1) Windscreen heating is supplied from

frequency wild generator, via a rectifier.

frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen.
DC generator, via a transformer.

2) The stall speed

does not depend on weight.
increases with an increased weight.
decreases with an increased weight.

3) A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square feet. Its mean chord would be
4 feet.
10 feet.
7.5 feet.

4) Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with

ailerons.
elevators.
rudder.

5) As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure

is unaffected.
moves forward.
moves aft.

6) Slats are used to

ensure the boundary layer does not separate from the wing surface too soon.
decrease the stalling angle.
change the wing camber.

7) Deploying a secondary flight control surface will

not affect the angle of attack .
decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil.
increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil .

8) If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder to correct?
To the right.
To the centre.
To the left.

9) A plain flap
when retracted forms the lower surface of the wing.
when extended provides a slot between the wing and the flap.
when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the trailing edge of the wing down.

10) If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab to
correct?
Up
Down
Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.
11) When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.
To increase the lift.
To re-energise the boundary layer.

12) Sweepback on the wing will

cause stall to occur at lower angles of attack
reduce tendency to tip stall.
increase tendency to tip stall.

13) With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?
The up -going and down - going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
The up -going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down-going aileron.
The down-going aileron moves through a smaller angle tha n the up-going aileron.

14) The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side -load
only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.
only when the rudder is moved.
if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.

15) An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the
cockpit would be
moved -down causing the left aileron to move down.
moved -up causing the left aileron to move up.
moved -up causing the left aileron to move down.

16) What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?

Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not.
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not.
Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krue ger flaps do not.

17) On a swept back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?
Outboard leading edge.
Inboard leading edge.
The trailing edge.

18) An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two
different altitudes: (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no
compressibility effects)
the TAS at the higher altitude is higher.
the TAS at the higher altitude is lower.
the TAS at both altitudes is the same.

19) Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)
the aircraft will climb.
the aircraft will yaw.
the aircraft will sink suddenly.

20) What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a
high mounted (T - tail) tailplane?
An aircraft nose down pitching moment.
The nose up pitching moment will be balanced by the nose down pitching moment.
An aircraft nose up pitching moment.

21) An increase in aspect ratio will

cause VbaseMD to be increased.
cause induced drag to increase.
cause VbaseMD to be reduced.

22) Geometric washout means that

the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root.
there is an airflow along the wing that keeps it clean.
the tip of the wing has l ess angle of attack than the root.

23) The purpose of a slot in a wing is to

speed up the airflow and increase lift.
provide housing for the slat.
act as venturi, accelerate the air and re - energise boundary layer.

24) Large flap deployment

has no effect on spanwise flow.
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface.

25) How do vortex generators work?

Reduce the adverse pressure gradient.
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer.
Re-direct slantwise flow.

26) Winglets
decrease the static lateral stability.
create an elliptical lift distribution.
decrease the induced drag.

27) Which part of the wing of a swept - wing aircraft stalls first?
Both stall together.
Root stalls first.
Tip stalls first.

28) A function of vortex generators in the transonic regime is to

reduce boundary layer separation drag when shockwaves form.
prevent the rearward shift of CP on swept wing stalls.
reduce wing root compres sion effects.

29) During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly
right wing low.
left wing low.
nose up.

30) During acceleration in level flight

the transition point on the wing moves forward.
the lift coeffici ent reduces.
the wing stagnation point moves aft .

31) As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at which an aeroplane stalls in a particular
configuration will
remain the same regardless of altitude.
remain equal to the calibrated airspeed.
decrease as the true airspeed decreases.

32) With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will

not be affected.
lower.
rise.

33) When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the
coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be
59%.
130%.
77% .

34) To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be
increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio decreases.
reduced.
increased.

35) Flap selec tion at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the
maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
lift and the drag.
lift coefficient and the drag.

36) In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...
increases; decreases; decreases.
increases; increases; decreases.
decreases; increases; remains constant.

37) What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in
straight and level flight?
Remain constant.
Decrease.
Increase.

38) If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45 bank turn VS will be
119 kts.
100 kts.
140 kts.

39) What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35,000 ft while flying at a constant Mach
number?
Remain the same.
Increase then remain constant.
Decrease.
40) If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to
maintain level flight?
4.0
0.5
0.25

41) When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will the wing stalling angle be affected?
The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of altitude.
The stalling angle will in crease with increasing altitude.
The stalling angle will reduce with increasing altitude.

42) The centre of pressure is in its most forward position

when t he angle of attack is equal to the stalling angle of attack.
when the angle of attack exceeds the stalling angle of attack.
when the angle of attack is smaller than the stalling angle of attack.

43) The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls

increases with an increase in gross weight.
remains constant regardless of gross weight.
varies with gross weight and density altitude.

44) The following factors increase stall speed:

A higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c.g. shift.
An increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.
A lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting.

45) Stall speed in a turn is proportional to

weight.
the square root of the load factor.
lift.

46) An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a
level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is
122 kt.
141 kt.
82 kt.

47) A wing stalling angle is

decreased in a turn.
unaffected by a turn.
increased in a turn.

48) What effect does an increased load have on an aircraft?

The aircraft will suffer immediate structural failure.
The aircraft will have a tendency to roll and yaw.
The aircraft will stall at a higher speed.

49) Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?

Deep stall.
Low speed stall.
High speed stall (shock stall).

50) A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type
of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Shock stall.
Low speed stall.
Accelerated stall.

51) On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch -up phenomenon
is caused by wingtip stall.
never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to pitch up.
is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.

52) Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?

Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed.
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.

53) How are the wing stalling angle and the lift coefficient affected when altitude increases and EAS
is held constant?
The lift coefficient remains constant and the wing stalling angle will reduce.
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both decrease.
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain constant.

54) Increase of wing loading will

decrease the minimum gliding angle.
increase the stall speed.
decrease take off speeds.

55) The most common stall sensing devices are normally located
on the upper surface of the wing.
at or near the wing leading edge.
on the lower surface of the wing.

56) If angle of attack is increased beyond th e critical angle of attack, the lift coefficient ... and the
stagnation point moves...
decreases; rearward
increases; rearward
decreases; forward

57) In a turn, the wing stalling angle

remains unchanged.
decreases.
increases.

58) As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the centre of pressure will reach its most forward
position on the wing
just before the wing stalls.
when the aircraft is stalling.
after stall recovery.
59) Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?
Turbulent boundary layer.
No difference.
Laminar boundary layer.

60) One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it is stalling characteristics. At the stall
tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose -down moment.
tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch -up moment.
wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment.

61) Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
T-tail.
Swept forward wing.
Swept back wing.

62) The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:
1.
1.41.
2.00.

63) The speed range between high and low speed buffet
increases during descent at a constant IAS.
decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number.
increas es during climb.

64) The boundary layer of a wing is caused by

a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction.
suction at the upper wing side.
a turbulent stream pattern around the wing.

65) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors?
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase
when the c.g. moves forward.
Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will in crease when the c.g. moves aft.
Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn.

66) The pitch -up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
forward movement of the centre of gravity.
wing root stalling first.
wing tip stalling first.

67) When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the
normal axis is
horizontal from side to side.
nearly vertical,
vertical.

68) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed
when the weight is 5.000 lbs?
67 KCAS
91 KCAS
78 KCAS

69) What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall?

Rearward movement of the CP.
Spanwise flow.
Separated airflow a t the root.

70) Load factors has the following meaning:

The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions.
The ratio of a specified load to the mass o f the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
forces, inertia forces and ground reactions.
The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
and inertia forces.

71) When all other factors of importance are constant, the stall speed increases when
spoilers are retracted.
pulling out of a dive.
weight decreases.

72) Which of the following is the correct order of configuration to give an increasing critical angle of
attack?
Trailin g edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats extended.
Slats extended, clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended.
Clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended, slats extended.

73) What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45° bank turn
19%.
10%.
45%.

74) When an aircraft wing stalls

a wing which is not swept back will stall from the root and the CP will move forwards.
a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move forward.
a swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move aft .

75) At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit

VbaseS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged.
VbaseS is lower, the stalling angle is unchanged.
VbaseS is higher, the stalling angle is greater.

76) Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data is: A: W=1500
kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt, B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt. Which of the following
statements is correct?
The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of tur n B.
The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.
The load factor A is larger than the load factor B.

77) Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
Increasing air density.
Increasing load factor.
Decreasing weight.

78) The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of a wing at the root is to
10 %.
50%.
40%.

79) The critical angle of attack

increases if the CG is moved forward.
changes with an increase in gross weight.
remains unchanged regardless of gross weight .

80) An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the centre of gravity is located behind the
aft centre of gravity limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this
aeroplane would be
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
a longer takeoff run.
stalling at higher -than -normal airspeed.

81) V[base=so] is defined as the

stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

82) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine
located forward of the wing.
Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location.
Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location.

83) With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be
lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit.
the same as with the centre of gravity on the aft limit.
higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit.

84) The following takes place at the transition point on a wing:

The airflow separates completely from the wing surface.
The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer.
The total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill.

85) A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced)

decreases stalling speed and la nding speed.
increases take -off run, stalling speed and landing speed.
increases stalling speed.

86) Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be
60 kts.
70 kts.
50 kts.

87) How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?

It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.
It remains constant.
It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

88) Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?
Decrease the angle of attack.
No effect on angle of attack.
Increase the angle of attack.

89) As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall becomes progressively
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves aft.
is unaffected by centre of gravity position.
becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves forward.

90) To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall we dges are
installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip.

91) Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?

The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.
The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer.

92) The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will

remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position.
increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft.
increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward.

93) Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing
(2) will
(1) move aft, (2) move forward.
(1) not move (2) move forward.
(1) move aft, (2) not move.

94) Compared with stalling airspeed (V S ) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick
shaker will be triggered is
greater than V[base=S].
V[base=S].
less than V[base=S].

95) A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will

increase the critical Mach Number.
improve the low speed characteristics.
improve the high speed characteristics.

96) If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?
81 kts
122 kts
150 kts
97) How does stalling speed vary with load factor?
It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor.
It decreases inversely with the load factor.
It decreases inversely with the square root of the load factor.

98) When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (1) and of a strongly swept wing will (2)
(1) move aft, (2) move aft.
(1) not move, (2) not move.
(1) move aft, (2) not move.

99) After the transition p oint between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer
the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases.
the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases.
the mean speed and friction drag increases.

100) The wing of an aeroplane will never st all at low subsonic speeds as long as
there is a nose -down attitude.
the IAS exceeds the power -on stall speed.
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs.

101) The load factor is

the ratio of thrust to weight.
the ratio of lift to weight.
the ratio of lift to drag.

102) Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
Deep stall.
Shock stall.
Low speed stall.

103) Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer.
Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer.
Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer.

104) A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by

increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
increasing the critical angle of attack.
increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.

105) When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully

the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is unaffected.
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is decreased.
the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is increased.

106) Which statement is correct?

Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease.
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces.
Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum
descent angle.
107) When the angle of attack of an aircraft is progressively increased, the wing centre of pressure
will reach its most forward position
when the aircraft has stalled.
at the optimum angle of attack of the wing.
at the maximum lift coefficient ( C[base=lmax] ).

108) What is the most effective flap system?

Split flap.
Single slotted flap.
Fowler flap.

109) An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps.
One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: no devices.
Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats.
Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L.E. flaps.

110) Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is
correct?
Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap does not.
Deploying a Krueger flap will increas e critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.

111) Vortex generators

change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
reduce the span wise flow on swept wing.
transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.

112) When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found
towards the wing trailing edge.
towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer.
near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces.

113) During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other
factors of importance being constant)
bank.
sink suddenly.
climb.

114) Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will

turn d own, then move aft.
move aft, then turn down.
just move aft.

115) An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too.
Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
Flaps from 0° to 15°.
Flaps from 30° to 45°.
Flaps from 15° to 30°.

116) The effect of Winglets is

reduction in induced drag.
elliptical pressure distribution increases.
decrease in stall speed.

117) When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will
eventually
increase.
decrease.
remain the same.

118) When spoilers are used as speed brakes

they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.
at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

119) When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position to fully down position,
one will experience
a large increase in lift and a small increase in drag.
a small increase in lift and a lar ge increase in drag.
a large increase in lift and a large increase in drag.

120) What is the purpose of an auto- slat system?

Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded.
Provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off.
Ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the ground position.

121) Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack?
Flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.
Slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.
Clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended.

122) Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of
attack?
Upper side leading edge.
Lower side leading edge.
Upper side trailing edge.

123) If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level flight
the nose must be pitched down.
the altitude must be held constant.
the nose must be pitched up.

124) The effects of leading edge slats

increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing, increase effective angle of attack and move
C[base=Lmax) to higher angle of attack.
increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main wing section, move C[base=Lmax) to a
higher angle of attack.
increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat and increase C[base=Lmax) angle of attack.

125) Flaps are used in order to

increase max lift coefficient by increasing max angle of attack.
increase max L/D.
decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attac k thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near
and at stalling speed.

126) Deflection of leading edge flaps will

increase critical angle of attack.
decrease C[base=Lmax].
decrease drag.

127) During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight
the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.
the stall speed increases.
the centre of pressure moves aft, lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.

128) C[base=Lmax] may be increased by the use of

both flaps and slats.
flaps.
slats.

129) Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down
configuration is
unchanged.
larger.
smaller.

130) Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps up
configuration is
smaller.
larger.
unchanged.

131) How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and level flight?
Depends on wing position.
Pitch up.
Pitch down.

132) What is the effect of lowering leading edge and trailing edge flaps in flight?
Cl decreases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack reduces.
Cl increases, Cd increases and the stalling angle of attack increases.
Cl increases, Cd remains the same and the stalling angle of attack increases.

133) Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of Pressure
to move outboard towards the wing tips.
to move forward.
to move inboard towards the wing root.

134) Slats
re -energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling angle of attack.
re -energise the boundary layer thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack.
de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack.
135) When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack
remains the same.
increases.
decreases.

136) Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will

increase the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
decrease the shock wave induced separation.
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.

137) Vort ex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will

increase the shock wave induced separation.
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.

138) It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure
gradients, by
wing fences.
trailing edge vortex generators.
increased anhedral.

139) After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

140) In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being
retracted, the angle of attack will
remain constant.
decrease.
increase.

141) If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices
will eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
increase.
remain the same.
decrease.

142) The trailing edge flaps, when extended

worsen the best angle of glide.
significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift.
improve the best angle of glide.

143) One of the main purposes of using flaps during approach and landing is to
increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
shift the centre of gravity aft.
decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

144) The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed
because
the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker.
it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack.
it changes the camber of the wing.

145) What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?

Decrease the critical angle of attack.
Not affect the critical angle of attack.
Increase the critical angle of attack.

146) The lift coefficient C[base=L] of a wing at a given angle of attack

is incre ased by the use of high lift devices.
is constant and not affected by high lift devices.
is dependent on the surface area of the wing.

147) The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is about ____, and the actual angle of attack
will be clo se to this optimum angle during _______.
4°, cruise
4°, a stall
16°, a stall

148) Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing

C[base=D] is increased and C[base=L] is decreased.
C[base=L] is increased, while C[base=D] remains unaffected
only C[base=L] is decreased (C[base=D] remains unaffected)

149) If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift - to -drag ratio will
increase.
not be affected.
decrease.

150) With reference to differential aileron control

drag decreases on the outer wing.
drag increases on the outer wing.
drag increases on the inner wing.

151) Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft with straight wings?
To delay boundary layer separation.
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on the intrados.
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wi ng tips on the extrados.

152) Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is
an increase in gradient with wing speed.
decrease in gradient with wing speed.
no change in gradient with wing speed.

153) If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim tab on the rudder would need to be positioned
to the left, moving the rudder right.
to the centre.
to the right, moving the rudder left.

154) The tropopause exists at about

18,000 ft.
36,000 ft.
30,000 ft.

155) Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?
Flap
Flap and slat
Slat

156) Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift
constant it would be necessary to
keep the pitch attitude constant.
raise the nose.
lower the nose.

157) Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane
will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch.
may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load.

158) Downward displacement of an aileron

increases the angle at which its wing stalls.
decreases the angle at which its wing will stall.
has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing.

159) The stalling speed of an aircraft

is increased when it is heavier.
does not change.
is increased when it is lighter.

160) With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing
increases.
remains the same.
decreases.

161) The primary function of a flap is

to alter the lift of an aerofoil.
to alter the position of the centre of gravity.
to trim the aircraft longitudinally.

162) In a bank and turn

extra lift is not required if thrust is increased.
extra lift is required.
extra lift is not required.

163) The angle of attack at which stall occurs

can be varied by using flaps and slats.
cannot be varied, it is always constant.
depends on the weight of the aircraft.

164) When an aircraft stalls

lift increases and drag decreases.
lift and drag increase.
lift decreases and drag increases.

165) The aircraft stalling speed will

increase with an increase in weight.
be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack.
only change if the MTWA were changed.

166) Changes in aircraft weight

cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.
will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed.
will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant.

167) What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?

Aspect ratio.
Fineness ratio.
Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior.

168) When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes
place?
Pressure decreases, lift increases.
Pressure increases, lift decreases.
Pressure increases, lift increases.

169) A Krueger flap is

a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower.
a leading edge slat which extends forward.
a leading edge flap which hinges forward.

170) The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of
the airflow, is known as
camber layer.
boundary layer.
none of the above are correct.

171) A leading edge slat is a device for

decreasing wing drag.
increasing the stalling angle of the wing.
decreasing the stalling angle of the wing.

172) A split flap increases lift by increasing

the surface area.
the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.
the camber of the top surface.

173) When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will
pitch nose down.
pitch nose up.
sink.

174) Dutch roll is

a type of slow roll.
a combined yawing and rolling motion.
primarily a pitching instability.

175) On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by

up movement of the elevator trim tab.
increasing tailplane incidence.
decreasing tailplane incidence.

176) On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by
right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
left and right spoilers extending.
left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted.

177) An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is
low.
high.
high or low.

178) Which flap will increase wing area and camber?

Fowler
Split
Slot

179) Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more.
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.
Both wings have an equal increase in drag.

180) A balance tab

is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft.
effectively increases the area of the control surface.
assists the pilot to move the controls.

181) An example of a secondary flight control is a

flap.
elevator.
aileron.

182) Wing tip vortices are strongest when

flying into a headwind.
flying high speed straight and level flight.
flying slowly at high angles of attack.

183) Flight spoilers

can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn.
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled descent without reduction of airspeed.
can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing.

184) If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?
Down to move elevator up.
Up to move elevator up.
Up to move elevator down.

185) Slats
act as an air brake.
increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing.
keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.

186) Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA.
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.
nose should be raised, increasing AoA.

187) Ailerons control the aircraft in the

directional plane.
lateral plane.
longitudinal plane.

188) An anti-balance tab is used

for trimming the aircraft.
to give more feel to the controls.
to relieve stick loads.

189) Dutch roll is movement in

yaw and pitch.
pitch and roll.
yaw and roll.

190) If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable

C of P moves back.
aircraft becomes too sensitive.
aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.

191) When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of attack
decreases.
increases.
remains the same.

192) A laminar boundary layer is __________ and has ______ drag than a turbulent layer.
thicker; less
thicker; more
thinner; less

193) The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is
decreases energy.
less tendency to separate.
thinner.

194) The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent

just aft of the separation point.
just in front of the transition point.
between the transition and separation points.

195) Instability giving roll and yaw

is longitudinal stability.
is lateral stability.
is dutch roll.

196) Vortex generators are fitted to

move transition point rearwards.
advance the onset of flow separation.
move transition point forwards.

197) Leading edge flaps

increase stalling angle of the wing.
decrease stalling angle of the wing.
do not change the stalling angle.

198) Krueger flaps are on

either the leading or training edge.
the trailing edge.
the leading edge.

199) Sweepback will

decrease lateral stability.
increase lateral stability.
not affect lateral stability.

200) A plain flap

is attached to the leading edge of the wing.
forms part of lower trailing edge.
does not increase the wing area on deployment.

201) A split flap, when deployed

is used only on high speed aircraft.
increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down.
increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag.

202) Air above approximately Mach 0.7 is

compressible.
incompressible.
compressible only when above the speed of sound.

203) Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the

pressure to increase, velocity to increase.
pressure to increase, velocity to decrease.
pressure to decrease, velocity to increase.

204) An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No.
will
not change.
increase.
decrease.

205) Mach trim operation is enabled by

an autopilot trim motor.
an electric motor.
a mach trim actuator.

206) A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a sudden decrease of
pressure.
temperature.
velocity.

207) For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical Mach number will be
higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio.
the same as a wing of high thickness-chord ratio.
lower than wing of high thickness-chord ratio.

208) High speed buffet is caused by

airflow being detached by shock wave and flow striking the tail.
high speed airflow striking the leading edge.
the shock wave striking the tail.

209) A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft.
tip stall on a delta wing aircraft.
root stall on a delta wing aircraft.

210) A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock
wave will form
on the upper surface only and move aft.
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber.
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft.

211) At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary layer is

supersonic.
subsonic.
stationary.

212) Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of

profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag.
wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag.
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag.

213) What is a high speed stall?

Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation.
A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g) during a manoeuvre.
A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of attack at high speed during a manoeuvre.

214) Before an aircraft reaches critical Mach

the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.
the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward.
the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave.

215) On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?
Sea level
10,000 ft
20,000 ft

216) Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?
Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings.
Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings.

217) As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to
move forward.
turn into a shock wave.
move rearward.

218) Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and
increase temperature and decrease density.
decrease temperature and increase density.
increase temperature and increase density.

219) On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is
stationary.
thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than Mach 1.
supersonic.

220) At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing
at the leading edge.
at the trailing edge.
at both the leading edge and the trailing edge.

221) A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will

warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded.
warn when coming to limits of upper envelope.
warn when M[base=crit] is reached.

222) Above the critical Mach number, the drag coefficient

decreases
remains the same
increases

223) At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals
such as aluminium, become brittle
lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved

224) Mach trim operates

along the longitudinal axis
along the lateral axis
to reduce Dutch roll
225) To increase critical mach number
the wings are swept
elevons are fitted
tailerons are fitted

226) An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight,
what would be the most probable cause?
Severe head winds
Atmospheric conditions
Aircraft reached its critical mach number

227) A Mach Trimmer is a device which

switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range
prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No
automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region

228) Critical Mach No. may be increased by

using more powerful engines
sweeping back the wing
using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing

229) Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is

sonic upstream and downstream
subsonic upstream, sonic downstream
sonic upstream, subsonic downstream

230) Mach Number is defined as

IAS divided by the local speed of sound
TAS divided by local speed of sound
speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound

231) The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to
enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
decrease wave drag
decrease boundary layer

232) Critical Mach Number is defined as

that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic
that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic

233) The transonic region is a region of

all subsonic
mixed airflow
all supersonic

234) Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always

subsonic
the same as upstream
supersonic
235) Wave drag
increases in the supersonic region
increases in the transonic region
increases at the low speed stall

236) For increased Mcrit

decrease sweepback
decrease thickness/chord ratio
decrease true airspeed

237) Symptoms of shock stall are

compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control
buffet, loss of control, and instability
decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure

238) Sweepback increases Mcrit by

decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section

239) The critical Mach number is

the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound
the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge
the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft

240) Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will
start to increase
remain the same
start to decrease

241) A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be
lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio

242) An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience
an oscillation in pitch
a nose up pitch
a nose down pitch

243) Tuck-under can be counteracted by

trim tabs
mach trim
aileron reversal

244) What causes tuck‑under?

Aileron reversal
Flap‑back effect
Shock stall
245) When does a shock stall occur?
When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One
At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane
When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive

246) With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the troposphere
decreases
remains constant
increases

247) Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally

subsonic
sonic
supersonic

248) Downstream of a normal shock wave

pressure decreases temperature increases
pressure and temperature increase
pressure and temperature decrease

249) Speed of sound varies with

pressure
altitude
temperature

250) Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always

the same as upstream
supersonic
subsonic

251) Increased sweepback

raises Mcrit
decreases stability
improves tip stall characteristics

252) Aerodynamic heating

increases with skin friction
increases as a function of airspeed
decreases with altitude

253) To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region

Frise ailerons may be used
hydraulic powered elevators may be used
an all moving tailplane may be used

254) An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No.
will
decrease
increase
remain the same
255) To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic
region, fuel is pumped
backwards
forwards
sideways

256) To make flying controls more effective at high speed

vortex generators are used
area rule is used
wing fences are used

257) An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No.
will
increase
remain the same
decrease

258) The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will

decrease
remain constant
increase

259) Mach number equals the ratio of

altitude to airspeed
true airspeed to local sonic speed
sonic speed to indicated airspeed

260) Tuck-under is caused by

tip stall on a swept wing aircraft
root stall on a swept wing aircraft
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft

261) The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to

decrease drag
increase Mcrit
decrease Mcrit

262) As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially
near the point of maximum curvature
at the leading edge
at the trailing edge

263) In the transonic speed range

the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant
the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory
the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back

264) ATA zone 500 is the

engine
right wing
left wing
265) ATA zone 330 is the
right horizontal stabiliser
vertical stabiliser
left horizontal stabiliser

266) A structure which, if it failed, would cause aircraft to crash is

primary
integral
essential

267) The method used on a work card to indicate the approximate location of a component is
stations
datum
zones

268) A loss of strength resulting from cyclic loading is known as

metal fatigue
age hardening
fail safe

269) Zone 320 under the ATA system is

vertical stabiliser
central fuselage
horizontal stabiliser

270) When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
0.005ohms
1/50 ohms
50 milliohms

271) The fuel drain of a combustion heater must be protected from

ice build-up
lightning strike
accidental damage

272) Engine mounts provide for

longitudinal movement
torsional movement
lateral movement

273) Dyna engine mounts

reduce vibration from engine to airframe
prevent all vibration from engine to airframe
are constructed from plastic

274) How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?
Earthing Strap
Bonding Strip
Special paint
275) Tension is the stress of
elongating or stretch
crush or compression
twisting

276) A Fuselage Station is a

lateral point on aircraft fuse
longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
lateral point on aircraft wing

277) Composite materials are bonded by

special paint
copper wire
aluminium wire

278) ATA Zone 100 is

upper fuselage
lower fuselage
left-hand wing

279) The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be

0.25 in wide and 22 AWG
22 AWG
0.5 in wide

280) What force is an I-Beam subjected to?

Tension
Bending
Shear

281) A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by

special conductive grease
conductive paint
bonding strips

282) Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of

frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines
frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines

283) Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?

Longeron
Stringer
Spar

284) Damage tolerant design

is applied only to secondary structure
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance
allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure

285) In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of
400
800
600

286) Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?

Wings
Pressure cabin
Control surfaces

287) Shear stress is described as

compressing forces
pulling forces
slip away under the action of forces

288) The ground cable must be

single strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area
single strand 18 AWG
copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area

289) Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?

245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing

290) How is the radome protected from lightning strike?

Special paint
Special grease on the hinges
Diverter strips

291) If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the
gauge read?
Centre scale
Zero
Full scale deflection

292) A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is known as

strain
shear
bending

293) Semi-monocoque construction

is used only for the fuselage
utilizes the safe-life design concept
offers good damage resistance

294) Most radio aerials are

not bonded
bonded
insulated from the fuselage

295) Secondary bonding is usually provided with

18 AWG
single strand 0.25 inch
stranded copper 0.25 inch

296) Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a

wing line
horizontal line
vertical line

297) The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by
earthing
bonding
static wicks

298) The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than
22 SWG x 0.5
22 SWG x 0.25
18 SWG for a single wire

299) What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?

Landings
Flying Hours
Pressure Cycles

300) The main forces on an aircraft structure are

tension, compression, torsion and shear
tension, compression, twisting and shear
tension, compression, twisting and shear

301) The life of the structure is counted by

flying hours
landings
pressurization cycle

302) What are buttock lines?

Vertical measurement lines
Horizontal measurement lines
Measurements from the centre line

303) Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lightning strikes, partially by
conductive paint
non-conductive paint
bonding

304) A member taking a compression load is called a

beam
strut
cable

305) Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?
Semi-monocoque
Truss type
Monocoque

306) Wing stations are measured

outboard from the wing root
inboard from the wing upper surface
outboard from the fuselage centreline

307) What load is a tie rod designed to accept?

Bending
Tensile
Torsion

308) If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be

yellow
green
red

309) Which of the following is primary structure?

Stringer
Frame
Skin

310) Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in
inches
feet
feet and inches

311) Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?

These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of
life
These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc

312) Structure with built‑in redundancy is called

failsafe
double safe
safe life

313) Stress
is the load per unit area acting on a material
is the deformation of a material caused by applied load
is the property of a material to resist fracture

314) A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or
years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?
Fail-safe
Safe-life
Condition monitored

315) Safe-life is
the sharing of loads between adjacent members
the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs
the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs

316) Bending stresses are a combination of

tension and compression stresses
torsional and compression stresses
tension and shear stresses

317) The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is

Notice 65
Notice 89
Notice 79

318) Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the

maintenance engineer
manufacturer
operator

319) Where are wing stations measured from?

Butt Line (BL)
Zone Line (ZL)
Water Line (WL)

320) Where is Zone 323?

Between rear spar and trailing edge
Tip of vertical stabiliser
Between front and rear spar

321) To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite
aircraft, electricity is discharged through
electrically connected primary conductors
a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint
a sprayed coat of conductive paint

322) A structural member intended to resist compression is a

strut
tie
web

323) An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a

fail-safe design
monocoque design
safe-life design

324) Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates
sagging
shedding
hogging

325) If a redundant structure fails it becomes

fatigued
safe-life
failsafe

326) A redundant structure is

on-condition structure
a safe-life structure
a failsafe structure

327) The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from
bottom of the fuselage is
water line
fuselage station
butt line

328) What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress
Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain

329) A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as
primary
secondary
tertiary

330) An example of primary stress is

shear
tension
bending

331) What is the water line?

The datum from which vertical locations refer
The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured
A line below which redux bonding can not be used

332) Lateral stations have station zero at the

centreline
left wing-tip
nose

333) Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in

ANO 25
CS 25
JAR 25

334) Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides

high stiffness and high ductility
high strength and high ductility
high strength and high stiffness

335) When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use for extra strength?
Thicker material
A waffle plate
A tripler plate

336) Hi-lok fastener installation requires that

an interference fit hole is drilled
the shank is lubricated
the fastener is accurately torqued

337) Stringers
are attached to the frame
do not pass through bulkheads
run the full length on all aircraft

338) Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid should be avoided because
there is no effect
it makes the titanium soft
it makes the titanium brittle

339) The optimum atmospheric conditions for painting aircraft is

between 65oF and 75oF with less than 75% relative humidity
between 65oC and 75oC with more than 75% relative humidity
between 60oF and 77oF with less than 75% relative humidity

340) What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?

None is required
Fire-proof grommets
Soft rubber

341) To remove a rivet you should

drill it all the way through
drill to the depth of the head
drill half way through

342) The two stages in a good adhesive bond are

wetting and Setting
wetting and gripping
spreading and setting

343) Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use

acid etch
alkaline etch
solvent etch

344) The purpose of a primer is to

help bonding of the topcoat
provide shiny surface for the topcoat
provide flexible surface for the top coat

345) In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by

frames
bulkheads
stringers

346) Most large transport aircraft skins are

7075.
2024.
5056.

347) Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted
joints?
PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication.
PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.
PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints.

348) What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?

Stringers
Bulkheads
Frames

349) In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?
Stringers
Skin
Longerons

350) Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?

Zinc plating
Nickel plating
Cadmium plating

351) What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?

Alluminium alloys
Magnesium alloys
Ferros alloys

352) When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is
normally used?
Steel tape and spring balance.
Longitudinal alignment method.
Lateral alignment method.

353) Paint remover substances

should only be used once.
are not damaging to any aircraft parts.
are damaging to some aircraft parts.

354) Kevlar should be stored

horizontally.
in moisture proof bags.
vertically.

355) To remove a rivet

chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.
drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank
with a metal punch.
drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the
shank with a metal punch.

356) Battery trays are

absorbent to soak up electrolyte.
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.
metal for earthing purposes.

357) The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is

to prevent corrosion.
to provide external streamlining.
to seal the cabin.

358) When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to

simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.
lubricate the collar.
lubricate the shank and threads.

359) Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:

according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC.
according to SB instructions.
according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.

360) A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a
jury strut.
shear tie.
tear stopper.

361) What are the faying surfaces of a repair?

Edges of repair metal.
Middle of repair.
Material under repair.

362) Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for

low strength high toughness.
high strength high toughness.
high strength high stiffness.

363) The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are

20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%.
15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.
15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%.

364) What are the types of true bonded joints?

Mechanical and specific.
Mechanical and cemented.
Cemented and specific.
365) Why is a joggle joint used?
To add strength.
To provide a flush fit.
To provide a smooth contour to surface.

366) When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you
use?
Hi lock bolt.
Pop rivet.
Blind rivet.

367) With regard to extraneous spilt fluids

they may be harmful to the aircraft structure.
they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft.
they can be ignored, they provide extra protection.

368) Skin panels may be strengthened by

struts.
cleats.
stringers.

369) What is the normal form of construction of a spar?

One boom mounted under a web.
Two webs separated by a boom.
Two booms separated by a web.

370) A crack stopper is fitted

before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.
before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation.
after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.

371) Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?

Determine the fuel tanks are empty.
Install critical stress panels or plates.
Remove all optional equipment.

372) Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and

asphalt.
cellulose.
acrylics.

373) One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it

is easier to manufacture.
shares the loads.
takes all the loads in the skin.

374) In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the
skin.
frames.
longerons.
375) Intercostals are
longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.
vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane.
compression ribs in cantilever wings.

376) Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as
secondary joints.
failsafe joints.
crack limiting joints.

377) If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
aluminium alloy.
plastic.
stainless steel.

378) An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has

a misplaced centre of gravity on landing.
an excessive fuel load on take-off.
too much kinetic energy on landing.

379) Symmetry checks should be carried out

in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.
in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels.
on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels.

380) The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to

provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat.
provide a flexible surface for top-coat.
help bonding for top-coat.

381) Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member

if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location.
if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member.
if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.

382) When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate

toxic gases.
humidity.
temperature.

383) The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is

1 in 400.
1 in 200,
1 in 600.

384) Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by

bulkheads.
stringers.
longerons.

385) Which loads do longerons resist?

Bending, compression and tensile.
Torsional only.
Bending, compression, tensile and torsion.

386) Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to

provide access for pressurising the cargo bays.
provide access for pressurising the cabin.
provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.

387) What are passenger windows normally made from?

Glass
Acrylic
Acrylic / glass laminate

388) A firewall bulkhead is usually made from

tungsten.
titanium.
steel.

389) Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have
slight shrinkage due to age.
smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.

390) A cargo bay must have signs stating

maximum loadings.
maximum dimensions.
no hazardous cargo.

391) Zone D Cargo compartment windows

are made from fire retardant Perspex.
must be blanked off.
must have blinds pulled down.

392) A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is
class B.
class E.
class A.

393) Windscreen delamination is

separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer.
bubbling of the glass due to overheat.
windscreen peeling away from the airframe.

394) What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?

50°C to 70°C.
30°C to 50°C.
50°F to 70°F .

395) What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic
panels?
125°F
104°F
40°F

396) How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?
By door stops.
By the pressure seal.
Through the latching mechanism.

397) Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Under
normal flight conditions which pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?
Inner
Both
Outer

398) How are passenger seats secured to the floor?

By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.
By both front and back legs.
By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle.

399) A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is

soft rubber.
aluminium.
PTFE.

400) When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for
galvanic corrosion of the metal.
expansion of the acrylic due to heat .
expansion of the metal due to heat .

401) Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?

Acetone
MEK
Kerosene

402) In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure can be taken by
the scratch panel .
the inner pane only .
both main panes .

403) The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is

to increase static strength.
to improve on brittle behaviour.
to enable inclusion of heater film .

404) On passenger aircraft of two or more zones

there should be at least one exit per zone.
the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits.
the emergency exits are to be clearly signed .

405) Class D cargo bay windows require

double acrylic panels .
the blind down for flight .
fire proof coatings .

406) Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from

monolithic Nomex .
Fibreglass and resin .
Kevlar.

407) The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on

the number of negative differential pressure applications.
the number of explosive decompressions.
the total number of pressurizations.

408) In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays

are unpressurised .
may be pressurized or unpressurised .
are pressurized .

409) The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called

spars .
frames.
longerons.

410) A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a

bulkheads.
cleats.
frame.

411) When inspecting stowage doors, special attention should be given to the
catches .
light microswitches .
trim .

412) Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in
half inch increments .
one foot increments .
one inch increments .

413) Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to

tracks .
stanchions .
rails .

414) Windshields are heated to

maintain strength and toughness only .
demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness .
prevent misting and icing only .

415) The internal doors of an aircraft

only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude .
carry pressure loads .
never carry pressure loads .

416) A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is
not locked .
locked .
not fully opened .

417) If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails, it may be operated
be electrical ground power .
by alternate actuators .
manually by winding .

418) After installation of an acrylic window panel, protective paper and adhesive remaining on the
panel may be removed by use of soap and water and
Cellulose thinners .
Methylated spirits .
MEK .

419) If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to withstand impact
will
increase .
decrease .
not change .

420) When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame, provision must be made for
the relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of
the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing
the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame
the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame

421) Perspex is resistant to

Paraffin .
C.T.C.
Acetone .

422) Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage

are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well drained .
are open when the cabin is depressurised.
are open when the cabin is pressurised .

423) Wide body transport aircraft have cabin floor vents

to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door .
to ensure adequate ventilation of the underfloor areas .
to provide access to class A cargo compartments in the event of fire .

424) On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling. What action is required?
Replace the defective window .
Only replace the window if the 'bubbling' affects vision .
No action is required with this defect .
425) Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have
two structural panes .
one structural pane .
three structural panes .

426) A plug type window is fitted

from the outside.
from the inside.
from either side.

427) Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins. The source of this air is usually
cabin pressurised air.
from storage bottles.
ambient pressurised air.

428) Drain valves are normally closed by

rubber strips.
cabin air pressure.
spring pressure.

429) Drain holes in unpressurised areas are

always closed.
always open.
either open or closed.

430) A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to
give warning and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a
Class 'E' compartment.
Class 'B' compartment.
Class 'C' compartment.

431) Aircraft frames are constructed of

'U' section.
'I' section.
'Z' section.

432) The life of a fuselage depends on

the pressurisation cycles excluding maximum differential.
the pressurisation cycles not including ground cycles.
all pressurisation cycles.

433) Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the

longerons.
stringers.
frames.

434) A false rib is usually used to

support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading edge.
lose a torsion box structure.
allow the fitment of aileron control tubes through a wing.
435) The main undercarriage is attached to the
rear main spar.
front main spar.
aircraft structure.

436) An aspect ratio of 8 could mean

mean chord 64 ft., span 8 ft.
span squared 64 ft., chord 8 ft.
span 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.

437) A spar web will take loads in

shear.
bending.
tension.

438) One purpose of a rib is to

maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering.
support the bending loads on a fuselage.
form the main lateral member in an aerofoil.

439) What is a cantilever wing?

One that has external supporting struts.
One that has no external supporting struts.
One that folds for access to limited space.

440) A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and
leading edge flaps.
slots.
trailing edge flaps.

441) A spar web is

an area between two spar caps.
a rib/spar joint.
a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.

442) A leading edge slat is attached to the

slat track.
wing upper skin.
front spar.

443) A spar is tapered from root to tip because

shear forces are greatest at the root.
bending moment is greatest at the root.
centre of lift occurs close to the root.

444) On a mono- spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?
Ribs.
Milled stringers.
The position of the spars.

445) A cantilever wing is a

swept -back wing.
usual airliner wing.
top wing of a biplane.

446) Aileron reversal is caused by a structure that has a low stiffness in

torsion.
bending.
shear.

447) The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called

interfay.
fillet.
brush coat.

448) The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to

provide redundant design.
support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount.
assist the main spar with operational loads.

449) Wing bending and shear loads are taken by

main spar.
skin.
spar cap.

450) The principle load bearing members of the wing are

struts,
ribs,
spars,

451) Upper wing skin on a large transport aircraft is made from

7075.
2024.
7118.

452) On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane incidence changes
if the control column is moved back or forward.
if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.
automatically if the elevator moves.

453) Variable incidence tailplanes

move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times.
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly during cruise.
always move slowly.

454) To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane, the
incidence of the tailplane would be
increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge.
decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.

455) An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane

will increase tailplane download.
may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position.
will decrease tailplane download.

456) The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is determined by
direction of rotation of the electric motor.
solenoid operated clutches.
a gearbox.

457) The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are
spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
spar, rib, longerons, skin panels.
spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels.

458) The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?
Shear
Bending
Tension

459) The term 'empennage' incorporates:

rudder, ailerons, spoilers.
elevators, stabiliser, ailerons.
elevators, stabiliser, rudder.

460) A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to

provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control.
ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack.
equalize aileron drag in a turn.

461) Control surface flutter may be caused by

incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.
high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
excessive play in trim tab attachments.

462) The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft

are isolated at high speeds.
are isolated to improve sensitivity.
are isolated at low speeds.

463) The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface
operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied.
operating automatically to provide 'feel' to the controls.

464) An elevator controls the aircraft motion in

pitch.
roll.
yaw.

465) Aerodynamic balance

will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.
will reduce aerodynamic loading.
will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance.

466) The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to

make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control.
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.
prevent control surface flutter.

467) Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by

providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
placing a weight ahead of the hinge point.
placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.

468) A horn balance is

a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.
a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached.

469) A control surface is mass balanced by

the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.
the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line.
fitting a balance tab.

470) An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure
rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.
forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.

471) Aerodynamic balance is used to

prevent flutter of the flying controls.
reduce the control load to zero.
make the flying controls easier to move.

472) What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?

Elevator
Rudder
Aileron

473) A flying control mass balance weight

keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line.
474) The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to
attach weights forward of the hinge line.
fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.
allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.

475) A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to

increase stability.
decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
assist the pilot in moving the control.

476) Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface
assembly
is meant to trim CG of control surfaces.
serves as a 'servo' system of balance.
has same effect of the balance tab.

477) Flutter can be reduced by using

mass balancing.
servo tabs.
a horn balance.

478) The fin helps to give

directional stability about the longitudinal axis.
directional stability about the normal axis.
longitudinal stability about the normal axis.

479) An elevator provides control about the

longitudinal axis.
lateral axis.
horizontal stabilizer.

480) A flying control mass balance weight

tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load.

481) The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to

trim the aircraft.
relieve stick loads.
give more feel to the control column.

482) Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved

by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.
by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.

483) Which of the following are primary control surfaces?

Elevators, ailerons, rudder.
Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs.
Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs.
484) A pylon structural member supports the
empennage.
engine.
centre section.

485) ATA chapter for Nacelles/Pylons is

54.
55.
53.

486) Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks

reduce tailplane download.
provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing.
provide wing bending relief.

487) The mounting bolts are tightened so the engine can move
fore and aft.
laterally, longitudinally, vertically.
torsionally.

488) Jet engines are usually mounted by

welded steel tubing.
forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.
aluminium castings.

489) What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?

1 lbs per minute per person.
0.5 lbs per minute per person.
10 lbs per minute per person.

490) Which of the following can be used on the ground?

Turbo fan.
Turbo brake.
Turbo compressor.

491) The function of the mass airflow control valve is to

ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded.
maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude.
ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude.

492) Air supplied for pressurization and conditioning is

hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box.
the same for both the above sources.
hottest from an engine compressor bleed.

493) In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is
variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector.
reasonably constant irrespective of altitude.
constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes.
494) In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by
the compressor of the gas turbine engine.
the engine exhaust heat.
the gas turbine exhaust.

495) How much air is required for the Flight Deck?

10 cubic feet/minute.
Whatever the captain sets.
10 lbs/minute.

496) The function of an air mass flow control valve is to

control the airflow out of the cabin.
ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded.
maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.

497) The function of spill valves is to control

the rate of pressurization.
cabin pressure differential.
air supply to the cabin.

498) The purpose of a mass flow controller is to

ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes.
allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude.
ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times.

499) The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is

to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere.
to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes.
to give a heating effect.

500) The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by
engine speed variations.
automatic control devices.
spill valves.

501) A spill valve opens

to prevent an excessive pressure difference.
to control the flow to the cabin.
to control the air from the cabin to outside.

502) A pack valve controls

air flow.
air temperature.
trim air.

503) In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to

ensure conditioned air is distributed.
ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.
ensure positive duct pressure is maintained.

504) If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded, the temperature of the air at the outlet of the
ACM compressor will
rise.
fall.
remain the same.

505) Cockpit ventilation is required to be

10 litres per crew member per minute.
10 cu/ft per crew member per minute.
selected by the crew.

506) A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature control

is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station.
involves modulating the pack valve.
all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch.

507) An advantage of using air cycle system over the vapour cycle system in aircraft is
both air conditioning and pressurization are obtained.
weight reduction by avoiding big tanks carrying freon gas.
less hazardous than vapour cycle system.

508) What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied
aircraft compartment?
0.005% (50 p.p.m)
0.02 % (200 p.p.m)
0.01 % (100 p.p.m)

509) The first component that the charged air enters from the IP compressor is
the bleed valve.
the check valve.
the pre-cooler.

510) The thermostatic valve sensing bulb is located just before

the evaporator.
the compressor.
the condenser.

511) A refrigerant is used in which of the following?

Vapour cycle.
Pneumatic pump.
Air cycle machine.

512) A water separator is located

upstream of the turbine.
downstream of turbine.
downstream of heat exchanger.

513) The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed
120 feet per minute.
40 feet per minute.
20 feet per minute.
514) In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler
is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour.
cools the vapour further to prevent slugging.
delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground.

515) In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by

restricting compressor inlet.
restricting compressor outlet.
restricting duct outlets.

516) Air conditioning systems

increase the temperature of air.
decrease the temperature of air.
increase and decrease the temperature of air.

517) An air cycle machine turbine

drives compressor to decrease temperature.
drives compressor to pressurise aircraft.
drives compressor to increase temperature.

518) Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM

will have decreased pressure and temperature.
no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor.
will have increased pressure and temperature.

519) Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?

At the inlet of the compressor.
At the inlet of the turbine.
At the outlet of the compressor.

520) Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?

At the inlet to the cabin.
At the outlet of the blower.
At the inlet of the blower.

521) When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?
At low altitudes.
It is not affected by altitude.
At high altitudes.

522) In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the
flow control valve.
TCV and mixer valve.
TCV.

523) In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions
50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air.
60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air.
40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air.

524) An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to

increase the air supply temperature.
provide an emergency ram air supply.
reduce the air supply temperature.

525) Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by

varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger.
controlling the water vapour in the supply.
regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.

526) In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by

adding heat to the pressurising air.
extracting heat from the pressurising air.
varying cabin pressure.

527) If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil leak will
not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard.
not contaminate the air.
contaminate the air.

528) A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by

driving the unit's compressor.
reducing pressure.
reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor.

529) Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from

driving the units compressor.
air supply heated by the pressurising process.
only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies.

530) A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be

lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating.
same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating.
a little more than ambient air temperature.

531) A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by

directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.
air supply to the cabin.
expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.

532) When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed
around inside the muffler, this is an
thermal heater.
exhaust heater.
combustion heater.

533) In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is
ram air from ambient conditions.
air bled directly from engine or through blower.
bled from cabin air supply duct..

534) Conditioned air is

temperature and pressure adjusted.
moisture removed.
oxygen added.

535) Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?

Flap position switches.
Undercarriage switches.
Throttle switches.

536) When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use
a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination.
ground trolley and clean air.
the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system.

537) The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of
60 percent.
30 percent.
20 percent.

538) In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from
gas turbine compressor bleed air.
gas turbine intake ram air.
ram air at the wing leading edge.

539) The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at
20ºC to 24ºC.
18ºC to 24ºC,
12ºC to 18ºC.

540) In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first

passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.
compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.
passes across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.

541) The humidity within a passenger cabin should

not be less than 60%.
be between 30% and 70%.
not be greater than 40%.

542) One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is

by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
by compression of ambient air across a turbine.
conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.

543) Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system

pre-heat the system to 100°F.
flush the system with a solvent.
apply suction to remove air and moisture.

544) The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than
25 ft/min.
300 ft/min.
200 ft/min.

545) An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to

ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the
fatigue life of the fuselage.
ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to
prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression.
maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.

546) In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by
reducing the pressure of a vapour.
changing a liquid into a vapour.
changing a vapour into a liquid.

547) Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold
air system flows to the
inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger.
turbine.
fan.

548) The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by

air bled from the main cabin supply duct.
ambient ram air.
engine bleed air or blower air.

549) The effective temperature of a cabin is given by

temperature and humidity.
temperature only.
temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load.

550) When the refrigerant dissipates heat in a vapour cycle system

the vapour converts to a liquid.
the liquid converts to a vapour.
the liquid sublimates.

551) International markings for air conditioning pipelines are

triangles.
rectangles.
dots.

552) A cabin humidifier is operated

on the ground.
at high altitudes.
at low altitudes.

553) A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will
not affect the charge air pressure.
decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air.
increase the pressure but decrease the temperature.
554) Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by
air/ground microswitches.
flap microswitches.
throttle microswitches.

555) Cabin outflow valves provide

outflow of cabin pressure and pressure warning.
outflow of cabin pressure and ventilation.
cabin positive pressure and negative (suction) pressure.

556) On the ramp, the pre-cooler obtains its cooling action by

fan inducement.
gas expansion.
ram air.

557) The electrical spill-valve operates on signals from

the venturi metering duct.
the latching solenoid.
the pressure controller.

558) During taxiing, the cabin pressure in a large aircraft is

below atmospheric pressure.
above atmospheric pressure.
at atmospheric pressure.

559) Cabin pressure is normally controlled by the rate of

air discharge.
climb or decent.
air supply.

560) As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must
increase.
stay the same.
decrease.

561) The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
the cabin pressure to decrease.
it w ill not effect on cabin pressure.
the cabin pressure to increase.

562) The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant

outlet and vary the inlet..
inlet and vary the outlet.
inlet and outlet.

563) The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control

the rate of pressurisation.
cabin differential pressure.
cabin air flow.

564) With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase
occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure controller will
let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.
have a constant mass flow.
let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.

565) A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is

500 ft. per min.
100 ft. per min.
300 ft. per min.

566) Before carrying out a ground pressure check,

turn on all instruments.
check all pitot and static lines are fitted.
set altimeter to QNH.

567) On touch -down of aircraft

the outflow valve will be shut.
the cabin pressure will be zero.
the outflow valve will be fully open.

568) When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc.
must be
all open.
removed.
all closed.

569) Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to

reset/disable the pressure controller.
disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve.
set QFE.

570) In the flightdeck of an unpressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows

aircraft altitude.
cabin differential pressure.
cabin pressure altitude.

571) Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between

sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin.
8,000ft and standard barometric pressure.
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.

572) If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft.

maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off.
cabin will not pressurise.
cabin remains at sea level until maximum differential.

573) During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down
cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.
aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens.
outflow valve opens immediately.
574) Cabin pressure is maintained by
controlling the output of the compressor.
controlling the supply of air to the cabin.
controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin.

575) Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is

equally important in descent and ascent.
most important in descent.
most important in ascent.

576) Cabin rate of climb is shown by

warning lights.
a special instrument.
a double scale on the aircraft.

577) During normal pressurized climb following take-off

the cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.
the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.
the differential pressure is constant.

578) Cabin differential pressure is the difference between

8,000 ft and sea level.
cabin pressure and ambient pressure.
I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude.

579) Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the

pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions.
altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure.
altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft.

580) When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for
constant mass flow.
all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.
pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.

581) The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a
pressure controller/dump valve combination.
discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination.
pressure controller/discharge valve combination.

582) Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a

cabin pressure gauge.
cabin altimeter.
cabin V.S.I.

583) Pressurisation control ensures that

the cabin is always maintained at sea level.
pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8,000 ft.
at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft.

584) 'Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be
cross connected.
connected.
disconnected,

585) If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the
discharge valve should be adjusted.
outward relief valve is inoperative.
pressure controller should be adjusted.

586) When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the
discharge valve opens.
mass flow ceases through the cabin.
discharge valve closes.

587) Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?
Yes
Occasionally
No

588) Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?
Pressure relief valve.
Pressure discharge valve.
Pressure regulator controller.

589) A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is
not effective in any way.
most desirable because it increases the air-flow.
most undesirable because of the drag created.

590) The principle of cabin pressurisation is

cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft.
whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude.
cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude.

591) When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is
maintained
the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced.
constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.
all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere.

592) Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by

regulating the position of the outflow valve.
regulating the position of the inward relief valve.
regulating the mass flow into the cabin.

593) If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat
switches overridden, then the outflow valve will normally
not operate.
remain closed.
open.
594) The cabin altitude is
the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level.

595) The cabin differential pressure is

the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.
the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.
the actual height of the aircraft above sea level.

596) The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by

the outflow valves.
the dump control valves.
the vent valves.

597) When air is pressurized, the oxygen content

increases.
remains constant.
decreases.

598) If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum
cabin pressure differential is not exceeded
sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude.
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet.
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level.

599) If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show
zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits.
a rate of climb.
a rate of descent.

600) During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'
the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10,000 ft is reached.
the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant.
the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.

601) Rate of change of cabin pressure is

selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller.
automatic.
selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve.

602) An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI at cruising altitude. If the ambient
pressure is 2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be
8.5 PSI.
11.4 PSI.
5.6 PSI.

603) Cabin differential is determined only by

the height at which the aircraft is flying.
the selected cabin height.
the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height.
604) If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization
system, the cabin pressure would
decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.
remain at ground level pressure.
decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.

605) A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce

engine noise coming through the ventilators.
the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system.
the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system.

606) To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly
when cabin pressure is decreasing.
during descent.
during ascent.

607) If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization ensures that

sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin.
the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached.
the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.

608) The pressure controller activates

the spill valve.
the blower or compressor.
the cabin discharge valve.

609) When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the pressurization control
panel may be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent
inward relief valve operation.
pressure controller hunting.
safety valve operation.

610) The cabin rate of climb is shown

on a specific indicator.
as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a gauge being used.
by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator.

611) A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to

collect any rain accompanying the ram air.
extract surplus water from the charge air.
extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere.

612) Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of

cabin mass air flow.
inward relief valve position.
outflow valve position.

613) Ditching control is used for

closing all valves and inlets.
rapid aircraft depressurisation.
deploying life rafts.

614) Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding
0.16 p.s.i.
1.2 p.s.i.
0.5 p.s.i.

615) Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by
inwards relief valve.
cabin safety relief valves.
spill valves.

616) A negative differential pressure is prevented by

a blow off valve.
an inward relief valve.
a spill valve.

617) On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how
is the heater reset?
After cooling below 300°C it auto resets.
On ground only by engineer.
After it cools the pilot resets.

618) Ditching control is used to

maintain cabin pressure at sea level
close the outflow valves.
achieve rapid depressurisation.

619) A safety valve will normally relieve at

lower differential pressure than the discharge valve.
higher differential pressure than the discharge valve.
negative differential pressure.

620) Inward vent valves will operate when

depressurising after descent.
cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.
aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude.

621) An inward relief valve will operate

after an aircraft has landed, to restore ground level conditions is the cabin.
when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure.
when climbing with pressurization 'OFF'.

622) Inward vent valves are fitted to

limit positive differentials.
increase ventilation.
limit negative differentials.

623) An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of
an aircraft is not subjected to
too high an internal pressure.
forces which would cause the aircraft to explode.
a high negative differential pressure.

624) Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting
inwards relief valves.
airport altitude selectors.
safety relief valve.

625) A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by

altitude sensor.
cabin over pressure relief valve.
bellows in the outflow valve.

626) To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?

Open
Both position
Closed

627) If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum

an inward relief valve opens.
a warning light comes on in the cockpit.
compressor delivery is automatically boosted.

628) Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft

to achieve maximum pressure differential.
to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater.
to allow controlled pressure during descent.

629) The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of
-0.5 PSI.
+0.5 PSI.
+9.25 PSI.

630) Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?
VSI
Machmeter
ASI

631) A standby ADI uses

a vertical gyro.
a space gyro.
an earth gyro.

632) Indicator glasses are 'bloomed' to

reduce reflections.
minimise parallex error.
render dust unable to settle.

633) Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using

position pick-offs.
spring actuators.
torque sensors.

634) A standby compass has a pair of magnets for adjustment. They are initially placed
parallel with each other.
90 degrees to each other.
45 degrees to each other.

635) Component P affects

coefficient B.
coefficient A.
coefficient C.

636) A vacuum mercury gauge reads 5 in. This pressure is

above zero pressure.
below ambient pressure.
above ambient pressure.

637) A gyro spinning on a vertical axis will detect the aircraft's

yaw and pitch.
yaw only.
roll and pitch.

638) An artificial horizon uses

a directional gyro.
a vertical gyro.
a rate gyro.

639) Vibration levels are indicated to the flight crew in

relative amplitude.
phons.
db.

640) The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires

checking the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures.
checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures.
ensuring the target contacts the sensor.

641) How do you detect and locate a leak in a pitot-static system?

Isolate the component and perform a systematic check, starting from the instrument.
Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection method.
Disconnect each line in turn and perform a pressure leak test.

642) Following replacement of a separately mounted compass corrector box, a compass calibration
swing will be required
without exception.
only if initial variation is greater than 5 degrees.
onlyif the correctors are not matched to the ones being removed.

643) A +/. symbol on a compass system indicates

magnetic deviation and compass card are in alignment.
compass card and directional gyro are being synchronised.
failure of the compass system.

644) During climb the pressure in the VSI capsule will be

equal to the pressure in the case.
greater than the pressure in the case.
lower than the pressure in the case.

645) Corrections to a mechanical ASI are for

square law and temperature.
square law.
square law error and temperature.

646) Two fundamental properties of a gyro are

wander and rigidity.
rigidity and precession.
precession and wander.

647) Vertical gyros are limited to 85 degrees movement in pitch to prevent

gyro topple.
gimbal lock.
pitch overshoot.

648) A tacho generator pointer is moved by

a drag cup coupling.
an AC servo motor.
a torque synchro receiver.

649) An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has a case leak. The altimeter will
over read.
not be affected.
under read.

650) Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
Never
At sea level in standard conditions (ISA).
When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

651) The earth's magnetic dip affects a standby compass

above its pivot only.
equally above and below its pivot.
below its pivot only.

652) An electrical gyro has usually a speed of

10,000 RPM.
5,000 RPM.
20,000 RPM.

653) A flux valve is used to

align the directional gyro with the earth's magnetic field.
align the standby compass with the earth's magnetic field.
drive the HSI.
654) The decision height light will illuminate when
the decision height is selected.
the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height.
the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height.

655) In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived from
indicated air speed and total air temperature.
indicated airspeed and altitude.
pitot and static pressures.

656) What instrument connects to pitot pressure?

Both the airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator.
The vertical speed indicator.
The airspeed indicator.

657) In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the
Altitude Module.
Mach Module.
Indicated Airspeed Module.

658) In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from

static air pressure.
pitot air pressure.
pitot air pressure and total air temperature.

659) In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from
pitot pressure only.
static pressure only.
pitot and static air pressure.

660) The Tx and Rx rotors of a control synchro are 90 degrees shifted. The output is
zero.
high.
low.

661) In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the
Mach information and
Static Air Pressure.
Pitot Air Pressure.
Total Air Temperature.

662) Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at

2 500 ft radio alt.
10 000 ft radio alt.
1 000 ft radio alt.

663) On the HSI, the heading is 'valid' when the HDG flag is
in view.
green.
out of view.
664) When testing using a thermocouple test set
no power is required.
a serviceable battery is required.
a 28 VDC supply is required.

665) What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?

10,000 ft
2,500 ft
500 ft

666) A positive coefficient A adjustment of a compass will give a heading

increase on East/West headings.
increase on all headings.
decrease on all headings.

667) A tacho generator has

its own independent electric system.
28 V applied.
115 V applied.

668) What could cause fluctuations in instruments?

Water in static line.
Static blocked.
Pitot blocked.

669) A Compass swing would be required after replacing a

compass Amplifier.
H.S.I.
compass sensing unit.

670) On a turn and slip indicator, the needle points to the right, and the ball is to the left. The
aircraft is
over-banked, slipping into the turn.
over-banked, slipping out of the turn.
under-banked, skidding out of the turn.

671) True airspeed computed from IAS takes into account

radar altitude.
temperature only.
temperature and altitude.

672) For a given IAS, with an increase in altitude, TAS will

increase.
decrease.
remain the same.

673) Where is the attitude director gyro stator situated?

Inside the rotor.
Underneath the rotor.
Around the rotor.
674) What is the error in the lubber line called?
Coefficiant B
Coefficiant P
Index error

675) An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:

Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on.
Aircraft in the air with both engines running.
Aircraft on the ground with one engine running.

676) Millibar is used to express what kind of pressure?

Pitot pressure.
Ambient pressure.
Barometric pressure.

677) The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass must not be more than
5°.
3°.
1°.

678) Compass base classification Class 2 is periodically re-surveyed every

1 year.
5 years.
2 years.

679) The aircraft heading is 270°. The magnetic compass deviation is -1°. The pilot should fly
271°.
270°.
269°.

680) Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when
carrying out a pitot-static leak check?
Air speed indicator.
Altimeter.
Vertical speed indicator.

681) The operation of the Angle of Attack indicator is used to detect airflow direction relative to
the angle of attack of the aircraft.
the pitch angle of the aircraft.
the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

682) The runway heading is

QFU.
QDM.
QDR.

683) Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of

sin of latitude.
cos of latitude.
tan of latitude.
684) A machmeter works
always except on the ground.
above 10,000 ft.
always.

685) Radio marker information is displayed on

ADI.
EICAS.
HSI.

686) Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to

move probe down.
move probe laterally.
move probe up.

687) Where is alpha angle used?

Accelerometer.
IRS.
Angle of attack.

688) Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?

Inner gimbal
Rotating vane
Outer gimbal

689) On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would

fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve
was removed from.
carry out a check swing after fitment.
align the aircraft onto its 'A' coefficient so that no error is induced.

690) In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
1013.25
QFE
QNH

691) Vibration monitoring signals are sent

via a signal conditioner to the gauge.
via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge.
direct to the gauge.

692) The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from
ambient and minus.
zero and positive.
zero and minu.

693) A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to
prevent FOD ingestion.
dampen sudden pressure changes.
allow for calibration.
694) The hot junction of thermocouple is
in the combustion chamber.
aft of combustion chamber.
in the instrument.

695) When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?
Rad. alt. goes out of view.
Error warning in view.
Rad. alt. flag in view.

696) Pitot tubes are heated

by kinetic heating.
by compressed bleed air.
electrically.

697) The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is

above ambient pressure.
below ambient pressure.
above zero pressure.

698) What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?
Red, blue, yellow.
Yellow, cyan, magenta.
Red, blue, green.

699) Alpha vane signal could be fed to ___________ _____________ when close to stall.
thrust levers
flap position
fast/slow switch

700) When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a
quick release disconnect connection is disturbed
a full test of the system should be carried out.
the allowances for the system should be halved.
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.

701) For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system
would be
+/- 500 feet for the system overall.
+/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors.
+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error.

702) The HSI provides information on

VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar.
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude.
VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude.

703) The sensing element of the flux valve

remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.
aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns.
aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised.

704) In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees. The coefficient C is
+2 degrees.
0 degrees.
-2 degrees.

705) When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is
1 degrees.
3 degrees.
5 degrees.

706) The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
spirit level.
an inclinometer.
micrometer.

707) If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will
increase.
not be affected.
decrease.

708) The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is

a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free stream velocity to zero velocity.
a layer of air which is moving at free stream speed.
a thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary.

709) The transition point located on the wing is the point where
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow.
airflow starts separating from the wing.
the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow.

710) The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load
only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.
only when the rudder is moved.
if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.

711) What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?

Displacement
Tied down
Space

712) A radio altimeter system can be self tested

on the ground only.
both on the ground only and in the air.
in the air only.

713) The apparent wander for directional gyros is

dependant on longitude.
maximum at the pole.
compensated by applying a constant torque.
714) The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for
drift.
toppling.
erection.

715) Random drift of a gyro is caused by

gyro friction and unbalance.
error in roll when aircraft is turning.
aircraft turning with an error in roll.

716) Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence
when 90 degrees apart.
when parallel to each other
when 45 degrees apart

717) With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge reads just above 1
Transmitter is unserviceable.
This is normal.
Gauge requires re-calibration.

718) Coefficient A is adjusted

at 360 degrees.
at 270 degrees.
on any heading.

719) With an aircraft which has more than one compass system
both are adjusted on each heading.
master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only.
master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.

720) A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?
So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass.
20 inches.
24 inches.

721) Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?

Lower.
Upper.
Both.

722) On the CWP, what does amber indicate?

Present status.
Warning.
Cautionary info.

723) Which instrument shows Decision Height?

ECAM.
ADI.
HSI.
724) Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?
INS.
EICAS.
Pitot static probes.

725) When power is switched off, the gimbal brake

stops outer gimbal.
restricts outer gimbal.
restricts inner gimbal.

726) On an EADI the command bars show the

required flight path compared with horizon.
required flight path compared with aircraft position.
required flight path compared to planned flight path.

727) The airdata computer inputs to

mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI.
altimeter, FMC, secondary radar.
cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter.

728) What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?

2.5°.
6°.
10°.

729) How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?
As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb).
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an
evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground
directly below the aircraft.

730) In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and
where is it normally fitted?
A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft.
Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips.
Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft

731) An RMI has inputs from VOR and

a remote compass input.
an azimuth gyro.
no other sources.

732) In a modern HSI, the displays are

course and direction.
direction and attitude.
course and attitude.

733) At what height does the rising runway appear?

300 ft.
200ft.
500ft.

734) An H on the EHSI indicates

DME hold.
VOR hold.
ILS approach.

735) Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs

slower.
same speed.
faster.

736) A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from

compressor outlet.
compressor inlet.
reservoir.

737) What is apparent drift due to?

Errors when aircraft banking.
Earths rotation.
Gyro pivot friction.

738) An aircraft airspeed indicator has

pitot to the capsule.
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule.
static to the capsule.

739) Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.

pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view.
pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored.
continues to indicate but with a warning flag.

740) How does a machmeter work?

True airspeed / indicated airspeed.
True airspeed and speed of sound.
Indicated airspeed / temperature.

741) When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings
a leak check is always required.
a leak check is not required.
a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.

742) The flux detector element

changes heading with the heading of the aircraft.
changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed.
gives heading with respect to magnetic north.

743) If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will
oscillate.
be sluggish.
go hard over.
744) The needle of a resolver is connected to
two coils and an electromagnet.
two coils only.
two coils and a permanent magnet.

745) If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude

this has no influence on compass readings.
this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying.
this is due to insufficient de-aeration.

746) A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is correct?
No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old.
A compass swing must be performed.
The swing can be performed at a later date.

747) A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To fly a heading of 180 degrees the pilot must
steer
181 degrees.
180 degrees.
179 degrees.

748) How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?

Servomotor
A measuring device
Torque synchro

749) In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?

Compensation is not required.
Hair spring
Square-Law compensation

750) What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
No effect
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.

751) A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by

increasing the rotor speed.
decreasing the mass of the rotor.
decreasing the rotor speed.

752) If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession

increases with a lower rotor speed.
increases with a higher rotor speed.
is unaffected by changes in rotor speed.

753) Random drift of a gyro is caused by

unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro.
aircraft turning with an error in roll.
rotation of the earth.
754) A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of
increased reaction of the air from a bisected port.
increased reaction of the air from a fully open port.
decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port.

755) During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept
erect in pitch by a
mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal
rings.
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore
and aft axis.
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the
athwartships axis.

756) The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected
when the fast erection button is pressed.
during turns.
for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'.

757) The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to

give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn.
give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn.
to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn.

758) The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after
switching on because
overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur.
the normal erection switch contact will burn out.
excessive hunting will take place.

759) Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to

bearing friction.
unbalance of the gimbals.
the effect of the earth's rotation.

760) The erection system on a directional gyroscope has

a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal.
a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal.
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal.

761) In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves
would be increased if the
spring tension was increased.
rotor speed decreases.
angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases.

762) The Turn and Slip indicator employs

an azimuth gyro.
a vertical gyro.
a rate gyro.
763) In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be
it would have no effect.
it would under read.
it would over read.

764) How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?
By a flux take-off device.
By a switch on the outer gimbal.
By a switch on the inner gimbal.

765) Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85º?

To prevent outer gimbal rotating.
To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly.
To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.

766) The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately
2,400 rpm.
22,500 rpm.
4,200 rpm.

767) In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to

15 sine longitude.
15 cosine latitude.
15 sine latitude.

768) The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon

change in inductance to operate.
change in voltage applied to operate.
change in resistance to operate.

769) Precession of a gyro depends on

both moment of inertia AND angular velocity of the rotor.
moment of inertia of the rotor only.
angular velocity of the rotor only.

770) Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on

angular velocity of the rotor.
moment of inertia of the rotor.
moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor.

771) Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate

faster.
the same speed.
slower.

772) Gyro rigidity is proportional to

mass, and radius of mass from spin axis.
mass and speed.
mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis.
773) Gyro precessional force is
inversely proportional to the applied force.
proportional to the square of the applied force.
directly proportional to applied force.

774) The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately

15,000 rpm.
4,200 rpm.
22,000 rpm.

775) A V.S.I. is connected to

vacuum.
static pressure.
pitot pressure.

776) With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates
100 ft/minute rate of climb.
1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.
1,000 ft/minute rate of descent.

777) After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended
that, to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument
three minutes should elapse.
fifteen minutes should elapse.
seven minutes should elapse.

778) The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to
cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.
reduce compressibility error.
minimize errors caused by leaks in the system.

779) Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?

Running gyro at high speed.
Running gyro at low speed.
Inverting the gyro.

780) In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate

horizontal to left.
vertically up.
vertically down.

781) On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule

lags the case pressure.
leads the case pressure.
is the same as case pressure.

782) A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level
flight, cause the instrument to indicate
zero.
a rate of descent.
a rate of climb.
783) When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until
plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force.
plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.
as long as the force is applied.

784) An artificial horizon has

the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally.
the inner gimbal pivoted laterally.
the inner gimbal pivoted vertically.

785) A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to

1 inch Hg.
14.7 PSI.
100 millibar.

786) In the directional gyro

the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally.
the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically.
the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally.

787) The millibar is a unit of

atmospheric temperature.
pressure altitude.
barometric pressure.

788) In the Turn and Slip indicator

the spin axis is longitudinal.
the spin axis is vertical.
the spin axis is lateral.

789) In an altimeter, the

capsule is evacuated and sealed.
capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke.
inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure.

790) The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in

hundreds of feet per minute.
miles per hour (mph).
knots (kts).

791) A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from
a pitot head.
a tapping from the induction manifold.
a venturi.

792) A rate two turn is

180 degrees per minute.
360 degrees per minute.
90 degrees per minute.
793) The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is
less accurate.
more accurate.
more instantaneous.

794) Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a

U-spring acting on the capsule.
bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule.
balance weight.

795) The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is
in level flight.
climbing.
descending.

796) After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to

blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply.
carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).
calibrate the instrument concerned.

797) If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection,
application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate climb.
altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.

798) A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause
a pitch error and gyro topple.
a continual precession in roll.
a roll error and gyro topple.

799) A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a

rate 2 turn.
rate 1 turn.
rate 3 turn.

800) A pitot or static leak check is carried out

whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed.
only when an instrument is changed.
only when a leak is suspected.

801) The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale
is
212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively.
180 deg. and 100 deg. respectively.
100 deg. and 32 deg. respectively.

802) A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to

32°C.
15°C.
14.69°C.
803) Aircraft heading (HDG) is
the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
the angle between True North and the actual track.
the angle between True North and the desired track.

804) Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured

in degrees from the aircraft's heading.
in degrees from the desired track.
in degrees from True North.

805) Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to

reduce gimbal nutation.
prevent gimbal lock.
limit the outer gimbal movement.

806) The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is
by a control synchro.
by a differential synchro.
by a torque synchro.

807) Agonic lines link places of

equal variation.
different variation.
zero variation.

808) Position error is caused by

pitot head position.
instrument location in the instrument panel.
mechanical imperfections in an instrument.

809) To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin

add 273 degrees.
add 112 degrees.
use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32.

810) Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either

eddy current, variable spring or moving iron.
viscous, eddy current or air dash pot.
viscous, eddy current or variable spring.

811) Electrical driven gyros are

rotated faster than air driven gyros.
rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros.
rotated slower than air driven gyros.

812) In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This
will give
full scale deflection.
no scale deflection.
mid scale deflection.
813) With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical
gyro will cause the
inner ring to move.
outer ring to move.
outer and inner ring to move.

814) When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case

will cause the aneroid capsule to contract.
will cause the aneroid capsule to expand.
will not affect the aneroid capsule.

815) The supply of Desynn indicating system

is alternating current at 400 c/s.
is alternating current at 50 c/s.
is direct current.

816) A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at
airfield level (QFE)
indicates that the instrument is unserviceable.
indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A.
standards.
indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea level.

817) After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to
the atmosphere by
venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.
removing the static connector from its static vent.
removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes.

818) An altimeter is operated

by the vacuum system.
by the static system.
by the pitot system.

819) What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?

Corrects for capsule elasticity.
Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring.
Compensates for change in density.

820) Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?

Vertical
Horizontal
Both vertical and horizontal

821) The capsule in an altimeter responds to

differential pressure.
gauge pressure.
absolute pressure.

822) The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the

inner gimbal.
rotor.
instrument case.

823) True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of

airspeed and temperature.
airspeed and altitude.
mach number and temperature.

824) The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is

it does not require pitot/static pressure.
it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
it does not require warming up.

825) For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
remains the same.
increases.
decreases.

826) The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a

directional gyro.
rate gyro.
vertical gyro.

827) A desiccant used in the storage of instruments

is sodium-bicarbonate.
is silica-gel.
is anti-freeze oil.

828) Bourdon Tubes have

toroidal cross section.
circular cross section.
oval cross section.

829) In a Bourdon tube

one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere.
both ends sealed.
one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source.

830) Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the

Boyle's Law.
Brahm's press principle.
Charle's Law.

831) The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is

anti-freeze oil.
kerosene.
castor-oil.

832) The distance readout on an HSI is

dialled in by the pilot.
from the aircraft ATC system.
from the aircraft DME system.

833) A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as
a rate gyro.
a tied gyro.
an earth gyro.

834) Pressure may be expressed in

force per unit area.
force per unit volume.
weight or mass.

835) What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?
To reduce 'backlash'.
To act a controlling force.
To return the pointer to zero.

836) The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's
attitude rate gyros.
directional gyros.
vertical gyros.

837) One dot VOR deviation represents

5°.
1¼°.
2 miles.

838) An instrument used for measuring negative pressures

has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case.
cannot be of the Bourdon tube type.
has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated.

839) An absolute pressure gauge measures

the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure.
pressures extremely accurately.
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.

840) Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to
absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure.

841) The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to
an ILS station.
a VOR station.
an ADF station.

842) A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of
absolute pressure, this represents
1,014.7 p.s.i.
1,000 p.s.i.
985.3 p.s.i.

843) To fill a Dead Weight Tester

screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir.
remove platform and fill cylinder.
screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir.

844) With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter
will read
the airfield height.
off scale.
zero.

845) When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection

the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.
the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale.
the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale

846) The HSI compass card is positioned by the

compass system.
heading select knob.
aircraft ADF system.

847) The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the

cube root of the speed.
square root of the speed.
square of the speed.

848) The supply to an A.S.I.

is static pressure only.
is pitot pressure only.
are pitot and static pressure.

849) The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is
climbing.
accelerating.
decelerating.

850) The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to
the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations.
the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers.
the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations.

851) If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be
equal to the ground speed.
greater than the ground speed.
less than the ground speed.

852) If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground
speed is
450 knots.
350 knots.
400 knots.

853) To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a

ranging bar and screws are fitted.
bi-metal corrector is employed.
10 to 1 gearing is used.

854) A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of

sound relative to the aircraft's altitude.
the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed.
the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level.

855) The moving element of a ratiometer has

one coil.
three coils.
two coils.

856) When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the
instrument case.
pressure chamber.
capsule stack.

857) If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was
1020, the altimeter should read
positive altitude.
below zero feet (negative altitude).
zero feet.

858) An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. After passing
over the station, on the same course, the indications will be
300° and TO.
120° and FROM.
300° and FROM.

859) The command bars in a flight director system indicate

the required path with respect to actual path.
true horizon.
the actual path with respect to required path.

860) When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the
vicinity
The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window.
precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt.
precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type.

861) On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is
the magnetic bearing.
the complimentary bearing.
the relative bearing.

862) A compass is made aperiodic by

using fluid.
tying it to the case.
locking.

863) Isogonal lines link places of

different variation.
equal variation.
zero variation.

864) In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by

displacement of erection control device.
bottom lightness of inner gimbals.
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.

865) If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?
662 knots
550 knots
278 knots

866) If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?
293 knots
296 knots
304 knots

867) In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by

displacement of erection control device.
bottom lightness of inner gimbals.
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.

868) A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of

an orifice.
both an orifice and a capillary.
a capillary.

869) Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's
both lateral and longitudinal axis.
lateral axis.
longitudinal axis.

870) The manual VOR input is for

the radio magnetic indicator.
the course deviation bar.
the ADI.

871) After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the resultant
correction is known as
correct heading.
residual deviation.
magnetic heading.

872) Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by

mercury switch on outer ring.
series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor.
an adjustment nut on inner ring.

873) If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would

carry out a new compass swing.
set it up the same as the one removed.
set it to zero datum.

874) In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C is
-2 degrees.
0 degrees.
+2 degrees.

875) Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of

approach to or deviation from selected altitude.
altitude information.
selection of altitude.

876) Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is
+/- 500ft system tolerance.
+/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.

877) Machmeters work on

static.
pitot and static.
pitot.

878) An aircraft with Mach warning will warn

when M(base=crit) is reached.
when Mach 1 is exceeded.
when envelope limit is reached.

879) An HSI provides what information?

VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar.
VOR, map, attitude, ILS.
VOR, ILS, plan, attitude.

880) Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by

misalignment of pitot head.
compression of air in the tube at high speed.
blockage in the pitot tube.

881) The earth's magnetic field is

horizontal across the earth.
vertical at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic equator.
vertical across the earth.
882) The magnets in a compass corrector micro-adjuster are
adjusted for coefficient A.
always set to the neutral position.
adjusted to obtain the neutral position.

883) There is an air bubble in the compass:

The fluid is not aerated properly.
It is due to high altitude.
It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid.

884) A flux detector output is a

A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage.
rectified D.C. voltage.
A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage.

885) Primary Radar is

reflected signal from aircraft's own radar.
for ground use only.
interrogation of aircraft's transponder.

886) The general function of the ATC is to

interrogate other aircraft which reply with an identification signal.
interrogate the ground station which replies with an identification.
reply with an identification signal after being interrogated by a ground station.

887) ACARS is primarily used for communicating with

maintenance base.
other aircraft.
air traffic control.

888) SELCAL is used to

alert ground stations.
alert other aircraft.
monitor ground signals.

889) HF communication frequency is in the range

23 - 30 kHz.
3-30 MHz.
108 - 118 MHz.

890) The polythene sleeving over a HF antenna is to stop

lightning strike.
precipitation static.
moisture ingress and corrosion.

891) The term HIRF means

High Interference Radiated Fields.
High Intensity Radiated Fields.
High Intensity Radio Fields.
892) When an autopilot is Fail Passive,
the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot.
the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft.
the autoland can continue.

893) The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar is

frequency of returns.
percentage of emitted signal returned.
time taken to receive returns.

894) On an aircraft communication system, HIRF interference is most prominent

during transmissions only.
at specific frequencies.
across the whole frequency spectrum.

895) What clock is used in a GPS satellite?

Clock with battery
Atomic
Quartz

896) With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path is disturbed by the pilot, the course will
be corrected by the
autopilot panel.
flight director input.
normal flight control.

897) An HF coupling is used to match the

receiver.
boom-set (headphones and mic).
aerial.

898) On an aircraft's navigation display, distance measuring equipment gives

slant range to beacon.
height and range to beacon.
ground range to beacon.

899) On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the
EHSI.
EADI.
EHSI & EADI.

900) On a flight management system, the database is updated every

1 Month.
2 Months.
3 Months.

901) In a GPS system what type of clock is in the receiver?

Atomic
Quartz
Battery
902) What is the purpose of the autopilot?
To relieve the flight crew of their duties during long haul flights.
To reduce the flight crew's workload.
To enable the aircraft to land in bad weather.

903) On the ATC radio readability scale, what is satisfactory reception?

1
3
5

904) An ADF system includes

a sense antenna.
both a sense and loop antenna.
a loop antenna.

905) A category 2 landing RVR is

400 m.
200 m.
800 m.

906) Autopilot servo brake is energised

to actuate on.
to actuate off.
at the same time as the clutch.

907) Frequencies used for a Microwave Landing System are

5 - 5.1 KHz.
5 - 5.1 GHz.
5 - 5.1 MHz.

908) Where is the antenna located for watching TV?

On the fuselage roof.
In the stabiliser tip.
Near the wingtips, away from the cabin.

909) Which category are hand mikes considered essential?

Light aircraft.
Aerial work aircraft.
Heavy passenger aircraft.

910) Emergency frequency is

121.5 MHz.
123.5 MHz.
125.5 MHz.

911) In a servo loop, an LVDT provides

rate feedback.
either rate or position feedback.
position feedback.

912) 121.5 MHz is what frequency?

ILS
VHF
VOR

913) Transmitter aerials radiate

electromagnetic energy only.
electrostatic and electromagnetic energy.
electrostatic energy only.

914) 112.1 MHz is what frequency?

UHF
ILS
VOR

915) When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
Heading Hold
ALT Hold
VOR

916) Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning system, go in order of (lowest to highest):
TCAS, GPWS, windshear.
GPWS, windshear, TCAS.
TCAS, windshear, GPWS.

917) On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?

Polyurethane
Not cellulose
Cellulose only

918) Full scale deflection of the glideslope pointer from the centreline is
0.5°.
2.5°.
3°.

919) 111.2 MHz is

VHF.
VOR.
ILS.

920) IRS obtains basic position information by

integrating the accelerometer output.
integrating twice the accelerometer output.
differentiating the accelerometer output.

921) TCAS antenna is a

omnidirectional blade type L-band.
phased-array L-band.
directional antenna.

922) MLS frequency is

6000-6100 MHz.
5050-6050 MHz.
5000-6000 MHz.

923) Which colour on the weather radar screen does the pilot avoid fly-through in order not to
encounter strong thunderstorm and heavy rain?
Magenta
Yellow
Blue

924) GPWS is
W-band.
X-band.
L-band.

925) When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna

do not use cellulose paint.
use cellulose paint.
use any paint.

926) To minimize cross cable interference

place filter in power supply.
run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles.
run cables as single bundle.

927) Which 30Hz signal from a VOR ground station is frequency modulated?
The reference signal, which is constant.
The ident tone.
The variable signal.

928) How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency.
Via the G/S selector knob.
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency.

929) How many times does the INS (inertial navigation system) integrate the acceleration signal it
receives from the accelerometers to get the distance the aircraft has flown?
Twice
Three times
Once

930) Radar altimeter uses what frequency?

1200 MHz
2300 MHz
4000 MHz

931) Alert and Decision Heights differ in that

the Alert height is based on ILS equipment and Decision height is based on the RVR.
the Decision height is based on ILS equipment and Alert height is based on the RVR.
the Alert height is based on aircraft characteristics and Decision height is based on the airport facilities.

932) DME compares what for measurement of slant distance?

Pulse transmission and return echo.
Pulse pairs.
Aircraft range and height.

933) A TCAS blade aerial is

a 1-band omnidirectional array.
unidirectional.
a 1-band directional array.

934) FM improvements affect what system?

VHF, VOR and ILS
ADF, VOR and ILS
ADF, VHF and ILS

935) How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?

Three
Four
Two

936) Digital weather radar is on map mode. What happens?

Display alters
Switches antennas
Antenna tilts down

937) ACARs sends information from base to aircraft via

printer.
FMS.
voice

938) What does 7700 indicate on an ATC control panel?

Hijack
Emergency
Radio Failure

939) The number of VHF frequency channels is

360.
720.
760.

940) In VHF comms, with 8.33 kHz spacing, how many channels are used?
720
350
2280

941) In an INS, vertical acceleration is calculated by

an accelerometer and laser gyro.
an accelerometer.
a laser gyro.

942) The autopilot is instructed by the

GPS.
FMC.
Flight Director.

943) Inertia is
the result of a gyro running at normal speed.
the plane of rotation of a gyro.
the property that resists any force that tends to change the plane of rotation of a gyro.

944) VOR signals are sent to the

Roll channel.
Pitch channel.
Yaw channel.

945) ILS marker beacon lights are

blue, amber, white.
green, blue, amber.
blue, white, green.

946) 111.1 MHz is

a VOR frequency.
a HF frequency.
an ILS frequency.

947) An autopilot PFCU servo brake is

energised at the same time as the clutch.
energised on.
energised off.

948) The aviation distress frequency is

121.5 MHz.
121.5 kHZ.
122.5 MHz.

949) A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to

100 ft.
2000 ft.
2500 ft.

950) 112.1 MHz is

a VOR frequency.
an ADF frequency.
an ILS frequency.

951) What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?

Low Frequency
High Frequency
Very High Frequency

952) Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve?

VOR
DME
Loran C

953) A GPS satellite will come into view

10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.

954) Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to

private aircraft.
aerial work and transport category aircraft.
transport category aircraft only.

955) The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is

to allow the pilot to override.
to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway.
to limit the range of control movement.

956) Track mode of an RA is operational

from 0 to 2,500 feet.
from 1.0 to 100 feet.
above 10,000 feet.

957) How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?

1
2
3

958) Wavelength of X band radar is

5 cm.
3 cm.
10 m.

959) Precipitation static is caused by

HF radiation.
skin to air particle collisions.
lightning strikes.

960) HF aerials have weak points designed at

both ends.
the back end.
the front end.

961) What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?

1030 MHz
1090 MHz
1000 MHz

962) CAT 2 RVR limit is

1200 ft.
10,000 ft.
1000 ft.
963) With autopilot engaged, which control surface is inhibited?
Ailerons
THS
Elevators

964) When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will
not adjust the THS angle of incidence, it will remains the same.
increase the angle of incidence of the THS.
decrease the angle of incidence of the THS.

965) In autopilot, the control column

moves in pitch and roll.
does not move.
moves in pitch.

966) A 'hyperbolic' system is

ILS.
LORAN C.
VOR.

967) When is autothrottle disengaged?

On landing.
On selection of thrust reverse.
After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency.

968) In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause
column to move and trim system to move.
column will not move and trim system will move.
column to move but trim system not to move.

969) In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?

Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.
Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second.
Number of pulses per signal.

970) CAT 2 RVR limit is

800 m.
200 m.
400 m.

971) How many programs can a FMC store?

Two. One active and one standby.
Two. Both active.
One current.

972) EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at

cruise.
take off.
approach.
973) How does an IRS calculate velocity?
Differentiation of laser gyro.
Integration of accelerometers.
Double integration of accelerometers.

974) In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?

Localizer
Glideslope
VOR

975) Glideslope controls autopilot in

pitch.
yaw.
roll.

976) Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the
atmosphere at
high voltage levels.
low current levels.
all voltage levels.

977) What is B-RNAV?

Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint.
Indicates true airspeed.
Ability to store 6 waypoints.

978) An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based
transmitters
DME, ILS, ADF.
VOR, ILS.
RA, ADF, ILS.

979) What is the wavelength of C band radar?

3 cm.
17 m.
7 cm.

980) What is primary radar?

Land based.
Radar that gives height and position.
Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse.

981) What is ILS marker beacon frequency?

50 MHz
75 MHz
100 MHz

982) TCAS is selected

by a switch, by pilot on selector panel.
automatically.
not available in cruise.
983) The manual VOR input is for
course deviation bar.
glideslope.
RMI.

984) The mach trim is initiated by

the autopilot motor.
a PCU.
an electric motor.

985) What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?

White
Blue
Amber

986) A GPS system is formed from

satellites, processing unit, display unit.
receiver, processing unit, interactive console.
space, control, user.

987) For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it
must be connected to the right side.
can be connected to either side.
must be connected to the left side.

988) Laser gyros are

aligned to the aircraft structure.
aligned to the true north.
aligned to the magnetic north.

989) Laser gyros

have rotational parts.
do not have rotational parts.
have no movable parts.

990) A radio coupled approach is

localiser first, followed by glideslope.
glideslope first, followed by localiser.
in any order.

991) Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel

for turn command back-up.
for turn coordination.
for yaw damping compensation.

992) The rate of G/S warning in GPWS

changes with radio altitude.
does not change.
changes with barometric altitude.
993) What frequency are VOR and ILS?
VHF
HF
UHF

994) A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for

marker beacons.
HF communications.
weather radar.

995) An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. What
happens to autothrottle?
Advances throttles.
Stays armed for go around in an emergency.
Automatically switches off.

996) Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned

on right side of control wheel.
on left side of control wheel.
on side of control wheel furthest from throttles.

997) ILS and VOR operate in which range

UHF.
VHF.
HF.

998) FMC secondary flight-plan is selected

in the air by the pilot.
by calendar date monthly.
on the ground by the pilot.

999) GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give
amber warning.
red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.
red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps, throttle'.

1000) The components of an ILS are

a localizer and a glide slope.
a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.
a localizer and the marker beacons.

1001) In ILS, the glideslope provides

distance checks.
lateral steering.
vertical steering.

1002) If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will
show
fly right.
the flag.
fly left.
1003) Autopilot will operate above what altitude?
750 ft.
1000 ft.
500 ft.

1004) A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses

ADF.
VOR.
glideslope.

1005) EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in
approach.
cruise.
take off.

1006) An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for

aircraft type.
location.
magnetic orientation.

1007) How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?

FMC via CDU.
BITE.
Dataplate on the FMC.

1008) GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:

Pressure altimeter.
Radio altimeter.
Air speed indicator.

1009) INS has mercury switches on

outer gimbal.
inner gimbal.
all gimbals.

1010) If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly
up.
nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach.
down.

1011) What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?

150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline.
90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path.
150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.

1012) In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?
1025 - 1150 KHz.
190 - 1759 KHz.
108.00 - 117.95 MHz.
1013) How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for
other aircraft?
By modulation of an audio tone.
By using an alternate frequency.
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.

1014) From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic
indicator (DDRMI)?
From VOR and ADF systems.
From ADF only.
From VOR only.

1015) Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?
To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length.
To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band.

1016) What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a
weather radar?
To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.
To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display.

1017) Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS)
Autothrottle.
Rudder/ailerons.
Flaps/undercarriage.

1018) The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How
does it operate?
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP
and DOWN.
It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies.
It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS.

1019) The FMS navigation database is updated

daily.
every 28 days.
after a B or C check has been completed.

1020) In an IRS system you would expect to find

an azimuth gyro system.
three strap down accelerometers.
ring laser gyros.

1021) In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass

suspended between two springs in a tube.
a mass suspended in free air.
a remotely mounted mass on the airframe.
1022) In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for
reporting defects on the aircraft automatically.
communications between the aircraft and base.
as part of the passenger telephone system.

1023) What are the main areas of the autopilot?

Error, correction, follow up, demand.
Error, correction, follow up, command.
Error, correction , demand, resolved.

1024) VHF frequency is

108 - 118 MHz.
108 - 136 MHz.
108 - 112 MHz.

1025) The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a
horn.
two tone chrime.
hi tone chime.

1026) Channel 3 on a CVR records

captain.
first officer.
flightdeck.

1027) DME works on the frequency of

UHF.
VHF.
HF.

1028) A radial is referenced

on a compass.
to a VOR.
from a beacon.

1029) ADF works by using

sense aerial.
loop aerial.
both loop and sense aerial.

1030) How is the next database on the FMC activated?

Manually, on the ground.
Manually in the air.
Automatically by due date.

1031) What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?

Mode 3.
Mode 6.
Mode 2.

1032) A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be
Mode S.
Mode A.
Mode C.

1033) GPS
uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits.
uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.

1034) Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches
on both gimbal rings.
on outer gimbal ring.
on inner gimbal ring.

1035) The IRS laser gyro is a

displacement gyro.
displaced gyro.
rate gyro.

1036) What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?

either RA or TA.
TA.
RA.

1037) What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.

1038) The laser ring gyro

does not have a gimbal but does have rotating parts.
has a stabilized platform.
does not have a gimbal.

1039) 3 autopilot computers are considered

Fail Operable.
Fail resistant.
Fail Passive.

1040) In autopilot with THS in motion, the

Auto Trim is inhibited.
elevator is inhibited.
Mach trim is inhibited.

1041) How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?

By deselecting auto-throttle first.
Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers.
It is not possible.

1042) Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?

Within reach of the First Officer
Within reach of the Captain
Within reach of both pilots

1043) Decca navigation uses

VHF.
HF.
LF.

1044) There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight
it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
the failed FMS has a blank screen.
the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby.

1045) Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?

Resolution Advisories.
Gear position warning.
Stall warning.

1046) The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of

100 MHz.
50 MHz.
75 MHz.

1047) The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to
the RMI.
the ILS system.
the CDI offset bar.

1048) A flat plate antenna is a

a Doppler antenna.
a series of slots and wave guides.
parabolic antenna.

1049) To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of
6 satellites.
3 satellites.
4 satellites.

1050) Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt. system?
altitude alert.
TCAS.
GPWS.

1051) The GPS satellite system consists of

24 satellites and 1 standby satellites.
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.
20 satellites and 5 standby satellite.

1052) A Mode C transponder gives the following info:

Altitude.
Interrogation.
Altitude and interrogation.

1053) The autothrottle system at touchdown will

apply reverse thrust.
go to idle and disconnect.
go to idle.

1054) When will the decision height aural warning sound?

Before decision height.
After decision height.
At decision height.

1055) FMCS Pin Programming is allowed

under CAA Rules.
to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft.
for the database of aircraft landing altitudes.

1056) Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must
insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
set the altitude to be fed into the INS.

1057) A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has

accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.
accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe.

1058) A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a
linear force.
non-linear force.
constant force.

1059) An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to

10^-2 g.
10^-3 g.
10^-6 g.

1060) A laser gyro output is

directly proportional to frequency addition.
directly proportional to angular turning rate.
inversely proportional to angular turning rate.

1061) In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of

gyro wander.
platform misalignment.
the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform.

1062) The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by

two successive integrations.
a differential followed by an integration.
a single integration.
1063) Coriolis effect is corrected for by
re-aligning the stable platform.
adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs.
torquing the gyros.

1064) In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a

linear spring.
force balance system.
pendulous suspension.

1065) The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted

parallel to each other.
120 degrees apart.
orthogonally.

1066) In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to

stop the gyros from toppling.
provide attitude reference.
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.

1067) The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a

rate integrating gyro.
rate gyro.
displacement gyro.

1068) Earth rate is approximately

5 degrees per hour.
84 degrees per hour.
15 degrees per hour.

1069) In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the

azimuth gimbal.
pitch gimbal.
roll gimbal.

1070) To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use

three gimbals.
four gimbals.
a pitch gimbal.

1071) When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum
the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft.
the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical.
the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.

1072) A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of

84.4 seconds.
8.4 minutes.
84.4 minutes.
1073) An IN system requires data from the
Doppler system.
airdata computer.
satellites.

1074) When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash
thirty seconds before a track change is required.
when an error is detected.
two minutes before the next waypoint.

1075) XTK (cross track) is the

angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of desired track.
perpendicular distance from the desired track.
actual track across the earth's surface.

1076) The output of an INS can be fed to

attitude indicators.
altimeters.
vertical speed indicators.

1077) The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted

90º to each other.
parallel to each other.
120º apart.

1078) A basic I.N.S. platform has

3 axis accelerometer.
3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll).
2 accelerometers and 3 gyros.

1079) Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies

great circle arc.
rhumb line.
course directed by ground station.

1080) What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?
Waypoints.
E.T.A.
Present position.

1081) Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made
to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays.
when attitude information is lost.
when navigation information is lost.

1082) For the INS, the Battery Unit provides

standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage.
both when airborne and on the ground.
standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase.

1083) Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays

distance perpendicular from the selected track.
difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.

1084) The Earth Rate Compensation for an INU is computed from

the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the longitude.
the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude.
the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude.

1085) INS wind speed is calculated from

the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS.
the vectorial addition of TAS and GS.
the vectorial addition of IAS and GS.

1086) Centripetal error compensation is achieved by

allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error.
the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis.

1087) Transport Rate compensation is achieved by

an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading.
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal.

1088) If the battery fails on the ground (INS System)

an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds.

1089) An IRS alignment

takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment.
takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment.

1090) For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the
the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered.
entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power own.
latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.

1091) A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that

the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together.
optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together.
that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies.

1092) The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the
flight director computer.
VHF comm system.
VHF nav system.

1093) The heading error signal used in the heading select mode
is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
is the difference between the desired course and the actual course.
comes direct from the compass system.

1094) The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the
difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading.
difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading.
selected course counter.

1095) VOR left-right deviation signals come from the

DME system.
VLF nav system.
VHF nav set.

1096) Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is

90 Hz.
150 Hz.
90 KHZ.

1097) The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line, as seen from the localiser
transmitter, is
90 Hz.
90 KHz.
150 Hz.

1098) The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the aircraft heading
is 150° is
turn left.
straight ahead.
turn right.

1099) When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the
150 Hz modulation sector.
90 Hz modulation sector.
equi-signal sector.

1100) The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of
the vertical plane.
the horizontal plane.
distance to touch down.

1101) The glideslope transmitter is located

at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway.
adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway.
at the approach end of the runway.

1102) The glideslope and localiser frequencies

are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary.
have to be selected separately.
are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both.

1103) The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of

distance to touchdown.
the vertical plane.
the horizontal plane.

1104) The glideslope equipment operates in the

VHF band.
UHF band.
HF band.

1105) The localiser equipment operates in the

HF band.
VHF band.
UHF band.

1106) The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing
the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations.
the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.
the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation.

1107) The number of different radials provided by a ground station is

infinite.
180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°.
360.

1108) Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?

114.3 MHz.
127.2 MHz.
103.9 MHz.

1109) Aerial masts may be damaged by

water.
killfrost anti-icing fluid.
Skydrol hydraulic fluids.

1110) Most radio aerial masts are

not bonded.
bonded.
insulated from the fuselage.

1111) When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and
variable signals will be
270° out of phase.
in phase.
180° out of phase.

1112) The middle marker modulation is keyed with

alternate dots and dashes.
dashes.
dots.

1113) The modulation of the outer marker is

3000 Hz.
400 Hz.
1300 Hz.

1114) The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is
7 miles.
3 miles.
3500 ft..

1115) Marker information is usually provided to the pilot

aurally.
both visually and aurally.
visually.

1116) An over station sensor (OSS) detects

the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion.
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter.
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter.

1117) Incompatible Flight Director modes are

altitude hold and ILS.
VRU and compass.
VOR and glidepath.

1118) The VOR system comprises

reference phase signal.
variable and reference phase signals.
variable phase signal.

1119) The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is

they both have the same sensitivity.
ILS.
VOR.

1120) If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator
would show
to.
from.
no indication.

1121) How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?
Frequency discriminator in receiver.
Trigger pulse from ground station.
Discriminator on control panel.

1122) The glideslope transmitter operates on

the VHF band.
frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ.
the UHF band.

1123) The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the

left of the control column.
right of the control column.
side of the controls away from the throttles.

1124) If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning
switches off after a time interval.
is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot.

1125) A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have
a decision height depending on RVR.
a decision height of 50ft.
no decision height.

1126) For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is

mandatory.
a matter of choice for the operator.
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.

1127) With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will

drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position.
drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position.
disconnect the autothrottle.

1128) During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to

mute the DME operation during transmit phase.
mute coms transmission during transponder operation.
supply altitude readout.

1129) During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver

#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.
both systems can be operated simultaneously.
#1 HF system can transmit but not receive.

1130) Which L band frequency is not used by DME for transmitting?

2210 MHz.
1090 MHz.
4133 MHz.

1131) Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and
beacon is;
the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to
beacon
the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and
beacon.
None of above.

1132) Which two frequencies are paired?

Which two frequencies are paired?
Glideslope and localizer.
Localizer and DME.
1133) Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway
threshold by
7 ft.
700 ft.
70 ft.

1134) What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
The aerial becomes inductively reactive.

1135) What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?
The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.

1136) Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely
resistive.
capacitive.
inductive.

1137) The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is

to stop the motor overheating.
to give control surface feel.
to allow it to be overridden at a certain force.

1138) Most aerials are

not bonded.
bonded.
made from non-conductive material.

1139) The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?

Amber.
White.
Blue.

1140) Laser gyros have

no rotating parts.
moving parts.
a spinning rotor.

1141) Laser gyros are aligned to

magnetic north.
true north.
aircraft structure.

1142) Triplex autopilot is

fail passive.
fail soft.
fail operational.
1143) Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises
ILS, VOR, ADF.
ILS, DME, ADC,
VOR, ADF, DME.

1144) ACARS is
a navigation system.
a satellite communication system.
a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight.

1145) Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?

The airspeed indicator.
The ATC control panel.
The altimeter.

1146) How many data bases are required in an FMS system?

2.
1.
3 (one is used for redundancy).

1147) What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?

Pitch.
Yaw.
Roll.

1148) What is secondary radar?

Signal returned from a transponder.
A backup radar on an airfield.
Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft.

1149) In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?

Approach.
Cruise.
Take-off.

1150) What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?

Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance.
Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.
Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off.

1151) For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use
VHF.
VLF.
HF.

1152) Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?
3.
2.
1.
1153) A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
cells begin to gas freely.
SG reaches 1.180.
SG and voltage remain constant for specified period.

1154) A diode across a contactor

reduces contact bounce.
enables it to be connected to either an AC or DC circuit.
reduces contact arcing.

1155) The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant

voltage.
power.
current.

1156) A battery in situ on an aircraft

charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant.
may charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low.
may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low.

1157) To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators, phase A must
be
90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC.
in-phase with other generators and CBA only.
in-phase with other generators and ABC.

1158) On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system, the phase of the second
generator to be brought on line
must be in-phase prior to paralleling.
is unimportant.
is important if the first generator fails.

1159) The power supply for aircraft is

28VDC, 115VAC, 400Hz.
28VDC, 220VAC, 400Hz.
28VDC, 115VAC, 200Hz.

1160) On a Direct Current circuit, Current Limiters

prevent overheating by limiting current to load.
limit generator field excitation.
limit current to field circuit.

1161) On a direct current circuit, current limiters

allow excessive current to the load circuit.
prevent excessive current to the load circuit.
prevent excessive current to the field circuit.

1162) When a current transformer is disconnected from its load

a resistor should be placed across the terminals.
the terminals should be shorted together.
the terminals should be left disconnected.
1163) Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to
maintain a constant speed.
provide a constant flow rate.
produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system.

1164) On a direct current twin generator system, the paralleling relay contacts close when the
oncoming generators voltage is
below bus voltage.
the same as bus voltage.
above bus voltage.

1165) Where is a commutator found?

An AC generator.
A DC generator.
A DC alternator.

1166) Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad battery with 15 cells
18 V.
15 V.
30 V.

1167) Reactive electrical loads are adjusted by

adjustment of generator speed.
adjustment of the regulator output.
varying the frequency circuit.

1168) IDG oil is used for

internal hydraulic functions only.
cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions.
cooling and lubrication only.

1169) A silver oxide cell has a voltage of

1.55 V.
1.8 V.
1.2 V.

1170) Lithium cells

are very efficient.
have an unlimited re-charge cycle capacity.
are not rechargeable.

1171) On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers are
always closed in flight.
always open in flight.
only closed in an emergency.

1172) Parallel electrical system bus tie breakers are

closed in flight and open on ground.
closed on ground and open in flight.
always closed in flight.
1173) Whilst synchronising generators, frequency bias is adjusted on
the on-line generator.
all generators.
the on-coming generator.

1174) The GCR will trip during over-voltage

based upon a fixed time delay circuit.
based upon the amplitude of the over-voltage.
immediately.

1175) In a constant voltage AC generator, the voltage is regulated by

a 3-phase transformer.
varying field voltage.
varying field current.

1176) A vibrator type voltage regulator regulates field current by

just a pair of contact breaker points.
a resistor in parallel with a pair of contact breaker points.
a resistor in series with a pair of contact breaker points.

1177) When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?

Resistor placed across terminals.
Left open circuit.
Terminals shorted.

1178) What does the differential sensing coil sense?

Volts.
Power.
Current.

1179) Where does the GCU gets its power?

RAT.
PMG.
Battery.

1180) Galley loads are wired in

either series or parallel depending on the design.
series.
parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption.

1181) In a merz-price protection system of a single phase, if, when a fault occurs, only one relay
contactor opens,
only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise.
then it is probable that one of the relays has failed short circuit.
then it is probable that one of the coils has failed open circuit.

1182) A fuse-type current limiter

can be used as a radio suppressor.
limits current flow to a load.
opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded.
1183) When a load is shed from a busbar, the
busbar voltage decreases.
current consumption from the bar decreases.
busbar voltage increases.

1184) In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the
others
must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
is unimportant.
must be BCA.

1185) In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is
protected by
over-current and under-current protection circuits.
over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits.
over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits.

1186) In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased
by
increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage regulator.
increasing the mark to space ratio.
decreasing the mark to space ratio.

1187) Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by

automatic load shedding.
equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators.
equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators.

1188) Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by

rotating field diode failure.
weak spring tension.
brushes positioned on MNA.

1189) Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft

take the temperature of the electrolyte.
carry out a capacity test.
allow to stabilise for one hour.

1190) On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins

E and F.
A and B.
C and D.

1191) Over-voltage protection circuits are activated

after a fixed time delay.
dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage.
before the over voltage limit is exceeded.

1192) A diode connected across a coil will

prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way.
prevent back EMF and allow faster switching.
suppress arcing when relay is opening and closing.

1193) Which fault does not always trip the GCR?

Over-frequency and under-frequency.
Under-frequency and under-volts.
Over-frequency and over-volts.

1194) Differential protection in a generating system

detects current difference between source and load.
uses the volts coil to trip the GCR.
detects voltage difference between source and load.

1195) Open phase sensing on a current transformer

is detected on generator neutral circuit.
is detected using all phases.
is detected using any phase.

1196) If the battery is switched off in flight, the

battery is disconnected from bus.
captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus.
generator voltage falls to zero.

1197) To flash a generator field the

generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage.
generator must be stationary.
generator rotates but is not on line.

1198) Voltage is controlled by

the voltage regulator.
the constant speed drive.
the swashplate.

1199) Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery

only in the battery workshop.
when fully charged.
at any time.

1200) Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates

not enough charging current.
low electrolyte temperature.
excessive charging current.

1201) During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by

underfrequency.
undervoltage.
overcurrent.

1202) What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?

Boric acid.
Distilled water.
Bicarbonate of soda.

1203) Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent
overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines.
voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits.
large circulating currents developing.

1204) Consumer loads are connected to a busbar

in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced.
in series so when loads are shed current is reduced.
in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced.

1205) A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for
overload protection.
differential current protection.
negative sequence protection.

1206) Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares

ambient pressure to cabin pressure.
generator voltage to busbar voltage.
generator current to busbar current.

1207) In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation

is of no consequence after paralleling.
must be synchronised prior to paralleling.
must be out of phase prior to paralleling.

1208) Diodes are placed across a contactor to

prevent contact bounce.
ensure smooth contactor operation.
speed up operation by reducing back EMF.

1209) Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
shut down the APU.
isolate the battery from the main busbar.
disconnect all power to the main busbar.

1210) Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain

generator outputs at the same voltage
to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators.
to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs.
to prevent CSD shock loading.

1211) A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field

uses a current coil in parallel with generator output.
uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
uses a voltage coil in series with generator output.

1212) CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate

low oil pressure, low oil temperature.
high oil pressure, low oil temperature.
low oil pressure, high oil temperature.

1213) The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by

an IDG.
a CSD.
an hydraulically actuated swash plate.

1214) An AC generator used with a CSD

does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant.
does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant.
needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load.

1215) Power to a GCU is supplied

initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output.
by the battery bus or rectified generator output.
by the generator output only.

1216) Trip signals for a GCR are

underfrequency and overcurrent.
overfrequency and undervoltage.
differential protection and undervoltage.

1217) Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of
high oil temperature / low oil pressure.
low oil quantity / low oil temperature.
High oil temperature / low oil quantity.

1218) Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with

PVC.
Teflon.
Nomex.

1219) A heat gun should be operated at

100°C below the specified.
the specified temperature.
100°C above the specified.

1220) High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because

it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators.
it will damage the drive shaft.
it will trip the GCR.

1221) Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
time delay circuit.
closing of fuel and hydraulic valves.
amplitude of voltage.

1222) Speed of an HMG is controlled by a

ID unit.
CSD unit.
swashplate.
1223) A permanent magnet should have
high retentivity, low coercivity.
low retentivity, high coercivity.
low retentivity, low coercivity.

1224) What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?

The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted.
The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery.
The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.

1225) When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will
increase.
decrease.
remain the same.

1226) On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
By means of a remote trimmer.
On the GCU.
In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel.

1227) Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is

by angle of swash plate.
by IDG.
by CSU.

1228) When a ni-cad battery is fully charged

the electrolyte level is lower than normal.
the electrolyte level is higher level than normal.
the electrolyte level stays the same.

1229) Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by

a GCU.
a BPCU.
an IRS.

1230) A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its
secondary. What is the current drawn from the source?
3 A.
1.2 A.
0.3 A.

1231) After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator,
an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current
no cause for concern.
the battery is faulty.
there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines.

1232) In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading
It is defective.
It must be replaced.
It needs topping up.

1233) A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the
battery be expected to power essential equipment?
60 minutes.
Forever.
30 minute.

1234) An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for
a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket.
the interlock circuit.
ground handling bus.

1235) The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is

to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised.
to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck.
to monitor total current load.

1236) To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery

subject the battery to load and check the voltage.
measure the discharge time.
subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell.

1237) Circulating currents are associated with

AC generators in parallel.
DC generators in parallel.
AC and DC generators in parallel.

1238) Generator brush bedding

can be done on the aircraft.
should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done.
should not be done on the aircraft.

1239) Pitot tubes are heated by

AC.
AC or DC.
DC.

1240) Paralleling is used for

DC electrical generators only.
AC electrical generators only.
AC and DC electrical generators.

1241) Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

Chapter 24 Section 21.
Chapter 31 Section 21.
Chapter 24 Section 31.

1242) In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is

in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.

1243) Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is

144 degrees C.
71 degrees F.
144 degrees F.

1244) If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by

constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage.
constant current.
constant voltage.

1245) The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

stationary.
pulse width modulating.
fluctuating.

1246) In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by

zeners and transistors.
diodes and transformers.
transformers and transistors.

1247) A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by

voltage and current coil.
current coil.
voltage coil.

1248) Increasing the real load primarily

increases output voltage and increases frequency.
decreases output voltage.
decreases frequency.

1249) Inductive reactive load causes

increase in torque only.
no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.
increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated.

1250) The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of

apparent power from the generator that does work.
real power from the generator that does work.
reactive power from the generator that does work.

1251) Differential protection in an AC system protects against

a reverse current flowing from the battery.
line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults.
short circuits.

1252) When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
rotating at idle.
stationary.
rotating at Nsync.
1253) One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
enable generators to be paralleled.
maintain constant load on the generator.
prevent engine overload.

1254) In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is

activation of the time delay circuit.
deactivation of the field regulatory TRs
energise the bus tie relay.

1255) If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that
the
bus tie interlock is inoperative.
phase sequence detection circuit has operated.
CSD driveshaft had sheared.

1256) Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator
output voltage will
decrease and amperage output increases.
increases and amperage output increases.
remain constant and amperage output increases.

1257) When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in

either parallel or series and switched between as an option.
series.
parallel.

1258) What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

Ground or earth.
Positive to battery relay.
Positive to external power relay.

1259) How is RAT driven?

Airstream.
Compressor.
Fan.

1260) How is an aircraft battery rated?

Ampere hours.
Watts.
Joules.

1261) A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in
reduced torque and increased speed.
increased torque and speed.
increased torque and reduced speed.

1262) What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?

Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit.
To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection.
To help plug location/fit.

1263) A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a

current regulation coil in series.
voltage regulating coil in parallel.
voltage regulating coil in series.

1264) What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?

To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay.
To speed up the operation.
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil.

1265) Eddy currents are

caused by heating effect of the coil.
caused by resistance of the coil.
circulating currents.

1266) The small pins in the power connector plug are

neutral.
negative.
positive.

1267) When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit

trips at a set level.
trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.
trips after a time delay.

1268) In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to

provide a means of monitoring the load.
provide interconnection between the generator load busbars.
supply essential services.

1269) Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is

in parallel with the field windings.
across the generator output.
in series with the field windings.

1270) A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for
differential protection.
load monitoring.
phase sequence monitoring.

1271) Zener diodes are for

voltage regulation.
voltage stabilisation.
rectification.

1272) AC generator output indications are measured in

KW & KVAR.
KW.
KVA & KW.
1273) Load shedding allows
more voltage to the busbar.
less current to the busbar.
more current to the busbar.

1274) How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?

Variable AC.
Pulse width modulated DC.
Slightly variable DC.

1275) In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is
power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?
By power fed from static inverter only.
By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.
By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only.

1276) Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power
supply to the generator exciter?
Generator control relay.
Generator line contactor.
Generator power pilot relay.

1277) In what units are static inverters rated?

kVAR.
kVA.
kW.

1278) In a generator system, a stability winding is used

to control output current.
in series with the field to prevent oscillations.
to prevent voltage overshoot.

1279) On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?

Under-current.
Under-frequency.
Under-volt.

1280) How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?
Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields.
Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives.
Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by
adjustment of generator fields.

1281) Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the
charger switched off automatically?
When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system.
When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting.
When the alternators are fully loaded.

1282) The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is

in parallel with the generator volts coil.
in series with the generator field.
in series with the generator volts coil.

1283) When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset
after the fault has been cleared.
on the ground only.
by cycling the generator switch.

1284) In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and

CBA must equal ABC.
phase rotation does not matter.
CBA must equal CBA.

1285) When loads are shed from a busbar automatically

bus bar voltage rises.
bus bar current rises.
bus bar current decreases.

1286) What controls output from the generator?

BPCU.
ELCU.
GCU.

1287) Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of

charge.
electrolyte temperature.
electrolyte level.

1288) During normal engine shut-down, the generator

breaker and control relay are both tripped.
control relay is tripped only.
breaker is tripped only.

1289) The generator warning light will come on when

voltage is too high.
voltage is above battery voltage.
voltage is below battery voltage.

1290) When replacing a current transformer

it can only be fitted one way round.
it can be fitted any way round.
voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting.

1291) The economy coil on a relay

reduces current required to hold closed.
reduces current required to close.
makes it cheaper to make.

1292) What is the function of the generator control relay?

Bring the generator on-line.
Connect the generator to the busbar.
Control output voltage.

1293) The current consumed by a DC starter motor will

decrease as the engine speed increases.
remain constant.
increase as the engine speed increases.

1294) A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is

sodium bicarbonate.
citric acid.
borax powder.

1295) In a split bus power distribution system

each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation.
power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC.
generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus.

1296) Flashing a generator field

restores magnetism.
increases resistance.
decreases resistance.

1297) When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?
Battery charge.
Electrolyte temperature.
Ambient temperature.

1298) How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?

By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load.
By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal.
By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load.

1299) The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system

modifies generator field excitation current.
modifies generator field excitation voltage
modifies generator drive speed.

1300) A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil

in parallel with the generator output.
in series with the generator output.
in series with the current coil.

1301) The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to

reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed.
close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts.
prevent contact pitting and burning.

1302) A vibrating contact voltage regulator has

a volts coil in parallel with the points.
a resistor in series with the points.
a resister in parallel with the points.

1303) Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out

when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench.
only off the aircraft.
during flight.

1304) What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?
Evaporation.
Over charging current.
Undercharging current.

1305) An AC generator connected to a CSD requires

no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage.
no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency.
a separate voltage regulator.

1306) If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure
should be followed?
Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water.
Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse.

1307) Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is
true?
The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte
temperature.
The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F.
A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature
is above 20°C.

1308) An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following
resultant action in the voltage regulator:-
The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile.
The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field.
The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation.

1309) The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will

have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.
have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled.
be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled.

1310) A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached
because
the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution.
increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing.
most of the acid is in the solution.

1311) What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being
charged by a constant voltage source?
The ampere-hour capacity of the battery.
The total plate area of the battery.
The state-of-charge of the battery.

1312) The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes

constant current and varying voltage.
constant voltage and varying current.
constant current and constant voltage.

1313) The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium
battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of
excessive gassing.
normal operation.
excessive plate sulphation.

1314) The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same
service area is likely to result in
normal battery service life.
increased explosion and/or fire hazard.
contamination of both types of batteries.

1315) If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that
drawn from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator.

1316) On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator
drive and
it can only be reset when all loads are switched off.
it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified.
resetting can only be carried out on the ground.

1317) In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the
voltage regulator.
generator drive torque.
generator speed.

1318) A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication

for low speed.
for low oil pressure.
for when it is disconnected from the generator.

1319) The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is
being charged.
in a discharged condition.
under load condition.

1320) Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level
because the
fluid level was not periodically replenished.
fluid evaporates through vents.
electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates.

1321) The purpose of 'field flashing' is to

change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding.
test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000V supply.
measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed.

1322) How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?

By measuring discharge.
By the level of the electrolyte.
By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyt.

1323) What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?
No adverse results since water may be added anytime.
The cell temperature will run too low for proper output.
Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle.

1324) In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature

causes an increase in internal resistance.
causes a decrease in internal resistance.
increases cell voltage.

1325) When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only
if they are defective.
when the electrolyte level is low.
toward the end of the charging cycle.

1326) The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator

is connected in series with the carbon pile.
becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises.
modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil.

1327) In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the
voltage regulator.
generator drive torque.
generator speed.

1328) Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause

overspeeding of AC motors.
overheating of inductive devices.
overvoltage of capacitive devices.

1329) The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains

sulphuric acid.
nitric acid.
hydrochloric acid.

1330) In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out
by washing with distilled water.
by applying a coating of petroleum jelly.
with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.
1331) Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per
minute.
second
revolution.

1332) The three voltages of a three phase generator are

90 degrees apart.
120 degrees apart.
180 degrees apart.

1333) To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery
charging
sulphuric acid must be added.
distilled water must be added.
electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added.

1334) A 12 volt lead-acid battery

has 24 cells.
has 6 cells.
has 12 cells.

1335) The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter
reading will be
5 amps.
7 amps.
3.4 amps.

1336) In a delta connected generator

phase volts equals 1.73 line volts.
line volts equals 1.73 phase volts.
line volts equals phase volts.

1337) The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator
under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
strength of the magnetic field.
number of conductors in the armature.
speed at which the armature rotates.

1338) As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.
decrease and the amperage output will increase.

1339) When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery

one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same.
only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals.
each cell should be checked as the readings may differ.

1340) A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the

cells begin to gas freely.
S.G. reaches 1.180.
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.

1341) Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?
Hydraulic pump.
Standby compass.
Windscreen heating.

1342) To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery

copper connectors are used.
the connectors may be painted.
petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections.

1343) Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft
the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour.
a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to stabilize.
the electrolyte temperature must be noted.

1344) The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the

engine speed.
field current.
armature current.

1345) A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of
37.5 kW.
24 kW.
30 kW.

1346) The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery

remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in
the electrolyte.
changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge.
remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of
charge.

1347) A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at
the 10 hour rate will deliver
60 amps for 10 hours.
60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand.
6 amps for 10 hours.

1348) Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce

12V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
12V with 50 ampere hour capacity.
24V with 25 ampere hour capacity.

1349) As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator

the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator.
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.
the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current.
1350) On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the generator
output voltage will
decrease
increase
remain constant

1351) For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be
AC at 50 c.p.s.
DC.
AC at 400 c.p.s.

1352) When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery charging
an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
an A.C. inverter would be required.

1353) Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce

12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery.
24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.

1354) If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of

the generator voltage regulator setting is too low.
thermal runaway.
the generator is not connected to the bus bar.

1355) The output from an AC generator is taken from

connections on the stator.
slip rings.
slip rings via commutator.

1356) Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by

circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.
the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed.
tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies.

1357) If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it should be stored
in the fully discharged condition.
in a totally dry condition.
in the fully charged condition.

1358) The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is
by checking the specific gravity of each cell.
by a complete discharge and a measured recharge.
by checking the voltage of each cell under load.

1359) A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to
increasing battery voltage.
increasing generator voltage.
a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than generator.
1360) Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by
indicating paper that turns blue.
litmus paper that turns black.
indicating paper that turns red.

1361) To restore electrolyte after spillage

add distilled water only.
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery.
add acid only.

1362) When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-
Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL.
Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL.
An audio bell and red PFWL.

1363) The purpose of an inverter is to convert

DC to AC.
AC to a higher frequency AC.
AC to DC.

1364) With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried
out by
adjustment of voltage coil resistance.
alteration of the field resistance.
alteration of contact spring tension.

1365) Battery SG is measured using a

hygrometer.
hydrometer.
hypsometer.

1366) A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of

90%.
80%.
50%.

1367) When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the
positive earth.
positive.
negative.

1368) Polarization in a cell is

the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate.
the fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's.
the establishing of a potential across the cell.

1369) Battery capacity is checked by

discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state.
measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn.
discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time
to be discharged.
1370) The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the
field strength and the speed of the generator.
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
number of conductors and the field strength.

1371) To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is
necessary to
alter the driving speed.
alter the field current.
alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit.

1372) In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for

reactive load only.
real load only.
real and reactive load.

1373) Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between

any phase and earth or between any two phases.
phases A and B only.
the phase and earth only.

1374) A frequency wild supply would be suitable for

deicing loads.
3-phase torque motors.
instruments and navigation systems.

1375) Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give

36V 40Ah.
12V 120Ah.
36V 120Ah.

1376) Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give

36V 120Ah.
12V 120Ah.
12V 40Ah.

1377) An inverter can be an AC generator driven by

a DC motor.
an AC motor.
either an AC or DC motor.

1378) When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries

add water to acid.
the method of mixing is unimportant.
add acid to water.

1379) The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is

6000.
8000.
4000.
1380) The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
power rating.
efficiency.
power factor.

1381) Apparent power is measured in

Volt Amps.
Kilovolts.
Watts.

1382) A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery output?
24V.
22V.
20V.

1383) The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant

voltage.
speed.
current.

1384) When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase of each

must be in opposition to one another.
is unimportant.
must be synchronized.

1385) When the GPU is connected to the aircraft

it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator.
it is paralleled with the aircraft generator.
it supplies essential services.

1386) A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell)
furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this
instance is
5.0 ohms.
0.52 ohms.
2.52 ohms.

1387) The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0.8 lagging..

The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW..
The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA..
The maximum load permitted is 32KW.

1388) An I.D.G (integrated drive generator)

incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit.
has separate CSDU.
does not require a CSDU.

1389) A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which

provides initial excitation.
only rotates during starting.
only rotates after starting.

1390) To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same
frequency, RPM and phase relationship.
frequency, voltage and phase relationship.
frequency, RPM and speed.

1391) Speed of an alternator may be controlled by

keeping engine rpm constant.
varying the field current.
CSDU (constant speed drive unit).

1392) Frequency wild' alternators supply

resistive circuits.
inductive circuits.
capacitive circuits.

1393) The real load of an alternator is directly related to

output shaft rpm.
output voltage.
output shaft torque.

1394) How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system, before full output is
available from the voltage regulator?
Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles.
A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on line.
Excitation from the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence.

1395) Insulation resistance of electrical machines is

normally lower when the machine is hot.
not affected by change of temperature of machine.
normally higher when the machine is hot.

1396) The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to

keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures.
compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings.
keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures.

1397) The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and
phase relationship is
the outputs are constant.
the same.
not the same.

1398) One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. They will be
synchronised when
the lamp is extinguished.
the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished.
the lamp is maximum brightness.

1399) Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency
can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel.
can be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator.
cannot be checked.

1400) The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of

ground power disconnection.
disconnection of the other alternators.
crash engagement.

1401) What is monitored in a constant speed drive?

High oil temperature and low oil press.
Low oil press and CSD speed.
Low oil temperature and low oil press.

1402) The CSD or IDG speed governor setting

is not allowed to be adjusted.
is adjusted with the engine stationary.
is adjusted with the engine running.

1403) An external ground power supply can be used for

only the emergency busbar services.
all normal services required by flight and ground crew.
only the ground handling busbar services.

1404) The APU generator can normally be

connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators.
used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails.
connected in parallel with the ground power supply.

1405) The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is

inversely proportional to the length of cable.
proportional to the length of cable.
not affected by length of cable.

1406) Galley loads are supplied from the

main bus bar.
ground service bus.
battery bus bar.

1407) A ni-cad battery is stored in the

dry condition.
fully charged condition.
fully discharged condition.

1408) A 6-diode Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) changes

single phase AC to direct current.
direct current to AC.
three phase AC to direct current.

1409) A frequency wild AC generator is used for

deicing loads.
fluorescent lights.
instruments.

1410) What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?
Replace the defective cell.
Top-up the individual cell with distilled water.
Cell is defective, replace the battery.

1411) What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?

Prevent spikes.
Prevent bounce.
To prevent current going the wrong way.

1412) Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of

9g.
15g.
12g.

1413) The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using

compressed air.
CO2.
nitrogen.

1414) Toilets must have a smoke detection system

that gives a warning light in the cockpit.
connected to a pump to pump the smoke out.
that gives a warning light in the cockpit and an aural warning in the main cabin.

1415) If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the replacement stitches placed?
Over the originals.
Diagonally.
Alongside the original.

1416) Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?
Schedule 4 of the ANO.
CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7.
Airworthiness Notice 79.

1417) Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of

Nitrogen.
air.
CO2.

1418) After a successful ditching, the liferafts deployment will

have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket.
be briefed by the cabin crew.
be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts.

1419) Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under
Class B.
Class C.
Class D.

1420) How do you clean seat belts?

With MEK.
With white spirit.
With warm water with low alkalinity soap.

1421) A pilot's safety harness buckle and adjustment strap is

not allowed to slip under any forces.
allowed to slip if vertical acceleration exceeds 5G.
allowed to slip if side loads exceed 2.5 G.

1422) How often are life jackets inspected?

Every 12 months.
In accordance with the AMM.
In accordance with the manufacturers specification.

1423) Inspection proof testing of seat-belts is carried out to

4.5g.
9g.
0.5g.

1424) Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?

BCARs.
ANO.
AWN 99.

1425) Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:
1 megaphone is required.
3 megaphones are required.
2 megaphones are required.

1426) Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?

Cabin safety on-board card.
Cabin operations manual.
JARs.

1427) When testing emergency slide bottles

any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground.
one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time.
all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body.

1428) The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is
15 inches.
dependant upon aircraft type.
24 inches.

1429) Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with

helium.
CO2.
oxygen.
1430) The CO2 in a life raft is released
manually.
on contact with water.
electrically.

1431) Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be

5 inches.
4 inches.
3 inches.

1432) What is the minimum distance between a seat cushion and the seat in-front of it?
10 inches
7 inches
5 inches

1433) A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as

a controlled item.
an uncontrolled item.
neither, as it is removable.

1434) What placard must be visible above a waste paper bin in a toilet?
No Naked Flame.
No Smoking.
No Cigarettes.

1435) Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). To reset
the light
the button is pulled out.
a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated.
the button is pushed again.

1436) Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above
45°C.
65°C.
55°C.

1437) The 'fasten seatbelt' light switch should be in reach of the

captain.
first officer.
both the captain and the first officer.

1438) What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation between a seat and another seat or
structure?
10 inches
There is no EASA guideline.
7 inches

1439) What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed
structure?
26 inches.
24 inches.
28 inches.

1440) With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation

you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP).
you can fit seats facing forward or rearward.
you can only fit seats facing forward.

1441) Where is information regarding flame resistant furnishing materials?

CAAIPs
AWN 58
CAP 747 Mandatory Requirements for Airworthiness

1442) When loading a cargo aircraft

the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances.
the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances.
the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads.

1443) The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is

5 inches.
7 inches.
3 inches.

1444) Cargo nets are manufactured from

polypropylene.
hessian.
nylon.

1445) Galley trolleys must have placards indicating

Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.
maximum weight, position, flight number.
location, position, flight number.

1446) PTV type entertainment equipment

has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting.
is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques.
is not the part of maintenance schedule.

1447) What type of brakes are employed on a galley cart?

A brake on one wheel only.
Two colour-coded pedals.
A single pedal bar.

1448) On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down by

side cart guides and fore and aft latches.
rope.
netting.

1449) Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called
controlled equipment.
uncontrolled equipment.
minimum equipment.

1450) A galley trolley will be designed to

does not matter as the trolleys move.
not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour.
not exceed the floor loading limits.

1451) Information on Galley equipment can be found in

BCAR Section L
Airworthiness Notice 99
CAAIPS

1452) On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning

stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off line.
goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line.
goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and generator goes off.

1453) Chemical fire extinguishers extinguish fires by

cools the material on fire below ignition point.
releases oxygen to extinguish the fire.
reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame, rendering it inert.

1454) A fire test is carried out and the test button is released, but the light remains on. This is
because
there is a fire.
of a high resistance fire wire.
of a broken fire wire.

1455) A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing
the system is duplicated.
it is separated by steel.
the system is protected.

1456) Toilet smoke detectors activate

a warning light and/or indication in cabin.
an auto sprinkler system.
an electric pump to auto vent smoke to atmosphere.

1457) Engine fire bottle pressure at 70°F is

1250 psi +/- 25.
600psi +/- 25.
1500 psi +/- 25.

1458) In the event of a fire being caused by the oxygen supply

oxygen supply must be stopped.
a dry powder extinguisher is used.
a carbon dioxide extinguisher is used.

1459) After a fire detection system test, the red light remains ON. This indicates
high resistance.
a fire.
a short circuit.

1460) First digit number of halogenated hydrocarbon extinguishers represents the number of
fluorine atoms.
chlorine atoms.
carbon atoms.

1461) What type of gas is used as a propellant for a high rate of discharge extinguishing system?
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
Hydrogen

1462) A fire detection system should be

designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation.
designed to detect fires only.
positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design.

1463) Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have smoke detectors fitted?
Main wheel bays and engine bays.
Passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks.
Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays.

1464) A short circuit on a fire detection element will result in

system does not work and no readings.
red fire warning light.
false alarm.

1465) In which of the following would you expect to find a smoke detector?
undercarriage bay
APU bay
Battery bay

1466) You would expect to find a squib connected to

a fire suppression system.
a fire detection system.
a smoke detection system.

1467) Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to

1250 psi.
600 psi.
1500 psi.

1468) A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a
class B compartment.
class D compartment.
class A compartment.

1469) In a capacitive fire detection system, if

there is a break, the system will not work.
there is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory.
there is a short to earth, the system will work but not test satisfactory.
1470) A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when
the system is different but the extinguishant is the same.
the system and the extinguishing system are the same.
the system is the same but the extinguishant is different.

1471) When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out
the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning.
it checks the integrity of the contacts.
a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning.

1472) When inspecting lavatory installations

the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material.
the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder.
'No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only.

1473) Lavatories must have, in the disposal container

water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged.
Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged.
Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged.

1474) A fire detection loop must be capable of

using master warning visual signals only.
using master warning visual and aural signals.
detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the
condition is no longer present..

1475) A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses

helium gas.
oxygen gas.
nitrogen gas.

1476) A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses

to protect against continuous flushing.
to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat.
to protect against freezing at altitude.

1477) What external warning is there for an APU fire?

Aural.
Red light.
Both aural and a red light.

1478) Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by

AC or DC.
DC.
AC.

1479) Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out

only when equipment items fail random tests.
every two years.
every five years.
1480) A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a
continuity check.
calibration check.
function check.

1481) When the fire handle is operated it

cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power.
cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers.
operates fire extinguisher only.

1482) What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron Donner fire detection system?
Integrity comparator.
Volts drop.
Dirty contacts.

1483) Fireproofing of cabin material should be done

every 5 years.
when a sample fails.
every 2 years.

1484) What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?

Bottles are fired.
Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage.
A continuity check.

1485) In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?
Capacitance increase.
Pressure.
Continuity.

1486) Toilet fire detection issues can be found in

AWN 83.
CAAIPs.
AWN 80.

1487) The outside casing of a firewire has

same potential as ground.
28VDC potential above ground.
115VDC potential above ground.

1488) A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class
D.
A.
C.

1489) Smoke detectors consist of a

photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke.
lamp detecting 2% smoke.
photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke.
1490) In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the indication?
Light in the cabin.
Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin.
Audible warning in the cabin.

1491) What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?
The outside of the firewire to earth.
The firewire.
The firewire, sensor & controlle.

1492) When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a

red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on.
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off.
red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline.

1493) An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire extinguisher. What does it indicate?
The bottle is still pressurized.
Bottle is empty.
Bottle is full.

1494) A hand held fire extinguishers weight is stamped on the

base of container.
head.
support bracket.

1495) The weight of an extinguisher is stamped

on base of body.
on bracket.
on head fitting.

1496) How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?
8.
5.
6.

1497) What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?
4 Methyl Bromide.
3 BCF.
4 Fire Extinguishers.

1498) Portable fire extinguishers are operated by

turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger.
breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle.
one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty.

1499) How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?
7.
5.
6.

1500) How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?

Check the tell-tale wire.
Weighed.
Check the pressure.

1501) How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?

Bi-annually.
Every 5 years.
Annually.

1502) CO2 fire extinguishers are used on

engines only.
all fires in fuselage.
baggage holds only.

1503) Hand held fire extinguishers are weighed

in accordance with the approved maintenance schedule.
every 24 months.
every 5 years.

1504) In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground
locks to the main control surface
would also prevent movement of the control column.
would not prevent movement of the control column.
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the
wind.

1505) An artificial feel system is required with

proportional controls.
power operated controls.
power assisted controls.

1506) If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the effect on the centre of pressure of the
control surface?
It moves forward.
It is not effected.
It moves back.

1507) A control system in the parallel mode,

when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in position.
the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection.
the control pedals moves only in the approach.

1508) What is a Bowden cable designed for?

Both pull and push operations.
Push operations only.
Pull operations only.

1509) A full time yaw damper system detects

all frequencies.
only low frequencies.
band pass frequencies.
1510) Fly-by-wire systems rely on inputs from
electrical signals.
the pilot via control rods, and electrical signals.
air-data and 'Q' feel.

1511) The yaw damper

disengages when an engine fails.
augments aircraft stability.
disengages during a coordinated turn.

1512) Operation of the stick shaker during landing means

the aircraft is about to land.
the aircraft is approaching the stall speed.
the aircraft has stalled.

1513) A static friction check is carried out during control surface rigging using
a spring balance to measure control 'break-out force'.
a cable tensiometer to ensure cable tensions are correct.
a spring balance to ensure there is a minimum amount of feel when the controls are moved.

1514) If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection, they

stop moving and stay in the same position.
drive to the down position and lock.
drive to the up position and lock.

1515) A stick-shaker comes into operation when the aircraft

is approaching a stall.
is approaching the 'critical mach number'.
goes supersonic.

1516) Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations are actuated with two speeds of
operation. Operation at high speed is used during
aircraft at altitude and straight and level.
flaps down.
mach trim.

1517) With respect to flight spoilers, they

only operate in flight.
only operate on the ground.
can operate both on the ground and in flight.

1518) Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left wing down turn, the
rudder moves left.
rudder moves right.
rudder remains in the centre.

1519) Flight control locks are used

when working with hydraulics.
are only used in flight.
during gusty weather conditions.
1520) A stick shaker acts
at stall.
after stall.
before stall.

1521) Dutch roll is eliminated by

differential ailerons.
the Dutch Roll damper.
the yaw damper.

1522) A mach trimmer counters

azimuth instability.
lateral instability.
longitudinal instability.

1523) The bearing used in a fibre pulley is

a plain bearing.
a roller bearing.
a ball bearing.

1524) When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
the secondary stops will just be in contact.
a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
the secondary stops have been over-ridden.

1525) Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of
pulley misalignment.
excessive cable tension.
cable misalignment.

1526) A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
with the aileron in the neutral position.
with the aileron in the down position.
when the aircraft is in level flight attitude.

1527) A flying control static friction check

demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls.
will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls..
can only be carried out during flight.

1528) What is an aileron balance cable for?

To allow aircraft to fly hands off.
To allow the cable to be tensioned.
To correct for wing heaviness.

1529) The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the
stagnation point.
point of lowest pressure.
centre of pressure.
1530) With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of the elevator is
restricted
for 'up' travel movement.
neither up nor down, as movement of the trim tab would make no difference to the movement.
for 'down' travel movement.

1531) On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to

60°.
30°.
15°.

1532) Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at

VS.
1.2 VS.
1.05 VS.

1533) Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when.

the aircraft is directional unstable.
the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category.
the aircraft has no yaw damper installed.

1534) A horn balance on a control will

increase degree of movement at high speed.
decrease degree of movement at low speed.
decrease degree of movement at high speed.

1535) In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
move up.
move down.
remain in line with the elevator.

1536) In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will
initially
decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant.
increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing.

1537) Which of the following is the speed in level flight that would activate the stall warning?
VS1G + 15kts.
1.05VS1G.
1.2VS1G.

1538) On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons
will
both move down.
remain stationary.
both move up.

1539) The function of the stick pusher is

to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker.
to vibrate the controls.
to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack.

1540) The input to a stick shaker comes from

the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed.
the angle of attack only.
angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack.

1541) Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous
stall characteristics include:
excessive wing drop and deep stall.
pitch down and minor wing drop.
pitch down and increase in speed.

1542) The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the
transition region.
centre of lift.
stagnation point.

1543) To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with
integrated fuel monitoring system.
symmetrical flight control trim.
automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements.

1544) A yaw damper gain could be fitted with

decreases sensitivity for decreased speed.
increased sensitivity for increased speed.
decreases sensitivity for increased speed.

1545) In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between
the control surface and the balance tabs
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible.
would prevent the movement of the control column.
would not prevent the movement of the control column.

1546) The two switches for pitch trim are located

on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch.
on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch.
on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer..

1547) If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be
bearing seized.
flap tracks out of rigging.
flap motor internal leakage.

1548) Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft
to prevent aquaplaning.
for speed reduction after landing.
to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent.

1549) In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by
transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another.
symmetrical application of ailerons.
operation of the elevator.

1550) Yaw damping rate changes with

altitude.
airspeed.
flap position.

1551) What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?

Increase drag on the up going wing.
Decrease drag on the up going wing.
Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads.

1552) What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?
Droop.
Remain in last position.
Go to neutral.

1553) Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

feedback from control surface.
fitting a tachogenerator.
feedback from the servo motor.

1554) Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
7%.
10.321%.
4%.

1555) A wing mounted stall warning vane

moves up at impending stall.
gives a visual indication of impending stall.
moves down at impending stall.

1556) During an autopilot controlled turn

ailerons and rudder will move.
ailerons, rudder and THS will move.
ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.

1557) On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the

flight control computer.
flight management and guidance computer.
flight augmentation computer.

1558) In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?

Flight augmentation computer.
Flight control computer.
Flight management computer.

1559) Mass balance weights are used to

balance the tabs.
balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces.
counteract flutter on control surfaces.

1560) Active load control involves

intervention & monitoring the human pilot.
limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed.
varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.

1561) Active load control uses

elevator and stab.
elevator and aileron.
aileron and spoiler.

1562) The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to

protect the servo motor.
prevent control surface runaway.
damp the system oscillation.

1563) In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft
is on ground and
weight on ground switch is activated.
brakes are deployed.
thrust reversers are deployed.

1564) In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the

Flight Augmentation Computers.
electric flight control unit.
Flight Guidance and Management Compute.

1565) Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to

prevent nose pitching up.
prevent nose pitching down.
prevent adverse yaw in a turn.

1566) Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by

continued pitch input.
pitch of aircraft in cruise.
C of G movement.

1567) Differential aileron control will

cause a nose up moment.
cause a nose down moment.
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.

1568) On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?

ELAC and SEC.
ELAC.
SEC.

1569) In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?
During either manual or automatic control.
During automatic control only.
During manual control only.

1570) Flutter can be prevented by

balance panels.
trim tabs.
mass balance.

1571) In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
servos remain stationary and provide damping.
servos move to neutral and lock.
servos lock at last position.

1572) In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate

operation of the trim controls is required.
autopilot need not be engaged.
autopilot must be engaged.

1573) In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached

both ailerons are down.
the ailerons are faired.
one is up one is down.

1574) How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?

Fast/Slow indication.
Reduce flap deployment.
Autothrottle applying more power.

1575) A single failure of fly by wire

will limit the flight profile.
will reduce the operational height and speed.
has no effect on the aircraft's operation.

1576) Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in
ailerons moving symmetrically upward.
spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.

1577) Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when

flaps are retracted.
landing gear up and locked.
flaps are extended.

1578) How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?

Mach/Speed Trim.
Pitch Trim.
Electric Trim.

1579) Spoiler position feedback is provided by a

an R.V.D.T.
a S.C.M.
a microswitch.
1580) Rudder 'Q' limiting
increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed.
increases feel as airspeed increases.
restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed.

1581) Elevons combine the functions of both

rudder and elevator.
elevator and aileron.
rudder and aileron.

1582) A differential aileron system is designed to

prevent adverse yaw.
compensate for aileron reversal.
minimise flutter.

1583) An artificial feel system is required

for power operated control systems.
for proportional control systems.
for power assisted control systems.

1584) A tandem P.F.C.U.

has the actuator rams co-axial.
has two control surfaces under its control.
has the actuator rams parallel.

1585) What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?

To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn.
To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn.
Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn.

1586) Active load control uses

elevator and stab.
ailerons and spoilers.
elevator and ailerons.

1587) An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to

increasing the sensitivity of the control system.
prevent overloading of the power control units.
provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.

1588) In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual
reversion is that it must be
possible, but not recommended.
operated by the standby hydraulic system.
automatic and instantaneous.

1589) The purpose of control cable regulators is to

maintain preset cable tensions during flight.
compensate for low temperature only.
compensate for high temperature only.
1590) Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by
travel of the jack ram.
travel of the jack body.
mechanical stops in the control system.

1591) The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the

elevator.
rudder.
ailerons.

1592) The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the

elevator.
rudder.
ailerons.

1593) The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is

to revert the system to manual operation.
to provide pressure to operate the control.
to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's control in cockpit.

1594) A stick shaker is a device which

vibrates the control column near stalling speed.
helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground.
gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off.

1595) The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the

rudder.
elevator.
ailerons.

1596) Ruddervators when moved, will move

together only.
either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection.
opposite to each other only.

1597) As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit

the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability.
the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability.

1598) An anti-balance tab is moved

hydraulically.
when the C.G. changes.
via a fixed linkage.

1599) A servo tab is operated

by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved.
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces.
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.
1600) When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by
operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops.
moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops.
moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops.

1601) The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low
wing, this may be compensated for by
increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators.
use of the rudder control.
operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached.

1602) The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a
split flap.
plain flap.
Fowler flap.

1603) Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?
Fowler flap.
Slotted flap.
Split flap.

1604) Which of the following is not a primary flying control?

Tailplane.
Elevator.
Rudder.

1605) A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite
direction to the control surface is called a
trim tab.
geared balance tab.
servo tab.

1606) What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe
turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed Limit'?
Wheel brakes.
Lift dumpers.
Air brakes.

1607) When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with

rudder.
ailerons.
elevators.

1608) What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight
attitude?
Balance tabs.
Trim tabs.
Spring tabs.

1609) With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to zero, the flying
control surfaces
remain in the position they were when power was removed.
droop.
stay at neutral.

1610) Powered flying control actuators

are operated by the autopilot only.
provide feedback to the pilot.
transmit pilot input to the control surfaces.

1611) A stick shaker operates

after the stall.
just before the stall.
at the onset of the stall.

1612) In a power assisted flight control system, the feel required is normally supplied by
air loads on the control surfaces.
stretching springs.
'Q' feel.

1613) Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by

air loads on the control surface.
nulling of the servo valve.
the jack ram being attached to structure.

1614) 'Q' feel units use

pitot pressure only.
static pressure only.
pitot and static pressures.

1615) Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed

no yaw takes place.
roll will not occur.
pitch trim is not affected.

1616) Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft

due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.
because at low level air density is high.
because the pilot has too many tasks to perform.

1617) A differential aileron control system results in

aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn.
aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn.
aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements.

1618) Spoiler panels are controlled by

the aileron control wheel only.
the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever.
a speed brake lever only.

1619) A lift transducer is normally fitted

to the nose area of the aircraft.
on the leading edge of the wing.
on the elevator control system.

1620) If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler panels
go to full up.
go to down if any are not already down.
remain where they are.

1621) In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to

the control system computer.
the hydraulic actuator.
the pilot's input.

1622) The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to

lock the speed brakes down during flight.
allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown.
prevent inadvertent operation.

1623) Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of

pitch changes.
yawing.
rolling.

1624) High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads
greater than 50%.
greater than 75%.
greater than 90%.

1625) A differential aileron control is one which gives

a larger aileron up travel than down.
equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement.
the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one.

1626) When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left
the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down.
the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down.
the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up.

1627) A series type yaw damper

moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll.
moves the rudder only.
moves the rudder pedals and the rudder.

1628) A stick shaker

vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe.
is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column.
is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column.

1629) If the control column is moved forward and to the left

left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down.
left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up.
left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.

1630) On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by
left spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted.
both spoilers extending.
right spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted.

1631) When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing
low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up.
move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree.
move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral.

1632) You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of
travel of the trim tab?
The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down.
The elevator trim tab has moved down.
The elevator trim tab has moved up.

1633) Pulleys in a flight control system are made from

brass.
Tufnol or aluminium alloy.
stainless steel.

1634) A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used
primarily to
increase cable tension in cold weather.
decrease cable tension in cold weather.
retain a set tension.

1635) An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism

dampens the rudder movement.
locks the ailerons and elevators.
restricts movement of the throttles.

1636) The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's
dutch roll frequency.
roll frequency.
pitch Frequency.

1637) The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall
fast/slow switch.
throttle lever.
flap position.

1638) Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the
aircraft tends to roll to the right.
aircraft tends to go nose up.
aircraft tends to go nose down.

1639) Ground spoilers are used to

prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing.
decrease wing loading on landing.
increase wing loading on take-off.

1640) The outboard ailerons on some aircraft

are isolated to prevent aileron reversal.
are isolated to improve sensitivity.
are isolated at slow speeds.

1641) The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by

decreasing the velocity of the aircraft.
increasing the altitude of the aircraft.
increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity.

1642) Fuel tanks are numbered

aft to fwd.
right to left.
fwd to aft.

1643) The fuel surge tank

acts as a separate fuel supply tank.
reduces wing bending moment.
acts as a vent in the main tank.

1644) A fuel crossfeed valve is normally powered by

AC.
Battery.
DC.

1645) When refuelling, as the fuel level increases

capacitance increases.
capacitive reactance increases.
capacitance decreases.

1646) A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in

its last position.
the open position.
the closed position.

1647) Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on

low pressure systems.
air or vapour systems.
high pressure systems.

1648) Fuel surge is prevented by

having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside to resist fuel surge.
incorporation of an additional surge tank.
having separate compartments within the tank.

1649) When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the Maximum voltage to use
500 V.
30 V.
250 V.

1650) A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated

by air.
by the fuel.
by internal cooling.

1651) Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the

115 V AC.
battery.
28 V DC bus.

1652) Fuel systems that are interconnected must have

separate venting for each tank.
no airspace.
air spaces interconnected.

1653) As fuel level increases, system capacitance

no change.
decreases.
increases.

1654) When refuelling

it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank.
it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.
the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full.

1655) When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment

it is added to the fuel and burnt.
it is applied dry and left.
it is applied wet and flushed out.

1656) Microbial growth is

red dots.
brown black slime.
green sludge.

1657) Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by

press type rivets.
contact adhesive.
bolts.

1658) A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with
tanks completely empty.
tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.
tanks completely full.

1659) After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
tank outlet.
engine inlet.
tank shut-off valve point.

1660) In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place

the top of the tank.
the bottom 2 inches of the tank.
below the fungal colonies.

1661) If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to
shut off fuel before structural damage.
stop engine from using tank during transfer.
provide overflow facility to dump fuel.

1662) In a fuel system with interconnected vents

the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity.
the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity.
an expansion space is not required.

1663) Fuel tanks interconnected must have

vents to allow overfueling.
protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system.
tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet.

1664) When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to

hard reversion.
soft reversion.
mechanical reversion.

1665) Pressure refuelling is carried out at

20 PSI.
15 PSI.
40 PSI.

1666) Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from

left tank to right tank.
tank to tank.
any tank to any engine.

1667) What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vapour ignition?
A nozzle.
A corona device.
An anti-corona device.

1668) What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?
Depends on altitude.
Increases.
Decreases.

1669) When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should
be full.
have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out.
be empty.
1670) Integral fuel booster pumps
require no cooling.
require ram air cooling.
lets the fuel do the cooling.

1671) The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is

to ensure that all available fuel can be used.
to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination.
to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently.

1672) In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates
ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail.
the tank does not pressurise.
pump failure.

1673) How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?

By suction from the engine driven fuel pump.
By a fuel boost pump.
By a gravity feed pump.

1674) A fuel tank suction valve will open when

the engine driven pump fails.
the booster pump fails.
both the engine driven and booster pump fail.

1675) To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank

the tank should be filled as full as possible.
the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible.
the filler cap should be left open.

1676) At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a
self draining non-return valve.
NACA duct.
float valve.

1677) To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up
ram air is circulated around the tank.
cabin air is bled around the tank.
a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted.

1678) When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show
amber and cross line.
green and in line.
amber and in line.

1679) When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the following is most
prone to leaks?
Rigid,
Flexible.
Integral.
1680) On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the boost pump
canister, this could be caused by
fuel leaking past the inlet screens.
fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed.
the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated.

1681) Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with

two 28V DC motors.
two single phase AC motors.
two three-phase AC motors.

1682) To replace a water drain valve seal

the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks.
the tank must be de-fuelled.
the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced.

1683) A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on

fuel tank vent pipes.
fuel jettison system.
the APU fuel feed.

1684) To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would
close the cross bleed valve.
pull the fire handle.
close the HP fuel lock.

1685) A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a
stain.
seep.
run.

1686) Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag
should be wetted with
Water.
Methylated Spirit.
Kerosene.

1687) A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to

prevent the centre from being defuelled.
prevent the dumping of the outer tanks.
automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time.

1688) The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they

are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel.
are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain.
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.

1689) On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using

a separate system for each engine.
the same system for each engine.
a parallel system.

1690) In a constant volume hydraulic EDP, the short shaft which engages with the engine gearbox
would have
2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section.
an inner female splined portion and an outer male splined portion.
2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize.

1691) What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion?
A hydraulic pump.
An actuating cylinder.
An accumulator.

1692) What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into rotary motion?
A hydraulic motor.
An actuating cylinder.
A hydraulic pump.

1693) Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one direction and no fluid flow in the other
direction?
Shutoff valve.
Metering piston.
Check valve.

1694) A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system

is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions.
is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with
fluid.
is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture.

1695) Hydraulic pressure can be restored by

compressing the air charge in an accumulator.
the use of a pressure/heat exchanger.
compressing the fluid in a reservoir.

1696) An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen pressure. What will be the indications?
Full pressure indicated.
Zero pressure indicated.
The cut-out valve chatters.

1697) To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a
pressure reducing valve is used.
pressure regulating valve is used.
pressure relief valve is used.

1698) Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to

control rate of system operation.
limit the maximum pressure.
restrict the rate of pressure build-up.

1699) What type of valve prevents pressure from building up until a demand is placed in an open-
center hydraulic system?
An unloading valve.
A selector valve.
A bypass valve.

1700) In an open-centre hydraulic system, system pressure is provided

only when the selector valve is set to ON.
only when the selector valve is set to OFF.
continuously.

1701) In an open-centre hydraulic system, selector valves are positioned

in parallel.
either in series or in parallel depending on the system design.
in series.

1702) What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?

White.
Green.
Yellow.

1703) A maintainer valve in a hydraulic system will

maintain a high pressure to all systems.
allow continued pressure to essential systems during times of reduced supply.
dampen pressure inputs.

1704) Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?.

In the suction line.
In the case drain.
In the pressure line.

1705) What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?

Increase in fluid pressure.
Increase in fluid temperature.
Fluid loss.

1706) What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?

Increase alkalinity.
Increase viscosity.
Increase acidity.

1707) How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?

Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection.
Energised Closed for fail-safe.
Energised Open.

1708) How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?

By pressurising.
Vent Reservoir to atmosphere.
Pass over a tray.

1709) Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems

are only ever used in an emergency.
store fluid under pressure.
provide additional fluid if leaks occur.

1710) A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of

natural rubber.
synthetic rubber.
butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.

1711) Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in

alkalinity.
acidity.
viscosity.

1712) A normal hydraulic system will

show fluid temperature and quantity.
show pressure and source of hydraulics.
illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready.

1713) A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services
are being used?
ACOV.
Pressure relief valve.
Return line back to pump.

1714) The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by

restriction valve.
angle of swashplate.
IDG.

1715) Hydraulic systems normally operate at

1800 PSI.
3000 PSI.
300 PSI.

1716) When flushing hydraulic systems.

flush with any hydraulic oil.
flush with same hydraulic oil.
flush with methylated spirit.

1717) When replenishing a hydraulic system

use the same/correct hydraulic fluid.
use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer.
use any hydraulic fluid.

1718) When replacing a flexible pipe

tighten only hand tight.
do a bonding check.
use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.

1719) How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?

Pass over a tray .
Vent to atmosphere .
Pass through a restriction.

1720) A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is

used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure .
de-energised to start the pump .
energised to the run position .

1721) A constant delivery pump has its output varied with

regulators .
gears.
servo pressure.

1722) A variable angled pump starts at

half way position .
maximum stroke.
minimum stroke .

1723) A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents

overpressure.
pump cavitation.
reverse flow.

1724) A duplex seal consist of

a square section rubber ring within a steel washer .
a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings.
a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring .

1725) When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?

When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available .
When selected off .
When selected on .

1726) A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts:
Drive Shaft, variable Swash Plate and Cylinder Block .
Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Cylinder Block .
Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Valve Block.

1727) An hydraulic closed system is one where

most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit .
there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required .
pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times .

1728) What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?

Hydraulic oil accumulator .
Variable swashplate pump.
Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter .

1729) If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be

rapid fluctuations of instruments .
rapid depressurisation of system .
pump cavitation.

1730) A marker number on a pipe indicates

the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run .
the thickness of the wall on the pipe.
the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe.

1731) One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to

minimize the possibility of pump cavitation.
relieve excess pressure .
absorb pressure surges.

1732) A thermal relief valve is fitted to a hydraulic system to

relieve excess pressure .
prevent a leak back of pressure.
prevent excess temperature .

1733) A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is
selected is
selector.
engine driven pump.
accumulator.

1734) A shuttle valve is used for

change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure.
preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack.
maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails.

1735) Restrictor valves in a hydraulic system are used to

restrict the rate of pressure build up .
control the rate of system operation .
limit the maximum pressure.

1736) The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of

landing gear and doors.
safety switches .
brake anti-skid units .

1737) The purpose of a non-return valve is to

isolate one component from another.
restrict the movement of components .
direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator.

1738) The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to

prevent incorrect installation .
allow a full flow from the valve .
facilitate bleeding of the system.

1739) A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial nitrogen pressure of 1000 PSI . When the
hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the nitrogen pressure is
4000 PSI.
3000 PSI.
1000 PSI .

1740) Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by

low accumulator pressure .
relief valve set too high.
moisture in the fluid.

1741) Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the
two NRVS fitted .
piston ram displacement .
relief valve .

1742) During a leak test of a hydraulic system, system pressure

must be minimum working.
is not important.
must be at maximum.

1743) Constant delivery hydraulic pumps

require an automatic cut-out valve in the system.
are self idling.
require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system.

1744) Mechanical sequence valves are operated by

the operation of a NRV.
the pilot.
a striker pin.

1745) Pressure relay valves are fitted

before a pressure sequence valve.
before a pressure gauge.
before a pressure relief valve.

1746) Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator

the reservoir must be checked for correct level.
the fluid pressure must be released.
all air must be bled from the system.

1747) Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to

provide a reserve of stored energy.
minimize the possibility of pump cavitation.
maintain a constant fluid level.

1748) In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use

any fluid of the same specific gravity.
any hydraulic fluid available.
only the specified fluid.

1749) The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an
accumulator and relay valve.
accumulator and automatic cut-out valve.
accumulator and shuttle valve.

1750) An automatic cut-out valve will

limit pump wear.
prevent the hydraulic lock forming.
raise fluid boiling point.

1751) A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system

relieve excessive pressure to return.
to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator.
to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure.

1752) A thermal relief valve

senses fluid pressure.
provides cooling for the fluid.
senses fluid temperature change.

1753) Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with

any clean hydraulic fluid.
methylated spirits.
the same type of fluid as used in the system.

1754) Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?

Butyl Rubber.
Natural Rubber.
Synthetic Rubber.

1755) A RAT hydraulic pump is for

flying controls if hydraulic power lost.
landing gear and auto-brake systems.
nose wheel steering.

1756) Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from

a tap into a convenient return line.
the bottom of the reservoir.
a stack pipe higher than the normal level.

1757) Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally

double acting.
low pressure.
single acting.

1758) To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures
a pressure reducing valve is used.
a pressure relief valve is used.
a pressure regulating valve is used.

1759) The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to

pressure x stroke.
area x pressure.
area x volume.

1760) A tandem PFCU

has the rams parallel.
has two control surfaces under its control.
has the actuator rams co-axial.

1761) The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a flexible hose under
pressure
contracts in length and expands in diameter.
contracts in length and diameter.
expands in length and diameter.

1762) An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with

a fixed volume pump.
pressures above 3000 PSI.
a variable volume pump.

1763) When should rain repellent be applied to a windscreen?

When windscreen is wet.
When windscreen is dry.
When windscreen is either wet or dry.

1764) A pressure operated ice detector would

have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator.
be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck.
have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck.

1765) The flow rate of anti-icing fluid is determined

by speed of pump.
by flow control valve.
by flow control tubes.

1766) Details entered in the operational log regarding the De-Icing is

area on which used.
type of fluid used and its percentage dilution.
volume of fluid used.

1767) The ice protection system that is manufactured on the aircraft skin is
heater mat.
overshoe.
spraymat.

1768) What are the chemicals used in modern chemical de-icing?

Isopropyl alcohol.
A mixture of ethylene glycol and alcohol.
Either Isopropyl alcohol or ethylene glycol.

1769) Where does ice form on the aircraft?

Leading edges only.
Areas with larger curvature radius.
Area with smaller curvature radius.

1770) Window anti-icing supply is

DC.
AC or DC.
AC.

1771) Ice formed on the object or surface will change its shape, this changes is more detrimental and
vulnerable to a
fast moving object.
large object.
small object.

1772) In which ice detection method, the activation of warning system is through accumulation of ice
on a probe projected into the airstream?
Inferential method.
Ice accretion method.
Impingement method.

1773) The inflatable tube of the de-icer boots is made of

natural rubber.
synthetic rubber.
rubberised fabric.

1774) How is rain repellent stored on an aircraft?

Reservoir, pressurised by the pneumatic system.
Self pressurised container.
Remote container.

1775) When testing windshield wipers, you should

lift the wipers away from the windshield.
use a continuous flow of water on the windshield.
operate them on a dry windshield.

1776) What is the correct way of measuring the windshield wiper force prior to adjustment?
With a spring tension scale.
By measuring the maximum total angle of sweep.
With a torque screwdriver and light thumb pressure.

1777) How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?

Screwdriver torque test.
Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement.
By a motor load test.

1778) Windshield heating provides

thermal expansion for a tighter fit.
impact resistance enhancement.
increases strength to resist cabin pressure.

1779) At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?

7°F at 100 PSI.
70°C at 100 PSI.
70°F at 10 PSI.

1780) The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is
increase in drag.
increase in weight.
reduction in CLmax.

1781) The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is

less of a fire hazard.
more efficient.
aerodynamic shape is not disturbed.

1782) On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is

independent on each side but with the same power source.
one system for both sides but with the same power source.
independent on each side with different power sources.

1783) In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge
most critical?
The last part of the rotation.
During climb with all engines operating.
All phases of the take-off are equally critical.

1784) Prior to securing a cemented leading edge de-icing boot you must
paint the surface.
shave rivet to prevent further abrasion.
remove all paint.

1785) Prior to securing a screw-fastened leading edge de-icing boot you must
shave rivet to prevent further abrasion.
paint the surface.
remove all paint.

1786) On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on

when in the air.
all the time.
when selected by the crew.

1787) Ice formation on wings is due to

ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing.
supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing.
suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing.

1788) When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck
goes out after a set period of time.
goes out after one more cycle.
goes out immediately.

1789) De-misting of passenger windows is provided by

sealed window.
air from the cabin.
an electrical heating element.

1790) A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to

prevent electrical static build up.
provide more efficient deicer cycles.
provide smoother airflow over leading edge.

1791) In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer

supplies DC power for heating.
supplies AC Power for heating.
steps up output for severe weather conditions.

1792) Windshield rain repellent is applied

when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured.
when rain is on windows and spread by wipers.
before rain and spread on window surface by wipers.

1793) Pneumatic rain removal systems

use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers.
use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen.
are not permitted on large transport aircraft.

1794) Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at

blade attachment end
the shaft end
centre point of the blade

1795) Windscreen autotransformers

step down voltage.
are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions.
step up voltage.

1796) An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is
dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface is called
rime Ice.
hoar Frost.
glaze Ice.

1797) When testing pitot head heaters

they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability.
they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings.
they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe.

1798) A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by

increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit.
decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit.
ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
1799) A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection
being made. The most probable cause would be
normal.
a short circuit.
an open circuit.

1800) Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from

either engine compressors or a combustion heater.
engine compressors.
a combustion heater.

1801) The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system

nylon.
stainless steel.
Monel.

1802) When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to

place soft cloth between blade and window.
use water as lubricant when operating.
use slow wiper only.

1803) What is run-back ice?

Gleam ice.
Glaze ice.
Rime ice.

1804) What should be done if a tyre has creeped round the hub?
Remove tyre, reposition, then re-inflate.
Remove tyre, reposition the opposite way round to prevent more creep.
Remove from the hub for inspection.

1805) Brake temperature readings provide

separate brake indicator gauge indications.
master and caution warning.
coloured indications on a CRT display.

1806) Spongy brakes are usually a result of

external leakage.
air in the system.
internal leakage.

1807) Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the

brake drum.
wheel hub.
wheel flange.

1808) To check if a landing gear leg requires servicing

The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air charge to give an exact leg extension.
The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg pressure and extension should be checked against a
chart in the AMM.
The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension regardless of aircraft load.
1809) Landing gear comes down and goes up again. A likely cause is
leak in selector valve.
leak in actuating cylinder.
leak in reservoir.

1810) A tyre valve cap is used to

secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel.
prevent a leak.
secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base.

1811) The drag strut in the main landing gear is fitted to absorb
turning loads while taxiing.
cross-wind loads on landing.
braking and take-off acceleration loads.

1812) How is a wheel and tyre assembly stored?

Three quarters of full pressure.
With full pressure.
Inflated to 20-30 PSI.

1813) Anti skid

applies wheel torque at point of maximum efficiency.
is a 3-option system.
moderates braking with increasing wheel torque.

1814) The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel steering system of large aircraft
normally comes from
the landing gear up line.
an independent hydraulic system.
the landing gear down line.

1815) When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake, the wheel brake should be
set OFF (released).
disconnected first.
set ON (applied).

1816) A tyre blows a fusible plug. You would

just change the one with the blown plug.
change the damaged one and the adjacent one.
change all tyres on that truck.

1817) Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel to assist in
preventing nose wheel shimmy.
deflecting water away from rear mounted engines.
preventing aquaplaning.

1818) Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is the likely cause?
There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low speed.
Anti-skid system is unserviceable.
Faulty wheel speed transducer.
1819) A brake debooster valve is provided for
increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly.
decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes.
applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly.

1820) Anti-skid systems become deactivated at

5-10 mph.
10-15 mph.
15-20 mph.

1821) The landing gear is in the down and locked position but the red light is still on. The most
probable fault is
the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting.
the landing gear up microswitch needs adjusting.
there is a short circuit in the microswitch.

1822) Tubeless tyres are stored

vertically.
horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top.
at 15 to 20 P.S.I.

1823) On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the

top of the wheels are closer together.
front of the wheels are closer together.
bottom of the wheels are closer together.

1824) A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will

produce a loss of fluid.
be serviceable, and provide better grip.
wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced.

1825) How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?

15% by volume.
5% by pressure.
5% by volume.

1826) A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?
Section Width.
Overall diameter.
Bead diameter.

1827) When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?.
Leaking air/oil seals.
Separator plate stuck open.
The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.

1828) The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon

the type of seal material.
heat generated in operation of the system.
type of fluid most readily available.
1829) A restrictor valve
restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage.
may be used to slow down undercarriage extension.
speed up the flow in one direction.

1830) The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to

absorb the landing shock.
ensure the separator does not bottom.
damp the rebound.

1831) The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to

restrict the compression of the air.
permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension.
separate the oil from the air.

1832) Made up wheels should be stored

horizontal no more than 4 high.
vertical at working pressure.
vertical at 20/30 PSI charge.

1833) After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible
causes are
shorted sensor.
out of adjustment sensor.
wiring problem.

1834) When checking for alignment of a MLG, check

symmetry, tracking, camber.
symmetry, splay, tracking.
symmetry, twist, tracking.

1835) These markings are found on a tyre, 32 x 10.45 R 14. What does the number 32 mean?
Inner diameter.
width.
Outer diameter.

1836) A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents

breather points.
military reference.
the light part of the tyre.

1837) In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by

a lock ring.
a retainer plate.
bolts.

1838) Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are

for overpressure protection.
for overtemperature protection.
to deflate the tyre before removal.
1839) A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is
to provide strength.
to provide a wear indication.
to indicate the position for tyre levers.

1840) If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is
normal.
due to excessive charging pressure.
caused by a leaky seal.

1841) A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means

military reference.
breather points.
the light part of the tyre.

1842) On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
a faulty actuator.
gear lowered at too high an airspeed.
a faulty selector valve.

1843) When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned

opposite the charging valve.
adjacent to the charging valve.
on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve.

1844) Composite brake units

have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures.
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures.
have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures.

1845) A restrictor valve can be used

to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension.
to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension.
to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction.

1846) When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be
the emergency system.
a leaky selector valve.
a stuck relief valve.

1847) Vents holes are found on

tubeless tyres.
tubed tyres.
tubed and tubeless tyres.

1848) At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?

250°C.
200°C.
150°C.
1849) The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is
for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension.
part of the shimmy damper.
to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction.

1850) What is tyre creep related to?

Tyre moving around the wheel.
Horizontal movement of the tyre.
Vertical movement of the tyre.

1851) 'Aquaplaning' can be reduced by

lowering slats.
an anti-skid device.
increased flaring.

1852) Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?

To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection.
To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection.
To reduce vibration and shimmy.

1853) What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?

The material of the leg.
Neither, any oil can be used.
The types of seals the leg uses.

1854) In an anti-skid system

brakes release on falling torque.
brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking.
brakes release on rising torque.

1855) If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is

oil level too high.
loss of pressure/leakage.
nitrogen pressure too high.

1856) A Maxaret is used in what system?

Self centring landing gear.
Tyre inflation.
Skid control.

1857) The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land.
The most likely reason for this warning is
the landing gear is not locked down.
the airspeed is too high.
the rate of descent is too high.

1858) A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the
landing gear down line.
return line from the landing gear selector.
landing gear up line.
1859) Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems
to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped.
to ensure the aircraft is still rolling.
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment.

1860) A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents

brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures.
over inflation of tyres during servicing.
tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking.

1861) If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position

neither system will be available.
normal braking will not be available.
emergency braking will not be available.

1862) The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted

between the tread rubber and the casing piles.
between the apex strip and the casing piles.
between the bead and the casing piles.

1863) Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by

rudder pedals.
the control column.
a separate pilot operated control.

1864) The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will

eliminate the need to check air pressure.
melt at a specified elevated temperature.
facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly.

1865) Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of

excessive toe-in.
over-inflation.
under-inflation.

1866) Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to

the top of the tie bar.
1 mm from the rib base.
the base of the tie bar.

1867) On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to

spread the weight over a large area.
absorb increased landing shock.
prevent skidding.

1868) To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a
snubber is used.
castoring damper is used.
hop damper is used.

1869) On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with
nitrogen and not more than 5% of air.
an argon and CO2 mixture.
nitrogen.

1870) Brake deboosters

reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
assist the operation of the anti-skid unit.

1871) A modulator is fitted in conjunction with

non-return valve.
brake control valves.
anti-skid units.

1872) In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay

is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure.
is not pressurized.
is subject to cabin pressure.

1873) An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type
Direct Acting.
Hydro Mechanical.
Articulated.

1874) The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is

9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar.

1875) Tubed tyres are stored

horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top.
horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads.
horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points.

1876) On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?

Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage centreline.
Front of wheels closer to fuselage centreline.
Top of wheels closer to fuselage centreline.

1877) When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows
no indication.
green light.
red light.

1878) When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check

symmetry, tracking, camber.
symmetry, tracking, splay.
symmetry, tracking, twist.

1879) Tyre creep could be caused by

excessive wear.
under pressure.
overpressure.

1880) When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem
heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch.
carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem.
wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.

1881) A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have

a plain tread.
water dispersing treads.
twin contact.

1882) Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored

in the manufactures boxes.
horizontally.
vertically.

1883) With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will
assist the wheel to castor.
keep the wheel in track.
allow the wheel to shimmy.

1884) When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with.
maker's serial number.
the valve assembly.
opposite side to the valve assembly.

1885) A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate

balance indicator.
heavy spot.
light spot.

1886) On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by

application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion.
using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate.
measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released.

1887) What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?

White.
Green.
Red.

1888) What is the arc of a landing light?

This is not covered in European legislation.
20°.
15°.

1889) With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?

Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white.
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red.
Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White.

1890) Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then

the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base.
the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired.
the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only.

1891) A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal plane, will be at least
20 candela.
50 candela.
240 candela.

1892) A fluorescent tube contains

phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
iodine coatings and rare gases.

1893) A white steady light is required

of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern.
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern.
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.

1894) How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
15%.
25%.
20%.

1895) What is the arc of a landing light?

20°.
15°.
11°.

1896) The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is

110°.
11°.
140°.

1897) Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?

125°.
180°.
110°.

1898) Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the

battery bus and ground services bus.
ground services bus.
battery bus.

1899) Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured

green.
white.
red.
1900) Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by
the battery bus.
DC handling bus.
AC handling bus.

1901) What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?
Dome lights will illuminate.
All lights will illuminate.
Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate.

1902) Escape route lighting must not have more than

20% obscured.
15% obscured.
10% obscured.

1903) How many escape path lights are allowed to be inoperative?

None.
25%.
10%.

1904) The angle of a runway turnoff light is

40°.
60°.
50°.

1905) Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with

28 V AC.
28 V AC.
115 V AC.

1906) How are passenger reading lights normally tested?

By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel.
Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel.
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel.

1907) In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system
during flight?
Armed.
OFF.
ON.

1908) The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical
separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that
fails is
10%.
15%.
25%.

1909) A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of

50 candelas.
100 candelas.
20 candelas.

1910) Service lights include

avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights.
baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights.
refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights.

1911) If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates, how is it reset?

The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground.
Select full 'RETRACT'.
It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced.

1912) Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid
electrical shock or burning. That time period is at least
1 minute.
2 minutes.
5 minutes.

1913) The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an inclusive
angle of
110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum.
110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum.
140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum.

1914) Self-illuminating signs

are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas.
are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.
require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate.

1915) When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the resistor is in

parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting.
series with the light and the transistor is not conducting.
series with the light and the transistor is conducting.

1916) Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on
because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units.
to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight.
and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed.

1917) Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed

individually.
together.
First Officer's only in emergency mode.

1918) In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured

amber.
red.
green.

1919) On a CWS, which has the highest priority?

Duct overheat.
Hydraulic pump failure.
Fire warning.

1920) What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?

Halon.
Freon.
Xenon.

1921) Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced
at 70 inch intervals.
at 60 inch intervals.
at 40 inch intervals.

1922) Tritium Gas is used in a

landing Light.
self illuminating lights.
strobe light.

1923) A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light
colour is what?
Neon gas and blue.
Xenon Gas and blue-white.
Helium gas and white.

1924) The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system
continue with reduced passenger load.
ferry flight to main base for rectification.
ground the aircraft.

1925) Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit:

Single circuit.
Individual circuits.
Dual circuit.

1926) Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate

below 10,000ft and descending.
when landing gear is down.
unless switched off by the pilot.

1927) To purge an unpleasant odour/moisture from an oxygen system, you must

completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times.
completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times.
completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times.

1928) Oxygen bottles should not be left with less that 500 psi pressure because
it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would require maintenance.
the oxygen becomes tainted causing anoxia.
it can cause corrosion within the bottle.

1929) A dual demand regulator in oxygen system is for

fitting to either gaseous or chemical oxygen cylinders.
altitude selection.
allowing two people to breath from one cylider.

1930) The oxygen masks for the passengers drop down by

manual selection from cockpit and automatically by an altitude switch.
automatically by an ltitude switch.
manual selection from cockpit.

1931) How would you identify an American oxygen bottle?

It is painted the same colour as a British oxygen bottle (black).
It is white with green wording.
It is green.

1932) When charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to zero. Where is the likely fault?
In the pressure gauge.
In the mask.
In the temperature compensator.

1933) How many turns of teflon tape are you allowed on oxygen threads and how many threads
should have no tape?
2 turns except first 2 threads.
2 turns except first thread.
1 turn except first thread.

1934) Anoxia is due to

release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood.
lack of oxygen.
low air pressure on the body.

1935) The dilutor demand regulator functions

only when the supply valve is opened by the user.
when the user breathes in.
all the time.

1936) To measure moisture in an oxygen system use

a hygrometer using the dew point method.
litmus paper.
a glass plate.

1937) Oxygen cylinder test dates

are painted in white on the cylinder.
may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder.
are variable depending on discharge.

1938) O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?
Supernumerator regular.
Breathing regulator.
Temperature compensator.

1939) If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?
Breathing mask.
Thermal Relief Valve.
Loose connection.

1940) As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres

the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended.
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel.
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit.

1941) Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with

oxygen purity gauge.
temperature gauge.
pressure and quantity gauges.

1942) A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens

all the time.
when breathing.
when 100% selected.

1943) Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with

an overpressure indicator.
a demand regulator.
an over temperature indicator.

1944) American made crew oxygen cylinders are

green in colour with a LH thread.
green in colour with a RH thread.
black in colour with a RH thread.

1945) Which connector has a left hand thread?

Freon.
N2.
O2.

1946) What is the principle of an O2 generator?

Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.
Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air.
Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.

1947) What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?

1800 PSI.
300 PSI.
3000 PSI.

1948) Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be

turned on by crew.
turned on and safety wire-locked.
turned off.

1949) A thermal compensator is used in

an hydraulic system.
a fuel system.
an oxygen system.

1950) When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.
passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient.
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.

1951) Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?
Line valve
Charging connection
Shut-off valve.

1952) Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when

the user breathes in.
100% is selected.
less than 500 psi is in bottle.

1953) A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for

additional flightcrew.
extra supply in case of emergency.
changes in altitude.

1954) If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft

attendant must drop masks.
passenger must get mask from overhead stowage.
masks drop automatically.

1955) How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?

Green rupturing disc.
Audible warning.
Red rupturing disc.

1956) The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is

4 years.
10 years.
2 years.

1957) A discharged chemical generator is indicated by

a broken tell-tale wire.
a change in colour.
a protruding pin.

1958) A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least

15 minutes.
5 minutes.
30 minutes.

1959) The oxygen line service valve must be

wire locked open.
only be wire locked with telltale wire.
wire locked closed.

1960) Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above

4,000 ft.
10,000ft.
8,000ft.

1961) The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately

4,000 ft.
25,000 ft.
38,000 ft.

1962) If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be
at a maximum of 12,000 ft.
below 10,000 ft.
at or below 8,000 ft.

1963) Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes

below 40,000 ft.
above 30,000 ft.
above 40,000 ft.

1964) In a diluter demand oxygen system

each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply.
oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow.
each member of the crew has a regulator.

1965) In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied

on passenger inhaling into the mask.
when the mask is plugged into the socket.
only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.

1966) In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in
100% oxygen supply as the user inhales.
100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.
100% oxygen at positive pressure.

1967) The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of

aluminium.
alloy steel.
stainless steel.

1968) Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to

1,800 p.s.i.
2,000 p.s.i.
1,200 p.s.i.

1969) Rate of flow of oxygen is given in

pounds/minute.
litres/minute.
litres/pounds.
1970) Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested
every 4 years.
every 6 years.
every 3 years.

1971) Oxygen bottle capacity varies between

100 - 3200 litres.
200 - 2250 litres.
80 - 2250 litres.

1972) Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found

stencilled on the bottle.
stamped on the neck ring.
stamped on a metal label.

1973) After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is

left in the 'on' position.
left in the 'off' position until required.
wire locked in the 'on'.

1974) Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders

is relieved by a thermostat.
is relieved by a bursting disc.
is relieved by under pressurising the bottle.

1975) To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder

cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.
cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p.s.i.
cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p.s.i.

1976) What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?
The pressure used in the system.
The whims of the aircraft designer.
The length of the pipe runs.

1977) The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated

by colour coding.
by an arrow.
by visual inspection.

1978) Oxygen filters are made of

carbon fibres.
sintered bronze.
steel wool.

1979) Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by

pressure indicators.
flow indicators.
lack of Anoxia.
1980) If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system
no lubricant may be used whatsoever.
Teflon tape may be used.
distilled water may be used sparingly.

1981) The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of

rectangles.
dots.
diamonds.

1982) Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted

white with a black collar.
black with a white collar.
black.

1983) A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is

grease free medical soap.
leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B.
soapy water.

1984) When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient.
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.

1985) In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to avoid leaving
traces of oils or greases.
magnesium particles.
acrylic based plastic materials.

1986) When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system

the area must be well ventilated.
no electrical power must be used.
oil must not come into contact with the system.

1987) A chemical oxygen generator operates at

45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes.
45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes.
45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes.

1988) When charging an oxygen bottle in situ

charge slowly through a water trap.
charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph.
slacken off the retaining straps first.

1989) The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates

purity.
pressure.
temperature.

1990) The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be

applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape.
applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape.
applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.

1991) High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of

stainless steel.
aluminium alloy.
titanium.

1992) Lubricate oxygen connector threads using

WD40.
Teflon tape.
hellerene.

1993) How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?

A pressure seal would be broken.
The indicator pin would be protruding.
By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint.

1994) Oxygen purging is a process of

measuring the flow rate from the regulator.
pressure testing the system.
removing moisture from the system.

1995) To check an oxygen system for moisture

a sniff test is used.
a hygrometer is used.
pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass.

1996) Two compressors driven by separate engines use

PRVs.
NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other.
Interconnected to share loads.

1997) When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps

the whole system.
just the moisture trap.
the system between compressor and regulator valve.

1998) High pressure pneumatic pump is a

butterfly pump.
spur gear.
reciprocating pump.

1999) A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced

when half pink and half blue.
when all pink.
when all blue.

2000) High pressure pneumatic source is a

centrifugal Compressor.
butterfly pump.
reciprocating pump.

2001) On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long
periods of time, the system would
lose pneumatic pressure partially.
lose pressure from the compressor side only.
lose all pressure.

2002) In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to
essential equipment.
all equipment.
non-essential equipment.

2003) If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain
all the system.
just the moisture trap.
between the compressor and the PRV.

2004) What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?
It must be filtered.
It must be pressure controlled.
It must be temperature controlled.

2005) The pneumatic system pump is a

rotor vane type.
piston type.
centrifugal type.

2006) What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?

Rotary vane type.
Positive displacement type.
Spur gear type.

2007) What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?

Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard.
Prevent toilet freezing.
Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable.

2008) The potable water is delivered to the galleys and toilets by

electrical pump.
pneumatic pressure.
gravity.

2009) Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by

water cooling.
thermal protection.
cooling fan on timer switch.

2010) Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by

wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons.
installation of neoprene foam insulation.
placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping.

2011) A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.

Close toilet until landing.
It can be overcome by thermal compensating device.
You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet.

2012) The process of hyperchlorination is to

fill the tank with potable water.
decontaminate the potable system.
decontaminate the soil tank.

2013) Waste water drain masts

are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only.
are not heated.
are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground.

2014) The heater used on a drain mast would be a

induction heater.
ribbon heater.
hot air blower.

2015) Toilet waste valves are

spring loaded open.
spring loaded closed.
not spring loaded.

2016) Toilets are the subject of

AWN 80.
AWN 83.
AWN 79.

2017) The centralised soil tank system is flushed by

recycled soil water.
potable water.
racasan.

2018) A modern aircraft CMC uses

a CRT screen.
a magnetic fault indicator.
an LED display.

2019) A Flight Data Recorder is activated when

the helicopter's engines are started.
the helicopter takes off.
when power is applied to the helicopter.

2020) An aircraft condition monitoring system

detects the source of a fault.
stores information for long term error analysis.
sends information to the central maintenance cell.

2021) In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC

all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.
only Primary Faults are recorded.
all faults are recorded in Volatile memory.

2022) In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time' fault?
In Fault.
In Test.
In Fault History.

2023) In a CMC, warning signals are generated by

Warning computer.
FMC.
CMC.

2024) One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in
erased only after end of sector.
volatile memory.
non-volatile memory.

2025) The real time on a CMC is when

ground test page is selected on the CDU.
existing faults page is selected on the CDU.
fault history page is selected on the CDU.

2026) A MCDU is
to transmit data to ground.
to dialog with the central maintenance computer.
to store fault data.

2027) With a ACMS quick access recorder

you must use digital tape.
the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased.
the tape must not have been used before.

2028) Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is

90 Hz.
90 KHZ.
150 Hz.

2029) In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use

any fluid of the same specific gravity.
any hydraulic fluid available.
only the specified fluid.

2030) To check an oxygen system for moisture

pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass.
a hygrometer is used.
a sniff test is used.
2031) What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil.
To speed up the operation.
To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay.

2032) How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?
Through the latching mechanism.
By door stops.
By the pressure seal.

2033) To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a
hop damper is used.
snubber is used.
castoring damper is used.

2034) A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing
it is separated by steel.
the system is protected.
the system is duplicated.

2035) How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?

Annually.
Every 5 years.
Bi-annually.

2036) Pressure refuelling is carried out at

40 PSI.
20 PSI.
15 PSI.

2037) For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
decreases.
remains the same.
increases.

2038) In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to

ensure positive duct pressure is maintained.
ensure conditioned air is distributed.
ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.

2039) The following takes place at the transition point on a wing:

The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer.
The total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill.
The airflow separates completely from the wing surface.

2040) Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)
the aircraft will sink suddenly.
the aircraft will yaw.
the aircraft will climb.
2041) The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.
are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain.
are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel.

2042) When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability

the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips.
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted.
a hydrometer must be used.

2043) To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip.
installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.

2044) Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of

wave drag, interference drag, form drag, and induced drag.
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag.
profile drag, form drag, induced drag and wave drag.

2045) When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem
wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.
heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch.
carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem.

2046) Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
nose should be raised, increasing AoA.
nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.
nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA.

2047) What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?

Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not.
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not.
Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not.

2048) Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by

longerons.
bulkheads.
stringers.

2049) Vortex generators are fitted to

move transition point forwards.
advance the onset of flow separation.
move transition point rearwards.

2050) Glideslope controls autopilot in

roll.
yaw.
pitch.

2051) The transition point located on the wing is the point where
airflow starts separating from the wing.
the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow.
the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow.

2052) Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to

maintain a constant speed.
produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system.
provide a constant flow rate.

2053) What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?

Increase drag on the up going wing.
Decrease drag on the up going wing.
Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads.

2054) A wing mounted stall warning vane

moves down at impending stall.
moves up at impending stall.
gives a visual indication of impending stall.

2055) Bending stresses are a combination of

torsional and compression stresses.
tension and compression stresses.
tension and shear stresses.

2056) On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?
Milled stringers.
The position of the spars.
Ribs.

2057) The GPS satellite system consists of

20 satellites and 5 standby satellite.
24 satellites and 1 standby satellites.
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.

2058) FM improvements affect what system?

VHF, VOR and ILS.
ADF, VHF and ILS.
ADF, VOR and ILS.

2059) The pneumatic system pump is a

piston type.
centrifugal type.
rotor vane type.

2060) What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?

1090 MHz.
1030 MHz.
1000 MHz.

2061) In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by

displacement of erection control device.
bottom lightness of inner gimbals.
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals.

2062) To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a
pressure reducing valve is used.
pressure relief valve is used.
pressure regulating valve is used.

2063) Critical Mach No. may be increased by

using more powerful engines.
sweeping back the wing.
using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing.

2064) Wing bending and shear loads are taken by

spar cap.
main spar.
skin.

2065) How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?
As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb).
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground
directly below the aircraft.
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an
evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.

2066) Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold
air system flows to the
inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger.
fan.
turbine.

2067) The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called

interfay.
brush coat.
fillet.

2068) Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS)
Autothrottle.
Flaps/undercarriage.
Rudder/ailerons.

2069) When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
VOR.
Heading Hold.
ALT Hold.

2070) Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will
be
70 kts.
60 kts.
50 kts.

2071) If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will
not be affected.
increase.
decrease.

2072) When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
(i) not move, (ii) not move.
(i) move aft, (ii) move aft.
(i) move aft, (ii) not move.

2073) Upper surface wing skin is usually made from

5056.
2024.
7075.

2074) Toilets are the subject of

AWN 80.
AWN 79.
AWN 83.

2075) A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite
direction to the control surface is called a
trim tab.
servo tab.
geared balance tab.

2076) Composite brake units

have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures.
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures.
have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures.

2077) A capacitive fire wire

will neither work nor test if broken circuit.
will work but not test if broken circuit.
will work but not test if short circuited.

2078) An over station sensor (OSS) detects

radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter.
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion.
radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter.

2079) One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is

by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U..
by compression of ambient air across a turbine.

2080) The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will

remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position.
increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward.
increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft.

2081) The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a
pressure controller/dump valve combination.
pressure controller/discharge valve combination.
discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination.

2082) If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
stainless steel.
aluminium alloy.
plastic.

2083) On passenger aircraft of two or more zones

the seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits.
the emergency exits are to be clearly signed.
there should be at least one exit per zone.

2084) What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied
aircraft compartment?
0.01 % (100 p.p.m).
0.02 % (200 p.p.m).
0.005% (50 p.p.m).

2085) How are passenger reading lights normally tested?

Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel.
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel.
By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel.

2086) Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

revolution.
minute.
second.

2087) Frequency wild' alternators supply

resistive circuits.
capacitive circuits.
inductive circuits.

2088) You would expect to find a squib connected to

a fire detection system.
a fire suppression system.
a smoke detection system.

2089) On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?

Under-frequency.
Under-current.
Under-volt.

2090) When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc.
must be
all closed.
all open.
removed.

2091) When replacing a flexible pipe

do a bonding check.
tighten only hand tight.
use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.

2092) How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?
Via the G/S selector knob.
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency.
It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency.

2093) An artificial feel system is required

for power assisted control systems.
for power operated control systems.
for proportional control systems.

2094) The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same
service area is likely to result in
contamination of both types of batteries.
normal battery service life.
increased explosion and/or fire hazard.

2095) The Turn and Slip indicator employs

a rate gyro.
an azimuth gyro.
a vertical gyro.

2096) What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear.
Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain.
Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress.

2097) When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a

red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off.
red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline.
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on.

2098) After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
tank outlet.
engine inlet.
tank shut-off valve point.

2099) Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system

pre-heat the system to 100°F.
apply suction to remove air and moisture.
flush the system with a solvent.

2100) What happens if you reduce the curvature of the leading edge?
Advance the shock wave formation.
It will have no effect on shock wave formation.
Delay the shock wave formation.

2101) One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it

is easier to manufacture.
takes all the loads in the skin.
shares the loads.

2102) HF aerials have weak points designed at

both ends.
the back end.
the front end.

2103) Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to

restrict the rate of pressure build-up.
limit the maximum pressure.
control rate of system operation.

2104) A fire detection system should be

positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design.
designed to detect fires only.
designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation.

2105) In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler

cools the vapour further to prevent slugging.
is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour.
delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground.

2106) A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication

for when it is disconnected from the generator.
for low speed.
for low oil pressure.

2107) The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?

White
Amber.
Blue.

2108) On a CWS, which has the highest priority?

Hydraulic pump failure.
Fire warning.
Duct overheat

2109) A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
when the aircraft is in level flight attitude.
with the aileron in the neutral position.
with the aileron in the down position.

2110) Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
time delay circuit.
amplitude of voltage.
closing of fuel and hydraulic valves.

2111) The cabin altitude is

the actual height of the aircraft above sea level.
the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.
the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.

2112) How is an aircraft battery rated?

Ampere hours
Joules
Watts

2113) Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in

ANO 25
JAR 25
CS 25

2114) What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?

1800 PSI
300 PSI
3000 PSI

2115) How many programs can a FMC store?

Two. One active and one standby.
One current.
Two. Both active.

2116) What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?
The whims of the aircraft designer.
The length of the pipe runs.
The pressure used in the system.

2117) The input to a stick shaker comes from

angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack.
the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed.
the angle of attack only.

2118) ATA zone 330 is the

vertical stabiliser.
left horizontal stabiliser.
right horizontal stabiliser.

2119) From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic
indicator (DDRMI)?
From VOR and ADF systems.
From VOR only.
From ADF only.

2120) Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag
should be wetted with
Kerosene.
Water.
Methylated Spirit.

2121) Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in
one inch increments.
one foot increments.
half inch increments.

2122) A large aircraft air conditioning system's cabin temperature control

is selectable for each zone individually from the flight station.
involves modulating the pack valve.
all zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch.

2123) Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ

is permitted.
is only allowed in the shop.
is not allowed.

2124) A redundant structure is

a safe-life structure.
on-condition structure.
a failsafe structure.

2125) Paint remover substances

should only be used once.
are damaging to some aircraft parts.
are not damaging to any aircraft parts.

2126) The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by
automatic control devices.
engine speed variations.
spill valves.

2127) On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the
EADI.
EHSI & EADI.
EHSI.

2128) Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when
carrying out a pitot-static leak check?
Vertical speed indicator.
Air speed indicator.
Altimeter.

2129) A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in

the closed position.
its last position.
the open position.

2130) On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with
nitrogen.
nitrogen and not more than 5% of air.
an argon and CO2 mixture.

2131) Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at

2 500 ft radio alt..
1 000 ft radio alt..
10 000 ft radio alt..

2132) A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of

8.4 minutes.
84.4 seconds.
84.4 minutes.

2133) A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the

cells begin to gas freely.
S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.
S.G. reaches 1.180.

2134) Voltage is controlled by

the constant speed drive.
the voltage regulator.
the swashplate.

2135) Deploying a secondary flight control surface will

decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil.
increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil.
not affect the angle of attack.

2136) Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between

8,000ft and standard barometric pressure.
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.
sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin.

2137) A flying control mass balance weight

keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load.
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.