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Appendix C: Multiple Choice Questions..

23. An exothermic reaction is one in which the reacting substances


( a ) Have more energy than the product
( b ) Have less energy than the product
( c ) Have as much energy as the product
( d ) Are at higher temperature than the product .

24. A minus sign of the free energy change indicates that the
( a ) Reaction is spontaneous
( b ) Reaction is non - spontaneous
( c ) System is in equilibrium
( d ) Reaction is very much unlikely .

25. A spontaneous reaction is defined as one which


( a ) Proceeds by itself
( b ) Proceeds only when heated
( c ) Proceeds on heating at high pressure and in presence of catalyst
( d ) Proceeds by itself or when properly initiated .

26. Which one of the following is a spontaneous process ?


( a ) Dissolution of CuS O4 in H 2 O
( b ) Reaction between H 2 and O2 to form H 2 O
( c ) Water falling downhill
( d ) Flow of current from low potential to high potential .

27. In a reaction , if H and S are positive , the rate of reaction


( a ) Increases with increase in temperature
( b ) Decreases with increase in temperature
( c ) Has no effect on temperature
( d ) Decreases with increase in pressure .

30. For an endothermic reaction , H is


( a ) – ve
(b)0
( c ) + ve
( d ) Unpredictable .

36. For the process CO 2 ( s )  CO 2 ( g )


( a ) Both H and S are + ve
( b ) Both H and S are – ve
( c ) H is + ve and S is – ve
( d ) H is – ve and S is + ve .
51. The necessary and sufficient condition for equilibrium between two
phases is that
( a ) The concentration of each component in the two phases should be the
same
( b ) The temperature of each phase should be the same
( c ) The pressure should be the same in the two phases
( d ) The chemical potential of each component in the two phases should be
the same .

54. The partial molal free energy of an element A in solution is the same
as its
( a ) Chemical potential
( b ) Activity
( c ) Fugacity
( d ) Activity co - efficient .

58. The shape of the temperature – entropy diagram for the Carnot cycle
is a
( a ) Rectangle
( b ) Rhombus
( c ) Trapezoid
( d ) Circle .

63. A good refrigerant should have


( a ) High viscosity and low thermal conductivity
( b ) Low viscosity and high thermal conductivity
( c ) High viscosity and high thermal conductivity
( d ) Low viscosity and low thermal conductivity .

64. The theoretical minimum work required to separate 1 mol of a liquid


mixture at 1 atm containing 50 mol % each of n - heptane and n - octane
into pure compounds , each at 1 atm , is
( a ) – 2 RT ln 0.5
( b ) – RT ln 0.5
( c ) 0.5 RT
( d ) 2 RT .

66. The change in Gibbs ’ free energy for vaporization of a pure


substance is ( a ) + ve
( b ) – ve
(c)0
( d ) Either + ve or – ve .
67. The activity coefficient of an ideal gas is
( a ) Directly proportional to pressure
( b ) Inversely proportional to pressure
( c ) Unity at all pressures
( d ) None of these .

68. Which of the following is not a refrigerant ?


(a)SO2
(b) NH 3 3
(c )C Cl 2 F 2
(d )C 2 H 4 Cl 2 .

69. The number of phases in a colloidal system are


(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4.

70. The fugacity co - efficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity to


the
( a ) Mole fraction
( b ) Activity
( c ) Pressure
( d ) Activity co - efficient .

72. The free energy change for a chemical reaction is given by


( a ) RT ln K
( b ) – RT ln K
( c ) – R ln K
( d ) T ln K .

75. 1 ton of refrigeration capacity is equivalent to the heat removal rate of


( a ) 50 kcal / hr
( b ) 200 kcal / hr
( c ) 200 BTU / min
( d ) 200 BTU / d .

76. In an ideal solution , the activity of a component is equal to its


( a ) Fugacity
( b ) Mole fraction
( c ) Vapour pressure
( d ) Partial pressure .
77. The efficiency of an Otto engine compared to that of a diesel engine
for the same compression ratio will be
( a ) More
( b ) Less
( c ) Equal
( d ) Data insufficient .

79. The value of the activity coefficient for an ideal solution is


(a)1
(b)0
( c ) Equal to Henry’s law constant
( d ) Equal to vapour pressure .

81. Fugacity and pressure are numerically not equal for a gas
( a ) At low temperature and high pressure
( b ) At standard state
( c ) Both ( a ) and ( b )
( d ) In an ideal state .

82. Which of the following is not affected by temperature ?


( a ) Fugacity
( b ) Activity co - efficient
( c ) Free energy
( d ) All of these .

83. “The rate at which a substance reacts is proportional to its active


mass and the rate of a chemical reaction is proportional to the product of
the active masses of the reacting substances . ” This is the
( a ) Lewis – Randall rule
( b ) Statement of the Van’t Hoff equation
( c ) Le Chatelier’s principle
( d ) None of these .

87. For an ideal solution, the value of the activity coefficient is


(a)0
(b)1
(c)<1
(d)>1.

88. A good halogenated refrigerant should have


( a ) High thermal conductivity
( b ) Low freezing point
( c ) Zero ozone depletion potential
( d ) All of these .
90. In the reaction represented by 2 S O2 +O2=2 S O3 ,  H = – 42 kcal, the
forward reaction will be favoured by
( a ) Low temperature
( b ) High pressure
( c ) Both ( a ) and ( b )
( d ) Neither ( a ) nor ( b ) .

91. In a homogeneous solution , the fugacity of a component depends


upon the
( a ) Pressure
( b ) Composition
( c ) Temperature
( d ) All of these .

93.

94. The reaction A ( l )  R ( g ) is allowed to reach equilibrium condition


in an autoclave . At equilibrium there are two phases — one a pure liquid
phase of A and the other a vapour phase of A , R and S . Initially A alone
is present . The number of degrees of freedom is
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)0.

95. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N 2 (g)+3 H 2( g)2 NH 3 is


0.1084 . Under the same conditions , the equilibrium constant for the
reaction ( 1 / 2 ) N 2 ( g ) + ( 3 / 2 ) H 2 ( g )  NH 3 is
( a ) 0.1084
( b ) 0.3292
( c ) 0.0118
( d ) 0.0542 .

96. In the ammonia synthesis reaction N 2 +3 H 2 2 NH 3 + 22.4 kcal , the


formation of NH 3 will be favoured by
( a ) High temperature
( b ) Low pressure
( c ) Low temperature only
( d ) Both low temperature and high pressure .
105. Fugacity has the same dimension as
( a ) Temperature
( b ) Pressure
( c ) Activity coefficient
( d ) Work done .

116. In the vapour absorption refrigeration system , the compression


section is replaced by an assembly of
( a ) Absorber , heat exchanger and generator
( b ) Absorber , liquid pump , heat exchanger and generator
( c ) Absorber , liquid pump and heat exchanger
( d ) Absorber , liquid pump and generator .

119. The efficiency of a refrigerating machine operating between two


thermal reservoirs depends upon the
( a ) Nature of the working fluid only
( b ) Two reservoir temperatures only
( c ) Mass of the working fluid
( d ) Both pressure and temperature of the working fluid .

140. For an endothermic reaction


( a )  H = + ve
( b )  H = – ve
(c)H=
(d)H=0.

141. “ For a given chemical process , the net heat change will be the same
whether the process occurs in one or in several stages . ” This is known as
( a ) Kirchoff’s law
( b ) Hess’s law
( c ) Laplace’s law
( d ) Lavoisier’s law .

142. The standard heat of reaction is expressed as


143. The heat of combustion of a gas is generally determined with the
help of the
( a ) Bomb calorimeter
( b ) Dean and Stark apparatus
( c ) Optical pyrometer
( d ) Orsat analyser .

144. If a reaction proceeds without loss or gain of heat and if all the
products remain together in a single mass or stream of materials , these
products will assume a definite temperature known as the
( a ) Adiabatic flame temperature
( b ) Adiabatic reaction temperature
( c ) Flash point
( d ) Both ( a ) and ( b ) .

148. The commercial refrigerating machine follows the principle of the


( a ) Carnot cycle
( b ) Reversed Carnot cycle
( c ) Stirling cycle
( d ) None of these .

149. The condition for spontaneity of a chemical reaction is


( a )  GT , P < 0
( b )  GT , P > 0
( c )  GT , P = 0
( d ) None of these .

150. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction is influenced by the


( a ) Pressure
( b ) Temperature
( c ) Initial concentration of the reacting substance
( d ) None of these .

151. In refrigeration cycle , heat is


( a ) Abstracted from the lower temperature region and discarded to the higher
one
( b ) Absorbed from the higher temperature region and discarded to the lower
one
( c ) Both ( a ) and ( b )
( d ) Neither ( a ) nor ( b ) .
152. The chemical potential of a component is given by

153. The van Laar equation is useful in determining the activity co -


efficient of a / an
( a ) Azeotropic mixture
( b ) Ternary solution
( c ) Binary solution
( d ) None of these .

155. The influence of temperature on chemical equilibrium is


substantiated by the
( a ) Arrhenius equation
( b ) Le Chatelier’s principle
( c ) Van’t Hoff equation
( d ) None of these .

157. The Claude gas liquefaction process employs the ________ for
producing cooling effect
( a ) Isenthalpic expansion of gas
( b ) Isentropic expansion of gas
( c ) Isochoric expansion of gas
( d ) Isobaric expansion of gas .

159. The phase change process at varied equilibrium pressure and


temperature is concerned with
( a ) Maxwell’s equation
( b ) Gibbs – Helmholtz equation
( c ) Clapeyron equation
( d ) Gibbs – Duhem equation .

163. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction does not depend


upon
( a ) The temperature at equilibrium
( b ) The pressure at equilibrium
( c ) Neither ( a ) nor ( b )
( d ) Both ( a ) and ( b ) .
164. For a system prepared by partially decomposing CaC O 3 into an
evacuated space , the number of degrees of freedom is
(a)2
(b)0
(c)1
(d)3.

165. The number of degrees of freedom for a system prepared by


partially decomposing N H 4 Cl into an evacuated space is
(a)0
(b)1
(c)2
(d)3.

166. For a system of two miscible non - reacting species which exists as an
azeotrope in vapour – liquid equilibrium , the number of degrees of
freedom is
(a)2
(b)0
(c)3
(d)1.

167. The number of degrees of freedom for a system consisting of the


gases CO , C O2 , H 2 , H 2 O and CH 4 in chemical equilibrium is
(a)0
(b)1
(c)3
(d)4.

168. For the reaction 2SO2 + O2  2SO 3 ,  H = – 42 kcal , the forward


reaction will be favoured by
( a ) Low temperature
( b ) High pressure
( c ) Both ( a ) and ( b )
( d ) Neither ( a ) nor ( b ) .

172. Constant boiling mixtures are called


( a ) Distillates
( b ) Refluxes
( c ) Ternary solutions
( d ) Azeotropes .
173. The partial pressure of a component of an ideal solution is directly
proportional to its mole fraction in the solution . This is known as
( a ) Henry’s law
( b ) Raoult’s law
( c ) Amagot’s law
( d ) Dalton’s law .

174. In a dilute solution , the solute obeys


( a ) Henry’s law
( b ) Raoult’s law
( c ) Dalton’s law
( d ) None of these .

175. The solvent in a dilute solution follows


( a ) Henry’s law
( b ) Dalton’s law
( c ) Raoult’s law
( d ) None of these .

176. The ratio of fugacity to fugacity at standard state is called the


( a ) Activity
( b ) Activity co - efficient
( c ) Fugacity coefficient
( d ) Chemical potential .

183. Suppose a refrigerator with its door open is operated continuously in


a kitchen and the kitchen is isolated from the rest of the house . The
temperature of the kitchen will
( a ) Decrease
( b ) Increase
( c ) Not change
( d ) Increase first and then decrease .

190. Consider two identical closed rigid vessels A and B . Vessel A


contains 32 kg oxygen at 373 K while B contains 28 kg nitrogen at 373 K .
If pA and pB are the corresponding partial pressures in the two
containers , then
( a ) pA = pB
( b ) pA < pB
( c ) pA > pB
( d ) None of these .
203. The driving force of a system to be in chemical equilibrium is
( a ) Temperature
( b ) Pressure
( c ) Free energy
( d ) Chemical potential .

230. The residual volume is


( a ) A parameter to express the non - ideality of gases
( b ) The difference between the volume of real gas and the volume predicted
by ideal gas
( c ) The difference between the volume predicted by ideal gas and the volume
of real gas
( d ) Both ( a ) and ( b ) .

238. In the case of a refrigerator , heat flows


( a ) In the direction of increasing temperature
( b ) From a higher - temperature region to a lower - temperature one
( c ) From a lower - temperature region to a higher - temperature one
( d ) From source to sink at the same temperature level .

244. When two non - identical ideal gases are mixed irreversibly , the
change in entropy due to mixing will be

255. The inversion temperature of hydrogen is


( a ) 315 K
( b ) 202 K
( c ) 275 K
( d ) 345 K .

256. The inversion temperature of helium is


( a ) 460 K
( b ) 40 K
( c ) 620 K
( d ) 823 K .

257. The inversion point of a gas can be mathematically expressed as


258. Residual free energy is defined as
( a ) G R=G – Gig
( b ) G R=Gig – G
( c ) G R=G+Gig
( d ) None of these .

260. For a non - ideal gas , fugacity


( a ) Is equal to pressure
( b ) Is not equal to pressure
( c ) Is not concerned with pressure at all
( d ) None of these .

261. The effect of temperature on fugacity can be represented by

271. Pick out the correct relation between the COP of a refrigerator (
COP R ) and that of the heat pump ( COP HP )
( a ) COP HP=1 – COP R
( b ) COP R=COP HP +1
(c )COP HP =COPR – 1
(d )COP HP =COPR + 1.

272. 1 ton of refrigeration is equivalent to


( a ) 3.517 kW
( b ) 4.202 kW
( c ) 250 kcal / min
( d ) 50000 kcal / min .

273. The relative co - efficient of performance of a heat engine is the ratio


of
( a ) The theoretical COP to the actual COP
( b ) The actual COP to the theoretical COP
( c ) The theoretical COP to the ideal COP
( d ) None of these .
274. The advantage of the vapour - compression refrigeration system over
the absorption refrigeration system is that
( a ) The charging of the refrigerant is quite simple
( b ) The space requirement for installation of the system is relatively low
( c ) There is no chance of leakage of the refrigerant from the system
( d ) Thermal energy is supplied as input .

275. NH3 is not always preferred as a refrigerant due to its


( a ) Flammability
( b ) Viscosity
( c ) Toxicity
( d ) Ozone depletion potential .

276. Predict the correct one out of the following :


( a ) The boiling point of a refrigerant should be appreciably lower than the
temperature levels at which the refrigerator works
( b ) The freezing point of the refrigerant should be appreciably lower than the
operating temperature of the system
( c ) The operating pressure in the condenser should not be high
( d ) All of these .

277. The critical temperature and pressure of a refrigerant should be


( a ) Below the operating temperature and pressure of the system
( b ) Well above the operating temperature and pressure of the system
( c ) Equal to the operating temperature and pressure of the system
( d ) None of these .

278. Global Warming Potential (GWP) is an index that indicates the


ability of a gas
( a ) To absorb the ultra - violet rays
( b ) To absorb the infra - red rays
( c ) To absorb the photo - incidental rays
( d ) None of these .

279. Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) is an index that indicates the


ability of a gas
( a ) To deplete the tropospheric ozone layer
( b ) To deplete the stratospheric ozone layer
( c ) To absorb the atmospheric ozone
( d ) To increase the amount of ozone in the stratosphere .
280. For a good refrigerant
( a ) Ozone Depletion Potential should be high and Global Warming Potential
should be less
( b ) Ozone Depletion Potential should be less and Global Warming Potential
should be high
( c ) Both should be high
( d ) Both should be negligible .

281. To estimate the Ozone Depletion Potential of a refrigerant


( a ) CFC - 11 is used as a reference gas
( b ) CFC - 12 is used as a reference gas
( c ) CO2 is used as a reference gas
( d ) SO2 is used as a reference gas .

282. To compute the Global Warming Potential of a refrigerant


( a ) HFC - 134a is used as a reference gas
( b ) Hydrocarbon is used as a reference gas
( c ) CO2 is used as a reference gas
( d ) C H 4 is used as a reference gas .

283. Liquefaction can be achieved through


( a ) Expansion of gas through a work - producing device ( isentropic
expansion)
( b ) Joule – Thomson expansion ( isenthalpic expansion )
( c ) Exchange of heat at constant pressure
( d ) All of these .

284. The partial molar property of a component can be measured using


( a ) Analytical method only
( b ) Graphical method only
( c ) Analytical and graphical methods
( d ) Experimental method .

285. At the same temperature and pressure , the chemical potentials of a


component in two phases under equilibrium conditions
( a ) Are equal
( b ) Are different
( c ) Can not be predicted
( d ) None of these .

286. The influence of pressure on chemical potential can be expressed as


287. The activity of a component
( a ) Is a measure of effective concentration of a component
( b ) Results from the interaction between the molecules in a non - ideal gas or
solution
( c ) Is dimensionless
( d ) All of these .

288. The activity of a component depends on


( a ) Temperature only
( b ) Temperature and pressure only
( c ) Temperature , pressure and composition
( d ) None of these .

289. The activity of the component is defined as the ratio of


( a ) The fugacity of the component in the solution to the fugacity of the
component in the ideal state
( b ) The fugacity of the component in the standard state to the fugacity of the
component in the solution
( c ) The fugacity of the component in the solution to the fugacity of the
component in the standard state
( d ) None of these .

290. The activity coefficient is a measure of


( a ) The ideal behaviour of chemical substances in a mixture .
( b ) The deviation from ideal behaviour of chemical substances in a mixture
( c ) The effective concentration of a component
( d ) None of these .

291. For an ideal solution , the activity coefficient is defined as

292. The temperature dependence of the activity coefficient can be


expressed as
293. The change in partial molar properties with composition at constant
temperature and pressure can be better explained with the
( a ) Gibbs – Helmholtz equation
( b ) Gibbs – Duhem equation
( c ) Gibbs equation
( d ) Clausius – Clapeyron equation .

294. Excess property of a component can be schematically represented by


(a) H E =H – H id
(b) H E =H id – H
(c )H E – H id =H
(d )¿

295. “ The fugacity of each component in an ideal solution is proportional


to the mole fraction of that pure component in the solution . ” This is
known as
( a ) Henry’s law
( b ) Raoult’s law
( c ) Lewis – Randall rule
( d ) Gibbs law .

296. The Lewis – Randall rule is applicable


( a ) At high pressures
( b ) At low pressures when the gas mixture behaves as an ideal solution
( c ) At low temperature
( d ) At low temperature and high pressure .

297. Raoult’s law can be expressed as

298. Raoult’s law is found to be quite satisfactory for a


( a ) Dilute solution
( b ) Ideal solution
( c ) Non - ideal solution
( d ) Perfect gas .
299. For an ideal solution , the enthalpy change of mixing (  Hmix ) is
always given by
( a )  Hmix = 1
( b )  Hmix = 0
( c )  Hmix = – 1
( d )  Hmix =  .
300. Predict the correct form of the Gibbs – Duhem equation in terms of
the activity coefficient :

301. For a binary ideal solution , if x1 and x2 are the mole fractions of
components 1 and 2 respectively , then
( a ) x1 + x2 = 0
( b ) x1 + x2 = – 1 ( c ) x1 + x2 = 1
( d ) x1 + x2 =  .

302. In a binary ideal solution consisting of components A and B


( a ) Component A obeys Raoult’s law and component B obeys Henry’s law
( b ) Component A obeys Henry’s law and component B obeys Raoult’s law
( c ) Both the components obey Raoult’s law
( d ) None of these .

303. Pick up the correct sentence out of the following :


( a ) Minimum boiling azeotropes may be formed if a solution exhibits very
small positive deviation from ideal behaviour
( b ) Maximum boiling azeotropes may be formed if the solution exhibits very
large positive deviation from ideal behaviour
( c ) Minimum boiling azeotropes may be formed if the solution exhibits very
large positive deviation from ideal behaviour
( d ) None of these .

304. At constant temperature and pressure , the free energy for a


chemically reacting system at equilibrium is
( a ) Minimum
( b ) Maximum
( c ) Can not be predicted
( d ) None of these .

305. The criterion of phase equilibrium of a component is


(a)dGT ,P ,V =0
(b)dGT ,P =1
(c )dGT , P=0
(d ) dAT , P=0 .

306. The vapour – liquid equilibrium of a binary system can be better


represented by
( a ) Temperature – composition ( T – X – Y ) diagram
( b ) Pressure – composition ( P – X – Y ) diagram
( c ) Pressure – temperature ( P – T ) diagram
( d ) All of these .

307. The boiling point diagram of a binary mixture can be represented


with the help of the
( a ) Temperature versus volume plot
( b ) Pressure versus volume plot
( c ) Pressure versus composition plot
( d ) Temperature versus composition plot .

308. The boiling point diagram of a binary solution is used to know how
the equilibrium changes with
( a ) Pressure
( b ) Free energy
( c ) Temperature
( d ) Entropy .

309. The upper curve in the boiling point diagram is called


( a ) The saturated vapour curve
( b ) The dew point curve
( c ) The saturated liquid curve
( d ) Both ( a ) and ( b ) .

310. The bubble point and dew point curves meet where the mixture
turns into
( a ) Purely two components
( b ) Purely one component
( c ) Purely three components
( d ) None of these .

311. The term azeotrope means


( a ) Condensing without changing
( b ) Boiling without changing
( c ) Both ( a ) and ( b )
( d ) Neither ( a ) nor ( b ) .
312. Excess Gibbs free energy models are used to determine the value of
the
( a ) Isothermal compressibility
( b ) Activity coefficient
( c ) Coefficient of volume expansion
( d ) Gibbs ’ free energy .

313. For the determination of the activity coefficient for the system
comprising relatively simple and preferably non - polar liquids , we
generally use the
( a ) Wohl’s equation
( b ) Margules equation
( c ) Van Laar equation
( d ) Wilson equation .

314. The disadvantage ( s ) of the Wilson equation over the van Laar
equation is / are that
( a ) It can not be applied for the systems in which  shows maxima or minima
( b ) It is not suitable for the systems exhibiting limited miscibility
( c ) Neither ( a ) nor ( b )
( d ) Both ( a ) and ( b ) .

315. The advantage ( s ) of the UNIQUAC equation is / are that


( a ) It is suitable for solutions having small as well as large molecules
( b ) The equation is simple as it consists of only two adjustable parameters
( c ) It is also applicable to a good number of non - polar solutions such as
aldehydes and ketones
( d ) All of these .

316. Bubble point is defined as the point at which


( a ) The first bubble of vapour is formed upon heating a liquid consisting of
two or more components at a given pressure
( b ) The first drop of liquid ( condensate ) is formed upon cooling the vapour
at a given pressure
( c ) A saturation point is reached
( d ) A critical point is reached .

317. For checking the thermodynamic consistency of VLE data


( a ) A test is usually performed on the basis of the Gibbs – Duhem equation
in terms of the activity coefficients
( b ) The data can be obtained from the pressure – temperature – mole
fractions ( P – T – x – y ) diagram
( c ) A test is usually performed on the basis of the Margules equation
( d ) Both ( a ) and ( b ) .

318. For a ternary system having a homogeneous single phase , the


degree(s) of freedom will be
(a)3
(b)4
(c)2
(d)1.

319. The depression of freezing point is defined as the difference between


( a ) The freezing points of the pure solvent and the solution containing the
volatile solute
( b ) The melting points of the pure solvent and the solution containing the
non - volatile solute
( c ) The freezing points of the pure solvent and the solution containing the
non - volatile solute
( d ) The freezing points of the pure solvent and the solution containing the
non - volatile solvent .

320. The magnitude of the osmotic pressure depends on the


( a ) Temperature
( b ) Gibbs ’ free energy
( c ) Nature of the semi - permeable membrane
( d ) Entropy .

321. The reaction coordinate


( a ) Is a one - dimensional coordinate
( b ) Indicates the progress of a chemical reaction along a pathway
( c ) Is a geometric parameter that changes during the conversion of one or
more molecular entities
( d ) All of these .

322. A chemical reaction must proceed in the direction of


( a ) Increasing Gibbs free energy
( b ) Decreasing Gibbs free energy
( c ) Constant Gibbs free energy
( d ) None of these .

323. The equilibrium criterion of a chemical reaction can be expressed as


(a)(dG)T ,P =1
(b)(dG)TP =– 1
(c )(dG)T , P=0
(d )(dG)T , P=.

324. For a chemically reacting system, the relation between Gibbs’ free
energy change and equilibrium constant is given by

325. Heterogeneous reaction is defined as the reaction which requires


( a ) At least one phase to proceed
( b ) At least two phases to proceed
( c ) One initiator to take place
( d ) One negative catalyst to take place .

326. The phase rule for a chemically reacting system was formulated by
( a ) Gibbs – Duhem
( b ) Gibbs
( c ) Arrhenius
( d ) Van’t Hoff .

327. The phase rule for a chemically reacting system differs from the
same for a non - reacting system in terms of
( a ) The number of phases
( b ) The number of independent reactions
( c ) The number of components
( d ) None of these .

328. A fuel cell is an electrochemical energy conversion device in which


( a ) The chemical energy of a fuel is converted directly into electrical energy
( b ) The electrical energy of a fuel is converted directly into chemical energy
( c ) The chemical energy of a fuel is converted directly into mechanical
energy
( d ) None of these .

329. The fuel cell


( a ) Produces power at low cost at considerable periods
( b ) Requires quite extensive maintenance
( c ) Has harmful by - products
( d ) None of these .

330. The criterion for equilibrium for a chemically reacting system


( a ) Is independent of the laws of thermodynamics
( b ) Is obtained from the first and second laws of thermodynamics
( c ) Can not be obtained unless the fundamental relation is known
( d ) None of these .
331. A process is said to be feasible if
(a)G>0
(b)G<0
(c)G<1
(d)G>1.

332. For a chemically reacting system at constant temperature and


pressure , the criterion for equilibrium can be expressed as
( a )   idni = 0
( b )  nid  i < 0
( c )  nid  i = 0
( d )  nid  i > 1 .

333. For an ideal gas the change in Gibbs’ free energy at constant
temperature is given by
( a ) Rd ln T
( b ) RTd ln V
( c ) RTd ln P
( d ) None of these .

334. The activity of component i can be written as

335. The influence of temperature on the equilibrium constant of a


chemical reaction can be obtained from

337. For the reaction CO ( g)+2 H 2 (g)C H 3 OH (g) , with increase in pressure
the degree of conversion
( a ) Decreases
( b ) Increases
( c ) Remains constant
( d ) None of these .

338. Methanol can be produced by the following reaction


CO ( g)+2 H 2 (g)C H 3 OH (g) If some inert gas is added to the reaction
mixture , then the degree of conversion
( a ) Decreases
( b ) Does not change
( c ) Increases
( d ) None of the above .

339. Hydrogen gas is produced according to the reaction


C H 4 ( g)+ H 2 O( g)CO ( g)+ 3 H 2 (g) With increase in pressure the degree of
conversion
( a ) Decreases
( b ) Increases
( c ) Remains constant
( d ) None of these .

340. For the reaction N 2 (g)+3 H 2(g)2 N H 3 ( g) , maximum conversion can be


achieved if the reaction takes place at
( a ) Low pressure and high temperature
( b ) Low temperature and high pressure
( c ) Low pressure and low temperature
( d ) High pressure and high temperature .

341. Given that the standard free energy of formation at 298 K for NH3 is
– 16.750 kJ / mol, the standard Gibbs ’ free energy change for the
ammonia synthesis reaction N 2 (g)+3 H 2(g)2 N H 3 ( g) is
( a ) – 35.7 kJ
( b ) – 33.5 kJ
( c ) – 38.2 kJ
( d ) – 53.4 kJ .

342. The chemical potential of component i in a solution mixture can be


expressed as
( a )  i = RT ln G0i + ai
( b )  i = RT ln ai + G0i
( c )  i = RT ln G0i – ai
( d )  i + RT ln G0i = ai .

343. The chemical potential of a pure substance is equal to the


( a ) Specific Gibbs ’ free energy
( b ) Molar entropy
( c ) The Gibbs ’ free energy
( d ) Molar Gibbs ’ free energy .

344. In an ideal gas mixture consisting of components A and B , the


partial pressure of component A is equal to

345. In an ideal gas mixture consisting of components A and B , the mole


fraction of component A is equal to

346. In an absorption refrigeration system, the heat energy Q1 is supplied


at temperature T1 while the system absorbs heat energy Q3 from a cold
space at temperature T3 . If the ambient temperature is T2 , then the
COP of the refrigerator ( ignoring the negligible amount of heat supplied
to the pump ) is

357. For a binary system comprising two miscible non - reacting


components in vapour – liquid equilibrium forming an azeotrope , the
number of degrees of freedom is
(a)0
(b)1
(c)2
(d)3.

367. The distribution coefficient ( k ) depends upon


( a ) Temperature only
( b ) Pressure only
( c ) Temperature and pressure only
( d ) Temperature , pressure and concentration
368. For an ideal gas mixture undergoing a reversible gaseous phase
chemical reaction , the equilibrium constant
( a ) Increases with pressure
( b ) Decreases with pressure
( c ) Is not dependent of pressure
( d ) None of these

373. For a multi - component system, the chemical potential is equivalent


to ( a ) Molar free energy
( b ) Molar concentration difference
( c ) Molar free energy change
( d ) Partial molar free energy

374. A domestic refrigerator consists of


( a ) A condenser , a compressor and an evaporator
( b ) A condenser , a throttling valve , a compressor and an evaporator
( c ) A condenser , a throttling valve and an evaporator
( d ) A condenser , a generator , a compressor and an evaporator

377. The degree of freedom of a system comprising a gaseous mixture of


H 2and N H 3 will be
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)0

379. For an ideal solution, isotherm on an enthalpy - concentration


diagram will be
( a ) Parabola
( b ) Hyperbola
( c ) Sine curve
( d ) Straight line
Respostas

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