LISTENING

PART 1 – Question 1-8

Instructions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions.
There is one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose
the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Question 1: What is on sale?
A. Computers
B. Office furniture.
C. Kitchen chairs.
D. Clothing.
Question 2: How will the weather be on the weekend?
A. Cold
B. Rainy
C. Misty
D. Warm
Question 3: Where should museum visitors put their coats?
A. On the fourth floor
B. In the bag room.
C. On the ground floor.
D. Near the back door.
Question 4: On what days may guests NOT play?
A. Saturday and Sunday.
B. Thursday and Sunday.
C. Tuesday and Wednesday.
D. Monday and Tuesday.
Question 5: What is the caller advised to do?
A. Talk to another agent
B. Wait for an agent.
C. Place an order.
D. Hang up and try again.
Question 6: What subject is Professor Tran lecturing?
A. Geometry
B. Physics
C. Biology
D. Chemistry
Question 7: When will the movie begin?
A. At 3:00
B. At noon.
C. In half an hour.
D. In 13 minutes.
Question 8: What time of day is this announcement being made?
A. At night
B. In the evening.
C. After lunch
D. Before lunch
PART 2 – Question 9-20
Instructions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations
will not be repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each
question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 9 to 12
Listen to a conservation between two students and choose the best answer A-D to
answer questions 9 to 12. You will hear the recording ONCE only.
Question 9 What are the students mainly talking about?
A. The boy’s interest in being on the yearbook committee.
B. The girl’s extracurricular activities.
C. The girl’s desire for an easier schedule.
D. The work that the boy has to do.
Question 10 What does the boy imply about extracurricular activities?
A. He is going to start doing a new course.
B. He is thinking about quitting one of them.
C. He wants to take part in them.
D. He is doing too many of them.
Question 11 According to the girl, which is her busiest extracurricular activity?
A. The math team
B. The yearbook committee
C. The school newspaper
D. The basketball team
Question 12 What does the girl say about the yearbook committee?
A. She has to write one article a week for it.
B. It is not as exciting as the math club.
C. She goes to meeting for it twice a week.
D. It will become busier next semester.
Questions 13 to 16
Listen to a conservation and choose the best answer A-D to answer questions 13 to
16. You will hear the recording ONCE only.
Question 13 Why is Southeast Asia a good place to do business?
A. Developing countries
B. Friendly staffs
C. Great lifestyles
D. Reasonable incomes
Question 14 Which continent is the country Dan mentioned in?
A. America
B. Africa
C. South America
D. Europe
Question 15 According to Dan, which is NOT an advantage of living to work in Bali?
A. Low cost rent
B. Inexpensive food
C. Beautiful place
D. Work done by other people
Question 16 What can be inferred about Dan?
A. He has lived in Bali for a long time.
B. He is an Indonesia resident.
C. He does not know how to do business.
D. He knows a lot about Bali.
Listen to a conservation and choose the best answer A-D to answer questions 17 to
20. You will hear the recording ONCE only.
Question 17 What is an NGO?
A. A court
B. International company
C. A non-government organization
D. A law company
Question 18 What countries are NOT included in the Inter- American Court?
A. All the countries in the world
B. All the countries in Central America
C. All the countries in North America
D. All the countries in South America
Question 19 What can be inferred about where the judges come from?
A. Anywhere in the world
B. English
C. Columbia
D. The United States
Question 20 What kind of power does the court have?
A. It can send government leaders to jail.
B. It can make the country pay the victim.
C. Countries can ignore it.
D. It can’t force countries to do anything.
PART 3
Instructions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or
lectures will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For
each question, choose the right answer A, B, C, D.
Questions 21 to 25
Listen to part of a lecture about deserts and choose the best answer A-D to answer
questions 21 to 25. You will hear the recording ONCE only.
Question 21 What is the definition of a desert?
A. It’s a very cold place.
B. It’s a place which receives very little rainfall.
C. It’s a place that gets a small amount of water.
D. It’s a really hot place.
Question 22 How high is the temperature of a desert?
A. 50 degrees Celsius
B. Over 40 degrees Celsius
C. 25 degrees Celsius
D. 40 degrees Celsius
Question 23 According to the teacher, what kind of desert is the Gobi desert?
A. An arid desert
B. An extremely arid desert
C. A cold desert
D. A hot desert
Question 24 What does the teacher imply about Atacama desert?
A. It is the only desert located in South America.
B. The desert is one of the driest places on the Earth.
C. Most people consider it to be a semi- arid desert.
D. The weather there is hotter than in Sahara Desert.
Question 25 What is the main of the topic?
A. The classification of deserts
B. The world’s largest deserts
C. Hot and cold deserts
D. The most well- known deserts
Questions 26 to 30
Listen to part of a talk and choose the best answer A-D to answer questions 26 to 30.
You will hear the recording ONCE only.
Question 26 What is the teacher mainly discussing?
A. The galaxy
B. The planets
C. The sun
D. The solar system
Question 27 Why does the teacher talk about the outer planets?
A. To stress how far from the sun they are
B. To note their quick rotations
C. To focus on their composition
D. To compare them with the inner planets
Question 28 What is the other names for the inner planets?
A. The gas giants
B. The terrestrial planets
C. The Jovians
D. The Venusians
Question 29 According to the teacher, which planet has the most moons?
A. Neptune
B. Uranus
C. Saturn
D. Jupiter
Question 30 What can be inferred about Saturn?
A. It orbits the sun in fewer than ten years
B. It has a core that is rocky
C. It is considered a gas giant
D. It is nearly as large as Jupiter
Questions 31 to 35
Listen to part of a talk and choose the best answer A-D to answer questions 31 to 35.
You will hear the recording ONCE only.
Question 31 The first part of the talk ______
A. says that American cities contain the very best aspects of a society
B. shows that American cities have many problems
C. is a description of city
D. explains why American cities are changing
Question 32 In the 1950s the American dream was ______
A. to have a big car
B. to have a color TV set
C. to buy a new house in the suburbs
D. to buy an apartment in the city
Question 33 The author gives ______ reasons why people move back to live in cities
A. five
B. four
C. three
D. two
Question 34 According to the articles, cities are becoming ______
A. dying
B. living
C. alive again
D. sick
Question 35 The movement of the people to and from the city can explain _______
A. the best aspects of a society
B. radial conflict
C. violent crimes
D. social changes
READING
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer
A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that
passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your
answers to the answer sheet.
PASSGAGE 1
Question 1: Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?
A. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis do.
B. A tsunami happens together with an earthquake.
C. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis.
D. The most severe type of natural disaster is an earthquake.
Question 2: Which of the following is true about the crush?
A. There are many separate pieces that make it up.
B. It is thicker on land than it is under the water.
C. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.
D. It is the smallest of the Earth’s three layers.
Question 3: The word it in line 5 refers to ___
A. the earth
B. the crust
C. the core
D. the mantle
Question 4: When does an earthquake happen?
A. The plates rest upon the mantle.
B. The plates cause the tension that will be released over time.
C. The plates move other plates.
D. Plates collide with one another.
Question 5: In which paragraph, the damages caused by earthquakes are being discussed?
A. Paragraph 4
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 2
D. Paragraph 1
Question 6: In line 16, the word This refers to ____
A. the movement of seafloor
B. tsunami
C. the planet
D. The earth’s surface
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about the earthquakes in
Paragraph 3?
A. How many people they typically kill
B. What kind of damages they can cause
C. How dangerous many of them are
D. How often powerful ones take place
Question 8: In line 11, the word perceive is closest in meaning with ___
A. prevent
B. locate
C. identify
D. comprehend
Question 9: Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?
A. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean
B. They can move as fast as the speed of sound
C. They can kill people who stand near shore
D. They kill more people than earthquakes
Question 10: What is the passage mainly about?
A. When earthquakes are most likely to happen
B. Why tsunamis kill more people than earthquakes
C. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause
D. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur
PASSAGE 2
Question 11: According to the passage, the pronoun ‘we’ in English include
A. people and me
B. you and me
C. all of the above
D. you, someone and me
Question 12: In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee
language?
A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures
B. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees
D. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
Question 13: Which statement mentions how to find out how grammar is created?
A. Amazingly, however, this is possible
B. So the question which has confused many linguists is - who created grammar?
C. To find out how grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a
language’s creation
D. At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer
Question 14: In line 16, the word they refers to ___
A. Pidgins
B. Slaves
C. Ethnicities
D. Languages
Question 15: Make-shift in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. private and personal
B. extensive and diverse
C. simple and temporary
D. complicated and expressive
Question 16: In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
It included standardized word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the
pidgin language, nor
the language of the colonizers.
A. [D]
B. [C]
C. [B]
D. [A]
Question 17: Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?
Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.
A. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
B. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common than languages that
contain a little.
C. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
D. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain
grammar.
Question 18: All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language
EXCEPT
A. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities
B. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
C. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
D. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
Question 19: The word consistent in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. fixed
B. imaginable
C. predictable
D. natural
Question 20: What can be inferred about the slaves’ pidgin language?
A. It was created by the landowners
B. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves
C. It was based on many different languages
D. It contained complex grammar
PASSAGE 3

Question 21: On average, how much do tenants have to pay for a studio in New York
City?
A. Less than $3,500
B. More than $3,100
C. More than $2,000
D. About $2,000
Question 22. Which of the following is a reaction of prospective renters when Mr. Hunt
informs them of the prices?
A. They find someone to share the accommodation with.
B. They decide to look for a place in a different neighborhood.
C. They decide to move to another city.
D. They think the broker is meaning to deceive them.
Question 23: According to the passage, what should renters do to reduce the
disappointment of finding an apartment?
A. They should bargain with the landlords
B. They should have secure money
C. They shouldn’t expect too much
D. They should trust their agents
Question 24: Which of the following words can best replace the word prospective in
paragraph 4?
A. Upcoming
B. Potential
C. Prosperous
D. Apparent
Question 25. Which of the following would best describe the feelings of renters when
they decide to raise their price limit?
A. Frustratedly
B. Hesitantly
C. Hopefully
D. Willingly
Question 26: In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the
following sentence fit?
Aside from price and space, the requirements of New York landlords are also certain to
cause the
disappointment for a first-time renter.
A. (D)
B. (C)
C. (B)
D. (A)
Question 27: Which of the following would be the best title for this article?
A. You Can Afford it in New York City
B. Surprises for First-time Renters in New York City
C. New York City - Heaven for First-time Renters
D. Best Guide to Finding an Apartment in New York City
Question 28: Why did the writer mention the income of college graduates in 2006?
A. To prove that to guarantee a place in New York City is financially out of reach for an
average graduate
B. To suggest that New York City is not a place for graduates
C. To indicate that less than 50% of the surveyed graduates could afford apartments in
New York
D. To demonstrate that graduates can earn a decent salary if they work in New York City
Question 29: In last paragraph, the phrase out of pocket means ___
A. The expense the company paid
B. The expense you paid
C. The money paid by yourself
D. The money lost
Question 30: According to paragraph 7, what can be inferred about the income or
parents?
A. The income must be three times as much as the monthly rent
B. The income is twice as much as 40 times of the monthly rent
C. The income is 40 time of the monthly rent.
D. The income must be very high.
PASSAGE 4

Question 31: The phrase gender gap in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. The social relationship between the two sexes
B. The visible space between men and women
C. The difference in status between men and women
D. The social distance between the two sexes
Question 32: In the late 20th century, some information about feminism in Britain was
issued by _______.
A. The Equal Rights Amendment
B. The Equal Opportunities Commission
C. The Sex Discrimination Act
D. The Equal Pay Act of 1970
Question 33: Susan B. Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are
mentioned as _______.
A. American women with exceptional abilities
B. Pioneers in the fight for American women’s rights
C. American women who were more successful than men
D. American women who had greater opportunities
Question 34: The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) _______.
A. Changed the US Constitution
B. Was not officially approved
C. Was brought into force in the 1960s
D. Supported employers, schools and clubs
Question 35 : The phrase glass ceiling in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. A transparent frame
B. An imaginary barrier
C. A ceiling made of glass
D. An overlooked problem
Question 36: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that in the 19th century that _______.
A. British women did not complete their traditional supporting role
B. Most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights
C. British women did not have the right to vote in political elections
D. Feminism fought for the equal employment and equal pay
Question 37: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. The US movement of feminism became the most popular in the late 20th century.
B. The movement of feminism began in the US earlier than in Britain.
C. The British government passed laws to support women in the early 20th century.
D. The women’s liberation movement in the world first began in Britain.
Question 38: Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage?
A. There is now no gender gap in Britain and in the US.
B. British women now have much better employment opportunities.
C. An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor.
D. Many American women still face the problem of household chores.
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. Women do not have better employment opportunities despite their great efforts
B. The British government did not approve of the women’s liberation movement
C. Woman in Britain and the US still fight for their equal status and equal rights
D. The belief that gender gap should not exist is not popular in the US
Question 40: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Feminism in Britain and the US
B. The feminism in British Society
C. Opportunities for Women Nowadays
D. Women and the Right to Vote
WRITING
TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
An English friend of yours called Anne sent you a birthday present, which you liked.
Read part of the letter below.
… I am so sorry about forgetting your birthday. Actually, I have bought you a very nice
gift. I have been looking for your gift in many shops in my town. I also sent it to you last
weekend. In fact, I am so excited to hear from you telling me about the gift I just sent
you. When did you get it? What are you planning to use it? Also, what other presents did
you get for your birthday? Write an email responding to Anne.
You should write at least 120 words. Don’t include your name or addresses. Your
response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfilment, Organization, Vocabulary and
Grammar.
Dear Anny,
How are you and your family these days? I am really happy when I receive this your
email. Double happiness when I receive this a very nice gift. Today, I write this email
to tell you about the gift you just sent me. The first thing is the gift you sent me it’s
amazing. I really love it and thank you so much. Next thing is I received it after my
birthday a week. I really surprise. I will write everything in this notebook every day.
Like telling you everything. Finally, I received many the gift in my birthday. For
example, candy, teddy bear, cake, chocolates and clothes and so on. I love everything.
What do you think about it?
I look forward to hearing from you soon
Best wishes,
Hera

TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Read the following text about doing physical activities. Some people believe that it is
better to work out in a gym. They think that working out in a gym could be a great time
for them to do exercises with the careful guidance and modern equipment. Others prefer
to exercise outdoors because they want to enjoy nature as much as they can. Write a well-
organized essay to an educated reader to discuss both points of views and give your own
opinions. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your opinions.
You should write at least 250 words.Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task
fulfilment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
In morden life, some people prefer to work out in a gym. Other people like exercise
outdoor. From my point of view, I would rather work out in a gym than exercise
outdoor due to some following.
 There are several main reasons for my choice of work out in a gym. First and foremost
working out in the gym can be a great time for them to do exercises with the careful
guidance. Because when they come to the gym, there will be PT to guide you. The next
reasons is that the gym has morden equipment, which can make it easy for them to
follow. This morden equioment make them feel more interesting. Last nut not least,
when they pay to work out in the gym, they will be more motivated. Because they will
feel like losing money by not going to the gym. However, it cannot be denied that there
are some advantages of exercise outdoor. Firstly, when they exercise outdoors, they
save money. They don’t pay for the gym. Second, they can do exercise wherever and
whenever them want. Finally, when they exercise outdoors, they can breath fresh air. It
is wonderful and relax. Beside, they can do anything without feeling shy.
In short, working out in the gym while exercise outdoors. From my point of view the
most important thing is whether they feel comfortable or not as well as it depends on
the kind of lifestyle people have.

SPEAKING
Part 1: Social Interaction (3’)
A. Let’s talk about photos.
1. What types of photos do you like taking?
2. Where do you like to take photos?
3. How often do you take photos?
B. Let’s talk about music.
1. What kind of music do you like?
2. When was the last time you listened to music?
3. What do you think about a live music show?
Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’)
Situation: A foreign friend of yours wants to study Vietnamese language. Three options
are suggested: studying by herself, registering an online course or studying with a private
tutor. Which do you think is the best choice?
Part 3: Topic Development (5’)
Topic: It is necessary for young people to travel.
Follow-up questions:
1. What is the most popular city for tourists in Viet Nam?
2. What are the advantages of traveling abroad?
3. How important is traveling to people’s mental life?