often get at ea: wer gitar QUESTION 40 Number of Pages in Booklet ; 40 gftaer 4 weit 1 xem: 100 Number of Question in Booklet : 100 waa/Time : 2.00 #2 /Hours x 8 |. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks. . Answers areto be marked on the OMR Answer Sheet, ;. Mobile Phone or any other electronic gadget in the |. Please carefully and correctly fill your Roll Number Warning : Candidate using unfair means in the exam will be disqualified & action as per law shall be taken. INSTRUCTIONS 2: ‘Only one answer's to be given for each question. If more than one answer is marked, it would be treated as wrong answer, which is provided separately. Each question has four alternative responses marked serially as 1,2,3,4. You have to darken only one circle ‘of bubble indicating the correct answer on the ‘Answer Sheet using BLACK/ BLUE BALL PEN. ‘There is:no Negative Marking. ‘examination hall is strictly prohibited. A candidate found with any of such objectionable material with ‘him/her will be strictly dealt as per rules. and Series printed on Question Paper Booklet on ‘OMAR, Sheet If there is any sort of ambiguity / mistake either of printing or factual nature then out of Hindi and English Version of the question, the English Version will be treated as standard. BOOKLET 123033 gees vt A yi / Maximum Marks : 100 WA wet & vee Sify | wh wet o sie wrt t | Was We oT Sea TH 8 TEN aT | ww 2 afte Gee 2h Ot cm A oer Fore at Te AT OTT | wel & ore yas @ Ra aA ae TSI. | W afta FE | were wer ot an taferer ore Pa 7a zi * wre 1.2.3.4 afte fora rn 8) seh wT a RR Phe wd gy UT a daa Ge Te cea Wa wt oe wed / wet da a Tew oem & | org TERT ior AES | afin da 4 trata era sern gears aa pte afta @ 1 Peet sree Fore eh afta arnt Wa oF wy Tad Ree Pome were erfaré a areh | pvr one et aR Ue wer Ta gfe WR sift dite signee wae oe areerf qa me Te | af AN AT A AN ce A wtf yer ar wares ve w ae a at oe S et eT siivt waren 4 8 stich earay ater err | Sere: ede A agit er wT sai oA Ge apa ot sera cea fat ora RST tT '1. under the provisions of the Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, a Bank can recover its dues from any agriculturist or his heir or legal representative or his guarantor on account of financial assistance availed of by the agriculturist by making an application to :- (1) District Judge (2) High court (3) Prescribed Authority (4) None of the above Linear gf ao aia Goat a Aaa) afafre, 1974, %& stead da fart EAR TT sree A ng feeder era A ae A APH Pe ae aT sad seaaeT a Ate SfafAR ar sack afta tamed a fae onder der ae wear B - (2) Brat saranefter art (2) sea saa tT (3) after snfteare at (4) snes 4 8 ag ae 2. under section 35 of the Rajasthan Court Fees and suits Valuation Act, 1961, in a suit for partition and separate possession of a share in joint family property by a plaintiff, who has been excluded from possession of such property, court fee shall be:- GQ) paid at fixed rate (2) computed on the market value of the plaintiff's share of the property/ 3) at the discretion of the plaintiff (4) based on written statement of the defendant 2. TRI ATTA ST TUT aE aeaiwa AIA, 1961, AY ene 35 a seater aera agra A arafer or fanaa wd Res H yen wet a ae wt ta as EMT Be ara az eo 8 orem wy Rear sar &, eararea rer ast eb CD fea ex ae (2) wears Fad & eed & aoe aPartER walla ae (3) ad # george (4) Sidarat art sega aaraard oz. srenfte 3. Under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, in case of a release-deed,in the absence of an agreement to the contrary, the expense of providing the proper stamp shall be borne by:- (1) the beneficiary (2) the person drawing, making or executing the release-deed V (3) by both the parties in equal shares (4) none of the above JSi5 3 SERIES-A3. Tae Fees afi, 1998, & trent freafea wa we, fat ofa aur & aire Aaa Fey MH anne wet aT unt eat ENT age Par order: 2) feenftrert art (2) Paras wx at aA ad, aad ad a Prone at ant ae 3) ale vert art awax feeat (4) omiaa & HS Het 4. If an instrument has not been duly stamped and where such an instrument has been admitted in evidence,such admission :- (1) can be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceeding (2) shall not be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceeding except as provided for by Section 71 of the Rajasthan stamp Act, 1998 7 (3) at the discretion of the opposite party can be called in question (4) none of the above 4. aie we arat wane wy A Rifts ad ¢ wd oat see ceeds A aes A ata az fora wer &, sae Be A aE aT :- ® 3a ag a afer & fe ft war ae wea fen ot awa F (2) Toreret Ferg afOferaay, 1998 A ORT 71H ger suai & Rare, seh ae ar afer a foret at wor oe seem agh fer aT wear # 3) teh cet & tenga venta far om waa & (4) sated a mg ar 5. Under the Registration Act, 1908 a will can be presented for registration before the Registrar or sub Registrar by:- (1) the testator (2) after death of testator, any person Claiming as executor or otherwise under a will (3) both (1) and ay (4) none of the above 5. Cire sifBierar, 1908, & site we ahaa at fer Fo Re an ater & fae verge ar sa ese & wrt vega Pea aT war Bs (1) atearat eer (2) afeerrat ary a overs aaa & aha Reger a sere ara at at cafe ar (3) Sat (1) wt (2) deat at (4) sates HB as at JSIS 4 SERIES-A.6. Two parties entered into a contract. They later realised that the law as they understood as applicable was not in force in India. This makes their contract :~ @) illegal @) void vy (3) voidable (4) none of the above 6. ef werent & after él) we A ae wet QT fe aap a a an, we wa, aa A ‘ary wet a gH aa B sa Hider a ora :- (1) aater (2) wT (3) greeter (4) sata 4 8 arg aet 7. Acknowledgement after the expiration of the period prescribed under the Indian Limitation act, 1963, for a suit or application:- (1) is of no effect V (2) gives rise to an independent & enforceable contract (3) is of great value . (4) none of the above 7. secre aftehar after, 1963, A ae ar arian ow & fae aftuita sia & Feet ¥ ae Ht ag aitrettefe :- ) & ag vara adi & (2) vaca va vadere after et scoot act & G) ager APTA B (4) sara # & ang at 8. Time limit for disposal of a petition filed under Section 9 of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 is:- (1) within the period of two hundred and forty days from the date of service of notice on the tenant / (2) within the period of twelve months from the date of service of notice on the tenant (3) within the period of six months from the date of service of notice on the tenant (4) no limitation Js1s 5 SERIES-A8. Uoreert feren Preor aires, 2001, S$ ant 9 & aie arex arftrer & frearor eq wre der B:- @) Padax w atte ff ave & at at ate fea a sar (2) far w afte # aria & ane ae ¥ stat (3) feean w alte é ate & o: Are H aay (4) BIg weraTAAe at 9. subject to contract between the partners, a firm is dissolved :- (2) if constituted for a fixed term, by the expiry of that term (2) if constituted to carry out one or more adventures or undertakings, by the completion thereof (3) by the death of a partner (4) all the abovey 9. argent & ata gS afaar & geal aetet wa fautea eet: - (2) aie ag Pt frat wail & fae afoet A amg et ay se aah & are (2) af& ag wa ar afte sett ar somal at cart & fae afsa fr ag et at sah ar sae pi et ate (3) feat anita A Heq et a (4) sRiea weit 10. Finder of lost goods under Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a:- (4) bailor (2) surety (3) baileey (4) none of the above 10. sect after stirrer, 1872 & wht ge are wy ort ae & :- (2) safer (2) whery (3) safaigct (4) suttea H&B aig et 11. Under Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, a complaint can be filed regarding grievance relating to :~ (1) the service matters of a public servant (2) any matter in which any Court or Tribunal has jurisdiction (3) any matter under Right to Information Act, 2005 ¥ (4) none of the above Jsis 6 SERIES-A.21. ToT Yay ay after ska, 2012, a aieavir oars fea era Haider + aot waar ot aaa Be :- (1) ate Gan & Var sae ae (2) ta arr, et sare sere earanitreor at eater & (3) Fear & often Hear, 2008 & seater até anrar (4) sHiea 4 a ES aE 12. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that the members of the Transgender Community who are neither male nor female, at the time of birth, are recognized as ‘third Gender' for the purpose of safeguarding and enforcing appropriately their fundamental and other Tegal, social and economic rights guaranteed under the Constitution? (2) Rambilas singh vs. state of Bihar - AIR 1989 sc 1593 (2) Lily Thomas vs. union of India - (2013) 7 scc 653 (3) National Legal Services Authority Vs. union of India - (2014) 5 scc 438V (4) None of the above 1a Fear HB Far ate) Hh serra Farerer Ber a ener Rar arr & fs Resta ae % acer, at oer & war a at gee & atk a after #, Se a SI oa arp, annie site anftier after, oh efturr ar wean 8, H wear ag wd sta wre vat ag 38 eta faa} eq 4 aeae ves 7 Q) wafers fie art fee wes- worgsme 1989 waeh1593 (2) att eierer want sa He (2013) 7 water 653 G3) Tegra fafa Bar wniteRwr want set Ha (2014) 5 wasiet 438 (4). sRtea F ae agt 13. Article 21-A providing for Right to Education was inserted in the constitution by :- (1) the Constitution (eighty sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 / (2) the Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003 (3) the constitution (Ninety Second amendment) Act, 2003 (4) the Constitution (Eighty Fourth Amendment) act, 2001 13. Roar & afters ar suaetr et and ome 21a wh siftner aH orale fear wer :— GQ) Sfaurr Cearh at setter) ser, 2002 grt (2) Sitar (gaoat at deter) sof, 2003 et G) Sieur Carrtat wate afore, 2003 aT (4) sfeurr Cohret at deter) afQe, 2001 ant JS15 7 SERIES-A.14. which of the following is correct statement in so far as Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, is concerned ? (1) The suit has to be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it (2) The suit has to be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the defendant actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain (3) The suit has to be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction, the cause of action wholly or in part arises (4) Al] the above are correct V 14. set ae fefaa what Bikar, 1908, #1 eT 20 aor aides &, fateet A aera seer Ber 8? a) ag 1 3u Bean doh & eorenea & afte fear ser age a seer FrareT Het A wera et @) ar se rarer & afbuer Pear orden, Braet carte wart & earftrere A wearer areafte sty ettow er & Rare ear & ar anda weet Far aia H fae eT wrt arat & Q@) arg se rare # dftea Pra arden, Bay eater dori & ataiteere A ae ky qpiaar ar sea: Sete erat & (4) sive Tet Fer 45. In which of the following cases, did the Supreme Court uphold the validity of the Cade of Civil Procedure amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002 7 (1) peThi H.C. Bar Association Vs. UOT (2) Allahabad H.C. Bar Association vs. vor (3) Salem Advocate Bar Association Vs. UOlLY (4) P&H H.C. Bar Association Vs, VOI 15. er aS Ae ae A seaar amea aT a vier alsa Hehe Hien, 1999 we 2002 # aun sh Sireret Seu ? (1) tect agate a WahRaerr want aR AT (2) sengrare Ege are CARAT TART ARE FT (3) dam wate ag wehfaest zat aR TT (4) Some wos gftaror agate ae Uefa Wa ANA FT 16. An Appeal under Order XLIII of Code of Civil Procedure shall lie from which of the following orders:- (2) Rule-11 of order vII, rejecting the plaint (2) Rule-9 of order xxrz, refusing to set aside the abatement or dismissal of suity (3) Rule-1 of Order VIII, not permitting the defendant to present the written statement (4) Rule-5 of order xIv, refusing to strike out the issue at the instance of either of the parties JSis 8 SERIES-A16. sqreraa BRT anita feat AS Pre ante & fee Pier sfirer Aa H sneer XLITT & xecete atter grit: - (D are vir Rew 11 & seadea seus a arog Peet ore (2) are ctr Bent 9 sealer ae soe aera wnACS aw goer ed oT SER AAT (3) ameer virr Par 1 & arate widaré a) sraractar vega et At srqHia adh far (4) ameer xxv feat 5 a arena Beit at cerns Sh anlar oe Prater at areet Set eT 17. statement 'A' ~ where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith, as an easement, without interruption, and for twenty years, the right to such access and use of Tight or air shall be absolute. Statement "B' - A right to the free passage of light or air to an open space of ground, cannot be acquired by prescription. (2) statement 'A' is correct (2) Statement '8' is correct (3) Both statements are correct/ (4) Both statements are incorrect 7. aaa ‘we ae Bat sat & ae a, se ae ao sah fae vga ote serra ay weir ar, gare & eq A Rar were & ste 20 at aw enfergse sear Pear war &, set eet ager ate waren or arg & water wr afew EET eT weet tat aft a gd & Fe wearer ar ang & saver at a free Peer & aT ahs ag fear oT wrat & (2) weet a we FT (2) wer tr ae t (3) ateit emer eet (4) @et wert araer & 18. which of the following statement is correct? (1) In a suit for specific performance of a contract for transfer of immovable property, thé court cannot grant partition and separate possession of the property (2) In a suit for specific performance of a contract for transfer of jmmovable property, the plaintiff cannot alternatively ask for the refund of earnest money or deposit made by him (3) The court while refusing to grant specific performance of the contract, cannot grant refund of earnest money paid by the plaintiff, unless it has been specifically claimed (4) Al] the above are correct JSIS 9 SERIES-A.18. fave A A strana ae e 7 (1) staat aeafite & afar & fae Fr ag sitar tt Pfafese ort & fae aax Prd wet ag & rarnaa arafer at azar wd que Hes wel & ued (2) sae weaier & slaw & far A ag sitar A Mies wee fae ae Fe wa ae 4 aa aaiere eo S after ua sear ela ar viens et Hier wear F (3) Fameremr efter ff fafAfeee crv B gare wea EE aay ANT sre Pre rar aif tet aT wider aét far wadt,aa aa fe fade we f eran aet fare var eF (4) salect ah wet F 19. which of the following documents is not required to be compulsorily registered ? (2) Instruments creating or declaring right, title or interest to or in immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards (2) Wills in respect of immovable property/ (3) Leases of immovable property for a term exceeding one year (4) Instruments transferring any decree of a court when such decree purports to create right in immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards 19, fara Ad ated center ar dotast start aet & 2 (12) 100/- set a sad afte apa A Hoa weafed A caca a fea wl SH HT TT ar Bie Feet aTeT Sea 2) arast weniea Fr attr G) aaa weft ar eae at A aE safe ar oer (4) rarmerr & tt BAT st 100/- sat ar Re oie yea A ares Aegis A afl sein at ar area vad &, at aiafta aed ar cea 20. In which of the following mortgages, the mortgagor is required to deliver possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee? (2) English mortgage (2) Mortgage by conditional sale (3) Usufructuary mortgage (4) Anomalous mortgage 20. five A a fret deen A dens at due erie er mea aU FT ETE FET grea & 7 GQ) sich aaa (2) want fae aT ae (3) str ate (4) faaaror ders JSS 10 SERIES-A.21. Statement ‘A' - Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor is void. Statement ‘B' - Every transfer of immovable property made without consideration with intent to defraud a subsequent transferee is void. (1) Statement 'A' jis correct (2) Statement 'B' is correct (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect/ 21, Faq 'F- aae woe A wets sae, ot aicite HW aaah al HAGA sear aaa art & ane a Peer war a, yea wwe ‘a - soa arcite an fear wfame wete saw ot vemaad aif ar char at ame & far ware, yer ) ar tw wet (2) waa ‘a He & (3) ate wert wet & (4) @at sent at 22. which of the following statement is correct, so far as Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is concerned? (2) A party may apply to the court for interim measures during the pendency of the arbitration proceedings only (2) A party may apply to the court seeking appointment of receiver by way of interim measures even after the making of the arbitral award by the Arbitral Tribuna (3) A party cannot apply for interim measures before the commencement of arbitral proceedings (4) All the above are correct 22.a¢1 aH AeTEMA a ANE aitieraa, 1996 #1 ere 9 wr deer, Pet A a atrer wut wee? (Q) Fae arerer arta & afta weet & chet & eH carer aafta sore & fae warner Br Hest aT BHAT F (2) meme after aT gare Ra at Hae st cs caret sia sore & ate az Rear free wer & fav ease at andet a aaa & (3) Aree arfargr oer grr oye war sereTe aiaftr Sara & fee Faas Hr aeaat agit wr aaa & (4) sutra wit wet & JSis. W SERIES.A23. The period of three years is prescribed under Article 137 of the Limitation act, 1963, in case where no other period of Limitation is provided for filing any:- @) suit (2) Appeal (3) Application y (4) Proceeding 23. ore fare area ware ear ar wae ae et sa Rafer A aftehar afta, 1963 & saad 137 A Res a a weg FA ag det ae A safle felts Ql) war (2) arte QG) wat oF (4) wearer 24, Statement “A' - In computing period of limitation for any appeal, the day from which such period is to be reckoned, shal) be ‘included, Statement 's' - In computing period of Limitation for any appeal, the day ‘on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining the copy of the decree shall be excluded. (1) Statement "A' is correct (2) Statement “B' is correct/ (3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect 24, wea ‘a. Peet are ff ohare A deer amet A ag fea stafiee Par area, fara teh oftatar are Fr aera Fy ort Ft wea ‘a-fRf arte A often A serorar wet A Pre fear afeanfeer rots ger azar a ate wiafedt after at & fag aefita wera srvafota ae fear oda | GQ) aaa ww TE (2) wer tata & (3) atat wert wer (4) Sat wert arate JS1S 12 SERIES-A25. which of the following is correct as per Section 22-c of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 ? (1) any party to a dispute may, after the dispute is brought before any court, make an application to the Permanent tok Adalat for the settlement of dispute (2) The Permanent Lok Adalat shal] not have the jurisdiction in respect of any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law¥ (3) The Permanent Lok Adalat shall have the jurisdiction only in such matter where the value of the property in dispute is more than ten lakh rupees (4) All the above are correct 25.faftrs Sar wnftercor aiffifererr, 1987 4 err 22-21 & aq fat A a eae Hey ee? Q) Rae a eames 4 ae & naa faa a vw vera faa & facet & faw eng ale Herea HT HET aT BHAT F (2) fare fafty a arate orerrter arate F Haft fet wercor a vider A eens ahar srererct & ora ats aftrarfter adh est (3) Brg ate aaa & oe 3a Ha A Ot Hidenfar eh agi fare A Hevied aT APT wea ce ora S fae et (4) salad we wee 26. under section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage may be declared null and void if:- (1) the parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship (2) at the time of the marriage, one of the parties was incapable of giving a valid consent to it in consequence of unsoundness of mind (3) at the time of the marriage, one of the parties was subject to recurrent attacks of insanity (4) in al] the above circumstances / 26. fteq Pare after, 1955 @ en 11 & areata Pre at arpea we eee weft Pat oT wma &, ae :- 1) vere vfefite araerd &r Refrat a er (2) fara Repeat H oRomreaes ans wa care Peay & ware tener aeaia a A sree a G) #2 ww cea at fears & wae Sareccat F a ay att ad et (4) sutra wet oRfeafaat 4 ISIS 13 SERIES-A27. after the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, the daughter of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law :- (2) shall have no right in the coparcenery property (2) cannot become a coparcener by birth (3) shall become a corparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as the son V (4) shall be entitled to dispose of the entire coparcenery property 27, Roe, SeoU (eter) safer 2005 & seared overt fafa aT efter freq, whan a agers At Git :- (2) @ apartadr weafer A ang after at eta (2) eH Se Heenan at wet watt & G3) a A ane seh OA A oem & see aot ater A agate ert (4) wat wearer arctan ar erat ae AT after eit 28. which of the following is incorrect ? (1) The husband is the natural guardian of a Hindu married girl (2) after the adoption of Hindu minor son, his father continues to remain his natural guardian till he attains majority (3) The natural guardian of a Hindu minor child is the father, and after him the mother, but custody of minor upto the age of five years shall ordinarily be with the mother (4) The natural guardian of an illegitimate Hindu minor boy is the mother, and after her, the father/ 28. fer Ae whrar aera & ? QQ) freq faarigar ase ar opine sere sear ofa eer & (2) Req ararferT re cca H cea sear aT STA SeET wIpiaw are aT Xeal & we aw fe ag azesar uta al aX SaT 3) eq yarew aes aT orpiaw tee saat far ger & atk Saw ovat Arar ett & Sieet cia af ae ht sa ae amen AT HET Bree: are Ga Vat (4) sada Req, sere ash A orpias sere ara ert Bo sae ores Rar ear F 29. A Hindu wife is entitled to claim maintenance after the death of her husband from her father-in-law under :- (2) Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (2) Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (3) Section 19 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956/ (4) Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 JS1S 14 SERIES-A29. Gar feeq vest ort fet Ar ary & gear amet WAL a sree ator Rost PAY st aa wet Fy sfttanfter 8: - 2) ferq fae afar, 1955 4 unr 25 a aT (2) eee frags after, 1955 Fr unr 24 & sata (3) feeq cece eM aT wteoT HAI, 1956 #1 ERT 19 & areata (4) ferq semafter afore, 1956 & ont 10 & sea 30. As per Section 2(q) of the Protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, "respondent" means and includes:- Q), any person, who is ina domestic relationship with the aggrieved person and against whom the aggrieved person has sought relief under the act (2) male partner when aggrieved female is living in a relationship with him in the nature of a marriage (3) the female relatives of the husband of the aggrieved wife, seeking their removal from the shared household (4) none of the above 30. uty far S afearait ar aeeroy sifBfe, 2005 A unr 2 (2) A wert’ & afte Hit sat enfaa B:- CO mg cafes ot cata cafes uty ater # foe Bras free caf cata a se aftitan & aga at$ sate aren & (2) Raarg 1 separ 6 feet arte ret anh ah alter ater aT GET aT G) eae oer & ofa a aftr andar, Prek wigh pect gt gem mer aT wert (4) saa 4 a ang Bet 31. As per section 3 of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, the chapter II and [II thereof do not apply to:- @ the premises, let out after the commencement of the Act for a period of two years through a registered deed (2) the premises, let out to the multinational company having paid up share capital of less than rupees one crore (3) the premises, let out for residential Purposes, the monthly rent whereof ‘is rupees four thousand in case of the premises situated in the Municipal area of Jaipur city (4) the premises belonging to the Government company as defined under the Companies Act, 1956/ JS1S 15 SERIES-A_31. warena Broan Petar afefrws, 2001, $ unr 3 & aN sae Hara 11 3M IIT APL at ert (D ofert x, at ga ae & oe & cea totga ee & aha at are Fr sala & fae fret ae ea ae a (2) Oe aftert oy, ot agenda seuhral, Per gear ste Got cw ads aod a aH A, ar fro a ag & @) oat, ot sage aernicer aa Ht araniia ster A a ga BR ae AT aT fear sar et (4) after, sit seach afar, 1956 & areerter oRenfter warts ara a a 32. which of the following statements is not correct, so far as Section 242 of the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is concerned 7 (1) Civil court can frame the issue with regard to the tenancy rights in agricultural land and submit the record to the appropriate revenue court for the decision on that issue only (2) Civil court may or may not accept the finding of revenue court on the issue referred to it V (3) The finding of the revenue court on the issue referred to it, shall be deemed to be part of the finding of civil court for the purposes of Appeal (4) Civil court cannot decide the issue which was referred to the revenue court 32. Set een Tore wraat aha, 1955 # on 242 a ade, fet A a where wed uel ae e 7 (2) Grae Fara pe aT A aren Ret a siete A Raves Ay crt ae ae at aaa Wes ear Bt aaa sa ares ox Grek gq sot weer & 2) dart erat, oft Rares oe cores ware aT Pet at feat at eda FT wee & arrer aet we WHT @) Tae area #, 3a Oita Pet me fear wx ff aa, site & Hwa fa, dart earerera & freficr Aer ar air wag Sea (4) Wares Fara at ofa Rares at dart arena favtia aft we eo E 33. which of the following is not the judicial matter under Section 23 read with the First Schedule to the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956 ? (1) Regularisation of unauthorised occupation/ (2) A dispute with respect to the right of grazing cattle on pasturage land (3) Settlement of boundary disputes (4) Mutation upon succession JS15 16 SERIES-A33.0aeaet 3 Uae Hila, 1956 $1 ORT 23 Boise sR we a acta fa AS whrar safe Arar aét & ? Q) aratrge wet ar Paice Q) anne sf oF EBT ar at & ada a avait are (3) tan faael a facert (4) seer oF aTTeaOT 34. The General Rules (Civil), 1986 have been framed: ~- () by fe Naasthan High Court under Article 227 of the Constitution of India (2) by the Governor under Article 166 of the Constitution of India. (3) by the chief Justice under article 229 of the Constitution of India. (4) by the state Government under Article 309 of the Constitution of India. 34, amned fret (rah), 1986 werd ma E :- Q) ane & afters & aeqede 227 & omenfa Wareurt see Fury ENT (2) aie & afdurr & aeqede 166 & areata Weare ENT (3) ane & Stent & oryeoe 229 % reels Aa Aaemeher aT (4) sige & Baers & arqede 309 & areca Uos WEAR ENT 35. which of the followings is not an essential ingredient of gift under the Mohammedan Taw :~ (1) a declaration of gift by the donor (2) acceptance of gift, expressed or implied, by or on behalf of donee (3) delivery of possession of the subject gift by the donor to the donee (4) a written deed of gift vy 35. fara A & oterer Aiea fai A amr wT area aca ae B:~ (2) waerar ST at &r ereor (2) aeraitar a sad ait B ae Fr aiiteaear ud leafed Hea (3) aaarar SR art A one art fava seq aT eo arerafsar et aio aT (4) ae a fef@a face JSis 17 SERIES-A36. which of the following is correct statement of law as per Sections 82 and 83 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 ? (1) The court may order attachment of Property belonging to an accused before declaring him a proclaimed person under Section 82 (2) The court may order attachment of property of a person after publication of a written proclamation under section 82 requiring him to appear before itV (3) The court may order attachment of Property of a person regardless of whether or not he has been declared proclaimed offender (4) None of the above 36. avs sitar vifar, 1973 #1 URT 82 @ 83H amen et A a ata id a a ween 8? C) Farerae feat agra Boor 82% areata Ie er wet a Gt sat awaits aft wr ander & wear t (2) meres fat cafe st arr 82 * sent se ot wayw weg wei aq fafer Seeheo BY wae Ret a crane sae aevfes A EAE ar Mae oo THAT F G) Fare Rea cater & weuier A aA wr onder 2 Awa k, ot & sd wT ager aifte Pear ara et ar wet (4) stra A a ats adi 37. which of the following irregularities of a Magistrate, not empowered by law to do so, vitiates the proceedings? 2) To hold inquiry under section 176 code of criminal procedure (2) To make over a case under sub-section (2) of section 192 code of criminal procedure G) To take cognizance of an offence under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of Section 190 of the code of criminal procedure/ (4) To tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the code of criminal procedure 37. Fie WO A ag Peafefte a a wth oaMaat, Pre fae ag AY EMT aed wet &, artaréh @t after ach b 2 CD 2s sfrar sitar Ht ant 176 & aga A as aie (2) aes witrar afar ft err 192 fy soerT (2) & sitfier eet avert at gard acer (3) evs siren after Fr err 190 Ff soem (1) & wes CT) a arelta ee sree a oer aT (4) aos oiear sigan AY omr 306 & aria agar at ever aAT JS1S 18 SERIES-A38. which of the following irregularities of a Magistrate not empowered by law to do so, does not vitiate the proceedings:- (1) calling of record to exercise powers of revision under Section 397 of Code of Criminal Procedure (2) taking cognizance of an offence under clause (a) or clause (b) of sub- section (1) of Section 190 of Code of Criminal ProcedureY (G3) decision of an appeal (4) revision of an order passed under section 466 of Code of Criminal Procedure 38.niete 3A ff ag frafaiea A a steht saftaat, rae fae ae fae ser aera att & erdengt wr afta at auch & :- QQ) ws sive digar Fr or 397 & ateeeia qatar A eftaat a wit ae F fee aitee Fara (2) as ofar dizer & err 190 Ff souT (1) & wes () MT ws (@) H athe fat HWE & Wea aa Q) atte an Prete ae (4) qs wfer dfgar AY err 466 & sieavte oot sneer wr qerffaror aa 39. which of the following offences is cognizable, non-bailable and non- compoundable : = (1) voluntarily causing grievous hurt, punishable under section 325 IPC (2) attempt to murder punishable under Section 307 IPC V (3) voluntarily causing hurt to extort confession, or to compel restoration of property, punishable under Section 330 IPC (4) voluntarily causing grievous hurt on provocation punishable under Section 335 IPC 39, frat AS etre ae aaa, A Taal ote aria R- (1) andra avs after St ont 325 & sealer avec Hacer ey sagit ata wear Q) andre es dita St ant 307 & sala auscta sea aT HT WaT aT G) andr eos after Fr ORT 330 & wees cuscter aedrpia sul aT er far aR aeued a weaada art & fae eee soefa HRT AAT (4) anda avs after fr er 335 a aacia queda watt ot Reo Uh sue arte aT 40. which of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code defines culpable homicide? (1) section 302 (2) section 300 (3) Section 301 (4) section 2997 JS1S 19 SERIES-Ado.arcter aos efter ar Peat a @ ar ater wate reer Areae ay Rene aT xd ie) Q) Q) @) 41. qa) (2) 3) 4) 41. q@) @) @) 4) 42. a @) @) a) 42. @ "@) @) ) 43. a) (2) @) (4) Isis ‘amr 302 ‘ur 300 ‘amt 301 ‘art 299 statement of an accused can be recorded on oath:- is not a correct statement of law under Section 315 code of criminal procedureY under section 313 code of criminal procedure under Section 391 code of criminal procedure wget HT ae weer aT fea aT Bema & :~ fate ar al Taaee at zug oftrar afar ft ent 315 % areata aos ufrar digar At unt 313 a sieeve aes efrer digar & ont 391 & seta which of the following is correct statement according to law a An accomplice shall be competent witness against an accused person Leading question may be asked in cross-examination of a witness , The court may permit a party, who, calls a witness, to put any question to him, which might be put in cross-examination by the adverse party All the above fren A & ate agaea fale arqee wet B7 Be Ho, agra cafes & fee wart wre ea Patt eet & waster A yew wer Gor aT AHA sareree frat cern at are é arett A Oe er Her AY oepAT fo AeA e, aT wiaatt ae wferater a een on waa sriva watt Burden of proof under Section 101 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:- goes on shifting as the trial proceeds never shifts may shifty both (1) and (3) are correct 20 SERIES-A.43. andr area sftfaer ff er 101 & sealer wag aT AR QQ) anor & ater safe tet wat & (2) watt seater at eat & (3) sftafeter er aera & (4) 37a (1) G3) at ete 44, Proceedings under Section 145 of the Code of Criminal Procedure are initiated by the Executive Magistrate on the report of which of the following? (1) judicial magistrate (2) Police officerV (3) Revenue officer (4) Complainant 44.e0s ofr after ff emer 145 & Heevta wrioreas afete ant arta fret A a Peete Rete oe anes Sr sare 87 Q) ante aBree 2) Yaa Hier (3) worea aftrantt (4) Reet 45. In which of the following judgments has the Supreme Court held that only those courts within whose territorial limits the drawee bank is situated, would have jurisdiction to try the cases for offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? (2) K. Bhaskaran Vs. Sankaran vaidhyan Balan and Another - (1999) 7 scc 510 (2) Dashrath Rupsingh Rathod vs. State of Maharashtra and Another - (2014) 9 scc 129 V (3) State of Bihar and Others Vs. Kalyan pur Cement Limited - (2010) 3 scc 274 (4) None of the above 45. fer A a fea ante feta a aches spare a ae eft fear & fe aaa te warree foerht wef Hers A spre wet aret der fFra 8, a ef werT feed oftirwr, 1881 4 ure 138 & sreia de aera & sivas are A aiden aT Sarita 8? (1) ¥. sreewr garmin duet area FT HT (1999) 7 vada 510 (2) ware ey fag wets GATT AER Usa a Hea (2014) 9 Vase 129 (3) fagr Wee a sea aa searry ete fates (2010) 3 vee 274 (4) sriea A a ate at ISIS 21 SERIES-A46. which of the following is a correct statement of law as per Sections 138 and 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? (1) A cheque is to be presented to the bank within a period of six onthe from the date it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier (2) Notice within thirty days of receipt of information from the bank regarding return of cheque as unpaid, has to be served upon drawer, demanding payment of amount of money (3) on failure of drawer of such cheque to make payment within fifteen days of receipt of such notice, the payee or holder of cheque has to file complaint within one month thereof (4) All the aboveY 46.nree fwd afeirwr, 1881 FT unr 138 we 142 % deel A fret AS fale a atta wet uel t? (2) ww te at sah fae ot A Rate Ho: ae H shat a see Aten Ft areraitt F, gaa a ot ot oF a, ras tq Wega Hem aoe (2) tae & dH S fer apr F ante wea eet A eT ot & 30 fea & ate da feat ad ay seer aprarr fest ard A air A orth arige (3) OY ae feat are are atic: wit & 15 feaw & sae sper a wet oe ort ara aria tes at ents at ard ay va ang St wai H oftare Ht vega Fer gat = (4) sled ait 47, The delay in filing a complaint under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, can be condoned: - (2) under section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963 (2) under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (3) under section 142 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 / (4) under section 143 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 47. carrer ferea aifdierenr, 1881 & areavta oftare weqa wer A gg Sf rer fy or wach ee (2) side ofteier after, 1963 47 unr $ & Heer (2) Temrer fea afiferer, 1881 4 ant 138 & seater (3) wemrer erat after, 1881 A uN 142 & sect (4) oRpIer fae after, 1881 A eT 143 & arate JS1S 22 SERIES-A