CPT-17

XII-IC-NEET (Date: 27-09-2021)

Tim e: 3 ho u r s Ma x im um m a rk s : 7 2 0
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose
Important Instructions:
1. There are four sections in this paper, consisting Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology.
2. For each correct answer 4 marks awarded and for each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted.
3. Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
5. Use of Calculator is not allowed.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

CPT-17- XII IC NEET SYLLABUS (27-09-2021)

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY
Molecular Basis of
Inheritance
Evidence from
experiments with
Electromagnetic induction bacteriophage, Properties Human Health &
Energy consideration, A quantitative of genetic material, Disease
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
study Eddy currents, Electromagnetic Molecular Basis of Types of Immunity–
Nucleophilic substiyution in
induction Inheritance Innate and acquired
Haloalkanes, ArSN2 and Poly
Inductance, AC Generator - 50% RNA world, Replication Active & Passive
halogen compounds, Alcohol:
Alternating Current of DNA - The Immunity, Antibody
Preparation from Alkene, alkyl
Introduction, AC voltage applied to a experimental proof, The (Structure and types) -
halide from Grignards reagent, -
resistor, Representation of AC current machinery and enzymes- 50%
50%
and voltage by rotating vectors - 50% Human Health &
Alcohol: Reactions: reaction
phasors, AC voltage applied to an Molecular Basis of Disease
with Na, HX, PX5, acetylation,
inductor, AC voltage applied to a Inheritance Transcription Humoral mediated
Dehydration, Alcohol Reactions:
capacitor, Alternating Current - Transcription unit, Immunity, Cell
Oxidation and reduction, Lucas
AC voltage applied to a series LCR Types of RNAs, Mediated Immunity,
test, Victor maeyer test-30%
circuit, Power in AC circuit, The power Molecular Basis of Vaccination and
20% Cumulative S.no. 4 to 20
factor - 30% Inheritance Process of Immunisation - 30%
(As per Revised Schedule)
20% Cumulative S.no. 4 to 20 (As per Transcription in 20% Cumulative S.no. 4
Revised Schedule) prokaryotes, Transcription to 20 (As per Revised
in Eukaryotes - 30% Schedule)
20% Cumulative S.no. 4
to 20 (As per Revised
Schedule)
CPT-17/ XII-IC-NEET / 27-09-2021

PHYSICS
1. If an AC main supply is given to be 220V, what would be the average e.m.f. during a positive half cycle?
(1) 198 V (2) 386 V (3) 256 V (4) 456 V

2. The r.m.s. value of an a.c. of 50 Hz is 10A. The time taken by the alternating current in reaching from
zero to maximum value and the peak value of current will be
(1) 2 10−2 sec and 14.14 A (2) 110−2 sec and 7.07 A
(3) 5 10−3 sec and 7.07 A (4) 5 10−3 sec and 14.14 A

3. The voltage of an A.C. source varies with time according to the equation V = 50sin (100 t ) cos (100 t ) ,
where ‘t’ is in sec and ‘V’ is in volt. Then
(1) The peak voltage of the source is 100 V (2) The peak voltage of the source is 100 / 2V
(3) The peak voltage of the source is 25 V (4) The frequency of the source is 50 Hz

4. In a series LCR circuit R = 10 and the impedance Z = 20. Then the phase difference between the
current and the voltage is
(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 45 (4) 90

5. In an L-C-R circuit, R = 5, X L = 9, X C = 7. . If applied voltage in the circuit is 50 V then
impedance of the circuit in ohm will be
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 5 (4) 3 5

6. A pure inductor of 25 mH is connected to an ac source of 220 V. Given the frequency of the source as 50
Hz, the rms current in the circuit is
(1) 7A (2) 14A (3) 28A (4) 42A

7. The emf and current in a circuit are such that E = E0 sin t and I = I0 sin (t −  ) . This AC circuit
contains.
(1) R and L (2) R and C (3) only R (4) only C

8. The correct graph between the resistance of a conductor with frequency is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

9. In series L-C-R circuit as shown in figure. The potential difference across A & B is

(1) 100 V (2) 150 V (3) 200 V (4) Zero

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10. A pure resistance and a pure inductance are connected in series across a 100 volt A.C. line. A voltmeter
gives same reading whether connected across resistance or inductance. What does it read?
(1) 50V (2) 70.7V (3) 88.2V (4) 100V

11. An alternating voltage E ( in volt ) = 200 2 sin (100t ) is connected to a 1 F capacitor through an ac
ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be:
(1) 10 mA (2) 20 mA (3) 40 mA (4) 80 mA

12. The mutual inductance between two coils is 1.25 henry. If the current in the primary changes at the rate
of 80 ampere/second, then the induced e.m.f. in the secondary is
(1) 12.5 V (2) 64.0V (3) 0.016 V (4) 100.0 V

13. If a current of 3.0 amperes flowing in the primary coil is reduced to zero in 0.001 second, then the
induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil is 15000 volts. The mutual inductance between the two coils is
(1) 0.5 henry (2) 5 henry (3) 1.5 henry (4) 10 henry

14. Two circuits have coefficient of mutual induction of 0.09 henry. Average e.m.f. induced in the secondary
by a change of current from 0 to 20 ampere in 0.006 second in the primary will be
(1) 120 V (2) 82 V (3) 200 V (4) 300 V

15. An e.m.f. of 100 millivolts is induced in a coil when the current in another nearby coil becomes 10
ampere from zero in 0.1 second. The coefficient of mutual induction between the two coils will be
(1) 1 millihenry (2) 10 millihenry (3) 100 millihenry (4) 1000 millihenry

16. The mutual inductance between a primary and secondary circuits is 0.5 H. The resistances of the primary
and the secondary circuits are 20 ohms and 5 ohms respectively. To generate a current of 0.4 A in the
secondary, current in the primary must be changed at the rate of
(1) 4.0 A/s (2) 16.0 A/s (3) 1.6 A/s (4) 8.0 A/s

17. The mutual inductance of an induction coil is 5H. In the primary coil, the current reduces from 5A to
zero in 10−3 s. What is the induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil?
(1) 2500 V (2) 25000 V (3) 2510 V (4) Zero

18. A varying current at the rate of 3 A/s in a coil generates an e.m.f. of 8 mV in a nearby coil. The mutual
inductance of the two coils is
(1) 2.66 mH (2) 2.66 10−3 mH (3) 2.66H (4) 0.266H

19. Pure inductance of 3.0 H is connected as shown below. The equivalent inductance of the circuit is

(1) 1 H (2) 2 H (3) 3 H (4) 9 H

20. The equivalent inductance of two inductances is 2.4 henry when connected in parallel and 10 henry when
connected in series. The difference between the two inductances is
(1) 2 henry (2) 3 henry (3) 4 henry (4) 5 henry

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21. Alternating current can not be measured by DC ammeter because

(1) AC cannot pass through DC ammeter (2) Average value of current complete cycle is zero
(3) AC is virtual (4) AC changes its direction

22. An AC generator produced an output voltage E = 170 sin 377t volts , where t is in seconds. The
frequency of AC voltage is
(1) 50 Hz (2) 110 Hz (3) 60 Hz (4) 230 Hz

23. A resistance of 20ohms is connected to a source of an alternating potential V = 220sin (100  t ) . The
time taken by the current to change from its peak value to r.m.s. value is
(1) 0.2 sec (2) 0.25 sec (3) 25 10−3 sec (4) 2.5 10−3 sec

   
24. Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by V = 5sin 100 t −  and I = 4sin 100 t + 
 6  6
(1) voltage leads the current by 30 (2) Current leads the voltage by 30
(3) Current leads the voltage by 60 (4) Voltage leads the current by 60

25. A rod of mass M and length is suspended by two wires P and Q. A uniform magnetic field 'B' is
directed into the page. When current through the rod is I. Then the tension in each supporting wire is.

X
X
P Q X B
X
X
X
X
X
X
M  N
X X X

Mg Mg − Bl
(1) (2) 2BI (3) Mg – BI (D)
2 2

26. How much kinetic energy will be gained by an  − particle in going from a point at 70 V to another point
at 50 V
(1) 40 eV (2) 40 keV (3) 40 MeV (4) 0 eV

27. q1 , q 2 , q 3 and q 4 are point charges located at point as shown in the figure and S is a spherical Gaussian
surface of radius R. Which of the following is true according to the Gauss's law :-
S

q1 R

q4
q2
q3

q1 + q2 + q3 q1 + q2 + q3
(1)  (E
s
1 )
+ E2 + E3 .dA =
20
(2)  (E
s
1 )
+ E2 + E3 .dA =
0
( q1 + q2 + q3 + q4 )
(3)  (E
s
1 )
+ E2 + E3 .dA =
0
(4) None of the above

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28. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is C 0 . If a dielectric of relative permittivity  r and thickness
equal to one fourth the plate separation is placed between the plates, then its capacity becomes C. The
C
value of will be
C0
5 r 4 r 3 r 2 r
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 r + 1 3 r + 1 2 r + 1 r + 1

29. A potential difference is applied across the ends of a metallic wire. If the potential difference is doubled,
then the drift velocity:
(1) will be doubled (2) will be halfed
(3) will be quadrupled (4) will remain unchanged

30. Which of the following loop is in stable equilibrium

z y z

B y
B
(1) y (2) x (3) y
(4)
B B
x
x z

x z

31. Electric charges q, q, – 2q are placed at the comers of an equilateral triangle ABC of side . The
magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is-
(1) q (2) 2q (3) 3q (4) 4q

32. The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod is 499, permeability of vacuum is 4  10 −7 H / m .

Permeability of the material of the rod in henry/metre is
(1)   10 −4 (2) 2  10 −4 (3) 3  10 −4 (4) 4  10 −4

33. At a place the earth's horizontal component of magnetic field is 0.38  10 −4 weber / m 2 . If the angle of dip
at that place is 60°, then the vertical component of earth's field at that place in weber/m2 will be
approximately
(1) 0 .12  10 −4 (2) 0 .24  10 −4 (3) 0 .40  10 −4 (4) 0.6 10−4

34. The working of a dynamo is based on the principle of

(1) Heating effect of current
(2) Magnetic effect of current
(3) Chemical effect of current
(4) Electromagnetic induction

35. The coil of a dynamo is rotating in a magnetic field. The developed induced e.m.f. changes and the
number of magnetic lines of force also changes. Which of the following conditions is correct
(1) Lines of force minimum but induced e.m.f. is zero
(2) Lines of force maximum but induced e.m.f. is zero
(3) Lines of force maximum but induced e.m.f. is not zero
(4) Lines of force maximum but induced e.m.f. is also maximum

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36. The number of turns in the coil of an ac generator is 5000 and the area of the coil is 0.25 m2; the coil is
rotated at the rate of 100 cycle per second in a magnetic field of 0.2 weber/m2. The pack value of the
e.m.f. generated is nearly
(1) 786 kV (2) 440 kV
(3) 220 kV (4) 157.1 kV

37. Which of the following is not an application of eddy currents

(1) Induction furnace (2) Galvanometer damping
(3) Speedometer of automobiles (4) X-ray crystallography

38. A copper strip having slots cut in it is used as the bob of a simple pendulum. The copper strip passes
between the pole pieces of a strong magnet. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of vibration.
Which of the following statements is correct

(1) There are no oscillations

(2) The oscillations are free oscillations
(3) The oscillations are weakly damped
(4) The oscillations are heavily damped

39. The flux linked with a circuit is given by  = t 3 + 3t – 7 . The graph between induced emf (y-axis) and
time (x-axis) will be
(1) Straight line through the origin (2) Straight line with positive intercept
(3) Straight line with negative intercept (4) Parabola not through the origin

40. A substance is placed in external magnetic field. If the direction of induce dipole moment is opposite to
the direction of applied magnetic field then the substance may be
(1) Paramagnetic (2) Diamagnetic (3) Ferromagnetic (4) Both (1) and (3)

41. At a certain place, horizontal component of earth magnetic field is 3 times the vertical component.
The angle of dip at this place is
(1) zero (2)  / 3 (3)  / 6 (4) none of these

42. A current flows in a conductor from east to west. The direction of the magnetic field at a point above
the conductor is
(1) towards north (2) towards south (3) towards east (4) towards west

43. A charged particle with a velocity 2 103 ms −1 passes undeflected through electric field and magnetic
fields in mutually perpendicular directions. The magnetic field is 1.5T. The magnitude of electric field
will be
(1) 1.5 103 NC −1 (2) 2 103 NC −1 (3) 3 103 NC −1 (4) 1.33 103 NC −1 `

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 CPT-17/ XII-IC-NEET / 27-09-2021
44. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in figure below is

1
(1) 2C (2) C (3) C (4) None of these
2
45. A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area as shown in figure. A steady current i flows through it.
Which one of the following statement is correct

A B

(1) The drift speed of electron is constant

(2) The drift speed increases on moving from A to B
(3) The drift speed decreases on moving from A to B
(4) The drift speed varies randomly

CHEMISTRY
46. In the given reaction:
X 
H2C = CH − CHO ⎯⎯→ H2C = CH − CH 2OH  X  will be
(1) H 2 / Ni /  (2) Pt / H 2 (3) NaBH4 (4) H 2 / Wilkinson catalyst

OH
|
47. C6 H 5 − CH − CH 3 can be prepared from which of the following combinations?
(1) C6 H5 − CHO and CH3MgCl (2) C6 H5 MgBr and CH3CHO
O
| |
(3) C6 H 5 − C − CH 3 and NaBH 4 (4) All of these

48. In the given reaction

[X] will be

(1) (2) (3) Mixture of (1) and (2) (4)

49. Which among the following alcohols is most reactive with sodium wire?
(1) Ethanol (2) 2-propanol (3) 2-Butanol (4) 2-Methyl-2-Butanol

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50. Anisole is
(1) ethyl phenyl ether (2) methyl phenyl ether
(3) diphenyl ether (4) isopropyl phenyl ether

51. In the given reaction

R − OH + ROH ⎯⎯⎯
conc.
→ R − OR + HOH alcohol is:
H 2 SO4 / 

(1) Primary alcohol (2) Secondary alcohol

(3) tertiary alcohol (4) All of these

52. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with:
(1) PCl5
(2) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
(3) PCl3
(4) dry HCl in presence of anhydrous ZnCl 2

53. Which of the following gives maximum yield of p-nitro derivation during nitration?
(1) Fluoro bezene (2) Chloro benzene
(3) Bromo benzene (4) Iodo benezene

54. 1 – propanol can be prepared from propene by

(1) HOH / H  (2) Hg ( OAc )2 / HOH and NaBH 4
(3) BH3 and H2O2 and NaBH4 (4) All of the above

55. The compound X in the reaction

+ ICl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Abhydrous AlCl3
→X

Cl

Cl I
I

(1) (2) (3) I (4) Cl

56.

Steps I and II are;

(1) both SN1 (2) both SN2 (3) I : SN1 , II : SN 2 (4) I : SN 2 , II : SN1

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57. Which of the following compounds undergo Friedel – Crafts alkylation reaction?
O H3C CH3
SO 3H CHO HN C CH3 N

(1) (2) (3) (4)

58. The order of reactivity of following alcohols towards conc. HCl is

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > III > II > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) IV > III > I > II

59. Gem dihalide on hydrolysis gives

(1) Acetone (2) Aldehyde (3) Ketone (4) Both 2, 3

60. The reaction with ethyl alcohol and methyl magnesium bromide gives
(1) CH 4 (2) C2 H 6 (3) C3H 2 (4) None

61. Isobutyl magnesium bromide with dry ether and ethyl alcohol gives:
(1) CH 3 CH CH 2OH and CH 3CH 2 MgBr (2) CH 3 CH CH 3 and MgBr ( OC2 H 5 )
| |
CH 3 CH 3
(3) CH 3 CH −− CH = CH 2 and Mg ( OH ) Br (4) CH 3 CH CH 3 and CH 3CH 2OMgBr
| |
CH 3 CH 3

62. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with tert-butanol, the product would be
(1) Benzene (2) Phenol
(3) tert-butylbenzene (4) tert-butyl phenyl ether

63. Among the following compounds, which can be dehydrated very easily
OH
|
(1) CH 3CH 2 CH CH 2CH 2OH (2) CH 3CH 2CH 2 CH CH 3
|
CH 3
CH 3
|
(3) CH 3CH 2 CCH 2 CH 3 (4) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
|
OH

64. From amongst the following alcohols, the one that would react fastest with conc. HCl and anhydrous
ZnCl2 is
(1) 2-butanol (2) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(3) 2-methylpropanol (4) 1-butanol

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65. The main product of the following reaction is C6 H 5CH 2CH ( OH ) CH ( CH 3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Conc . H SO
2 4
→?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

66. An unknown alcohol is treated with the “Lucas reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is primary,
secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what mechanism?
(1) Secondary alcohol by SN1 (2) Tertiary alcohol by SN1
(3) Secondary alcohol by SN2 (4) Tertiary alcohol by SN2

67. Ethyl alcohol is heated with conc. H 2SO4 the product formed is
(1) H 3C − C − OC2 H 5 (2) C2 H 6 (3) C2 H 4 (4) C2 H 2
||
O

68. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
(1) butan – 1 – ol (2) butan – 2 – ol
(3) 2-methylpropan-1-ol (4) 2-methylpropan-2-ol

69. An industrial method of preparation of methanol is

(1) catalytic reduction of carbon monoxide in presence of ZnO − Cr2O3
(2) by reacting methane with steam at 900C with a nickel catalyst
(3) by reducing formaldehyde with lithium aluminium hydride
(4) by reacting formaldehyde with aqueous sodium hydroxide solution

70. Which of the following compounds is oxidized to prepare methyl ethyl ketone?
(1) 2-Propanol (2) 1-Butanol (3) 2-Butanol (4) t-Butyl alcohol

71. In CH3CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is
(1) C-N (2) C-O (3) C-H (4) O-H

72. Which one is the most acidic compound ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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73. The reaction

Can be classified as
(1) dehydration reaction
(2) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
(3) Williamson ether synthesis reaction
(4) alcohol formation reaction

74. Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole ?
(1) CH3CHO ; RMgX (2) C6 H5OH ; NaOH ; CH3I
(3) C6 H5OH ; neutral FeCl3 (4) C6 H5CH3 ; CH3COCl ; AlCl3

75. Among the following ethers, which one will produced methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated
HI ?

(1) (2)

(3) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 —O—CH3 (4)

76. In the following sequence of reactions

the end of product (C) is

(1) acetone (2) methane (3) acetaldehyde (4) ethyl alcohol

77. Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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78. Consider the following reaction

the product Z is
(1) benzaldehyde (2) benzoic acid (3) benzene (4) toluene

79. n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent
(1) PCl5 (2) reduction
(3) oxidation with potassium dichromate (4) ozonolysis

80. On heating glycerol with cone H 2SO4 , a compound is obtained which has bad odour. The compound is
(1) acerolein (2) formic acid (3) allyl alcohol (4) glycerol sulphate

81. The compound which does not react with sodium is

(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3CHOHCH3 (3) C2 H5OH (4) CH3OCH3

82. An element X (atomic weight = 80 g / mol ) having fcc structure, calculate the number of unit cells in 8g
of X:
(1) 0.4  N A (2) 0.1 N A (3) 4  N A (4) N A / 40

83. What is the molarity of H 2SO4 solution prepared by dissolving 4.9g of its in enough water to form 250
mL of the solution is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.1

84. A substance A x By crystallizes in a face centred cubic (fcc) lattie in which atom ‘A’ occupy each corner
of the cube and atoms ‘B’ occupy the centres of each face of the cube. Identify the correct composition of
the substance A x By :
(1) AB3 (2) A 4 B3 (3) A3B (4) composition cannot be specified

85. Molarity of 49% ( wt %) H3PO4 ( density = 0.26 g / ml ) is (atomic weight of P = 31)

(1) 1.0M (2) 1.3 M (3) 2 M (4) 0.5 M

86. Lyophilic sols are –

(1) Irreversible sols
(2) They are prepared from inorganic compound
(3) coagulated by adding electrolytes
(4) self-stabilizing

87. Choose the correct reason for the stability of the lyophobic colloidal particles.
(1) Preferential adsorption of ions on their surface from the solution
(2) Preferential adsorption of solvent on their surface from the solution
(3) Attraction between different particles having opposite charges on their surface
(4) None of these

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88. Arrange the group 15 hydrides in the increasing order of H – N – H bonds angle–
(1) SbH3  AsH3  PH3  NH3 (2) NH3  PH3  AsH3  SbH3
(3) NH3  SbH3  AsH3  PH3 (4) NH3  PH3  SbH3  AsH3

89. Which trihalides is not hydrolysed by water -

(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (3) PCl3 (4) AsCl3

90. Amongst H 2O, H 2S, H 2Se and H 2Te , the one with the highest boiling point is–
(1) H 2 O because of hydrogen bonding (2) H 2Te because of higher molecular weight
(3) H 2S because of hydrogen bonding (4) H 2Se because of lower molecular weight

BOTANY
91. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Capping is required only in case of the transcription in eukaryotes
(2) Capping occurs at the 5’ end of the m-RNA
(3) The cap is made of ethyl guanosine triphosphate.
(4) Besides capping and tailing, splicing of hnRNA is also required to form a eukaryotic m-RNA.

92. Choose the correct sequence

(1) RNA splicing, capping, tailing (2) RNA splicing, tailing, capping
(3) Capping RNA splicing, tailing (4) Capping, tailing, RNA splicing

93. RNA polymerase II forms

(1) m- RNA (2) t- RNA (3) rRNA (4) All of these

94. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria
(1) 5s rRNA (2) 18S rRNA (3) 23s rRNA (4) 5.8s Rrna

95. Eukaryotic rRNA is actively synthesised in

(1) RER (2) nucleolus (3) SER (4) both 2 and 3

96. The height of a plant with the genotype AABB is 40 inches and that with the genotype aabb is 20
inches. What will be the height of a plant with the genotype AaBb, if it follows quantitative
inheritance?
(1) 30 inches (2) 15 inches (3) 60 inches (4) 40 inches

97. Mendel’s Principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive
(1) One pair of alleles (2) One quarter of the genes
(3) One of the paired alleles (4) Any pair of alleles

98. Starting codon in prokaryotes codes for

(1) methyl methionine (2) ethyl methionine
(3) propyl methionine (4) formyl methionine

99. A bacterium with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in a non- radioactive medium
for two generation what % of the bacteria should contain radioactive DNA–
(1) 100 % (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) 12.5%

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100. Presence of recombinants is due to
(1) Crossing over (2) Linkage
(3) Lack of independent assortment (4) All of the above

101. Consider the following statements

I. rRNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins.
II. tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code.
III. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription.
IV. A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron.
(1) I and III are correct (2) I and II are correct
(3) II and III are correct (4) I, II and III are correct

102. If the base sequence in DNA is 5 ' AAAA 3' then the bases sequence in m-RNA is –
(1) 5' UUUU 3' (2) 3' UUUU 5' (3) 5' AAAA 3' (4) 3' TTTT 5'

103. A test cross is carried out to

(1) Determine the genotype of a plant at F2
(2) Predict whether two traits are linked
(3) Assess the number of alleles of a gene
(4) Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully

104. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of

(1) Epistasis (2) Codominance
(3) Polygenic Inheritance (4) Incomplete dominance

105. Choose the correct statement

(1) Only DNA is able to mutate.
(2) Many viruses have RNA as genetic material because RNA is more stable than DNA.
(3) Uracil gives additional stability to RNA.
(4) RNA is more mutable than DNA.

106. What is the purpose of untranslated regions UTRs present on mRNA?

(1) To stop the process of translation (2) To start the process of translation
(3) For efficient translation (4) For tRNA recognition

107. DNA acts as a template for synthesis of

(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Protein

108. Clone is
(1) Descendent of a single parent (2) Fusion product of two parent
(3) Formed by parthenogenesis only (4) None of the above.

109. Duplication of DNA is called .-

(1) Transcription (2) Replication (3) Translation (4) Transduction

110. Two nucleotides of the same strand of DNA are linked with
(1) Phosphate Bond (2) Phosphoester Bond
(3) Phosphodiester Bond (4) Hydrogen bond

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111. A free phosphate moiety is present at the
(1) 5' end of the polynucleotide (2) 3 end of the polynucleotide
(3) Both ends of the polynucleotide (4) At no end

112. The central dogma in the molecular biology was given by

(1) James Watson (2) Francis Crick
(3) Watson and Crick (4) Wilkins

113. The compound used as the medium in centrifugation to develop density gradient in the experiment by
Meselson and Stahl was
(1) Ammonium chloride (2) Silver chloride
(3) Caesium chloride (4) Silver bromide

114. For the purpose of DNA replication the nitrogenous bases are used in the form of
(1) Deoxynucleoside monophosphates (2) Deoxynucleoside diphosphates
(3) Deoxynucleoside triphosphates (4) Deoxynucleosides

115. DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the polymerization in the direction . . . . . . . .of template
strand.
(1) 5 ' → 3'
(2) 3' → 5 '
(3) In both directions depending upon the condition
(4) From structural gene to promoter side

116. 60% of angiosperms shed their pollens at the

(1) 2-celled stage (2) 3-celled stage
(3) 4-celled stage (4) 1-celled stage

117. Embryosac is also called

(1) Female gamete (2) Synergid
(3) Female gametophyte (4) Egg of angiosperm

118. The following is not a termination codon

(1) UAA (2) GUA (3) UGA (4) UAG

119. RNA Pol I does not transcribe the following type of r-RNA
(1) 18s (2) 28s. (3) 5.8 s. (4) 5s

120. In the base sequence of one strand of DNA is GAT, TAG ,CAT , GAC what shall be the sequence of its
complementary strand-
(1) CAT, CTG, ATC, GTA (2) GTA, ATC, CTG, GTA
(3) ATC, GTA, CTG, GTA (4) CTA, ATC, GTA, CTG

121. Match the following

I. capping a. Polyadenylate
II. tailing b. Methyl guanosine triphosphate
III. hnRNA. c. Dominance of RNA world in the ancient days
IV. Splicing d. Presence of introns and exons
(1) I a II b III c IV d (2) I b II a III c IV d
(3) I a II b III d IV c (4) I b II a III d IV c

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122. Discountinuously synthesise DNA is later linked by............... enzyme during DNA replication in
Eukaryotes-
(1) Helicase (2) DNA polymerase
(3) Ligase (4) Exonuclease

123. Read the following statements and mark the right option
A. Okazaki fragments present on lagging strand
B. DNA replication is not a energy consuming process
C. DNA replication is semi-discountinuous
(1) Only A and B is correct (2) Only B and C are correct
(3) Only A and C are correct (4) All A, B and C are correct

124. From the given statements ,mark the incorrect-

(1) RNA act as adaptor and messenger
(2) DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable
(3) Viruses having DNA genome mutate faster than RNA genome
(4) Both DNA and RNA have ability to direct their Duplications

125. Select the list of items of Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given
below:
Column I Column II
A Reverse transcriptase i break H-bond
B. Helicase ii template RNA
C. Primase iii RNA polymerase
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i (4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

126. Location of DNA replication is -

(1) Nucleus in Eukaryotes (2) Cytoplasm in prokaryotes
(3) both 1 and 2 (4) Inside Nucleolus

127. How many of them present in prokaryotes

a. DNA Gyrase b. single origin
c. DNA Polymerase III d. Okazaki fragments
e. DNA polymerase I
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b, c, d and e (3) a, b and c (4) a, c and e

128. Read the following statements and mark the right option
A. DNA is better than RNA for storage of genetic information
B. RNA is better than DNA for expression of genetic information
C. Protein synthesis machinery evolve around DNA
(1) Only A and B is correct (2) Only B and C are correct
(3) Only A and C are correct (4) All A, B and C are correct

129. DNA and RNA both can replicate by-

(1) complimentary base pairing (2) semiconservative
(3) transcription (4) all of the above

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130. Two strand of DNA can not be seprated completely during replication as –
(1) it stabilize DNA (2) DNA polymerase not act
(3) high energy require (4) all

131. Taylor and his colleages use vicia faba to show DNA replication is semiconservative by using-
(1) radioactive thymidine (2) radioactive nitrogen
(3) uracil (4) all

132. Which of these stablizes the separated complementary strands?

(1) Ligase (2) SSB Proteins (3) DNA polymerase (4) RNA polymerase

133. In man, number of base pairs per genome (cValue) is 3.3 109 bp and in E. coli is 4.6 106 bp. This
number in 174 is
(1) 1.8 108 (2) 4.8 106 (3) 5386 (4) 48502

134. Thymine differs from Uracil in having

(1) CH3 group (2) C = O group (3) CHO group (4) COOH group

135. ( )
If 50 heavy DNA N15 molecules are replicated 2 times in N14 medium, what is obtained?
(1) 100 hybrids and 100 pure light DNA molecules
(2) 100 pure heavy and 100 pure light DNA molecules
(3) 50 pure heavy and 150 pure light DNA molecules
(4) None of the above

ZOOLOGY
136. Active immunity means
(1) Resistance developed after disease
(2) Resistance developed before disease
(3) Resistance developed due to transformation of antibodies
(4) Resistance developed as a result of antigenic stimulus

137. What is the method called where the male withdraws his penis just before ejaculation?
(1) Coitus interruptus (2) Lactational amenorrhoea (3) Periodic abstinence (4) Both (1) and (3)

138. Complete mineralization of original structures results in

(1) Unaltered fossils (2) Petrified fossils (3) Moulds (4) Casts

139. Whatever be the life span, death of every individual organism is a certainty, i.e., no individual is
immortal, except
(1) Human beings (2) Amoeba and Paramecium (3) Single-celled organisms (4) Both (2) and (3)
140. Shape of antibody is like
(1) X (2) Z (3) Y (4) O

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141. Match the Columns and select the correct option:
Column – I Column – II
A. Cleavage (i) Fertilization
B. Morula (ii) Mitotic divisions
C. Polyspermy (iii) Endometrium
D. Implantation (iv) Little mulberry
(1) A–(ii),B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii) (2) A–(i), B–(iv), C–(ii), D–(iii)
(3) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iii) (4) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(i)

142. In human females, menstruation can be deferred by administration of

(1) FSH and LH (2) Estrogens and progesterone
(3) FSH only (4) LH only

143. Which can be a symptom of athlete's foot?

(1) Itching or burning on skin of feet (2) Rash and Blisters on feet
(3) Thick or crumbling toe nails (4) All of the above

144. Which of the following disease has been eliminated from the general population worldwide?
(1) Plague (2) Poliomyelitis (3) Small pox (4) Kala-azar

145. Which of the following is not part of the female external genitalia?
(1) Clitoris (2) Vagina (3) Labia majora (4) Labia minora

146. How many antigen binding sites are present on IgA

(1) Two (2) Four (3) Six (4) Eight

147. What happens during fertilization in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
(1) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
(2) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails
(3) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one
(4) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida

148. Immune serum used for emergency treatment of snakebite, tetanus falls under category of
(1) Natural Passive immunity (2) Artificial active immunity
(3) Natural active immunity (4) Artificial Passive immunity

149. Which of the following immunity is present from our birth?

(1) Innate Immunity (2) Active immunity (3) Passive immunity (4) Acquired immunity

150. Which immune cells is responsible for quickest release of histamine that causes red itchy welts
associated with allergies
(1) Mast cells (2) Lymphokines (3) Eosinophils (4) Basophils

151. How many variable segments are present in the basic structure of antibody molecule
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

152. Which of the following immunoglobulin induces the production of IgG in secondary response? The
immunoglobulin responsible for that is the largest and the first to reach the site of infection being
present in circulating fluid.
(1) IgM (2) IgD (3) IgE (4) IgA

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153. Correct sequence of male accessory glands pouring their secretion with sperms :-
(1) Prostate, seminal vesicle, cowper's glands
(2) Seminal vesicle, prostate, bulbourethral glands
(3) Bulbourethral glands, prostate, seminal vesicle
(4) Prostate, cowper's glands, seminal vesicle

154. Which compounds were formed in the direction of the origin of life-
(1) Urea, nucleic-acid (2) Urea, amino-acid (3) Proteins, nucleic-acid (4) Protein, amino-acid

155. Mark the wrong match

(1) Discontinuous distribution - Finches of Galapagos Island
(2) Restricted - Platypus distribution and kangaroo
(3) Parallel evolution - Deer and horse
(4) Convergent evolution - Spiny anteater & Scaly anteater

156. B-cells and T-cells are two types of cells involved in

(1) Innate Immunity (2) Active immunity (3) Passive immunity (4) Acquired immunity

157. The main reason, why antibodies could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases, is
(1) Development of mutant strains resistant to antibodies
(2) Inactivation of antibodies by bacterial enzymes
(3) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(4) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics

158. Four fingers and one splint bone in forefoot; three toes and two splint in hind foot is the characteristic
of
(1) Merychippus (2) Pliohippus (3) Hyracotherium (4) None of these

159. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is

(1) Insufficiency of organ donors (2) Immunological rejection of foreign bodies
(3) Religious or ethnic considerations (4) Lack of effective surgical technique

160. Inteferon have been used in the treatment of

(1) Influenza (2) Ascariasis (3) Giardiasis (4) Tuberculosis

161. Chemical signals produced by leukocytes to stimulate other leukocytes are called
(1) Interleukin (2) Trypsin (3) Interferon (4) opsonins

162. The branch of science with deals with the study of universe is called
(1) Universology (2) evolutionary biology (3) cosmology (4) astrology

163. Which statement regarding the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is true?
(1) An individual produces only one specific MHC glycol-proteins
(2) MHC glycoproteins normally are found only on lymphocytes and macrophages
(3) RBC blood groups are based on MHC antigens
(4) Antigens are presented to T-cells MHC glycoproteins

164. Memory cells are stored in

(1) Spleen (2) Heart (3) Kidney (4) Brain

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165. The process of attachment of antibodies to the surface of antigen is called
(1) Opsonisation (2) Neutralization (3) Precipitation (4) None of these

166. Which of the following is correct order of events in humoral immunity? if

1=antigens display 2=antibodies secretion
3=Secretion of helper factors 4=Clonal selection
5=Endocytosis of an antigens
(1) 5-1-3-4-2 (2) 3-4-1-5-2 (3) 3-5-1-4-2 (4) 5-3-1-2-4

167. Transfer of antibodies from mother to infant through colostrum is an example for
(1) Natural active immunity (2) Artificial active immunity
(3) Natural passive immunity (4) Artificial passive immunity

168. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1) B-cells directly engulf the pathogenic bacteria
(2) B-cells produce antibodies soon after they are formed
(3) B-cells produce a large clone of plasma cells soon after it is formed
(4)B-cells produce the plasma cells only after they are triggered by a specific antigen

169. The antibodies are

(1) Lipids (2) Germs (3) Proteins (4) Carbohydrates

170. Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting

(1) Antigens (2) Antibodies (3) Antibiotics (4) Vaccination having weakened germs

171. Vaccination is
(1) Active immunity (2) Familial immunity (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of these

172. Thymocytes when encountered with antigens secrete

(1) Lymphokines (2) Plasma cells (3) Immunoglobulins (4) all the above

173. Which of the following is a live oral vaccine given for protection poliomyelitis?
(1) Salk’s vaccine (2) TAB vaccine (3) DPT vaccine (4) Sabin vaccine

174. Hepatitis –B vaccine is

(1) First generation vaccine (2) Second generation vaccine
(3) Third generation vaccine (4) Fourth generation vaccine

175. The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing

(1) B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes (2) Antibodies to the toxin
(3) Weakened pathogen (4) Inactivated T-lymphocytes

176. Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all after experimental demonstration given
by
(1) Aristotle (2) Oparin (3) Miller (4) L. Pasteur

177. The success of birth control programmes in controlling population growth is dependent on:
(1) Use of contraceptives (2)Tubectomy
(3) Vasectomy (4) Acceptability of all these by the people

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178. The injection given against the snake venom contains
(1) Antigenic proteins (2) Preformed antibodies
(3) Attenuated pathogen (4) All of these

179. Hole forming proteins called ‘perforins’ are produced by

(1) Helper T cells (2) Suppressor T cells (3) Cytotoxic T cells (4) Plasma B cells

180. Study the following and choose the incorrect combination

Organ/cells Character-I Character-II
I NK cells Cellular barrier Type of monocytes
II Skin Physical barrier Trap the microbes
III Nutrophils Phagocytic Cellular barriers
IV Interferons Phospholipids Cytokine barriers
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) I and III (4) I and IV

Paper Setter Surat Branch

PHYSICS MR. MANISH SHARMA | 9602481581
CHEMISTRY MR. MUKESH CHOUDHARY | 9826674309
BOTANY MS. KHUSHBOO SHAH | 7698375971
ZOOLOGY DR. VANDANA SAXENA | 9978784444

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