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Tutorial 7: Capital Budgeting and Valuation With Leverage: Alter The Firm's Debt-Equity Ratio
Tutorial 7: Capital Budgeting and Valuation With Leverage: Alter The Firm's Debt-Equity Ratio
Discussion:
• The WACC can be used throughout the firm as the companywide cost of capital for
new investments that are of comparable risk to the rest of the firm and that will not
alter the firm’s debt-equity ratio.
Answer
a. While there may be some differences, the market risk of the cash flows from this
new product is likely to be similar to Clorox’s other household products.
Therefore, it is reasonable to assume it has the same risk as the average risk of the
firm.
b. A real estate investment likely has very different market risk than Google’s other
investments in Internet search technology and advertising. It would not be
appropriate to assume this investment has risk equal to the average risk of the
firm.
c. An expansion in the same line of business is likely to have risk equal to the
average risk of the business.
d. The theme park will likely be sensitive to the growth of the Chinese economy. Its
market risk may be very different from GE’s other divisions, and from the
company as a whole. It would not be appropriate to assume this investment has
risk equal to the average risk of the firm.
2. Suppose Caterpillar, Inc., has 666 million shares outstanding with a share price of
$73.09 and $24.41 billion in debt. If in three years, Caterpillar has 709 million shares
outstanding trading for $86.62 per share, how much debt will Caterpillar have if it
maintains a constant debt-equity ratio?
Answer
Answer
Intel’s debt is a tiny fraction of its total value. Indeed, Intel has more cash than debt,
so its net debt is negative. Intel is also very profitable; at an interest rate of 6%,
interest on Intel’s debt is only $792 million per year, which is around 4.95% of its
EBIT. Thus, the risk that Intel will default on its debt is extremely small. This risk
will remain extremely small even if Intel borrows an additional $1 billion. Thus,
adding debt will not really change the likelihood of financial distress for Intel (which
is nearly zero), and thus will also not lead to agency conflicts. As a result, the most
important financial friction for such a debt increase is the tax savings Intel would
receive from the interest tax shield. A secondary issue may be the signaling impact of
the transaction—borrowing to do a share repurchase is usually interpreted as a
positive signal that management may view the shares to be underpriced.
Answer
a. Initially the firm’s debt is $0.7 million, and the equity is $2.8 million.
b. Before recapitalization, the value of debt remains constant so
% change in Firm % change in % change in
value Equity value Debt value
(4.3 –
Good state (5 – 3.5)/3.5=42.86% 0%
2.8)/2.8=53.57%
(2.5 – 3.5)/3.5= – (1.8 – 2.8)/2.8= –
Bad state 0%
28.57% 35.71%
c. After the recapitalization, the debt-equity ratio is reset to 25% implying
% change in Firm % change in % change in Debt
value Equity value value
Good
(5 – 3.5)/3.5=42.86% (4 – 2.8)/2.8=42.86% (1 – 0.7)/0.7=42.86%
state
(2.5 – 3.5)/3.5= – (2 – 2.8)/2.8= – (0.5 – 0.7)/0.7= –
Bad state
28.57% 28.57% 28.57%
d. Because the debt is riskless, the only risk to the tax shields is the amount of
outstanding debt. This risk is identical to the risk of the firm as a whole, so the
riskiness of the tax shields are identical to the riskiness the firm as a whole.
5. Suppose Goodyear Tire and Rubber Company is considering divesting one of its
manufacturing plants. The plant is expected to generate free cash flows of $1.69
million per year, growing at a rate of 2.6% per year. Goodyear has an equity cost of
capital of 8.5%, a debt cost of capital of 7.1%, a marginal corporate tax rate of 33%,
and a debt-equity ratio of 2.4. If the plant has average risk and Goodyear plans to
maintain a constant debt-equity ratio, what after-tax amount must it receive for the
plant for the divestiture to be profitable?
Answer
We can compute the levered value of the plant using the WACC method. Goodyear’s
WACC is
1 2.4
rwacc 8.5% 7.1%(1 0.33) 0.025 0.034 0.059 5.9%.
1 2.4 1 2.4
1.69
VL $51.21 million
Therefore, 0.059 0.026
A divestiture would be profitable if Goodyear received more than $51.21 million after
tax.
c. If Alcatel-Lucent maintains its debt-equity ratio, what is the debt capacity of the
project in part b?
Answer
9.49 13 9.49
rwacc 9.4% 7.1%(1 0.35) 0.0686 0.0125 0.0811 8.11%
a. 13 13
b. Using the WACC method, the levered value of the project at date 0 is
52 100 65
VL 48.10 85.56 51.44 185.1.
1.0811 1.0811 1.08113
2
Given a cost of 100 to initiate, the project’s NPV is 185.1 – 100 = 85.1.
c. Alcatel-Lucent’s debt-to-value ratio is d = (13 – 9.49) / 13 = 0.27. The project’s
debt capacity is equal to d times the levered value of its remaining cash flows at
each date.
Year 0 1 2 3
FCF –100 52 100 65
VL 185.11 148.12 60.13 0
D = d*VL 49.98 39.99 16.23 0.00
7. Acort Industries has 10 million shares outstanding and a current share price of $36 per
share. It also has long-term debt outstanding. This debt is risk free, is four years away
from maturity, has annual coupons with a coupon rate of 10%, and has a $115 million
face value. The first of the remaining coupon payments will be due in exactly one
year. The riskless interest rates for all maturities are constant at 6%. Acort has EBIT
of $101 million, which is expected to remain constant each year. New capital
expenditures are expected to equal depreciation and equal $18 million per year, while
no changes to net working capital are expected in the future. The corporate tax rate is
42%, and Acort is expected to keep its debt-equity ratio constant in the future (by
either issuing additional new debt or buying back some debt as time goes on).
a. Based on this information, estimate Acort’s WACC.
b. What is Acort’s equity cost of capital?
Answer
a. We don’t know Acort’s equity cost of capital, so we cannot calculate WACC
directly. However, we can compute it indirectly by estimating the discount rate
that is consistent with Acort’s market value. First, E = 10 × 36 = $360 million.
The market value of Acort’s debt is
1 1 115
D 11.5 1 39.85 91.09 $130.94 million.
0.06 1.064 1.064
8. Suppose Goodyear Tire and Rubber Company has an equity cost of capital of 8.5%, a
debt cost of capital of 7.1%, a marginal corporate tax rate of 33%, and a debt-equity
ratio of 2.4. Assume that Goodyear maintains a constant debt-equity ratio.
a. What is Goodyear’s WACC?
b. What is Goodyear’s unlevered cost of capital?
c. Explain, intuitively, why Goodyear’s unlevered cost of capital is less than its
equity cost of capital and higher than its WACC.
Answer
1 2.4
rwacc 8.5% 7.1%(1 0.33) 0.025 0.034 0.059 5.9%
a. 1 2.4 1 2.4
b. Because Goodyear maintains a target leverage ratio, we can use Eq. 18.6:
1 2.4
rU 8.5% 7.1% 7.51%.
1 2.4 1 2.4
c. Goodyear’s equity cost of capital exceeds its unlevered cost of capital because
leverage makes equity riskier than the overall firm. Goodyear’s WACC is less
than its unlevered cost of capital because the WACC includes the benefit of the
interest tax shield.
9. You are a consultant who has been hired to evaluate a new product line for Markum
Enterprises. The upfront investment required to launch the product is $6 million. The
product will generate free cash flow of $700,000 the first year, and this free cash flow
is expected to grow at a rate of 6% per year. Markum has an equity cost of capital of
11.3%, a debt cost of capital of 6.28%, and a tax rate of 32%. Markum maintains a
debt-equity ratio of 0.70.
a. What is the NPV of the new product line (including any tax shields from
leverage)?
b. How much debt will Markum initially take on as a result of launching this product
line?
c. How much of the product line’s value is attributable to the present value of
interest tax shields?
Answer
9.49 13 9.49
rU 9.4% 7.1% 8.78%
a. 13 13
52 100 65
VU 182.81
b. 1.0878 1.08782 1.08783
Answer