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BOW Guru Antra Goal: Anand Prakash
BOW Guru Antra Goal: Anand Prakash
BOW Guru Antra Goal: Anand Prakash
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GURU ANTRA
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Get a Chance to Learn from India’s Best Teachers & Crack JEE ADVANCED 2021
Anand Prakash
Co-Founder, Vedantu
IIT- Roorkee
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Study Materials
• Sample Papers
1
1. Three glass cylinders of equal height H = 30 cm and same
refractive index n = 1.5 are placed on a horizontal surface
as shown in figure. Cylinder I has a flat top, cylinder II has
a convex top and cylinder III has a concave top. The radii
of curvature of the two curved tops are same (R = 3m). If
H1 , H 2 and H3 are the apparent depth of a point X on the
2
For fig. II,
Applying following formula
1 2 2 1
v u R
Here 2 =1, 1 =1.5, u = -30 cm, v = - H2, R = - 3m = - 300
cm
1 1.5 1 1.5
H2 30 300
1 15 0.5 1
H2 300 300 600
1 15 1 30 1 29
H2 300 600 600 600
H2 = 20.6 cm
For fig. III
Applying following formula
1 2 2 1
v u R
Here 2 =1, 1 =1.5, u = -30 cm, v = - H3, R= 3m = 300 cm
3
p0 ˆ ˆj)
2. An electric dipole with dipole moment (i is held fixed
2
at the origin O in the presence of an uniform electric field
of magnitude E0. If the potential is constant on a circle of
radius R centered at the origin as shown in figure, then the
correct statement (s) is/are : ( 0 is permittivity of free space
R >> dipole size)
4
At point B, E due to dipole is equatorial. E equatorial at all points
on circle should be zero since the given circle is
equipotential
kp0
EB 0 E0
R3
So, option (1) is correct.
2kp0
Electric field at point A, EA E0 2E0 E0 3E0
R3
1/3 1/3
kp 0 kp p0
E0 R
R3 E0 4 0 E0
5
(4) The normal reaction force from the floor on the rod will
be Mg
16
Soln.: [2, 3, 4]
Now,
L ML2
I (mg) sin 60
2 3
3g 3g 3 3 3g
sin 60
2L 2L 2 4L
L L 3 3g 3 3g
Tangential acceleration, aT
2
2 4L
8
L 2 L 3g 3g
Radial acceleration ac
2
2 2L 4
Net vertical acceleration of C.M. of rod
3g 3 3g 3g 3 3g 3 3g 3 15g
av cos 60 sin 600 1
4 8 8 8 2 8 2 16
Applying Fnet = mav in vertical direction on rod as system
15g Mg
Mg N M N
16 16
6
4. In a Young's double slit experiment, the slit separation d is
0.3 mm and the screen distance D is 1m. A parallel beam of
light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on the slits at angle
as shown in figure. On the screen, the point O is
equidistant from the slits and distance PO is 11.0 mm.
which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
0.36
(1) For
degree, there will be destructive interference
at point O
(2) For 0, there will be constructive interference at
point P
(3) For 0.36
degree, there will be destructive interference
at point P.
(4) Fringe spacing depends on .
Soln.: [3]
Given 0.36 deg ree 0.36 1 radian
180 500
dy
Path difference at p = d sin
D
( small, sin )
dy
d
D
11 103
(0.3 103 )
1
7
1
3 104 11103 3
= 500 10 [13 103 ] 13
600 109 2 2
13
6.5
2
Destructive interference
3 104 11103 11
(2) 0, 5.5 (Destructive)
6 107 2
Fringe width in all the above case remain unchanged. So,
Fringe width does not depend on .
8
5R 7R
5 (1)
Adiabatic constant of the gas mixture
2 2 32R / 2 8 1.6
3R 5R 20R / 2 5
5 (1)
2 2
V
And for adiabatic process P0 V0 P 0 ( adiabatically
4
v0
compression = )
4
The final pressure of the gas, P P0 (4) P P0 (4)8/5 9.2P0
V0
P0 V0 (4)8/5 P0
PV P V 4
W 1 1 2 2
1 8
1
5
1 43/5 1.92
P0 V0 P0 V0 2.15P0 V0
3 / 5 0.6
| W | 2.15(6)RT0 13RT0
5R
Average kinetic energy = nCVT= 6x x2.3 T0= 23 RT0
3
9
(1) The particle's kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4
when the piston is moved inward from L0 to 12 L0 .
(2) After each collision with the piston, the particle speed
increases by 2V.
(3) The rate at which the particle strikes the piston is v/L.
(4) If the piston moves inward by dL, the particle speed
increases by 2v dL
L
.
Soln.: [1, 2]
Frequency = v
2L
Change in speed in dt time = 2V × number of collision dt
time
v dL vdL
dv 2v
2L V L
10
7. A block of mass 2M is attached to a massless spring
with spring-constant k. This block is connected to two other
blocks of masses M and 2M using two massless pulleys and
strings. The accelerations of the blocks are a1 ,a 2 and a 3 as
shown in the figure. The system is released from rest with
the spring in its unstretched state. The maximum extension
of the spring is x 0 . Which of the following option (s) is/are
correct ? [g is the acceleration due to gravity. Neglect
friction]
x0
(1) When spring achieves an extension of 2
for the first
time, the speed of the block connected to the spring is
M
3g
5k
4Mg
(2) x0
k
x0
(3) At an extension of 4
of the spring, the magnitude of
3g
acceleration of the block connected to the spring is 10
(4) a 2 a1 a1 a 3
Soln.: [4]
11
2a1 = a2 + a3
a 1 – a 3 = a2 – a 1
a 2 a3
ap
2
or a 2 a1 a1 a 3
Also
m 2m 2m
Reduced mass = m 2m
3
2m1m2 4m
Tension = m1 m2
geff
3
geff
4m
2T 2 g eff
3
2T 8m
g eff 3
8m 1
.x 0 g kx 02
3 2
16mg
x0
3k
Energy conservation
8m x 0 1 x 02 1
g k (2m)v2
3 2 2 4 2
2
16mg 4mg 1 16mg 2 4m 2
k mv v
3k 3 8 3k 3
32 m2g 2 7 2
mv
9 k 3
12
32 mg 2
v2
21 k
32 mg
vg
21 k
Soln.: [2, 3]
13
2
1 1
a m 2 4 1
It is given that :
e 1
2 5
1
4
1 1 1 15 3
2 16 5 16 16
m
1 4
2
m2
m 16
Now,
hc 1 1
13.6
e 4 16
1240 12
13.6
e 16 4
1240 16 4
e
12 13.6
= 487 nm
The ratio of the kinetic energies is also the ratio of the
corresponding total energies 1
4
h h
pa and pe
a e
pa e
Now, =5
pe a
14
SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each
question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value using the
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has
more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value
to TWO decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the
following marking scheme.
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is
entered as answer.
Zero Marks:0 In all other cases.
1. A 10 cm long perfectly conducting wire PQ is moving with
a velocity 1 cm/s on a pair of horizontal rails of zero
resistance. One side of the rails is connected to an inductor
L = 1 mH and a resistance R 1 as shown in figure. The
horizontal rails, L and R lie in the same plane with a
uniform magnetic field B = 1T perpendicular to the plan. If
the key S is closed at certain instant, the current in the
circuit after 1 millisecond is x 103 A , where the value of x is
………. .
[Assume the velocity of wire PQ remains constant (1 cm/s)
after key S is closed. Given: e1 0.37 , where e is base of the
natural logarithm]
15
Soln.: [0.63]
16
2. Suppose a 88226 Ra nucleus a rest and in ground state undergoes
decay to a 86
222
Rn nucleus in its excited state. The kinetic
energy of the emitted a particle is found to be 4.44 MeV.
86 Rn nucleus then goes to its ground state by decay. The
222
17
3. A monochromatic light is incident from air on a refracting
surface of a prism of angle 75º and refractive index n 0 3 .
The other refracting surface of the prism is coated by a thin
film of material of refractive index n as shown in figure.
The light suffers total internal reflection at the coated prism
surface for an incidence angle of 60 . The value of n 2 is
…………… .
Soln.: [1.5]
sin 3 sin(75 c )
For limiting condition 60,
sin 60 3 sin(75 c ) c 45
n 2 1.50
18
4. An optical bench has 1.5 m long scale having four equal
divisions in each cm. While measuring the focal length of a
convex lens, the lens is kept at 75 cm mark of the scale and
the object pin is kept at 45 cm mark. The image of the
object pin on the other side of the lens overlaps with image
pin that is kept at 135 cm mark. In this experiment, the
percentage error in the measurement of the focal length of
the lens is ……………….. .
Soln.: [1.38 or 1.39]
Now,
1 1 1
f v u
After differentiation both side, we get
df dv du
2
2
f u2
v
dv du
df f 2 2 2 ………………..(i)
v u
Here f= 20 cm, dv = du = 0.25+ 0.25 = 0.5cm
19
0.5 0.5 1 1 10
df 400 2
2
(60)
2
(30) 36 9 36
Soln.: [4]
2u 0 Sin
Let g
T0 and u 0 cos v1
Total displacement
Vavg
Time taken
Here, total displacement v1t1 v 2 t 2 v3t 3...........
Total timeTaken t1 t 2 t 3...........
Now, we get
20
u0 u
cos 0 sin
u 0 cos u 0 sin
2 2
g g
u0
2 sin
2u 0 sin
....
g g
1 1 1
u 0 cos 1 2 4 .... 2m
1 1 1
1 2 ..... m
m
1 1
1 2 4 ......
V1
1 1 1 ......
2
1
1 2
1
V1 2 v 2 1
1
1
1 1
1
2 1
Vavg V1 2 V1
1 1
0.8V1 V1 0.8 0.8
1
0.2 0.8
4
21
6. A perfectly reflecting mirror of mass M mounted on a
spring constitutes a spring-mass system of angular
frequency such that 4M h
1024 m 2 with h as Planck's
Soln.: [1]
Given that:
-6
A 1m = 10 m N = No. of photons, 8106 m
h
M(106 )() 2N
8 106
Nh
1012
4M
4M 12
N 10
h
4M
N 1024 1012 1012 (Given that: 1024 m 2 )
h
X=1
22
SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains Two (02) List-Match sets.
Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice
Questions.
Each List-Match set has two lists : List-I and List-II
List-I has Fourentries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has
Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question
based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four
options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice
Question.
For each question, marks will be awarded according to the
following marking scheme :
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the
correct matching is chosen.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the
question is unanswered.)
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists
based on the information given in the paragraph.
1. A musical instrument is made using four different metal
strings, 1, 2, 3 and 4 with mass per unit length ,2,3 and 4
respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the
strings by varying the free length in between the range
L0and 2L0. It is found that in string-1 () at free length L0and
tension T0the fundamental mode frequency is f0.
23
List-I gives the above four strings while List-II lists the
magnitude of some quantity.
List - I List – II
(I) String – 1 (P) 1
()
(3)
(4)
(T) 3/16
(U) 1/16
If the tension in each string is T0, the correct match for the
highest fundamental frequency in f0 units will be,
(1) I Q; II S; III R; IV P
(2) I P; II R; III S; IV Q
(3) I P; II Q; III T; IV S
(4) I Q; II P; III R; IV T
Soln.: [2]
For fundamental mode
Frequency f0 2L1 T
0
1 T0
String (1) f0
2L0
P
1 T0 f
String (2) f2
2L0 2
0 R
2
24
1 T
String (3) f3
2L0 3
S
1 T f0
String (4) f4
2L0
Q
4 2
List – I List – II
(I) String – 1 () (P) 1
(II) String – 2 (2) (Q) 1/2
(III) String – 3 (3) (R) 1/ 2
(T) 3/16
(U) 1/16
25
The length of strings 1, 2, 3 and 4 are kept fixed at L0,
3L 0 5L 0 7L 0
2
,
4
and 4
, respectively. String 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
vibrated at their 1st, 3rd, 5th, and 14th harmonics, respectively
such that all the strings have same frequency. The correct
match for the tension in the four strings in the units of T0
will be.
(1) I P; II Q; III T; IV U
(2) I P; II Q; III R; IV T
(3) I T; II Q; III R; IV U
(4) I P; II R; III T; IV U
Soln.: [1]
1 T
f0
2L 0
26
3 T2 1 1 1 T0
f0
3L 2 2 L0 2L0
2 0
2
T
T2 0
2
5 T3 2 1 T3 1 T0
f0
5L 3 3 L0 2L0
2 0
4
3
T3 T0
16
27
It is vibrating in 5thharmonic but frequency is still f0
14 T4 1 T0
f0
7L 4 2L0
2 0
4
T0 T0
4T4 T4
2 16
process 1 2 3
28
4
(IV) Heat absorbed by the system in (S) RT0
3
process 1 2
(T) 1
RT0 (3 ln 2)
3
5
(U) RT0
6
(1) I P; II R; III T; IV P
(2) I P; II T; III Q; IV T
(3) I P; II R; III T; IV S
(4) I S; II T; III Q; IV U
Soln.: [1]
Given that Process 12 is isothermal since temperature is
constant.
Process 2 3 is isochoric since volume is constant
(1) Work done by the system in process 1 2 3
W1-2-3 = W12 + W23
2V
W123 nRT ln 0 0
V0
T RT0
W123 nR 0 ln 2 0 ln 2
3 3
29
(2) Change in internal energy in process 1 2 3
U123 U12 U 23
0 nCvdT
3R T
0 1 T0 0 RT0
2 3
process 1 2 3
4
(IV) Heat absorbed by the system in (S) RT0
3
process 1 2
1
(T) RT0 (3 ln 2)
3
5
(U) RT0
6
(1) I Q; II R; III S; IV U
(2) I Q; II S; III R; IV U
(3) I S; II R; III Q; IV T
(4) I Q; II R; III P; IV U
Soln.: [1]
31
Given that Process 12 is isothermal since temperature is
constant
Process 2 3 is isochoric since volume is constant
Degree of freedom f = 3
(1) Work done by the system in process 1 2 3
Work done in any process = Area under P–V graph
W123 w12 w 23
RT0
P0 V0
3
(2) Change in internal energy in process 1 2 3
U123 U12 U 23
nCv(T3 T1 )
3
n R(T3 T1 )
2
3
(RT3 RT1 )
2
3
(3P0 V0 P0 V0 ) 3P0 V0 RT0
2
32
JEE Advanced Exam 2019
(Paper & Solution)
PAPER-2
PART-I (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – 1(Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE
THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
option(s).
For each question, choose(s) corresponding to (all) the
correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the
following marking scheme :
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are)
chosen.
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but
ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but
ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct
options.
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but
ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the option is chosen (i.e. the
question is unanswered).
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
33
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the
ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will
get 0 marks; and choosing any other
commination of options will get –1 mark
1. The cyanide process of gold extraction involves leaching
out gold from its ore with CN in the presence of Q in water
to form R. Subsequently, R is treated with T to obtain Au
and Z. Choose the correct options(s)
(1) Z is [Zn(CN)4 ]2 (2) T is Zn
(3) Q is O2 (4) R is [Au(CN)4 ]
Soln.: [1, 2, 3]
34
2. Which of the following reactions produce(s) propane as a
major product?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Soln.: [2, 4]
CH3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl
Zn
CH3 CH 2 CH 2 ZnC
dil.HCl
CH3 CH 2 CH3
CH3 CH 2 CH 2 C O Na
NaOH, CaO
CH3 CH 2 CH3
D
||
O
absence of air
(2) Reaction of gold with aqua produces an anion having
Au in +3 oxidation state
(3) The yellow colour of aqua regia is due to the presence
of NOCl and Cl 2
Soln.: [2, 3, 4]
(1) 2Au + 3HNO3 + 11HCl → 2HAuCl4 + 3NOCl + 6H2O
(2) In HAuCl4 or [AuCl4]-, Au is in + 3 oxidation state.
(3) Yellow colour of aqua regia is due to the presence of
NOClorange yellow and Cl (greenish yellow) 2
35
4. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV.
Consider an electronic state of He whose energy,
36
5. Choose the correct option(s) from the following:
(1) Cellulose has only D -glucose units that are joined
by glycosidic linkages
(2) Natural rubber is polyisoprene containing trans alkene
units
(3) Nylon-6 has amide linkages
(4) Teflon is prepared by heating tetrafluoroethene in
presence of a persulphate catalyst at high
Soln.: [3, 4]
(1) Cellulose has only D glucose units that are joined
by glycosidic linkages.
(2) Natural Rubber units which are joined by C1 – C4
glycosidic linkage is cis-polyisoprene.
(3) Nylon-6 has amide linkages
(4) Teflon is prepared by heating polytetratluro ethene in
presence of a persulphate catalyst.
Zn + conc. NaOH T + Q
G + H2S + NH4OH Z (a precipitate) + X + Y
Choose the correct option(s)
(1) Bond order of Q is 1 in its ground state
(2) Z is dirty white is color
(3) R is a V-shaped molecule
(4) The oxidation state of Zn in T is +1
Soln.: [1, 2, 3]
37
SO2(R) is V-shaped
ZnS(z) is dirty white gelatinous ppt.
Bond order in H2(θ) is 1.
(3) (4)
Soln.: [3, 4]
EtO
Anti aromatic
(2)
(3)
(4)
38
8. Choose the correct option(s) for the following reaction
sequence
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Soln.: [1, 4]
39
SECTION – 2 (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each
question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value using the
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place
designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has
more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value
to TWO decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the
following marking scheme.
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is
entered as answer.
Zero Marks: 0 In all other cases.
1. The amount of water produced (in g) in the oxidation of 1
mole of rhombic sulphur by conc. HNO to a compound with
3
40
2. Total number of hydroxyl groups present in a molecule of
the major product P is _______
Soln.: [6]
41
3. Total number of isomers, considering both structural and
stereoisomers, of cyclic ethers with the molecular formula
C H O is ______
4 8
Soln.: [10]
______
(Given data: Molar masses of urea and water are 60 g mol 1
Soln.: [2.98]
mole fraction urea
n urea
Xurea 0.05
n urea n water
n urea
0.05
900
n urea
18
n urea
0.05
n urea 50
n urea 0.05n urea 2.5
0.95n urea 2.5
2.5 250
n urea 2.63mol
0.95 95
Mass of urea = 2.63 × 60 (∵ molar mass of urea = 60
g/mol)
= 157.89
42
Mass of solution = 157.8 + 900 = 1057.8g
Volume of solution = 1057.8 881.5 ml
1.2
2.63
Molality of solution = 1000 2.98 M
881.5
Soln.: [2.30]
2N2O5 2N2O4 O2 ; K 5 104 sec2
Initial pressure (in atm) 1 - -
Pressure after time t sec 1 – 2x 2x x
∴ 1 – 2x + 2x + x = 1.45 atm
∴ x = 0.45 atm
For 1st order reaction (taking into account of reaction
stoichiometry)
a0
2Kt ln
a0 x
a0 1 and a 0 x 0.1
1 1
t 4
ln 2.3 103 sec
2 5 10 0.1
43
6. Total number of cis N–Mn–Cl bond angles (that is, Mn–N
and Mn–Cl bonds in cis positions) present in a molecule of
cis [Mn(en) Cl ] complex is ______
2 2 (en NH CH CH NH )
2 2 2 2
Soln.: [6]
[Mn(en) 2 Cl 2 ]
44
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the
question is unanswered.)
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists
based on the information given in the paragraph.
(T) n2
(U) n1/2
45
Soln. [1]
II S
(III) Kinetic energy of the electron in the nth orbit.
13.6 z 2
K.E eV
n2
KE ∝ n-2
III → P
(IV) Potential energy of the electron in the nth orbit.
Z2
P.E 2.KE 27.2 eV
n2
PE n 2
(IV) (P)
46
LIST-I LIST-II
(I) Radius of the nth orbit (P) n 2
(T) n2
(U) n1/2
Kinetic energy n 2
Potential energy n 2
Correct match: (I), (T); (II), (S)
47
3. List-I includes starting materials and reagents of selected
chemical reactions. List-II gives structures of compounds
that may be formed as intermediate products and/or final
products from the reactions of
LIST-I LIST-II
(I) (P)
(II) (Q)
(III) (R)
(IV) (S)
(T)
(U)
48
Which of the following options has correct combination
considering List-I and List-II?
(1) (I), (Q), (T), (U) (2) (II), (P), (S), (U)
(3) (II), (P), (S), (T) (4) (I), (S), (Q), (R)
Soln.: [2]
49
50
4. List-I includes starting materials and reagents of selected
chemical reactions. List-II gives structures of compounds
that may be formed as intermediate products and/or final
products from the reactions of List-I.
LIST-I LIST-II
(I) (P)
(II) (Q)
(III) (R)
(IV) (S)
(T)
(U)
51
Soln.: [1]
The above reactions as follows:
52
JEE Advanced Exam 2019
(Paper & Solution)
PAPER-2
PART-I (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION – 1(Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE
THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
Answer(s).
For each question, choose(s) corresponding to (all) the
correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the
following marking scheme :
Full Marks: +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are)
chosen.
Partial Marks: +3 If all the four options are correct but
ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks: +2 If three or more options are correct but
ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct
options.
Partial Marks: +1 If two or more options are correct but
ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the option is chosen (i.e. the
question is unanswered).
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
53
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the
ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 marks;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 marks;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will
get 0 marks; and choosing any other
commination of options will get –1 mark
1 2 ... n
3 3
54
1. For a R, | a | 1 , let lim
n
7/3 1 1 1
n ...
(an 1) (an 2) 2 (an n) 2
2
n r 1/3
n
lim n r 1
n 1
r 1 (a r / n)
2
54
1
x
1/3 3 4/3 1 3
dx x
Now, 1
0
54 4 0
1
54 4 54
1 1 1
(a x)2 dx
ax 0 a(a 1)
0
⇒ a(a + 1) = 72 ⇒ a2 + a – 72 = 0 ⇒ a = -9, 8
sin x
2. Let f(x) = x2
,x 0
x
2x cos x tan x
⇒ f '(x) 2
4
x
x
2cos x tan x
f '(x) 2
3
x
55
(2n 1)
x , nI
2
f ’(x)
1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0
3. Let P1 I 0 1 0 , P2 0 0 1 , P3 1 0 0 , P4 0 0 1 ,
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0
0 0 1 0 0 1 2 1 3
P5 1 0 0 P6 0 1 0 X Pk 1 0 2 PkT
6
, and
k 1
0 1 0 1 0 0 3 2 1
56
Soln.: [1, 2, 3]
We have,
1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
P1 0 1 0 , P2 0 0 1 , P3 1 0 0 , P4 0 0 1 , P5 1 0 0 ,
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0
0 0 1
P6 0 1 0
1 0 0
2 1 3
X Pk 1 0 2 PkT
3 2 1
2 1 3
Let A 1 0 2
3 2 1
2 1 3
then A 1 0 2
T
3 2 1
A AT
T
Now, XT P1AP1T P2AP2T ... P6AP6T X
So X is a symmetric matrix.
1
Let Q 1
1
57
2 2 2 6 30 2 1 3 1 6
2 2 2 3 30 30Q
AQ 1 0 2 1 3
2 2 2 6 30 3 3 1 1 6
1 1 1 2 x x
4. Let x R and let P 0 2 2 , Q 0 4 0 and R PQP1 . Then
0 0 3 x x 6
1 1
(4) For x = 0, if R a 6 a , then a + b = 5
b b
Soln.: [1, 4]
We have, R = PQP-1
1
⇒det(R) = det(PQP-1) = (det P) (det Q)
det P
= det Q
58
2 x x
det (Q) 0 4 0
x x 6
2 x x
(3) det 0 4 0 8 = (40 – 4x2) + 8 = 48 – 4x2 = det R x
x x 5
R
For x = 0
2 4 6 6 3 0
PQ 0 8 12 and P 0 3 2
1
0 0 18 0 0 2
59
2 1 2 / 3
R 0 4 4 / 3
0 0 6
Now R PQP 1
2 4 6 6 3 0
0 8 12 0 3 2
1
6
0 0 18 0 0 2
1 1
We have,
R a 6 a
b b
1
(R 6l) a O
b
2b 4b
4a 0 and 2a 0
3 3
a 2 and b 3
ab5
60
Soln.: [1, 4]
(1) We have, f (x) x 2/3
h 2/3 0
= lim
h 0
0 (finite)
|h|
6. Three lines
L : r ˆi, R , L : r kˆ ˆj, R and L : r ˆi ˆj vk,
1 2 3
ˆ v R are given. For
1 1
(1) kˆ ˆj (2) kˆ ˆj
2 2
(3) k̂ (4) kˆ ˆj
61
Soln. [1, 2]
Let P (λ, 0, 0), Q(0, μ, 1), R(1, 1, v)
P, Q, R are collinear PQ kPR
0 0 0 1
1 0 1 0 v
1
and
v
1
v and
1
0, 1
ˆ Q kˆ ˆj
Q k,
62
x = 2 is point of local maxima for x > 0
n
k 1 k2
sin n 2 sin n 2
8. For non-negative integers n, let f (x) k 0
n
k 1
sin
k 0
2
n2
1
(3) If tan(cos1 f (6)) , then 2 2 1 0 (4) lim f (n)
n 2
Soln.: [1, 2, 3]
n
K 1 K2
2sin n 2 sin n 2
K 0
f (x) n
K 1
2sin 2 n 2
K 0
n
2k 3
cos n 2 cos n 2
⇒ f (x) k 0
n
2k 2
1 cos
k 0
n 2
63
n3 n 1
cos .sin
n 2 n2
(n 1) cos
n2
sin (n 2)cos
n2 (n 2)
n 1 n2
cos .sin
(n 1) n2
sin
n2
(n 1)cos cos
n 2 n 2
= cos
(n 1) 1 n2
Hence, f (x) cos
n2
3
Now, (1) f (4) cos cos
42 6 2
(2) sin 7 cos 1 cos sin 7 sin 0
7 7
2 tan
1 8 1 2
tan cos cos tan Also tan
(3) 8 8 4 1 tan 2 1 2
8
2 1 0
2
(4) lim f (n) lim cos 1
n n
n 2
64
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the
following marking scheme.
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is
entered as answer.
Zero Marks: 0 In all other cases.
n n
k n
Ck k 2
1. Suppose det n 0 , holds for some positive integer
k 0 k 0
n n
Ck k n
Ck 3k
k 0 k 0
n
n. Then k C 1 equals …..
n
k
k 0
Soln.: [6.20]
n n 1
k 2 k k n G c (k 1) k . k 1
n n n
n
n c
G c2 k n 1
Ck 1
k 0 k 0 r 0 k
= n (n - 1) . 2n-2 + n 2n-1
= n . 2n-2 [(n-1)+2]
= n(n + 1) 2n-2
n
n
k k n 1Cn 1 n2n 1
k 0
n
3k n 1Cn 1 n C0 31 (n C1 ) (32 )n e ....3n (n Cn )
k 0
n(n 1)
n(n 1)2n 2
Now 2 0
n2n 1 4 n
2 2n
0 22n 1 n.22n 1
n2n 1 4n
=n=4
65
4
4
C1c 4 C0 4 C1 4C2 4 C3 4 C4
k 1
1
2
3
4
5
k 0
1 2 2 1 1/ 5
31
5
6.20
2. Let a 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
and b ˆi 2ˆj kˆ be two vectors. Consider a vector
c a b , R . If projection of c on the vector (a b) is 3 2 ,
c (a b)
Pr ojection of c on the vector (a b)
ab
c.(a b)
3 2
|a b|
9( ) 18
2
Now, c a b .c 2
| a |2 2 | b |2 2 a b a b .c 6( 2 2 4)
Minimum value = 18
66
/ 2
3 cos
3. The value of the integral d equals……
( 0 cos sin )5
Soln.: [0.5]
/2
3 cos d
Let I
5
0 cos sin
2
d
2I 3
4
0 cos sin
1
Let 1 tan t sec 2 d dt
2 tan
when 0, then t 1
3 2(t 1) 3 2 2
I dt
2 1 t4 2 2t 2 3t 3 1 and , then t
2
3 2 2 1
0.5
2 2 3 2
67
Possibilities are
1R, 2B, 2G; 1B, 2R, 2G; or 1G, 2R, 2B
⇒ Total number of ways = 5C1 × 2 + 5C1× 2 + 5C1× 2 = 10
× 3 = 30
So total no. of ways = 3 × 10 = 30
1 10 7 k 7 (k 1)
5. The value of sec 1 sec sec in the interval
4 k 0 12 2 12 2
3
4 , 4 equals……
Soln.: [0]
1 10 7 k 7 (k 1)
We have, sec 1 sec sec
k 0 12 2 12
4 2
1 10 7 K 7 (k)
sec1 sec sec
4 K 0 12 2 2 12 2
1 10 7 k 7 k
sec 1 sec cos ec
4 k 0 12 2 12 2
1 10 2
sec1
4 k 0 sin 7 k
6
1 10 1
sec
1
2 k 0 (1)k 1 sin
6
sec1 (1) 0
68
6. Let |X| denote the number of elements in a set X. Let S =
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} be a sample space, where each elements is
equally likely to occur. If A and B are independent events
associated with S, then the number of ordered pairs (A, B)
such that 1 | B || A | , equals ....
Soln.: [422]
A and B are independent events
P(A B) P(A).P(B)
| AB| | A| | B|
.
|S| |S| |S|
| S || A B || A | . | B |
6.| A B || A | . | B | ...(i)
|| B || A |
69
SECTION – 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains Two (02) List-Match sets.
Each List-Match set has TWO (02) Multiple Choice
Questions.
Each List-Match set has two lists : List-I and List-II
List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has
Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question
based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four
options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice
Question.
For each question, marks will be awarded according to the
following marking scheme :
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the
correct matching is chosen.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the
question is unanswered.)
Negative Marks: –1 In all other cases.
Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists
based on the information given in the paragraph.
1. Let f (x) sin( cos x) and g(x) cos(2sin x) be two functions defined
for x > 0. Define the following sets whose elements are
written in the increasing order:
X {x : f (x) 0}, Y {x : f '(x) 0}
70
List-I contains the sets X, Y, Z and W. List-II contains
some information regarding these sets.
List-I List-II
(I) X (P) , 3 ,4,7
2 2
(T) 2
, ,
3 3
(U) 3
,
6 4
So cos x = – 1, 0, 1
3
x , , , 2, .... X n. ,n I
2 2 2
Now, f '(x) 0
71
f '(x) cos( cos x) sin x 0
cos( cos x)( sin x) 0
Z {x : g(x) 0}
W {x : g '(x) 0}
72
2. Let f (x) sin( cos x) and g(x) cos(2sin x) be two functions defined
for x > 0. Define the following sets whose elements are
written in the increasing order:
X {x : f (x) 0}, Y {x : f '(x) 0}
(T) 2
, ,
3 3
(U) 3
,
6 4
74
3. Let the circles C : x y 9 and C : (x 3) (y 4) 16 , intersect at
1
2 2
2
2 2
x 8y .
2
21
(IV) (S)
5
(T) 2 6
10
(U)
3
75
Soln.: [3]
r6
OC = MC – OM
OC = 6 – 3 = 3
16 2 25h 2 5h
h2 h 3 3 3
9 9 3
9
h
5
4 4 9 12
k' h
3 3 5 5
18 12
2h k 6
5 5
76
⇒ 6x + 8y – 19 = 0
3x 4y 9
9 12
Perpendicular distance of ZW from C3 , is
5 5
9 12
3 4 9
5 5
6
9 16 5
2
6 36 1 24 6
Length of ZW = 2 36 2 36 2 36 1
5 25 25 5
9 12
length of ZW from ,
5 5 6
length of XY, from (0, 0)
1 1 1
(III) Area of MZN ZP MN NM ZW
2 2 2
1 1 1
Area of ZMW ZW MP NM ZW
2 2 2
Area of MZN 5
Area of ZMW 4
3
(IV) Slope of tangent to C1 at M
4
Equation of tangent y mx 3 1 m2
3 9
y x 3 1
4 16
y
3x 15
4
4
…… (i)
Tangent to parabola is
x 2 8y
y mx 2m2 ……(ii)
77
Compare (i) & (ii)
3 15
m and 2m 2
4 4
9 15
2
16 4
10
3
x 8y .
2
21
(IV) (S)
5
78
(T) 2 6
10
(U)
3
So, II → Q
79
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