Molecular Basis of Inheritance

MOLECLAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
01. The histone protein that attaches to DNA strands between nucleosomes is
(1) H1 (2) H4 (3) H2A (4) H2B
02. If a small chromosome consists of 500,000,000 nucleotides, how many nucleosomes will attach to that
chromosome?
(1) 1000 (2) 50,00,00,000 (3) 12,50,000 (4) 25,00,00,000
03. If the length of DNA in E. coli is 1.36 mm, calculate the number of base pairs in E. coli
(1) 0.4 1013 (2) 4.6 10−7 (3) 4 106 (4) 0.4 106
04. Observe the following figure and select the part which acts as a linker DNA molecule.
(1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4)
05. The length of DNA is usually defined as number of ___________ present in it

(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Nucleotides (3) Nucleosides (4) Helices
06. Which of the following is not the salient feature of the double-helix structure of DNA?
(1) The two chains have anti - parallel polarity
(2) The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H-bonds) forming base pairs (bp)
(3) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix
(4) The distance between a base pair in a helix is approximately equal to 3.4 nm
07. Calculate the base ratio for a DNA sample if 22% cytosine was found in it
(1) 0.78 (2) 1.27 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.93
08. A diploid cell of an organism has 8.4 x 10 10 base pairs. The length of the total DNA could be
(1) 28.56 m (2) 28.56 A (3) 2.86 m (4) 2.86 mm
09. A single strand of the DNA double helix had 600 nitrogenous bases. The total number of phosphodiester
bonds in this DNA double helix could be
(1) 1200 (2) 600 (3) 598 (4) 1198
10. During the Hershey and Chase experiment, the viral coats were removed from the bacteria by the process
called
(1) Radiolabelling (2) Infection (3) Blending (4) Centrifugation
11. Which of the following is correct?
 A+G
(1)
 T + C  = 1.55 for humans (2) Sugar + Phosphate = Nucleoside
 A T 
(3)
 G  = 1 and  C  = 1 (4) S-strain → Injected intoto mice → Mice died
12. Calculate the number of hydrogen bonds in DNA if out of 200 nitrogen bases, 246 molecules were of
cytosine
(1) 246 (2) 254 (3) 98 (4) 200
13. Select the incorrect statement regarding R-strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae which was used to prove
the transforming principle
(1) R-strain bacteria have a mucous coat around it
(2) It produced rough colonies
(3) R-strain is a non-virulent strain
(4) Griffith used R-II strain in his transforming experiment
14. What is the value of base ratio for humans?
(1) 0.93 (2) 1.55 (3) 1.21 (4) 1.65
15. Fill in the blanks and select the option with all the correct answers
(a) In eukaryotes there is a set of _____(i)______ charged ___(ii)____ proteins called histones
(b) Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues ______(iii)_______ and ____(iv)____.
(c) Histones are organized to form a unit of molecules called ______(v)_______
(d) A typical nucleosome contains ______(vi)_____ of DNAC helix
(1) (i) - negatively; (iii) - glycine; (vi) - 800 bp (2) (ii) - basic; (iv) - arginine; (v) – octamer
(3) (i) - positively; (ii) - acidic; (v) – solenoid (4) (iii) - Lysine; (iv) - Valine; (vi) - 200 bp
16. Consider the following statements:
(I) Backbone of helix is made up of sugar-phosphate
(II) Parallel polarity of two chains
(III) Adenine binds to guanine by double hydrogen bonds
(IV) The two chains are coiled in right-handed fashion
(V) Pitch of the helix is 3.4 A.
(VI) Presence of roughly 10 bp in each turn
The true statements with respect to B-DNA are
(1) (I), (III) and (IV) (2) (I), (IV) and (VI) (3) (II), (III) and (VI) (4) (II), IV) and (V)
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17. Chemically thymine is
(1) Dihydrouridine (2) 5-propyl uracil (3) Ribothymidine (4) 5-methyl uracil
18. A phosphate group is linked to _______(a)_______ a nucleoside through (b) linkage to
form a corresponding nucleotide
(1) (a) - 5'-OH; (b) - N-glycosidic (2) (a) - 3'-OH; (b) – phosphodiester
(3) (a) - 3'-OH; (b) - hydrogen bond (4) (a) - 5'-OH; (b) - phosphoester
19. Mark the mismatched pair.
(1) Bacteriophage T4 - 48502bp
(2) Beads-on-string - Nucleosomes in chromatin structure
(3) QB bacteriophage - RNA genetic material
(4)  x 174 bacteriophage - 5386 bp in DNA
20. Chargaff's rule is applicable to
(1) Single stranded DNA and RNA (2) Single stranded RNA
(3) Double stranded DNA (4) Single stranded DNA
21. The following ratio is generally constant for a given species:
T +C G+C A+C A+G
(1) (2) (3) (4)
G+A A+T T +G C +T
22. Which of the following enzymes if present in a medium would affect the transformation in bacteria?
(1) DNAase (2) RNAase (3) Protease (4) More than one option is correct
23. Find out the correct sequence of steps with respect to Hershey and Chase experiment?
(1) Blending → Infection → Centrifugation (2) Infection → Blending → Centrifugation
(3) Centrifugation → Blending → Infection (4) Infection → Centrifugation → Blending
24. Haploid content of human DNA contains
(1) 4.6 x 106 bp (2) 3.3 x 108 bp (3) 6.6 x 109 bp (4) 3.3 x 109 bp
25. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5’ ATGCATCG 3’, find the sequence of complementary strand in
5’ → 3’ direction.
(1) TACGTAGC (2) CGATGCAT (3) ATGCATCG (4) ATCGTACG
26. In a DNA, if the percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be percentage of guanine?
(1) 20 % (2) 40 % (3) 30 % (4) 60 %
27. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that
(1) One strand turns clockwise. (2) One strand turns anti-clockwise
(3) The phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
(4) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole).
28. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?
(1) HIV (2) Pea (3) Mucor (4) Chlamydomonas
29. Calculate the length of DNA sample, if it had 240 bp.
(1) 340 Å (2) 816 Å (3) 1024 Å (4) 120 Å
30. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) The length of DNA is usually defined as a number of nucleotides present in it
(2) Escherichia coli has 3.3 x 109 bp
(3) A nucleotide has three components - a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a phosphate group
(4) Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA
31. When Streptococus pneumoniae bacterid are grown on a culture plate, some produce smooth shiny
colonies (S) because
(1) These strains have a coat made up of lipid and oils.
(2) These strains have a mucous coat made up of polysaccharides
(3) These strains do not have any external coat
(4) These are non-virulent strains of bacteria
32. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil the following criteria except
(1) It should be able to generate its replica
(2) It should chemically and structurally be stable
(3) It should provide the scope for fast changes, that is, mutation that is required for evolution
(4) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian Characters
33. If there are 10,000 base pairs in DNA, then its length will be
(1) 340 nm (2) 3400 nm (3) 34000 nm (4) 340000 nm
34. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is allowed to duplicate in an environment
containing non-radioactive thymidine. What will be the exact number of DNA molecules that contains the
radioactive thymidine after three duplications?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Eight
35. DNA polymerase enzyme is required for the synthesis of
(1) DNA from DNA (2) DNA from RNA (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) DNA from nucleosides
36. If the base sequence of one strand of DNA is GATTAG CAT GAC, what shall be the sequence of its
complementary strand?
(1) CAT CTG ATC GTA (2) GTAATCCTGGTA (3) ATC GTA CTG GTA (4) CTA ATC GTA CTG
37. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except
(1) Another DNA (2) tRNA and mRNA (3) rRNA (4) Protein
38. In the DNA molecule
(1) The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
(2) There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5' → 3' direction and other in 3'→ 5'
(3) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(4) There are two strands which run parallel in the 5' → 3' direction
39. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 35S was used to culture bacteriophages which resulted in
radioactive
(1) viral DNA (2) Bacterial capsule (3) viral proteins (4) DNA of bacteria
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40. Histones are rich in
(1) Alanine and glycine (2) Lysine and arginine
(3) Histidine (4) Cysteine and tyrosine
41. In DNA of certain organisms, guanine constitutes 30 % of the bases, what percentage of the bases would
be adenine?
(1) 0 % (2) 10 % (3) 20 % (4) 30 %
42. The process of transformation was discovered by
(1) Maurice H.F. Wilkins and Rosalind E. Franklin (2) M. Meselson and F.W. Stahl
(3) James Watson and Francis Crick (4) Fredrick Griffith
43. The double helical model of the DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick based on what data produced by
Wilkins and Franklin?
(1) Hybridisation (2) DNA sequencing (3) Southern blotting (4) X-ray diffraction
44. Hershey and Chase experiment was precisely aimed to
(1) Use radioactive compound for DNA as genetic material
(2) Prove that proteins and not DNA enters the bacterium as genetic material
(3) Know as to which component of virus is injected into bacterial cell and which is not
(4) Study the incorporation of 32P and 35S isotopes
45. Which of the following holds true for Escherichia coli?
(1) It has roughly 40 minutes of doubling time (2) It is a parasite in human digestive tract
(3) It is used for genetic engineering in plants (4) It has 4.6 x 106 bp long genetic material
46. What confers additional stability to double helix model of DNA apart from the H-bond?
(1) One base pair provides inductive effect to the other
(2) One base pair is stacked over the other
(3) One base pair is perpendicular to another
(4) One base pair interacts with another base pair via steric hindrance
47. The length of human DNA is approximately
(1) 2.2 meters considering all cells of body (2) 3.1 meters considering only one cell
(3) 2.2 meters considering only one cell (4) None of these
48. Which statement is true in the context of histones?
(1) They are positively charged acidic proteins (2) They are positively charged amphoteric proteins
(3) They are positively charged basic proteins (4) None of these
49. Beads-on-string structure in chromatin is packaged to form _____________.
(1) Nucleosomes (2) Solenoids (3) Chromatin fibres (4) Chromatids
50. Which is true about the structure of heterochromatin?
(1) Loosely packed; Stain light (2) Loosely packed; Stain dark
(3) Densely packed; Stain light (4) Densely packed; Stain dark
51. The transforming principle in Griffith's experiment was detected
(1) When live S-strain of S. pneumoniae were injected in R-strain
(2) when live R-strain of S. pneumoniae were injected in S-strain
(3) When heat killed R-strain of S. pneumoniae were injected in S-strain
(4) When heat killed S-strain of S. pneumoniae were injected in R-strain
52. The experiment which provides unequivocal proof that DNA is a genetic material came from the experiment
of
(1) Watson and Crick (2) Wilkins and Franklin
(3) Hershey and Chase (4) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
53. In Hershey and Chase experiment the 35S was used to label proteins. Which amino acids were actually
labelled by it?
(1) Tryptophan and Tyrosine (2) Proline and Histidine
(3) Threonine and Serine (4) Methionine and Cysteine
54. DNA is a preferred genetic material over RNA due to one of the following reasons:
(1) Bases are arranged linearly in a single strand (2) Bases show less propensity of mutation
(3) 2’ - OH group in RNA is more labile (4) None of these
55. Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate serves the dual purpose of_______ and __________ in the process of
replication of DNA
(1) Enzyme; substrate (2) Catalyst; substrate
(3) Substrate; energy provider (4) Energy; mutagen provider
56. What was the finding of Hershey and Chase?
(1) The viral infecting agent is RNA (2) The viral infecting agent is DNA
(3) The viral infecting agent is protein (4) The T2 virus has RNA as its genetic material
57. DNA duplex shows
(1) Left handed and parallel coding (2) Left handed and antiparallel coding
(3) Right handed and parallel coding (4) Right handed and antiparallel coding
58. Bacterial nucleoid has
(1) One single stranded DNA (2) One double stranded DN
(3) Two single stranded DNA (4) Many double stranded DNAs
59. What is a spilt gene?
(1) A gene with a crack in it (2) A gene which has no promoter
(3) A jumping gene (4) A gene whose entire sequences are not retained in the mature RNA
60. Heterochromatin
(a) Is more densely packed (b) Stains dark (c) Is transcriptionally active
(d) Is transcriptionally inactive
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
61. DNA
(a) Acts as genetic material in all cellular organisms
(b) Was discovered by F. Miescher who named it as nuclein
(c) Is acidic in nature
(d) Cannot be digested by DNAase
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
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62. In 1953, James Watson and F. Crick proposed double helix model of DNA and got Nobel Prize. Their model
of DNA was based on
(a) X-ray diffraction of DNA produced by M. Wilkins and R. Franklin
(b) Griffith's experiment
(c) Hershey and Chase experiment
(d) Chargaff's rule of base equivalence, (A + G) / (T + C) = 1
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
63. Antiparallel relationship of the two strands of DNA refers to the alignment of the strands, such that
(1) Strands are not located at an angle of 180°
(2) Strands provide alternate branching to each other
(3) One strand runs in 5' → 3' and other in 3' → 5' direction
(4) Both stands run in 5' → 3' direction
64. Frederick Griffith conducted experiments testing the virulence of two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae
(R-strain and S-strain). His experiments had four specific treatments to it.
Treatment (a), he injected mice with the R-strain and the mice lived.
Treatment (b), he injected mice with the S-strain and the mice died.
Treatment (c), he injected mice with head killed S-strain and the mice lived.
Treatment (d), he injected mice with head killed S-strain mixed with R-strain and the mice died.
Which treatment in his experiment is considered a control treatment?
(1) Treatment (c) (2) Treatment (a) (3) None of these (4) Treatments (a) and (b)
65. Why are mice killed by smooth (S) strains of Streptococcus, but not by the rough (R) strains?
(1) Rough strains are virulent, and smooth strains are not
(2) Rough strains have a polysaccharide capsule that makes the mouse immune system recognie and destroy them
(3) Smooth strains have a polysaccharide capsule, which hides them from the mouse immune system
(4) Smooth strains grow faster than rough strains
66. What are the three major properties of genes that are explained by the structure of DNA?
(1) They contain information, direct the synthesis of proteins and are contained in the cell nucleus
(2) They contain nitrogenous bases, direct the synthesis of RNA and are contained in the cell nucleus
(3) They encode the organism's phenotype, are passed on from one generation to the next and contain nitrogenous
Bases
(4) They contain information, replicate exactly and change to produce a mutation
67. You have analysed the DNA isolated from a newly discovered virus and found that its base composition is
32% A, 17% C, 32% G, and 19% T. What would be a reasonable explanation for this observation?
(1) The virus must be extra-terrestrial
(2) In some viruses, double stranded DNA is made up of base pairs containing two pQrines or two pyrimidines
(3) Some of the T was converted to C during the isolation procedure
(4) The genome of the phage is single stranded and not double stranded
68. The difference between DNA and RNA is that
(1) DNA has thymine; RNA has uracil
(2) DNA has no oxygen bonded to the 2' carbon; RNA does
(3) DNA is the genetic material; RNA is not
(4) DNA is double stranded; RNA is single stranded as it cannot have hydrogen bond
69. X-ray crystallography provides information about the __________ of DNA but is limited because of the
_____ of DNA. The technique is based on the pattern of _______ of the atoms in the molecule.
(1) Structure; difficulty of purification; light absorption
(2) Dimensions; molecular weight; diffraction
(3) Molecular weight; shape; diffraction
(4) Dimensions; linearity; light absorption
70. nu body of nucleosome consists of
(1) H1 and H 2 A (2) H 2 A and H 2 B (3) H 3 and H 4 (4) Both (2) and (3)
71. Which of the following is the best sequential order for increasing condensation (packing) of DNA?
(1) Nucleosomes → Solenoid → 30 nm fibre → Loops on scaffold → Heterochromatin
(2) Euchromatin → Solenoid → 30 nm fibre → Nucleosomes
(3) Nucleosomes → 30 nm fibre → Euchromatin → Heterochromatin
(4) Nucleosomes → 30 nm fibre → Solenoid → Loops on scaffold
72. The number of phosphodiester bonds in a double stranded DNA molecule
(1) Is two more than the phosphoester bonds (2) Is one less than the phosphoester bonds
(3) Is one more than the phosphoester bonds (4) Is two less than the phosphoester bonds
73. Cytidine is a
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nitrogen base
(3) Nucleotide (4) Common dinucleotide in DNA and RNA
74. Which of the following structures are present in core particle of nucleosome?
(1) Octamer of histone proteins (2) 200 bp of DNA
(3) Non-histone proteins (4) Linker DNA
75. NHC structural proteins are
(1) Basic proteins rich in lysine and arginine
(2) Regulatory proteins
(3) Catalytic proteins rich in tryptophan and arginine
(4) Required for packaging of chromatin at higher levels
76. Packaging of DNA helix
(1) Involves polyamines in eukaryotes
(2) Occurs with the help of NHC proteins only
(3) Requires acidic proteins that help in coiling of DNA in prokaryotes
(4) Is more complex in eukaryotes than prokaryotes
77. Which of the following feature is correct for bacteria?
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(1) Presence of intervening sequences in DNA
(2) DNA does not show coiling
(3) Linear ssDNA representing single chromosome
(4) DNA can be chromosomal as well as extrachromosomal
78. Find the incorrect statement
(1) N-glycosidic linkage between nitrogenous base and sugar forms a nucleotide
(2) 5-methyl uracil is present in DNA
(3) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has additional - OH group
(4) The ratio of A+T/G + C is variable
79. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this
DNA accommodated?
(1) Super coiling in nucleosomes (2) DNAase digestion
(3) Through elimination of repetitive DNA (4) Deletion of non-essential genes
80. Nucleotide is
(1) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar and phosphoric acid (2) Nitrogen, hexose sugar and phosphoric acid
(3) Nitrogen base and pentose sugar (4) Nitrogen base, trioses and phosphoric acid
81. Consider the following chemical bonds
(a) Hydrogen bonds (b) N-glycosidic linkage (c) 3'→ 5' phosphodiester bond
Which of the above bond(s) is/are involved in the formation of nucleoside?
(1) Only (b) (2) Only (a) and (b) (3) Only (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
82. The following diagram is the polynucleotide chain. Identify (1), (2), (3), (4) and (e).
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) Hydrogen bonds Pyrimidine base Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar 5’ end Purine base
(2) Hydrogen bonds Purine base Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar 5’ end Pyrimidine base
(3) Hydrogen bonds Pyrimidine base Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar 5’ end Purine base
(4) Hydrogen bonds Purine base Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar 5’ end Purine base
RNA
83. Which of the following function is not performed by RNA?
(1) It helps in the synthesis of DNA (2) It can function as an adapter
(3) It acts as a catalytic molecule (4) It mostly functions as a messenger
84. Fill in the blanks and select the option with all the right answers.
RNA being a ____(a)_______ was reactive and hence ____(b)_______. Therefore, DNA has evolved from
RNA with ____(c)______ modifications that make it more ____(d)_________.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Ribozyme stable physical preferred
(2) Enzyme unstable natural better
(3) Adapter stable chemical unstable
(4) Catalyst unstable chemical stable
85. Which reactive group if present at every nucleotide in RNA makes it more labile and easily degradable?
(1) 5' - OH (2) 2' – OH (3) 3' - OH (4) 2' – COOH
86. Consider the following statements:
(a) For the transmission of genetic information, DNA is better
(b) RNA can directly code for synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the characters
(c) RNA mutates at a faster rate
(d) The presence of uracil at the place of thymine confers extra stability to RNA
(e) The genetic material should provide scope for fast mutations
How many of the above statements are true?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) All of these
87. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A) Eukaryotic mRNA (i) endsinACC
B) Prokaryotic mRNA (ii) ends in G
C) 5'-site of tRNA (iii) polycistronic
D) 3'-site of tRNA (iv) monocistronic
A B C D A B C D
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
88. Which of the following RNA is found in maximum amount in a cell?
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(1) rRNA (2) mRNA (3) t RNA (4) snRNA
89. Identify the correct match.
(1) Amount of mRNA - Number ofribosomes in a cell (2) RNA polymerase III - Helps in synthesis of rRNA
(3) Most stable RNA -mRNA (4) Catalytic RNA - Ribozyme
90. In tRNA,
(1) CCA-OH is present at 5’ end (2) T-C loop for attaching the amino acid
(3) DHU loop for binding with AA-activating enzyme (4) There are three recognition sites
91. DHU loop is a site for binding at/with
(1) Enzyme (2) mRNA (3) A site (4) Ribosome
92. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate
(b) RNA being unstable, mutates at a faster rate
(c) RNA is also known to be catalytic, hence reactive
(d) The presence of thymine at the place of uracil confers additional stability to DNA
(1) All of these (2) None of these (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) Only (d)
93. The differences between mRNA and tRNA are
(a) mRNA has more elaborated three-dimensional structure due to extensive base pairing
(b) tRNA has more elaborated three-dimensional structure due to extensive pairing
(c) tRNA is usually smaller than mRNA
(d) mRNA bears anticodon but tRNA has codons
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
94. Majority of unusual bases are found in rRNA, in T C loop and
(1) First loop from 5’-end of rRNA (2) AA- tRNA synthetase binding loop.
(3) Ribosomal binding loop (4) Nodocsite
95. How many amino acids will be coded by the mRNA sequence 5'-CCCUCAUAGUCAUAC-3', if one adenosine
residue is inserted after every 12th nucleotide?
(1) Five amino acids (2) Six amino acids (3) Two amino acids (4) Three amino acids
DNA Replication
15
96. Escherichia coli cells were grown for many generations in NH 4Cl as sole nitrogen source. Subsequently,
15
these cells were grown exactly for four generations in medium containing NH 4Cl . The DNA from these
15
cells were isolated and separated. If N /15 N represents the two strands of DNA where both strands have
15
heavy nitrogen; N /14 N as intermediate DNA; and 14 N /14 N as DNA containing light nitrogen, the ratios
for heavy: intermediate: light DNA, respectively would be
(1) 1 : 0 : 7 (2) 1 : 1 : 6 (3) 0 : 1 : 7 (4) 0 : 8 : 0
97. Which of the fallowing statements is not correct with respect to the experiment conducted by Mathew
Meselson and Franklin Stahl?
(1) They proved that DNA replication is semiconservative.
(2) They used CsCl density gradient centrifugation for measuring the densities of DNA.
(3) 15N is a radioactive isotope, while 14N is the normal isotope of nitrogen.
(4) They selected E. coli as their experimental model.
14 15
98. If E. coli containing N bases was allowed to grow for 60 minutes in a medium N containing
nitrogenous bases, then what would be the proportions of light and hybrid densities DNA molecule?
(1) 2 light : 6 hybrid (2) 2 light : 2 hybrid (3) 6 light : 2 hybrid (4) All light: No hybrid
99. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) The DNA polymerase on its own can initiate the process of replication.
(2) Replication does not initiate randomly at any place in DNA.
(3) In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes place at S phase of the cell cycle.
(4) A failure in cell division after DNA replication results . into polyploidy.
15
100. If a normal DNA molecule is continuously replicated in N medium, then what is the percentage of lighter
DNA in fourth generation?
(1) 12.5% (2) 25% (3) 0% (4) 6.25%
101. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesise DNA?
(1) DNA-dependant RNA polymerase (2) DNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase (4) RNA polymerase
102. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
(1) Result in transcription (2) Polymerise in the 3’ → 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(3) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication.
(4) Polymerise in the 5’ → 3’ direction and explain 3’ → 5’ DNA replication
103. During Meselson and Stahl's experiments, heavy DNA was distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation
in
14 15
(1) CsOH gradient (2) NH 4Cl gradient (3) NH 4Cl (4) CsCl gradient
104. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) DNA replication is semi-discontinuous
(II) Growth of lagging strand occurs in direction
(III) DNA polymerase III can take part in proof reading.
(IV) Taylor fed dividing cells of leaves of Vicia faba with radioactive 3H containing thymine instead of
normal thymine.
(1) (I) and (IV) (2) (I), (III) and (IV) (3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
105. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer during DNA replication is
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(1) Primase (2) Ligase (3) DNA polymerase I (4) DNA polymerase III
106. Escherichia coli with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in non-radioactive medium for
two generations. Percentage of bacteria with radioactive DNA is
(1) 12.5% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 100%
Column – I Column – II
A) Helicase i) Joining of nucleotides
B) Gyrase ii) Opening of DNA
C) Primase iii) Unwinding of DNA
D) DNA polymerase III iv) RNA priming
(1) (1) - (ii); (2) - (i); (3) - (iii); (4) - (iv) (2) (1) - (ii); (2) - (i); (3) - (iv); (4) - (iii)
(3) (1) - (iv); (2) - (iii); (3) - (i); (4) - (ii) (4) (1) - (ii); (2) - (iii); (3) - (iv); (4) - (i)
108. Read the following statements and choose the right option.
(I) Taylor et al., used radioactive thymidine in the root tip of Vicia faba (Broad Bean) and proved that
chromosome replicates semi-conservatively.
(II) In eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in S phase of the cell cycle.
(III) A failure in cell division after DNA replication results into polyploidy.
(IV) Crick pointed out that DNA replicates semiconservatively, but first proof for it came from the
experiment of Meselson and Stahl who used NH 4Cl in E. coli.
(1) All are correct (2) All are incorrect (3) Only (IV) is correct (4) (I) and (IV) are correct
109. Which one/ones is/are false for DNA replication?
(1) Ori is a definite region in DNA where replication starts
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) serve as substrates as well as source of energy for polymerisation
(3) Both leading and lagging strands are synthesised in 3’ → 5’ direction
(4) Replication of DNA is responsible for continuity of life on earth
110. During DNA replication which DNA strand functions as template strand?
(1) Strand which runs in 3'→ 5' direction (2) Strand which runs in 5' →3' direction
(3) Both strands (4) Strand on which Okazaki fragments are synthesised
111. Why RNA must be incorporated into the DNA molecule initially during DNA replication?
(1) RNA primase adds bases that act as primers
(2) RNA primase is able to use DNA as a template
(3) RNA primase is incorporated into the holoenzyme complex
(4) DNA polymerase I and III can only add on to an existing strand
112. DNA replication in eukaryotes differs from replication in bacteria because
(1) Synthesis of the new DNA strand is from 3' → 5' in eukaryotes and from 5' → 3' in bacteria
(2) Synthesis of the new DNA strand is from 5' → 3' in eukaryotes and from 3' → 5' in bacteria
(3) There are many replication forks in each eukaryotic chromosome and only one in bacterial DNA
(4) Synthesis of the new DNA strand is from 5' → 3' in eukaryotes and is random in prokaryotes
113. In the Meselson-Stahl experiments, the conservative model of DNA replication is ruled out by which of the
following observations?
(1) No completely heavy DNA is observed after the first round of replication
(2) No completely light DNA ever appears, even after several replications
(3) The product that accumulated after two rounds of replication is completely heavy
(4) Completely heavy DNA is observed throughout the experiment
114. The enzyme DNA ligase is required continuously during DNA replication because
(1) Fragments of the leading strand must be joined together
(2) Fragments of the lagging strand must be joined together
(3) The parental strands must be joined back together
(4) 3’-deoxynucleoside triphosphates must be converted to 5’-deoxynucleoside triphosphates
115. Chargaff's rule states that
(1) DNA must be replicated before a cell can divide
(2) Viruses enter cells without their protein coat
(3) Only protein from the infecting phage can also be detected in progeny phage
(4) The amount of cytosine equals the amount of guanine
116. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is false?
(1) Okazaki fragments are the initiators of continuous DNA synthesis along the leading strand
(2) Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes
(3) Error rates for DNA replication are often less than one in every billion base pairings
(4) Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks
117. For the strand separation and stabilisation during DNA replication which of the following set of enzymes
and proteins are required?
(1) SSBP, gyrase and primase (2) Topoisomerase, helicase and ligase
(3) Gyrase, ligase and primase (4) Topoisomerase, helicase and SSBP
118. Which of the following statements is not applicable on DNA replication?
(1) Tension is released by topoisomerase
(2) In eukaryotes, DNA polymerases are of 5 types
(3) DNA polymerase III is the true replicase
(4) The 3’ → 5’ exonuclease activity is not present in DNA polymerase III
119. Function of nucleases is to
(1) Break the polynucleotide chain by breaking each terminal nucleotide
(2) Break phosphodiester bond
(3) Break peptide bonds
(4) Break ester bonds
120. Which of the following represents correct method of DNA replication?
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(1) (2) (3) (4)
121. Name the types of synthesis occurring in the replication fork of DNA as shown below:
(1) (1) - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand);

(2) - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand).
(2) (1) - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand);
(2) - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand).
(3) (1) - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand);
(2) - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand).
(4) (1) - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging strand);
(2) - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand).
Transcription
122. The mRNA sequence is as follows:
3’ - CCA AGC AUG CUU UAC – 5’
The sequence of coding strand of DNA would be
(1) 5’ - CAT TTC GTA CGA ACC – 3’ (2) 5’ - CCA AGC ATG CTT TAC – 3’
(3) 5’ - CAU UUC GUA CGA ACC – 3’ (4) 5’ - GGT TCG TAC GAA ATG – 3’
123. The given diagram refers to transcription in prokaryotes. (1), (2), (3) and (4) respectively denotes
(1) DNA polymerase, Sigma factor, Rho factor and RNA

(2) RNA polymerase, Rho factor, Sigma factor and RNA
(3) DNA polymerase, Initiation factor, Rho factor and RNA
(4) RNA polymerase, Sigma factor, Rho factor and RNA
124. The following diagram refers to the: process of transcription in eukaryotes. Identify (1), (2), (3) and (4).
(1) (1) RNA polymerase II; (2) Exon; (3) Intron; (4) Poly A tail
(2) (1) DNA polymerase II; (2) Exon; (3) Intron; (4) Poly A tail
(3) (1) RNA polymerase II; (2) Intron; (3) Exon; (4) Poly A tail
(4) (1) RNA polymerase II; (2) Intron; (3) Exon; (4) Poly G tail
125. Which of the following statements is true regarding introns?
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(1) Introns are the parts of mRNA that are translated
(2) Introns are also called junk DNA
(3) In general, human genes have fewer introns than genes of other organisms
(4) Introns appear in mature or processed DNA
126. RNA synthesis is controlled by
(1) rho factor (2) sigma factor (3) endonuclease (4) RNA polymerase
127. The process of removing of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called
(1) Capping (2) Splicing (3) Tailing (4) Transformation
128. Both strands of DNA are not copied during transcription because
(1) DNA segment will form two types of proteins (2) Double-stranded RNA will be formed
(3) DNA will degenerate (4) Both (1) and (2)
129. Which step is correct for post-transcriptional processing?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
130. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III transcribes

(1) hnRNA (2) 18 S rRNA (3) 28 S rRNA (4) 5S rRNA
131. What would be the correct base sequence in mRNA for the given DNA strand?
5’ - AATGCCTTAAGC – 3’
(1) 5’ - GCUUAAGGCAUU – 3’ (2) 5' - UUACGGAATTCG – 3’
(4) 3’ - UUACGGAAUUCG – 5’ (4) 5’ - AAUGCCUUAAGC – 3’
132. Which is the initial step in mRNA maturation process?
(1) Polyadenylation (2) 5'capping (3) Splicing (4) Endonucleolytic cleavage
133. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is associated with
(1) Point mutation (2) Tautomerism (3) Capping (4) Okazaki fragments
134. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is
5’- ATGAATG – 3’ the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
(1) 5’ - AUGAAUG – 3’ (2) 5’- UACUUAC – 3’ (3) 5’ - CAUUCAU – 3’ (4) 5’- GUAAGUA – 3’
135. The presence and position of which one of the following defines the template and coding strands in a
transcription unit?
(1) Repressor (2) Operator (3) Structural gene (4) Promoter
136. The coding sequences of DNA are known as ________ and the intervening sequences are known as
_______ respectively
(1) Exon; intron (2) Intron; exon (3) Cistron;exon (4) Exon; cistron
137.  - factor in the process of transcription in bacteria is also known as
(1) Initiation factor (2) Elongation factor (3) Termination factor (4) Vital factor
138. In bacteria, in Context of mRNA, which of the following is not true?
(1) Transcription and translocation takes place in different components
(2) Post-transcriptional modifications are required
(3) Translation occurs only after transcription
(4) None of these
139. Transcription refers to the
(1) Transfer of genetic code or sequences of DNA into RNA (2) Formation of DNA from RNA
(3) Formation of protein (4) Polymerisation of RNA in cell free system
140. The promoter allows
(1) Binding of DNA polymerase (2) Binding of repressor
(3) Binding of RNA polymerase (4) Folding of structural genes
Column-I Column-II
(1) Operator site (i) Binding site for RNA polymerase
(2) Promoter site (ii) Binding site for repressor molecule
(3) Structural gene (iii) Codes for enzyme protein
(4) Regulator gene (iv) Code for repressor molecules
(3) (1) - (iv); (2) - (iii); (3) - (i); (4) - (ii) (4) (1) - (ii); (2) - (iii); (3) - (i); (4) - (iv)
142. Following paragraph refers to a transcription unit. Fill up the blanks.
The ______(a)_______is located towards 5' end _____(b)______ of the structural gene (the reference is
made with respect to the polarity of coding strand). Both the strands of DNA are involved in forming the
_____(c)______. The _____(d)______ is located towards 3' end ____(e)______ of the coding stream.
(1) (a) promoter; (b) upstream; (c) promoter; (d) terminator; (e) downstream
(2) (a) promoter; (b) upstream; (c) terminator; (d) promoter; (e) downstream
(3) (a) promoter; (b) downstream; (c) promoter; (d) terminator; (e) upstream
(4) (a) terminator; (b) upstream; (c) promoter; (d) terminator; (e) downstream
143. SNPs which is pronounced as 'snips' stands for
(1) Small nuclear protein (2) Single nucleotide particle
(3) Single nucleotide polymorphism (4) Small nicking points
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144. Which of the following statements is true regarding introns?
(1) Introns are the parts of mRNA that are translated
(2) Introns have no function
(3) In general, human genes have fewer introns than genes of other organisms
(4) Introns can be involved in exon shuffling
145. What is correct for bacterial transcription?
(1) mRNA requires processing to become active
(2) Translation can begin when mRNA is fully transcribed
(3) Tanscription and translation takes place in the same compartment
(4) Rho factor initiates the process
146. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3' end
(1) With the help of guanyl transferase (2) In a template independent manner
(3) With the help of methyl transferase (4) of /mRNA of E. coli
147. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of
(1) All rRNA and rRNA (2) mRNA, hnRNA and snRNA
(3) 5S rRNA, tRNA and snRNA (4) 28S, 18S and 5S rRNA
148. Splicesomes are composed of
(1) rRNA and proteins (2) tRNA and proteins
(3) snRNA and proteins (4) siRNA and proteins
149. Following is the schematic structure of transcription unit having some important components indicated by
(1), (2), (3), (4) and (e). In which of four options the components are identified correctly?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (e)

(1) Terminator Transcription start site Promoter Template strand Coding strand
(2) Promoter Transcription start site Terminator Coding strand Template strand
(3) Promoter Transcription start site Terminator Template strand Coding strand
(4) Promoter Transcription start site Promoter Coding strand Template strand
150. Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic cell. Choose the right option to fill up
the blanks (a) - (d) left in the sequence
(1) (a) - RNA polymerase; (b) - hn; (c) - pre RNA; (d) - Poly A tail
(2) (a) - DNA polymerase; (b) - hn; (c) - processed RNA; (d)-Poly A tail
(3) (a) - RNA polymerase; (b) - hn; (c) - processed RNA; (d) - Poly A cap
(4) (a) - RNA polymerase; (b) - hn; (c) - processed RNA; (d)-Poly A tail
Genetic Code
151. Go through the following facts:
(a) AAG always code for lysine. It cannot code for any other amino acid
(b) Serine amino acid can be coded by UCU, UCC, UCA or UCG
(c) UUU form phenylalanine in bacteria as well as human beings
(d) UUU GGG CCC AAA AAC codes for five amino acids
Now point out nature of genetic code after reading above
(1) (a) - Specificity/Non-ambiguity of code; (b) - Universality of code; (c) - Degeneracy of code; (d) - Triplet and
non-overlapping code
(2) (a) - Specificity/Non-ambiguity of code; (b) - Degeneracy of code; (c) - Universality of code; (d) - Triplet and
non-overlapping code
(3) (a) - Specificity/Non-ambiguity of code; (b) - Degeneracy of code; (c) - Triplet and overlapping code;
(d) - Universality of code
(4) (a) - Specificity/Non-ambiguity of code; (b) - Universality of code; (c) - Triplet and overlapping code;
(d) - Degeneracy of code
152. Of the ________ different possible codons, ______specify amino acids and __________ signal stop.
(1) 20; 17; 3 (2) 180; 20; 60 (3) 64; 61; 3 (4) 61; 60; 1
153. In mRNA, base sequence is 5' AAC CAA GAC CCC 3', what is the possible number in case of overlapping and
non-overlapping codons respectively?
(1) 4 and 10 (2) 10 and 4 (3) 12 and 10 (4) 10 and 8
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154. Consider the following mRNA sequence:
5'-UCU ACA GUG AUC GUC ACC - 3'
How many codons are present in this mRNA, if the genetic codon is considered non-overlapping and
overlapping respectively?
(1) 5 and 17 (2) 6 and 16 (3) 6 and 18 (4) 5 and 16
155. Assume an organism which has 6 types of nitrogenous bases on mRNA. It also has 348 types of amino
acids then how many nitrogenous bases could be present in a codon?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) One
156. The function of nonsense codon is to
(1) Release polypeptide chain from rRNA
(2) Form an unspecified amino acid
(3) Terminate the message for the gene controlled protein synthesis
(4) Convert a sense DNA into nonsense DNA
157. Genetic code determines
(1) Structural pattern of an organism (2) Sequence of amino acid in protein chain
(3) Variation in offspring (4) Constancy of morphological trait
158. Which one of the following triplet codes is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein
synthesis or as start or stop codon?
(1) UCG-Start (2) UUU-Stop (3) UGG-Methionine (4) UAC-Tyrosine
159. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the
(1) First member of a codon (2) Second member of a codon
(3) Entire codon (4) Third member of a codon
160. Khorana synthesised two RNAs (a) with repeat sequence of AB and (b) with repeat sequence of ABC, the
polypeptides coded by (a) and (b) are respectively
(1) Homopolypeptides in both (a) and (b)
(2) Heteropolypeptides in both (a) and (b)
(3) Homopolypeptide in (a) and heteropolypeptide in (b)
(4) heteropolypeptide in (a) and homopolypeptide in (b)
161. Biologically functional tyrosine tRNA of Escherichia coli synthesised by Khorana in 1979 had
(1) 333 nucleotides (2) 312 nucleotide pairs
(3) 207 nucleotide pairs (4) 77 nucleotide pairs
162. Select the incorrect statements(s).
(a) Six codons do not code for any amino acid
(b) Codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion
(c) Three codons function as stop codons
(d) The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) Only (b) (4) Only (a)
163. Match Column-I (codons) with Column-II (their respective amino acids) and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(1) UUU (i) Serine
(2) GGG (ii) Methionine
(3) UCU (iii) Phenylalanine
(4) CCC (iv) Glycine
(e) AUG (v) Proline
(1) (1) - (iii); (2) - (iv); (3) - (i); (4) - (v); (e) - (ii)
(2) (1) - (iii); (2) - (i); (3) - (iv); (4) - (v); (e) - (ii)
(3) (1) - (iii); (2) - (iv); (3) - (v); (4) - (i); (e) - (ii)
(4) (1) - (ii); (ti) - (iv); (3) - (i); (4) - (v); (e) - (iii)
164. Which of the following codons has no rRNA?
(1) UAA (2) UAU (3) UGU (4) UGC
165. Which one of the following group of codons is called as degenerate codons?
(1) UAA, UAG and UGA (2) GUA, GUG, GCA, GCG and GAA
(3) UUC, UUG, CCU, CAA and CUG (4) UUA, UUG, CUU, CUG, CUA and CUG
166. Dr. Khorana and his colleagues synthesised an RNA molecule with repeating sequence of UG nitrogen bases
(UGU GUG UGU GUG) . It produced a tetra-peptide with alternating sequence of cystine and valine. It
proves that codons for cystine and valine are
(1) UGU and GUU (2) UGU and GUG (3) UUG and GGU (4) GUG and UGU
167. Find the wrong match
(1) First recorded gene mutation - Ancon sheep
(2) Thymine dimers in DNA - UV
(3) Nitrous acid - Deaminate guanine to xanthine
(4) Histone gene in eukaryotes - Split gene
168. _____________ is the codon which has dual function.
(1) UGA (2) UUU (3) AUG (4) AAA
169. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Hence, the genetic code exhibits
(1) Specificity (2) Selectivity (3) Degeneracy (4) Regeneracy
170. In sickle cell anaemia, which amino acid modification occurs in the ar-chain of the amino acid?
(1) Valine → Glutamate (2) Threonine → Glutamate
(3) Tyrosine → Glutamate (4) Glutamate → Valine
171. Nonsense codon is responsible for
(1) Elongation of polypeptide chain (2) Termination of protein synthesis
(3) Putting a wrong amino acid (4) Hydrolysis of GTP
172. Genetic code translates the language of
(1) RNA into that of protein (2) RNA into that of DNA.
(3) Amino acids into that of RNA (4) Proteins into that of DNA
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173. Which one are nonsense codon?
(1) UUA (2) UAA (3)UAG (4) UGA
(1) (1) and (3) (2) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (3) (2), (3) and (4) (4) (1), (2) and (3)
174. A codon consists of three bases and there are four different kinds of bases in a nucleic acid altogether.
How many codons will be there?
(1) 60 (2) 43 (3) 34 (4) 46
175. Find out the incorrect match.
(1) UUU-Phenylalanine (2) UAG-Sense codon (3) GUG-Valine (4) UGG-Tryptophan
176. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the
particular amino acid?
(1) UUA, UCA-Leucine (2) GUU, GCU-Alanine (3) UAG, UGA-Stop (4) AUG, ACG - Start/Methionine
177. Wobbling helps to maintain economy in number of tRNA molecules because
(1) Genetic code is unambiguous and specific (2) fRNA contains anticodons
(3) First two bases in the codon are specific (4) Genetic message is read in open frame
178. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called
(1) Degeneracy of genetic code (2) Overlapping of genes
(3) Wobbing of codons (4) Universality of codons
179. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is unambiguous (2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal (4) It is degenerated
180. Select the correct statement with respect to Wobble hypothesis
(1) Third base of a codon lacks vibrating capacity
(2) Third base can establish H-bonds even with the non-complementary anticodon
(3) Specificity of an anticodon is particularly determined by first two codons
(4) Major cause of degeneracy is the first two nitrogen bases of codon
181. A single anticodon can recognise more than one codon of mRNA. This phenomenon is termed as
(1) Richmond and Lang effect (2) Gene flow hypothesis
(3) Wobble hypothesis (4) Transposability
182. The first discovered codon was
(1) UGG (2) UUG (3) UUU (4) GUG
183. Which of the following codons are non-degenerate?
(1) UUU and GUG (2) UGA and UAA (3) AUG and UGG (4) CAC and CAG
184. A translational unit in mRNA includes
(a) Start codon (b) Stop codon (c) Untranslated regions
(d) Coding sequence is located between the start codon and termination codon
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
185. Read the sequence of the nucleotides in the given segment of mRNA and the respective amino sequence in
the polypeptide chain.
Met Phe Met Pr o Val Ser X
mRNA ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
AUG UUU AUG CCU GUU UCU UAA
Polypeptide Met-Phe-Met-Pro-Val-Ser
(a) Triplet bases (codons) for (i) Valine and (ii) Proline
(b) Nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand from which this mRNA was transcribed is
(c) Last codon of this RNA stand for
The correct answer to the question (a), (b) and (c) are
(1) (a) - (i) GUU; (ii) CCU; (b) - TAC AAA TAC GGA CAAAGAATT; (c) - stop
(2) (a) - (i) GGU; (ii) CCU; (b) - TAC AAA TAC GGA CAAAGAATT; (c) – stop
(3) (a) - (i) GUU; (ii) CCC; (b) - TAC AAA TAC GGA CAAAGAATT; (c) – stop
(4) (a) - (i) GUU; (ii) CCU; (b) - ATG TTT ATG CCT GTT TCTTAA; (c) – stop
186. Given below are two statements (a) and (b) each with some blanks. Select the option which correctly fills
up the blanks in the statements.
(a) The ribosome consists of structural _____(i)______ and about 80 different___(ii)____ In its inactive
state, it exists as ___(iii)_____ subunits. There are two sites in the large subunit, for subsequent amino
acids to bind to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a ____(iv)_______ bond. The
ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23 S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme ___(v)_____ for the formation of
peptide bond.
(b) A translational unit in ____(i)_____ is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG)
and the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide. An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not
translated and are referred as untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' end (before
start codon) and at 3' end (after stop codon). They are required for efficient ______(ii)_______ process.
(1) (a) - (i) RNAs, (ii) Proteins, (iii) two, (iv) peptide, (v) ribozyme; (b) - (i) mRNA, (ii) translation
(2) (a) - (i) Proteins, (ii) RNAs, (iii) two, (iv) peptide, (v) ribozyme; (b) - (i) mRNA, (ii) translation
(3) (a) - (i) RNAs, (ii) Proteins, (iii) two, (iv) peptide, (v) ribozyme; (b) - (i) mRNA, (ii) transcription
(4) (a) - (i) RNAs, (ii) Proteins, (iii) two, (iv) peptide, (v) cytozyme; (b) - (i) mRNA, (ii) translation
187. Listed below are the stages in the cellular synthesis of a protein
(a) Movement of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
(b) Linking of adjacent amino acid molecules
(c) Transcription of mRNA from a DNA template
(d) Formation of the polypeptide chain
(e) Attachment of the mRNA strand to a ribosome
In which order do these stages take place?
(1) (a) → (c) → (b) → (e) → (d) (2) (a) → (e) → (c) → (d) → (b)
(3) (c) → (a) → (e) → (b) → (d) (4) (c) → (d) → (a) → (b) → (e)
188. Transcription and translation of a gene composed of 30 nucleotides would form a protein containing not
more than _____________ amino acids.
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 60 (4) 90
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189. Find out the sequence of binding of the following amino acyl - rRNA complexes during translation to an
mRNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence. 3 - ATACCCATGGGG -5'. Choose the answer
showing the correct order of alphabets.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(1) (a) → (b) → (c) → (d) (2) (d) → (a) → (b) → (c)
(3) (a) → (b) → (d) → (c) (4) (b) → (a) → (c) → (d)
190. Which of the following mRNA is translated completely?
(a) 5'AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA 3' (b) 5'AUG AUA UUG CCC UGA 3'
(c) 5' AGU UCC AGA CUC UAA 3' (d) 5'AUG UAC AGU AAC UAG 3'
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b),(c) and (d) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
191. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
(1) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(2) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
(3) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
192. Which one of the following statement is true for protein synthesis?
(1) Amino acids are directly recognised by mRNA
(2) The third base of the codon is less specific
(3) Only one codon codes for an amino acid
(4) Every tRNA molecule has more than one amino acid attachment site
193. Gene which is responsible for the synthesis of a polypeptide chain is called
(1) Promoter gene (2) Structural gene (3) Regulator gene (4) Operator gene
194. Following cleavage require
32 S → 28 S + 5.8 S
45 S → 41 S
20 S → 18 S
(1) tRNA (2) RNA enzyme (3) Spliceosome (4) Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)
195. In following process, next step will be
(1) Termination (2) Initiation (3) Translocation (4) Release of polypeptide

196. Choose the wrong statement with respect to the process of protein synthesis
(1) After uncoiling of DNA molecule, one strand acts as a template for the formation of mRNA
(2) In the presence of DNA polymerase enzyme, the mRNA is formed based on the triplet codes
(3) The mRNA leaves nucleus reaches cytoplasm and gets attached with ribosomal subunit
(4) The amino acids are transferred from the intracellular amino acid pool to the active ribosomes by the rRNA
197. Select the correct statement regarding protein synthesis

(1) When the small subunit of the ribosome encounters an mRNA, the process of translation begins
(2) Peptidase catalyses the formation of peptide bond
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(3) UTRs are present between the start codon and stop codon
(4) At the end of translation, the release factor binds to the initiation codon
198. Fifth charged rRNA attaches itself to ________ of ribosome in translation
(1) Shine Dalgarno (SD) sequence (2) P site (3) A site (4) Anti SD sequence
199. A sequence of pictures of polypeptide in a synthesis shows a ribosome holding two transfer RNAs. One
rRNA has a polypeptide chain attached to it; the other rRNA has a single amino acid attached to it. What
would the next picture show?
(1) The polypeptide chain moves over and bonds to the single amino acid
(2) The rRNA with the amino acid leaves the ribosome
(3) The amino acid moves over and bonds to the polypeptide chain
(4) The rRNA with the polypeptide chain leaves the ribosome
200. The UTRs are located
(1) Between start and stop codon of a translational unit
(2) Before start codon and after stop codon of a translational unit
(3) Between promoter and terminator of a transcriptional unit
(4) Before promoter and after terminator of a transcriptional unit
201. Choose the correct statements
(a) Binding of mRNA to the ribosome is loose and reversible
(b) The ribosome, which is composed of rRNA and proteins, consists of a small and large subunit
(c) Each of the 20 amino acids has a minimum of one specific rRNA molecule
(d) rRNA-Met binds to the first codon (AUG)-this is called the START codon
(e) The second rRNA binds to the second codon so that their attached monosaccharides are next to each
other
(f) The newly formed polypeptides may undergo post transcriptional modification
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (d) and (f) (3) (b), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (e) and (f)
202. In protein synthesis, which of the following are required for the synthesis of charged tRNA?
(1) Amino acid, GTR initiation codon and ribosome
(2) Amino acid, ATP, Mg2+, enzyme and tRNA
(3) Amino acid, ATR K+, enzyme, mRNA
(4) Aminoacyl rRNA, ribosome, initiation codon and release factor
203. Which is incorrect with respect to UTR?
(1) Present in between the translational unit in mRNA (2) Not recognised by any rRNA
(3) Required for efficient translation process (4) Provides stability to mRNA
204. Which of the following steps of translation does not consume a high-energy phosphate bond?
(1) Peptidyl transferase reaction (2) Aminoacyl rRNA binding to A site
(3) Translocation (4) Amino acid activation
205. For every single amino acid incorporated in peptide chain _______ ATP and ____________ GTP molecules
are used (except for first amino acid)
(1) 1 ; 4 (2) 1 ; 6 (3) 1 ; 2 (4) 1 ; 3
206. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed for the
(1) Formation of formyl-met-rRNA
(2) Binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(3) Association of 30 S mRNA with formyl-met RNA
(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
207. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?
(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame- shift mutations
(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations
(3) UV and gamma rays Eire mutagens
(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation
208. In the given mRNA strand,
5' - AUG GUG CUA ACA UUC GUC UAG - 3'
if the 15th nitrogenous base gets mutated to G, then—, which type of mutation could be observed?
(1) Point mutation (2) Missense mutation
(3) Transversion (4) More than one option is correct
209. Imagine an error occurring during DNA replication in a cell, so that where there is supposed to be an A in
one of the genes there is a C instead. What effect will this probably have on the cell?
(1) The amino acid sequence will be completely hanged
(2) An amino acid will be missing
(3) An incorrect amino acid will appear
(4) An additional amino acid will appear
210. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to
UAA?
(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
(4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed.
211. In a given DNA segment ATG ACC AGG ACC CCA ACA, the first base gets mutated. The effect of this on
coding by this DNA segment will result in
(1) Complete change in the type as well as sequence of amino acids
(2) Change in the first amino acid only
(3) No change in the sequence
(4) One amino acid less in the protein
212. Imagine an error occurring during DNA replication in a cell, so that where there is supposed to be a T in
one of the genes there is a G instead. What effect will this probably have on the cell?
(1) The amino acid sequence of one of its kinds of proteins will be completely changed
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(2) An amino acid will be missing from each of its kinds of proteins
(3) One of its kinds of proteins might contain an incorrect amino acid
(4) An amino acid will be missing from one of its kinds of proteins
213. Mutations are
(1) Heritable changes in the sequences of DNA bases that produce an observable phenotype
(2) Heritable changes in the sequence of DNA bases
(3) Mistakes in the incorporation of amino acids into proteins
(4) Heritable changes in the mRNA of an organism
214. Which one of the following mutations are required for evolution to occur?
(1) Frame shift mutation (2) Missense mutation
(3) Non-sense mutation (4) Silent mutation
215. After a mutation at a genetic locus, the character of an organism changes due to change in
(1) Protein structure (2) DNA replication
(3) protein synthesis pattern (4) RNA transcription pattern
216. What does lac refer to in what we call the lac operon?
(1) Lactose (2) Lactase (3) Lac insect (4) Lactobacillus bacteria
217. Which of the following is not produced by E.coli in the lactose medium?
(1)  − galactosidase (2) Transacetylase (3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Permease
218. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the
source of energy because
(1) They cannot synthesise functional  − galactosidase
(2) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
(3) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
(4) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilise lactose
219. In the lac operon system, transacetylase is coded by
(1) a gene (2) i gene (3) Z gene (4) z gene
220. In regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes,
(a) Lactose acts as the suppressor for gene expression
(b) Tryptophan acts as the inducer for gene expression
(c) Regulator gene is the one that produce the repressor molecule
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) Only (b) is correct
(3) Only (c) is correct (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct
221. In eukaryotes,
(1) Different structural genes controlling same metabolic process require one, regulator
(2) Different structural genes controlling same metabolic process are present apart from one another on same
chromosome or present on different chromosome
(3) Mostly one metabolic process is under one operon
(4) All of these
222.  − galactosidase is synthesised by E. coli to catalyse hydrolysis of __________ into ________ and
glucose.
(1) Galactose; lactose (2) Galactose; glucose (3) Lactose; galactose (4) Maltose; galactose
223. Regulator gene controls chemical synthesis (operon system) by inhibiting
(1) Substrate enzyme action (2) Transcription of mRNA
(3) Passage of mRNA (4) Enzymes
224. The external supply of tryptophan in Escherichia coli brings about
(1) Switching on of lactose operon (2) Switching off of lactose operon
(3) Switching on of tryptophan operon (4) Switching off tryptophan operon
225. Which of the following statements concerning the regulator gene (R) associated with the lac operon is
correct?
(1) mRNA is transcribed from the R gene whether lactose is present or not
(2) mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when lactose is present
(3) mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when lactose is not present
(4) Lactose inhibits the translation of R gene mRNA
226. According to the Jacob Monod (tec operon) model of gene regulation, inducer substances in bacterial cells
probably
(1) Combine with operator regions, activating the associated operons
(2) Combine with structural genes, stimulating them to synthesise messenger RNA
(3) Combine with repressor proteins, inactivating them
(4) Combine with promoter regions, activating RNA polymerase
227. In bacteria, the structural genes can be turned off when
(1) The end product of a reaction combines with the repressor proteih and activates it
(2) The substrate combines with a repressor protein and inactivates it
(3) The substrate combines with the promoter
(4) The substrate combines with its enzyme and produces a repressor molecule
228. Which enzyme will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac y gene?
(1) Lactose permease (2) Transacetylase
(3) Lactose permease and transcetylase (4)  − galactosidase
229. Mark the incorrect option with respect to lac operon
(1) It is under positive as well as negative control (2) It controls catabolic pathway
(3) It shows feedback repression (4) It was discovered by Jacob and Monod
230. When aporepressor binds with co-repressor in tryptophan operon,

(1) Operator gene is switched on
(2) A complete repressor is formed
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(3) Structural genes become functional to produce polycistronic mRNA
(4) Luxury genes are switched on
231. In negative operon,
(1) Repressor binds with operator gene (2) Co-repressor does not bind with repressor
(3) Co-repressor binds with the inducer (4) cAMP has negative effect on lac operon
232. Select the two correct statements out of the four statements (a) - (d) given below with respect to lec
operon
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it
(b) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region
(c) The z gene codes for permease
(d) This was elucidated by Francis Jacob and Jacque Monod
The correct statements are:
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
233. In E. coli, according to the lac operon theory, an operator gene combines with
(1) Inducer gene to switch on the structural gene transcription
(2) Regulator gene to switch on the structural gene transcription
(3) Regulator protein to switch off the structural gene transcription
(4) Regulator protein to switch on the structural gene transcription
234. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a) - (d) given below about tryptophan operon
(a) In the presence of tryptophan, it is switched on
(b) Five structural genes are present in it
(c) Its regulatory gene is represented by i
(d) It is a repressible operon
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c)
235. Choose the wrong statement
(1) VNTR belongs to a class of mini-satellite DNA
(2) DNA sequencers work on the principle developed by Frederick Sanger
(3) HGP was coordinated by US department of Health and the National Institute of Energy
(4) Satellite DNA normally do not code for proteins
236. Sequencing the whole genome of an organism into coding and non-coding sequences is termed as
(1) Sequence determination (2) Sequence detection
(3) Sequence annotation (4) Sequence completion
237. Which of the following is not a salient feature of the Human Genome Project?
(1) The human genome contains 3614.7 million nucleotide bases
(2) Less than 2% genome codes for proteins
(3) Over 50% of the genes discovered are yet to be investigated regarding their functions
(4) Chromosome Y has the fewest of genes
238. Under HGP, scientists have located 1.4 million locations where difference in single DNA base exists. It is
termed as
(1) Microsatellites (2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(3) Polymorphonuclear regions (4) Sequential nucleotide polymorphism
239. Human Genome Project (HGP) was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology
called
(1) Biotechnology (2) Bioinformatics (3) Biogeography (4) Bioscience
240. In humans,
(a) Non-coding DNA is the most abundant
(b) The function of more than 50% discovered genes are unknown
(c) Less than 2% of genome codes for protein
(d) Total number of genes are 30,000
241. Read the following statements and choose the right option
(a) DNA polymorphism plays important role in evolution and speciation
(b) 99.9% nucleotides bases are exactly same in all people
(c) Chromosomes 1 has the fewest genes (23) and Y chromosomes has the most genes (2968)
(d) BAC and YAC have been used in Human Genome Project
(1) All are correct (2) All are incorrect
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
242. The current estimate of the number of genes in the human
(1) Is based on the number of genes in the fruitfly
(2) Has not changed from the previous estimate
(3) Has increased greatly from previous estimate
(4) Has decreased greatly from previous estimates
243. Which of the following statements is correct about the aim of Human Genome Project?
(1) To develop ways of mapping the human genome of increasing fine level of precision
(2) To store this information in databases and develop tools for data analysis
(3) To address the ethical, legal and social issue that may arise from this project
(4) All of these
244. The last human chromosome which was completely sequenced in May 2006 is
(1) Chromosome 22 (2) Chromosome 14 (3) Chromosome 1 (4) Chromosome X and Y
245. Sequencing the whole set of genome that contains all the coding and non-coding parts is
(1) Expressed sequence tags (2) Sequence annotation
(3) Microarray (4) Electrophoresis
246. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1?
(1) It is one of the largest chromosomes (2) Its sequence was completed in May 2007
(3) It has maximum number of genes (4) It was the last chromosome to be sequenced
247. In sequence annotation,
(1) All expressed genes are identified
(2) Sequence that occurs only once in genome are tagged
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(3) All coding and non-coding sequence are involved
(4) Sequencing of genes with exact location and order of known bases
248. Lily has 18 times more DNA than human genome, yet it produces fewer proteins than us because its DNA
has
(1) Introns only (2) More introns and less exons
(3) Exons only (4) More exons and less introns. DNA Fingerprinting
249. During DNA fingerprinting, probe hybridise with
(1) Entire dsDNA fragment (2) Entire ssDNA fragment on paper
(3) ssDNA fragment on gel plate (4) VNTR part of DNA
250. Satellite DNA
(a) is classified in many categories such as micro satellites, mini satellites, etc., on the basis of base com-
position, length of segments and number of repetitive units
(b) Normally does not code for any protein (c) Shows polymorphism
(d) Forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting
251. An RFLP is a
(1) DNA probe used for hybridisation
(2) Variation of a DNA segment cut by restriction enzyme (s)
(3) Recessive form of a deleterious allele
(4) Restrictive enzyme used to cut DNA
252. DNA fingerprinting works because
(1) Genes containing the same alleles make it simple to compare different individuals
(2) PCR allows amplification of proteins from single cells
(3) There are multiple alleles for some DNA sequences, making it possible to obtain unique patterns for each
Individual
(4) DNA in the skin cells is very diverse
253. When bands of RNA are transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane for identification, the blotting is called
(1) Southern Blotting (2) Northern Blotting (3) Western Blotting (4) Eastern Blotting
254. In PCR, it is _______ that creates single stranded template molecules
(1) Heat (2) High salt concentration (3) DNA polymerase (4) Exonuclease
255. In gel electrophoresis, all the DNA fragments move towards the base of the gel with variable velocities
because
(1) DNA is positively charged (2) DNA is slightly negatively charged
(3) DNA fragments have different molecular weights (4) Both (2) and (3)
256. Western Blot hybridisation is used for
(1) DNA analysis (2) RNA analysis (3) Protein analysis (4) Polysaccharide analysis
257. The polymerase chain reaction
(1) Is a method for sequencing DNA (2) Is used to transcribe specific genes
(3) Amplifies specific DNA sequences (4) Does not require DNA replication primers
258. Find the incorrect match.
(1) VNTR - 0.1-20 kb
(2) SSR - 15-20 bp
(3) Laljee Singh - Father of Indian DNA fingerprinting
(4) Narendra Modi and Arvind Kejriwal - Differ in only 0.1% genes
259. Choose the correct statements with respect to satellite DNA
(1) Show high degree of polymorphism (2) Form basis of DNA fingerprinting
(3) Part of both coding and non-coding sequences (4) More than one option is correct
260. Mark the correct one with respect to application of DNA fingerprinting
(1) Forensic science (2) Determining the population diversity
(3) Determining the genetic diversity (4) More than one option is correct
261. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA with repeated bases in a genome, but
(a) These sequences have no transcriptional function
(b) These are associated with euchromatin region
(c) These help to identify a person on the basis of its DNA specificity
(1) All are correct (2) Only (b) is incorrect
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct (4) Both (b) and (c) are incorrect
262. The microsatellites have simple sequences of repeated
(1) 11 - 6 bp (2) 1 - 6 bp (3) 10 bp (4) 50 bp
263. What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
(1) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(2) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
(3) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
(4) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
264. What is the first step in the Southern Blot technique?
(1) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridisation with specific probe
(2) Production of a group of genetically identical cells
(3) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme
(4) Isolation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime
265. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying difference in some specific regions in DNA sequence called
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Repetitive DNA (3) Junk DNA (4) Non-repetitive DNA
266. The VNTR belong to a class of satellite DNA referred to as
(1) Mini – satellite (2) NOR (3) Selectable marker (4) Polymorphic DNA
267. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step
is known as
(1) Staining (2) Transformation (3) Elution (4) Splicing
268. Identify the wrong statement from the following.
(1) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types of nucleic acids found in living systems
(2) RNA though it also acts as a genetic material in some viruses, mostly functions as a messenger
Page 17 of 22
(3) DNA functions as adapter, structural, and in some cases as a catalytic molecule
(4) The determination of complete nucleotide sequence of human genome during last decade has set in a new era of
Genomics
269. Read the following statements carefully.,
(a) Two nucleotides are linked through 5-3' phosphoester linkage to form a dinucleotide
(b) The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed due to sugar and nitrogenous base
(c) A nitrogenous base is linked to the phosphate molecule through an N-glycosidic linkage to form a nu-
cleoside
(d) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional -OH group present at 5' position in the ribose
(e) DNA as a basic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Meischer in 1869.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) All of these
270. Find the incorrect statement.
(1) N - glycosidic linkage between nitrogenous base and sugar forms a nucleotide
(2) 5 - methyl uracil is present in DNA
(3) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has additional OH group
(4) The ratio of (A + T) / (G + C) is variable
271. Read the following statements carefully
(a) In the double helix of DNA, the backbone is constituted by sugar-nitrogenous base
(b) The two chains have parallel polarity
(c) The bases in the two strands are paired through N-glycosidic linkage
(d) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm.
(e) In some viruses the flow of information is from proteins to DNA.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
272. Match Column - I (discovery) with Column - II (their discoverer) and select the correct option.
(a) Central Dogma of Molecular Biology (i) E Stahi
(b) DNA as an acidic substance (ii) E Meischer
(c) Transforming Principle (iii) E Crick
(d) Semiconservative DNA replication (iv) E Griffith
(1) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i) (2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
(3) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i) (4) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
(a) In eukaryotes there are at least three RNA polymerase
(b) hnRNA has both exons and introns
(c) hnRNA is formed in both prokaryotes and eukaryote
(d) Any mistake in DNA replication may cause mutation
(1) All are correct (2) All are incorrect
(3) Except (c) all are correct (4) Only (d) is correct
274. The base sequence of nucleic acid is AGG GGA CGA CCA, from this it can be inferred that it is a segment of
(1) DNA (2) mRNA (3) rRNA (4) Data insufficient
275. Segments of DNA which can move in genome?
(1) Introns (2) Exons (3) Transposons (4) Cistrons
276. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mrDNA and Y chromosomes were considered for
the study of human evolution, because
(1) They are small, and therefore, easy to study
(2) They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
(3) Their structure is known in great detail
(4) They can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
277. Consider the following statements
(a) rRNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins
(b) rRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code
(c) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription
(d) A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron
(1) (a) and (c) are correct (2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (4) (b) and (c) are correct
278. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally more stable than RNA
(b) Viruses having RNA genome evolve faster
(c) A molecule that can act as a genetic material should be stable chemically and structurally
(d) For the transmission of genetic information RNA is better
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) (4) All of these
279. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
(a) RNA polymerase associates transiently with Rho factor to initiate transcription
(b) In bacteria, transcription and translation take place in the same compartment
(c) Nirenberg developed a method for protein synthesis in cell
(d) When hnRNA undergoes capping process, adenylate residues are added at 3' end in a template inde-
pendent manner
(4) hnRNA is the precursor of mRNA
(1) (b) (2) (b), (c) and (e) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (d), (b) and (e)
280. Find the wrongly matched pair

(1) Hargobind Khorana - Synthesised RNA molecules
(2) George Gamow - Codon is triplet
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(3) Griffth - Bacterial recombination
(4) Alec Jeffreys - DNA fingerprinting
281. Genes for glycolysis are
(1) Housekeeping genes (2) Luxury genes (3) Very long (4) Inducible genes
(a) DNA polymorphism is due to mutations
(b) VNTR shows DNA polymorphism
(c) Mutations at VNTR region take place at high rate in comparison to mutations in coding regions
(d) DNA polymerase binds to TATA box of promoter.
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
283. A particular ____________ carry the information for making a particular polypeptide, but ____________
can be used to make any polypeptide
(1) Gene and ribosome; a rRNA and a mRNA (2) Gene and mRNA; a ribosome and a rRNA
(3) Ribosome and mRNA; a gene and a rRNA (4) Gene and rRNA; a ribosome and a mRNA
Column - I Column - II
(1) Exon (i) Non-coding sequence
(2) Intron (ii) Nirenberg, Khorana and Mathaei
(3) Genetic code (iii) Nucleosome
(4) DNA Package (iv) Coding sequence
(3) (1) - (iv); (2) - (i); (3) - (ii); (4) - (iii) (4) (1) - (ii); (2) - (iii); (3) - (i); (4) - (iv)
285. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Operon hypothesis was proposed by Jacob and Monod
(b) One gene one enzyme theory was proposed by Beadle and Tatum
(c) Southern blotting is used in DNA fingerprinting
(d) Uracil bases remain present in DNA
(a) At the time of Mendel, the nature of the factors regulating the pattern of inheritance was very clear
(b) The determination of complete nucleotide sequence of human genome during the last two decades has
set in a new era of genomics
(c) In double stranded DNA, the amount of adenine is always equal to the amount of guanine
(d) DNA is acid, but DNA ase is not an enzyme
(1) All are correct (2) All are incorrect (3) Only (b) is correct (4) Only (d) is correct
287. The maximum number of bonds present in a double stranded DNA molecule are
(1) Glycosidic bonds (2) Phosphoester bonds
(3) Hydrogen bonds (4) Phosphodiester bonds
(I) In prokaryotes, single type of RNA polymerase can be transcribed by mRNA, tNA and rRNA.
(II) In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase transcribes rRNA (28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S) whereas, RNA polymerase III
is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5S tRNA and RNAs.
(III) RNApolymerase IItranscribes hnRNAin eukaryotes.
(IV) Ribosomal large subunit has P and A sites.
(1) (I) and (III) (2) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) (II), (III) and (IV) (4) (I), (II) and (III)
(a) DNA cannot produce its copies without DNA polymerase
(b) DNA cannot produce RNA
(c) RNA can produce complementary DNA (cDNA)
(4) DNA helps in protein synthesis
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(a) The biochemical nature of genetic material was not defined from the experiments conducted by Griffith
(b) Working on transformation Avery concluded that DNA is the genetic material but not all biologists were
convinced
(c) RNA is the genetic material in TMV, QB bacteriophage etc
(d) DNA is the predominant genetic material, while RNA performs dynamic functions of messenger adapter
(e) Viruses having DNA genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster
(1) All of these (2) (a) and (b) (3) All except (e) (4) (c) and (d)
291. Which one of the following statements is false?
(1) Glucose and galactose can act as inducers for lac operon
(2) The presence of introns in split gene is reminiscent of antiquity and the process of splicing represents the
dominance of DNA world
(3) In eukaryotes, the sequence of transcription is DNA → hnRNA → mRNA
(4) Regulation of gene expression in the lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation. Lac operon is
under the control of positive regulation as well
292. Select the correct statements

(a) In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of 5S rRNA, fRNA and snRNA
(b) DNA generally acts as a template for the synthesis of DNA and RNA
(c) During protein synthesis, amino acid gets attached to fRNA with the help of aminoacyl synthetase,
ATP is also used
Page 19 of 22
(d) The first amino acid in any polypeptide chain of prokaryote is always formulated methionine, but in
eukaryotes it is methionine
(e) A single anticodon can recognise more than one codon of mRNA. This phenomenon is termed as
Wobble hypothesis
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) All of these (4) (d) and (e)
293. Given below are two statements (a) - (b) each with two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up
the blanks in two statements:
(a) Use of radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesised DNA in the chromosomes was
performed on Vicia faba (faba beans) by _____(i)______ and colleagues in 1958. The experiments proved
that the DNA in chromosomes also replicate _______(ii)________
(b) The chemical method developed by Hargobind Khurana was instrumental in synthesising RNA
molecules with defined combinations of bases (homopolyihers and copolymers). ____(i)_______ cell free
system for protein synthesis finally helped the code to the deciphered Severo Ochoa enzyme
(polynucleotide phosphorylase) was also helpful in polymerizing RNA with defined sequences in a
______(ii)______ independent manner (enzymatic synthesis of RNA).
(1) (a) - (i) Taylor, (ii) conservatively; (b) - (i) Marshall Nirenberg's, (ii) replica
(2) (a) - (i) Watson, (ii) semiconservatively; (b) - (i) Crick's, (ii) template
(3) (a) - (i) Messelson, (ii) semiconservatively; (b) - (i) Marshall Nirenberg's, (ii) template
(4) (a) - (i) Taylor, (ii) semiconservatively; (b) - (i) Marshall Nirenberg's, (ii) template
294. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5 S rRNA (3) snRNA (4) hn RNA
295. Read the following four statements
(a) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil
(b) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation
(c) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes
(d) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
296. Mark the correct match.
(1) DNA fingerprinting - Slow method to compare DNA sequence of any two individuals
(2) Val operon - Found in eukaryotes
(3) Sanger method - Determination of amino acid sequences in proteins only
(4) VNTR - Intron
(1) RNA (i) Translational efficiencyv
(2) UTR (ii) Smallest molecule
(3) Sigma factor (iii) Learning and memory
(4) tRNA (iv) Initiation of transcription
(1) (1) - (ii); (2) - (iii); (3) - (i); (4) - (iv) (2) (1) - (iii); (2) - (ii); (3) - (iv); (4) - (i)
(3) (1) - (iii); (2) - (i); (3) - (iv); (4) - (ii) (4) (1) - (iii); (2) - (iv); (3) - (i); (4) - (ii)
298. Select the correct statement from the following
(1) Guanyl transferase catalyses polyadenylation
(2) Polycistronic mRNA carries codons of single protein molecule
(3) In bacteria, translation begins much before mRNA is fully transcribed
(4) Bacteria have split gene arrangement
299. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme.
Their experiments demonstrated that
(1) Cells need specific enzymes in order to function
(2) Genes are made of DNA
(3) Genes carry information for making proteins
(4) Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information
300. The Severo Ochoa enzyme is
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Polynucleotide phosphorylase (4) DNA development DNA polymerases
01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15
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1 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 4 3 4 1 1 2 2
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 4 2 4 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 4 1 2 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
2 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 2 3 4 4 3 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
4 1 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 4 1 1 4
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 4 1 1 1 1 4 1 4 2 2 2 1 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
1 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 3
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
3 4 1 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 1 4 4 2 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
1 1 4 3 2 4 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 1 4
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 148 150
1 3 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 4
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
2 3 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 3 4 1 1 4
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
2 4 3 3 4 2 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 2
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195
3 3 3 4 1 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 1
196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
2 1 3 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 1
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225
2 3 2 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 4 1
226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
3 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 1 3 3 1 2 2 2
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255
3 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 4
256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
3 3 2 4 4 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 4 1
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1 3 3 4 3 2 4 4 4 3 1 4 2 3 4
286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
3 3 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 3
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Molecular Basis of Inheritance

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Molecular Basis of Inheritance

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MOLECLAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

(1) (1) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4)

05. The length of DNA is usually defined as number of ___________ present in it

77. Which of the following feature is correct for bacteria?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

88. Which of the following RNA is found in maximum amount in a cell?

120. Which of the following represents correct method of DNA replication?

(1) (1) - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of leading strand);

(1) DNA polymerase, Sigma factor, Rho factor and RNA

125. Which of the following statements is true regarding introns?

130. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III transcribes

(1) (2) (3) (4) (e)

(1) Termination (2) Initiation (3) Translocation (4) Release of polypeptide

197. Select the correct statement regarding protein synthesis

230. When aporepressor binds with co-repressor in tryptophan operon,

280. Find the wrongly matched pair

292. Select the correct statements

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