Unit 1: Life Stories Practice Test 1: Đề cương ôn tập Tiếng Anh 12 - Học kỳ I Năm học: 2021 - 2022

Đề cương ôn tập Tiếng Anh 12 – Học kỳ I Năm học: 2021 - 2022
UNIT 1: LIFE STORIES

PRACTICE TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. accident B. jazz C. stamps D. watch
Question 2: A. this B. thick C. maths D. thin
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. remember B. influence C. expression D. convenient
Question 4: A. medium B. computer C. formation D. connection
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Van Gogh was ____ to a lunatic asylum where he would spend time on and off until his death
in 1890.
A. related B. referred C. adapted D. committed
Question 6: Elvis Presley was ____ for the idea that rock 'n' roll music was having a negative effect on
American teenagers.
A. accused B. convicted C. criticized D. charged
Question7: Elvis was ____ shy and as a youngster was not keen on performing in public.
A. relatively B. respectively C. virtually D. almost
Question 8: After a hard-working day, I went to ____ bed and had ____ most beautiful dream ever.
A. the - the B. a – the C. a – a D. Ø – the
Question 9: We ____ to the hospital to visit Mike when he ____ to say that he was fine.
A. were driving - was calling B. drove - called C. were driving - called D. drove - was calling
Question 10: While I ____ TV last night, a mouse ran across the floor.
A. watch B. watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 11: When it began to rain, they ____ in the yard.
A. played B. had played C. were playing D. have played
Question 12: Her ____ to medicine was so great that she had little time for anything else.
A. importance B. dedication C. emphasis D. reputation
Question 13: Bill Gates was ____ middle child of William H. Gates II, ____ prominent Seattle Lawyer, and
Mary Gates, who worked as _______ teacher before she had children.
A. the / a / a B. a / a / a C. the / the / a D. the / the / the
Question 14: Some argue that the intellectual life of Bulgarians in the nineteenth century was ____
influenced by Russian culture.
A. superficially B. mightily C. terribly D. strongly
Question 15: He is a captain who leads ____.
A. by instance B. by mirror C. by example D. by sample
Question 16: If necessary, part of the responsibility is ____ by the internal security troops.
A. taken on B. taken over C. taken in D. taken up
Question 17: Nguyen Hue made surprise attack against Chinese during Tet, _____
Vietnamese and Chinese Lunar New Year holiday.
A. a – Ø – Ø B. the – Ø – Ø C. a – the – the D. a – the – Ø
Question 18: There was a knock on the door while we the game show on TV.
A. were enjoying B. enjoyed C. had enjoyed D. had been enjoying
Question 19: Thanks to the help of the teacher, she is _____ encouraging progress in math.
A. doing B. making C. checking D. stopping
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Liz and Laura is going shopping together.
Liz: "Look! This sweater is beautiful." Laura:"_________?"
A. Why not trying it on. B. Why not trying on it.
C. Why not try it on. D. Why not try on it.
Tổ Ngoại Ngữ - Trường THPT Trần Quốc Tuấn Lưu hành nội bộ
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Question 21: Anna is seeing Bill off at the airport.
Anna: “________” Bill: "I will."
A. I'll miss you much. B. Give my best wishes to your parents.
C. Have a nice trip! D. Wish you a happy journey.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The impact of the assembly line helped Ford become the dominant firm in the motorcar
industry.
A. most influential B. subservient C. best-selling D. depressive
Question 23: They all encouraged my creativity and inspired me in many ways.
A. overlooked B. motivated C. rejected D. disappointed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Although many criticized his seemingly over-generous pay. Henry Ford also pointed out that
the high wage helped the workers to be able to afford the cars.
A. lavish B. open-handed C. big-hearted D. mean
Question 25: Annie ran Tobin's Café on the Quay for some 30 years where she was known to be a very
generous and charitable lady.
A. free-handed B. generous C. non-profit-making D. penny-pinching
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Donald John Trump is the 45th President of the United States, in office since January 20, 2017. (26) ____
to being a politician, he is a successful business magnate and television personality as well. The son of a
wealthy real estate developer, Trump attended the Wharton School of the University of Pennsylvania
before taking (27) ____ of his family's business. He owned several beauty (28) ____ and ventured into (29)
____ television as well. Expanding the (30) ____ of his ambitions, he entered national politics in the early
2000s and set his eyes on the presidential office.
Question 26: A. In addition B. In contrast C. Apart D. Other
Question 27: A. steps B. charge C. measures D. advantages
Question 28: A. pageants B. competitions C. tests D. examinations
Question 29: A. realistic B. true C. actual D. reality
Question 30: A. scale B. scope C. horizons D. amount
correct answer to each of the questions.
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein.
His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy and gravity.
Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a
practical application of Einstein's work.
In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he
published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian
movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation
for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of
energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of
waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are
relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the
universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein
presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein
published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the
space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He
opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in
Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United
States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to
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President Franklind. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany
developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.
Question 31: According to the passage I, Einstein's primary work was in the area of ____.
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. math
Question 32: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of
Einstein's discoveries?
A. Radio B. Television C. Automobiles D. Computer
Question 33: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except ____.
A. nationalism
B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine
C. atomic bomb research in the United States
D. the defeat of the Nazis
Question 34: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?
A. Switzerland B. the United States C. Germany D. Israel
Question 35: The word "exalting" in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. criticism B. elimination C. support D. elevation
Question 36: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels ____.
A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.
B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.
C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.
D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.
Question 37: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called ____.
A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. gamma rays D. quanta
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Joyce Carol Oates published her first collection of short stories, By The North Gate, in 1963, two years
after she had received her master's degree from the University of Wisconsin and become an instructor of
English at the University of Detroit. Her productivity since then has been prodigious, accumulating in less
than two decades to nearly thirty titles, including novels, collections of short stories and verse, play and
literary criticism. In the meantime, she has continued to teach, moving in 1967 from the University of
Detroit to the University of Windsor, in Ontario, and, in 1978, to Princeton University Reviewers have
admired her enormous energy, but find a productivity of such magnitude difficult to assess.
In a period characterized by the abandonment of so much of the realistic tradition by authors such as John
Barth, Donald Barthelme, and Thomas Pynchon, Joyce Carol Oates has seemed at times determinedly old-
fashioned in her insistence on the essentially mimetic quality other fiction. Hers is a world of violence,
insanity, Fractured love, and hopeless loneliness. Although some of it appears to come from her own direct
observations, her dreams, and her fears, much more is clearly from the experiences of others. Her first
novel With Shuddering Fall (1964), dealt with stock car racing, though she had never seen a race. In
Them (1969) she focused on Detroit from the Depression through the riots of 1967, drawing much of her
material from the deep impression made on her by the problems of one of her students. Whatever the
source and however shocking the events or the motivations, however, her fictive world remains strikingly
akin to that real one reflected in the daily newspapers, the television news and talk shows, and popular
magazines of our day.
Question 38: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To review Oates' By the North Gate B. To compare some modern writers
C. To outline Oates career D. To describe Oates' childhood
Question 39: Which of the following does the passage indicate about Joyce Carol Oates' first publication?
A. It was not successful B. It was a volume of short fiction
C. It was part of her master's thesis. D. It was about an English instructor in Detroit
Question 40: Which of the following does the passage suggest about Joyce Carol Oates in terms of her
writing career?
A. Most of her work is based on personal experience.
B. Her style is imitative of other contemporary authors.
C. She has produced a surprising amount of fictions in a relative short time.
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D. She has experienced long nonproductive periods in her writing.
Question 41: The word "fictive" in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
A. imaginary B. attractive C. helpful D. impressive
Question 42: Why does the author mention Oates' book Them?
A. It is her best piece of nonfiction B. It is an autobiography
C. It is a typical novel of the 1960's. D. It is a fictional work based on another person's experiences.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: In the latter half of the nineteenth century, physical techniques making it possible to
determine the chemical constitution of stars.
A. latter half B. making it C. to determine D. of stars
Question 44: Last night, while I studied with my tutor, Jane called and asked me out.
A. while B. studied C. called D. asked
Question 45: I have an uncle, an honest man, who is living in the home for the elderly.
A. an B.an C. the D. the
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 46 Connor is said to be very ambitious and aggressive.
A. People regard Connor as an ambitious and aggressive person.
B. People talk Connor as an ambitious and aggressive person.
C. People believe in Conor as an ambitious and aggressive person.
D. People feel Conor as an ambitious and aggressive person.
Question 47. Nobody in my class is as outgoing as I am.
A. I am as outgoing as nobody in my class.
B. I am the more outgoing than nobody in my class.
C. I am the most outgoing person in my class.
D. I am not as outgoing as people in my class.
Question 48. You must never take the helmet off when you drive.
A. Helmets must be worn at all times when driving.
B. Helmets must be taken around with you when you drive.
C. Wearing helmets is never taken into consideration when driving.
D. Helmets are an optional part of you when you drive.
Question 49: You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the television all day.
A. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the television all day.
B. Sitting in front of the television all day helps you take regular exercises.
C. Sitting in front of the television all day and taking exercises are advisable.
D. Don't take regular exercises, just sit in front of the television all day.
Question 50: We had planned to walk right round the lake, but the heavy rain made this impossible.
A. In spite of the heavy rain we managed to walk half way round the lake as planned.
B. The heavy rain nearly prevented us from walking right round the lake.
C. We would have walked right round the lake even if it had rained heavily.
D. If it hadn't rained so heavily, we would have walked right round the lake.
Question 51: "Shall I help you do the dishes, Carlo?" said Robert.
A. Robert suggested helping Carlo with the dishes.
B. Robert suggested to help Carlo do the dishes.
C. Robert offered Carlo to help do the dishes.
D. Robert offered to help Carlo do the dishes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 52. A car hit the fence of my garden. I was cleaning the swimming pool.
A. While a car hit the fence I was cleaning the swimming pool.
B. A car hit the fence and I was cleaning the swimming pool.
C. I was cleaning the swimming pool when a car hit the fence.
D. I was cleaning the swimming pool then a car hit the fence.
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Question 53. He doesn't like going out. He doesn't invite any friends home.
A. He either goes out or invites any friends home.
B. He neither goes out nor invites any friends home.
C. He not only goes out but also invites any friends home.
D. He goes out but not invites any friends home.
Question 54: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 55: We have been friends for years. It is quite easy to share secrets between us.
A. Being friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets.
B. We find it quite easy to share secrets, being friends for years.
C. We have been friends so that it is quite easy to share secrets between us.
D. Having been friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets between us.
UNIT 1: LIFE STORIES

PRACTICE TEST 2
Question 1: A. given B. risen C. ridden D. whiten
Question 2: A. cough B. tough C. rough D. enough
Question 3: A. apartment B. tradition C. different D. expensive
Question 4: A. monitor B. organize C. following D. inviting
Question 5: Hawking was honored with many ____ awards like the Gold Medal of the Royal Astronomical
Society.
A. exceptional B. imperative C. indispensable D. prestigious
Question 6: Her range of media enterprises has made Oprah one of the richest ____ women.
A. ready-made B. self-made C. tailor-made D. independent-made
Question 7: When I ____ home last night, I ____ that Jane ____ a beautiful candle light dinner.
A. had arrived/discovered/preparing B. was arriving/has discovered/was preparing
C. have arrived/was discovering/had prepared D. arrived/discovered/was preparing
Question 8: Tran Hung Dao was a great ____ to lure the enemy to enter deeply into his land, then attacked
to destroy them.
A. strategy B. strategist C. soldier D. king
Question 9: ____ Emperor Quang Trung was ____ second emperor of ____ Tay Son Dynasty, reigning
from 1788 to 1792.
A. The - a - the B. X - a - the C. X - the - the D. X – the - X
Question 10: While I ____ TV last night, a mouse ran across the floor.
A. watch B. watched C. was watching D. am watching
Question 11: When it began to rain, they ____ in the yard.
A. played B. had played C. were playing D. have played
Question 12: When I woke up this morning, it ____.
A. rained B. was raining C. has rained D. is raining
Question 13: Her ____ to medicine was so great that she had little time for anything else.
A. importance B. dedication C. emphasis D. reputation
Question14: ____ Gordons is a very interesting family. They like to travel around ____ world.
A. A – the B . The - the C. A – a D. A-Ø
Question 15: While Tom ____ tennis, Ann ____ a shower.
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A. played / took B. playing / taking C. was play / was take D. was playing / was taking
Question 16: When they ____ in the garden, the phone ____.
A. worked / was ringing B. worked / rang C. were working/rang D. work / rings
Question 17: Oprah Winfrey has been an important role model for black American women, breaking down
many invisible ____.
A. trends B. gaps C. obstacles D. barriers
Question18: It was on Oprah that Armstrong finally made a dramatic ____ that he had used performance-
enhancing drugs during his cycling career.
A. encouragement B. confession C. receipt D. acceptance
Question 19: A year into his presidency, Barack Obama was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize (2009) ____
his promise to promote world peace.
A. about B. for C. with D. on
Question 20: Tom: "How do you like your steak done?" Mary: “________.”
A. I don't like it B. Very little C. Well done D. Very much
Question 21: Tom: "Oops! I'm sorry for stepping on your foot." Mary: “________.”
A. Never mind B. You don't mind C. You're welcome D. That's fine
Question 22: Mother Teresa was a Roman Catholic nun who devoted her life to serving the poor and
destitute around the world.
A. committed B. dedicated C. inspired D. attended
Question 23: Marilyn Monroe has become an iconic representative of fame and female beauty.
A. figure B. image C. typical D. idol
Question 24: Joachim Lafosse confirms his exceptional talent with "Free Student", a film that is more
conventional in its form.
A. out of the ordinary B. abnormal C. usual D. odd
Question 25: The works Da Vinci did finish were often spectacular masterpieces, such as his paintings
The Last Supper and The Mona Lisa.
A. magnificent B. out of this world C. unimpressive D. remarkable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Jack London (1876 – 1916) is an American writer whose work combined powerful realism and humanitarian
sentiment. He was (26)________ in San Francisco. After finishing grammar school, Jack London worked at various
jobs and in 1897 and 1898 he participated (37)________the Alaska Gold Rush. Upon his return to the San Francisco
area, he began to (28)________about his experiences. A collection of his short stories, The Son of the Golf, was (29)
________in 1900. Jack’s colourful life, during which he wrote more than 50 books and which included enormous
popular successes as an author, ended in his suicide at the (30)________of 40.
Question 26. A. grown B. born C. developed D. lived
Question 27. A. in B. to C. at D. of
Question 28. A. speak B. read C. talk D. write
Question 29. A. printed B. ordered C. sold D. published
Question 30. A. moment B. age C. time D. year
correct answer to each of the questions.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in North
Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina's school until the age of fifteen, where he
developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year, on
the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father's, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for
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two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster's Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion,
and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He
then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym
appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling "Oh, Henry' to a family cat. In 1887, Porter man Athol
Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the "Rolling Stone", a venture that failed within a year, and
later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined,
and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New
Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his
wife's continued ill-health, however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and
sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated
man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years
later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve
stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more than 300
stories and gained fame as America's favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after
months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry's stories have
been translated all over the world.
Question 31: According to the passage, Porter's Father was ____.
A. the person who gave him a life-long love of books B. a medical doctor
C. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas D. a licensed pharmacist
Question 32: Why did the author write the passage?
A. to outline the career of a famous American
B. because of his fame as America's favorite short story writer
C. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer
D. to outline the influences on O. Henry's writing
Question 33: The word "imprisonment" in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ____.
A. captivity B. escape C. insult D. punishment
Question 34: What is the passage primarily about?
A. The life and career of William Sydney Porter B. The way to adopt a nickname.
C. O. Henry's influence on American literature. D. The adventures of O. Henry.
Question 35: The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter's wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America
D. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.
Question 36: Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist
B. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called "Rolling Stone".
C. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin
D. Both of Porter's wives died before he died
Question 37: The word "pseudonym" in the passage refers to ____.
A. William Sydney Porter B. O. Henry C. Athol Estes D. the Aunt Lina
questions.
A large number of inventions require years of arduous research and development before they are
perfected. For instance, Thomas Edison had to make more than 1,000 attempts to invent the incandescent
light bulb before he finally succeeded. History is replete with numerous other examples of people trying,
yet failing to make inventions before they eventually succeeded. Yet some inventions have come about not
through hard work but simply by accident in most cases, when someone unintentionally invented
something, the inventor was attempting to create something else. For example, in the 1930s, chemist Roy
Plunkett was attempting to make a new substance that could be used to refrigerate items. He mixed some
chemicals together. Then, he put them into a pressurized container and cooled the mixture. By the time his
experiment was complete, he had a new invention. It was not a new substance that could be used for
refrigeration though. Instead, he had invented Teflon, which is today most commonly used to make
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nonstick pots and pans. Similarly, decades earlier, John Pemberton was a pharmacist in Atlanta, Georgia.
He was attempting to create a tonic that people could use whenever they had headaches. While he was not
successful in that endeavor, he managed to invent Coca-Cola, the world - famous carbonated soft drink.
Scientists have also made crucial discoveries by accident when they were conducting experiments. In 1928,
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, an antibiotic in this manner. He discovered some mold growing
in a dish with some bacteria. He noticed that the bacteria seemed to be avoiding the mold. When he
investigated further, he determined some of the many useful properties of penicillin, which has saved
millions of lives over the past few decades. Likewise, in 1946, scientist Percy Spencer was conducting an
experiment with microwaves. He had a candy bar in his pocket, and he noticed that it suddenly melted. He
investigated and learned the reason why that had happened. Soon afterward, he built a device that could
utilize microwaves to heat food, the microwave oven.
Question 38: Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage ____.
A. History's Most Important Inventions B. Accidental Inventions and Discoveries
C. How to Become a Great Inventor D. You Don't Always Get What You Want
Question 39: In paragraph 1, the word "arduous" is closest in meaning to ____.
A. detailed B. tough C. specific D. constant
Question 40: In paragraph 2, the word "endeavor" is closest in meaning to ____.
A. research B. dream C. request D. attempt
Question 41: What does the author say about Teflon?
A. People first used it as a refrigeration device. B. It was created many years before Coca-Cola.
C. The man who made it was a pharmacist. D. It is used for kitchenware nowadays.
Question 42: Who was John Pemberton?
A. The person who made Teflon B. The creator of Coca-Cola
C. The man who discovered penicillin D. The inventor of the microwave
Question 43: Only after Theodore Roosevelt became president did conservation developed into a major
environmental issue in the United States
A. Only after B. developed C. into D. environmental
Question 44: Together Rogers and Hammerstein wrote nine musicals, the first of whose was Oklahoma
(1943).
A. Together B. musicals C. first D. whose
Question 45: In the latter half of the nineteenth century, physical techniques making it possible to
determine the chemical constitution of stars.
A. latter half B. making it C. to determine D. of stars
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 46. At no time Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom.
A. Jane is always using my bathroom without asking!
B. It is very unusual for Jane to ask me when she uses my bathroom.
C. Jane has no time to ask me when she uses my bathroom.
D. Sometimes Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom.
Question 47. I have accustomed myself to getting up very early.
A. I have used to getting up very early.
B. I have been used to getting up very early.
C. I have put getting up very early to good use.
D. I have made use of getting up very early.
Question 48. When I was young, I wasn't allowed to watch much TV.
A. When I was young, my parents did not make me watch much TV.
B. When I was young, my parents did not let me watch much TV.
C. When I was young, my parents did not ask me to watch much TV.
D. When I was young, my parents did not take me to watch much TV.
Question 49: Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.
A. No one other than their own mother can separate Simon and Mike.
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B. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.
C. It's very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.
D. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.
Question 50: Those who are riding a motorbike are not allowed to take off their helmet.
A. People must never take their helmet off while they are riding a motorbike.
B. Those who are wearing a helmet are not allowed to ride a motorbike.
C. It is the helmet that one needn't wear when he is riding a motorbike.
D. You should not wear a helmet when you are riding a motorbike.
Question 51: "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.
B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.
C. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.
D. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.
Question 52: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 53: The traffic is so heavy. It will take us at least an hour to get there.
A. Unless the traffic is heavy, it will take us at least an hour to get there.
B. As the traffic is so heavy, it will take us at least an hour to get there.
C. The traffic was so heavy that it took us an hour to get there.
D. We will spend more than an hour to get there to avoid heavy traffic.
Question 54. Harry's life is rather dull. That's the reason why I don't want to talk about him.
A. The reason why I don't want to talk about Harry is that his life is quite dull.
B. Harry's life is rather dull because I don't want to talk about it.
C. What I don't like to talk about is Harry's dull life.
D. Reasonably, I don't want to talk about Harry's rather dull life.
Question 55. A car hit the fence of my garden. I was cleaning the swimming pool.
A. While a car hit the fence I was cleaning the swimming pool.
B. A car hit the fence and I was cleaning the swimming pool.
C. I was cleaning the swimming pool when a car hit the fence.
D. I was cleaning the swimming pool then a car hit the fence.
UNIT 2: URBANISATION
PRACTICE TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. none B. phone C. stone D. zone
Question 2. A. life B. like C. live D. lively
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. emigrate B. immigrate C. advocate D. inhabit
Question 4. A. confide B. comfort C. inflate D. severe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. It is necessary that you ____ able to come with us.
A. are B. be C. being D. to be
Question 6. I suggest that Peter ____ the directions carefully before assembling the bicycle.
A. read B. reading C. reads D. to read
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Question 7. We request that she ____ the window.
A. not open B. not to open C. not opening D. to not open
Question 8. The UK is considering the proposal that it ____ compensations for damages of the Indian
embassy.
A. been paying B. is paying C. paid D. pay
Question 9. Howard prefers that I ____ to his party.
A. am going B. go C. going D. will go
Question 10. Mary demanded that the heater____ immediately. Her apartment was freezing.
A. repaired B. be repaired C. being repaired D. been repaired
Question 11. The monk insisted that the tourists ____ the temple until they had removed their shoes.
A. not enter B. not entering C. not to enter D. to not enter
Question 12. The recommendation that she ____ a holiday was carried out.
A. has taken B. take C. taken D. taking
Question 13. Was it really necessary that I ____ there watching you the entire time you were rehearsing for
the play? It was really boring watching you repeat the scenes over and over again.
A. am sitting B. be sitting C. being sitting D. sitting
Question 14. I propose that we all ____ together so that nobody gets lost along the way.
A. be driving B. drive C. driven D. driving
Question 15. It is impolite that you ____ there when he gets off the plane.
A. be not standing B. been not standing C. not be standing D. not been standing
Question 16. Each child had to ____ a short speech to the rest of the class.
A. do B. carry out C. make D. take
Question 17. Has the interviewer ____ the date? Yes, it's on next Monday.
A. amend B. fixed C. moved D. revised
Question 18. Don't worry. We're in good time; there's ____ to hurry.
A. impossible B. no need C. no purpose D. unnecessary
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
Question 19. She's a down-to-earth woman with no pretensions.
A. ambitious B. creative C. idealistic D. practical
Question 20. It is crucial that urban people not look down on rural areas.
A. evil B. optional C. unnecessary D. vital
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
Question 21. This restaurant was highly recommended for good service, delicious food and kind-hearted
boss.
A. ambitious and greedy B. attentive and helpful
C. generous and gracious D. polite and friendly
Question 22. Since 1979, ULI has honored outstanding development projects in the private, public, and
nonprofit sectors with the ULI Global Awards for Excellence program, which today is widely recognized
as the development community's most prestigious awards program.
A. important B. notable C. ordinary D. respected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 23. Mark: "What about starting the presentation with results of our research?
Jenny: “________ “
A. Congratulations! B. Sounds great! C. Well done! D. What a pity!
Question 24. Mark: “____” Jenny: "I think there are various reasons."
A. Do you mind if I think about reasons for urbanization?
B. I'd like to invite you to think about reasons for urbanization.
C. What do you think about reasons for urbanization?
D. Would you mind thinking about the reasons for urbanization?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
AN URBANISING WORLD
10
More than two thirds of the world's urban population is now in Africa, Asia and Latin America. Since
1950, the urban population of these regions has grown more than (25 _____. Rapid urban growth has also
brought a huge increase the number of large cities, including many that have reached sizes that are
historically (26) ____. Just two centuries ago, there were only two "million cities" worldwide (that is, cities
with one million or more inhabitants) - London and
Beijing (Peking). By 1950, there were 80; today there are over 300. Most of these million cities are in
Africa, Asia, and Latin America, and (27) ____have population that have grown more than tenfold since
1950. Brasilia, the federal capital of Brazil, did not exist in 1950 and now has more than 2 million
inhabitants.
"Mega-cities," with ten or more million inhabitants are a new phenomenon. The first city to reach this size
was New York in around 1940. There were 12 mega-cities by 1990 (the latest year for which there are (28)
_____ accurate statistics as data for 2000 censuses are not available or censuses are scheduled for 2001);
seven were in Asia, three in Latin America, and two in the United States. In 1800, the average size of the
world's 100 largest cities was fewer than 200 000 inhabitants but now it is over 5 million. These (29)
______ give the impression of rapid urbanization that is primarily focused on large cities. But this is not
the case.
Question 25. A. fivefold B. five time C. twices D. doubles
Question 26. A. unsurpassed B. unrivaled C. unmatched D. unprecedented
Question 27. A. the number of B. many C. quite a little D. a great deal of
Question 28. A. roughly B. generally C. reasonably D. relatively
Question 29. A. documents B. circumstances C. opinions D. statistics
questions.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too resources and too little space, is
closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of
resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a
certain number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much
food and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple
farming, gardening, herding, hunting and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small
numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large
quantities of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale
irrigation and agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high
densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country's level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world's highest population densities, with 1,147
persons per sq. km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual
farming, which contributes to the country's extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries
in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These
countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore
have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less
than 30 persons per sq. km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these
countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity.
As a consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density
and high agricultural productivity, it is one of the world's wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies
commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often
provide little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their
families small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates
of population growth.
Question 30. In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because .
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A. there is an abundance of resources B. there is no shortage of skilled labor
C. there is lack of mechanization D. there are small numbers of laborers
Question 31. Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on _________.
A. population density in metropolitan areas
B. its population density only
C. its high agricultural productivity
D. both population density and agricultural productivity
Question 32. The phrase "engage in" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. look into B. give up C. escape from D. participate in
Question 33. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
B. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
C. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
D. There is no connection between a country's culture and overpopulation.
Question 34. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem B. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
C. Poverty in Developing countries D. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
Read the passage, and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question.
LIVING ROOFTOPS
Creative urban planners continually seek new ways to make cities more satisfying places to live. One
versatile tool in this pursuit is the "green roof" which draw from fundamental precepts in architectural
design, horticulture, and urban development. At its most basis, a green roof system transforms a
conventional roof into a living roof by adding a waterproof membrane. The membrane is then covered with
drainage and filter layers, a growth medium (e.g. soil) and live plant. A green roof can be built on a flat or
graded surface, can be thick or thin, and can feature flowering plants. Familiar rooftop gardens have plants
in pots or planters. A green roof goes further. It is an integral part of a building and one that offers
ecological and economic benefits, as well as aesthetic appeal.
Roofs covered in living plants were used in ancient Mesopotamia for aesthetic purposes (the famed
Hanging Garden of Babilon), in Viking settlements, and on the American Great Plains for basic shelter and
insulation (sod houses). The green roof as we know it, however, is a relatively recent creation. The first
modern green roof was developed in Germany during the late 1960s and early 1970s. Their man function
was to slow water drainage that was straining storm-sewer systems in urban areas where natural vegetation
was scare. The idea subsequently spread through Europe and made a few inroads into some American
cities.
A wide range of environment benefits can result from the adoption of green roof. Preliminary research
suggests that living roofs help clean polluted urban air. For example, grass acts as a natural air filter,
removing each day 0.2 kilograms of airborne particulates from the air per square meter of grass- covered
surface. By converting carbon dioxide (CO2) into oxygen through photosynthesis, plants also help limit the
build-up of year to meet the annual oxygen requirement of an average human being.
Rooftop green space in cities also helps mitigate what scientists call the urban heat island effect.
Structure surfaced with conventional building material-paved roads and black rooftops, for example -
absorb-solar radiation and release it into the near surface environment in the form of heat. The effect is to
raise the air temperature in a big city by up to 5°C over the temperature in the surrounding countryside.
Using mathematical models, a Canadian research team found that if only 5 percent of the roof area of
Toronto had green roofs, air temperature would be reduced by 1°C to 2°C Celsius.
Green roofs save money through energy and resource conservation. Studies done in Germany, where an
estimated 10 percent of all roofs today are green, suggest that green roofs last two or three times longer
than conventional roofs. The long service life of a green roof means that fewer resources and less energy
will be expended in roof replacement.
Green roofs also save money by lowering the cost of interior heating and cooling One study found that an
average building with a green roof requires 25 percent less cooling in commercial facility in Germany with
a green roof save enough money in three years through lower heating and cooling costs, since additional
cooling tower had become unnecessary. As energy costs increase, the tenants of buildings with green roofs
will undoubtedly reap additional savings.
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A city's livability is as much about the attractiveness of one's surroundings as it is about living costs. The
aesthetic benefits of green roofs should not be discounted. Green roofs designed to be parks or gardens can
help address a lack of green space in many urban areas. Some are even used for the small-scale, largely
recreational production of edible vegetables. All this vegetation naturally attracts songbirds, ducks and
other waterfowl, butterflies, and bats. Especially for those whose windows look out over a city's roofs
cape- apartment dwellers, office workers, even patients in high-rise hospitals a green roof can provide a
priceless connection with nature and the cycle of seasons. On the whole, living roofs add plants into urban
landscapes, making cities more environmentally sound and less stressful, and they do so in a cost-effective
manner.
Question 35. According to paragraph 1, green roofs¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬_______
A. are very heavy B. thrive mostly in warm climates
C. are composed of several layers of material D. can provide most food a city needs
Question 36. The word "one" in the passage refers to ________.
A. a pot or planter B. apart of a building C. an environmental benefit D. a green roof
Question 37. According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about modern green roofs EXCEPT .
A. they were initially developed in Germany B. they were designed to slow water drainage
C. they were used in Viking settlements D. they are found in a few American cities
Question 38. The word "filter" in the passage is closet in meaning to_______.
A. producer B. container C. cooler D. cleaner
Question 39. According to paragraph 3, carbon dioxide is .
A. an airborne particulate B. an environmental benefit
C. something a green roof can help control D. something a green roof can help make
Question 40. According to paragraph 4, temperatures in urban areas tend to be higher than in the
surrounding countryside because .
A. cities are more crowded B. vehicles moving on paved roads create heat
C. green roof in rural areas absorb heat D. commonly used building materials retain heat
Question 41. What can be inferred from paragraph 5 about conventional roofs?
A. Replacing one is costly B. They are one type of living roof.
C. Resources needed to build them are now scare. D. They have a service life of less than ten years.
Question 42. In paragraph 6, why does the author mention the case of the commercial facility?
A. To illustrate the high cost of buying a green roof
B. To show that businesses have expenses homeowners don't have
C. To give one case in which green roofs produce energy
D. To support the claim that green roofs can reduce costs
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 43. Urban development earns magnify the risk of environmental hazards for example flash
A B C
flooding.
D
Question 44. Even if rural areas are winning or losing from increased trade, however, remains uncertain.
A Whether B C D
Question 45. Strong city planning will be essential in managing those and others difficulties as the world's
urban areas well. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. There was an upward trend in the demand for labor force.
A. The demand for labor force declined. B. The demand for labor force increased.
C. The demand for labor force reduced. D. The demand for labor force remained stable.
Question 47. The industrial production plummeted spectacularly from 1990 to 2000.
A. The industrial production fell quickly in ten years from 1990 to 2000.
B. The industrial production fell steadily in ten years from 1990 to 2000.
C. The industrial production rose sharply in ten years from 1990 to 2000.
D. The industrial production rose slightly in ten years from 1990 to 2000.
13
Question 48. There was a 7% decrease in the student enrollment of the university.
A. The student enrollment of the university decreased by 7%.
B. The student enrollment of the university decreased for 7%.
C. The student enrollment of the university decreased in 7%.
D. The student enrollment of the university decreased to 7%.
Question 49. Rapid ups and downs in the number of students could be observed in June.
A. The number of students changed dramatically in June.
B. The number of students did not stay the same in June.
C. The number of students fluctuated wildly in June.
D. The number of students went up and then fell in June.
Question 50. The rapid urbanization led to many serious problems. One of those is the growth of slums.
A. The rapid urbanization is the cause of many serious problems such as the growth of slums.
B. The rapid urbanization is consequent of many serious problems like the growth of slums.
C. The rapid urbanization is created by many serious problems such as the growth of slums.
D. The rapid urbanization is resulted by many serious problems like the growth of slums.
Question 51. You can always count on me.
A. I'll never take you down. B. I'll never let you down.
C. I'll never hold you down. D. I'll never make you down.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 52. The share price fluctuated. The trend was slightly upward.
A. The share price fluctuated; as the upward trend.
B. The share price fluctuated; consequently, the trend was slightly upward.
C. The share price fluctuated; due to the upward trend.
D. The share price fluctuated; however, the trend was slightly upward.
Question 53. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population. At the same time, Europe is
home to 14 per cent of the world's urban population.
A. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population although Europe is home to 14 per cent of
the world's urban population.
B. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population due to Europe is home to 14 per cent of the
world's urban population.
C. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population, nevertheless, Europe is home to 14 per cent
of the world's urban population.
D. Asia is home to 50 per cent of the world's urban population whereas Europe is home to 14 per cent of
the world's urban population.
Question 54. The price plunged from 300 to 20 in 1995. It plateaued over the next 3 years.
A. The price decreased by 280 in 1995 before stabilizing for the next 3 years.
B. The price decreased for 280 in 1995 before leveling off for the next 3 years.
C. The price increased by 280 in 1995 before leveling off for the next 3 years.
D. The price increased for 280 in 1995 before stabilizing for the next 3 years.
Question 55. We paid for the meal. We wanted to say sorry for what we had done.
A. In order to pay for the meal, we wanted to say sorry for what we had done.
B. We paid for the meal in order to say sorry for what we had done.
C. We paid for the meal although we wanted to say sorry for what we had done.
D. The meal we paid for is what we want to say sorry for what we had done.
PRACTICE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. ancient B. educate C. stranger D. transfer
Question 2. A. account B. astound C. country D. mounting
14
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. estimate B. prestigious C. proportion D. urbanity
Question 4. A. drawback B. greenhouse C. mindset D. overload
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. It is recommended that the vehicle owner ____ present at the court.
A. be B. be not С. not being D. not to be
Question 6. Congress has decreed that the gasoline tax ____.
A. abolish B. abolished C. be abolished D. been abolished
Question 7. The doctor recommended that she ____ a specialist about the problem.
A. be seen B. seeing C. should be seen D. should see
Question 8. It is essential that she ____ the truth.
A. told B. should be tell C. should be told D. should been told
Question 9. It has been proposed that we ____ the topic.
A. not change B. not to change C. to change D. to not change
Question 10. They hope to ____ a cure for the disease.
A. catch up on B. come up with C. fill up with D. go out with
Question 11. Don't worry, we'll try to ____ the problems and find a solution for everyone.
A. carry on B. make up C. sort out D. switch off
Question 12. Tony was totally opposed but if you give him some time to think about what you said. I'm
sure he will ____ to your point of view.
A. come round B. deal with C. fit out D. keep down
Question 13. The rapid rise in the global population is not expected to start ____ until past the middle of
this century, by which time it will have reached 9 billion.
A. falling off B. knocking down C. looking over D. passing out
Question 14. In order to apply for a credit card, Tom first has to ____ a four-page form at the bank.
A. catch on B. come up with C. fill in D. hand out
Question 15. The teacher explained so much stuff in just one lesson that most of the students could ____
only half of it.
A. break up B. get through C. let out D. take in
Question 16. The map of top ten most densely ____ countries in the world includes Monaco, Singapore,
Bahrain, Malta and Bangladesh.
A. populated B. populating C. population D. popular
Question 17. Interactive games could be used in order to keep students ____.
A. engage B. engaged C. engagement D. engaging
Question 18. We could mention some solution and government ____ in the conclusion.
A. initiates B. initiatives C. initiations D. initiators
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
Question 19. Polish artist Pawel Kuzinsky creates satirical paintings filled with thought-provoking
messages about the world.
A. inspirational B. provocative C. stimulating D. universal
Question 20. She was brought up in the slums of Leeds.
A. downtown area B. industrial area C. poor area D. rural area
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
Question 21. Many people move to urban areas seeking for job opportunity as well as stable employment.
A. durable B. long-lasting C. steady D. temporary
Question 22. In cities, two of the most pressing problems facing the world today also come together:
poverty and environmental degradation.
A. destruction B. poisoning C. pollution D. progression
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 23. Jenny: "I think higher living standard is one of the reasons that many people want to be a city
dweller." Mark: “____”
15
A. I couldn't agree more. B. It's nice of you to say so.
C. That's quite all right. D. Why not?
Question 24. Anna: "Personally, I love peaceful and quiet life in rural areas." Jenny: “____”
A. Neither do I. B. No, I won't. C. So do I. D. Yes, I like it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Rapid urbanization can hold long-term economic, social and environmental promise for developing
countries (25) ____ investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services are efficient and
sustainable, the World Bank says in a new report.
In the next two decades, cities are (26) ____ to expand by another two billion residents, as people move in
unprecedented numbers from rural areas to pursue hopes and aspirations in cities. More than 90 (27) ____
of this urban population growth is expected to occur in the developing world, where many cities are already
struggling to provide basic needs such as water, electricity, transport, health services and education.
Report authors note that most new urban growth will not take place in the “megacities” of the world e.g.
Rio de Janeiro, Jakarta or New Delhi (28) ____ rather in less commonly recognized “secondary” cities -
places like Fushun in China, and Surat in India.
To help policymakers prepare for and manage growth, the report distills lessons learned from 12 countries
across all geographic regions and stages of urbanization. It then translates these global lessons (29) ____
practical policy advice.
Question 25. A. if B. unless C. whether D. while
Question 26. A. predictable B. predicted C. predicting D. predictions
Question 27. A. per cent B. percentage C. proportion D. rate
Question 28. A. but B. nor C. or D. yet
Question 29. A. by B. into C. up to D. up with
questions.
The increase in urbanization causes different problems. Air and water pollution are amongst the major
issue we have to tackle.
In the first place, cars, factories and burning waste emit dangerous gases that change the air quality in our
cities and pose threats to our health. Dangerous gases such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides cause
respiratory diseases, for instant, bronchitis and asthma. Those are also proved to have long-term effects on
the environment.
Furthermore, with the increased population, it becomes difficult to manage the waste generated in cities.
Most of the waste is discharged or dumped into rivers or onto streets. The waste pollutes water and makes
it unfit for human consumption. Subsequently, it becomes more and more difficult for city dwellers to get
clean water. Some cities in Africa are unable to provide adequate water supply because most of the water is
lost in pipe leakages. In fact, most city dwellers in developing countries are forced to boil their water or to
buy bottled water, which is very expensive.
There are several actions that could be taken to eradicate the problems described above. Firstly, a simple
solution would be joining community efforts to address problems affecting your city. Ask your parents,
friends and relatives to join in as well. These efforts might include clean-up campaigns, recycling projects
and a signature campaign to ask the government to do something about the situation. A second measure
would be encouraging your teacher to talk about these problems and to discuss how young people can help
to solve them. Finally, writing to local organizations working on these issues for ideas on how you can
contribute to solve them.
Question 30. The word tackle in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. deal with B. make up C. try on D. turn down
Question 31. The word those in paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. bronchitis and asthma B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides
C. dangerous gases D. respiratory diseases
Question 32. According to the passage, in some cities in Africa ____.
A. people are allowed to dump waste into rivers and on streets
B. people aren't provided enough water due to leaking pipes
C. people have found some solutions to the problems
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D. people would rather use boiling water and bottled water
Question 33. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. City problems should be taught and be topic for students to discuss at school.
B. Children must ask for their parent's permission before joining community efforts.
C. Participators might take part in different kinds of projects and campaigns.
D. People can contribute in solving the problems by writing to local organizations working on these issues.
Question 34. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Environment degradation: Air and water pollution
B. Environmental pollution: Problems and actions
C. Increasing urbanization: Causes and effects
D. Increasing urbanization: Effects and solutions
questions.
Buying a house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes. Yet, in India this act is
fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for justice. Occasionally, deviant promoters are
called to account as was the case in the detention of Unitech's promoters. This incident shows up the fallout
of an absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate promoters. A real
estate bill, which is presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to fill this gap. It has been debated for over
two years and should be passed by Parliament in the budget session.
India is in the midst of rapid urbanization and urban population is expected to more than double to about
900 million over the next three decades. Unfortunately, even the current population does not have adequate
housing. A government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this shortage is to be
alleviated quickly, India's messy real estate sector needs reforms.
The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between buyers and sellers. Transparency, a rare
commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters have to upload project details on the regulators' website.
Importantly, standard definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking possession of
a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfront, a part of the money collected for a real estate project is
ring-fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given the uncertainty, which exists in India on land titles, the
real estate bill provides title insurance. This bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees and
its passage now brooks no delay.
This bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the journey should not end with it.
State governments play a significant role in real estate and they are often the source of problems. Some
estimates suggest that real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state
departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses. Sensibly, NDA government's
project to provide universal urban housing forces states to institute reforms to access central funding.
Without real estate reforms at the level of states, it will not be possible to meet the ambition of making
housing accessible for all urban dwellers.
Question 35. It can be inferred from the passage that ____.
A. buying house is not a single largest individual investment
B. in India, no one depends on laws for justice
C. the real estate bill does not provide title insurance
D. urbanization in India has increased rapidly
Question 36. According to the passage, which of the following is the pending in Rajya Sabha?
A. NDA government's new scheme B. Universal rural housing programme
C. Real estate bill D. Universal urban housing programme
Question 37. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Current population does not have adequate housing in India.
B. India's real estate sector needs reforms.
C. Real state bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees.
D. Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the next three decades.
Question 38. According to the passage, what is the source of problem in real estate?
A. Buyers and sellers B. Central governments
C. Market money makers D. State governments
Question 39. The word alleviated in the second paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
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A. aggravated B. deaden C. diminished D. relieved
Question 40. The word possession in the third paragraph refers to ____.
A. lease B. need C. proprietary rights D. renting
Question 41. The word escalation in the forth paragraph refers to ____.
A. decrease B. growth C. reduction D. sustainability
Question 42. It is impossible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for urban dwellers ____.
A. with real estate reforms at state level B. without support of central government
C. without passing the bill in Rajya Sabha D. without real estate reforms at the level of states
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 43. Because of (A) urbanization continues, not only (B) the infrastructure for health but also (C)
other social service in cities need improving (D).
Question 44. Government should be used (A) national resources in a more efficient (B) way in order to (C)
meet the need of growing populations. (D)
Question 45. What (A) problems could it (B) cause and how citizens should (C) prevent these challenges
will be covered (D) in my essay.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46. There was a 30% rise in the rate of unemployment.
A. There was a rise by 30% in the rate of unemployment.
B. There was a rise of 30% in the rate of unemployment.
C. There was a rise to 30% in the rate of unemployment.
D. There was a rise up 30% in the rate of unemployment.
Question 47. Rapid ups and downs in the number of students could be observed in June.
A. The number of students changed dramatically in June.
B. The number of students did not stay the same in June.
C. The number of students fluctuated wildly in June.
D. The number of students went up and then fell in June.
Question 48. There was moderate fluctuation in the availability of seasonal produce.
A. The availability of seasonal produce experienced a stable period.
B. The availability of seasonal produce is recorded leveling off.
C. The availability of seasonal produce hardly moved up and down.
D. The availability of seasonal produce went through a period of erratic.
Question 49. There was a moderate fluctuation in the availability of seasonal produce.
A. The availability of seasonal produce experienced a stable period.
B. The availability of seasonal produce is recorded leveling off.
C. The availability of seasonal produce hardly moved up and down.
D. The availability of seasonal produce went through a period of erratic.
Question 50. There was a 5% drop in the student enrollment of the university.
A. The student enrollment of the university dropped by 5%.
B. The student enrollment of the university dropped for 5%.
C. The student enrollment of the university dropped in 5%.
D. The student enrollment of the university dropped to 5%.
Question 51. I think we should change the topic of our presentation.
A. It's high time that we change the topic of our presentation.
B. I'd rather our presentation change the topic.
C. It's high time that we changed the topic of our presentation.
D. I suggest we to change the topic of our presentation.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 52. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17%. In 1969, it was about 20%.
A. The rate of urbanization in Indonesia increased by 3% in 1969 followed by a slight fall to 17% in 1960.
B. The rate of urbanization in Indonesia rose to 20% before falling to 17% in the period of nine years from
1960.
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C. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17% after falling slightly by 3% in the period of
nine years.
D. In 1960, the rate of urbanization in Indonesia was about 17% followed by a slight increase of 3% in
1969.
Question 53. The expenditure of the office remained stable. The profit rose by 25%.
A. The profit rose by 25% although the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
B. The profit rose by 25% as a result of the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
C. The profit rose by 25% despite the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
D. The profit rose by 25% owing to the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
Question 54. The expenditure of the office remained stable. The profit rose by 25%.
A. The profit rose by 25% although the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
B. The profit rose by 25% as a result of the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
C. The profit rose by 25% despite the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
D. The profit rose by 25% owing to the stabilization of the office's expenditure.
Question 55. Increasing urbanization has led to problems. Cities are centers of civilization and culture.
A. Although increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and culture.
B. Despite increasing urbanization has led to problems, but cities are centers of civilization and culture.
C. In spite of increasing urbanization has led to problems, yet cities are centers of civilization and culture.
D. Though increasing urbanization has led to problems, cities are centers of civilization and culture.
UNIT 3: THE GREEN MOVEMENT

PRACTICE TEST 1
Question 1: A. decide B. decisive C. decision D. reliable
Question 2: A. dangerous B. language C. energy D. change
Question 3: A. reception B. arrival C. prestigious D. literal
Question 4: A. renewable B. influential C. advantageous D. beneficial
Question 5: Most reptiles have three chambers in their hearts, ____ some do have four.
A. in spite B. although C. despite of D. so long as
Question 6. Mammals, ____ are warm-blooded, meaning that they generate their own body heat and are
thus more tolerant of temperature extremes.
A. On the other hand B. In contrast C. In short D. In conclusion
Question7. Birds and mammals, ____ they are warm blooded, move more swiftly and have greater physical
endurance than reptiles.
A. although B. thus C. because D. besides
Question 8. We should set our printer's default ____ it prints on both sides of the page.
A. besides B. and C. so D. therefore
Question 9. Your computer may go to sleep, ____ it's still consuming energy.
A. but B. even though C. so D. furthermore
Question 10. We use compact florescent light bulbs, ____ last 10 times longer than incandescent bulbs.
A. what B. that C. which D. they
Question 11. We should keep our freezer full ____ it runs more efficiently than an empty one.
A. therefore B. but C. so D. because
Question 12. These eggs come from free-range chickens ____ eat only organic grains.
A. which B. what C. who D. they
Question 13. An example of ____ is plant material that produces electricity with steam.
A. biomass B. fossil fuel C. purification D. pathway
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Question 14. There was no food in the refrigerator, so she had to visit the grocery store to ____ their
supply.
A. conserve B. make full C. spoilt D. replenish
Question 15. Many native plants have been seriously ____ by the introduction of exotic plants which are
taking over.
A. depleted B. caused C. disposed D. fulfill
Question 16. Too many products come in ____ packaging, and it's so wasteful!
A. disposed B. disposing C. disposable D. disposal
Question 17. China, India, Nepal, Vietnam, Indonesia, the Philippines, and other nations of Asia and the
Pacific are making substantial commitments to ____ their natural resources.
A. replace B. conserving C. conservation D. be conserved
Question 18. Plant shade trees to reduce summer heat ____ reduce watering needs in summer months.
A. and B. but C. so D. or
Question 19. It has been said that the wars of the future will not be fought over land. ____, they will be
fought over the water supply.
A. However B. Besides C. Instead D. Therefore
Question 20: “I believe you can do it. Don’t be so anxious, Helen.” “_______”
A. You can say that again B. I’m sorry, but it’s not possible.
C. You bet! Don’t give up D. Thanks. But I’m really nervous.
Question 21: “What a nice watch you’re wearing.” “_____”
A. I’m with you. You’ll buy another one for you.
B. Thanks. I bought it on my trip to Switzerland.
C. Sure. That’s the best watch on sale.
D. No harm done. You can take it.
Question 22: For environmental safety, we need to find ways to reduce emission of fumes and smoke of
factories.
A. leak B. release C. poison D. pollutant
Question 23: The advances of commercial airplanes resulted in a shrinking world.
A. decreasing B. reduced C. smaller D. compressing
Question 24: 'If we continue to deplete our planets natural resources, we will damage the environment
significantly.
A. use up B. add to C. reduce D. exhaust
Question 25: She stays incredibly focused and is never distracted by others.
A. disturbed B. confused C. bewildered D. concentrated
Question 26: Scientists say forests are being destroyed by air pollution
A. Forests are being destroyed by pollution, scientists say
B. Scientists are blamed for destroying forests
C. Scientists say that there’s much air pollution in the forests.
D. Scientists blame air pollution for the destruction of forests
Question 27: Even though Julie is a champion swimmer, she still practices every day.
A. Julie practices every day despite the fact that she is a champion swimmer.
B. Even though Julie practices every day, she is still a champion swimmer.
C. If Julie practices every day, she’ll be a champion swimmer
D. Julie swims every day; consequently, she is a champion swimmer.
Question 28: Many people enjoy collecting books because they enjoy reading.
A. It is because many people enjoy reading that they collecting books.
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B. Enjoying collecting books is the reason that makes many people enjoy reading books.
C. It is because many people enjoy collecting books that they enjoy reading.
D. Many people enjoy collecting books, which makes them read books
Question 29: My sister thinks the film is too frightening. I am not scared at all.
A. My sister thinks the film is too frightening because I am not scared at all.
B. My sister thinks the film is too frightening so I am not scared at all.
C. My sister thinks the film is too frightening whereas I am not scared at all.
D. My sister thinks the film is too frightening although I am not scared at all.
Question 30: He bought her flowers and diamond rings. This action made her fall in love with him.
A. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, what made her fall in love with him.
B. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, that made her fall in love with him.
C. He bought her flowers and diamond rings, which made her fall in love with him.
D. He bought her flowers and diamond rings which made her fall in love with him.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
GREEN ENERGY
Fossil fuels are used to generate the majority of the world's energy, and they come in different forms. For
example, coal may be burned in a power (31) ____ to generate electricity, but gasoline is burned in a car's
engine to make it run. Neither of these two sources is considered green energy because they produce a lot
of pollution when they are burned. In addition, they come from a source that is inevitably going to
(32) ____.
Green energy can be defined as any energy source that is to some degree non-polluting. When it is called
(33) ____, this means that a person can replace the same amount of energy that was consumed by that
person (34) ____ that person's lifetime. Since it took millions and millions of years to create the fossil fuels
that we now burn, we know that they cannot be replaced by us.
Wind power and solar power, (35) ____ harnessed properly, are two excellent sources of green energy.
Once the necessary parts such as wind turbines to generate wind power and solar panels to create solar
power have been produced, only the pollution from the production is left.
Question 31. A. point B. outlet C. factory D. plant
Question 32. A. run out of B. run out C. burn out D. cut out
Question 33. A. durable B. sustainable C. harmful D. effective
Question 34. A. along B. about C. within D. during
Question 35. A. where B. when C. which D. what
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very
difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and
therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher
levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-
product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality
of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is
therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the
hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal
danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and
respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general
increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of
these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has
ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same
way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response
may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and
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well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long
known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that
some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to
be overactive, they cry easily and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In
addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety
increase affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as
well as the way that we interact with each other.
Question 36. Which of the following is the author's main point?
A. Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health,
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 37. According to the passage, what is noise?
A. A byproduct of technology B. Physical and psychological harm
C. Congestion D. Unwanted sound
Question 38. Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. All people do not respond to it in the same way.
B. It causes hearing loss.
C. It is unwanted.
D. People become accustomed to it.
Question 39. The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ____.
A. hazardous B. crowded C. polluted D. rushed
Question 40. The word it in the end of the first paragraph refers to ____.
A. The quality of life B. our advancing technology
C. the noise D. physical and psychological harm
Question 41. Look at the verb accelerate in paragraph 3. Which of the following is the closest meaning to
it?
A. cease B. rise C. swell D. increase
Question 42. It can be inferred from this passage that the eye ____.
A. responds to fears B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases function D. is damaged by noise
questions from 43 to 47.
Coral reefs are the most diverse of all marine ecosystems. They are full of life, with perhaps one quarter of
all ocean species depending on reefs for food and shelter. This is a remarkable statistic when you consider
that reefs cover just a tiny fraction of the earth's surface and less than two per cent of the ocean bottom.
Because they are so diverse, coral reefs are often called the rainforests of the ocean. Coral reefs are very
important to people. They even provide seventy per cent of the food demands for some marine species,
protection of shorelines, jobs based on tourism (nine out of twelve activities for tourists in Nha Trang, for
example, involve the coral reefs), and even medicines.
Unfortunately, climate change is the greatest global threat to coral reef ecosystems. Scientific evidence
now clearly indicates that the Earth's atmosphere and ocean are warming, and that these changes are
primarily due to greenhouse gases derived from human activities.
As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events and infectious disease outbreaks are becoming more
frequent. Additionally, carbon dioxide absorbed into the ocean from the atmosphere has already begun to
reduce calcification rates in reef-building and reef-associated organisms by altering seawater chemistry
through decreases in pH. This process is called ocean acidification.
Climate change will affect coral reef ecosystems, through sea level rise, changes to the frequency and
intensity of tropical storms, and altered ocean circulation patterns. When combined, all of these impacts
dramatically alter ecosystem function, as well as the goods and services coral reef ecosystems provide to
people around the globe.
There are also many things you can do to ensure that you are environmentally conscious when you visit
coral reefs or coastal areas. These include things such as hiring local guides to support the economy,
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removing all trash from an area, never touching or harassing wildlife in reef areas, and avoiding dropping
your boat anchor or chain nearby a coral reef.
Finally, stay informed and spread the word! Educate yourself about why healthy coral reefs are valuable to
the people, fish, plants, and animals that depend on them. Your excitement will help others get involved.
Question 43. Though the coverage of coral reefs on the sea bed is ____, its vital role is undeniable.
A. remarkable B. small C. diverse D. huge
Question 44. ____ of all the ocean species find food and home in the coral reefs.
A. Two per cent B. Seventy per cent C. Twenty-five per cent D. Nine per cent
Question 45. Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere directly caused ____.
A. infectious disease outbreaks B. reef-building
C. sea level rise D. ocean acidification
Question 46. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. Coral reefs can be compared to rainforests due to its diversity.
B. The effects of global warming are only on the ecosystems themselves.
C. You can help the coral reefs by educating not only yourself but people around you.
D. Human activities which cause greenhouse gases are major reasons for the climate change.
Question 47. The word conscious in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. knowledgeable B. curious C. aware D. acknowledgeable
Question 48. In the end, everybody cleaned up the whole room, that I hadn't expected before.
A B C D
Question 49. While wait for the paint to dry, I walked around and talked to the engineers.
A B C D
Question 50. I came to class very early so the teacher was late due to heavy traffic.
A B C D
PRACTICE TEST 2
Question 1: A. acne B. happy C. natural D. dietary
Question 2: A. cooks B. loves C. joins D. spends
Question 3: A. Internet B. effective C. portable D. benefit
Question 4: A. identify B. disadvantage C. technology D. eliminate
Question 5: The council wants to ____ the character of the city while reconstructing the Old Quarter.
A. preserve B. store C. defense D. abandon
Question 6: Heavy traffic ____ us so we came to the meeting rather late.
A. promoted B. arrested C. canceled D. delayed
Question 7: It turned out to be a ____ journey when the weather became bad.
A. hazard B. hazardous C. hazarded D. hazarding
Question 8: Poaching ____ the greatest threat to many species.
A. creates B. presents C. poses D. produces
Question 9: _______ the wild, giant pandas eat bamboo.
A. On B. Into C. Onto D. In
Question 10: This species of African elephants is ____.
A. dying out B. dying of C. dying on D. dying down
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Question 11: There wasn't a chair for the headmaster, ____ is a big problem.
A. what B. which C. that D. where
Question 12: The student wiped the board ____ was full of notes and drawings.
A. that B. while C. after D. so
Question 13: True Blood is my favourite TV series, ____ I don't have much time to watch it often.
A. although B. before C. if D. yet
Question14: After the children finished their dinner, they went to bed ____ listened to a bedtime story
before falling asleep.
A. that B. and C. so D. while
Question 15: The kids show some hatred towards him, ____ he was really nice to them.
A. because B. before C. unless D. even though
Question 16: We can leave ____ you are ready.
A. whatever B. whoever C. whenever D. Whichever
Question 17: _______ what has happened, I think she will never return.
A. If B. Unless C. While D. After
Question 18: Switching to ____ eco light bulb is one way to protect the environment.
A. energy-wasting B. energy-expending C. energy-lacking D. energy-saving
Question 19: ____ batteries or solar chargers are some of the solutions to the lack of energy.
A. Rechargeable B. Reversible C. Repeatable D. Returnable
Question 20: “Your designs look so gorgeous.” “_____”
A. Thanks. These are my favorite, too. B. Never mind. Thanks.
C. Very well done D. It doesn’t matter.
Question 21: “I believe studying aboard is the only way to get a good job.” “______”
A. I’m sorry, but I can’t agree more.
B. That’s right. That’s why I just want to study in my own country.
C. I don’t think you’re right, but I do believe so.
D. Are you kidding me? It’s never the only way.
Question 22: The African rhino is an endangered species and needs protecting.
A. unstable B. dangerous C. insecure D. indefensible
Question 23: We can protect many species by keeping them in wildlife reserves.
A. protected land B. saved land C. park D. Zoo
Question 24: Globally, farmers encroach on forest land to grow crops.
A. leave B. invade C. make road to D. intrude
Question 25: Funds are diverted from conservation to military because of war.
A. redirected B. shifted C. stayed D. turned aside
Question 26: When the class was over, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
A. As long as the class finished, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
B. No sooner was the class over, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
C. As soon as the class had finished, the students ran out, screamed and shouted.
D. If the class was over, the students would run out, scream and shout.
Question 27: At no time Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom.
A. Jane is always using my bathroom without asking!
B. It is very unusual for Jane to ask me when she uses my bathroom.
C. Jane has no time to ask me when she uses my bathroom.
D. Sometimes Jane asks me when she uses my bathroom.
Question 28: He was about to do something when his mother suddenly shouted out.
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A. He was doing something when his mother suddenly shouted out.
B. He refused to do something about his mother suddenly shouting out.
C. He was on the point of doing something when his mother suddenly shouted out.
D. His mother's sudden shouting out helped him to do something.
Question 29: He was so angry with his boss. He quitted his job immediately.
A. Angry with his boss, he quitted his job immediately.
B. He quitted his job immediately, angry with his boss.
C. Angry with his boss he is, he quitted his job immediately.
D. He was so angry with his boss although quitting his job immediately.
Question 30: Something hit the door. I heard a slam.
A. Something hit the door but I heard a slam. B. Something hit the door when I heard a slam.
C. Something hit the door though I heard a slam. D. Something hit the door for I heard a slam.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The Green Revolution regimen
depend heavily on technology. One alternative, however, depends much (31) ____ on technology - organic
farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but not chemical fertilizers or pesticides. (32) ____
chemical soil enrichers, they use animal manure and plant parts not used as food - natural, organic
fertilizers that are clearly a renewable (33) ____. Organic farmers also use alternatives for pesticides, for
example, they may rely on natural predators of certain insect pests. (34) ____ the need arises, they can buy
the eggs and larvae of these natural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use other
techniques to control pests as well, like planting certain crops together because one crop repels the other's
pests. Organic farmers do not need a lot of land, in fact organic farming is perfectly (35) ____ to small
farms and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average yields compare favorably with
other farmers' yields.
Question 31. A. more B. less C. better D. worse
Question 32. A. In spite of B. On account of C. In favor of D. Instead of
Question 33. A. resource B. source C. matter D. substance
Question 34. A. Then B. If C. Because D. Thought
Question 35. A. suitable B. open C. likely D. suited
Ocean Currents and the Turning of the Tide
If you take a seat at the beach and look out across the water, you’ll soon notice that oceans have a rhythm
of their own. Throughout the course of the day, sea levels will rise and fall, and water will flow through
routes and end up in different places. But how does it all work?
One force at play is tides, which are the alternating water levels of the ocean. There are two major
gravitational forces which cause tides: the sun and the moon.
The moon’s force has a tugging effect on oceans which causes them to bulge outwards on opposite sides of
the planet. Solar tides operate according to the same principles. However, they are only about 50 percent as
strong due to the distance between the sun and the earth.
As tides rise and fall, they create tidal currents. The strongest tidal currents occur at the height of both high
and low tides. Unlike other currents, they do not flow in a continuous stream. Far from shore, tidal currents
don’t have much of an effect. Yet when they pass through narrow area, like harbours and abysm tidal
currents can displace plants, animals, and sediment. Although they may certainly shake things up, not all
of the damage is negative. Tidal currents can spread fish eggs across long distances to assist fertilization, in
addition to transporting key nutrients.
Another category of currents is ocean currents. These currents occur near the top of the water, and are
mainly powered by the wind. One example of these is coastal currents, which are those beachgoers
encounter when going for a swim. One of the strongest and most well-known currents is the Gulf Stream,
which brings warm water from the Gulf of Mexico all the way to Western Europe. Meanwhile, Deep
Ocean currents are a powerful force in the depths of oceans. The strongest of these has been nicknamed the
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global conveyor belt, and it moves much slower than surface currents. Although we can’t see it in
operation, it’s about 16 times as powerful as all the earth’s rivers put together. As the global conveyor belt
pushes water around the planet, it carries nutrition and carbon dioxide to places that truly need them. In the
end, although there are several currents working on oceans simultaneously, they each seem to perform a
necessary function that creates balance for life in the sea.
Question 36: How do moon tides different form solar tides?
A. They operate using different principles. B. They are stronger than solar tides.
C. They only occur during the nighttime. D. They occur less frequently solar tides.
Question 37: The most powerful tidal currents occur _____
A. when tides are high B. when tides are low
C. when tides are low and high D. when it is a windy day
Question 38: what happens when tidal currents occur _____.
A. They always cause negative events. B. They transport things around.
C. They destroy many towns. D. They kill lots of plants and fish.
Question 39: What can be said about the global conveyor belt?
A. They perform an important function. B. They are near the top of the water.
C. They can be witnessed by beachgoers, D. They are the fastest type of currents.
Question 40: The word “displace” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to ______.
A. keep B. bury C. move D. destroy
Question 41: The word “these” in paragraph 4 refers to ________.
A. Deep Oceans currents B. the Gulf Stream currents.
C. the depths of oceans. D. forces to cause ocean currents.
Question 42: What might be another good title for the passage?
A. The Dangers of Ocean Currents. B. The Secrets behind the Seas.
C. The Wonderful Sea of Dreams D. The Population of the World’s Oceans
questions from 43 to 47.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the changes to our
climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our planet before. For
example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods. These climatic changes, however, were
different from the modern ones in that they occurred gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The
changes currently being monitored are said to be the result not of natural causes, but of human activity.
Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts, this warming
process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last 10,000 years. The
implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could give rise to such ecological
disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and of droughts. These could have a
harmful effect on agriculture. It is thought that this unusual warming on the Earth has been caused by so-
called greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and
modern industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but
also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the warming up of the
planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on the subject,
attended by representatives from around 180 of the world's industrialized countries. Of these summits, the
most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed that the most industrialized
countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were given targets for this
reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb greenhouse
gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate changes are often still
being regarded as scaremongering.
Question 43. According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ from the
modern ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time.
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B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
Question 44. The word "alarmingly" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. disapprovingly B. disappointingly C. surprisingly D. worryingly
Question 45. According to the passage, agriculture could ____.
A. make the global warming more serious
B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C. give rise to many ecological disasters
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
Question 46. Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they ____.
A. are emitted by car engines B. trap heat from the sun
C. do not add to atmosphere pollution D. are unusual gases
Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible for global
warming are ____.
A. countries with the warmest climate B. developing countries
C. developed countries D. the most industrialized countries
Question 48: And A they love to B sing, they C love to dance. D
Question 49: I came A to class very early so B the teacher was C late due to D heavy traffic.
Question 50: Neither Lan or A her friends care B about the C coming exam. D
UNIT 4: THE MASS MEDIA

PRACTICE TEST 1
Question 1. A. distributed B. recorded C. emailed D. wicked
Question 2. A. coughed B. surfed C. introduced D. downloaded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. tablet B. media C. social D. subscribe
Question 4. A. digital B. newspaper C. magazine D. Internet
Question 5. We picked up a few _____ on local places of interest.
A. hand-in B. leaflike C. leaf D. leaflets
Question 6. She has written _____ for several women's magazines.
A. paragraphs B. particles C. articles D. headlines
Question 7. She _____ the GPS system before she left the airport.
A. switched on B. changed C. maintained D. turned up
Question 8. I just had time to scan the _____ before leaving for work.
A. headaches B. head office C. headband D. headlines
Question 9. She has a remarkable ability to connect _____ a wide variety of people.
A. to B. with C. in D. at
Question 10. Most _____ have battery life that is far better than laptops.
A. PC tablets B. laptops C. tablets D. desktop PCs
Question 11. While a sports match has spectators and radio has listeners, television has ____.
A. audience B. witnesses C. viewers D. commentators
Question 12. Are you thinking of a career in ____?
A. journal B. journalism C. journalist D. journalistic
Question 13. The pie chart shows the preferred forms of communication recorded in a survey ____ in Intel
Secondary School in August 2014.
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A. carried out B. carried on C. carried away D. carried up
Question 14. Her latest bestseller ____ last month.
A. went out B. came out C. pulled out D. broke out
Question 15. When we ____ to the airport, I realized that I ____ my passport at home.
A. got - had left B. got - was left C. got - left D. had got - had left
Question 16. It _______ here ______ last June.
A. hasn’t rained / since B. hadn’t rained / for C. hasn’t rained / for D. haven’t rained / since
Question 17. House prices have increased dramatically __________.
A. years ago B. since several years C. in 2019 D. in recent years
Question 18. I've written to Helen ____.
A. last week B. yet C. recently D. nowadays
Question 18. What have you been doing ____?
A. today B. yesterday C. far so D. all ready
Question 19. We were both very excited about the visit, as we ____ each other for ages.
A. never saw B. didn't see C. hadn't seen D. haven't seen
Question 20. Tom: Do you like e-books? Daisy: _________.
A No, e-books are good. B. I like them both.
C. No, I prefer them printed. D. They're expensive.
Question 21. Minh: What are you doing later?
Lam: ________. There's a program on that I really want to watch.
A. I'm staying in tonight. B. I'm going to the cinema with Tom.
C. I'll go out for a drink. D. I'm going to go to bed early.
Question 22. The library reduced the number of print newspapers and magazines that they used to.
subscribe to.
A. decreased B. increased C. dropped D. fell
Question 23. Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control they spend online.
A. dependent on B. hooked on C. indifferent to D. exhausted by
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 24. Journalists can make mistakes, so don't believe everything you read in the press.
A. publications B. news bulletins
C. reference books D. newspapers and magazines
Question 25. Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.
A. Direct B. Facial C. Available D. Instant
TEENAGERS AND DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY
In many countries, there is a widespread perception that teenagers’ lives nowadays are dominated by
technology. However, the information (26) ___ was gathered in a recent study of Australian teenagers’ use
of and attitudes towards technology suggests that this view doesn't reflect the reality of their everyday
existence. The research by academics from the University of Canberra in Australia found that, while most
teenagers had ready access to home computers, mobile phones and (27) ___ electronic devices, they
generally spent more time on traditional (28) ___ such technology. Accessing social media and playing
computer games ranked as low as ninth and tenth respectively among the ten most common after-school
activities. Fifteen-year-old Laura Edmonds is one of the teenagers surveyed. She admits to being very (29)
___ to her smartphone and makes full use of various apps, (30) ___ if she needs to unwind after a hard day
at school, she tends to “hang out with my friends, listen to music or chat with my mum and dad”.
(Adapted from Exam Essentials Practice Tests - Cambridge English by Tom Bradbury and Eunice Yeates)
Question 26. A. when B. which C. where D. who
Question 27. A. one B. every C. other D. another
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Question 28. A. operations B. pursuits C. events D. incidents
Question 29. A. enclosed B. attached C. related D. conformed
Question 30. A. nor B. till C. like D. but
News Media are the means or methods by which people learn what is happening in the city, in the country
and in the world. The news media can be classified into two general categories: the categories of print
media and electronic media. Print media use the written material to communicate news to readers.
Electronic media use airwaves to send news into homes, offices and public places. Print Media are usually
divided into magazines and newspapers. Most newspapers print news daily. For example, the newspaper
"The New York Times" is published every day of the year. Most news magazines are published weekly,
for instance, Newsweek and Time magazines are published once a week. The electronic media are
generally divided into radio and television, Radio news is news that you listen to. In the United States
many radio stations broadcast five minutes of news every hour. T.V news is that you not only listen to but
also watch. In Canada and the United States, for example, many people watch an hour of news on TV at 6
o'clock in the evening. In the future, new categories of news media will develop. Even today, computers
are beginning to influence the transmission and reception of news.
Question 31. What do the print media use to communicate the news?
A. TV B. radio C. newspapers D. airwaves
Question 32. What is the New York Times an example of?
A. magazine B. newspapers C. radio program D. television program
Question 33. What do the electronic media use to broadcast news?
A. magazines B. airwaves C. newspapers D. all of the above
Question 34. Which of the following print media are published?
A. Newsweek B. Time C. The New York Times D. All are correct.
Question 35. Which of the following electronic media are broadcast?
A. TV program B. newspapers C. magazines D. None is correct.
Today 97% of teens in the U.S. play video games, and sales of games are growing. The domestic video
game industry brings in nearly $12 billion a year. This popular form of media has both positive and
negative effects on children.
The most widely acknowledged "positive" impact is that video games may help children improve their
manual dexterity and computer literacy. Ever-improving technology also provides players with better
graphics that give a more "realistic" virtual playing experience.
This quality makes the video game industry a powerful force in many adolescent lives. When a video game
is "pro-social" and rewards players for building a town or helping others, children tend to show more
empathy and helpfulness in their daily lives, according to a 2014 study by Douglas Gentile, Ph.D.,
associate professor of psychology at lowa State University.
However, studies also show that video games with violent content are linked to more aggressive behavior
in teens. This is a concern because most of the popular video games contain violence.
Part of the increase in aggressive behavior is linked to the amount of time children are allowed to play
video games - and daily media use by children is increasing significantly.
A 2010 survey by the Kaiser Family Foundation found that youth age 8 to 18 devote seven-and-a-half
hours a day to entertainment media. Less than half of the kids surveyed said their parents have rules about
the shows and games they can watch or play.
In interactive video games, players are encouraged to identify with and role play their favorite characters.
Players move up in game levels as their character masters skill and wins. In a video game about stock cars,
winning may mean winning the race. But in many of the popular games, players move up levels by
winning fights or battles. Players directly benefit from engaging in acts of violence. Gentile &
Anderson (2003) state that playing video games may increase aggressive behaviour because violent acts are
continually repeated throughout the video game. This method of repetition has long been considered an
effective teaching method in reinforcing learning patterns.
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Research has also found that, controlling for prior aggression, children who played more violent video
games during the beginning of the school year showed more aggression than other children later in the
school year.
Question 36. What's the text mainly about?
A. Tips on Managing Teen Media Consumption. B. The Entertainment Software Rating Board.
C. Impact of Video Games on Adolescents. D. Impact of Video Games on Children.
Question 37. Which sentence shows that selling video games is big business in the USA?
A. Today 97% of teens in the U.S. play video games.
B. This popular form of media has both positive and negative effects on children.
C. Video games may help children improve their manual dexterity and computer literacy.
D. The domestic video game industry brings in nearly $12 billion a year.
Question 38. What adjective is used to describe video games in Paragraph 1?
A. Negative. B. Popular. C. Positive. D. Domestic.
Question 39. What does the phrase "ever-improving technology" refer to?
A. Video games. B. Video graphics.
C. Virtual playing experience. D. Adolescent lives.
Question 40. What does the violent content in video games lead to, according to some students?
A. Powerful adolescent lives. B. It rewards players.
C. More aggressive behaviour in teens. D. Less violence.
Question 41. How long a day do American teenagers spend on entertainment media?
A. Between 8 and 18 hours. B. Half an hour. C. Seven and a half hours. D. Seven hours.
Question 42. What benefit do players get as your character masters skill and wins in interactive video
games?
A. Players are encouraged to identify with their favorite characters.
B. Players are encouraged to role play their favorite characters.
C. Players win fights or battles.
D. Players move up in game levels as their character masters skill and wins.
Question 43. Pete telephoned me. I had already finished updating my social networking profile.
A. Pete telephoned me while I was updating my social networking profile.
B. Pete telephoned me after I had already finished updating my social networking profile.
C. Hardly I had finished updating my social networking profile when Pete telephoned me.
D. When Pete telephoned me, I finished updating my social networking profile.
Question 44. He was very poor. He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
A. He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty.
B. If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause.
C. Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause.
D. He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor.
the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 45. Stephanie was the last person to hand in the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of
social networks.
A. The last thing Stephanie handed in was her essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social
networks.
B. Everyone had submitted the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks before
Stephanie did.
C. Among the last people who submitted the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks
was Stephanie.
D. Everyone had heard about the essay on the advantages and disadvantages of social networks before
Stephanie did.
Question 46. He was so addicted to social networks that he quitted all other outdoor activities.
A. He was not addicted enough to quit all other outdoor activities.
B. He was such an addict to social networks that he quitted all other outdoor activities.
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C. The social networks are too addictive for him to quit all other outdoor activities.
D. He had quitted all other outdoor activities before he became addicted to social networks.
Question 47. It's a long time since I saw a movie.
A. I spent a long time looking for a movie to see.
B. I have seen some movies so far.
C. I haven't seen movie for a long time.
D. I saw a movie that took very long time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 48. Today, more than 1 billion people use WhatsApp to communicate for their friends, loved ones
and even customers.
A. to B. than C. ones D. for
Question 49. Kim slept soundly for 8 hours! You must wake her.
A. slept B. wake C. hours D. soundly
Question 50. Wait a minute. I have an idea. Let's go and see Roger. We last have seen him a long time ago.
A. go B. have seen C. ago D. have
PRACTICE TEST 2
Question 1. A. invented B. contributed C. looked D. beloved
Question 2. A. copied B. reduced C. influenced D. expressed
Question 3. A. newspaper B. smartphone C. access D. device
Question A. computer B. technology C. magazine D. connection
Question 5. TV companies _________ their programmes across the country or even across the world.
A. broadcast B. refresh C. connect D. publish
Question 6. While a sports match has __________ and radio has listeners, television has viewers.
A. audience B. spectators C. viewers D. commentators
Question 7. I hate _________ newspapers; they're just full of gossip, scandal and lies!
A. online B. daily C. tabloid D. rubbish
Question 8. The ________ involves TV, radio and even electronic forms of communication such as the
Internet.
A. media B. press C. network D. telecommunication
Question 9. In her study of 496 heavy computer users, she said pathological gambling is the closest type of
_______.
A. addict B. addiction C. addictive D. addicted
Question 10. Media plays a significant role in keeping everyone _________ about the various events
around the world.
A. updated B. disinterested C. indifferent D. reluctant
Question 11. Students use the library's computers to get access ________ the Internet.
A. for B. to C. with D. by
Question 12. Most people ________ the mass media as their main source of information.
A. rely on B. try on C. put on D. hold on
Question 13. I had dinner with Sue ____.
A. last night B. already C. so far D. lately
Question 14. Tom hasn't been here ____ you came here together.
A. for B. when C. since D. as
Question 15. Wait a minute. I have an idea. Let's go and see Roger. We last ____ him a long time ago.
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A. is seeing B. saw C. see D. had seen
Question 16. It's nice to be back here, in London. It's the second time I ____ here.
A. am coming B. have come C. come D. came
Question 17. Linda only ____ the film after she ____ the book.
A. understood – read B. understood - had read
C. had understood – read D. understood - was reading
Question 18. We couldn't figure ____ why the editor-in-chief had changed his mind about the article.
A. out B. up C. down D. through
Question 19. In the hospital, the case was diagnosed as pneumonia. Before that, she had been treated ____
hay fever.
A. for B. on C. against D. from
Question 20. An: Is there anything worth watching on the telly tonight? Binh: _______
A. Yes, that's a good idea. B. No, it's all repeats again.
C. Yes, there's an action film shown at the cinema. D. No, there's just an article on love stories.
Question 21. Anna: How many hours a day do you spend on the net? Bill: ________
A. Er... Most of my day. B. Twice a week. C. As soon as possible. D. So far, so good!
Question 22. Excessive amounts of time at a computer can contribute to obesity, undeveloped social skills
and a form of addictive behavior.
A. over the top B. a bit much C. unrestrained D. limited
Question 23. Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.
A. facing B. eyeball to eyeball C. indirect D. direct
Question 24. Social networking has also evolved as a great medium to connect with like-minded
Individuals and become a part of interesting groups and communities.
A. having similar ideas and interests B. having indifferent behaviors
C. having habits in common D. having similar mental disorders
Question 25. Children addicted to computers are being sent on camping holidays designed to help them
kick the habit.
A. dependent on B. hooked on C. indifferent to D. exhausted by
SOCIAL NETWORKING SITES
Social networking sites are now estimated to have over 700 million users worldwide. As users can create
their own profiles, you mind expect them to portrait themselves in the best possible light. When putting up
a profile, it would be (26) ___ for them to present flattering images, choose sophisticated and discerning
interests, and carefully express their thoughts to appear more intelligent than in real life. (27) ___,
according to a recent study conducted on 250 Facebook users, this is not the case. Far from being idealised
version of themselves, most users’ profiles (28) ___ closely to what they are really like and show their true
personalities including their both psychological weaknesses and natural physical flaws. It’s not entirely
clear why online profiles depict users’ personalities so accurately. It could be that users want to portray
themselves as they really are, or that people attempt to present an ideal image of themselves but fail to do
so. One thing seems clear: social networking sites can in no way be considered a false online world (29)
___ is idealised and removed from reality; rather, they are simply (30) ___ way in which people choose to
interact with each other.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Doff and Ben Goldstein)
Question 26. A. controversial B. exceptional C. believable D. reasonable
Question 27. A. Besides B. Therefore C. Furthermore D. However
Question 28. A. conform B. comply C. abide D. follow
Question 29. A. that B. who C. where D. when
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Question 30. A. other B. another C. few D. many
Chen likes to get his news from the paper. Lemma turns on the television to find out what's going on in the
world. Eve subscribes to more magazines than she can keep track of, whereas Kobi chooses to listen to
radio talk shows that cover issues thoroughly to tap into what's going on in the world. All these people are
touched by the media.
What is the media? What constitutes the media? The media consists of all the ways that news and
information is distributed to a mass audience. The media covers everything from hard news, which is
investigative reporting to stories that are purely entertaining, such as whether your favorite movie star was
on the "Best Dressed/ Worst Dresser" list. Whether in print or broadcast on TV, the stories are the product
of the reporting of many journalists who write the stories, and editors who give out the assignments, assess
the quality of the writing and research, and make the decisions about where and when the stories run.
The news has immediate impact. The Internet puts global news onto the personal computer on your desk.
Almost all browsers have links to up-to-the-minute news stories from various news services. You can get
constant news updates from a variety of sources via your personal computer, providing you with the most
up-to-date and in-depth coverage.
Question 31. According to the writer, _________.
A. people's life can be changed by the media.
B. newspapers, magazines, televisions, radios are all the mass media.
C. people can only get news from the paper.
D. radio talk shows cover thorough issues.
Question 32. According to the passage, the media __________.
A. spreads not only news but also entertainment to audiences.
B. investigates news reports that will be covered.
C. only distributes hard news to people.
D. consists of news and information all over the world.
Question 33. Which one of the following is not a responsibility of editors?
A. Judge the writings and research's. B. Assign tasks.
C. Write reports on the stories. D. Decide when and where tile stories run.
Question 34. The word 'browsers" refers to _________.
A. programs used by computers for doing particular jobs.
B. people who look for information on the Internet.
C. people who design the Web.
D. computer programs that allow users to look at and search through information on the Internet.
Question 35. An advantage of Internet news reports is that _______.
A. they can be constantly updated. B. they link news from various news services.
C. they provide a variety of information. D. they can be put onto the personal computer.
Mass media is communication-whether written, broadcast, or spoken-that reaches a large audience. This
includes television, radio, advertising, movies, the Internet, newspapers, magazines, and so forth.
Mass media is a significant force in modern culture, particularly in America. Sociologists refer to this as a
mediated culture where media reflects and creates the culture. Communities and individuals are
bombarded constantly with messages from a multitude of sources including TV, billboards, and
magazines, to name a few. These messages promote not only products, but moods, attitudes, and a sense of
what is and is not important. Mass media makes possible the concept of celebrity: without the ability of
movies, magazines, and news media to reach across thousands of miles, people could not become famous.
In fact, only political and business leaders, as well as the few notorious outlaws, were famous in the past.
Only in recent times have actors, singers, and other social elites become celebrities or “stars.”
The current level of media saturation has not always existed. As recently as the 1960s and 1970s,
television, for example, consisted of primarily three networks, public broadcasting, and a few local
independent stations. These channels aimed their programming primarily at two‐parent, middle‐class
families. Even so, some middle‐class households did not even own a television. Today, one can find a
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television in the poorest of homes, and multiple TVs in most middle‐class homes. Not only has availability
increased, but programming is increasingly diverse with shows aimed to please all ages, incomes,
backgrounds, and attitudes. This widespread availability and exposure makes television the primary focus
of most mass‐media discussions. More recently, the Internet has increased its role exponentially as more
businesses and households “sign on.” Although TV and the Internet have dominated the mass media,
movies and magazines-particularly those lining the aisles at grocery checkout stands-also play a powerful
role in culture, as do other forms of media.
What role does mass media play? Legislatures, media executives, local school officials, and sociologists
have all debated this controversial question. While opinions vary as to the extent and type of influence the
mass media wields, all sides agree that mass media is a permanent part of modern culture. Three main
sociological perspectives on the role of media exist: the limited‐effects theory, the class‐dominant theory,
and the cultural theory.
Question 36. Who is the mass media aimed at?
A. Witnesses. B. Reporters. C. Audience. D. Sports players.
Question 37. What is considered a mediated culture by sociologists?
A. Communication. B. Mass media. C. Modern culture. D. A significant force.
Question 38. The word "bombarded” is closest in meaning to
A. attacked. B. bombed. C. received. D. got.
Question 39. Which is NOT TRUE, according to the text?
A. The messages comes from TV, billboards, and magazines, etc.
B. Communities and individuals continuously receive messages from TV, billboards, and magazines, etc.
C. The messages promote products and moods.
D. The messages comes from communities and individuals.
Question 40. Which phrase from the text means “If movies, magazines, and news media were not able to
cover thousands of miles”?
A. Mass media makes possible the concept of celebrity.
B. The ability of movies, magazines, and news media to reach across thousands of miles.
C. Without the ability of movies, magazines, and news media to reach across thousands of miles.
D. People could not become famous.
Question 41. According to the text, what is the center of attention of most mass-media discussions?
A. Television. B. Widespread availability of TV.
C. Exposure to TV. D. Businesses and households.
Question 42. What does the word "those” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. TV and the Internet. B. Movies and magazines.
C. Other forms of media. D. Grocery checkout stands.
Question 43. Books help broaden the mind. Books also provide a good source of entertainment.
A. Books help broaden the mind, but they provide a good source of entertainment.
B. Books help broaden the mind, and they provide a good source of entertainment.
C. Books help broaden the mind, for they provide a good source of entertainment.
D. Books help broaden the mind, or they provide a good source of entertainment.
Question 44. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of
several deadly diseases.
A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.
C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 45. I am very interested in the book you lent me last week.
A. The book is interesting enough for you to lend me last week.
B. It was the interesting book which you lent me last week.
C. The book which you lent me last week is too interesting to read.
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D. The book that you lent me last week interests me a lot.
Question 46. They did not let me in because I was not a member of the club.
A. They invited me although I was not a member of the club.
B. They did not allow me to enter because I was not a member of the club.
C. They invited me to the clubs as if I had been a member.
D. They asked me to get out of the club because I was not a member.
Question 47. The last time I went to the cinema was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the cinema for a year.
B. A year ago, I often went to the cinema.
C. My going to the cinema lasted a year.
D. At last I went to the cinema after a year.
Question 48. An advantage of Internet news reports is that they can be constant updated.
A. is B. can be C. An advantage D. constant
Question 49. The magazine went out of business because it did not have subscribers enough.
A. out of B. went C. subscribers enough D. because
Question 50. The editor was famous for being choosy about who she wanted on her staff
A. being choosy B. who C. on D. for
UNIT 5: CULTURAL IDENTITY

PRACTICE TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs
Question 1. A. flocks B. migrants C. submissions D. beliefs
Question 2. A culture B. costume C. custom D. fun
Question 3. A. diversity B. identity C. lifestyle D. attire
Question 4. A. integration B. assimilation C. solidarity D. contribution
Question 5. This is a _______ opportunity to hear Mr. Maitland speak in person.
A. only B. technique C. unique D. specially
Question 6. It is important for young people to ____ the identity of our culture.
A. remain B. retain C. maintain D. attain
Question 7. We _______ such an impressive tomb before.
A. have never seen B. have never been seen C. never see D. had never seen
Question 8. Of all athletes, Alex is _______.
A. the less qualified B. the less and less qualified
C. the more and more qualified D. the least qualified
Question 9. Many new immigrants have not yet assimilated fully ____ the new culture.
A. into B. with C. in D. by
Question 10. Some ethnic groups have strange ________ such as walking on fire to prevent natural
disasters
A. cultural practices B. costumes C. national prides D. behaviors
Question 11. She's getting over her operation. She feels ________.
A. gooder and gooder B. better and better
C. more better and better D. more and more better
Question 12. Laura's tired because she ____ all day.
A. shopped B. shops C. has been shopping D. has shopped
Question 13. ____ he drank, ____ he became.
35
A. More / more violent B. The most/the most violent
C. The more/the more violent D. The less/less violent
Question 14. His house is ____ mine.
A. twice as big as B. as twice big as C. as two times big as D. as big as twice
Question 15. Since I left Venezuela six years ago, I _______ to visit friends and family several times.
A. return B. will have returned C. am returning D. have returned
Question 16. Because they are a very close family, there is probably nothing that can break their ____.
A. share B. contribution C. solidarity D. group
Question 17. Mary _______ in the library all morning. She _______ three essays.
A. has read / has written B. has read / has written
C. has been reading / has written D. has been reading / has been writing
Question 18. People should eat ____ and do ____ to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. less fat/more exercise B. less and less fat/the more exercise
C. the less fat/the more exercise D. fatter/more exercise
Question 19. The cuisine of France is ____.
A. more famous than that of England B. famous than the cuisine of England
C. more famous than which of England D. as famous than that of England
Question 20. Tom and Mary are talking about the typical features of Vietnamese culture.
Tom: I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof.
Mary: “_________.” Family members can help each other a lot.
A. It's not true B. That's wrong. C. I couldn't agree more D. I don't agree.
Question 21. Bill is talking to his colleague.
Bill: “________, Jack?” Jack: “Fine! I have just got a promotion.”
A. What happened B. What are you doing C. How are you doing D. How come
Question 22. Most ethnic groups in Vietnam have their own costumes that reflect their unique culture
identities.
A. invaluable B. different C. unpopular D. important
Question 23. The curriculum will take account of the ethnic diversity of the population
A. destruction B. changeable C. similar D. variety
Question 24. Launched by the federations and foundations, Group's brands find local expression through
the promotion of social solidarity and culture.
A. division B. identity C. teamwork D. unity
Question 25. The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.
A. was penalized B. was acclaimed C. was criticized D. was dismissed
Question 26: Peter is more successful than his sister.
A. Peter is as successful as his sister. B. Peter's sister is more successful than he is.
C. Peter is less successful than his sister. D. Peter's sister is not as successful as he is.
Question 27. The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.
A. I have not been to the museum for a year. B. A year ago, I often went to the museum
C. My going to the museum lasted a year. D. At last I went to the museum after a year.
Question 28. As he grows older, he becomes increasingly intelligent.
A. The older he grows, the more intelligent he becomes.
B. The older he grew, the more intelligent he becomes.
C. The oldest he grows, the more intelligent he becomes.
D. The older he grows, more intelligent he becomes.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Patrick finished the e-mail. He sent it almost immediately afterwards.
A. No sooner had Patrick finished the e-mail when he sent it.
B. Scarcely had Patrick finished the e-mail when he sent it.
C. Not until had Patrick finished the mail, he sent it.
D. Hardly had Patrick finished when he did sent it.
Question 30. The Internet declared a takeover. Online shopping has become a popular shopping method.
A. The Internet declared a takeover when online shopping has become a popular shopping method.
B. The Internet declared a takeover for online shopping has become a popular shopping method.
C. Online shopping has become a popular shopping method ever since the Internet declared a takeover.
D. Online shopping has become a popular shopping method in which the Internet declared a takeover.
When you first arrive in a foreign culture, often your first reaction is completely positive. Everything seems
exciting, different and fascinating. It's an (31) _____. If you are just on a short holiday, you will probably
never leave this phase.
(32) _______, if you stay longer, your attitude can start to change. As you start to realize (33) _______
little you really understand the new culture, life can get frustrating. People misunderstand what you are
trying to say, or they may laugh at you when you say something incorrectly. Even simple things, like
posting a letter, can seem very difficult to you. Thus, you are likely to get angry or upset when things go
wrong.
With time, though, you start to (34) _______to become more comfortable with the differences and better
able to handle frustrating situations. Your (35) _______ of humor reappears. Finally, you may feel
enthusiastic about the culture once again, enjoy living in it, and even prefer certain aspects of the culture to
your own.
(Adapted from Navigate – Course book, OUP 2015)
Question 31. A. adventure B. adventurous C. adventurer D. adventurously
Question 32. A. Therefore B. Or C. However D. Nor
Question 33. A. whether B. how C. if D. what
Question 34. A. replace B. maintain C. adjust D. keep
Question 35. A. taste B. sense C. touch D. sound
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their
knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It
does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both
the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top
grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one
aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not
just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability
teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the
opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope
with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to
communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can
do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We
encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this
effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect
our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 36. In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is ________
A. questioning B. approving C. objective D. critical
37
Question 37. The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means ______
A. prevented from advancing B. forced to study in lower class
C. made to remain in the same classes D. made to lag behind
Question 38. The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’
_________
A. learning ability and communicative skills B. intellectual abilities
C. total personality D. personal and social skills
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers
B. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities
C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others
D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability
Question 40. The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to _________
A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
C. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class.
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
In most discussions of cultural diversity, attention has focused on visible, explicit aspects of culture, such
as language, dress, food, religion, music, and social rituals. Although they are important, these visible
expressions of culture, which are taught deliberately and learned consciously, are only the tip of the
iceberg of culture. Much of culture is taught and learned implicitly, or outside awareness. Thus, neither
cultural insiders nor cultural outsiders are aware that certain “invisible” aspects of their culture exist.
Invisible elements of culture are important to us. For example, how long we can be late before being
impolite, what topics we should avoid in a conversation, how we show interest or attention through
listening behavior, what we consider beautiful or ugly-these are all aspects of culture that we learn and use
without being aware of it. When we meet other people whose invisible cultural assumptions differ from
those we have learned implicitly, we usually do not recognize their behavior as cultural in origin.
Differences in invisible culture can cause problems in cross-cultural relations. Conflicts may arise when we
are unable to recognize others’ behavioral differences as cultural rather than personal. We tend to
misinterpret other people’s behavior, blame them, or judge their intentions or competence without realizing
that we are experiencing cultural rather than individual differences.
Formal organizations and institutions, such as schools, hospitals, workplaces, governments, and the legal
system are collection sites for invisible cultural differences. If the differences were more visible, we might
have less misunderstanding. For example, if we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic clothes,
speaks language other than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume that we
understood his thoughts and feelings or that he understood ours. Yet when such a man is dressed similarly
to us, speaks our language, and does not differ from us in other obvious ways, we may fail to recognize the
invisible cultural differences between us. As a result, mutual misunderstanding may arise.
Question 41. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To point out that much of culture is learned consciously.
B. To describe cultural diversity.
C. To explain the importance of invisible aspects of culture
D. To explain why cross-cultural conflict occurs
Question 42. The phrase “the tip of the iceberg” in paragraph 1 means that __________.
A. most aspects of culture cannot be seen
B. we usually focus on the highest forms of culture
C. other cultures seem cold to us
D. visible aspects of culture are learned in formal institutions
Question 43. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as an example of invisible culture?
A. How people express interest in what others are saying
B. How late is considered impolite
C. What topics to avoid in conversation
38
D. What food to eat in a courthouse
Question 44. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. invisible cultural assumptions B. people from a different culture
C. topics that should be avoided in conversation D. people who speak a different language
Question 45. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that conflict results when _________.
A. one culture is more invisible than another culture
B. people compete with those from other cultures
C. some people recognize more cultural differences than others
D. people think cultural differences are personal
Question 46. The author implies that institutions such as schools and workplaces _________.
A. reinforce invisible cultural differences B. are aware of cultural differences
C. share a common culture D. teach their employees about cultural differences
Question 47. Which of the following would most likely result in misunderstanding?
A. Strange behavior from someone speaking a foreign language
B. Learning about our own culture in school
C. Strange behavior from someone speaking our language
D. Unusual food being cooked by foreign visitors
Question 48. The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, the more it retains heat.
A B C D
Question 49. When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some runs off the surface it strikes, and s
A B C
some sinking into the ground.
D
Question 50. The teacher as well as his students have enjoyed the seminar held in the conference
A B C D
hall this week.
PRACTICE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs
Question 1. A. preserved B. expressed C. identified D. featured
Question 2. A. assimilate B. integrate C. certificate D. eliminate
Question 3. A. migrant B. aspect C. dominant D. belief
Question 4. A. multicultural B. preservation C. identifier D. generation
Question 5. The Vietnamese people still follow the ______ of giving lucky money to children during the
Tet holidays.
A. custom B. practice C. costume D. usual
Question 6. I ______ to New York three times this year.
A. have been B. was C. were D. had been
Question 7. Unfortunately, her illness was _______than we thought at first.
A. serious B. serious and serious C. the most serious D. more and more serious
Question 8. Cultural ______ are characteristics shared by individuals belong to the same group or
community.
A. identities B. identifiers C. factors D. identifications
Question 9. Migrants may lose their cultural diversity as they became _______ new community.
A. assimilated B. met C. mixed D. merged
Question 10. Gold is ____ it used to.
39
A. twice as expensive as B. twice expensive more than
C. twice more than expensive D. more expensive than twice
Question 11. People living in a (an) ________ society should to respect and understand different cultural
values.
A. mixed B. multicultural C. multi-language D. multi-religious
Question 12. There were a lot of people on the bus. It was_________than usual.
A. crowded B. more crowded C. a bit crowded D. the most crowd
Question 13. There are people who integrate _______ the new cultural environment while keeping their
own cultural identity.
A. into B. in C. to D. about
Question 14. The faster we finish, _______.
A. the sooner we can leave B. we can leave sooner and sooner
C. the sooner can we leave D. we can leave the sooner
Question 15. Touring the small villages of Vietnam by bicycle was a(n)_______experience.
A. existing B. general C. particular D. unique
Question 16. This year David drives _________ than he did last year
A. more carelessly B. as carelessly C. more careless D. more and more carelessly
Question 17. He has taken it ________ that his friends would be kind to him.
A. for granted B. into account C. into consideration D. for grant
Question 18. Thanks to globalization, countries around the world are getting ____ to one another.
A. the closest B. closer and closer C. as close as D. the closer
Question 19. He ____ on his essay all day, but he ____ yet.
A. has been writing - has not finished B. has writing - has not been finishing
C. have been written - have not finished D. has written - has not been finishing
Question 20. Lora is talking to Paula about her language competition
Lora: “__________.” Paula: “Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I have a lot on my mind B. I didn’t get any prize
C. I’ve broken your record D. I couldn’t keep my cup.
Question 21. Today, Minh watches Mai playing badminton in Phu Dong Health Tournament. During the
break, he meets her and encourages her to play with flying colors.
Minh: “How well you are playing!” Mai: “_______”
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words. B. I think so. I am proud of myself.
C. Thank you too much. D. Many thanks. That is a nice compliment.
Question 22. It's incredible to see him fitting in the new environment such a short period of time.
A. creditable B. increasing C. unthinkable D. unbelievable
Question 23. With the advent of cable television and the use of satellites for broadcasting, television
reception improved.
A. arrival B. refinement C. distribution D. advantage
Question 24. Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.
A. improve B. worsen C. maximize D. enrich
Question 25. Many ethnic groups find it hard to maintain their own languages.
A. continue B. discontinue C. preserve D. speak
Question 26. The second teaching method was less practical than the first one.
A. The first teaching method was less practical than the second one.
B. The second teaching method was not as practical as the first one.
C. The first teaching method was not as practical as the second one.
40
D. The second teaching method was more practical than the first one.
Question 27. This is the first time we have been to the circus.
A. We have been to the circus some times before.
B. We had been to the circus once before.
C. We have ever been to the circus often before.
D. We have never been to the circus before.
Question 28. Driving at that speed is dangerous on this road, whether you are an experienced driver or not.
A. No matter how dangerous the road is, you are an experienced driver.
B. No matter how experienced you are, driving at that speed is dangerous on this road.
C. However experienced you are, driving at that speed on this road is not dangerous.
D. As you are an experienced driver, driving at that speed is dangerous on this road.
Question 29. I invited Rachel to my party, but she couldn’t come. She had arranged to do something else.
A. Without having arranged to do something else, Rachel would have come to my party as invited.
B. If it hadn’t been for her arrangement for something else, Rachel would come to my party as invited.
C. Rachel would have come to my party, unless she hadn’t arranged to so something else.
D. If Rachel hadn’t arranged to do something else, she would come to my party as invited.
Question 30. We gain more knowledge about how to stay safe online. We worry about the threats of
cybercrime less.
A. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the more we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
B. The more we stay online to gain safety knowledge, the less we worry about the threats of cybercrime.
C. The more knowledge about how to stay safe online we gain, the less we worry about the threats of
cybercrime.
D. The more we know about how to stay safe online, we worry about the threats of cybercrime less.
CULTURE CLASH
In Africa a famous food company tried to sell its baby food by advertising it with the picture of a baby on
the label. They did not know that this particular country used labels only to (31) _______ a picture of
the food inside. When PepsiCo used the slogan "Come alive with Pepsi' in Taiwan, they had no idea that it
would be translated into Chinese as 'Pepsi (32) _______ your ancestors back from the dead’.
Misunderstandings such as these about language or about culture are sometimes comical but can also cause
genuine hurt or anger. Business styles (33) _________ widely in different countries and what is normal in
one culture can be completely unacceptable in another.
Socializing in different countries can be tricky. In Arabic countries, for example, people do not discuss
business (34) ______ meals. Giving gifts is another potential problem: in the UK most people take presents
to a dinner party, but in many countries this is not polite because it (35) _______ you think the host is poor.
Question 31. A. express B. display C. record D. show
Question 32. A. leads B. returns C. brings D. takes
Question 33. A. exchange B. vary C. differentiate D. disagree
Question 34. A. over B. in C. through D. about
Question 35. A. recommends B. indicates C. suggests D. proposes
Nepal has made important progress over the past few years to promote equality, but the country still has
one of the highest rates of child marriage in the world. 41% of Nepalese girls are married before the age of
18.
Poverty is both a cause and consequence of child marriage in Nepal. Girls from the wealthiest families
marry 2 years later than those from the poorest, who are seen as an economic burden, and who drop out of
school and earn little money.
41
Food insecurity plays an important role too. Nepalese families that do not have enough food to eat are more
likely to marry their daughters at a young age to decrease the financial burden. One study shows that 91%
of people who had secure access to food married over the age of 19.
Dowry is also common practice in many communities. Parents marry their daughters as soon as possible
because the money they have to pay to the groom’s family is higher if their daughter is older. Since 2010,
the legal age of marriage is 20 for both men and women, or 18 with parental consent, according to the
Nepalese Country Code.
The law states that punishment for child marriage is imprisonment for up to three years and a fine of up to
10,000 rupees (£102).
But reports suggest that this law is rarely applied. There has been quite a lot of progress in Nepal over the
past 3 years with a clear government commitment to ending child marriage and civil society cooperation.
The Ministry of Women, Children and Social Welfare is currently developing Nepal’s first national
strategy on child marriage in collaboration with UNICEF Nepal and Girls Not Brides Nepal. However, the
post-earthquake and post-fuel crisis environment has meant progress is slow and the national strategy has
been delayed.
(Adapted from http://www.girlsnotbrides.org/)
Question 36. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Nepal Government in an attempt to reduce social inequality.
B. Child marriage - A completely tractable problem in Nepal.
C. Nepal’s strategies to child protection programming.
D. One type of child abuse in Nepal: Child Marriage.
Question 37. According to paragraph 2, in Nepal, girls from needy families ________.
A. play an important role in bolstering their household finances
B. have to get married earlier than those are from affluent families
C. can get married two years later than those are from poor families
D. are forced to drop out of school because their parents have no money
Question 38. The word "those" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. girls B. families C. years D. rates
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Nepalese families have a tendency to marry their daughters at a young age.
B. Parents who marry their children before the allowed age normally pay a fine.
C. The age of marriage in Nepal depends on the money the families have.
D. According to the law, if people have their parents’ permission, they are allowed to marry at 18.
Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage _________.
A. The government is not doing much to put an end to child marriage.
B. Nepal had the highest overall prevalence of child marriage in the world
C. Families want to marry their daughters soon to earn money
D. The recent earthquake was negative for the eradication of child marriage
For hundreds of years, giving flowers have been a social means of communication. In the United States,
flowers are often given during rites of passage, for commemorating special occasions or as a heartfelt gift
between loved ones and friends. Flower gifting also occurs in most countries around the world. However,
the meanings and traditions often vary.
While students traditionally gave their favorite teacher an apple in past years, in China, teachers are given
flowers. Peonies are by far the flower most often given in China. They are also quite popularly used for
weddings. Strangely, potted plants are not considered a pleasant gift among Asian cultures. The people
believe that like a plant confined by a pot, the gift symbolizes a binding or restriction.
In Russia, in lieu of giving birthday presents, the guest of honor receives a single flower or an unwrapped
bouquet. Floral arrangements or baskets are not given. Russians celebrate a holiday known as Woman's
Day. Traditional gifts include red roses, hyacinths or tulips. When there is a funeral or other occasion
where someone wishes to express sympathy, carnations, lilies or roses are given in circular configurations,
which signify the transition of birth, life and death to rebirth. In this instance, the color of choice is
42
commonly yellow. For joyous occasions, arrangements and bouquets generally contain an odd number of
flowers.
In the times of ancient Rome, brides carried flowers to scare away evil spirits and encourage fertility. The
Dutch believed that flowers were food for the soul. When invited to someone's home in Great Britain, it is
tradition to bring a gift of flowers. All types are acceptable except white lilies, which are usually seen
at funerals. Unlike the United States, red roses are a symbol of love. Flowers are generally gifted in odd
numbered increments regardless of the occasion. However, the Brits also have superstitions regarding the
number 13, so the number is avoided.
In the southern region of the continent, flowers are traditionally given during Christmas. Egyptians are
much more conservative and restrict flower gifting to funerals and weddings. While certain flowers may
have significant meanings for some, flowers in Las Vegas and across the United States flowers are an
accepted gift for any reason desired.
(Source: http://www.fJowersofthefieldIv.com/)
Question 41. What does the topic mainly discuss?
A. The different meanings of flowers in different cultures.
B. The comparison of giving flowers between Asian and European cultures.
C. The kinds of flowers people often give each other in different cultures.
D. The fascinating tradition of giving flowers.
Question 42. What does the word “They" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Flowers B. Teachers C. Peonies D. Students
Question 43. Why shouldn’t you give a potted plant to an Asian?
A. As this gift is often given at weddings in Asia.
B. Because the Asian prefer to be given flowers.
C. Since this gift is believed to symbolize an astriction and limitation in Asia.
D. Because Asian students like to give an apple or flowers to others.
Question 44. What could the word "fertility" in paragraph 4 best be replaced by?
A. fecundity B. happiness C. good spirit D. loyalty
Question 45. The word “superstitions" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. deep-seated belief B. religious belief
C. traditional belief D. unfounded belief
Question 46. In which country should not people bring white lilies to other houses?
A. Russia B. China C. Great Britain D. United States
Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that _____________.
A. Egyptians are rather comfortable when receiving flowers at funerals and weddings.
B. At the funerals in any cultures, flowers are gifted in circular configurations.
C. People can give flowers to the American in any occasion.
D. Flowers given in Britain are in even numbers in any case.
Question 48. Cross-cultural misunderstandings often happens between people of different cultures.
A B C D
Question 49. You did much more better in the last test than in this one.
A B C D
Question 50. I'd prefer staying at home tonight rather than go to the cinema.
A B C D
-THE END-
43

Unit 1: Life Stories Practice Test 1: Đề cương ôn tập Tiếng Anh 12 - Học kỳ I Năm học: 2021 - 2022

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Đề cương ôn tập Tiếng Anh 12 – Học kỳ I Năm học: 2021 - 2022

UNIT 1: LIFE STORIES

UNIT 1: LIFE STORIES

UNIT 3: THE GREEN MOVEMENT

UNIT 4: THE MASS MEDIA

UNIT 5: CULTURAL IDENTITY

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