are all equilateral and the side length of the hexagon is equal to side
length of the equilateral corner (x say).

H = 6 × *(√3)/4+ x2 (∵ A regular hexagon consists of six equilateral triangles of side length equal to the
side length of the hexagon)

T = *(√3)/4+ (3x)2 (∵ Side length of the triiangle = x + x + x = 3x)

∴H/T = 6/9 = 2/3.

Hence option 4.

Q.68) Number of paths from (1,1) to (8,10) = [Number of paths from (1,1) to (4,6)] × [Number of paths from
(4,6) to (8,10)]

Consider (1,1) to (4,6): ∆x = 4 − 1 = 3 and ∆y = 6 − 1 = 5. So we need to go 3 units horizontally and 5 units

vertically. So a total of 8 units.

∴ Number of paths from (1,1) to (4,6) = 8C3 × 5C5 = 56.

Consider (4,6) to (8,10): ∆x = 8 − 4 = 4 and ∆y = 10 − 6 = 4. So we need to go 4 units horizontally and 4

units vertically. So a total of 8 units.

∴ Number of paths from (4,6) to (8,10) = 8C4 × 4C4 = 70.

Total required number of paths = 56 × 70 = 3920.

Answer: 3920.

Q.69) Let the brick have length, breadth, height as x, y and z respectively. Also let the lengths of the three
different diagonals be 3k, (2√3)k and (√15)k.

∴x2 + y2 = (3k)2 = 9k2 ...(I)

 y2 + z2 = *(2√3)k]2 = 12k2 ...(II)

z2 + x2 = *(√15)k]2 = 15k2 ...(II)

Adding (I), (II) and (III), we get;

x2 + y2 + z2 = 18k2...(IV)

Using (IV) along with any of (I), (II) and (III), we get;

x = k√6 , y = k√3 and z = 3k,

Required ratio = (k√3)/3k = 1/√3.

Hence option 3.

Q.70) (√2)19 34 42 9m 8n = 3n 16m (64)1/4

∴ 219/2 34 24 32m 23n = 3n 24m 23/2

∴ 2[(19/2) + 4 + 3n]3(4 + 2m) = 2[4m + (3/2)]3n

Equating the powers of 2 and 3 on both sides, we get;

(19/2) + 4 + 3n = 4m + (3/2) ⇒ 6n + 24 = 8m ...(I)

4 + 2m = n ...(II)

Solving (I) and (II), we get;

m = −12.

Hence option 2.

Q.71) Weight/Volume for liquid 1 = 1000 g/L.

Weight/Volume for liquid 2 = 800 g/L.

Half litre of the mixture weighs 480 gm, so 1 L of the mixture weighs 960 gm.

So, Weight/Volume for the mixture = 960 g/L.

 Using the alligationcross;

(Liquid 1 in the mixture)/(Liquid 2 in the mixture) = (960 − 800)/(1000 − 960) = 160/40 = 4/1.

Percentage of liquid 1 in the mixture = (4/5) × 100 = 80%.

Hence option 3

Q.72) |x| ≥ 1 ⇒x ≥ 1 and x ≤ −1. This is represented as the shaded region in the figure below.

|x| + |y| ≤ 2 : This will have four subcases depending on which quadrant the point is.

1st quadrant (x> 0; y> 0) :y ≤ 2 − x

2nd quadrant (x< 0; y> 0) :y ≤ 2 + x
3rd quadrant (x< 0; y< 0) :y ≥ −2 − x
4th quadrant (x> 0; y< 0) :y ≥ x − 2

Combining these four, the graph for |x| + |y| ≤ 2 is as shown below.
 The intersection of |x| + |y| ≤ 2 and |x| ≥ 1 is as shown as the shaded area in the following image.

We need to find Area ∆ABC + Area ∆DEF

Area ∆ABC = Area ∆DEF = (1/2) × BC × AM = (1/2) × 2 × 1 = 1 square unit.

Required area = 1 + 1 = 2 square units.

Answer: 2.

Q.73) The circle can be drawn as shown below. Diameter of the circle = 2 × 11 = 22 cm.

CE = 7, so ED = CD − CE = 22 − 7 = 15.
 Let AE be x units, so EB = AB − AE = 20.5 − x.

Using the intersecting chords theorem; AE × EB = CE × ED.

∴x(20.5 − x) = 7 × 15

Solving this equation, we get x = 10.5, 10.

So, if (AE, BE) = (10.5, 10) or (10,10.5)

Required difference = |BE − AE| = |10.5− 10| = 0.5.

Henc option 1.

Q.74) 3x + 5y − 45 = 0 cuts the coordinate axes at C(15,0) and A(0,9) as shown in the image below.

∠ABC = 90°, so we can deduce that AC is the diameter of the circumcircle.

Diameter = √(152 + 92) = √306.

Radius = (√306)/2 = 8.74 ≈ 9 units.

Answer: 9.

Q.75) Car starting at 10 am: Let the speed and time taken be a and t respectively.

Car starting at 11 am: Let the speed be b. Time taken = t − 1.

Required percentage = [(b − a)/a] × 100 = [(b/a) − 1+ × 100

Since distances covered by both cars are same, so D = at = b(t − 1)

∴b/a = t/(t − 1) = 1/*1 − (1/t)]

(b/a) is maximum when t is minimum.

 tmin = 6 (given)

∴b/a = 6/5.

Required percentage = [(6/5) − 1+ × 100 = 20%.

Henc option 4.

Q.76) Let time taken by Amal be 3t, so time taken with each speed = 3t/3 = t.

Let total distance travelled be 3s.

∴ 3s = 10t + 20t + 30t = 60t.

∴s = 20t.

Time taken by Bimal = (s/10) + (s/20) + (s/30) = (11s/60) = 11t/3.

Required percentage = [{(11t/3)/3t- − 1+ × 100 = (2/9) × 100 = 22.22 ≈ 22%.

Hence option 1.

Q.77) Let total work be the LCM of 12 and 9 = 36 units.

Let the efficiency of A and B be a and b respectively.

Work done per day when A and B are working together = 36/12 = 3 units. ∴a + b = 3 ...(I)

Work done per day when A is working at half efficieny and B is working at thrice efficiency = 36/9 = 4
units. ∴ (a/2) + 3b = 4 ...(II)

Solving (I) and (II), we get; a = 2.

Time taken by A alone to complete the work = 36/2 = 18 days.

Hence option 4.

Q.78) Eleventh term of the series (a11) = S11 − S10 (where Sn represents the sum of n terms of the series)

S11 = 3(212 − 2) and S10 = 3(211 − 2).

∴a11 = 3(212 − 211) = 3 × 211 (2 − 1) = 6144.

Answer: 6144.

Q.79) Let the two numbers be x and y.

 So, xy = 616 and (x3 − y3)/(x −y)3 = 157/3.

3(x3 − y3) =157 (x −y)3

∴ 3(x3 − y3) =157 [x3 − y3 − 3xy(x − y)]

∴ 154(x3 − y3) = 3 × 157 × xy(x − y)

∴ 154(x3 − y3) = 3 × 157 × 616 × (x − y) [Using xy = 616]

∴ (x − y)(x2 + y2 + xy) = 1884(x − y)

∴ (x2 + y2 + xy) = 1884 (If x ≠ y)

Adding xy both sides, we get;

(x2 + y2 + 2xy) = 1884 + xy = 1884 + 616 = 2500.

∴x + y = 50.

Hence option 3.

Q.80) Let the total marks be 100x.

Meena's score = 40x.

Meena's score after review = 40x + [(40x)/2] = 60x.

Passing marks = 60x + 35.

Post review score × (6/5) = 7 + Passing marks

∴ 60x × (6/5) = 60x + 42.

Solving this equation we get; x = 3.5.

So, passing marks = 60x + 35 = (60 × 3.5) + 35 = 245 and total marks = 100x = 100 × 3.5 = 350.

Percentage score needed to pass the examination = (Passing marks/Total marks) × 100

= (245/350) × 100 = 70%.

Hence option 3.

Q.81) For x> 0: 6x2 + 1 = 5x ⇒ 6x2 − 5x + 1 = 0. The two roots of this equation are 1/2 and 1/3.

For x = 0, LHS = RHS, ∴x = 0 is a root of the equation.

 For x< 0: 6x2 + 1 = −5x ⇒ 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0. The two roots of this equation are −1/2 and −1/3.

∴ Number of roots = 2 + 1 + 2 = 5.

Answer: 5.

Q.82) Let the work done by one man and one machine be x and y respectively.

Three men and eight machines can finish a job in half the time taken by three machines and eight men
to finish the same job.

Since efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken, so the efficiency of 3 men and 8 machines is
twice that of 8 men and 3 machines.

∴ (3x + 8y) = 2(8x + 3y)

∴ 13x = 2y.

So, work done by 13 men in a day = work done by 2 machines in a day.

∴ If two machines can finish the job in 13 days, same work will be done by 13 men in 13 days.

Answer: 13.

Q.83) Let marks of Gautam be G.

∴G + (62 × 21) = T ...(I) (where T is the total marks of all 22 students)

82.5 + (21 × x) = T...(II) (where x is the average marks of 21 students other than Ramesh)

The average score of all the 22 students is one more than the average score of the 21 students other
than Ramesh.

∴ (T/22) = 1 + x...(III)

Solving (I), (II) and (III), we get; x = 60.5, T = 1353 and G = 51.

Hence option 2.

Q.84) Let incomes of Amala, Bimala and Kamala be a, b and k respectively.

∴a = (6/5)b = (4/5)k.

∴ (k/b) = 3/2 ....(I)

Kamala's new income = (96/100)k = 0.96k and Bimla's new income = (11/10)b = 1.1b.
 Using (I), required percentage = [{(0.96k)/(1.1b)- − 1+ × 100 = 30.9 ≈ 31%.

Hence option 1.

Q.85)Case I: m is odd.

So, (m + 1) is even.

∴ 8[(m + 1)(m + 2)+ − (m + 3) = 2

∴ 8m2 + 23m + 11 = 0.

Both roots of this equation are negative as sum of the roots (−23/8) is negative and the product (11/8) is
positive. But it is given that m is a positive integer. Hence this case is discarded.

Case II: m is even.

So, (m + 1) is odd.

∴ 8(m + 3 + 1) − m(m + 1) = 2.

∴m2 − 7m − 30 = 0

Solving this equation, we get; m = 10 or −3.

Since m is positive, m = 10.

Answer: 10.

Q.86) Let x be the length of the racecourse.

The first horse beat the second by 11 metres and the third by 90 metres.

∴ Distances travelled by the first, second and third horse are x, x − 11 and x − 90 respectively.

The second horse beat the third by 80 metres.

Distances travelled by the second and third horse are x and x − 80 respectively.

Ratio of speeds of second and third horse is constant which is equal to the ratio of the distances
travelled by the second and third horse.

∴ (x − 11)/(x − 90) = x/(x − 80)

Solving this equation, we get; x = 880.

Answer: 880.
Q.87) Population of the town at the beginning of the;

First year = p.

Second year = 3 + 2p.

Third year = 3 + 2(3 + 2p) = 9 + 4p = 3(1 + 2) + 4p

Fourth year = 3 + 2(9 + 4p)= 21 + 8p = 3(1 + 2 + 4) + 8p

So, we can deduce that population at the beginining of the nth year = 3(1 + 21 + 22 + ...2(n−2)) + 2(n−1) p

= 3[2(n−1)− 1] + 2(n−1) p

= 2(n−1) [3 + p] − 3

If we consider 2019 as 1st year, then 2034 is 16th year. (2034 − 2019 + 1 = 16)

So, population at the beginining of 2034 (n = 16) = 2(16−1) [3 + 1000] − 3

= [215 × 1003] − 3

Hence option 3.

Q.88) Let the cost price of one pen and one book be 100p and 100b respectively.

On selling a pen at 5% loss and a book at 15% gain, Karim gains Rs. 7.

∴ 95p + 115b = 7 + (100p + 100b) ⇒ 15b − 5p = 7 ...(I)

On selling the pen at 5% gain and the book at 10% gain, he gains Rs. 13.

∴ 105p + 110b = 13 + (100p + 100b) ⇒ 10b + 5p = 13 ...(II)

Solving (I) and (II), we get; b = 4/5.

So, cost price of one book = 100b = 100 × (4/5) = Rs. 80.

Hence option 4.

Q.89)f(1) = 2

f(2) = f(1 + 1) = f(1) × f(1) = 2 × 2 = 4 = 22.

f(3) = f(1 + 2) = f(1) × f(2) = 2 × 22 = 23.

f(3) = f(1 + 3) = f(1) × f(3) = 2 × 23 = 24.

 So, f(n) = 2n.

f(a + 1) + f(a + 2) +…+ f(a + n) = 16(2n – 1)

∴ 2(a + 1) + 2(a + 2) + ... + 2(a + n) = 24(2n – 1)

∴ 2(a + 1)[1 + 2 + ... 2(n−1)] = 24(2n – 1)

∴ 2(a + 1)(2n – 1) = 24(2n – 1)

∴ 2(a + 1) = 24

So, a + 1 = 4

∴a = 3.

Answer: 3.

Q.90) Let the total number of students be 100x.

So, number of girls and boys are 60x and 40x respectively.

There are 30 more girls than boys ∴ 60x = 40x + 30.

∴x = 3/2.

Number of students who passed = 68x = 68 × (3/2) = 102 out of which 30 boys passed.

So, number of girls who passed = 102 − 30 = 72

Number of girls who did not pass = 60x − 72 = 90 − 72 = 18.

Required percentage = [18/90] × 100 = 20%.

Answer: 20.

Q.91) The best approach to solving such questions in exams is to put values and then cross checking the
options.

Let n = 2, so we will have three terms in AP (a1, a2 and a3). Let a1 = a2 = a3 = 1.

1/(√a1 + √a2) = 1/2.

1/(√a2 + √a3) = 1/2.

∴ *1/(√a1 + √a2)+ + *1/(√a2 + √a3)] = (1/2) + (1/2) = 1.

 Put n = 2 in;

Option 1: 2/0 = not defined. So this option is incorrect.

Option 2: 2/(1 + 1) = 2/2 = 1. So this option is correct.

Option 3: (2 − 1)/(1 + 1) = 1/2. So this option is incorrect.

Option 4: (2 − 1)/(1 + 1) = 1/2. So this option is incorrect.

Hence option 2.

Q.92) −2 ≤ 2cos (x( x + 1)) ≤ 2

∴ −2 ≤ 2x + 2–x ≤ 2

Let 2x be a, so 2–x is 1/a.

So, −2 ≤ a + (1/a) ≤ 2

∴ −2 ≤ (a2 + 1)/a ≤ 2

∴ −2a ≤ (a2 + 1) ≤ 2a

∴ (a2 + 1 + 2a) ≥ 0 ⇒ (a + 1)2 ≥ 0, so a∈ R.

Also, a2 + 1 − 2a ≤ 0 ⇒ (a − 1)2 ≤ 0, so a = 1.

Hence a = 1.

So, 2x = 1.

∴x = 0.

So, there is only one real root.

Hence option 4.

Q.93) 5.55x = 0.555y = 1000

Taking log to the base 10, we get;

log(5.55x)= log(0.555y) = log(1000) = log 103 = 3

∴x log 5.55 = y log 0.555 = 3

So, (1/x) = (log 5.55)/3

 (1/y) = (log 0.555)/3

Log 0.555 = log 5.55 × 10−1 = log 5.55 + log 10−1= (log 5.55) − 1.

So, (1/y) = *(log 5.55) − 1+/3

∴ (1/x) − (1/y) = *(log 5.55)/3+ − *,(log 5.55) − 1-/3+ = 1/3.

Hence option 1.

Q.94) Let the radius of A and B be a and b respectively. (a = 30 and b = 40)

Distance travelled by any wheel D = (Circumference C) × (Number of revolutions N)

∴D∝R × N (∵C ∝ Radius R)

∴N∝ 1/R

∴Na/Nb = b/a = 40/30 = 4/3 ...(I)

It is given that Na = Nb + 5000 ...(II)

Solving (I) and (II), we get; Na = 20000 and Nb = 15000.

D = Ca × Na = 2πa × Na = vb × (3/4) [where vbis the velocity of B]

∴ 2π × (30 × 10−5) × 20000 = vb × (3/4)

∴vb = 16π.

Hence option 3.

Q. 95)∣x2 − x − 6∣ = x + 2

∴∣(x − 3)(x + 2)∣ = x + 2

Case 1: x< −2.

(−x + 3)(−x − 2) = x + 2

∴x = 4. (which is rejected since 4 is not less than −2)

Case 2: x = −2.

This is a real root of this equation.

Case 3: −2 <x <3.

 (−x + 3)(x + 2) = x + 2

∴x = 2.

Case 4: x = 3.

This does not satisfy the equation so x = 3 is not a root of this equation.

Case 5: x> 3.

(x − 3)(x + 2) = x + 2

∴x = 4.

Required product = (−2) × 2 × 4 = −16.

Hence option 1.

Q.96) Let AQ be x, so AP = 2x.

Since diameter subtends an angle of 90° at any point on the circumference, ∆APB is a right angled
triangle.

So AB2 = AP2 + PB2⇒ 102 = (2x)2 + 62

∴x = 4.

∆AQB is also a right angled triangle, so AB2 = AQ2 + QB2

∴ 102 = x2 + QB2

Put x = 4 to get QB = √84 = 9.165 ≈ 9.1 cm.

Hence option 4.

Q.97) log5 (x + y) + log5 (x − y) = 3.

 ∴ log5 [(x +y)(x − y)] = 3.

∴ (x +y)(x − y) = 53 = 125

So, x2 − y2 = 125 ....(I)

log2 y − log2 x = 1 − log2 3.

∴ log2(3y/x) = 1

∴ (3y/x) = 21 = 2.

So, 3y = 2x .... (II)

Solving (I) and (II), we get;

x = 15 and y =10.

∴xy = 15 × 10 = 150.

Hence option 2.

Q.98)

Let the number of members who play exactly one game, two games and all three games be a, b and c
respectively.

So, a + 2b + 3c = 144 + 123 + 132 = 399 ...(I)

Total number of members = a + b + c = 256 ....(II)

Subtracting (II) from (I), we get;

 b + 2c = 143 ....(III)

Also, b + 3c = 58 + 25 + 63 = 146 ....(IV)

Solving (III) and (IV), we get; c = 3 and b = 137.

Using (II), a = 116.

Number of members who can play only tennis = 123 − (58 + 25 − 3) = 43.

Hence option 2.

Q.99) Let the amount invested in the ratio 2 : 1 be 2x and x.

∴ Amount invested in fixed deposit = 15L − 3x(where L is lakhs)

Simple interest earned on the fixed deposit = *(15L − 3x) × (6/100) × 1] ...(I)

Simple interest earned on 2x principle = 2x × (4/100) × 1 ...(II)

Simple interest earned on x principle = x × (3/100) × 1 ...(III)

(I) + (II) + (III) = 76000.

Solving we get; x = 2L.

So, amount invested in fixed deposit = 15L − 3x = 15L − 6L = 9L.

Answer: 9

Q.100) Let the amount invested by Amala, Bina and Gouri be 3x, 4x and 5x respectively.
Also, let the respective rates be 6r, 5r and 4r.
So, the respective ratio of simple interest is (3x × 6r) : (4x × 5r) : (5x × 4r).
= 18xr : 20xr : 20xr.
Bina's interest income exceeds Amala's by Rs 250.
∴ 20xr − 18xr = 250.
∴xr = 125.
Total interest income = 18xr + 20xr + 20xr = 58xr = 58 × 125 = Rs. 7250.
Hence option 2.