Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 51

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO


ĐỀ SỐ 1
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. complexion B. examination C. exaggerate D. exhibit
Question 2. A. student B. statue C. situation D. actually
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. associate B. dioxide C. dedicate D. cosmetic
Question 4. A. misfortune B. illegal C. indifference D. discotheque
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. She must _______ in the garage when we came. That’s why she didn’t hear the bell.
A. have been working B. be working C. have worked D. work
Question 6. It’s a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She’s very frail. I hope
she _______.
A. gets on B. comes round C. pulls through D. stands up
Question 7. _______ from Tim, all the students said they would go camping.
A. Except B. Only C. Apart D. Separate
Question 8. He has _______ a valuable contribution to the life of the school.
A. done B. created C. caused D. made
Question 9. No matter how much pressure you put on your husband, he won’t budge a(n) _______.
A. inch B. mile C. foot D. metre
Question 10. The test was not very difficult, but it was _______ long.
A. too much B. so much C. much too D. very much
Question 11. Policemen are sometimes on _______ at night.
A. force B. alert C. cover D. patrol
Question 12. He thinks that I was too friendly _______ the applicants.
A. with B. at C. on D. across
Question 13. How can the boss act _______ nothing had happened?
A. therefore B. so C. if D. as though
Question 14. If you run _______ Tom, give him my best wishes.
A. over B. up C. into D. to
Question 15. I gave the waiter a $100 note and waited for my _______.
A. change B. supply C. cash D. cost
Question 16. _______ she phoned me did I remember the appoinment.
A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before
Question 17. I think he is up _______ the job.
A. to B. with C. for D. over
Question 18. The manager will reply to all the letters _______ are sent to him.
A. that B. where C. when D. who
Question 19. My mother thought that his action was rather out of _______.
A. personality B. character C. being D. role
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Some ethnic groups have strange customs such as walking on fire to prevent natural
disasters.
A. methods for doing something B. accepted ways of doing something
C. skills of doing something D. ideas about doing something
Question 21. During the war, the shipping lanes proved vulnerable to be attacked.
A. susceptible B. dangerous C. futile D. feasible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. My brother tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart
Question 23. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. arrogant B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.
Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.”
Linda:" _______ "
A. My pleasure B. The meal was out of this world
C. Never mention me D. Of course not
Question 25. Linh is going to hold her birthday party at home this Sunday, so she wants to invite
some of her friends to attend the party.
Linh: "I would like to invite you to my party this Sunday evening.”
Huy: " _______."
A. Thank you for your offer, but I think it is unnecessary.
B. I would love to come but I have prior commitments. I’m sorry.
C. I am sorry. Can you come to my place?
D. How about going to the cinema?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
There are many aspects that are involved in taking care of elderly or aged people. Those (26)
_______ have the responsibility of taking care of the aged need to be (27) _______ of the various
needs and requirements that the elderly have. Elderly individuals who live on their own, without the
support of anyone, may have a certain amount of financial needs. Such people need to fend (28)
_______ themselves for everything, including food, groceries, medicines etc. Pensioners have the
benefit of a steady source of monthly income. Those who do not have any (29) _______ or other
source of income would have to live entirely on their savings or through special senior citizens’
government financial schemes or (30) _______ from charitable organisations.
(Adapted from http://www.englishdaily626.com)
Question 26. A. who B. whom C. which D. when
Question 27. A. know B. understand C. aware D. learn
Question 28. A. of B. for C. with D. to
Question 29. A. finance B. fees C. expense D. pension
Question 30. A. benefits B. management C. donations D. interference
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
For recent graduates, internships may become a stepping stone to full-time, paid employment.
Before accepting an offer to work as an intern you should get some information about the
company’s reputation of procuring their interns and decide accordingly. If they usually hire one
intern but have tens of employees working day and night, it is better to look for other companies.
The best place to have an internship position is an organization that gives you an opportunity to
gain real work experience and develop your skills instead of using you as a cheap worker.
Another thing that should be considered is the size of the company. Sometimes bigger and
more established organizations are better as they have a clear hierarchy and therefore it gives you a
clear idea of your position and the job description and most importantly, it will be easier to get a
mentor. Startups with only five employees are usually more flexible in terms of job responsibilities
and therefore it makes it harder to define your position and get mentors.
After you choose a company, do a little research on the company including the people who
work there. You can do a Google search and comb social media such as LinkedIn, Facebook and
Twitter to dig deep about the company’s hiring managers and what they expect from a new
employee.
Social media is also very useful to keep in touch with as many people as you can and build
your network. Do not hesitate to maintain any personal connection you have because those
connections could be the first ones who inform you about a new job opening or any vacant positions
you can apply for.
If you aim for a dream job, do not overlook an entry-level position just because it offers
mediocre salary. Entry-level employees are more likely to be given room to grow and learn from
their mistakes. They will also be able to figure out the job routines and get used to them when they
actually get the position they have been dreaming about.
As your first few jobs might be very demanding yet less rewarding, remember to have fun and
enjoy your life. Working overtime may not always be a good idea to accelerate your career,
especially if you have to be more stressed than your seniors who earn bigger salaries. Setting the
time for exercise and social life will make your life more balanced and stress free.
Question 31. What should a fresh graduate take into account when finding an internship?
A. Company’s recruitment procedure.
B. Company’s reputation of hiring interns.
C. Company’s worker union.
D. Internship salary.
Question 32. Why is a more established organization a better place to work as an intern?
A. It has flexible work hours. B. It offers higher salary.
C. It has clear job descriptions. D. It offers full-time position.
Question 33. What are the recommended media for doing research on the company?
A. Google search, Facebook, LinkedIn B. Google search, Twitter, Yahoo
C. Google search, Twitter, Gmail D. Google scholar, LinkedIn, Twitter
Question 34. Why is networking important for recent graduates?
A. To get information about job openings.
B. To get information about job security.
C. To keep in touch with an ex-employer.
D. To maintain good relationship with fellow interns.
Question 35. What is the advantage of taking an entry-level position?
A. Getting mediocre salary. B. Getting promotion.
C. Understanding company’s policy. D. Understanding job routines.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There’s no place in the world quite as famous for its culture as the island kingdom of Great
Britain. With over two thousand years of culture from which to draw, the nation and its people
celebrate weddings with a uniquely elegant sense of poise and class.
A bride’s wedding day is often touted as "the happiest day of her life”, but in all honesty it’s
often a very stressful experience as there are lots of conventions surrounding the whole thing and
you can get caught up in family rows, and trying to please everyone. Still it’s a good test of a
couple’s courage.
When the guests arrive for a wedding the ushers’ duty is to hand out the correct books, flowers
and the order of service, and ensure the guests are seated in the correct places. Traditionally, the
side on which people sit depends on whether they are friends or family of the bride or of the groom.
The front rows are generally reserved for close family or friends, with the very first seats reserved
for the bridal party. However, in many ceremonies the bridal party will remain standing at the altar
during the ceremony along with the bride and groom.
During the ceremony the bride and groom make their marriage vows. Marriage vows are
promises a couple makes to each other during a wedding ceremony. In Western culture, these
promises have traditionally included the notions of affection, faithfulness, unconditionality, and
permanence.
Most wedding vows are taken from traditional religious ceremonies, but nowadays in the UK
many couples choose touching love poems or lyrics from a love song revised as wedding vows and
some couples even choose to write their own vows, rather than relying on standard ones spoken by
the celebrant.
After the vows have been spoken the couple exchange rings. The wedding ring is placed on the
third finger of the left hand, also called the “ring" finger. The wedding ring is usually a plain gold
ring. After the wedding ceremony, the bride, groom, officiant, and two witnesses generally go off to
a side room to sign the wedding register. Without this the marriage is not legal and a wedding
certificate cannot be issued.
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The bride’s and groom’s vows in the United Kingdom.
B. Traditional wedding ceremony in the United Kingdom.
C. The happiest day in the United Kingdom.
D. Typical features of British cultures
Question 37. According paragraph 2, the couple can get stressed on their wedding day _______.
A. as there are lots of conventions between the bride and the groom.
B. due to traditional customs during and after the wedding ceremony.
C. because the newly-wedded couple have to take a test of courage.
D. since the surroundings discourage the couple.
Question 38. The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. ushers B. guests C. books D. married couples
Question 39. The word "vows" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. promises B. agreements C. compromises D. arguments
Question 40. In a British traditional wedding, the places where the guests sit _______.
A. are conditional on their relationship to the couple
B. are seated by the couple
C. depend on whether their friends or family are standing
D. at the altar during the ceremony along with the bride and groom.
Question 41. According the passage, nowadays what can be replaced traditional wedding vows
EXCEPT?
A. touching love poems B. love song lyrics
C. the couple’s own wows D. the celebrant’s wows
Question 42. The wedding certificate will be issued _______.
A. until the bride and groom go off to a side room
B. as soon as the couple legalize their wedding register.
C. after the bride and groom exchange their wedding rings.
D. right after the signs of marriage are not legal.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Viet Nam Airlines regrets (A) informing passengers (B) that flight VN 541 to Ho Chi
Minh City is (C) postponed (D) due to bad weather.
Question 44. Mrs. Brown, who (A) was so proud of her new car, (B) drove to work when the
accident (C) happened and (D) damaged her car.
Question 45. Snapping turtles are (A) easily recognized (B) because of the large head, the long tail
and the shell that seems (C) insufficiently (D) to protect the body.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. ‘Tm sorry. I didn’t do my homework." Huyen said to her teacher.
A. Huyen said to her teacher she is sorry because she doesn’t do her homework.
B. Huyen forgets to do her homework and she says sorry to her teacher.
C. Huyen apologized to the teacher for not doing her homework.
D. Huyen feels sorry for not doing my homework.
Question 47. However hard Tim tried to win the contest, he didn’t succeed.
A. No matter how hard Tim tried to win the contest, he didn’t succeed.
B. Tim tried to win the contest and succeeded.
C. Although Tim tried hard to win the contest but he didn’t succeed.
D. It was hard for Tim to win the contest because he never succeeded.
Question 48. You needn’t have bought too much food.
A. It is not necessary for you to buy too much food.
B. You bought too much food, which was not necessary.
C. You have bought too much food that I don’t need.
D. There is no need for you to buy too much food.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I went to the supermarket. I wanted to buy food for the whole week.
A. The food for the whole week was not enough so I went to the supermarket.
B. In order to go to the supermarket, I wanted to buy food for the whole week.
C. I went to the supermarket to buy food for the whole week.
D. For the food to be bought for the whole week, I went to the supermarket.
Question 50. Drinking wine is a very bad habit. You had better get rid of it immediately.
A. You should get rid of the habit of drinking wine immediately and you will see how bad it is.
B. Because drinking wine is a very bad habit, you should get rid of it immediately.
C. Stop drinking wine and it will soon become your bad habit.
D. If you stop drinking wine immediately, it will have a bad effect on your health.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 2
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. orchestra B. chasm C. chemical D. orchard
Question 2. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. individual B. expenditure C. communicate D. necessity
Question 4. A. popularity B. laboratory C. politician D. documentary
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. No matter how angry she was, she would never _______ to violence.
A. resolve B. recourse C. exert D. resort
Question 6. She refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. She is very _______.
A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded
Question 7. I am inclined _______ his complicity in the big fraud.
A. about believing B. in believing C. for believing D. to believe
Question 8. Do you know the woman _______ next to our teacher?
A. standing B. stood C. stand D. to stand
Question 9. Not only _______ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.
A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused
Question 10. In my small house there are two rooms, _______ is used as the living-room.
A. the large one B. the largest one C. the largest of which D. the larger of which
Question 11. Luckily, by the time we got there, the painting _______.
A. didn’t sell B. hadn’t sold C. wasn’t sold D. hadn’t been sold
Question 12. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application _______.
A. in hand B. on hand C. at hand D. out of hand
Question 13. What is this? It is _______ a horrible smell.
A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out
Question 14. We have had the roof of our house _______.
A. to replace B. replace C. been replaced D. replaced
Question 15. They are going to have _______ trip to Ha Long Bay next month.
A. a two-day B. two-days C. two days’ D. a two-day’s
Question 16. It’s not so much her looks I don’t like _______ her inability to listen.
A. as B. more C. than D. for
Question 17. She is _______ to leave as soon as possible.
A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous
Question 18. Despite being a very good student, she didn’t fulfill her _______ later in life.
A. making B. potential C. capacity D. aptitude
Question 19. He was not aware that he had been under _______ since his arrival.
A. review B. consideration C. discussion D. surveillance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn’t show surprise B. didn’t want to see
C. didn’t care D. wasn’t happy
Question 21. Your room is so cluttered. You should tidy it up immediately.
A. messy B. clean C. confined D. unique
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. At first, no one believed he was a pilot, but his documents lent colour to his
statements.
A. provided evidence for B. got information from
C. borrowed colour from D. gave no proof of
Question 23. I’m sorry I can’t come to your birthday party this weekend - I’m up to my ears in
work.
A. very busy B. very bored C. very scared D. very idle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Jenifer: "Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?" - Tim:" _______ ".
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job. B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course not. I still need it now. D. Yes, It’s all right.
Question 25. "Have you been able to reach Tom?” - " _______”
A. There’s no approval. B. It’s much too high.
C. Yes. I’ve known him for years. D. No. The line is busy.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Love is one of the most profound emotions known to human beings. There are many kinds of
love, but many people seek its expression in a romantic relationship with a compatible partner (or
partners).
For many people, romantic relationships comprise one of the most meaningful aspects of life,
providing a source of deep fulfillment. The need for human connection appears to be (26) _______
- but the ability to form healthy, loving relationships is learned.
Some evidence suggests that the ability to form a stable relationship starts to form in infancy, in
a child’s earliest experiences with a caregiver who reliably meet the infant’s needs for food, care,
warmth, protection, stimulation, and social contact. Such relationships are not destiny, but they are
theorized to establish deeply ingrained patterns of relating to others.
Failed relationships happen for many reasons, and the failure of a relationship is often a source
of great psychological anguish. Most people have to work consciously to master the skills necessary
to make relationships endure and flourish.
Finding a partner with whom to share a life is a wonderful - yet sometimes difficult - process.
(27) _______ it’s conducted online or in-person, the search will likely push an individual into
unfamiliar settings to encounter potential partners. In order to be successful, it is often necessary to
go outside one’s comfort zone.
Dating is a process by which people spend time with others in order to gradually determine
whether a particular person is suitable (28) _______ a potential mate. Determining whether a
connection reflects (29) _______ infatuation or true love can sometimes be challenging, but
research suggests that there are revealing clues in behavior.
One possibly counterintuitive indicator of a potential match is one’s sense of self. Someone
who would make a good partner may push an individual to discover new activities or beliefs that
expand their self-concept. Another early signifier may be stress: repeatedly interacting with
someone (30) _______ impression matters deeply to someone can fuel anxiety.
Other indicators include being highly motivated to see the person and investing a significant
amount of time, emotion, and energy into the budding relationship.
(Adapted from: https://medium.eom/@souravraj.kumar19)
Question 26. A. innate B. difficult C. strong D. lost
Question 27. A. When B. Where C. Whether D. If
Question 28. A. with B. like C. since D. as
Question 29. A. popular B. temporary C. accessible D. available
Question 30. A. which B. that C. whose D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Going to college or university in the United States is very expensive. A year at a prominent
four-year university can cost almost $50,000, and this does not include the extra costs of housing,
transportation, and other living expenses. There are, of course, less expensive options at colleges
that also offer an excellent education. Most four-year colleges cost at least $10,000 per year, and
many more are in the $20,000 to $30,000 range. For families in the United States, paying for the
education of their children has become a major expense. Many families begin saving money from
the time their children are born, and some states offer incentive plans for savings programs.
As expensive as the tuition is, it should be noted that this hardly covers all the cost of providing
an education. Buildings, equipment, and salary costs are increasingly expensive, with advanced
technology adding tremendous costs for laboratories and other specialized facilities. Universities
and colleges constantly seek support from foundations, corporations, and industry, as well as from
local, state, or federal government.
In addition to family funds and savings, there are two main types of funding for college: loans
and grants. Loans are borrowed money that must be paid back, with interest, although the interest
rates for student loans are lower than for some other types of loans. The early years of many
workers’ careers are spent trying to pay back student loans. Grants, including scholarships, are gifts
of money that do not have to be paid back, but students often must fulfill certain obligations, such
as maintaining a certain grade point average or demonstrating family need, in order to qualify.
Scholarships are funds that are earned or competed for, and they may be based on the student’s
academic, athletic, or civic performance or on some other condition that has been met by the student
or family. Identifying and accessing these funds can be confusing, and even disheartening, for
families when they encounter the application forms. Colleges, secondary schools, and other
organizations have offices to help students learn about funding resources.
Tuition is only the beginning of the financial investment required for a U.S. education. Costs
include educational fees - some are paid by everyone each term, others are related to the courses
being taken. Students must also pay for housing; books; other materials; meals; health insurance
and health care; local day-to-day transportation, including parking; and transportation to and from
home; telephone and Internet use; and any other expenses. Normally, international students pay the
higher out-of-state tuition rate at public institutions.
Question 31. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?
A. The cost of college in the United States
B. The advantages of going to college or university in the United States
C. Types of funding for college in the United States
D. Financial support from corporations or federal government for education in the United States
Question 32. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Students at a prominent university spend about $50,000 per year on their study and living
expenses.
B. Few four-year colleges cost at least $10,000 per year.
C. Students studying at colleges which also offer a good education pay much more money than
those studying at others.
D. Attending university in the United States is costly.
Question 33. Students must _______.
A. repay student loans before graduation.
B. have excellent academic performances or meet other requirements to win scholarships.
C. pay very high interest on their loans.
D. fulfill certain obligations such as getting high grades to borrow money for college.
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Student loans are money that is borrowed must be paid back.
B. Most students in the United States don’t have to borrow money for their study because they
are rich.
C. Students must compete for scholarships.
D. Students must also pay for housing, transportation or other living expenses.
Question 35. The word "disheartening" is closest in meaning to _______.
A. dishonest B. irritating C. discouraging D. embarrassing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Matching the influx of foreign immigrants into the larger cities of the United States during the
late nineteenth century was a domestic migration, from towns and farms to cities, within the United
States. The country had been overwhelmingly rural at the beginning of the century, with less than 5
percent of Americans living in large towns or cities. The proportion of urban population began to
grow remarkably after 1840, increasing from 11 percent that year to 28 percent by 1880 and to 46
percent by 1900. A country with only 6 cities boasting a population of more than 8,000 in 1800 had
become one with 545 such cities in 1900. Of these, 26 had a population of more than 100,000
including 3 that held more than a million people. Much of the migration producing an urban society
came from smaller towns within the United States, but the combination of new immigrants and old
American "settlers" on America’s "urban frontier" in the late nineteenth century proved
extraordinary.
The growth of cities and the process of industrialization fed on each other. The agricultural
revolution stimulated many in the countryside to seek a new life in the city and made it possible for
fewer farmers to feed the large concentrations of people needed to provide a workforce for growing
numbers of factories. Cities also provided ready and convenient markets for the products of
industry, and huge contracts in transportation and construction - as well as the expanded market in
consumer goods - allowed continued growth of the urban sector of the overall economy of the
United States.
Technological developments further stimulated the process of urbanization. One example is
the Bessemer converter (an industrial process for manufacturing steel), which provided steel girders
for the construction of skyscrapers. The refining of crude oil into kerosene, and later the
development of electric lighting as well as of the telephone, brought additional comforts to urban
areas that were unavailable to rural Americans and helped attract many of them from the farms into
the cities. In every era the lure of the city included a major psychological element for country
people: the bustle and social interaction of urban life seemed particularly intriguing to those raised
in rural isolation.
Question 36. What aspects of the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly
discuss?
A. Technological developments
B. The impact of foreign immigrants on cities
C. Standards of living
D. The relationship between industrialization and urbanization
Question 37. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discuss _______.
A. foreign immigration B. rural life
C. the agricultural revolution D. famous cities of the twentieth century
Question 38. What proportion of population of the United States was urban in 1900?
A. Five percent B. Eleven percent
C. Twenty-eight percent D. Forty-six percent
Question 39. The word "stimulated" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. forced B. prepared C. limited D. motivated
Question 40. Why does the author mention "electric lighting” and "the telephone” the last
paragraph?
A. They contributed to the agricultural revolution
B. They are examples of the conveniences of city life
C. They were developed by the same individual.
D. They were products of the Bessemer converter.
Question 41. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. urban areas B. rural Americans C. farms D. cities
Question 42. The word "intriguing" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. profitable B. comfortable C. attractive D. challenging
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Many of the population (B) in our country (C) is composed (D) of farmers.
Question 44. (A) The more the relative humidity reading (B) rises, (C) the worst the heat (D)
affects us.
Question 45. It is (A) disappointing that (B) almost tourists who (C) come to the country only visit
the (D) same few overcrowded places.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Don’t be so disappointed Mary. You can take the driving test again," said Mark.
A. Mark told Mary to be disappointed and take the driving test again.
B. Mark asked Mary not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test.
C. Mark warned Mary not to be disappointed in order to take the driving test again.
D. Mark encouraged Mary to take the driving test again.
Question 47. It is open to question as to whether my sister, Linda, will get the job.
A. My sister, Linda, is being interviewed for the job.
B. It is not certain that my sister, Linda, will get the job.
C. The question is whether my sister, Linda, will get the job or not.
D. If my sister, Linda, could answer the question, she would get the job.
Question 48. My father likes nothing better than playing football in his free time.
A. My father doesn’t like playing football in his free time.
B. My father prefers playing football with his friends after work.
C. Playing football is my father’s favourite enjoyment in his free time.
D. My father not only likes football but also other sports in his free time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The boy was very bright. He could solve all the math problems quickly.
A. He was such bright boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
B. The boy was very bright that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
C. He was so bright a boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
D. Such bright was the boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
Question 50. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party. She felt so sad.
A. He was sad because his friend didn’t go to his wedding party.
B. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party, which made her feel sad.
C. He didn’t go to his friend’s wedding party because she was sad.
D. She didn’t care about whether he came to her wedding party or not.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 3
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. epidemic B. illegal C. education D. competitor
Question 2. A. panicked B. ragged C. wretched D. supposedly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
Question 4. A. difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. When you ________ your destination, your tour guide will meet you at the airport.
A. arrive B. get C. reach D. achieve
Question 6. The teacher turned up after we ________ for him for over 30 minutes.
A. waited B. was waiting C. have waited D had been waiting
Question 7. Mary is bound to notice that broken vase. She has eyes like a________!
A. goose B. hawk C. dog D. fox
Question 8. It’s ________ house.
A. an ancient black stone-built B. a black ancient stone-built
C. an ancient stone-built grey D. a stone-built black ancient
Question 9. Let’s put ________ as many suggestions as possible.
A. forward B. out C. towards D. up
Question 10. It came as no surprise to me that Mai sail ________ the final exam.
A. to B. through C. with D. in
Question 11. She ________ live with her grandparents in a small house when she was a child.
A. must B. would C. use to D. should
Question 12. The boy and the animals ________ she drew were very beautiful.
A. which B. who C. whom D. that
Question 13. English and Math interests me almost ________.
A. equally B. the same C. similarly D. alike
Question 14. These personal problems seem to be ________ her from her work.
A. disrupting B. disturbing C. distracting D. dispersing
Question 15. He ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only ________ the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back
Question 16. There is no ________ in persuading him to go out.
A. value B. point C. worth D. profit
Question 17. My team lost the final five years in ________.
A. success B. continuation C. succession D. repetition
Question 18. I know that she has tried hard; ________ that as it may, her work is just not good
enough.
A. come B. must C. should D. be
Question 19. No matter what happens Susan never shows her emotions. She always keeps a stiff
upper ________.
A. mouth B. eye C. head D. lip
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The whole city was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. changed completely B. cleaned well
C. destroyed completely D. removed quickly
Question 21. Few companies are flourishing during difficult times.
A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. It seems that the contract was made behind closed doors as no one had any
information about it.
A. secretly B. daily C transparently D. privately
Question 23. He performed all his duties conscientiously. He gave enough care to his work.
A. insensitively B. irresponsibly C. liberally D. responsibly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Nam: "I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Saturday afternoon”.
- Hung: " ________ "
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding. C. I know. D. I’m sure.
Question 25. Peter: "Why did Tom leave the party so early?" - Daisy:" ________”
A. You don’t say. B. Why not?
C. Beats me. D. You left with him very early.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Becoming independent is an essential part of a child’s journey to adulthood. To make this
journey successful, children need freedom to try new things. But they still need your guidance and
support too.
Your love and support are essential for your child’s self-esteem. Young people who feel good
about themselves often have more (26) _______ to discover who they are and what they want to do
with their lives.
Try to (27) _______ in to your child’s feelings. It might help to remember that your child could
be confused and upset by the physical, social and emotional changes of adolescence. Your child
needs your emotional guidance and stability during this time.
Clear family rules about behaviour, communication and socialising will help your child
understand where the limits are and what you expect. Rules will also help you be consistent (28)
_______ how you treat your child. Once the rules are in place, apply them consistently.
Your family rules are likely to change as your child develops. As children get more mature,
they can make a bigger contribution to the rules and the consequences for breaking them. Involving
your child in developing rules helps him to understand the principles behind them. Every family has
different rules. You can talk with your child about this and explain that his friends might have
different rules, or a different number of rules.
(29) _______ you set the limits too strictly, your child might not have enough room to grow
and try new experiences. This period is a learning curve for both of you. Be prepared for some trial
and error.
Younger teenagers might think they’re ready to make their own decisions, but they often
haven’t developed the (30) _______ skills they need to handle significant responsibilities without
your help. It can be a good idea to explain to your younger child why younger and older children
are given different responsibilities.
(Adapted from: https://raisingchildren.net.au)
Question 26. A. time B. confidence C. efforts D. money
Question 27. A. tune B. understand C. consider D. make
Question 28. A. on B. of C. in D. for
Question 29. A. Unless B. Although C. Because D. If
Question 30. A. making-decision B. decision-making
C. decisions-making D. making-decisions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Thousands of books have been written on the conflict between parents and teenagers.
Psychologists and sociologists have spent years trying to understand the reasons for the tension and
endless arguments between these two groups.
A close look at these arguments often reveals that the reasons are so trivial that we may
wonder what the tears and shouts have all been about. Most arguments are not about major issues
like the nuclear bomb or the ecological problems of the universe. The fights are usually about
simple matters such as food, clothes, the weekly allowance or the telephone.
Let’s take an ordinary day and examine what happens. Problems start around 7 a.m. It is then
that parents expect their children to get up, get dressed, eat and go to school. Parents and alarm
clocks seem like the enemies of mankind at that early hour. Some parents even expect the "poor"
youngsters to tidy up their room and put everything in its place before leaving for school - a
ridiculous demand - in the eyes of the "victims". In the afternoon, parents want them to do
homework and study hard. They resent their children’s endless conversations on the phone. In the
evening, they complain about the clothes and jewelry the teenagers wear and preach for hours about
the dangers on the road and the need to be home by midnight at the latest, like Cinderella.
Youngsters expect parents to be more flexible; not to preach and lecture but to advise and
explain. They would like them to be tolerant of different views, listen to their problems and respect
their privacy. However, even if they don’t admit it, youngsters need the guidance and support of
their parents, their approval or disapproval and even their firm opposition on crucial subjects such
as drugs or alcohol. They need limits. They need loving but firm authority. In short, youngsters
should be more patient and sensitive to their parents’ feelings and parents must understand that they
cannot prevent their children from making mistakes. Trial and error is, after all, a very important
part of the process of growing up.
Question 31. Most arguments between parents and teenagers are about ________.
A. complicated matters B. dating relationships
C. money D. simple matters
Question 32. The word "trivial" is closest in meaning to ________.
A. unimportant B. serious
C. necessary D. complex
Question 33. Parents don’t want youngsters ________.
A. get up early B. hang out with their friends
C. wear jewelry D. talk a lot on the phone
Question 34. The word "victims" in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. all the parents
B. all the youngsters
C. youngsters suffering from severe abuse
D. youngsters required to clean up their room
Question 35. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 4?
A. Teenagers don’t want to talk or explain anything to their parents.
B. Parents need to stop their children from making mistakes.
C. Making mistakes plays an important role in helping teenagers to be mature.
D. Parents should let their children have freedom to do anything that they like.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
By the turn of the century, the middle-class home in North American had been transformed.
"The flow of industry has passed and left idle the loom in the attic, the soap kettle in the shed".
Ellen Richards wrote in 1908. The urban middle class was now able to buy a wide array of food
products and clothing - baked goods, canned goods, suits, shirts, shoes, and dresses. Not only had
household production waned, but technological improvements were rapidly changing the rest of
domestic work. Middle-class homes had indoor running water and furnaces, run on oil, coal, or gas,
that produced hot water. Stoves were fueled by gas, and delivery services provided ice for
refrigerators. Electric power was available for lamps, sewing machines, irons, and even vacuum
cleaners. No domestic task was unaffected. Commercial laundries, for instance, had been doing the
wash for urban families for decades; by the early 1900’s the first electric washing machines were on
the market.
One impact of the new household technology was to draw sharp dividing lines between women
of different classes and regions. Technological advances always affected the homes of the wealthy
first, filtering downward into the urban middle class. But women who lived on farms were not yet
affected by household improvements. Throughout the nineteenth century and well into the
twentieth, rural homes lacked running water and electric power. Farm women had to haul large
quantities of water into the house from wells or pumps for every purpose. Doing the family laundry,
in large vats heated over stoves, continued to be a full day’s work, just as canning and preserving
continued to be seasonal necessities. Heat was provided by wood or coal stoves. In addition, rural
women continued to produce most of their families’ clothing. The urban poor, similarly, reaped
few benefits from household improvements. Urban slums such as Chicago’s nineteenth ward often
had no sewers, garbage collection, or gas or electric lines; and tenements lacked both running water
and central heating. At the turn of the century, variations in the nature of women’s domestic work
were probably more marked than at any time before.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The creation of the urban middle class
B. Domestic work at the turn of the century
C. The spread of electrical power in the United States
D. Overcrowding in American cities
Question 37. According to the passage, what kind of fuel was used in a stove in a typical middle-
class household?
A. oil B. coal C. gas D. wood
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a household convenience in the
passage?
A. The electric fan B. The refrigerator
C. The electric light D. The washing machine
Question 39. According to the passage, who were the first beneficiaries of technological advances?
A. Farm women B. The urban poor
C. The urban middle class D. The wealthy
Question 40. The word "reaped" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. gained B. affected C. wanted D. accepted
Question 41. Which of the following best characterizes the passage’s organization ________.
A. analysis of a quotation B. chronological narrative
C. extended definition D. comparison
Question 42. Where in the passage does the author discuss conditions in poor urban
neighborhoods?
A. The urban middle... dresses B. Middle-class homes ... water
C. Electric power... unaffected D. The urban poor... heating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) There are few areas (B) of human experience that (C) have not been (D) writing
about.
Question 44. David (A) was a (8) bravery man to go (C) on this adventure by (D) himself.
Question 45. (A) Found in 1209, the University of Cambridge (B) ranks (C) among the world’s (D)
oldest universities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final.
A. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now.
C. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
Question 47. It doesn’t make any difference if it rain because they will still go to the cinema.
A. So long as it doesn’t rain, they will go to the cinema.
B. But for the rain, they would have gone to the cinema.
C. There is a difference between going to the cinema and staying at home.
D. Whether it rains or not, they will still go to the cinema.
Question 48. I had only just put the phone down when the boss rang back.
A. I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
B. Hardly had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
C. No sooner had I put the phone down when the boss rang back.
D. Scarcely had I put the phone down than the boss rang back.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The test we did yesterday was very long. It was difficult, too.
A. Not only was the test we did yesterday very long but also very difficult.
B. Not only was very long the test we did yesterday but it was also very difficult.
C. The test we did yesterday was not only very long, it was also very difficult.
D. Not only the test we did yesterday was very long but also very difficult.
Question 50. He was suspected to have stolen two cars. The police have investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen two cars.
B. Suspecting to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen two cars, he has been investigated for days.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 4
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. tortoise B. opinion C. focus D. purpose
Question 2. A. nourish B. flourish C. courageous D. southern
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. competition B. repetition C. equivalent D. disappointment
Question 4. A. ambitious B. assemble C. equivalent D. vacancy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Our company has to ________ ways of reducing costs.
A. take in B. think over C. work out D. look out
Question 6. Remember that when doing something, you should ________.
A. weigh up the pros and cons B. turn over a new leaf
C. go down well with D. get through to
Question 7. She is playing music at ________ volume and disturbing all her neighbors.
A. utter B. supreme C. total D. full
Question 8. She is always flying ________ the handle about the slightest things.
A. off B. over C. around D. through
Question 9. ________ surprised everybody.
A. That she passed the exam B. Because she passed the exam
C. Which she passed the exam D. She passed the exam
Question 10. You shouldn’t make a(n) _______ decision. Think about it first.
A. snap B. abrupt C. spontaneous D. careless
Question 11. People over eighteen are ________ for membership in this club.
A. legal B. capable C. eligible D. permissible
Question 12. The girl was ________ from hospital this morning only a week after her operation.
A. ejected B. expelled C. evicted D. discharged
Question 13. His contract ________ in three months, so he’s looking for another job.
A. runs down B. runs out C. goes out D. goes away
Question 14. The little girl can’t even sit up yet, ________ stand and walk.
A. but for B. let alone C. all but D. rather than
Question 15. I’ve yet ________ a person as David.
A. to meet as interesting B. to have met such interesting
C. been meeting as interesting D. been meeting such interesting
Question 16. The economic crisis has brought about a slump ________ the world trade.
A. in B. on C. up D. for
Question 17. That film was so sad that we all were reduced ________ tears at the end.
A. with B onto C. to D. into
Question 18. Thanks a lot of lending me your raincoat; it really came in ________.
A. used B. handy C. handful D. needy
Question 19. Ben was ________ something under his breath, but his son didn’t catch what he said.
A. whispering B. muttering C. growling D. swallowing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Earthquakes are regarded as one of the most devastating forces known to man.
A. terrifying B. destructive C. fascinating D. mysterious
Question 21. That stunning beach was overrun with tourists so I decided to go back another day.
A. having no tourists B. not having enough tourists
C. crowded with tourists D. having tourists running
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable
Question 23. It was apparent from her face that she was really upset.
A. obvious B. indistinct C. transparent D. evident
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. John is talking to Daisy about the final exam.
John: "I didn’t do well in the final exam’’.
Daisy:" ________."
A. That’s a shame! B. Don’t mention it.
C. What a drag D. That will be the day!
Question 25. Hoa: “Tm sorry. I left my laptop home.” - Nam:” ________ “
A. Well. You do? I’m sorry. B. Oh. What a pity for that.
C. Never mind. I’ve got another one. D. No way. It’s up to you.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Quan Ho is a Vietnamese style of folk music that is often performed in spring festivals in the
north of Vietnam. Bac Ninh province is (26) _______ to the traditional music which was first
recorded in the 13th century and officially recognized as the (27) _______ Cultural Heritage by
UNESCO in 2009. It is characterized by its meaningful lyrics, folk beauty of music and the way it is
performed.
There are a large number of Quan Ho melodies. A pair of female singers sing a ‘challenge
phrase’ (cau ra) and a pair of male singers sing ‘a matching phrase’ (cau doi), which repeats the
melody phrase. Most of lyrics focus on topics related to love and sentimental desire of young adults.
Hardly any form of cultural activities place men and women (28) _______ an equal basis like Quan
Ho; young adults are free to communicate and (29) _______ their feelings with each other and more
importantly, lyrics convey their high emphasis on genuine feelings rather than money or social
status in a romantic relationship.
Quan Ho seems to be a game instead of a folk music as teams of singers compete with each
other through the match of lyrics and of melodies to bring wonderful performance to audiences. The
melodies as well as the lyrics are so beautiful and rich in poetry that the appearance of instruments
sometimes seems to be abundant; the musical message is sufficient by (30) _______ .
Question 26. A. house B. place C. home D. environment
Question 27. A. Intangible B. Physical C. Mental D. Tangible
Question 28. A. in B. with C. of D. on
Question 29. A. talk B. demonstrate C. express D. infer
Question 30. A. it B. them C. itself D. themselves
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In the modern word, people are always looking for more ways of keeping fit and staying
healthy. The following are some ways to help you become healthy.
Running is excellent exercise. Before you begin running you should warm up first by using
slow movements that make all your muscles work. But be careful! If you stretch when your muscles
are cold, you might hurt yourself. Always wear comfortable clothing and make sure your trainers
are in good shape. If you wear shoes that support your whole foot well, you will put less pressure on
your knees. You should start exercising slowly, at a pace you can keep up for about 15 minutes. Try
to exercise on soft ground, as this will protect your knees and hips from too much stress.
It’s OK if you sometimes go to bed late but if you usually cut down on your sleep, it will soon
have a negative effect on your skin. If you get a good night’s rest, it will do you the world of good.
Lack of sleep can cause acne or dry skin. Make sure that you get a good night’s sleep by going to
bed and getting up at regular times: don’t burn the candle at both ends. During the day, keep active:
if you don’t get enough exercise during the day, you may end up sleepless all night.
Most of us live in big polluted cities. If you got more fresh air, you would look healthier and
more attractive. A brisk walk is one of the best things you can do for circulation and appearance.
Walking slowly is useful but a quick pace gets more oxygen into your lungs. So don’t just go for a
pleasant stroll, try and find an area that doesn’t have much pollution, and get moving!
Many young people feel guilty about eating too much chocolate, and some even say that they
are addicted to it, though there is no evidence to support this. Nevertheless, if your diet is balanced,
you needn’t feel guilty: eating chocolate in moderation is fine - but don’t eat it instead of a proper
meal!
Question 31. The writer says that you should ________.
A. start running as quickly as possible B. run before start doing exercise
C. run before you warm up D. warm up before running
Question 32. Running on soft ground is good because ________.
A. it makes your hips weaker B. you will feel more relaxed
C. it is better for your knees D. it protects your trainers
Question 33. The writer says that going to bed late ________.
A. has no negative effects on your health B. does harm to your skin
C. will make you feel comfortable D. is OK if you get up early
Question 34. The best way to get more oxygen is ________.
A. walking slowly
B. walking quickly along the busy street
C. walking quickly in a place where there is no or little pollution
D. going for a pleasant stroll
Question 35. It is OK to eat chocolate ________,
A. if you have a balanced diet B. if it doesn’t a lot of fat
C. if it gives you pleasure D. if you eat it regularly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Railroads reshaped the North American environment and reoriented North American behavior.
"In a quarter of a century", claimed the Omaha Daily Republican in 1883, "they have made the
people of the United States homogeneous, breaking through the peculiarities and provincialisms
which marked separate and unmingling sections.”
The railroad simultaneously stripped the landscape of the natural resources, made velocity of
transport and economy of scale necessary parts of industrial production, and carried consumer
goods to households; it dispatched immigrants to unsettled places, drew emigrants away from farms
and villages to cities, and sent men and guns to battle. It standardized time and travel, seeking to
annihilate distance and space by allowing movement at any time and in any season or type of
weather. In its grand and impressive terminals and stations, architects recreated historic Roman
temples and public baths, French chateaus and Italian bell towers - edifices that people used as
stages for many of everyday life’s high emotions: meeting and parting, waiting and worrying,
planning new starts or coming home.
Passenger terminals, like the luxury express trains that hurled people over spots, spotlight the
romance of railroading. (The twentieth-Century Limited sped between Chicago and New York in
twenty hours by 1915). Equally important to everyday life were the slow freight transport chugging
through industrial zones, the morning and evening commuter locals shuttling back urban terminals,
and the incessant comings and goings that occurred in the classifications, or switching, yards.
Moreover, in addition to its being a transportation pathway equipped with a mammoth physical
plant of tracks signals, crossings, bridges, and junctions, plus telegraph and telephone lines the
railroad nurtured factory complexes, warehouses, and generating stations, forming along its right-
of-way what has aptly been called "the metropolitan corridor" of the American landscape.
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The influence of ancient architecture on the design of railroad terminals.
B. The importance of natural resources in the development of railroads.
C. The railroad’s impact on daily life in the United States in the nineteenth century.
D. Technological improvements in the area of communication in the nineteenth century.
Question 37. It can be inferred from the quote from the Omaha Daily Republican in the first
paragraph that railroads ________.
A. made all sections of the nation much wealthier
B. brought more unity to what had been a fragmented nation
C. reduced dependence on natural resources
D. had no effect on the environment of the United States
Question 38. The word "it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. transport B. scale C. production D. railroad
Question 39. The word "annihilate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. conquer B. utilize C. separate D. mechanize
Question 40. All of the following were true of impressive passenger terminals EXCEPT ________.
A. their architecture was influenced by the architecture of Europe
B. luxury express trains traveled between them
C. they were usually located in small towns
D. they were important to many commuters
Question 41. According to the passage, which type of development lined the area along the
metropolitan corridor ________.
A. stores and shopping areas B. recreational areas
C. industrial D. agricultural
Question 42. The author mentions the Twentieth-Century Limited as an example of ________.
A. a luxury train B. a commuter train
C. a freight train D. an underground train
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) According to a research, (B) many traumatic experiences (C) has been traced to
events (D) during childhood.
Question 44. These dams were (A) used to control flooding, provide water for (B) irrigation, and
(C) generating electricity (D) for the local area.
Question 45. When you talk (A) to the old woman, please remember (B) to speak out (C) as she’s
(D) hard of hearing.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. We bought two motorbikes. Neither of them worked well.
A. We bought two motorbikes, of which neither worked well.
B. We bought two motorbikes which neither of worked well.
C. We bought two motorbikes, neither of whom worked well.
D. We bought two motorbikes, neither of which worked well.
Question 47. Michael said, "You’d better not lend them any money, Jane.”
A. Michael asked Jane if she had lent them any money.
B. Michael commanded Jane not to lend them any money.
C. Michael advised Jane not to lend them any money.
D. Michael ordered Jane not to lend them any money.
Question 48.They haven’t heard any news from her so far.
A. No news has been heard from her so far.
B. No news is heard from her so far.
C. No news have been heard from her so far.
D. Any news has been heard from her so far.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Nam cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. As long as Nam cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
B. Having finished reading the book, Nam cannot lend it to me.
C. Nam cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
D. Not having finished reading the book, Nam will lend it to me.
Question 50. My friend is an efficient engineer. It is hard for him to get a job.
A. It is hard for my friend to get a job because he is an efficient engineer
B. That my friend is an efficient engineer makes it hard for him to get a job.
C. Despite the fact that my friend is an efficient engineer, he finds it hard to get a job.
D. If my friend wouldn’t be an efficient engineer, he would get a job.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 5
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. vision B. equation C. decision D. competition
Question 2. A. appreciate B. efficient C. suspicious D. apprentice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. majority B. ceremony C. astronomy D. investiture
Question 4. A. appliance B. ancestor C. ancestry D. absolute
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. At that time, I was at a _______ to know what to say.
A. blank B. pain C. loss D. crisis
Question 6. It never _______ my mind that she might lose.
A. passed B. filled C. crossed D. occurred
Question 7. If he _______ hard for the exam last month, he a first-year student now.
A. studied - would be B. had studied - would have been
C. studied - would have been D. had studied - would be
Question 8. He can always bank _______ his sister to give him useful advice.
A. of B. for C. at D. on
Question 9. She saw _______ of tiny, multi-coloured fish.
A. shoals B. flocks C. teams D. swamps
Question 10. We will have to _______ the decision until Tom gets back from his holiday.
A. confer B. defer C. refer D. infer
Question 11. I don’t think that TV viewers like that film, _______?
A. don’t I B. do I C. don’t they D. do they
Question 12. My mother decided to give up her job for the _______ of her children.
A. sake B. care C. advantage D. concern
Question 13. My grandmother’s savings were considerable as she had _______ some money every
week.
A. put by B. put in C. put apart D. put down
Question 14. When I went into dining room later, the _______ of the dinner were still on the table.
A. remains B. results C. remnants D. relics
Question 15. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for _______ 15 minutes.
A. other B. others C another D. the others
Question 16. You look rather _______. Are you worried about something?
A. occupant B. preoccupying C. occupied D. preoccupied
Question 17. He was _______ disappointed at the result of the exam.
A. bitterly B. strongly C. heavily D. seriously
Question 18. I can’t stand my cousin. She’s always blowing her own _______ and telling everyone
that she knows everything.
A. balloon B. breath C. mind D. trumpet
Question 19. Lan’s illness made her _______ of concentration.
A. incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. People who drive their cars so fast really get up my nose.
A. frighten me B. please me C. annoy me D. worry me
Question 21. She was like a cat on a hot tin roof before her driving test.
A. very nervous B. very busy C. very tired D. very relaxed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I don’t like my new neighbor. She is a cold fish.
A. displeased B. friendly C. unsympathetic D. enthusiastic
Question 23. Emissions from the factory are widely suspected of having a detrimental effect on
health.
A. considerable B. harmful C. enormous D. beneficial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Customer: "Can I try this shirt on?"
Salesgirl: " _______."
A. No, the shop is closed in an hour. B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.
C. Yes, it is quite cheap. It costs fifty dollars. D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.
Question 25. David is in Ha Noi City and is asking for directions to the post office.
David: "Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?" - Passer-by:" _______ "
A. No way. B. Just round the corner over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
A certain relationship cannot exist without communication. A healthy relationship does not
exist without effective communication. (26) _______ effective communication we create the
characteristics of healthy relationships, such as trust, openness, and intimacy. We need effective
communication to resolve conflicts, solve problems, and make decisions that contribute to the
strength of a relationship. While patterns of communication may vary according to our personal
style and family and cultural background, being able to (27) _______ our values, opinions, feelings,
and dreams is important in any meaningful relationship. Everything we know about ourselves and
others can only be processed through some form of communication. Effective communication is a
shared responsibility that involves both sending and receiving messages. Strategies for effective
communication involve verbal skills, active listening, and the ability to resolve problems or issues.
Communication in relationships is one of the most (28) _______ and strategic activities of
human beings. It often takes place at an emotional level as we disclose our likes and dislikes, our
opinions and suggestions, and our wants and needs. This intimate form of communication is best
done face to face when each person is able to use the full range of verbal and non- verbal nuances of
communication (29) _______ a message is delivered clearly and received without
misunderstandings. We traditionally establish our communication skills by observing and imitating
others around us. It is, therefore, important to (30) _______ students with many opportunities to
practise effective communication strategies.
Question 26. A. Because B. Through C. For D. If
Question 27. A. talk B. express C. impress D. declare
Question 28. A. expensive B. boring C. complex D. simple
Question 29. A. if B. that C. which D. so that
Question 30. A. provide B. maintain C. have D. give
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Saving energy means saving money and conserving our natural resources. Homeowners and
renters know this basic fact, but they often don’t know what kinds of adjustments they can make in
their homes and apartments that will result in savings.
For those willing to spend some time and money to reap long-term energy savings, an energy
audit is the way to go. An energy auditor will come into your home and assess its energy efficiency.
The auditor will pinpoint areas of your home that use the most energy and offer solutions to lower
your energy use and costs. Trained energy auditors know what to look for and can locate a variety
of flaws that may be resulting in energy inefficiency, including inadequate insulation, construction
flaws, and uneven heat distribution.
There are quicker and less costly measures that can be taken as well. One way to save money is
to replace incandescent lights with fluorescents. This can result in a savings of more than 50% on
your monthly lighting costs.
When it’s time to replace old appliances, it’s wise to spend a bit more for an energy-efficient
model, and be sure that you are taking advantage of energy-saving settings already on your current
refrigerator, dishwasher, washing machine, or dryer.
Windows provide another opportunity to cut your energy costs. Caulk old windows that might
be leaky to prevent drafts, and choose double-paned windows if you’re building an addition or
replacing old windows.
Most areas of your home or apartment offer opportunities to save energy and money. The
results are significant and are well worth the effort.
Question 31. Which two main organizational schemes can be identified in this passage?
A. Hierarchical order and order by topic.
B. Order by topic and cause and effect.
C. Hierarchical order and chronological order.
D. Chronological order and compare and contrast.
Question 32. Which of the following ideas is NOT included in this passage?
A. You can reduce your $130 monthly lighting costs to $65 by using fluorescent bulbs instead of
incandescent.
B. Double-paned windows can cut energy costs.
C. Your local energy company will send an energy auditor at your request.
D. Some appliances have energy-saving settings.
Question 33. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. There are many things a homeowner or renter can do to save energy and money.
B. Hiring an energy auditor will save energy and money.
C. Homeowners and renters don’t know what they can do to save energy and money.
D. Replacing windows and light bulbs are well worth the effort and cost.
Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following would an energy auditor NOT do?
A. Check for construction flaws.
B. Look for problems with heat distribution.
C. Offer solutions to lower your energy costs.
D. Locate a variety of flaws that may result in energy inefficiency and fix them.
Question 35. According the passage, double-paned windows _______.
A. are energy efficient.
B. should only be used as replacement windows.
C. should only be used in new additions to homes.
D. will lower your heating costs by 50%.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Fungi, of which there are over 100,000 species, including yeasts and other single-celled
organisms as well as the common molds and mushrooms, were formerly classified as members of
the plant kingdom. However, in reality they are very different from plants and today they are placed
in a separate group altogether. The principal reason for this is that none of them possesses
chlorophyll, and since they cannot synthesize their own carbohydrates, they obtain their supplies
either from the breakdown of dead organic matter or from other living organisms. Furthermore the
walls of fungal cells are not made of cellulose, as those of plants are, but of another complex sugar
like polymer called chitin, the material from which the hard outer skeletons of shrimps, spiders, and
insects are made. The difference between the chemical composition of the cell walls of fungi and
those of plants is of enormous importance because it enables the tips of the growing hyphae, the
threadlike cells of the fungus, to secrete enzymes that break down the walls of plant cells without
having any effect on those of the fungus itself. It is these cellulose-destroying enzymes that enable
fungi to attack anything made from wood, wood pulp, cotton, flax, or other plant material.
The destructive power of fungi is impressive. They are a major cause of structural damage to
building timbers, a cause of disease in animals and humans, and one of the greatest causes of
agricultural losses. Entire crops can be wiped out by fungal attacks both before and after harvesting.
Some fungi can grow at +50°C, while others can grow at -5°C, so even food in cold storage may not
be completely safe from them. On the other hand, fungi bring about the decomposition of dead
organic matter, thus enriching the soil and returning carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. They also
enter into a number of mutually beneficial relationships with plants and other organisms. In
addition, fungi are the source of many of the most potent antibiotics used in clinical medicine,
including penicillin.
Question 36. What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
A. Differences between simple and complex fungi.
B. Functions of chlorophyll in plants.
C. Functions of sugar in the walls of fungal cells.
D. Differences between fungi and plants.
Question 37. The word "principal" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. true B. main C. logical D obvious
Question 38. According to the passage, how do fungi obtain carbohydrates?
A. The absorb carbohydrates from their own cell walls.
B. They synthesize chlorophyll to produce carbohydrates.
C. They produce carbohydrates by breaking down chitin.
D. They acquire carbohydrates from other organic matter, both living and dead.
Question 39. The passage mentions shrimps, spiders, and insects because their skeletons _______.
A. can be destroyed by fungi
B. have unusual chemical compositions
C. contain a material found in the walls of fungal cells
D. secrete the same enzymes as the walls of fungal cells do
Question 40. The word "those" in line 13 refers to _______.
A. tips B. hyphae C. enzymes D. walls
Question 41. The passage describes the negative effects of fungi on all the following EXCEPT
_______.
A. buildings B. animals C. food D. soil
Question 42. The passage mentions "penicillin" as an example of _______.
A. a medicine derived from plants
B. a beneficial use of fungi
C. a product of the relationship between plants and fungi
D. a type of fungi that grows at extreme temperatures.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Animals and human beings use (A) the energy (B) finding in food (C) to operate their
(D) body.
Question 44. The oxygen in (A) the air we (B) breathe has no (C) tasted, smell, (D) or color.
Question 45. Some psychologists believe that (A) those who are encouraged to be independent, (B)
responsible and competent in (C) childhood are (D) likely more than others to become motivated to
achieve success.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “True, stop playing with the knife, or else you will get a cut.” said the father.
A. The father asked True to play with the knife.
B. The father ordered True to get a cut.
C. The father warned True not to play with the knife.
D. The father accused True of getting a cut.
Question 47. I thought he was the right person for the position, yet it turned out that he was quite
useless.
A. Because I was expecting him to be incompetent, I was shocked to see him perform rather
well.
B. I was mistaken about his suitability for the position since he proved rather incompetent.
C. Contrary to my initial impression, he was not totally unsuitable for the position.
D. I was right in thinking that he was totally useless for the job.
Question 48. Susan finds it hard to get on well with her new neighbors.
A. Susan cannot live in harmony with her new neighbors.
B. Susan’s new neighbors are so hard on her.
C. It is impossible for Susan to fall out with her new neighbors.
D. Because of her new neighbors, Susan cannot get on well with everyone.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Calling Mary is pointless. Her phone runs out.
A. It is useless calling Mary because her phone runs out.
B. It’s no use to call Mary because her phone runs out.
C. You need to call Mary because her phone runs out.
D. It’s worth calling Mary because her phone runs out.
Question 50. His living conditions were difficult. However, he studied very well.
A. Although he lived in difficult conditions, but he studied very well.
B. He studied very well thanks to the fact that he lived in difficult conditions.
C. Difficult as his living conditions, he studied very well.
D. He studied very well despite his difficult living conditions.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 6
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. hatred B. sacred C. warned D. crooked
Question 2. A. suggestion B. meditation C. position D. section
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. independence B. illiterate C. exhibition D. understanding
Question 4. A. offensive B. delicious C. dangerous D. religious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I’ve been ________ advised not to say anything.
A. seriously B. greatly C. strongly D. significantly
Question 6. On ________ she had won the first prize, she jumped for joy.
A. telling B. she was told C. being told D. having told
Question 7. The building ________ last year.
A. destroyed B. has destroyed C. was destroyed D. has been destroyed
Question 8. My grandmother was a lovely person who ________ pleasure from helping others.
A. gathered B. derived C. deduced D. collected r
Question 9. ________ of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. Instead B. In place C. On behalf D. On account
Question 10. I can’t imagine ________ anywhere except here.
A. studying B. to study C. study D. that I study
Question 11. She is completely deaf. You should ________ allowance for her.
A. bring B. take C. make D. find
Question 12. Thanh is a friendly girl who ________ everyone she meets.
A. gets up B. gets on with C. gets over D. gets out of
Question 13. It’s a secret. You ________ let anyone know about it.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. mightn’t D. may not
Question 14. By the year 2050, many people currently employed ________ their jobs.
A. have lost B. will be losing C. will have lost D. are losing
Question 15. He blamed ________ me ________ not explaining the lesson ________ the students
carefully.
A. on/ for/ to B. Ø/ about/ for C. for/ on/ for D. Ø/ for/ to
Question 16. You can ask him anything about computers. He actually has quite a good ________
for programming.
A. head B. understanding C. knowledge D. ability
Question 17. The situation is getting out of ________ We should do something before it turns into
a bitter row.
A. capacity B. charge C. hand D. discipline
Question 18. Nothing ________ the ordinary ever happens here.
A. about B. out of C. from D. within
Question 19. I was glad when he said that his car was ________.
A. for me use B. at my use C. for my use D. at my disposal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Soccer is my father’s favourite sport. He is infatuated with it.
A. besotted with B. responsible for C. obsessed with D. compatible with
Question 21. Many immigrants were compelled to assimilate into the dominant culture.
A. forced B. encouraged C. stimulated D. inspired
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I threw his jacket back in his face, got back in my car, and drove home like a bat out
of hell, screaming the whole way.
A. very fast B. very slowly C. very carefully D. very emotionally
Question 23. None of his novels lends itself to being made into a film; they just simply lack a
coherent storyline.
A. inconvenient B. untamable C. inconceivable D. unsuitable for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tim is talking to Tom about their friends’ marriage.
Tim: "They got divorced.” - Tom:" ________ "
A. I have no idea. Can you give a clue? B. Right, be careful with them.
C. Congratulations! D. You don’t say!
Question 25. Hoa: "Mommy, I’ve passed the final exam with flying colours." Mom:" ________”
A. Sorry to hear that. B. Congratulations!
C. That’s right. D. How many colours?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The result of Mary’s first term exams came out and when her mother went to collect it, she was
(26) _______ to see Mary’s poor result. On reaching home, she called Mary, scolded her and in the
end gave her some advice regarding her studies. She told Mary to work hard, (27) _______ very
carefully to the teacher and stop wasting her time in useless activities. But Mary turned a deaf ear to
her mother’s advice. Soon she realised that she had lost her (28) _______ in the class. The teachers
didn’t think so well of her now due to her poor marks and some of her good friends, who were also
good in studies, preferred to sit in the class and spend time with those who were good in studies.
She realised that life was not about having fun only; it is about doing something (29) _______ in
order to achieve something. She then started to work hard. Her grades eventually (30) _______ and
her teachers were satisfied with her. Her mother was glad that she had accepted her advice. Mary
continued to work hard and she did very well in her final exams. If she had not accepted her
mother’s advice she would not have been successful.
Question 26. A. disappointing B. upset C. challenging D. agnostic
Question 27. A. taunt B. belittle C. avoid D. listen
Question 28. A. stamina B. failure C. love D. position
Question 29. A. constructive B. disastrous C. cowardly D. innovation
Question 30. A. severe B. significant C. improved D. motivate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The first jazz musicians played in New Orleans during the early 1900’s. After 1917, many of
the New Orleans musicians moved to the south side of Chicago, where they continued to play their
style of jazz. Soon Chicago was the new-center for jazz.
Several outstanding musicians emerged as leading jazz artists in Chicago. Daniel Lotus
"Satchmo" Armstrong, born in New Orleans in 1900, was one. Another leading musician was
Joseph King Oliver, who is also credited with having discovered Armstrong, when they were both
in New Orleans. While in Chicago, Oliver asked Armstrong, who was in New Orleans, to join his
band. In 1923 King Oliver’s Creole Jazz Band made the first important set of recordings by a Hot
Five and Hot Seven bands under Louis Armstrong also made recordings of special note.
Although Chicago’s South Side was the main jazz center, some musicians in New York were
also demanding attention in jazz circles. In 1923 Fletcher Henderson already had a ten - piece band
that played jazz. During the early 1930’s, the number of players grew to sixteen. Henderson’s band
was considered a leader in what some people have called the Big Band Era. By the 1930’s, big
dance bands were the rage. Large numbers of people went to ballrooms to dance to jazz music
played by big bands.
One of the most popular and also a very famous jazz band was the Duke Ellington band.
Edward "Duke” Ellington was born in Washington, D.C., in 1899 and died in New York City in
1974. He studied the piano as a young boy and later began writing original musical compositions.
The first of Ellington’s European tours came in 1933. He soon received international fame for his
talent as a band leader, composer and arranger. Ten years later, Ellington began giving annual
concerts at Carnegie Hall in New York City. People began to listen to jazz in the same way, that
they had always listened to classical music.
Question 31. It can be inferred from the passage that Louis Armstrong went to Chicago for which
of the following reasons?
A To form his own band. B. To learn to play Chicago - style jazz.
C. To play in Joseph Oliver’s band. D. To make recordings with the Hot Five.
Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following Black bands was the first to make a
significant set of jazz recordings?
A. The Hot Seven band B. Fletcher Henderson’s band
C. The Red Hot Peppers band D King Oliver’s Creole jazz Band
Question 33. The nickname "Duke" belonged to which of the following bandleaders?
A Louis Armstrong B. Joseph Oliver
C. Edward Ellington D. Fletcher Henderson
Question 34. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?
A. By the 1930’s jazz was appreciated by a wide audience.
B Classical music had a great impact on jazz.
C. Jazz originated in New Orleans in the early nineteenth century.
D. Jazz band were better known in, Europe than in the United States.
Question 35. Which of the following cities is NOT mentioned in the passage as a center of jazz?
A. New York B. Washington, D.C C. Chicago D. New Orleans
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Any rock that has cooled and solidified from a molten state is an igneous rock. Therefore, if the
Earth began as a superheated sphere in space, all the rocks making up its crust may well have been
igneous and thus the ancestors of all other rocks. Even today, approximately 95 percent of the entire
crust is igneous. Periodically, molten material wells out of the Earth’s interior to invade the surface
layers or to flow onto the surface itself. This material cools into a wide variety of igneous rocks. In
the molten state, it is called magma as it pushes into the crust and lava when it runs out onto the
surface.
All magma consists basically of a variety of silicate minerals (high in silicon-oxygen
compounds), but the chemical composition of any given flow may differ radically from that of any
other. The resulting igneous rocks will reflect these differences. Igneous rocks also vary in texture
as well as chemistry. Granite, for instance, is a coarse-grained igneous rock whose individual
mineral crystals have formed to a size easily seen by the naked eye. A slow rate of cooling has
allowed the crystals to reach this size. Normally, slow cooling occurs when the crust is invaded by
magma that remains buried well below the surface. Granite may be found on the surface of the
contemporary landscape, but from its coarse texture we know that it must have formed through
slow cooling at a great depth and later been laid bare by erosion. Igneous rocks with this coarse-
grained texture that formed at depth are called plutonic.
On the other hand, if the same magma flows onto the surface and is quickly cooled by the
atmosphere, the resulting rock will be fine-grained and appear quite different from granite, although
the chemical composition will be identical. This kind of rock is called rhyolite. The most finely
grained igneous rock is volcanic glass or obsidian, which has no crystals. Some researchers believe
this is because of rapid cooling; others believe it is because of a lack of water vapor and other gases
in the lava. The black obsidian cliffs of Yellowstone National Park are the result of a lava flow of
basalt running head on into a glacier. Some of the glacier melted on contact, but suddenly there also
appeared a huge black mass of glassy stone.
Question 36. In the first paragraph, the author mentions that ________.
A. the Earth began as a molten mass
B. a thin layer of magma flows beneath the Earth’s crust
C. the minerals found in igneous rock are very common
D. igneous rock is continually being formed
Question 37. The word "contemporary" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. vast B. natural C. existing D. uneven
Question 38. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. granite B. surface C. landscape D. texture
Question 39. Granite that has been found above ground has been ________.
A. pushed up from below the crust by magma
B. produced during a volcanic explosion
C. gradually exposed due to erosion
D. pushed up by the natural shifting of the Earth
Question 40. Which of the following is produced when magma cools rapidly?
A. Granite B. Plutonic rock C. Rhyolite D. Mineral crystals
Question 41. The word "finely" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. minutely B. loosely C. sensitively D. purely
Question 42. Which of the following is another name for volcanic glass?
A. Plutonic rock B. Obsidian C. Lava D. Crystal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Cool temperatures, shade, (A) moist, and the presence of (B) dead organic material
(C) provide the ideal living (D) conditions for mushrooms.
Question 44. (A) What we know about these diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C)
from spreading easily (D) among the population.
Question 45. The human (A) body (B) relies on (C) certainly nutrients for its (D) survival.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. I have never seen such a horrible film before.
A. I don’t enjoy seeing horror films.
B. That is one of the most horrible films I have seen before.
C. This is the worst film that I have ever seen.
D. Such a horrible film that I have never seen before.
Question 47. Daisy cooked so many dishes for lunch, but it wasn’t necessary.
A. Daisy needn’t have cooked so many dishes for lunch
B. Daisy couldn’t have cooked so many dishes for lunch.
C. Daisy must have cooked so many good dishes.
D. Daisy might not have cooked so many dishes for lunch.
Question 48. This party is ‘evening dress’ only.
A. You have to dress up for the party this evening.
B. I dress up only for this evening party.
C. You’re not allowed to dress casually for this party.
D. This party is only for those who dress up in the evening.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. If only I had taken part in the Singing contest. I didn’t do that.
A. I regret not taking part in the Singing contest.
B. I regret to take part in the Singing contest.
C. I wish I took part in the Singing contest.
D. I don’t take part in the Singing contest
Question 50. You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual.
A. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol.
B. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.
C. The faster you drive, the more petrol you use.
D. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 7
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate
Question 2. A. bury B. cleanliness C. plenty D. dean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
Question 4. A difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I suggest the room ________ before Tet holiday.
A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate
Question 6. We are up to our ________ in paperwork and don’t have a bit of free time for
entertainment these days.
A. neck B. forehead C. chest D. shoulders
Question 7. When I heard that joke, I burst into loud ________.
A. smile B. laughter C. amusement D. enjoyment
Question 8. Tom is ________ student that he can get a scholarship
A. so B. so good C. so good a D. such
Question 9. I think I must have this watch repaired as it ________ over 15 minutes a day.
A. accelerates B. increases C. progresses D. gains
Question 10. ________ was the coffee that we couldn’t drink it.
A. Such strong B. So strong C. Hardly ever D. How strong
Question 11. These chemicals are ________ a horrible smell.
A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out
Question 12. The school was closed for a month because of the ________ of coronavirus
pandemic.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
Question 13. My father has left his book at home; he’s always so ________.
A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting
Question 14. My brother lives a(n) _______ throw from the airport.
A. stone’s B. stick’s C. arrow’s D. apple’s
Question 15. When Jenifer ran out of money, she ________ her mother for help.
A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with
Question 16. I object ________ to the beach in this cold weather.
A. to going B. going C. about going D. of going
Question 17. If you need to ________ the teacher’s attention, please raise your hand.
A. pull B. attract C. capture D. influence
Question 18. No, I didn’t know her phone number, ________ I would have called her.
A. because B. otherwise C. consequently D. therefore
Question 19. In seeking independence, they do not sacrifice their human ________.
A. mood B. situation C. dignity D. personification
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. When you cross the street, be careful and be on the alert for the bus.
A. look for B. watch out C. search for D. turn up
Question 21. Many think social networking can be addictive and time-consuming if users spend
most of their day on useless microblogging or become obsessed with the private lives of other
people.
A. taking or needing a lot of time B. having a lot of time
C. saving a lot of time D. giving a lot of time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Kurzweil believes that there could be tiny robots called nanobots implanted into our
brains to improve our memory.
A. inserted in B. fixed in C. removed from D. replaced with
Question 23. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the guests as it occurred at the
annual meeting last month.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Lien: "Is it all right if I use your motorbike?" - Hoang:" ________ "
A. Oh, forget it. B. I accept it.
C. Sure, go ahead. D. I don’t care.
Question 25. Hoa: "Can I try this new camera?" - Seller:" ________ "
A. Sure. But please be careful with it. B. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now.
C. I’m sorry. I’m home late. D. Sure. Thanks a lot.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Books are essential to learning as they (26) _______ unlimited information to the readers. If
you want to know about dogs, you can easily learn about dog behavior, breeds, caring, and various
topics about our canine friends by reading books. You don’t have to go to school just to gather
quick information about a subject. (27) _______ you need to do is grab a book, read, and absorb the
contents.
People who are in need of data can acquire them from books. It is not necessary to attend
school in order to get information. A quick scan on books will give you the details, facts, and data
that you need about a topic.
Books are actually one of the best sources of information. One of the main reasons why they
are (28) _______ as top sources of knowledge is because they provide unlimited facts to the
readers. If you do a research, you can definitely find (29) _______ you are looking for from books.
This is why we often turn to books or any reading materials whenever we have a research about a
project. Whether you are a student or a professional, you will definitely gain something new
whenever you open a page of a book.
Before the invention of laptops and iPads, books were known as the ultimate source of
information. Unlike the internet, you can bring any book you want with you anywhere you go. (30)
_______ they don’t take up much space in your bag. You can easily carry them when you go out on
a trip or while traveling to school.
Question 26. A. attract B. offer C. help D. create
Question 27. A. All B. Which C. What D. Most
Question 28. A. decided B. taken C. considered D. thought
Question 29. A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 30. A. However B. Therefore C. Whereas D. Additionally
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The walnut tree produces wood that is used for countless purposes, and is considered the finest
wood in the world. The wood is easy to work with, yet it is very hard and durable and when it is
polished, it produces a rich, dark luster. It also shrinks and swells less than any other wood, which
makes it especially desirable for fine furniture, flooring, and even gun stocks.
In fact, just about every part of the walnut is unusually hard and strong. The nut of the tree is
encased inside a very hard shell, which itself is enclosed in a leathery outer covering called a husk.
It requires real effort to break through those layers to get at the tasty meat inside.
Yet every part of the walnut is useful to people. The outer husk produces a dark reddish stain
that is hard to remove from the hands of the person who opens the nut, and this pigment is widely
used in dyes and wood stains. The inner shell is used as an abrasive substance to clean jet engines.
And the meat of the nut is extensively used in cooking, ice cream, flavorings-and just eaten raw.
Walnut trees exude a chemical into the soil near their roots which can be poisonous to some
trees and shrubs. Fruit trees, for example, will not survive if planted too close to a walnut. Many
other plants, such as maple trees or ivy, are not affected by the walnut’s presence, and are well-
suited to grow in its vicinity.
Question 31. What is the topic of this passage?
A. The use of walnut wood in furniture. B. Walnut trees.
C. Where to plant walnuts. D. Trees of North America.
Question 32. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Trees are used for many things.
B. Maple trees grow well with walnuts.
C. Walnuts can kill other trees.
D. Walnut trees are valuable when planted correctly.
Question 33. As used in the passage, the underlined word "abrasive" most nearly means _______.
A. rough B. disagreeable C. soft D. fragrant
Question 34. The author of the passage probably believes that ________.
A. walnut trees are endangered
B. people should recycle more
C. people should grow walnut trees if possible
D. maple trees are not good for furniture making
Question 35. As used in the passage, the underlined word "exude" most nearly means ________.
A. give off B. naked C. smell bad D. leave the area.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For a century and a half the piano has been one of the most popular solo instruments for
Western music. Unlike string and wind instruments, the piano is completely self- sufficient, as it is
able to play both the melody and its accompanying harmony at the same time. For this reason, it
became the favorite household instrument of the nineteenth century.
The ancestry of the piano can be traced to the early keyboard instruments of the fifteenth and
sixteenth centuries-the spinet, the dulcimer, and the virginal. In the seventeenth century the organ,
the clavichord, and the harpsichord became the chief instruments of the keyboard group, a
supremacy they maintained until the piano supplanted them at the end of the eighteenth century.
The clavichord’s tone was never powerful, nevertheless, because of the variety of tone possible to it
many composers found the clavichord a sympathetic instrument for intimate chamber music. The
harpsichord with its bright, vigorous tone was the favorite instrument for supporting the bass of the
small orchestra of the period and for concert use but the character of the tone could not be varied
save by mechanical or structural devices.
The piano was perfected in the early eighteenth century by a harpsichord maker in Italy (though
musicologists point out several previous instances of the instrument). This instrument was called a
piano e forte (soft Mid loud), to indicate its dynamic versatility; its strings were struck by a
recoiling hammer with a felt-padded head. The wires were much heavier in. the earlier instruments.
A series of mechanical improvements continuing well into the nineteenth century, including the
introduction of pedals to sustain tone or to soften it, the perfection of a metal frame, and steel wire
of the finest quality, finally produced an instrument capable of myriad tonal effects from the most
delicate harmonies to an almost orchestral fullness of sound, from a liquid, singing tone to sharp,
percussive brilliance.
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The historical development of the piano
B. The quality of tone produced by various keyboard instruments
C. The uses of keyboard instruments in various types of compositions
D. The popularity of the piano with composers
Question 37. Which of the following instruments was widely used before the seventeenth century?
A. The harpsichord B. The spinet C. The clavichord D. The organ
Question 38. The word "supplanted" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. supported B. promoted C. replaced D. dominated
Question 39. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to the ________.
A. variety B. music C. harpsichord D. clavichord
Question 40. According to the passage, what deficiency did the harpsichord have?
A. It was fragile B. It lacked variety in tone
C. It sounded metallic D. It could not produce a strong sound
Question 41. According to the information in the last paragraph, which of the following
improvements made it possible to lengthen the tone produced by the piano?
A. The introduction of pedals B. The use of heavy wires
C. The use of felt-padded hammerheads D. The metal frame construction
Question 42. The word "myriad" in line 22 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. noticeable B. many C. loud D. unusual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Many (A) flowering plants benefits (B) of pollination by (C) adult butterflies (D) and
moths.
Question 44. (A) Ripe fruit is often stored in a place (B) what contains (C) much carbon dioxide so
that the fruit will not decay too (D) rapidly.
Question 45. Weather and (A) geography conditions may (B) determine the type (C) of (D)
transportation used in a region.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “It is you that stole my handbag.” Ms. Hoa said to the young boy.
A. Ms. Hoa accused the young boy of stealing her handbag.
B. Ms. Hoa asked the young boy to steal her handbag.
C. Ms. Hoa told the young boy that it was you that stole her handbag.
D. Ms. Hoa denied the young boy of stealing her handbag.
Question 47. I’m sure Hoa was very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
A. Hoa must be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
B. Hoa must have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
C. Hoa may be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
D. Hoa could have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
Question 48. I don’t find it difficult to get up early in the morning.
A. It’s difficult for me to get up early in the morning.
B. I’m used to getting up early in the morning.
C. I hate getting up early in the morning.
D. I used to get up early in the morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. They had overslept, they missed the bus.
A. Having overslept so they couldn’t catch the bus.
B. Though they had overslept, they didn’t miss the bus.
C. As a result of having overslept, they couldn’t catch the bus.
D. If they hadn’t overslept last night, they would catch the bus now.
Question 50. Tim is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. Tim is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
B. Tim is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
C. Tim is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
D. Tim is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 8
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. slaughter B. draught C. naughty D. plaudit
Question 2. A. inadequate B. navigate C. necessitate D. debate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. profitable B. reliable C. dependable D. forgettable
Question 4. A. immediate B. sympathetic C. competitive D. mysterious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. My mother made me ________ him next week.
A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call
Question 6.They had invited over one hundred guests, ________.
A. not any of whom I knew B. I did not know any of whom
C. I knew none of whom D. none of whom I knew
Question 7. It must be true. She heard it straight from the ________ mouth.
A. dog’s B. camel’s C. horse’s D. cat’s
Question 8. Finally, she ________ a new idea for increasing sales figures.
A. came up with B. thought over C. got round to D. looked into
Question 9. All members of his family are ________ aware of the need to obey the family rules.
A. well B. much C. greatly D. far
Question 10. Although he received intensive treatment, there was no ________ improvement in his
condition.
A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible
Question 11. More than 80,000 people ________ coronavirus in China in late 2019.
A. captured B. contracted C. caused D. spent
Question 12. Don’t forget to buy me a dictionary,________?
A. do you B. will you C. shall you D. don’t you
Question 13. Tim and I will never get along. We’re ________.
A. cats and dogs B. chalk and cheese C. salt and pepper D. turn a deaf ear
Question 14. You should study hard to ________ your classmates.
A. catch sight of B. feel like C. get in touch with D. keep pace with
Question 15. Several people were hurt in the accident but only one ________ to hospital.
A. was taken B. was taking C. has taken D. has been taking
Question 16. We are ________ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here.
A. to B. with C. at D. under
Question 17. We are going to build a house with a view ________ it.
A. to selling B. sell C. to sell D. selling
Question 18. I usually buy my clothes ________. It’s cheaper than going to the dress maker.
A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf
Question 19. Lisa went ________ the competition and won the first prize.
A. on B. in for C. away D. through
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. We are tearing down these old houses to build a new office block.
A. demolishing B. knocking C. renovating D. decorating
Question 21. It’s no use getting in a stew about it because we cannot do anything now.
A. feeling relaxed B. going crazy
C. becoming anxious D. being miserable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Her father was arrested for his illicit drug trade in the police raid yesterday.
A. legal B. irregular C. elicited D. secret
Question 23. The book is not worth reading. The plot is too dull.
A. simple B. interesting C. complicated D. slow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. "Well, I hope you enjoyed your meal." - " ________”
A. Oh, absolutely delicious. B. No problem.
C. Yes, that’s very interesting. D. Yeah, that’s right.
Question 25. Lisa: “It was very kind of you to help me out, Mark”
Mark:" ________ "
A. You can say that again. B. That’s was the least I could do.
C. I’m glad you like it. D. Thanks a lot.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Around the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally recognized
are daily being violated, (26) _______ in the name of economic advancement, political stability or
for personal greed and interests. Violations of these rights have (27) _______ new problems in
human social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns,
all of which have affected people’s lives either directly or indirectly. It is important that countries
come up with guidelines for action to (28) _______ the incidences of malicious attacks on the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic data and systems, computer-related crimes,
content related offences and violations of intellectual property rights. (29) _______ , threats to
critical infrastructure and national interests arising from the use of the internet for criminal and
terrorist activities are a growing (30) _______ .
Question 26. A. scarcely B. whether C. and D. for
Question 27. A. created B. ceased C. arisen D. forego
Question 28. A. accord B. struggle C. commend D. combat
Question 29. A. More B. Further C. Addition D. Beside
Question 30. A. concern B. apathy C. pattern D. insouciance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Book clubs are a great way to meet new friends or keep in touch with old ones, while keeping
up on your reading and participating in lively and intellectually stimulating discussions. If you’re
interested in starting a book club, you should consider the following options and recommendations.
The first thing you’ll need are members. Before recruiting, think carefully about how many
people you want to participate and also what the club’s focus will be. For example, some book
clubs focus exclusively on fiction, others read nonfiction. Some are even more specific, focusing
only on a particular genre such as mysteries, science fiction, or romance. Others have a more
flexible and open focus. All of these possibilities can make for a great club, but it is important to
decide on a focus at the outset so the guidelines will be clear to the group and prospective member.
After setting the basic parameters, recruitment can begin. Notify friends and family, advertise
in the local newspaper, and hang flyers on bulletin boards in local stores, colleges, libraries, and
bookstores. When enough people express interest, schedule a kick-off meeting during which
decisions will be made about specific guidelines that will ensure the club runs smoothly. This
meeting will need to establish where the group will meet (rotating homes or a public venue such as
a library or coffee shop); how often the group will meet, and on what day of the week and at what
time; how long the meetings will be; how books will be chosen and by whom; who will lead the
group (if anyone); and whether refreshments will be served and if so, who will supply them. By the
end of this meeting, these guidelines should be set and a book selection and date for the first official
meeting should be finalized.
Planning and running a book club is not without challenges, but when a book club is run
effectively, the experience can be extremely rewarding for everyone involved.
Question 31. According to the passage, when starting a book club, the first thing a person should do
is ________.
A. Hang flyers in local establishments.
B. Put an ad in a local newspaper.
C. Decide on the focus and size of the club.
D. Decide when and where the group will meet.
Question 32. Which of the following would NOT be covered during the book club’s kick-off
meeting?
A. Deciding on whether refreshments will be served.
B. Discussing and/or appointing a leader.
C. Choosing the club’s first selection.
D. Identifying what kinds of books or genre will be the club’s focus.
Question 33. A good title for this passage would be ________.
A. Book Clubs: A Great Way to Make New Friends
B. Starting a Successful Book Club: A Guide
C. Five Easy Steps to Starting a Successful Book Club
D. Reading in Groups: Sharing Knowledge, Nurturing Friendships
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT something that successful book clubs should do?
A. Focus exclusively on one genre.
B. Have guidelines about where and when to meet.
C. Have a focus.
D. Decide how to choose and who will choose book selections.
Question 35. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage?
A. Smaller groups are better for a variety of reasons.
B. The social aspect of book clubs is more important than the intellectual.
C. Starting your own book club is better than joining an existing one.
D. When starting and running a book club, a casual approach is risky
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Molting is one of the most involved processes of a bird’s annual life cycle. Notwithstanding
preening and constant care, the marvelously intricate structure of a bird’s feather inevitably wears
out. All adult birds molt their feathers at least once a year, and upon close observation, one can
recognize the frayed, ragged appearance of feathers that are nearing the end of their useful life. Two
distinct processes are involved in molting.
The first step is when the old, worn feather is dropped, or shed. The second is when a new
feather grows in its place. When each feather has been shed and replaced, then the molt can be said
to be complete. This, however, is an abstraction that often does not happen: incomplete,
overlapping, and arrested molts are quite common.
Molt requires that a bird find and process enough protein to rebuild approximately one- third of
its body weight. It is not surprising that a bird in heavy molt often seems listless and unwell. But far
from being random, molt is controlled by strong evolutionary forces that have established an
optimal time and duration. Generally, molt occurs at the time of least stress on the bird. Many
songbirds, for instance, molt in late summer, when the hard work of breeding is done but the
weather is still warm and food still plentiful. This is why the woods in late summer often seem so
quiet, when compared with the exuberant choruses of spring.
Molt of the flight feathers is the most highly organized part of the process. Some species, for
example, begin by dropping the outermost primary feathers on each side (to retain balance in the
air) and wait until the replacement feathers are about one-third grown before shedding the next
outermost, and so on. Others always start with the innermost primary feathers and work outward.
Yet other species begin in the middle and work outward on both weeks while the replacement
feathers grow.
Question 36. The passage mainly discusses how ________.
A. birds prepare for breeding B. bird feathers differ from species
C. birds shed and replace their feathers D. birds are affected by seasonal changes
Question 37. The word "Notwithstanding" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. despite B. because of C. instead of D. regarding
Question 38. The word "intricate" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. regular B complex C. interesting D. important
Question 39. The word "optimal" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. slow B. frequent C. best D. early
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason that songbirds molt in the late
summer?
A. Fewer predators are in the woods. B. The weathers is still warm.
C. The songbirds have finished breeding. D. Food is still available.
Question 41. Some birds that are molting maintain balance during flight by ________.
A. constantly preening and caring for their remaining feathers
B. dropping flight feathers on both sides at the same time
C. adjusting the angle of their flight to compensate for lost feathers
D. only losing one-third of their feathers
Question 42.The word "Others" in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. primary feathers B. sides C. species D flight feathers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. In order to (A) do a profit, (B) the new amusement centre needs (C) at least 3000
visitors (D) a month.
Question 44. Mumps (A) are a very (B) common disease (C) which (D) usually affects children.
Question 45. (A) The lion has (B) long been (C) a symbol of strength, power, and (D) it is very
cruel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Did you mean to push her or did it happen by accident?
A. Did you push her on purpose or was it an accident?
B. Do you know that you pushed her accidentally?
C. I wondered if you mean to make her injured.
D. Was it an accident when you pushed her?
Question 47. On finding the lost girl, he phoned the police.
A. As soon as he found the lost girl, he phoned the police.
B. Hardly was the lost girl found than he phoned the police.
C. No sooner had he phoned the police than he found the lost girl.
D. Scarcely he found the lost girl did he phone the police.
Question 48. I am not certain, but there may be about ten applicants for the job.
A. Ten people have applied for the job.
B. At a guess, there are about ten applicants for the job.
C. I guess that there are ten applicants for the job.
D. I am not sure about who will be chosen because there are about ten applicants for the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The trains began to pull out. Most of them were full of passengers.
A. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the trains.
B. The trains, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out.
C. The trains, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out.
D. The trains, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out.
Question 50. The new coffee shop looks nice. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new coffee shop should improve its appearance.
B. The new coffee shop would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new coffee shop would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new coffee shop does not appear to attract much business.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 9
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. beard B. rehearse C. hearsay D. endearment
Question 2. A. confusion B. television C. dimension D. precision
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. mechanical B. confidence C. biography D. eradicate
Question 4. A. competent B. implicate C. advertise D. reconstruct
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. If the business was bad, we would have to _______ some of our staff.
A. put down B. lay off C. take on D. hang up
Question 6. The government have tried to _______ the price of petro, but they failed.
A. bringdown B. bring on C. put in D. get over
Question 7. She came _______ a photo of her husband and a strange woman when she was
cleaning the house.
A. across B. by C. with D. in
Question 8. Students can _______ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes
of the lectures.
A. absorb B. provide C. read D. transmit
Question 9. _______ flowers are usually made of plastic or silk.
A. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue
Question 10. Let’s go swimming, _______?
A. shall we B. shall I C. will you D. don’t you
Question 11. I’ll give you another hour to _______ up your mind.
A. give B. go C. make D. take
Question 12. The film was so _______ that many viewers cried.
A. moody B. touching C. touchy D. moved
Question 13. _______ the company, I’d like to thank you for your help.
A. According to B. On behalf of C. In addition to D. Thanks to
Question 14. _______ at the party, we saw Jenifer standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
Question 15. Her talent and experience _______ her to the respect of her colleagues.
A. permitted B. qualified C. deserved D. entitled
Question 16. They were working overtime to cope with a sudden _______ in demand.
A. surge B. boost C. impetus D. thrust
Question 17. It can be difficult to teach young children because of their short attention _______.
A. limit B. span C. duration D. time
Question 18. He objected to _______.
A. his mistakes being laughed at B. laughing his mistakes at
C. his mistakes laughing at D. his mistakes at laughing
Question 19. _______ summer I spent in _______ USA was one of _______ best in my life.
A. At/ a/ the B. The/ the/ a C. The/ Ø/ the D. The/ the/ the
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. She drives me to the edge because she never stops talking in class.
A. worries me B. irritates me C. pleases me D. frightens me
Question 21. Because the jury had reached a deadlock, the judge called for a retrial.
A. reduction B. disagreement C. impasse D. verdict
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Sarah’s predominant features, what you first noticed about her, were her stunning
black hair and big, dark eyes.
A. inadequate B. unnoticeable C. universal D. evident
Question 23. The shop assistant have to break off the conversation to serve a customer.
A. interrupt B. continue C. hurry D. begin
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Hoa and Nam are talking about their next exams.
Hoa: "Our final exams will start next Friday. Are you ready?" - Nam:" _______ "
A. I’m half ready. B. God save you. C. Thank you so much. D. Don’t mention it!
Question 25. Minh: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?" - Hoa:" _______."
A. It’s my pleasure to help you. B. Let’s do it then.
C. The more the merrier. D. You’re right.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
An important part of building independence is allowing your teenagers to do things for
themselves, (26) _______ their own decisions, and make mistakes. These are natural processes in
life and people are wired to desire autonomy early in life. This need for early independence is
designed to prepare individuals for adulthood. Allowing your children to become independent
earlier in life can (27) _______ rebellion during the later stages of the teenage years. All teenagers
have a need to express their individuality. Teenagers (28) _______ are not allowed to express their
individuality are more likely to revolt. (29) _______ , practicing self-reliance via independence will
help eliminate public shyness and teach your kids to stand up for themselves when needed,
including peer (30) _______ . Early choice will also add confidence and prepare them for decision-
making in adulthood.
Question 26. A. take B. do C. get D. make
Question 27. A. minimize B. increase C. interfere D. maximize
Question 28. A. whom B. which C. where D. that
Question 29. A. However B. In addition C. But D. In contrast
Question 30. A. stress B. help C. pressure D. advice
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The term "virus" is derived from the Latin word for poison or slime. It was originally applied to
the noxious stench emanating from swamps that was thought to cause a variety of diseases in the
centuries before microbes were discovered and specifically linked to illness. But it was not until
almost the end of the nineteenth century that a true virus was proven to be the cause of a disease.
The nature of viruses made them impossible to detect for many years even after bacteria had
been discovered and studied. Not only are viruses too small to be seen with a light microscope, they
also cannot be detected through their biological activity, except as it occurs in conjunction with
other organisms. In fact, viruses show no traces of biological activity by themselves. Unlike
bacteria, they are not living agents in the strictest sense. Viruses are very simple pieces of organic
material composed only of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, enclosed in a coat of protein made up
of simple structural units. (Some viruses also contain carbohydrates and lipids.) They are parasites,
requiring human, animal, or plant cells to live. The virus replicates by attaching to a cell and
injecting its nucleic acid.’ once inside the cell, the DNA or RNA that contains the virus’ genetic
information takes over the cell’s biological machinery, and the cell begins to manufacture viral
proteins rather than its own.
Question 31. Before microbes were discovered it was believed that some diseases were caused by
_______.
A. germ-carrying insects B. certain strains of bacteria
C. foul odors released from swamps D. slimy creatures living near swamps
Question 32. The word "proven" in the passage is closest meaning to _______.
A. shown B feared C. imagined D. considered
Question 33. The word "nature" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. self-sufficiency B. shapes C. characteristics D. speed
Question 34. The author implies that bacteria were investigated earlier than viruses because
_______.
A. bacteria are easier to detect B. bacteria are harder to eradicate
C. viruses are extremely poisonous D. viruses are found only in hot climates
Question 35. All of the following may be components of a virus EXCEPT _______.
A. RNA B. plant cells C. carbohydrates D. a coat of protein
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The Native Americans of northern California were very good at basketry, using the reeds,
grasses, barks, and roots they found around them to fashion articles of all sorts and sizes - not only
trays, containers, and cooking pots, but hats, boats, fish traps, baby carriers, and ceremonial objects.
Of all these experts, none excelled the Pomo - a group who lived on or near the coast during the
1800’s, and whose descendants continue to live in parts of the same region to this day. They made
baskets three feet in diameter and others no bigger than a thimble. The Pomo people were masters
of decoration. Some of their baskets were completely covered with shell pendants; others with
feathers that made the baskets’ surfaces as soft as the breasts of birds. Moreover, the Pomo people
made use of more weaving techniques than did their neighbors. Most groups made all their
basketwork by twining - the twisting of a flexible horizontal material, called a weft, around stiffer
vertical strands of material, the warp. Others depended primarily on coiling - a process in which a
continuous coil of stiff material is held in the desired shape with tight wrapping of flexible strands.
Only the Pomo people used both processes with equal ease and frequency. In addition, they made
use of four distinct variations on the basic twining process, often employing more than one of them
in a single article.
Although a wide variety of materials was available, the Pomo people used only a few. The
warp was always made of willow, and the most commonly used weft was sedge root, a woody fiber
that could easily be separated into strands no thicker than a thread. For color, the Pomo people used
the bark of redbud for their twined work and dyed bulrush root for black in coiled work. Though
other materials were sometimes used, these four were the staples in their finest basketry.
If the basketry materials used by the Pomo people were limited, the designs were amazingly
varied. Every Pomo basketmaker knew how to produce from fifteen to twenty distinct patterns that
could be combined in a number of different ways.
Question 36. The word "fashion" in line 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A maintain B. organize C. trade D. create
Question 37. The Pomo people used each of the following materials to decorate baskets EXCEPT
_______.
A. shells B. feathers C. leaves D. bark
Question 38. What is the author’s main point in the second paragraph?
A. The neighbors of the Pomo people tried to improve on the Pomo basket weaving techniques.
B. The Pomo people were the most skilled basket weavers in their region.
C. The Pomo people learned their basket weaving techniques from other Native Americans.
D. The Pomo baskets have been handed down for generations.
Question 39. According to the passage, a weft is a _______.
A. tool for separating sedge root B. process used for coloring baskets
C. pliable material woven around the warp D. pattern used to decorate baskets
Question 40. According to the passage, what did the Pomo people use as the warp in their baskets?
A. bulrush B willow C sedge D. redbud
Question 41. The word "staples" in line 21 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. combinations B. limitations C accessories D basic elements
Question 42. Which of the following statements about Pomo baskets can be best inferred from the
passage?
A. Baskets produced by other Native Americans were less varied in design than those of the
Pomo people.
B. Baskets produced by Pomo weavers were primarily for ceremonial purposes.
C. There were a very limited number of basket-making materials available to the Pomo people.
D. The basket-making production of the Pomo people has increased over the years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. The (A) discovery of penicillin in 1928 (B) has not produced antibiotics (C) useful for
the treatment of (D) infectious diseases until 1940.
Question 44. The Mississippi, the (A) longest river in the USA, begins (B) as small (C) clear
stream in (D) northwestern Minnesota.
Question 45. (A) Before the invention of (B) the printing press, books (C) have been all printed (D)
by hand.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. It was so hot on the bus Lucy thought she was going to faint.
A. The bus was so hot that Lucy felt fainted.
B. Lucy thought she was on the point of fainting because it was so hot on the bus.
C. Lucy nearly fainted because of the heating of the bus.
D. As soon as the bus got hot, Lucy fainted.
Question 47. The boss completely deceived him.
A. He was given a full conception by the boss.
B. He was completely taken in by the boss.
C. The boss had full conception of him.
D. He was criticized by the boss.
Question 48. It is regretful that they destroyed the oldest building.
A. They wouldn’t have destroyed the oldest building.
B. They shouldn’t have destroyed the oldest building.
C. They couldn’t have destroyed the oldest building.
D. They can’t have destroyed the oldest building.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If only he had been able to finish his book.
B. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
C. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.
D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.
Question 50. "You got an A in English. Congratulations!" Peter said to his classmate.
A. Peter encouraged his classmate to get an A in English.
B. Peter persuaded his classmate to get an A in English.
C. Peter insisted on getting an A in English for his classmate.
D. Peter congratulated his classmate on getting an A in English.
BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ SỐ 10
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Số câu hỏi: 50 câu - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. courage B. honour C. favour D. labour
Question 2. A incense B. emperor C. cutlery D. speciality
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. discovery B. contaminant C. education D. experience
Question 4. A. rhinoceros B. curriculum C. kindergarten D. discriminate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I read the contract again and again ________ avoiding making spelling mistakes.
A. with a view to B. on account of C. by means of D. in terms of
Question 6. The life ________ of individuals in developed countries has increased dramatically.
A expectation B. exception C. exertion D. expectancy
Question 7. After a lot of difficulty, he ________ to open the door.
A. managed B. succeeded C. obtained D. realized
Question 8. When she ________, everyone ________.
A. arrived - has left B. had arrived - left
C. arrived - had left D. would arrive - leave
Question 9. He attempted to ________ the painting from the gallery but he was caught.
A. rob B. steal C. thief D. kidnap
Question 10. I’m not keen on ________ control of the project to a newcomer.
A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. move
Question 11. ________ his injury, he couldn’t play football.
A. Despite B. Because of C. Although D. Because
Question 12. His comments ________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
Question 13. I would sooner you ________ the office phone for personal purpose.
A. not using B. shouldn’t use C. not to use D. didn’t use
Question 14. As the drug took ________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
Question 15. I’ve got a very high opinion ________ your brother.
A. on B. to C. for D. of
Question 16. He went ________ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. in for B. over C. through D. down with
Question 17. I enjoyed seeing that film. It was rather sad, ________.
A. also B. though C. but D. so
Question 18. There are courts for tennis and badminton and the ________.
A. like B. same C. similar D. such
Question 19. It’s high time you let your ________ down and had some fun!
A. hair B. heads C. hearts D. souls
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. You have to be on your toes if you want to win the contest.
A. pay all your attention to what you are doing
B. make every efforts every day
C. listen to some useful advice
D. comply with orders
Question 21. Lisa is thinking of leaving her present job because her manager is always getting at
her.
A. supporting B. protecting C. defending D. criticizing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. My father’s really out of shape, so he starts exercising.
A. physically fit B. out of work
C. always joyful D. worried and stressed
Question 23. In remote areas, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24. - "I think we should use public transport to protect the environment."
- “______________”
A. I can’t agree with you more. B. Thanks so much!
C. Poor you! D. You shouldn’t do that!
Question 25. Son: "Your shirt is terrific. The colour quite suits you." - Huong:" ________ "
A. Really? I won’t believe in you anymore. You are a bad man.
B. Why do you make a quick decision? Tell me the reason.
C. Oh my god. What are you saying?
D. I’m glad you say so.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Is organic food safer and more (26) _______ ? This is an important part of the debate.
Many farmers and consumers believe it is. They think agricultural chemicals can cause serious
illnesses like cancer, but there isn’t much evidence proving this is true. However, recent studies
have shown that eating organically-grown produce (27) _______ your chances of developing heart
disease. Many doctors think it’s more important to stop dangerous bacteria from contaminating
foods. These bacteria can contaminate both organic and non-organic fruit and vegetables, and
doctors recommend washing them carefully before eating them. Meat, fish and chicken can also
become contaminated, so washing your hands before handling these foods is also very important.
Many doctors also believe we should reduce the amount of sugar in our diets, and there is a lot of
evidence to support this idea. They recommend carefully checking the list of ingredients on
processed food and drinks for all the words that really mean sugar, like glucose, sucrose and
fructose. And they remind us that the aim of most big food companies is (28) _______ lots of
money, even if they damage our health while doing so. This means processed foods that are called
"organic" can also be very (29) _______ if they contain lots of sugar.
Most people agree that naturally grown food tastes better. Is tastier food worth the extra
money? That’s a matter of opinion. Whether organic food is healthier or not is still not clear, (30)
_______ more research is needed. However, consumers of organic food often say "better safe than
sorry" when it comes to what we eat.
Question 26. A. nutrients B. nutrition C. nutritious D. nutritionist
Question 27. A. increases B. helps C. changes D. reduces
Question 28. A. making B. make C. makes D. to make
Question 29. A. unhealthy B. delicious C. good D. valuable
Question 30. A. but B. so C. since D. as
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
We’re always being urged to stay safe online. But in an era where the internet is part of our
everyday lives - for work, fun, study, shopping, even managing finances - it’s not always easy to
spot the dangers. Web safety expert, Amanda Knox, explores some of the issues lurking in
cyberspace.
Her first piece of advice is to install software and a firewall to protect your computer from
viruses, hackers and criminals who want to steal your data or financial information. "Think of these
as your first line of defense," says Amanda.
So much for protecting yourself against intruders, but what about other problems? Say you’ve
accidentally deleted an important file or you’ve been at the mercy of a natural disaster. Katy Marsh
runs an online photography business from home and when a fire destroyed part of her house it could
easily have spelled ruin for her business too. "Luckily I keep a regular back-up of my data so it
wasn’t a catastrophe."
Whilst most of us are aware of the need to protect our computers, it seems we’re more lax
when it comes to looking out for ourselves, at least according to a recent web awareness survey.
Web safety specialists say better personal awareness is needed and this is due in part to the rise of
‘Social Networking’ sites like ‘Bebo’, ‘MySpace’ and ‘Facebook’, which allow us to connect with
people around the world with similar interests and professional backgrounds.
This brings us to other potential pitfalls. Are the people you meet online who they really claim
to be? Can you be sure the person you’re chatting with is in fact a 22-year-old Maths undergraduate
from London and not someone merely masquerading as a student to win your trust?
When networking and joining online communities it’s better to be cautious about the amount of
personal information you share. For example, it isn’t always necessary to use your real name as a
username when registering for a service. You could instead use a pseudonym, or a name that
doesn’t give away your real identity to other users. And is it really important to tell the world details
about your school, college or any local clubs you’re a member of?
If you do experience problems from another user be prepared to report them for misusing the
service. You’ll be doing other users a favour too. And if all else fails, check to see if it is easy to
delete your account and leave the service if you choose to and that you have the option to delete all
your details.
A general rule of thumb is not to post any information about yourself that you would not be
happy for the world to know - not just now but in years to come. This includes photographs of
yourself, particularly embarrassing shots of you at that party which you may later regret! It’s not
always easy to remove information after it’s been posted so you - not to mention your future
employer - may have an unpleasant surprise a few years down the line.
Question 31. The effect of the fire was ________.
A. worse for Katy’s business than her home.
B. to ruin Katy’s business.
C. not as serious for Katy’s business as it could have been.
D. to make Katy start to back up her data.
Question 32. According to the web awareness survey, our attitude to our personal safety is rather
________.
A. relaxed. B. concerned. C. positive. D. uncertain.
Question 33. What tip does the writer give for joining an online community?
A. Always use a false name. B. Make sure you are properly registered.
C. Limit the information you give to others. D. Tell other users where you’re studying.
Question 34. The writer says that you should report troublesome users ________.
A. because other people will benefit. B. so you can stop using the service.
C. only if nothing else works. D. if you want to delete your own details.
Question 35. In the final paragraph, the writer advises people ________ not to put photos online.
A. to apply for a job online
B. not to have any personal information online
C. to consider what may cause problems in the future
D. not to put photos online
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
TV has transformed politics in the USA by changing the way in which information is
disseminated, by altering political campaigns, and by changing citizen’s patterns of response to
politics. By giving citizens independent access to the candidates, television diminished the role of
the political party in the selection of the major party candidates. By centering politics on the person
of the candidate, television accelerated the citizen’s focus on character rather than issues.
TV has altered the forms of political communication as well. The messages on which most of
us rely are briefer than they once were. The stump speech, a political speech given by traveling
politicians and lasting 3/2 to 2 hours, which characterized nineteenth-century political discourse,
has given way to the 30-second advertisement and the 10 second "sound bite" in broadcast news.
Increasingly the audience for speeches is not that standing in front of the politician but rather the
viewing audience who will hear and see a snippet of the speech on the news.
In these abbreviated forms, much of what constituted the traditional political discourse of
earlier ages has been lost. In 15 or 30 seconds, a speaker cannot establish the historical context that
shaped the issue in question, cannot detail the probable causes of the problem, and cannot examine
alternative proposals to argue that one is preferable to others. In snippets, politicians assert but do
not argue.
Because television is an intimate medium, speaking through it require a changed political style
that was more conversational, personal, and visual than that of the old-style stump speech. Reliance
on television means that increasingly our political world contains memorable pictures rather than
memorable words. Schools teach us to analyze words and print. However, in a word in which
politics is increasingly visual, informed citizenship requires a new set of skills.
Recognizing the power of television’s pictures, politicians craft televisual, staged events, called
pseudo-event, designed to attract media coverage. Much of the political activity we see on
television news has been crafted by politicians, their speechwriters, and their public relations
advisers for televised consumption. Sound bites in news and answers to questions in debates
increasingly sound like advertisements.
Question 36. What is the main point of the passage?
A. Citizens in the United States are now more informed about political issues because of
television coverage.
B. Citizens in the United States prefer to see politicians on television instead of in person.
C. Politics in the United States has become substantially more controversial since the
introduction of television.
D. Politics in the United States has been significantly changed by television.
Question 37. The word "disseminated" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. analyzed B. discussed C. spread D. stored
Question 38. It can be inferred that before the introduction of television, political parties ________.
A. had more influence over the selection of political candidates
B. spent more money to promote their political candidates
C. attracted more members
D. received more money
Question 39. The author mentions the "stump speech" in paragraph 2 as an example of ________.
A. an event created by politicians to attract media attention
B. an interactive discussion between two politicians
C. a kind of political presentation typical of the nineteenth century
D. a style of speech common to televised political events
Question 40. The word "that" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. audience B. broadcast news C. politician D. advertisement
Question 41. According to the passage, as compared with televised speeches, traditional political
discourse was more successful at ________.
A. allowing news coverage of political candidates
B. placing political issues within a historical context
C. making politics seem more intimate to citizens
D. providing detailed information about a candidates private behavior
Question 42. According to paragraph 5, staged political events are created so that politicians can .
A. create more time to discuss political issues
B. obtain more television coverage for themselves
C. spend more time talking to citizens in person
D. engages in debates with their opponents
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Research in the USA on acupuncture (B) has focused on (C) their use in (D) pain
relief and anesthesia.
Question 44. A food (A) additive is (B) any chemical that food manufactures (C) intentional add to
their (D) products.
Question 45. Chocolate is prepared by a (A) complexity process of cleaning, (B) blending and
roasting cocoa beans, which (C) must be ground and (D) mixed with sugar.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Don’t forget to do your homework", the teacher told us.
A. The teacher told us do not forget to do our homework.
B. The teacher told us to not forget to do our homework.
C. The teacher reminded us to do our homework.
D. The teacher reminded us not to forget to do your homework.
Question 47. Because he came to class late, the teacher punished him.
A. The teacher would have punished him if he had come to class late.
B. He came to class late, but the teacher punished him.
C. The teacher threatened to punish him if he came to class late.
D. The teacher wouldn’t have punished him if he had come to class on time.
Question 48. There is no doubt that Hoa is the best candidate for the job.
A. Hoa is by all means the best candidate for the job.
B. Without question, Hoa is the best candidate for the job.
C. In all likelihood, Hoa is the best candidate for the job.
D. Quite by chance, Hoa is the best candidate for the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. They found the weather inconvenient. They chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
A. In spite of the inconvenient weather, they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
B. They found the weather inconvenient, yet they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
C. Seeing that the weather was inconvenient, they chose to stay in a hotel for the night.
D. They found the weather inconvenient so as to not choose to stay in a hotel for the night.
Question 50. The president failed to explain the cause of the economic crisis. He did not offer any
solutions.
A. Although the president explained the cause of the economic crisis, he failed to offer any
solutions.
B. Not only did the president explain the cause of the economic crisis, but he also offered
solutions.
C. The president offered some solutions based on the explanation of the cause of the economic
crisis.
D. The president didn’t explain the cause of the economic crisis, nor did he offer any solutions.

You might also like