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Social Science
CBSE Class 10 (Term I)
Sample
Papers
Social
Science CBSE
Class 10 (Term I)
Author
Nandini Sharma
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Contents
🗹 One Day Revision 3-13
The Qualifiers 17-36 🗹
🗹 Latest CBSE Sample Paper 37-51
146-158
159-171
Video Solutions of CBSE Sample
Papers 172-184
Chapterwise Important MCQs
CBSE Case Based MCQs
CBSE Updates
Syllabus
Social Science (Standard) CBSE Class 10 (Term I)
. Resources and D Economics
S. No.
. Water Resource . Development
Democratic Politi
India and the Con
. Power Sharing
. Rise of National
. Federalism Marks
Contemporary Ind
●
Types of Resources
●
Development of Resources
●
Resource Planning in India
● Land Resources
● Land Utilization
Sectors in India
II . Power Sharing
●
Case Studies of Belgium and Sri ● Division of sectors as organized
and unorganized
Lanka ● Why power sharing is
● Sectors in terms of ownership:
desirable Public and Private Sectors
●
Forms of Power Sharing
. Federalism
●
●
What is Federalism
List of Map Items
What make India a Federal
A. GEOGRAPHY
Country ● How is Federalism
Chapter : Resources and
practiced Development a. Major Soil Types
●
Decentralization in India
Chapter : Water Resources
Dams: a. Salal
Unit : Economics
b. Bhakra Nangal
. Development
c. Tehri
● What Development Promises -
●
A centralised administrative system and a uniform ●
In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the
law for all citizens was introduced.
N
●
Napoleon had incorporated revolutionary principle by restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. ●
introducing the Civil Code of 1804, which was In 1834, a Customs Union or Zollverein was formed
known as Napoleonic Code. by
●
This civil code removed all privileges based on birth,
A
simplified administrative divisions, removed guild number of currencies from over thirty to two. V
●
There were no nation-states in the mid-18th N
century Europe. 4
●
Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided
into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose
rulers had their autonomous territories. They did A New Conservatism After 1815
not see
themselves as sharing a collective unity or a
common culture.
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social extreme. In
E
monarchs to oppose the elected
The Romantic Imagination assembly.
and National Feeling
R
●
The Parliament also lost its support as
Romanticism was a cultural movement demands of workers and artisans were
Y DA
●
that tried to create a sense of a shared ignored and the assembly was
E
O ●
Some countries like Poland kept Women
●
Following the defeat of Napoleon in
nationalist feeling alive through music ●
Women were not given any political
1815, European governments were and language. The clergies in Poland rights so large number of women
driven by a spirit of conservatism. ● used Polish language for religious participated actively in the liberal
Conservatism stressed on the instruction. movements to demand for their rights.
importance of tradition, established
●
They formed their own political were widespread in Germany and Italy process of its unification.
associations, founded newspaper and which led to their unification. ●
Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck
took actively in political meeting and ●
Otto von Bismarck aimed to achieve along with princes of German states,
demonstrations. the unification with the help of Prussian representatives of the army, Prussian
ministers declared the new German
The Making of Germany and army and bureaucracy. Prussian victoryEmpire on 18th January, 1871. It was
●
Italy After 1848, nationalist sentiments in three wars with Austria, Denmark headed by Kaiser William I of Prussia.
and France ended and completed the
5
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Kingdom of Great Britain. By this Act, Scotland was
incorporated in England.
●
Newly formed state, Germany emphasised on ●
Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the
modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial United Kingdom of Britain in 1801.
systems. ●
The symbols of the new Britain were the British
●
Italy was divided into seven states of which only flag (Union Jack), the National Anthem (God
Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian Princely save our Nobel King) and the English language.
state. ● Giuseppe Mazzini, Count Camillo de Cavour,
Visualising the Nation
Giuseppe Garibaldi took responsibilities to unite Italy.
Due to their effort Italy was united in 1861.
●
Artists in the 18th and 19th century started
to personify nations as female figures.
●
In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king
of United Italy.
●
These female figures became known as
allegory of nations, viz in France, Marianne
●
The states of Tuscany, Modena, Parma and the Papal
was the allegory and in Germany, Germania
were joined with Sardinia.
was the allegory.
●
The final unification of Italy was achieved in 1871 and
Rome became a part of Sardinia. Nationalism and Imperialism ●
The Strange Case of Britain A large part of the Balkans was under the
controls of the Ottoman Empire.
●
There was no British nation prior to the 18th century. ●
●
Each European power i.e. Germany, Russia,
In 1688, England was established as a Nation-state.
England, Austro-Hungary wanted to extend
English Parliament seized power from Monarchy.
their control over the Balkans. This led to
●
The Act of Union (1707) between England and series of war and finally the First World War.
Scotland resulted in the formation of the United
I
in India is divided into three stages, e.g. the other than current fallow lands are of
S identification and inventory of resources, poor quality and their cost of cultivation
I
planning for resource development, is very high. The pattern of net sown
V matching the resource development area varies greatly from one state to
E plans with overall national development another.
R
plans. —
Forest area in India is far lower than
Y DA
●
India has made concerted efforts for the desired 33% of geographical area.
achieving the goals of resources —
Waste land includes rocky, arid and
E
planning right from the First Five Year desert areas and land put to other
Plan launched after Independence. non-agricultural uses
N
●
Rich natural resources of colonies industry, etc.
—
Reserves are subset of stock which
can used by technical know-how, but were the main attractions for foreign Land Degradation and
their use has not been started, e.g. river invaders. Conservation Measures
water. ●
Technological development of the ●
It is a common problem associated
with land resources which is accelerated cause erosion of top soil. ●
Measures to reduce land degradation
today because of human activities like ● Mineral processing is also responsible are afforestation, controlled grazing,
deforestation, overgrazing and mining. for land degradation. stabilisation of sand dunes etc.
●
Natural factors like water and wind
7
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
●
Laterite soil develops in tropical and sub-tropical
Soil as a Resource climate with alternative wet and dry season.
●
Soil is a living system and supports different types ●
It is found mostly in Western Ghats region of
of living organisms.
●
It is the most important renewable natural
resource. Classification of Soils
On the basis of factors responsible for soil
formation, colour, thickness, texture, age, chemical Maharashtra, Odisha, some parts of West
and physical properties, the soils of India are Bengal and North-East regions.
classified as follows Arid Soils
Alluvial Soils ●
Arid
●
It has been deposited by three important Soil is
Himalayan river systems i.e. the Indus, the found
Ganges and the Brahmaputra. in dry
●
Rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are areas
ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat, . In
etc. some
Black Soils areas
,
●
Black soil is also known as black cotton soil
comm
or regur soil.
on
●
It is found in the Deccan trap (Basalt) region and salt is
is made up of lava flows. obtain
●
It is well-known for their capacity in hold moisture. ● ed in
Rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and this
lime. soil
Red and Yellow Soils due
to
●
It is red in colour due to diffusion of iron
evapo
particles into crystalline and metamorphic
ration
rocks in low rainfall areas of the Deccan
plateau (Eastern and Southern parts). of
water.
●
It is found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, ●
It
Southern parts of Middle Ganga Plain and
can
along the piedmont zone of the Western
Ghats. be
useful
for
● cultiv
Agriculture ation
Agriculture is a primary activity in which only
almost two-third of India’s population is with
engaged. suitab
le
Types of Farming irrigati
●
There are various types of farming in India such as on
primitive subsistence farming, intensive meth
subsistence farming, commercial farming, ods
plantations etc. as in
●
Primitive subsistence farming is carried out by the case
small farmers with the help of primitive tools. ● of
Intensive subsistence farming is practised in areas West
where there is high population pressure on land. ● ern
The agricultural practice on large scale by using Rajas
modern technology to earn good income from than.
agriculture is called Commercial Farming. ●
Forest Soils
Commercial farming is done by using High Yielding
Variety (HYV) seeds, good irrigation facilities,
chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, etc.
Laterite Soils
the two process.
●
The balance is disturbed due to natural and
human causes.
●
Erosion through wind, glacier and water are
natural causes.
●
Human has contributed more towards soil erosion
due to deforestation, faulty methods of agriculture,
overgrazing, construction and mining, etc.
●
Contour ploughing, terrace farming, strip
cropping, shelter belts can prevent soil
erosion.
●
Forest soil is found in hilly and mountainous areas
where sufficient rain forests are available.
Cropping Pattern
●
It is found in lower parts of valleys particularly on
the river terraces. India has three cropping seasons such as Rabi,
●
Major Crops
A
●
Food crops include grains and leguminous crops like Y
●
Rice is the major staple food crop of a majority of the E
cereal crop. I
has a diverse population of about 2 crore people developed the concept of community government apart N
●
Power is shared among different organs of
●
Sri Lankan Tamils Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are government, among governments at different
called Sri Lankan Tamils who constitute 13% of levels, among different
the population and are concentrated in the North A
population. I
I
●
The Sinhala community of Sri Lanka dominated O
●
There are two levels of government in affairs, banking, communications and
a federation and both enjoy independent currency.
power of each other. ● Different tiers of
—
State List contains subjects of state
government govern the same citizens, and local importance. Like police, trade,
but each tier has its own jurisdiction in commerce,
specific matters of legislation, taxation agriculture and irrigation.
and administration.
—
Concurrent List has subject of
common interest to both the Union and
●
The fundamental provisions of the
the State Government. Like education,
constitution cannot be changed by one
forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption
level of government.
and succession.
●
The jurisdictions of the respective ●
The subjects which do not include in
levels of government are specified in the
any three lists and subjects like
constitution. Thus, the existence and
computer software that came up after
authority of each level or tier of
the Constitution was made are known
government is constitutionally
as Residuary subject. Only Union
guaranteed.
Government can make laws on the
●
Judiciary prevents conflic t between residuary subjects.
centre and regional government in the
exercise of their powers. ● Sources of
Power Sharing Between
Union and State Governments
revenue for each level of government
are clearly specified to ensure its
●
Our Constitution determines the extent
financial autonomy. The federal system the sharing of power between Union
● of
has dual objectives, i.e., to safeguard and State Government and it is the
basic structures of the Constitution.
and promote unity of the country and
also to accommodates regional
●
Any change to it has to be first passed
diversity. by both the Houses of Parliament with
at least two thirds majority. Then it has
Types of Federations to be ratified by the legislatures of at
●
Federations are of two types: coming least half of the total states.
together federations and holding ●
The judiciary plays an important role
together federations. USA,●
in overseeing the implementation of
Switzerland and Australia has formed a constitutional provision and procedures.
federation of ‘coming together’ type ●
In case of any dispute about the
while India, Spain and Belgium by division of powers, the High Courts and
‘holding together’ type. the Supreme Court make a decision.
●
In coming together federations, all the
constituent states usually have equal How is Federalism Practised?
power and are strong vis-a-vis the Our Constitution did not give the status
federal government. of national language to any language,
N
●
In holding together federations, the though Hindi and English were identified
Central Government tends to be more as the official language.
powerful vis-a-vis the states.
O
I
Linguistic States
S
What Makes India a Federal ● The creation of linguistic states was the
Country? India is a federal country. first and a major test for democratic
I
V
politics in our country. Some states
●
The Constitution declared India as a
E
were created not on the basis of
union of states. The Indian Union is
R
language but to recognise differences
based on the principles of federalism.
based on culture, ethnicity or
Two-Tier System of Government geography.
Y DA
N
two-tier system of government : the
Union and the State Governments.
●
Language Policy was the second test
O
for the Indian federation to any
●
Federalism is a system of government Three-Tier System of language.
in which the power is divided between a Government
central authority and various constituent ● Later a third-tier of federalism in the
●
The Indian Constitution did not give the
units of the country. status of national languages to any
form of Panchayats and Municipalities language.
●
A federal system is distinct from a was added. — The Constitution clearly ● Hindi was identified as the official
unitary system. Unitary system has provided a three-fold distribution of
either one level of government or sub language and besides it there are 22
legislative powers between the Union scheduled languages in the Indian
units which are subordinates to the
Government and the State Government. Constitution.
Central Government.
It contains three lists.
Key Features of Federations Centre-State Relations
importance. Like defence, foreign
●
Restructuring the Centre-State Relations is one more way in which practice.
federalism has been strengthened in
11
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Each village or group of villages has a Gram
●
UNIT 4 : ECONOMICS
●
Development
●
The individuals have different goals and their motive of
Meaning of Development
national development is also likely to different. Their goals
●
Development refers to the all round can also be conflicting.
development of a country such as freedom, participative
involvement, economic equality, security, life with dignity and Comparison of Countries or States
good standard of living. Countries are compared on the basis of income earned.
●
Development involves desires or aspirations about what Comparison Through National Income
would we like to do or how would like to live.
Different People and Different Goals ● Different
persons can have different
developmental goals which may not be similar or may even
be conflicting.
●
Development for one may not be development for another.
It may be destructive to other.
Income and Other Goals
●
Income is considered as the most important component of
development as it can be material goods and services. ●
Simple method for comparing development of different
●
Earning high income is a goal for development. But it is not nations is total income or national income.
the only goal. Apart from income, people also consider other ● However it does not provide clear idea about the
goals for
development like equal treatment, freedom, security and
respect of others. Thus, for development they look at a mix
of goals.
National Development
●
It refers to the ability of a nation to improve standard of
living of its citizens.
S
●
World Bank classifies countries on the basis of per capita
E
D
income.
N
●
Average or per capita income is obtained by dividing the A
different countries.
R
●
World Bank Publishes World Development Report (WDR)
E
capita income.
12
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Other Criteria produced in one is used in the other
sectors also.
●
Human Development Index (HDI) is ● Human Development Report (HDR)
considered as the best criteria to compares countries based on three
compare the level of development in criterias, viz, Living Standard (per capita
different countries.
income), Health Status (life expectancy)
●
Various aspects of developments are and Educational levels of people
per capita income, infant mortality rate, (Literary rate and years of schooling).
literacy rate, net attendance ratio of
students in schools. Sustainability of Development
●
Overuse and excessive exploitation of
Public Facilities natural resources for development has
●
States where adequate public facilities created the degradation of environment
are provided have more progress. and forced us to think about sustainable
Public facilities include good basic development. This means careful use of
health and educational facilities, good resources so that they are available for
Public Distribution System (PDS). the future generation also.
●
Body Mass Index (BMI) is an
●
Some region of Punjab, Western Uttar
Pradesh, Central and South India
international standard used to determine
overuse ground water which will create
whether an adult person is
problem in future.
undernourished or not. ●
Scientists, economists, philosophers
and social scientists are working
●
Sectors of Indian together to find ways of sustainable
development.
Economy
Sectors of Economic Activites
●
The activities which are undertaken
with the objective to earn money are
called Economic activities. ●
Goods and services are of two types
●
On the basis of nature of activity, —
Final goods and services mean those
primary, secondary and tertiary are goods and services that are directly
sectors of economic activities. consumed by the
consumers and are not meant for further
Primary Sector
production and processing.
●
Primary sector includes activities which — Intermediate goods and services mean
are associated with the extraction and
those goods and services that are used
production by directly using natural
for further production on processing.
resources. ●
GDP is the sum of the value of final
●
This includes agriculture, forestry,
goods and services produced by these
fishing, mining and extraction of oil and
three sectors during a particular year.
gas. It is also called agricultural and
related sector. Historical Change in Sectors
Secondary Sector In the initial stages of development,
Primary sector becomes important for a
●
Secondary sector includes activities
country, later it is replaced by
which are associated with processing
Secondary and finally by Tertiary.
and manufacturing. Whereas tertiary
activities provide services. Primary, Secondary
For example, Yarn and cloth weaving and Tertiary Sector in India
N
●
I
from cotton fibre, sugar or gur from During last 40 years, Tertiary sector in
sugarcane, etc.
S
India emerged as an important sector as
I
●
The development in secondary sector its contribution in GDP has increased to
V
becomes associated with different kinds many folds.
of industries, thus it is called industrial
E
—
Rich countries except middle East increased like hospitals, educational
countries are called developed and so on. institutions, postal services, banks etc.
countries.
Comparing the Three Sectors — Greater development in Primary and
—
India is in category of low middle Secondary sectors has induced demand
●
These primary, secondary and tertiary
for service sector growth like transport,
income country. Income and activities are interdependent on each
trade, storage etc.
other, as the goods and services
13
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
such as proper wages, healthy working conditions,
etc.
Due to globalisation, certain new services have
—
Protection of Workers
entered Indian market like information
in Unorganised Sector
technology and communication technology.
●
There are many groups of vulnerable people
●
However, not all of the service sector is growing
who need protection in the unorganised sector.
equally. Services that employ highly skilled
and educated people are growing.
●
In rural areas farmers can be supported
through adequate facilities for timely delivery
Employment of People in Different Sectors ● of seeds,
The data of 40 years i.e. 1977-78 to 2017-18 show’s agricultural inputs, credit, storage etc.
that still the primary sector is the largest employer as ●
In urban areas the small scale industries can be
compared secondary and tertiary sectors.
protected by governments support for procuring
●
The share of employment for primary sector, raw materials and marketing of output.
secondary sector and tertiary sector is 44%, ●
Protection and support to farmers and workers
25% and31% respectively.
are necessary for economic and social
●
Underemployment or disguised unemployment is development.
largely prevalent in India, particularly in
agriculture. Sectors in Terms of Ownership
In terms of ownership, there are public and
Creating More Employment private sectors.
●
Some important steps can be taken to reduce
unemployment. These are providing bank loans to Public Sector
the agriculturists, creating employment by ●
Public sector enterprises are owned by
constructing dams, roads and canals. government. ● The public sector has welfare
●
Setting up small scale industries (rice, mill, dal mill, motive so it provides essential goods and
honey collection centres, food processing services at cheap prices to the poor people.
industries, cold storage etc.), improvement in Private Sector
education, health and tourism sector. ●
Private sector enterprises are owned by individual
●
To solve this problem, employment generation has and groups of individuals.
always been a major goal of government.
MGNREGA 2005 was one of the major steps taken
●
The private sector has profit motive.
in this regard.
Division of Sectors as
Organised and Unorganised
On the basis of the working conditions or how people
are employed, sectors of economy are divided into
organised and unorganised sectors.
Organised Sector O
●
It covers those enterprises or places of work N
Unorganised Sector R
not follow
government rules and regulations.
I
●
A large fraction of India’s working population is I
17
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
THE
QUALIFIERS
Chapterwise Set of MCQs to Check Preparation
Level of Each Chapter
3. Who led the famous expedition of the ‘Thousand to the South Italy’?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Count Camillo Cavour
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Kaiser William I
4. In which year entire Central Italian states were united with Piedmont?
(a) March 1859 (b) March 1860 (c) March 1861 (d) March 1862
5. Following image is the Frankfurt Parliament in the Church of St Paul. When this
Parliament convened in the church of St. Paul, who were admitted only as observers to
stand in the visitors gallery?
18
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
9. Identify the country with the help of the given clues whose incorporation was based on
following points.
• Country divided into Catholics and Protestants.
• A new nation was established through the propagation of a dominant English
culture.
• The symbol were the ‘Union Jack’, the National Anthem (God save our Noble King)
S
and the English language.
R
E
• Older nation survived as subordinate partners in this Union.
I
F
(a) Incorporation of Ireland.
I
L
(b) Incorporation of Scotland in United Kingdom.
A
(c) Incorporation of Germany.
U
Q
(d) Incorporation of Italy.
E
19
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
12. Read the following statements correctly and choose the correct statement. I. The Treaty of
Constantinople of 1832, recognised Greece as an Independent nation. II. Italy was
divided into 8 states in the middle of the 19th century.
III. The symbol of the new Britain were the British Flag ‘Union Jack’, the National
Anthem ‘God Saves our Noble King’ and the English language.
IV. Kaiser William I was declared the king of United Italy in 1808.
Options
(a) II and III (b) I and III (c) III and IV (d) I and II
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option. Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
13. Assertion (A) The Chancellor of Prussia and main architect for the unification of
Germany who believed in the policy of ‘Blood and Iron’ was Otto von Bismarck.
Reason (R) The ruler of Prussia during the unification of Germany was Kaiser William
I.
14. Assertion (A) After Russian occupation in Poland, Polish language was forced out of
schools and Russian language was imposed in place of it.
Reason (R) The Clergies in Poland used Polish language for religious instruction and
used it as a weapon against the Russian dominance. T
15. Assertion (A) The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a E
Reason (R) Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire. U
Answers L
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d) I
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) R
20
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
3. In which year, the Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time, at
the International level?
(a) 1968 (b) 1974
(c) 1987 (d) 1992
5. Read the following pairs carefully and choose the correct one.
List-II
List-I (Resource)
(Example)
(a) Fossil Fuels International Resource (b) Wildlife
Potential Resource
(c) Solar Energy Renewable Resource (d) Water
Developed Resource
R
II. Mineral processing.
E
L
IV. Industrial effluents
A
Options
U
Q
(a) Water Degradation (b) Soil Degradation
E
(c) Air Degradation (d) Land Degradation
H
21
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
8. Identify the action plan with regard to Sustainable Development with the help of clues
given below.
• It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992.
• It was held at United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(UNCED).
• It aims at achieving global, sustainable development.
• It was an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global
co-operation and common interests.
Options
(a) Earth Summit
(b) Agenda 21
(c) Five Year Plan
(d) Our Common Future
Codes
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
11. Read the following statement and choose the correct option.
I. The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as T
‘Soil erosion’. H
II. The land becomes unfit for cultivation is known as ‘Sheet erosion’. E
IV. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as ‘wind erosion’. A
Options L
S
22
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
12. Look at the map carefully and answer the following questions.
R
Answers
E
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) I
I
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a)
L
23
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Agriculture
1. In which of the following countries the ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Roca’? (a)
Brazil (b) Vietnam
(c) Venezuela (d) Mexico
2. In which of the following states, Green Revolution was most successful for growing
Rabi crops?
(a) Punjab and Tamil Nadu
(b) Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana and Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra
3. Which crop provides the raw material for Jaggery and Molasses?
(a) Wheat (b) Ragi (c) Sugarcane (d) Oil seeds 4. What is Humus?
List I List II U
24
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Codes
ABCDABCD
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 3 4 1
9. Identify the crop with the help of the clues given below.
• They needs less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.
• Being leguminous crops, all these crops helps in restoring soil fertility.
• They are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.
• Major producing states of these crops in India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh,
Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Options
(a) Pulses (b) Sugarcane
(c) Oil seed (d) Tea
10. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
I. India’s food security policy has a primary objectives to ensure availability of
foodgrains to the common people at very high price.
II. It has enabled the poor to have access to food.
III. Food Corporation of India (FCI) is responsible for procuring and stocking food
grains. IV. Public administration system is responsible for distribution.
Options
(a) Only I is correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) II and IV are correct
(d) Only I is incorrect
11. Read the following statements and choose the correct options.
I. India’s varied climate and geography can be used to grow a wide range of high
value crops.
II. Due to growing population of India, farm sizes are getting smaller.
III. The Government must not pursue a policy to make Indian farmers shift their S
R
cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crop.
E
I
Options
F
I
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II
L
A
(c) Only III (d) Both II and III
U
25
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
12. Identify the state shown shaded as A in the which is the major producer of jute.
13. Assertion (A) Stagnation in agriculture will not lead to a decline in other spheres of the
economy having wider implications for society.
Reason (R) All three economic sectors are dependent on each other.
14. Assertion (A) The Government of India made concerted efforts to modernise agriculture.
Reason (R) Indian farmers are facing stagnation in production due to inferior
technology.
15. Assertion (A) Subsidy on fertilizers is decreased leading to increase in the cost of
production.
Reason (R) Subsidy is the discount on agricultural products.
T
Answers E
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d) Q
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c)
U
L
]
26
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
UNIT 3 : DEMOCRATIC POLITICS-II
Power Sharing
1. What was the major objective of LTTE in Sri Lanka?
(a) Establish autonomy for Buddhist people.
(b) Attain Independence for Christians.
(c) End Sinhala rule.
(d) Demand separate homeland for Tamils.
Directions (Q. Nos. 5-7) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as R
E
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
I
I
Codes
L
A
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
U
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Q
(c) A is true, but R is false.
E
(d) A is false, but R is true.
H
T
27
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
5. Assertion (A) In India, power is shared among different levels of the government.
Reason (R) This gives minority communities a fair share in power.
6. Assertion (A) The minority French Speaking community was relatively rich and
powerful. Reason (R) The social disparity led to tensions between Dutch and French
Speaking communities during the 1950’s and 1960’s.
7. Assertion (A) Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
Reason (R) People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed. 8. What
does the given picture represent? Choose the correct option from the following:
9. What kinds of similarities are evident between Sri Lanka and Belgium?
(a) Both are non-democratic countries.
(b) Both are democratic countries.
(c) Both favoured majoritarianism.
(d) Both countries tried to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
10. Imposing the will of majority community over others may look live an attractive option in
the short run, but in the long run, it underestimates the
(a) Economic interest of people (b) Political interest of the nation
(c) Unity of the nation (d) Social interest of people
11. What could have happened if the situation of Sri Lanka would have been adopted in
Belgium?
(a) It may lead to a messy partition of Belgium.
(b) Dutch community could take advantage of its numeric majority.
(c) Dutch community could force its will on the French and German-speaking people. T
I
(d) All of the above E
List-I List-II
A. Separation of powers 1. Power shared among governments at
different levels.
political parties.
B. Community Government
3. Power shared by different
C. Coalition Government
social groups.
2. Power shared by two or more
D. Federal Government 4. Power shared among different
organs of the government.
Codes
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
14. Choose the correctly matched pair from the given options.
(a) Community Government- India (b) Unitary Government- Sri Lanka (c)
Majoritarian Measures- Belgium (d) Federal Government- Sri Lanka
Codes
ABCDABCD
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a)
E
H
29
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Federalism
1. Which of the following Union Territories enjoy the powers of a state?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Lakshadweep
(c) Delhi (d) Daman and Diu
2. Choose the correct statement/s regarding Federalism from the given options. (i)
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(ii) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified.
(iii) The fundamental provision of the Constitution can be unilaterally changed.
(iv) India is an example of coming together federation.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
3. Choose the correct statement/s with respect to residuary subjects from the given
options.
(i) Only state government has the power to legislate on these subjects.
(ii) Only Union government has the power to legislate on these subjects.
(iii) These subjects came up after the Constitution came into effect.
(iv) It includes subjects of national importance.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
Reason (R) Only the Union Government makes laws related to marriage. H
6. Assertion (A) Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the government. Q
Reason (R) The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid U
S
30 CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social
Science
List-I List-II
A. Rise of regional political parties 1. 1992
B. Boundaries of India were reorganised 2. 1990
C. Third-tier of government was introduced 3. 1947
Codes
ABCABC
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1
8. Following image shows that the states are pleading for more powers. What kind of
powers can the states be seen demanding here?
9. Identify the merit/s of local government in India from the given options:
(a) Elections are held regularly, but Gram Sabhas are not held regularly.
(b) It has given more powers to the local government as compared to state government.
(c) It has deepened democracy in our country.
(d) They lack adequate resources and powers.
10. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) It is very difficult to make changes in the basic structure of the Indian
constitution.
Reason (R) Both the Houses have power to amend the constitution independently.
Codes
S
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
R
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
E
(c) A is true, but R is false.
I
F
(d) A is false, but R is true.
I
Q
E
31
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Codes
ABCDABCD
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
12. Which of the following Indian states enjoys special powers under certain provisions of
Article 371 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) All of these
13. In 1947, the boundaries of several old states of India were changed in order to create
new states. This was done ...............
(a) to ensure that people who speaks the same language lived in same state.
(b) to avoid communal clashes
(c) to please the political parties
(d) None of the above
14. According to the Indian Constitution, in which year English was to be ended as the
language for official purpose?
(a) 1950 (b) 1952
(c) 1965 (d) 1968
15. According to the State Panchayati Raj Acts which of the following local government
body must meet at least two to four times in a year?
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Gram Panchayat (d) Mandal Samiti
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)
Development
T
1. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a jobless youth? Q
(a) More days of work and better wages (b) More employment opportunities U
2. Identify the country where 500 tones of liquid toxic waste was dumped into open-air. F
I
(a) USA (b) Africa E
32
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
3. Which of the following statement/s is correct related to the Per Capita Income of India? (i)
India comes in the category of Middle-Income Group.
(ii) India comes in the category of Low-Income Group.
(iii) India comes in the category of High-Income Group.
(iv) India comes in the category of Low-Middle Income Group.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
Directions (Q. Nos. 4-6) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
4. Assertion (A) World Bank publishes World Development Report every year to
compare the nations on the basis of per capita income.
Reason (R) Countries with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are termed as low
income countries.
5. Assertion (A) In many areas of India, children particularly girls are not able to achieve
secondary level schooling.
Reason (R) Government of India has not provided adequate facilities.
6. Assertion (A) Human Development Report published by UNDP is a narrow concept of
measuring human development.
Reason (R) It is based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and
per capita income.
7. Match the following.
List I List II
A. National Development 1. Only the monetary aspects.
B. Economic Development 2. Both monetary and non-monetary aspects.
C. Human Development 3. Comprehensive term including standard of
people, increase in per capita income, social
amenities, etc.
Codes
ABCABC
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 1
8. What does the Infant Mortality Rate indicates? Identify the correct option: S
R
(a) The number of children born in a year.
E
I
(b) Literate population in the seven and above age.
F
(c) The number of children who die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live I
A
children.
U
(d) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.
Q
33
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
9. Which of the following statement/s is correct with regard to the World Development
Report published by the World Bank?
(i) It has classified the countries on the basis of Per Capita Income.
(ii) The countries have been categorised into rich and low income countries.
(iii) It helps to calculate the nutritional level of people.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (ii) and (iii)
10. When we divide the National Income of a country by its total population what we get?
Identify the correct option from the following:
(a) Per Capita Income (b) Gross Development Product
(c) Human Development Index (d) Total Income
11. Choose the correctly matched pair from the given options:
(a) Net Attendance Ratio- National Income divided by total income.
(b) World Bank- Classify the countries on per capita income.
(c) Sustainable development- To calculate the nutrition level.
(d) Body Mass Index- Caring for the needs of future generations.
Codes
ABCABC
(a) 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3
13. We have not inherited this Earth from our forefathers; we have borrowed it from our
children. Who said these words?
(a) Lester Brown (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) George Brown (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the given options:
(a) A rural woman from a land-owning family-Regular job and high wages to increase her
income. (b) Prosperous farmers from Haryana- Availability of other sources of irrigation.
(c) Landless rural labourers- More days of work and better wages.
(d) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops- Assured higher support prices for
their crops. T
15. Suman is moderately thin as her weight is 40 kg and her height is 156 cm. Find out her H
Answers I
F
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a) E
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) S
34
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
E
6. Match the following.
I
F
Column A Column B
I
A. Communication 1. Primary Sector
L
U
C. Manufacturing car 3. Tertiary Sector
35
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Codes
ABCABC
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1
7. In terms of the GDP, What is the share of the tertiary sector in 2013-14? Identify from
the given options.
(a) Between 20 % to 30%
(b) Between 30 % to 40 %
(c) Between 50 % to 60%
(d) More than 70 %
8. The table below shows the estimated number of workers in India in the organised and
unorganised sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the question given below.
Workers in different sectors (in millions)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 2 210 242
Secondary 9 54 63
Tertiary 17 76 93
Total 28 370 398
Total Percentage 7% 93% 100%
How is the Tertiary sector different from other sectors of the economic activities?
(a) It does not provide or produce goods.
(b) Activities of the tertiary sector help in the development of secondary and primary
sectors.
(c) It forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
9. In which sector the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services? (a)
Joint sector (b) Cooperative sector
(c) Private sector (d) Public sector
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-11) In the question given below, there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
10. Assertion (A) Tertiary sector has emerged the largest producing sector of India. T
Reason (R) More than half of the workers in the country are working in the Primary H
sector.
Q
11. Assertion (A) The share of agriculture in the GDP is declining in India. U
Reason (R) Agriculture sector is facing problems of unirrigated land, increasing debts, A
12. Choose the incorrectly matched pair from the given options: I
36
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
13. Read the following statements with regard to Unorganised sector and choose the
correct answer from the given options:
(i) Provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays and medical leaves.
(ii) Rules and regulations are not followed.
(iii) Employees are not even registered in the organisation.
(iv) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
14. How employment can be created in semi-rural areas?
(a) By setting up of small and agro-based industries.
(b) By providing loans at high interest rates.
(c) By promoting provisions for self-employment.
(d) All of the above
15. Read the following statements that help to increase the income of the marginalised
groups in India. Choose the correct answer from the given options:
(i) Marginal farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely
delivery of seeds.
(ii) Marginal farmers must be provided with allowances by the Government. (iii)
Marginal farmers must be provided with agricultural inputs, storage facilities and
market outlets.
(iv) Marginal farmers must be provided with monetary credits at low interests.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c)
37
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)
Latest CBSE
SAMPLE PAPER
Latest Sample Question Paper for Class X (Term I)
Issued by CBSE on 2 Sept 2021
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(iv) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) All questions carry equal marks.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 min
Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society
in Berne?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Cavour (d) Otto von Bismark
2. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
(a) Unification of Germany L
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’from the following options. B
(b) Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association. S
4. Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and E
P
(c) Austria, Turkey and France (d) Austria, England and France E
38
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in (a)
Groundnut- Assam (b) Tea- Gujarat
(c) Coffee- Karnataka (d) Sugarcane-Chhattisgarh
7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called
………… .
Choose the correct option
(a) Barren land (b) Forest land
(c) Grazing land (d) Fallow land
9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure
perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects? (a)
Plains (b) Plateaus
(c) Islands (d) Mountains
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land
degradation?
(a) Deforestation (b) Crop rotation
(c) Shelter belts (d) Ploughing
11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution? (a)
Nepal (b) India
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
(a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts
R
E
(b) Provides ethnic -cultural development
P
A
P
(c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights
(d) Restricts supremacy of one party
E
13. Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of
L
government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options P
M
(a) Democratic Government (b) Socialist Government
A
(c) Community Government (d) Liberal Government
S
S
B
C
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka
(c) USA (d) Belgium
t
39
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal
distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
(a) It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
(b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
(c) It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
(d) It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.
16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to
legislate on all those subjects which are included in the
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary Subjects
17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under Article 371A of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Nagaland (b) Rajasthan
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and
above age group?
(a) Net Attendance Ratio (b) Enrolment Rate
(c) Literacy Rate (d) Drop out Ratio
20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
(a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
(b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.
(d) The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.
21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Improvement in science, information and technology
(b) Improvement in health, education and income
(c) Improvement in information and communication
(d) Improvement in investment, finance and technology L
degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. Which of the following is the s
t
C
A
(a) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor. M
E
P
40
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of
minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100
days of an employment, the government would have to
Choose the correct option
(a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days.
(b) Provide another scheme for the same.
(c) Pay at least 1/3 per cent allowance.
(d) Provide health care as compensation.
Section-B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the
Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following
options.
Options
(a) Marianna (b) Philip Viet (c) Germania (d) La Italia 26. Which of the following
option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism? (i) The Balkan region became part of the
conflict because of the Ottoman Empire. (ii) The region comprised of ethnic groups
included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc. (iii) British and ethnic nationalities struggled to
establish their identity.
R
E
Options
P
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (ii) (d) Only (i) A
P
E
27. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the
L
appropriate reason from the following options.
P
(a) Contractors did not pay their dues.
M
(b) Contractors appointed few on high posts.
A
S
(c) Contactors used government policies.
E
(d) Contractors gave them loans on high interests.
S
28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
CB
(a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.
t
(b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
s
e
(c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
t
a
(d) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.
L
41
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
• Develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall.
• Is low in humus content.
• Found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
(a) Forest soil (b) Yellow soil
(c) Black soil (d) Laterite soil
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
(a) Renewable resources (b) Non-renewable resources
(c) Actual resources (d) Potential resources
31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the
codes given below:
(i) It is good for democracy.
(ii) It creates harmony in different groups.
(iii) It brings transparency in the governance.
(iv) It brings socio-political competition among parties.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
32. How does Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?
(a) Judiciary rules over Centre and State.
(b) Centre and Judiciary work collectively.
(c) Courts can change structure of Constitution.
(d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution.
33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the only official language of the state.
Reason (R) The Government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and
religion.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. L
e
s
34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. t
C
Column A Column B B
E
P
ABCDABCD
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 A
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 2 1 3 P
42
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the
following information.
• Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.
• It is called as a third tier of the Government.
• The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Federal system (b) Unitary Federal system
(c) Decentralised system (d) Unitary system
37. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state? (i)
More powers with Centre
(ii) Residuary subjects with Centre
(iii) Equal subjects with Centre and States
(iv) Currency and Railways with Centre
Codes
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
38. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian
Constitution.
(i) The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
(ii) Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is
basic to the structure of the Constitution.
(iii) It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
(iv) The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). R
E
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
P
A
P
Assertion (A) Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development
has happened in a country.
E
P
Development Index.
M
Codes
A
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
S
E
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
S
(c) A is true, but R is false.
C B
43
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate
answer from the given options.
Table for Comparison of Three Countries
Countries Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)
I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 5000
42. Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out
his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
(a) 12.6 (b) 13.5 (c) 14.7 (d) 15.2
43. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary after
working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts her
salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which L
44. According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) B
in India was E
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? P
E
P
44
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
45. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a
sustainable substitute for it.
Reason (R) Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work.
His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Which type of
employment is this an example?
(a) Under unemployment
(b) Seasonal employment
(c) Over employment
(d) Cyclical employment
Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in this Section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm
were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon developed
an interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village to village,
talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through the
generations. These were popular both among children and adults. In 1812, they published their
first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers became active in liberal politics,
especially the movement for freedom of the press. In the meantime, they also published a
33-volume dictionary of the German language.
The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and believed
that the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit.
R
They considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as
E
part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity. P
A
P
47. Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their
E
folkloric character? Choose the correct option from the following:
L
P
(a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany.
M
(b) It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales.
A
(c) It formed the basis for the science of the language.
S
(d) People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.
E
C B
45
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
48. The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the
best suitable option depicting the same from the following:
(a) Development of cities and towns (b) Setting up of new political parties (c)
Promotion of ethnic belonging (d) Emergence of socialist ideology
50. Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best
suitable option from the following in reference to the context.
(a) Exploitation of natural resources
(b) Erosion of native values and ethos
(c) Violence and mass killing of people
(d) Spread of new diseases in the country
51. How were the Germans able to connect with their culture? With reference to the above
context, infer the appropriate option.
(a) Through the feeling of formal way of communication.
(b) Through the feeling of oneness as European community.
(c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals.
(d) Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism.
52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A) Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R) Conservative regimes were autocratic.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by L
There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, t
C
vegetables, oil-seeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown
area under cereals and pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining B
food production puts a big question mark over the country’s future food security. E
The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and S
agriculture has resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has M
started showing a declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once P
showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soils. L
Periodic scarcity of water has led to reduction in area under irrigation. Inefficient water E
P
46
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
53. One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have
been pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause? (a)
Food and fruit crops are expensive in market.
(b) Shift to multifarious crops according to demand.
(c) Periodic scarcity of water in many regions.
(d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution.
54. Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options: (i)
Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.
(ii) They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
(iii) Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (ii)
55. According to the information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown
area under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
(a) Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses.
(b) Earn more income from non-agricultural sector.
(c) Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses.
(d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops.
56. “Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now
being held responsible for degrading the soil.” Infer the positive effects of these inputs
noticed earlier from the following statements.
(a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
(b) These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses.
(c) These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce.
(d) These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.
57. There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at excessive
level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at prominent
level from the following options.
(a) Karnataka and Kerala
(b) Haryana and Punjab
(c) Punjab and Gujarat
R
E
(d) Haryana and Telangana
P
58. Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food
A
P
availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct
E
option in reference to the context.
L
P
(a) To improve the land use pattern.
M
(b) To use intensive farming techniques.
A
(c) To improve the fertility of soil.
S
(d) To fetch more income and high earnings.
E
C B
47
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
SECTION D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. No. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.
B
59. On the political map of India, A is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following
options.
(a) Salal (b) Bhakra-Nangal
(c) Tehri (d) Rana Pratap Sagar
60. On the same map, is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Assam (b) Punjab
(c) Bihar (d) Gujarat
L
Answers t
s
t
C
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b) B
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a) S
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a) E
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b) S
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a) M
E
P
48
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
EXPLANATIONS
resulted in the formation of the 9. (d) India has land under a variety
‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. It of relief features, viz, mountains,
meant that England was able to plateaus, plains and islands. In our
impose its influence on Scotland. country about 30 per cent of land is
3. (c) In 1834, a custom union known mountainous. This land ensures
as Zollverein was formed at the perennial flow of some rivers,
initiative of Prussia. Most of the provide facilities for tourism and
German states joined in this union. It ecological aspects.
abolished tariff barriers and reduced 10. (a) Deforestation due to
the number of currencies from over urbanisation, mining etc have
thirty to two. contributed significantly in land
degradation of our country.
4. (b) Prussia took the leadership of
the movement for national 11. (c) After independence, Sri Lanka
unification under the leadership of adopted a series of majoritarian
Otto von Bismarck. Three wars over measures to establish Sinhala
seven years with Austria, Denmark supremacy. Majoritarianism is a
belief that the majority community
and France ended in Prussian victory.
should be able to rule a country in
It
whichever way it wants, by
completed the process of unification disregarding the wishes and needs of
of Germany. the minority.
5. (b) In early nineteenth century 12. (a) Social conflict often leads to
Europe, people believed in liberalism violence and political instability.
as they wanted freedom of markets Power sharing is a good way to
and the abolition of restrictions ensure the stability of political order
imposed by state on the and it reduces socio-economic
movement of goods and capital. conflicts.
6. (c) India is known for its good 13. (c) Apart from central and state
quality of coffee, i.e. Arabic variety of government, Belgium has
Yemen. Its cultivation is confined to ‘community government’. It has the
the Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and power regarding cultural,
Tamil Nadu. educational and language-related
issues.
7. (d) Option (d) is correct : It is one of
RE the process of land utilisation. 14. (c) USA is an example of ‘coming
together’ federation where
Land is left uncultivated due to the
independent states come together on
P
following reasons
P A their own to form a bigger unit, so
(i) To allow it to store organic matter that by uniting sovereignty and
E
L
and recover the fertility of the soil. retaining identity, they can increase
P
When land is left uncultivated, the their security.
nutrients in the soil are allowed to
15. (b) In the horizontal distribution
M
accumulate. of power, power is shared among
A
of time.
C
t
16. (c) Both the Union and State
s
8. (c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit Government can make laws on the
e
convened to discuss environmental subjects (education, forest, trade
t
49
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala
and Tamil Nadu.
18. (c) When we produce a good by exploiting
30. (a) Renewable resources can be reproduced
natural resources, it is an activity of the
by physical, chemical or mechanical
primary sector. Thus, farming is considered as
processes, e.g. solar, wind, tidal energy etc.
an example of primary sector activity.
Hence option (a) is correct.
19. (c) Literacy rate measures the proportion of
31. (a) Power sharing reduces the possibility of
literate population of our country in the 7 and
conflict between social groups and ensures the
above age group.
stability of political order.
20. (b) Average income of a country is derived
Hence, power sharing is necessary for
when the total income of a country is divided
maintaining social harmony and peace among
by its total population and it is also known as
Per Capita Income. different groups. It brings transparency in the
government by making it good for democracy.
21. (b) Human Development Report published by
UNDP compares countries based on the 32. (d) Courts have the power to interpret the
educational levels of the people, their health constitution and the powers of different levels
status and Per Capita Income. of governments, i.e. Central and State
Government. Judiciary acts as an empire if
22. (c) Environmental degradation is not an issue dispute arises between different levels of
of a particular region or nation. Our future is government by settling the issue to maintain
linked together thus scientists, economists and the federal structure of the nation.
philosophers work together for the
sustainable development of the earth. Hence, 33. (a) By adopting the majoritarian policy (a
option (c) is correct. belief that the majority community should be
able to rule a country in whichever way it wants
23. (b) Organised sector follows all the rules and by disregarding the wishes and needs of the
regulation which includes all the benefits for the
minority), Sri Lanka passed an Act in 1956
employee. Hence, an engineer getting
which recognised Sinhala as official language
employment benefits is the correct answer.
by disregarding Tamil. It followed the
24. (a) According to MGNREGA, if the preferential policies to foster their culture,
government fails in its duty to provide language and religion. Thus, both Assertion
employment, it will give unemployment and Reason statements justify each other.
allowances to the people. So, option (a) is L
idea which is expressed through a person) of 34. Union List It includes subjects of national e
26. (a) The Balkan was region of geographical and banking, communications and currency.
ethnic variations (Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro etc).
A large part of Balkans was under the control of State List It contains subjects of state and local B
this region explosive. Thus, statements I and II police, trade commerce, agriculture and S
monarchy in 1688. 50
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social
29. (d) Laterite soil develops under tropical and
Science
sub-tropical climate with alternate wet and dry
season and this humus rich soil is particularly
36. (c) When power is taken away weight in Kg by the square of the
from Central and State Governments height.
and given to local government, it is 43. (d) In unorganised sector,
known as decentralisation. This local employees do not get opportunities
self government is the third tier of the and job security. So the women
democracy which tackles large works at a sweet shop does not get
number of problems and issues at the any holidays on paid leave and other
local level. Hence option (c) is correct.facilities. Thus, the woman is
37. (b) India is considered as a working in an unorganised sector.
quasi-federal state as it includes 44. (a) In India, more than half of the
subjects of national importance workers are working in the primary
(currency, railways, banking etc). sector, mainly in agriculture,
Union List, gives the power to Union producing only a quarter of the GDP.
Government to legislate on There are more people in agriculture
‘residuary’ subjects thus gives more than required. So, even if we move a
power to the centre. few people out, the production will
38. (a) The constitution declared India not be affected. Hence, in other
as a Union of States as States are words, we can say that workers in
sovereign in their prescribed primary sector are underemployed.
legislative field and their executive 45. (b) Crude oil reserves is becoming
power is co-extensive with their scarce and the countries need to
legislative powers. Thus, it is clear resolve the issue as most of the
that the power of the states are not production tasks are depended on
coordinate with the Union. crude oil. It is obvious that the
The sharing of power between the demand for oil will increase in future
Union government and the State as the world population is increasing.
Government is basic to the structure Thus, there is a need to find a
of our constitution. It is not easy to sustainable substitute to it as
make changes to this power sharing indiscriminate exploitation of
arrangement. The Parliament cannot resources is the main reason behind
on its own change the arrangement. crude oil depletion.
Thus, the statements I and II are On the other hand, oil and petrol
correct and the prices are increasing day by day.
statement III and IV are incorrect. Hence, both assertion and reason
statements are true but the reason is
39. (c) Human Development Index
not the correct explanation of
compares countries based on the
assertion.
educational levels of the people, their
health status and Per Capita Income. 46. (a) In disguised employment,
Thus, the statement (A) is true. But people are apparently working but
the statement (R) is incorrect as all of them are made to work less
RE Human than their potential. Here the wife
Development Index does not and daughter of the man help him in
P compare the national income of two his work. But the work does not need
P A
countries. three people to work. This is called
E disguised
40. (a) The activities of tertiary sectors
L unemployment.
help in the development of the
P
primary and secondary sectors. These 47. (a) The Grim Brothers travelled
M activities do not produce a good but six years in different villages of
A
they are an aid or a support for the Germany and realised that the fairly
S
production process, e.g. transport, tales are very popular among the
storage, communication, banking etc. German people. So, they published
E
Thus, courier is an activity of tertiary the folk tales without changing their
S
sector. folkloric character.
C B
t 41. (b) Equitable distribution of 48. (c) The Grim Brothers believed
s
income ensures distributing welfare that the folktale they collected were
e
to ensure fairness and allowing expressions of a pure and authentic
t
members of the economy to have the German spirit. Thus, it suggested the
promotion of ethnic belonging of the
a
L
same opportunity to accumulate
35. (c) There are 22 Languages in the wealth. Here, Rita found that country German.
Eighth Schedule of the Indian A has most equitable distribution of 49. (a) Collecting and recording folk
Constitution. income, thus, she has chosen this culture was essential to the project of
country. nation building. Thus, culturalism is
Thus, Anita can opt any of the 42. (a) The Body Mass Index (BMI)
twenty-two languages for her essential for the reflection of national
can be calculated by dividing the identity.
examination.
51
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
58. (d) Change in cropping pattern from cereals
to high value crops will fetch more income
50. (b) Foreign domination aggravates the erosion
and high profit for the farmers. Thus, the
of national values and ethos. After Russian
trend has shifted towards industrial crops.
occupation, the Polish language was forced out of
schools and Russian language was impossed 59. (b) Bhakra dam is on the Sutlej river in
everywhere. Hence, option (b) is correct. Punjab. Nangal dam is another dam in Punjab
down stream of Bhakra dam. They are two
51. (c) From the above context, it is clear that
separate dams but together they are called
through the feeling of collective belonging
Bhakra-Nangal Dam.
among nationals i.e. collection of local folkolre,
German can able to connect with their own 60. (a) The state of Assam is one of the largest
culture. tea-growing region by production in India. Tea
52. (a) The conservative regimes set up in 1815 is cultivated in the valley of Brahmaputra river.
were autocratic as they didn’t tolerate criticism
and dissent and attacked the activities that
questioned the legitimacy of autocratic
governments. They further imposed
censorship laws to control what was said in
newspaper, books, plays and songs. Here
statement (R) correctly explains statement (A).
53. (d) Due to Green Revolution and overuse of
pesticides i.e. chemicals, soil has degraded
which forced to push out the marginal and
small farmers.
L
are incorrect. B
incorrect.
S
E
P
Pradesh.
52
CBSE Sample Paper Class X (Term I) English
SAMPLE PAPER 1
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE (Term I) Examination Class X
Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours
Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Which among the following was incorporated in England with the Act of Union 1707? (a)
Scotland (b) Northern Ireland
(c) Wales (d) Ireland
3. Identify the reason why Otto Von Bismarck is considered as the chief architect of
German Unification. Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) He granted autonomy to Prussia with conservatives.
(b) He allianced with Italy and France for the unification process.
1
(c) He carried out the nation-building process with the army and bureaucracy.
(d) He carried along with Liberalist and Romantic scholars for cultural movement.
4. Which of the following countries Louis Philippe had fled to?
R
P
(a) Austria (b) England
P A
5. Identify the ideology under which European governments were driven by following E
L
the defeat of Napoleon in 1815.
P
M
(a) Liberalism (b) Conservatism
A
(c) Imperialism (d) Globalisation
S
53
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
7. ....... is an equatorial crop but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and
sub-tropical areas.
(a) Rubber (b) Cotton
(c) Jute (d) Tea
9. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate
measures to conserve and manage it.
Which of the following is the outcome as per the given statement?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Fallow land
(c) Land degradation
(d) Soil erosion
10. Which among the following crops is grown during the Zaid season?
(a) Groundnut (b) Soybean
(c) Mustard (d) Muskmelon
11. A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following
power-sharing arrangements?
(a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) Vertical division of power shared among different levels of government.
(c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.
12. In Belgium, how the tensions between the linguistic communities were controlled?
Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) By an agreement made between the majority and minority groups. S
(d) By the minority group accepting the dominance of the majority groups. P
E
P
13. Identify the reason why power sharing arrangement is ideal in nature.
(a) It gives equal powers to all the organs of the government. A
15. States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers
under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), under which context
do they get these provisions?
(a) Their historical circumstances
(b) Special provisions for agriculture
(c) Protection of land rights of indeginous people
(d) Both (a) and (c)
16. In India’s federal system, any changes in the power sharing arrangement can be done
by which of the following method?
(a) By simple majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(b) By clear majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(c) By two-third majority in both the Houses of Parliament and passes by at least half of the
total state legislatures.
(d) None of the above
17. Which of the following regions did not become part of Indian Union in August, 1947? (a)
Assam (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Goa (d) Punjab
18. Which of the following goods are included in estimating the value of GDP?
(a) Industrial goods (b) Agricultural goods
(c) Final goods (d) Commercial goods
19. Why should an individual be worried about underemployment? Identify the reason by
choosing a correct option.
(i) It reduces the earning capacity of a person.
(ii) It results in poor standard of living.
(iii) It leads to poverty.
(iv) It helps in human development.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
20. Which of the following indicators is not used to calculate Human Development Index
(HDI)?
1
(a) Life expectancy (b) Education
(c) Per Capita Income (d) Social inequality
21. Which of the following is considered to be one of the most important attributes for R
E
development?
P
A
(a) Per Capita Income (b) Average Literacy Level
P
L
22. “Suppose the average income of a country is not getting increased over time but the
P
records of the national income shows a rise.” What does this situation signify? M
A
(a) Fall in resources (b) Increase in population
S
(c) Increase in poverty (d) Decrease in population
55
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
23. Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy
24. Employment figures of a country are based on data collected from 5-yearly survey on
employment and unemployment. Which organisation conducts this survey? (a)
NSSO—National Sample Survey Organisation
(b) NREGA 2005—National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
(c) ILO — International Labour Organisation
(d) UNDP- United Nation Development Programme
Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States. The Indian Union is based on the
principles of federalism. What does the given image reflects?
27. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815? Identify the appropriate reason from L
28. Which one of the following attributes stands for ‘willingness to make peace’? Identify
from the given options.
(a) Broken chains (b) Breastplate with eagle
(c) Olive branch around the sword (d) Crown of oak leaves
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
• It is found in the deccan trap and is made up of lava flows.
• It develops deep cracks during the hot summer, which develops in aeration of the
soil. (a) Forest soil (b) Black soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Yellow soil
30. Thermal electricity comes under which of the following catogaries of resources?
(a) Renewable Resources (b) Non-Renewable Resources
(c) Potential Resources (d) Developed Resources
31. Consider the following statements on Zila Prishad and select the answer using the codes.
(i) Zila Parishad is the lowest tier of the Panchayati Raj System.
(ii) Zila Parishad coordinates the activities of all the Block Samitis.
(iii) Most members of the Zila Parishad are elected.
(iv) Zila Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zila Parishad.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Power sharing is desirable in a democracy.
Reason (R) Power sharing helps in reducing the chances of conflict between different
social groups and ensures stability of the political system.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
1
34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
R
E
A. Banking 1. Concurrent List
P
L
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
P
M
ABCABC
A
(a) 2 3 1 (b) 3 1 2
S
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3
57
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
35. Geeta was elected as Sarpanch in 1995 from a reserved seat but in 2000, the village
people rewarded her for her admirable work by electing her again. All this has been
possible due to which of the following government initiatives? Select the appropriate
option.
(a) Constitutional status was accorded to the local government institutions.
(b) Equality of opportunity is being promoted by the government.
(c) Efficient and people-friendly administration.
(d) All of the above
36. Identify the federation which is an example of ‘pooling sovereignty and retaining
identity’.
(a) India (b) Canada
(c) United Kingdom (d) USA
37. In which of the following lists of the Indian Constitution is the subject of education and
forests included?
(i) Union List (ii) Concurrent List
(iii) State List (iv) Residuary Subjects
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the
countries.
Reason (R) Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are
adopted for carrying out production process. S
Codes M
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. L
E
P
R
1
58
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
(b) Organised Sector Provides job security and paid leaves etc.
(c) Public Sector Ownership of assests is in the hands of
individual.
(d) Private Sector Government owns most of the assets and
provides all the services.
41. Assume that there are 100 families in a town, the average per capita income of these
families is ` 10,000 and the average per capita income of 50 of these families is ` 5000.
The average per capita income of the remaining families is ........
(a) 5,000 (b) 10,000
(c) 15,000 (d) 20,000
42. In a village, students between the ages of 6 to 10 years are not attending schools as they go
to the farms to help their parents. What does it show?
(a) Low Human Development Index (b) Fall in Per Capita Income
(c) Rise in Per Capital Income (d) Low Net Attendance Ratio
43. An economy is best understood when we study its components or sectors. Sectoral
classification can be done on the basis of several criteria. Which of the following is/are
correct about the secondary sector?
(a) It covers the activities in which natural products are changed into other forms.
(b) Here some process of manufacturing is essential.
(c) It is also known as manufacturing sector.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
44. Study the given table and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer.
Organised Sector Unorganised Sector Total
No. of Workers 4,00,000 10,00,000 14,00,000
Income 32,000 million 28,000 million 60,000 million
45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
R
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
E
P
Assertion (A) Rabi crops are sown at the start of the winter and harvested in spring.
P A
Reason (R) Rabi crops are grown in Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, etc.
Codes
E
L
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
P
M
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
S
(d) A is false, but R is true.
59
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
46. Read the information below and select the correct option.
The developed countries have gone through historic changes in the economic sector as
the economic activities had gradually shifted from primary to secondary to tertiary
sector. Now service sector has become the most important sector. The shifting of
economic activities does not mean complete elimination of previous sectors, but the
importance and dominance of next sector is increased. History of developed countries
indicates that:
(a) There is pecduction of goods and services in the three sectors.
(b) There has been a major shift from secondary to tertiary sector.
(c) Most of the employed people in developed countries are employed in tertiary sector.
(d) Primary sector has become the most important sector of the economy.
Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in the section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and
society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should
be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of
pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that
modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could
make state power more effective and strong. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a
dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic
monarchies of Europe.
47. Fill in the blanks from the given option.
In which of the following was Napolean was defeated? Choose the appropriate answer
from the option given below.
(a) Crimean War (b) Battle of Waterloo
(c) Seven Weeks’ War (d) None of these
48. Group of powers collectively defeated Napoleon? Choose the correct option from the
following.
(a) England, France, Italy, Russia (b) England, Austria, Spain, Russia (c) Austria,
Prussia, Russia, Britain (d) Britain, Prussia, Russia, Italy
49. Which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative
ideology?
(a) Preservation of believes introduced by Napoleon. S
E
P
50. Conservatism most often appealed to members of which social groups? Identify the A
R
1
(c) Upper and lower middle class (d) All of the above
60
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
51. Find the incorrect option with reference to the above context.
(a) Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were democratic in nature.
(b) Conservatives wanted to preserve the traditional institutions.
(c) Conservatives didn’t propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
(d) Modernisation could strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy.
52. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(i) In 1815, European Government were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
(ii) In 1815, Napolean was defeated by Germany and America.
(iii) In 1815, Bourbon dynasty restore the power.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a
country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are
regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.
There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of
resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For
example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and
coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural
development. The State of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks
in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country.
It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital
minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local
levels.
Resource planning is a complex process which involves
(i) identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This
involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and
measurement of the resources.
(ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and
institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(iii) Matching the resource development plan.
53. …………… of the resources is not essential for a developed region, choose the correct
option given below.
(a) Utilisation (b) Availability (c) Valuation (d) None of the above 54. In the question given
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
R
Assertion (A) The State of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy E
P
but lacks in water resources.
P A
Reason (R) The Cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country.
Codes
E
P
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
M
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
S
(d) A is false, but R is true.
61
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
55. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(i) Jharkhand is rich in coal deposit.
(ii) Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy.
(iii) Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water.
Codes
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these 56. Which of the
following is involved in resource planning?
(a) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology.
(b) Matching the resource development plans.
(c) Identifications and Inventory of resource across the regions.
(d) All of the above
57. Why Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country?
(a) Because of deficient of water (b) Poor infrastructure
(c) Deficient of solve vital minerals (d) All of these
58. Why resource planning is essential for sustainable existence? Identify the reason from
the given options.
(a) As resources are limited and unevenly distributed over the country.
(b) It will help to reduce wastage of resources.
(c) It is a moral duty of people to maintain environmental balance.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Section-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the
help of specified information.
PL
B
A
SA
59. In the given map a crop growing area/region has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop E
P
60. In the given map a crop growing area/region has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the soil E
R
1
OMR SHEET SP 1
Roll No.
Sub Code.
Student Name
Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid gel & fountain pens for filling the sheets.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✗
✔
Correct Incorrect Incorrect
Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.
3
1 4
2 5
6
7
8
9
10
11
47
12
28
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
48
42
23
43 49
24 30
44
25
45 50
26 31
46
27
51
32
54
35
52
33
55
36
53
34
56
37
58
39
57
38
59
40
Score Percentage Total Correct Questions Total
Questions = × 100
If Your Score is
Less than 60% > (Revise the Chapters again)
Average
Greater than 60% but less than 75% > (Do more
practice) Good Above 75% > (Keep it on)
Excellent
60
63
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35.
(a) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (a)
52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a)
EXPLANATIONS
It also aims that every local government
1. (a) The Act of Union (1707) between should draw its own local Agenda 21. It is a
England and Scotland resulted in comprehensive blueprint of action to be
the taken in every area in which humans directly
formation of the United Kingdom of Great affect the environment and the number 21
Britain. By this Act, Scotland was incorporated refers to an agenda for the 21st century.
in England.
11. (c) A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another
3. (c) Otto von Bismarck was considered as the name of Horizontal division of power. Under the
chief architect of German unification because Horizontal division of power, power is shared
he carried out the nation building process with among different organs of the
the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy. government such as legislature, executive
Three wars over seven years-with Austria, and judiciary.
Denmark and France-ended in Prussian
victory and completed the process of It specifies the concept of checks and
unification. balances in order to check the unlimited
powers of the different organs.
8. (d) Agenda 21 is a declaration signed at the
United Nations Conference on Environment 15. (d) In India, some states such as Assam,
and Development (UNCED) in 1992 at Rio De Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and
Janeiro, Brazil. It aims to combat Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain
environmental damage, poverty, provisions of the Constitution of India (Article
disease through global co-operation, 371) due to their peculiar and historical
etc. circumstances.
These special provisions are especially
enjoyed in relation to the protection of land of Vienna was to undo most of the changes
rights of indigenous peoples, their culture and which had come in Europe during the
also Napoleonic wars.
preferential employment in government
28. (c) An Olive branch symbolises peace
services.
and the sword symbolises readiness to light
16. (c) Sharing of power between the Union but together an olive branch around the
Government and the State governments sword symbolises willingness to make
is peace.
basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is
30. (b) Thermal electricity comes under
not easy to make changes to this power sharing S
own change this arrangement. the sources that cannot be renewed and are M
Most of the members of Zila Parishad are In a federation, the power of the federal and
provincial governments are clearly
either elected members of the Lok Sabha,
demarcated.
MLA’s of that district or some other officials
at district level bodies. The Chairperson of
the
Zila Parishad is its political head. 1
P A
instability.
M
from a reserved seat but in 2000, the village Different tiers of government govern the
people rewarded her for admirable work by same citizens, but each tier has its own
electing her again. All these has been possible jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation,
due to constitutional status being provided to taxation and administration.
the 39. (a) Sustainable development is important for
Local Government institutions. economic growth because it involves
36. (d) This type of ‘coming together’ federations judicious use of resources which leads to
includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia. economic growth by reducing wastage.
In this first category of federations, all the 41. (c) Total income of 100 families
Constituent States usually have equal power = ` 10,000 × 100
and are strong vis-à-vis the federal
government. = ` 10,00,000
Total income of 50 families = ` 50 5000 January. These crops are grown in Punjab,
Haryana, Himachal Pradesh etc. Hence, both
× = ` 25,0000 statements are true, but (R) is not the correct
Total income of rest of the 50 families explanation of (A).
= ` ( , , , , ) 10 00 000 2 50 000 − 50. (b) Conservatism most often appealed to those
groups content with the status of monarchs,
= ` 7,50,000 aristocrats and clergy. Instead of groups such
Average income of 50 remaining families as workers and the middle class which
wanted change and reforms.
= `7 50 000
55. (d) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya
,,
= ` 15,000 Pradesh, rich in coal and minerals deposits.
50 Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar
and wind energy and Arunachal Pradesh has
45. (b) The reason for successful Rabi crops in abundance of water.
winter months is due to the Western temperate
cyclones that causes rainfall in December
65
CBSE Sample Paper English Language & Literature X (Term I)
SAMPLE PAPER 2
SOCIAL SCIENCE
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE (Term I) Examination Class X
Instructions
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(vi) Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) Each question carries 0.80 mark.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 40
Roll No. Time allowed : 3 hours
Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. Vienna Congress was convened in 1815 for what purpose?
(a) To declare completion of German Unification.
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe.
(c) To declare war against France.
(d) To start the process of Italian unification.
2. Which of the following is true with reference to Romanticism?
(a) Freedom of markets (b) Concept of government by consent (c) Cultural movement
(d) Freedom of the individual
3. Identify the first step introduced to unify Germany from the following options.
(a) Military alliances (b) Zollverein
(c) Political alliances (d) Carbonari S
4. Which among the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among A
E
P
9. In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land
degradation?
(a) Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh (b) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(c) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh (d) All of these
10. Which among the following is/are the example of Biotic Resources?
(a) Human being (b) Livestock
(c) Fisheries (d) All of these
11. Which of the following is not a Majoritarian measure?
(a) Preferential policies to favour Sinhala community in jobs.
(b) A new Constitution to protect and promote Buddhism.
(c) Granting of citizenship to Sri Lankan Tamils.
(d) All of the above
12. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is not correct
about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(c) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick
decisions and enforce them.
(d) In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance.
13. Which of the following reason of power sharing stress that the power sharing will
bring out better outcomes?
(a) Moral (b) Political (c) Prudential (d) Legitimate
2
14. Which of the following is a merit of the local government in India?
(a) It has uprooted the democracy at local level in our country.
R
(b) It has deepened the democracy in our country.
E
(c) It has failed in conducting regular elections of local bodies.
P
P A
(d) None of the above
E
15. Identify the political reason/s behind the conflicts in Sri Lanka.
L
(a) Failure of non-government organisations
P
M
(b) Preferential policies of the government
A
(c) Absence of representation for weaker sections
S
(d) Unwillingness of political parties to resolve conflicts
67
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
16. Which of the following measure/s were adopted by the government under
comprehensive land development programme?
(a) Institutional and Technical reforms
(b) Crop Insurance
(c) Establishment of Gramin Banks and Cooperative societies
(d) All of the above
17. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in which of the following year?
(a) 1991 (b) 1993
(c) 1996 (d) 1998
19. The activities involved in tourism like guide, hotels, travel, food, etc are included in
which sector of the economy?
(a) Public sector (b) Tertiary sector
(c) Unorganised sector (d) Primary sector
20. The sum of the total production of all goods and services in the three sectors are
combinedly called as
(a) NDP (b) GNI
(c) GDP (d) NI
22. The small and scattered units largely outside government control are in ……… .
(a) Public sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Private sector (d) Primary sector
23. NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) was renamed after.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Rajiv Gandhi
24. If more number of children in an area fall in the BMI range of 15.5 to 17.5, then what
does it show?
(a) Good health S
E
P
R
2
68
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. Coalition Government is formed by the two or more Political Parties.
Which of the following options best signifies this image related to coalition?
26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about the features of the economic
situation which existed in Europe?
(i) Migration of population from rural to urban regions.
(ii) Small producers had to face stiff competition from England.
(iii) Industrial Revolution became more advanced in most countries of Europe.
(iv) Number of job seekers exceeded the employment opportunities.
Options
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)
27. What does Liberalism stands in economic sphere? Choose the correct option from the
following:
(a) Freedom of markets.
(b) Control over markets.
(c) Imposition of restriction on the movement of goods across territories.
(d) Heavy tax imposition on goods and services.
2
28. Identify the vision of a society that is too ideal to actually exist.
(a) Absolutist (b) Monarchy
R
(c) Utopian (d) Autocratic
E
P
29. Identify the crop with the help of the clues given below.
P A
P
• It is a kharif crop which grows well in old alluvial soil.
M
(a) Millets (b) Maize
A
S
(c) Wheat (d) Pulses
69
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
30. Which one of the following term is used to identify the old and new alluvial
respectively?
(a) Khadar and Tarai (b) Tarai and Bangar
(c) Bangar and Khadar (d) Tarai and Duars
31. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those
which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government
bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local
government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes
and other backward classes.
(a) B and C (b) A and C (c) A and D (d) B and D 32. Which one of the following is
33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rubber is grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas.
Reason (R) It requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 100cm and
temperature above 50°C.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Codes
ABCDABCD S
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 A
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 1 3 P
35. Why there is an enormous pressure on agricultural land in India? Choose the correct L
E
P
option.
(a) High density of population. A
36. Identify the Power Sharing system with the help of the following information. •
Power is shared among different organs of the government.
• All the organs of the government are placed at the same level.
• It specifies the concept of checks and balances.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Community Government (b) Vertical Division of Power
(c) Horizontal Division of Power (d) Unitary form of Government
37. Identify the correct statement/s about the Civil War of Sri Lanka?
(i) Sri Lankan Tamils caused struggles because their demands of autonomous state
were disapproved.
(ii) It caused a lot of bloodshed among the civilians and the military.
(iii) It ended in 2009.
(iv) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
38. Identify the correct meaning of ‘custom barrier’ from the given options. (i) It is a measure
of limiting trade across borders of different cities and principalities. (ii) It is a tax
collected at airports to boost exports.
(iii) It is physical barrier between two cities.
(iv) It helps to decrease the price of the products.
Options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Both (iii) and (iv)
39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Government needs to pay attention to aspects of human development
such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor, food and
nutrition.
Reason (R) Private sector can offer development in terms of providing welfare facilities
like construction of dam.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
2
(d) A is false, but R is true.
40. Choose the correct pair from the following.
R
List I
E
(Soils)
P
P A
P
(c) Arid Soils Karnataka
A
(d) Red and Yellow soils Gujarat
S
71
CBSE Sample Paper Class 10th (Term I) Social Science
41. Analyse the information given below and choose the correct option.
Laxmi owning about three hectares of unirrigated land dependent only on rain and
growing crops like jowar and arhar. All seven members of her family work in the field
throughout the year. You will see that everyone is working, none remains idle, but in
actual fact their labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one is
fully employed.
(a) Overemployment (b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Disguised unemployment (d) Both (a) and (c)
42. Which of the following statement/s held that workers are exploited in the unorganised
sector? Identify the correct option.
(i) There are no fixed number of working hours.
(ii) They do not get other allowances apart from the daily wages.
(iii) They can be asked to leave the job at any time.
(iv) Workers are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and
regulations.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
43. Job of a teacher comes under which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector (d) Industrial Sector
44. According to the Human Development Report of UNDP, 2018, the HDI ranking of
countries are mentioned below.
Column A Column B
A. Sri Lanka 1. 76
B. India 2. 130
C. Pakistan 3. 150
D. Nepal 4. 149
Why India ranks low in Human Development Index despite of its huge size and
population? Select the most suitable options from the following.
(a) Less investment in social infrastructure.
(b) Gender Inequality is still prevalent.
(c) Increasing Income Inequalities among different sections of the society.
(d) All of the above
45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. S
Assertion (A) There is a need for protection and support of the workers in the A
unorganised sector. P
Reason (R) Workers in an unorganised sector get paid really less and are heavily exploited. L
Codes E
P
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. P
R
2
46. The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known as
(a) Consumer goods (b) Final goods
(c) Intermediate goods (d) Material goods
Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions
in the section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by
choosing the most appropriate option.
The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up
the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about
in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during
the French Revolution, was restored to power and France lost the territories it had annexed
under Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French
expansion in future. Thus, the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up
in the North and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the South.
47. What was France's largest fear at the Congress of Vienna? Select the best suitable
option from the following in reference to the context.
(a) Losing French Colonies (b) War with the United States
(c) The Rise of Prussian Power (d) Britain's Challenge
48. Which one of the following was not implemented under the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Restoration of Bourbon Dynasty.
(b) Setting up series of states on the boundaries of France.
(c) Restoration of monarchies.
(d) Diluting the German Confederation of 39 states.
49. Assertion (A) By the settlement of Vienna, Belgium was annexed to Holland to set up a
powerful state in North-East border of France.
Reason (R) The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
50. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815? Which one of the following is the
prominent cause?
2
(a) To abolish tariff barriers.
(b) To divide the German Confederation of 39 states.
R
(c) To restore the monarchies.
E
(d) None of the above
P
P A
51. Which of the following is not the result of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
E
L
(b) Poland was given to Russia.
P
M
(c) Prussia was handed over to England.
A
(d) None of the above
S