Version

24-06-2021 Batch : MEDICAL 2021

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - ALL UNIT
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org
Physics + Chemistry + Biology Time: 3 hrs.
Max. Mark: 720
A
PHYSICS Q.5) One end of a uniform wire of length
L and of weight W is attached rigidly
Q.1) If a car covers 2/5th of the total to a point in the roof and a weight
distance with v1 speed and 3/5th W1 is suspended from its lower end.
distance with v2 , then the average If S is the area of cross section of
speed is the wire, the stress in the wire at a
height 3L/4 from its lower end is
1 v1  v2
1) v1v 2 2) W1
2 2 1)
S
2v1v 2 5v1v 2 W1   W / 4 
3) 4) 2)
v1  v2 3v1  2v 2 S

Q.2) Work done in time t on a body of W1   3W / 4 

3)
mass m which is accelerated from S
rest to a speed v in time t 1 as a
function of time t is given by W1  W
4)
S
1 v 2 v 2
5 1) m t 2) m t Q.6) An iron rod of length 50cm is joined
2 t1 t1 at an end to an aluminium rod of
length 100cm. All measurements
2 refer to 20°C. The coefficients of
1  mv  2 1 v2 2 linear expansion of iron and
3)   t 4) m 2 t aluminium are 12×10 –6 /°C and
2  t1  2 t1
24×10–6/°C respectively. The average
coefficient of linear expansion of
Q.3) A circular disc X of radius R is made composite system is
from an iron plate of thickness t, and
another disc Y of radius 4R is made 1) 36×10–6/°C 2) 12×10–6/°C
from an iron plate of thickness t/4. 3) 20×10–6/°C 4) 48×10–6/°C
Then the relation between the
moment of inertia Ix and Iy is Q.7) The relation between the internal
energy U and adiabatic constant 
1) Iy=64Ix 2) Iy= 32Ix is

3) Iy=16Ix 4) Iy=Ix PV
1) U 
 1
Q.4) If the distance between centres of
earth and moon is D and the mass
of earth is 81 times the mass of PV 
2) U 
moon, then at what distance from  1
centre of earth the gravitational
force will be zero? PV
3) U 
1) D/2 2) 2D/3 

3) 4D/3 4) 9D/10 
4) U 
PV
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.8) An engine is moving on a circular Q.11) A ball of radius r and density  falls
track with a constant speed. It is freely under gravity through a
blowing a whistle of frequency 500 distance h before entering water.
Hz. The frequency received by an Velocity of ball does not change even
observer standing stationary at the on entering water. If viscosity of
centre of the track is water is  , the value of h is given by

1) 500Hz

2) More than 500Hz

2 2 1   
3) Less than 500Hz 1) r  g
9   
4) More or less than 500Hz depending
on the actual speed of the engine 2 2   1 
2) r  g
Q.9) Two particles execute SHM of same
81   
amplitude and frequency along the 2
same straight line. They pass one 2 4   1 
another when going in opposite 3) r   g
81   
directions. Each time they pass each
other their displacement is half of 2
their amplitude. The phase 2 4   1
difference between them is 4) r   g
9   
1) 30° Q.12) A wooden stick 2m long is floating
on the surface of water. The surface
2) 60° tension of water 0.07 N/m. By
putting soap solution on one side of
3) 90°
the stick the surface tension is
reduced to 0.06 N/m on that side.
4) 120°
The net force on the stick will be
Q.10) The equation of stationary wave along 1) 0.07 N 2) 0.06 N
a stretched string is given by
3) 0.01 N 4) 0.02 N
x
y  5 sin cos 40t where x and y Q.13) From the dimensional consideration,
3 which of the following equations is
are in centimetre and t in second. correct? (T=time period, R=radius, M
The separation between two adjacent mass and G is the gravitational
nodes is: constant)
1) 6cm
R3 GM
1) T  2 2) T  2
2) 4cm GM R3
3) 3cm GM R2
3) T  2 4) T  2
4) 1.5cm R2 GM
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.14) If the displacement of a particle is Q.17) A simple pendulum performs simple
directly proportional to the square of harmonic motion about x=0 with an
time, then the particle is moving with amplitude (A) and time period (T).
The speed of the pendulum at
1) Uniform acceleration
A
x will be
2) Variable acceleration 2

3) Uniform velocity A 3
1)
4) Variable acceleration but uniform T
velocity
A
Q.15) Four thin rods of same mass M and 2)
T
same length l, form a square as
shown in figure. Moment of inertia
of this system about an axis through A 3
3)
centre O and perpendicular to its 2T
plane is
32A
4)
T
Q.18) If x=a–b, then the maximum
percentage error in the
measurement of x will be

 a  b 
1)    100
 ab 

 a b 
2)    100
4 2 Ml 2
 a b 
1) Ml 2)
3 3
 a b 
2 3)     100
Ml 2 2 a  b a  b
3) 4) Ml
6 3
 a b 
Q.16) Two samples A and B of a gas initially 4)     100
a  b a  b
at the same pressure and
temperature are compressed from Q.19) A particle of mass m=5 unit is moving
volume V to V/2 (A isothermally and
B adiabatically). The final pressure with a uniform speed v  3 2 unit
of A is in x-y plane along the line y=x+4. The
magnitude of the angular
1) greater than the final pressure of momentum about origin is ______
B
1) zero
2) equal to the final pressure of B 2) 60 unit
3) less than the final pressure of B 3) 7.5 unit
4) twice the final pressure of B 4) 40 2 unit
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.20) Convex side of a convex-concave lens Q.24) The charge of a parallel plate
is silvered and on its principal axis a capacitor is varying as q=q0 sin2ft .
point object is moving towards it from The plates are very large and close
concave side then to each other. [area =A, separation
1) its image will continuously move =d]. Neglecting edge effects, the
towards the lens displacement current through the
capacitor is______
2) its image may continuously move
towards the lens 1) 2f q 0 cos 2ft
3) its image will always be real
2f q 0
4) its image may be real 2) cos 2ft
0
Q.21) In a single slit diffraction experiment,
first minima for 1  660nm d
3)
coincides with first maxima for A0
wavelength  2 , then  2 will be equal
d
to ______ 4) sin 2ft
0
1) 240 nm 2) 345 nm
Q.25) A satellite of mass ms revolving in a
3) 330 nm 4) 440 nm
circular orbit of radius rs around the
Q.22) A radioactive nucleus can decay earth of mass M, has a total energy
simultaneously by two different E. Then, its angular momentum is
processes which have decay
1
constants 1 and  2 . The effective 1)  2Ems rs  2
decay constant of the nuclide is  ,
where 2) (2Emsrs)

1
1)   1   2 2)   2  1   2 

3) 2Emsrs2  2

1 1 1 1
3)   4)   12
 1  2 
4) 2Em2s rs2  2

Q.23) Consider the junction diode is ideal. Q.26) A body is projected vertically
The value of current in the figure upwards. If t1 and t2 be the instants
is_______(The circuit is a part of a at which it is at a height h above the
closed circuit) point of projection, while ascending
and descending respectively, then
1) h=gt1t2
2) h=2gt1t2
1) zero
2) 10–2A 1
3) h  gt1t 2
2
3) 10–3A
4) 10–1A 1
4) h  gt1t2
4
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.27) Suppose the drift velocity v d in a
material varies with the applied
electric field E as vd  E . Then
V–I graph for a wire made of such a
material is best given by
1)
2)
3)
4)
Q.28) A 10V battery with internal
resistance 1 and a 15V battery with
internal resistance 0.6 are
connected in parallel to a voltmeter
(see figure). The reading in the
voltmeter will be close to
1) 11.9V 2) 12.5V
3) 13.1V 4) 24.5V
Q.29) A proton (mass m) accelerated by a
potential difference V flies through
a uniform transverse magnetic field
B. The field occupies a region of space
by width ‘d’. If  be the angle of
deviation of proton from initial
direction of motion (see figure), the
value of sin  will be
B qd B q
1) 2)
2 mV d 2mV
q Bd
3) Bd 4) qV
2mV 2m
Q.30) A 25cm long solenoid has radius 2cm
and 500 total number of turns. It
carries a current of 15A. If it is
equivalent to a magnet of the same
size and magnetization M (magnetic
moment /volume), then M is
1) 3Am 1 2) 30000Am 1
3) 300Am–1 4) 3000Am 1
Q.31) When current in a coil changes from
5A to 2A in 0.1s, an average voltage
of 50V is produced. The self
inductance of the coil is
1) 0.67H 2) 1.67H
3) 3H 4) 6H
Q.32) You are asked to design a shaving
mirror assuming that a person keeps
it 10cm from his face and views the
magnified image of the face at the
closest comfortable distance of 25cm.
The radius of curvature of the mirror
would then be
1) 30cm 2) 24cm
3) 60cm 4) –24cm
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.33) de-Broglie wavelength of an electron Q.38) A wire carrying current I is tied
accelerated by a voltage of 50V is between points P and Q and is in the
19 shape of a circular arc of radius R
close to ( e  1.6  10 C, due to a uniform magnetic field B
me=9.1×10 kg, h=6.6×10–34Js)
–31
(perpendicular to the plane of the
1) 0.5 Å 2) 1.2 Å paper, shown by figure) in the vicinity
of the wire. If the wire subtends an
3) 1.7Å 4) 2.4Å
angle 20 at the centre of the circle
Q.34) If one were to apply Bohr model to a (of which it forms an arc) then the
particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ tension in the wire is
moving in a plane under the
influence of a magnetic field ‘B’ the
energy of the charged particle in the
nth level will be

 hqB   hqB 
1) n   2) n  
 2m   4m 

 hqB   hqB 
3) n   4) n  
 8m   m 
Q.35) In an unbiased n-p junction electrons 1) IBR
diffuse from n-region to p-region
because IBR
2)
1) holes in p-region attract them sin 0
2) electrons travel across the junction
due to potential difference IBR
3)
3) electron concentration in n-region 2sin 0
is more as compared to that in p-
region IBR0
4)
4) only electrons move from n to p sin 0
region and not the vice-versa
 Q.39) A short bar magnet is placed in the
 
Q.36) An electric field E  25iˆ  30ˆj NC
1
magnetic meridian of the earth with
north pole pointing north. Neutral
exists in a region of space. If the points are found at a distance of
potential at the origin is taken to be 30cm from the magnet on the East-
zero then the potential at x=2m, West line, drawn through the middle
y=2m is; point of the magnet. The magnetic
1) –130V 2) –120V moment of the magnet in Am 2 is
close to:
3) –140V 4) –110V
Q.37) A parallel plate contenser with oil 0
(dielectric constant 2) between the (Given  107 in SI units and BH=
4
plates has capacitance C. If oil is
Horizontal component of earth’s
removed the capacitance of capacitor
magnetic field 3.6×10–5 Tesla)
become
1) 9.7 2) 4.9
1) 2C 2) 2C
3) 19.4 4) 14.6
C C
3) 4)
2 2
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.40) In a Young’s double slit experiment Q.43) What will be the angular momentum
with light of wavelength  the of electron, if energy of this electron
separation of slits is d and distance in hydrogen atom is 1.5eV (in J-sec)
of screen is D such that D>>d>>  . If 1) 1.05×10–34 2) 2.1×10–34
the Fringe width is  , the minimum
3) 3.15×10–34 4) –2.1×10–34
distance from central maximum to
the point where intensity falls to half Q.44) A 2V battery is connected across AB
of maximum intensity is: as shown in the figure. The value of
the current supplied by the battery
  when in one case battery’s positive
1) 2) terminal is connected to A and in
2 4
other case when positive terminal of
battery is connected to B will
  respectively be:
3) 4)
3 6
Q.41) Unpolarized light of intensity I is
incident on surface of a block of glass
at Brewster’s angle. In that case,
which one of the following
statements is true?
1) transmitted light is completely
polarized
2) transmitted light is completely
polarized with intensity less than 1) 0.2A and 0.1A
I0/2
2) 0.4 and 0.2A
3) reflected light is completely
polarized with intensity less than 3) 0.1A and 0.2A
I0/2 4) 0.2A and 0.4A
4) reflected light is partially polarized Q.45) The AC voltage across a resistance
with intensity I0/2 can be measured using a:
Q.42) The de-Broglie wavelength 1) Potentiometer
associated with the electron in the
n=4 level is 2) Moving coil galvanometer
1) two times the de-Broglie 3) Moving magnet galvanometer
wavelength of the electron in the
ground state 4) Hot wire voltmeter

2) four times the de-Broglie CHEMISTRY

wavelength of the electron in the
ground state Q.46) Number of actinoids which exhibit +3
oxidation state only
3) half of the de-Broglie wavelength
of the electron in the ground state 1) 13 2) 6

4) 1/4th of the de-Broglie wavelength 3) 14 4) 5

of the electron in the ground state Q.47) Which of the following transition
metal has least melting point?
1) Mn 2) Cu
3) Ag 4) Au
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
i )X 2 /Re d phosphorus
O Q.51) R CH2 COOH 
ii)H O
 2

COOC2H5
Q.48) H3O
 A 
 B. R CH COOH
. Here x is
The component B is X
COOH 1) Cl only
1)
2) Br only

O 3) Cl, Br

4) Cl, Br, I
2)
Q.52) For the reaction ABg   A(g )  B(g ) ; AB
O is 50% dissociated at a total pressure
of P. Therefore, P is related to Kp by
COOH one of the following options
3)
1) P=8Kp 2) P=4Kp

O 3) P=6Kp 4) P=3Kp
Q.53) Three sparingly soluble salts AB2, AB
4) and A 3 B have the same solubility
product. Their molar solubilities will
be in the order of
Q.49) Which of the following compound has 1) A3B>AB2>AB 2) A3B>AB>AB2
the most acidic hydrogen?
3) AB>AB2>A3B 4) AB2>AB>A3B
1) Hexane-2,3-dione
Q.54) Which among the following pairs of
2) Hexane-2,4-dione vitamins is stored in our body
3) Hexane-2,5-dione relativelty for longer duration?
4) 3-Hexanone 1) Thiamine and Ascorbic acid
Q.50) Cyclohexene on addition of ozone 2) Ascorbic acid and vitamin D
followed by reaction with Zn dust 3) Thiamine and vitamin A
and water gives a product (E). (E) on
further treatment with aqueous KOH 4) Vitamin A and vitamin D
at high temperature yields a Q.55) A certain element crystallises in a
compound (F). The compound (F) is bcc lattice of unit cell edge length
10°A. If the same element under the
COOH same conditions crystallises in the
1) fcc lattice. The edge length of the
COOH
fcc unit is (Assume 3  1.73 ,
2  1.41
2) CHO
1) 12.27°A 2) 12.97°A
3) 14.27°A 4) 10°A
3) CHO

4) COOH
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.56) Which of the following name is Q.59) Which of the following statement is
incorrect? correct for retardation factor (Rf)?

1) If Rf value of a component of the

mixture is high that component is
1) -6,6-Dimethylcyclohexene very difficult to separate from the
mixture

2) Rf can be measured in meter or

centimeter
2) -1,5-Dimethyl
3) Rf value of a compound remains
cyclohexene constant in all solvents

4) If Rf value of a component of the

mixture is high, which is easily
separated
3) -3,6-Dimethylcyclohexene Q.60) The mole fraction of a solute in a 5
molal aqueous solution is

1) 0.83

2) 0.75
4) 1,6-Dimethylcyclo 3) 0.083

hexene 4) 0.075

Q.57) Copper is extracted by Q.61) Which of the following statement is

hydrometallurgy from low grade ores.
It is leached out using
1) Concentrated NaOH solution
2) A dilute solution of NaCN on KCN
3) Acid or bacteria
4) None of these
Q.58) Which of the following is aromatic?
1)
correct with respect to drug-enzyme
interaction?
1) Allosteric inhibitor does not
change the shape of the active site
of enzyme
2) Competitive inhibitor binds to the
allosteric site
3) Allosteric inhibitor competes with
the enzymes active site
4) Non-competitive inhibitor binds to
the allosteric site

Q.62) Aspartame is roughly ‘x’ times as

2) sweet as cane sugar. Similarly
sucrolose is ‘y’ times as sweet as
cane sugar. The value of y-x is

1) 500 2) 450
3)
3) 50 4) 400
4) Both 1 and 3
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.63) Dielectric constant value of D2O (in
C2/Nm2) is
CH3
NH2 NH-CH3
1) 78.39 N-CH3

2) 78.89 Q.67) A: B: C:
3) 78.06

4) 78.79
CH2 NH2
Q.64) Which among the following is a
negatively charged sol?
D:
1) TiO2 sol

2) Congo red sol

Choose the correct order of basic
3) methylene blue sol nature of the above amines
1) A>B>C>D 2) D>C>B>A
4) Fe2O3 .XH2 O
3) D>A>B>C 4) C>B>D>A
Q.65) In a reaction A+B  product, rate is
tripled when the concentration of A Q.68) The number of co-ordination isomers
is tripled and the rate increased by of [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ][PtCl 4 ]is/are(excluding
a factor of 9 when the concentrations the given compound)
of both the reactants (A and B) are
tripled. The rate law for the reaction 1) 2 2) 1
can be written as 3) 3 4) 4
1) Rate=K[A]1 [B]2 Q.69) The product of the following reaction
is
2) Rate=K[A]2 [B]1
NH2
3) Rate=K[A]0 [B]2

4) Rate=K[A][B] i)HNO2 ;0 5 C

ii)dil.H2SO4 ,heat

iii)HI,heat

Q.66) Which of the following statements is NH2
correct for the complex of
K2 Fe[Fe(CN) 6 ]
I OH
1) Both Fe atoms are in the same
oxidation state 1) 2)

2) Both Fe atoms are in different

oxidation state OH I
3) The complex is high spin complex
I OH
4) The co-ordination number of iron 3) 4)
is 4

I NH2
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.70) Melamine-formaldehyde polymer is
NH2
used in the manufacture of
unbreakable crockery. Molecular NH2
formula of melamine (which is one
of the monomer in this polymer) is
CxHyNz. x,y,z are respectively
Q.73) HNO3 ,H2SO4 ,288K
  +
1) 6,6,3 NO2
(Aniline)
(x%)
2) 3,6,3

3) 3,6,6 NH2 NH2

4) 3,3,6 NO2

Q.71) KCl crystallizes in the same type of + . The

lattice as does NaCl and CsF in the NO2
CsCl type of structure. The molar (y%) (2%)
mass of CsF is 1.5 times that KCl; value of x–y is
and the unit cell edgelength ‘a’ of
KCl is twice that of CsF. The ratio of 1) In between 80 to 95
the densities of CsF to that of KCl is
2) In between 40 to 60
1) 3 3) 8
2) 1.69 4) 4

3) 6 Q.74) Which of the following reagent is not

used to convert alkyl chloride/
4) 4.51 bromide into alkyl fluorides?
1) AgF 2) Hg2F2
O O 3) CaF2 4) SbF3
CH 3 H
Q.72) xo ; y° H ; Q.75) The ratio of total number of lone
methanol pairs in XeF2 and XeF4 are
Phenol
1) 3:2 2) 9:14
O 3) 9:12 4) 14:9
H 3C CH3
z° . Q.76) Which of the following halide is inert
Methoxy methane to hydrolysis?

The order of bond angles of x, y and 1) PCl5 2) BF3

z is
3) SF6 4) SiCl4
1) x>y>z Q.77) What will be the value of x, y and z
in the following equation
2) y>x>z respectively?
3) z>y>x H2C2O4+xH2O2  yCO2+zH2 O
4) x=y=z 1) 1,2,2 2) 2,1,2
3) 1,2,1 4) 2,2,1
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.78) For the following electrochemical Q.82) NaNO3 

 A  B (gas)
(500C)
cell at 298K
CuCl2
B(gas )  HCl   C(gas )  H2O . Colour of
4 2
Pt(s)|H2(g)(1bar)|H+(aq)(IM) Maq  ,Maq  |Pt(s) . B and C are respectively
1) Reddish brown, colourless
2
Maq
x 
Ecell=0.092V when M4  10 2) Yellow, greenish yellow
 aq 
3) Colourless, greenish yellow
Given:
4) Reddish brown, greenish yellow
2.303RT Q.83) Correct order of Pauling’s
E0M4|M2  0.151V;  0.059V . The
F electronegativity is
value of x is
1) C>B>H 2) C>H>B
1) 1 2) –1
3) C>B=H 4) B>C>H
3) 2 4) –2
Q.84) Which of the following is correct
Q.79) The mass of a non-volatile and non- order for f H graphite, diamond and
electrolytic solute (molar mass 40g/
fullerence (C60 )
mol) which be dissolved in 114g of
octane to reduce its vapour pressure 1) graphite > diamond > fullerence
to 80% is
2) graphite > fullerence > diamond
1) 5g 2) 10g
3) diamond > fullerence > graphite
3) 50g 4) 100g
4) fullerence > diamond > graphite
Q.80) Maximum prescribed concentration
of Zn and Cd metal in drinking water Q.85) When BF3 is reacted with ammonia
are x ppm ad y ppm respectively. to form a compound?
x
value is BF3  NH3  F3B  NH3 
y  Lewis acid   Lewis base 
.

1) 1 2) 10 Hybridisation of boron and nitrogen

3) 100 4) 1000 in the compound respectively is
1) sp 2,sp3 2) sp3,sp2
CH3
CH2 CH3 3) sp3,sp3 4) sp2,sp2
Q.81) CH2 ?
CH2   Q.86) The correct order of dipole moment
CH2 of NH3(A), PH3(B) and NF3(C) is
1) A>C>B 2) A>B>C
The above reaction requires which
of the following reaction conditions? 3) B>A>C 4) C>A>B
1) 673K, 10-20 atm, Mo2O3 Q.87) For the reaction at 298K; 2A+B  C
2) 773K, 10-20 atm; Mo2O3 H  170kJ and S  170Jk 1 . The
reaction will be spontaneous at
3) 673K, 10-20 atm
1) 1000K 2) 1050K
4) 773K, 10-20 atm
3) 950K 4) 750K
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.88) The total number of electrons Q.92) Pick out the correct statements:-
present in orbitals of sodium atom
having (m)=0 1) Rhodophyceae are commonly
called red algae because of the
1) 6 2) 5 predominance of the red pigment, r-
phycoerythrin.
3) 8 4) 7
2) Majority of Red algae are marine.
Q.89) If density of vapour of a substance of 3) Porphyra and Laminaria are edible
molar mass 18 gm/mole at 1 atm red algae.
pressure and 500K is 0.36kg m–3 .
The value of z (compressibility factor) 4) The food is stored as floridean
for the vapour is (R=0.082L starch, gametes are non-motile.
atm mol–1k–1)
1) 1 and 2 only
50 41 2) 2 and 3 only
1) 2)
41 50
3) 1, 2 and 4 only
3) 0.9 4) 1.8 4) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.90) 1g of graphite is burnt in a bomb Q.93) Read the following statements (1–4)
calorimeter in excess of oxygen at and select the false one :-
298K and 1 atm pressure according
to the equation 1) Salvinia is a heterophyllous,
heterosporous, floating aquatic fern.
C(graphite)+O 2 (g)  CO 2 (g). During 2) Pinus is a Gymnosperm with
the reaction; temperature rises from mycorrhizal roots.
298K to 299K. If the heat capacity of
the bomb calorimeter is 20.7 kJ/K. 3) Double fertilisation is unique to
The magnitude of the enthalpy Angiosperms.
change for the above reaction at 298K
4) The male or female cones or
and 1 atm is
strobili may be borne on the same
1) 2.48×103kJ/mole tree (Cycas) or on different trees
(Pinus).
2) 2.48×102kJ/mole
Q.94) A pathogenic bacterium, which
3) 3.48×102kJ/mole causes tumours and commonly called
‘Natural genetic engineer’:-
4) 4.48×102kJ/mole 1) Thermus aquaticus
BIOLOGY 2) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
Q.91) Choose the set of Ascomycetous 3) Bacillus thuringiensis
fungi:-
4) Escherichia coli
1) Mucor, Rhizopus, Albugo Q.95) Which of the following provides the
optimal conditions for achieving the
2) Aspergillus, Claviceps, Neurospora
desired product by providing optimum
3) Agaricus, Ustilago, Puccinia growth conditions (temperature, pH,
substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen):-
4) Alternaria, Colletotrichum, 1) Bioreactor
Trichoderma
2) Micro-injection
3) Biolistics
4) Gene gun
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB
Q.96) Match the following suitably:-
Column I Column II
1) Diatomaceous earth a) Slime moulds
2) Cell wall has stiff b) Euglenoids
cellulose plates
3) Protein rich pellicle c) Dinoflagellates
4) Saprophytic protists d) Chrysophytes
1) 1  d; 2  c; 3  b; 4  a
2) 1  d; 2  c; 3  a; 4  b
3) 1  d; 2  b; 3  a; 4  c
4) 1  a; 2  b; 3  c; 4  d
Q.97) Choose the wrongly matched pair:-
1) Cycas - Coralloid roots
2) Marchantia - Gemmae
3) Sphagnum - Peat moss
4) Rhodophyceae - Carrageen & algin
Q.98) One of the following is a Chilli
variety, which is resistant to Chilly
mosaic virus, Tobacco mosaic virus
and leaf curl, developed in our
country:-
1) Pusa swarnim
14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.101) Chromosomal behaviour occuring
during different substages of
prophase I of meiosis is given below,
select which is suited to diplotene:-
1) Chromosomes start pairing
together.
2) Bivalent/tetrad, formed
3) Dissolution of the synaptonemal
complex and the tendency of
recombined homologous chromo-
somes of the bivalents to separate
from each other except at the sites
of crossovers.
4) Terminalisation of chiasmata.
Q.102) Point out the contribution of Singer
and Nicolson:-
1) First explained that cells devide
and new cells are formed from pre
existing cells.
2) Formulated the cell theory.
3) Discovered nucleus.
4) Proposed fluid mosaic model of cell
membrane.
Q.103) Select the viral diseases from the
following :
a) Mumps

2) Pusa Sadabahar b) Typhoid

3) Pusa Komal c) Small pox

4) Pusa Shubhra d) Corona

Q.99) The membrane bound vesicular e) Herpes

structures formed by the process of f) Cholera
packaging in the golgi apparatus :-
1) a, c, d and f 2) a, b and d
1) Lysosomes 2) Plastids
3) a, c, d and e 4) a, c, e and f
3) Ribosomes 4) Mitochondria
Q.104) The middle lamella is a layer which
Q.100) A vascular plant used as a holds or glues the different
biofertilizer : neighbouring cells together, mainly
of:-
1) Nostoc
1) Calcium alginate
2) Azolla
2) Calcium pectate
3) Anabaena 3) Calcium oxalate
4) All the above 4)Calcium carbonate
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.105) Match the following suitably : Q.109) Biodiversity conservation may be in
situ as well as ex situ, select an in
Column I Column II situ conservation method among the
a) Polytrichum 1) Pteridophyte following
b) Penicillium 2) Bryophyte 1) Protective maintenance of
c) Fucus 3) Fungus threatened species in zoological
parks and botanical gardens
d) Selaginella 4) Algae
2) In vitro fertilization
1) a - 1 ; b - 3 ; c - 4; d - 2
2) a - 2 ; b - 4 ; c - 3 ; d - 1 3) The endangered species are
protected in their natural habitat
3) a - 1 ; b - 2 ; c - 4 ; d - 3 (Biosphere reserves, National parks,
Wildlife sanctuaries etc.)
4) a - 2 ; b - 3 ; c - 4 ; d - 1
Q.106) Edible fleshy thalamus, fleshy 4) Cryopreservation of gametes
mesocarp and endosperm are found
respectively in:- Q.110) Bacterial and fungal enzymes
degrade detritus into simple
1) Apple, Coconut, Mango inorganic substances, this process is
2) Mango, Coconut, Apple called:-

3) Apple, Mango, Coconut 1) Fragmentation 2) Leaching

4) Coconut, Mango, Apple 3) Catabolism 4) Weathering
Q.107) Which of the following statements
are true? Q.111) Pioneer species in xerarch
succession which are able to secrete
a) In Angiosperms, most common type acids to dissolve rocks, helping in
of endosperm development is free- weathering and soil formation:-
nuclear type.
1) Lichens
b) Typical angiospermic embryosac is
7 nucleate and 8 celled. 2) Phytoplanktons
c) Water hyacinth and water lily are
pollinated by insects/wind. 3) Bryophytes

d) Pollination by wind is more 4) Ferns

common amongst biotic pollinations.
Q.112) Match the following organisms with
e) Monoecious plants prevent its chromosome number in gametes:
autogamy but not geitonogamy.
a) Onion 1) 12
1) a, c and d 2) a, b and d
b) Maize 2) 10
3) b abd e 4) a, c and e
Q.108) A naturally occuring phenomenon c) Rice 3) 8
that is responsible for heating of d) Apple 4) 17
Earth’s surface and atmosphere:-
1) Biomagnification abcd abcd
1) 2)
4321 3412
2) Green house effect
3) Slash and burn agriculture abcd abcd
3) 4)
4312 4132
4) Jhum cultivation
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.113) Red tide is caused by :- Q.116) During transcription, if the
nucleotide sequence of the DNA
1) Diatoms strand that is being coded is ATACG,
the nucleotide sequence in mRNA
2) Gonyaulax would be:-
3) Nostoc 1) TATGC 2) UATGC
4) Azospirillum 3) UAUGC 4) TCTGG
Q.114) Identify the correct order of steps Q.117) Find out the mismatching pair:-
involved in southern blot
hybridisation using radiolabelled 1) Bacteriophage (  174) - 5386
VNTR as a probe:- nucleotides
I) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR 2) Bacteriophage lamda - 48502 base
probe. pairs
II) Detection of hybridised DNA 3) Escherichia coli - 4.6 x 106 bp
fragments by autoradiography.
4) Haploid content of human DNA -
III) Isolation of DNA. 23.3 x 109 bp.
IV) Separation of DNA fragments by Q.118) The scientist who used the frequency
electrophoresis. of recombination between gene pairs
on the same chromosome as a
V) Digestion of DNA by restriction
measure of the distance between
endonucleases.
genes and ‘mapped’ their position on
VI) Transfer of separated DNA the chromosome:-
fragments to synthetic membranes.
1) Sutton and Boveri
1) III  V  IV  VI  I  II
2) Alfred Sturtevant
2) III  IV  V  I  VI  II
3) T.H. Morgan
3) II  III  IV  V  VI  I
4) Henking
4) II  I  III  IV  V  VI Q.119) A child has blood group O. If the
father has blood group A and mother
Q.115) How many decarboxylations and
has blood group B, find out the
oxidations are there in a single turn
genotypes of the parents and the
of Kreb’s cycle?
possible blood groups of the other
offsprings:-
1) 2 and 4
1) IA IA x IB IB; AB, A and B
2) 3 and 4
2) IA i x IBIB; A and B only
3) 2 and 3
3) IA i x IB i; AB, A and B
4) 3 and 3
4) IA i x IBi; AB only
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 17
Q.120) How many of the following
statements are true?
i) Inheritance is the process by which
characters are passed on from parent
to progeny.
ii) Variation is the degree by which
progeny differ from their parents.
iii) A true-breeding line is one that
having undergone continuous self
pollination.
iv) Mendel studied seven pairs of
contrasting traits in pea plant.
v) Genes which code for a pair of
contrasting traits are known as
alleles.
1) One
2) Three
3) Four
4) Five
Q.121) Find out the mis-matched pair:-
1) Calcium - Needed during formation
of mitotic spindle fibres.
2) Sulphur - Constituent of
aminoacids like cysteine and
methionine.
3) Manganese - Constituent of the
ring structure of chlorophyll
4) Chlorine - Essential for water
splitting reaction in photosynthesis.
Q.122) Which one of the following is a wrong
statement:-
1) Both Rhizobium and Frankia are
free living in soil, but as symbionts,
can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
2) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobactor are
chemoautotrophs.
3 ) Azotobacter and Beijernickia are
nitrogen fixing anaerobic bacteria,
while Rhodospirillum is aerobic.
4) The enzyme - Nitrogenase which
is capable of nitrogen reduction is
present exclusively in prokaryotes.
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.123) Which of the following is concerned
with opening and closing of stomata:-
1) Cohesion - tension - transpiration
pull model
2) Mass flow hypothesis
3) Influx and efflux of potassium ions
4) Chemiosmotic hypothesis
Q.124) Find out the pairs, which are
correctly matched with respect to
aestivation of petals:
I) Valvate - China rose
II) Twisted - Cotton
III) Imbricate - Gulmohur
IV) Vexillary - Cassia
1) I and II 2) II and IV
3) II and III 4) I and IV
Q.125) Find out the mismatched pair.
1) Marginal - Pea
2) Axile - Tomato
3) Parietal - Sunflower
4) Free central - Dianthus
Q.126) One plant is medicinal, another is
ornamental, while the third one is
fumigatory of the family solanaceae.
These are respectively:-
1) Aloe, Gloriosa and Tobacco
2) Belladona, Petunia and Tobacco
3) Aswagandha, Gloriosa and Tobacco
4) Aloe, Tulip and Aswagandha
Q.127) The gynoecium occupies the highest
position while the other parts are
situated below it in flowers of:-
1) Brinjal 2) Cucumber
3) Peach 4) Plum
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 18
Q.128) How many plants in the list given
below have alternate type of
phyllotaxy:-
Alstonia, China rose, Calotropis,
Mustard, Guava, Sunflower
1) Four 2) Three
3) Two 4) One
Q.129) Select the statements which are
true:-
i) Tap roots of Carrot and Turnip
get swollen and store food.
ii) Under ground stems of Sweet
potato, Ginger, Turmeric,
Zaminkand, Colocasia are modified
to store food in them.
iii) The leaf is attached to the stem
by the leaf base and may bear two
small leaf like structures called
stipules.
iv) In Cymose type of inflorescence,
the main axis continues to grow, the
flowers are borne laterally in an
acropetal succession.
v) The plumule and radicle are
enclosed in sheaths which are called
coleoptile and coleorhiza
respectively.
1) i, ii, iii and v only
2) i, iii, iv and v only
3) ii, iii, iv and v only
4) i, iii and v only
Q.130) Select the false statement from the
following:-
1) In roots, the protoxylem lies
towards periphery and metaxylem
lies towards the centre.
2) Phloem fibres are made up of
sclerenchymatous cells and these
are generally absent in the primary
phloem but are found in the
secondary phloem.
3) In Dicot stems, the cambium
present between primary xylem and
primary phloem is called
interfascicular cambium.
4) The tissues involved in secondary
growth are the two lateral meristems
- vascular cambium and cork
cambium.
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.131) When xylem and phloem within a
vascular bundle are arranged in an
alternate manner on different radii,
the arrangement is called:-
1) Radial
2) Conjoint
3) Concentric
4) Open
Q.132) Which of the following with respect
to early experiments concerned with
photosynthesis is wrongly matched:-
1) Jan Ingenhousz - showed that
sunlight is essential for
photosynthesis
2) Julius von Sachs - Proved that
plants produce glucose when they
grow
3) Joseph Priestly - Showed that
plants release oxygen
4) T.W. Engelmann - Demonstrated
that photosynthesis is essentially a
light dependent reaction.
Q.133) One hormone is a natural anti-
transpirant, another is used to speed
up the malting process in brewing
industry, while the third helps in
fruit ripening. These are
respectively:-
1) Abscisic acid, Auxin and Ethylene
2) Abscisic acid, Gibberellin and
Ethylene
3) Auxin, Gibberellin and Cytokinin
4) Cytokinin, Auxin and Gibberellin
Q.134) Statins used as blood cholesterol
lowering agent is produced by :
1) Aspergillus niger
2) Acetobacter aceti
3) Propionibacterium shermanii
4) Monascus purpureus
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 19
Q.135) Arrange the respiratory
intermediates given below, in the
ascending order, considering the
number of carbon atoms present in
them:-
Malic acid, Acetyl Co.A, Alphaketo
glutaric acid, Pyruvic acid, Citric
acid
1) Citric acid, Alphaketoglutaric acid,
Malic acid, Pyruvic acid, Acetyl Co.A
2) Acetyl Co.A, Pyruvic acid, Malic
acid, Alphaketoglutaric acid, Citric
acid
3) Acetyl Co.A, Pyruvic acid, Malic
acid, Citric acid, Alphaketoglutaric
acid
4) Acetyl Co.A, Pyruvic acid,
Alphaketoglutaric acid, Malic acid,
Citric acid
Q.136) How many of the following
statements are true :
i) Systematics is the branch of biology
which refers about different kinds of
organisms and their diversities, but
also the relationship among them.
ii) Genus comprises a group of
related species which has more
characters in common in comparison
to species of other genera.
iii) Lion, Leopard and Tiger are
species of the genus Panthera, while
cats are included under the genus
Felis.
iv) The taxonomic categories from
species to kingdom have been in
descending order starting with
species.
v) The category ‘class’ includes
related ‘orders’.
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.137) Select the false statement about
lichen from the following statements:
1) Lichens are symbiotic associations
i.e, mutually useful associations,
between algae and fungi.
2) The algal component is known as
phycobiont.
3) The fungal component is known
as mycobiont.
4) Lichens are very good pollution
indicators - they can grow in polluted
areas.
Q.138) Which of the following statements
are true :
i) In Brinjal, the stamens are
epipetalous
ii) In Lily, the stamens are
epiphyllous
iii) In China rose, the stamens may
united in one bundle -
monoadelphous
iv) In Pea, diadelphous condition is
present.
v) In Citrus, the stamens may united
to form more than two bundles -
polyadelphous
1) i, ii, iii, iv & v 2) i, ii, iv & v only
3) iii, iv & v only 4) i ang ii only
Q.139) Which of the following statements
is/are wrong:-
a) The monocot stem has a
collenchymatous hypodermis.
b) Sclerenchyma cells are usually
dead and without protoplasm.
c) Xylem parenchyma cells are living
and thin walled and their cell walls
are made up of lignin.
d) The companion cells are
specialised parenchymatous cells.
e) Phloem fibres are generally absent
in the primary phloem.
1) a and c are wrong
2) a and e are wrong
3) c and e are wrong
4) b and c are wrong
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.140) Match the following. Q.142) Which of the following statements
are true/false?
i) Mg a) Opening and
a)In Mango and Coconut, the fruit
closing of stomata
is known as a drupe and they develop
from monocarpellary superior ovaries
ii) Zn b) Aminoacid formation and are one seeded.

iii) K c) Needed in the b) The calyx is the outermost whorl

synthesis of auxin of the flower and the members are
called petals and corolla is composed
iv) Mo d) Constituent of the ring of sepals.
structure of chlorophyll c) The outer covering of a seed is the
seed coat. The seed coat has two
e) Nitrogen metabolism layers, the outer tegmen and the
inner testa.
1) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
d) 
K ( 5) C (5 ) A 5 G ( 2 ) is the floral
2) i - e, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
formula of the family Solanaceae.
3) i - a, ii - b, iii - e, iv - c 1) a and b are true and c and d are
false
4) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - e
2) a and c are true and b and d are
Q.141) Match the codons with their false
respective aminoacids and choose 3) b and d are true and a and c are
the correct answer: false
i) UUU a) Leucine 4) a and d are true and b and c are
false
ii) GGG b) Methionine Q.143) Assort the following sets of plants in
Column I, with the aid of information
iii) UUG c)Phenyl alanine given in Column II and choose the
correct option:
iv) CCC d) Glycine
Column I Column II
v) AUG e) Proline
1. Mustard, Datura, Chilli a. Flowers epigynous
2. Pea, Gulmohur, Bean, b. Flowers perigynous
1) i  c; ii  d; iii  a; iv  e; v  b Cassia
3. Canna c. Flowers asymmetric
2) i  c; ii  a; iii  d; iv  e; v  b 4. Plum, Rose, Peach d. Flowers zygomorphic
5. Guava, Cucumber e. Flowers actinomorphic
3) i  c; ii  d; iii  e; iv  a; v  b
1) 1- e, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a, 5 - c
4) i  b; ii  d; iii  a; iv  e; v  c
2) 1- e, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b, 5 - c
3) 1- e, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - b, 5 - a
4) 1-c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a, 5 - e
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 21
Q.144) Organisms which can tolerate and
thrive in a wide range of
temperatures are called:
1) Stenothermal
2) Eurythermal
3) Euryhaline
4) Stenohaline
Q.145) Classify the following statements
into true / false :
a) The movement of nutrient
elements through the various
components of an ecosystem is called
nutrient cycling / biogeochemical
cycles.
b) Nutrient cycles are of two types :
gaseous and sedimentary.
c) The reservoir for gaseous type
nutrient cycle (Nitrogen, carbon
cycle) exists in earth’s crust.
d) The reservoir for sedimentary cycle
(Sulphur and phosphorus cycle)
exists in the atmosphere.
e) Plants capture only 2-10 per cent
of the PAR.
1) a, b, c true / d, e false
2) a, b, c, d true / e false
3) a, b, e true / c, d false
4) a, c, d true / b, e false
Q.146) Homozygous purelines in cattle can
be obtained by
1) mating of related individuals of
same breed
2) mating of unrelated individuals of
same breed
3) mating of individuals of different
breed
4) mating of individuals of different
species
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.147) If pancreas is removed, the compound
which remains undigested is / are :
1) carbohydrates
2) fats
3) proteins
4) All of these
Q.148) In mammals, the teeth are.
I. only two sets, present throughout
life.
II. embedded in the socket of the
jaw bones.
III. different types.
These conditions are respectively
referred as
1) diphyodont, heterodont and
thecodont
2) diphyodont, thecodont and
heterodont
3) thecodont, diphyodont and
heterodont
4) thecodont, heterodont and
diphyodont
Q.149) The division of primary oocyte results
in:
1) unequal cells - a smaller haploid
secondary oocyte and a larger diploid
polar body
2) unequal cells - a larger haploid
secondary oocyte and a smaller
haploid polar body
3) unequal cells - a smaller diploid
secondary oocyte and a larger
haploid polar body
4) equal cells - a haploid secondary
oocyte and a haploid polar body
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.150)The muscular sphincter regulating Q.154) In which one of the following, the
opening of oesophagus into the genus name, its two characters and
stomach is called: its phylum are not correctly
matched, whereas the remaining
1) Pyloric sphincter
three are correct?
2) Gastro oesophageal Sphincter
3) Sphincter of Oddi
Genus Name    Two characters Phylum
4) Ileo caecal sphincter (i) Body segmented
1) Pila Mouth with Mollusca
Q.151) Which one of the following (ii)
Radula
statements about spongilla, leech, (i) Spiny skinned
2) Asterias Water vascular Echinodermata
dolphin and penguin is correct? (ii)
system    
(i) Pore bearing
1) Penguin is homeothermic while   3) Sycon
(ii) Canal system
Porifera

the remaining three are Jointed

poikilothermic
2) Leech is a fresh water form while
all others are marine
3) Spongilla has special collared cells
called choanocytes which are not
found in the remaining three
4) All are bilaterally symmetrical
Q.152) What is correct to say about the
hormonal action in humans?
1) Glucagon is secreted by   cells of
islets of Langerhans and stimulates
glycogenolysis
2) Secretion of thymosin
stimulated with ageing
3) In females, FSH first binds with
specific receptors seen on ovarian cell
membrane
(i)
appendages
4) Periplaneta Arthropoda
Chitinous
(ii)
exoskeleton
Q.155) The maximum amount of electrolytes
and water (70-80% ) from the
glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in
which part of the nephron?
1) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
2) Distal convoluted tubule
3) Proximal convoluted tubule
4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
Q.156) In which one of the following sets of
animals do all the four give birth to
is young ones?
1) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich
2) Platypus, penguin, bat, whale
3) Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi

4) FSH stimulates the secretion of 4) Kangaroo, whale, dolphin, lion

oestrogen and progesterone
Q.153) Ascaris is characterised by
1) absence of true coelom but
presence of metamerism
2) presence of neither true coelom
nor metamerism
3) presence of true coelom but
absence of metamerism
4) presence of true coelom and
metamerism
Q.157) From inside to outside the correct
order of the following cells in the
retina of eye would be:
1) Ganglion cells - Photoreceptor
cells - Bipolar cells
2) Ganglion cells - Bipolar cells -
Photoreceptor cells
3) Bipolar cells - Photoreceptor cells
- Ganglion cells
4) Photoreceptor cells - Ganglion cells
- Bipolar cells
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB
Q.158) Which type of tissue corre ctly
matches with its location?
Tissue Location
(1) Areolar tissue Tendons
(2) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
(3) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
(4) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
Q.159) A person entering an empty room
suddenly finds a snake right in front
on opening the door. Which one of
the following is likely to happen in
his neurohormonal control system?
1) Sympathetic nervous system
activated releasing epinephrine and
norepinephrine from adrenal
medulla
2) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly
across the cleft and transmit a nerve
impulse
3) Hypothalamus activates the
parasympathetic division of brain
4) Sympathetic nervous system is
activated releasing epinephrine and
norepinephrine from adrenal cortex
Q.160) Which of the following is not true of
connective tissue?
I. Connective tissues are most
abundant and widely distributed in
the body of complex animals
II. They connect and support other
tissues
III. They include such diverse tissues
as bone. cartilage, tendons, adipose
and loose connective tissues
IV. They form the internal and
external lining of many organs
V. In all connective tissues except
blood, the cells secrete fibres of
structural proteins called collagen or
elastin
1) Only IV
2) Only V
3) Only I and II
4) Only III and V
23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.161) Which two of the following changes
(1-4) usually tend to occur in the
plain dwellers when they move to
high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(i) Increase in red blood cell size
(ii) Increase in red blood cell
production
(iii) Increased breathing rate
(iv) Increase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are
1) (ii) and (iii) 2) (iii) and (iv)
3) (i) and (iv) 4) (i) and (ii)
Q.162) Match the items given Column I with
those in Column II and select the
correct option given below: 
Column I  Column II 
a. Tidal volume  i. 2500-3000 mL 
b. Inspiratory
ii. 1100-1200 mL
Reserve volume
c. Expiratory
iii. 500-550 mL
Reserve volume 
d. Residual
iv. 1000-1100 mL
volume 
1) a-iii ; b-ii ; c-i ; d-iv
2) a-iii ; b-i ; c-iv ; d-ii
3) a-i ; b-iv ; c-ii ; d-iii
4) a-iv ; b-iii ; c-ii ; d-i
Q.163) Select the correct statement from
the ones given below with respect to
Periplaneta americana.
1) Nervous system dorsally, consists
of segmentally arranged ganglia
joined by a pair of longitudinal
connectives
2) Males bear a pair of short thread
like anal styles
3) There are 16 very long Malpighian
tubules present at the junctions of
midgut and hindgut
4) Grinding of food is carried out
only by the mouth parts
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.164) Observe the following figures: Q.167) Consider the following statements:
I. Cancer causing viruses have viral
oncogenes
II. Cancerous cells are rapidly
dividing cells that exhibit contact
inhibition.
III. Metastasis is the most feared
complication of any cancer
Which of the above statements are
true?
1) I and II only
2) I and III only
Figure A and B indicate glands while
Figure C indicates specific type of 3) II and III only
tissues. Identify these figures: 4) I, II and III
Q.168) Consider the following statements:
        A       B       C
Unicellular Multicellular Compound I. Myasthenia gravis is an
1)
gland gland epithelium autoimmune disorder affecting
Unicellular Multicellular Simple neuromuscular junction
2)
gland gland    epithelium
Multicellular Unicellular Squamous
II. Muscular dystrophy is a
3) progressive degeneration of skeletal
gland    gland epithelium
Unicellular Compound muscles mostly due to genetic
4) Goblet cells disorder
gland epithelium

III. Tetany is rapid spasms in muscle

Q.165) Intercalated discs are characteristic due to high Ca++ in body fluid.
of muscles found in 
Which of the above statements are
1) heart true?
2) thigh 1) I and II only 2) I and III only
3) urinary bladder
3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
4) stomach
Q.169) The eyes of Octopus and eyes of
Q.166) Doctors use a stethoscope to hear whale show different patterns of
the sounds produced during each structure, yet they perform similar
cardiac cycle. The second sound is function. This is an example of
heard when
1) homologous organs that have
1) AV valves open up evolved due to convergent evolution
2) Ventricular walls vibrate due to 2) homologous organs that have
gushing in of blood from atria evolved due to divergent evolution
3) Semilunar valves close down after
3) analogous organs that have
the blood flows into vessels from
evolved due to convergent evolution
ventricles
4) analogous organs that have
4) AV node receives the signal from
evolved due to divergent evolution
SA node
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB
Q.170) Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only
‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the
option that correctly represents
values of X and Y and provides their
explanation.
1) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are
attached, dorsally to vertebral
column and ventrally to the sternum.
2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral column and
sternum on the two ends.
3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally
attached to vertebral column, but
are free on ventral side.
4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally
attached to vertebral column, but
are free on ventral side.
Q.171) Match the source gland with its
respective hormone and function and
select the correct option.
  Source gland     Hormone            Function
Contraction of uterine
1) Anterior pituitary Oxytocin 
muscles
Induces reabsorption
2) Anterior pituitary  Vasopressin
of water in nephron 
Proliferation of
3) Thymus      Thymosin 
T-lymphocytes 
α-cells of islets of Uptake of glucose into
4) Glucagon 
Langerhans the cell.
Q.172) The skeletal structure shown in the
given diagram shows the structure
of :
25 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.173) Statutory ban on amniocentesis in
India is necessary because:
1) It is very expensive
2) It can tell about chromosomal
aberrations
3) It is an invasive procedure and
carries high risk of abortions
4) It can be used for pre-natal sex
determination, leading to female
feticides
Q.174) Consider the following statements:
I. Innate immunity is non-specific
type of defence, that is present at
the time of birth.
II. Acquired immunity is pathogen
specific and is characterized by
memory
III. Auto-immunity occurs in higher
vertebrates due to the inability to
distinguish self from non-self
Which of the following statements
are true?
1) I and II only
2) I and III only
3) II and III only
4) I, II and III
Q.175) In the case of peppered moth (Biston
betularia) the black-coloured form
became dominant over the light-
coloured form in England during the
industrial revolution. This is an
example of
1) natural selection whereby the
darker forms were selected
2) appearance of the dark coloured
individuals due to very poor sunlight

1) Morphine 3) protective mimicry

2) Diacetyl morphine 4) inheritance of darker colour
3) Cannabinoid character acquired due to the darker
environment
4) Cocaine
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 26
Q.176) In a species, the weight of newborn
ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the
newborns with an average weight
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas
99% of the infants born with weights
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 kg to 5 kg die.
Which type of selection process is
taking place?
1) Progressive selection
2) Directional selection
3) Stabilizing selection
4) Disruptive selection
Q.177) Which one of the following
statements in regard to excretion by
the human kidneys is correct?
1) Descending limb of loop of Henle
is impermeable to water
2) Distal convoluted tubule is
incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
3) Nearly 99 per cent of the
glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by
the renal tubules
4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to electrolytes
Q.178) Seminal plasma is rich in:
1) Sucrose, calcium and certain
enzyme
2) Glucose, sodium and certain
enzymes
3) Fructose, calcium and certain
enzymes
4) Fructose, sodium and certain
enzymes
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.179) In ‘test-tube baby’ procedure:
1) Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo
development is in-vivo
2) Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo
development is in-vitro
3) Both fertilization and embryo
development are in-vitro
4) Both fertilization and embryo
development are in-vivo
Q.180) Match the following sexually
transmitted diseases (Column - I)
with their causative agent (Column
- II) and select the correct option.
Column I      Column II
A) Gonorrhoea (i) HIV
B) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
C) Genital warts (iii) Treponema
(iv) Human
D) AIDS
Papilloma Virus
    A    B    C   D
1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 Version
24-06-2021 Batch : MEDICAL 2021
Brilliant A
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - UNIT ALL UNIT
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 P + C + B - Key with Hints
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PHYSICS

1. 4

2. 4

3. 1
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

4. 4

5. 3
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

6. 3

7. 1

8. 1 Since there is no relative motion between the source and listener, so appar-
ent frequency equals original frequency
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
9. 4 Let two simple harmonic motions are

10. 3

11. 3
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

12. 4

R3
13. 1 T  2
GM

T  T
 R3  L3
   T
 GM  M 1L3T 2  M

14. 1

15. 1
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

16. 3

17. 1

18. 3

19. 2

20. 1

21. 4
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
22. 1

3
23. 2 I  102 A
300

24. 1

25. 3

26. 3

27. 3
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
28. 3

29. 3

30. 2

31. 2

32. 3

33. 3
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

34. 2

35. 3
 2,2

36. 4 V   
E  dr    25iˆ  30ˆj  dxiˆ  dyjˆ 
 0,0

 2,2
   25dx  30dy 
 0,0

 2,2
  25  x   30  y  0,0  110V 
 

 0 kA 20 A
37. 4 C 
d d

0 A
C' 
d

C
C' 
2

38. 1
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

39. 1

40. 2


 
2

x 
2


2

x
4

41. 3

42. 2

13.6
43. 3 En 
n2
n2=9
n=3
nh 3  6.6 1034
L    3.15  1034
2 2  3.14
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

44. 2

45. 4
CHEMISTRY
46. 2 Cf, Es, Fm, Md, No, Lr=6
47. 3 MP order: Mn>Cu>Au>Ag

O
O COOH O
COOC2H5
acidichydrolysis 
48. 4 
 C2H5OH

 CO2


(A)
 - keto acid

O O

49. 2 H3C C HC C CH2 CH2  2, 4-Dihexanone

2

Active methylene group

CHO aq.KOH/
50. 3 Ozonolysis 
Intra molecular
 CHO

 CHO Aldol condensation

51. 3 Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction (HVZ)

52. 4 x g   y g   z g  type equilibrium reactions:

Kp

Kp  P

Kp 1 Kp
 (0.5)2= K P ; 4  K Kp+P =4Kp
p p p

 p  3K p
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
53. 1 AB2  A 2  2B  AB  A   B A 3B  3A   B3
s1 2s1 3s 3 s3

K sp  4s13 K sp  s22 K sp  27s34

1 1
3 4
K  1 K 
 s1   sp   s2   K sp  2  s3   sp 
 4   27 

 s 3  s1  s 2 ( K sp  1)
54. 4
55. 1 For bcc

4r  3a

4r  3  10
=1.73×10=17.3°A
For FCC= 4r  2a

17.3= 2a

17.3
a   12.27A
1.41

3
4 2
56. 1 -3,3-Dimethyl cyclohexene
5 1
6

57. 3

58. 3 ( It is not aromatic)

59. 4

x solute x solute mm'

60. 3   m'  molecular mass of solvent
x solvent 1  x solute 1000

x 5  18
  0.09
1  x 1000
x=0.09–0.09x
1.09x=0.09
0.09
x  0.083
1.09
61. 4
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

62. 1 x=100 y=600; y–x=500

63. 3
64. 2 Acid dye stuffs, eosin, congo red sol are –ve sols
65. 4 A+B  product
rat=[A]x[B]y
case 1- rate w.r.t conc of A
case II: rate w.r.t both conc. of A and B
rate  [A]x rate  [A] 1[B] y
3=[3]x 9=[3]1[3]y
y
x 1 3  3 

y 1

 rate=K[A] 1[B] 1
66. 1 In the complex K2Fe[Fe(CN)6]; both the iron atoms are present in the same
oxidation state (+2)
67. 2
68. 2 [Pt(NH3) 4][PtCl4]
[Pt(NH3)3Cl][Pt(NH3)Cl3]
Totally two. excluding the given compound; remaining isomer =1

N N N N OH
NH2
dilH2SO4
69. 2 
HNO2
  
 N2

0 5 C
CH2
CH2
NH2 NN OH

OH

HI(heat )

 H2O


CH2

70. 3 Melamine: H2N N NH2 C3 H 6 N 6

C C
N N
C

NH2
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
ZM
71. 1 d  Z for CsF  1
NA a 3
Z for KCl  4

 ZM 
 
dCsF N a3 1 1
  A  CsF   1.5  2   1.5  4  2  3
3

dKCl  ZM  4 4
 3
 NA a  KCl

O O
O
72. 3 CH3 H H CH3 CH3
108.9° 111.7°
(x) 109°
(z)
(y)

73. 4 In the reaction of strongly acidic medium: aniline is protonated toform the
anilinium ion which is meta directing. That is why besides the ortho and par
derivatives; significant amount of meta derivative is also formed

NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

NO2
HNO3 ,H2SO4 ,288K
  + +

Aniline NO2
(47%) (2%)
NO2
(51%)

74. 3

F
F

F Xe Xe
75. 2 F
F
F

(Each ‘F’ atom has 3 lone pair of es )

F F
Xe
Xe
F
F F

76. 3 SF6 is inert towards hydrolysis

FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

77. 1 H 2O 2 H2O+(0)
COOH
+(O) 2CO2+H2O
COOH

COOH
+H2O2 2CO2+2H2O
COOH

78. 3 LHS: H2 2H(Aq)++2e–

RHS: M+4(aq)+2e– M+2(aq)

H2(g)+M+4(aq) M+2(aq)+2H+(aq)

(1bar)

Ecell  E0 
0.059
log
 M2  ;  M2   10 x
n  M4   M4 
0.059
0.092  0.151  log10x
2

0.059
0.059  x
2

x  2
79. 2 Ps=80% of P0
 Ps=0.8P0

P0  Ps n 1  n1  moles of solute 
  x solute   
P0 n1  n2  n2  moles of solvent 

P0  0.8P0 0.2P0 n1
   0.2
P0 P0 n1  1

 0.2n1  0.2  n1

0.2  0.8n1

1 t
n1  
4 40

 t of solute=10g
80. 4 Zn  5ppm, Cd  0.005ppm
(x) (y)

81. 2
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

82. 3 500 C   2NaNO2  O2
2NaNO3  colourless

CuCl2
 2H2O  2Cl2
O2+4HCl  greenish yellow

83. 2 Electronegativity values (Pauling’s scale)

B=2.0 H=2.1 C=2.5
84. 4  f H of graphite is taken as zero

 f H of diamond =1.90KJ/mole

 f H of fullerene (C60 )=38.1KJ/mole

F H


F B N H
85. 3 BF3  NH3 
(sp2 ) sp3 F H
SP3 SP3

86. 2

87. 2 If H  ve and S  +ve then above the equilirbium temperature, the reaction
will be spontaneous
H 170  10 3
T(equilibrium)=   1000K
S 170
 above the 1000K, reaction will be spontaneous
88. 4 For sodium electronic configuration is 1s22s22p63s1
v real
89. 1 z
v ideal

molar mass 18
v real    50
density 0.36

nRT 1  0.082  500

videal=   41
p 1

50
z 
41
FT21G/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

90. 2 H  U  n.RT  n  0  C graphite  O2g   CO2 g  

C.T.M
 H  U 
W

20.7  1  12
=  2.48  102 KJ / mole
1
BIOLOGY
91. 2 106. 3 121. 3 136. 4 151. 3 166. 3

92. 3 107. 4 122. 3 137. 4 152. 3 167. 2

93. 4 108. 2 123. 3 138. 1 153. 2 168. 1

94. 2 109. 3 124. 3 139. 1 154. 1 169. 3

95. 1 110. 3 125. 3 140. 4 155. 3 170. 1

96. 1 111. 1 126. 2 141. 1 156. 4 171. 3

97. 4 112. 2 127. 1 142. 4 157. 2 172. 3

98. 2 113. 2 128. 2 143. 3 158. 4 173. 4

99. 1 114. 1 129. 4 144. 2 159. 1 174. 4

100. 2 115. 1 130. 3 145. 3 160. 1 175. 1

101. 3 116. 3 131. 1 146. 1 161. 1 176. 3

102. 4 117. 4 132. 4 147. 4 162. 2 177. 3

103. 3 118. 2 133. 2 148. 2 163. 2 178. 3

104. 2 119. 3 134. 4 149. 2 164. 1 179. 1

105. 4 120. 4 135. 2 150. 2 165. 1 180. 1