Chapter 2,4 and 9 are undone

Chapter 1 Organisations and Information Systems

1. Information systems bind the organisation internally as well as externally

through the internet.

2. An organisation’s knowledge base refers to the information that is stored,

processed and converted into forms that make it an integral part of the
organisation.

3. The organisations are linked as nodes on the network where they receive and
transmit information (True/False) ⇒ True

4. Which of the following is not a feature of a modern organisation?

a. IT-enabled organisation
b. Networked organisation
c. Dispersed organisation
d. None of the above

5. Information Technology includes computing devices such as personal

computers, notebook computers, mobile phones, etc. and various types of
networks.

6. A Printer, used in an organisation, is also a component of the IS of the

organisation. (True/False) ⇒ True

7. With the current availability of data on the web, the most important data can be
accessed easily. (True/False) ⇒ False

8. Organisations create Apps that run on smartphones and give exclusive

access to information and services of the organisation to the user.

9. CRM systems are used widely to maintain details about customers like
their
a. interactions with the organisation
 b. purchasing and payment details
c. service needs and other similar details
d. all of the above
10. The IS Implementation process begins with a initiation, or the
recognition of a need for an IS. (True/False) ⇒ True

11. Information systems and organisations interact in a manner that is

dynamic and evolving.

12. The outcomes that arise as a direct consequence of the introduction of

an IS are known as first-order effects.

13. The Second-order effects of the implementation of a new IS in an

organisation
a. become visible immediately
b. may become visible within a few weeks
c. may require years to become visible or measurable
d. both a and b

14. The city government obtains data from the information systems of form in
a city regarding their employees’ offices and places of living for promoting
carpooling. This is an example of the effects of the implementation
information systems by the firms.
a. third order
b. second order
c. first order
d. both b and c

15. It is quite likely that when a new information system is introduced in an

organisation, it has to blind with the already existing IT infrastructure of the
organisation. (True/False) ⇒ True

16. A Chief Information Officer (CIO) is typically the person in any

organisation who has the responsibility of deploying and maintaining IS.

17. What all a manager has to examine in order to understand if the new
system will fit and in what manner will be acquired or introduced. a.
 culture
b. structure and infrastructure
c. both a and b
18. Lax security leads to problems of data theft, viruses, etc

19. Cloud computing presents a new and innovative possibility for

organisations to move their computing needs to an environment that is
different from the traditional one.

20. Managers have to be careful about the security arrangements while moving
any functions in the cloud. (True/False) ⇒ True

21. While planning an information system, managers in many organisations

have to consider trade-offs between speed and of information. a. amount
b. accuracy
c. sources
d. both b and c

22. Internal threats to an information system arise from computer viruses that enter
through the Internet services and disrupt the functioning of different systems within
the organisation. (True/False) ⇒ False

23. Internal threats arise from employees stealing data or fudging

accounts or misusing the systems in some way.

24. In an economy in which the firm is doing well, managers value

information related to
a. employee satisfaction
b. market share
c. budgets and costs, receivables
d. both a and b

25. Information technology (IT) are the artefacts such as that constitute
the IS.
a. Computer
b. Software
c. Networks
 d. all of the above
26. Culture or work culture of any organisation is understood as the shared
set of and within the organisation.
a. Values
b. Beliefs
c. Groups
d. both a and b

27. Many modern organisations use a matrix structure where strict

hierarchies are not present.

28. The challenge that most managers face is that of having efficient
processes that enable them to achieve their goals in the best possible
manner.

29. If the firm has an internal IS department then it may choose to build
the system on it own.

30. In networked organisation responding means taking those actions that

will move the organisation towards its goals.

Chapter 3 E-Commerce ,E-Business and E-Governance

1.Which of the following is the part of the four main types for e-commerce?

A.B2B

B.B2C

c.C2B

d. All of the Above

2.Which type of e-commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other?

A.B2B

B. B2C

c.C2B

d.C2C

3) ………………..is concerned with the buying and selling information, products and services over
computer communication networks

(a) Commerce

(b) E-Commerce

(c) E-Business

(d) None of these

4) ……………allows a business application on the computer of one organization to communicate

directly with the business application on the computer of another company

(a) EDI

(b) Protocols

(c) Standards

(d) Business applications

5. Electronic Exchange of business documents in a standard format is known as ………………

(a) E-commerce

(b) E-Business

(c) EDI

(d) None of these

6. Among the alternate models of B2B e-commerce,……is the best means to obtain a competitive
advantage in the Market place.

(a) Process based

(b) strategic relationship based

(c) transaction based

(d) any of these

7. …………………is basically a concept of online marketing and distributing of products and services
over internet

(a) B2G

(b) B2E

(c) B2C

(d) B2B

8.……………………..e-commerce consists of the sale of products or services from a business to the

general public

(a) B2G

(b) B2E

(c) B2B

(d) B2C.

9. Which of the following is not suitable for a B2C transaction ?

(a) clothes

(b) flowers

(c) airline reservation

(d) none

10………………is any transaction, involving the transfer or rights to use goods and services, which is
initiated and or completed by using mobile access to computer mediated networks with the help of
an electronic device

A )Mobile Commerce

B) e-commerce

C) both of these

D )none of these

11. ………………type of payment system is highly useful to those customers who would like to control
overspending,

(a) Prepaid

(b) Post paid

(c) both of these

(d) none of these

12. In …………………..type of payment system customer is allowed to spend only up to the amount
that have pre deposited into account.

(a) Prepaid

(b) Post paid

(c) both of these

(d) none of these

13. ………………….is a financial instrument which can be used more than once to borrow money or
buy products and services on credit.

(a) Credit card

(b) E-Cheques

(c) E-cash

(d) none of these

14. The dimension of e-commerce that enables commerce across national boundaries is called
______

A. interactivity.

B. global reach.

C. richness.

D. ubiquity

15.1Disadvantage of E-Marker are

a. reduce search cost

b. market is available round the clock

c. dialogue between seller and customer are not possible

d. either a or b

16.Which of the following describes e-commerce?

a. Doing business electronically
b. Doing business
c. Sale of goods
d. All of the above

Book Questions
Answers:
Chapter 5 Information Technology Infrastructure and
Choices

1. An IT ecosystem is the complete IT-enabled environment that exists for employees of an

organization to work in.
2. An IT infrastructure consists of hardware, software ,network and services that combine to
form applications that are used by the organization such as e-commerce ,materials
management ,accounting ,customer relationship management (CRM), etc TRUE
3. An organization’s decisions with regard its IT infrastructure loosely pertains to two
categories those belonging to business needs and those belonging to technology
concerns. TRUE
4. The hype around a technology drops when the media and users realize that the
technology is either not mature enough to enter the market or not as good as the
technology media projected it to be. TRUE
5. Which of the following IT infrastructure questions are not related to the
organization’s business needs?
a) How does the technology helps the organization compete?
b) What will be the nature of the technology lock-in?
c) What business needs have to be met with the infrastructure
components?
d) Is the technology interoperable?
6. The bus is the central pathway for transferring data around the computers.
7. Cache miss occurs when data in the cache is outdated as the cache has not
swapped it with the RAM.
8. Servers are distinguished from clients, which are computers that demand and
received services from servers.
9. The operating system boots up the computer and takes control of all the
components.
10. Data applications are not easily interchangeable and do create a lock-in when
users opt for one.
11. Enterprise software allows management to have both a forest view of the
organization and a view at the level of trees and branches.
12. Compression software reduces the size of files so that the storage capacity can
be used more efficiently.
13. The RAM speed is an indication of how fast the memory devices is able to read or
change its contents. TRUE
14. Devices such as flash driver and compact discs are examples of fixed storage. FALSE
15. Tape drives still provide the most cost effective and reliable storage available. But
they are slower than the other derivers and because of their sequential reading
process, searching process, searching data in them is difficult and slow. FALSE
16. Application software allows users to use the computer to do their work. Application
software is designed for a particular operating system. TRUE.
17. Software that is distributed only in the compiled binary version is called open source
software ,whereas software that is distributed with the source code is called
proprietary software. FALSE
18. This type of software has limited functionality as it is used in special purpose
processors which control equipment such as machinery, hardware and fluid devices
in cars. which is this software? Embedded software
19. To view or modify files containing images, music or video data , which type of
software is used ? Multimedia software.
20. Which of the following statements is not true about the processor components and
functions , RAM and cache?
a)The CPU or processor consists of the control unit, the arithmetic logic unit and the
registers.
b)The problem of the CPU latency is addressed by providing a very fast memory called
cache.

c)RISC processors are more expensive compared to CISC processors ,

which could be slower.
21.Which of the following statements is not true about the instruction cycle and the
execution cycle that are followed in the processor for doing a work?
a)If the instruction cycle, the data and instruction are fetched from the external
memory.
b)In the execution cycle, the instruction and data, which are stored in the registers are
fed through the gates.

c)After the completion of a machine cycle, the processor goes idle for a
very short duration before starting another cycle.
22.which of the following statements is not true about desktops and laptops?
 a)The key advantage of desktops is they can be upgraded quite easily , as there is
plenty of space in the CPU units to add or change the components.

b)Desktop purchases are usually more expensive than laptops, when

compared feature by feature.
c)Laptops have a smaller renewal cycle as they are more prone to physical shocks and
mechanical wear.
23.which of the following statements is not true about servers and workstations?
a)servers, equipped with the high-speed processors and high-capacity RAM, are used to
provide applications to the entire organization across its networks.

b)servers have a shorter renewal cycle.

c)In multi-core servers, a single physical chip has more than one CPU. Multi-core servers
cost less, give improved utilization ,and save on energy costs.
24.which of the following statements are true about the storage area network(SAN)?
a)A storage area network (SAN)consists of hard disk arrays and is maintained separately on
the network. However, to all the computers on the network, SAN appears to be an attached
disk drive.
b)SAN enables many users and computers to share the same storage, which can be
effectively backed up and protected centrally.
c)SAN provides flexibility in scaling up as only the storage unit needs to be upgraded, not
the computer boxes using the storage.

d)All of the above.

25.which of the following statements are not true about the operating system (OS)?

a)The OS does not manage or run the drivers of any peripheral hardware.
b)The operating system also manages a user interface, which is graphical in most modern
operating system.
c)The OS manages and maintains user accounts on a computer, each account having a name
and a password.
26.Match the following categories of software or applications with their respective product
groups.
(a)Database software
(b)Enterprise software
(c)Office productivity software
(d)Browser
(e)Multimedia software
(f)Networking applications
(g)Operating systems

(1)Mozilla fire fox, internet explorer and chrome (d)

(2)Oracle, MySQL (a)

(3)Photoshop and GNU image manipulation program (GIMP) (e)

(4)Windows, Linux, MacOS, Solaris (g)

(5)Skype, email servers Yahoo and Gmail, and email clients such as evolution on Linux and
outlook on Microsoft (f)

(6)SAP, iDempiere, Openbravo, Compiere (b)

(7) Microsoft office and open office (c)

27.Enterprise systems are a class of systems that allow multiple possible applications to be
run in a Centralized, coordinated manner.

28.IT outsourcing refers to the process of contracting out the management of computing
resources of an organization.

29.The virtual server is a technology that loosens the tight coupling between the
hardware and the operating system.
30.If in an organization , any of the interoperable technologies is upgraded, it may not be
easy to ensure that it remains interoperable with the other technologies as it were earlier
TRUE
31.Virtualisation allows many operating systems to be installed on the processors, each
having its own dedicated resources of hard disk space, RAM and network connectivity.
TRUE
32.Which of the following statements are true about the time and materials model of IT
outsourcing?
a)In this model, the vendor brings skilled staff and resources, such as software and
computers, to the site of the client to build systems.
b)The vendor bills the client for the hours spent on the job and the costs of the hardware
and software used.
c)This model is best suited for clients who are not very sure of their requirements, and need
the skills of the vendor to get going on their project.

d)All of the above.

33.Match the models of IT outsourcing with their description or characteristics – two
statements for each model.
(a)Cloud-based model
(b)Exchange-based model
(c)Joint venture
i. The clients and vendor partner to form a third company as a joint venture.
ii. Both the client and the vendor invest capital, but the vendor provides the skill and
personnel and the client becomes the first customer of this new firm.
iii. The client and the vendor draw up a specific contract on the nature of the work.
iv. The client transfers control of all IT assets such as software licences, hardware and
even personnel over to the vendor.
v. Clients enter into an agreement to use the cloud-based services of a vendor, with
the

Chapter 6 Cloud Computing and Internet of things

1. Which is not a benefit of cloud computing?

a) Scalability
b) Resource pooling
c) Dynamic load balances
d) Elasticity

1. How many types of cloud computing are there?

a) Two types
b) Three types
c) Four types
d) Five types

2. Which of the following application is not best stored on cloud servers?

a) Low business risk and commodity applications
b) Applications that do not scale
c) Applications that require collaboration
d) Applications that have volatile demand

3. Private cloud is not known as:

a) Supportive cloud
b) Internal cloud
c) Corporate cloud
d) None of these

4. In a furnished apartment most of the facilities for living are already available and the renter
can start living there with only her personal effects. This analogy corresponds to which of
the following cloud service models?
a) Saas
b) Iaas
c) Paas
d) None of the above

5. Which is not the characteristics of private cloud?

a) Secure
b) Central control
c) Weak SLA
d) Scalable

6. what is the full form of S.L.A?

a) service level agreement
b) strong legal agreement
c) security layout agreement
d) simplified lawful agreement

7. which type of cloud is the combination of two other clouds?

a) Private
b) Public
c) Hybrid
d) Community

8. Which type of cloud need involvement of groups for its implementation?

a) Private
b) Public
c) Hybrid
d) Community
9. “Dustbin generate a message when it gets full” This is the example of ________?
a) IOT
b) CRT
c) RFID
d) SDN

10. For which of the following tasks radio-frequency-identification(RFID) tags are not used.
a) Tracking the health parameters of those involved in inventory related jobs
b) Exact time and quantity of finished goods moved out of the factory premises
c) Exact location of the new inventory in a factory
d) Tracking material in factory

11. The configurations of things connected to the internet are referred to as

a) Internet 4.0
b) Industrial Internet-of-Things
c) Internet-of-Everything
d) All of the above

12. Which are the key elements of IOT?

a) Containers and sensors
b) Actuators and containers
c) Sensors and actuators
d) None of these

13. How many layers an IOT Architecture have:

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

14. Which is not the characteristics of sensors

a) Power consumption
b) Size
c) Mechanical
d) Data filter

15. What are the significant challenges in managing IOT systems

a) Massive data flows
b) Massive volume of data
c) Variety in data
d) All the above

16. Which is the software for creating virtual machines that are lighter and suitable for cloud
environments?
a) Actuators
b) Heterogeneity
c) Sensors
d) Containers

17. Cloud services where specific applications are provided to clients over the internet is
a) Saas
b) Iaas
c) Caas
d) Paas

18. What is used to virtualise networking tasks?

a) IOT
b) RFID
c) VR
d) SDN

19. what are the examples of IOT

a) logistics management with IOT
b) healthcare with IOT
c) Both a and b
d) none of these

20. which of these is a hardware-level service, provides computing resources such as processing
power, memory, storage and network to cloud users?
a) Iaas
b) Paas
c) Saas
d) Naas

21. A mix of different kinds of hardware, software, and network components within a particular
computing infrastructure is
a) Containers
b) Heterogeneity
c) Actuators
d) sensors

22. Which cloud facility is dedicated to a single client, without any shared facilities?
a) Hybrid
b) Community
c) Private
d) public

23. Which is not the type of sensor of the following?

a) Noise
b) Speed
c) Proximity
d) Electrical

24. Cloud service where computing infrastructure is provided to clients over the internet, where
they install their own applications is
a) Iaas
b) Paas
c) Saas
d) Caas

25. Which device collect data on specific aspects of their environment?

a) Actuators
b) Sensors
c) Containers
d) heterogeneity

26. Which is the type of actuators of the following?

a) Electrical
b) Mechanical
c) Hydraulic and pneumatic
d) All the above

27. Cloud services where computing infrastructure is provided along with tools and software
libraries to build applications is
a) Paas
b) Caas
c) Iaas
d) saas

28. Which device that move or change their own state or of another device upon receiving a
signal?
a) Internet-of-things
b) Sensors
c) Actuators
d) Containers

29. Which is not the challenge of cloud computing and IOT?

a) Security
b) Privacy
c) Internet access
d) None of these

\
 Chapter 7 Information Systems Security and
Control

1. Malicious codes called ………………, also attack organizations to infect them or to steal
data and money
a) Virus
b) Worms
c) Crackers
d) Malware
2. ……………… and …………….. are rampant and infect million of computers wreaking heavy
damage on data and productivity
Ans. Virus and Worms
3. ILOVEYOU worm was written by two college dropout computer programmer, originated in
a) Germany
b) Philippines
c) Ukraine
d) Hong Kong
4. What is false about Conficker worms?
a) Use all known infection techniques to spread itself
b) Affected major government and defense departments
c) It was originated in Philippines
d) Spreads through USB memory sticks, email attachments or through shared files
5. The worm that comes as an attachment in an e-mail message
a) SQL Slammer
b) ILOVEYOU
c) Conficker worm
d) Both (a) and (b)
6. Cracking methods whose crackers identify the kind and type of system that is being used
and then uncover its security mechanism
a) Reverse Engineering
b) Political Espionage
c) Social Engineering
d) none of these
7. Which of the following is not a type of malicious software that pose a threat to security of
organization.
a) Phishing
b) worm
c) Virus
d) Trojan Horse
8. ………………..is a type of software that resides in the computer and secretly relays
information about the usage of computer to agent outside
a) Worm
b) Trojan Horse
c) Spyware
d) Virus
9. Hacking is done for useful reasons known as ……………………
Ans. Ethical Hacking
10. The identity theft takes place by
a) Snooping
b) Key Logging
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Phishing
11. The manipulation of unsuspecting users to extract private information from them is
done by
a) Political Espionage
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Social Engineering
d) None of these
12. The worm propagates only via the windows operating systems by relying on its
vulnerabilities
a) Conficker Worm
b) SQL Slammer
c) Stuxnet
d) none of these
13. The crackers break into organizations is for industrial and ………………………….
Ans. Political Espionage
14. The ………………………… worm did harm to systems too as it made changes to windows
so that it would always be invoked when the systems was booted up
a) Conficker worm
b) ILOVEYOU worm
c) SQL Slammer
d) Stuxnet
15. The technology by which a message or data is transformed or translated into a form
that is not easily readable by anyone
a) Public-key cryptography
b) Encryption
c) Firewall
d) Virtual Private Network
16. Which cryptography solves the problem of having to send a key secretly to receive of
message
a) Symmetric Key
b) Public Key
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Private Key
17. What is wrong about cracking and hacking
a) Often use interchangeably
b) Exploit some weakness, human or technological, in security of system
c) Objective is to steal information, digital resources or money
d) none of these
18. In computing technology the original message to be encrypted is usually called a
…………….. and the coded message is called a ……………………..
a) Plaintext and Cipher text
b) Cipher text and Plaintext
c) Plaintext and symmetric text
d) Cipher text and Symmetric text
19. A …………………….. attack is a method by which crackers pull down or slow down the
service of website.
Ans. Denial-of-service (DOS)
20. How the plaintext is converted to cipertext
a) Shift 5 (shift each character by 5)
b) The character are shifted by 19 space(space 19)
c) Reverse and shift 5(reverse the order and shift by 5 characters)
d) All the above
21. The software that when installed stays in the RAM & keeps records of all keystrikes on
the keyboard
a) DOS
b) Spyware
c) Key logger
d) None of these
22. The DOS attack relies on ………………….. handshake of connection oriented protocol
a) One step
b) Two step
c) Three step
d) Four step
23. Which of the following is not true about DMZ?
a) Buffer that allows user to enter after authentication is allowed to access other access
b) Virtual network apart from organization network
c) If one of the server is attacked, then others too are attacked
d) It stands for demilitarized zone
24. ATM is an example of-
a) Single Factor Authentication
b) Two Factor Authentication
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) none of these
25. Co-Locations facilities have:
a) Temperature and humidity controlled rooms
b) Store data servers
c) Highly reliable power supply
d) specially designed building to protect from flood, earthquake
e) all of these
26. Under control of crackers, the machines acts as …………………….. and ………………………
Ans. Zombies and Botnets
27. Which of the following is not true about Public- key encryption?
a) Followed by pair of key called public key and private key
b) Message is encrypted using private key and decrypted using public key
c) Also known as RSA encryption technique
d) Process involves taking the product of these numbers from which an amount is
subtracted and division is performed
28. What is true about firewall?
a) Filtering and protecting device that is usually a combination of software and hardware.
b) Protects organization against malicious crackers and intruders
c) It is packet filter device that monitors both outgoing and incoming packets
d) All of these
29. The method of authentication using a public key technology is known as
………………………….
Ans. Digital Signature
30. Logging to an e-mail is an example of
a) Single Factor Authentication
b) Two Factor Authentication
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) none of these
31. Which of the following are features of Managing security in Information System?
a) Confidentiality
b) Message Integrity
c) Authentication
d) All of these
32. ……………………… are also used to authenticate the owner of public key.
Ans. Digital Certificates
33. Which mode provides more privilege for changing the setting
a) Administrative mode
b) User mode
c) Both are equally secure
d) Both are insecure
34. Which of the following is wireless technology
a) Wi-Fi Routers
b) RFID
c) Bluetooth
d) All of the above
35. In which type of filtering technique, trusted users can be allowed to access the telnet
facility, whereas other users can be barred from doing so
a) Packet filtering
b) Deep Packet inspection
c) Application Filtering
d) None of these
36. Which of the following is secure mode of running the system
a) Administrative mode
b) User mode
c) Both are equally secure
d) Both are insecure
37. …………………… encryption is used extensively to protect data on wired and wireless
networks
Ans. Symmetric keys
38. Public key cryptography followed here is having a pair of keys called………………
and……………………….
Ans. Public key and Private key
39. A kind of ‘tunnel’ through which clients can connect to the organization’s network while
using the public network
a) Wireless technology
b) RFID
c) Virtual Private Network
d) Wireless Sensor Network
40. Which statement is wrong about Virtual Private Network
a) Technology that enables clients or employees of organization who are outside the
network to connect to organization network securely
b) relies on authentication and encryption
c) Often able to go through firewall via special channel, allowing users to connect to all the
facilities anf features available on organization’s operating network
d) None of the above
41. The device rely on ……………………….. of different frequencies to connect with each other
to share info
a) UV Rays
b) Infrared Rays
c) Radio Waves
d) X-Rays
42. Which statement is not true about Wi-Fi routers and bluetooth
a) Wi-Fi connection is approved by IEEE for wireless connection
b) Bluetooth is popularly used with hotspot or access points that are routers
c) Bluetooth standard offers lower data transfer rates and operates over a short distance
d) Wi-Fi routers should be in an unsecured manner, where anybody can simply lock into
signal available and use the connection
43. Which of the following is/ are applications of RFID
a) Managing inventory in large warehouse by tagging all items
b) Charging cars at toll plazas through RFID tagged display cards
c) For use on public transportation where RFID tagged passes allow user to travel without
having to purchase tickel
d) all of the above
44. The network used for sensing agriculture region for what is termed ‘precision
agriculture’
a) RFD
b) Wireless sensor network
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) WI-FI
45 .Which is not true about wireless sensor network

a) Electronic device used to measure some aspect of the environment it is located in

b) Cannot measure temperature ,humidity, movement etc.
c) Are used to sense some parameter and send out signal about measure value over
wireless network
d) it ensure that the treatment is targeted at the specific spot when condition has been
detected and not spend over the entire acreage
46. Which among the following is not a collocation facility spot ?
a) Chennai
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Arizona desert in US
d) ACL
47. The idea of having a plan that would lead to resumption of normal business with the IT
infrastructure after a disruption caused by a natural/manmade disaster is called
a) Disaster recovery (DR)
b) Business continuity planning (BCP)
c) Both terms can be used interchangeably
d) None of these
48. Which of the following are true for mirroring?
a) It creates exact copy of entire data base of the organization
b) Called redundant facilities
c) Highly expensive, so they are stored at remote location called co-location facilities
d) All of above
49. Which of the following is correct in regard to security audit
a) Helps the firm in achieving security goals
b) Risk assessment analyzed
c) It will test security weakness of the system
d) all of the above

Chapter 8. Information systems development and project

management

1) What was developed using principles of engineering, with an emphasis on design before
implementation.
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Coding
d. Planning

2) The software industry grew immensely, and with it grew the problems of _____, and the
need for extensive and scientific testing.

a. Spaghetti code
b. parallel code
c. obfuscated code
d. Pizza code

3) What need led to the creation of Life cycle models.

a. Large contracts for programming, with millions of lines of code required a formal and
structured manner.
b. Large contracts for software, with millions of lines of code required a formal and
structured manner.
c. Small contracts for software, with millions of lines of code required unformal and
unstructured manner.
d. Small contracts for software, with millions of lines of code required a formal and
structured manner.

4) What is followed by the formal steps of testing and implementation.

a. Analysis
b. Maintenance
c. Coding
d. Implementation

5) In what the project proceeds along each stage with the ability to loop back to a previous
stage if necessary.

a. Spiral Model
b. Agile Method
c. Waterfall Model
d. Scrum Method
6) In waterfall model, the first three are considered the most critical and important part s of
the life cycle are called as ______

a. Lower stages of the cycle

b. Middle stages of the cycle
c. Upper stage of the cycle
d. None of the above

7) What involved in Lower stage cycle of waterfall model.

a. Coding an implementation
b. implementation and maintenance
c. Analysis and design
d. project requirement and analysis

8) Select from following proper sequence of six stags of waterfall model.

a. Design, Coding testing, Implementation integration, Maintenance, Analysis, Project
requirement
b. Project requirement, Analysis, Coding testing, Design, Implementation integration,
Maintenance
c. Project requirement, Design, Analysis, Coding testing, Implementation integration,
Maintenance
d. Project requirements, Analysis, Design, Coding testing, implementation integration,
Maintenance.

9) In what stage of waterfall model, the overall scope of the project is established.

a. Analysis phase
b. Project requirement phase
c. Design phase
d. Maintenance phase

10) What is an following an important task of the project requirement phase.

a. Feasibility analysis
b. Technical analysis
c. Requirement analysis
d. Design analysis

11) The project requirements provide a road map for the project with important details
such as ________ and _______.

a. Design and coding

b. Budget allocation and time frame
c. Project walkthrough and allocation
d. None of the above

12) In which stage shows output of the lifecycle is a document that clearly outlines the
scope of the project, the budget, the personnel involved, the likely milestones and the key
success indicators.

a. Analysis
b. Design
c. Maintenance
d. Project Requirement
13) Analysis stage is also called the _______ where the basic objective of the system is
explained in as much details as possible.

a. Requirement stage
b. Design stage
c. Coding stage
d. Testing stage

14) Who are connected to the system in a direct manner and sometimes indirectly and
whose use or non-use of the system will determine its success.

a. Client
b. Tester
c. Stakeholders
d. coder

15) What analysts uses to ensure that the requirements they unearth are adequately
recorded in the requirements document.

a. Rigorous documentation techniques

b. Easy analysis techniques
c. Easy documentation techniques
d. Rigorous analysis techniques

16) In what stage it is provide clear and precise guidelines as how the system will be built.

a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Implementation
d. Design

17) What CASE stands for?

a. Computer-Aided software Engineering

b. Computer-Access Software Engineering
c. Computer- Aided System Engineering
d. Computer-Access System Engineering

18) What output shows design stage?

a. Document that clearly outlines the scope of the project, the budget, the personnel
involved, the likely milestones and the key success indicators.
b. Detailed requirement document that specifies the objective of the system and what is
needed to be done to realize these objectives.
c. Document that specifies the system in great details but does not necessarily contain
coded programs.
d. None of the above

19) Which phase involves the building the system and writing the software

a. Coding and Testing

b. Implementation integration
c. Design
D. None of the above

20) _____ are set of problems the program is run on to see how it performs.

a. Design suits
b. Test suits
c. Platform
d. both a and b

21) What it is called when tests are conducted for individual modules.

a. Stub Testing
b. Integration Testing
c. System Testing
d. None of the above

22) Modules clubbed together called ____

a. Unit testing
b. Integration testing
c. System testing
d. both a and c
23) Software released for user for testing is said to be an ___

a. Alpha testing
b. Unit testing
c. Beta testing
d. System testing

24) Software released to a longer audience and this is known as _______

a. Alpha Testing
b. Beta Testing
c. System Testing
d. None of the above

25) which testing is more rigorous as it forces the software to encounter situations it has
not seen before?

a. Beta testing
b. Alpha testing
c. Integration testing
d. Unit testing

26) what phase is for the continued use of the system?

a. Design
b. Coding
c. Implementation
d. Maintenance

27) Standard for the software development process and certifications for the same are
based on ______

a. Waterfall model
b. Scrum model
c. Agile models
d. None of the above

28) What is called if the requirements are changed and accommodating the new
requirements attracts extra charges.

a. Scope creep by shareholder

b. Scope creep by vendors
c. Test suits
d. Both a and b
29) What is a prototyping?
a. It is a software development implies creating a working model of the system not the
entire system
b. It is system development process implies creating a entire system not the working model.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

30) what prototyping is a formal method by which the system is built in sequence of cycles
of the waterfall model

a. slow
b. Rapid
c. Detailed
d. None of the above

31) Which model was developed to address some of the concerns raised by system
developers about the waterfall model.

a. Agile Model
b. Scrum Model
c. Both a and b
d. Spiral model

32) What involves in Risk Assessment?

a. it involves assigning estimates to the construction, use, value and eventual success of
two alternatives.
b. it involves the assigning estimation to the construction, use, value and eventual success
of three alternatives.
c. none of the above
d. Both a ad b

33) what evolved the agile methods?

a. coding
b. Software development method
c. Design
c. System development method
34) Which method rely on creating programs quickly and with close interaction with
customer.

a. Agile method
b. Waterfall model
c. Scrum model
d. None of the above

35) What embodies most of the objectives of the agile manifesto and has been
demonstrated to be effective for small to medium scale projects?

a. Embedded programming
b. Functional programming
c. scripting programming
d. Extreme programming

36) What written on index card?

a. stories
b. Programming
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

37) Who is responsible for removing any impediments the team faces.

a. Product owner
b. Scrum master
c. Team member
d. user

38) The _____ shows what has been completed on a daily basis giving the team a focus for
what needs to be achieved.

a. Documentation
b. Burn down chart
c. Flow chart
d. None of the above

39) Who are pigs?

a. Scrum master and product owner
b. Team member
c. Both a and b
d. a, b, c

40) what are the initial set of functionalities defied as part of product vision.

a. User stories
b. Epics
c. Pigs
d. None of the above

41) The framework or methodologies for software development present a ______ in which
software can be constructed.

a. Planned
b. Unplanned
c. Structured
d. Unstructured

42) What is an issue for software project management in the current organizational
environment?

a. obtaining and retaining top management support

b. obtaining a retaining support of team member
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

43) What organization uses extensively to build and help maintain the system?

a. User
b. Top management
c. Vendor
d. Team member

44) Who maintain a data base of vendors.

a. Computer aided software engineering tools

b. National Association of software and services companies
c. both a and b
d. None of the above

45) Which techniques use to estimates the size and effort required to build an information
system.

a. Function point analysis

b. Data function
c. Transaction function
d. None of the above

Chapter-10 Business Integration Process and Enterprise

System

Basic processes
False
True
D
D
 Y2K
D
D
False
b

a- iii
b–i
c – ii
c
cold calls
touch points
analytical CRM and
executional/operational
CRM
True
True
 A – iv
B–i
c-ii
d-iii
A–v
B – iv
C–i
D – viii
E – iii
F – vii
G – vi
H – ii
 d
c
a- iv
b. iii
c. ii
d. i
 Change
management.
Project
management
D
D
Outsourcing, Off
shoring
True
True
True
 Extra questions

Criticism of enterprise systems in early day

Firms would loose competitive advantage by following industry practices
Forces employees to quit their innovative ways to meet customer demands.
Ruptures organization work cultures and impacts it adversely.

Important aspects of successful enterprise systems

Top management involvement
Cost management
Project management/vendor selection
Change management.
Restricting customization

Drivers for fast adoption of enterprise systems in the 90’s

Y2K problem
Need for business process re-engineering.
Heterogenous systems
Shortcomings of legacy systems.

Strong properties of blockchain

Once a ledger entry is made it becomes a permanent record and cannot be
tampered with.
The ledger entries are visible to all collaborating parties.
Data is maintained on distributed entities that are secure and cannot be hacked.
Only verified and legitimate parties can make ledger entries.
 Chapter 11 Case Studies

Case study one

1 Name an organisation offering the complete range of marketing communication services?

The Mudra group

2 When and where was the Mudra group started?

1980, Ahmedabad

3 is the headquarter of Mudra group?

Mumbai

4 Name the function which focus on deploying best in class application for content management,
leveraging enterprise solution, maximising synergies across the business verticals?
IT

5 And integrated accounting and operation package application of Mudra?

mBOSS

6 Budgeting and monitoring system application of Mudra?

mbusy

7 And employees self-help portal Mudra application?

eHRMS

8 Centralise studio resource repository Mudra application?

mTract

9 What is the corporate dashboard of Mudra?

Mudra One View

10 An application developed by Mudra for knowledge management to capture consumer insights

,media insights and brand happenings?
LightHouse

Case study three

1 Name the online retail wing of the joint detailing organisation known as the future group?
FutureBazaar.com

2 Who started the future group?

Kishore Biyani

3 Which is the best known business venture in the future group?

Pantaloon

4 Which chain has received international recognition and was given the international retailer of the
year award in 2007?
The pantaloon chain.

5 When was the futurebazaar.com the digital arm of future group started?

2006.

6 Which facility allowed to attract larger capital market then otherwise it would have?
Cash on delivery

7 Which was the largest e-commerce firm in India by the late of 2011?
Flipkart.com

8 Where is the second largest e-commerce firm in India by the late of 2011?
Futurebazaar.com

Case study six

1 Name one of the India’s largest private healthcare providers?

Apollo Hospital

2 How many network of hospitals do they have in India?

70

3 When was the first Apollo Hospital started and where?

Chennai 1983

4 Who started the Apollo hospital?

Dr Prathap Reddy.

5Which award has Prathap Reddy been awarded with?

The Padma Vibhushan.
6 Which country has the lowest doctor to patient ratio in the world?
India, 1:1000

7 Which technology enables user institutions to build facility rapidly by renting facilities from existing
providers then scaling up according to the need?
Cloud technologies.

8 From where has Apollo Hospital rented cloud infrastructure?

Microsoft Corporation and Oracle.

9 What does EMR stand for?

Electronic medical records.

10 What does PHR stand for ?

Personal health records.

Case study nine big data

1 What are the three properties of big data?

Volume, velocity and structure.

2 How many customer transactions Walmart handle in every hour?

1 million

3 Name a telescope survey of the sky that collect data on stars and galaxies?
The Sloan Digital sky survey

4 What is one of the most promising technologies which is gaining a lot of traction for processing big
data in the open source software?
Hadoop

5 Hadoop is supported mainly by which online firm?

Yahoo