Mark Group NEET : 2020-21 (12th) Date : 30/10/2021

720 PCB Galaxy PCB Test : 32 Time : 3 Hours

Physics - 45 Chemistry - 45 Biology - 90

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.

11 (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0
This is to certify that, the entries of RCC-2021 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Question Paper

• Test Syllabus •
Physics : Ray Optics + Moving Charge And Magnetism + Heat Transfer
Chemistry : HDA + Chemical Kinetics + Solid State + Thermodynamics + Alc. Phenol & Ether
Biology : Living World + Cell + Biological Classification + Breathing + Digestion +
St. Organisation
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

Section ‘A’ : Physics

01. The heat is flowing through two cylindrical 07. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of
rods of same material. The diameters of the copper is nine times that of steel in the
rods are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their lenghts are composite cylindrical bar shown in the figure.
in the ratio 2 : 1. If the temperature difference What will be the temperature at the junction
between their ends is the same, the ratio of of copper and steel
rate of flow of heat through them will be
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 4 4) 1 : 8
02. The two ends of a rod of length L and uniform
cross. Sectional area A are kept at two 1) 75°C 2) 67°C 3) 33°C 4) 25°C
temperature T1 and T2 (T1>T2). The rate of heat
08. Which of the follwoing circular rods. (given
transfer, , through the rod in a steady state is
radius r and length l) each made of the same
given by
material as whose ends are maintained at the
dQ kL  T1  T2  dQ k  T1  T2  same temperature will conduct most heat
1)  2) 
dt A dt LA 1) r = 2r0; l = 2l0 2) r = 2r0; l = l0
dQ dQ kA  T1  T2  3) r = r0; l = l0 4) r = r0; l = 2l0
3)  kLA  T1  T2  4) 
dt dt L 09. The ratio of the coefficient of thermal
03. The coefficient of thermal conductivity conductivity of two different materials is 5 :
3. If the thermal resistance of the two rods of
depends upon
these materials of same thickness is same, then
1) Temperature difference of two surfaces the ratio of the length of these rods will be
2) Area of the plane 1) 5 : 3 2) 3 : 5 3) 9 : 25 4) 25 : 9
3) Thicness of the plate 10. Two walls of thicknesses d 1 and d 2 and
4) Material of the plate thermal conductivities k 1 and k 2 are in
contact. In the steady state, if the temperature
04. If the temperature difference on the two sides
at the outer surface are T 1 and T 2 , the
of a wall increases from 100° to 200°C, its
temperature at the common wall is
thermal conductivity
1) remains unchanged 2) Is doubled k 1T1d 2  k 2 T2 d1 k1T1  k 2 d 2
1) 2)
k 1d 2  k 2 d1 d1  d 2
3) Is halved 4) Beomes four times
05. The ratio of thermal conductivity of two rods  k 1d 1  k 2 d 2  k 1d1T1  k 2 d2 T2
3)  T  T  T1T2 4)
of different material is 5 : 4. The two rods of  1 2  k 1 d1  k 2 d 2
same area of cross-section and same thermal 11. In order that the heat flows from one part of a
resistance will have the lengths in the ratio solid to another part, what is required
1) 4 : 5 2) 9 : 1 3) 1 : 9 4) 5 : 4 1) Uniform density
06. Consider a compound slab consisting of two 2) Density gradient
different materials having equal thickness 3) Temperature gradient
and thermal conductivities K and 2 K 4) Uniform temperature.
respectively. The equivalent thermal 12. A body of length 1m having cross sectional
conductivity of the slab is area 0.75m2 has heat flow through it at the
rate of 6000 joule/s. Then find the temperature
1) 2K 2) 3K difference if K = 200 Jm–1K–1
4 2 1) 20°C 2) 40°C
3) K 4) K 3) 80°C 4) 100°C
3 3

PCB TEST : 32 2 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
13. A cylindrical rod having temperature T1 and 20. To get three images of a single object, one
T2 at its ends. The rate of flow of heat is Q1 cal/ should have two plane mirrors at an angle of :
s. If all the linear dimensions are doubled 1) 30° 2) 60° 3) 90° 4) 150°
keeping temperature constant then rate of flow 21. If an observer is walking away from the
of heat Q2 will be plane mirror with 6m/sec. Then the velocity
Q1 Q1 of the image with respect to observer will
1) 4Q1 2) 2Q1 3) 4)
4 2 be :
14. In a closed room, heat transfer takes place by
1) 6m/sec 2) –6m/sec
1) Condution 2) Convection
3) radiation 4) All of these 3) 12m/sec 4) 3m/sec
15. Good absorbers of heat are 22. A ray light is incident on the surface of
1) Poor emitters 2) Non-emitters separation of a medium at an angle 45° and
3) Good emitters 4) Highly polished is refracted in the medium at an angle 30°.
16. The refractive indices of galss and water with What will be the velocity of light in the
medium ?
3 4
respect to air are and respectively. Then, 1) 1.96 × 108 m/s 2) 2.12 × 108 m/s
2 3
the refractive index of glass with respect to 3) 3.18 × 108 m/s 4) 3.33 × 108 m/s
o
water is : 23. Wavelength of light in vacuum is 5890A ,
then its wavelength in glass ( = 1.5) will
8 9 7
1) 2) 3) 4) 2 be
9 8 6 o o
1) 9372A 2) 7932A
17. Monochromatic light of wavelength   o o
travelling in a medium of refractive index 3) 7548A 4) 3927A
n 1 enters a denser medium of refractive 24. If angle of incidence is twice the angle of
index n 2 . The wavelength in the second refraction in a medium of reractive index ,
medium is : then angle of incidence :
1)   (n1 /n 2 ) 2)   (n2 /n 1 )  
1 1
3)   (n1 /n2 )/n2 4)  (n2/n1)/n1 1) 2cos 2) 2 sin
2 2
18. Light travels through a glass plate of
3) 2 cos 1  4) 2sin 1 
thickness t and having refractive index . If
c be the velocity of light in vaccum, the time 25. A short linear object of length l lies along the
taken by the light to travel this thickness of axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a
glass is : distance u from the pole of the mirror. The size
1) t/(c) 2) tc 3) (t/c) 4) tc/ of the image is approximately equal to :
19. Figure shows a plane mirror onto which a 1/ 2 2
light ray is incident. If the incident light uf  uf 
1) l   2) l  
ray is turned by 10° and the mirror by 20°  f   f 
, as shown, then the angle turned by the  f 
1/ 2
 f 
2

reflected ray is : 3) l   4) l  
uf  uf 
26. An object is placed at 20 cm in front of a
concave mirror produces three times
magnifield real image. What is the focal length
of the concave mirror
1) 15 cm 2) 6.6 cm
1) 60° clockwise 2) 50° clockwise
3) 10 cm 4) 7.5 cm
3) 30° clockwise 4) 40° clockwise

PCB TEST : 32 3 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
27. A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm
35. Potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a
from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm.
The image will from at : magnetic field is maximum when
1) Infinity 1) magnetic moment of dipole and field is
2) Focus parallel.
3) Pole
2) Magnetic moment of dipole and field is
4) 15 cm behind the mirror
28. Image formed by a concave mirror of focal antiparallel
length 6 cm, is 3 times of the object, then the 3) Magnetic moment of dipole and field is
distance of object from mirror is :
Perpendicular to each other
1) –4 cm 2) 8 cm 3) 6 cm 4) 12 cm
29. A rectangular tank of depth 8 meter is full of 4) Dipole is set into rotational motion
water ( = 4/3), the bottom is seen at the depth : 36. The strength of the magnetic field at a point
1) 6 m 2) 8/3 m 3) 8 cm 4) 10 cm
distant r near a long straight current carrying
30. An under water swimmer is at a depth of 12
m below the surface of water. A bird is at a wire is B. The field at a distance r/2 will be
height of 18 m from the surface of water, B
directly above his eyes. For the swimmer the 1) 2) 2B
2
bird appears to be at a distnace from the B
surface of water equal to (Refractive index of 3) 4) 4B
4
water is 4/3)
37. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a
1) 24 m 2) 12 m 3) 18 m 4) 9 m
distance b are carrying a current I A each. The
31. When a particle carrying a charge of 200 c magnitude of the force per unit length exerted
moves at an angle 30° to a uniform magnetic by one wire on the other is
field of induction 5 × 10–5 Wb/m2 with a speed
0I 2 0I 2
of 2 × 105 m/s. The force acting on the particle is 1) 2)
b2 2b
1) 5 × 10–3 N 2) 10–3 N
I 0I
3) 2 × 10–3 N 4) 10–4 N 3) 0 4)
2 b 2 b 2
32. The dimensions of magnetic induction are 38. Magnetic field due to ring having n turns at a
1) [M –1 L –2 T0 A 1 ] 2) [M –1 L 0 T2 A –2 ] distance x on its axis is proportional to (if a =
3) [M 1L 0 T–2 A –1 ] 4) [M 1L 0 T–1 A –1 ] radius of ring)
33. The magnetic force acting on a conductor of a a2
length l carrying a current I placed in field of
strength B is given as
1) a 2
 x2  2) a 2  x 2
 
3/2

     
 
1) F  I B  l 2) F  I  l  B 3)
na 2
4)
n 2a2
      3/2 3/2
 
3) F  I l  B 4) F  I B l  a
 x22
 a 2  x2 
34. A rectangular coil 20 cm × 20 cm has 100 turns 39. A solenoid of 1.5 m length and 4 cm diameter
and carries a current of 1 A. It is placed in a possesses 10 turns per m. A current of 5 A is
uniform magnetic field B = 0.5 T with the flowing through it. The magnetic induction
direction of magnetic field parallel to the plane at axis inside the solentoid is
of the coil. The magnitude of the torque
required to hold this coil in this position is 1) 2 × 10–3 T 2) 2 × 10–5 T
1) Zero ) 200 N-m 3) 2 × 10–7 T 4) 2 × 10–9 T
3) 2 N-m 4) 10 N-m
PCB TEST : 32 4 Date : 30/10/2021
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
40. Figure show the circular coil carrying current 43. A uniform conducting wire ABC has a mass
‘I’ kept very close but not touching at a point
of 10 g. A current of 2 A flows through it. The
‘A’ on a straight conductor carrying the same
current ‘I’. The magnitude of magnetic wire is kept in a uniform magnetic field B = 2
induction at the centre of the circular coil will T. The acceleration of the wire will be
be(Take direction into the plane of paper as
positive )

0I  1 1) Zero
1) 1   2) Zero 2) 12 m/s2 along Y - axis
2r  
3) 1.2 × 10–3 m/s2 along Y-axis
I I
3) 0 4) 0 4) 0.6 × 10–3 m/s2 along Y-axis
2 r 2r
44. Which of the following graphs shows the
41. A particle of charge –16 × 10–18 C moving with
variation of magnetic field B, with distance
velocity 10 m/s along the X - axis enters a
for a long current carrying conductor ?
region where a magnetic field of induction B
is along Y-axis and electric field of magnitude
104 V/m is along the negative Z-axis. If the
charged particle continues moving along the 1) 2)
X-axis, the magnitude of B is

3) 4)

45. A current I ampere flows in a circular arc of

1) 10 3 Wb/m 2 2) 10 5 Wb/m 2 wire whose radius is R, which subtends an
3) 10 6 Wb/m 2 4) 10 7 Wb/m 2 angle 3/2 radian at its centre. The magnetic
42. If a proton is projected in a direction induction B at the centre is
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field 0 I 0 I
with velocity v and an electron is projected 1) 2)
r 2r
along the lines of force, what will happen to
2 0 I 3 0 I
the proton and electron ? 3) 4)
1) The electron will travel along a circle with r 8r
constant speed and the proton will move along
a straight line.
2) Proton will move in circle with constant speed
and there will be no effect on the motion of
electron.
3) There will not be any effect on the motion of
electron and proton.
4) The electron and proton both will follow the
path of a parabola.

PCB TEST : 32 5 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

Section ‘B’ : Chemistry

51. Which of the following reactions corresponds
46. to the definition of enthalpy of formation ?
1) C(g) + O2(g) 
 CO2(g)
This change can be done by 2) C(s) + O2(l) 
 CO2(g)
1) Acid catalysed hydration 3) C(s) + O2(g) 
 CO2(g)
2) Oxymercuration-demercuration
4) C(l) + O2(s) 
 CO2(g)
3) Hydroboration-oxidation
52. Which of the following reacts fastest with
4) Any method mentioned above
HBr?
47. Three thermochemical equations are given
below
 CO2(g); rHo = x kJ mol–
(i) C(graphite) + O2(g) 
1 1) 2)
(ii) C(graphite) + 1/2O2(g) 
 CO(g);
rHo = y kJ mol–1
 CO2(g); rHo = z kJ mol–
(iii) CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) 
1
3) 4)
Based on the above equations, find out which
of the relationship given below is correct
1) z = x + y 2) x = y + z 53. A binary solid (A+ B–) has a rock salt structure.
3) y = 2z – x 4) x = y – z If the edge length is 400 pm and radius of
cation is 75 pm the radius of anion is
48.
1) 100 pm 2) 125 pm
In the above reaction sequence, the final product 3) 250 pm 4) 325 pm
is 54. Given,
1) Diethyl ether 2) 1-methoxypropane NH3(g) + 3Cl2(g) NCl3(g) + 3HCl(g);– H 1
3) Isopropyl alcohol 4) Propylene glycol N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g); – H 2
49. Consider the following processes; H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g); + H 3
H(kJ/mol) The heat of formation of NCl3 in terms of H1,
1/2A 
B + 150 H2 and H3 is
3B 
 2C + D – 125 1
1) Hf = H1 + H2 – H3
E + A 
 2D + 350 2
For B + D 
 E + 2C, H will be 1 3
2) Hf = –H1 + H2 + H3
1) 525 kJ/mol 2) – 175 kJ/mol 2 2
3) –325 kJ/mol 4) 325 kJ/mol 1 3
3) Hf = H1 – H2 – H3
50. Which of the following reagents cannot be 2 2
used for the oxidation of 1o alcohol to aldehyde ?
1 3
1) PCC 2) Collin’s reagent 4) Hf = –H1 – H2 – H3
2 2
3) Cu/300 oC 4) KMnO4

PCB TEST : 32 6 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
59. The reaction
Cold KMnO PCC
55. 
4
 B , A and B are
 A 
 SOCl 2   SO2  HCl

proceed by the mechanism :

1)
1) SN 1 2) SN 2
3) SE 2 4) SNi
60. In isolated system, find the condition for
2)
spontaneous reaction.
1) U = 0, S = 0, G = 0
3) 2) U < 0, S > 0, G < 0
3) U = 0, S > 0, G < 0
4) U < 0, S < 0, G < 0
61. Major product of the following reaction is :

4) Et 3 N

 

56. For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with

one mole of sulphuric acid in a bomb 1) 2)
calorimeter, U and w correspond to

1) U < 0, w = 0 2) U < 0, w < 0 N Et 3
3) U > 0, w = 0 4) U > 0, w > 0
3) 4)
Acetone
57.  NaI (1 mole )   Major product :
62. In a cubic packed structure of mixture, the
lattice is made up of oxide ions, one-fifth of
1) 2) tetrahedral voids are occupied by X ions while
half of the octahedral voids are occupied by Y
3) 4) ions. Then formula of oxide will be
1) X5Y4O10 2) X4Y5O10
58. Assertion : Addition of Q and w gives U
3) XY2O4 4) X2YO4
Reason : Addition of two path functions 63. Consider the following synthesis :
Hg(OAc) 2 NaBH 4
cannot give state function I) : 
CH 3OH
 
1) If both assertion and reason are true and II) : 
H 3O +
Na
  CH 3 Br
 
reason is the correct explanation of assertion BH 3 .THF Na CH 3Br
III) : 
H 2 O 2 /OH -
   
2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of this change
assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false 1) I, II and III 2) I and II
3) I and III 4) I only
4) If both assertion and reason are false

PCB TEST : 32 7 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
64. Which arrangement of electron decides 70. Which of the following statement is not true
ferrimagnetism ? about the hexagonal close packing ?
1)  2)  1) The coordination number is 12
2) It has 74% packing efficiency
3)  4) 
3) Tetrahedral voids of the second layer are
Zn Conc.H SO Zn
65. Phenol 
Distillation
 A  2
Conc.HNO
4
 B 
NaOH
 C; covered by the spheres of the third layer
3
(50  55o C) 4) In this arrangement, spheres of the fourth
in the above reaction A, B and C are the layer are exactly aligned with those of the first
following compounds : layer
1) C6H6, C6H5NO2 and aniline F OH I
2) C6H6, dinitrobenzene and metanitroaniline
OH  OH 
3) Toluene, metanitrobenzene and metatoluidine 71.   ,
r 1 r 2
4) C6H6, C6H5 NO2 and hydrazobenzene
66. If NaCl is doped with 10 –3 mol % of SrCl2 , NO2 NO2
NO2
what will be the concentration of cation The correct relation is
vacancies 1) r1 = r2 2) r1 > r2
1) 6.02 × 1018 2) 6.02 × 1022 3) r1 < r2 4) None
3) 6.02 × 1023 4) 6.02 × 1021 72. Graphite cannot be classified as
67. Phenol gives violet colour with FeCl3 solution 1) Conducting solid 2) Network solid
due to the formation of 3) Covalent solid 4) Ionic solid
1) [Fe(OC 2 H5 )6 ]3+ 2) [Fe(OC 6 H5 )6 ]3– NaBH H / Pt
2
73. B 
4
CH = CH - CHO A
3+ 3–
3) [Fe(OC 6 H5 )3 ] 4) [Fe(OC 6 H5 )3 ]
68. MgAl2O4, is found in the spinel structure in A & B are
which O2– ions constitute CCP lattice, Mg 2+
ions occupy 1/8th of the tetrahedral voids and 1) CH2 = CH 2 - CHO ,
Al3+ ions occupy 1/2 of the octahedral voids.
Find the total +ve charge contained in one unit
cell.
1) +7/4 electronic charge CH = CH - CH 2OH
2) +6 electronic charge
3) +2 electronic charge
4) +8 electronic charge
69. Which of the following will be the major 2) CH2 CH2 CH 2OH ,

product when is treated

HO CH 2
CH = CH - CH 2OH
with dil. H2SO4
OH

1) 2) 3) CH = CH - CH 2OH ,

HO HO CH3
HO
CH3 in both cases

4) CH2 CH2 CH 2OH ,

3) 4)

HO CH3 in both cases

O CH3
PCB TEST : 32 8 Date : 30/10/2021
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
74. A sample of element has 12.08 × 1023 bcc unit 78. Which of the following plot(s) is/are correct
cell. Total number of atoms in the given sample for the first order reaction ?
are
1) 24.16 × 1023

2) 12.08 × 1023

3) 36.24 × 1023

4) 6.02 × 1023
OH
| Jone's
75. CH 3  CH = CH  CH  CH 3 
Reagent
 X, X is

OH
|
1) CH 3CH 2CH 2 CH  CH 3 1) I, II 2) II, III
O 3) I, II, III 4) I, III
||
2) CH 3  CH  CH  C  CH 3 OH

O NaOH
2 5 C H Br
|| 79  A   B, B is
3) CH 3CH 2CH 2  C  CH 3
1) Anisole 2) Phenetole
4) Both (1) & (2)
3) Toluene 4) Ethyl benzene
76. The half-life period of a first order chemical
reaction is 6.93 min. The time required for the 80. In the following reaction,
Ar
completion of 99% of the chemical reaction N2O  N2 + O
will be (log 2 = 0.301) k = (5.0 × 1011 L mol–1 s–1) e–29000/T, Ea (energy of
1) 230.3 min activation) is
2) 23.03 min 1) 29000 kcal mol–1
3) 46.06 min 2) 58.0 kcal mol–1
4) 460.6 min 3) –29000 cal mol–1
OH 4) 5.0 × 1011 kcal mol–1

CHCl 3 + KOH HI
77.   product, The incorrect 81. O  RI + ROH (Major)
The RI, ROH and Mechanism are
statement about the reaction is
1
A) The name of the reaction is Riemer- 1) I, OH and SN
Tiemann’s reaction
B) The intermediate is dichloro carbene which 2) 2
I, OH and SN
is an Nucleophile
C) The product is salicyladehyde 1
3) OH , I and SN
D) The product is para chloro phenol
1) A, B 2) B, C
2
3) B, D 4) A, B, D 4) OH , OH and SN

PCB TEST : 32 9 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
85. Two substance A (t1/2 = 5 minutes) and B (t1/2 =
1. H+ HBr Me 3C O  15 minutes) follow first order kinetics are taken
82.   (C) 
 (B)  Δ
 (D), in such a ways that initially [A] = 4[B].
2. H O
2
(Major) Calculate the time after which the
(A)
concentration of both the substance will be
D is equal to
Me
1) 15 2) 20 3) 25 4) 30
Me 86. In which of the following there is only
O-C Me3
1) 2) retention of configuration
H
CH 2 | NaI
Me 1) CH 3  C  Br  
acetone
|
3) 4) D
C2H5
83. For the reaction, P + Q + R 
S |
2) H  C  ONa + CH 3I 
Experimental data for the measured initial |
rates in given below. CH 3
C 2H5
Expt. (P) (Q) (R) Initial rate (in Ms–1) | H 2O
3) CH 3  C  Br  
1. 0.2 M 0.5M 0.4 M 8.0 × 10–5 |
2. 0.4 M 0.5M 0.4 M 3.2 × 10–4 C 3H 7

3. 0.4 M 2.0M 0.4 M 1.28 × 10–3 4) All

87. In a first order reaction, the concentration of
4. 0.2 M 0.5M 0.8 M 16 × 10–5
the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M is
The order of the reaction with respect of P, Q 15 min. The time taken for the concentration
and R respectively is to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is
1) 60 min 2) 7.5 min
1) 4, 1, 3 2) 2, 2, 1
3) 30 min 4) 15 min
3) 1, 2, 1 4) 2, 1, 1 88. Which among the following has the maximum
CH=CH2 Nucleophilicity ?
–
1) F 2) OH 3) CH 3 4) NH 2
Br 1) NaNH (3 eq)
84. 
2
A  2
 B, B is 89. For the reaction, 2A + 3B  Product, A is
2) CH I 3
present in excess. When concentration of B is
C CH C C Na changed from 0.03 M to 0.06 M, rate is
doubled.
Thus, rate law is
1) 2)
 dx   dx 
1)   = k[A]0[B]1/2 2)   = k[A]0[B]
 dt   dt 
C C - CH3 CH = CH2  dx   dx 
3)   = k[A][B] 4)   = k[A]2[B]3
dt
   dt 
90. For the reaction : aA  bB ;
3) 4)
 dA   dB  a
log   = log   + 0.6020, then is
 dt   dt  b
CH3
1) 4 2) 2
3) 1.5 4) 0
PCB TEST : 32 10 Date : 30/10/2021
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

Section ‘C’ : Biology

91. Which of the following is not an inanimate 97. Which of the following shows extrinsic
matter? growth?
1) Wind 2) Fire 1) Snow mountian 2) Bacteria
3) Plant 4) Sea 3) Euglena 4) Spirogyra
92. Who has been called ‘the Darwin of 20 th 98. Match the column :
centurey’?
Column-I Column-II
1) Aristotle 2) Lamarck
Yeast Asexual spore and
3) Ernst mayr 4) Theophrastus
A i) fragmentation
93. P.V. Sindhu won bronze medal in tokyo
olympic How many of the following B Aamoeba ii) Binary fission
character/s is /are present in her -
C Fungi iii) Budding
P- Growth Q- Consciousness
D Planaria iv) True regeneration
R- Self consciousness S- Metabolism
T- Cellular organisation 1) A=i), B=ii), C=iii), D=iv)
1) 1 2) 5 2) A=ii), B=iii), C=iv), D=i)
3) 4 4) 2 3) A=i), B=iv), C=iii), D=ii)
94. Growth - 4) A=iii), B=ii), C=i), D=iv)
1) is the defining feature of living organisam 99. Which of the following is incorrect ?
2) qccurs only in non living 1) Reproduction is a characteristic of living
3) Qccurs only in plants and few animals organisms
4) Qccurs in unicellular and multicellular 2) Fungi can reproduce asexually
orgnaism by cell division 3) Reproduction is an all inclusive defining
95. Read the following statements : characteristic of living organisms
(i) All living organisms grow 4) Non-living things cannot replicate or
reproduce by itself
(ii)Increase in mass and increase in number
of individuals are the twin characteristics 100. When green plants capture sunlight and
of growth utlise it to synthesize glucose. the reaction
(iii)In unicellular organisms growth and sinvolved during this process are said to be
reproduction are mutually exclusive 1) Catabolic reactions 2) Anabolic reactions
events 3) Decomposition reactions
(iv)Increase in body mass is not considered 4) Chain reactions
as growth 101. Which of the following statements are correct?
(v)Non-living things also grow (p) In majority of higher plants and animals,
How many of the above statements are growth and reproduction and mutually
correct? encluse events.
1) Three 2) Four (q)In non-living objects growth is by
3) Five 4) Two accumulatio n of similar material from
96. Which of the following is correct ? outside.
1) In animals growth is seen only upto a certain (r) All organism from prokaryotps to highly
age however, cell division occurs in certain evolved eukaryotes respond to stimuli
tissues to replace the lost cells (s) An isolated metabolic reaction outside the
2) In plants growth is seen only upto a certain body of an organism performed in a test tube
age and not throughout the life span neither living non-living :
3) Non-living things lack the property of growth 1) q, r, s 2) p, r, s
4) More than one option is correct 3) p, s, q 4) p, q, r, s

PCB TEST : 32 11 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
102. Read the following statements : 107. Arrange the following cells in an ascending
(i) Cellular organisation of the body is the order of their sizes
defining feature of life forms I. Mycoplasma II. Ostrich egg
(ii)Reproduction is the defining characteristic III. Human RBC IV.Bacteria
of living organisms 1) I, II, III and IV 2) I, IV, III and II
(iii)Metabolism is absent in some living 3) II, IV, I and III 4) IV, III, II and I
organisms 108 Unicellular organisms are
(iv)Metabolism is the defining characteristic 1) not capable of independent existence because
of living organisms they can not perform all the essential functions
(v)Unicellular organisms also perform of life.
thousands of metabolic reactions 2) not capable of independent existence but they
How many of the above statements are can perform all the essential vital functions.
correct? 3) are capable of independent existence and 6.
1) Three 2) Two perform all the essential vital functions.
3) Four 4) One 4) are capable to lead independent existence but
they perform some vital functions.
103. All living organisms are linked to one another
becouse : 109. Select the incorrect statement.
1) They have common genetic material of the 1) Any thing less than a complete structure of a
same type cell does not ensure independent living.
2) They share common genetic matrial but to 2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and
described a living cell.
varying deegrees
3) Robert Brown discovered ‘cell’.
3) All have common cellular organization
4) Cell is the basic unit of structure and function
4) All of the above
of all organisms.
104. Which is not a feature of all living organisms?
110. Select the right option which relates to
1) Metabolism Schwann regarding the following statement
2) Cellular organisation I. He reported that all cells have a thin outer
3) self-consciousness layer which is today known as plasma
4) Consciousness membrane.
105. Prperties of level from where indipendent II. Cell wall is a unique character of plant cell.
existance is started, is due to - III.Body of plants and animals are composed
1) Cell 2) Cell organelle of cells and products of cells.
3) Tissue 4) Tissue system 1) All are correct 2) Only III is correct
106. Match Column-I with Column-II and select 3) II and III are correct 4) All are incorrect.
the correct option from the codes given below. 111. Read the following statements and identify the
correct options given.
Column-I Column-II a. In prokaryotic cell, the nuclear membrane,
A Leeuwen hoek i) First saw and described chloroplasts, mitochondria, microtubules
a living cell and different kinds of pili are absent.
B Robert Brown ii) Presence of cell wall is b. In prokaryotic cell, the ribosomes are of 70S
unique to palnt cells type and in mitochondria of eukaryotic
C Schleiden iii) Discovered the nucleus animal cell, the ribosomes are of 80S type.
D Schwann iv) All plants are composed c. The nuclear membrane, chloroplasts,
of different kind of cells mitochondria, microtubules and pili are
present in a eukaryotic cell.
1) A-i), B-iii), C-iv), D-ii)
1) a and c are wrong and b is correct.
2) A-i), B-ii), C-iii), D-iv) 2) a is correct and b and c are wrong.
3) A-iii), B-i), C-iv), D-ii) 3) a and c are correct and b is wrong.
4) A-i), B-iv), C-ii), D-iii) 4) a, b and c are wrong.

PCB TEST : 32 12 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
112. Which is a difference between prokaryotes 117. These are absent in the cytoplasm and genetic
and eukaryotes? material of bacteria cell respectively.
1) Prokaryotes have RNA, eukaryotes have 1) Ribosomes and pentose sugars
DNA 2) Golgi bodies and histone proteins
2) Prokaryotes have a nucleoid, eukaryotes have 3) Mesosomes and amino acids
a nucleus 4) Chromatophores and DNA
3) Prokaryotes have DNA, eukaryotes have 118. Study the names of different cell organelles /
RNA structure given below.
4) Prokaryotes have a nucleus, eukaryotes have Lysosome, Mitochondria,
a nucleoid Ribosome, Chromosome,
113. All bacteria have the following organelle Thylakoid,
1) Mesosomes 2) Mitochondria Peroxisomes.
3) Chloroplast 4) Golgi complex How many of the above are bound by single
114. Which of the following will comprise the most membrane?
appropriate distinction of prokaryotic cells to 1) Six 2) Two
distinguish them from eukaryotic cells? 3) Four 4) Three
1) Lack of DNA and nuclei 119. Why is a capsule advantageous to a
2) Having dispersed DNA without a bound­ing bacterium?
nuclear membrane and by their lack of 1) Allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s
membrane bound organelles like plas­tids and immune system
mitochondria 2) Allows the bacterium to attach to surfaces
3) Biochemistry being fundamentally dif­ferent. 3) Protects it from desiccation
4) Lack of ribosomes 4) Provides means of locomotion
115. Arrange the following steps in a correct 120. The most abundant lipid in a cell membrane
sequence as per Gram’s staining technique. is
Treatment with 0.5% iodine solution (1), 1) Phospholipid 2) Steroid
washing with water (2), treatment with 3) Cholesterol 4) Cutin
absolute alcohol/acetone (3), staining with
121. Which of the following statements is incorrect:
weak alkaline solution of crystal violet (4).
I. Mycoplasma has no cell wall
1) 4  1  2  3 2) 3  2  1  4
3) 3  1  2  4 4) 4  2  3  1 II. Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism
116. Match Column-I with Column-II and select Ill. Mycoplasma cannot survive witout O2
the correct option from the codes given below. IV.Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and
plants
Column-I Column-II V. True sexuality is not found in bacteria
A Mitochondria i) Without VI. A sort of sexual reproduction by adopting
B Lysosomes membrane a primitive DNA transfer from one bacterium
to the other occurs
C Ribosomes ii) Single membrane
1) All 2) Only III
D Nucleus iii) Double membrane
3) II, IV, V, VI 4) I, III, VI
A B C D 122. Plasmodium (malarial parasite) is :
1) i) ii) iii) iii) 1) Sporozoan
2) iii) i) i) ii) 2) Ciliated protozoan
3) iii) ii) i) iii) 3) Flagellated protozoan
4) ii) iii) i) iii) 4) Amoeboid protozoan

PCB TEST : 32 13 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
123. Coenocytic hypha is : 128. Which of the following is most relevant for
1) Uninucleate hypha the organisms, whose some points are given
below?
2) Multicellular hypha
i) Simple body organization
3) Multinucleate hypha without septae
ii) Complex behaviour
4) Hypha in coelom
iii) Cell wall generally present
124. Column I Column II
iv) Histone proteins absent
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi v)Genes are non-splitted
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi vi) Transcript do not undergo processing
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti 1) Organisms are mostly hetertrophs
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi 2) Organisation is generally multicellular
The correct matching is : colonial/Filamentous
1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 3) Zygotic meiosis
2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4) Alternation of generation is haplontic
3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 129. Alternaria and Colletotrichum commonly
reproduce by
4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
1) Multiple fission 2) Conidiospore
125. Common cold / flu is :
3) Meiosis and syngamy 4) Binary fission
1) A viral disease
130. Fruiting bodies are the basis of classification
2) A bacterial disease
of fungi but it cannot be observed in the
3) A mycoplasmal disease member of
4) A fungal disease 1) Phycomycetes and deuteromycetes
126. Through they are photosynthetic in the 2) Ascomycetes
presence of sunlight, when deprived of sun- 3) Basidiomycetes
light they behave like heterotrophs predating 4) Sac fungi and club fungi
on other smaller organisms. They are
131. Longer dikaryophase and absence of sex
1) Slim moulds organs are characteristics of a class that
2) Protozoans includes
3) Chrysophytes 1) Bracket fungi, smut fungi and puffballs
4) Euglenoids 2) Rust fungi, mushroom and morels
127. Match the following : 3) Dung fungi, algal fungi and mushroom
4) Bread mould, coprophilous fungi and truffles
Column-A Column-B
132. Which of teh following groups is most
O) Euglena a) Cellulose+Pectin relevant with respect to inputs given below?
P) Diatoms b) Cellulosic spore wall i) Cell wall-chitin ii)Motile cells-absent
Q) Dinoflagellates c) Cellulose+Silica iii) Mitospores-non motile
R) Slime moulds d) Pellicle iv)Gametes-multinuceleated
v) Site of meiosis-sporangia
1) O-d, P-a, Q-c, R-b
1) Riccia, Marchantia and Anthoceros
2) O-d, P-c, Q-a, R-b
2) Funaria. Polyrichum and Laminatria
3) O-d, P-c, Q-b, R-a
3) Polysiphonia and Aspergillus
4) O-d, P-c, Q-a, R-d
4) Rhizopus and Mucor

PCB TEST : 32 14 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
133. The heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular 138. A large propertion of oxygen is left unused in
organisms lacking a cell wall, are the human blood even after its uptakes by the
charactersed by body tissues. This O2 :
1) A poplasmic and indefinite growth 1) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epitheial
2) Haploid multicellularity in general tissues
3) Holozoic mode of nutrition 2) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
4) Equilibrium of metabolic flux 3) raises the Pco2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
134. Which of the following is not related with the 4) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation
body, given in figure ? at 96%
139. People who have migrated from the planes to
an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six
months back : [NCERT-272,273]
1) Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms
like nausea, fatigure, etc.
1) RNA and capsid 2) Tail fibres and collar 2) Have the usual RBC count bu ttheir
3) Mosaic in tobacco 4) Acellularity haemoglobin has very high binding affinity
to O2
135. Besidispore are.
3) Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has
1) Asexual spore 2) Vegetative spore
a lower binding affinity to O2
3) Sexual spore 4) All of these
4) Are not physically fit to play games like
136. Asthma may be attributed to :
football
1) Bacterial infection of the lungs
140. When you hold your breath, which of the
2) Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs following gas changes in blood would first
3) Inflammation of the trachea lead to the urge to breath?
4) Accumulation of fluid in the lungs 1) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration
137. The figure given below show a small part of 2) Falling O2 concentration
human lung where exchange of gases takes 3) Rising CO2 concentration
place. In which one of the options given
4) Falling CO2 concentration
below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly
141. Name the pulmonary disease in which
identified along with its fucntion,
alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange
is drastically reduced due to damage in the
alveolar walls :
1) Asthma 2) Pleurisy
3) Emphysema 4) Pneumonia
142. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the
Options : alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful
1) B : Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly expiration, because of :
2) C : Arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues 1) Inspiratory reserve volume
3) A : alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of 2) Tidal volume
respiratory gases 3) Expiratory reserve volume
4) D : Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 4) Residual volume
takes place here

PCB TEST : 32 15 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
143. Read the following statements : 147. The wall of alveoli is -
i) Chest expands because air enters into the 1) Very thin & regular
lungs. 2) Very thick & regular
ii) Air enters into the lungs because chest 3) Very thick & irregular
expands 4) Very thin & irregular
iii) The muscles of the diaphragm contracts 148. Trachea is a straight tube which divides at
because air enters in the lungs the level of -
iv) A healthy human breathes 12-16 times/ 1) 5th lumbar vertebra
minute. 2) 5th thoracic vertebra
1) Four 2) Three 3) 7th thoracic vertebra
3) Two 4) One 4) 3rd lumbar vertebra
144. Choose the correct labelling - A, B, C & D 149. The lungs comprise of -
1) Trachea, Bronchi, Alveoli
2) Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles
3) Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveoli
4) Bronchi, Bronchioles, & Alveoli
150. Read the following statements carefully and
find out how many of them are correct?
i) The lunges are situated in the thoracic
chamber which is anatomically an air-tight
chamber.
ii) The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such
that any change in the volume of the thoracic
cavity will be reflected in the lung
(pulmonary) cavity
iii) Expiration takes place when the intra-
A B C D
pulmonary pressure is higher than the
1) Epiglottis Larynx Trachea Pleura
atmospheric pressure
2) Larynx Trachea Pleura Bronchus
3) Epiglottis Trachea Bronchus Pleura iv) The part starting with the external nostrils up
4) Larynx Bronchus Trachea Pleura to the terminal bronchioles constitute the
conducting part
145. Consider the following lables for mentioned 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
structures and select the correct sequence of 151. Gastric juice contains
their arrangement : 1) trypsin, lipase & rennin
A) Respiratory Bronchiole 2) Trypsin, lipase & renin
B) Tertiary/Segmental Bronchus 3) Pepsin, lipase & rennin
C) Terminal Bronchiole 4) pepsin, lipase & rennin
D) Total pulmonary Bronchioles 152. The alimentary canal begins with an anterior
1) A-B-C-D 2) B-D-C-A opening ____?
3) B-C-D-A 4) B-A-C-D 1) Buccal cavity 2) Mouth
146. The pressure in the lungs with respect to 3) Pharynx 4) oesophagus
atmospheric pressure is___? 153. The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic
gastric juice of stomach by the churning
1) Equal movements of its muscular wall and is called
2) Positive the____?
3) Negative 1) Bolus 2) Bile
4) Some times negative sometimes positive 3) Chyme 4) Mucus

PCB TEST : 32 16 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
154. Which type of dentition found in majority of 161. Which of the following is/are function of large
mammals including human beings.... ? intestine ?
1) Polyphyodont 2) Diphyodont 1) Absorption of some water and minerals
3) Thecodont 4) Both 2 and 3
2) Absorption of some vitamins and certain
155. Alimentary canal possess four layers, choose
drugs
the correct order from outer to inner____
1) Mucosa  Submucosa  Muscularis  3) Secretion of mucus
Serosa 4) All
2) Mucosa  Serosa  Muscularis  162. Which of the following in not PEM (Protein
Submucosaa energy malnutrition) ?
3) Serosa  Muscularis  Submucosa 
1) Marasmus 2) Jaundice
Mucosa
4) Serosa  Submucosa  Mucosa 3) Kwashiorkar 4) All

156. Which one is odd for following function- 163. A cartilagenous flap which prevents the entry
of food into the wind pipe during
1) Parotid gland
swallowings is –
2) Submandibular gland 1) Glottis 2) Gullet
3) Sublingual gland 3) Epiglottis 4) Pharynx
4) Brunner’s gland 164. A small blind sac part of alimentary canal
157. The structural and functional unit of liver is which hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms
____ ? 1) Vermiform appendix
1) Hepatic cells 2) Hepatic cords 2) Caecum
3) Hepatic lobules 4) Glisson’s capsule 3) Colon
158. The intestinal mucosal epithelium has goblet 4) Rectum
cells which secrete___ ? 165. Read the labelling and chosse incorrect –
1) Bicarbonate ions 2) Mucus
3) Enzymes 4) Succus entericus
159. Nucleic acid 
A
 Nucleotides
Indentify the ‘A’ in given enzymatic reaction.
1) Nucleotidase 2) Nucleosidase
3) Nucleases 3) Both 1 and 2
160. Read the labelling and choose incorred –

1) A – common hepatic duct

2) B – Common bile duct
3) C – Pancreas
4) D – Pancreatic duct
166. Ligament is :
1) Modified white fibrous tissue
1) A – Incisors, Diphyodont
2) B – Canine, Diphyodont 2) Modified yellows elastic fibrous tissue
3) C – Premolars, Monophyodont 3) Inelastic fibrous tissue
4) D – Molars, Monophyodont 4) Modified yellow inelastic fibrous tissue

PCB TEST : 32 17 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
167. Identify the muscular tissues labelled as A, B 171. Choose the correctly matched pair :
and C : 1) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
2) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
3) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
4) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
172. Match the Column-I with Column-II:
Column-I Column-II
A Areolar tissue 1) White fat
A B C
B Less mitochondria 2) Osteocytes
1) Striated muscle Smooth muscle Cardiac muscle
C Ligament 3) Loose connective tissue
2) Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle smooth muscle
D Bone 4) Dense regular
3) Smooth muscle Cardiac muscle Skeletal muscle connnective tissue
4) Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle Skeletal muscle Codes :
168. The four sketches (A,B,C & D) given below A B C D
represent four different types of animal tissue. 1) 3 1 4 2
Which one of these is correctly identified in 2) 1 2 3 4
the options given, along with its correct
3) 4 3 2 1
location and function :
4) 2 1 4 3
173. Epiphysis parts of long bones are the sites of
production of :
1) Biles 2) RBCs
3) Hormones 4) Salts
174. Intervertebral disc consists of a shock
Tissue Location Function
absorber connective tissue known as :
Smooth Heart Heart contraction
1) D) 1) Elastin cartilage
muscle tissue
Columnar Nephron Secretion and 2) Hyaline cartilage
2) A)
epithelium absorption 3) Calcified cartilage
Glandular Intestine Secretion
3) B) 4) White fibrous cartilage
epithelium
Collagen fibres Cartilage Attach skeletal 175. Most of cartilages in vertebrate embryo are
4) C) replaced by _____ in adults :
muscles to bones
1) Organs 2) Lymph
169. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also 3) Bone 4) Blood
found in : 176. Bone have a hard and non-pliable ground
1) Tip of the nose 2) Vertebrae substance rich in ___(A)___ salts and __(B)__
fibres :
3) Nails 4) ear ossicles
1) (A) - Magnesium, (B) - Elastin
170. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and
gap junctions are found in : 2) (A) - Calcium, (B) - Collagen
1) Neural tissue 2) Muscular tissue 3) (A) - Phosphorus, (B) - Reticular
3) Connective tissue 4) Epithelial tissue 4) (A) - Calcium, (B) - Reticular

PCB TEST : 32 18 Date : 30/10/2021

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
177. Stretchable & Water proof Epithelium is-
1) Simple cuboidal
2) Simple squamous
3) Simple columnar
4) Transitional
178. Exoskeleton originated form (Eg feathers, nail,
horn, hooves) :
1) Connective tissue proper
2) Epithelium tissue
3) Skeletal tissue
4) Vascular tissue
179. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below
represent four different types of animal
tissues. Which one of these is correct identified
in the options given along with its correct
location and function?

Tissue Location Function

1) A Simple Air sacs of Diffusion
squamous lungs boundary
epithelium
2) B Unicellular Alimentary secretion
gland canal
3) C Bone Trachea Support
4) D Compound Skin Protection
epithelium
180. Germinative layer of keratinized stratified
squamous Epithelium:
1) Cuboidal 2) Squamous
3) Pseudo stratified 4) Transitional

PCB TEST : 32 19 Date : 30/10/2021