Олимпиада по английскому языку 5 класс

Listening

Time: 15 minutes

Task 1. Listen to the text and mark whether the following kinds of sport were
mentioned in the text or not. You will hear the text once for this task.

1 golf

a) yes b) no

2 rugby

a) yes b) no

3 table tennis

a) yes b) no

4 skiing

a) yes b) no

Task2.Choose the correct answer(s) to the question

5 How old is Bob?

a) 6 b) 16 c) 60

6 Who likes tennis in Bob’s family?

a) Sisters b) grandfather c) mother

7 Who likes golf in Bob`s family?

a) sisters b) father c) mother

8 What is John’s favourite sport?

a) rugby b) soccer c) tennis

 Transfer your answers to the answer sheet

Reading
Time: 20 minutes

Task1 Read the text. Complete the sentences according to the text

William Shakespeare
On April 23, 1564 William Shakespeare was born in Stratford - upon - Avon. His
mother was the daughter of a farmer. His father was a glove - maker. William
attended a grammar school in Stratford and had quite a good education. There he
learned to love reading.

While he was a teenager, he married a woman some years older than himself. He
had three children: the eldest is the daughter and then twins – a son and another
girl. In 1587 William went to work in London leaving his family at home. Some
people say that the reason was his love of poetry and theatre.

In London Shakespeare began to write plays and become an important member of

a well - known acting company. Most of his plays were performed in the new
Globe Theatre built on the bank of the river Thames. In 1613 he stopped writing
and went to live in Stratford when he died in 1616. His plays are well - known and
still acted not only in England but in the whole world.

9. Shakespeare was born…

a) on April 22             b) on April 23             c) on August 23

10. Shakespeare’s father was…

a) a glove - maker       b) a clock - maker       c) a shoe - maker

11. At school William learned to love…

a) dancing                   b) reading                   c) singing

12. Shakespeare went to work in…

a) New York              b) Cardiff                   c) London

Task2. Read the text to decide if each sentence is true or false, according to
the text. If it is true, mark A on your answer sheet. If it is false, mark B on
your answer sheet.

Australian zoo

Sydney Wildlife World is an Australian zoo. Although it was opened in 2006, the
zoo has become famous all over the world.The Australian zoo consists of 10 parts
where visitors can see different kinds of animals, birds, reptiles and insects. In fact,
there are more than 6000 creatures in the zoo. Some of them belong to the most
endangered species on the planet.In Sydney Wildlife World visitors can watch
kangaroos, touch a snake, make friends with koala bears and meet Rex, who is the
biggest salt water crocodile in captivity in the world.There is always something
happening in the zoo- exhibitions, shows, festivals. Visitors can take part in
various activities and have a lot of fun.Sydney Wildlife World is open every day
except for Christmas Day and New Year’s Eve.

13. The zoo hasn’t become famous all over the world.

14 Some of creatures belong to the most endangered species on the planet.

15 Rex is the biggest dog in the world.

16 Visitors can have a lot of fun in the zoo.

17 There are many exhibitions, shows, festivals in the zoo.

18 The Australian zoo consists of 10 parts and has less than 2006 creatures

Transfer your answers to the answer sheet

USE OF ENGLISH
 Time: 20 minutes

TASK1 For questions 19-26, read the text below and choose A, B or C to fill in
the gaps

DO YOU WANT TO BE HEALTHY?

To be healthy you 19______ eat good food. Good food gives you 20___ energy,
vitamins and minerals. The best way to get these is to eat fresh fruit and vegetables
five times a day. Have 21____water. You 22_____have two litres every day. You
should 23_____bread, meat and potatoes, but you 24___eat a lot of sweets or
chocolates because they are bad for your teeth. Eggs and milk 25______your
bones strong. And you shouldn't eat at a different time or eat a lot one day and
26__the next.

19 a) must b) should c) have to

20 a) a few b) many c) a lot of

21 a) a lot of b) many c) little

22 a) must b) should c) have to

23 a) eats b) eating c) eat

24 a) should b) shouldn’t c) mustn’t

25 a) make b) makes c) making

26 a) few b) a little c) a lot

Task2. Open the brackets and put the verbs into the proper tense form.
Long ago there lived an old woman in England. She 27_________ (have) a son
who 28_________ (be) a sailor. He 29________ (go) to different countries and
always 30________ (bring) presents for his old mother. Once he 31________ (go)
to China and 32________ (bring) some tea from that country. At that time tea
33________ (be) very expensive and only rich people 34________ (can) buy and
drink it. So the old woman was very happy to have it. But she 35________ (not
know) what to do with it. She 36________ (think) it 37________ (be) a vegetable.
She 38________ (invite) her friends to taste it with her. At last the day of the party
39________ (come). The woman 40_________ (put) a big dish with tea-leaves on
the table. The guests 41________ (begin) to eat them with salt and pepper and they
42________ (not like) it. Some time later the sailor 43________ (come) into the
room. "What 44________you_______ (do)? " he asked. «Where 45_________
(be) the water in which you have boiled the leaves? » "I 46_______ (throw) it
away, » his mother answered.
Transfer your answers to the answer sheet

Writing

Time: 30 minutes

Task. Fill in a form about yourself.

Name ______________________________________________

Surname ___________________________________________

Home address _______________________________________

Date of birth ________________________________________

Family _____________________________________________

Favourite subjects ____________________________________

 What are your hobbies? _______________________________

Favourite sports ______________________________________

Do you have any pets? _________________________________

Date ________________________________________________

Participant’s ID number

ANSWER SHEET

LISTENING

1 A B
2 A B
3 A B
4 A B
5 A B C
6 A B C
7 A B C
8 A B C

READING
9 A B C
10 A B C
11 A B C
12 A B C
13 A B
14 A B
15 A B
16 A B
17 A B
18 A B

USE OF ENGLISH

19 A B C
20 A B C
21 A B C
22 A B C
23 A B C
24 A B C
25 A B C
26 A B C
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
36
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46

WRITING

Name ______________________________________________

Surname ___________________________________________

Home address _______________________________________

Date of birth ________________________________________

Family _____________________________________________

Favourite subjects ____________________________________

What are your hobbies? _______________________________

Favourite sports ______________________________________

 Do you have any pets? _________________________________

Date ____________________________________________

Критерии оценивания конкурсов

1. Задание по аудированию. За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл.

Максимальная сумма баллов - 8 баллов.

2. Конкурс по чтению. За каждый правильный ответ дается 1 балл.

Максимальная сумма баллов - 10 баллов.

3. Лексико-грамматический тест включает 28 заданий. За каждый

правильный ответ дается 1 балл.

Максимальная сумма баллов - 28 баллов.

4. Задание по письму подразумевает заполнение анкеты.

За каждый правильно заполненный пункт анкеты участнику присуждается

один балл.

Максимальная сумма баллов - 10 баллов.

Для каждого участника полученные баллы за каждый конкурс суммируются.

Общее количество баллов по всем конкурсам составляет 56 баллов.

Победителями являются те участники, которые набрали наибольшую

сумму баллов.

№ Конкурсы Количество и Кол-во Время

тип задания баллов выполнения
задания
1 Listening 1Задание на 4 15 минут
соотнесение
информации
 2 выбор ответа 4
из трех
предложенных
2 Reading 1 задание на 4 20 минут
соответствие с
полным
пониманием
прочитанного с
выбором ответа
из трех
предложенных

2 Задание на 6
полное
понимание
текста с
альтернативным
выбором

3 Use of 1 задание на 8 20 минут

English множественный
выбор
20
2 задание на
заполнение
пропусков
4 Writing Задание с 10 30 минут
развернутым
ответом
 итого 56 85

Ключи и транскрипция текста для аудирования.

Ключи к заданиям
Listening
Task1 1a 2a 3b 4a
Task2 5b 6a 7c 8a

Reading
Task1 9b 10a 11b 12c
Task2 13b 14a 15b 16a 17a 18b

Use of Grammar
Task1 19a 20c 21a 22b 23c 24b 25a 26b
Task2 27had 28 was 29went 30brought 31went 32 brought 33was 34 could
35 didn’t know 36thought 37 was 38invited 39 has come 40put 41began
42didn’t like 43came 44are doing 45is 46 threw

Script
Listening

I`ve got a friend. His name is Bob. He is 16 years old. He is a very good
sportsman. Like many young English teenagers he and his sisters are fond of sports
and games.

The girls` favourite sport is tennis. They are members of a famous tennis club.
They spend their Saturday mornings playing tennis. Last summer they played for
their club and won several prizes.
John is very good at Rugby, but he doesn`t play soccer, which is more popular on
the Continent. Rugby and soccer are two kinds of football. We play soccer with a
round ball, and Rugby with an oval ball.

Sometimes Bob goes camping with his friends and then they spend a week or so in
the open air.

Golf is also very popular in England. John`s father and mother like golf and hiking.
All you need for hiking is a pair of good shoes and a rucksack.

In winter they enjoy winter sports: skiing, ice-hockey and skating.