CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2020- 2021)

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2021

CLASS : ENTHUSIAST (XII) (PHASE - III)
Test Type: Test Date : 07 - 10 - 2020 Test Pattern:
Time : 3 Hours INTERNAL TEST - 06 Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 180 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
45 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
 PRE-MEDICAL - 2021
ENTHUSIAST COURSE (PHASE - III)

INTERNAL TEST - 06 DATE : 07 - 10 - 2020

SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : Capacitors(Complete), Magnetic Effect Of Current And Magnetism
CHEMISTRY : Carboxylic Acid and Its derivative,
Amines/Nitrogen Containing Compound
BOTANY : Genetics-2 (Molecular Basis Of Inheritance) (Nucleic acid and DNA
(structure of DNA), packaging of DNA, the search for genetic
material, DNA replication, semi conservative mode of DNA
replication, mechanism of DNA replication, processing of RNA
transcript in eukaryotes, split genes and module discussion,
genetic code)
ZOOLOGY : Evolution: Theories & Evidences(Origin of Life, Palaeontological
evidence upto Geological timescale & Horse evolution, Evolution
of Vertebrates through different Geological periods Homology &
Adaptive radiation Analogous Organs., Lamarckism , Darwinism,
Mutation Theory., Neo Darwinism/ Modern Synthetic Theory ,
Natural Selection, Examples of Natural Selection)
HAVE CONTROL  HAVE PATIENCE  HAVE CONFIDENCE  100% SUCCESS
PHYSICS
The distance between the plates of a parallel plate When a dielectric slab is introduced between the
capacitor is d. A metal plate of thickness d/2 is plates of an isolated charged capacitor, it
placed between the plates. What will be its effect (1) Increases the capacitance of the capacitor
on the capacitance?
(2) Decreases the electric field between the plates
(1) Capacitance will be halved
(3) Decreases the amount of energy stored in the
(2) Capacitance will be doubled capacitor
(3) Capacitance will not change (4) All of the above
(4) Capacitance will become 1.5 times original Two parallel-plate capacitors, each of capacitance
Three capacitor of capacitance 2, 3 and 4pF are 40 µF, are connected in series. The space between
connected in parallel. What is the charge (in pC) the plates of one capacitor is filled with a dielectric
on each capacitor if the combination is connected of dielectric constant K = 3, then the equivalent
to a 100 V supply? capacitance of the combination is
(1) 200, 300, 400 (2) 300, 200, 400 (1) 30 µF (2) 120 µF
(3) 400, 300, 200 (4) 400, 200, 300 (3) 40 µF (4) 160 µF
Four identical metal plates, each with a surface area Ten capacitors are joined in parallel and charged
A (on one side) are placed at a distance d apart with a battery up to a potential V. they are then
from each other as shown in the figure. The two disconnected from battery and joined in series. Then
inner plates are connected to point B and other two the potential of this combination will be
plates to point A. Then the capacitance of the system (1) 1 V (2) 10 V
is (3) 5 V (4) 2 V
1 The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area
A
2 B of 90 cm2 each and are separated by 2 mm. The
capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 400 V
3
supply. then the energy density of the energy stored
4 (in J m3) in the capacitor is ( Take
0 A 20 A 0 =8.8×10-12 Fm-1 )
(1) (2)
d d (1) 0.113 (2) 0.117
(3) 0.152 (4) None of these
30 A 20 A
(3) (4) A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then
d 3d isolated. What is the effect of increasing the plate
We wish to obtain a capacitance of 5 µF, by using separation on charge, potential and capacitance
some capacitors, each of 2 µF. Then, the minimum respectively?
number of capacitors required is (1) Constant, decreases, decreases
(1) 3 (2) 4 (2) Increases, decreases, decreases
(3) 5 (4) Not possible (3) Constant, decreases, increases
A parallel plate capacitor is connected across a (4) Constant, increases, decreases
battery. Now, keeping the battery connected, a A photographic flash unit consists of xenon – filled
dielectric slab is inserted between the plates. In the tube. It gives a flash of average power 2000 W for
process 0.04 s. The flash is due to discharge of a fully
(1) No work is done charged capacitor of 40 µF. The voltage to which it
(2) Work is done by the battery and the stored is charged before a flash is given by the unit is
energy increases (1) 1500V (2) 2000V
(3) Work is done by the external agent and the (3) 2500 V (4) 3000 V
stored energy decreases
(4) Work is done by the battery as well as external
agent but the stored energy does not changes

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The equivalent capacitance across AB is A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a
constant current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic
8 F field Bo such that Bo is perpendicular to the plane
A
of the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop
is
8F
6F 4F
8 F
(1) ir Bo (2) 2ir Bo
(3) ir B o (4) zero
12F
A rectangular loop carrying a current I is situated
8 F
near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel
B
to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of
the loop. If steady current I is established in the
(1) 8 µF (2) 12 µF
wire as shown in the figure, the loop will :
(3) 4 µF (4) 24 µF
A capacitor of capacity 2 µF is charged to 100V. I
What is the heat generated when this capacitor is
connected in parallel to an another capacitor of same
I
capacity?
(1) 2.5 mJ (2) 5.0 mJ
(3) 10 mJ (4) 4 mJ
In the figure, if the potential at point B is taken as
zero, then the potential at point A will be (1) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(2) Move away from the wire
A
(3) Move towards the wire
12F 6F (4) Remain stationary
Two thin long parallel wire separated by a distance
2F
B ‘b’ are carrying a current ‘i’ ampere each. The
magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by
24V one wire on the other is :

(1) 8 V (2) 16 V  0i 2  0i 2
(1) (2)
(3) 24 V (4) None of these b2 2b
An uncharged parallel plate capacitor having a
0i  0i 2
dielectric of dielectric constant K is connected to a (3) (4)
similar air cored parallel plate capacitor charged to 2b 2b 2
a potential Vo. The two share the charge and the Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after
common potential V. The dielectric constant K is. being accelerated through the same potential
difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field
V0 V0 and describe circular paths of radii R1 and R2
(1) 1 (2) 1
V V respectively. The ratio of the mass of X to that of Y
V V is :
(3) V  1 (4) V  1 1
0 0
 R 2 R2
A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic (1)  1  (2) R
field. It experiences :  R2  1

(1) A force and a torque 2

 R1  R1
(2) A force but not a torque (3)   (4) R
(3) A torque but not a force  R2  2

(4) Neither a force nor a torque

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 A current I flows along the length of an infinitely Two very long straight parallel wires carry steady
long, straight, thin-walled pipe. Then : currents I and – I respectively. The distance between
(1) The magnetic field at all points inside the pipe the wires is d. At a certain instant of time, a point
is the same, but not zero charge q is at a point equidistant from the two wires
(2) The magnetic field at any point inside the pipe in the plane of the wires. Its instantaneous velocity
is zero v is perpendicular to this plane. The magnitude of
the force due to the magnetic field acting on the
(3) The magnetic field is zero only on the axis of
charge at this instant is :
the pipe
(4) The magnetic field is different at different o Iqv o Iqv
(1) (2)
points inside the pipe 2d d
A battery is connected between two points A and B
2o Iqv
on the circumference of a uniform conducting ring (3) (4) 0
of radius r and resistance R. One of the arcs AB of d
the ring subtends an angle  at the center. The value A charged particle is released from rest in a region
of the magnetic field at the center due to the current of steady and uniform electric and magnetic field
in the ring is : which are parallel to each other. The particle will
move in a :
(1) Proportional to (180° –  )
(1) Straight line (2) Circle
(2) Inversely proportional to r
(3) Helix (4) Cycloid
(3) Zero, only if (  = 180°)
An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a
(4) Zero for all values of  right angle as shown in figure. A current I flows
A proton, a deuteron and an  -particle having the through PQR. The magnetic field due to this current
same kinetic energy are moving in circular at the point M is H1. Now, another infinitely long
trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If rp, rd, straight conductor QS is connected at Q, so that
and r  denote respectively the radii of the current is I/2 in QR as well as in QS, the current in
trajectories of these particles, then : PQ remaining unchanged. The magnetic field at M
(1) r  = rp < rd (2) r  > rd > rd is now H2. The ratio H1/H2 is given by :
(3) r  = rd > rp (4) rp = rd = r 
Two particles, each of mass m and charge q, are M
attached to the two ends of a light rigid rod of length
2R. The rod is rotated at constant angular speed
about a perpendicular axis passing through its center.
The ratio of the magnitudes of the magnetic moment I 1/ 2
of the system and its angular momentum about the
center of the rod is : Q S
P

q q
(1) (2)
2m m
R
2q q
(3) (4)
m m

1
(1) (2) 1
2
2
(3) (4) 2
3

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An ionized gas contains both positive and negative
ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an electric d d

field along the + x-direction and a magnetic field

along the + z-direction, then :
x'
(1) Positive ions deflect towards +y-direction and (4)
negative ions towards-y-direction
(2) All ions deflect towards +y-direction
(3) All ions deflect towards –y-direction
A non-planar loop of conducting wire carrying a
(4) Positive ions deflect towards –y-direction and current I is placed as shown in the figure. Each of
negative ions towards –y-direction the straight sections of the loop is of length 2a. The
A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a magnetic field due to this loop at the point P (a, 0, a)
circular orbit of radius r with angular speed  . The points in the direction :
ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to
that of its angular momentum depends on : z
y
(1)  and q (2)  , q and m
(3) q and m (4)  and m
Two long parallel wire are at a distance 2d apart.
They carry steady equal currents flowing out of the x
plane of the paper as shown. The variation of the
magnetic field B along the line XX ' is given by :

1 1
(1) ( ˆj  k)
ˆ
(2) ( ˆj  kˆ  ˆi)
2 3

(1) x x' 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
(3) (i  j  k) (4) (i  k)
3 2

d
A particle carrying a charge equal to 100 times the
d
charge on an electron is rotation per second in a
circular path of radius 0.8 metre. The value of the
magnetic field produced at the centre will be ( µo=
permeability for vacuum)A particle carrying a
charge equal to 100 times the charge on an electron
(2) x x'
is rotating per second in a circular path of radius
0.8 metre. The value of the magnetic field produced
at the centre will be
d d
( µo= permeability for vacuum)

1017
(1) (2) 1017 0
0

(3) x x' (3) 106 0 (4) 107 0

d d

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A particle of mass m and charge q moves with a
constant velocity v along the positive x-direction. It
enters region containing a uniform magnetic field B
directed along the negative z-direction, extending
from x = a to x = b. The minimum value of v required
so that the particle can just enter the region x > b is:
A square loop of wire carrying current I is lying in
the plane of paper as shown in fig. The magnetic
field is present in the region as shown. The loop will
tend to rotate
R

qbB q(b  a)B

(1) (2) K L
m m 
B
qaB q(b  a)B P Q
(3) (4)
m 2m
A conducting loop carrying a current I is placed in a M N
uniform magnetic field pointing into the plane of the
paper as shown. The loop will have a tendency to : S

B
 (1) About PQ with KL coming out of the page
I (2) About PQ with KL going into the page
(3) About RS with MK coming out of the page
(4) About RS with MK going into the page
The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular
loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a
(1) Contract distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 mT. Its value
(2) Expand at the center of the loop will be
(3) Move towards + ve x-axis (1) 250 µT (2) 150 µT
(3) 125 µT (4) 75 µT
(4) Move towards –ve x-axis
The rigid conducting thin wire frame carries an
A circular loop is kept in that vertical plane which
electric current I and this frame is inside a constant
contains the north-south direction. It carries a current 
that is toward north at the topmost point let A be a magnetic field B as shown in Fig. Then,
point on the axis of the circle to the east of it and B
a point on this axis to the west of it. The magnetic Q
field due to the loop
(1) Is toward east at A and toward west at B
L

(2) Is toward west at A and toward east at B I  B  constant
(3) Is toward east at both A and B
(4) Is toward west at both A and B
P R
Two parallel wires carry currents of 20 and 40 A in
opposite directions. Another wire carrying a current (1) The net magnetic force on the frame is zero
antiparallel to 20 A is placed midway between the but the torque is not zero
two wires. The magnetic force on it will be (2) The net magnetic force on the frame and the
(1) Toward 20A torque due to magnetic field are both zero
(2) Toward 40 A (3) The net magnetic force on the frame is not
(3) Zero zero and the torque is also not zero
(4) Perpendicular to the plane of the currents (4) None of these

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A point charge is moving in clockwise direction in a A wire of fixed length is turned to form a coil of one
circle with constant speed. Consider the magnetic turn. It is again turned to form a coil of four turns.
field produced by the charge at a fixed point P (not If in both cases same amount of current is passed,
at the center of circle) on the axis of the circle. then the ratio of the intensities of magnetic field
Then, produced at the centre of a coil will be
(1) It is constant in magnitude only (1) 16 times of first case
(2) It is constant in direction only (2) 1/16 times of first case
(3) It is constant both in direction and magnitude (3) 4 times of first case
(4) It is constant neither in magnitude nor in (4) 1/4 times of first case
direction At a certain place magnetic field is vertically
A charged capacitor is discharged through a downwards. An electron approaches horizontally
resistance. The time constant of the circuit is T. towards you and enters in this magnetic fields. It's
Then the value of time constant for the power trajectory, when seen from above will be a circle
dissipated through the resistance will be which is
(1) T (2) 2T (1) Vertical clockwise
(3) T/2 (4) zero (2) Vertical anticlockwise
An uncharged capacitor of capacitance C is (3) Horizontal clockwise
charged by a battery of emf E and internal (4) Horizontal anticlockwise
resistance r. A resistance 2r is also connected in
A circular coil of radius 4 cm and 20 turns carries a
series with the capacitor. The amount of heat
current of 3 ampere. It is placed in a magnetic field
liberated inside the battery by the time capacitor is
of 0.5 T. The magnetic dipole moment of the coil is
50% charged is.
(1) 0.60 A-m2 (2) 0.45 A-m2
2 (4) 0.15 A-m2
3 2 E 2C (3) 0.3 A-m
(1) EC (2)
8 6

E 2C E 2C
(3) (4)
12 24

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 CHEMISTRY
The correct sequence of reagents required to Which of the following acids is present in vinegar?
convert R-CH2CH2OH to R-CH2CH2COOH is
(1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Acetic acid
(1) PBr3, KCN, H3O+
(3) Tartaric acid (4) Citric acid
(2) PBr3, KCN, H2
Which of the following compounds is produced
(3) KCN, H+ when a-chloroacetic acid is heated with Ag powder?
(4) HCN, PBr3, H+ (1) Acetic acid (2) Acetone
Which of the following compounds give (3) Maleic acid (4) Succinic acid
 -halogenation reaction?
Which of the following reactions is not used for the
CH 3
|
preparation of bezaldehyde?
(1) C6 H 5  C  COOH CH3
|
CH 3
(1) + CrO2Cl2 in CS2 followed
(2) C6H5-CH2COOH
(3) COOH-COOH by H3O+
CH 3CH 3
|
O
(4) CH 3  C  COOH .
|
CH 3 Cl
(2) + H2 in presence of Pd-BaSO4
Which of the following statements about primary
amines is ‘false’?
(1) Alkylamines are stronger bases than ammonia
(2) Alkylamines are stronger bases than + CO + HCl in presence of
(3)
arylamines
(3) Alkylamines react with nitrous acid to produce anhydrous AlCl3
alcohols
(4) Arylamines react with nitrous acid to produce O
phenols
Which of the following gives black precipitate on OH+ Zn/Hg and conc. HCl
(4)
reaction with CS2 followed by addition of HgCl2?
(1) (CH3)3CNH2 (2) (C2H5)2NH
Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be
(3) (CH3)3N (4) All of the above
distinguished by
The compound formed as a result of oxidation of
(1) Schiff’s reagent (2) Fehling’s test
ethylbenzene by alkaline KMnO4 is
(3) Hinsberg’s test (4) Tollen’s test
(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) Benzophenone
Which of the following amines has highest pKb value
(3) Acetophenone (4) Benzoic acid
14
in aqueous solution?
C6H5 COOH on heating with Na2CO3 releases
(1) Methanamine
(1) CO2 (2) 14CO2
(2) Ethanamine
(3) CO (4) None of these
(3) Benzeneamine
Which of the following reagents may be used to
(4) N,N-Dimethyl aniline
distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
Which of the following converts butan-2-one into
(1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Molisch reagent
propionic acid?
(3) Neutral FeCl3 (4) Aqueous NaOH
(1) NaOH + NaI/H+ (2) Fehling’s reagent
Reduction of benzenediazonium chloride with
(3) Tollen’s reagent (4) I2/NaOH/H+
Zn/HCl gives
(1) Aniline (2) Phenylhydrazine
(3) Azobenzene (4) Hydrazobenzene

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The conversion Which of the following is most volatile?
CH3COCH2CH2COOCH3  (1) CH3CH2CH2NH2
CH3CHOHCH2CH2COOCH3 can take place in (2) (CH3)3N
presence of
(3) CH3CH2NHCH3
(1) LiAlH4 and then H+
(4) CH3CH2CH3
(2) NaBH4 and then H+
Which of the following on oxidation with alkaline
(3) H2 /Pt-C KMnO4 followed by acidification with dil. HCl does
(4) None of these not give benzoic acid?
CH3NH2 + COCl2 [CH3NH-COCl] P (1) Toluene
Product P obtained in the above reaction caused (2) Ethylbenzene
Bhopal Gas Tragedy. Structure of P is (3) Isopropylbenzene
(1) CH3CH2SH (2) CH3-N=C=O (4) tert-Butylbenzene
(3) CH3CN (4) CH3NC When CH2=CH-COOH is reduced with LiAlH4,
The acidic nature of the carboxylic acids is due to the compound obtained will be
(1) High degree of ionisation of the acid (1) CH3-CH2-CHO
(2) Greater resonance stabilization of the acid (2) CH3-CH2-COOH
(3) Greater resonance stabilisation of the (3) CH2=CH-CH2OH
carboxylate ion (4) CH3-CH2-CH2OH
(4) All of the above The carboxylic functional group (-COOH) is present
Acetic acid exists in dimer form in benzene due to in
(1) Condensation reaction (1) picric acid (2) barbituric acid
(2) Hydrogen bonding (3) ascorbic acid (4) aspirin
(3) Presence of carbonyl group The carbon atom of the carbonyl group is
(4) Presence of a-hydrogen (1) sp- hybridised (2) sp2- hybridised
Acetic acid does not form acetyl chloride with (3) sp3- hybridised (4) dsp2- hybridised.
(1) PCl5 (2) PCl3 Methyl benzoate can be prepared by
(3) SOCl2 (4) Cl2 H
(1) C6H5COOH + CH3OH  
A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of conc.
H2SO4 was added. A compound with fruity smell (2) C6H5COCl + CH3OH 
Pyridine

was formed. The liquid was (3) C6H5COOH + CH2N2  

(1) HCHO (2) CH3COCH3
(4) All of the above methods
(3) CH3COOH (4) CH3OH
HCOOH and CH3COOH may be distinguished by
Sodium ethoxide reacts with ethanoyl chloride. The the reaction with
compound that is produced in the above reaction is
(1) Na metal
(1) Ethyl ethanoate (2) 2-Butanone
(2) 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(3) Ethyl chloride (4) Diethyl ether
(3) NaHCO3
The IUPAC name of CH2=CHCH2NHCH3
(4) dil. acidified KMnO4 solution
(1) Allylmethylamine
Which of the following is used for preparing phenyl
(2) 2-amino-4-pentene isocyanide?
(3) 4-aminopent-1-ene (1) Rosenmund’s reduction
(4) N-methylprop-2-en-1-amine (2) Carbylamine reaction
(3) Wurtz reaction
(4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

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Which of the following acids on heating loses a water Benzene diazonium chloride is reduced to benzene
molecule to form an ,  unsaturated acid? by
(1) CH3CHOHCOOH (1) Phosphorous acid
(2) HOCH2COOH (2) Hypophosphorous acid
(3) CH3CHOHCH2COOH (3) Hypophosphoric acid
(4) HOCH2CH2CH2COOH (4) Phosphine
During preparation of benzene diazonium salts, the (CH3)3C-NH2 is a
excess of nitrous acid, if any, is destroyed by adding (1) Primary amine (2) Secondary amine
(1) aq. KI (2) aq. NH2CONH2 (3) Tertiary amine (4) Quaternary salt
(3) aq. Na2CO3 (4) aq. NaOH The formation of salicylic acid from phenol using
The carboxylic acid of least strength among the NaOH and CO2 is known as
following is (1) Friedel - Crafts reaction
(1) p-nitrobenzoic acid (2) Kolbe’s Schmidt reaction
(2) p-methyl benzoic acid (3) Reimer - Tiemann reaction
(3) p-chlorobenzoic acid (4) Fittig reaction
(4) p-methoxy benzoic acid When sodium formate is heated at 633K, main
Salicylic acid on heating with sodalime forms product is
(1) Benzene (2) Phenol (1) Sodium oxalate (2) CO
(3) Benzyl alcohol (4) Benzoic acid (3) CO2 (4) Sodium carbonate
The compound that does not liberate CO2, on Secondary amines form yellow oily liquid with nitrous
treatment with aqueous sodium bicarbonate solution acid, which on warming with phenol and conc.
is H2SO4 give brown or red colour, which at once
changes into blue-green. This reaction is called
(1) Benzoic acid
(1) Carbylamine reaction
(2) Benzene sulphonic acid
(2) Liebermann’s nitroso reaction
(3) Salicylic acid
(3) Gabriel phthalamide reaction
(4) Carbolic acid (phenol)
(4) Hofmann’s mustard oil reaction
Which of the following acids can reduce Tollen’s
reagent? Which of the following acids has smallest value of
pKa?
(1) Lactic acid (2) Formic acid
(1) C6H5COOH (2) HCOOH
(3) Acetic acid (4) Oxalic acid
(3) CH3COOH (4) (CH3)2CHCOOH
Which of the following is not a fatty acid?
Aniline on nitration gives
(1) Stearic acid (2) Palmitic acid
(1) o-nitroaniline (2) p-nitroaniline
(3) Propionic acid (4) Phenyl acetic acid
(3) m-nitroaniline (4) All of these
Acid anhydrides on reaction with primary amines
give
(1) Amide (2) Imide
(3) Secondary amine (4) Imine

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 BOTANY
Bateriophage known as  x174 has nucleotides? Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed
to grow in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA
(1) 5386 (2) 5396 molecule of the first generation bacteria have?
(3) 5376 (4) 5336 (1) Different density and do not resemble with
DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was their parent DNA.
first identified by? (2) Different density but resemble with their
(1) Alfred Hershey
(2) Francis Jacob parent DNA.
(3) Jacques Monod (3) Same density and resemble with their parent
(4) Friedrich Meischer DNA.
Among the following which statement is wrong about (4) Same density but do not resemble with their
DNA structure? parent DNA.
(1) The backbone is constituted by The given figure represent one of the step in the
sugar-phosphate process of transcription in bacteria. Identify the step
(2) The two chains have anti parallel polarity and label A, B & C marked in the figure?
(3) Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with
thymine from opposite strand.
(4) The pitch of the helix is 3.4nm
A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1C pentose
sugar through which linkage to form a nucleoside?
(1) Phosphoester linkage
(2) N-gylcosidic linkage (1) Initiation; A – DNA, B – RNA, C – Promoter
(3) Hydrogen linkage (2) Termination; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase,
(4) Ionic linkage C – Rho factor
Who proposed the Central dogma in molecular (3) Elongation; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase,
biology? C – Sigma factor
(1) Friedrich Meischer (2) Francis Jacob (4) Elongation; A – DNA, B – DNA polymerase,
C – RNA
(3) Jacques Monod (4) Francis Crick
Which of the following statements about RNA
Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a
polymerase are correct?
structure in nucleus called?
(i) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs.
(1) Histone octamer (2) Histones
(ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs.
(3) Chromatin (4) Ribosomes
(iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA.
Which region is said to be transcriptionally active
chromatin? (iv) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNAs.
(1) Heterochromatin (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(2) Euchromatin (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iv)
(3) Non-Histone Chromosomal proteins Which bacteria is used by scientist Frederick
Griffith for transforming principle experiments?
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Clostridium botulinum
(2) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(4) Monascus purpureus

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In nucleosome histone octamer is made up of ? Read the following statements and choose the
(1) A complex consisting of eight positively incorrect statements?
charged histone proteins (two of each H2A, (i) Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar
H2B, H3 and H4) through a N-glycosidic linkage.
(2) A complex consisting of eight negatively (ii) Phosphate group is linked to 5' OH of a
charged histone proteins (two of each H2A, nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
H2B, H3 and H4)
(iii) Two nucleosides are linked through
(3) A complex consisting of nine positively
charged histone proteins (H1 and two of each 3' - 5' Nglycosidic linkage.
H2A, H2B, H3 and H4) (iv) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around
(4) A complex consisting of nine negatively positively charged histone octamer to form
charged histone proteins nucleosome.
Which genetic material more stable is preferred for (v) The chromatin that is more densely packed
storage of genetic information and stains dark is called euchromatin.
(1) RNA (2) DNA (1) (i) only (2) (iv) only
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) All of the above (3) (iii) and (v) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Transcription starts non specifically in the absence
of Match the enzymes (given in column I) with their
(1) Sigma factor function (given in column II) and choose the correct
(2) Rho factor combination from the given options?
(3) Core enzyme
Column -I Column - II
(4) DNA polymerase
Which one of the following pair is a purine pair? A. Helicase I. Joining of nucleotides

(1) Uracil, Guanine B. Gyrase II. Release tension arises

(2) Cytosine, Thymine due to supercoiling (DNA
replication)
(3) Adenine, Guanine
C.Primase III. Unwinding of DNA
(4) Adenine, Thymine
Corresponding nucleotides are linked by? D. DNA polymerase III IV. RNA primer
(1) Hydrogen bonds.
(2) Phosphodiester bonds. (1) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(3) Peptic bonds. (2) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(4) Ionic bonds. (3) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
Find out the incorrect statement? (4) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(1) Uracil is present in RNA The okazaki fragments in DNA chain?
(2) Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit (1) Result in transcription.
of structure in nucleus called chromatin (2) Polymerize in the 3' to 5' direction and forms
(3) Heterochromatin is more densely packed replication fork.
(4) The process involved in the RNA formation (3) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
on the DNA template is called replication. replication.
(4) Polymerize in the 5' to 3' direction and explain
3' to 5' DNA replication.
The process of formation of RNA from DNA is
known as?
(1) Transcription (2) Translation
(3) Replication (4) Transformation

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The final proof for DNA as the genetic material (2) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone
came from the experiments of? octamer
(1) Hershey and Chase (3) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1
histone
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(4) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone
(3) Hargobind Khorana octamer
(4) Griffith Which one of the following in not applicable to
DNA fragements are? RNA?
(1) Negatively charged (1) Chargaff’s rule
(2) Neutral (2) Complementary base pairing
(3) Either positively charged or negatively (3) 5' phosphate and 3' hydroxyl ends
charged depending on their size (4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(4) Positively charged During infection of E. coli cells by bacteriophage
During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are T2?
used to elongate? (1) P32 Proteins are the only phage components
that actually enter the infected cell.
(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork
(2) Both proteins and nucleic acids enter the cell.
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork
(3) Only proteins from the infecting phage can also
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication be detected in progeny phage.
fork
(4) Only nucleic acids enter the cell.
(4) The leading strand away towards replication The given figure represents the double stranded
fork polynucteotide chain. Some parts are labelled as A,
DNA replication in bacteria occurs? B, C, D and E. Identify the correct labelling of A,
(1) Within nucleolus B, C, D & E?
(2) Prior to fission
(3) Just before transcription
(4) During S phase
DNA present between two adjacent nucleosome
(1) DNAgyrase
(2) Linker DNA
(3) DNA ligase
(4) DNA polymerase
The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome
with their parts labelled as A, B & C. Identify A, B
(1) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine,
and C?
C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end,
E–Purine base
(2) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base,
C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end,
E–Pyrimidine
(3) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine,
C– Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end,
E–Purine base
(4) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base,
C–Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D– 5' end,
E– Pyrimidine
The equivalent of a structural gene is?
(1) Operon (2) Histone
(1) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone
octamer (3) Muton (4) Cistron

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Which of the following rRNA acts as structural The two strands of a double helix model of DNA
RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria? are held together by hydrogen bonds between?
(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5.8 S rRNA (1) Sugar and phosphate groups.
(3) 5 S rRNA (4) 18 S rRNA (2) Sugar and nitrogenous bases.
A non- proteinaceous enzyme is? (3) Phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases.
(1) Ligase (4) Nitrogenous bases.
(2) Deoxyribonuclease In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17%
(3) Lysozyme of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
percentages of the other three bases expected to
(4) Ribozyme
be present in this DNA are?
Taylor conducted the experiment to prove
(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
on? (2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(1) Drosophila melanogaster (3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(2) E.coli (4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(3) Vinca rosea Spliceosomes are not found in cells of?
(4) Vicia faba (1) Fungi (2) Animals
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses (3) Bacteria (4) Plants
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is RNA polymerase II helps in synthesis of
called the? (1) hnRNA (2) mRNA
(1) Alpha strand (2) Antistrand (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) tRNA
(3) Template strand (4) Coding strand Amino acids are coded by more than one codon
The most abundant type of RNA in the cell is? hence the code is?
(1) rRNA (2) mRNA (1) Universal (2) Degenerate
(3) t RNA (4) hn RNA (3) Mutation (4) Initiator codon
Clover leaf secondary structure of tRNA has a loop A normal DNA molecule is continuously replicate
for in N15 medium than what is the percentage of lighter
(1) Three nucleotides of a codon. DNA in 4th generation?
(2) Three nucleotides of an anticodon. (1) 12.5% (2) 25%
(3) No nucleotides. (3) 0% (4) 6.25%
(4) Both (1) and (2) In a segment of DNA 3.2kilobases are present. If
the DNA segment has 820 adenine molecules, then
rRNA is synthesised in?
what will be number of cytosine?
(1) Nucleolus (2) Golgi body
(1) 1560 (2) 1480
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Centriole
(3) 780 (4) 740

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 ZOOLOGY
Mesozoic era was dominated by Which of the following is not an example of
(1) Birds (2) Fishes homologous organ?
(3) Reptiles (4) Mammals (1) Vertebrate hearts or brains
Name the law that states 'Embryonic development (2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
of an animal repeats the embryonic stages of Cucurbita
ancestors (3) Leg of cheetah, and flipper of whale
(1) Biogenetic Law (4) Eye of octopus and of mammals
(2) Anaximander's law Mutations are considered raw materials of evolution
(3) Florkin's Law because they
(4) Law of Segregation (1) Cause death of organism
Charles Robert Darwin published his work on the (2) Contribute to new variations
evolution in his book (3) Are stable
(1) Origin of life (4) Random
(2) On the origin of species Which experiment suggest that simplest living
(3) Genetics and origin of species organism could not have originated spontaneously
(4) Natural selection from non-living matter? .
Which one is not vestigial in humans? (1) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(1) Third molar (2) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic
matter
(2) Coccyx
(3) Larvae could appear in decaying organic
(3) Segmental abdominal muscles
matter
(4) Finger nails
(4) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept
Which of the following is referred to be the first in sealed vessel
one toed horse?
The sequence in evolution of horse was
(1) Equus (2) Eohippus
(1) Equus, Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus
(3) Merychippus (4) Pliohippus
(2) Eohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Equus
Principle of natural Selection was proposed by
(3) Mesohippus, Eohippus, Merychippus, Equus
(1) Lamarck (2) De Vries
(4) Merychippus, Eohippus, Equus, Mesohippus
(3) Darwin (4) Mendel
Darwin's finches are example of
A living connecting link that provides evidence of
(1) Biogeographical evidence
organic evolution is
(2) Palaeontological evidence
(1) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds
(3) Embryological evidence
(2) Archaeopteryx between reptiles and birds
(4) Analogous organs
(3) Lung fishes between pisces and reptiles
Select the wrong pair
(4) Duck - billed Platypus between reptiles and
mammals (1) Haldane  Hot dilute soup
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as (2) Oparin  Protobionts
(1) Ontogeny (2) Phylogeny (3) Spallanzani  Abiogenesis
(3) Ancestry (4) Palaeontology (4) Sidney Walter Fox  Coacervates
Reptilian features of Archaeopteryx is What are the anatomical structures called that share
(1) U-shaped furcula (2) Beak a common ancestry?
(3) Abdominal ribs (4) Feathers (1) Analogous structures
(2) Homologous structures
(3) Evolutionary structures
(4) Vestigial structures

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Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf marsupial exhibit Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after
(1) Adaptive radiation generation but tails neither disappeared nor
shortened showing that
(2) Divergent evolution
(1) Darwin was correct
(3) Convergent evolution
(2) Tail is an essential organs
(4) Homology
Which among the given options was a flying reptile? (3) Mutation theory is wrong
(1) Tyrannosaurus (2) Pteranodon (4) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of
acquired characters
(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Stegosaurus
Peripatus is a connecting link between
Species are differentiated on the basis of
(1) Annelida and Arthropoda
(1) Interbreeding
(2) Annelida and Mollusca
(2) Reproductive isolation
(3) Amphibia and Lung fishes
(3) Species diversity
(4) Arthropoda and Mollusca
(4) None of the above
Darwin's theory states that
Possible early source of energy was
(1) Characters are acquired through inheritance
(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Species change morphologically with time
(2) CO2
(3) Nature selects organism which can adapt
(3) UV radiations and lightning
(4) Evolution is due to effect of environment
(4) Green plants
Under certain conditions, scientists have got cell-
Industrial melanism is an example of like structure but without its true organization. They
(1) Drug resistance are called
(2) Darkening of skin due to smoke from (1) Eobionts (2) Protists
industries (3) Coacervates (4) Microbes
(3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings Which is relatively most accurate method of dating
(4) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet of fossils?
radiations (1) Radiocarbon method
Stanley Miller's experiment supports (2) Potassium - Argon method
(1) Abiogenesis (3) Electron spin resonance method
(2) Biogenesis (4) Uranium - lead method
(3) Pangenesis An example of atavism is
(4) Chemical theory (1) Auricular muscles
In modern synthetic theory, the unit of evolution is (2) Tail in new born baby
(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Vermiform appendix
(3) Population (4) Individual (4) Both (1) and (2)
Two zoogeographic regions separated by mountain Which of the following pair is an example of
ranges are convergent evolution?
(1) Nearctic and Palaearctic (1) Mole and Anteater
(2) Neotropical and Ethiopian (2) Lemur and Bobcat
(3) Oriental and Australian (3) Wolf and Bobcat
(4) Palaearctic and Oriental (4) Lemur and Spotted cuscus

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 The most direct evidence of organic evolution is Whose doctrine influenced Charles Darwin to
(1) Fossils (2) Morphology formulate theory of natural selection?
(3) Embryos (4) Vestigial organs (1) Malthus (2) Haldane
Hugo de Vries' contribution is (3) Hardy Weinberg (4) Sewall Wright
(1) Theory of Natural selection Genetic drift operates only in
(2) Theory of Mutations (1) Larger populations
(3) Law of Dominance (2) Mendelian populations
(4) Law of segregation (3) Smaller populations
The homologous organs are those which show (4) Island populations
similarity in Match the columns I & II
(1) Appearance (2) Function i. Saltation a. Darwin
(3) Size (4) Origin ii. Formation of life was b. Louis Pasteur
Process of evolution is preceded by chemical
(1) Discontinuous evolution
(2) Discontinuous in the past but continuous iii. Reproductive fitness c. de Vries
presently iv. Life comes from d. Oparin & Haldane
(3) Continuous in the past but discontinuous pre-existing life
presently
(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
(4) Continuous
(2) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
The change of lighter coloured variety of Peppered
(3) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
moth to its darker variety is due to
(4) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
(1) Mutation (2) Genetic isolation
Which one of the following sequences was proposed
(3) Regeneration (4) Temporal isolation
by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution
Darwin judged the fitness of individual through
(1) Overproduction, variations, constancy of
(1) Ability to defend population size, natural selection
(2) Strategy for obtaining food (2) Variations, constancy of population size,
(3) Number of offsprings overproduction, natural selection
(4) Dominance over others (3) Overproduction, constancy of population size,
Hardy - Weinberg principle cannot operate if variations, natural selection
(1) Population is large (4) Variations, natural selection, overproduction,
constancy of population size
(2) Free interbreeding among all members
After the industrial revolution, melanic moths
(3) Frequent mutation occur in population
survived because
(4) Population does not interact with other
(1) They had black colour
population
(2) They had grey body colour
Which one is restricted to a specific area
(3) They shifted to different habitat
(1) Allopatric species (2) Sympatric species
(4) They reproduced vigorously
(3) Sibling species (4) Endemic species
Book Philosophie Zoologique' published in the year
1809 was written by :
(1) Darwin (2) Lamarck
(3) De Vries (4) Mendel

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