Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M ODEL TEST-15

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (1-4): This question has two blanks. Each blank indicates that something
has been omitted. Choose the option with the words that best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole and mark it as your answer.
1. During the last few decades scientists _________ that pollution causes the
__________ of the protective ozone layer in atmosphere which is important to
absorb harmful rays of sun.
1) estimated, immersion 2) conclude, conversion 3) discovered, depletion
4) renowned, draining 5) denied, expending
2. Remittances is the amount of money sent by migrants from their ____________
and are an important means of ____________, or generating additional incomes
for the rural family.
1) destination, supplementing 2) reach, replenish
3) country, rejuvenating
4) area, estimating 5) place, remedies
3. The prime minister wove his government ______________ and programs as
contributing towards meeting the health and economic challenges of the pandemic
and also the security ____________ at the border.
1) ideologies, scrutiny 2) policies, challenges 3) schemes, liberties
4) concerns, hustles 5) enacts, debars
4. There are large narrow trenches that ____________ as great ocean deeps to a
depth of 6,000 mts. ___________ to our expectations, most of the deepest trenches
are not located in the midst of oceans.
1) cringes, similar 2) ails, prior 3) plunge, contrary
4) cadaver, contradict 5) impels, certain
Direction (5-8): In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold.
Below the sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given as (1), (2), (3)
and (4), which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative out
of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer will
be option (5), i.e., “No correction required”.
5. Before they can start any kind of treatment, they had to write to the previous
hospital in order to obtain her records.
1) could they start any kind of 2) they could start of any kind
3) they could have start any kind
4) they could start any kind of 5) No correction required
6. Interviewing applicants for an important job can be a very time-consuming process
but it’s worth it by the end.
1) it’s worth in the end 2) it’s worthy in the end
3) it’s worth it in the end
4) it’s worthy it in the end 5) No correction required

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

7. Students were given five minutes to look through the examination paper before
they were told to started writing.
1) they are told to start writing 2) they were told to start writing
3) they were telling to start writing
4) they are telling to start writing 5) No correction required
8. If he decides to accept that job, he will regret it for the rest of his life.
1) decided to accept that job 2) deciding to accept that job
3) decides to that job accept
4) decided to accepting that job 5) No correction required
Direction (9-16): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Venus is hot. Its surface is so hot that lead melts, and space probes landing
on it must click pictures quickly and transmit them home before the works seize
up. And yet, the planet’s atmosphere bears the signature of life. A paper in ‘Nature
Astronomy’ — which is preliminary because the pandemic interrupted research
— has found phosphine in the atmosphere, one of the byproducts of anaerobic
respiration. This is not the same as saying that Venus has life, because phosphine
is produced by several natural processes, including volcanic activity, and the
volcanoes of Venus contribute a little something to the greenhouse effect which
keeps the planet hot. Besides, it is surmised that Venus once had a comparatively
mild aspect – not quite a land overflowing with milk and honey, but one on whose
surface water could have remained liquid, and supportive of life. Since the decay
time of phosphine is unknown, what has been found could be the signature of life
that is long-dead. On the other hand, it exists in such ________________that
physical processes cannot explain it, and the best bet would be airborne microbes,
flying high in the clouds rich in sulphuric acid and carbonic acid above the hot
surface. The mystery can be set to rest only by probes flying in the atmosphere,
and Nasa is being castigated for going gaga over Mars and neglecting Venus for
decades. The USSR, which diligently sent out Venera probes to compensate,
cannot do so any more for existential reasons. But interestingly, India already
has a presence on Venus. One of the prominent features of the planet is Lakshmi
Planum, a plateau of smooth lava flows, named for our goddess of wealth. But it
was named thus only because the Greek and Roman pantheons were exhausted.
Whoever said the universe was fair?
9. According to the passage, presence of which product on Venus infers existence of
life on Venus?
1) Sulphuric acid 2) phosphine 3) carbonic acid 4) liquid water 5) None of these
10. Choose the word which is closest in meaning to the word ‘signature’ used in the
passage?
1) autograph 2) endorsement 3) title 4) indication 5) distinct
11. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word ‘castigated’ used in
the passage?
1) penalized 2) mutilated 3) honoured 4) reprimand 5) chastised

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

12. Which of the following is/are a true statement/s with respect to passage?
A. Phosphine is the byproduct of anaerobic respiration only.
B. Volcanic activity on Venus keeps it very hot.
C. Physical processes explain the presence of phosphine in abundance on Venus.
D. Venus’s surface is covered with liquid water.
1) A, D 2) B, C 3) B 4) C, D 5) A, B
13. According to the passage, why is the plateau on Venus is called “Lakshmi Planum”
?
1) Because smooth lava flows on the plateau
2) Venus is rich in milk and honey
3) Venus is hot and Lakshmi is goddess of wealth
4) Greek and Roman God shrines got exhausted
5) Universe is fair and every God is given due respect
14. According to the passage, Why is NASA castigated?
1) For going gaga with Mars and neglecting Venus
2) For naming the plateau after Indian goddess of wealth
3) For interrupting research on Venus
4) For not sending probes to Venus to study its atmosphere
5) None of these
15. According to the passage what are the possible reasons for the presence of
phosphine on Venus?
A. Presence of airborne microbes flying high in the clouds rich in sulphuric acid
and carbonic acid.
B. Volcanic activity on Venus produces phosphine
C. Long ago there could have been life on Venus that might have produced
phosphine
D. Life present on Venus is producing phosphine
1) A, B 2) B, C 3) C, D 4) A, B, C 5) D
16. Which of the following words can be used to fill the blank given in the passage ?
1) depletion 2) dram 3) abundance 4) substance 5) viability
Direction (17-20): In this question, words (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given in bold. If
two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words have been given appropriately then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
17. They appealed to us to withdraw (A) the dharma and since nobody is continuing
(B) the session till the suspension (C) is revoked, there is no point in attending
(D) with the dharna.
1) A-C 2) B-D 3) B-C 4) A-D 5) All correct
18. Addressing (A) a Press conference here, Pawar, a Rajya Sabha member, also
bemoaned (B) the decision (C) of Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Venkaiah Naidu
and the Modi government’s conduct (D) of “bulldozing” the Opposition in the House.
1) A-C 2) All correct 3) C-D 4) B-C 5) A-D

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

19. The primary objective (A) of India’s present multilateralism must be to mounted
(B) its territorial integrity (C), especially at a time when China and Pakistan
have ensure (D) a massive effort to internationalize the Kashmir question.
1) A-C 2) A-D 3) A-B 4) All correct 5) B-D
20. India’s global significance (A) in mastering the future of work through technology-
productivity (B) and high- adaptive (C) human capital employing (D) the largest
global cohort of 820 million youth is huge.
1) All correct 2) B-D 3) C-D 4) A-D 5) B-C
Direction (21-25): Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful
paragraph and answer the questions.
A. Though there is no official confirmation from Mr. Mallya, ED has received
feelers from him about his longing.
B. The development comes days before the next hearing on India’s request for Mr.
Mallya’s extradition on July 31.
C. A few weeks ago, the ED moved an application before a Special Court in Mumbai
seeking issuance of notice against Mr. Mallya under the FEOO and confiscation
of assets worth 12,500 crores purportedly linked to him if he did not turn up.
D. Accordingly, the court issued a notice seeking his presence on August 27, and
it is believed that Mallya will not make his august presence before the court.
E. An agency source said that Vijay Mallya, who may be extradited by the United
Kingdom shortly and against whom the ED had invoked the FEOO, wants to come
back to India.
21. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) E
22. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) B 2) D 3) E 4) C 5) A
23. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1) E 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) C
24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) E 4) A 5) D
25. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) D 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) E
Directions (26 - 30): In the following passage, some of the words have been left
out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the
options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words
to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.
Acid attacks, especially on women, are an issue of increasing ..(26).. In
order to deal with such attacks, a three pronged ..(27).. is currently under
formulation. The first is providing ..(28).. punishment to perpetrators, not only as
proportionate punishment for their action but also to deter potential offenders.
The second approach is to prevent attacks by regulating access to acids. The third
is constructing a compensation scheme for victims.
The Indian Penal Code did not have specific provisions to criminalise and
punish acid attacks until earlier this year. If a person is convicted for throwing
acid on another, and thereby causing temporary or …(29)….. damage or deformity,
a minimum imprisonment of 10 years and a……(30)… of life imprisonment is now
provided.
26. 1) value 2) welfare 3) gossip 4) concern 5) happening
27. 1) dimension 2) solution 3) discussion 4) system 5) approach
28. 1) light 2) stringent 3) attractive 4) compulsory 5) serious
29. 1)permanent 2)separate 3)union 4)UNIQUE 5) permanancy
30. 1)suitable 2)best 3)maximum 4)order 5) most
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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction(31- 45) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
question ?
31. 240% of 165 - 80% of 275 = ?
1) 154 2) 170 3) 176 4) 156 5) 145
32. ?2  16  12  3014  58
1) 44 2) 72 3) 64 4) 56 5) 66
33. 842.1 - 338.5 = 347.3 + ?
1) 167.8 2) 156.3 3) 155.6 4) 165.4 5) 158.9
34. 4.3 x 122.5  3.5  0.07 = ?
1) 2535 2) 2285 3) 2355 4) 2150 5) 2405
35. 3.2 x 45 - 11 = 132  ? 2
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 8 5) 7
36. 8400 ÷ 375 x 15 + 15% x 620 =?
1) 429 2) 366 3) 477 4) 382 5) 297
37. 180% of 255 + 50% of 290= ?
1) 604 2) 132 3) 174 4) 167 5) 314
38. 10.5 + 1688 ÷ 80 + 1680 ÷ 30 – 6.6 = ?2
1) 16 2) 81 3) 36 4) 49 5) 9
39. 133 x 3 – 112 + 74 + 16 =?
1) 399 2) 388 3) 377 4) 333 5) 344
2 2 2
40. (29) – (19) –(14) = ?
1) 284 2) 276 3) 298 4) 254 5) 242
41. 24 x 17 – 9 = ? x 3
1) 164 2) 261 3) 133 4) 146 5) 263
3 2
42. (?) + 7 = 30 – 3
1) 152 2) 256 3) 354 4) 464 5) 554
12 21
43.   1.6  ?
5 5
1) 12 2) 5.5 3) 5 4) 6.4 5) 7
44. 1236 ÷12 x 21= ? + 1025
1) 761 2) 866 3) 944 4) 1020 5) 1138

(?) 2
45. = 729
144
1) 502 2) 784 3) 361 4) 324 5) 18
46. A boat covers a distance of 60 km in 3 hrs in downstream. If speed of stream is
5kmph, then find time taken by boat to cover 45 km in upstream and 60 km in
downstream?
1) 5.5h 2) 7.5h 3) 9h 4) 11.5 5) 12h

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

47. Average age of class of 12 students is ‘x’ years and when the age of teacher is
included, then the average becomes ‘x+2’ years. If the age of class teacher is 50
years, then what is average age of the class including teacher?
1) 22 2) 24 3) 26 4) 28 5) 30
2
48. The curved surface area of the cylinder is 220 cm and the height of the cylinder
is 2 cm less than the radius of the cylinder. What is the volume of the cylinder?
(in cm3)
1) 770 2) 549 3) 514 4) 680 5) 414
49. A rectangular field was fenced at Rs.4 per meter and ratio of breadth and length
of field is 9:4. Total cost of fencing was Rs.208. Find the area of rectangular field?
(in m2)
1) 100 2) 144 3) 64 4) 128 5) 96
50. The ratio of speed of car and bus is 3:4. They start from the same point and move
in same direction. After three hours distance between them is 27 km. Find the
time in which car will cover 189 km?
1) 5hrs 2) 6hrs 3) 8hrs 4) 9hrs 5) 7hrs
51. A certain sum of money is invested for 6 years in Scheme A which offers simple
interest at a rate of 18.5% pa. The simple interest obtained from Scheme A is
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equal to the amount obtained when 4 times the same sum of money is invested

In a different scheme B that also offers Simple interest. If the sum is invested for
4 years in Scheme B. what is the rate of interest (p.a.) offered by Scheme B ?
1) 10% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 20% 5) 18%
52. Suresh marks the price of a shirt 35% above the actual cost price and then sells
it at a discount of 20% on the marked price. What is the profit percent earned by
him ?
1) 8 2) 8.75 3) 7 4) 6.93 5) 7.24
53. A can do a piece of work in 40 days. After he had worked for 10 days, B replaced
him. If B completes the remaining work in 15 days, in how many days can B alone
finish the entire work ?
1) 20 2) 15 3) 25 4) 10 5) 30
54. A tank has 2 inlets A and B which take 24 hrs to fill the tank when they are
opened simultaneously and function together If A fills the tank twice as fast as B
fills the tank, how much time will A alone take to fill the tank independently ?
1 4
1) 36 hours 2) 36 12 hours 3) 28 hours 4) 42 hours 5) 30 hours
9
55. If the total price of 8 tables and 14 chairs is Rs.2,320, what is the total price of 20
tables and 35 chairs ?
1) Rs.5,400 2) Rs.5,200 3) Rs.5,600 4) Rs.5,800 5) Rs.6,200
Direction(56 - 60) :What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
number series ?
56. 198 102 54 30 18 ?
1) 6 2) 8 3) 14 4) 10 5) 12

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

57. 9 12 20 35 59 ?
1) 88 2) 98 3) 94 4) 80 5) 84
58. 7 9 21 67 273 ?
1) 1281 2) 1371 3) 1229 4) 1335 5) 1401
59. 14 33 71 128 ? 299
1) 188 2) 192 3) 212 4) 196 5) 204
60. 11 36 111 336 ? 3036
1) 996 2) 999 3) 1011 4) 1008 5) 1015
Direction(61-65) : Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the given questions:
Statistics of a Survey on the food item’s preference of
the conducted on a sample of 30,000 people.

Fish
Meat
5%
6% Vegetables
Fruits 30%
11%

Sprouts
13%

Salad Bread
15% 20%

61. People preferring fruits are approximately what per cent of the people preferring
vegetables ?
1) 37 2) 35 3) 46 4) 30 5) 48
62. What is the total number of people preferring vegetables and those preferring
sprouts ?
1) 11500 2) 11900 3) 12500 4) 12300 5) 12900
63. What is the respective ratio of the number of people preferring meat to the number
of people : preferring salad ?
1) 2 : 5 2) 2 : 3 3) 3 : 5 4) 3 : 4 5) 4 : 3
64. What is the difference between the total number of people preferring meat and
the total number of people preferring fish ?
1) 200 2) 300 3) 350 4) 320 5) 150
65. Out of the total sample population, how many people have given preference for
fish ?
1) 1500 2) 1400 3) 1800 4) 1700 5) 1600

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

REASONING
Direction(66-68) : Study the following information and answer the given question:
D is the brother of Y. Y is married to L. L is the father of J. J is the wife of T.
M is the sister of T. T has only two daughters K and S. P is the mother of T. P is
married to Q.
66. How is J related to D ?
1) Daughter-in-law 2) Niece 3) Sister
4) Cannot be determined 5) Daughter
67. How is Y related to T ?
1) Mother-in-law 2) Mother 3) Aunt 4) Sister 5) Sister-in-law
68. How is K related to Q ?
1) Daughter 2) Niece 3) Daughter-in-law
4) Cannot be determined 5) Graunddaughter
Direction(69-73) : Study the information carefully and answer the question:
L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular area at equal distances
between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people
are facing the centre while some face outside (i.e. in a direction opposite to the
centre).
NOTE:
Same direction means that if one person is facing the centre then the other also
faces the centre and vice versa
Opposite direction means that if one person is facing the centre then the other
faces outside and vice versa
L sits second to the right of M. M faces the centre. O and P are immediate
neighbours of L. S sits third to the right of O. O and S face opposite directions. O
and L face opposite directions. R sits second to the right of S. S sits to the
immediate right of N. Immediate neighbours of N face the same direction (i.e. if
one neighbour faces the centre the other neighbour also faces the centre and
vice versa). Immediate neighbours of S face the same direction (i.e. if one neighbour
faces the centre the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice versa). P and
N face opposite directions.
69. How many people in the given arrangement face outside ?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Five 4) Four 5) One
70. What is R’s position with respect to P ?
1) Third to the left 2) Second to the left
3) Third to the right 4) Second to the right 5) Fourth to the left
71. Who sits second to the left of S ?
1) L 2) None 3) Q 4) R 5) M
72. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group ?
1) S 2) L 3) Q 4) P 5) R
73. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Q as per the given seating arrangement
?
1) Only three people sit between Q and S
2) M is one of the immediate neighbours of Q
3) Only one person sits between L and Q
4) Only two people sit between Q and P 5) N sits third to the right of Q

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

Direction(74-78) : Study the given information carefully to answer the given

question:
D, E, F, G, X, Y and Z live on seven different floors of a building but not
necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered
one. the one above that is numbered two and so on till the top most floor is
numbered seven. Each one of them also likes a different subject namely- Hindi,
Economics, Chemistry, Botany, Accounts, Psychology and Computer (but not
necessarily in the same order).
G lives on an even numbered floor but not on the floor numbered 4. Only two
people live between G and the one who likes Accounts. D lives on an odd numbered
floor, but neither immediately above G nor immediately below G. D neither likes
Accounts nor Chemistry.
Only three people live between D and the one who likes Computer. Z lives on
one of the odd numbered floors above the one who likes Computer. The one who
likes Hindi lives immediately above the one who likes Psychology. The one who
likes Psychology does not live on the lowermost floor.
Only two people live between the one who likes Psychology and F. Only one
person lives between F and X. The one who likes Botany lives immediately below
X. E does not like Chemistry.
74. Which of the following subjects does G like ?
1) Chemistry 2) Computer 3) Botany 4) Hindi 5) Psychology
75. Which of the following combinations is TRUE with respect to the given arrangement
?
1) Computer - X 2) Chemistry - G 3) Economics - Z
4) Accounts - E 5) Hindi - F
76. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from top to bottom, the
positions of how many people will remain unchanged ?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) Four 5) None
77. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given arrangement ?
1) E likes Botany 2) None of the given options is true
3) X lives immediately below E.
4) The one who likes Computer lives immediately above Y.
5) Only four people live between Z and G.
78. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered 2 ?
1) X 2) F 3) The one who likes Computer
4) Y 5) The one who likes Hindi
79. A person starts walking from his home towards a store. He walks for 30 m towards
east. He takes a 90° right turn and walks for 15 m. He again takes a 90° right
turn, and walks for 10 m. He then walks for 25 m after taking a 90° left turn.
Turning 90° towards his right, he walks for 20 m to reach the store. How far and
in which direction is the store from his home ?
1) 40 m towards East 2) 40 m towards South
3) 40 m towards North 4) 30 m towards South 5) 30 m towards North

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

Direction(80-84) : Study the following information to answer the given question:

Eight friends B, C, D, E, H, I, J and K are seated in a straight line, facing
north, but not necessarily in the same order.
D sits fourth to the right of J. Neither D nor J sits at any of the extreme
ends of the line. C sits second to left of K. Neither K nor B is an immediate
neighbour of D. Only two people sit between C and I. B is an immediate neighbour
of H.
80. What is the position of B with respect to D ?
1) Fourth to the right 2) Second to the left
3) Third to the left 4) Second to the right 5) Third to the right
81. How many persons are seated between B and I ?
1) None 2) Three 3) One 4) Two 5) Four
82. Who amongst the following sit exactly between C and I ?
1) D, E 2) E, H 3) B, D 4) J, K 5) E, J
83. Who amongst the following represents the person seated at the extreme left end
of the line ?
1) E 2) K 3) B 4) C 5) H
84. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following is true with respect to E
?
1) None of the given options is true
2) Both H and K are immediate neighbours of E
3) B sits second to the right of E
4) Only two persons sit between E and I
5) Only three persons sit to the left of E
Direction(85-89) : Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
In a certain code language:
‘effect of economic growth’ is written as ‘uc vt fe os’
‘economic condition of country’ is written as ‘hy fe bk vt’
‘effect on country people’ is written as ‘bk li os ku’
‘profit on one condition’ is written as ‘cm ku zp hy’
(All codes are two letter codes only)
85. What will be the code for ‘growth condition’ in the given code language ?
1) hy uc 2) uc fe 3) None 4) vt zp 5) os cm
86. What is the code for ‘people’ in the given code language ?
1) either ‘ku’ or ‘cm’ 2) os 3) li
4) either ‘bk’ or ‘ku’ 5) None
87. What may be the possible code for ‘economic position of’ in the given code language
?
1) li vt fe 2) fe zp cm 3) gi cm hy 4) fe gi vt 5) bk hy os
88. In the given code language, what does the code ‘cm’ stand for ?
1) economic 2) either ‘one’ or ‘profit’ 3) effect
4) either ‘of or ‘growth’ 5) country

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

89. What is the code for ‘on’ in the given code language ?
1) None 2) ku 3) vt 4) bk 5) li
Direction(90-94) : In this question two/three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
90. Statements : Some animals are birds. No bird is an insect.
Conclusion I: No insect is an animal
Conclusion II: All birds being animals is a possibility
1) both Conclusions I and II are true 2) either Conclusion I or II is true
3) only Conclusion I is true
4) neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) only Conclusion II is true
91. Statements : Some causes are effects. Some factors are causes.
All factors are reasons.
Conclusion I: Atleast some causes are reasons
Conclusion II: No effect is a reason
1) neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) only Conclusion II is true
3) only Conclusion I is true 4) either Conclusion I or II is true
5) both Conclusions I and II are true
92. Statements : All thoughts are ideas. All beliefs are ideas.
All ideas are rumors.
Conclusion I: No thought is a belief
Conclusion II: All thoughts are rumors
1) either Conclusion I or II is true 2) only Conclusion I is true
3) only Conclusion II is true
4) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
5) both Conclusions I and II are true
93. Statements : Some glances are looks. Some looks are stares.
All stares are peeks.
Conclusion I: Atleast some peeks are looks
Conclusion II: All stares being glances is a possibility
1) only Conclusion II is true 2) both Conclusions I and II are true
3) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
4) only Conclusion I is true 5) either Conclusion I or II is true
94. Statements : Some glances are looks. Some looks are stares.
All stares are peeks.
Conclusion I: No peek is a glance
Conclusion II: All peeks are stares
1) both Conclusions I and II are true 2) only Conclusion II is true
3) only Conclusion I is true
4) neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) either Conclusion I or II is true

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-15

Direction(95-99) : In this question, relationship between different elements is

shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the
conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
95. Statements : D  U = S  T < B  I < N ; Q < T = W
Conclusion I. : Q < N II. U  I
1) only Conclusion I is true 2) both Conclusions I and II are true
3) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
4) only Conclusion II is true 5) either Conclusion I or II is true
96. Statements : B > E = L < F ; L > A
Conclusion I. : B > F II. A < B
1) neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) only Conclusion I is true
3) either Conclusion I or II is true 4) only Conclusion II is true
5) both Conclusions I and II are true
97. Statements : P < O  S = T  E < R ; Y  P ; E > Z
Conclusion I. : P  E II. R > O
1) only Conclusion II is true 2) both Conclusions I and II are true
3) only Conclusion I is true 4) either Conclusion I or II is true
5) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
98. Statements : P < O  S = T  E < R ; Y  P ; E > Z
Conclusion I. : T > Y II. Z < S
1) only Conclusion I is true 2) only Conclusion II is true
3) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
4) either Conclusion I or II is true
5) both Conclusions I and II are true
99. Statements : D  U = S  T < B  I < N ; Q < T = W
Conclusion I : D = W II. D > W
1) only Conclusion II is true 2) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
3) either Conclusion I or II is true
4) both Conclusions I and II are true 5) only Conclusion I is true
100. Point A is 45 m to the north of point B. Point C is 25 m to the west of point A. Point
D is 20 m to the south of point C. Point E is exactly midway between points D and
F in such a manner that Point D, E and F form a horizontal straight line of 50 m.
Point F is to the east of Point D. Point G is 20 m to north of point F. How far and in
which direction is point G from point A ?
1) 30 m towards North 2) 25 m towards East
3) 25 m towards West 4) 30 m towards East 5) 30 m towards West

KEY
1.3 2.1 3.2 4.3 5.4 6.3 7.2 8.5 9.2 10.4 11.3 12.3 13.4
14.1 15.4 16.3 17.2 18.3 19.5 20.5 21.3 22.3 23.5 24.4 25.1 26.4
27.5 28.2 29.1 30.3 31.3 32.3 33.2 34.4 35.3 36.1 37.1 38.5 39.3
40.1 41.3 42.5 43.3 44.5 45.4 46.2 47.2 48.1 49.2 50.5 51.2 52.1
53.1 54.1 55.4 56.5 57.3 58.2 59.5 60.3 61.1 62.5 63.1 64.2 65.1
66.2 67.1 68.5 69.4 70.1 71.5 72.3 73.2 74.5 75.1 76.3 77.1 78.4
79.2 80.4 81.2 82.4 83.4 84.1 85.1 86.3 87.4 88.2 89.2 90.5 91.3
92.3 93.2 94.4 95.1 96.4 97.5 98.5 99.3 100.2

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