Prime 3

9/25/21, 8:59 AM https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?
qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D
CLAT Mock - 6 (Prime - 3) (2022)
English
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please
answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In
some instances,
more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose
the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage - 1
If our Prozac nations are any indication, we are dealing with rampant levels of psychological dysfunction
caused
by epidemic levels of child/social abuse. So, you see the fabricated truth of this world and you
wonder what to do?
Well, the first thing you have to do is change your ideas. You want to invoke phrases
like "Spare the rod, spoil the
child," you want to justify spanking, name calling, yelling, or shaming, you
want to tell children to "suck it up" and
accept abuse, you can do that if you want. But if you do, you are
on the wrong side of reality, and the downside of
mounting empirical evidence. The truth is it is the rod
that spoils the child. Beating, emotional and verbal assaults,
shaming, even neglect damage the body
and mind and create unnecessary struggle and sometimes a lifetime of
disability. Second thing that has
to be done is that we have to change the laws. I know in my jurisdiction it is on-thebooks
legal to
physically abuse your children. And as far as emotional or psychological abuse, that doesn't even
register
on the radar. That will have to change not only for moral and ethical reasons, but for social and economic
reasons as well. Mounting evidence shows abuse costs. It costs corporations in lost productivity, it costs
individuals
and governments in higher than necessary medical costs, and it costs society in lost creativity.
For the United
States alone the estimates for lifetime costs run as high as $585 Billion dollars. That is a
lot of money lost to
emotional, psychological, and medical cleanup work. Third thing we have to do is
learn to protect ourselves. If you
are like most people you will currently accept pretty high levels of abuse,
especially when it comes to family
members. You will put up with physical assault, verbal assault,
psychological assault, energetic assault, screaming,
yelling, and a whole host of violent behaviors that
you wouldn't think twice about accepting from a total stranger on
the street. When it comes to "family" we
accept. Perhaps this is because we are afraid of being alone, or perhaps
this is because we buy into the
social propaganda to "keep things in the family," or perhaps it is because we feel
we have a moral,
ethical, or spiritual obligation to be open to abuse when we personally know the abuser. Whatever
the
reason we do it is irrelevant however, because what is important is that we stop. The research clearly
shows
that abuse at the hands of relatives is just as damaging as abuse at the hands of strangers (and
perhaps even
more so since the abuse is a profound violation of a protective trust). The research also
shows that the more bad
experiences you have, the more damaged you become. Open yourself up to
https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 1/58
9/25/21, 8:59 AM https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D
intimate abuse if you want but know

that you will pay an emotional, psychological, and physical price in
the end.
Q 1. 11669271 Which of the following summarises the author's advice about changing the idea as the
first step to get rid of
abuse?
a) Corporal punishment can bring about discipline in a child.
b) To not abuse or assault a person, especially those close to you, irrespective of the situation
c) To empower and bolster the confidence of the people around you
d) All of the above
Q 2. 11669271 The author suggests changing the law to make all forms of abuse illegal as it will lead to:
a) Increase in productivity and therefore profitability of corporations
b) Reduction in medical expenditure of government and individuals
c) More creativity in society
d) All of the above
Q 3. 11669271 All of the following can be inferred about protecting oneself except:
a)
We must be emboldened enough to respond to the abuse received in exactly the same manner because
that is critical for our self worth.
b) Most of the abuse which leaves a lasting impression on us comes from someone close to us.
c)
People are prone to tolerating and ignoring abuse from an intimate person, much more than what they
would from a stranger.
d)
People don't report abuse in family because they think it's ethical to keep shut or conceal the abuser or
they don't want to lose the person.
Q 4. 11669271 Prozac is a pill (synthetic compound) used as a drug against depression. Which of the
following best
explains the statement, "If our Prozac nations are any indication, we are dealing with
rampant levels of
psychological dysfunction caused by epidemic levels of child/social abuse"?
a)
Widespread substance abuse which can be traced back to serious trauma caused by childhood abuse.
b)
It has become fashionable to consume pills to fight depression instead of exploring the option of
counselling

c) Consumption of addictive drugs is rapidly becoming an epidemic fuelled by traumatic experiences
d) Panic attacks and nervous breakdown are rampant mostly caused by childhood experiences
Q 5. 11669271 The ____________ in "So, you see the fabricated truth of this world and you wonder
what to do?" refers to
the ________:
a) Simile, Prozac b) Metaphor, Trauma c) Oxymoron, Abuse d)

Onomatopoeia,
Dysfunction
Please
some instances,

Passage - 2

I started off in psychology. Then, in about my fourth year of study, the department went "Behaviourist." At
that time
humanist and existential psychologists were pushed out of the department and behavioural and
cognitive
psychologists were hired to replace them. It became, as is the nature of behavioral psychology,
more about
controlling the physical unit with reward and punishment than it was about investigating
human potential. My idea
of working in psychology was more about uplifting the human being,
transcending pain and suffering, and moving
towards holistic health and wellbeing. The "reward and
punishment," cognitive control focus didn't fit in with that.
So, I left Psychology and moved into Sociology.
I have to admit I was much happier in Sociology, not because
Sociology had a lot to say about
transcending pain and suffering, and moving towards holistic health and wellbeing,
but because
Sociology had a much better view of the cause of pain and suffering than psychology did (even in its
humanistic and existentialist forms). Psychology, for all cognitive and behavioral sophistication, tended to
"miss
the boat" on a lot of different things. In particular psychology, even in its humanistic and
existentialist forms, tends
to "individualize" pain and suffering. If you have a problem, psychology looks
for the cause inside you. This cause
can be many different things like genetic heritage, neurological
imbalance, faulty thinking processes, or pathological
reward structures. Regardless of what it is though
the source is always you.

Of course moving into Sociology I didn't fully understand the implications of this, but I did become
enlightened after
a while, especially after spending a couple of years in Sociology. The more time I spent
in Sociology the more I
realized that you could never just focus in on the individual to the exclusion of the
world around. This is because
the individual does not ever, ever, ever exist in isolation. From the time we
are born we are in interaction with
"things." These things may be human things like parents, siblings, or
teachers, or they can be "institutional" things
like schools, or churches, or even whole economies. The
point, we are not, nor have we ever been, born in

isolation. Indeed when you think about it, we are never
really alone. Whether we are with people, or with televisions,
or with a book, we are always having some
form of interaction with some other being. The clearer this became to
me, the less sense psychology
made. To speak about individual psychology (and pathology) without also having a
deep analysis of the
social, political, and economic context of the individual just doesn't make sense at all
Which is why I like Sociology so much. It knows this and builds on this from the very start. Having said
this now
however, having made this distinction, there is strong indication that psychology is becoming
more "sociological"
at last.
Q 6. 11669271 As per the passage, why did the author enjoy sociology more than psychology?
a)
He preferred analysing human behaviour in context of the social factors influencing them rather than in
isolation
b)
He is more interested in finding a solution to psychological problems rather than understanding the
behavioural patterns
c)
Psychology was about the reward-punishment mechanism whereas author was more interested in
helping people transcend pain and suffering
d)
Sociology gave him a more comprehensive analysis of the reasons for pain and suffering of the human
beings
Q 7. 11669271 The author prefers which of the following:

I. controlling the physical unit with reward and punishment
II. investigating human potential and uplifting the human being
III. transcending pain and suffering, and moving towards holistic health and wellbeing
a) I and II b) Only II c) II and III d) Only III
Q 8. 11669271 As per the passage, the primary difference between Psychology and Sociology was:
a) The cause of the pain b) The method of treatment
c) The choice of the subjects to observe d) All of the above
Q 9. 11669271 Which of the following will best capture the author's preferred method of observation and
analysis of human
existence?
a) b) c) Pursuit of happiness d) No man is an island

You will never walk alone World is a global village

Q 10. 11669271 Which of the following is not an antonym of the word 'pathological'?
a) Diseased b) Rare c) Unaccustomed d) Temporary
Please
some instances,

Passage - 3

It took a perfect storm of a dysfunctional educational system, Covid-19, and a looming recession to take
students
almost to the point of no return. Because of its industrial era roots, the outdated system, with its
blind belief in
authority, does not allow anyone to think for themselves. Outdated policies, slow decision-
making, lack of progressive
thinking, lack of adaptation, and hunger for power and control are some of
the other attributes of the current
education and employment system. Another flaw with the formal
education system is that it is built on the foundation
of memorisation. The only way we can fix the
problem is to build a new breed of teachers, coaches, and mentors
who are implementors.

While the Corona has been horrific, it has given us a glimpse as to what the future looks like-people at
home,
fighting the education system, and getting the education that you really want. With the recent
upturn of events,
people have realised that the practical elements they require in life are not taught in
schools. With the massive
technological advancements, people understand that they can learn those
skills, any time they want, at a fraction
of the cost, while sitting in the comfort of their homes. Now with
Covid-19, the shift has accelerated quite a bit. With
such an avid user base, the training and coaching
industry is set to become a multi-billion-dollar industry in the
coming years.

E-learning pays adequate attention to all avenues of practical knowledge and equips individuals with
skills that will
enable them to perform well in the workplace by enhancing their employability. A lot of
learning platforms offer free
trial options where you are encouraged to try an app or web platform before
committing to the platform. There is
such a huge requirement for more trainers and coaches in our
country. Speakers from across the world cover a
wide spectrum of skills and knowledge that any trainer
or coach needs, right from content designing to training
delivery, to coaching skills, to marketing to
videos. They can learn the finer points of presentation, selling from the
stage, or selling through a
seminar or webinar. They can harness the power of digital coaching to revamp the
whole education
system, create happier and fulfilled communities of people who can live a life of purpose, freedom
and
fulfillment.
Q 11. 11669271 Which of the following statements will the author not necessarily agree with?
a) Students are asked to mindlessly memorise without understanding real-world applications.

b) The world is changing so rapidly that the formal education system cannot keep up.
c)
Our current education was created in the industrial era where the only goal was to create factory workers
and make them employable.
d) There are millions of students struggling under the debt of unpaid education loans.
Q 12. 11669271 Which of the following can be an example of the 'practical elements' mentioned by the
author?
a) Fitness and Health b) Management of finance
c) Relationship and Inter personal skills d) All of the above
Q 13. 11669271 All of the following if true would strengthen author's argument that online learning is
better than in-person
learning except:
a)
Online coaching develops the willingness to ask questions because students can learn at their own
pace,
can go back, re-read, skip, or accelerate through concepts as they choose.
b)
Recent research shows that on average, students retain 25-60 percent more material when learning
online compared to only 8-10 percent in a classroom.
c)
Online coaching requires 40-60 percent less time to learn than compared to learning in a traditional
classroom setting
d)
Online education system is focused on volume-based and memorisation-based learning, the formal
education system is all about simplification and personal attention
Q 14. 11669271 Which of the following is true for the following statements?

I. Around 665 million people currently have mobile devices, while the number of active internet users is
growing by 14 percent annually.

II. India's online education market is set to grow to $1.96 billion with over 9.6 million users by 2021.
a) One provides data in support of online education while the other is just a stray piece of information
b) Both provide data in support of online education
c) Both are inconsequential to the discussion on online coaching
d)
One provides the present data which can be one of the causes of the future projection in the other
statement

Q 15. 11669271 As per the passage, which of the following will best describe the lockdown for the online
education sector?
a) Challenge b) Opportunity c) Moment of epiphany d) All of the above
Please
some instances,

Passage - 4

In 2018, the Primary Healthcare Centre in Gujarat's Math Village, Kodinar, noticed a severe spike in viral
fever
among villagers during the monsoon. The community decided to get the water tested and found
high levels of
bacteria; the local water storage tanks were contaminated and needed cleaning. While
access to drinking water
continues to be a major problem in India, assuring that it is safe for human
consumption is a whole other challenge.
With so many people in India struggling to simply find access to
water in the first place, the quality of the water has
become an afterthought. This is especially true in rural
areas where more than 80 percent of drinking water supply
comes from groundwater, which is often
contaminated or has high 'Total Dissolvable Solids', making it unfit for
human consumption.
Access to safe drinking water for all plays a crucial role in poverty reduction. It not only impacts the health
status
of communities, it impacts livelihoods and the resultant economic status of people. The provision
of clean water
can be the tipping point people need to move them over the poverty line. Unsafe drinking
water isn't just dirty-it's
deadly. The health burden of poor water quality is enormous. It is estimated that
around 37.7 million Indians are
affected by waterborne diseases annually; 1.5 million children are
estimated to die of diarrhoea alone and 73
million working days are lost due to waterborne disease each
year. The resulting economic burden is estimated at
$600 million per year. Community participation in
water management and surveillance is exactly what a Model
village undertook to turn their water situation
around. They worked hand-in-hand with a corporate foundation, and
undertook a three-phase approach,
educating themselves about the importance of regular water quality testing
and understanding the steps
necessary to treat and manage the water. By empowering themselves and learning
the skills to address
water quality issues, the problem was solved sustainably.

The provision of clean drinking water has been given priority in the Constitution of India, with Article 47
conferring
the duty of providing clean drinking water and improving public health standards to the State.
The Government of
India's flagship program, JalJivan Mission (JJM) has given priority to motivating local
panchayats and community
groups for community water quality surveillance. Community awareness on
water quality aspects is therefore
paramount. Many water quality problems are caused due to

communities being unaware of the different aspects

of managing and maintaining the quality of water
resources.
Q 16. 11669271 Which of the following is the big issue introduced by the author in the first paragraph?
a) Access to drinking water vs. access to safe drinking water

b) Access to safe drinking water vs. access to nourishing drinking water
c) Access to water vs. access to drinking water

d) Access to safe drinking water vs. free access to safe drinking water
Q 17. 11669271 All of the following will strengthen author's view point about safe drinking water
improving productivity and
reducing financial loss except:
a) Healthy people live more fulfilling lives and have happier families
b)
Time and effort spent in collecting potable water can be reduced and used in other productive activities.
c)
Improved water supply means less money is spent on buying purified water from vendors and on the
treatment of illness.
d)
Access to safe drinking water will minimise visits to the hospital and ensure that the individual is fit to
work.
Q 18. 11669271 The author has mentioned all of the following in the passage except:
a)
Supplying safe drinking water to the whole of India is a nigh impossible task and no institution can
address
it
b) There is a nexus between water, health and poverty
c) Priority needs to be given to both access to and quality of the water
d)
There is a role for everyone to play-communities, government and civil society-and collaboration is key to
the success
Q 19. 11669271 At village and panchayat level author mentions all of the following as much needed
action points except:
a) Self education b) Self awareness c) Self finance d) Self management
Q 20. 11669271 Which of the following words can replace the word 'paramount"?
a) Critical b) Crucial c) Criminal d) Central

Please
some instances,

Passage - 5

The need of the hour is to ensure that children have access to both, health and education. The Mid-Day
Meal
(MDM) Scheme under the umbrella of SSA, is implemented with the primary objective of enhancing
school
enrollment, retention and attendance rates and simultaneously improving nutritional levels among
children. While
the MDM Scheme incentivises education and addresses classroom hunger, it is time to
focus on improving the
learning experience in schools by introducing co-curricular activities such as
sports. The inclusion of sports in
schools can increase children's interest in school activities and give
them an impetus to continue their education,
eventually leading to a decrease in dropout rates. Taking up
a sport can help children learn valuable skills and
develop essential qualities such as teamwork,
discipline, punctuality, perseverance and fair play, which they can
integrate into activities of everyday life.
It also allows children to build their personality by improving their selfesteem
and confidence. In addition,
sports in schools can also create a cohesive learning environment.

The 'International Inspiration-Sports for Development' programme, supported by UNICEF and the
Government of
India, aims to increase awareness and acceptance of sport as a key part of children's
education This programme
was started in the district of Chandrapur, Maharashtra. A girl and a boy from
more than 500 villages are recruited
and trained in how sports can educate, inform and be used for
development. They are then sent back to train
children in local schools and communities where physical
education and sports are not generally taught. Teachers
in these schools have in fact noted that after the
program, they are more interested in school and dropouts are
becoming less. The incentive to attend
school regularly can be offered in innovative ways. The Kovalam Surf Club,
located in Kovalam, Kerala,
offers free surfing lessons to children from underserved communities under one
condition? "No school -
No surfing". The Club started off with just 5 to 10 children learning how to surf; today, it has
around 40
local boys and girls from Kovalam and the surrounding villages who are regular at school and have
surfing to look forward to, after school hours. In order to treat school education holistically from pre-
nursery to
class 12, the 'Samagra Shiksha' Scheme has been proposed in the Union Budget of 2018-19
by the Government
of India. The purpose of this Scheme is to improve school effectiveness, which will be
measured in terms of equal
opportunities for schooling and equitable learning . Under the Samagra
Shiksha Scheme, the Government will
fund all 11.5 lakh Government schools for the purchase of sports
equipment, with the aim of promoting sports and
having at least one hour being devoted to sports every
day in these schools. The poor condition of school's
infrastructure and unavailability of trained coaches
for various sports in schools could hinder efforts to introduce
sports in schools.
Q 21. 11669271 Which of the following will strengthen author's arguments in the passage?
I. While children gain nourishment through the mid-day meal, the active pursuit of sports can improve
their
health, help them focus better in class, enhance their overall learning experience, and act as an
incentive
for completing school education.
II. In the future, well-nourished children supported by the benefits of sports, can achieve more success in
several fields and contribute to the growth of the country.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I Nor II
Q 22. 11669271 The "No school - No surfing" scheme can be defined as:
a) Penalisation b) Incentivisation c) d)

Risk and Reward Stick and Carrot
System approach
Q 23. 11669271 Which of the following solutions can address the problems mentioned in the last
sentence of the passage?
a) NGOs could provide jerseys, shoes and other such sports uniform
b)
A long-term goal of creating a large pool of sports coaches for schools is taken up by government and
NGOs
c)
Talented and interested children are identified and trained by mentors from various institutions and
organisations
d) Any school which does not have necessary sports infrastructure is asked to close down
Q 24. 11669271 Which of the following has not been mentioned as one of the objectives of the Mid-Day
Meal (MDM) Scheme
under the umbrella of SSA?
a) Providing nutritious food and ensuring health and wellness of the students
b) Encouraging parents to send their children to school
c)
Using audio video delivery system in digital classrooms to increase engagement and subsequent
retention
of the enrolled students
d) Retaining the strength of the class and striving to reduce the dropout rate to the minimum
Q 25. 11669271 Which of the following has not been mentioned as one of the benefits of introducing
sports in the schools?
a) Improving skill level and health and fitness of the students

b)
Acquiring qualities like teamwork, discipline, punctuality, perseverance and fair play and improve self
esteem and confidence
c) Create a cohesive learning environment, imbued with a spirit of cooperation and competition
d) Improve focus and concentration so that students perform better in their academics
Please
some instances,

Passage - 6

It was dark by the time I reached Bonn, and I forced myself not to succumb to the series of mechanical
actions
which had taken hold of me in five years of traveling back and forth: down the station steps, up
the station steps,
put down my suitcase, take my ticket out of my coat pocket etc., as I savor in a corner
of my mind the studied
casualness of these mechanical actions. I am a clown, official description:
comedian, no church affiliation, twentyseven
years old, and one of my turns is called: Arrival and
Departure, a long (almost too long) pantomime during
which the audience confuses arrival and departure
all the way through. Since I usually go over this number once
more in the train (it consists of over six
hundred gestures, and I have to know their sequence by heart, of course),
it is not unnatural that now
and again I fall victim to my own imagination.: rush into a hotel, look round for the
departure board, find it,
run up or down a flight of steps so as not to miss my train, while all I have to do is go to my
room and get
ready for the performance. Luckily they know me in most of the hotels. Over a period of five years a
rhythm develops with fewer possibilities of variation than one might suppose - besides, my agent, sees to
it that there is a minimum of friction. As soon as I get to my room: flowers in an attractive vase, and,
almost before I have
thrown off my coat and tossed my shoes (I hate shoes) into a corner, a pretty
chambermaid comes in with coffee
and cognac and runs my bath, and the green bath salts she pours
into it make it relaxing and fragrant. While I lie
in the bathtub, in a moderately loud voice I sing nothing
but sacred songs: chorales, hymns, musical passages I
recall from my school days. My parents, devout
Protestants, subscribed to the postwar fashion of denominational
tolerance and sent me to a Catholic
school. I am not religious myself, I don't even go to church, and I make use of
the sacred texts and songs
for therapeutic purposes: they help me more than anything else to overcome the two
afflictions Nature
has saddled me with: depression and headaches. Now my favorite remedies for pain are not
much use
any more. Only one effective remedy works for me but the flipside is that the clown who takes to drink
falls faster than a drunk tile-layer topples off a roof.
Q 26. 11669271 Which of the following can be inferred from the last statement of the passage?
a) Protagonist prefers alcohol as a stress reliever. b) Protagonist is a yearning for his wife.
c) Protagonist has lost his job.

d)
Protagonist drinks to gather courage for
performance.
Q 27. 11669271 As per the passage, which of the following is not necessarily untrue about 'Arrival and
Departure'?
a) It's a romantic play on the stage, with the premise of a railway station, of which the 'clown' is a part of.
b) It's a very long act and at times can be confusing for the protagonist to remember the sequence.
c)
Its objective is to confuse the audience and force them into self pity and thus self deprecating laughter.
d) The actions in the act are mechanical and casual at the same time.
Q 28. 11669271 Which of the following has been mentioned as the reason for the author singing church
songs?
a) He is a very religious person. b) He needs to de-stress himself.

c) d) He does not remember any other song
These are his favourite songs from his childhood
Q 29. 11669271 Which of the following will best describe the facilities of hotel room, provided by the
agent for the author?
a) 'the sensitive soul of the author' b) 'familiarity with author's idiosyncrasies'
c) 'aura of well-being' d) 'the spiritual healing'
Q 30. 11669271 All of the following are antonyms of the word 'savor' except:
a) Distaste b) Repulse c) Revolted d) Reverse
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

The Narendra Modi government announced the creation of a new ministry, named the Ministry of
Cooperation to
realise the vision of 'Sahkar se Samriddhi' or prosperity through cooperatives.

This is the second ministry to be created during the second term of the Modi government, after it came to
power
in 2019. The first new ministry to be established was the [1] ministry in 2019.


However, unlike the Ministry of Cooperation, it was created by integrating two existing ministries - water
resources,
river development and Ganga rejuvenation, and drinking water and sanitation.
A ministry in the Government of India essentially overlooks one subject and comprises employed officials
such as
civil servants who oversee its functioning. Most major ministries are headed by a Cabinet
Minister.
Cumulatively, all cabinet ministers, ministers of state and the ministers of state who have an independent
charge
are called the 'Council of Ministers' that aids the Prime Minister in governance. Some ministries
also have
subdivisions that are called departments.
Ministries or departments are created by the President on advice of the Prime Minister under the
Government of
India (Allocation of Business Rules) 1961, which is part of Article [2] of the Constitution.
Under these rules, each ministry is assigned a minister by the President on the advice of the Prime
Minister. Each
department in the ministry is generally under the charge of a civil servant or official who
assists the minister on
policy matters and general administration.
With this new ministry, there are 41 ministries at present in the Government of India. The [3] is
responsible for
coordination, smooth transaction of business and decision-making among ministries and
departments and is
under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
Q 31. 11669271 Which of the following ministries has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Ministry of Jal Shakti b) Ministry of Ganga and Water Coordination
c) Ministry of Water and Sanitization d)

Ministry of Water and Inter State Water Dispute
Resolution
Q 32. 11669271 Ministries or departments are created by the President on advice of the Prime Minister
under the Government
of India (Allocation of Business Rules) 1961, which is part of Article [2] of the
Constitution. Which of the
following articles has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Article 74 b) Article 75 c) Article 76 d) Article 77
Q 33. 11669271 Which of the following is responsible for coordination, smooth transaction of business
and decision-making
among ministries and departments and is under the direct charge of the Prime
Minister, redacted with [3] in
the passage above?
a) b) President Secretariat c) d) Cabinet Secretariat

Prime Minister Parliament Secretariat
Secretariat

Q 34. 11669271 The first Minister for Co-operation of India is
a) Rajnath Singh b) Amit Shah c) Nirmala Sitharaman d) Sushilkumar Shinde
Q 35. 11669271 Which of the following statements is true regarding the Cooperative societies in India?
a) Cooperative societies is a subject of Concurrent List under the Seventh schedule of the Constitution.
b)
A three-judge bench of the Supreme Court quashed part of the 87th Amendment Act and Part IX B of the
Constitution which governs the "Cooperative Societies" in the country.
c)
The "Ministry of Cooperation" will not continue to have the power to look into the work of "multi state"
cooperative
societies.
d)
The Supreme Court bench has held that the states have the power to prescribe rules for cooperative
societies which operate only in their own territory, and that the constitutional provisions which had
prescribed these rules were unconstitutional.
Passage – 2

Record high domestic fuel prices in India have become a major concern for citizens as it is impacting
their
livelihoods, either directly or indirectly. While fuel prices have been high since last year, citizens are
feeling the
pressure since May after OMCs went on a hiking spree.

There has been a meteoric rise in domestic fuel prices since the first week of May. Petrol and diesel
prices have
been hiked 35 times during the period and both essential fuels have become dearer by at
least Rs 7-8 per litre.

As of today, there are nearly two dozen cities where petrol is retailing over Rs 100 per litre including
major cities
and smaller towns. In Mumbai, a litre of petrol is currently retailing at almost Rs 106 per litre,
while it is all set to
cross Rs 100 per litre in Delhi for the first time.

Diesel prices are also rising rapidly across the country and there are hardly a few cities left where the
retail rates
are below Rs 90 per litre. In Rajasthan's Sri Ganganagar, diesel price has crossed the three-
figure mark. With no
clear directive on resolving the fuel price crisis, Indians are likely to bear even higher
costs in future if international
crude oil rates strengthen.
Q 36. 11669271 The impact of high fuel prices is not just limited to vehicle owners; people who do not
own a vehicle or even
a business that requires the use of petrol and diesel are affected by rising fuel
prices. Fuel prices have a
cascading effect on the value of many other commodities, including essential
items like which of the following?

a) Food b) Medicines c) Other FMCG goods d) All of the above
Q 37. 11669271 Which of the following is/are reason for rising Fuel prices in India?
a) Global oil production remains lower in comparison to rising output in the international market.
b) India levies the highest taxes on petrol and diesel in the world.
c) Both A and B are correct
d) Neither A nor B is correct
Q 38. 11669271 Which of the following statements is true regarding the Organization of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries
(OPEC)?
a)
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is an intergovernmental organization or
cartel of 30 countries.
b) It was founded on 14 September 1990 in Baghdad by the first ten members.
c) It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria, although Austria is not an OPEC member state.
d) At present, Argentina is the only South American country to be a member of the OPEC.
Q 39. 11669271 Which of the following African countries is Not a member country in the OPEC?
a) Libya b) Gabon c) Equatorial Guinea d) Ghana
Q 40. 11669271 Which of the following countries is a member of Organization of the Petroleum

Exporting Countries Plus?
a) Kyrgyzstan b) Armenia c) Malaysia d) China
Passage – 3

The Economically Weaker Section or EWS quota will come in for judicial scrutiny soon. But it's not only a
matter
for the judiciary, India's Parliament should revisit the law too.

The Madras High Court has nixed the implementation of 10 per cent EWS reservation in All India Quota
in medical
admissions - popularly known as AIQ in NEET- and said that it can be implemented only with
the approval of the
Supreme Court. Meanwhile, 27 doctors have challenged the Union government
notification to implement the OBC
and EWS quota in medical education. The Supreme Court has issued
notice to the Narendra Modi government
and sought its response in this matter. Not pronouncing a
judgment means that EWS reservation will be put on
hold as far as medical admissions are concerned.

This will probably be the first legal test the [1] Constitution Amendment Act of 2019 will face. Meanwhile,

a bunch of
petitions have been filed in the Supreme Court (Janhit vs Union of India) to challenge the
constitutionality and
legality of the EWS quota and these are yet to be taken up by the apex court.
The EWS quota literally may mean quota for the economically weaker sections. But in the case of this
act, SC, ST,
OBCs are not considered poor or EWS. This amendment gives power to the State to make
provisions for the
reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any economically weaker section of
citizens other than SC, ST
and OBCs.
Currently, there is an income threshold of Rs [2] lakh per annum to avail this quota. So, we can say that
this quota
is for those poor or middle-class persons who belong to 'upper' castes of various religions.
Q 41. 11669271 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment acts has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) b)
Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Constitution (One Hundred and Second
Act, 2019 Amendment) Act, 2019
c) d)
Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth
Act, 2019 Amendment) Act, 2019
Q 42. 11669271 Currently, the EWS quota can be availed by persons with an annual gross household
income of up to Rs [2]
per annum. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in the passage
above?
a) Rs.5 lakh per annum b) Rs.8 lakh per annum c) d)
Rs.10 lakh per annum Rs.12 lakh per annum
Q 43. 11669271 Whether or not to provide reservation to the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of
the society for
appointment in State Government jobs and for admission to State Government
educational institutions, is to
be decided by the_____________.
a) Central Government b) High Court c) State Government d)

Supreme Court of India
Q 44. 11669271 Which of the following articles were amended and inserted new clauses to provide 10%
reservation to
economically weaker sections other than backward classes, schedules castes and
scheduled tribes in
higher educational institutions and initial recruitment in government posts?
a) b) c) d)

Articles 14(6) and 15(6) Articles 15(6) and 16(6) Articles 16(6) and 18(6) Articles 252(6) and 16(6)
Q 45. 11669271 The first state in India to implement 10% reservation to economically weaker sections
(EWS) is
a) Kerala b) Sikkim c) Andhra Pradesh d) Gujarat
Passage – 4

The Taliban has appointed [1] as the 'acting' Prime Minister in the new Afghan government, with Mullah
Abdul Ghani
Baradar and Mullah Abdus Salam being his deputies.

[1] is presently head of the Taliban's powerful decision-making body-Rehbari Shura or leadership council-
which
serves much like a government Cabinet running all the group's affairs subject to the approval of the
top leader.

The supreme leader, Maulvi Haibatullah Akhundzada, himself proposed [1]'s name to head the
government, adding
that the issues within ranks of the Taliban regarding the formation of the government
have been resolved.

[1] belongs to Kandahar, the birthplace of the Taliban, and was among the founders of the armed
movement. He
worked for 20 years as head of Rehbari Shura and remained close to Mullah Hebatullah.
He had served as foreign
minister and deputy prime minister during the Taliban's previous government in
Afghanistan from 1996 to 2001.

However, it is not clear what role in the government would be played by Akhundzada. He has not been
seen or
heard in public since the collapse of the Western-backed government and the seizure of Kabul by
the Taliban last
month.

Meanwhile, Mulla Yaqoob, son of the Taliban founder Mullah Mohammad Omar, will be the new defence
minister.
Yaqoob was a student of Mullah Hebatullah, who had earlier appointed him as head of the
powerful military
commission of the Taliban.

[2], the head of the notorious Haqqani network and son of the famous anti-Soviet warlord Jalaluddin
Haqqani, will
get the portfolio of interior minister, while Mullah Ameer Khan Muttaqi will be the new
foreign minister, according to
the Taliban sources. [2] is a specially designated global terrorist.

According to the FBI website, the US Department of State is offering a reward of up to USD 5 million for
information
leading directly to the arrest of [2], who is thought to stay in Pakistan, specifically the Miram
Shah area in North
Waziristan, and maintains close ties to the Taliban and al Qaeda.
Q 46. 11669271 The Taliban has appointed [1] as the 'acting' Prime Minister in the new Afghan
government. What is the
name of the acting Prime Minister whose name has been redacted with [1] in
the passage above?
a) Rahmatullah Najeeb
b) c) Haji Mohammad Idris d) Khalil Haqqani

Mullah Mohammad
Hasan Akhund
Q 47. 11669271 According to the FBI website, the US Department of State is offering a reward of up to
USD 5 million for
information leading directly to the arrest of [2], who is the current interior minister of
Afghanistan. What is the
name redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Sirajuddin Haqqani b) Qari Fasihuddin c) Wahid Majrooh d) Tajmir Javad
Q 48. 11669271 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Afghanistan?
a) It is a landlocked country at the crossroads of Central and South Asia.
b)
It is predominately mountainous with plains in the north and the southwest that are separated by the
Hindu Kush Mountains.
c)
It is composed mostly of ethnic Pashtuns, Tajiks, Hazaras, and Uzbeks. Kabul serves as its capital and
largest city.
d) Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan are sharing border with Afghanistan towards North.
Q 49. 11669271 Which of the following dams is formerly known as Afghanistan Friendship Dam?
a) Shatoot Dam b) Salma Dam c) Grishk Dam d) Kajaki Dam
Q 50. 11669271 Indira Gandhi Children's hospital located in ________ is a Children's hospital of

Afghanistan.
a) Mazar-i-Sharif b) Kandahar c) Kabul d) Herat
Passage – 5

The Gaganyaan Mission, India's foray into independent human space exploration, is moving ahead with
plans to
send an uncrewed mission into orbit. Scheduled for December, a final call on the launch will be
taken postassessment
of the situation once lockdown is lifted in Bengaluru. The mission is part of the
three-stage Gaganyaan
project.

While the first unmanned flight is likely to be launched this year, the second demonstration launch could
happen in
2022-23 before the astronauts finally take to the skies in a full-scale, crewed mission.

Despite the coronavirus pandemic impacting the pace of the mission, the Defence Research and
Development
(DRDO) organisation and the Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) are now

conducting impact studies on

the crew module.
Being developed by the [1], the Gaganyaan crew module will be the first indigenous spacecraft to take
Indian
astronauts into space and return them safely to Earth.
The Rs 10,000-crore mission aims to send a [2]-member Indian crew to space for a period of five to
seven days
and safely return them to Earth. Announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his
Republic Day speech
from the Red Fort in 2018, the Gaganyaan mission was initially scheduled for 2022,
when India completes 75
years of independence. However, several delays have led to the deferment of
the final crew mission.
Q 51. 11669271 Gaganyaan crew module has been developed by [1], which of the following has been
redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited b) Mahindra Defence Systems
c) Reliance Naval & Engineering Ltd d) Ordnance Factory Board
Q 52. 11669271 The Gaganyaan mission aims to send a [2]-member Indian crew to space for a period of
five to seven days
and safely return them to Earth. Which of the following has been redacted with [2] in
the passage above?
a) b) c) d)

Two-member Indian Three-member Indian Five-member Indian Seven-member Indian
crew crew crew crew
Q 53. 11669271 Which of the following will be used to launch Gaganyaan as it has the necessary
payload capability?
a) PSLV II b) GSLV Mk III c) GSLV Mk II d) PSLV III
Q 54. 11669271 On August 28, 2021, ISRO successfully conducted the first hot test of the System
Demonstration Model
(SDM) of the Gaganyaan Service Module Propulsion System for a duration of 450
seconds at the test facility
of ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) located in:
a) b) Thumba, Kerala c) Bengaluru, Karnataka d)

Sriharikota, Andhra Mahendragiri, Tamil
Pradesh Nadu
Q 55. 11669271 In June 2019, the Human Space Flight Centre of the ISRO and the
____________government-owned
Glavkosmos signed a contract for selection support, medical
examination and space training of Indian
astronauts for India's proposed maiden manned space mission
'Gaganyaan'.
a) USA b) Israel c) UK d) Russia

Passage – 6

Following through with one of her key announcements in the Budget, Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman has
announced the formation of India's first-ever "Bad Bank". She said the NARCL has
already been incorporated
under the Companies Act. It will acquire stressed assets worth about Rs [1]
lakh crore from various commercial
banks in different phases. Another entity - India Debt Resolution
Company Ltd (IDRCL), which has also been set
up - will then try to sell the stressed assets in the market.
The NARCL-IDRCL structure is the new bad bank. To
make it work, the government has approved the
use of Rs 30,600 crore to be used as a guarantee.

In every country, commercial banks accept deposits and extend loans. The deposits are a bank's
"liability" because
that is the money it has taken from a common man, and it will have to return that
money when the depositor asks
for it. Moreover, in the interim, it has to pay the depositor an interest rate
on those deposits.

In contrast, the loans that banks give out are their "assets" because this is where the banks earn interest
and this
is money that the borrower has to return to the bank.

The whole business model is premised on the idea that a bank will earn more money from extending
loans to
borrowers than what it would have to pay back to the depositors.
Q 56. 11669271 What is the full form of NARCL?
a) National Asset Resolution Company Limited b)

National Association Reconstruction Company
Limited
c) d)
National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited National Assessment Reconstruction Company
Limited
Q 57. 11669271 NARCL will acquire stressed assets worth about Rs [1] lakh crore from various
commercial banks in different
phases. Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?
a) Rs 2 lakh crore b) Rs 5 lakh crore c) Rs 7 lakh crore d) Rs 10 lakh crore
Q 58. 11669271 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the function of NARCL?
a) The NARCL will first purchase bad loans from banks.
b)
It will pay 15% of the agreed price in cash and the remaining 85% will be in the form of "Security
Receipts".
c)
If the bad bank is unable to sell the bad loan, or has to sell it at a loss, then the government guarantee
will
be invoked.
d) The guarantee is extended for a period of ten years.
Q 59. 11669271 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Bad Bank?
a)
The bad bank is an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) or an Asset Management Company (AMC)
that takes over the bad loans of commercial banks, manages them and finally recovers the money over
a
period of time.
b)
The bad bank is not involved in lending and taking deposits, but helps commercial banks clean up their
balance sheets and resolve bad loans.
c)
The takeover of bad loans is normally below the book value of the loan and the bad bank tries to recover
as much as possible subsequently.
d) All of the above
Q 60. 11669271 In August 2020, RBI set up a committee headed by K.V. Kamath on___________.
a) b) Big Banks merger with loss making banks

Restructuring of loans impacted by the Covid-19 c)
pandemic Structural reforms required in in the Indian
Economy
d) For the implementation of Basel-III guidelines
Passage – 7

The Group of Seven (G7) advanced economies met in [1] in June 2021. It was the first in-person meeting
of the
group since the pandemic began last year, and the first visit of US President Joe Biden to Europe.

There was a lot on the table, from climate change to the pandemic and global economic recovery, and
although
not everyone will think the outcomes go far enough, here are some of the key takeaways from
the 2021 G7
summit.

The G7 leaders pledged to deliver an additional 870 million vaccine doses for the developing world on
top of the
250 million already promised by the US and 100 million from the UK. Deliveries will take place
over the next year.


G7 leaders pledged to phase out coal-fired power generation at home and to end funding for new coal-
burning
power plants in the developing world. The leaders committed to offering developing nations $2.8
billion to help
them switch to cleaner fuels.
The 2021 G7 summit also promised to make good on a pledge, first made in 2009, to "to jointly mobilize
[2] billion
per year from public and private sources, through to 2025" to developing countries to help them
tackle the impact
of climate change. But climate groups said more was needed.
The G7 summit agreed measures to dissuade multinational companies from shifting profits to low tax
havens.
Leaders signed up to levy a minimum [3] corporate tax rate. Leaders also moved to help protect
the global financial
system from the impact of climate change by agreeing rules to require companies and
financial institutions to
disclose the extent to which their business is exposed to climate change risks.
Q 61. 11669271 The Group of Seven (G7) advanced economies met in [1] in June 2021. Which of the
following countries has
been replaced with [1] in the passage above?
a) Berlin, Germany b) Cornwall, UK c) Rome, Italy d) Paris, France
Q 62. 11669271 The 2021 G7 summit also promised to make good on a pledge, first made in 2009, to
"to jointly mobilize [2]
billion per year from public and private sources, through to 2025" to developing
countries to help them tackle
the impact of climate change. Which of the following has been replaced with
[2] in the passage above?
a) $100 billion per year b) $500 billion per year c) $1000 billion per year d)
$10000 billion per year
Q 63. 11669271 The G7 summit agreed measures to dissuade multinational companies from shifting
profits to low tax
havens. Leaders signed up to levy a minimum [3] corporate tax rate. Which of the
following has been
replaced with [3] in the passage above?
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%
Q 64. 11669271 Which of the following four countries were invited as guest countries for the G7 Summit
2021?
a) India, Australia, South Korea and South Africa b) India, Saudi Arabia, Qatar and Indonesia
c) India, Saudi Arabia, Brazil and Indonesia d) India, Saudi Arabia, China and Russia
Q 65. 11669271 The theme for the G7 Summit 2021 is
a) Fast Recovery and Sustainable Growth b) Victory over the pandemic and new world order
c) Advanced Growth for Better World d) Build Back Better

Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based
on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the
passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no
external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
In Hindu law the breakdown principle in the third form of divorce was introduced in 1964, and in 1970 in
the Special
Marriage Act. This was done by amending the last two clauses of divorce of the two statutes.
The new Section
13(IA) of the Hindu Marriage Act laid down that if parties have not resumed cohabitation
for a period of two years or
more after a decree of judicial separation, or if a decree of restitution of
conjugal rights has not been complied with
for a period of two years or more, then either party may sue
for divorce. The provision in Section 27(2) of the
Special Marriage Act is identical except that the period
therein is only one year. It must be noted that the desertion
must be a complete desertion.
When the Hindu law provision came for interpretation before our courts, our courts tested it on the
touchstone of
guilt theory and looked at the question very closely whether the petitioner is thereby note
taking advantage of his
own wrong, and if they found culpability in him, they refused the relief. In most of
the cases the question came in
this form: a wife obtained a decree of restitution of conjugal rights but the
husband did not comply with it. After a
period of two years the husband sued for divorce. The courts said
that since he himself has not complied with the
decree, he is in the wrong, and if divorce is allowed to
him, it will amount to giving him an advantage of his own
wrong. Looked at in this manner the argument
is not merely plausible but appears convincing. But the point is, if
non-compliance is a criterion of
breakdown of marriage, then divorce should be granted, without bothering which
of the two parties bears
the blame for the disintegration of marriage.
It is very unfortunate that neither the Law Commission, the report of which constitutes the basis of the
Marriage
Laws (Amendment) Act, 1976, nor the framer of the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Bill, 1976
looked at this aspect
of the matter. In this regard the only suggestion that has been made is that the
period of two years' separation
under the Hindu Marriage Act, should be reduced to one year. One
wished very much that Parliament should have
enacted a simple provision that if parties have ceased to
cohabit for a period of two years (irrespective of whether
there is a decree of judicial separation or
restitution), then either party may sue for divorce. A provision like this
would help us in achieving the goal
of a uniform civil code, as such a provision would be, if it is submitted,
acceptable to all communities. It
will not work hardship on the women, as, even after divorce, under both the
statutes, a wife, who has no
means of livelihood, can claim maintenance from her divorced husband.
Q 66. 11669271 Sheena, filed a suit against her husband, Karan, after he treated her with cruelty and
deserted her for one
and a half years. But according to him, she started picking up quarrels and abused
him after a few months
of marriage. They were legally wedded under the Special Marriage Act but after a
month Sheena renounced
her religion and embraced Hinduism. Decide?
a) Sheena can sue Karan for divorce on the grounds of desertion under Special Marriage Act.
b) Sheena cannot sue for divorce as minimum period is 2 years under Special Marriage Act.
c) As Sheena embraced Hinduism, the divorce will be governed under Hindu Marriage Act (HMA).
d) Sheena can only take cruelty as a ground of divorce under HMA.
Q 67. 11669271 Sahil used commit cruelty on Sarita because of the small amount of dowry given by her
family members
and he made a situation like, if she continued to live with him then he would beat him to
death. Sacred by all
these events she ran away and did not come back for two years. After the
completion of two years Sahil filed
a petition for divorce on the ground of desertion. Decide?
a) Sahil will be successful as Sarita deserted him for more than two years.
b) Sahil will be successful as the time for desertion is only one-year.
c) Sahil will not be successful as she deserted him because of his cruel behavior.
d) Sahil will not be successful as the right to sue for divorce lies with the victim.
Q 68. 11669271 Pushkar married Kajal in 1943 but their marital life was not going smooth. In 1946, Kajal
went to her father's
home and did not come back despite of several requests from Pushkar. After some
time and before the
enforcement of HMA, Pushkar married to another woman. Kajal accused him of
bigamy after the
commencement of HMA and filed a petition for divorce. Decide?
a) The divorce will not be granted as Kajal herself left the house.
b) Pushkar will be liable for the offence of bigamy under section 494 of IPC.
c) The divorce will be granted on the grounds of cruelty by Pushkar.
d) Only Pushkar's second wife has the right to file a divorce against him.
Q 69. 11669271 Rohani was married to Bipin under the Special Marriage Act and after a few days of
marriage she found him
not interested in the marital life as he used to come home late at night and did
not spend time with her. Due
to this, Rohani decided to dedicate her life to work and got a job in a
different city but she used to visit him
once a month. After one-year Bipin sued her for divorce under the
grounds of desertion. Decide?
a) Bipin will be successful as the time period for desertion is 1 year in Special Marriage Act.
b) Bipin will not be successful as she used to visit him.
c) Bipin will be successful as there was separation of household.

d) Bipin will not be successful as his own conduct made Rohani move out to another city.
Q 70. 11669271 In which of the following situations divorce will be granted?
a)
A decree of judicial separation was granted in the favor of Y and after 11 months she and her husband
resumed their cohabitation.
b)
A decree was passed against X for the restitution of conjugal rights but it was not resumed for a complete
3 years.
c)
X went to England to complete his PhD course of 3 years and meanwhile her wife Y fell in love with Z
and
therefore, she sued X for divorce on the grounds of desertion.
d) All of the above
on each
passage.

Passage – 2

Divorce is the end of such a marital relationship, as under Muslim law there are two modes given for the
dissolution
of marriage- Divorce and Talaq. In daily life, these two terms are alternatively used, but under
Muslim law, if a
person seeks "divorce", he will be governed by the provisions of Dissolution of Muslim
Marriage Act, 1939. Whereas,
"Talaq" proceedings are governed by Muslim Personal Laws.
Divorce by
Mutual Consent

Although the practice of giving Divorce by mutual consent was not recognised in the Muslim Law, it was
only
available to the Muslim women after the enactment of Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939.

Khula: The literal meaning of khula is "to lay down" before the law. The husband lays down his right over
his wife.
It signifies an arrangement entered into to dissolve a connubial connection in lieu of
compensation paid by the wife
to her husband out of her property, everything that can be given as dower.
Essentials: There must be an offer from
the wife's side; Offer must be accepted by the husband with the
consideration for it; Observance of the iddat
period is necessary. Under Shia law, husband can't revoke
divorce once accepted whereas the wife has been
given the power to reclaim the consideration during
the iddat period.


Mubarat: It signifies mutual discharge from the marital tie. The most essential element is that the mutual
consent
of both the partners is required in regards to the dissolution of marriage. In this mode of divorce-
Offer can be
made from either of the sides; Acceptance of offer makes divorce irrevocable; Iddat is
necessary. Under Shia law,
parties can dissolve their marriage, if it is not possible for them to continue
their marriage by way of mubarat.
Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939.
Lian: Lian can simply be described as the wrong charge of adultery on a wife by her husband. Whenever
a
husband imposes false adultery charges on his wife, then a wife can sue him and can also obtain a
divorce on the
same ground under the Act, by filing a regular suit for dissolution of marriage. Essentials:
A husband must be adult
and sane; He charges his wife of adultery; and Such a charge must be false.
Marriage will continue until the decree
for dissolution of marriage is passed by the court. Judicial
separation via mode of lian is irrevocable. This mode is
applicable only to Sahih marriages not on fasid
ones.
Faskh: Quran says that husband and wife are duty bound to respect each other and treat each other
respectfully
and obey all lawful orders of each other. If both of them find that they can't live as husband
and wife further, they
can approach qazi who after careful examination may terminate their marriage.
Q 71. 11669271 Asif and Fatima, were follower of Islam and belonged to shia sect. They mutually
agreed to discharge their
marital rights under Mubarat and for this Fatima made an offer which was
accepted by Asif and the iddat
period was also followed. Decide the validity of the divorce?
a) The divorce will not be valid as the offer must be always made by the husband.
b) The divorce will be valid as all the essential elements are fulfilled in this case.
c) The divorce will not be valid as consideration has not been made by Asif.
d) The divorce will not be valid as the rule is not applicable to Shia sect.
Q 72. 11669271 Abbas used to work at a different city and while he was out his wife Rabiya used to work
as a professor. One
day someone informed Abbas that her wife is willing to discharge the marital ties with
him and to marry one
of the professors of her college. Abbas lost his mind after this and charged his wife
for adultery. The police
came to a conclusion that no such incidents are true. Rabiya filed a suit against
him for divorce under Lian?
a) The divorce will be granted as the charges made against her were false.
b) The marriage will continue till the decree of dissolution is passed by the court.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
Q 73. 11669271 Jubaid was married to Sana and both of them belonged to Sunni sect. Sana in process
of taking divorce
under Khula, gave a consideration of Rs. 50,000 as dower and this offer with

consideration was accepted by

Jubaid and the iddat period was being observed strictly but during this
Sana reclaim the consideration given
by him. Decide?
a) Jubaid will be liable to return the consideration.
b) The consideration money cannot be reclaimed as the rule is only applicable to Shia sects.
c) The consideration once given cannot be reclaimed in any of the sects.
d) If consideration is reclaimed the divorce will be revoked.
Q 74. 11669271 Zarin and Kalam belonged to the Shia sect and were married to each other. They were
having a lot of issues
in their marital tie and frustrated by this Kalam asked Zarin to take divorce under
Faskh but they did not visit
a Qazi. On the next day Zarin went to a Qazi and requested her to dissolve
the marriage. Decide whether
marriage is dissolved or not?
a) Marriage will not be dissolved as it is essential that both the parties should approach the Qazi.
b) Marriage will be dissolved as Kalam himself gave consent to Zarin for divorce.
c) Marriage cannot be dissolved as both of them belong to the Shia sect.
d) Marriage will be dissolved as they were unable to live together.
Q 75. 11669271 Which of the following is not possible in one of the forms of divorce?

I. An offer was made by husband X to wife Y of Shia law for mutually dissolving the marriage under
Mubarat which was accepted by Y but after some time when the condition of their marital life started
getting better, she revoked the acceptance.

II. After finding out that the marriage is a fasid one, the husband P accused his wife Q for adultery with a
thought that she will sue him and will obtain a divorce afterwards.
a) I only b) I only c) Both I and II d) None
on each
passage.

Passage – 3

The expression "intelligible differentia" means difference capable of being understood. A factor that
distinguishes
or in different state or class from another which is capable of being understood. The
impugned act deals with
users of social networking websites Test laid down in State of West Bengal v.
Anwar Ali Sarkar i.e. the differentia or
classification must have a rational nexus with the object sought to
be achieved by the statute in question. Supreme
Court in many of its judgment has clearly indicated
about such kinds of classifications as vague and inoperative.
The Supreme Court in landmark judgment

of Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India clearly ruled out the room for
arbitrariness. 'Article 14 strikes at
arbitrariness in State action and ensures fairness and equality of treatment. The
principle of
reasonableness, which logically as well as philosophically, is an essential element of equality or
nonarbitrariness,
pervades Article 14 like a brooding omnipresence.' Rule of law which permeates the
entire fabric of
the Indian Constitution excludes arbitrariness. Wherever we find arbitrariness or
unreasonableness there is denial
there is denial of rule of law.
This new dimension of Art.14 transcends the classificatory principle. Art.14 is no longer to be equated
with the
principle of classification. It is primarily a guarantee against arbitrariness in state action and the
doctrine of
classification has been evolved only as a subsidiary rule for testing whether a particular state
action is arbitrary or
not. If a law is arbitrary or irrational it would fall foul of Art.14. As an example, it has
been held that any penalty
disproportionate to the gravity of the misconduct would be violative of Art.14.
So the impugned act should be tested
at the touchstone of Art. 13(2) and should be declared invalid.
Article 14 Permits Classification but Prohibits Class
Legislation
The equal protection of laws guaranteed by Article 14 does not mean that all laws must be general in
character. It
does not mean that the same laws should apply to all persons. It does not attainment or
circumstances in the
same position. The varying need of different classes of persons often requires
separate treatment. From the very
nature of society there should be different laws in different places and
the legitimate controls the policy and enacts
laws in the best interest of the safety and security of the
state. In fact, identical treatment in unequal circumstances
would amount to inequality. So, a reasonable
classification is only not permitted but is necessary if society is to
progress.
Thus, what Article 14 forbids is class-legislation but it does not forbid reasonable classification. The
classification
however must not be "arbitrary, artificial or evasive" but must be based on some real and
substantial bearing a just
and reasonable relation to the object sought to be achieved by the legislation.
Article 14 applies where equals are
treated differently without any reasonable basis. But where equals
and unequal are treated differently, Article 14
does not apply. Class legislation is that which makes an
improper discrimination by conferring particular privileges
upon a class of persons arbitrarily selected
from a large number of persons all of whom stand in the same relation
to the privilege granted that
between whom and the persons not so favored no reasonable distinction or substantial
difference can be
found justifying the inclusion of one and the exclusion of the other from such privilege.
Q 76. 11669271 Ron was the son of the health minister of the state of Durgapur. Durgpur was
conducting covid-19 vaccination
drive for people aged above 40. Ron who was aged 24 was however
given the vaccination. A PIL was filed
against Ron being given vaccination when many people above the
age of 40 were struggling to find vaccine
due to shortage. The defense pleaded there was intelligible
differentia and right to equality was not being
violated as Ron was the son of the health minister. Decide.

a)
There is intelligible differentia as being the son of the health minister, Ron has to be vaccinated at the
earliest.
b)
The test of intelligible differentia is not satisfied as there is no rational nexus between the object sought to
be achieved and the act.
c)
The rational nexus of the health minister's family being protected from Covid-19 is very much there and
satisfies the test of intelligible differentia.
d)
Article 14 cannot be applied in the given case, the provisions of misconduct by a public employee has to
be taken into account.
Q 77. 11669271 Which of the following is the new dimension of analyzing the article 14 of the
constitution?
a)
Under the new dimension, the doctrine of classification has been evolved only as a subsidiary rule for
testing whether a particular state action is arbitrary or not.
b)
The equal protection of laws guaranteed by Article 14 does not mean that all laws must be general in
character.
c)
The very nature of society is that there should be different laws in different places and the legitimate
controls the policy and enacts laws in the best interest of the safety and security of the state.
d) None of the above.
Q 78. 11669271 The state of Dystopia introduced a new scheme wherein the children of all Rickshaw,
Bus and other taxi
drivers were provided a scholarship. This was done keeping in mind the huge
economic loss borne by that
section owing to the prolonged lockdown imposed in the country due to the
coronavirus pandemic. One R
challenged the scheme stating it was violative of article 14 of the
constitution as there were other sections of
society too who had undergone economic loss. Decide.
a)
The said scheme is violative of article 14 as almost every section of the society has faced financial loss
due to the lockdown and hence drivers should not be given special treatment.
b)
The said scheme would not have been violative of article 14 had it been extended to every section of the
society who had undergone economic loss due to the lockdown.

c)
The said scheme is not violative of article 14 as there is an intelligible differentia of classifying driver's
children keeping in mind the financial loss they have suffered.
d)
The said scheme is violative of article 15 of the constitution as it discriminates against people on the
basis of their jobs.
Q 79. 11669271 "Equal protection provided by article 14 means that all laws must be in general
character". Pick the correct
answer out of the following.
a) The statement is always true. b) The statement is sometimes true.
c) d) The statement is false.

The statement depends upon the law that one is
discussing.
Q 80. 11669271 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a) The test of intelligible differentia was laid down in the case Anwar Ali v. State of West Bengal.
b) Article 14 forbids class-legislation but it does not forbid reasonable classification.
c) Identical treatment in unequal circumstances would amount to inequality.
d) The varying needs of different classes of persons does not require separate treatment.
on each
passage.

Passage – 4

The first question that needs to be answered is: what is an "implied power"? What kind of legal
phenomena are we
referring to when we say of a power that it is "implied"? It is surprisingly difficult to
come up with a precise answer.
For one thing, the terminology itself is far from uniform; this is true not
just when we compare different legal
systems but also within the constitutional discourse of a single
system. The following terms are all used at different
times, mostly in United States law: implied powers,
unwritten powers, inherent powers, ancillary powers, incidental
powers, resulting powers, secondary
powers. A U.S. Supreme Court judge once observed: "Loose and irresponsible
use of adjective colors ...
much legal discussion … 'inherent' powers, 'implied' powers, 'incidental' powers are
used, often
interchangeably and without fixed ascertainable meanings." One scholar identifies six different concepts
of implied powers in U.S. constitutional law. Indeed, the richness of American law on this point is the
main reason
why it offers an instructive point of reference.
In order to analyse "implied powers" in coherent terms, it is necessary to propose a conceptual

framework for
identifying them. Further, to justify any claim that one's framework is "universal" - and thus
suitable for comparing
two or more jurisdictions - one needs "universal" concepts that are not purely
dependent on or unique to any one jurisdiction (but may be derived from a study of several). The
approach chosen here is to identify certain criteria
that may be used to classify implied powers, with the
intention of then combining the schematic classifications
arrived at in order to propose more precise
definitions of the legal phenomena involved. The criteria can loosely be
described as those of the form of
the implied powers, their content, the nature of the authority holding them, and
the nature of the
"implication" involved. After briefly discussing the first parameter, I will focus on the others and
suggest
that the following three classifications may be used to create the necessary framework for studying the
phenomenon of implied powers: procedural/substantive powers, legislative/executive/judicial powers, and
incidental/
inherent powers. All three together provide a comprehensive "grid" for analysis.
Implied powers may be substantive or procedural. The classification may appear banal, however we find
that a
number of implied powers cases hinge on procedural matters and not substantive ones. This may
be because it
is easier to admit a procedural power as "implied" in the grant of an express power than it
is to admit another
substantive power. Procedural powers are more obviously "necessary and proper" to
the exercise of a given
express power; the absence of certain procedural powers may well render a
substantive power ineffective. The
distinction between "procedural" and "substantive" is often an artificial
one. It may happen that either adjective
seems appropriate in a given case. This is particularly true in the
case of judicial powers, but it should be kept in
mind in other contexts as well. For present purposes, I will
include under the broad category of "procedure" not just
the rules for the functioning of public bodies but
also all "internal" aspects relating to their composition or otherwise
concerning only their members.
Q 81. 11669271 Which of the following is the biggest problem when it comes to determining what is
implied power?
a)
The interchangeable use of terms to point out the idea of implied power has made it extremely difficult to
precisely define it.
b)
The difference of opinion in United States and United Kingdom laws has made determining the province
of implied power difficult.
c)
The richness of American law on the point of implied power is the main reason why it offers an instructive
point of reference.

Q 82. 11669271 What possible methodology has the author suggested to understand the real meaning
of the principle of
implied power?
a)
The author has proposed to identify a conceptual framework in order to determine the principle of implied
power.
b)
The approach author has chosen is to identify certain criteria that may be used to classify implied
powers,
with the intention of then combining the schematic classifications arrived at in order to propose
more
precise definitions of the legal phenomena involved.
c) Author has chosen the comprehensive "grid" for analysis of the province of implied powers.
d) Both a and b.
Q 83. 11669271 What is the reason behind the number of instances where implied powers hinge on
procedural matters
rather than substantive matter?
a)
Procedural powers are more obviously "necessary and proper" to the exercise of a given express power.
b)
The application of implied powers is more apparent in procedural matters rather than substantive
matters.
c)
It is easier to admit a procedural power as "implied" in the grant of an express power than it is to admit
another substantive power.
d) Both b and c
Q 84. 11669271 What aspects have been included under the idea of 'procedural powers' in the given
passage?
a)
The explanatory and elementary parts of statutory provisions have been considered to be a
proceduralpowers
in the passage.
b)
Rules for the functioning of public bodies and all "internal" aspects relating to their composition or
otherwise
concerning only their members.
c)
Rules that govern the functioning of public bodies have been included under the aspect of procedural
powers.

d)
All the provisions, rules and regulations that do not fall under the broad category of substantive powers
have been included under procedural powers.
Q 85. 11669271 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above-given passage?
a)
In order to analyse "implied powers" in coherent terms, it is necessary to propose a conceptual
framework
for identifying them.
b) The distinction between "procedural" and "substantive" is often an artificial one.
c)
Classification of Implied powers under various terms has made it difficult to exactly determine the
province
of implied powers.
d)
One hardly needs "universal" concepts that are not purely dependent on or unique to any one jurisdiction
to define "implied powers".
on each
passage.

Passage – 5

The Supreme Court relying on People's Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) & Another v. Union of India &
Another and
the dissenting opinion of Justice Chelameshwar in Desiya Murpokku Dravida Kazhagam &
Another v. Election
Commission of India, inferred that the right to vote and right to contest are both
constitutional rights and not
statutory rights. After deciding that the right to contest is a constitutional right,
the level of exploration that had to be
engaged by the Court would have to be amply advanced, as the
State cannot be permitted to take away rights
guaranteed by the Constitution without a compelling
interest. Though this compelling interest or a rational nexus
was not shown by the State, the Court went
on to validate the legislation. The two-judge bench in Rajbala has
overlooked the five-judge bench
decision of Kuldip Nayyar v. Union of India which positively specified that the right
to vote in an election
and the right to contest an election are both statutory rights and not constitutional rights. Stare
decisis
and judicial decency requires that the two-judge bench when questioning the judgement made by a
bench
of a greater strength or if differing from it, must refer this significant query to a greater bench so
that the query may
be answered. It has been established in the matter of Central Board of Dawoodi
Bohra Community v. State of
Maharashtra that the law laid by the Supreme Court in a judgment brought
by a bench of greater strength is
mandatory on any succeeding bench of smaller or co-equal strength
and that a bench of smaller quorum cannot
question the exactness of the opinion of law taken by a bench

of greater quorum. Thus, it is disquieting that the

two-judge Bench in Rajbala was ignorant of the
judgment in Kuldip Nayyar.
The effect of the judgment is that it will prevent many people in the State from contesting elections and
will affect
people's right to vote. In Rajabala judgement the Supreme Court upheld the Haryana
Panchayati Raj (Amendment)
Act, 2015, elections were successfully conducted in Haryana in 2016. This
election defeated the objectives of
the73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, which were enacted
to involve participation of people at grass
root level in the process of the country's development. By going
against the envisioned objective of the 73rd and
74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, the Haryana
Panchayati Raj Amendment Act, 2015 has put the oppressed
and downtrodden sections of the society
back to the position that they were in earlier. Disenfranchisement is not
a new abstraction as the said
State had earlier passed a law that prevents a person from contesting for Panchayat
elections, if they
have two children, which was upheld by the Supreme Court in the much-disapproved case of
Javed v.
State of Haryana. Such regulations have been judicially legitimized and even fortified by India's Apex
Court as was done in the state of Rajasthan. The Rajasthan Government passed an ordinance
mandating
requirement of educational qualification for contesting election which was approved by the
Governor in December
2014, December. Similarly, the Bihar Assembly also inserted a clause through an
amendment to the Bihar Panchayat
Raj Act, 2006 making it compulsory for the candidates contesting
elections in August 2015 to have toilets at home.
Q 86. 11669271 What significant observation regarding the judgement of Rajabala has been made in the
passage?
a) The Rajbala judgement held the right to vote and contest in elections to be a constitutional right.
b) The Rajbala judgement has overlooked the precedent that has been set in the case of Kuldip Nayyar.
c)
The Rajbala judgement has established itself as a new precedent that has set terms regarding the
constitutional right to vote and stand for an election.
d) The Rajbala judgement overturned the previous decision of People's Union for Civil Liberties case.
Q 87. 11669271 What is the rule that has to be followed while looking up at a decision taken by the
larger bench?
a)
The decision taken by the larger bench of the supreme court is mandatory and on any succeeding bench
of smaller or co-equal strength.
b)
A bench of smaller quorum cannot question the exactness of the opinion of law taken by a bench of
greater quorum.

c)
A bench of smaller quorum has to consider the judgement of larger quorum as for referential purposes
only.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 88. 11669271 D wanted to contest in the local Panchayat election. However, the election committee
barred D from
contesting. Considering participating in elections to be a constitutional right, what has to be
proved by the
Election commission?
a)
The election commission has to provide the reason for his disqualification in writing and should be
approved by the court.
b)
The election commission had taken away the constitutional right of D because of a compelling interest.
c)
The election commission has been provided plenary powers under article 324A of the constitution and
hence the authority is unquestionable.
d) Election commission should prove that there was intelligible differentia in taking away the right of D.
Q 89. 11669271 According to the passage, what is the visible harm that is prevalent due to the Rajbala
judgement?
a)
By upholding the Haryana Panchayat Raj (amendment) act 2015, the objectives of the73rd and 74th
Constitutional Amendment Acts were defeated.
b)
By upholding the Haryana Panchayat Raj (amendment) act 2015, the objectives of the73rd Constitutional
Amendment Acts were defeated.
c)
The Rajbala judgement failed to uphold the norms and practices of court and flouted the etiquettes of the
justice delivery mechanism system.
Q 90. 11669271 What judgement did the supreme court pronounce in the case of Javed v. State of
Haryana?
a)
The supreme court passed an ordinance mandating requirement of educational qualification for
contesting
election.

b)
The Supreme court upheld a law that prevents a person from contesting for Panchayat elections, if they
have two children.
c) The supreme court held that the 73rd amendment act is constitutionally valid.
d) The supreme court took a decision by citing the Rajbala judgement as the precedent.
on each
passage.

Passage – 6

There are basically three theories for divorce-fault theory, mutual consent theory & irretrievable
breakdown of
marriage theory. Under the Fault theory or the offences theory or the guilt theory, marriage
can be dissolved only
when either party to the marriage has committed a matrimonial offence. It is
necessary to have a guilty and an
innocent party, and the only innocent party can seek the remedy of
divorce. However, the most striking feature and
the drawback is that if both parties have been at fault,
there is no remedy available.

Another theory of divorce is that of mutual consent. The underlying rationale is that since two persons
can marry
by their free will, they should also be allowed to move out of the relationship of their own free
will. However, critics
of this theory say that this approach will promote immorality as it will lead to hasty
divorces and parties would
dissolve their marriage even if there were slight incompatibility of
temperament. The third theory relates to the
irretrievable breakdown of the marriage. The breakdown of
marriage is defined as "such failure in the matrimonial
relationships or such circumstances adverse to
that relationship that no reasonable probability remains for the
spouses again living together as husband
& wife." Such marriage should be dissolved with maximum fairness &
minimum bitterness, distress &
humiliation.

In modern Hindu law, all the three theories of divorce are recognized & divorce can be obtained on the
basis of any
one of them. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 originally, based divorce on the fault theory, and
enshrined nine fault
grounds in Section 13(1) on which either the husband or wife could sue for divorce,
and two fault grounds in
Section 13(2) on which wife alone could seek the divorce. In 1964, by an
amendment, certain clauses of Section
13(1) were amended in the form of Section 13(1A), thus
recognizing two grounds of the breakdown of the marriage.
The 1976 amendment Act inserted two
additional fault grounds of divorce for wife & a new section 13B for divorce
by mutual consent. The
various grounds on which a decree of divorce can be obtained are as follows-


Adultery While adultery may not have been recognized as a criminal offence in all countries, the
matrimonial
offence of adultery or the fault ground of adultery is recognized in most. Even under the
Shastric Hindu law, where
divorce had not been recognized, adultery was condemned in the most
unequivocal terms. There is no clear
definition of the matrimonial offence of adultery. In adultery there
must be voluntary or consensual sexual intercourse
between a married person and another, whether
married or unmarried, of the opposite sex, not being the other's
spouse, during the subsistence of
marriage. Thus, intercourse with the former or latter wife of a polygamous
marriage is not adultery. But if
the second marriage is void, then sexual intercourse with the second wife will
amount to adultery. Though
initially a divorce could be granted only if such a spouse was living in adultery, by the
Marriage Laws
Amendment Act, 1976, the present position under the Hindu Marriage Act is that it considers even
the
single act of adultery enough for the decree of divorce[iii]. Since adultery is an offense against marriage,
it is
necessary to establish that at the time of the act of adultery the marriage was subsisting. Also, it
follows that
unless one willingly consents to the act, there can be no adultery. If the wife can establish
that the co-respondent
raped her, then the husband would not be entitled to a divorce.
Q 91. 11669271 A and B were happily married for 8 years. Once it was found out that A was having an
extramarital relationship
with one Z. When investigated it was later discovered that A was being harassed
by B for dowry and she had
undergone cruelty from her husband. Under which theory can A or B seek
divorce in the given case?
a) A can apply for divorce under Fault theory
b) A can apply for divorce under mutual consent theory
c) A can apply for divorce under irretrievable breakdown of marriage theory
d) None of the above
Q 92. 11669271 What significant change to Hindu marriage act was brought by the Hindu marriage
amendment act of 1976?
a) The 1976 amendment gave power to the wife to divorce her husband under her free will.
b)
The 1976 amendment introduced two additional fault grounds of divorce for wife & a new section 13B for
divorce by mutual consent.
c) The 1976 amendment introduced two additional fault grounds for divorce for the wife.
d) The 1976 amendment introduced section 13A to the Hindu Marriage act 1955.
Q 93. 11669271 Ross and Racheal were happily married. Once they had a terrible fight and Racheal
said she wanted a
break from Ross and left. Ross was depressed and heartbroken. He met one Angela
at the bar and had a
voluntary sexual intercourse with her. Racheal got to know about the same and now
she wants to file a suit
for divorce under the ground of adultery. Ross argues they were on a break.
Decide.

a)
Racheal cannot file for divorce as they were on a break and marriage was not subsisting at that
movement.
b) Racheal can file for divorce as Ross has committed the act of adultery.
c) Racheal cannot file a suit as she herself told Ross that they were on a break.
d)
Racheal can file a suit for adultery even though the act is not adultery because Ross is disloyal and
impatient.
Q 94. 11669271 X and Y were a married couple. Once when Y was alone at her house, one R broke into
the house and looted
all the money and valuables. When Y tried to stop him, he forced her to have
sexual intercourse with him by
stating if she did not consent, he would hurt very badly. Later, he left all
the valuables and left. When X got to
know he filed a suit for divorce under adultery. Decide.
a)
Y has committed adultery as she willingly had sexual intercourse with a robber who had broken into the
house.
b) Y has not committed adultery and the application of X is not maintainable.
c)
Y has not committed adultery but has committed an unlawful act of involving in a sexual act with a law
breaker.
d) Y has committed adultery irrespective of whether she consented to the act or not.
Q 95. 11669271 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above-given passage?
a) Intercourse with the former or latter wife of a polygamous marriage is not adultery.
b)
Under the Fault theory marriage can be dissolved only when the husband has committed a matrimonial
offence.
c)
Adultery is an offense against marriage, it is necessary to establish that at the time of the act of adultery
the marriage was subsisting
d)
While adultery may not have been recognized as a criminal offence in all countries, the matrimonial
offence of adultery or the fault ground of adultery is recognized in most.
on each
passage.
Passage – 7
The sources of Indian Private International Law are statutes and decisions of courts. The Indian Law
Commissions
exhaustively codified rules of Private International Law on various topics in the Indian
Succession Act, the Code of
Civil Procedure, the Divorce Act, the Contract Act, and other Acts drafted by
them. These provisions shall be
examined in detail in their proper places below; but generally it should be
noted that these provisions were drafted
by Englishmen, and were mainly based on English Law. As Sir
George Rankin well points out, "the influence of the
common law in India is due not so much to a
reception, though that has played no inconsiderable part, as to a
process of codification carried out on
the grand scale, not merely with a view to putting into form a system of law
which was already in force,
but to lay down a rule of decision where there seemed to be none". Thus, in the case
of Indian Private
International Law, not only is the superstructure erected by the judiciary with the familiar tools of
common
law, but the very foundation has been laid on the basis of English law, by virtue of the Codes. However, it
should be pointed out that, while the draftsmen of these Codes have mainly followed English law, they
have to
some extent deviated from it, where it was found that English rules would be unsuited to Indian
conditions. Thus,
to give but one example, the English distinction between reality and personality was
rejected by the commissioners,
and it was provided in the Succession Act that the law of succession to
land in India should be the same as the law
of succession to movables, in the case of persons domiciled
in India. Secondly, codification of rules of Private
International Law in these codes, has sometimes
resulted in undue rigidity, and has proved unsatisfactory. For
example, s. 11 of the Contract Act provides
that "every person is competent to contract who is of the age of
majority according to the law to which he
is subject", and the Indian Majority Act regulates the age of majority for all
persons domiciled in India in a
uniform manner. By virtue of these provisions, capacity to contract is governed in all
cases by the lex
domicilii. Thus, the modern view that, in cases of mercantile contracts, the lex loci contracts and
not the
lex domicilii should govern capacity, cannot be followed in India. Fortunately, however, the authors of the
Codes have mostly contented themselves with enacting the broad principles of Private International Law
in the
various fields, thus leaving scope for judicial litigation.
The capacity of a person to marry depends in India on his personal law. Hence in the case of marriage of
a
domiciled Indian with a foreigner, Indian law as the lex domicilii would refer the question of capacity of
the Indian to
his personal law. Particular difficulties have arisen with regard to a Hindu's capacity to marry
a person of different
religion or caste. Under customary Hindu law, every marriage of a Hindu outside his
caste was void. As non-
Hindus do not belong to any caste, they were not allowed to marry a Hindu
except after conversion to Hinduism by
ceremonial rites. These rules, however, have been considerably
modified in modern times.
Q 96. 11669271 What is the one main observation that has to be made in consonance with Indian
private international law?

a) The Indian private international law has been exhaustively codified by the Indian law commission.
b)
Most of these provisions that contain Indian private international law were drafted by Englishmen and are
based on English laws.
c)
Indian Private International Law, is the superstructure erected by the judiciary with the familiar tools of
common law.
Q 97. 11669271 What has resulted in the codification of rules of Private International Law in Indian laws?
a)
Codification of rules of Private International Law in the codes, has sometimes resulted in undue rigidity,
and has proved unsatisfactory
b) Codification of rules of private international law has made law largely fluid and acceptable to people.
c)
Codification of rules of private international law in Indian laws has been largely unsuccessful due to the
prevalence of customary laws.
d)
Codification of rules by the law commission of India has been a looming barrier for application of personal
laws in India.
Q 98. 11669271 In what situations has difficulties arose with regards to marriage under personal laws?
a)
The marriage under Shariat application act has always been challenging owing to its ambiguous codes.
b)
Particular difficulties have arisen with regard to a Hindu's capacity to marry a person of different religion
or caste.
c)
Marriage between a Hindu and a Christian has been challenging owing to confusion between the
application
of personal laws.
d) The marriage laws under Hindu marriage act have been challenging in terms of its applicability.
Q 99. 11669271 Why cannot the modern view that in cases of mercantile contracts, the lex loci contracts
and not the lex
domicilii should govern capacity, cannot be followed in India?

a)
Capacity to contract is governed by section 11 of contract act and Indian majority act which are local
laws.
b) Capacity to contract is only governed by Indian majority act and hence Lex Domicilii does not apply.
c) Capacity to contract in India is governed not by the Lex Domicilii and by Lex Loci.
d) Both a and c.
Q 100. 11669271 Which of the following statements is true in the light of the above- given passage?
a)
The capacity of a person to marry depends in India on his personal law and also the private international
law agreements if it is with a foreigner.
b) The sources of Indian Public International Law are statutes and decisions of courts.
c) Hindu laws of marriage have been modified over years to cater the needs of the citizens.
d)
It was provided in the Succession Act that the law of succession to land in India should be different from
the law of succession to movables, in the case of persons domiciled in India.
on each
passage.

Passage - 8

Article 14 tries to achieve 'equality of status' for all people by stating, 'The State shall not deny to any
person
equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.' This
guarantee is available to
both citizens and non- citizens and all persons, natural as well as juristic.

Equality before law: It is taken from English Common law. This implies the absence of any special
privileges in any
person. Implies no discrimination before the law on inapposite grounds like rank, office,
etc. It means that "the law
should be equal and should be equally administered, that like should be
treated alike." (JENNINGS). It also states
that every individual is subject to the jurisdiction of ordinary
courts irrespective of their rank or position.

Equal protection of the laws: It is corollary from equality before the law and based on the last clause of
the first
section of the 14th Amendment of the US Constitution. It directs that equal protection should be
secured to all
persons within the territorial jurisdiction. This implies that such protection should be without

any favor and

discrimination and there should be equal treatment in similar circumstances, both in the
privileges and liabilities
imposed by the law. It is a positive obligation of the state which it should achieve
by bringing about necessary
social and economic changes, to ensure every person enjoys such equal
protection.
Exceptions to Rule of law

* Delegated Legislation
Parliament neither has the time to go into minute details of every law, nor the diverse technical expertise
which is
needed for complicated and specific laws. Thus, parliament designs the framework and outlines
principles and
objectives of the bill and extensive details and rules are afterward added by the cabinet
and the executive.
* Administrative adjudication
Parliament has established certain tribunals and departments which are equipped with some judicial and
quasi
judicial powers to decrease the burden of traditional courts and also to provide with technical
knowledge required
to adjudicate such cases. Establishment of such tribunals and departments are a
departure from the traditional
notion of rule of law.
For effective implementation of laws, it is necessary for legislation to group individuals according to their
equal and
unequal aspects. Such classification is necessary because not every law has universal
application to all persons,
the reason being the differences in social, cultural and economical conditions.
Test of valid classification: The
classification must be just and reasonable and should be in relation to the
need and purpose of law in respect of
which classification is made; The object of classification should be
lawful; When certain classes of individuals are not included in the ambit of a particular law, there must be
a reasonable basis for such exclusion; A test was
formulated to ensure that the classification is valid and
is not arbitrary or against the right to equality. Following two
conditions should be fulfilled for a valid
classification: Intelligible differentia (Intelligent reason for classification) and
Rational Nexus (Relationship
between classification and desired result.
Q 101. 11669271 An industry at Dharavi was managed by the shareholders but was unable to fulfil all
the market demand due
to poor management and because of this the state came with an Act under
which the industry would be
managed by the government and the Act was not applicable to other
industries of the same locality. The
shareholders approached SC under Article 14. Decide?
a) The rights of the petitioner were infringed by the Act so petition will be approved.
b) The petition will be approved as the act was not applicable to other industries.
c) The petition will be dismissed as the classification was based on special circumstances.
d) The petition will be dismissed as it did not cost any loss to the shareholders.
Q 102. 11669271 Peter, who was not a citizen of India and originally belonged to the UK, was debarred
from entering a hallway
at a museum with other non-citizens. He approached the SC and when asked,

the manager of the museum

gave the reason that the hallway contained images of some assets which
were taken by the rulers from
different countries and Peter was stopped so that it doesn't hurt his
sentiments. Decide?
a) The petition will be dismissed as Peter is not a citizen of India.
b) The petition will not be dismissed as equality is guaranteed to non-citizens also.
c) The petition will be dismissed as the classification is reasonable.

d) The petition will be dismissed as the classification was based on intelligible differentia.
Q 103. 11669271 The Calcutta college of Nurture came out with a provision that allows the opportunity to
win a scholarship of
Rs 1.5lakh only to the students whose family owned the plantation of tea and coffee
to provide them equal
representation and left all others who owned different types of plantations. A
student filed a petition at SC.
Decide?
a) The petition will not be dismissed as the classification was discriminatory.
b)
The petition will be dismissed as there was a reasonable classification based on income of the tea
plantation family.
c) The petition will be dismissed as there was no violation of Article 14.
d) The petition will not be dismissed as it was filed by a student of that college.
Q 104. 11669271 Which of the following represents a valid classification under Article 14?

I. The U.P government came up with a notification which imposed higher charges on the cattle gazers
from other states.

II. The central government under a provision-imposed censorship upon a certain category of movies with
adult content.

III. The MP government came up with an Act which made women ineligible to drive a vehicle through all
over
the state.
a) II and III b) I and II c) II only d) None
Q 105. 11669271 Who is eligible to file a petition under Art 14?
a)
A textile industry filed a petition under Article 14 when it was asked to pay a higher tax than other textile
industries in the same locality.
b)
Jawed filed a petition for not being allowed in the entrance in an auditorium because he was a noncitizen.
c) Both
d) None of the above

Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning
and
arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is
stated or
implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the
ones supplied to you.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in
such a case, please choose the
option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.

Passage - 1

In between deadlines, news lists and discussion on stories, the reality of social media has not been
accepted. The
reality is that social media platforms are today more powerful than the traditional media.
The reality is that
dissemination of information, access to information and even shaping opinion is no
longer the strength of traditional
media. Every influencer wanting to express himself, whether it's a
politician or a celebrity, no longer needs to seek
out a journalist or a news outlet. This conversion is
complete.

These seemingly harmless platforms could combine data analytics and the right content to influence the
decision
of the masses. In the past, while traditional media influenced and shaped decisions and
opinions, there was a
veneer of objectivity around it. However, it is also important to remember that no
traditional media ever got the
global reach that resources like Facebook, Whatsapp, Google or Twitter
command. These platforms have become
omniscient and omnipotent and are now tearing at the fabric of
democratic institutions. While there is enough
outrage over data leaks and privacy of user data, the real
issue of control in changing the global, national and local
narratives is getting ignored. The defense used
by these companies is that they are media or technology companies
and content curating platforms, and
the content on their platform is user generated.

In India, the government has also been lax in terms of laws relating to investment in digital platforms.
Fake news
and campaigns by foreign countries spreading misinformation are more dangerous than
individuals posting hate
content especially in the run up to the elections in India. Hate content or
motivated content combined with social
media platforms is capable of changing narratives in India. Social
media companies must register with the
government as media organisations, and provide full disclosure
of management and investment.
Q 106. 11669271 Which of the following will not strengthen the autho's argument about the power of
social media platforms
vis a vis traditional media?
a) Social media platforms have managed to trump traditional media and are more powerful today.

b)
The medium of choice for influencers is now the social media platform(s) as against traditional media
sources.
c)
The purists believe that an audience looking for quality and authenticity will eventually fall back on
traditional
media.
d)
The readership/viewership numbers of traditional media are declining and the chances of reversals are
very less.
and
stated or
Passage – 1
In between deadlines, news lists and discussion on stories, the reality of social media has not been
accepted. The
reality is that social media platforms are today more powerful than the traditional media.
The reality is that
dissemination of information, access to information and even shaping opinion is no
longer the strength of traditional
media. Every influencer wanting to express himself, whether it’s a
politician or a celebrity, no longer needs to seek
out a journalist or a news outlet. This conversion is
complete.
These seemingly harmless platforms could combine data analytics and the right content to influence the
decision
of the masses. In the past, while traditional media influenced and shaped decisions and
opinions, there was a
veneer of objectivity around it. However, it is also important to remember that no
traditional media ever got the
global reach that resources like Facebook, Whatsapp, Google or Twitter
command. These platforms have become
omniscient and omnipotent and are now tearing at the fabric of
democratic institutions. While there is enough
outrage over data leaks and privacy of user data, the real
issue of control in changing the global, national and local
narratives is getting ignored. The defense used
by these companies is that they are media or technology companies
and content curating platforms, and
the content on their platform is user generated.
In India, the government has also been lax in terms of laws relating to investment in digital platforms.
Fake news
and campaigns by foreign countries spreading misinformation are more dangerous than
individuals posting hate
content especially in the run up to the elections in India. Hate content or
motivated content combined with social
media platforms is capable of changing narratives in India. Social
media companies must register with the

government as media organisations, and provide full disclosure
of management and investment.
Q 107. 11669271 Which of the following arguments can be inferred to have been used as a defense by
the social media
companies against accusations of manipulation and breach of privacy?
a)
They are primarily content curators so they don’t have the same responsibilities towards content as do
the traditional media companies.
b)
The content on social media platforms is user generated so they cannot control it as it would infringe on
freedom of expression.
c)
They are basically media and technology companies and any attempts by them at moderating content
could be illegal.
d) All of the above
Q 108. 11669271 All of the following will strengthen the author’s assertion in the following statement, “In
India, the government
has also been lax in terms of laws relating to investment in digital platforms”
EXCEPT:
a)
Several Chinese companies have made huge investments in various Indian content companies in the
recent past.
b)
While foreign ownership of news media is not allowed in TV and print, the same rules do not apply to
digital media.
c)
The ownership of digital media companies is never checked, nor is it regulated by any laws and
investment
is not filtered.
d)
The government has ignored the demands for a regulatory body that should act as a check point for
foreign investment in digital platforms.
Q 109. 11669271 Which of the following cannot be said to be an assumption made by the author about
the social media
companies in India?
a)
Social media companies are carefree in their approach because they haven’t been pulled up by the
government yet.

b)
Social media companies in India are not within the purview of the existing laws and are not regulated or
monitored by them.
c)
There are social media companies that are not presently registered with the government as media
organizations.
d)
Social media companies do not provide complete information about their management and investment.
Q 110. 11669271 In terms of content regulation for social media companies operating in India, which of
the following is the
author most likely to agree with?
a) b)
Attention to hate speeches by Social Media Content management aligned with the Indian
companies context
c) d) All of the above
Taking into account the geo-strategic threats India
faces
and
stated or
Passage – 2
Have your ever thought about it? Let me throw you a dynamite. Colour, yes. Colour is what you need.
Colour your
workspace to enhance productivity, to increase efficiency, to improve performance and have
a better relationship
with your peers. While enveloped in shades of grey and beige, a vibrant blue or
sunny yellow stand out. Colour
psychology focuses on the impact of colours on human emotions and
physiology. Colour has been found to
enhance self-expression, uplift the mood, and even boost
productivity. This doesn’t require an office renovation—
you can simply start by personalising your desk,
dressing up to work, maybe setting up plants around your workspace:
Money plants, bamboo shoots or
cacti are easy to manage. Be mindful commuters. Exhibit A: You’re commuting
at peak-hour in a crowded
train. People around you cannot seem to respect personal space, and have been
closing in. The pollution
does not help, and every single sound irks you. You feel helpless and angry, thinking, “Why
does this
happen to me?” On reaching office, you constantly exercise self-control not to snap at someone, have a
headache, feel distracted. And your inattentive, edgy state has not gone unnoticed by your superiors.

Exhibit B: Everything happens exactly as in Exhibit A. But your commute time is “me time”. You listen to
music or
podcasts during this period, catch up on news, meditate (Try Headspace, Calm) and on days of
longer commute,
you watch videos on your online course, or chat to someone next to you. You get to
work in a calm or energised
state, greet everyone, and share fun facts and opinions with peers and
bosses. Which would you rather be?
Satisfaction at work requires awareness, willingness and action.
Weigh your expectations, rethink your attitudes,
and choose well (-ness).
Q 111. 11669271 Which of the following can be inferred from the two instances of commuting mentioned
in the passage?
a) Indulge in a serious hobby during commuting b) Don’t react to people during your commute
c) d) Always reach the office in a good mood

Commuting time can be used for self-indulgence
Q 112. 11669271 Which of the following will MOST undermine the author’s argument about using colour
to increase productivity
in the workplace, in terms of response of other people to it?
a) Some people are colour blind b)

Some people are motivated by a bland ambience
c) Some people are distracted by bright colours d) Some people prefer a flashy décor
Q 113. 11669271 Which of the following question is the author most likely trying to answer in the
passage above?
a) How to achieve happiness at work? b) How to achieve satisfaction at work?
c) How to improve productivity at work? d) How to achieve your goals and targets at work?
Q 114. 11669271 In the two exhibits that are offered as scenarios for commuting, the author has used all
of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Exaggeration for effect b) Imagination for impact
c) Details for description d) Author has used all of the above
Q 115. 11669271 Which of the following will most strongly weaken the author’s argument about the
usage of colours in the
workspace?
a)
Colour psychology is a complex and niche field which requires deep expertise before experimenting with
colours as a psychological tool.
b)
Different people react differently to colours in office and some people may be put off by a choice of
unusual, out of ordinary colour or even décor.

c)
Some companies have strict rules about the use of colours on the wall and workstations as it is
associated
with their brand and logo.
d)
The cost and the effort required to enact such changes at the workplace are disproportionate to the
expected results in productivity improvement.
and
stated or
Passage – 3
In a year dominated by Covid, NCRB’s Crime in India report 2020 reveals that much policing effort went
into
enforcing Covid-related social distancing norms. Around 16 lakh of the total 66 lakh cognizable
offences registered
in 2020 (nearly 25%) were offences like disobeying an order promulgated by a public
servant and negligent act
likely to spread infection. Covid also massively hobbled the judiciary, with lower
court pendency up from 3.2 crore
pre-pandemic to over 4 crore cases now. Judiciary’s struggle is best
illustrated by rape trials.
It’s a dire situation and needs immediate attention. The situation demands prioritizing heinous offences
and quickly
settling the Covid-related offences without letting them be a drag – through handy options like
Lok Adalats or by
governments withdrawing them. Or else the numbers will just keep piling up.
NCRB also throws light on states clamping down on protest. UP’s resort to Prevention of Damage to
Public
Property Act (logging nearly half of India’s 4,500 cases) gives it the dubious record of accounting
for nearly 40% of
offences against the state in India. Across states, 50,000 rioting and 10,000 unlawful
assembly cases were lodged,
a 12% rise from 2019. But many categories of rioting offences saw
abysmally low conviction rates, in the 10-20%
range. They also saw high court pendencies of over 96%.
This is turning into a pandemic of a different kind. The
futility of widespread application of sedition charge
is evident from the police adding 73 cases in 2020 to 157
pending investigations from previous years.
Courts initiated 23 sedition trials apart from 86 pending from previous
years, and disposed of merely six
cases by year end (four of them acquittals). Ultimately, NCRB’s data makes a
strong case for expediting
judicial appointments given the huge pendency rate and improving the quality of policing,
evident from
low conviction rates in many heinous offences.
Q 116. 11669271 Which of the following is an assumption made by the author in the first two statements
of the passage?

a) Public servants promulgated orders regarding enforcement of Covid-related social distancing norms.
b)
Violation of Covid-related social distancing norms constitutes a negligent that act likely to spread
infection.
c)
The police were an important part of the efforts to ensure the public’s adherence to the Covid-related
norms.
d) All of the above
Q 117. 11669271 Which of the following can be concluded to be the reason for the low conviction rate in
heinous crimes?
a) Over-burdened judges b) Hold up of judicial appointments
c) Poor quality of police investigation d) All of the above
Q 118. 11669271 Which of the following can act as the logical corollary of the passage?
a) b) c) d)

Will policymakers act? Nothing ever changes And crime keeps So, what’s the
increasing judgement?
Q 119. 11669271 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) Approximately 9000 cases were registered under offences against the state in India.
b) During Covid, almost no judicial work independent of the pandemic has been undertaken,
c) Covid-related offences are usually not heinous and can be withdrawn by the government
d) Lok Adalats handle petty crimes and disputes and dispose of the cases at a faster pace.
Q 120. 11669271 All of the following strengthen the author’s argument except:
a)
Besides the 1.46 lakh rape cases awaiting trial from 2019, another 23,693 cases were sent for trial in
2020.
b)
3,451 cases from previous years and 363 from 2020 ended in conviction out of a total of 9,898 cases
disposed of by courts.
c)
During the pandemic, the Government issued special ordinances that have given power to the Lok
Adalats to try all offences.

d)
With reference to rape cases, the backlogs grew exponentially from 60,000 to 1.6 lakh cases in the last
one year.
and
stated or
Passage – 4
The fresh Tamil Nadu legislation nullifying NEET addresses DMK’s electoral promise to voters. Local
sentiment is
also heating up amid suicides by NEET aspirants stressed about their prospects in what is a
knockout test. The
bill, however, requires central assent to become law, which is unlikely to come. NEET,
for all purposes, has
become a fait accompli after the 2016 Supreme Court verdict overruling a 2013
precursor that had scrapped a
common national medical entrance test.
The fragmented, chaotic medical education sector was crying out for reform on various fronts then. But
TN also
highlights pitfalls of one-size-fit-all solutions. Before NEET, TN had discontinued its entrance
examination in 2006-
07, to facilitate inclusion of disadvantaged communities. TN now worries that
urbanites predominantly securing
admission in government medical colleges will shy away from rural
postings and weaken its public health system.
This newspaper, in July, had reported the TN government-
appointed Justice AK Rajan committee’s findings that in
2015-16, before NEET, 62.8% students hailed
from rural areas and this had dwindled to 48% by 2018-19. The
panel also found substantial reduction in
the percentage of first-generation learners, those with household income
below Rs 2.5 lakh and those
schooled in state boards. Years of discontinuing competitive exams would explain
this skew to an extent.
With a supporting framework, there’s no reason TN students cannot adapt. Backward
linkages to feeder
schools to ensure quality shouldn’t be such a tough act for the state after its praiseworthy
expansion of
government medical education facilities.
But nationally, NEET must fix some glaring anomalies to uphold merit. Analysis by TOI has shown money
compromising merit. Candidates with abysmally low marks in physics and chemistry in NEET are getting
admission
to private colleges through management and NRI quotas, while the high fees exclude ordinary
students. Given the
uncertain quality of some incoming students, the National Medical Commission must
pursue an exit examination
for medical graduates to ensure quality. TN’s emphasis on equity and access
is praiseworthy but a better course
of action instead of insulating state board students from competition
or passing the buck to GoI would be to focus
on quality in school education.

Q 121. 11669271 Which of the following reasons for NEET being launched can be inferred from the
following statement, “The
fragmented, chaotic medical education sector was crying out for reform on
various fronts then”?
I. To address the plight of students appearing for medical entrance tests who were unable to cope with
the
stress of the exam.
II. To address the scenario of multiple entrance tests by various state governments and public/private
colleges.
III. To address the situation of myriad criteria for admission followed by different institutions and state
governments.
a) Only II b) Only III c) II and III d) I, II and III
Q 122. 11669271 Consider the statement, “The bill, however, requires central assent to become law,
which is unlikely to
come.” Which of the following if true will strengthen the assertion in the above
statement?
a) The Supreme Court overturned its previous judgment and is therefore completely behind NEET now
b) The central government cannot be seen as being partisan and favoring one state exclusively.
c) The central government believes that such an action might affect its chances in the next election.
d) Generally, the central government rarely assents to such exceptions requested by the states.
Q 123. 11669271 Which of the following solutions will the author agree with, in response to the report by
the A.K. Rajan
Committee?

I. Tamil Nadu should consider altering the science syllabi and question patterns to align with the
competitive exam.

II. Government-run, affordable coaching centres can be another innovation to meet the NEET challenge.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
Q 124. 11669271 Which of the following cannot be inferred to be the student segment which the TN
government believes is
adversely affected by the NEET exam?
a) Schedule Caste, Schedule Tribe and Other Backward Caste
b) Students from rural areas and the low-income groups

c) Students who are children of government officials
d) Students who completed their education in the vernacular language
Q 125. 11669271 Which of the following can be concluded to be a deficiency of NEET and the admission
process in medical
colleges?
a) Bulk of the college seats are filled by management and NRI quotas.

b) High registration fees of the NEET exam is a deterrent for meritorious, ordinary students.
c) There is no exit examination for medical graduates to ensure quality.
d) Candidates with low marks in NEET get admission to private colleges.
and
stated or

Passage – 5

Smart organizations undertake leadership innovation when the going is good, instead of struggling with a
messy
succession only when driven to it by adversity. In the case of cricket, several countries have
distributed the captaincy
of different formats among different players. For England both Joe Root and
Eoin Morgan have delivered well.
Were India also to give charge of the white-ball game to Rohit Sharma
while Virat Kohli helmed our Test aspirations,
it would be a welcome experiment.

Split captaincy would indeed not be new to India. Kohli and MS Dhoni shared it in the past, and before
them Dhoni
and Anil Kumble. Yet, the great Kapil Dev suggested a few months ago that this is not “in our
culture”. Such
misremembering flows from the pervasive mythology of a singular centralised leadership.
Facts of course speak
otherwise. In Assam, Sarbananda Sonowal and Himanta Biswa Sarma maintained
impressive equilibrium of
authority for five years, until transitioning to new titles this year. In Tamil Nadu
an interesting experiment is underway,
with new chief minister MK Stalin empowering new finance
minister Palanivel Thiagarajan to do the state’s economic
messaging. Leaders too ensnared in their
personality cult can fail to note shifting ground. A classic example is
Winston Churchill’s shock defeat in
1945, as voters ditched his wartime successes for a peacetime prime minister
who would focus on jobs
and housing.

Dara Khosrowshahi has not drowned in Travis Kalanick’s shoes at all. Sergey Brin and Larry Page
recruited Eric
Schmidt to run Google’s business after their first successes. Brokerage firms can pay
higher salaries to star
traders than CEOs. A techie might demand the same at a startup, where funders
often give way to professionals
as the business grows. The important thing is to be open to leadership
experiments. ______________________
Q 126. 11669271 Which of the following can be the last sentence of the passage?
a) Whatever works. b) Everyone is a leader.
c) You never know. d) Different horses for different courses.

Q 127. 11669271 In the statement, “A classic example is Winston Churchill’s shock defeat in 1945, as
voters ditched his
wartime successes for a peacetime prime minister who would focus on jobs and
housing, what is the
author’s assumption?
a)
Though an able wartime leader, Winston Churchill might not have correctly understood the people’s
different needs in times of peace.
b)
Due to the horrors faced by Britain, Winston Churchill was associated with war and misery in the voter’s
mind.
c)
On account of his military experience, Winston Churchill was a temporary Prime Minister brought in to
win the war.
d)
A consummate warmonger, Winston Churchill had a poor record of development in his earlier stint as
Prime Minister.
Q 128. 11669271 The author has buttressed his arguments using which of the following?
a) Relevant examples from different fields b) Inspiring success stories of famous individuals
c) Instances of dynamic leadership decisions d)

Historical context and its relevance in different
domains
Q 129. 11669271 Which of the following can be inferred from the following statement: “Such
misremembering flows from the
pervasive mythology of a singular centralized leadership”?
a) Indian mythology has several stories about strong singular leadership.
b) Resolute perception of singular leadership is a widespread but flawed theory.
c) People don’t remember the myths about shared leadership anymore.
d) Everyone believes that there needs to be a single powerful leader in any setting.
Q 130. 11669271 Based on the passage, which of the following is a quality that the author would prefer
to see in a leader, in
context of sharing leadership?
a) Foresightedness to anticipate changes b) Tolerance towards personal criticism
c) d) All of the above

Perceptiveness about the fragility of public opinion
Passage – 6


With India and Australia holding their first 2+2 ministerial dialogue, there’s no denying that the Quad
continues to
take shape as a security-plus platform. Earlier this year the group comprising India, US,
Japan and Australia held
its first leaders’ summit. In fact, militaries of the four countries participated in the
Malabar joint naval exercise last
year, while work is underway to produce and deliver a billion Covid
vaccines through the group’s network by 2022.
Of course, an increasingly assertive China is the main
factor bringing the Quad countries together. Beijing is
clearly irked by what it sees as an Asian NATO. But
external affairs minister S Jaishankar has done well to shoot
down that nomenclature saying that the
Quad looks to the future and doesn’t hark back to the Cold War era. It has
been deliberately kept as a
high-level diplomatic platform – notwithstanding a separate naval component – to
prevent a return to the
bloc politics of the past. There are two reasons for this. First, the four Quad nations need to
get into the
habit of working together. True, the Covid pandemic and the Galwan valley clashes between India and
China last year have seen the group coordinate. But more is needed to achieve regular operational
momentum.
Second, the Quad also needs to find the golden mean between security and civilian
cooperation. After all, China
represents a multidimensional systemic challenge. This is why the Quad
working on Covid vaccines, open
technologies and resilient supply chains is so important. Plus, as the
global axis of power shifts partly from the
West to the East, Quad democracies need to shape the Indo-
Pacific as a free and open region. This will give
Southeast Asian nations options to resist China’s strategy
of weaponising economic interdependencies. In short,
the Quad needs to be flexible to counterbalance
China across a range of issues, be it Afghanistan or the South
China Sea. If that worries Beijing, the
Quad will be doing its job.
Q 131. 11669271 Which of the following is not an assumption in the statement, “This will give Southeast
Asian nations options
to resist China’s strategy of weaponising economic interdependencies”?
a) China is one of the strongest and largest economy on the global scale
b) Economies of many other countries are dependent on China
c) China uses dependency on its economy as a leverage to exercise power and control
d) All of the above are assumptions behind the statement
Q 132. 11669271 Which of the following can inferred to be the goal of Quad with respect to China?
a) To irk China and provoke it by making it angry b) To make sure that China is worried and anxious
c) d) To ensure that China is isolated and ostracized

To ensure that China is restrained and responsive
Q 133. 11669271 The expression ‘notwithstanding a separate naval component’ has been given to
indicate that the international
naval cooperation:
a) b)
Is not a throwback to the cold war era bloc politics Was an exception in the cold war era bloc politics

c) d) Is a deviation from the stated principle of Quad

Proves that Quad is focused on maritime
cooperation
Q 134. 11669271 The statement, “This is why the Quad working on Covid vaccines, open technologies
and resilient supply
chains is so important” is an example of the fact that to counter China, Quad realizes
that:
a) Quad needs to develop a multifaceted response to counter China.
b) Quad needs to find the golden mean between security and civilian cooperation.
c) Quad needs to take shape as a security-plus platform.
d) Quad needs to look to the future and not hark back to the cold war era.
Q 135. 11669271 What is the role played by the following two statements with respect to the assertion
that Quad is only a
high-level diplomatic platform without any agenda of military cooperation?

I. Militaries of the four countries of Quad recently participated in the Malabar joint naval exercise.

II. Work is underway by Quad countries to produce and deliver a billion Covid vaccines through the
group’s
network.
a) Statement I supports the assertion and Statement II undermines it
b) Statement II supports the assertion and Statement I undermines it
c) Both statements support the assertion
d) Both statements undermisne the assertion
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

At a publishing house the cost of publishing a book is divided into various segments. The author's royalty
is 15%
whereas the cost of marketing and advertisement is 20% of the total cost. The cost of paper is
25% and the cost
of printing is 30% of the total cost whereas the cost of binding is 10% of the total.
Q 136. 11669271 On the sale of 1,500 copies of a particular book the author received a royalty of Rs.2.7
lakh. What was the
cost of paper for one book?
a) Rs.450 b) Rs.350 c) Rs.250 d) Rs.300
Q 137. 11669271 If the cost of marketing and advertisement is Rs.120 per book, then what is the cost of
printing 500 books?
a) Rs.1,80,000 b) Rs.90,000 c) Rs.1,08,000 d) Rs.1,00,000

Q 138. 11669271 Find the total cost of publishing 1350 copies of a book, if the cost of paper for 30
books is Rs.6,750.
a) Rs.12.15 lakh b) Rs.15.12 lakh c) Rs.11.25 lakh d) Rs.12.5 lakh

At a publishing house the cost of publishing a book is divided into various segments. The author's royalty
is 15%
whereas the cost of marketing and advertisement is 20% of the total cost. The cost of paper is
25% and the cost
of printing is 30% of the total cost whereas the cost of binding is 10% of the total.

Additional information for questions 139 and 140: For a particular book there was a demand for better
quality
paper and colored print thereby increasing the cost of paper to 30% and cost of printing to 35% of
the total. This
increase in cost was adjusted by decreasing the cost of marketing and advertisement.
Q 139. 11669271 If the cost of printing ten copies of the book is Rs.3,150, then what is the amount spent
on marketing and
advertisement for 250 books?
a) Rs.25,250 b) Rs.21,500 c) Rs.22,500 d) Rs.17,250
Q 140. 11669271 In comparison to the earlier expense the amount spent on marketing and
advertisement decreases by
Rs.125 per book, then what is the royalty received by the author by the sale
of 2000 copies?
a) Rs.3.75 lakh b) Rs.4.25 lakh c) Rs.2.50 lakh d) Rs.5.50 lakh

The details regarding six batsmen - A, B, C, D, E and F - have been given. All the batsmen bat in the
matches
played by them. A and B played 10 and 12 matches respectively and B's average score was 84
runs whereas A's
Strike rate was 152. C faced a total of 1250 balls and had an average score of 36. The
Strike rates of C and D were
57.6 and 50.6 respectively. E played 26 matches and had an average of 45
runs; also E faced 75% of the balls
faced by F. The Strike rate of F was 50.25 from a total of 4000 balls
faced.

It is known that: Strike rate = (Total runs scored/Total balls faced) × 100.
Q 141. 11669271 If A faced 500 balls in all, then what is his average score?
a) 64 b) 72 c) 76 d) 80
Q 142. 11669271 If the number of balls faced by B is 20% of the total balls faced by F, then what is B's
Strike rate?
a) 126 b) 128 c) 132 d) 112

Q 143. 11669271 The average score of D is 55 and he played 23 matches. Find the total number of balls
faced by D.
a) 2400 b) 2250 c) 1860 d) 2500
Q 144. 11669271 What is the ratio of the number of matches played by C and E respectively?
a) 10 : 13 b) 11 : 12 c) 13 : 9 d) 9 : 13
Q 145. 11669271 If F played 30 matches, then what was his average score?
a) 63 b) 67 c) 56 d) 61

Three friends A, B and C have salaries in the ratio 7 : 4 : 5. A spends Rs.10,500 on miscellaneous
expenses.
He spends 20% each on rent and travel whereas his medical expenses form 25% of his
salary. Also he saves 10%
of his salary and spends an equal amount on food. B spends 30% of his
salary on rent and 20% each on travel and
miscellaneous expenses. The ratio of B's expenses on food,
medical and savings is 3 : 2 : 1 respectively.
C spends in the ratio 5 : 4 : 3 on rent, food and travel
respectively. C saves Rs.10,000 and spends 10% each on
medical and miscellaneous expenses.
Q 146. 11669271 What is the ratio of the amount spent by A on Food and that by C on Travel
respectively?
a) 13 : 15 b) 15 : 17 c) 14 : 15 d) 14 : 17
Q 147. 11669271 The amount spent by B on medical is what percentage of the amount spent by C on
the same?
a) 75% b) 80% c) 85% d) 72%
Q 148. 11669271 What is the total amount spent by the three of them on travel?
a) Rs.24,900 b) Rs.28,500 c) Rs.27,500 d) Rs.29,500
Q 149. 11669271 What is the difference between the savings of C and A?
a) Rs.2,750 b) Rs.2,800 c) Rs.2,960 d) Rs.3,000
Q 150. 11669271 What is the approximate average rent paid by the three friends?
a) Rs.13,813 b) Rs.12,388 c) Rs.12,833 d) Rs.11,567

Prime 3

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Prime 3

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

9/25/21, 8:59 AM https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?

CLAT Mock - 6 (Prime - 3) (2022)

intimate abuse if you want but know

a) Corporal punishment can bring about discipline in a child.

d) All of the above

a) Increase in productivity and therefore profitability of corporations

b) Reduction in medical expenditure of government and individuals

c) More creativity in society

d) All of the above

Q 3. 11669271 All of the following can be inferred about protecting oneself except:

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 2/58

c) Consumption of addictive drugs is rapidly becoming an epidemic fuelled by traumatic experiences

a) Simile, Prozac b) Metaphor, Trauma c) Oxymoron, Abuse d)

point, we are not, nor have we ever been, born in

Q 7. 11669271 The author prefers which of the following:

a) I and II b) Only II c) II and III d) Only III

a) The cause of the pain b) The method of treatment

c) The choice of the subjects to observe d) All of the above

a) b) c) Pursuit of happiness d) No man is an island

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 4/58

Q 10. 11669271 Which of the following is not an antonym of the word 'pathological'?

a) Diseased b) Rare c) Unaccustomed d) Temporary

a) Students are asked to mindlessly memorise without understanding real-world applications.

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 5/58

a) Fitness and Health b) Management of finance

c) Relationship and Inter personal skills d) All of the above

Q 14. 11669271 Which of the following is true for the following statements?

b) Both provide data in support of online education

c) Both are inconsequential to the discussion on online coaching

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 6/58

a) Challenge b) Opportunity c) Moment of epiphany d) All of the above

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 7/58

communities being unaware of the different aspects

a) Access to drinking water vs. access to safe drinking water

c) Access to water vs. access to drinking water

a) Self education b) Self awareness c) Self finance d) Self management

a) Critical b) Crucial c) Criminal d) Central

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 8/58

a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Neither I Nor II

Q 22. 11669271 The "No school - No surfing" scheme can be defined as:

a) Penalisation b) Incentivisation c) d)

a) Improving skill level and health and fitness of the students

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 10/58

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 11/58

a) He is a very religious person. b) He needs to de-stress himself.

a) 'the sensitive soul of the author' b) 'familiarity with author's idiosyncrasies'

c) 'aura of well-being' d) 'the spiritual healing'

a) Distaste b) Repulse c) Revolted d) Reverse

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 12/58

a) Ministry of Jal Shakti b) Ministry of Ganga and Water Coordination

c) Ministry of Water and Sanitization d)

a) Article 74 b) Article 75 c) Article 76 d) Article 77

a) b) President Secretariat c) d) Cabinet Secretariat

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 13/58

Q 34. 11669271 The first Minister for Co-operation of India is

a) Rajnath Singh b) Amit Shah c) Nirmala Sitharaman d) Sushilkumar Shinde

https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=uJ3W5D12 Dw%3D 14/58

a) Food b) Medicines c) Other FMCG goods d) All of the above

c) Both A and B are correct

d) Neither A nor B is correct

a) Libya b) Gabon c) Equatorial Guinea d) Ghana