10/19/2021 Competitive Exams: Zoology MCQs (Practice_Test 19 of 112)- Examrace

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Competitive Exams: Zoology MCQs (Practice_Test 19 of 112)
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1. Assertion (A) : In pearl oyster, it-is the nacre, which forms the pearl.

Reason (R) : Nacre is secreted continuously by the edge of the mantle.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

2. Assertion (A) : Queen bee after mating produces both fertilized and unfertilized
eggs.

Reason (R) : Fertilized eggs produce queen and drones (males) whereas
unfertilized eggs are eaten up by the workers.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a. Nucleus 襃Genetic information

b. Cell membrane 襃Permeability

c. Microtubular 襃Glycolysis organelles

d. Golgi complex 襃Secretion

4. Which one of the following components of plasma membrane is involved in the

enlargement of cell surface area?
a. Desmosomes

b. Gap junctions

c. Microvilli

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d. Cilia

5. For which one of the following cell organelles, Janus green B is a specific vital stain?
a. Golgi complex

b. Ribosomes

c. Lysosomes

d. Mitochondria

6. The hydrolytic enzymes a eukaryotic cell are present in

a. cytoplasmic matrix

b. mitochondria

c. ribosomes

d. lysosomes

7. Most of the intermediates in the electron transport system are integral components of
the
a. outer membrane of the mitochondria

b. inner membrane of the mitochondria

c. inter membrane space of the mitochondria

d. matrix of the mitochondria

8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List-I (Substructures) List-II (Role)

1. Cell adhering junctions

A. Nucleosome
2. Battery of degradative enzymes
B. Tubulin
3. Structural units of chromatin
C. Desmosomes
4. Protein units of microtubules
D. Lysosomes
5. Oxidative phosphorylation

ABCD

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a. 3 4 1 2

b. 2 5 4 3

c. 3 5 4 2

d. 2 4 1 3

9. Synaptonemal complex helps in

a. gamete formation

b. recombination during cell division

c. production of enzymes during cell division

d. chromosomal movement towards poles

10. Which one of the following correctly represents the nature of blood in the ABO system
of blood groups pertaining to the presence of antigens and antibodies?
a. Blood group A-Antibody A and antigen B

b. Blood group B-Antigen B and antibody A

c. Blood group AB-Both antibodies A and B

d. Blood group O-No antigens and no antibodies

11. Besides primary constriction, there is a secondary constriction in some chromosomes,

which is known as
a. centromere

b. telomere

c. nudeolar organizer region

d. chromonema

12. If the sequence of based in 6 base pair long palindromic sequence on one side of the
axis of symmetry is 5՚ GAA then the complete sequence of bases of this palindromic
sequence will be
a. 5 ‘5’ GAA GAA CTT CTT

b. 5 ‘5’ GAA AAG CTT TTC

c. 5 ‘5’ GAA GAA AAG AAG

d. 5 ‘5’ CTT GAA TTC AAG

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13. Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder. The cause of the disease is due to
a. the substitution of glutamic acid in place of aspartic acid

b. the substitution of proline in place of methionine

c. substitution of valine in place of glutamic acid

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1,2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 alone

d. 3 alone

14. DNA shows hyperchromicity on

a. heating

b. cooling

c. crystallizing

d. lyophilizing

15. The intervening sequences of ‘gene’ are known as

a. introns

b. exons

c. cistrons

d. codon

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