STUDY PACKAGE

N S
National Talent Search Examination

5 PRACTICE SETS &

SOLVED PAPERS 2021- 2017

FOR
CLASS
10

ARIHANT PUBLICATIONS (INDIA) LIMITED

ARIHANT PUBLICATIONS (INDIA) LIMITED
All Rights Reserved

© Publisher
No part of this publication may be re-produced, stored in a retrieval system or by any means,
electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, web or otherwise without the written
permission of the publisher. Arihant has obtained all the information in this book from the sources
believed to be reliable and true. However, Arihant or its editors or authors or illustrators don’t take
any responsibility for the absolute accuracy of any information published and the damage or loss
suffered thereupon.
All disputes subject to Meerut (UP) jurisdiction only.

Administrative & Production Offices

Regd. Office
‘Ramchhaya’ 4577/15, Agarwal Road, Darya Ganj, New Delhi -110002
Tele: 011- 47630600, 43518550

Head Office
Kalindi, TP Nagar, Meerut (UP) - 250002
Tel: 0121-7156203, 7156204

Sales & Support Offices

Agra, Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Bareilly, Chennai, Delhi, Guwahati,
Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jhansi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Nagpur & Pune.

ISBN 978-93-25791-94-7

PO No : TXT-XX-XXXXXXX-X-XX
Published by Arihant Publications (India) Ltd.
For further information about the books published by Arihant, log on to
www.arihantbooks.com or e-mail at info@arihantbooks.com
Follow us on
ABOUT NTSE
National Talent Search Examination Scheme is a flagship activity of the NCERT started in the year
1963. The purpose of the scheme is to identify talented students and nurture their talent. It honours
and helps talented students by providing financial assistance in the form of a monthly scholarship.

PRESENT SCHEME
The scholarship under the present scheme awarded to the candidates for pursuing courses
in Science and Social science up to doctoral level and in professional courses like medicine
and engineering up to second-degree level subject to the fulfillment of the conditions
provided in this brochure. From the year 2000, scholarships have been awarded in the
country with reservation of 15 per cent for SC, 7.5 per cent for ST and 27 per cent for Other
Backward Classes and 4 per cent for group of students with benchmark disabilities.

RATES OF SCHOLARSHIP
The rates of scholarship at different stages are given as under.

S.No Stage Rate of Scholarship

1. Higher Secondary Level ` 1250/- p.m.

2. Graduate and Post Graduate ` 2000/- p.m.

3. For Ph.D. degree (four years) As per UGC norms

ELIGIBILITY
The scheme is open to students of Indian Nationality only. Students studying in class X are eligible to
appear for the selection process.

SELECTION PROCESS
There is a two-stage selection process for the award of scholarship.
STAGE I
Examination at the State/Union Territory (UT) level will comprise
(a) Mental Ability Test (MAT) 100 questions covering Reasoning & Numerical ability.
(b) Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) 100 questions covering Social Science, (40 questions),
Science (40 questions) and Mathematics (20 questions).
For Stage I, selections are done by States/UTs through the written examination.
 STAGE II
Examination at the National level will comprise
(a) Mental Ability Test (MAT) 100 questions covering Reasoning and Numerical ability.
(b) Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) 100 questions covering Social Science (40 questions),
Science (40 questions) and Mathematics (20 questions).
For Stage II examination, each State/Union Territory has been allotted a quota to
recommend a specific number of candidates. Students who qualify Stage I will be eligible to
appear for Stage II examination conducted by NCERT.

PATTERN OF NTSE
STAGE I (State/UT Level)
Sections Duration No. of Questions Max. Marks
Mental Ability Test (MAT) 120 min 100 100
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) 120 min 100 100

STAGE II (National Level)

Sections Duration No. of Questions Max. Marks
Mental Ability Test (MAT) 120 min 100 100
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) 120 min 100 100

MEDIUM OF EXAM
The tests will be available in the following languages : Asamiya, Bangla, English, Gujarati,
Hindi, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. The candidate
has to mention his option regarding the language in which he/she want to take the test in
the application form. Accordingly, the question booklet in that language shall be made
available to the candidate at the centre. After exercising this option, no request for the
change of medium will be entertained.

Note
Ÿ Only candidates qualifying in both the papers (40% for General & OBC ; 32% for SC, STs, PWD)
separately will be considered for merit.
Ÿ There will be no negative marking for incorrect questions.
Ÿ After state level examination, candidate is selected for national level examination.
Ÿ Selection of the awardees will be made on the basis of total marks scored in MAT & SAT.
Subject-wise
STRATEGY OF NTSE
To achieve success in NTSE, a student must have a good idea of the level
of the examination and achieve mastery in all the topics required.

1 REASONING & NUMERICAL ABILITY

Ÿ This section contains 100 questions at both Stage I & Stage II.
Ÿ Important topics which are asked under this section are Analogy, Classification,
Number Series, Insert the Missing Character, Coding-Decoding, Cubes and Dices,
Completion of Figures, Venn-diagram, Mirror and Water images, Basic arithmetic
operation, Arithmetical reasoning, Data interpretation and sufficiency etc.
Ÿ Practice a good number of questions and try to clarify the basics of the topic, attempt the
question firstly which seems to be easy for a candidate as per his/her understanding.

2 GENERAL SCIENCE
Ÿ This section comprises 40 questions at Stage I & II under SAT. In this section three subjects Physics,
Chemistry and Biology are equally distributed.
Ÿ Important topics covered under this section are Light, Motion, Force & Pressure, Work Energy &
Power, Organic & Inorganic Chemistry, Periodic Table & Its Classification, Atomic Structure,
Fundamental Unit of Life, Heredity and Evolution, Life Processes etc.
Ÿ ‘The best strategy for this section is to understand the basic concept of all topics, Try to learn the
periodic table, formulae of different Organic-Inorganic Compounds and their uses, Structure of cells
& tissue, Scientific names of Vitamin & Minerals and disease caused by their deficiency.

3 SOCIAL SCIENCE
Ÿ This section contains 40 questions at both stage I and stage II from History, Geography, Civics
& Economy are asked in this section.
Ÿ Topics covered under this section are Ancient India, Medieval India and World Geography,
Constitution of India, Judiciary and Legislature and concepts related to Indian Economy etc.
Ÿ Read all the topics carefully from class IX and X and try to remember the important dates &
facts that can be the only special tip for this section.

4 MATHEMATICS
This section contains 20 questions at Stage I and Stage II both.
Topics covered under this section are Number System, HCF & LCM, Trigonometry,
Height & Distance, Commercial Mathematics and Co-ordinate Geometry, Algebra etc.
For this section one has to learn the basic formulae and concept of every topic. One can
save his/her time by using short tricks while attempting the question.
CONTENTS
Solved Paper 2021 (Stage - I) 1-28
Solved Paper 2020 (Stage - I) 1-26
Solved Paper 2019 (Stage - II) 1-40
Solved Paper 2018 (Stage - I) 1-27
Solved Paper 2018 (Stage - II) 1-36
Solved Paper 2017 (Stage - I) 1-22

PAPER I MAT (Mental Ability Test)

PART I Verbal Reasoning 18. Syllogism 119-130
19. Statement and Conclusion 131-133
1. Coding-Decoding 3-12
20. Data Sufficiency 134-140
2. Classification 13-17
3. Analogy 18-26
PART II Non-Verbal Reasoning
4. Alphabet Test 27-33 1. Series 141-148
5. Series 34-41 2. Analogy 149-157
6. Complex Sequence 42-45 3. Classification (Odd One Out) 158-161
7. Logical Sequence of Words 46-50 4. Matrix 162-167
8. Blood Relations 51-58 5. Completion of Figures 168-172
9. Direction Sense Test 59-67 6. Spotting Out the Embedded Figure 173-177
10. Inserting the Missing Character 68-75 7. Mirror and Water Images 178-181
11. Ranking Test 76-80 8. Paper Folding 182-185
12. Arithmetical Reasoning 81-88 9. Paper Cutting 186-190
13. Mathematical Operations 89-93 10. Counting of Figures 191-198
14. Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles 94-100 11. Cubes and Dice 199-205
15. Problems Based on Calendar 101-105 12. Dots Situation 206-207
16. Problems Based on Clock 106-111 13. Grouping of Identical Figures 208-211

17. Venn-Diagrams 112-118 14. Formation of Figures 212-216

PAPER II SAT (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
PART I Physics 5. How do Organism Reproduce 350-353
6. Heredity and Evolution 354-356
1. Motion 219-226
7. Why do We Fall ill 357-360
2. Force and Laws of Motion 227-231
8. Diversity in Living Organism 361-366
3. Work, Energy and Power 232-236
9. Our Environment 367-370
4. Gravitation 237-240
10. Natural Resources 371-374
5. Pressure and Archimede’s Principle 241-244
11. Management of Natural Resources 375-377
6. Sound 245-249
12. Improvement in Food Resources 378-381
7. Heat 250-255
8. Light : Reflection, Refraction and
Human Eye 256-266 PART IV Mathematics
9. Electricity 267-272 1. Number System 382-389
10. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 273-278 2. Basic Operations on Arithmetic 390-404
11. Sources of Energy 279-284 3. Algebra 405-411
4. Linear Equations 412-417
PART II Chemistry 5. Quadratic Equation 418-422
1. Is Matter Around us Pure 285-289 6. Arithmetic Progression 423-427
2. Atomic Structure 290-294 7. Introduction to Euclid's Geometry 428-431
3. Chemical Reactions and Equations 295-298 8. Lines and Angles 432-439
4. Acids, Bases and Salts 299-303 9. Triangles 440-449
5. Metals and Non-Metals 304-309 10. Quadrilaterals 450-457
6. Carbon and its Compounds 310-316 11. Circles 458-468
7. Periodic Classification of Elements 317-322 12. Coordinate Geometry 469-477
8. Atoms and Molecules 323-326 13. Area and Perimeter 478-487
9. Matter in Our Surroundings 327-329 14. Volume and Surface Area 488-494
15. Trigonometry 495-501
PART III Biology 16. Height and Distance 502-509
1. Fundamental Unit of Life 330-335 17. Statistics 510-517
2. Tissues 336-340 18. Permutations and Combinations 518-522
3. Life Processes 341-345 19. Probability 523-527
4. Control and Coordination 346-349
PART V History PART VII Civics
1. Ancient India 528-537 1. Framing of Indian Constitution and
its Basic Features 648-654
2. Medieval India 538-545
2. Working of Institutions Organs
3. Events and Process 546-568 of Government 655-660
4. Livelihoods, Economics and 3. Democracy and Related Phenomena 661-665
Societies 569-583 4. Electoral Process in India and
5. Everyday Life, Culture and Politics 584-597 Political Parties 666-670
5. Power Sharing and Federalism 671-674
PART VI Geography
1. India : Size and Location 598-600
PART VIII Economics
1. Agriculture and Allied Activities 675-677
2. Physical Features of India 601-606
2. People as Resource 678-680
3. Climate 607-612 3. Poverty as a Challenge 681-684
4. Drainage 613-616 4. Food Security in India 685-687
5. Resources and Development 617-623 5. Development 688-690
6. Agriculture 624-629 6. Sectors of the Indian Economy 691-694
7. Manufacturing Industries 630-635 7. Money and Credit 695-697

8. Minerals and Energy Resources 636-640 8. Globalisation and the Indian Economy 698-700
9. Consumer Rights 701-704
9. Population 641-643
10. Transport—Lifelines of National General Knowledge 705-724
Economy 644-647 Practice Sets (1-5) 3-111
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 1

NTSE Solved Paper

NATIONAL TALENT
SEARCH
EXAMINATION
2021 (Stage I)

INSTRUCTIONS
This solved paper consists of two papers. Paper I consists of Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Paper II consists of
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT).
MAT covering (Q. Nos. 1-50) of Maths and (Q. Nos. 51-100) of Reasoning.
SAT consists of (Science, Mathematics and Social Science) which comprises 100 questions (40 Science, 20 Mathematics
and 40 Social Science).
There will be no negative marking.
Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.

Time : 240 Minutes Max. Mark : 200

Paper I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

é(62 + 72 + 82 + 92 + 102 ) ù 12
1. ê ú is equal to Sum of 12 terms (S12 ) = [2(7) + (12 - 1)3]
ë (7 + 2 3 ) - (5 + 2 3 ) û 2
n
(a) 160 (b) 165 (c) 167 (d) 161 S12 = 6(14 + 33) [QSn = [2 a + (n - 1)d]
2
(62 + 72 + 82 + 92 + 102 ) 36 + 49 + 64 + 81 + 100 S12 = 282
l (b) =
(7 + 2 3 ) - (5 + 2 3 ) 7 + 2 3 -5 -2 3
330 4. Two goods train each 500 m long, are running in
= = 165 opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds
2
are 45 km/h and 30 km/h respectively. Find the
2. If 20% of x = y , then y % of 20 is the same as time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of
(a) 4% of x (b) 6% of y the faster one.
(c) 8% of x (d) 10% of x (a) 12 s (b) 24 s
l (a) 20% of x = y (c) 48 s (d) 60 s
20 (c) Relative speed of both the trains
Þ ´x=y …(i) l
100 = 45 + 30 = 75 km/h
y 20 20
Now, y% of 20 = ´ 20 = ´ ´x [from (i)] Total distance covered = 500 m + 500 m = 1 km
100 100 100
We know that,
4x
= = 4% of x Distance
100 Time =
Speed
3. The sum of the first 12 terms of an AP, whose nth \ Time taken by slower train to pass the driver of faster
term is given by an = 3 n + 4, is 1 1
one = h= ´ 3600 = 48 s
(a) 262 (b) 272 (c) 282 (d) 292 75 75
l (c) General term of AP, an = 3 n + 4
5. The next term of the AP 18 , 50 , 98 ...... is
Now, if we put n = 1, 2, 3, …… we get
an AP which is 7, 10, 13, … (a) 146 (b) 128
a = 7, d = 3 and n = 12 (c) 162 (d) 200
2 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

l (c) Given AP is 18 , 50 , 98 . l (b)

Þ 3 2, 5 2, 7 2 A
a = 3 2, d = 2 2
\ The next term = 7 2 + d
= 7 2 + 2 2 = 9 2 or 162
h
6. If ( p + q) th term of an AP is m and ( p - q) th term is
n, then pth term is
(a) mn (b) mn θ
(m - n) (m + n) B C
(c) (d) AB is a tower with height h m,
2 2
\ AB = BC = h m (given)
l (d) We know that, in an AP,
Now, let q be the angle of elevation
an = a + (n - 1)d
In right DABC,
Therefore, ap + q = a + (p + q - 1)d = m …(i) AB éQ tan q = Perpendicular ù
ap - q = a + (p - q - 1)d = n …(ii) tanq = êë úû
BC Base
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get h
m + n = 2 a + (2 p - 2)d tanq =
h
m + n = 2 [a + (p - 1)d] tanq = 1 [Qtan 45° = 1]
m+ n
= a + (p - 1)d \ q = 45°
2
m+ n 9. There are 1400 students in a school, 25% of those
= ap
2 2
wear spectacles and of those wearing spectacles
m+ n 7
\ pth term of AP is .
2 are boys. How many girls in the school wear
spectacles?
7. If a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down
due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip (a) 300 (b) 100
was reduced by 200 km/h and the time of flight (c) 200 (d) 250
increased by 30 min. The original duration of the l (d) Total number of students = 1400
flight is Number of students wearing spectacles =
25
´ 1400 = 350
(a) 1 h (b) 2 h 100
Number of girls in the class = æç1 - ö÷ ´ 350
(c) 3 h (d) 4 h 2
è 7ø
l (a) Let the original duration of the flight is ‘t’ hour.
5
Total distance = 600 km = ´ 350 = 250
7
Now, we know that,
Distance 10. P, Q and R jointly thought of engaging themselves
Speed =
Time in a business venture. It was agreed that P would
Then, according to question, invest ` 6500 for 6 months, Q, ` 8400 for 5 months
600
-
600
= 200 Þ
1
-
2
=
1 and R, ` 10000 for 3 months. P wants to be the
t 1 t 2 t + 1 3 working member for which, he was to receive 5% of
t +
2 the profits. The profit earned was ` 7400. Calculate
2t + 1 - 2t 1 1 1 the share of Q in the profit.
= Þ =
t (2t + 1) 3 2t 2 + t 3 (a) ` 1900 (b) ` 2660
2t 2 + t - 3 = 0 Þ 2t 2 + 3t - 2t - 3 = 0 (c) ` 2800 (d) ` 2840
t (2t + 3) - 1(2t + 3) = 0 Þ (2t + 3)(t - 1) = 0 l (b) Ratio of investments of P, Q and R
3
t = - (not possible), t = 1 P : Q : R = 6500 ´ 6 : 8400 ´ 5 : 10000 ´ 3 = 13 : 14 : 10
2
Total profit = ` 7400
\ Original duration of flight = 1 h 5
P’s profit = ´ 7400 = ` 370
8. A tower is observed from a point on the horizontal 100
through the foot of the tower. The distance of this Remaining profit = ` (7400 - 370) = ` 7030
point from the foot of the tower is equal to the Now, Q’s share in profit
height of the tower. The angle of elevation on the 14
= ´ 7030
top of the tower is 13 + 14 + 10
(a) 60° (b) 45° 14
= ´ 7030 = ` 2660
(c) 40° (d) 30° 37
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 3
1
11. John cycling at a constant speed of 10 km/h, x+ = 10 …(i)
reaches his school in time. If he cycles at a constant x
speed of 15 km/h, he reaches his school in 12 min Now, we know that
3

x3 + 3 = æç x + ö÷ - 3 æç x + ö÷ = 103 - 3(10)
early. How many kilometers he has to cycle for his 1 1 1
school is? x è xø è xø
(a) 4 (b) 6 [from Eq. (i)]
(c) 9 (d) 12 = 1000 - 30 = 970
l (b) Original speed of John = 10 km/h 14. The correct arrangement of alphabetical order of
Let original distance = d km the words is
We know that, 1. music 2. monk
Distance
Time = 3. minimum 4. maximum
Speed
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2
and, according to question,
d d 12 d d 1 (c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
- = Þ - =
10 15 60 10 15 5 l (d) The correct alphabetical order of the words
3d - 2d 1 Maximum ® Minimum ® Monk ® Music
=
30 5 (4) (3) (2) (1)
d = 6 km Þ 4, 3, 2, 1
\ Distance he cycles to school = 6 km
15. At present ages of a father and son are in the ratio
p
12. If 7 sin a = 24 cos a : 0 < a < , then the value of of 7 : 3 and they will be in the present ratio 2 : 1
2 after 10 yr. What is the present age of father?
14 tan a - 75 cos a - 7 sec a is equal to
(a) 70 yr (b) 65 yr
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 60 yr (d) 50 yr
(c) 1 (d) 2
l (a) Let the ages of father and son be 7x yr and 3x yr
l (d) Given, 7 sin a = 24 cos a
sin a 24 24 According to the question,
= Þ tana = …(i) 7 x + 10 2
cos a 7 7 =
3 x + 10 1
We know that,
2 7 x + 10 = 6 x + 20
sec2 a = 1 + tan2 a = 1 + æç ö÷
24
[from (i)] x = 10
è7 ø
576 \ Present age of father = 7x
sec2 a = 1 + = 7 ´ 10 = 70 yr
49
625
sec a =
2
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-19) Study the following table
49
carefully and answer the questions.
625 25
sec a = = …(ii)
49 7 Number of students in different classes of XYZ Primary school
7 Classes Years
Þ cos a = …(iii)
25 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018
Now, 14 tan a - 75 cos a - 7sec a
I 22 28 26 32 18
24 7 25
= 14 ´ - 75 ´ -7 ´ [from Eqs. (i), (ii), (iii)] II 20 26 22 24 16
7 25 7
= 2 ´ 24 - 7 ´ 3 - 25 III 39 33 52 17 29
= 48 - 21 - 25 = 48 - 46 = 2 IV 19 26 38 24 11
1 1 V 16 33 37 23 21
13. If x + 2 = 98( x > 0), then the value of x 3 + 3 is
2

x x
16. The difference between the sum of all the students
(a) 970 (b) 1030 of all the classes in 2017 and 2018 is
(c) - 970 (d) - 1030 (a) 112 (b) 85
l (a) Given, (c) 25 (d) 35
1 l (c) Sum of students in 2017
x + 2 = 98
2

x = 32 + 24 + 17 + 24 + 23 = 120
Adding 2 on both sides, Sum of students in 2018
1 = 18 + 16 + 29 + 11 + 21
x2 + 2 + 2 = 100
x = 95
2
æ x + 1 ö = (10)2 [Q (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2 ab] \ Required difference = 120 - 95
ç ÷
è xø = 25
4 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

17. The sum of all the students in class III in all the l (c) Here, each letter is coded as the twice of its
years is what percent of the sum of all students of alphabetical position
class I in all the years approximately? A =1 ´ 2 = 2 [QAlphabetical position A = 1]
(a) 30% (b) 100% T = 20 ´ 2 = 40 [QAlphabetical position T = 20]
As, ACT = 2 + 6 + 40 = 48 [QC = 3 ´ 2 = 6]
(c) 60% (d) 135%
Similarly,
l (d) Sum of students in class III
TAKE = 40 + 2 + 22 + 10 [QK = 2 ´ 11 = 22, E = 2 ´ 5 = 10]
= 39 + 33 + 52 + 17 + 29
\ TAKE = 74
= 170
Sum of students in class I Directions (Q. Nos. 23-27) Identify the wrong number /
= 22 + 28 + 26 + 32 + 18 letters in the series.
= 126
170 23. 126, 98, 70, 41, 14
\ Required percentage = ´ 100
126 (a) 98 (b) 70 (c) 126 (d) 41
» 135% l (d) 42
126 98 70 41 14
18. The square of sum of all the students of all classes
in year 2018 is –28 –28 –28 –28
(a) 2095 (b) 9025 \ 41 is the wrong term.
(c) 6059 (d) 9216
24. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 65, 127
l (b) Sum of students in 2018
(a) 7 (b) 31 (c) 15 (d) 65
= 18 + 16 + 29 + 11 + 21
= 95 l (d) 63
\ Required square = (95)2 = 9025 1 3 7 15 31 65 127

19. By what percent the number of students of Class I ×2+1 ×2+1 ×2+1 ×2+1 ×2+1 ×2+1
in year 2017 is more than the number of students of \ 65 is the wrong term.
Class II for the same year?
(a) 60 (b) 75 25. 7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 344
(c) 35 (d) 33.33 (a) 28 (b) 63 (c) 124 (d) 344
l (d) Number of students in class I in 2017 = 32 l (c) 126
Number of students in class II in 2017 = 24 7 28 63 124 215 344
32 - 24
\ Required percentage = ´ 100
24
23–1 33+1 43–1 53+1 63–1 73+1
8
= ´ 100 = 33 .33% \ 124 is the wrong term.
24
26. AD, EG, IJ, MM, QP, UP
Directions (Q. Nos. 20 and 21) First two terms are
(a) EG (b) UP
connected by some relationship. The same relationship is
applicable for the next terms. Identify the suitable pair. (c) QP (d) MM
l (b)
20. Square : Cube
+3 +3 +3 +3 +3
(a) Rectangle : Cuboid (b) Triangle : Square
(c) Quadrilateral : Cuboid (d) Cuboid : Rectangle A D E G I J M M Q P U P
l (a) As, cube is the 3-D form of a square similarly, cuboid is U S
+4 +4 +4 +4 +4
the 3-D form of a rectangle.
\ UP is the wrong term.
21. 82 : 9
27. Z8, W5, T2, Q8, N5, K3
(a) 5 : 26 (b) 6 : 37
(a) K3 (b) T2
(c) 35 : 6 (d) 26 : 5
(c) Q8 (d) Z8
l (d) As in (82 : 9), 92 + 1 = 82 K2
l (a)
Similarly in, (26 : 5) Z8 W5 T2 Q8 N5 K3
52 + 1 = 26

22. If A = 2 , T = 40 and ACT = 48, then TAKE is Z = 26 W = 23 T = 20 Q = 17 N = 14 K = 11

2+6 = 8 2+3 = 5 2+0 =2 1+7 = 8 1+4 = 5 1+1 = 2 ≠ 3
(a) 68 (b) 58
(c) 74 (d) 76 \ K3 is the wrong term.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 5
Directions (Q. Nos. 28 and 29) In the following questions l (c) As, M O N K E Y
first set of words are related in a certain way. You have to –1 –1 –1 –1 –1

choose a word. So that another set of words also become –1

related in same manner.
28. Transition : change : : Immobility : ? X D J M N L
(a) Stillness (b) Liveliness
Similarly, T I G E R
(c) Action (d) Busyness –1 –1
–1 –1
l (a) As, transition and change are synonyms to each other,
similarly, immobility and stillness are synonyms to each
other.
Q D F H S
29. Grain : Stock : : Stick : ?
(a) String (b) Collection \ T I G E R ÞQ D F H S
(c) Bundle (d) Heep 35. In the following matrix, certain numbers are
l (c) As, collection of grain is called stock, similarly, arranged in a certain way. Choose the missing
collection of sticks is called bundle. number to complete the matrix.
30. A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father, E is 1 7 9
D’s mother. Then how is A related to D? 2 14 ?
(a) Grand father (b) Grand mother 3 105 117
(c) Daughter (d) Grand daughter
(a) 16 (b) 12
l (d) (c) 13 (d) 14
E(–) + ⇒ Male
l (b) As, in I column,
– ⇒ Female 1´2 +1=3
Mother
In II column,
D(+) 7 ´ 14 + 7 = 105
\ In III column,
Father 9 ´ 12 + 9 = 117
Grand-daughter
\ ? = 12
C(–)

Mother
36. What value will replace ‘?’ in the figures given
below?
A(–) B 42 36 38
Sister
From the above relation diagram, it is clear that A is grand
3 2 15 3 1 9 10 ? 20
daughter of E.

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) Find the odd one out. 6 9 19

(a) 0 (b) 1
31. (a) Crusade (b) Expedition
(c) 2 (d) 3
(c) Campaign (d) Cruise
l (a) As, in first circle,
l (d) Crusade, campaign and expedition is related to land
whereas cruise is related to water. (42 ¸ 6) - (15 ¸ 3) Þ 7 - 5 = 2
In second circle,
32. (a) Clove (b) Apricot (36 ¸ 9) - (9 ¸ 3) Þ 4 - 3 = 1
(c) Cinnamon (d) Pepper Similarly, in third circle,
l (b) Apricot is a dry fruit, whereas all other are spices. (38 ¸ 19) - (20 ¸ 10) Þ 2 - 2 = 0

33. (a) Acre (b) Yard 37. Five plays K, L, M, N and O are to be staged from
(c) Mile (d) Meter Monday to Friday of a week. On each day only one
play will be staged. O should be immediately
l (a) Mile, Yard and Meter are units for measuring distance,
whereas Acre is used for measurement of area of land. followed by M. L should be staged immediately
after N. One play is staged between K and L. N or
34. In a certain code MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. O should not be the first or last play. Which is the
How is TIGER written in the same code? second play to be staged?
(a) SHFDQ (b) HFDSQ (a) M (b) O
(c) QDFHS (d) PQRST (c) N (d) K
6 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

l (c) According to the information given in the question, the 40. Identify the diagram that best represents the
arrangement is as follows. relationship among the given animals - Reptiles,
Play Day Lizard, Lion.
K Monday
N Tuesday
L Wednesday
O Thursday (a) (b) (c) (d)
M Friday
l (c)
\ N will be the second play to be staged.
Lizard Lion
38. In a town of 500 people, 285 people read ‘The
Hindu’ and 212 people read ‘Indian Express’ and Reptile
127 people read ‘Times of India’. Only 20 people
read ‘The Hindu’ and ‘Times of India’, only 29 Lizard is a reptile, whereas, Lion is different.
people read ‘The Hindu’ and ‘Indian Express’ and 41. If - stands for ÷, + stands for ´, ÷ stands for - and ´
only 35 people read ‘Times of India’ and ‘Indian stands for +, which of the following equations is
Express’. 50 people do not read newspaper. Then correct?
how many people read only one newspaper?
(a) 40 - 10 + 5 ¸ 4 ´ 5 = 21 (b) 40 + 10 - 4 ´ 5 ¸ 3 = 80
(a) 123 (b) 213
(c) 40 ¸ 10 - 4 ´ 5 + 3 = 32 (d) 8 - 4 ´ 40 ¸ 2 + 15 = 30
(c) 312 (d) 321
l (a) From option (a),
l (d) Let the number of people who read Hindu, Times of 40 - 10 + 5 ¸ 4 ´ 5 = 21
India and Indian express all is x.
After interchanging signs according to question, we get
So, number of people who only reads Hindu
40 ¸ 10 ´ 5 - 4 + 5 = 21
= 285 - 20 - 29 - x
By using BODMAS
= 236 - x
4 ´ 5 - 4 + 5 = 21
Number of people who only reads Times of India
20 + 1 = 21
= 127 - 20 - 35 - x
21 = 21
= 72 - x
Number of people who only reads Indian Express 42. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the
= 212 - 35 - 29 - x circle and are facing the centre. P is second to the
= 148 - x right of T who is neighbour of R and V. S is not the
Now, 236 - x + 72 - x + 148 - x + 20 + 29 + 35 + x neighbour of P, V is neighbour of U. Q is not
+ 50 = 500 between S and W. W is not between U and S. Then
590 - 2 x = 500 who is sitting opposite to W?
Þ x = 45 (a) S (b) Q (c) U (d) T
So, number of people who read only one news paper is l (d) According to the information given in the question, the
= 236 - 45 + 72 - 45 + 148 - 45 arrangement is as follows
= 191 + 27 + 103 W
= 321
S Q
39. Which of the following venn diagram truly
represents the relationship between Truck, Ship
and Goods? U P

V R

T
(a) (b) (c) (d) Hence, T is sitting opposite to W.
l (a)
43. Find the ratio in which rice at ` 7.20 per kg be
mixed with rice at ` 5.70 per kg to produce a
Truck Goods Ship mixture worth ` 6.30 per kg?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 5
Truck and ship, both are used to transport goods.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 7
l (a) According to the law of Mixture and Alligation 47. Two goods trains each 390 m long are running in
7 : 20 5 : 70 same direction on parallel tracks. Their speeds are
42 km/h and 36 km/h respectively. Find the time
6 : 30 taken by the faster train to cross the driver of the
slower one?
0.6 0.9 (a) 7.8 min (b) 12 min (c) 18 min (d) 4 min
The required ratio =0.6 : 0.9 = 2 : 3 l (a) Total distance = Sum of lengths of two train
44. A pupil’s marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead = (390 + 390) = 780 m
of 63. Due to which the average marks for the class Relative speed = (42 - 36) km/h
got increased by half. The number of pupils in the = 6 km/h
5 5
class is =6 ´ = m/s
18 3
(a) 45 (b) 40 (c) 39 (d) 37
Distance 780
Now, required time = = = 468 s
l (b) Let there are x pupils in the class, Speed æ5 ö
1 x ç ÷
Total increase in marks = x ´ = è3 ø
2 2
x = 7.8 min
According to question, = 83 - 63
2 Directions (Q. Nos. 48-50) Study the pie chart carefully
x
= 20 and answer the following questions.
2
Pie chart shows the percentage quantity of fruits of two shops A
\ x = 40
and B.
45. A watch which gains 5 s in 3 min was set right at
7 am. In the afternoon of the same day when the Guava Guava
watch indicated quarter past 4 O’clock, the true 12% Mango 16% Mango
time is 24% 24%
Others Others
(a) 9 pm (b) 7 pm
30% Apple 26% Apple
(c) 4 pm (d) 5 pm 14% 14%
l (c) Time from 7 am to 4 : 15 pm Orange Orange
37 20% 20%
= 9 h 15 min = h
4
Shop A Shop B
3 min 5 sec of this clock = 3 min of the correct clock
(Total quantity 1200 kg) (Total quantity 1000 kg)
37 1
h of this clock = h of the correct clock.
720 20 48. What is the difference between the quantity of
h of this clock = æç
37 1 720 37 ö Guava at Shop B and that of Shop A?
´ ´ ÷ h of the correct clock.
4 è 20 37 4 ø (a) 20 kg (b) 25 kg (c) 40 kg (d) 16 kg
= 9 h of the correct clock (d) Quantity of Guava at Shop B = 1000 ´
16
l = 160 kg
So, the correct time is 9 h after 7 am. i.e. 4 pm. 100
3 5 12
46. A student multiplied a number by instead of . Quantity of Guava at Shop A = 1200 ´ = 144 kg
5 3 100
What is the percentage error in the calculation? \ Required difference = 160 - 144 = 16 kg
(a) 54% (b) 64%
49. The quantity of Mango at Shop B is what
(c) 74% (d) 84% percentage of the quantity of Mango at Shop A?
l (b) Let the number is 100. (a) 20% (b) 120% (c) 84% (d) 150%
5 500
Number after actual multiplication = 100 ´ = l (c) Quantity of Mango at Shop A
3 3 24
Number after student’s multiplication = 1200 ´ = 288 kg
100
3 300
= 100 ´ = Quantity of Mango at Shop B = 1000 ´
24
= 240 kg
5 5 100
500 300 1600
Error = - = 240
3 5 15 So, required percentage = ´ 100 = 83.33% » 84%
288
æ1600 ö
ç ÷
è ø 50. If the price of Mango is ` 30 per kg, Apple ` 40 per
Percentage error = 15 ´ 100
æ 500 ö kg and Orange ` 20 per kg, then what is the ratio of
ç ÷
è 3 ø their cost at Shop A?
1600 ´ 100 ´ 3 (a) 4 : 5 : 6 (b) 9 : 7 : 5
= = 64%
15 ´ 500 (c) 4 : 5 : 1 (d) 2 : 5 : 7
8 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

l (b) In shop A, Sol. (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) According to the question, the
24 arrangement according to the age is as follows :
Quantity of Mango = 1200 ´ = 288 kg
100 Geeta > Kusum > Arti > Ananya > Shruti
So, cost of Mango = ` (288 ´ 30) = ` 8640 l (b) Shruti is the youngest.
14
Quantity of Apple = 1200 ´ = 168 kg l (c) Arti is in the middle with respect to age.
100
So, cost of Apple = ` (168 ´ 40) = ` 6720 56. A and B are brothers, D is brother of E, C is father
20 of A, E is daughter of B, then who is uncle of D?
Quantity of Orange = 1200 ´ = 240 kg
100 (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
So, cost of Orange = ` 240 ´ 20 = ` 4800
l (a)
\ Required ratio = 8640 : 6720 : 4800
or 9 :7 :5 C(+)
+ ⇒ Male
51. In given question, select the correct alternative. father – ⇒ Female
Monotony : Variety : : Crudeness : ? (+) (+)
A B
(a) Sobriety (b) Simplicity Brother Son
(c) Raw (d) Refinement daughter
l (d) As, variety is the antonym of Monotony. Similarly, E(+) D(+)
refinement is the antonym of crudeness. brother
From the above relation diagram, it is clear that A is the
52. If B is 20 m South from A and C is 10 m North uncle of D.
from D and A is 10 m West from D, then where is B
from C? 57. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the
face with number 4?
(a) North-East (b) North-West
(c) South-West (d) North 4 6
l (c) 1 3 4 3
C N (a) 5 (b) 2 or 5 (c) 2 (d) 2 or 3
10 m l (b) According to the given position of dices 1, 3 and 6 are
10 m
A W E adjacent to 4.
D
20 m Hence, 2 or 5 will be opposite to 4.
S-W
S 58. If four different positions of a die are shown, what
B
number is opposite of 3?
Hence, B is in South-West direction with respect to C.
2 5 6 3
53. Amit ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the
3 6 2 4 3 1 5 1
bottom among those who passed the examination. 6
students does not participate and 5 failed in it. How
(a) 6 (b) 5
many students were there in the class?
(c) 2 (d) 4
(a) 50 (b) 55 (c) 44 (d) 52
l (d) From the position of first and fourth dice 2, 6, 1 and 5
l (b) Number of students who passed the examination
are ad(d) From the position of first and fourth dice 2, 6, 1
= (16 + 29) - 1 =44 and 5 are adjacent to 3.
Hence, total number of students in the class Hence, 4 will be opposite to 3.
= 44 + 6 + 5 = 55
59. Study the figure given below and find those youth
Directions (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) Study the following who are in service but not literate?
information carefully and answer the questions that
follow. Literate
Youth 2 3 4
Ananya is older than Shruti, Arti is older than Ananya but
5
younger than Kusum. Kusum is older than Shruti, Shruti is 7 6
younger than Arti and Geeta is oldest. 1
54. Who is youngest? Servicemen
(a) Ananya (b) Shruti (c) Arti (d) Kusum (a) 3 or 4 (b) Only 7
55. Who is in the middle with respect to the age? (c) 2 or 7 (d) 2 or 5
(a) Shruti (b) Ananya l (b) Youth who are in service but not literate is represented
(c) Arti (d) Kusum by only 7.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 9
60. In the number 59164823, how many digits will be Sol. (Q. Nos. 62-65) According to the information the
as far away from the beginning of the number if arrangement is as follows
digits are arranged in descending order as they are
in the number?
(a) 3 (b) more than 3 K D H J F A E South
(c) 1 (d) 2
l 62. (a) J sits exactly in the middle of the row.
l (d) Original Number = 5 9 1 6 4 8 2 3
l 63. (b) Two persons sits between A and H.
After arranging in = 9 8 6 5 4 3 2 1 l 64. (d) Except FH, in all the other pairs, first person sits to
descending order the left of second person.
Hence, two digits 4 and 2 will remain at the same l 65. (c) F is second to the left of H.
position.
66. Find out the missing number.
61. How many such pairs of letters are there in the
word EDUCATION, each of which has as many 7
letters between them in the word, as they have in
348 18
English alphabet?
(a) more than 3 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 172 40
l (a) ?

E D U C A T I O N
(a) 72 (b) 84 (c) 68 (d) 66
l (b) As, 7 ´ 2 + 4 = 18
There are total 5 pairs EA, ED, DA, DI, ON which has as 18 ´ 2 + 4 = 40
many letters between them in the word, as they have in 40 ´ 2 + 4 = 84
english alphabet. 84 ´ 2 + 4 = 172
and 172 ´ 2 + 4 = 348
Directions (Q. Nos. 62-65) Study the following
\ ? = 84
information carefully and answer the questions given
below. 67. Find the missing number in given question.
A, D, E, F, H, J and K are sitting on straight table facing towards 9 8 7
South. D sits fourth to the right of A. E sits at the left end of the
6 7 8
table. Five persons sit between E and K. J sits third to the left of
K. and F does not sit immediate to D. 5 4 6
260 216 ?
62. Which of the following person sits exactly at the
middle of the row? (a) 191 (b) 326 (c) 330 (d) 336
(a) J (b) F l (c) In first column,
(c) H (d) A (9 ´ 6 ´ 5) - 10 Þ270 - 10 = 260
In second column,
63. How many persons sit between A and H? (8 ´ 7 ´ 4) - 8 Þ224 - 8 = 216
(a) 1 (b) 2 Hence, in third column
(c) 3 (d) 4 (7 ´ 8 ´ 6) - 6 Þ336 - 6 = 330
64. Three of the following four pairs are alike in a \ ? = 330
certain way based on their positions and so formed 68. Find the missing number.
a group. Which of the following does not belong to
the group? 4 9
(a) AF (b) JH
(c) EA (d) FH 3 0 26 6

65. What is the position of F with respect to H?

63 ? 10
(a) Second to the right 8
(b) Exactly right
12 12
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right (a) 7 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 14
10 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

l (a) As, (4 - 3)3 - 1 = 0 73. Question Figures

(9 - 6)3 - 1 = 26
and (12 - 8)3 - 1 = 63
Similarly, (12 - 10)3 - 1 = 7
\ ?=7
?
69. Complete the series from given options.
a_caa_bcc_aabbb_cc Answer Figures
(a) bbca (b) Abca
(c) bbac (d) Babc
l (c) The series is as follows
a b c/aa/ b b/cc/ a aa/ bbb/c cc / Þ b b a c
Directions (Q. Nos. 70 and 71) Study the following (a) (b) (c) (d)
information to answer the given questions. l (c) The figure given in option (c) will complete the series.
In a certain code ‘always create new ideas’ is written as ‘ba ri sh
gi’, ‘idea and new thoughts’ is air written as ‘fa gi ma ri’, ‘create 74. Question Figures
thoughts and insights’ is written as ‘ma jo ba fa’, ‘new and better
solution’ is written as ‘ki ri to fa’.
G A O I T Z
70. What is code for ‘ideas’ ? E C M K V X ?
(a) sha (b) gi
(c) ba (d) ma
Answer Figures
71. What does ‘fa’ stand for?
(a) thoughts (b) insights
M R N R O R L R
(c) new (d) and
O P O P P Q N P
Sol. (Q. Nos. 70 and 71)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
always create new ideas ⇒ ba ri sh gi ...(i)
l (d) As,
idea and new thoughts ⇒ fa gi ma ri ...(ii) +2

create thoughts and insights ⇒ ma jo ba fa ...(iii)

G A O I
+2 +2 +2 +2
new and better solution ⇒ ki ri to fa ...(iv) E C M K

l 70. (b) From Eqs. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), it is clear that the +2 +2
code for ideas is ‘gi’.
Similarly,
l 71. (d) ‘fa’ stands for ‘and’. −2

Directions (Q. Nos. 72-74) Choose the correct answer

T Z L R
figure from the given alternatives which will complete the −2 −2 −2 −2
given questions figure series. V X N P

72. Question Figures −2 −2

Directions (Q. Nos. 75 and 76) A set of four figures are

? given in which three bear close resemblance. Select the
odd one out.
Answer Figures 75.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
l (c) All the figures except figure (c) are divided into parts of
l (a) The figure given in option (a) will complete the series. equal areas by the lines inside.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 11
76. Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (a) Except figure (a), all the figures are divided into two (a) (b) (c) (d)
equal parts. l (d) The figure given in option (d), will complete the given
question figure.
77. If a mirror is kept on a line, then which of the
answer figure is the correct mirror image of Directions (Q. Nos. 80 and 81) All the surfaces of a solid
question figure? cube of side 4 cm have been coloured black and cut into
Question Figures equal sized cube of side 1 cm each. Now answer the
following questions.
80. How many cubes are there which do not have any
of their surfaces coloured?
(a) 0 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 8
Answer Figures l (d) Cubes which do not have any of their surfaces coloured
= (n - 2)3
when n = 4
= (4 - 2)3 = 23 = 8

81. How many cubes have two of their surfaces

(a) (b) (c) (d) coloured with black on the opposite surfaces?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 8
l (c) The figure given in option (c) is the correct mirror
image of the question figure. l (c) There is no such cubes having two of their surfaces
coloured with black on the opposite surfaces.
78. Which of the four alternatives given below is the
correct water image of the question figure? 82. In a row of 40 children, A is 13th from the left end
and B is 9th from the right end. How many
Question Figures
children are there between A and C, if C is 4th to
the left of B?
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 14 (d) 15
l (c) If B is 9th from the right and 4th left of B is C, so, C will
be 13th from the right and 28th from the left.
Answer Figures So, there are (28 - 13 - 1) = 14 children between A and C.

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) Read the following information

carefully and answer th questions that follow.
In a family A is younger brother of B and D is the son of B. D is
brother of E but E is not son of B. F is grandson of B and C is
(a) (b) (c) (d) cousin of E.
l (b) Figure (b) is the correct mirror image of the given 83. Who is father of F?
figure.
(a) A (b) B
79. Which one of the given alternative figures will (c) C (d) Cannot be determined
complete the given figure pattern?
84. The relation of A with D is
Question Figure
(a) father (b) brother
(c) cousin (d) uncle

85. The relation of E with F is

(a) uncle (b) aunt
(c) grand father (d) cannot be determined
12 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

Sol. (Q. Nos. 83-85)

Brother
(–) + ⇒ Male 89. 2 6 2
A B
– ⇒ Female
Son 4 28 6 14 66 4 2 ? 13
Brother
L E(–) D(+) 2 4 7
Cousin
(a) 40 (b) 32
l 83. (d) F can be the son of E or D. Hence, his father cannot
be determined on the basis of the given information. (c) 35 (d) 30
l 84. (d) A is the uncle of D. l (c) As, in first circle
6 ´ 4 + (2 + 2) Þ24 + 4 = 28
l 85. (d) E can be mother or aunt of F. So, relation between
E and F, cannot be definitely determined. and in second circle
14 ´ 4 + (6 + 4) Þ56 + 10 = 66
86. How many times are the hands of a clock at right Similarly, in third circle
angles in 12 h? (13 ´ 2) + (7 + 2) = 26 + 9 = 35
(a) 24 times (b) 48 times \ ? = 35
(c) 22 times (d) 44 times
90.
l (c) In 12 h, the hands of the clock are right angles for
22 times. 7 9 11
2 3 2
Directions (Q. Nos. 87-90) Find the missing character in
53 87 ?
the following figures.
(a) 125 (b) 100
87. 4 8 5 (c) 129 (d) 64
l (a) As, in first column,
72 + (2 ´ 2) Þ49 + 4 = 53
196

196

36 36 36 ?
64 64 16 In second column,
92 + (3 ´ 2) Þ81 + 6 = 87
10 18 14 22 11 15 In third column,
(a) 16 (b) 196 (c) 100 (d) 144 (11)2 + (2 ´ 2) Þ121 + 4 = 125
l (c) In first figure, \ ? = 125
(10 - 4)2 = 62 = 36
91. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
(18 - 10)2 = 82 = 64
(18 - 4)2 = 142 = 196
In second figure,
(14 - 8)2 = 62 = 36
(22 - 14)2 = 82 = 64
(22 - 8)2 = 142 = 196
Similarly, in third figure
(11 - 5)2 = 62 = 36 (a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 20
(15 - 11)2 = 42 = 16 l (a) A
(15 - 5)2 = 102 = 100
\ ? = 100 F

88. E
4 7 6 9 1 7

B C
D
38 55 ? There are total 15 triangles in the given figure, which
are DBED, DDEC, DBFE, DCEF, DBFA, DCFA, DBFC,
(a) 49 (b) 63 (c) 48 (d) 50 DCFD, DBAD, DCAD, DABD, DADC, DABC, DBEC, DBFC.
l (b) As, in first figure, 92. If 2 ´ 2 = 16, 2 ´ 3 = 36, 2 ´ 4 = 64, then 2 ´ 6 = ?
72 - 42 + 5 Þ 49 - 16 + 5 = 38 (a) 72 (b) 80 (c) 96 (d) 144
92 - 62 + 10 Þ 81 - 36 + 10 = 55
l (d) As, 2 ´ 2 = 4 Þ 42 = 16
Similarly, 72 - 12 + 15 Þ 49 - 1 + 15 = 63
2 ´ 3 = 6 Þ 62 = 36
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 13
2 ´ 4 = 8 Þ82 = 64 Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Study the diagram and
2 ´ 6 = 12 Þ122 = 144 answer each of the following.
\ ? = 144

93. Find the value of 10 25

10 + 25 + 108 + 154 + 225 . 20 17 15 30 40

(a) 10 (b) 8 20
7
(c) 6 (d) 4 20

l (d) 10 + 25 + 108 + 154 + 225

Person who takes tea
= 10 + 25 + 108 + 154 + 15
Person who takes lassi
= 10 + 25 + 108 + 169
Person who takes coffee
= 10 + 25 + 108 + 13
96. How many persons who take tea and lassi but not
= 10 + 25 + 121
coffee?
= 10 + 25 + 11 (a) 20 (b) 17
= 10 + 36 (c) 25 (d) 15

= 10 + 6 l (b) There are 17 persons who take tea and lassi but not
coffee.
= 16 = 4
97. How many persons are there who take both tea and
94. Find the correct figure.
coffee but not lassi?
(a) 22 (b) 17
(c) 7 (d) 20

? l (c) There are 7 persons who take both tea and coffee but
not lassi.

98. How many persons take lassi?

(a) 100 (b) 82
(c) 92 (d) 122
l (d) Number of persons who take Lassi
(a) (b) (c) (d) = (20 + 17 + 15 + 30 + 40) = 122
l (c) Figure given in option (c) is the correct figure. 99. How many persons are there who takes only coffee?
95. (a) 90 (b) 45
2 3 4
(c) 25 (d) 20
3 5 3
1 1 2 l (b) The persons who take only coffee
= 20 + 25 = 45
Which number is opposite to 3?
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4 100. How many persons take all the three?
l (b) From the three positions of dice, it is clear that 1, 2,5 (a) 20 (b) 17
and 4 are adjacent to 3. (c) 25 (d) 15
Hence, only 6 is opposite to 3. l (d) 15 persons take all the three.
14 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

Paper II Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

101. The sound of same pitch and loudness are 104. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force
distinguished from one another by their F = Kx with K = 15 N/m, what will be its
(a) Wavelengths (b) Velocity acceleration if it is released from a point x = 20 cm.
(c) Quality (d) Tones (a) 1 m/s2 (b) 10 m/s2
l (c) Quality of sound helps to distinguish between two (c) 100 m/s2 (d) 0.1 m/s2
sounds. Quality is referred to the frequency of the sound. l (b) F = kx = 15 ´ 0.2 = 3 N
F 3
102. A water pumps lifts water from a level 10 m below a= = = 10 m/s2
M 0.3
the ground. The water is pumped at the rate of
30 kg/min with negligible velocity. Calculate the 105. An object is moving in a straight line. The velocity
minimum power the pump should have to do this time graph is as shown below. Then
work. B
(a) 49 J/s (b) 490 J/s (c) 500 J/s (d) 48 J/s
A
W mgh velocity
l (a) Power (P) = =
t t
30 ´ 9.8 ´ 10
= [Q 1 min = 60 sec] O
60 time
= 49 J/s (a) in part OA acceleration is increasing.
(b) in part AB acceleration is increasing.
103. Six identical resistors connected between points A,
B and C as shown in diagram. The equivalent (c) in part OA acceleration is decreasing.
resistance would be maximum between (d) in part AB acceleration is decreasing.

C l (d) Slope of v-t graph gives the value of acceleration. As,

slope of v-t graph is decreasing between points A and B, so
acceleration is decreasing.
R R
R R R 106. A force of 100 N acts on a body so that the body
acquire a velocity of 10 m/s after some time. Now
the force of 100 N is replaced by another force F
R
A B which decelerates the body and body come to the
(a) A and B rest then.
(b) B and C (a) F > 100 N (b) F < 100 N
(c) A and C (c) F = 100 N (d) All options are possible
(d) Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct. l (d) A retarding force of any magnitude can stop the
moving body.
l (a) If resistance of arm AC is R1 , then
R´ R R 107. 2 points A and B are at electric potentials 10 V and
R1 = =
R+ R 2 100 V respectively. A charge q is taken from A to B
Resistance of arm BC is R2 , then and 18 Joule of work is done. The value of q is
1 1 1 1 3 (a) 2 Coulomb (b) 0.2 Coulomb
= + + =
R2 R R R R (c) 20 Coulomb (d) 0.02 Coulomb

Þ R2 =
R l (b) Work done = Potential difference ´ Charge
3 = (V2 - V1 ) ´ Q
5R 18 = (100 - 10) ´ Q
R´
\ æ R Rö
RAB = R ||(R1 + R2 ) = R || ç + ÷ = 6 = 5R 18
è 2 3 ø R + 5 R 11 = Q Þ Q = 0.2 C
90
6
3R R 108. Which of the following is not correct for magnetic
´
RBC = æç R + ö÷ || R2 = 2 3 = 3R field lines?
R
è 2ø 3 R R 11
+ (a) The direction of magnetic field lines outside the
2 3 magnet is from North pole to South pole.
R 4R (b) The direction of magnetic field lines inside the
´
R æ Rö 2 3 = 4R magnet is from South pole to North pole.
RAC = R1 ||(R + R2 ) = || ç R + ÷ =
2 è 3 ø R
+
4 R 11 (c) The degree of closeness of magnetic field lines tells
2 3 the relatives strength of magnetic field.
Hence, RAB > RAC > RBC (d) Magnetic field lines never form closed loop.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 15
l (d) Magnetic field lines are closed curve because l (c) For maximum current, 30 W resistance should be
magnetic monopoles do not exist. neglected by connecting arrow extreme left of 30 W
1 resistance.
109. A car moving along straight line covers th of total 2.2 2.2
5 \ Imax = = = 0.33 A
distance with speed v1 and remaining part of (10 ||20) 10 ´ 20
10 + 20
distance with speed v2 . The average speed of car
For minimum current, 30 W resistance should be taken
over entire distance is completely by connecting arrow of rheostat extreme right.
5 v1 v2 4 v1 v2 2.2
(a) (b) \ Imin =
v2 + 4 v1 5 v1 + v2 (10 ||20) + 30
5 v1 v2 4 v1 v2 2.2
(c) (d) = = 0.06 A
20
4 v2 + v1 4 v1 + v2 + 30
3
1
l (a) Let t be the time taken for th of total distance and t2 be 112. Three particles A, B and C are thrown from top of a
5
the time taken for remaining distance. building with same speed. A is thrown upwards,
s 4s B is thrown downwards and C is thrown
t1 = , t2 =
5 v1 5 v2 horizontally, they hit the ground with speed v A , v B
and v C respectively, then
Total time, T = t1 + t2
(a) v A = v B = v C (b) v B > v C > v A
Total distance
Average speed = (c) v A = v B > v C (d) v A > v B = v C
Total time
s 5 v1 v2 l (c) The given situation is shown below
= =
s 4s v2 + 4 v1
+
5 v1 5 v2
Q uA
uA P
110. Light travels through a glass slab of thickness t and uC
having refractive index n. If c is the velocity of light uB
in vacuum, then the time taken by light to travel
this thickness of glass is
t nt n2 t t
(a) (b) (c) (d)
nc c c n2 c
l (b) Refractive index (n)
Velocity of light in air or vacuum (c) From figure it is clear that, velocity of particle A and B at
= points P and Q will be same in downward direction.
Velocity of light in glass slab (v)
Hence, uA = uB
c c
Þ n = Þv = ...(i) Velocity of particle C in downward direction at the point P
v n will be zero.
Thickness (t ) = Velocity of light (v) ´ Time \ uA = uB > uC
t t
Þ Time = = [from Eq. (i)] \ vA = vB > vC
v c
n 113. An object of height 2.0 cm is placed on the principal
=
nt axis of a concave mirror at a distance of 12 cm from
c the pole. If the image is inverted, real and 5 cm in
height, then location of the image and focal length
111. The resistance of rheostat shown in the figure is of the mirror respectively are
0-30 W, Neglecting the resistance of ammeter and
(a) (- 30 cm, + 8.6 cm) (b) (- 30 cm, - 8.6 cm)
connecting wire the minimum and maximum
currents through the ammeter will be (c) (+ 30 cm, + 8.6 cm) (d) (+ 30 cm, - 8.6 cm)

2.2v
l (b) u = - 12
- v -5
m= =
u 2
-v -5
A Þ =
-12 2
10Ω v = - 30 cm
1 1 1
+ =
30Ω v u f
20Ω 1 1 1
+ =
(a) (0.08 A, 0.33 A) (b) (0.06 A, 0.08 A) - 30 -12 f
(c) (0.06 A, 0.33 A) (d) (0.33 A, 0.09 A) Þ f = - 8.6 cm
16 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

114. When lead nitrate is heated, a brown gas is evolved,
the evolved gas is
(a) Dioxygen (b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Dinitrogen
l (b) When lead nitrate is heated it decomposes to form lead
oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. The brown fumes
liberated is of nitrogen dioxide.
D l
2Pb(NO3 )2 ¾® 2PbO + 4NO2 (­) + O2 (­)
115. When a solution of lead(II) nitrate and potassium
iodide are mixed, the yellow ppt is formed, the ppt
is of …………… .
(a) KNO3 (b) KCl
(c) Pbl2 (d) Pbl4
l (c) When lead nitrate get mixed with potassium iodide, a
precipitation reaction occurs that forms yellow precipitate
of lead iodide.
Pb(NO3 )2 + 2KI ¾® PbI2 (¯) + 2 KNO3
116. Baking powder is a mixture of ……… .
(a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and oxalic acid
(b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) Sodium carbonate and oxalic acid.
l (c) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (sodium
hydrogen carbonate NaHCO3 ) and a mild edible acid such
as tartaric acid. When baking powder mixes with water,
sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with tartaric acid to
evolve carbon dioxide gas which make cake or bread
fluffy.
117. Aqua regia is a mixture of conc. Hydrochloric acid
and conc. Nitric acid in ratio.
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 5 (d) 2 : 3
l (a) 3 mole conc. HCl combine with 1 mole conc. HNO3 to
give aquaregia solution. So, ratio is 3 : 1.
conc. H 2 SO 4
118. CH3 CH2 OH ¾¾¾® Products
443 K
The products formed in the above reaction is/are
(a) Ethene and H2 O
(b) Ethyne and H2 O
(c) Ethane and H2 O
(d) Methane and H2 O
l (a) When ethyl alcohol, that is commonly known as
ethanol reacts with conc. H2 SO4 (sulphuric acid), then it
forms ethene along with water. Here, H2 SO4 is a catalyst
which works like a dehydrating agent.
Conc. H 2 SO 4
CH3 CH2 OH ¾¾¾¾® H2 C ==CH2 (Ethene) + H2 O.
443K
Ethanol
119. Denatured alcohol is a mixture of
(a) CH3 OH and HCHO
(b) CH3 OH and CH3 COOH
(c) C2 H5 OH and CH3 OH
(d) C2 H5 OH and CH3 COOH
l (c) Denatured alcohol is a mixture of C2 H5 OH and
CH3 OH. It is a mixture of ethyl alcohol, methyl alcohol
and pyridine. It is adulterated with toxic additives (e.g.
methanol) to make it unsuitable for human consumption.
120. For welding, a mixture of oxygen and …………… is
burnt.
(a) Benzene (b) Butane (c) Methane (d) Ethyne
(d) A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding.
When ethyne is burnt in air, it gives a sooty flame. This is
due to incomplete combustion caused by limited supply of
oxygen. However, if ethyne is burnt with oxygen, it gives a
clean flame with temperature of 3000°C (which is suitable
for welding) because of complete combustion.
121. The following metals are arranged in the increasing
order of their metallic character. Choose the correct
option.
(a) Be < Si < K < Al (b) Si < Be < Al < K
(c) K < Al < Si < Be (d) Be < Si < Al < K
l (b) From right to left, across a period, the metallic
character decreases due to increase in ionisation enthalpy.
Metallic character increases as we move down a group,
due to decrease in ionisation enthalpy.
So, the correct order is Si < Be < Al < K.
122. Which one of the following oxide is insoluble in
water?
(a) Na2 O (b) CuO
(c) K2 O (d) CaO
l (b) Metal oxides are formed when a metal reacts with
oxygen. Some metal oxides (soluble) will dissolve in water
to form an alkaline solution e.g. Na2 O, K2 O and CaO
whereas insoluble metal oxides such as copper oxide
(CuO) will not affect the pH of water.
123. Which of the following oxide turns red litmus into
blue?
(a) SO2 (b) CO2
(c) NO2 (d) KO2
l (d) Metallic oxides are basic in nature whereas
non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature. KO2 being basic
in nature turns red litmus blue.
124. Which one of the following is not a green house
gas?
(a) CH4 (b) O3
(c) CO2 (d) SO2
l (d) SO2 is not a green house gas Sulfur dioxide is not
considered as green house gas because it does not absorb
and trap infrared radiation of Sun. It is responsible for acid
rain as it decreases the pH of rain by forming sulphuric
acid by reacting with water vapours.
125. Which of the following element does not show
allotropy?
(a) Phosphorus (b) Sulphur
(c) Oxygen (d) Aluminium
l (d) Aluminium is a soft metal and does not exist in
different forms, therefore does not show allotropy.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 17
126. Which one of the following will have the largest l (a) Deepak made the wrong pyramid as his observations
number of atoms? and number of trophic levels are not correct. It does not
follows the natural energy and nutrient flow in a food
(a) 100 g of He (b) 100 g of Na
chain or food web. The correct description is as follows.
(c) 100 g of li (d) 100 g of Al
Given mass
l (a) Number of atoms = ´ NA
Atomic mass
Decomposers
As, given mass of all the given atoms are same, i.e. 100 g.
Therefore, number of atoms depend inversely with atomic Lion (carnivores)
mass of the atom.
He has the smallest atomic mass of 4u out of other atoms,
Omnivores (Monkey)
therefore 100 g of He contain more number of atoms out of
other given options.
100 Herbivores (Insect & Deer)
(a) 100 g He = = 25N A
4
Producers (Grass)
(b)100 g of Na = 4.3 N A
(c) 100 g of Li = 14.28 N A
(d) 100 g of Al = 3.70 N A
129. UV rays cause cancer but in stratosphere the same
UV rays are helping us, how?
127. Rearrange the following sentences and choose the (a) They divert harmful UV rays back to sun
correct option. (b) They convert oxygen present in stratosphere into
1. Breakdown of H2O into Hydrogen and Oxygen ozone.
and Conversion of light energy into chemical (c) UV rays are not present in stratosphere.
energy (d) UV rays reach the earth surface, then bounce back
carrying ozone to stratosphere.
2. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
l (b) In stratosphere, the ozone is formed naturally
3. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll. through the interaction of solar ultraviolet radiation with
(a) 1 ® 2 ® 3 (b) 3 ® 2 ® 1 molecular O2.
(c) 3 ® 1 ® 2 (d) 1 ® 3 ® 2
130. Match the following.
l (c) Plants prepare their own food by the process of
photosynthesis. The following events occurs during the Column I Column II
process of photosynthesis A. Regeneration 1. Shoot
l
Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll. B. Rhizopus 2. Pollen grain
l
Breakdown of H2 O into Hydrogen and Oxygen and
Conversion of light energy into chemical energy. C. Plumule 3. Vegetative Propagation
l
Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates. D. Rose 4. Planaria
E. Stigma 5. Spores
128. Deepak is trying to study flow of energy in an area
and he made the following diagram for the same. A B C D E
How will you interpret his observations? (a) 1 5 4 2 3
(b) 2 4 1 3 5
rock (c) 2 1 4 3 5
monkey (d) 4 5 1 3 2

deer l (d) Planaria reproduce by the process of regeneration

whereas Rhizopus reproduce by the formation of spores.
insects Plumule is a part of seed embryo that develops into shoot,
bearing the first true leaves of a plant. The asexual
grass reproduction in rose plant occur through the stem cutting
lion
is known as vegetative propagation. The stigma is a
specially adapted portion of pistil modified for the
reception of pollen grains.
(a) His observations and number of trophic levels are
wrong. Column I Column II
(b) His observations are correct but the number of A. Regeneration 4. Planaria
trophic levels can be more.
B. Rhizopus 5. Spores
(c) His observations are wrong but number of trophic
levels are correct. C. Plumule 1. Shoot
(d) His observations as well as number of trophic D. Rose 3. Vegetative Propagation
levels are correct.
E. Stigma 2. Pollen grain
18 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

131. The opening and closing of the stomata depends 135. Assertion (A) No carbon dioxide is released during
upon : the day in plants.
(a) Oxygen (b) Temperature Reason (R) Only photosynthesis occurs during the
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Water in guard cells day.
l (d) The opening and closing of stomata regulated by water (a) A is true and R is false
in guard cells. (b) A is false and R is true
(c) Both A and R are false
132. Sonu performed an experiment to study dihybrid
(d) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
cross for round/wrinkled and yellow/green coloured
seeds. He obtained 2432 seeds in total. What will be l (c) Both statements A and R are false.
the number of seeds which are round and yellow? Respiration in plants occurs throughout the day and night
(a) 1367 (b) 1356 thereby carbon dioxide is formed during day and night in
plants. Process like photosynthesis, respiration and
(c) 1368 (d) 1438
transpiration take place in plants during day.
l (c) Total number of seeds = 2432
Dihybrid cross ratio = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 136. Choose the non-biodegradable substance from the
Yellow round - 9 following:
Yellow wrinkled 3 1. Carrot 2. Glass bottle
Green round - 3 3. Perfume spray bottle 4. Rice bran
Green wrinkled - 1 5. Papaya 6. Thermocol
Number of round and yellow seeds 7. Wooden stick 8. Ball pen refill
2432 ´ 9 (a) 2, 3, 7, 8 (b) 2, 3, 6, 8
= = 152 ´ 9 = 1368 seeds.
16 (c), 3, 1, 5, 7 (d) 8, 5, 1, 3
133. The stakeholders of various forest products are : l (b) Glass bottle, Perfume spray bottle, Thermocol, Ball pen
(i) People living near forests refill are non-biodegradable substances as they cannot be
decompose by the action of micro-organism present in soil.
(ii) Government only
(iii) Nature lovers 137. Match the column I and column II and select
(iv) Wild life correct option.
(a) All options are correct Column-I Column-II
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct A. Ribosome 1. ATP formation
(c) Only (ii) is incorrect B. Mitochondria 2. Photosynthesis
(d) None of the option is correct.
C. Centriole 3. Protein synthesis
l (b) A forest stakeholder is someone who uses forest
D. Chloroplast 4. Cell division
resources in one way or the other.
The stakeholders of various forest products are A B C D A B C D
l
People living near forests
(a) 1 2 4 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
l
Government only
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
l
Nature lovers
l (b) Ribosome helps in protein synthesis, Mitochondria is a
134. Choose the correct sequence : power house of the cell and responsible for ATP formation.
(a) Pulmonary vein ® Pulmonary artery ® Left auricle Centriole play a vital role in cell division by formation of
® Right ventricle spindle fibres. Photosynthesis take place in chloroplasts
(b) Pulmonary artery ® Right auricle ® Left ventricle which contain the chlorophyll.
® Pulmonary vein
Column-I Column-II
(c) Right auricle ® Pulmonary artery ® Pulmonary
vein ® Left ventricle A. Ribosome 3. Protein synthesis
(d) Left ventricle ® Pulmonary vein ® Pulmonary B. Mitochondria 1. ATP formation
artery ® Right auricle
C. Centriole 4. Cell division
l (c) Blood enters the right atrium from all parts of the body D. Chloroplast 2. Photosynthesis
through vena cava. It passes through the right ventricle
which pumps the blood to the lungs via. pulmonary artery.
138. Which of the following is a barrier method of
The exchange of gases take place in lungs where it
contraception?
becomes oxygenated and brought back to heart by the
pulmonary veins which enter the left atrium and passes to (a) Diaphragm (b) Contraceptive pills
ventricle and pumped to all parts of body Aorta. (c) Tubectomy (d) All of these
Right auricle ® Pulmonary artery ® Pulmonary vein ® l (a) Diaphragm is a barrier method of contraception
Left ventricle whereas tubectomy and contraceptive pills are surgical
and chemical method of contraception, respectively.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 19
139. Sperms are produced in the 143. The sum of the first ‘p’ odd natural numbers is 100
(a) Seminiferous tubules (b) Interstitial cell and the sum of the first ‘q’ even natural numbers is
(c) Vas deferens (d) Prostate gland 90. Find the value of ( p + q).
l (a) Sperms are produced in the seminiferous tubules of (a) 18 (b) 19
testes. (c) 20 (d) 21
l (b) QSum of n odd natural number = n2
140. Blood pressure is measured by an instrument called
\ Sum of p odd natural number = p2 = 100
(a) Barometer (b) Sphygmomanometer
Þ p = 10
(c) Photometer (d) Manometer
Sum of first ‘q’ even natural number
l (b) Blood pressure is measured by Sphygmomanometer. Þ2 + 4 + 6 + ¼ upto ‘q’ terms
141. If DABC is an equilateral triangle such that A(2, 2) = 2 (1 + 2 + 3 + ¼ upto q term)
and centroid of the triangle is ( - 2, 2), then find the q ´ (q + 1)
=2 ´ = 90
length of its side. 2
(a) 4 units (b) 6 units (c) 4 3 units (d) 9 units Þ q2 + q - 90 = 0
Þ (q + 10)(q - 9) = 0
l (c) Let length of side of DABC be ‘a’.
Þ q=9
A
(2, 2) p + q = 10 + 9 = 19
1 1
144. If x + = 1 and y + = 1 , then what is the value
y z
æ 1 ö
a a of ç z + + 1÷ ?
è x ø
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
G 1
(–2 , 2) l (c) Given, x + =1
y
Þ xy + 1 = y Þ xy - y = - 1
1
B a/2 K a/2 C Þ y(x - 1) = - 1 Þ y = …(i)
1- x
AG = (2 + 2)2 + (2 - 2)2 = (2 + 2)2 = 4 1
also, y + = 1 Þ yz + 1 = z Þ yz - z = - 1
2 z
Q AG = ´ AK 1
3 Þ z(y - 1) = - 1 Þ z =
2 1- y
\ 4 = ´ AK Þ AK = 6
3 1 1- x
\ z= Þz= [From Eq. (i)]
3 3 1 1 - x -1
\ AK = ´a Þ 6= ´a 1-
2 2 1- x
12 12 ´ 3 - xz = 1 - x Þ1 + xz = x
Þ =a Þ
3 3 ´ 3 1
Þ + z =1
x
Þ a = 4 3 units
1
\ + z + 1 =1 + 1 = 2
142. The sum of the n consecutive odd natural numbers x
starting from 5 is 60. Find the value of ( n2 - n).
145. If 3 p + 3 q + 3 r = 0, then the value of ( p + q + r )3 is
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 42 (d) 56
l (b) 5 + 7 + 9 + ¼ + upto n terms = 60 (a) 3pqr (b) 9pqr
QSum of n terms of AP (c) 27pqr (d) 0
n l (c) Given, p1 /3 + q1 /3 + r1 /3 = 0 ...(i)
= [2 a + (n - 1)d]
2 If a + b + c = 0 then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3 abc
According to the question, \ Using Eq. (i),
n (p1 /3 )3 + (q1 /3 )3 + (r1 /3 )3 = 3 ´ p1 /3 ´ q1 /3 ´ r1 /3
Sum = [2 ´ 5 + (n - 1)2] = 60
2 Þ p + q + r = 3(pqr)1 /3
Þ n[5 + n - 1] = 60 \ (p + q + r)3 = 27 pqr
Þ n(4 + n) = 60
Þ n2 + 10 n - 6 n - 60 = 0 146. If a1, a2, a3 ¼ ¼ an and b1 , b2 , b3 , ¼ ¼ bn are two
Þ n(n + 10) - 6(n + 10) = 0 AP’s such that a1 b1 = 120, a2 b2 = 143, a3 b3 = 154,
Þ (n + 10) (n - 6) = 0 then a8 b8 =
Þ n=6 (a) 209 (b) 89
\ n2 - n = n(n - 1) = 6 ´ 5 = 30 (c) 195 (d) 29
20 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

l (d) We have, a1 , a2 , a3 , ¼, an ® AP1 148. If ABCD and PQRS are two squares, such that
b1 , b2 , b3 , ¼, bn ® AP2 area of square PQRS is ‘A’ m2, then find the value
a1 b1 = 120, a2 b2 = 143, a3 b3 = 154 then a8 b8 = ? of 17A .
Let’s say three terms of 1st AP are A 3m 1m B
a - d, a, a + d,
1m Q
and first three terms of 2nd AP are B - D, B, B + D, P
Now, a1 b1 = 120
Þ (a - d) (B - D) = 120 3m
Þ aB - aD - Bd + dD = 120 …(i)
a2 b2 = 143
a × B = 143 …(ii) 3m R 1m
a3 b3 = 154 S
Þ (a + d)(B + D) = 154 D 1m 3m C
aB + aD + Bd + dD = 154 …(iii) (a) 12 (b) 144 (c) 16 (d) 9
By Eqs. (i) and (ii), l (a) We have,
23 = aD + Bd - dD …(iv) ABCD and PQRS are two squares.
By Eqs. (iii) and (ii), 3m X 1m
A B
11 = aD + Bd + dD …(v)
By Eqs. (iv) and (v), 1m P Q
12 = - 2 dD Þ dD = - 6 W
and aD + Bd = 17 3m
Now, a8 b8 = (a + 6 d) (B + 6 D)
= aB + 6 aD + 6 Bd + 36 dD Y
= 143 + 6(17) + 36 (-6) 3m R 1m
= 143 + 102 - 216 = 29 S
147. In a DABC, AX bisects BC and AX is also the angle D 1m Z 3m C
bisector of angle A. If AB = 12 cm, BX = 3 cm, then
what is the area of DABC? CX = 42 + 12 = 17 m [by Pythagoras theorem]
(a) 9 cm2 (b) 2 cm2 We have, BW = AZ = DY = CX
(c) 9 5 cm2 (d) 9 15 cm2 1 1
Area of triangle BXC = ´ 1 ´ 4 = ´ (BQ) ´ (XC)
l (d) We have, 2 2
4
In DABC, AX bisect, BC and AX is also the angle bisector Þ 4 = BQ ´ 17 Þ BQ = m
of ÐA. 17
4
A Also, BQ = CR = DS = AP =
17
By Pythagoras theorem
θ θ
16 1
XQ = BX 2 - BQ2 = 1 - = m
17 17
1
Þ XQ = WP = ZS = YR = m
17
B C Sides of square, PQRS = CX - CR - XQ
3 X
4 1 12
= 17 - - = m
AB = 12 (given) 17 17 17
2

Area of square PQRS = æç

BX = 3 cm (given) 12 ö 144 2
÷ = m
Q ÐBAX = ÐCAX è 17 ø 17
and AX bisects BC. 144
So, 17 A = 17 ´ = 12
\ DABC is isosceles [QDBAX @ DCAX ] 17
\ AX ^ BC
\ AB = AC = 12
149. If cos2 q + 2 sin2 q + 3 cos2 q + 4 sin2 q ¼ + 200 sin2 q
= 10050, where q is an acute angle, find the value of
AX = 122 - 32 (sin q + 3 cos q )2 .
= 135 = 3 15 (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
1 (a) We have,
\ Area of DABC = ´ 6 ´ 3 15 l
2 (cos2 q + 3 cos2 q + 5 cos2 q + ¼ + 199 cos2 q)
= 9 15 cm2 + (2 sin2 q + 4 sin2 q + ¼ + 200 sin2 q) = 10050
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 21
Þ cos2 q(1 + 3 + ¼ 199) ar [COD] = c m2
+ 2 sin2 q(1 + 2 + 3 + ¼ + 100) = 10050 ar [ AOD] = b m2
100 ´ 101 1 1
Þ (100)2 cos2 q + 2 sin2 q ´ = 10050 Now, ar [ AOB] + ar[COD] = ´ AB ´ h1 + ´ DC ´ h2
2 2 2
Þ 104 cos2 q + 10100 sin2 q = 10050 1
= ´ AB ´ (h1 + h2 ) [Q AB = DC]
Þ 10000 cos2 q + 10000 sin2 q + 100 sin2 q = 10050 2
Þ 10000(cos2 q + sin2 q) + 100 sin2 q = 10050 1
a + c = ´ AB ´ AD …(i)
Þ 100 sin2 q = 50 [Qsin2 q + cos2 q = 1] 2
1 1 [Q h1 + h2 + AD]
sin2 q = Þsinq = Þ q = 45° 1
2 2 Similarly, ar [ AOD] + ar [BOC] = ´ AD ´ AB
\ (sin q + 3 cos q)2 = (sin45° + 3 cos 45° )2 2
1
2
Þ b + ar [BOC] = ´ AB ´ AD …(ii)
= æç
1 3 ö æ 4 ö
+ ÷= ç ÷ =8 2
è 2 2ø è 2ø
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
150. A ‘p’ m long wire is cut into two pieces one of which Þ a + c = b + ar [BOC]
is bent into a circle and the other into a square Þ ar [BOC] = a + c - b
enclosing the circle. What is the radius (in meter) of 152. In DABC, a semi-circle with DE as diameter
the circle? is drawn such that BC = 26 m, the radius R
p 2p p 2 pp
(a) (b) (c) (d) (in meter) is
p+4 p+4 2p + 8 p+4 A
l (c) We have,
D C
75°

D E

R
45°
B C
A B
(a) 3 + 3 (b) 9 - 3 (c) 9 + 3 (d) 3 - 3
p=x+ y
Where, x = 2pR l (b) We have, DABC
y = 4a A
Now, 2r = side of square
75°
Þ 2r = a
Þ p = 2 pr + 4 a
Þ 2 pr + 8 r Þ p = r(2 p + 8) O
p D E
Þ r= m 45°
2p + 8 45°
45° R
151. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle such that area of 45° 45° 60°
B C
DAOB = a m2, area of DAOD = b m2 , area of P Q S
DCOD = c m2. Then the area of DBOC (in m2) = Draw DP ^ BC, ES ^ BC
A B \ ¨ DOQP, ¨ ESQO will be a square of side R unit.
O \ PQ = R
In DBPD, BP = R unit [QÐDBP = ÐBDP = 45° ]
Similarly, QS = R units
In DESC,
D C
R R
(a) a + b + c (b) a + b - c (c) b + c - a (d) a + c - b tan60° = Þ 3 =
SC SC
l (d) We have, ABCD is a rectangle. R
SC =
A B 3
h1
\ BC = BP + PQ + QS + SC
h3 h4 R R
O 26 = R + R + R + Þ 26 = 3 R +
3 3
3 3R + R 26 3
Þ 26 = Þ =R
h2 3 3 3 +1
D C 26 3 (3 3 - 1)
Þ R= ´
ar [ AOB] = a m2 (3 3 + 1) (3 3 - 1)
22 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)

26 3 (3 3 - 1) 2 1 1
Þ R= = 3 (3 3 - 1) Þ = +
27 - 1 b a c
\ R=9 - 3 Þ 2ac = bc + ab
b+ a b+ c
Now, +
153. If the values of x in the roots of the equation b- a b- c
p(sin2 x ) + q( sinx ) + r = 0 are complementary, then b2 - bc + ab - ac + b2 + bc - ab - ac
=
(a) p = q(q + 2 r)
2
(b) q = p(p + 2 r)
2
b2 - bc - ab + ac
(c) r2 = q(q + 2 p) (d) r2 = p(q + 2 p) 2 b2 - 2 ac 2(b2 - ac)
= = 2 =2
l (b) Given, p(sin2 x) + q(sin x) + r = 0 b - (bc + ab) + ac
2
b - ac
According to the question,
[Qbc + ab = 2 ac]
Roots are sinq and sin(90 - q)
\ Sum of roots 156. If ( x + k) is a common factor of ( x 2 + px + q) and
= sin q + sin(90 - q) = -
q ( x 2 + lx + m) , then the value of k is
p (a) l + p (b) m - q
q l-p m- q
Þ sin q + cos q = - …(i) (c) (d)
p m- q l-p
r (d) We have, x2 + px + q = 0 …(i)
Product of roots = sin q × cos q = …(ii) l
p and x2 + lx + m = 0 …(ii)
q2 Q(x + k) is common factor of both
Þ sin2 q + cos2 q + 2 sin q cos q = [from Eq. (i)]
p2 \ x = - k will satisfy both
2 r q2 Þ k2 - pk + q = 0 …(iii)
Þ 1+ = 2 [from Eq. (ii)]
p p and k2 - lk + m = 0 …(iv)
p + 2 r q2 From Eqs. (iii) - (iv),
Þ = 2 Þ p (p + 2 r) = q2 (- p + l)k = m - q
p p
m- q
k=
154. The average age of all the 100 employees in an l-p
2
office is 29 yr, where employees are ladies. The 157. As a result of 40% hike in the price of rice per kg, a
5
person is able to purchase 10 kg less rice for ` 1400.
ratio of average age of men to women is 5 : 7. The
What was the original price of rice per kg?
average age of female employees is
(a) ` 50 (b) ` 60
(a) 18 yr (b) 35 yr
(c) ` 40 (d) ` 30
(c) 25 yr (d) None of these
2 l (c) Let’s say price of rice per kg = x
l (b) Female employee = of 100 = 40
5 After 40% hike, new price = x + 40% of x = 14
. x
\ Male employee = 100 - 40 = 60 Now, according to the question,
Total age 1400 1400
Q Average age = 29 = - = 10
100 x 14
. x
\ 2900 = x + y ...(i) 1400 æ 10 ö
Þ ç1 - ÷ = 10
Where, x = Total age of boys x è 14 ø
y = Total average age of girls 1400 4
Þ ´ = 10
x x 14
60 5 Þ x = 40
According to the question, = Þ 14 x = 15 y
y 7
40 158. A man takes half time in rowing a certain distance
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), downstream than upstream. What is the ratio of the
29 y speed of boat in still water to the speed of current?
2900 = Þ y = 1400
14 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
y 1400 l (d) Let speed of boat = x km/h
\ = = 35 yr
40 40 and speed of current = y km/h
\ Downstream speed = x + y
1 1 1 b+ a b+ c
155. If , , are in AP, then + equals Upstream speed = x - y
a b c b- a b- c According to the question,
(a) 1 (b) 2 1
b- c ab Time taken in downstream = of time taken in upstream
(c) (d) 2
a- b c d 1 d
Þ = ´
1 1 1 x+ y 2 x-y
l (b) Given, , , are in AP.
a b c
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I) 23
Þ 2(x - y) = x + y 161. “God Save Our Noble King” is the National
2x - 2y = x + y Anthem of
x 3
x = 3y Þ = = 3 :1 (a) Britain (b) Italy
y 1
(c) Germany (d) France
159. The mean of a group of 20 consecutive natural l (a) “God Save Our Noble King” is the National Anthem of
numbers is M. What will be the percentage change Britain. It was first line sung in London in 1745.
in the mean when last six consecutive natural 162. Who was the ruler of France during the French
numbers are left from the group? revolution?
3M 3
(a) % (b) % (a) Louis XV (b) Louis XIV
100 M
300 30 (c) Louis XX (d) Louis XVI
(c) % (d) %
M M l (d) Louis XVI was the ruler of France during the French
revolution. The French revolution was occurred in the year
l (c) According to the question
n + (n + 1) + (n + 2) + ¼ + (n + 19) 1789. The Third class or common people launched
M= revolution against the king and other high classes owing
20
to large scale exploitation by them. The revolution led the
20 n + (1 + 2 + 3 + ¼ + 19)
M= end of Monarchy in France.The principle of “Liberty,
20
Equality and Fraternity” were main outcomes of the
19 ´ 20
20 n + French revolution.
M= 2
20 163. Hitler was born in
20 n + 190 19 (a) France (b) Austria
M= =n+
20 2 (c) Germany (d) Poland
Now, last six consecutive natural numbers are removed.
n + (n + 1) + ¼ + (n + 13) l (b) Hitler was born at Braunau am Inn in Austria on
\ New mean, Þ 20th April, 1889. He later moved to Germany. Then he was
14
14 n + (1 + 2 + ¼ + 13) recruited in the German Army. Because of his good work
N= he was promoted at the higher post. After the First World
14
War he formed the German Worker’s Party (Nazi Party)
13 ´ 14
14 n + and entered into politics. He became chancellor in 1933
2 14 n + 91
= = and ruled till 1945 as a dictator.
14 14
13 164. Who published ‘The folklores of southern India’?
N=n+
2 (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Natesa Shastri
M- N
Percentage change = ´ 100 (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Pattabhi Srimalu
M
æ n + 19 ö - æ n + 13 ö l (b) Natesa Shastri published ‘The Folklores of Southern
ç ÷ ç ÷ India”. It was collection of Tamil Folk tales. It was
è 2ø è 2 ø ´ 100
= published in four volumes. He was noted exponent of
æ n + 19 ö
ç ÷ Harikatha.
è 2ø
3 300 Rabindranath Tagore was a famous poet. He is renowned
= ´ 100 = % for his work ‘Gitanjali’. He received Nobel Prize for it.
M M
Mahatma Gandhi was a freedom fighter and he also wrote
160. One box contains four cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 7 many books such as ‘Hind Swaraj, Indian Opinion’ etc.
and another box contains four cards numbered as 2,
165. A tax levied by the church, comprising one-tenth of
4, 6 and 8. One card is drawn from each box at
the agricultural produce was
random. The probability that the product of the
numbers so drawn is more than 14 is: (a) Livre (b) Taille
1 7 (c) Tithe (d) None of these
(a) (b)
2 10 l (c) A tax levied by the church, comprising one-tenth of the
3 5 agricultural produce was Tithe. It was a kind of religious
(c) (d)
8 8 tax.
l (a) Favourable events Livre was the currency of France from 1781 and 1794.
= {(3 ´ 6), (3 ´ 8), (5 ´ 4), (5 ´ 6), (5 ´ 8), Taille was a kind of direct tax imposed on the French
(7 ´ 4), (7 ´ 6), (7 ´ 8)} = 8 peasantry and non-nobles class. The tax amount was
decided on the basis of land they hold.
Total events = 4 ´ 4 = 16
Favourable events 166. What was not the aim of Swaraj Party?
\ Required probability =
Total events (a) To participate in Provincial Council election.
8 1
= = (b) To oppose British policies within the councils.
16 2
24
(c) To demonstrate that councils were not democratic
(d) To make the Act of 1919 successful.
l (d) The Swaraj Party was formed in 1923 by the Chitranjan
Das and Motilal Nehru with in the fold of the Congress.
It was formed with the aim to achieve following targets
To participate in Provincial council election.
To oppose British policies within the councils.
To demonstrate that council were not democratic.
Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
167. Who formed the secret society ‘Young Italy’?
(a) Otto Van Bismarck
(b) General Wang Run
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) King Victor Emmanual II
l (c) The secret society ‘Young Italy’ was formed by the
Giuseppe Mazzini in 1831. It’s main objective was to
promote nationalism among the Italian people and create
a United Italian Republic. During this time, Italy was ruled
by different kingdoms. Later with the effort of Count
Cavour and Garibaldi Italy was united in the year 1781.
168. The meaning of symbol ‘Crown of Oak Leaves’ was
(a) Readiness to fight
(b) Heroism
(c) Being freed
(d) Willingness to make peace
l (b) The meaning of symbol ‘Crown of Oak Leaves’ was
‘heroism’. It stands for courage, bravery and heroism.
169. Which was achieved by the ‘Enabling Act of
3rd March, 1933’ in Germany?
(a) Established dictatorship
(b) Hitler was appointed chancellor
(c) Establishment of German Workers’ Party
(d) Establishment of Weimar Republic
l (a) The ‘Enabling Act of 3rd March, 1933’ in Germany led
to the establishment of dictatorship. The Act was initiated
by the Adolf Hitler’s Nazi Party. With the enaction of this
Act, Adolf Hitler became dictator and assumed dictorial
power. He reigned from 1933 to 1945 as a dictator.
170. Which of the following was not related to Gandhi
Irwin Pact 1931?
(a) Government agreed to release the political
prisoners.
(b) Gandhiji consented to participate in Second Round
Table Conference
(c) Formation of Simon Commission
(d) Gandhiji called off Civil Disobedience Movement
l (c) The Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in the year 1931.
Lord Irwin was the then viceroy of India. The main
provisions of this Act are as follows
The Indian National Congress (INC) will stop the Civil
Disobedience Movement.
The INC agreed to take part in the Round Table
Conference (held in London).
Withdrawl of all ordinances that curbed the activities of
the congress.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)
Withdrawl of all prosecutions except those involving
violent crimes.
Release of the political activists who were arrested for
taking part in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Salt tax was to be abolished.
Simon Commission was formed in the year 1927 and it
visited India in 1928. It consisted of 7 members, headed by
Mr. Simon. It’s objective was to study the constitutional
reforms in India. Hence, option (c) is correct.
171. In Swaraj Flag (1921), Self Help was represented
by
(a) Flower (b) Crescent Moon
(c) Two Oxen (d) Spinning Wheel
l (d) In Swaraj Flag (1921), Self Help was represented by
Spinning Wheel. This flag was designed by Mahatma
Gandhi. It was a tricolour flag, consisting of red, green
and white colour.
172. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in
(a) Himalayas (b) Aravali Hills
(c) Garo Hills (d) Baba Budan Hills
l (d) In India, coffee cultivation was first introduced in Baba
Budan Hills in Karnataka. Baba Budan Hills lies in the
Western Ghats. Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu are
main coffee producing states of India. The two well-known
species of coffee grown are Arabica and Robusta.
173. Which one of the following groups of state have
largest number of cotton textile centres?
(a) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat
l (a) Gujarat and Maharashtra groups of state have largest
number of cotton textile centres. These states are main
centres of cotton textile industry owing to the large scale
cotton production in these states. The main cotton textile
centres in Gujarat are Surat, Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar
etc. The main centres of Maharashtra are Mumbai, Pune,
Nagpur and Solapur.
174. Which one of the following describes a system of
agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large
area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture (b) Plantation Agriculture
(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive Agriculture
l (b) In Plantation Agriculture, a single crop is grown on a
large area. It is a capital intensive agriculture system. The
main examples of this type of plantation are banana,
coconut etc.
Shifting Agriculture is mainly done in the tribal or under
developed areas. In this type, a patch of forest land is
cleared and agriculture is done on it until it loses its
fertility. Then, tribals move to another area.
Horticulture refers to cultivation of fruits, vegetables etc.
In intensive agriculture a lot of money and labour are used
to increase the yield that can be obtained per unit land.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)
175. Neyveli lignite mines are located in the state of
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh
l (b) Neyveli lignite mines are located in the state of Tamil
Nadu. Neyveli lignite mines are operated by the Neyveli
Lignite Corporation (NCL) India Limited. Neyveli has the
largest reserve of lignite in the country. Lignite is a type of
coal which has very low content of carbon between
25-35%.
176. Which of the following regions is suitable for
constructing railway lines?
(a) Himalaya Mountains Range
(b) Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills
(c) The Northern Plains
(d) Rajasthan Desert
l (c) The Northern plains are most suitable for constructing
railway lines in comparison to Himalayan mountain range,
Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills and Rajasthan desert. There
are two main reasons behind it, first it has a flat
topography which does not put any challenges in lying of
railway tracts and second it is densily populated. Thus it
has high demand of transportation facility.
The North Indian plains are spread in the states of Punjab,
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal etc.
177. Hirakund Dam is constructed on the river
(a) Ganga (b) Manjira
(c) Manas (d) Mahanadi
l (d) Hirakund is constructed on the river Mahanadi. It is
located in the Sambalpur district of Odisha in India. It is
multipurpose dam. It was commissioned in the year 1957.
It has a height of 61 m.
178. When and where first cement plant was set-up?
(a) Chennai, 1905 (b) Chennai, 1904
(c) Kolkata, 1905 (d) Kolkata, 1904
l (b) The first cement plant in India was set-up in 1904 at
Chennai (Tamil Nadu). The name of the company was
South India Industrial Ltd.
179. Who wrote the book ‘Small is Beautiful’?
(a) Gandhiji (b) Brundtland
(c) Schumacher (d) Annie Besant
l (c) E.F. Schumacher wrote the book ‘Small is Beautiful’. It
is a collection of essays. It was first published in the year
1973. Schumacher was a British economist.
180. In which city of Haryana is the automobile industry
situated?
(a) Faridabad (b) Gurgaon
(c) Panipat (d) Sonipat
l (b) In Haryana, automobiles industry is situated in
Gurgoan (It is now known as Gurugram). It lies in the
National Capital Region. The automobile industry started
in 1970’s when Maruti Suzuki established its
manufacturing plant in this city. It is also hub of
information technology and financial and banking.
25
181. According to the main role, industry can be divided
into
(a) Agro-based and mineral based
(b) Key and consumer industries
(c) Public, private and joint sectors
(d) Heavy and light industries
l (b) On the basis of the role of the industry, it can be
divided into key and consumer industries. Former
produces material which are used as raw material in other
industries while latter produces goods for the consumption
of people.
On the basis of raw material, industries can be divided
into agro and mineral based.
On the basis of ownership, industries can be divided into
public, private and joint sector.
On the basis of weight, industries can be divided into
heavy and light industries.
182. Which of the following is not a property of Mica?
(a) Conducting properties
(b) Excellent di-electric strength
(c) Less power, loss factor
(d) Resistance to high voltage
l (a) Mica has not conducting properties. The main
properties of Mica include excellent di-electric strength,
less power, loss factor and resistance to high voltage. It is
mainly used in paints, fillers, in electronic wire etc.
183. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of
Indian Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. B.R. Verma
(c) Dr. B.R. Menon (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
l (d) B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the drafting
committee of Indian Constituent Assembly. The drafting
committee was entrusted with the task of preparation of
draft of Constitution for India. The members of drafting
committee included K. M. Munshi, Muhammad Saadulah
Alladi, Krishnaswamy lyer,Gopala Swami Ayyangar, N.
Madhava Rao and T.T. Krishnamachari. The constituent
Assembly was established in November 1946 on the
recommendation of Cabinet Mission plan.
184. Amnesty International is an international
organisation which works for
(a) World Peace
(b) Human Rights
(c) World Justice
(d) Restoration of Democracy
l (b) Amnesty International is an international organisation
which works for Human Rights. It was founded in the year
1961 by Peter Benenson and Eric Baker. Its headquarter is
located in London.
185. The movement that seeks equality in the personal
and family life of women is known as
(a) Narivadi Andolan
(b) Nari Sashaktikaran Andolan
(c) Mahila Shakti Andolan
(d) Mahila Adhikar Andolan
26
l (a) The movement that seeks equality in the personal and
family life of women is known as Narivadi Andolan. In
India, both men and women participated in the Narivadi
Andolan. The prominent people who led the Narivadi
Andolan were Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Jyotiba Rao
Phule, Pandita Ramabai etc.
186. A person who is not a member of Parliament is
appointed on minister, he/she has to get elected to
one of the houses of Parliament within
(a) a month
(b) three months
(c) six months
(d) selected time is fixed by the President
l (c) A person who is not a member of Parliament is
appointed as Minister (it can be also be Prime Minister)
then he/she has to get elected to one of the house of
Parliament within six months. If not able to elect in any
house of the Parliament then he/she has to resign from
his/her post. This principle is also applicable in the state
legislatures.
187. Who become the members of Gram Sabha?
(a) Only elderly people
(b) Only elected members of Gram Panchayat
(c) All the voters of village
(d) Only the youth of village
l (c) All the voters of the village become members of Gram
Sabha. A resident of Gram Sabha becomes voter when
he/she attains the age of 18 years. It is a primary body of
the Panchayati Raj System. All the decisions of the
Panchayat are taken through the Gram Sabha. The term
Gram Sabha is defined Article 243(b) in the Constitution.
188. President declares emergency when
(a) Prime Minister advises him to do.
(b) Parliament advises him to declare.
(c) The council of minister, in writing advises him to
declare.
(d) Home minister asks him to declare.
l (c) The President of India can declare emergency only
when council of minister, in writing advises him to
declare. National emergency is declared under Article 352
of the Constitution.
It can be declared on the grounds of ‘war’ or ‘external
aggression’ and armed rebellion. Every declaration is
required to belaid before each house of Parliament and
has to be passed by either house of Parliament by a
majority of not less than two-third members of the houses.
189. In case of conflict between the Centre Government
and the State Government over subject in the
Concurrent list
(a) Supreme Court decides which of the two should be
considered.
(b) The State Government should be obeyed.
(c) The Central Government should be obeyed.
(d) Both governments should be obeyed.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)
l (c) In case of conflict between the Centre Government and
the State Government over subject in the Concurrent list,
the Central Government should be obeyed. The both
Central and State Governments can make laws on the
subject of the Concurrent list.
The Constitution has divided legislation power between
Centre and State into three subject lists Union, State and
Concurrent Central has exclusive power to make laws on
the Union list whereas states have exclusive power to make
laws on the State lists.
190. What is Mid-Term Election?
(a) Election for the seat to be vocated due to some
reason.
(b) Election in the event of death of one member.
(c) Election to be held in whole country or state before
the scheduled time.
(d) Completion of 5 years election.
l (c) Mid-term election is that election which is held in
whole country or state before the scheduled time. It is also
known by the name of election.
191. In India, seats are reserved for women in which of
the following bodies?
(a) In Lok Sabha
(b) In State Legislatures
(c) In Rajya Sabha
(d) In Panchayati Raj
l (d) In India, seats are reserved for women in the
Panchayati Raj System. The 73rd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1992 has provided that 33% of the seats
in the panchayats would be reserved for the women under
Article 243(D). Many states have extended this limit to
50% such as Bihar, Gujarat etc.
192. Which famous Revolution took place in the world
history in 1789?
(a) Russian Revolution (b) American Revolution
(c) German Revolution (d) French Revolution
l (d) French revolution took place in 1789. The Russian
revolution took place in 1917. American revolution
occurred in 1775. German revolution took place in 1918.
193. Main Recommendation of Mandal Commission
was
(a) Reservation for Socially and Educationally
Backward Classes
(b) Reservation for Schedule Caste
(c) Reservation for Schedule Tribes
(d) Reservation for Minorities
l (a) The main recommendation of Mandal Commission
was for the reservation for socially and educationally
Backward Classes. This commission was appointed in
1979 by the Janata Party government under Prime
Minister Morarji Desai. It submitted report in the year
1983. On the basis of this recommendation of commission
27% reservation was granted to the other Backward
Classes.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2021 (Stage I)
194. Capital requirement of “NABARD” (National Bank
of Agriculture and Rural Development) are met by
which of the following institutions?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) International Development Association (IDA)
(c) World Bank
(d) All of the above
l (a) The capital requirement of “NABARD” (National Bank
of Agriculture and Rural Development) are met by Reserve
Bank of India. NABARD was established in the year 1982
on the recommendation of Shivaraman Committee. It was
entrusted with the responsibility of matter concerning with
the policy, planning and operation in the field of credit for
agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas.
195. Golden Revolution in India is related
(a) Jewellery export (b) Gold mines
(c) Honey and Horticulture (d) Electronic Goods
l (c) Golden Revolution in India is related with the
production of Honey and Horticulture. Other major and
Revolutions are as follows
White - Milk
Yellow - Oilseeds
Blue - Fisheries
Golden Fibre - Jute
Grey - Fertilizer
196. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?
(a) Forest (b) Animals
(c) Water (d) Petroleum
l (d) Petroleum is not a renewable resource. Forests,
animals, wind etc. are renewable resources. These are
resources which can be replenished and infinite. On the
other hand, non-renewable resources are exhaustable.
197. Which of the following is not related to agriculture
marketing?
(a) Storage
(b) Use of chemical fertilizers
(c) Processing
(d) Preservation
l (b) Use of chemical fertilizer is not related to agriculture
marketing. Storage processing and preservation are
parts/components of the agricultural marketing.
27
198. When an able person is willingly unemployed while
here is opportunity to work is known as
(a) Disguised unemployment
(b) Voluntary unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(d) Educated unemployment
l (b) When an able person is willingly unemployed while
there is opportunity to work is known as voluntary
unemployment. It constitutes very less percentage of the
overall employment.
Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are
employed in any work then actually required. Seasonal
unemployment occurs when people are unemployed
during particular season in the year.
Educated unemployment occurs when person is not able
to get employment according to his/her qualification.
199. The production unit producing shoe comes under
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) None of these
l (b) The production unit producing shoe comes under
secondary sector. All the manufacturing unit are included
under the secondary sector.
Primary sector encompasses the extraction and production
of raw materials such as farming, logging etc.
Tertiary sector (also known as service sector) helps in
development of the primary and secondary sector. It
includes banking, finance insurance etc.
200. Which of the following prepares Human
Development Report?
(a) Planning Commission of India
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) United Nation Development Programme
l (d) Human Development Report is prepared by the United
Nation Development Programme (UNDP). In this Report,
UNDP publishes many index to compare position of
different countries. The indices which are part of this
Report are Human Development Index, Gender
Development Index, Multidimensional Poverty Index,
Gender Inequality Index and Inequality adjusted Human
Development Index. In Human Development Report,
2020, India has been ranked at 131 position out of 189
countries.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 1

NTSE Solved Paper

NATIONAL TALENT
SEARCH
EXAMINATION
2020 (Stage I)

INSTRUCTIONS
This solved paper consists of two papers. Paper I consists of Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Paper II consists of
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT).
MAT covering (Q. Nos. 1-50) of Maths and (Q. Nos. 51-100) of Reasoning.
SAT consists of (Science, Mathematics and Social Science) which comprises 100 questions (40 Science, 20 Mathematics
and 40 Social Science).
There will be no negative marking.
Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.

Time : 240 Minutes Max. Mark : 200

n 15
\ Sum (Sn ) = [a + l] = [5 + 19]
Paper I Mental Ability Test (MAT) 2
15
2
= ´ 24 = 180
1. What is the sum of all positive factors of 256? 2
(a) 526 (b) 511 (c) 625 (d) 562 1 2 3
l (b) All the positive factors of 256 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 4. If three numbers are in ratio : : , difference
2 3 4
128 and 256.
between largest and smallest is 27, then numbers are
\ Required sum
(a) 54, 72, 81 (b) 24, 45, 51 (c) 64, 72, 91 (d) 54, 65, 81
= 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 + 32 + 64 + 128 + 256 = 511
l (a) Ratio of three numbers
X X +1 1 1 2 3
2. Value of + - will be? = : : = 6 :8 :9
X +1 X X( X + 1) 2 3 4
(a) X 2 (b) 1 (c) X (d) 2 Let the largest number be 9x,the smallest number be 6x
and middle number be 8x.
X X +1 1
l (d) + - According to the question,
X +1 X X (X + 1)
9 x - 6 x = 27
X 2 + (X + 1)2 1
= - 3 x = 27
X (X + 1) X (X + 1)
Þ x =9
X2 + X2 + 1 + 2X - 1 2X2 + 2X \ Numbers are 6 ´ 9 = 54,
= =
X (X + 1) X (X + 1) 8 ´ 9 = 72 and 9 ´ 9 = 81
2 X (X + 1)
= =2 5. Which of the following number will completely
X (X + 1)
divide the value of (325 + 326 + 327 + 328 )?
3. Sum of sequence 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + K + 19 will be? (a) 35 (b) 40
(a) 180 (b) 175 (c) 185 (d) 190 (c) 50 (d) 45

l (a) 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + .... 19 l (b) 325 + 326 + 327 + 328 = 325 (1 + 3 + 9 + 27)

Q Given series is an AP. = 325 ´ 40
\ a = 5, l = 19, n = 15 Hence, 40 will divide the given value completely.
2 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

6. Rohan’s score on the mid term exam was 75, and his 11. Some equations are based on the basis of a certain
score on the final exam was 90. If the weight of the system. Using the same pattern solve the unsolved
final exam is twice that of mid term, what is Rohan’s equation. If 10 - 3 = 12, 12 - 4 = 13, 14 - 5 = 14, what
final score in the course? is 16 - 6 = ?
(a) 82.5 (b) 80 (c) 85.5 (d) 85 (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 18
75 ´ 1 + 90 ´ 2 l (b) 10 - 3 = 12 Þ10 - 3 + 5 = 12
l (d) Rohan’s final score = = 85
3
12 - 4 = 13 Þ12 - 4 + 5 = 13
7. A grandmother, mother and daughter wish to 14 - 5 =14 Þ14 - 5 + 5 = 14
arrange themselves in a row in order to be Similarly, 16 - 6 Þ16 - 6 + 5 = 15
photographed. How many different ways can they
12. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 km/h
arrange themselves?
and including stoppages, it is 45 km/h. For how
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 18 (d) 9
many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
l (a) Total number of members = 3 (Mother, Grand mother (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 20
and daughter)
l (b) Speed of the bus = 54 km/h
Number of different ways to arrange = 3! Speed of bus including stoppages = 45 km/h
= 3 ´ 2 = 6 ways 54 - 45 9
The bus will stop for = h= ´ 60 = 10 min
8. At the time of marriage a man was 6 yr older 54 54
than his wife, but 12 yr after the marriage his age 13. If 40% of 1620 + 30% of 960 = ?% of 5200, the the
6 value of ? is
was times the age of his wife. Their ages (in years)
5 (a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 5 (d) 18
at the time of the marriage were
l (d) 40% of1620 + 30% of 960 = ?% of 5200
(a) 26, 20 (b) 24, 18 (c) 27, 21 (d) 30, 24 40 30 ? ´ 5200
Þ ´ 1620 + ´ 960 =
l (b) Let Man’s age at the time of marriage = x yr 100 100 100
Man’s wife’s age at the time of marriage = y yr Þ 4 ´ 162 + 3 ´ 96 = ? ´ 52
936
According to the question, x=y+6 … (i) \ ?= = 18
6 52
and (x + 12) = (y + 12)
5 14. In a row, 25 trees are planted at equal distance from
Þ 5 x + 60 = 6 y + 72 each other. The distance between 1st and 25th tree is
Þ 5 x - 6 y - 12 = 0 … (ii) 30m. What is the distance between 3rd and 15th tree?
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), (a) 8 m (b) 15 m (c) 16 m (d) 18 m
x = 24, y = 18
\ Man’s age at the time of Marriage = 24 yr l (b) Let the gap between a consecutive pair of tree = x m
\ Woman’s age at the time of Marriage = 18 yr There will be total 24 gaps.
Þ 24 x = 30
9. If we throw a dice, what is the probability of x=
30
obtaining a result that is less than 4, if we know that 24
the result obtained was an even number? Between 3rd and 15th tree = 12 gaps
1 2 1 4 30
(a) (b) (c) (d) \ Distance between 3rd and 15th tree = 12x = 12 ´ = 15 m
2 3 3 5 24
l (c) Total outcome (less than 4) = 3 (3, 2, 1) 15. In a school, the bell is rung once after each half
Favourable outcome (even number) = 1 (2) an hour. The school starts at 8 : 00 AM and close at
1
\ Required probability = 1 : 30 PM. The bell is rung 3 times continuously, at
3
the time beginning, at the time of lunch break at
10. There are 10 balls in a box, 5 white and 5 black. Two 10 : 00 AM and 10 : 30 AM and at the end. How
balls are removed randomly from the box, one after many times is the bell rung every day?
another. The first ball that is removed is black and it is (a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 19 (d) 20
not returned to the box. What is the probability that l (d)
the second ball that is removed is also black?
5 4 3 1 Time in AM 8:00 8:30 9:00 9:30 10:00 10:30 11:00 11:30 12:00 12:30 1:00 1:30
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 9 9 2 Bell rung 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 3
(frequency)
l (b) Total balls = 10 (5 white + 5 black)
After removing first black ball, \ Bell rung for total 20 times.
Total balls left = 9 16. If 80% of A = 50% of B and B = x % of A, then value of
Total black balls = 4
4 x will be?
\ Required probability =
9 (a) 145 (b) 170 (c) 150 (d) 160
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 3
l (d) 80% of A = 50% of B l (c) From option (c),
80 50 1 1 1
Þ ´ A= ´B = =
1 1 1
100 100 3+ 3+ 3+
B 8 1 1 æç13 ö÷
Þ = … (i) 1+ 1+
1 æç 9 ö÷ è9 ø
A 5 2+
x 4 è4 ø
Now, B = x % of A Þ B = ´A
100 1 13
= =
B æç 48 ö÷ 48
Þ x= ´ 100
A è13 ø
8
Þ x = ´ 100 = 160 [from Eq. (i)]
5 21. If for any two numbers a and b, the operation $ is
defined as follow
17. The mean of five consecutive numbers is 7. Which is
a$ b = a ´ (a + b), then (2$0)$1?
the highest number?
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 4
(a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 8
l (c) a$ b = a ´ (a + b)
l (c) Let the five consecutive numbers be
(n - 2), (n - 1), n, (n + 1), (n + 2) \ (2 $ 0)$1 = [2 ´ (2 + 0)]$1
\ Mean = 7 = 4 $1 = 4 ´ (4 + 1) = 4 ´ 5 = 20
(n - 2) + (n -1) + n + (n + 1) + (n + 2) 22. The accompanying figure shows a right + trapezoid
=7
5 (AD || BC). Based on this information and the
Þ 5 n = 35 information in the figure, the area of the trapezoid
n=7 (in m2 ) is
\ Highest number = n + 2 = 7 + 2 = 9 A 12m D
18. Find the value of x 3 + y 3 + z3 - 3 xyz, if x + y + z = 15
and x 2 + y 2 + z2 = 51. 8m 10m
(a) 540 (b) - 540 (c) - 225 (d) 765
l (b) We know, (x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2 (xy + yz + zx)
B C
Þ (15)2 = 51 + 2(xy + yz + zx) (given)
15 ´ 15 - 51 (a) 150 (b) 120 (c) 108 (d) 96
Þ xy + yz + zx = = 87
2 l (b) A 12m D
Now, x3 + y3 + z3 - 3 xyz
= (x + y + z) (x2 + y2 + z2 - xy - yz - zx) 10m
8m 8m
= 15 (51 - 87) = 15 ´ (- 36) = - 540

19. If area of any triangle is 384 cm 2 and its sides are in

ratio 3 : 4 : 5, then perimeter of triangle will be? B E 6m C
(a) 60 cm (b) 48 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 96 cm Let DE ^ BC, then BE = 12 m, DE = 8 m
l (d) Let the sides of the triangle be 3 x, 4 x and 5x respectively. In D CED, CE = CD2 - DE2 = 100 - 64 = 6 m
3x + 4x + 5x \ BC = BE + CE = 12 + 6 = 18 cm
Semi-perimeter (s) = = 6x 1
2 \ Area of trapezium = (sum of parallel sides) ´ Height
Area of triangle = s(s - a)(s - b)(s - c) 2
1 1
Þ 384 = 6 x ´ 3 x ´ 2 x ´ x = (BC + AD) ´ AB = (12 + 18) ´ 8 = 120 m2
2 2
Þ 384 = 6 x2 Þ x2 = 64
x = 8 cm
\ Perimeter = 3 x + 4 x + 5 x = 12x = 12 ´ 8 = 96 cm Directions (Q.Nos. 23-25) Find the missing number in the
number series.
13
20. is equal to 23. 4, 8, 28, ?, 244
48
1 1 (a) 69 (b) 75
(a) (b)
1 1 (c) 80 (d) 90
3+ 3+
1 1 (c) 4
1+ 1+ l 8 28 80 244
16 1
1+
8 ×3–4 ×3+4 ×3–4 ×3+4
1 1 \ ? = 80
(c) (d)
1 1
3+ 3+
1 1 24. 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ?
1+ 1+
1 8 (a) 48 (b) 52
2+
4 (c) 55 (d) 58
4 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

l (b) 4 7 12 19 28 39 52 l (c) Let the required run rate be x.

\ 15 ´ 6 + x ´ 5 = 7.2 ´ 20
+3 +5 +7 +9 +11 +13 90 + 5 x =144
\ ? = 52 5 x = 54
x = 10.8
25. 10080, 1680, ?, 84, 28, 14
(a) 840 (b) 168 (c) 108 (d) 33 30. If P and Q are HCF and LCM of two Algebraic
l (d) 10080 1680 336 84 28 14 expressions x and y respectively and P + Q = x + y ,
then what will be value of P3 + Q3 ?
÷6 ÷5 ÷4 ÷3 ÷2
(a) x3 + y3 (b) x3 - y3 (c) x + y (d) x - y
\ ? = 336
l (a) We know that,
26. The compound interest on ` 30000 at 7% per annum Product of two expressions
is ` 4347. The period (in year) is = (HCF ´ LCM) of expressions
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 3.5 Þ xy = PQ ...(i)
l (b) CI = A - P and P+Q=x+ y …(ii)
A = CI + P = 4347 + 30000 Q (P + Q)3 = P3 + Q3 + 3 PQ (P + Q)
A = 34347 Þ P3 + Q3 = (x + y)3 - 3 xy(x + y) [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
T = x 3 + y3
A = Pæç1 +
R ö
Q ÷ 31. Pipe A and B can fill a tank in 12 min and 16 min
è 100 ø
T respectively. Both pipes are kept open for x minutes
Þ 34347 = 30000 æç1 +
7 ö and then B is closed and A fills the rest of tank in
÷
è 100 ø 5 min. The value of x will be
T T
34347 æ107 ö 11449 æ107 ö (a) 4 min (b) 6 min (c) 5 min (d) 7 min
Þ =ç ÷ Þ =ç ÷
30000 è100 ø 10000 è100 ø l (a) Q Pipe A can fill the tank = 12 min
2 T
Þ æç107 ö÷ = æç107 ö÷ Þ T = 2 yr and Pipe B can fill the tank = 16 min
è100 ø è100 ø According to the question,
x+5 x
27. Among the numbers 2, 3 9 , 4 16 , 5 32 the greatest + =1
12 16
one is 4 x + 20 + 3 x
Þ =1
(a) 2 (b) 3 9 (c) 4 16 (d) 5 32 48
1 1 48 - 20 28
Þ 7 x + 20 = 48 Þ x = = =4
l (b) 2 = (2)1 /2 = (23 )6 = (8)6 7 7
1 1
3
9 = (3)2 /3 = (34 )6 = (81)6 32. The accompanying figure shows right triangle ABC
1 1 and isosceles triangle ABD ( AB = AD).
4
16 = 2 = (2 ) = (64)
6 6 6

1 1
A
5
32 = 2 = (26 )6 = (64)6 α
\ The largest number is 3 9.
1 1
28. If x + = 2 and x is real, then the value of x 17 + 19
x x
2β β
is C
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) - 2 B D
1 Based on this information and the information in the
l (c) x + =2
x figure, the value of angle a is
x2 + 1 = 2 x (a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 25°
x2 - 2 x + 1 = 0 l (c) From given figure,
(x - 1)2 = 0 A
x =1
α
1 1
Þ x + 19 = (1)17 + 19 = 2
17
90°–α
x (1)

29. To win a 20 over match, the run rate is required 7.2. 180°–2α
2β 2β β
If in the end of 15th over, the run rate is 6, then to C
win the match the required run rate is B D
(a) 1.2 (b) 13.2 In DABD,
(c) 10.8 (d) 12 90° - a + 2b + 2b = 180°
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 5
Þ 4b - a = 90° … (i) 35. An official meeting is attended by 130 department
In DABC, employees of them 66 drink tea, 56 drink coffee
2b + b + 90° = 180° Þ 3b = 90° and 63 drink juice, 27 can drink either tea or coffee,
Þ b = 30° 25 can drink coffee or juice and 23 can drink juice
From Eq. (i), a = 4b - 90° = 4 ´ 30° - 90° (Qb = 30°) and tea. 5 employees can drink any of the three.
= 30° How many drink only tea?
(a) 21 (b) 22
33. The accompanying figure shows a circle whose
(c) 18 (d) 20
centre is O and radius is 10 cm. The shaded sector
1 l (a) Coffee
equal of the area of the circle. Based on this Tea
6
information and the information in figure the length 21 22 9
(in cm) of the arc AQB is 5
18 20
Q
20
Juice

O From the Venn diagram, 21 people drink only tea.

B
60°
36. Of the three numbers, the sum of first two is 55, sum
A of second and third is 65, and sum of third with
thrice of the first is 110. The third number is
P (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 28
40 20 l (c) Let the numbers are x, y and z.
(a) 30p (b) p (c) p (d) 20p
3 3 x + y = 55 … (i)
l (b) Q
y + z = 65 … (ii)
z + 3 x = 110 … (iii)
From Eq. (i) – Eq. (ii),
Þ x - z = - 10
x = z - 10
O Put the value of x in Eq. (iii),
B
60° z + 3(z - 10) = 110
4 z = 140
A Þ z = 35
P
Directions (Q.Nos. 37-40) Study the following table and
1 answer the questions given below.
Q Shaded sector = ´ area of circle
6
360° Employees Source of Income (`)
\ Angle of shaded region = = 60° K L M N O
6
Now, angle in arc AQB = 360° - 120° = 240° Salary 12000 6000 21000 9000 12000
240° Bonus 2400 1200 4500 2400 3000
Length of arc AQB = ´ 2pr
360° Overtime 5400 2100 6000 5100 6000
240 40 p Arrears 6000 5400 12000 4200 7500
= ´ 2 ´ p ´ 10 =
360° 3 Miscellaneous 1200 300 1500 300 1500
Total 27000 15000 45000 21000 30000
34. If length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and its
width decreased by 20%, then of the following 37. The employee who has minimum ratio of income
which change in the area of rectangle occur? from arrear to income from salary is
(a) 10% increase (b) 16% increase (a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N
(c) 5% decrease (d) No change
38. The employee who earns maximum bonus in
l (d) Let length = x cm
comparison to his total income?
Let width = y cm (a) M (b) N (c) L (d) K
Original area = xy cm2
125 x 80 y 39. The employee who has maximum percentage of his
\ New area = ´ = xy
100 100 salary out of the income?
\ There is no change in the area. (a) K (b) L
(c) M (d) O
6 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

40. The income from overtime is what percentage of the l (d) Different combinations of three course business lunch
income from the arrears in case of employee in = 3 ´ 4 ´ 2 = 24
category O?
43. If the length of a rectangular plot of land is
(a) 80 (b) 75 (c) 25 (d) 20 1
Sol. (Q.Nos. 37-40) increased by 12 % and the breadth is decreased by
2
6000 1 10%, its area is
37. (d) Ratio for K = = = 0.5
12000 2 (a) Decreased by 1.25% (b) Decreased by 2.5%
5400 9 (c) Increased by 2.5% (d) Increased by 1.25%
Ratio for L = = = 0.9
6000 10 a ´ bö
l (d) Percentage change in area = æç ± a ± b ± ÷%
Ratio for M =
12000 4
= = 0.57 è 100 ø
21000 7 é ´ 10 ù
25
4200 21 ê 25 2 ú
Ratio for N = = = 0.46 =ê - 10 - % [Qa = 25, b = -10]
9000 45 2 100 ú
ê ú
Hence, N has minimum ratio. ë û
2400 8 æ 5 5ö 5
= ç - ÷ % = % = 1 .25% increased
38. (b) Bonus for K = = = .08 è2 4 ø 4
27000 90
1200 4 44. K is an even number and P is an odd number.
Bonus for L = = = 0.08
15000 50 Which of the following statement is not correct?
Bonus for M =
4500
=
1
= 0.1 (a) P - K - 1is an odd number
45000 10 (b) P + K + 1is an even number
2400 8 (c) P ´ K + P is an odd number
Bonus for N= = = 0.11
21000 70 (d) P 2 + K 2 + 1 is an even number
Hence, N has maximum bonus. l (a) K is even and P is odd.
12000 From option (a),
39. (c) Percentage for K = ´ 100 = 44.44 % P - K - 1 = P - (K + 1)
27000 = even number
6000 Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Percentage for L = ´ 100 = 40%
15000
21000 45. All of the liquid filling a cubodial container that
Percentage for M = ´ 100 = 46.66% measures 2 cm ´ 10 cm ´ 20 cm is poured into a
45000
cylindrical container with a base radius of 5 cm.
12000
Percentage for O = ´ 100 = 40% What height (in cm) will the surface of the liquid
30000 reach in the cylindrical container?
Hence, M has maximum percentage. 16 40
(a) (b) (c) 8p (d) 8
6000 p p
40. (a) Required percentage = ´ 100 = 80%
7500 l (a) According to the question,
Volume of cuboidal = Volume of cylinder
41. The ratio of the present ages of Mohan and Suresh
Þ 2 ´ 10 ´ 20 = p ´ (5)2 ´ h
is 4 : 5. Five year ago, the ratio of their ages was 7 : 9.
Their present ages (in year) are [ h = height of the cylinder]
2 ´ 10 ´ 20
(a) 40, 50 (b) 18, 25 (c) 40, 60 (d) 20, 25 h=
25 ´ p
l (a) Let the present ages of Mohan and Suresh is 4x yr and 16
5x yr. \ h=
4x - 5 7 p
According to the question, =
5x - 5 9 46. (0° < q < 90° )
36 x - 45 = 35 x - 35 Þ x = 10 If tan q + cot q = 2, then what will be the value of
\ Age of Mohan = 4 x = 4 ´ 10 = 40 yr tan100 q + cot100 q ?
and Age of Suresh = 5 x = 5 ´ 10 = 50 yr 1
(a) 2 (b) 2 3 (c) 1 (d)
3
42. For a business lunch in a certain restaurant, you
many choose one of 3 different first courses and one l (a) tan q + cot q = 2
of 4 different main courses. In addition to first Þ x+
1
=2 [Let tan q = x]
course and the main course, you have a choice of a x
soup or dessert. How many different combinations Þ x - 2x + 1 = 0
2

of three course business lunch does this restaurant Þ (x - 1)2 = 0 Þ x = 1

offer? tanq = 1
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 18 (d) 24 tan100 q + cot100 q = (1)100 + (1)100 = 1 + 1 = 2
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 7
47. What is the coefficient of a2 b2 in the expansion of 52. If Amit’s father is Ketan’s father’s only son and
( a + b)4 ? Ketan has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3 the relation between Ketan and Amit?
l (b) (a + b) = C0 a b + C1 a b + C2 a b + C3 ab3
4 4 4 0 4 3 4 2 2 4 (a) Uncle-Nephew (b) Father-Daughter
(c) Father-Son (d) Cousin
+ C4 a b 4 0 4

4! 4 ´ 3 ´ 2 ´1 l (c) only
Þ Coefficient of a b = C2 = 2 2
= 4
=6 son
2 !2 ! 2 ´2 Amit Father Ketan's father
(Ketan)
48. In a class composed of x girls, y boys. What part of From the above diagram, it is clear that Ketan and Amit
the class is composed of girls? are father and son.
x x y
(a) y( x + y) (b) (c) (d) 53. In a certain code language ‘si po re’ means ‘book is
xy ( x + y) xy
thick’, ‘ti na re’ means ‘bag is heavy’, ‘ka si’ means
x ‘interesting book’ and ‘de ti’ means ‘that bag’. What
l (c) Part of class, composed of girls =
x+ y should stand for ‘that bag is interesting’ in that code
language?
49. The expression 26 n - 42 n , where n is a natural
(a) ka re na ti (b) de si re ka
number is always divisible by (c) ti po ka na (d) de ti re ka
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 36 (d) 48
l (d) si po re ⇒ Book is thick
l (d) 26 n - 42 n
Þ 64 n - 16 n ti na re ⇒ bag is heavy
Divisible by 64 - 16 = 48 ka si ⇒ interesting book
[Qx n - an is always divisible by x - a ", n Î N]
de ti ⇒ that bag
1 2

50. If x = 2 - 2 + 2 , then the value of

3 3
\ that bag is interesting Þ de ti re ka
x 3 - 6 x 2 + 18 x + 18 is
54. In a certain language ‘PRINCIPAL’ is written as
(a) 22 (b) 33 (c) 40 (d) 45
‘MBOQSOMVW’ and ‘TEACHER’ is written as
l (c) x = 2 - 21 /3 + 22 /3 ‘FDVSZDB’. Then how is ‘CAPITAL’ written in that
(x - 2)3 = (22 /3 - 21 /3 )3 code?
Þ x3 - 8 - 3 ´ 2 ´ x(x - 2) (a) SVMOFVW (b) SVMODVW (c) BVMODVM (d) SVMIDVW
= 22 - 2 - 3 ´ 22 /3 ´ 21 /3 (22 /3 - 21 /3 ) l (a) As, P R I N C I P A L
Þ x - 8 - 6 x2 + 12 x = 4 - 2 - 6(x - 2)
3

Þ x3 - 6 x2 + 18 x = 14 + 8
M B O Q S O M V W
Þ x3 - 6 x2 + 18 x = 22
\ x3 - 6 x2 + 18 x + 18 = 22 + 18 = 40 and T E A C H E R
51. In this given figure how many triangle are there?
F D V S Z D B
Then, C A P I T A L

S V M O F V W

55. In a certain language ROPE is written as %57$,

(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 8 DOUBT is written as 35#8* and LIVE is written as
l (a)
@24$. How is TROUBLE is written in that code?
A B C
(a) *%5#8@$ (b) *%#58@$ (c) *%5#8@4 (d) *%58$@
l (a) As, R O P E , D O U B T
G H
% 5 7 $ 3 5 # 8 *
and L I V E
F E D
There are total 12 triangles in the figure
DAGB, DAFG, DFGE, DBCH, DCHD, DDEH, @ 2 4 $
DAEC, DFBD, DAFB, DAFE, DBCD, DECD.
8 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

Then, T R O U B L E 60. Anupriya was born on 29th November, 1970, which

was Sunday. When her next birthday will fall on
Sunday?
* % 5 # 8 @ $
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1981 (d) 1982
56. If $ means ‘plus (+)’, # means ‘minus (-)’, @ means l (c) Anupriya was born on 29th November 1970 which is
multiplied (´), and * means ‘divided (¸)’, then what Sunday.
is the value of 16$4@5#72*8? From 29th November 1970 to 29th November 1981,
(a) 29 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 36 total odd days = 8 ´ 1 + 3 ´ 2
l (c) $ Þ+ = 8 + 6 = 14 days = 0 days
# Þ- Hence, on 29th November 1981, there will be Sunday.
@ Þ´ 61. Which one will replace the question mark?
* Þ¸
1 4 6
\ 16 $ 4 @ 5 # 7 2 * 8 9 5 5 3 8 3
Þ 16 + 4 ´ 5 - 72 ¸ 8 Þ16 + 20 - 9 Þ27 651 246 ?
57. In the number ‘5321648’ how many digit will be as 3 4 7 9 2 1
far away from the beginning of the number if digit 6 8 4
arranged in ascending order as they are in the (a) 262 (b) 622 (c) 631 (d) 824
number?
l (b) As, in first figure, 9 - 3 = 6
(a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) None
6 -1 = 5
l (b) Given digits ⇒ 5 3 2 1 6 4 8 5 - 4 =1
ascending order ⇒ 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 In second figure, 7 - 5 = 2
8 -4 = 4
\ Only one digit ‘8’ is the required digit which is as far 9 -3 =6
from the beginning as when the digits are arranged in
ascending order. \ In third figure, 8 - 2 = 6
6 - 4 =2
58. In a class of 35 students Kunal is placed seventh 3 -1 = 2
from the bottom whereas Sonali is placed ninth from \ ? = 622
top. Pulkit is placed exactly in between the two.
What is Kunal’s position from Pulkit? 62. If ‘+’ means ‘¸’, - means ‘´’, ‘´’ means ‘+’ and ‘¸’
(a) 9th (b) 10th (c) 11th (d) 12th means ‘-’, then, 4 + 6 ´ 9 ¸ 6 - 2 ´ 5
4 8 9
l (b) Kunal’s position from the top (a) (b) (c) 2 (d)
6 3 2
= (Total number of students
- Kunal’s position from bottom ) +1
l (b) + Þ ¸, - Þ ´, ´ Þ + and ¸ Þ -
\ 4 + 6 ´9 ¸6 -2 ´5
= (35 - 7) + 1 = 29th
Þ 4 ¸ 6 + 9 -6 ´ 2 + 5
Sonali’s position from top = 9th
2
\ Number of students between Kunal and Sonali Þ + 9 - 12 + 5
= (29 - 9) - 1 = 19 3
19 + 1 2 8
Now, Pulkit’s position from Sonali = = 10th Þ +2 Þ
2 3 3
\ Pulkit’s position from the top = 9 + 10 = 19th
Directions (Q.Nos. 63-66) In the questions given below a
Hence, Kunal is 10th from Pulkit.
piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in
59. In a row of girls facing North, Reena is 10th to the question figures, from the given answer figures indicate
left of Pallavi, who is 21st from the right end. If how it will appear when opened.
Malini, who is 17th from the left end is fourth to the 63. Question Figures
right of Reena. How many girls are there in a row?
(a) 37 (b) 43
(c) 44 (d) Data Inadequate
l (b) Malini
17th
Reena Pallavi Answer Figures

31st 21st

27th
Malini’s position 17th from left and 27th from right. (a) (b) (c) (d)
\ Total number of girls = 17 + 27 - 1 = 43
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 9
l (a) The folded and cut piece of paper when unfolded will l (c) The folded and punched piece of paper when unfolded
look like as answer figure (a). will look like as answer figure (c).

64. Question Figures 67. In the matrix below, the numbers in the cells follow
some rules. Identify the number which will be
substituted for ? maintaining the same rule.?
4 1 2
13 11 6
Answer Figures 153 120 ?

(a) 32 (b) 45 (c) 16 (d) 48

l (a) As, in 1st column, (13)2 - 42 = 153
And, in 2nd column, (11)2 - 12 = 120
(a) (b) (c) (d) Similarly, in 3rd column, 62 - 22 = 32

l (d) The folded and cut piece of paper when unfolded will Directions (Q.Nos. 68-72) The Venn diagram given below
look like as answer figure (d). is about a small circle is Marathi, triangle is Bihari and
square is Punjabi.
Bihari

65. Question Figures 1 7

2 3
5
6 Marathi
Punjabi 8
4
Answer Figures
68. What is the total number of Biharis?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
69. What is the total number of Punjabis?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 22 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 35
70. What is the total number of Marathis?
l (a) The folded and punched piece of paper when unfolded
will look like as answer figure (a). (a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 22 (d) 21
71. How many Bihari which are not Punjabi?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
72. How many Punjabi which are not Marathi?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
66. Question Figures Sol. (Q.Nos. 68-72)
68. (b) Total number of Bihari = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6
69. (a) Total number of Punjabi = 1 + 7 + 3 + 5 + 6 = 22
70. (d) Total number of Marathi = 3 + 6 + 8 + 4 = 21

Answer Figures 71. (b) Number of Bihari’s who are not Punjabi = 6 - 4 = 2
72. (d) Punjabi who are not Marathi = 22 - 9 = 13

73. India became a republic on 26th January, 1950.

Which day of the week was it?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Thursday (d) Saturday
10 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

l (c) Odd days for 1600 yrs = 0 77. How many cubes have three faces coloured?
Odd days for 300 yrs = 1 (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
Odd days for 49 yrs = (12 ´ 2 + 37 ´ 1) = 61
78. How many cubes have two faces coloured?
(Since, there are 12 leap years and 37 ordinary years in
the period of 49 yrs) (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 36 (d) 24
Odd days for 26 days of Jan 1950 = 5 79. How many cubes have only one face coloured?
\ Total odd days = 0 + 1 + 61 + 5 = 67 days (a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 36
= (9 ´ 7 + 4) days = 4 odd days
Sol. (Q.Nos. 77-79)
\ Number of odd days = 4
\ Required day = Thursday
74. At what angle (larger) are two hands of a clock
inclined at 48 min past 12?
(a) 264° (b) 263° (c) 265° (d) 266°
l (a) Time from 4 am of a particular day to 3 am on 4 day is
7 h. Now, the clock loses 20 min in 24 h or in other words, Edge of larger cube 8
n= , n= =4
we can 5 day that 23h 40 min of this clock is equal to 24 h Edge of smaller cube 2
of the correct clock.
77. (c) There will be 8 cubes having 3 faces coloured.
æç23 + 40 ö÷ = 71 h of this clock = 24 h of the correct clock
è 60 ø 3 78. (d) Number of smaller cubes having two faces coloured
24 ´ 3 = 12 (n - 2) = 12 (4 - 2) = 12 ´ 2 = 24
\ 71 h of this clock = æç ´ 71ö÷ h of the correct clock. \ There will be 24 cubes having 2 faces coloured.
è 71 ø
= 72 h of the correct clock. 79. (b) Number of smaller cubes having one face coloured
or 71 h of this clock = 72 h of the correct clock. = 6(n - 2)2 = 6(4 - 2)2 = 6 ´ 2 ´ 2 = 24
Therefor, it is clear that in 72 h this clock loses 1h \ 24 cubes will have only one face coloured.
and hence, the correct time is am when this clock show 80. Choose the correct option to complete the matrix?
3 am.
4C 2B 3A
75. A clock is set right at 4 am. The clock loses 20 min
in 24 h. What will be the time, when the clock 28A 10C 45B
indicate 3 am on 4th day? 7C ? 15B
(a) 5 am (b) 4 am (c) 3 am (d) 4 pm
l (b) Time from 4 am of a particular day to 3 am on 4th day (a) 15A (b) 12B (c) 5A (d) 8C
is 71 h. Now, the clock loses 20 min in 24 h or in other l (c) In each row, there are three alphabets one in each box
words, we can say that 23 h 40 min of this clock is equal to which are A, B and C. So, the missing alphabet is A.
24 h of the correct clock. In first column, 4 ´ 7 = 28
æç23 + 40 ö÷ = 71 h of this clock = 24 h of the correct clock In third column, 15 ´ 3 = 45
è 60 ø 3
\ In second column, x ´ 2 = 10
24 ´ 3
\ 71 h of this clock = æç ´ 71ö÷ h of the correct clock x =5
è 71 ø
\ ?=5A
= 72 h of the correct clock
or 71 h of this clock = 72 h of the correct clock 81. Which of following is the best represented in
Therefore, it is clear that in 72 h this clock loses 1 h and diagram?
hence, the correct time is 4 am when this clock shows 3 am. (a) Chair, Table, Furniture
(b) Doctor, Social Person, Honest Person
76. A dice has four different positions. Find the number (c) Family, Parents, Children
on the face opposite to 3.
(d) Gold Jewellary, Silver Jewellary,
5 2 3 4 Ornaments
6 4 5 5
4 1 6 1 l (b) Some doctors can be social persons,
some social persons can be honest persons, some honest
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 persons can be doctors. Also, some doctors can be both
social persons and honest persons.
l (c) In position (i) and (iii) 5 and 6 are common.
\ Number ‘4’ will be on the face opposite to face having
number ‘3’. Honest Doctor
person
Directions (Q.Nos. 77-79) are based on given information.
A solid cube is painted red on all faces. The side of the
cube is 8 cm. It is cut into smaller cubes of side 2 cm. Social
person
Answer the following questions.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 11
Directions (Q.Nos. 82-84) Study the letter series given 88. Choose the correct mirror image of figure (X) from
below and answer the questions that follows. given alternatives.
HDYSMWNBQPOCRTBLZVEGUF
82. Which two neighbours in the given arrangement are
farthest in the alphabetical order?
(a) B and Q (b) D and Y (c) U and F (d) V and E (X)
83. Which letter has the same neighbours as in the
alphabetical order through they have change places?
(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) F

84. Which three letters have the same distance as they (a) (b) (c) (d)
have in the alphabetical order through they have
changed places? l (b) The figure given in the option (b) is the correct mirror
image of the figure given in the question.
(a) HMP (b) NQZ (c) QOE (d) YLF
Sol. (Q.Nos. 82-84) 89. Choose the correct water image of figure (X) from
given alternatives.
82. (b) D and Y are farthest as they have a difference of 21
places between them and all other have lesser difference.
83. (c) In the given series ‘P’ is the neighbour of ‘O’.
84. (d) YLF
Y – L = 13 places (X)
L – F = 6 places

85. A and B are sisters. R and S are brothers. Daughter

of A is sister of R. Then which relation is between
B and S? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Aunt (b) Grand Mother (c) Sister (d) Mother
l (a) The figure given in the option (a) is the correct water
l (a) er
Sister
B image of the figure given in the question.
u ght A
Da
O
Sis
ter Brother
R S
From above diagram it is clear that ‘B’ is the Aunt of ‘S’.
90. What is the minimum number of straight lines
86. Abhay is the husband of Neena and Sunita is the needed to construct the following figure?
mother of Abhay. Sohan is the paternal uncle of
Neeraj, who is the son of Abhay. What is the relation
between Sohan and Neena?
(a) Jeth (b) Devar (c) Bhatija (d) Jeth/Devar
l (d) Sunita
Mother
Sohan Abhay Husband
Neena
Brother
Son
Neeraj
(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17
Hence, Sohan is either Jeth or Devar of Neena.
l (c) B D
87. Which one will replace the question mark?
A K C M
4 8 5 E

O P
6 14 6 14 6 ?

8 8 4 J F
L H N
10 18 14 22 11 15
(a) 8 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 6 I G
l (c) As, in first figure,18 - 4 = 14 There will be minimum 16 lines required to construct the
In second figure, 22 - 8 = 14 figure, which are AJ, KL, CH, MN, EF, AE, JF, AB, JD, IE,
Similarly, in third figure,15 - 5 = 10 GF, BF, DE, AG, JI, OP.
12 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

Directions (Q.Nos. 91-94) A cube is coloured red on all of 97. Which of the following means that R is the wife of P?
its faces. It is then cut into 64 smaller cube of equal size. (a) P ´ R - Q - T (b) P ¸ T + R - Q
The smaller cube so obtained are now separated. (c) P ¸ R - Q + T (d) P ´ T - Q + R
91. How many smaller cubes have no surface coloured? 98. If ‘P ´ T ¸ Q + R’, how is R related to P?
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 10 (a) Daughter (b) Husband
(c) Son-in-law (d) Daughter-in-law
92. How many smaller cubes will have atleast two
surfaces painted with red coloured? 99. If ‘P ¸ R – Q ´ T, how is P related to T?
(a) 4 (b) 18 (a) Grandmother (b) Mother-in-law
(c) 32 (d) 24 (c) Sister (d) Grandfather

93. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces painted 100. If P ¸ Q + R ´ T, how Q is related to T?
with red coloured? (a) Aunt (b) Sister
(a) 24 (b) 8 (c) Brother (d) None of these
(c) 12 (d) 20 Sol. (Q.Nos 96-100)
94. How many smaller cubes have only three surfaces 96. (d) P + Q - R ¸ T
painted with red coloured? P Q brother R mother T
daughter
(a) 0 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 8
Sol. (Q.Nos. 91-94)
cousins
Here, n = 3 64 = 4
Hence, T is the Cousin of P.
91. (c) Number of cubes with no surface coloured = (n - 2)3
97. (d) P ´ T - Q + R
= (4 - 2)3 = 23 = 8
P T Q daughter R
92. (c) Number of cubes with two surfaces painted father brother
= (n - 2) ´ 12 = (4 - 2) ´ 12 = 24
Three surfaces painted = 8 wife
Total = 24 + 8 = 32
98. (c) P ´ T ¸ Q + R
\ Number of cubes with atleast two surfaces painted = 32
wife
93. (a) Number of smaller cubes with two surfaces painted
with red colour P T Q daughter R
father mother
= (n - 2) ´ 12 = (4 - 2) ´ 12 = 24
94. (d) As, three surfaces painted cubes are always 8.
son-in-law
95. A 6 cm cube is cut into 2 cm smaller cube. How Hence, R is the son-in-law of P.
many smaller cubes can be obtained from these?
99. (a) P ¸ R - Q ´ T
(a) 108 (b) 156 (c) 27 (d) 64
mother brother father
3 P R Q T
(c) Total number of smaller cubes = æç ö÷ = 33 = 27
6
l
è2 ø

grand mother
Directions (Q.Nos. 96-100) Read the following
informations and answer the questions which follow. Hence, P is the grand mother of T.
‘A ´ B’ means ‘A’ is father of ‘B’ 100. (b) P ¸ Q + R ´ T
‘A + B’ means ‘A’ is daughter of ‘B’ mother daughter father
‘A ¸ B’ means ‘A’ is mother of ‘B’ P Q R T
‘A - B’ means ‘A’ is brother of ‘B’
sister
96. If P + Q - R ¸ T, how is T related to P?
(a) Aunt (b) Brother (c) Father (d) Cousin Hence, Q is the sister of T.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

Paper II Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

101. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two l (a) Person cannot see clearly distance more than 40 cm,
pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of then
18 kg mass is 6 m/s. The kinetic energy of the other image distance, v = − 40 cm and
mass is object distance, u = ∞
(a) 324 J (b) 486 J (c) 256 J (d) 524 J Hence, using the lens formula,
1 1 1
l (b) Mass of bomb, M = 30 kg − =
v u f
After explosion of bomb, masses of two pieces are given as
1 1 1
m1 = 18 kg, m2 = 12 kg ⇒ − =
Velocity of 18 kg mass, v1 = 6 m/s − 40 ∞ f
If v2 be the velocity of 12 kg mass, then using law of ⇒ f = − 40 cm
conservation of linear momentum, 100 100
∴ Power, P = = = − 2 .5 D
m1 v1 + m2 v2 = Mv f (incm) − 40
⇒ 18 × 6 + 12 × v2 = 30 × 0 [Q v = 0]
⇒ 12 v2 = 108 104. Gravitational force is essentially required for
108 (a) stirring in liquid (b) convection
⇒ v2 =
12 (c) conduction (d) radiation
⇒ v2 = 9 m/s l (b) The driving force for natural convection is gravity. For
∴Kinetic energy of 12 kg mass, example, if there is a layer of cold dense air on top of
1 1 hotter less dense air, then gravity pulls more strongly on
K = m2 v22 = × 12 × (9)2 the denser layer on top, so it falls while the hotter less
2 2
dense air rises to take its place. This creates circulating
= 6 × 81 = 486 J flow i.e., convection.
102. A body initially at rest starts moving when a Hence, gravitational force is essentially required for convection.
constant external force F is applied on it. The force F 105. An observer moves towards a stationary plane
is applied for time t = 0 to time t = T . Which of the mirror at a speed of 4 m/s, the speed with which his
following graph represents the variation of the image moves towards him is
speed (v) of the body with time (t)? (a) 2 m/s (b) 4 m/s
(c) 8 m/s (d) Image will stay at rest
l (c) Speed of observer towards plane mirror,
(a) v (b) v u = 4 m/s
Speed of image = 2u
t T T t = 2 × 4 = 8 m/s

106. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads 2 A, then

what is the value of resistance R (the resistance of
v v
ammeter is negligible)?
(c) (d)
3Ω
R
T t T t
6Ω
l (c) When a constant external force is applied on the body,
then constant acceleration is produced according to 6V
Newton’s second law of motion.
A
F
i.e., Acceleration, a = = constant
m (a)1 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 3 Ω (d) 4 Ω
From first equation of motion,
l (a) Given, I =2A
v = u + at
Q v = 0 + at Equivalent resistance of the circuit,
⇒ v = at [Qu = 0] 3Ω
i.e., v ∝t
R
Since, v is proportional to time t (for 0 to T), hence graph
shown in option (c) is correct. 6Ω

103. A person cannot clearly see objects at a distance I

more than 40 cm. He is advised to use lens of power
(a) − 2.5 D (b) 2.5 D (c) −15
. D (d) 15
. D A
6V
14 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

3 ×6
R′ = 3 ||6 + R = + R 109. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms an
3+6 image. The position of the object when the image is
18 virtual and linear magnification is 2, is
= + R
9 (a) 22.5 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 45 cm
⇒ R′ = 2 + R
l (b) Given, focal length of concave mirror,
∴By Ohm’s law,
f = − 15 cm
V = IR′
Linear magnification, m = 2
V
⇒ I= −v
R′ Q As, m= =2
6 −u
⇒ 2=
2+ R ⇒ v = + 2u … (i)
⇒ 4 + 2R = 6 Using mirror formula,
⇒ 2R = 2 ⇒ R = 1 Ω 1 1 1
+ =
v u f
107. A particle starts its motion from rest under the 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ + = − =
action of a constant force. If the distance covered in + 2u (− u) − 15 2u − 15
first 10 s is s1 and that covered in next 10 s is s2 ,
⇒ 2u = 15 ⇒ u = 7.5 cm
then
(a) s2 = 6s1 (b) s2 = 2 s1 1
110. A body on an inclined plane slides down th of
(c) s2 = 8s1 (d) s2 = 3s1 4
l (d) Initial velocity of particle, u = 0 distance in 2 s. It will slide down the complete
Particle moves with constant acceleration a under the distance along the plane in (the inclined plane have
action of constant force. zero friction)
According to first condition, (a) 4 s (b) 5 s (c) 2 s (d) 3 s
distance travelled by particle in first10 s (t1 = 10 s ) = s1 l (c) The given situation is shown in the following figure
1 below :
i.e., s1 = ut1 + at12
2
1
= 0 × 10 + × a × (10)2 α A
in
2 gs
s1 = 50 a … (i) s B s/4 g g cos α
According to second condition, distance travelled by the /4
particle in next 10 s (t2 ) = s2 3s
1 1
i.e., s2 = vt2 + at22 = v × 10 + × a × 102 α
2 2 O
s2 = 10 v + 50 a … (ii) s
where, v is the velocity of particle after t1 = 10 s. AB =
4
Now, v = u + at1 = 0 + a × 10 3s
⇒ v = 10 a … (iii) BO =
4
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get s
Time taken to cover distance,
s2 = 10 × 10 a + 50 a 4
s2 = 150 a t1 = 2 s
= 3 × 50a ∴From second equation of motion,
= 3 s1 [from Eq. (i)] s 1
= 0 × t1 + g sinα (t12 )
⇒ s2 = 3 s1 4 2
s 1
= 0 + g sinα(2)2
108. Two planets of radii r1 and r2 are made from the 4 2
same material having same density. The ratio of ⇒ s = 8 g sinα … (i)
acceleration due to gravity g1 / g2 at the surfaces of Velocity of body at point B is given as
the planets is v = 0 × t + g sinα ⋅ t1 = gsinα ⋅ 2
(a) r1 / r2 (b) r2 / r1 (c) (r1 / r2 )2 (d) (r2 / r1 )2 v = 2 g sinα … (ii)
3s
l (d) Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet is If t2 be the time to cover distance , then by second
4
given as
equation of motion,
GM
g= 2 3s 1
r = vt2 + g sinα (t2 )2
4 2
1 3 1
i.e., g∝ 2 ⇒ × 8 g sinα = 2 g sinα(t2 ) + g sinα (t2 )2
r 4 2
2
⇒ 12 = 4t2 + t2 2

g1  r2  ⇒ t22 + 4t2 − 12 = 0
⇒ = 
g2  r1  t22 + 6t2 − 2t2 − 12 = 0
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 15
⇒ t2 (t2 + 6) − 2(t2 + 6) = 0 V100 = V = 5 V
⇒ (t2 + 6) (t2 − 2) = 0 V 5 1
∴ I1 = = = A
As, t2 ≠ − 6, 100 100 20
∴ t2 − 2 = 0 ⇒ t2 = 2 s 1
⇒ I1 = A … (i)
20
111. When four equal resistors are connected in series V 5
Similarly, I2 = = A … (ii)
with a battery, they dissipate power of R R
10W. The power dissipated through any of them, if where, R is the resistance of voltmeter.
connected across the same battery will be ∴Equivalent resistance of the circuit,
(a) 40 W (b) 10/3 W (c) 90 W (d) 10 W R′ = R ||100 + 50
l (a) Total dissipated power, P = 10 W R′ =
100 R
+ 50
If R be the resistance of each resistor, then equivalent 100 + R
resistance in series combination, 150 R + 5000
=
R′ = R + R + R + R 100 + R
⇒ R′ = 4 R 10
∴ I = I1 + I2 =
V2 V2 R′
∴ Power, P = ⇒10 =
R′ 4R ⇒
1 5
+ =
10
⇒ V 2 = 40 R … (i) 20 R 150 R + 5000
Power dissipated through one resistor, 100 + R
V 2 40R R + 100 10(100 + R)
P1 = = = 40 W =
R R 20 R 150 R + 5000
1 10
112. An electron is moving with velocity v in a uniform ⇒ =
20 R 150 R + 5000
magnetic field B. The magnetic force experienced by
the electron is ⇒ 150 R + 5000 = 200 R
(a) always zero ⇒ 50 R = 5000 ⇒ R = 100 Ω
(b) never zero 114. Which of the following contain seven molecules of
(c) zero, if v is perpendicular to B water of crystallisation?
(d) zero, if v is parallel to B (a) Epsom salt (b) Green vitriol
l (d) Magnetic force on electron (of charge e) moving with (c) Blue vitriol (d) White vitriol
velocity v in magnetic field B, l (a,b,d) Green vitriol epsom salt and white vitriol contain
F = Bev sinθ seven, molecules of water of crystallisation. The chemical
When θ = 00 i.e., v is parallel to B, then sin0 ° = 0 formula for green vitriol is FeSO4 ⋅ 7H2 O. Epsom salt is
∴ F=0 MgSO4 ⋅ 7H2 O and white vitriol is ZnSO4.7H2O Green
Hence, magnetic force experienced by the electron is zero vitriol is CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O and it contains five water of
if v is parallel to B i.e., θ = 0 ° . crystallisation.

113. In the given circuit, the voltmeter reads 5V. The 115. Which elements are used for galvanisation?
resistance of the voltmeter (in Ohm) is (a) Zn and Sn (b) Na and K
(c) Cu and Fe (d) Ca and Mg
V 50Ω l (a) Zinc(Zn) and tin (Sn) are used for galvanisation. It is a
process of applying a protective zinc or tin coating on iron
100Ω to prevent rusting.
10 V 116. Ramesh dropped a metal piece ‘A’ in the solution of
another metal ‘M’. After some time, a new colourless
compound ‘N’ is formed. A, M, N respectively can be
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 10 (d) 50
(a) Mg, NaCI, MgCl 2
l (b) Reading of voltmeter, V = 5 V (b) Fe, ZnSO 4 , FeSO 4
100 Ω resistor is connected in parallel with voltmeter. (c) Zn, CuSO 4 , ZnSO 4
I2
V (d) Cu, ZnSO 4 , CuSO 4
50 Ω
l (c) Metal piece ‘A’ is Zn and solution of metal ‘M’ is CuSO4
I1 100 Ω
and the new colourless compound ‘N’ formed is ZnSO4 .
Complete reaction is as follows:
Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(A) ( M) ( N)

As Zn is more reactive than copper, displacement reaction

10 V will take place.
Hence, voltage across 100 Ω resistor,
16 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

117. Which fuel has highest calorific value? 122. Benzene(C 6H 6) have
(a) LPG (b) Petrol (c) CNG (d) Hydrogen (a) 12 covalent bonds (b) 15 covalent bonds
l (d) Hydrogen has highest calorific value. It is defined as (c) 18 covalent bonds (d) 9 covalent bonds
the quantity of heat produced by its combustion conditions l (b) Benzene have three double bonds and nine single
at normal temperature. The calorific value of LPG is 55000 bonds. Therefore, in total there are 15 covalent bonds.
kJ/kg and CNG is 50,000 kJ/kg. For hydrogen, value is
H
150000 kJ/kg.
H H
118. The pH of acid rain is
(a) less than 5.6 (b) more than 5.6 H H
(c) equal to 5.6 (d) more than 6.6
H
l (a) The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6. It results when SO2
(sulphur dioxide) and NOX (nitrogen oxides) are emitted 123. 1.0 kg of iron(Fe), having atomic mass equal to
into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air 56 g mol −1 contains
currents. On reaction with water, SO2 and NOX forms (a) 2.88 × 1024 atoms (b) 6.93 × 1023 atoms
sulphuric and nitric acids that drops pH less than 5.6.
(c) 6.93 × 10 atoms
21
(d) 1075
. × 1025 atoms
119. IUPAC name of the following compound will be l (d) 1 mol = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
O Given mass 1000 g
 Number of moles 1 kg of Fe = = = 17.85
CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  COOH Molar mass 56 g
(a) 2-keto hexan - 6-oic acid So, 1.0 kg of Fe contains = 17.85 × 6.022 × 1023
(b) 5 - keto hexanoic acid = 1075
. × 1025 atoms
(c) methyl ketone butanoic acid 124. Aqueous solution of CsO 2 is
(d) 5 - aldo hexanoic acid
(a) basic (b) neutral (c) acidic (d) amphoteric
l (b) The IUPAC name of given compound is
O l (a) Alkaline solution of CsO2 is basic. CsO2 contain more
 oxygen than the corresponding basic oxide. In aqueous
6 5 4 3 2 1 solution, it is basic in nature.
CH3 C CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH ← Principal chain
5-keto hexanoic acid. Here, keto group is a secondary 125. A student added a drop of universal indicator to
functional group and COOH is a primary functional 1.00 mL of given solution and found that a green
group. colour is produced. The pH value of the solution
will be
120. Products obtained on electrolysis of brine are
(a) 7-9 (b) 0-3 (c) 10-12 (d) 4-6
(a) NaHCO 3 , H2 , Cl 2 (b) H2 , NaOH, NaHCO 3
(c) Cl 2 , NaOH, Na 2O 2 (d) NaOH, H2 , Cl 2 l (a) The pH value of the solution will be 7-9. Colour
produced is green and hence, the range lies above 7 but
l (d) Products obtained on electrolysis of brine are NaOH, below 10. The pH in 7-9 range is a neutral solution.
H 2 and Cl 2 . Chemical reaction occur at anode and cathode
are as follows. 126. Elements present in any group have the same
At cathode NaCl → Na+ + Cl − number of
Na + e− → Na
+
(a) valence electrons (b) neutrons
2Na + 2H2 O → 2NaOH + H2 (g) (c) protons (d) None of these
At anode Cl − → Cl + e− l (a) Elements present in any group have the same number
Cl + Cl → Cl2 of valence electrons.
e.g. In group 1 of periodic table,
121. In balanced chemical equation
Li(3) = 2 ,1
aKMnO 4 + bH 2SO 4 → Na(11) = 2, 8, 1
cK 2SO 4 + dMnSO 4 + eH 2O + f[O]
127. Which of the following reactions takes place during
Which of the following alternative are correct? breakdown of molecules in the respiration in our
(a) a = 2, b = 3, c = 1, d = 2, e = 3, f = 5 body?
(b) a = 1, b = 2, c = 1, d = 3, e = 2, f = 3 (a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) a = 2, b = 3, c = 2, d = 3, e = 2, f = 5 (c) Oxidation-reduction (d) Photo-oxidation
(d) a = 3, b = 1, c = 3, d = 3, e = 1, f = 3
l (a) Respiration is an oxidative process in which respiratory
l (a) In the given chemical equation, substrates are oxidised to liberate energy inside the living
a = 2, b = 3, c = 1, d = 2, e = 3, f = 5 cells. The common respiratory substrates are
Complete reaction is as follows : carbohydrates, proteins, fats and organic acids. The most
2KMnO4 + 3H 2 SO4 → K 2 SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 3H 2 O + 5[O] common respiratory molecule/substrate is glucose.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)
128. Lactic acid is produced when pyruvate is broken
down
(a) in the presence of oxygen in mitochondria
(b) in the absence of oxygen in mitochondria
(c) in the presence of oxygen in muscle cells
(d) in the absence of oxygen in muscle cells
l (d) Lactic acid is produced when pyruvate is broken down
under anaerobic conditions i.e. in the absence of oxygen in
some fungi and muscle cells of our body.
129. Separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
I. Fulfils energy requirement of the body
II. Ensures the efficient transfer of oxygen in the body
(a) Both statements are true
(b) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(c) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(d) Both the statements are false
l (a) Both statements are true. Separation of oxygenated
and deoxygenated blood, helps to ensure efficient transfer
of oxygen in the body cells via blood. It is thus help in
fulfilling the energy requirement of organisms with higher
metabolic rate.
130. Root pressure is effective way of transporting water
in xylem. This pressure is generated
(a) in bright sunlight (b) during night
(c) at very low temperature (d) in high trees
l (b) Root pressure is a positive pressure that develops in
the xylem sap of the root of some plants and is a
manifestation of active water absorption. It helps in
pushing up water to small heights in the stem. It is absent
under conditions like low temperature, bright light,
reduced oxygen in the atmosphere, etc. Effects of root
pressure is observable during night and early morning
when evaporation is low and excess water collects in the
form of droplets around special openings of veins near the
tip of grass blades and leaves of many herbaceous plants.
131. Choose the correct option to complete ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’
and ‘D’ in the following table.
Hormones Functions
A Stimulates growth in all organs
B Stimulates pituitary to release Growth hormone
C Controls blood sugar level
D Regulates carbohydrate metabolism
(a) A - Insulin, B - Thyroxine, C - Growth hormone, D - Growth
hormone release factor
(b) A - Growth hormone, B - Insulin, C - Thyroxine, D - Growth
hormone release factor
(c) A - Thyroxine, B - Insulin, C - Growth hormone, D - Growth
hormone release factor
(d) A - Growth hormone, B - Growth hormone release factor,
C - Insulin, D - Thyroxine
l (d) The correct matches are as follows
A. Growth hormone Stimulates growth in all organs
B. Growth hormone Stimulates ipituitary to release
release factor growth hormone
C. Insulin Controls blood sugar level
D. Thyroxine Regulates carbohydrate metabolism
17
132. If a pea plant with wrinkled seeds and heterozygous
tall plants were self-pollinated, what will be the
phenotypes of plants of F2 generation?
(a) 75% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds and other
25% will be dwarf with wrinkled seeds
(b) 50% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds and other
50% will be dwarf with wrinkled seeds
(c) 50% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds and other
50% will be dwarf with round seeds
(d) 25% plants will be tall and have wrinkled seeds and other
75% will be dwarf with wrinkled seeds
l (a) Pea plant with wrinkled seeds and heterozygous for
tallness is Ttww
Ttww X Ttww Selfing
Tw tw Tw tw Gametes
+ Tw tw
Tw TTww Ttww
tw Ttww ttww
TTww, Ttww — Tall with wrinkled seeds
ttww — Dwarf with wrinkled seeds
Thus, phenotypes of plants of F2 -generation will give 75%
tall plants with wrinkled seeds and other 25% plants dwarf
with wrinkled seeds.
133. Two similar pea plants are growing in two different
islands separated by a vast ocean. The phenomenon
of geographical isolation will
(a) not be seen as the plants get self-pollinated
(b) be seen as the plants are growing in isolated regions
(c) not be seen as the plants get pollinated by ocean water
currents
(d) be seen as the plants do not get pollinated and
reproduces asexually
l (b) Two similar pea plants are growing in two different
islands separated by a vast ocean. Here the phenomenon
of geographical isolation will be seen as the plants are
growing in isolated regions. The separation of two
populations of the same species by a physical barrier such
as mountain or body of water ultimately lead to
geographical isolation which lead to the population
becoming separate species by adaptive radiation.
134. DDT is non-biodegradable chemical when it enters
food chain, it gets accumulated in each tropical
level. The phenomenon is called as
(a) eutrophication (b) chemical amplification
(c) biomagnification (d) chemical magnification
l (c) Biomagnification is the phenomenon through which
certain pollutants, such as pesticide, runoff, gets
accumulated in tissues in an increasing concentration along
the food chains and produce fatal effect. Non-biodegradable
chemical like DDT enters the food chain and gets
accumulated in each level via biomagnification.
135. Presence of ………… is an indicator of pollution
level in water.
(a) colour (b) coliform bacteria
(c) rhizo bacteria (d) spiral bacteria
18 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

l (b) Presence of coliform bacteria is an indicator of l (a) Here, draw QP || RB

pollution level in water. ∴In ∆DPB;∠DPB = 90 °
136. Leaves of tendu are the source of income of large D C
number of people of India. These leaves are used to R
make 6c
m
(a) thatched roofs (b) bidis 8cm
Q 10
(c) leaf plates (d) teeth cleaning agent cm

l (b) Leaves of tendu are the source of income of large

10
cm
number of people in India. These leaves are used for
wrapping the tobacco and making ‘bidis’ or Indian cigar. B
A
137. Maximum number of trophic levels supported in
any ecosystem is P
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
DB2 = DP2 + PB2 (by Pythagoras theorem)
l (d) Maximum number of trophic levels supported in any ⇒ DB2 = (16)2 + (8)2
ecosystem is four. This is because only 10% energy is
= 256 + 64 = 320
transferred to next trophic level in a food, therefore if
trophic levels are more, not much of the energy will be left ⇒ DB = 8 5 = Diagonal of square ABCD
for higher trophic level. 8 5
∴Side of square = cm
2
138. The correct sequence of reflex arc is 2
(a) Receptor → Motor neuron → Sensory neuron → Effector  8 5  64 × 5
∴Area of square =   = = 32 × 5 = 160 m2
organ → Relay neuron  2  2
(b) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Effector
organ → Relay neuron 142. If (2 x − 4)3 + (4 x − 2)3 = (4 x + 2 x − 6)3 , then the sum of
(c) Receptor Sensory Neuron → Motor neuron → Relay neuron all real values of x is
→ Effector organ (a) 0.5 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.5 (d) 3.5
(d) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Relay neuron → Motor
neuron → Effector organ l (d) Let 2x − 4 = a

l (c) The correct sequence of reflex arc is and 4x − 2 = b

Receptor → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Relay We have,
neuron → Effector organ (2 x − 4)3 + (4 x − 2)3 = (4 x + 2 x − 6)3
⇒ a3 + b3 = (a + b)3
139. Tricuspid valve is present in ⇒ a3 + b3 = a3 + b3 + 3 ab(a + b)
(a) right atria and right ventricle ⇒ ab(a + b) = 0
(b) left atria and left ventricle ⇒ ab = 0 or a + b = 0
(c) wall of atrium ⇒ a = 0 or b = 0 or a + b = 0
(d) wall of ventricle ⇒ 2x − 4 = 0
l (a) Tricuspid valve is present in between right auricle and ⇒ 2x = 4
right ventricle. ⇒ x =2
140. BCG vaccine provides protection against ⇒ 4x − 2 = 0
1
(a) measles (b) TB ⇒ x=
2
(c) cholera (d) small pox
Also, 4 x + 2 x − 6 = 0
l (b) BCG or Bacille Calmette-Guerin is a vaccine for ⇒ x =1
tuberculosis (TB) disease. ∴ Sum of all real values of x
1 7
141. Find the area of the square ABCD. = 2 + + 1 = = 3 ⋅5
2 2
D C
143. If 2019 x + 2019 − x = 3, then the value of
6 cm
20196 x − 2019 −6 x
8 cm is
2019 x − 2019 − x
10 cm (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12
l (d) Let a = 2019 x

1
A B ⇒ = 2019 − x
(a) 160 m 2 (b) 140 m 2 a
1
(c) 125 m 2 (d) 120 m 2 ∴ a+ =3
a
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 19
1 x y
⇒ a2 + + 2 =9 ⇒ + = −1
a2 y x
1 x − (x + y)
⇒ a2 + 2 =7 ⇒ =
a y x
1
⇒ a4 + 4 + 2 = 49 2
a x x2 + y2 + 2 xy
1 ∴   =
⇒ a4 + 4 + 1 = 48 … (i) y x2
a − xy + 2 xy
1 = [Qx2 + y2 = − xy]
−6x a6 − x2
2019 − 2019
6x
a6
∴ = xy y
2019 x − 2019 − x 1 = 2 =
a− x x
a 3
  x 2  x
3 3
x
3
  x 2 y 
 a2 − 1   a4 + 1 + 1 Now,     +   =   +   Q   =   
y
  
 a2   a4   y  y x y   y   x 
=   
a − 1
   y x   y2 x2 
 a =  +   2 + 2 − 1
 x y  x y 
[Q x3 − y3 = (x − y)(x2 + y2 + xy)]
[Qa3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 + b2 − ab]
 a + 1   a − 1   a4 + 1 + 1 Q
      + = − 1 
x y
 a  a  a4  
= y x
a − 1 = (− 1) (− 1 − 1)  2 2

   ⇒ x + y + 2 = 1
 a  
 y2 x2 
=  a + 1   a4 + 1 + 1
    =2
 a  a4 
= 3 × 48 = 144 = 12 (using Eq. (i)) 146. Let a, b and c are the roots of the polynomial
144. Let ‘p’ be a root of the equation x − 5 x + 7 = 0, then
2 equation x 3 − 597 x − 5236 = 0, then the value of
the area of circle with centre at (p, p) and passing ( a3 + b3 + c3 ) is
through point (1, 4) is (a) 597 (b) 15708
(a) 3π sq units (b) 5π sq units (c) 5236 (d) 10472
(c) 7π sq units (d) None of these l (b) We have, x3 − 597 x − 5236 = 0
l (a) Given, Here, a = − 11, b = − 17, c = 28
x2 − 5 x + 7 = 0 Since, a + b + c = (− 11) + (− 17) + 28 = 0
⇒ p2 − 5 p + 7 = 0 (since p is the root of the given equation) ∴ a3 + b3 + c3 = 3 abc
Now, radius (r) = (p − 1)2 + (p − 4)2 = 3(− 11) (− 17) (28) = 15708
= p2 + 1 − 2 p + p2 + 16 − 8 p 147. If cosec x + cot x = a, then the value of cos x is
= 2 p − 10 p + 17
2 1 a2 + 1
(a) a2 + (b)
a2 a2 − 1
= 2(p2 − 5 p) + 17
a −1
2
a2 + 1
= 2(−7) + 17 [Qp2 − 5 p + 7 = 0] (c) (d)
a +1
2
2a
= − 14 + 17 = 3
∴Area of circle = π( 3 )2 = 3 π sq units l (c) We have, cosec x + cot x = a
6 3 ⇒ cosec x = a − cot x
1 1 1  x  x ⇒ cosec2 x = a2 + cot2 x − 2 a cot x
145. If = + , then the value of   +   is
x+y x y  y  y ⇒ 1 + cot2 x = a2 + cot2 x − 2 a cot x
1 ⇒ 1 = a2 − 2 a cot x
(a) 0 (b) (c) 1 (d) 2 ⇒ 2 a cot x = a2 − 1
2 a2+1
a2 − 1 2a
l (d) We have, ⇒ cot x =
1 1 1 2a
= + a2 − 1 x
x+ y x y ∴ cos x = 2 a2–1
1 x+ y a +1
⇒ =
x+ y xy 148. In an AP 2, 5, 8, 11, ... 452, the mean of 15th, 16th,
⇒ (x + y)2 = xy 136th and 137th terms is
⇒ x2 + y2 + 2 xy = xy (a) 120 (b) 227
⇒ x2 + y2 = − xy (c) 220 (d) 454
20 NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)

l (b) Given, 152. The angles of a pentagon are in arithmetic

AP is 2, 5, 8, 11, … 452 progression. The sum of the smallest and largest
∴First term, a = 2 angle is
Common difference, d = 3 (a) 172° (b) 108° (c) 180° (d) 216°
∴ 15th term = a + 14 d = 2 + 14 × 3 = 44
16th term = a + 15 d = 47 l (d) Let angles of a pentagon which in AP are
136th = a + 135 d = 2 + 135 × 3 = 407 a − 2 d, a − d, a, a + d, a + 2 d
137th term = a + 136 d = 2 + 136 × 3 = 410 ∴ (a − 2 d) + (a − d) + a + (a + d) + (a + 2 d) = (5 − 2) × 180 °
∴ Mean of 15th, 16th, 136th and 137th terms ⇒ 5 a = 540 ° ⇒ a = 108 °
44 + 47 + 407 + 410 908 ∴Sum of the smallest and largest angles
= = = 227
4 4 = (a − 2 d) + (a + 2 d) = 2 a = 2 × 108 ° = 216 °
149. The minimum value of tan2 x + cot2 x is 153. If p − q = 20, then the maximum value of
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3  p − 5 q
tan2 x + cot2 x   is
l (c) ≥ (tan2 x ⋅ cot2 x)1 / 2  100 
2
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 25
⇒ tan2 x + cot2 x ≥ 2
l (a) We have,
150. If f( x ) = x 4 + ax 3 + bx 2 + cx + d is a polynomial such p − q = 20
that f(1) = 5, f(2) = 10, f(3) = 15, f(4) = 20, find the value ⇒ p = 20 + q
f(12) + f( −8) ⇒ p = 400 + q + 40 q
of .
100 Now,
(a) 198 (b) 198.4 p − 5 q (400 + q + 40 q) − 5 q
=
(c) 198.6 (d) 199.2 100 100
l (*) f(1) = 1 + a + b + c + d = 5 400 − 4 q + 40 q 100 − q + 10 q
= =
⇒ a+ b+ c + d = 4 ...(i) 100 100
f(2) = 16 + 8 a + 4 b + 2 c + d = 10 100 − (q − 10 q + 25 − 25)
=
⇒ 8 a + 4 b + 2 c + d = −6 ...(ii) 100
f(3) = 81 + 27 a + 9 b + 3 c + d = 15 100 − [( q − 5)2 − 25)]
=
⇒ 27 a + 9 b + 3 c + d = − 66 ...(iii) 25
and f(4) = 256 + 64 a + 16 b + 4 c + d = 20 100 + 25 − ( q − 5)2
⇒ 64 a + 16 b + 4 c + d = −236 ...(iv) =
25
On solving Eqs. (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv), we get p − 5 q 125
∴Maximum value of is =5
⇒ a = −10, b = 35, c = −45 and d = 24 100 25
∴ f(x) = x4 − 10 x3 + 35 x2 − 45 x + 24
Now, f(12) = (12)4 − 10(12)3 + 35(12)2 − 45 (12) + 24 = 7980
154. The area of trapezium ABCD, where AB = 52 cm,
and f(−8) = (−8)4 − 10 (−8)3 + 35(−8) − 45 (−8) + 24 = 11840 BC = 12 cm, CD = 39 cm and DA = 5 cm and
f (12) + f(−8) 7980 + 11840 AB|| CD, is
∴ =
100 100 D 39 cm C
19820
= = 198.20
100 5 cm 12 cm
So, given options not matched.

151. The product of two 2-digits numbers is 2160 and

their HCF is 12. Then, sum of the numbers is A 52 cm B
(a) 72 (b) 84 (a) 210 sq cm (b) 234 sq cm (c) 260 sq cm (d) 280 sq cm
(c) 96 (d) 60
l (a) Let a = 39, b = 52, c = 5, d = 12
l (c) Given, Then, a + b = 91
HCF = 12 and k = b − a = 52 − 39 = 13
∴ LCM =
2160
= 180 k + c + d 13 + 5 + 12 30
s= = = = 15
12 2 2 2
Now, ∴Area of trapezium
HCF × LCM = 12 × 180 a+ b
= s(s − k) (s − c) (s − d)
= 12 × (15 × 12) k
= 12 × 3 × 5 × 12 91
= 15(15 − 13) (15 − 5) (15 − 12)
= 36 × 60 13
∴Required numbers are 36 and 60. = 7 15 × 2 × 10 × 3 = 7 3 × 5 × 2 × 5 × 2 × 3
∴Sum of the numbers = 36 + 60 = 96. = 7 × 3 × 5 × 2 = 210 sq cm
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I) 21
155. The difference between area of a triangle of largest 158. Find the sum of all real values of x which satisfy
area inscribed in a circle of radius ‘r’ units and a 1 1 2
triangle of largest area inscribed in a semi-circle of + =
x 2 − 10 x − 45 x 2 − 10 x − 29 x 2 − 10 x − 69
radius ‘r’ units is
(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) − 3
 2 3 − 1 2  4 −2 3  2
(a)   r sq units (b)   r sq units
 4   4 
l (b) We have,
 3 3 + 4 2  3 3 − 4 2 1 1 2
(c)   r sq units (d)   r sq units + 2 = 2
 4   4  x − 10 x − 45 x − 10 x − 29 x − 10 x − 69
2

(d) Area of triangle of largest area inscribed in a 1 1

l ⇒ + 2
3 x − 10 x − 29 − 16 x − 10 x − 29
2

semi-circle with radius r is (3 r2 ). 2

4 = 2
And the area of the largest triangle inscribed in a x − 10 x − 29 − 40
semi-circle of radius r is r2 . Let x2 − 10 x − 29 = p
3 3 3  1 1 2
∴Difference of both area = (3 r2 ) − r2 = r2  − 1 ∴ + =
4  4  p − 16 p p − 40
3 3 − 4 p + p − 16 2
= r2  ⇒ =
 sq units. p(p − 16) p − 40
 4 
⇒ (p − 8) (p − 40) = p(p − 16)
156. If p, q, r and s are distinct prime numbers such that ⇒ p2 − 40 p − 8 p + 320 = p2 − 16 p
p + q + r = 72, p + r + s = 74, q + r + s = 89. The ⇒ − 48 p + 320 = − 16 p ⇒32 p = 320
largest of these p, q, r and s is ⇒ p = 10
(a) r = 53 (b) q = 53 (c) s = 53 (d) s = 49 ∴ x2 − 10 x − 29 = 10
l (a) Given, p, q, r and s are distinct prime numbers. ⇒ x2 − 10 x − 39 = 0 ⇒(x + 3) (x − 13) = 0
such that p + q + r = 72 ...(i) ⇒ x = − 3, 13
p + r + s = 74 ...(ii) ∴Required sum = − 3 + 13 = 10
q + r + s = 89 ...(iii) 1 3 3
In Eqs. (i) and (ii), p and r is common and sum in Eqs. (i) 159. If N = 3 4 + 3 2 + 1, then the value of 3
+ 2
+ is
and (ii) are even. N N N
∴atleast p or q is 2. (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 7 (d) 1
Now, putting p = 2 in Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
q + r = 70 ...(iv) l (d) We have,
and r + s = 72 ...(v) N = (4)1 / 3 + (2)1 / 3 + 1
On adding Eqs. (iv) and (v), we get ⇒ (N − 1) = (4)1 / 3 + (2)1 / 3
q + 2 r + s = 142 ⇒ (N − 1)3 = 4 + 2 + 3 ⋅ 41 / 3 ⋅ 21 / 3 (41 / 3 + 21 / 3 )
⇒ 2 r + (89 − r) = 142 [from (iii)] ⇒ N3 − 1 − 3 N(N − 1)
⇒ r = 142 − 89 = 53 = 6 + 3 ⋅ 22 / 3 ⋅ 21 / 3 (41 / 3 + 21 / 3 )
⇒ N3 − 1 − 3 N2 + 3 N = 6 + 6(41 / 3 + 21 / 3 )
157. In the given figure, the value of m is = 6(1 + 41 / 3 + 21 / 3 )
E(12, 25)
D A ⇒ N − 1 − 3N + 3N = 6N
3 2

⇒ N3 = 3 N2 + 3 N + 1 … (i)
15 1 3 3
Now, + 2 +
F N3 N N
m 1 + 3 N + 3 N2
C(12, 15) B(24, 15) ⇒
N3
N3
⇒ =1 [using Eq. (i)]
N3
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 12
160. In a class average height of all students is ‘p’ cm.
l (a) Here, ∆ CFE ~ ∆CED (by AA similarity criteria)
CF CE Among them, average height of 10 students is ‘q’ cm
⇒ = and the average height of the remaining students is
CE CD
⇒ CF × CD = (CE)2
‘r’ cm. The number of students in the class is
p(q − r ) q −r
⇒ m × (m + 15) = (10)2 (a) (b)
( p − r) p− r
⇒ m + 15 m − 100 = 0 ⇒ m2 + 20 m − 5 m − 100 = 0
2
q −r 10(q − r )
⇒ m(m + 20) − 5 (m + 20) = 0 ⇒ (m − 5)(m + 20) = 0 (c) (d)
10( p − r ) ( p − r)
⇒ m=5 (m ≠ −20)
22
l (d) Let number of students = x
According to the question,
Total height of class = px cm
Total height of 10 students = 10q cm
Total height of (x − 10) students = (x − 10)r cm
Now, total height of class = 10 q + (x − 10)r
⇒ px = 10 q + (x − 10)r
⇒ px = 10 q + xr − 10 r
⇒ (p − r)x = 10 q − 10 r = 10(q − r)
10(q − r)
⇒ x=
p−r
161. What are the National Colours of France?
(a) Blue, Green, Red (b) Green, White, Red
(c) Green, Yellow, Red (d) Blue, White, Red
l (d) The National Colours of France are Blue, White and
Red, representing the ideas of French Revolution liberty,
equality and fraternity. National colours are usually parts
of a country’s set of National Symbol. National Flags are
best examples of using National colours.
162. Which was not included in Lenin's April Theses?
(a) Formation of Duma
(b) Banks be Nationalised
(c) Land be transferred to peasants
(d) The war(First Warld War) be brought to an end
l (a) Vladimir Lenin’s April Theses does not included
formation of Duma. During Russian Revolution (1917),
Bolshevik leader Vladimir Lenin issued series of
10 directives to the government. These directives are
collectively known as April Theses.
It was given name AP April Theses because these
demands were made in the month of April. The main
directives of this Theses were bank to be nationalised, war
to be brought to a close, land transferred to peasant, etc.
163. Hitler assigned the responsibility of Economic
Recovery to
(a) Herbert Spancer (b) Hjalmar Schacht
(c) W Shirer (d) Robert Lay
l (b) Hitler assumed the office of Chancellor of Germany in
1933. Then, he focussed on the development of the country.
In this regard, he assigned the responsibility of Economic
Recovery to Hjalmar Schacht. He was also asked to take
measure to make Germany a self-reliant country.
164. Which of these had worked as indentured labourer?
(a) Shaukat Ali (b) Alluri Sita Ram Raju
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Baba Ramchandra
l (d) Baba Ramchandra had worked as indentured labourer.
He was born in 1875 in Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh). In the
1904, he was sent to Fiji as an indentured labourer. In Fiji,
he carried out movement to emancipate problems of
indentured labour. After returning to India, he started
movements for the welfare of farmers.
Under indenture system, Britishers transported labour in
their overseas colonies. It was a kind of slavery system.
165. Who wrote the Book ‘Hind Swaraj’?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose (b) J. L. Nehru
(c) Kamla Nehru (d) Mahatma Gandhi
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)
l (d) The book ‘Hind Swaraj’ was written by the Mahatma
Gandhi in the year 1909. It was written in Gujarati
language. It is the foundational text of Gandhian world
view. In 1910, the book was banned by Britishers.
Other Important Books
J.L. Nehru The Discovery of India, Glimpses of World
History
Subhas Chandra Bose The Indian Struggle, An Indian
Pilgrim
Kamla Nehru was the wife of J.L. Nehru (First P.M. of India)
166. Which country was known as ‘Siam’?
(a) England (b) Thailand (c) Holland (d) Swaziland
l (b) Thailand was known as ‘Siam’. The country was
renamed on 23rd June, 1939. It is situated in South-East
Asia and its capital is Bangkok. Its neighbours are
Myanmar, Combodia, Laos and Malaysia.
Some other important new and old names are
New Name Old Name
Kingdom of Eswatini Swaziland
Sri Lanka Ceylon
Iran Persia
France Gaul
167. Which of the following Prime Ministers constituted
‘Simon Commission’?
(a) Robert Walpole (b) Stanley Baldwin
(c) Ramsay MacDonald (d) Winston Churchil
l (b) Simon Commission was constituted in 1927 by the
British Prime Minister, Stanley Baldwin. It consisted of 7
members and not even a single member was Indian.
Its objectives were to analyse the working of the
Government of India Act, 1919 and to suggest further
reforms in the system of administration. The Indian
Statutory commission, Commonly referred to as the Simon
Commission after its Chairman Sir John Allsebrook Simon,
was sent to India in 1928 to study potential constitutional
reform.
168. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar formed the ‘Depressed Classes
Association’ in
(a) 1928 (b) 1929
(c) 1930 (d) 1931
l (c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar formed the ‘Depressed Classes
Association’ in 1930. The objective of setting up of this
association was to improve the condition of untouchables
and to end the caste system. He played prominent role in
improving the living condition of untouchables.
He played a key role in drafting of Indian Constitution
and because of which he is referred as ‘Father of Indian
Constitution’.
169. ‘Jeevitha Samaram’ is the autobiography of
(a) C. Kesavan (b) Saudamini (c) Mankojee (d) R. C. Dutt
l (a) ‘Jeevitha Samaram’ is an autobiography of C. Kesavan.
He was a freedom fighter, social reformer and Chief
Minister of erstwhile Travancore-Cochin (in Kerala)
province in 1950-52. Due to sudden death in 1969, he was
not able to complete third volume of his autobiography.
He was the founder member of the Sree Narayana
Dharma Paripalana Yogam (SNDP). He worked for
eradication of untouchability.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)
170. Who established the Vietnamese Communist Party?
(a) Phu So (b) Mao Zedong
(c) Ho Chi Minh (d) Phan Boi
l (c) Vietnamese Communist Party was established by
Ho Chi Minh on 3rd, February, 1930. It had played a
significant role in integration of North and South Vietnam
during Cold War era. Its current General Secretary is
Nguyen Phu Trong.
171. “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches
cold”, who remarked this?
(a) Mazzini (b) Metternich
(c) Gottfried (d) John Locke
l (b) Austrian Chancellor, Metternich had made famous
remark “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches
cold”. This remark means that the political development in
France spread quickly or impact the other countries of
Europe. For example, the French Revolution and the ideas
of liberty, equality and fraternity.
Guisseppe Mazzinihas played an instrumental role in
unification of Italy.
Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz (Germany)and John Locke
(England) are famous philosophers.
172. Which one of the following is the main cause of land
degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Over grazing
l (c) The main cause of land degradation in Punjab is over
irrigation. Due to plenty of water availibility, the farmers
over irrigate their fields which results in water logging.
This logging increases salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
Land degradation reduces the fertility of the soil.
Deforestation, overgrazing and intensive cultivation are
also responsible for land degradation.
173. Traditional rainwater harvesting is called in
Rajasthan
(a) Tank (b) Taanka (c) Pond (d) Lake
l (b) In Rajasthan, traditional rainwater harvesting is called
Taanka or Kunds. This method of water harvesting is
common in Thar desert region of the state. A taanka is
madeup of covered, underground and impermeable
reservoir to collect rainwater. It is meant to provide
drinking water for a family or a small group of Families.
174. Which of the following states has most Sugar Mills
in India?
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab
(c) Maharashtra (d) Bihar
l (c) Among the given options, Maharashtra has most Sugar
Mills in India. Maharashtra is one of the leading
producers of sugar and sugarcane in the country. The
major centres in state are Nasik, Pune, Satara, Kolhapur
and Sengli.
Haryana, Punjab and Bihar also contribute in production
of sugar. Uttar Pradesh is the leading sugarcane and sugar
producing state in the country.
23
175. In which industry, Bauxite is used as a raw material?
(a) Steel (b) Cement
(c) Aluminium (d) Jute
l (c) Bauxite is used as a raw material in the Aluminium
industry. It is an ore of Aluminium. It is primarily
comprised of Aluminium Oxide, Silica, Iron Oxide and
Titanium Dioxide. It is mainly found in the laterite soil. It
is most commonly found in tropical or sub-tropical regions.
176. Rooftop rainwater harvesting is the most common
practice in which of the following cities?
(a) Shillong (b) Imphal
(c) Guwahati (d) Patna
l (a) Rooftop rainwater harvesting is the most common
practice in Shillong, capital city of Meghalaya. Shillong
receives sufficient rainfall but due to mountainous terrain,
water drains into streams. To ensure availability of water,
nearly every household in the city has a rooftop rainwater
harvesting system.
177. Which of the following groups constitute the basic
rock form?
(a) Sandy, Igneous, Metamorphic
(b) Igneous, Sedimentary, Metamorphic
(c) Lignite, Volcanic, Sedimentary
(d) Sandy, Volcanic, Igneous
l (b) The basic rock form consists of igneous, sedimentary
and metamorphic rocks. A basic unit of Earth’s crust is
referred as a rock.
Igneous Rock These rocks are formed when lava (molten
rock matter) cools down and gets harden. Magma is
erupted from volcano and it is known as lava on Earth
surface.
Sedimentary Rock These rocks are formed by
accumulation of land, shells and other fragments of
material. These rocks are also known as secondary rocks.
Metamorphic Rock These rocks are formed under the
surface of Earth when rock faces intense heat and process.
This process of change is called metamorphosis.
178. Mango showers occur in which one of the following
group of two states?
(a) Bihar and West Bengal
(b) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka and Kerala
(d) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
l (c) Pre-monsoon showers are also called Mango Showers in
the state of Karnataka, Kerala, Konkan and Goa.
Pre-monsoon showers are given this title because they help
in the ripening of mangoes. This showers also prevent
mangoes from dropping pre-maturely (unriped) from trees.
179. Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Odisha
(c) Rajasthan (d) Tripura
l (b) Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Odisha. It is an
imaginary line at 23.50° North of the equator. It passes
through 8 Indian states which includes Rajasthan, Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal,
Tripura and Mizoram.
24
180. AMUL Milk Scheme is an example of which type of
industry?
(a) Basic Industry (b) Agro-Based Industry
(c) Joint Industry (d) Co-operative Industry
l (d) AMUL Milk Scheme is an example of Co-operative
Industry. It was established in 1946 as a Co-operative
industry in the Kaira district of Gujarat. Co-operative
industries are owned and operated by the producers or
suppliers of raw materials, workers or both. The main
objective of such industries is to reduce exploitation by
middlemen and increase profit level.
181. Which one of the figures represents the working age
group of the population?
(a) 15 - 65 years (b) 15 - 66 years
185. In 44th Amendment, which Fundamental Right has
(c) 15 - 59 years (d) 15 - 64 years
l (d) ‘15-64 years’ represents the working age group of the
population. People belonging to this age group owing to
enhanced their neurological capacity and physical
strength and are capable of doing many types of jobs. The
people younger than 15 or older than 64 are considered as
dependents. According to the World Bank Report, Age
Dependency Ratio (% of working age population) in India
stood at 46-25% in 2019.
182. Chemical Industries are usually located near
(a) Iron and Steel Industries (b) Thermal Power Plant
(c) Oil Refineries (d) Automobile Industry
l (c) Chemical industries are usually located near Oil
Refineries. These chemical industries get their raw
materials from by-products of mineral oil which is
processed and refined at oil refineries. These industries
are further divided into those producing inorganic
chemicals such as sulphuric acid, nitric acid, soda ash,
etc., and organic chemical which utilizes petro-chemicals
for manufacturing synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber,
plastic, dye-stuffs, etc.
186. Which of the following statements is correct?
183. BAMCEF means
(a) Backward and Minority Community Employees Federation
(b) Backward and Mining Community Employees Federation
(c) Backward and Majority Community Employees Federation
(d) Backward and Malabar Coastal Employees Federation
l (a) BAMCEF is the abbreviation of an organisation known
as ‘The all India Backward and Minority community
Employees Federation.’ It was established in 1971 by
Kashi Ram, D. K. Khaparde and Dinabhana. The main
objective of BAMCEF is to fight the entrenched system of
inequality that divides Indian Society and to abolish the
caste system. It works as a pressure group to further the
cause of social justice in the country. Waman Meshram is
the National President of BAMCEF (August, 2020).
184. General Elections are called as
(a) on death of any member
(b) election before specific time in the whole country and states
(c) on completing of five years
(d) empty seat due to any reason
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)
l (c) General Elections are called as on completing of five
years. In India, members of House of the People (Lok
Sabha) and members of State Legislative Assembly are
elected after every five years or even earlier if body is
dissolved by the President and Governor, respectively.
These members are elected directly by voting from a set of
candidates who stands in their respective constituencies.
Every adult citizen of India can vote only in their
constituency.
Bye-Election also called as By Poll is held to fill a vacant
electorate seat which may arise due to the death,
resignation or due to any other reasons such as
disqualification. The member elected by a bye-election
will have a term of office equal to the remaining tenure of
preceding member.
been removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Freedom to Speech
(b) Freedom to Make Groups
(c) Right to Work
(d) Right to Property
l (d) In 44th Amendment, Right to Property has been
removed from the list of Fundamental Rights. Previously, it
was part of Fundamental Right under Article 31 in Part
111 of the Constitution. After 44th Amendment Act, 1978,
it was abolished and made a Constitutional Right under
Article 300A. This Article states that no person can be
deprived of his/her property except by authority of law.
Freedom of Speech and Expression is a Fundamental
Right under Article 19 of the Constitution.
Freedom to Make Groups (Association) is also a
Fundamental Right under Article 19 of the Constitution.
Right to Work is a directive given to the State under
Article 41 in Part IV of the Constitution, which deals with
Directive Principles of State Policies.
(a) Union List – 66 Subjects; State List – 97 subjects;
Concurrent List – 47 Subjects
(b) Union List – 47 Subjects; State List – 97 Subjects;
Concurrent List – 66 Subjects
(c) Union List – 97 Subjects; State List – 47 Subjects;
Concurrent List – 66 Subjects
(d) Union List – 97 Subjects; State List – 66 Subjects;
Concurrent List – 47 Subjects
l (d) Union List– 97 Subjects, State List–66 Subjects,
Concurrent List–47 Subjects is correct. It is provided in
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution which defines and
specifies allocation of powers and functions between
Union and States. In case of Union List, Centre has
exclusive powers to make law. State Legislative under
normal circumstances has exclusive power to make laws
on subject enumerated in State List. While in case of
Concurrent List, both Central and State Governments can
make laws, however, in case of any conflict, the law made
by the Central Government prevails.
At present (August, 2020), Union List contains 100
Subjects, State List contains 61 Subjects and Concurrent
List contains 52 Subjects.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)
187. A person who is not a member of any House of
Parliament, if he is appointed as Minister, he has to
get elected to the one of the House of Parliament
within
(a) a month
(b) six months
(c) three months
(d) stipulated time is fixedly the President
l (b) A person who is not a member of any House of
Parliament, if he is appointed as Minister, he has to get
elected to one of the House of Parliament within six
months. The Articles 75(5) and 64(d) for Union and States,
provide that any non-member of the House can remain
Minister for the period of six consecutive months. After
that he is disqualified to be a Minister as well as Member
of the House. Thus, in order to remain as Minister, he/she
has to get elected to one of the House of Parliament within
six months.
188. Why is “Power Sharing” regarded as good?
(a) Reduces poverty
(b) Provides employment
(c) Maximizes wealth
(d) Reduces social conflict
l (d) Power sharing is regarded as good because it reduces
social conflict. The term ‘power sharing’ means any policy
agreed between political parties, voluntary organisations
and social groups to share responsibility for
decision-making and political action. It gives people the
right to be consulted on how they should be governed and
all the citizens tend to have the same political and legal
rights. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict
between the social groups by giving equitable positions to
all of them.
189. Main feature of ‘Pressure Groups’ is
(a) Direct control on political power
(b) Try to influence the politics of government
(c) Lax organisation
(d) Direct participation in political powers
l (b) The main feature of ‘Pressure Groups’ is that they try to
influence the politics of government. A pressure group is a
type of voluntary association of people who is organised
actively for promoting and defending its common interest.
They try to influence the politics of government through
legal and legitimate means such as lobbying,
correspondence, publicity, petitioning, public debating,
etc. Examples of pressure groups from India are
Associated Chamber of Commerce (ASSOCHAM), All
India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), Bhartiya Kisan
Sangh, etc.
190. Among the following, which is/are the main aim(s)
of starting Civil Rights Movement in America?
(a) Adult franchise
(b) Vote to right for women
(c) Abolishing social discrimination
(d) Fan direct election of Congress
25
l (c) The main aim of Civil Rights Movement in America
was to abolish social discrimination. The Civil Rights
Movement was launched in America between 1954 and
1968 to abolish social discriminations suffered by Afro
American Communities. They were subjected to racial
discrimination both at public and private places. It
resulted into the passage of Civil Rights Act, 1964 which
banned social discrimination in employment and public
accommodations.
191. President can declare emergency if
(a) Prime Minister advises him to do so
(b) Parliament advises him to declare emergency
(c) the Council of Minister, in writing, advises him to do so
(d) Home Minister asks him to do so
l (c) President can declare emergency when the Council of
Minister, in writing, advises him to do so. This safeguard
was provided through 44th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1978. Earlier, President of India was empowered to
declare emergency on the advice of Prime Minister only.
The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies viz.
National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency
(Article 356)and Financial Emergency (Article 360).
192. Amnesty International is an international
organisation which works for
(a) Work Peace (b) Justice
(c) Restoration of democracy (d) Human Rights
l (d) Amnesty International is an international organisation
which works for Human Rights. Amnesty International
was founded in London in 1961. Amnesty International is
a global movement of more than 7 million people who take
injustice personally. It works for six key areas, namely
abolishing torture and death penalty, promotes rights of
refugees and prisoners and protection of rights of women,
children, minorities and indigenous people besides
protection of human dignity.
193. In which year, ‘Universal Adult Franchise’ was
implemented in India?
(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1919 (d)1935
l (b) In 1950, ‘Universal Adult Franchise’ was implemented
in India. After implementation of Constitution of India on
16th January, 2020, Universal Adult Franchise was
granted to all eligible citizens of India. Universal Adult
Franchise means the right to vote to every adult of the
country. Article 326 of the Constitution provides for
Universal Adult Franchise.
194. In which year, Consumer Protection Act was enacted?
(a) 1986 (b) 1988 (c) 1985 (d) 1987
l (a) The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in the year
1986. The basic objective of this act was to protect the
consumers from unfair trade practices, defects in goods
and deficiencies in services. It provided six rights to
consumers namely-Right to be Protected, Right to be
Informed, Right to be Assured, Right to Heard, Right to
Seek Redressal and Right to Consumer Education.
This act was replaced by Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
26
195. Which among the following is considered to be most
liquid asset?
(a) Gold (b) Demand deposits
(c) Land (d) Money
l (d) Money is considered to be most liquid asset. A liquid
asset is an asset that can easily be converted into cash in a
short amount of time. Because of ease of transaction,
storage and interoperability among various financial
products, money is considered as most liquid asset.
Demand deposit is also considered as a liquid asset
because it can easily be redeemed for cash.
Gold is also considered as liquid asset as it can be easily
exchanged for cash.
Land is considered as a non-liquid asset because it can
take months for a person or company to receive cash from
the sale.
196. Food security is ensured in a country, only if
(a) enough food is available for all the persons
(b) all persons have the capacity to buy food of acceptable
quality
(c) there is no barrier on access to food
(d) All of the above
l (d) Food security is the state of having reliable assess to
sufficient quantity of affordable and nutritious food. Food
security is ensured in a country only if enough food is
available for all the persons. All persons have the capacity
to buy food of acceptable quality and there is no barrier on
access to food. Hence, all the options are correct.
197. The headquarters of World Trade Organisation is
situated in
(a) New York (b) China (c) Japan (d) Geneva
l (d) The headquarters of World Trade Organisation is
situated in Geneva. World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an
inter-governmental organisation that is concerned with the
regulation of international trade between nations. The
WTO is the only global international organisation dealing
with the rules of trade between nations. It was formed in
1995. As of now (August, 2020), 164 countries including
India are its members. Robert Azevedo is the current
Director General of the World Trade Organisation.
NTSE ~ SOLVED PAPER 2020 (Stage I)
198. Under National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
(2005), how many days of work are guaranteed in a
year?
(a) 80 days (b) 100 days
(c) 200 days (d) 300 days
l (b) The mandate of tha MGNREGA is to provide at least
100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial
year to every rural household whose adult members
volunteer to do unskilled manual work. This Act aims to
enhance livelihood and security in rural areas by
providing guaranteed wage employment to every
household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled
manual work. It is implemented mainly by Gram
Panchayat.
199. Who is the founder of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh?
(a) Abdul Rehman
(b) M. Yunus
(c) Mujibur Rehman
(d) Amartya Sen
l (b) Muhammad Yunus is the founder of Grameen Bank of
Bangladesh. He established first Grameen Bank in
Bangladesh in 1983. His objective was to help poor people
escape from poverty by providing loans on terms suitable
to them. He was awarded with Nobel Peace Prize in 2006
for founding Grameen Bank and pioneering the movement
for micro-finance and micro-credit.
200. In which of the following states of India, the use of
chemical fertilizer is highest?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Himachal Pradesh
l (a) In Punjab, the use of chemical fertilizer is highest. Due
to intensive agriculture and general prosperity of farmers
amid the backdrop of Green Revolution, the per capita
consumption of fertilizers is highest in the state. It is
followed by Haryana and West Bengal. Among the types of
fertilizers, Urea is widely used by the Indian farmers.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 1

NTSE Solved Paper

NATIONAL TALENT
SEARCH
EXAMINATION
2019 (Stage II)

INSTRUCTIONS
This solved paper consists of two papers. Paper I consists of Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Paper II consists of
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT).
MAT covering (Q. Nos. 1-50) of Maths and (Q. Nos. 51-100) of Reasoning.
SAT consists of (Science, Mathematics and Social Science) which comprises 100 questions (40 Science, 20 Mathematics
and 40 Social Science).
There will be no negative marking.
Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.

Time : 240 Minutes Max. Mark : 200

Paper I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

1. If p l (b) A B
D E
 +  = 10 C G
F H
 + ~ + ~ = 10
 ´ ~ –δ =5 I J

Then, the value of D will be ……… . K L

M
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 5 (d) 7.5
l (a) According to the given information, N O P Q
 +  = 10 Total parallelograms are
2 = 10 Þ  =5 ABEC, CEHF, CDGF, DEHG, ABHF, FGLK, GHML,
 + ~+ ~ = 10 FHMK, IGJL, GHLK, FGML, GHPO, LMPO, CDML,
5 + 2 ~ = 10 KMQN = 15
2 ~ = 5 Þ ~ = 2.5 3. A newspaper has 6 sheets consisting of 24 page in
 ´ ~– D ´ =5 total. If page number 17 of that newspaper is
5 ´ 2.5 - D ´ 5 = 5 missing, then find the set of missing pages in that
5(2.5 - D) = 5 newspaper, from the alternatives given below
2.5 - D = 1 Þ D = 1.5 (a) 6, 7, 16, 17 (b) 7, 8, 17, 18 (c) 8, 9, 17, 18 (d) 9, 10, 16, 17
l (b) Newspaper has 6 sheets and 24 pages.
2. How many parallelograms are there in the given Þ Each sheet has 4 pages.
figure?
Þ Group of papers are (1,2, 23, 24)
(3, 4, 21, 22)
(5, 6, 19, 20)
(7, 8, 17, 18)
(9, 10, 15, 16)
(11, 12, 13, 14)
(a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 Hence, set of (7, 8, 17, 18) pages is missing.
2 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

4. The given figure in the question has five squares 7. The opposite faces of Dice X are [(5, 2), (6, 3), (4, 1)]
and four equilateral triangles. Two squares and two The opposite faces of Dice Y are [(3, 5), (4, 1), (6, 2)]
triangles are shaded. The figure is folded along the Which figure can represent both Dice X and Dice Y
dividing lines the squares by 90° and triangle by 45° with faces shown below?
so as to form a close three, dimensional object. The 4 4 4 4
object is then placed with its apex pointing towards 2 5 3 6
6 3 2 3
your left. Which one among the figures given in the
alternatives can be seen? A B C D
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
l (c) In dice X 5 « 2, 6 « 3, 4 « 1
In dice Y 3 « 5, 4 « 1, 6 « 2
In figure (A), 6 and 2 cannot be adjacent to each other
according to dice Y.
(a) (b) (c) (d) In figure (B), 3 and 5 cannot be adjacent to each other,
. according to dice Y.
In figure (D), 3 and 6 cannot be adjacent to each other,
l (a) Given figure,
according to dice X.
Hence, figure (C) has correct configuration.

8. R S S T U
+ N R S T
+ R T S
After folding, it is shown as
3 7 8 4 9
then, find the code of T U R N S from the given
alternatives provided there is no carrying over in the
5. Complete the following series given addition using letter codes.
6, 24, 60, ?, 210 (a) 1 3 6 2 5 (b) 6 5 2 3 1 (c) 1 6 3 5 2 (d) 5 3 1 2 6
(a) 96 (b) 120 l (c) Given, R S S T U
(c) 140 (d) 160 + N R S T
l (b) The pattern is as follows + R T S
3 7 8 4 9
6 24 60 120 210 Þ R =3
Þ S+ N = 7 … (i)
+18 +36 +60 +90 Þ S+ R+ R = 8 … (ii)
Þ T+ S+ T = 4 … (iii)
+18 +24 +30 Þ U+ T+ S= 9 … (iv)
From Eq. (ii),
S + R +R = 8
+6 +6 S + 2R = 8
\ ? = 120 S= 8 - 2 ´ 3
6. By studying the figure and number relationship, S=2
find the missing number ‘?’. From Eq. (i),
S+ N = 7
26 9 32 6 41 2 33 4 N=7 -2
N=5
3 4 7 ? From Eq. (iii),
15 7 18 8 9 19 8 15 T + S+ T = 4
2T + 2 = 4
(a) 1.5 (b) 6
(c) 9 (d) 12 T =1
From Eq. (iv),
l (b) As, (26 + 7) - (15 + 9) = 33 - 24 = 9 = 3
U + T +S = 9
(32 + 8) - (18 + 6) = 40 - 24 = 16 = 4 U+ 1 + 2 = 9
(41 + 19) - (9 + 2) = 60 - 11 = 49 = 7 U =6
(33 + 15) - (4 + 8) = 48 - 12 = 36 = 6 Code for T U R N S
\ missing number ? = 6 ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
1 6 3 5 2
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 3
9. A comparison of ages of A, B, C, D and E are as follows 11. Three dice are rolled simultaneously and the numbers
I. B’s age is half the age of A. shown on all the three dice are added, then the total
1 number of possible ways to have a sum of 7 is
II. B’s age is 1 times the age of C. (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 16
2
III. D’s age is 12 years less than C. l (c) The total number of possible ways of having a sum of 7
1 (1, 1, 5) (2, 1, 4) (3, 1, 3) (4, 1, 2) (5, 1, 1)
IV. D’s age is 1 times the age of E. (1, 2, 4) (2, 2, 3) (3, 2, 2) (4, 2, 1)
2
(1, 3, 3) (2, 3, 2) (3, 3, 1), (1, 4, 2) (2, 4, 1)
V. The age of E is 12 years.
(1, 5, 1) = 15
With the given data what will be the difference in the
ages of A and C? 12. A comparison of marks scored by Gauri, Aaban,
(a) 64 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 36 Seerat and Alvina in an examination is as follows.
l (b) According to the given information, I. Gauri has scored 15 marks less than Aaban.
A II. Gauri has scored 20 marks more than Seerat.
B= Þ A = 2B … (i)
2 III. Alvina has scored 10 marks less than Seerat.
3
B = ´ C Þ 3C = 2B … (ii) To decide who has scored the highest marks, identify
2
the statement from those given in the alternatives in
D = C - 12 … (iii)
respect of sufficiency of data.
3
D= ´E … (iv) (a) Data given in I and II are sufficient
2
(b) Data given in I and III are sufficient
E = 12 yr
3 (c) Data given in II and III are sufficient
From Eq. (iv), D = ´ 12, D = 18 yr (d) Data given in I, II and III are sufficient
2
l (d) According to the given information,
From Eq. (iii), C = 18 + 12
Gauri = Aaban - 15 … (i)
C = 30
Gauri = Seerat + 20 … (ii)
From Eq. (ii), Alvina = Seerat - 10 … (iii)
2B = 3 ´ 30
From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii),
B = 45
Aaban > Gauri > Seerat > Alvina
From Eq. (i), A = 45 ´ 2 = 90
Hence, data given in I, II and III are sufficient.
Þ Difference of A and C = A - C = 90 - 30 = 60
13. The number in the place of ‘?’ should be ………
10. If CLOUD = 11, BURST = 16 and ACE = 3, then
4 7
MONSOON = ? 7 6 9 8
(a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 19
l (b) As, C L O U D = 11 13 33
Positional
values 5 3 4 4
3+ 12+ 15 +21+4 55 10 5
Number of letters = = 11
5 5
B U R S T =16 6 7
Positional 8 5 6 10
values
2 + 21 +18 +19 +20 80 35 ?
Number of letters = = 16
5 5
and A C E =3 4 3 5 3
Positional 2 4
values (a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 34 (d) 36
1 + 3 +5 9 l (b) As, (7 ´ 5) + (6 ´ 3) - (4 ´ 10)
Number of letters = =3
3 3 35 + 18 - 40 = 13
Similarly, M O N S O O N (9 ´ 4) + (8 ´ 4) - (7 ´ 5)
36 + 32 - 35 = 33
(8 ´ 4) + (5 ´ 3) - (6 ´ 2)
13 +15+14 +19 +15 +15 +14 105 32 + 15 - 12 = 35
Number of letters = = 15 Similarly, (6 ´ 5) + (10 ´ 3) - (7 ´ 4), 30 + 30 - 28 = 32
7 7
\ MONSOON = 15 \ ? = 32
4 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

14. Find out which of the following figures can be 17. Study the following information
formed from the pieces given in the figure ‘X’? If ‘A$B’ means A is brother of B,
‘A@B’ means A is wife of B,
‘A#B’ means A is daughter of B and
‘AÁB’ means A is father of B.
Based on the above information, which of the
X
following alternative represents the correct group of
symbols that indicates the relationship for ‘K’ is
father-in-law of H?
(a) H@$L#PÁK (b) H@$PÁL#K
A B C D
(c) H@J$L#KÁP (d) H@P$JÁSI#K
Brother
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D l (c) A $ B Þ A( + ) ¬ ¾ ¾¾ ¾¾ B
Wife
l (a) Answer figure (A) can be formed from the pieces given ¾¾ B( + )
A @ B Þ A( - ) ¬ ¾ ¾
in the figure X. B
1 A # B Þ ­ Daughter
1 2 A( - )
A(+)
2 3 3 A Á B Þ ­ Father
B
From option (c), H @ J $ L # K Á P
15. Find the missing number ‘?’ in the figure given below
-law K Fat
er-in her
3 4 5 6 Fath
Daughter
7 22 3 8 30 5 9 30 6 10 ? 7 P
H J L
5 Brother
2 2 4
Clearly, K is the father-in-law of H.
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 35
l (d) Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) The following figure represent
16. If MOBILE is coded as DFBICE, then CHARGE is
students who can play, sing and dance.
coded as
(a) CHBXQE (b) CLARTE
(c) CHAIGE (d) CHIAEF A B D
Play
Dance C
l (c) As, M O B I L E
13 15 2 9 12 5 F G
Sing

1+3 1+5 2 9 1+2 5

18. Which part of the figure represents students who
can sing and dance?
(a) F (b) C (c) F and C (d) E and G
4 6 2 9 3 5
l (c)

Play
D F B I C E Dance C
Similarly, C H A R G E F
3 8 1 18 7 5 Sing

Students who can sing and dance are F and C.

3 8 1 1+8 7 5 19. The number of students who can play is more by ‘a’
than the number of students who can dance; and the
number of students who can do both playing and
3 8 1 9 7 5 singing is more by ‘b’ than the number of students
who can do both singing and dancing. Then, what is
the difference of the number of students who can
only dance and who can only play?
C H A I G E (a) a + b (b) (2a - b) or (b - 2a)
(c) (a - 2b) or (2b - a) (d) (a - b) or (b - a)
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 5
l (d) According to the question, 23. Which of the following diagram indicates the best
B+ C+ D+ G = A+ B+ C+ F+ a relationship among men, fathers and teachers?
D+ G= A+ F+ a …(i)
C+ G= b+ F+ C
G= b+ F … (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
A B C D
D+ b+ F= A+ F+ a
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
D= A+ a- b
l (a) Diagram A indicates the best relationship among men,
D- A= a- b
fathers and teachers. All fathers are men. Some fathers as
or A- D= b- a well as some men can be teachers.
Hence, the difference of the number of students who can Men
only dance and who can only play is either (a - b) or (b - a).
Teachers
20. It is given that the total numbers of students in all
the three disciplines are same. Also, sum of the number Fathers
of students who can only dance, and twice of the number
of students who can do both singing and dancing, equals
the sum of the students who can do both singing and
playing and the students who can do both dancing
24. Ishan wishes Irfan ‘Good Morning’ when the hour
and playing. Then, which among the alternative is a
hand of a (measured clockwise) clock is positioned
correct statement about the number of students who
between 9 and 10. The angle between the two hands
can only play and those who can only sing?
is 145°. The time shown by the clock is
(a) The number of students who can only sing is twice as
(a) 9 : 08 AM (b) 9 : 10 AM (c) 9 : 12 AM (d) 9 : 15 AM
many as the number of students who can only play
(b) The number of students who can only sing is equal to the l (b) Given, h = 9, q = 145º Þ360 - 145 = 215 º
11 11
sum of the number of student who can sing and dance q= m ~ 30 h Þ 215 º = m ~ 30 ´ 9
and the number of students who can only play and sing 2 2
11 11m
(c) The number of students who can only play and sing equals m = 270 - 215, = 55, m = 10 min
the number of students who can only dance and play 2 2
Hence, time is 9 : 10 AM.
(d) The number of students who can only dance equals to the
number of students who can only sing 25. If ‘15 + 10 means 5’ ; ‘6 ´ 3 means 9’; ‘8 ¸ 4 means
l (a) 32’; and ‘12 - 2 means 6’; then what will be the
value of 27 + 81 - 9 ´ 6?
21. Complete the following series. (a) 36 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 6
1, -8, 81, ?, 15625 l (b) Given, 15 + 10 = 5
(a) -1022 (b) -1024 (c) -4094 (d) -4096 Here, ‘+’ means ‘-’.
l (b) The pattern of the series is as follows, \ 15 - 10 = 5
Þ 6 ´3 =9
1 –8 81 –1024 15625 Here, ‘´’ means ‘+’
\ 6+3 =9
Þ 8 ¸ 4 = 32
Here, ‘¸’ means ‘´’
(12) –(23) (34) –(45) (56) \ 8 ´ 4 = 32
\ ? = - 1024 Þ 12 - 2 = 6
Here, ‘-’ means ‘¸’.
22. Yaibiren is standing 4 m East of Rajib, who is 1 m \ 12 ¸ 2 = 6
North of Achira. If Sahibah is standing 3 m South of Þ27 + 81 - 9 ´ 6 = 27 - 81 ¸ 9 + 6 Þ27 - 9 + 6 = 24
Achira, then in which direction of Yaibiren is Sahibah?
(a) North-East (b) North-West (c) South-East (d) South-West 26. Which number will replace the ‘?’ in the following
sequence?
l (d) Rajib
5, 7, 14, 24, 42, ?, 119
4m Yaibiren
(a) 71 (b) 67 (c) 65 (d) 63
1m N l (a) The pattern is as follows,
N-W N-E
Achira 5 7 14 24 42 71 119
W E 5 + 7 + 2 = 14
3m 7 + 14 + 3 = 24
S-W S-E 14 + 24 + 4 = 42
S 24 + 42 + 5 = 71
Sahibah 42 + 71 + 6 = 119
Clearly, Sahibah is in South-West direction of Yaibiren. \ ? = 71
6 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

27. What will be the missing term ‘?’ in the given 31. Find the missing value ‘?’ in the following series.
series? 13, 34, 74, ?, 290
AK, FP, ?, PZ, UE, ZJ (a) 168 (b) 170 (c) 172 (d) 174
(a) KU (b) JT (c) JU (d) KV l (b) The pattern is as follows,
l (a) The pattern is as follows, 13 34 74 170 290
+5 +5 +5 +5 +5
A F K P U Z
+5 +5 +5 +5 +5
K P U Z E J
\ ? = KU 22+32 32+52 52+72 72+112 112+132
\ ? = 170
28. In a family of four members there is father, mother,
son and daughter. When sorted according to 32. What number comes in place of question mark (?) in
decreasing order of their ages, the order is father, the given figure?
mother, son and daughter. The difference between 5 4 3
the age of father and mother is 5 yr. The difference
6 4 7 2 2
between total age of male members and female
members is 15 yr. Also the total age of children is 7 2 1 ? 3 4 1
20 yr, then the age of the son is ……… 6 3 9 5 4
(a) 10 yr (b) 15 yr (c) 20 yr (d) 25 yr 9 6 3
l (b) According to the question, (a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 6
father > mother > son > daughter 5+3 8 6 + 3 + 5 + 4 18
l (a) As, = =4, = =9
F- M = 5 … (i) 2 2 2 2
(F + S ) - (M + D) = 15 … (ii) 6 + 4 + 2 + 2 14 9 + 3 12
S + D = 20 … (iii) = = 7, = =6
2 2 2 2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), 7 + 2 + 1 + 3 + 4 + 1 18
Similarly, = = 9
5 + (S - D) = 15 2 2
S - D = 10 … (iv)
33. The following figures represent information given
From Eqs. (iii) and (iv),
against them.
S + D = 20
Total number of students who applied for Board
S - D = 10
Examination.
2S = 30
D Total number of students who actually appeared at
Hence, S = 15 yr
Board Examination.
29. If the ninth day of a month is four day earlier than  Total number of urban students who appeared at
Thursday, then what day will it be on the twenty Board Examination.
third day of the month? Total number of students who qualified at Board
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday
Examination.
(c) Friday (d) Sunday
Based on the above information which of the
l (d) 9th day of a month = Thursday - 4 days = Sunday following figures represents the above facts?
Then, 23rd day of a month = Sunday.

30. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in (a) (b)
the given figure?

8 20 (c) (d)
14 2
l (c) Students applied for
6 12 board examination
? 10
Students appeared at
(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 22 board examination
l (b) As, 14 + 8 = 22 Urban students appeared
20 + 2 = 22 at board examination
10 + 12 = 22 Students qualified at
board examination
Similarly, 6 + 16 = 22
Option (c) is correct choice.
\ ? = 16
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 7
34. Five friends P, Q, R, S and T read a newspaper. The 38. Which of the following figure(s) can not be drawn
one who reads first gives it to R. The one who reads without either lifting the pen or re-tracing any line?
last had taken it from P. T was neither the first nor
the last one to read, There were two readers
between Q and P. Who reads the newspaper last?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
l (d) According to the question,
A B C D
Q R T P S (a) Only A (b) Both A and B
Hence, S reads the newspaper last. (c) Only C (d) Both C and D
35. A clock shows 05:45. A plane mirror is kept on the l (c) Only figure C can not be drawn without either lifting
right of the clock, with its plane perpendicular to the the pen or re-tracing any line.
face of the clock. What time will be shown by the 39. Find the missing values in place of the question
mirror image? marks in the given pattern.
(a) 06:45 (b) 05:15
(c) 06:15 (d) 07:15 1 X 5 ? 34
l (c)
1 3 8 21

Y 2 U ? R
(a) 1 (b) N (c) M (d) Z
13 10 13 18
l (c) 1 X 5 M 34
Þ 11 : 60
- 05 : 45
6 : 15 1 3 8 21
Hence, time be mirror image is 06 : 15.

36. In a certain code language ‘‘Kolkata is cultural hub Y 2 U 13 R

of India’’ is coded as ‘‘a2463b’’ and ‘‘Mumbai is As, 1+ 2 =3
financial hub of India’’ is coded as ‘‘g3472b’’. Then 2 + 3 =5
in the same language ‘‘India is hub of democracy’’ 5 + 8 = 13
may be coded as 13 + 21 = 34
(a) a 2 4 3 9 (b) 2 4 3 g 7 Now, 4 + 1 = 25 + 1 = 26
(c) b 3 2 4 9 (d) 3 2 b 4 7
2 + X = 2 + 24 = 26
l (c) “Kolkata is cultural ‘‘hub of India’’ “a 2 4 6 3 b” U + 5 = 21 + 5 = 26
“Mumbai is financial “hub of India” “g 3 4 7 2 b” Þ ? + 13 = 26
Code for “India is hub of” “2 3 4 b” Þ ? = 13 = M
Hence, according to the option (c) code for ‘‘India is hub R + 34 = 18 + 34 = 52
of democracy’’ is
Þ 52 ¸ 2 = 26
= b3249
[Q English alphabet contains 26 letters]
37. Which letter is midway between 13th letter from the \ ?, ? = M 13
left and the 4th letter from the right in the sequence
40. What will be the missing number in the given series?
given below?
1332, 732, 348, ………, 36, 12
USBEYFHKOPRAWCGJMQDIVLNTXZ
(a) 32 (b) 132
(a) O (b) Q (c) P (d) M
(c) 148 (d) 216
l (b) The given sequence,
l (b) The pattern is as follows
USBEYFHKOPRAWCGJMQDIVLNTXZ
1332 732 348 132 36 12

13th from 4th from

the left the right 113+1 93+3 73+5 53+7 33+9 13+11
\ Middle letter between W and N is Q . \ ? = 132
8 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

41. Find the missing term ‘?’ in the given figure. l (c) Given expression =
5 + 4 ´ 8 ¸ 12 - 3 = 3
I12
From option (c),
D6 5 + 3 ´ 8 ¸ 12 - 4 = 3 [by interchanged]
? 2
5 + 3 ´ -4 =3
3
A2 Y30
5 + 2 -4 =3
(a) N10 (b) P20 (c) O 24 (d) Q16 5 -2 =3
l (b) A +3 +5 +7 +9 3 =3
D I P Y
Hence, option (c) is correct choice.
+4 +6 +8 +10
2 6 12 20 30
\ ? = P20 .
46. If a, b, c, d and e are positive numbers, and it is
given that
42. If, a > b, a > 0, and b ¹ 0, then which of the following a + b = c + d, b + d = 2a
statements is always true? d + e > a + b and c + d > a + e
(a) a ´ b > 0 (b) a ´ b < 0
then, which of the following statement is true?
(c) a ´ b is undefined (d) a ´ b 2 > 0
(a) d > a > b > e > c (b) d > b > e > a > c
l (d) Given, a > b, a > 0 (c) a > b > c > d > e (d) a > d > b > e > c
Case - 1 a > 0, b > 0 and a > b
l (a) Given, a + b = c + d, … (i)
Case - 2 a > 0, b < 0 and a > b
b + d = 2a … (ii)
Hence, a ´ b2 > 0 always true.
d+ e> a+ b … (iii)
43. In certain coded language c+ d> a+ e … (iv)
‘way to win’ is written as AAaa aaaa AAAa, From Eqs. (i) and (iv),
‘Go to Walk’ is written as Aaaa aaaa AAAA, a+ b> a+ e
‘Get up early’ is written as AaAa AaaA aaAA. \ b> e
From Eqs. (i) and (iii),
Then how can ‘Always go to morning walk early’ be
d+ e> c+ d
written in that coded language?
\ e> c
(a) aaAA Aaaa aaaa aaaA AAaa aAAA
(b) aaAA Aaaa aaaa aaaA AAAA AaAA From Eq. (iv), c+ d> a+ e
(c) aaAA AaAa aaaa aaaA aaAA AAaas Q e> c
(d) aaaA AaAa aaaa aaAA AAAA aaAA \ d> a
l (b) Way to win AAaa aaaa AAAa …(i) From Eq. (ii), b + d = 2a
Go to walk Aaaa aaaa AAAA …(ii) Þ b+ d= a+ a
Get up early AaAa AaaA aaAA …(iii) Q d> a
From options Eqs. (ii) and (iii) \ b< a
Code for ‘Always go to morning walk early’ So, we have d> a> b> e> c
aaAA Aaaa aaaa aaaA AAAA AaAA
47. Kashvi facing towards rising sun turned to her left
44. If + means ´; ¸ means -; - means +; and ´ means ¸, and walks for 60m. She then turned to West and
then 2 + 12 ´ 4 - 6 ¸ 6 is equal to ……… . walked for 15m. Then she turned towards left at an
(a) 0 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 49 angle of 45° and reached 95 m from her original
l (b) Given, position. How much total distance did she travel?
(a) 95 m (b) 115 m
+ Þ´
(c) 155 m (d) 175 m
¸ Þ-
- Þ+
l (d) A 15m
N
´ Þ¸
2 + 12 ´ 4 - 6 ¸ 6
0m

60m 60m
10

By interchanging signs, W E
= 2 ´ 12 ¸ 4 + 6 - 6 = 2 ´ 3 = 6 80m
Starting
45. In the given equation, which two numbers in the B C O S
95m position
expression on the left hand side will be
interchanged to form a correct equation? AB2 = AC2 + BC2 = 602 + 802
= 3600 + 6400 = 10000
5 + 4 ´ 8 ¸ 12 - 3 = 3
AB = 100 m
(a) (3, 5) (b) (4, 12 )
Hence, total distance = 60 + 15 + 100
(c) (3, 4) (d) (8, 5)
= 175 m
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 9
48. A cube is coloured on all the six faces with six different l (b) Given, (A) x2 = 49
colours–black, brown, green, red, yellow and blue. (B) x3 = 343
Red face is opposite to the black face. From (A), x2 = 49
x = ±7
Green face is between red and black faces.
Þ x = 7, x = - 7
Blue face is adjacent to yellow face. From (B), x3 = 343
Brown face is adjacent to blue face. x =7
Red face is in the bottom. Hence, only B is sufficient to answer the question.
Which of the following are adjacent to green? \ Conclusion II follows.
(a) Black, yellow, brown, red (b) Blue, black, red, yellow
(c) Red, black, blue, yellow (d) Yellow, blue, black, red
51. Find the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’ from the figure given
below.
l (a) According to the question,
E F 20 42
Black 5 7
12 x
H G 4 8
Blue
Yellow 13 9
Brown Green y 72
11
B
110
Red C
(a) 65, 150
A D (b) 46, 125
ABCD = Red (c) 56, 156
EFGH = Black (d) 56, 165
HEBA = Brown l (c) As, 4 ´ (4 - 1) = 4 ´ 3 = 12
GFCD = Yellow 5 ´ (5 - 1) = 5 ´ 4 = 20
HGDA = Green
7 ´ (7 - 1) = 7 ´ 6 = 42
EFCB = Bule
9 ´ (9 - 1) = 9 ´ 8 = 72
Hence, adjacent to green are red, black, yellow, brown.
11 ´ (11 - 1) = 11 ´ 10 = 110
49. A watch gains 10 seconds in 3 min. It was set right
13 ´ (13 - 1) = 13 ´ 12 = 156
at 9 AM. In the evening of the same day, when the
watch indicates half past 6’O clock, the true time is 8 ´ (8 - 1) = 8 ´ 7 = 56
(a) 5:30:00 PM (b) 5:48:10 PM (c) 5:58:20 PM (d) 6:08:20 PM Þ (x, y) = (56, 156)
l (c) Total time from 9 : 00 AM to 6 : 30 PM = 9 : 30 h 52. In a certain code ‘COUNTRY’ is written as
= 9 ´ 60 + 30 = 570 min ‘ZSUOVPD’. How is ‘TEACHER’ written in the
Now, 3 min 10 sec i.e. 190 sec of this clock is equal to the same code?
3 min i.e. 180 sec of correct clock.
(a) SUTIFED
180
\ 570 min of incorrect clock = ´ 570 min of correct clock (b) REHCAET
190 (c) QDGBDS
= 540 min i.e. 9h of correct clock (d) SFIDBFU
\ Actual time = 9 : 00 AM + 9h = 6 :00 PM» 5 : 58 : 20 PM
l (d) As,
(approximate) COU N T R Y Z S U OV P D
+1
50. Given x is real and that +1
+1
(A) x2 = 49, (B) x3 = 343 +1
Examine the given alternatives in respect of arriving +1
+1
at the Conclusion; x = 7 and find which is valid +1
I. Only A is sufficient to answer the question Similarly,
II. Only B is sufficient to answer the question T E A C HE R S F I DBF U
III. Either A or B alone is sufficient to answer the +1
+1
question +1
IV. Both A and B together are sufficient to answer the +1
+1
question +1
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV +1
10 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

53. What number should replace the question mark? 54. (b) E teaches Hindi language.
55. (d) B teaches on Sunday.
14
56. (a) F teaches Manipuri language.
? 12
57. (b) G teaches English language.
15 13
58. (c) D teaches on Wednesday.
16 2 2 13
4 3 59. One morning at 8 AM Navneet and Ravneet were
18 11
2 6 standing on a lawn with their back towards each
19 2 3 17
other at the distance of 100 m. Navneet’s shadow
16 12
fell exactly towards his left hand side. After 15 min,
15 12 Ravneet turns 135° anti-clockwise. Which direction
10 Ravneet is facing now?
(a) North-East (b) North-West
(a) 15 (b) 14 (c) East (d) South-East
(c) 13 (d) 10
l (a)
l (c) Left Right
Sun N
Navneet
Directions (Q. Nos. 54-58) Read the information carefully Navneet’s W E
Shadow 135° (N-E)
and answer the questions given below. S
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven teachers. Each one teaches only Ravneet
one and different language from among Konkani, Hindi, Right Left
Malayalam, English, Manipuri, Tamil and Kannada on different
days of a week. C teaches Malayalam on Friday. B teaches Navneet’s shadow falls on left side, so he is facing towards
Konkani on the next day of the day on which the concerned North and Ravneet faces opposite to Navneet i.e. facing
teacher teaches English. F teaches on Thursday but neither towards South. After moving 135º anti-clockwise, Ravneet
teaches Hindi nor English. D teaches Tamil on the previous day is facing North-East.
on which day F teaches. A teaches Kannada on Tuesday.
G teaches on the next day of the day on which the concerned 60. Find the missing number.
teacher teaches Malayalam. E does not teach English. 2, 3, 7, ……, 2112
(a) 36 (b) 45
54. Which subject does E teach?
(c) 46 (d) 49
(a) Tamil (b) Hindi
(c) Manipuri (d) Malayalam l (c) The pattern is as follows

55. On which day B teaches? 2 3 7 46 2112

(a) Monday (b) Friday (c) Wednesday (d) Sunday
22–1 32–2 72–3 462–4
56. Which language does F teach?
(a) Manipuri (b) Kannada \ ? = 46
(c) Tamil (d) English
61. In a code BH = 16, DO = 60 and TA = 20, then the
57. Which language does G teach? code for BAT = ?
(a) Hindi (b) English (a) 20 (b) 30
(c) Kannada (d) Konkani (c) 40 (d) 60
58. On which day D teaches? l (c) As, B H = 16
(a) Saturday (b) Tuesday Positional values
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
2 × 8 = 16
Sol. (Q. Nos. 54-58) According to the given information, D O = 60
Teachers Language Day Positional
values
A Kannada Tuesday 4 ×15 = 60
B Konkani Sunday and T A = 20
C Malayalam Friday Positional
values
D Tamil Wednesday 20 ×1 = 20
E Hindi Monday Similarly, B A T
Positional
F Manipuri Thursday
values
G English Saturday 2 ×1 ×20 = 40
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 11
62. The figure given below is prepared by some sticks Figure - 2
x + z - y = 130 …(ii)
and provides an equation that is incorrect.
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
How many minimum numbers of sticks must be
x - y + z = 130
removed from the left hand side to make it a correct
- x + y + z = 110
equation?
2z = 240
z = 120
Hence, the height of the wall (z) = 120 cm
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 65. In a certain coding scheme, consonants and vowels
are coded differently as illustrated below:
l (c) Given,
C is coded as 6.
Z is coded as 52.
E is coded as 9.
Þ

O is coded as 29.
Then find the sum of numerals in the coded version of
FAITH.
(a) 84 (b) 85
Minimum 3 sticks must be removed. (c) 86 (d) 87
l (c) Consonant Þ Place value ´ 2
63. If 63578 is to 1415,
Vowel Þ Place value ´ 2 - 1
56732 is to 185,
F A I T H
and 34124 is to 86,
then, 72648 is to ?
(a) 1215 (b) 1415 (6×2) (1×2–1) (9×2–1) (20×2) (8×2)
(c) 1512 (d) 1514
Þ 12 + 1 + 17 + 40 + 16
l (c) As, 14 15
Þ 86
63578 (6+3+5) (7+8)
18 5 66. In a class 20% of students are below 14 yrs of age.
56732 (5+6+7) (3+2) Out of the remaining students 10% are of the age
14-15 yrs and ratio of students who are between
8 6 15-16 yrs of age to student above 16 yrs of age is
34124 (3+4+1) (2+4) 3 : 2. If the number of students who are above
Similarly, 72648 (7+2+6) (4+8) 16 yrs is 72, what is the total number of students in
15 12 the class?
\ ? = 1512 (a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 400
l (b) Let the total students = x
64. Two friends Mr. A and B stand according to figure x
students are below 14 yrs.
1. The two friends then interchange their positions 5
as given in figure 2. x 4x
Remaining = x - =
5 5
B A 4x 10 2x
´ = are of14 - 15 yrs.
110 cm Wall 130 cm Wall 5 100 25
4x 2x 18 x
Remaining = - =
5 25 25
A B Now, between (15 - 16) yrs : above 16 yrs = 3 : 2
Now, let the number of students above 16 yrs age = 2y
Figure-1 Figure-2
and between (15-16) yrs = 3y
The height of the wall from the ground is ……… . Above 16 yrs = 2 y = 72
(a) 115 cm (b) 120 cm Þ y = 36
(c) 127.5 cm (d) 130 cm and between (15 - 16) yrs = 3 y = 3 ´ 36 = 108
18 x
l (b) Let the height of wall is z. Now, = 108 + 72
Length of A = x 25
18 x
Length of B = y = 180
Figure - 1 25
y + z - x = 110 ... (i) Þ x = 250
The total number of students = 250
12 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

67. Study the figure given below representing a 69. Study the given figure and answer the following
particular number in coded manner. question.
0 13

11 5
8
6 2
12 9 7 6 4
3
2 3
10
5
1
For example, the number 6825 coded by the following
symbols
Let x denote sum of numbers present in at least 2
circles and y denote sum of numbers present in
exactly 3 circles. Then x - y = …… .
(a) 11 (b) 25
(c) 36 (d) 61
Based on the above information find the number l (c)
coded for the following symbols. 13

11
8 5

12 9 7 6 4

10 2
3
(a) 63205 (b) 11309
(c) 11523 (d) 65230 1
l (b)
0 3
The sum of numbers present in atleast 2 circles (x)
6 = 11 + 5 + 3 + 10 + 9 + 8 + 6 + 2 + 7
5
2 = 61
6 The sum of numbers present in exactly 3 circles (y)
3 0 6 3
5 =9 + 8 + 6 + 2
= 25
x - y = 61 - 25
6+5 3 0 6+3 = 36

70. Choose the correct mirror image of the following

11 3 0 9 figure. If the mirror is placed as shown.
Þ 11309

68. Five friends decided to play a game of badminton.

Each of the five plays against every other friend.
The winner gets two points for each game he or she
wins and the loser gets zero. Then, which of
the following cannot represent the scores of five
(a) (b)
friends?
(a) 4, 4, 4, 4, 4 (b) 6, 4, 4, 4, 2
(c) 8, 8, 2, 2, 0 (d) 6, 6, 4, 2, 2
l (c) There are five friends. If one won all 4 games; he/she (c) (d)
scores 8 points and no other person can win, 4 games.
So 8 points cannot be repeated.
l (a) Option (a) is the correct mirror image of the given
Hence, (8, 8, 2, 2, 0) cannot represent the score of the five figure.
friends.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 13
71. Observe the figures given below: Directions (Q. Nos. 74-76) Read the information carefully
and answer the questions given below.
Five students Ujith, Mahi, Rizan, Sahir and Amelia appeared for
an examination in English and Mathematics.
1 2 3 4 5
I. Sahir scored more marks than Amelia in
Mathematics but scored less in English than
Ujith and Mahi.
6 7 8 9 II. In Mathematics Rizan scored more marks than
Amelia but less than what Mahi has scored.
Based on the above figures identify the correct group
of categorisation? III. Amelia scored more than Rizan in English and
(a) 1, 3, 6; 2, 4, 9; 5, 7, 8 (b) 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 8; 6, 7 9 Rizan scored more than Mahi in English.
(c) 1, 6, 8; 3, 5, 9; 2, 4, 7 (d) 1, 3, 6; 2, 5, 7; 4, 8, 9 IV. Ujith scored more than Mahi in Mathematics but
l (c) Correct group is (1, 6, 8) (3, 5, 9) (2, 4, 7) less than Rizan in English.
As, figures 3, 5 and 9 are divided into two parts, figures 2, V. Sahir scored less than Mahi in Mathematics.
4 and 7 are divided into four parts. 74. The least scorer in Mathematics and top scorer in
72. Raju invited friend George for a dinner at his house. English are respectively
When George asked for the direction of Raju’s (a) Sahir and Ujith (b) Amelia and Amelia
house, Raju gave him the following instruction: (c) Ujith and Sahir (d) Ujith and Ujith
Proceed 140 m South from your house then walk 75. Which of the following cannot be determined?
200 m to East. Then turn to North and walk 100 m. (a) Amelia scored more than Mahi in English.
After that, walk 160 m to West. (b) Mahi scored more than Amelia in Mathematics.
What is the shortest distance between the two houses (c) Sahir scored less than Mahi both in Mathematics and
and the direction to Raju’s house from George’s English.
house? (d) Ujith scored less than Mahi in English.
(a) 40 2 m and North-West (b) 40 2 m and South-East 76. Which of the following is necessarily correct?
(c) 80 m and South-East (d) 80 m and North-West (a) Rizan scored more than Sahir in Mathematics
l (b) A (b) Ujith scored more than Sahir both in Mathematics and
(George's house)
English
N
40m N-W N-E (c) Sahir scored more than Ujith in Mathematics
(Raju's house) (d) Rizan scored more than Ujith both in English and
F W E Mathematics.
B E
40m 160m S-W S-E Sol. (Q. No. 74-76) According to the question,
100m 100m S Mathematics
Ujith > Mahi > Rizan / Sahir > Sahir / Rizan > Amelia
C D English
200m
Amelia > Rizan > Ujith/Mahi > Mahi/Ujith > Sahir
In DABF, AF2 = AB2 + BF2 = 402 + 402
74. (b) The least scorer in Mathematics is Amelia and top
= 1600 + 1600
scorer in English is Amelia.
AF = 2 ´ 1600 = 40 2m
Raju’s house is in South-East direction of George’s house.
75. (d) Option (d) cannot be determined.
76. (b) Option (b), Ujith scored more than Sahir both in
73. In a code language if ‘APPEAL’ is coded as ‘256572’ Mathematics and English is necessarily correct.
and ‘PLAY’ is coded as ‘7259’ then in the same
language ‘PEARL’ will be coded as (each number 77. The third day before 1st January 2019 was Saturday.
code stands for unique alphabet) ……… . Which day will the fourth day of March 2020 be?
(a) 25768 (b) 25387 (c) 67522 (d) 25679 (a) Friday (b) Saturday
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
l (a) As,
A P P E A L Þ 2 5 6 5 7 2 l (c) Day on 1st January 2019 = Tuesday.
Day on 1st January 2020 = 1 odd day
P L A YÞ 7 2 5 9
= Tuesday + 1
Here, A/P = 2/5
= Wednesday
E=6
Day on 4th of March 2020 = Jan + Feb + 4 days of March
L =7
= 2 + 1 + 4 = 7 odd day
Y =9
= 0 odd day
So, PEARL = 25768 (from options R = 8)
Þ 4th March 2020 = Wednesday
Hence, code for P E A R L is 2 5 7 6 8.
14 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

78. Observe the given figure below l (c) Figure (C) will complete the given pattern.
A B C
G

D E F
Based on the figure how many maximum numbers of
triangles can be formed with the seven points A, B, C,
D, E, F and G? 83. Find the correct water image for the following
(a) 21 (b) 24 (c) 33 (d) 36
problem figure choosing from the alternatives.
l (c)
79. Find the correct mirror image for the following
problem figure from the alternatives. Water

A B C D A B C D
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
l (b) Figure (B) is the correct mirror image of the given l (b) Figure (B) is the correct water image of the given
problem figure. problem figure.

80. A circular disc is cut into two parts. One of the part Directions (Q. Nos. 84-88) In the following questions,
is given as the question figure. Which is the other there are statements followed by conclusions. Choose the
part? Select from the options. conclusion(s) which must logically follow(s) from the
given statements.
84. Statements
A. Some grandmothers are mothers.
A B C D
B. Some mothers are daughters.
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D C. All the daughters are married women.
l (c) Figure (C) will complete the given question figure. Conclusions
I. Some married women are mothers.
81. Two figures on transparent sheets are given on the
II. Some daughters are grandmothers.
left side. When the upper figure is exactly placed on
the lower figure, find from the option figures how III. No daughter is grandmother.
the resultant looks like. IV. Some mothers are grandmothers.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I and IV
l (*)
A B C D
Grandmothers Mothers Grand
mothers Mothers
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
l (d) When the upper figure is exactly placed on the lower Daughters Or
Daughters
figure, it is shown as in figure (D).
Married
Women Married Women
82. Find the missing part of the given figure from the
alternatives which completes the pattern.
Conclusions
(I) ü
(II) û
(III) û
A B C D
(IV) ü
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D Here, either II or III and I and IV follow.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 15
85. Statements l (c) Men Teacher
A. Some students are smart-working.
Doctors
B. All intelligent are smart-working. Women
C. All the teachers are students.
Conclusions
I. Some students are intelligent. Conclusions
II. No teacher is smart-working. (I) û (II) ü (III) ü (IV) û
III. Some intelligent are students. Hence, Conclusions II and III follow.
(a) Either I or II (b) I and II 88. Statements
(c) None of I, II and III (d) I and III
A. Some candidates are students.
l (c) Students Smart-working B. All children are citizens.
C. All citizens are candidates.
Conclusions
Teacher Intelligent I. Some citizens are students.
II. Some candidates are children.
III. All children are candidates.
Conclusions IV. No child is student.
(I) û (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I, II and III
(II) û l (b) Candidates Students
(III) û
Hence, none of I, II and III follow. Citizens
86. Statements
A. Some students are orators.
B. All orators are goalkeepers. Children
C. Some goalkeepers are honest. Conclusions
Conclusions (I) û (II) ü (III) ü (V) û
Hence, Conclusions II and III follow.
I. Some students are honest.
II. Some goalkeepers are students. 89. Study the figure given below:
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
A B C D E
l (b) Students Orators Goalkeepers
Find which figure is to be removed, starting from A,
Honest
so that all fit into a pattern.
(a) B (b) C
(c) D (d) E
l (c) In the given pattern, outermost rectangle is moving 90º
Conclusions clockwise and shaded rectangle is moving 90º
(I) û anti-clockwise.
(II) ü Hence, figure (D) should be removed.
Hence, only Conclusion II follows.
90. What is the minimum number of un-shaded boxes to
87. Statements be crossed for covering the shortest path from ‘A’ to
A. Some men are women. ‘B’ (both exclusive) without retracting the path and
without diagonal movements?
B. All women are teachers.
A
C. Some teachers are doctors.
Conclusions
I. Some doctors are women.
II. Some teachers are women.
III. Some teachers are men. B
IV. Some doctors are men. (a) 8 (b) 9
(a) I and II (b) I and IV (c) II and III (d) III and IV (c) 10 (d) 11
16 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

l (b) A 93. How many people read only one newspaper?

× (a) 570 (b) 642 (c) 914 (d) 968
× × 94. How many people read all the three newspaper?
× × × × × (a) 40 (b) 58
× (c) 70 (d) 90
B Sol. (Q. Nos. 93 and 94)
The minimum number of un-shaded boxes to be crossed
Hindi English
is 9.
570 a 58 b 424
91. Observe the figure given below: x
40 70

c 254

A B C D Punjabi
The odd one out from the given figure is …… . 570 = a + 58 + x + 40
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 570 - 58 - 40 = a + x
l (b) Figure (B) is different from others, as both figures a + x = 472 … (i)
overlaps each other in the right side. 424 = b + 58 + x + 70
b + x = 296 … (ii)
92. A river flows along the East-West direction. On a 254 = c + 40 + x + 70
particular day in the morning Kisku was seen at a c + x = 144 … (iii)
place ‘A’ located on the northern side of the river
From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii),
and on the same evening he was seen at a place ‘B’
a + b + c + 3x = 912 … (iv)
located on the southern side of the river.
and a + b + c + 40 + 58 + 70 + x = 1000 - 100
Following are the comments made by four friends. a + b + c + x = 900 - 168
Paulomi, Mimee, Sabeena and Grayson.
a + b + c + x = 732 … (v)
I. Paulomi said, Kisku must have crossed the river From Eqs. iv and v, x = 90
only once.
II. Sabeena said, Kisku might have crossed the river 93. (b) People read only one newspaper =
four times. a + b + c + x = 732
III. Mimee said, he might have crossed it five times. Þ a + b + c + 90 = 732
IV. Grayson said, he might have crossed it any Þ a + b + c = 732 - 90
number of times. Þ a + b + c = 642
Choose the correct alternative from the following. 94. (d) People read all the three newspaper (x) = 90
(a) Only I is correct North (Kisku)
A 95. Complete the given letter analogy.
(b) Only II is correct LTFQIW : YGSJVD : : DOIYKV : ?
(c) I or III is correct (a) QBVIXL
(d) Both I and II are correct W E (b) WLRBCI
River
l (c) In the morning, Kisku (c) QLVBXE
was seen on northern side. (d) QBVLXJ
In the evening, Kisku was
B (Kisku) South l (a) As, L T F Q I W : Y G S J V D
seen on southern side. So,
Kisku must crossed the river once or might have crossed it
five times. Hence, either Statement I or III is correct. 12+20+6+17+9+23 25+7+19+10+22+4
Directions (Q. Nos. 93 and 94) Read the information = 87 = 87
carefully and answer the questions given below. Similarly,
D O I Y K V : Q B V I X L
In a town of 1000 people, 570 read Hindi newspaper, 424 read
English newspaper and 254 read Punjabi newspaper. 40 read
Hindi and Punjabi newspaper; 58 read Hindi and English 4+15+9+25+11+22 17+2+22+9+24+12
newspaper; and 70 read Punjabi and English newspaper. = 86 = 86
100 read no newspaper.
? = QBVIXL
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 17
96. The given pie-diagram shows the streams opted by l (d) When child starts from the first step of the ground level
students at senior-secondary level. and mother starts coming down from the fourth step from
the floor level of the first floor, they meet at 12th step from
Commerce the floor level of the first floor.
and Management
18% First floor

35% Arts 4th

Computer 12% 12th
Science
Ground floor
Ist
25%
10%
Applied Science
99. The following question consists of four problem
Basic Science figures marked as A, B, C and D. Select a figure in
If sum of the angles for the students who opted place of ‘?’ for E which will continue the series
different streams is 144°, then the streams are ……… . established by the four problem figures, A, B, C, D.
(a) Arts, Applied Science ÷ – ×
+ ÷ + ÷
÷
(b) Basic Science, Computer Science
(c) Basic Science, Commerce and Management ?
(d) Applied Science, Computer Science, Commerce and –
+ + –
× × – ×
Management A B C D E
144 º
l (d) Sum of angles 144º in percentage = ´ 100 = 40% ÷ – × ÷ × ÷ – ÷
360 (a) (b) (c) (d)
Now, Applied Science + Computer Science + Commerce
and Management = 10 + 12 + 18 = 40% + × – + + – × +
.
Hence, option (d) is correct choice.
l (d) In the given series, all symbols change their positions
97. Four relation have been given as alternatives (p), (q), as
(r), (s) out of which only one becomes acceptable if
the signs, + and ¸ and the numbers, 4 and 5 are
mutually interchanged. Identify that relation.
(p) 24 + 8 ´ 4 = 20 ¸ 5 (q) 20 ¸ 4 ´ 16 + 5 = 75
Hence, option (d) will complete the given series.
(r) 3 ´ 24 + 5 = 16 ¸ 4 (s) 20 ¸ 5 - 6 = 3 ´ 30 + 4
(a) (p) (b) (q) (c) (r) (d) (s) 100. Which one of the following Venn diagrams
l (d) From alternative (d), represents the relation among men, doctors and
20 ¸ 5 - 6 = 3 ´ 30 + 4 patients in a hospital?
By interchanging signs and numbers,
20 + 4 - 6 = 3 ´ 30 ¸ 5
18 = 3 ´ 6 Þ 18 = 18
Hence, option (d) is correct choice. A B C D
98. There are 20 steps to go to the first floor of a (a) A (b) B
building from the ground floor. (c) C (d) D
A child starts climbing up from the first step of the l (a) Venn diagram (A) best represent the relation among
ground level. Mother starts coming down from the men, doctors and patients.
fourth step from the floor level of the first floor. Doctors Men Patients
If both have started at the same time with same speed,
at which step would they meet counting from the first
step from the floor level of the first floor?
Some doctors can be men and some patients can be men.
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
18
Paper II Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)
101. A set of guidelines called a model code of conduct is
enforced during Parliamentary election in India to
avert corrupt practices. This is applied to ………… .
(a) Political parties only
(b) Political parties and voters
(c) Political parties and candidates
(d) Candidates contesting elections only
l (c) The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of
guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate
political parties and candidates prior to elections, to
ensure free and fair elections. Article 324 of the
Constitution gives the power to Election Commission to
supervise elections to the Parliament and state
legislatures. The MCC becomes operational from the date
the election schedule is announced till the date the results
are declared.
102. A country has the ultimate rights and power to make
decisions on internal and external matters. Also it is
not dictated by any external power on its decisions
relating to its relation with other country. Which
feature is reflected in these statements?
(a) Republic (b) Socialism (c) Sovereignty (d) Authoritarian
l (c) ‘Sovereignty’ means the independent authority of a
country. It has two aspects-internal and external. From the
internal point it means that it has the power to legislate on
any subject, to promote the health, morals, education,
subject only to the federal division of legislative powers
and other limitations imposed by the Constitution, such as
Fundamental rights.
The external sovereignty is the right of a country to be free
from any external interference that would disrupt or
remove the right of that country to exist and govern its
own territory.
103. Anti-defection law is an important feature of Indian
party system. The final authority to decide on the
disqualification of a member of the parliament with
respect to anti-deflection lies with the ………… .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice, the Supreme Court of India
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha
l (d) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 provided
provisions related to anti-defection in India. The 10th
Schedule of Indian Constitution is popularly known as the
Anti-Defection Act. Originally, Indian Constitution had no
such provisions. The law sets the provisions for
disqualification of elected members on the grounds of
defection to another political party.
Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the
authority to decide on defection cases. Speaker sits as a
tribunal while deciding on defection cases. All
proceedings in relation to any question on disqualification
of a member of a House under this Schedule are deemed
to be proceedings in Parliament or in the Legislature of a
state.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
104. Which of the following statements exemplify the
Independence of judiciary in India?
I. Judiciary is not under the control of executive
and legislature.
II. There is less scope of interference in the working
of judiciary by the political executive.
III. A judge of higher judiciary can be removed only
2
through a resolution which requires rd majority
3
of both the houses of parliament.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I, II and III (d) II and III
l (c) Judiciary in India is kept independent i.e. it is not
under the control of both the legislature and executive.
This basically means that both the legislature and the
executive branches of the government cannot interfere
with the functions and decisions of the judiciary. The
Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are
appointed by the President.
While appointing other judges in the Supreme Court, the
President consults the Chief Justice of India. This ensures
that there is less scope of interference in the working of
judiciary by the political executive. No judge can be
removed from the office except by a very difficult process
of impeachment which requires 2/3rd majority of both
houses of parliament.
105. Rajya Sabha is also called the Upper House, elders
house and permanent house. Which of the
statement/s given below is/are true about it?
I. Rajya Sabha has more power related to financial
matters.
II. Rajya Sabha members continue to be in the office
till the next general election.
III. Resolution for removing the Vice-President and
the President originates in Rajya Sabha.
IV. Number of seats allotted to a state in Rajya Sabha
is directly proportionate to its population.
(a) I, II and III (b) III and IV (c) I and IV (d) Only IV
l (d) The IVth Schedule to the Constitution provides for
allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories in
Rajya Sabha. The allocation of seats is made on the basis
of the population of each State. A Money Bill can be
introduced only in Lok Sabha. After it is passed by that
House, it is transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its concurrence
or recommendation.
The power of Rajya Sabha in respect to financial matters or
such a Bill is limited. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body
and is not subject to dissolution. However, one third of its
members retire every second year and are replaced by
newly elected members. Each member is elected for a term
of 6 years. The Vice-President can be removed from office
by a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha),
passed by a majority of its members at that time and
agreed to by the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
The President of India can be removed by the process of
impeachment. The impeachment process can be initiated
by either house of parliament.
106. In the context of Indian elections, the parties which
fail to gain majority in the parliament play the role
of opposition. Consider the following statements
and choose which statement/s is/are not true.
I. Opposition parties in India play an important role
in building public opinion.
II. Opposition parties are not constitutionally
recognised.
III. Opposition immediately assumes power of
government, if the majority party loses its vote
of confidence in the Parliament.
IV. Opposition parties keep a close check on the
activities of the government.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) Only IV
l (b) In order to get the designation as the Opposition party,
the party must have secured at least 10% of the total
number of seats in the parliament as per the Leaders of
Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. Opposition party in
India play an important role in building public opinions.
The main role of the opposition party is to question the
government on all matters and bills so that the
government remains accountable to the public.
Mainly, the opposition party must ensure that the
government does not resort to any drastic step that would
have harmful effects on the people of the nation. In the
democratic system of India, the principal role of the
opposition is to keep a close check on the activities of the
government and also give their inputs in legislation.
107. Consider the following statements :
Statement I All countries that are democratic have
written Constitution.
Statement II All countries that have written
Constitution are not necessarily democratic.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
l (b) The Constitution is a written document that includes
the set of political principles by which a country is
governed, especially in relation to the rights of the people
it governs. It describes procedure of election, the
fundamental rights, the right of Legislature, the power of
Executive, the power of Supreme Court and another court
in the country.
Most democracies that follow the Westminster system, like
New Zealand, likewise don’t have written Constitutions.
So, we can divide nations into these
categories-Democratic countries, which have a
Constitution (which may be written or not) and
Non-democratic countries which nevertheless have a
Constitution. So, only Statement II is correct.
108. China exports a toy to India at ` 150, whereas the
same toy is manufactured and available in India for
` 250. When China continues to export this toy to
India, this trade practice is known as ………… .
(a) Dumping (b) Export Promotion
(c) Import Substitution (d) Export Subsidisation
19
l (a) In general, Dumping is a situation of international
price discrimination, where the price of a product when
sold in the importing country is less than the price of that
product in the market of the exporting country.
109. Shruti and Gautami were discussing about India’s
GDP and Kerala’s SDP. Some of the observation
made were :
I. Kerala’s per capita SDP is India’s GDP divided by
Kerala’s population in a particular year.
II. Since Kerala has best literacy rate and excellent
quality of life indices, it must have the highest
SDP.
III. In a federal structure if we know all the SDPs we
can have a fair idea of how big India’s GDP will
be in that year.
IV. Kerala’s per capita SDP in a particular year is the
value of all final goods and services produced by
the Kerala state in that year divided by Kerala’s
population in that year.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I and III (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I, III and IV
l (c) State Domestic Product (SDP) is defined as a measure
in monetary terms of the volume of all goods and services
produced within the boundaries of the State during a
given period of time, accounted without duplication.
SDP is estimated annually by the Department of
Economics and Statistics (DES)based on the guidelines
and methodology prescribed by the Central Statistical
Office (CSO). While GDP gives a good estimate of the
entire nation’s output, SDP provides more economic
details about subnational territories. So, a fair idea of a
country’s GDP can be estimated on the basis of all the
SDPs.
So, both Statements III and IV are correct.
110. Shehnaaz joined a coaching institute for a
professional course. At the time of joining the
course, she paid a lump sum fee for the entire
course of two years. However, she did not find the
quality of teaching satisfactory and decided to quit
after one year. When she asked for a refund of the
fee for one year, she was refused. Which of the
following right/s of Shehnaaz was/were violated?
I. Right to choose
II. Right to represent
III. Right to be informed
IV. Right to seek redressal
(a) Only I (b) I and IV
(c) III and IV (d) Only IV
l (d) Right to seek redressal was violated in case of
Shehnaaz. The right to seek redressal against unfair trade
practices or restrictive trade practices or unscrupulous
exploitation of consumers’ is referred to as the right to
redressal according to the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
The Consumer courts like District Consumer Disputes
Redressal Forums at district level, State Consumer
Disputes Redressal Commissions and National Consumer
Disputes Redressal Commissions have been incorporated
with the help of the consumer protection act.
20
111. Which of the following reflects situation where a
person is employed but do not contribute in adding
to the total product?
I. Open unemployment
II. Disguised unemployment
III. Seasonal unemployment
IV. Frictional unemployment
(a) I and II (b) Only II
(c) III and IV (d) Only IV
l (b) Disguised unemployment refers to the work area
where surplus manpower is employed out of which some
individuals have zero or almost zero marginal productivity
such that if they are removed the total level of output
remains unchanged. The persons who are employed and
remains unproductive throughout the work is said to be
disguisedly unemployed.
For example, a land can be harvested by ten persons
effectively, but actually, 14 workers are engaged in similar
kind of a job, then the marginal productivity of additional
four persons will be zero as they will contribute nothing to
the level of output. And, thus, the removal of these extra
workers will lead to no change in the total productivity
even without any change in the method of production.
112. There are 100 households in the village of
Awangkhul, of which the loan taken by 20
household are from the State Bank of India, another
20 households from their friends and relatives, 5
households from Indian Bank, 10 households from a
Regional Rural Bank, 15 households from
businessmen, 10 households from village headmen
and 20 households from cooperative societies.
Which of the following inference(s) is/are correct?
I. Formal sources of credit are lower than the others
II. Institutional sources of credit are higher than
others
III. Non-institutional sources of credit are higher
than others.
IV. Informal sources of credit are slightly higher than
others.
(a) Only I
(b) I and II
(c) Only II
(d) III and IV
l (c) In case of households in village of Awangkhul,
Institutional source of credit (for 55 households) are higher
than others (for 45 households).
Institutional or Formal sources of credit includes
co-operative societies, commercial banks, and regional
rural banks and State Governments also.
Informal or Non-Institutional sources of credit includes
money lenders, traders, relatives, friends, village headmen
etc.
As compare to formal sources, in the informal sources of
credit there is no supervisory body and their main motive
is profit making and they charge much higher rates of
interest.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
113. Which of the following statements are true about
food security ?
I. Landless people always have food insecurity.
II. Those who do not have enough nutritious food
are food insecure.
III. Those who have enough food but not the
requisite nutrition are food secure.
IV. Those who do not have enough purchasing
power to buy sufficient food are food insecure.
(a) I and III (b) I and IV (c) II and III (d) II and IV
l (d) Food security is defined as the availability of food and
one’s access to it. A household is considered food secure
when its occupants do not live in hunger or fear of
starvation. Stages of food insecurity range from food
secure situations to full-scale famine.
The World Food Summit of 1996 defined food security as
existing when all people at all times have access to
sufficient, safe, nutritious food to maintain a healthy and
active life.
So, both Statement II and Statement IV are true about
food security.
114. Siddhik issues a cheque of ` 19,000 in favour of
Hanush’s bank. What happens when the cheque is
received and processed in Hanush’s bank?
I. There is no change in their bank accounts.
II. Both their bank balances increase by ` 19,000.
III. Siddhik’s bank balance decreases by ` 19,000
and Hanush’s bank balance increases by the
same amount.
IV. There is no change in Siddhik’s bank balance
although Hanush’s bank balance sees an
increase.
Based on the above statements which option is
correct?
(a) Only I (b) I and III (c) Only III (d) III and IV
l (c) When the cheque is received and processed in
Hanush’s bank, then Siddhik’s bank balance decreases by
19000 and Hanush’s bank balance report an increase by
same amount.
115. The daily wage of a person in rural area is ` 180.
Arrange the following households in descending
order of vulnerability to poverty.
Name of the Person days Size of the Working
Household of employment Household members of
the family
Ruldoo 14 4 2
Mulkha 15 7 2
Fakira 10 5 4
Preeto 12 6 3
(a) Preeto > Mulkha > Fakira > Ruldoo
(b) Mulkha > Preeto > Ruldoo > Fakira
(c) Mulkha > Ruldoo > Preeto > Fakira
(d) Ruldoo > Fakira > Mulkha > Preeto
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 21
l (b) More is the income of a family less is the vulnerability l (c) Moderation influences of land and sea breezes can be
to poverty of that family. Minimum income is for the calculated by annually mean temperature.
family of Mulkha hence this family is highest vulnerable to In case of Station A
poverty.
14 ´ 2 ´ 180 14.4 + 16.7 + 29.3 + 30.0 + 33.3 + 33.3 + 30.0 + 29.4
Ruldoo Household wage = = 7 ´ 180
4 + 28.9 + 25.6 + 19.4 + 15.6
=
15 ´ 2 ´ 180 12
Mulkha Household wage = = 4.2 ´ 180
7 305.9
= = 25.4°C
10 ´ 4 ´ 180 12
Fakira Household wage = = 8 ´ 180
5 In case of Station B
12 ´ 3 ´ 180
Preeto = = 6 ´ 180 16.8 + 19.2 + 26.6 + 29.8 + 33.3 + 33.9 + 31.3 + 29.0
6
+ 20.1 + 27.0 + 20.1 + 14.9
Hence, order of vulnerability to poverty is =
12
Mulkha > Preeto > Ruldoo > Fakira. 302
= = 25.1°C
116. The following graph shows the distribution of mean 12
monthly temperature and average rainfall of a In case of Station C
particular city during the year.
24.5 + 25.7 + 27.7 + 30.4 + 33.0 + 32.5 + 31.0 + 30.2
40 40
Rainfall (Centimeters )

+ 29.8 + 28.0 + 25.9 + 24.7

35 35 =
30 30 12
Temperature (°C)

25 25
343.4
20 20 = = 28.6°C (maximum)
15 15 12
10 10 In case of Station D
5 5
0
Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May. Jun. Jul. Aug. Sep. Oct. Nov. Dec.
0
21.5 + 23.9 + 28.3 + 32.7 + 35.5 + 32.0 + 27.7 + 27.3
Months + 27.9 + 26.7 + 23.1 + 20.7
=
Which one of the following cities shows the climatic 12
conditions presented in the above graph? 327.3
= = 27.2°C
(a) Nagpur (b) Chennai (c) Jodhpur (d) Bengaluru 12
l (a) The climate of Nagpur city witnesses a very hot From the above calculation it is proved that Station C
weather during the months of summer as shown in above experiences maximum moderation influence of the land
graph. It reaches the pinnacle in the month May and and sea breezes.
reaches its lowest in the month of January and December. 118. Observe the data given in the following table.
Rainfall (Monsoons) take its charge in the month of June.
It showers maximum in the month of July and August as City Female Literacy Male Literacy Sex-Ratio
shown in graph. Rate (%) Rate (%)
So, the presented graph shows the climatic conditions of A 66.77 85.38 960
the Nagpur city.
B 71.16 82.67 980
117. The average mean monthly temperatures of four
C 73.78 77.17 989
stations are given in the following table. The
temperature is influenced by the movements of land D 59.26 79.24 972
and sea breezes.
Based on the above table, identify the city which has
MONTHS the extent of equality between male and female better
Temperature in Degree Celsius
than the rest in terms of the given parameters?
Stations JAN FEB MAR APR MAY JUN JUL AUG SEP OCT NOV DEC
(a) A (b) B
A 14.4 16.7 29.3 30.0 33.3 33.3 30.0 29.4 28.9 25.6 19.4 15.6 (c) C (d) D
B 16.8 19.2 26.6 29.8 33.3 33.9 31.3 29.0 20.1 27.0 20.1 14.9
l (c) City ‘C’ has the extent of equality between male and
C 24.5 25.7 27.7 30.4 33.0 32.5 31.0 30.2 29.8 28.0 25.9 24.7
female better than the rest in terms of given parameters. It
D 21.5 23.9 28.3 32.7 35.5 32.0 27.7 27.3 27.9 26.7 23.1 20.7 can be concluded from the given fact that City ‘C’ has the
highest sex ratio (989) and also the difference between the
Which one of these stations experiences maximum male and female literacy rate is minimal as compared to
moderation influence of the land and sea breezes? other given cities.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
22
119. Ruhani observes sequential change in relation to
altitudinal zones and natural vegetation types
dominated by oak-chestnut; pine-deodar and silver
fur-birch.
Identify the proper sequence of vegetation type, she
has observed from the following.
(a) Alpine to Temperate to Subtropical
(b) Subtropical to Temperate to Alpine
(c) Subtropical to Alpine to Temperate
(d) Temperate to Alpine to Subtropical
l (b) The proper sequence of vegetation type as observed by
Ruhani is Subtropical to Temperate to Alpine.
Subtropical forest occurs through the central and western
Himalaya. In subtropical forests, oak-chestnut are
common species.
Temperate forest is found in the inner dry ranges of the
western Himalayas. Pine-Deodar are common species in
these forests.
Alphine forest occurs above 2700 m of altitude in the
eastern Himalayas and 3000 m in the western Himalayas.
It is a dense forest of silver fur-birch and junipur species.
120. Observe the map given below.
A
B D
C
Identify the shaded regions with their corresponding
geographical features and select the correct option
using the codes given below.
(a) A = Zone of laterite soil, B = Coffee producing area,
C = Cotton textile industries, D = Evergreen forest cover
(b) A = Evergreen forest cover, B = Coffee producing areas,
C = Zone of laterite soil, D = Cotton textile industries.
(c) A = Evergreen forest cover, B = Zone of laterite soil,
C = Coffee producing area, D = Cotton textile industries
(d) A = Cotton textile industries, B = Coffee producing area,
C = Zone of laterite soil, D = Evergreen forest cover.
l (a) Shaded Area A represents laterite soil. Laterite soil
develops in higher areas of the penisular plateau. It is
found mainly in Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Shaded Area B represents coffee producing area.
Karnataka is the largest coffee producing state in India.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
Shaded Area C represents cotton textile industries.
Coimbatore, Erode, Salem, Tirupur and Dindigul are
prominant cotton textile areas in Tamil Nadu.
Shaded Area D represents evergreen forest cover. This
area is near to equator and the climate is very favourable
to evergeen forests.
121. Which of the following geological sequence
properly matches the tectonic events from old to
recent time periods?
(a) Formation of Aravalli - Deccan volcanism - Formation of
Shiwalik - Upliftment of Himadri.
(b) Deccan volcanism - Formation of Aravalli - Upliftment of
Himadri - Formation of Shiwalik.
(c) Deccan volcanism - Formation of Shiwalik - Upliftment of
Himadri - Formation of Aravalli.
(d) Formation of Aravalli - Deccan volcanism - Upliftment of
Himadri - Formation of Shiwalik
l (d) Geological sequence that properly matches the
tectonic events from old to recent time periods is as follows
Formation of Aravalli - Deccan volcanism-Upliftment of
Himadri - Formation of Siwaliks.
122. The given map shows location of different mountain
peaks in India.
B A
C
D
A mountaineer wants to scale the mountain peaks in
Peninsular India starting from North to South.
Identify the correct sequence of peaks the
mountaineer will follows?
(a) A = Mahendragiri; B = Anaimudi ; C = Dodabetta;
D = Mahabaleshwar
(b) A = Dodabetta; B = Mahabaleshwar ; C = Mahendragiri;
D = Anaimudi
(c) A = Anaimudi ; B = Mahendragiri ; C = Dodabetta ;
D = Mahabaleshwar
(d) A = Mahendragiri ; B = Mahabaleshwar ; C = Dodabetta ;
D = Anaimudi
l (d) The mountain peaks in Peninsular India starting from
North to South are as follows
A = Mahendragiri; B = Mahabaleshwar; C = Dodabetta;
D = Anaimudi.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
123. While teaching a topic on agriculture, geography
teacher had made the following statement about a
particular crop in her class.
‘‘Mean Monthly Temperature of about 27°C., high
relative humidity, rainfall of 150 cm in summer months
and Khaddar soils are the ideal physical requirements
during the period of its vegetative growth.’’
Which one of the following crops was stated by the
teacher?
(a) Tea (b) Jute (c) Rubber (d) Sugarcane
l (b) Jute plant is called fertility-exhausting plant.
Therefore, jute needs new alluvial soils. Jute thrives well
in a hot damp climate. Monthly average temperature to
the extent of 27°C is ideal. Average humidity of 80% to
90% is necessary. An annual average rainfall exceeding
150 cm is ideal for Jute cultivation.
124. Bibhuti was travelling to study the traditional
agricultural practices among various communities
in Meghalaya, Jharkhand, Odisha and Western
Ghats. Identify the correct sequence of forms of
cultivation practised in these regions.
(a) Jhumming - Kumari - Pama Dabi - Kuruwa
(b) Kuruwa - Pama Dabi - Jhumming - Kumari
(c) Jhumming - Kuruwa - Pama Dabi - Kumari
(d) Pama Dabi - Kumari - Jhumming - Kuruwa
l (c) The cultivation form that is practiced in the given
regions is Primitive Subsistence Farming. In India, this
primitive form of cultivation is called Jhumming
(Meghalaya), Kuruwa (Jharkhand), Pama Dabi (Odisha),
Kumari (Western Ghat) and Bewar/Dahiya (Madhya
Pradesh).
This type of farming is practiced on small patches of land.
Primitive tools and family/community labour are used in
this type of farming. This is also called ‘slash and burn’
agriculture. A patch of land is cleared by slashing the
vegetation and then the slashed plants are burnt. The ash;
thus obtained is mixed with the soil and crops are grown.
125. River Indus flows through Leh and Kargil districts
in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It has four
major tributaries in India. Which one of the
following is the correct sequence of the tributaries
arranged from East to West in terms of their
confluence with river Indus?
(a) Zaskar - Dras - Hunza - Shyok
(b) Zaskar - Hunza - Dras - Shyok
(c) Hunza - Dras - Zaskar - Shyok
(d) Zaskar - Dras - Shyok - Hunza
l (d) River Indus flows through Leh and Kargil districts in
the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It has four major
tributaries in India. Following is the correct sequence of
the tributaries arranged from East to West in terms of their
confluence with river Indus : Zaskar - Dras -
Shyok-Hunza.
126. A tourist was travelling Indian States and came
across a famous Buddhist Monastery, farming of
three rice crops within the same agricultural year, a
cement factory and floating gardens on a lake.
Identify the proper sequence of the States the tourist
travelled.
23
(a) Sikkim - West Bengal - Assam - Meghalaya
(b) Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh - Assam - Manipur
(c) Arunachal Pradesh - Assam - Meghalaya - Manipur
(d) Arunachal Pradesh - West Bengal - Manipur - Meghalaya
l (c) Arunachal Pradesh - Assam - Meghalaya -Manipur is
the proper sequence of the States the tourist travelled.
Tawang Monastery of Arunachal Pradesh is the largest
monastery of India and second largest of Asia. Rice is
main crop of Assam and three crops of rice are grown in
the same agricultural year.
Various cement factories are found in Meghalaya. Loktak
lake of Manipur is famous as floating lake due to the
presence of floating circular swamps (phumdis in local
language).
127. Observe the following diagrams carefully.
I II III IV
Which one of the above population pyramids is an
ideal representation of India’s population?
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
l (c) Pyramid III is an ideal representation of India’s
population because India has about 34.4% children of its
population which represents base of pyramid, 58.7% adults
which represents middle part of pyramid and 6.9% aged
population which represents top of the pyramid.
128. Which of the following statements regarding
printing in Medieval Europe are correct?
I. Wood block printing reached Europe in the 13th
century.
II. The aristocrats and monks criticised printed
books as cheap vulgarities in the beginning.
III. Printing did not entirely displace the art of
producing books by hand.
IV. Martin Luther had reservations against printing
of books.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV
l (a) The correct statements regarding printing in medival
Europe are as follows
l Wood block printing reached Europe in the 13th century.
l The aristocrats and monks criticised printed books as
cheap vulgarities in the beginning.
l Printing did not entirely displace the art of producing
books by hand.
129. Which of the following statements related to
Mahatma Gandhi’s view on Satyagraha are correct?
I. The movement in South Africa was not passive
resistance.
II. It is the weapon of the people who are not weak.
III. India could not militarily face Britain.
IV. Truth is the supreme dharma.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV
24
l (a) The correct statements related to Mahatma Gandhi’s
view on Satyagraha are as follows
l The movement in South Africa was not passive resistance.
l It is the weapon of the people, who are not weak.
l India could not militarily face Britain.
130. Which of the following statements relating to the
‘Scorched Earth Policy’ in Java are correct?
I. The Dutch destroyed the saw mills.
II. Teak logs were burnt by the Dutch.
III. Trees were cut freely to meet war needs.
IV. The villagers were encouraged to expand
cultivation in the forest areas.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) I and IV
l (b) The correct statements relating to the ‘Scorched Earth
Policy’ in Java are as follows
l The Dutch destroyed the saw mills.
l Teak logs were burnt by the Dutch.
l Trees were cut freely to meet war needs.
131. Which of the following statements about opium
cultivation in India during the British period are
correct?
I. The peasants could sell off the produce freely.
II. Local traders offered higher prices for opium.
III. Opium production was increasing in territories
that were not under the British.
IV. Peasants were getting money advances from the
village headman to produce opium.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
l (d) The correct statements about opium cultivation in
India during the British period are as follows
l Local traders offered higher prices for opium.
l Opium production was increasing in territories that were
not under the British.
l Peasants were getting money advance from the village
headman to produce opium.
132. Observe the given picture taken from New Orleans,
Illustrated London news, 1851.
What does the picture represent?
(a) Mourning
(b) Slave auction
(c) Market place
(d) Roadside gathering
l (b) In the above picture, a condition of Slave auction is
represented.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
133. Why were Nghe An and Ha Tinh provinces called
‘electrical fuses’ of Vietnam?
(a) They were near to the capital city and were centers of power.
(b) They were among the poorest provinces and had an old
radical tradition.
(c) They were very rich and had strong trade links with the
outer world.
(d) They were at the borders and were in conflicts with the
neighbouring countries.
l (b) Nghe An and Ha Tinh provinces called ‘electrical
fuses’ of Vietnam because they were among the poorest
provinces and had an old radical tradition whenever the
colonial system came under pressure, these regions were
the first to rise up in rebellion.
(d) II, III and IV
134. Which of the following would be the part of the
surroundings in a Chawl in Bombay during the
colonial period?
I. Large number of people living in shared rooms.
II. A large population of people belonging to
depressed and lower classes.
III. Streets and neighbourhood being used for a variety
of activities such as cooking, washing and sleeping.
IV. Liquor shops and Akharas in any open spot.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV (c) II and III (d) II, III and IV
l (b) Following are the part of the surroundings in a chawl
in Bombay during the colonial period
l Large number of people living in shared rooms.
l Streets and neighbourhood being used for a variety of
activities such as cooking, washing and sleeping.
l Liquor shops and Akharas in any open spot.
135. Which of the following statements are true in the
context of Cricket in Victorian England?
I. The rules of Cricket were made to favour those
who were described as ‘Players’.
II. The wages of professionals was paid by
patronage or subscription or gate money.
III. Cricket was viewed as a way of teaching English
boys discipline, importance of hierarchy and
leadership qualities.
IV. The rich who played were called amateurs.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
l (d) Following statements are true in the context of Cricket
in Victorian England
l The wages of professionals were paid by patronage or
subscription or gate money.
l Cricket was viewed as a way of teaching English boys
discipline, importance of hierarchy and leadership
qualities.
l The rich who played were called amateurs.
136. Which of the following statements are true for
eighteenth century France?
I. There was much criticism of slavery.
II. The National Assembly feared opposition from
businessmen who were dependant on slave trade.
III. Plantation owners understood their freedom as
including the right to enslave Africans.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 25
IV. The Convention of 1791 legislated to free all l (d) The potato is the world’s fourth largest food crop,
slaves in the French overseas possessions. following rice, wheat and maize.The Europeans in Peru
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV (c) II and III (d) II, III and IV were the first to cultivate potatoes around 8,000 BC to 5,000
BC. By the early 1840s almost half the Irish population-but
l (c) Following statements are true for eighteenth primarily the rural poor - had come to depend almost
century France exclusively on the potato for their diet.
l The National Assembly feared opposition from
Hence, both statements are true but Statement II does not
businessmen who were dependant on slave trade. explains Statement I.
l Plantation owners understood their freedom as including
the right to enslave Africans. 140. Statement I The President of India cannot claim the
kind of direct mandate that the Prime Minister of
137. Which of the following statements are true in the India can.
context of Liberals in Modern Europe?
Statement II A candidate contesting for the post of
I. They opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic President has to gain a majority of votes to be elected
rulers. as the President of India.
II. They wanted to safeguard the rights of l (d) Under the Constitution of India, there shall always be a
individuals against governments. President of India (Article 52). He holds the highest
III. They argued for Independent judiciary. elective office in the country and is elected in accordance
IV. They believed in universal adult franchise for all with the provisions of the Constitution.
The President is elected by an Electoral College, which
men and women with property. consists of the elected members of both Houses of
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative
l (a) Following statements are true in the context of Liberals Assemblies of all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and
in Modern Europe the Union Territory of Puducherry (Article 54 of the
l They opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers.
Constitution of India).
l They wanted to safeguard the rights of individuals Hence, both statements are true but Statement II does not
against governments. explains Statement I.
l They argued for Independent judiciary.
141. If m = n2 - n, where n is an integer, then m2 - 2 m is
Directions (Q. Nos. 138- 140) Read the statements and divisible by
select the correct answer from the options given below. (a) 20 (b) 24
(a) Statement I is true, Statement II is false. (c) 30 (d) 16
(b) Statement I is false, Statement II is true. l (b) Given, m = n2 - n
(c) Both Statements are true and Statement II provides 2
Then, m - 2 m = m(m - 2)
explanation to Statement I. = (n2 - n) (n2 - n - 2) [Q putting the value of ‘m’]
(d) Both Statements are true but Statement II does not
= n(n - 1) (n2 - 2 n + n - 2) = n(n - 1) {n(n - 2) + 1(n - 2)}
provides explanation to Statement I.
= n(n - 1) (n - 2) (n + 1) = (n - 2) (n - 1) (n) (n + 1)
138. Statement I The Bretton Woods system came up For positive value of m2 - 2 m, the minimum value of n = 3,
during the Post-World War Period.
then (n - 2) (n - 1) (n) (n + 1) = (3 - 2) (3 - 1) (3) (3 + 1)
Statement II The industrial nations had massive = 1 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ 4 = 24
growth of trade and incomes.
Hence, m2 - 2 m is divisible by 24 (by the given options).
l (a) The Bretton Woods Conference, officially known as the
United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference, was 142. The value of 97 ´ 98 ´ 99 ´ 100 + 1 is equal to
a gathering of delegates from 44 nations that met in July (a) 9901 (b) 9891 (c) 9801 (d) 9701
1944 in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire.
The two major accomplishments of the conference were l (d) \ The value of 97 ´ 98 ´ 99 ´ 100 + 1
the creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) = x ´ (x + 1) ´ (x + 2) ´ (x + 3) + 1 [let, 97 = x]
and the International Bank for Reconstruction and
= x ´ (x + 2) ´ (x + 1) ´ (x + 3) + 1
Development (lBRD). Until World War I, most countries
were on the gold standard. But they went off so they could = x ´ (x + 3) ´ (x + 2) ´ (x + 1) + 1
print the currency needed to pay for their war costs. = (x2 + 3 x) ´ (x2 + x + 2 x + 2) + 1
It caused hyperinflation, as the supply of money
overwhelmed the demand. The value of money fell so = (x2 + 3 x) ´ (x2 + 3 x + 2) + 1
dramatically that after the war, countries returned to the
safety of the gold standard. = y ´ (y + 2) + 1 [(x2 + 3 x) = y {let}]
Hence, Statement I is true but Statement II is false. = y2 + 2 y + 1 = (y + 1)2 = y + 1
139. Statement I Potatoes had been discovered by the = x2 + 3 x + 1 [putting the value of y]
Europeans in the Americas. = x2 + 1 + 2 x + x = (x + 1)2 + x
Statement II Poor people in Ireland were dependent = (97 + 1)2 + 97 = 9701
on potatoes to escape starvation in the 19th century.
26 NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

1 145. In village Madhubani 8 women and 12 girls can

143. Let P( x ) be a polynomial of degree 3 and P( n) = for
n paint a large mural in 10 h. 6 women and 8 girls can
n = 1, 2, 3, 4. Then, the value of P(5) is paint it in 14 h. The number of hours taken by
1 2 3 7 women and 14 girls to paint the mural is
(a) 0 (b) (c) - (d)
5 5 5 (a) 10 (b) 15
1 (c) 20 (d) 35
l (a) Given, P(n) =
n
l (a) According to the question,
Now, put the values of ‘n’ in given polynomial. (8 women + 12 girls) ´ 10 = (6 women + 8 girls)´ 14
1 1 1 1
P(1) = = 1, P(2) = , P(3) = and P(4) = Þ 80 women + 120 girls = 84 women + 112 girls
1 2 3 4
Þ 4 women = 8 girls
We know that,
\ 1 woman = 2 girls
P(n) ´ n = K(n - 1) (n - 2) (n - 3) (n - 4) + 1 … (i)
Now, 8 women and 12 girls = (8 ´ 2 + 12 = 28) girls can
[Q K = constant] paint a large mural in = 10 h.
Now, put the value of n = 0 Þ 1 girl can paint a large mural in = 10 ´ 28 h.
0 = K(0 - 1) (0 - 2) (0 - 3) (0 - 4) + 1 [Q indirect proportion]
Þ 24 K + 1 = 0 Hence, 7 women and 14 girls = (7 ´ 2 + 14 = 28) girls can
1 paint a large mural in
\ K=- 10 ´ 28
24 = = 10 h
1 28
Again, P(n) ´ n = - (n - 1) (n - 2) (n - 3)(n - 4) + 1
24 3+ 5
[Q putting the value of K in Eq. (i)] 146. If x = and y = x 3 , then y satisfies the
2
1
P(5) ´ 5 = - (5 - 1) (5 - 2) (5 - 3) (5 - 4) + 1 quadratic equation
24 (a) y2 - 18 y + 1 = 0 (b) y2 + 18 y + 1 = 0
1
Þ P(5) ´ 5 = - ´ 4 ´ 3 ´ 2 ´1 + 1 2
(c) y - 18 y - 1 = 0 (d) y2 + 18 y - 1 = 0
24
3+ 5
= -1 + 1 = 0 l (a) Given, x =
2
\ P(5) = 0 Now, put the value of ‘x’ in y = x3
3
144. If a and b are the roots of the equation æ3 + 5 ö (3 + 5 )3
y=ç ÷ =
3 x 2 - 5 x + 3 = 0, then the quadratic equation whose è 2 ø (2)3

roots are a 2b and ab2 is (3)3 + ( 5 )3 + 3 ´ 3 ´ 5 (3 + 5 )

=
(a) 3 x2 - 5 x + 3 = 0 (b) 3 x2 - 8 x + 5 = 0 8
(c) 3 x2 - 8 x + 3 = 0 (d) 3 x2 - 5 x - 3 = 0 [Q(a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3 ab(a + b)]
27 + 5 5 + 9 5 (3 + 5 )
l (a) Given quadratic equation, =
8
3 x2 - 5 x + 3 = 0
27 + 5 5 + 27 5 + 45
Coefficient of x =
Then, a+ b = - 8
Coefficient of x2
(- 5) 5 72 + 32 5
=- = = =9 + 4 5
3 3 8
Constant term Hence, one root is 9 + 4 5 , then second root is 9 - 4 5
and a´b = because irrational roots are conjugate of each other.
Coefficient of x2
3 So, sum of roots = 9 + 4 5 + 9 - 4 5 = 18
= =1
3 and product of roots = (9 + 4 5 ) (9 - 4 5 )
\ Required quadratic equation of given roots, = (9)2 - (4 5 )2 [Q (a + b) (a - b) = a2 - b2 ]
Þ x2 - (sum of roots) x + product of roots = 0 = 81 - 80 = 1
Þ x2 - (a2 b + ab2 ) x + (a2 b ´ ab2 ) = 0 \ Required quadratic equation,
Þ x2 - ab (a + b)x + (ab)3 = 0 y2 - (sum of roots) y + (product of roots) = 0
Þ y2 - 18 y + 1 = 0
x2 - 1æç ö÷ x + (1)3 = 0
5
Þ
è3 ø
147. If tan2 q = 1 - e2 , then the value of
5
Þ x2 - x + 1 = 0 sec q + tan3 q cosec q is equal to
3
(a) (1 - e 2 )1/ 2 (b) (2 - e 2 )1/ 2
\ 3 x2 - 5 x + 3 = 0 2 3/ 2
(c) (2 - e ) (d) (1 - e 2 )3 / 2
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 27
l (c) Given, tan2 q = 1 - e2 149. A solid metallic cylinder of height 10 cm and
Now, sec q + tan3 q cosec q diameter 14 cm is melted to make two cones in the
1 1 proportion of their volumes as 3 : 4, keeping the
= + tan2 q × tan q ´
cos q sin q height 10 cm, what would be the percentage
1 sin q 1 increase in the flat surface area?
= + tan2 q ´ ´
cos q cos q sin q (a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 50 (d) 200
1 tan2 q l (c) Volume of cylinder = pr2 h
= +
cos q cos q 2
= p ´ æç ö÷ ´ 10 éQ radius = diameter ù
14
1 + tan2 q è2 ø êë úû
= 2
cos q
= 490p
= secq (1 + tan2 q)
According to the question,
= ( 1 + tan2 q) ´ (1 + tan2 q) [Qsecq = 1 + tan2 q]
3
Volume of first cone = ´ 490p
= (1 + tan2 q)3 / 2 = (1 + 1 - e2 )3 / 2 7
= (2 - e2 )3 / 2 1 2
pr1 h = 3 ´ 70 p
148. Let the volume of a solid sphere be 288 p cm3 . A 3
1 2
horizontal plane cuts the sphere at a distance of r1 (10) = 3 ´ 70
3 cm from the centre so that the ratio of the curved 3
surface areas of the two parts of the sphere is 3:1. r1 = 3 ´ 3 ´ 7 = 3 7 cm
The total surface area of the bigger part of the 4
Volume of second cone = ´ 490p
sphere (in cm2 ) is 7
(a) 36 p (b) 108 p(c) 135 p (d) 144 p 1 2
4 p r2 h = 4 ´ 70 p
l (c) Volume of solid sphere = p(r)3 3
3 1 2
4 r2 (10) = 4 ´ 70
Þ 288 p = p(r)3 3
3 r2 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 21 = 2 21 cm
3 288 ´ 3
Þ r = = 216
4 Now, flat surface area of cylinder = 2 pr2
\ r = 6 cm = 2 ´ p ´ (7)2 = 98 p
D and flat surface area of cones = p(r1 )2 + p(r2 )2

E = p(3 7 )2 + p(2 21)2 = 147p

A C \ Required increase percentage
3 cm 147 p - 98 p 49
= ´ 100 % = ´ 100% = 50%
O
6 cm 98 p 98

150. Each vertical face of square based vertical pillar of

height 3 m has 7 equal, semi-cylindrical surfaces in
such a way that its horizontal cross-section is as
shown in the figure.
In DEOC, by Pythagoras theorem,

EC = OC2 - OE2 = (6)2 - (3)3

= 36 - 9 = 27 = 3 3
\ Curved surface area of sphere = 4 pr2
= 4 p(6)2 = 144p
3
Then, curved surface area of bigger part = ´ 144p If the radius of each semi-circle is 10 cm, the volume
3 +1
æ 22 ö
= 108p (in m3 ) of the pillar so designed ç taking p = ÷ is
\ Total surface area of bigger part è 7 ø
= 108 p + p (3 3 )2 = 135 p cm2 (a) 5.88 (b) 6.14 (c) 6.42 (d) 7.2
28 NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

l (d) Diameter of cylinder = r ´ 2 Perimeter of triangle = 7p

20 7p
= 10 ´ 2 = 20 cm = m Then, semi-perimeter of triangle(s) =
100 2
140 We know that,
So, length of cuboid (l) = 7 ´ 20 = 140 cm = m
100 Area of triangle D
Radius of inner circle = =
breadth of cuboid (b) = 7 ´ 20 = 140 cm Semi- perimeter s
and height of cuboid(h) = 3 m 1
´ AB ´ BC
\ Required total volume = 14 ´ volume of cylinder AB ´ BC
\ r=2 =
+ volume of cuboid 7p 7p
= 14 ´ pr2 h + l ´ b ´ h 2
22 10 10 140 140 Circumference of circle
= 14 ´ ´ ´ ´3 + ´ ´3 Hence, required ratio =
7 100 100 100 100 Area of triangle
éQ1 cm = 1 mù AB ´ BC
2´p´
êë 100 úû 2 pr 7p
= =
1 1
= 132
. + 5.88 = 7.2 m3 ´ AB ´ BC ´ AB ´ BC
2 2
151. Let ABCD be a square of side 20 cm. The area of the 4
= or 4 : 7
square PQRS (in cm2 ) interior to ABCD, shown in 7
figure is
A 10 L 10 B 153. It is known that area of a cyclic quadrilateral is
Q ( s - a)( s - b)( s - c)( s - d) where a, b, c, d are the
10 10 a+ b+ c + d
P sides and s = . If a circle can also be
M O 2
R inscribed in the cyclic quadrilateral, then the area of
10 10 this quadrilateral is
S
D 10 N 10 C (a) (ab )2 + (cd )2 (b) abcd
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 100 (d) 400 2
(c) (ac ) + (ac ) 2
(d) (ad )2 + (bc )2
l (b) In given figure,
l (b) Let ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral inscribed a circle
Let the area of PQRS = A cm2 and a circle inscribed in quadrilateral ABCD.
and Area of DLBQ = DSDN = DAMP = DORC = a A
Then, Area of ALPQ = MPDS = SRNC = QBOR = 3a
1 S R
\ Area of DADN = ´ AD ´ DN
2
1 B D
Þ a + 3 a + a = ´ 20 ´ 10 Þ 5 a = 100
2
\ a = 20 P Q
\ Area of square = (side)2
C
Þ a + 3 a + a + a + 3 a + a + 3 a + 3 a + A = (20)2
Þ 16 a + A = 400 Let AB = a, BC = b,CD = c, DA = d
a+ b+ c + d
Þ A = 400 - 16 ´ 20 Given, s=
2
Þ A = 400 - 320
2s = a + c + b + d
\ A = 80 cm2
Þ s+ s= a+ c + b+ d
152. A circle is inscribed in a right angled triangle of Þ s= a+ c = b+ d
perimeter 7p. Then, the ratio of numerical values of [Q AS = AR, BS = BP, CP = CQ, DR = DQ]
circumference of the circle to the area of the right
angled triangle is Area of cyclic quadrilateral = (s - a) (s - b) (s - c) (s - d)
(given)
(a) 4 : 7 (b) 3 : 7 (c) 2 : 7 (d) 1 : 7
a+ b+ c + d
where, s=
l (a) Given, A 2
Put s= a+ c = b+ d
Then, area of quadrilateral = (s - a) (s - b) (s - c) (s - d)
r = (a + c - a) (b + d - b) (a + c - c) (b + d - d)
O
= c ´ d ´ a´ b= abcd
B C
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 29
154. Two circles, both of radii a touch each other and Þ a = 14 ´ 3 ´ 3 - 1 / 4
1
each of them touches internally a circle of radius 2a. 1-
Then, the radius of the circle which touches all the Þ a = 14 ´ 3 4 [Q am ´ an = am + n]
3
three circles is
\ a = 14 ´ 34

156. Let ABC be a triangle with sides a, b, c. Then,

lengths of medians of the triangle formed by the
a Pa
O O1 medians of the triangle ABC are
a a 1 1 1 2 2 2
(a) a, b, c (b) a, b, c
2 2 2 3 3 3
r 3 3 3 5 5 5
O2 (c) a, b, c (d) a, b, c
4 4 4 6 6 6
1 2 3
(a) a (b) a (c) a (d) a l (c) According to the question,
2 3 4 A
l (b) In the given above figure,
Q PO2 = 2 a - r
In DOPO2 , by Pythagoras theorem, c d1 b
OO2 = PO2 + (PO2 )2
d3
Þ (a + r)2 = (a)2 + (2 a - r)2 d2
Þ a + r + 2 ar = a2 + 4 a2 + r2 - 4 ar
2 2
B C
Þ 2 ar = 4 a2 - 4 ar a
Þ 2r = 4a - 4r Here, d1 , d2 and d3 are the medians of DABC.
Þ 6r = 4a By Apollonius theorem,
4a 2a é a ù
2
\ r=
6
=
3 2 ê d12 + æç ö÷ ú = b2 + c2
êë è2 ø ú
û
155. Let D be a point on the side BC of a triangle ABC 2 a2
2 d1 + = b2 + c2
such that ÐADC = ÐBAC. If AC = 21 cm, then the 2
side of an equilateral triangle whose area is equal to b2 + c2 a2
d12 = - … (i)
the area of the rectangle with sides BC and DC is 2 4
(a) 14 ´ 31/ 2 (b) 42 ´ 3-1/ 2 (c) 14 ´ 33 / 4 (d) 42 ´ 31/ 2 a2 + c2 b2
Similarly, d22 = - … (ii)
l (c) Given, 2 4
A
a2 + b2 c2
and d32 = - … (iii)
2 4
21 cm Again, let M1 , M2 and M3 are the lengths of medians of
triangle, whose sides d1 , d2 and d3 .
B C
D

Q ÐBAC = ÐADC d1 d2
M1
Now, DACB ~ DDCA
AC BC AB M3
Q = =
DC CA AD M2
\ AC ´ CA = BC ´ DC d3
Þ 21 ´ 21 = BC ´ DC
é 2ù
2 ê M12 + æç 3 ö÷ ú = d12 + d22
Þ BC ´ DC = 441 cm 2 d
êë è2 ø ú
According to the question, û
Area of equilateral triangle = Area of rectangle with sides d32 d2 + d22
BC and DC M12 + = 1
4 2
3 2 d12 + d22 d2
Þ (a) = BC ´ DC 2
M1 = - 3
4 2 4
441 ´ 4
Þ a2 = On putting the values of d1 , d2 and d3 , we get
3
21 ´ 21 ´ 2 ´ 2 b2 + c2 a2 a2 + c2 b2 a2 + b2 c2
Þ a= - + - -
(3)1 / 2 M12 = 2 4 2 4 - 2 4
2 4
Þ a = 42 ´ 3 - 1 / 4
30 NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

a2 + b2 + 2 c2 a2 + b2 159. If two dice are thrown together the probability that

-
2 4 2 a2 + 2 b2 - c2 the difference of the numbers appearing on them is
M12 = -
2 4 ´4 a prime number
2 4
2 a2 + 2 b2 + 4 c2 - a2 - b2 2 a2 + 2 b2 - c2 (a) (b)
M12 = - 9 9
4 ´2 16 5 17
(c) (d)
4 a2 + 4 b2 + 8 c2 - 2 a2 - 2 b2 - 2 a2 - 2 b2 + c2 12 36
M12 =
16 l (b) According to the question,
2
9 c 3 c Minimum difference = 0
M12 = Þ M1 =
16 4 Maximum difference = 5
3 3
Similarly, M2 = b and M3 = a Q Prime numbers between 0 to 5 = 2, 3 and 5
4 4
\ Total (favourable outcomes) cases = [(3, 1), (1, 3), (4, 2),
157. ( x + 1)4 is divided by ( x - 1)3 . Then, the value of the (2, 4), (5, 3), (3, 5), (6, 4), (4, 6), (4, 1), (1, 4), (5, 2), (2, 5),
(6, 3), (3, 6), (1, 6), (6, 1)] = 16
remainder at x = 1 is
Total possible outcomes = 6 ´ 6 = 36
(a) - 16 (b) 0 (c) 16 (d) 32
\ Required probability
l (c) According to the question, Number of favourable outcomes
(x + 1)4 [(x - 1) + 2]4 =
\ = Total number of possible outcomes
(x - 1)3 (x - 1)3 16 4
= =
(x - 1)4 + 4 (x - 1)3 ´ 2 + 6(x - 1)2 ´ 4 + 4(x - 1) ´ 8 + 16 36 9
=
(x - 1)3
160. Observe the following data.
[Q(a + b)4 = a4 + 4 a3 b + 6 a2 b2 + 4 ab3 + b4 ]
Class 0 - 20 20 - 40 40 - 60 60 - 80 80 - 100 Total
\ Remainder = 24(x - 1)2 + 32(x - 1) + 16
Now, x = 1 Frequency 17 f1 32 f2 19 120
= 24(1 - 1)2 + 32(1 - 1) + 16
= 0 + 0 + 16 = 16 If the above data has mean 50, then missing
frequencies f1 and f2 are respectively.
158. A circle passes through the vertices of a triangle (a) 28 and 24
ABC. If the vertices are A( -2, 5), B( -2, - 3), C(2, - 3), (b) 24 and 28
then the centre of the circle is (c) 28 and 30
(a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 1) (c) (-2, 1) (d) (0, - 3) (d) 30 and 28
l (b) Given, l (a)
A (–2,5)
Class interval Frequency ( fi ) Class mark fi xi
( xi )

O 0-20 17 10 170

(x,y) 20-40 f1 30 30f1

B (–2,–3) C (2,–3) 40-60 32 50 1600
60-80 f2 70 70 f2
For given circle,
OA = OB = OC = radius of circle 80-100 19 90 1710
Q OA = OB Total Sfi = 120 Sfi xi = 3480
Þ (x + 2)2 + (y - 5)2 = (x + 2)2 + (y + 3)2 + 30f1 +70f2

Þ (x + 2)2 + (y - 5)2 = (x + 2)2 + (y + 3)2 Q 120 = 17 + f1 + 32 + f2 + 19

Þ y2 + 25 - 10 y = y2 + 9 + 6 y Þ 120 = 68 + f1 + f2
Þ 16 y = 16 \ f1 + f2 = 52 … (i)
\ y =1 Sf x
\ Mean (x) = i i
Again, OB = OC Sfi
3480 + 30 f1 + 70 f2
Þ (x + 2)2 + (y + 3)2 = (x - 2)2 + (y + 3)2 Þ 50 =
120
Þ (x + 2)2 + (y + 3)2 = (x - 2)2 + (y + 3)2
Þ 6000 = 3480 + 30 f1 + 70 f2
Þ x2 + 4 + 4 x = x2 + 4 - 4 x
Þ 30 f1 + 70 f2 = 2520
Þ 4x + 4x = 0 Þ 8x = 0
\ x =0 Þ 3 f1 + 7 f2 = 252 … (ii)
Hence, required centre of circle = (x, y) = (0, 1) From Eqs. (i) and (ii), f1 = 28 and f2 = 24
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 31
Directions (Q.Nos. 161 and 162) Suppose that the 163. An object of mass 2 kg moving under the action of a
acceleration versus time graph of a particle that starts from force which varies with time as shown in the figure.
rest at t = 0 is as shown in the figure.
F
a
(N)
(in m/s2)
10

5
0 t(s)
0 t (in s) 5 10 15 20
10 20 30

–10 –10

161. At what instant does the particle come to rest for the
first time?
(a) 5 s (b) 10 s (c) 15 s Which one of the following statements is correct for
(d) The particle never comes to rest the interval from 0 to 20 s?
(a) The momentum of the object decreases by 75 kg-m/s.
l (c) Diagram as shown below,
a (in m/s2)
(b) The momentum of the object increases by 75 kg-m/s
(c) The momentum of the object increases by 125 kg-m/s
(d) The change in momentum cannot be found as initial speed
5
A1 A3 is unknown.
t (in s) l (b) Diagram as shown below,
10 20 30
A2 F
–10
(N)
10
Area of the acceleration versus time graph shows the
velocity of the particle. A1 A2 A3
O t (s)
Let particle comes to rest for the first time at time t, 5 10 15 A4 20
Now, A1 + A2 = 0 –10
where A1 = Area of first half cycle
A2 = Area of second half cycle Q Area of force versus time graph shows the changes in
Þ 5 ´ 10 + (t - 10) (- 10) = 0 momentum.
Þ 50 - 10(t - 10) = 0 Hence, changes in momentum of an object is given by
Þ 50 - 10t + 100 = 0 Þ50 = 10t Þ t = 15 s DP = A1 + A2 + A3 + A4
1 1
162. What is the total distance travelled by the particle DP = ´ 5 ´ 10 + (10 - 5) ´ 10 + ´ 10 ´ (15 - 10)
2 2
during 30 s? 1
(a) 0 m (b) 500 m (c) 750 m (d) 1000 m + ´ (-10) ´ (20 - 15)
2
l (c) Slope of velocity versus time graph shows the 1 1 1
DP = ´ 5 ´ 10 + 5 ´ 10 + ´ 5 ´ 10 + ´ 5 ´ (- 10)
acceleration, i.e. 2 2 2
change in velocity
Acceleration of an object = = 25 + 50 + 25 - 25 = 75 kg- m / s
time interval
Hence, momentum of object increases by 75 kg-m/s.
Hence, velocity versus time graph will be,
164. Two cars A and B of same mass start from the same
V(m/s)
location at the same time but on different straight
50 roads. Car A travels on a road that has greater angle
A1 of inclination with horizontal compared to the road
20 on which B travels.
t (s)
10 15 A2 30 At any instant both cars A and B have the same height
–50
above the starting point. If EA and EB are total
energies of cars A and B respectively, then
Magnitude of area of velocity versus time graph gives the (a) EA < EB
distance. (b) EA = EB
So, total distance = A1 + | A2 | (c) EA > EB
1 1 (d) Relation between EA and EB cannot be decided based on
= ´ 15 ´ 50 + ´ 15 ´ (- 50) = 750 m given information.
2 2
32 NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

l (a) According to the question, we can draw the following l (d) According to the question, diagram as shown below,
diagram
A

A B
P H
h
θA h h
θB B

In the above figure, qA > qB

Let both objects collide at point P on the height h above the
At any instant, height is same, so potential energy will be ground.
same but car B covers more distance than car A at same
From second equation of motion for objects A and B,
time. Therefore, speed of car B should be more than car A.
Hence, kinetic energy of car B will be more than car A. For object A,
1 1
i.e. EB > EA Þ H - h = uA t + gt 2 = gt 2 … (i) (QuA = 0)
2 2
where EA = Total energy of car A
For object B,
EB = Total energy of car B
1
h = ut + gt 2 … (ii)
165. The gravitational potential energy difference per 2
unit mass between the surface of a planet and a Substitute the value of h from Eq. (ii) in the Eq. (i), we get
point 100 m above it is 1000 J/kg. How much work
H - æçut - gt 2 ö÷ = gt 2
1 1
Þ
is required to be done in moving a 5 kg object 100 m è 2 ø 2
on a slope at 30° to the horizontal on this planet? H
(a) 1250 J (b) 2500 J (c) 4350 J (d) 5000 J Þ H = ut or t =
u
l (b) According to question, we can draw the following Again, from Eq. (i), we get
diagram 2
1 æHö
P Þ H-h= gç ÷
2 èuø
2
1 æHö
Þ h=H- gç ÷
C 100 m 2 èuø
m Q u = 2 gH (given)
100 h= 50 m 2
1 æ H ö
Hence, h = H - gçç ÷
30° 2 è 2 gH ÷ø
A B
H 3H
Q Gravitational potential energy from surface of planet to =H- or h =
4 4
at a point 100 m above is PE = mgh
or gravitational potential energy per unit mass, 167. After they collide, they stick to each other. What is
= gh = 10 ´ 100 = 1000 J / kg (given) the loss in their total energy?
(b) æç ö÷ mgH
In the above diagram, in the DABC, 1
(a) 0
h 1 h è2 ø
Þ sin30 º = Þ = Þ h = 50 m
(c) æç ö÷ mgH
100 2 100 3
(d) 2 mgH
è2 ø
Hence, net work done in moving 100 m on slope at 30º is
W ¢ = mgh¢ = 5 ´ 10 ´ 50 = 2500 J l (b) In the diagram of solution of Q. 166
uA = the initial velocity of object A,
Directions (Q. Nos. 166 and 167) Two identical objects A v A = the velocity at point P of object A,
and B each of mass m start moving along the same vertical
u = the initial velocity of object B
line in opposite directions at the same instant. Object A is
and uB = the velocity at point P of object B.
dropped from rest from a height H above the ground and
object B is projected vertically upward from the ground From third equation of motion,
with speed u = 2 gH . For object A,
v2A = u2A + 2 g(H - h)
166. At what height above the ground do they collide?
= 2 gæç H -
3 H ö gH
(a) æç ö÷ H
1
(b) æç ö÷ H
1 ÷=
è 4 ø 2
è 4ø è2 ø
gH
(c) æç ö÷ H (d) æç ö÷ H
2 3 or vA =
è 3ø è 4ø 2
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 33
For object B, Fig. 1 gives the wavelength of wave, i.e.
3
l = 100 cm
v2B = u2 - 2 gh = ( 2 gH )2 - 2 gæç
3H ö
÷
è 4 ø Fig. 2 gives the time period of wave, i.e.
3 gH T = 2 ms
v2B = 2 gH - gH =
2 2 Hence, speed of the wave in the given medium,
gH l 100
Þ vB = v= = = 50 ´ 103 cm / s
2 T 2 ´ 10 - 3
Objects A and B collide at point P, they stick each-other, or v = 500 m / s
therefore collision will be perfected inelastic collision.
Hence, loss in kinetic energy after collision, 169. A convex lens and a concave lens, each of focal
length 10 cm, are kept separated by a distance of
1 æ mm ö
DKE = ç 1 2 ÷ u2 2 cm as shown in the figure. If the light is incident
2 è m1 + m2 ø from left, the combinations of lenses will be
Q m1 = m2 = m, u = 2 gH ………… .
1 æ m× m ö 2
Hence, D KE = ç ÷ ( 2 gH )
2 è m + mø

´ 2 gH = æç ö÷ mgH
1 m 1
= ´
2 2 è2 ø

168. Given below are two different graphs of variation of (a) converging
density (or pressure) of the medium with position (b) diverging
(fig. 1) and with time (fig. 2) as a wave passes (c) behaving like a glass slab
through the medium. (d) converging or diverging depending on whether the lenses
Density are arranged as shown in the figure or in the reverse order.
or
Pressure l (a) Given, focal length of convex lens, f1 = 10 cm,
Focal length of concave lens,
o
50 100 150 200 x(cm) f2 = - 10 cm
Distance between convex lens and concave lens, d = 2 cm.
Fig. (1) Equivalent focal length of combination,
1 1 1 d
Density = + -
or feq f1 f2 f1 f2
Pressure
1 1 2
= + -
o 10 (- 10) 10 ´ (- 10)
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 t (ms)
1 1 2
= - + or feq = 50 cm
10 10 100
Fig. (2) Q Equivalent focal length of combination is positive, hence
What will be the speed of the wave in the given this combination behaves as converging lens.
medium? 170. In the circuit given, the ratio of work done by the
(a) 25 m/s (b) 50 m/s battery to maintain the current between point A
(c) 250 m/s (d) 500 m/s and B to the work done for the whole circuit is
l (d) 1Ω
Density
or 2Ω 1Ω 2Ω
pressure A B
0 1Ω
50 100 150 200 x (cm)

I
Fig. (1)
Density
or
pressure
1.3V
o 1 1
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 t (ms) (a) (b)
117 13
1
(c) (d) 1
Fig. (2) 12
34 NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

l (b) The circuit diagram as shown below, (a) At both O1 and O2 are zero
1Ω (b) At both O1 and O2 are non-zero
(c) is zero at O1 but non-zero at O2
RA=2Ω 1Ω RB=2Ω (d) is non-zero at O1 but zero at O2
A B
1Ω l (a) i1

O1
R
1.3V i 90° i
The equivalent resistance of the circuit, C D
Req = 2 + RAB + 2 = 4 + RAB
i2
1 1
Q Resistance, RAB = Þ RAB = W
æ1 + 1 + 1 ö 3 iæ q ö
ç ÷ Q Bµ ç ÷ (given)
è1 1 1 ø R è 360º ø
1 13 i 270 i 3
\ Req = 4 + = W From above diagram, B1 = K 1 =K 1 ´
3 3 R 360 R 4
V .
13 i 90 i 1
So, I= = = 0.3 A B2 = K 2 =K 2 ´
Req æ13 ö R 360 R 4
ç ÷
è3 ø So, net magnetic field at O1
Now, potential difference between A and B, K æ i2 3 ö
B = B2 - B1 = ç - i1 ÷
1
VAB = IRAB = 0.3 ´ = 01
. V R è4 4 ø
3 K
or B= [i2 - 3 i1 ] …(i)
W V I 0.1 ´ 0.3 0.03 1 4R
So, ratio of work done, AB = AB = = =
W VI 1.3 ´ 0.3 0.39 13 For parallel combination, V1 = V2
Þ i1 R1 = i2 R2
171. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of
i Þ æ
i2 ç
R
´ 90 ö÷ = i2 æç
R
´ 270 ö÷
radius R carrying current i is B µ and its direction è 360 ø è 360 ø
R
is given by right-hand thumb rule. Magnetic field at i2 3
Þ = i1
the centre of a circular arc subtending an angle q 4 4
i æ q ö Þ i2 = 3 i1
(in degree) is B µ ç ÷ and its direction can be
R è 360° ø From Eq. (i), we get
K
found using right hand rule. So, B= [3 i1 - 3 i1 ] = 0
i 4R
i Similarly, i3

B∝ i θ
R R R B∝ i θ
O2
R 360°
R
i 120° i
P Q
Consider two circular coils made of uniform
conductors as shown in figure 3 and 4. In figure i4
3, points C and D are diametrically opposite to each
other, and in figure 4, Ð PO2Q = 120°. Then, magnetic Net magnetic field (B) at O2 ,
fields ………… . K é120 240 ù
B= i4 - i3
i1 i3 R êë 360 360 úû
B = éê 4 - i3 ùú =
K i 2 K
[i4 - 2 i3 ] …(ii)
R ë 3 3 û 3R
O1 O2
In parallel combination,
R R
i3 éê ´ 240 ùú = i4 æç ´ 120 ö÷
i 90° i 120° R R
i i Þ
C D P Q ë 360 û è 360 ø
i2 i4 2 i3 i4
Þ =
Fig 3 Fig 4 3 3
Þ i4 = 2 i3
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 35
From Eq. (ii), we get, Given circuit can be simplified as
K 1 kΩ
So, B= [2 i3 - 2 i3 ] = 0
3R A 1 kΩ 1 kΩ
So, net magnetic field at both O1 and O2 are zero. 1 kΩ C
B
172. A pin AB of length 2 cm is kept on the axis of a 1 kΩ
convex lens between 18 cm and 20 cm as shown in 1 kΩ 1 kΩ
figure. Focal length of convex lens is 10 cm. Find
magnification produced for the image of the pin. I

8V

A B Between the points A and C, all resistance are connected

in parallel combination. Hence, the equivalent resistance
20 cm

between point A and C is given by

1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + + + or RAC = kW
RAC 1 1 1 1 1 5
(a) 0.83 (b) 1.00 (c) 1.25 (d) 6.78
Similarly, equivalent resistance between point C and B,
l (c) From the given diagram in question, image of A is 1 1 1 1
formed at v1 = 20 cm and for point B, image is formed at = + +
u = - 18 cm RCB 1 1 1
\ Focal length of convex lens, f = 10 cm 1
or RCB = kW
Focal length of convex lens, 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 Q Resistance RAC and RCB are in series.
= - Þ = -
f v u 10 v (- 18) Hence, equivalent resistance of circuit,
1 18 - 10 1 1 8
Þ
1
=
1
- = =
8 RAB = RAC + RCB = + = kW
v 10 18 180 180 5 3 15
180 Hence, current supplied by battery in circuit,
or v= = 22.5 cm 8 8
8 I= = = 15 mA.
Image length = v - v1 = 22.5 - 20 = 2.5 cm RAB (8 / 15)
So, magnification produced for the image of the pin, 174. Read the following statements.
image length 2.5
m= = = 125
. Statement I Sodium metal reacts violently with water
object length 2
to produce heat and fire.
173. What is the current supplied by the battery in the Statement II Potassium metal reacts violently with
circuit shown below? Each resistance used in circuit water to form potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
is of 1 kW and potential difference VAB = 8 V. Select the correct answer from the options given
below.
A (a) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(b) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(c) Both Statements are true and Statement II provides correct
explanation to Statement I
(d) Both Statements are true and Statement II does not
B provide correct explanation to Statement I
l (d) Sodium and potassium react violently with cold water
to produce metal hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
(a) 64 mA (b) 15 mA (c) 9.87 mA (d) 1 mA From Statement I
l (b) According to the question, Na + H2 O ¾® NaOH + H2 (g) + Energy
C From Statement II
K + H2 O ¾® KOH + H2 (g) + Energy.
1Ω A 1Ω So, both statements are true, but Statement II does not
C C provide correct explanation to Statement I.
1Ω 1Ω 175. You are provided with 18 g each of O2 , N2 , CH4 and
H 2O. Which of the following is the correct
1Ω B 1Ω decreasing order of number of atoms present in
C C these samples?
1Ω (a) CH4 > H2O > N2 > O 2 (b) O 2 > N2 > H2O > CH4
(c) CH4 > N2 > O 2 > H2O (d) N2 > H2O > O 2 > CH4
C
36 NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

l (a) 177. An organic compound A on heating with

(i) For O2 -atoms concentrated H 2SO 4 gave product B and on warming
Given mass = 18 with alkaline KMnO4 gave compound C.
Molar mass of O2 = 32 g/mole Compound A on heating with compound C in
18 presence of concentrated H2SO4 formed compound
Number of O2 -atoms = ´ 2 ´ N A = 1125
. NA
32 D, which has fruity smell.
(ii) For N2 -atoms Identify the compounds A, B, C and D
Given mass = 18 (a) A = Alcohol, B = Carboxylic acid, C = Alkene, D = Ester
Molar mass of N2 = 28 g/mole (b) A = Carboxylic acid, B = Ester, C = Alkene, D = Alcohol
Number of N2 -atoms =
18
´ 2 ´ N A = 128
. NA (c) A = Alcohol, B = Alkene, C = Carboxylic acid, D = Ester
28 (d) A = Alkene, B = Alcohol, C = Ester, D = Carboxylic acid
(iii) For H2 O-atoms l (c) Correct answer is
Given mass = 18 g A = Alcohol, B = Alkene, C = Carboxylic acid, D = Ester
Molar mass of H2 O = 18 Conc. H2SO4
18 C2 H5 OH ¾ ¾¾¾¾¾® CH2 == CH2 + H2 O
Number of H2 O-atoms = ´ 3 ´ NA = 3NA Alcohol ( A ) D Alkene( B )
18
Alk. KMnO4
(iv) For CH4 -atoms C2 H5 OH ¾ ¾¾¾¾
¾® CH3 COOH
Carboxylic acid ( C )
Given mass = 18 g
Molar mass of CH4 = 16 Conc. H 2SO4
CH3 COOH + C2 H5 OH ¾¾¾¾® CH3 COOC2 H5 + H2 O
18
Number of CH4 -atoms = ´ 5 ´ N A = 5.6 N A ( C) (A) Ester ( D)
16
Alternate (shortcut) Method 178. Match list-I (mixture) and list-II (type) with the
N¢ w list-III (example) and select the correct answer from
Q =
NA M the combination given below.
Where, w and N A are given mass and Avogadro Number List-I (mixture) List-II (type) List-III (example)
respectively and are same for all the species. A. Liquid in gas 1. Emulsion I. Mist
N¢ = Number of particles and M = molar mass of species. B. Liquid in liquid 2. Aerosol II. Sponge
1
Thus, N¢ µ C. Gas in solid 3. Foam III. Face cream
M
4. Gel IV. Butter
Also, M for O2 = 32
N2 = 28 (a) A-3-II, B-2-III, C-4-IV (b) A-2-I, B-1-III, C-3-II
H2 O = 18 (c) A-1-III, B-2-II, C-3-I (d) A-1-II, B-4-I, C-2-III
CH4 = 16 l (b) The correct answer from the combination is,
So, the decreasing order of number of atoms is (A) Liquid in gas (2) Aerosol (I) Mist
CH4 > H2 O > N2 > O2 (B) Liquid in liquid (1) Emulsion (III) Face cream
(C) Gas in solid (3) Foam (II) Sponge
176. Manya, Kartik, Gurnoor and Sheena has arranged
the ions F- , Na + , O2 - and Mg + in decreasing orders 179. Which of the following sets of reactions will not
occur?
of their ionic radii.
I. MgSO4 ( aq) + Fe( s) ® FeSO4 ( aq) + Mg( s)
Manya — O2 - > Mg 2 + > F - > Na +
II. CuSO4 ( aq) + Fe( s) ® FeSO4 ( aq) + Cu( s)
Kartik — Mg 2 + > Na + > O2 - > F -
III. MgSO4 ( aq) + Cu( s) ® CuSO4 ( aq) + Mg( s)
Gurnoor — O2 - > F - > Na + > Mg 2 +
IV. CuSO4 ( aq) + Zn( s) ® ZnSO4 ( aq) + Cu( s)
Sheena — F - > Na + > O2 - > Mg 2 + (a) I and III (b) II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
Who had provided the correct order of their l (a) More reactive metal can displace less reactive metal
decreasing ionic radii? from its salt solution.
(a) Manya (b) Kartik According to activity series, the reactivity order of metals
(c) Gurnoor (d) Sheena is : Mg > Zn > Fe>Cu
(I) MgSO4 (aq) + Fe(s) ¾® FeSO4 (aq) + Mg(s)
l (c) If the species having same number of total electrons
then, it is called ‘isoelectronic’. Here, Fe is less reactive than Mg.
F - , Na+ , O2 - and Mg2 + are isoelectronic. So, this reaction will not be occured.
(III) MgSO4 (aq) + Cu(s) ¾® CuSO 4 (aq) + Mg(s)
If number of protons increases, size of ion decreases.
Here, Cu is less reactive than Mg.
So, the correct order of their decreasing ionic radii is
So, this reaction will not be occured.
O2 - > F - > Na+ > Mg2 +
Hence, Gurnoor had provided the correct order.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II) 37
180. Two organic compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ react with Choose the correct decreasing order of reactivity of
sodium metal and both produce the same gas ‘X’, these metals amongst the following :
but with sodium hydrogen carbonate only (a) M > L > H > K (b) K > M > H > L
compound B reacts to give a gas ‘Y ’. Identify ‘A’, ‘B’, (c) M > K > L > H (d) L > H > K > M
‘X’ and ‘Y ’. l (c) Metal M reacts with cold water and metal K reacts with
(a) A = Ethylene, B = Ethyl alcohol, X = Carbon dioxide, warm water, it shows metal M is more reactive than K.
Y = Hydrogen Metal H and L does not react with dilute HCl and water
(b) A = Ethyl alcohol, B = Acetic acid, X = Hydrogen, respectively but metal L displaces metal H from its salt
Y = Carbon dioxide solution, it shows metal L is more reactive than H.
(c) A = Methyl alcohol, B = Ethyl alcohol, X = Hydrogen, So, the decreasing order of reactivity of these metals is :
Y = Carbon dioxide M > K > L > H.
(d) A = Acetic acid, B = Formic acid, X = Carbon dioxide,
Y = Hydrogen 183. Match chemical reactions given in the list-I with the
type of chemical reactions given in list-II and select
l (b) 2CH3 ¾ CH2 ¾ OH + 2 Na ¾® 2 C2 H5 ¾ ONa + H2 (g) the correct option using the combinations given below.
Ethyl alcohol ( A ) (X )
Hydrogen
List-I List II
2CH 3 COOH + Na ¾® 2 CH 3 COONa + H2 (g) (Chemical reactions) (Type of chemical
Acetic acid ( B ) (X )
reactions)
CH 3 COOH + NaHCO3 ¾® CH 3 COONa + H 2 O + CO2 (g) A. Formation of NH 3 from N 2 and H 2 I. Decomposition
Acetic acid( B ) (Y)
Carbon B. Calcination of zinc carbonate II. Double
dioxide displacement
The correct answer will be
A = Ethyl alcohol, B = Acetic acid, X = Hydrogen, C. Reaction of aqueous BaCl 2 III. Combination
solution with dilute H 2 SO 4
Y = Carbon dioxide
D. Rancidity of oils IV. Redox
181. Consider the elements A, B, C and D with atomic V. Displacement
numbers 11, 12, 16 and 17, respectively. Which
among the following statements regarding these (a) A-I, B-V, C-III, D-IV (b) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-I
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-I (d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
elements are correct?
I. The element C will gain electron more easily than l (d) (A) Formation of NH3 from N2 and H2 ® Combination
reaction.
element D
N2 + 3H2 ¾® 2NH3
II. The element B tends to lose electron more readily
(B) Calcination of zinc carbonate ® Decomposition reaction
than C. D
ZnCO3 ¾¾ ® ZnO + CO2
III. The oxide of A will be least basic while that of D
will be most basic. (C) Reaction of aqueous BaCl2 solution with dil.H2 SO4 ®
Double displacement reaction
IV. The energy required to remove an electron from
outermost shell from A will be minimum while BaCl2 + H2 SO4 ¾® BaSO4 + 2HCl
that from D will be maximum. (D) Rancidity of oil ® Redox reaction
(a) I and III (b) I and IV (c) II and III (d) II and IV So, A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV is the correct answer.
l (d) A B C D 184. You are provided with aqueous solutions of three
Atomic number - 11 12 16 17 salts — A, B and C, 2-3 drops of blue litmus solution,
Elements - Na Mg S Cl red litmus solution and phenolphthalene were
Sodium and magnesium will show metallic properties added to each of these solution in separate
while, sulphur and chlorine will show non-metallic experiments. The change in colours of different
properties. indicators were recorded in the following table
(II) Mg (metal) lose electron more readily than sulphur. Sample With blue With red With
(IV) Energy required to remove an e- from outermost shell litmus solution litmus solution phenolphthalene
from sodium will be minimum while that from chlorine solution
will be maximum. A No change No change No change
So, statement (II) and (IV) are correct.
B Turns red No change No change
182. The following obse+rvations are given for four C No change Turns blue Turns pink
metals :
I. Metal H does not react with dilute HCl. On the basis of above observations, identify A, B and
C from the following options :
II. Metal K reacts with warm water.
(a) A = NH4Cl, B = NaCl, C = CH3COONa
III. Metal L does not react with water but displaces (b) A = NH4Cl, B = CH3COONa, C = NaCl
metal H from its aqueous salt solution. (c) A = NaCl, B = NH4Cl, C = CH3COONa
IV. Metal M reacts with cold water. (d) A = CH3COONa, B = NH4Cl, C = NaCl
38 NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)

l (c) A = NaCl, B = NH4 Cl, C = CH3 COONa l (c) Given, atomic number of A element = 1
atomic number of B element = 17
Sample With blue With red With
litmus litmus phenolphthal So, electronic configuration of A = 1
solution solution -ene solution electronic configuration of B = 2, 8, 7
A. NaCl No change No change No change Both A and B require one electron to complete their
(neutral) (neutral) outermost shell.
B. NH 4Cl Turns red No change No change So, the formula of the compound is AB.
(acidic Its nature is covalent and its aqueous solution is acidic in
solution) nature.
C. CH 3COONa No change Turns blue Turns pink 188. Choose one of the following alternative statements
(basic (basic given below, which correctly explain the process of
solution) solution)
osmosis.
(a) Movement of water from regions of concentrated to dilute
185. Match list-I (mixture to be separated) with the list-II
solution
(method used) and select the correct answer using
(b) The passage of solute from weak solution to strong
the options given below: solution through a selectively-permeable membrane
List-I List II (c) A passive transport of a solvent through a
(Mixture to be separated) (Methods used) selectively-permeable membrane from a region of low
A. Liquid N 2 and liquid O 2 I. Chromatography solute concentration to a region of high solute
concentration
B. Red and blue inks II. Sublimation (d) An energy-dependent transport of a solvent through a
C. Solution of NaCl in water III. Fractional distillation selectively-permeable membrane from region of low solute
D. Nephthalene and NaCl IV. Evaporation concentration to a region of high solute concentration
V. Crystallisation l (c) A passive transport of a solvent through a
selectively-permeable membrane from a region of low
(a) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-V (b) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV solute concentration to a region of high solute
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II concentration is known as osmosis. It permits the free
passage of water molecules, but restricts the passage of
l (c) (A) Liquid N2 and liquid O2 can be separated by dissolved solutes. The net direction and rate of osmosis
fractional distillation. depends on both pressure gradient and concentration
(B) Red and blue inks can be separated by gradient.
chromatography.
189. In meiosis, each of the four daughter cells has one
(C) NaCl in water can be separated by evaporation.
set of chromosomes. Due to randomness of process
(D) Nephthalene and NaCl can be separated by of chromosome separation in meiosis, large number
sublimation as nephthalene is sublime in nature.
of chromosome combinations can form gametes.
So, A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II is the correct answer. How many such chromosome combinations in the
186. Select the correct set of statements regarding gametes are possible in case of humans, assuming
change in properties, as we move down the second there is no crossing-over taking place?
group in periodic table. (a) 2 22 (b) 2 23 (c) 2 46 (d) 2 34
I. Atomic size increases l (b) During meiosis due to random separation of
homologous chromosome 2 n number of gametes are formed.
II. Electronegativity increases.
In human, n = 23
III. Tendency to loose electrons increases
Where, n is the number of homologous chromosome pairs.
IV. Valency remains same So, 223 chromosome combinations in the gametes are
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV possible in case of humans.
l (d) As we move down the second group in periodic table, then
190. Sclerenchyma in plants is an example of simple
Atomic size increases.
permanent tissue comprising of two types of
Due to increase in size, it can easily loose electrons. cells-sclereids and fibres. Why these cells are
Valency remains same i.e. 2. functionally important to the plants even after they
So, the correct set of statements are I, III and IV. die?
187. Which of the following options containing formula Choose the correct alternative from the options given
bonding and nature of aqueous solution, respectively below.
is correct for the compound formed by two elements (a) Both are thin-walled cells lacking intercellular spaces
(b) Walls in both the types of cells are thick and cutinised.
A and B having atomic numbers 1 and 17,
(c) Walls in both the cell types are thick and usually lignified.
respectively?
(d) Both the cells are used for conducting solutes and
(a) AB, ionic, acidic (b) AB 2 , ionic, basic
providing strength to the plant.
(c) AB, covalent, acidic (d) AB 2 , covalent, neutral
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
l (c) Sclerenchyma in plants is an example of simple
permanent tissue comprising of two types of cells, sclereids
and fibres. These cells are functionally important to the plants
even after they die because walls in both cell types are thick
and usually lignified and provide strength to the plant.
191. Which one of the following organisms has a cellular
respiratory pigment dissolved in plasma and is also
a predaceous carnivore and shows matriphagy?
(a) Scorpion (b) Cockroach
(c) Earthworm (d) Sea cucumber
l (a) Scorpion has a cellular respiratory pigment dissolved
in plasma and is also a predaceous carnivore. It’s offspring
consume mother within first few weeks of life which is
called matriphagy.
192. Lichens are sensitive to certain air pollutants and
are often replaced by other plants. From the given
options choose the best combination of sensitivity
and replacement of lichens.
(a) Sulphur dioxide and moss (b) Sulphur dioxide and algae
(c) Carbon dioxide and ferns (d) Sulphur dioxide and grass
l (a) Lichens are sensitive to sulphur dioxide and are
replaced by mosses. Lichens are sensitive to SO2 because
their efficient absorption systems result in rapid
accumulation of sulphur when exposed to high level of
sulphur dioxide pollution. Lichen is a composite, which is
formed by an algae and a fungus.
193. A student was performing an experiment to
understand the enzyme-substrate reaction. The
student measured the formation of coloured product
using a calorimeter. The student plotted the graph
below which shows the reaction rate versus the
substrate concentration.
Following interpretations were
drawn by the student :
Reaction rate
A. The higher concentration of
substrate acts as an enzyme
inhibitor.
B. It is a sigmoidal curve with
Substrate
sharp transition from low to
concentration
high reaction rates over the
increasing substrate concentration.
C. The curve reaches a plateau and does not further
increase with increasing substrate
concentrations due to saturation of enzyme with
the substrate.
Choose which of the interpretations of the graph are
correct.
(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) Only B (d) B and C
l (b) According to the given graph, reaction rate is
increasing with substrate concentration but after a certain
point, higher concentration of substrate act as an enzyme
inhibitor. Thus, the curve reaches a plateau and does not
further increase with increasing substrate concentration
due to saturation of enzyme with the substrate. Further
increase in reaction velocity occurs only if the enzyme
concentration is increased. Thus, enzyme and substrate
concentration affects the rate of reaction.
39
194. Glucose is the prime source of energy in our body.
However, it is stored in the form of glycogen in the
muscle and liver of animals and in the form of
starch in plants. As a result, every time a cell
requires glucose, it must hydrolyse glycogen which
is an energy consuming process. Why does the cell
store glycogen instead of glucose in free form?
(a) Glycogen is more compact and more hydrophilic
(b) Storage of glucose in free form will consume more ATP
(c) Glucose in the free form creates more osmotic pressure
(d) Glucose is highly reactive molecule hence storing in the
free form can result in unwanted reactions in the cells
l (c) Glucose in the free form creates more osmotic pressure,
so to maintain osmolarity, the cell stores glycogen instead
of glucose in free form. Osmotic pressure is determined by
molar concentration of the solute particles in the solution.
195. The figure given below is designed to show yeast
respiration. In one of the tubes, there is yeast
suspension in glucose solution. This solution was
boiled before yeast was added to it. Which one of
the following is the possible reason for boiling of
sugar solution?
Oil
Bicarbonate
Glucose+yeast
suspension indicator
(a) To ensure aerobic fermentation
(b) To provide the initial warmth for the yeast to become active
(c) To remove the dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide from
the solution
(d) To remove dissolved carbon dioxide and trap the oxygen
from the atmosphere
l (c) The possible reason for boiling of sugar solution is to
remove the dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide from the
solution. It is done to ensure anaerobic fermentation and
to verify CO2 production during fermentation.
196. A squirrel was eating a fruit on the ground.
Suddenly, it was attacked by a dog. The squirrel
rushed to the tree immediately and saved itself from
the dangerous attack. What immediate changes are
most likely to have taken place in the body of the
squirrel?
A. Blood flows to the stomach for rapid digestion.
B. Adrenaline was secreted in the blood by the
adrenal glands.
C. Heartbeat becomes faster and heart pumps more
blood so that muscles get more oxygen
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone is secreted in the
blood and blood flows more towards the vital organs.
40
Select the correct combination of options given below
(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) B and C (d) C and D
l (c) In an emergency situation, adrenaline hormone is
secreted in the blood by the adrenal gland that increases
heartbeat and pumps more blood, so that muscles get more
oxygen. Adrenaline is associated with potentiating proper
response in conditions of “flight or fight”. Adrenaline and
nor-adrenaline are rapidly secreted in response to stress of
any kind and during emergency situations. Both these
hormones increase heartbeat, strength of heart contraction
and rate of respiration.
197. Stimulus from the environment is detected by the
nerve cells. The stimulus acquired is transmitted in
the form of electrical impulse. From the options
given below choose the correct scheme showing the
direction in which the nerve impulse travels.
(Arrows show the direction of impulse flow).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
l (c) The nerve impulse flows in one direction. The nerve
impulse travels along a neuron or across a synapse
(junction), between nerve endings of the preceeding neuron
and dendrites of the succeeding neuron. The dendrites of a
neuron receive incoming nerve impulses and axon
transmits the impulse to another neuron or receptor
through nerve endings.
198. ‘‘Double fertilisation’’ is a complex mechanism of
flowering plants that is also unique to angiosperms.
Choose the most appropriate statement from the
options listed below that explains this phenomenon.
(a) Fertilisation in two flowers of the same plant forming
endosperms
(b) Two male gametes fertilise two eggs inside the ovule as a
result the ovary gives rise to bigger fruits
(c) Two fertilisations occur in a flower-one fertilisation results in
the formation of a diploid zygote and the second
fertilisation results in the formation of a triploid endosperm
(d) Two pollen grains sending two pollen tubes inside the
ovary, resulting in the formation of two seeds inside the
fruit
l (c) In “Double fertilisation”, two fertilisations occur in a
flower-one fertilisation results in the formation of a diploid
zygote and the second fertilisation results in the formation
of a triploid endosperm.
In angiosperms, during double fertilisation, two male
gametes reach to ovule via pollen tube. One male gamete
fuses with zygote to form diploid zygote and second male
gamete fuses with secondary nucleus to form triploid
endosperm.
NTSE SOLVED PAPER 2019 (Stage II)
199. It is generally observed that malaria is rampant in
areas where construction work and/or stagnant water
are usually seen. Plasmodium species are known to
cause malaria. The parasite when injected by the
mosquito into the human bloodstream goes through
specific life cycle stages. Select from below the
correct sequence of stages.
(a) Mosquito (sporozoites) ® Human liver (merozoites)
® Human RBC (gametes) ® Mosquito
(zygote-oocyst-sporozoites)
(b) Mosquito (merozoites) ® Human RBC (gametes) ®
Human liver (sporozoites) ® Mosquito (oocyst - zygote -
sporozoites)
(c) Mosquito (merozoites) ® Human liver (sporozoites) ®
Human RBC (gametes) ® Mosquito (oocyst - zygote -
sporozoites)
(d) Mosquito (sporozoites) ® Human liver (sporozoites) ®
Human RBC (merozoites) ® Mosquito (zygote - oocyst -
sporozoites)
l (a) The correct sequence of malaria parasite’s life cycle
stages in the human body is
Mosquito (sporozoites) ® Human liver (merozoites) ®
Human RBC (gametes) ® Mosquito (zygote-oocyst -
sporozoites).
Plasmodium completes its life cycle in two hosts. Its
infectious stage is sporozoite which multiplies in liver cells
and resultant merozoites enters in RBC to produce
gametocyte which are further taken by mosquito where
they fertilize in mosquito intestine.
200. A plant with red coloured flowers is crossed with a
plant having white flowers. The red and white colours
of the flower are controlled by a single gene. Red is
dominant over white. The F1 progeny is
self-pollinated and the flower colour in F2 is
observed.
Given the above information, what is the expected
phenotypic ratio of plants with different flower
colours?
(a) All plants with red flowers
(b) Red : White in the ratio of 3 : 1.
(c) Pink : White in the ratio of 3 : 1.
(d) Red : Pink : White in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1.
l (b) According to given information, expected phenotypic
ratio of plants with different flower colours will be
Red : White in the ratio of 3 : 1.
Red flower White flower Parents
RR x rr
Red flower
Rr F1-generation
R r
RR Rr
R (Red) (Red)
r Rr rr
F2 -generation
(Red) (White)
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 1

NTSE Solved Paper

NATIONAL TALENT
SEARCH
EXAMINATION
2018 (Stage I)

INSTRUCTIONS
This solved paper consists of two papers. Paper I consists of Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Paper II consists of
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT).
MAT covering (Q. Nos. 1-50) of Maths and (Q. Nos. 51-100) of Reasoning.
SAT consists of (Science, Mathematics and Social Science) which comprises 100 questions (40 Science, 20 Mathematics
and 40 Social Science).
There will be no negative marking.
Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.

Time : 240 Minutes Max. Mark : 200

Paper I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

25 50 \ (x - y)2 = x2 + y2 - 2 xy
1. If x + = 10, then value of x 2 + 2 will be
x x = 15 - (- 6) [from Eqs. (ii) and (iii)]
(a) 29 (b) 25 (c) 24 (d) 27 = 15 + 6 = 21
(d) Given, a b c a+b+c
25 3. If = = , then value of will be
x+ = 10 3 5 7 b
x
(a) 7 (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 5
Þ x2 + 25 = 10 x
(b) Given,
Þ x - 10 x + 25 = 0
2
a b c
Þ (x - 5)2 = 0 [ (a - b)2 = a2 - 2 ab + b2 ] = = = k Þ a = 3 k, b = 5 k, c = 7 k
3 5 7
Þ x =5 a + b + c 3 k + 5 k + 7 k 15 k 15
50 50 \ = = = =3
\ x2 + 2 = (5)2 + 2 b 5k 5k 5
x (5)
50 4. If sum of two numbers is 25 and sum of their square
= 25 + = 25 + 2 = 27
25 is 425, then what will be their product?
(a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 100 (d) 400
2. If x + y = 3 and x 2 + y 2 = 15, then value of ( x - y )2
(c) Let the numbers are x and y.
will be According to the question,
(a) 21 (b) 36 (c) 25 (d) 16
x + y = 25 … (i)
(a) Given, x2 + y2 = 425 … (ii)
x + y =3 … (i) Squaring the both sides of Eq. (i), we get
and x2 + y2 = 15 … (ii) x2 + y2 + 2 xy = 625
On squaring the both sides of Eq. (i), we get Þ 425 + 2 xy = 625 [from Eq. (ii)]
x2 + y2 + 2 xy = 9 200
Þ 2 xy = 625 - 425 Þ xy = = 100
Þ 15 + 2 xy = 9 [from Eq. (ii)] 2
Þ 2 xy = 9 - 15 = - 6 …(iii) Hence, the product of their numbers is 100.
2 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

5. If 0.64 ¸ a2 = 64, then positive value of ‘a’ will be 8. If 17 + x 11 = 11 + 6 then value of x 2 will be
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.01 (c) 1.0 (d) 10 (a) 11 (b) 23 (c) 6 (d) 24
(a) Given, (d) Given,
0.64 ¸ a2 = 64 17 + x 11 = 11 + 6
0.64
Þ = 64
a2 On squaring the both sides, we get
0.64 64 17 + x 11 = 11 + 6 + 2 11 ´ 6
Þ a2 = =
64 64 ´ 100 [ (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2 ab]
1 1 Þ x 11 = 17 + 2 11 ´ 6 - 17
Þ a2 = Þa=
100 10 Þ x 11 = 2 11 ´ 6
(taking positive value) 2 11 ´ 6
Þ x= = 2 6 Þ x2 = 24
Þ a = 01
. 11

6. Divisor is 30 times of Quotient and 4 times of a

9. If 0.02 ´ 0.2 ´ a = 0.2 ´ 0.2 ´ b, then value of will
Remainder. If Quotient is 20 then Dividend will be b
(a) 1200 (b) 12150 (c) 10000 (d) 600 be
(b) According to the question, (a) 0.4 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.02
Divisor = 30 ´ Quotient (a) Given,
= 30 ´ 20 [ Quotient = 20 (given)] 0.02 ´ 0.2 ´ a = 0.2 ´ 0.2 ´ b
= 600 On squaring the both sides, we get
and Divisor = 4 ´ Remainder 0.02 ´ 0.2 ´ a = 0.2 ´ 0.2 ´ 0.2 ´ 0.2 ´ b
Þ 600 = 4 ´ Remainder a 0.2 ´ 0.2 ´ 0.2 ´ 0.2
Þ = = 0.4
600 b 0.02 ´ 0.2
Þ Remainder = = 150
4
\ Dividend = Divisor ´ Quotient + Remainder
10. If 7 - 3 and 7 + 3 are solution of a quadratic
= 600 ´ 20 + 150 equation, the quadratic equation will be
= 12000 + 150 (a) x2 - 14 x + 46 = 0 (b) x2 + 14 x - 46 = 0
= 12150 (c) x2 - 14 x - 46 = 0 (d) x2 + 14 x + 46 = 0
(a) Roots of quadratic equation are 7 - 3 and 7 + 3 .
a
7. If 3 a - 2 b = 27 and 9 a + b = 3, then value of - will be Sum of roots = 7 - 3 + 7 + 3 = 14
b Product of roots = (7 - 3 ) (7 + 3 ) = 49 - 3 = 46
-4 5 5 8
(a) (b) (c) (d) [ (a - b) (a + b) = a2 - b2 ]
3 8 6 5
\ Quadratic equation, x - (sum of roots) x
2

(d) Given, + (product of roots) = 0

3 a - 2 b = 27 Þ x2 - 14 x + 46 = 0
Þ 3 a - 2 b = (3)3
Þ a - 2b = 3 … (i)
11. In a triangle PQR if ÐQ = 3 ÐR = 2( ÐP + ÐR), then
(on comparing of indices) value of ÐQ will be
and 9a +
=3 b (a) 110° (b) 120° (c) 40° (d) 102°
Þ (3) 2 ( a + b)
= (3)1 Þ 2 (a + b) = 1 (b) Given, In DPQR,
(on comparing of indices) ÐQ = 3 ÐR = 2 (ÐP + ÐR)
1 ÐQ
Þ a+ b= … (ii) \ ÐQ = 3 ÐR Þ R = … (i)
2 3
On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get and 3 ÐR = 2(ÐP + ÐR)
1 6 -1 Þ 3 ÐR = 2 ÐP + 2 ÐR Þ 2ÐP = ÐR
- 3b = 3 - Þ - 3b =
2 2 ÐR ÐQ
Þ ÐP = Þ ÐP = … (ii)
-5 2 6
Þ b=
6 [from Eq. (i)]
On putting the value of ‘b’ in Eq. (i), we get In DPQR, ÐP + ÐQ + ÐR = 180°
- 5ö ÐQ ÐQ
a - 2 æç
5
÷ =3 Þa=3 - Þ + ÐQ + = 180° [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
è 6 ø 3 6 3
4 ÐQ + 6 ÐQ + 2 ÐQ
Þ a= Þ = 180°
3 6
4 Þ 9 ÐQ = 6 ´ 180°
a 4 ´6 8 6 ´ 180°
\ - =- 3 = = \ ÐQ =
b 5 3 ´5 5 9
-
6 = 6 ´ 20° = 120°
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 3
p x +3 p2 - q2 (c) Given, 2 x = 8 y -1
12. If = then value of 2 will be
q x -3 p + q2 Þ 2 x = (2)3( y -1 )
6x 6x 12 x 12 x Þ x = 3(y -1) [comparing of indices]
(a) (b) 2 (c) 2 (d)
x2 - 9 x +9 x +9 x2 - 9 Þ x - 3y = - 3 … (i)
p x+3 and 9y = 3x - 6
(b) = = k (Let) Þ (3)2 y = (3)x - 6
q x -3
Þ p = k(x + 3), q = k (x - 3) Þ 2y = x - 6 [comparing of indices]
p2 - q2 [k(x + 3)]2 - [k(x - 3)]2 Þ x - 2y = 6 … (ii)
\ =
p + q
2 2
[k(x + 3)]2 + [k(x - 3)]2 On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get
- y = -9 Þ y =9
k2 (x2 + 9 + 6 x) - k2 (x2 + 9 - 6 x)
= Putting the value of ‘y’ in Eq. (ii), we get
k2 (x2 + 9 + 6 x) + k2 (x2 + 9 - 6 x)
x - 18 = 6 Þ x = 6 + 8 = 24
k2 (x2 + 9 + 6 x - x2 - 9 + 6 x)
= \ x + y = 24 + 9 = 33
k2 (x2 + 9 + 6 x + x2 + 9 - 6 x)
12 x 6x 16. If two numbers are such that their difference, their
= =
2(x2 + 9) x2 + 9 sum and their product are in ratio 1 : 7 : 24, then
product of the two number is
13. If perimeter of a square is same as that of a (a) 48 (b) 44 (c) 54 (d) 38
rectangle whose length is 24m is double of its (a) Let the numbers are x and y.
breadth, then area of square will be According to the question,
(a) 324 m 2 (b) 342 m 2 (c) 224 m 2 (d) 330 m 2 x- y = k … (i)
(a) Let breadth of rectangle = x m x + y = 7k … (ii)
\ Length of rectangle = 2x m and xy = 24 k … (iii)
Þ 24 = 2 x (given, length of rectangle = 24 m) On adding Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
24 2x = 8k Þ x = 4k
Þ x= = 12 m
2 On putting the value of ‘x’ in Eq. (ii), we get
Hence, length and breadth of rectangle is 24 m and 12 m 4k + y = 7k Þ y = 3k
respectively.
According to the question, Now, putting the values of x and y in Eq. (iii), we get
24
Perimeter of square = Perimeter of rectangle 4 k ´ 3 k = 24 k Þ k = =2
12
Þ 4 ´ side = 2 (length + breadth)
\ xy = (4 k) (3 k) = 12 k2 = 12 ´ (2)2 = 48
Þ 4 ´ side = 2 (24 + 12)
2 ´ 36 17. The Mean of the Median, Mode and Range of the
Þ side = = 18
4 observations 7, 6, 7, 9, 14, 9, 7, 15 is
\ Area of square = (side)2 = (18)2 = 324 m2 (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 7
14. If volumes of two cones are in ratio of 2 : 3 and their (a) Given observations, 7, 6, 7, 9, 14, 9, 7, 15
base radii are in ratio of 1 : 2, then what will be ratio To write ascending order of observations,
of their heights? 6, 7, 7, 7, 9, 9, 14, 15
(a) 8 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 2 : 3 Here, n = 8 (Even)
(a) Let radii of cones are r1 , r2 and heights h1 , h2 \ Median
Value of th observation + Value of æç + 1ö÷ th observation
respectively. n n
r1 1 2 è 2 ø
Then, = … (i) =
r2 2 2
Value of th observation+ Value of æç + 1ö÷ th observation
1 2 8 8
pr1 h1 è2 ø
= 2
=3
Volume of first cone
\
Volume of second cone 1 pr2 h 2
3
2 2 Value of 4th observation + Value of 5th observation
2
=
2 æ r1 ö æh ö 2
Þ =ç ÷ ´ç 1÷ 7 + 9 16
3 è r2 ø è h2 ø = = =8
2
2 2
2 æ1 ö h The frequency 3 of 7, is the greatest in given observations.
Þ =ç ÷ ´ 1 [from Eq. (i)]
3 è2 ø h2 \ Mode of observations = 7
h1 2 4 8 and Range of observations = Maximum value of
Þ = ´ =
h2 3 1 3 observations - Minimum value of observations = 15 - 6 = 9
\ h1 : h2 = 8 : 3 8+7+9
Now, Mean of Median, Mode and Range =
3
15. If 2 x = 8 y - 1 and 9 y = 3 x - 6 , then value of x + y 24
= =8
(a) 34 (b) 25 (c) 33 (d) 24 3
4 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

18. A person spends 80% of his income. With increase 1

20. If 5 = a + , then value of a will be
in the cost of living, his expenditure increased by 1
1 2 1+
37 % and his income increases by 16 % . His 1
6+
2 3 2
present per cent saving is 15 62 14 61
1 1 1 5 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 10 % (b) 12 % (c) 5 % (d) 5 % 62 15 61 14
5 3 3 7 1 1
(b) 5 = a + Þ 5 = a+
(d) Let first income = x 1 2
1+ 1+
80 1 13
Expenditure = 80% of x = x 6+
100 2
æ100 + 16 2 ö 13 13
Þ 5 = a+ Þa=5 -
ç ÷ 15 15
Income to be increasing = x ´ ç 3 ÷ = x ´ 350 = 7 x
75 - 13 62
ç 100 ÷ 300 6 Þ a= =
è ø 15 15
Expenditure to be increasing 7 5
æ100 + 37 1 ö 21. If of a number is 5 more than its . Then, nine
8 7
80 x ç ÷
2 ÷ = 80 x ´ 275 = 11x
= ´ç times of number will be
100 ç 100 ÷ 100 200 10
è ø (a) 380 (b) 208 (c) 308 (d) 280
7 11 35 x - 33 x x (d) Let the number is x.
Present saving = x - x= =
6 10 30 15 According to the question,
x 7 5
x - x =5
8 7
\ Per cent saving = 15 ´ 100
7 (49 - 40)x
x Þ =5
6 56
6 40 5 5 ´ 56 280
= ´ 100 = =5 % Þ x= =
15 ´ 7 7 7 9 9
\ Nine times of numbers
19. The cost of five chairs and three tables is ` 3110. If 280
= 9x = 9 ´ = 280
cost of one chair is 210 less than cost of one table. 9
What is the cost of two tables and two chairs?
(a) ` 1760 (b) ` 1000 22. If a cone of height 24cm and base 6 cm melted and
(c) ` 1660 (d) ` 1800 reshape into a sphere. Then, what will be the total
(c) Let price of one chair and one table are ` x and ` y surface area of sphere?
respectively. (a) 36 p Sq cm (b) 16 p Sq cm
(c) 144 p Sq cm (d) 142 p Sq cm
According to the question,
5 x + 3 y = 3110 … (i) (c) Height of cone, h = 24 cm
and y - x = 210 … (ii) Radius of cone, r = 6 cm
From Eq. (ii) y = x + 210, putting in Eq. (i), we get Let radius of sphere is R.
5 x + 3 (x + 210) = 3110 According to the question,
Þ 5 x + 3 x + 630 = 3110 Volume of sphere = Volume of cone
4 3 1 2
Þ 8 x = 3110 - 630 pR = pr h
2480 3 3
Þ x= = 310
8 Þ 4 R3 = (6)2 ´ 24
6 ´ 6 ´ 24
On putting the value of x in Eq. (i), we get Þ R3 =
4
y - 310 = 210
Þ R3 = 6 ´ 6 ´ 6
Þ y = 310 + 210 = 520
Þ R = 6 cm
\ Price of two tables and two chairs
Total surface area of sphere = 4 pR2
= 2 ´ 520 + 2 ´ 310
= 4 p ´ (6)2
= 1040 + 620 = ` 1660
= 144p cm2
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 23. P and Q can do a piece of work in 10 days, Q and R
4 x + 4 y = 3320 can do same work in 15 days, R and P can do the
3320 same work in 20 days. Then, in how many days R
Þ 4(x + y) = 3320 Þ 2(x + y) =
2 will complete it alone?
Þ 2(x + y) = 1660 (a) 115 days (b) 110 days
Hence, price of two tables and two chairs is ` 1660. (c) 130 days (d) 120 days
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 5
1
(d) 1 day work of P and Q’s = 26. A vessel contains 60 L of milk, 12 L of milk is taken
10
1 out of it and is replaced by water. Then again from
1 day work of Q and R’s = the mixture 12 L are taken out and replaced by
15
1 water.
1 day work of R and P’s =
20 Find the amount of milk left after the operation.
\ 1 day work of P, Q and R’s (a) 28.4 L (b) 21.6 L
(c) 36 L (d) 38.4 L
= æç +
1 1 1 1 ö
+ ÷
2 è10 15 20 ø (d) If taken out quantity of substance a from the quantity x
1 6 + 4 + 3 13 of a substance, to replace a quantity other substance and
= ´ = this process revised n times, then
2 60 120 n
The quantity of original substance in mixture = x æç1 - ö÷
13 1 13 - 12 1 a
1 day work of R’s = - = = è
120 10 120 120 xø
\ R will complete the work in Here, x = 60 L, a = 12 L , n = 2
2 2
1
\ Amount of milk = 60 æç1 -
= = 120 days. 12 ö æ 1ö
1 ÷ = 60 ç1 - ÷
è 60 ø è 5ø
120 2

= 60 ´ æç ö÷ = 60 ´
4 16
= 38.4 L
24. In the following which one is the smallest è5 ø 25
3 ,3 2 , 2 ,3 4 ? 27. Select the one which is different from the other
(a) 3 (b) 3 4 three responses.
(c) 3 2 (d) 2 (a) 15 : 46 (b) 12 : 37 (c) 9 : 28 (d) 8 : 33
(c) Given numbers, (d) 15 : 46 ® 15 : (15 ´ 3 + 1)
3, 3 2, 2, 3 4 12 : 37 ® 12 : (12 ´ 3 + 1)
LCM of powers of given surd numbers 2, 3, 2, 3 = 6 9 : 28 ® 9 : (9 ´ 3 + 1)
\ 3 = 6 (3)3 = 6 27 8 : 33 ® 8 : (8 ´ 4 + 1)
Þ 3
2 = 6 (2)2 = 6 4 Clearly, 8 : 33 is different from others three.

2 = 6 (2)3 = 6 8 28. In a row of boys A is 20th from left and B is 16th

from right, interchange their position, then A
Þ 3
4 = 6 (4) = 16
2 6
becomes 30th from left. How many boys are there in
3
Clearly, 2 is the smallest. the row?
25. If P denotes +, Q denotes -, R denotes ´ and S (a) 46 (b) 44 (c) 45 (d) 48
denotes ¸, which of the following statement is correct (c) First condition
(a) 36 R 4 S 8 Q 7 P 4 = 10 A (20th) B (16th)
(b) 16 R 12 P 49 S 7 Q 9 = 200
19 15
(c) 32 S 8 R 9 = 160 Q 12 R 12
(d) 8 R 8 P 8 S 8 Q 8 = 57 After interchange
their position
(d) Given, B A (30th)
P ® ‘+’
Q ® ‘-’; R ® ‘´’; S ® ‘¸’ \ Number of boys in row = 30 + 15 = 45
To put given mathematical sign on the place of English 29. A 15 cm coloured cube is cut into 3 cm small cubes,
alphabet,
then how many cubes are formed which have only
(a) 36 ´ 4 ¸ 8 - 7 + 4 = 10 one face painted?
36 ´ 4
Þ - 7 + 4 = 10 (a) 54 (b) 64 (c) 44 (d) 84
8
Þ 15 = 10 (False) (b) Side of cube = 15 cm
(b) 16 ´ 12 + 49 ¸ 7 - 9 = 200 Side of small cube to cut in equal cubes of 3 cm side
15
Þ 192 + 7 - 9 = 20 = = 5 cm
3
Þ 190 = 200 (False)
Number of cubes to be painted have only one face = (5 - 1)3
(c) 32 ¸ 8 ´ 9 = 160 - 12 ´ 12
32 = (4)3 = 64 cubes
Þ ´ 9 = 160 - 144
8 30. A father tells his son ‘‘I was three times of your
Þ 36 = 16 (False) present age when you were born’’ If the father’s
(d) 8 ´ 8 + 8 ¸ 8 - 8 = 57 present age is 48 yr, how old was the boy 4 yr ago?
Þ 64 + 1 - 8 = 57 (a) 24 yr (b) 8 yr
Þ 57 = 57 (True) (c) 12 yr (d) 16 yr
Hence, statement (d) is correct.
6 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

(b) Let present age of boy = x yr (d) +1 +1 +1

Present age of father = 48 yr

+2 +3 +4 +5
Father’s age at time of birth of boy = (48 - x) yr
According to the question, 48 - x = 3 x 2 4 7 11 16
Þ 48 = 3 x + x 3 7 13 21 21
Þ 4 x = 48
48 +4 +6 +8 +10
Þ x= = 12 yr
4
+2 +2 +2
\ Age of boy 4 yr ago = 12 - 4 = 8 yr
\ ? = 7 /13
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Find the missing term in the
series given below. 36. There are twelve dozen of apple in a basket. Two
dozen are added later. Then, apples got spoil and
31. 2, 12, 30, ?, 90, 120 are removed. The remaining are transferred equally
(a) 48 (b) 56 (c) 63 (d) 72 into two baskets, how many are there in each?
(b) (a) 168 (b) 158 (c) 79 (d) 89
Ú
2 12 30 56 90 132 (c) In first, the number of apples in basket = 12 dozen
= 12 ´ 12 apples = 144 apples
+10 +18 +26 +34 +42
Added apples later = 2 dozen = 2 ´ 12 = 24 apples
+8 +8 +8 +8 Spoil apples = 10
\ Remaining apples = 144 + 24 - 10 = 158
\ ? = 56 158
ÚIncorrect data in the given question. Now, number of apples in one basket = = 79 apples
2
32. 10, 100, 200, 310, ? 37. At what time between 8 and 9 will the hands of a
(a) 400 (b) 410 (c) 420 (d) 430 clock be together
7
(d) (a) 40 min past 8 (b) 43 min past 8
10 100 200 310 430 11
8 10
(c) 43 min past 8 (d) 44 min past 8
+90 +100 +110 +120 11 11

+10 +10 +10

(b) Let at 8 O’clock t min both hands will be together.
Round the angle by hour hand at 8 O’clock t min.
\ ? = 430 = Round angle in t min by minute hand
1
33. 0.5, 2, 4.5, 8, 12.5, ? 8 ´ 30 + t ´ = t ´ 6
2
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 16.5 (d) 18
t
(d) Þ 240 = 6t -
0.5 2 4.5 8 12.5 18 2
11 240 ´ 2
Þ 240 = t Þ t =
+1.5 +2.5 +3.5 +4.5 +5.5 2 11
480 7
+1 +1 +1 +1
Þ t = = 43 min
11 11
\ ? = 18 7
Hence, at 8 O’clock 43 min both hands will be together.
11
34. 109, 74, 46, 25, 11, ?
(a) 3 (b) 0 38. What is the value of A, B and C in the given matrix?
(c) 11 (d) 4 9 A 12
(d) 109 74 46 25 11 4 B 10 7
8 C 11
–35 –28 –21 –14 –7

(a) A = 13, B = 11, C = 9 (b) A = 13, B = 9, C = 11

–7 –7 –7 –7
(c) A = 9, B = 11, C = 13 (d) A = 9, B = 13, C = 11
\? = 4 (d) Given matrix,
2 4 ? 11 16 9 A =9 12
35. , , , ,
3 7 ? 21 31 B =13 10 7
6 5
(a) (b)
11 9 8 C =11 11
9 7
(c) (d) Put A = 9, B = 13, C = 11, the sum is 30 of each row, column,
11 13 and diagonal.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 7
7 n + 3 + 14 ´ 7 n + 4 1
Part empty in 1 min by pipe C =
39. Simplified value of is 10
7n + 3
\ Part filled in 1 min by A, B and C pipes
(a) 98 (b) 100 (c) 99 (d) 97
1 1 1 5 + 4 -6 3 1
n+3 n+4
= + - = = =
7 + 14 ´ 7 12 15 10 60 60 20
(c)
7n + 3 1
\ A, B and C pipes will fill the tank = min = 20 min
7 n × 73 + 14 ´ 7 n ´ 74 1 / 20
=
7 n × 73
43. A sum amounts to ` 800 at 3% per annum in a
7 n × 73 (1 + 98)
= = 1 + 98 = 99 certain time but amount to ` 1000 at 5% per annum
7 n × 73 in the same time total sum and time are
40. If tan x = 5 - 3 then 22 tan(90° - x ) is equal to (a) ` 500, 20 yr (b) ` 400, 20 yr
(c) ` 550, 20 yr (d) ` 600, 10 yr
5+ 3
(a) 5 + 3 (b) 2 - 3 (c) (d) 13 + 3 (a) Let principle amount is P.
22
Amount after t yr with 3%
(a) Given, tanx = 5 - 3 P´3 ´t
1 1 =P+
\ cot x = = 100
tan x 5 - 3
Þ æ
800 = P ç1 +
3t ö
… (i)
1 5+ 3 5+ 3 ÷
= ´ = è 100 ø
5- 3 5+ 3 (5)2 - ( 3 )2 Amount after t yr with 5%
5+ 3 5+ 3 P´5 ´t
= = =P+
25 - 3 22 100
1000 = P æç1 +
5t ö
\ 22 tan (90° - x) = 22 cot x [ tan (90° - x) = cot x] Þ ÷ … (ii)
è 100 ø
5+ 3
= 22 ´
22 Dividing Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i),
P æç1 +
5t ö
=5 + 3 ÷
1000 è 100 ø 5 100 + 5t
1 1 = Þ =
41. If a = and b = , then find the value of 800 æ
P ç1 +
3t ö 4 100 + 3t
÷
2- 3 2+ 3 è 100 ø
7 a2 + 11ab - 7 b2 Þ 400 + 20t = 500 + 15t
(a) 11 + 3 56 (b) 13 + 11 56 Þ 20t - 15t = 500 - 400
100
(c) 11 + 5 3 (d) 11 + 56 3 Þ 5t = 100 Þ t = Þ t = 20
1 5
(d) Given, a =
2- 3 On putting the value of ‘t’ in Eq. (i), we get
3 ´ 20 ö
800 = P æç1 + ÷
1 2+ 3 2+ 3 è 100 ø
= ´ = =2 + 3
2 - 3 2 + 3 4 -3
800 = P æç1 + ö÷ Þ 800 = P ´
3 8
Þ
1 è 5ø 5
and b =
2+ 3 800 ´ 5
Þ P= = ` 500
1 2- 3 2- 3 8
= ´ = =2- 3
2+ 3 2- 3 4 -3 Hence, the principle amount and time are ` 500 and 20 yr.
\ 7 a2 + 11ab - 7 b2 44. If a and b are the roots of x 2 - 2 x - 1 = 0, then value
= 7(2 + 3 ) + 11 (2 +
2
3 ) (2 - 3 ) of a2 b + ab2 is
- 7(2 - 3 )2 (a) -2 (b) 2 (c) 1/2 (d) 4
= 7(4 + 3 + 4 3 ) + 11 (4 - 3)
(a) a and b are the roots of quadratic equation
- 7 (4 + 3 - 4 3 )
x2 - 2 x - 1 = 0.
= 49 + 28 3 + 11 - 49 + 28 3 - Coeff. of x
= 11 + 56 3 \ Sum of roots = a + b =
Coeff. of x2
2
42. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 and 15 min Þ a+ b= Þa+ b=2 … (i)
respectively. A third pipe C can empty it in 10 min. 1
Constant term
How long will it take to fill the tank if all pipes are Product of roots = ab =
opened simultaneously Coeff. of x2
-1
(a) 20 min (b) 30 min
(c) 40 min (d) 25 min Þ ab = Þ ab = - 1 … (ii)
1 1
(a) Part filled in 1 min by pipe A = \ a2 b + ab2 = ab (a + b)
12
1 = (- 1) (2) [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
Part filled in 1 min by pipe B =
15 = -2
8 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

Directions (Q. Nos. 45-49) Read the information carefully 48. The ratio of visitors from West Bengal below 20 yr to
and answer the questions the given below. visitors from Maharashtra above 40 yr in

Maharashtra
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 12 : 1 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 3 : 1
(b) Total number of visitors to go from West Bengal

5%
20
Above 40 = 20% of 100000 = 100000 ´ = 20000
yr 20% 15% 100
Below 20 others Number of visitors of age group below 20 yr to go from
yr 60% Karnataka
20-40 yr West Bengal = 60% of 20000
West 60%
20%
Bengal 20% 60
= 20000 ´ = 12000
100
Total number of visitors to go from Maharashtra
5
= 5% of 100000 = 100000 ´ = 5000
The pie chart above describes the characteristics of 100
Indian visiting UK from various states during a given Number of visitors of age group 40 yr above to to from
year. Maharashtra = 20% of 5000
Answer the following questions given below. Assume 20
= 5000 ´ = 1000
that the age wise distribution data applies to all states 100
and that in the given year 100000 Indian visited UK. 12000
\ Required ratio = = 12 : 1
1000
45. Number of visitors from Karnataka in the age group
of 20 - 40 yr. 49. Find the difference between visitors from West
(a) 20000 (b) 18000 Bengal and Maharashtra in the age group of 20-40 yr.
(c) 12000 (d) None of these (a) 4000 (b) 6000 (c) 3000 (d) 8000
(c) Total number of visitors to go from Karnataka (c) From question No. 48,
= 60% of 100000 Total number of visitors to go from West Bengal = 20000
60 Number of visitors of age group 20-40 yr to go from West
= 100000 ´ = 60000
100 Bengal = 20% of 20000
Number of visitors of age group 20-40 to go from Karnataka 20
= 20000 ´ = 4000
= 20% of 60000 100
20 and total number of visitors to go from Maharashtra = 5000
= 60000 ´ = 12000
100 Number of visitors of age group 20-40 yr to go from
Maharashtra = 20% of 5000
46. Number of visitors from Maharashtra below the age 20
= 5000 ´ = 1000
of 20 yr. 100
(a) 3000 (b) 5000 \ Required difference = 4000 - 1000 = 3000
(c) 60000 (d) 8000
(a) Total number of visitors to go from Maharashtra
50. The number of ways in which 6 students can be
seated at a round table is
= 5% of 100000
5 (a) 720 (b) 120 (c) 410 (d) 350
= 100000 ´ = 5000
100 (b) The number of ways to seated of 6 students at a round
Number of visitors of age group 20 yr below to go from table = (6 - 1)!
Maharashtra = 60% of 5000 = 5 ! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 ×1 = 120
60
= 5000 ´ = 3000 51. What letter will come next in the following series?
100 ABCDEFGZYXWUVTBCDEFYXWVU
47. How many visitors were below 20 yr of age but were CDEXWVR
neither from Karnataka nor Maharashtra or West (a) A (b) V (c) B (d) Z
Bengal? (*) The given series consist of two different series.
(a) 7000 (b) 15000 The pattern is as follows
(c) 9000 (d) 6000
(c) Total number of visitors to go from other states A B C D E F G B C D E F C D E D
= 15% of 100000
15
= 100000 ´ = 15000
100 ZYXWVUT YXWVU XWV W
Number of visitors of age group 20 yr below to go from
other states = 60% of 15000
60 Here, in first series ‘R’ is given (in question) in place of D
= 15000 ´ = 9000
100 also in second series ‘UV’ is given (in question) in place of
VU. So, the given data is incorrect.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 9
52. Among P, Q, R, S and T each secured different 56. Who performs Dance?
marks, Q scored higher than T only and P scored (a) C (b) F
higher than S but lower than R. Who among them (c) D (d) A
scored highest marks?
(a) P (b) S (c) R (d) T
57. Which item is performed by D and on what day?
(a) Mimicry - Monday (b) Music - Tuesday
(c) According to the question, (c) Play - Wednesday (d) Speech - Monday
Q > T, R > P > S
Þ R> P > S>Q >T 58. A performs on which day of the week ?
\ R scored highest marks. (a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday
(c) Friday (d) Saturday
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-55) Study the following series 59. G performs on which day of the week?
carefully and answer the questions given below. (a) Wednesday (b) Saturday
7 M 4 P % J V 1 K 3 @ E W 2 Q © 6 T A* 8 Z I 5 $ F U (c) Tuesday (d) Friday
# 9 H N
60. Who performs in debate?
53. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of (a) B (b) D
ninteenth from the left end of the above (c) F (d) C
arrangement?
(a) $ (b) T (c) W (d) 2 Sol. (Q. Nos. 56-60) The arrangement is as follows
(c) Sixth element to the left of ninteenth from left Friends Days Performance
= (19 – 6)th element from left = 13th element from left A Tuesday Monologue
=W. The series is
B Thursday Play
7 M 4 P % J V I K 3 @ E W
C Saturday Debate
13th from left D Monday Speech
2 Q © 6 T A * 8 Z 1 5 $ F U#9 HN E Sunday Music
54. How many such consonants are there in the F Wednesday Dance
arrangement, each of which is immediately G Friday Mimicry
preceeded by a symbol and immediately followed by
56. (b) F performs dance.
2 numbers?
(a) four (b) One (c) Two (d) Three 57. (d) D performs speech on Monday.

(*) There is no such consonant in the given series. Hence, 58. (a) A performs on Tuesday.
no option is correct. 59. (d) G performs on Friday.
60. (d) C performs in debate.
55. If all the symbols are dropped from the above
arrangement then which of the following will be Directions (Q. Nos. 61-63) Study the following
twelfth from the right end? information carefully to answer these questions.
(a) Q (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) T
The venn diagram given below is about a small town
(b) After dropping all the symbols, having population of 500 persons. The square represents
7 M 4 P J V 1 K 3 E W 2 Q 6 T A 8 Z I5 F U 9 H N persons from urban area, the circle represents working
12th from right end persons, the triangle represents women and the rectangle
represents educated persons. Number written are number
\ Required element = 6.
of persons.
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Study the following ?
Urban
information carefully to answer these questions. Educated 1 9 10 40
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G perform in stage 50
shows on a different day from Monday to Sunday not 10 70 10
necessarily in the same order. Each one performs a 10 30
different items viz Music, Speech, Dance, Mimicry, Play, 60
10 Working
Debate and Monologue, not necessarily in the same order.
B performs play on Thursday and E performs Music on
Sunday. G performs mimicry but not on Tuesday or 7 Women
Saturday. C’s performance is on the next day of G’s
performance. D performs on Monday but not the next day 61. What is the number of non-working females ?
of G’s performance. D performs on Monday but not Dance (a) 167 (b) 57 (c) 17 (d) 80
or Debate. A performs monologue which is on the next (c) Non-working females are = 10 + 7 = 17
day of speech. Dance is not performed on Saturday.
10 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

62. If urban population is 350, what is the number of (B) P HO N E S KRQH

+3
non-educated, non-working urban women? +3
(a) 0 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 20 +3
+3
(a) There is no non-educated non-working urban women. +3

63. What is the number of urban male who are educated (C) T ROUP E G I L FKV
but not working? Opposite letter
Opposite letter
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 110
Opposite letter
(b) The number of educated but not working urban male Opposite letter
= 40 Opposite letter
Opposite letter
64. In the matrix below, the numbers in the cells follow
some rules. Identify the number which when (D) T OU R I S T W LX O L P W
+3
substituted for (?) maintains the same rule
–3
7 12 ? +3
–3
21 27 35 +3
–3
7 14 23
+3

(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 17 (d) 16

+7 +9
65. (b) J UDGE M XG J H
(b) In 3rd row, 7 ¾ ¾¾® 14 ¾ ¾ ¾® 23 +3
+6 +8 +3
In 2nd row, 21 ¾ ¾ ¾® 27 ¾ ¾¾® 35 +3
+5 +7
In 1 st row, 7 ¾ ¾¾® 12 ¾ ¾¾® 19 +3
+3
\ ? = 19
The code followed pattern B. Hence, option (b) is
Directions (Q. Nos. 65-67) Study the following correct.
information carefully to answer these questions. 66. (a) E MP L O Y A I L HK U
–4
In the table given below, there are two columns, column I –4
and column II. Four words are written in column I. In –4
–4
column II, Equivalent codes are used for these words. For
–4
each of the four words, four different patterns are used. –4
Identify the pattern in the questions given below & choose
The code followed pattern A. Hence, option (a) is
the correct option. correct choice.
Column I Column II 67. (*) J O U R N A L Q L F I MZ Q
Opposite letter
Sr. No Word Code Equivalent Opposite letter
A CHAIR YDWEN Opposite letter
Opposite letter
B PHONE SKRQH
Opposite letter
C TROUPE GILFKV Opposite letter
D TOURIST WLXOLPW +5

The code does not follow any given pattern.

65. If ‘JUDGE’ is coded as ‘MXGJH’ the code pattern
followed is serial number Directions (Q. Nos. 68-70) Study the following
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D information carefully to answer these questions.
66. If ‘EMPLOY’ is coded as ‘AILHKU’ the code pattern Eight person A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are sitting around a
followed is serial number circular table facing the centre. B is sitting second to the
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D left of G, who is sitting third to the right of F. Only E is
67. If ‘JOURNAL’ is coded as ‘QLFIMZQ’ the code sitting between A & C. C is sitting third to the left of B.
pattern followed is serial number Only one person is sitting between E & H. Now answer
(a) A (b) B the following questions.
(c) C (d) D 68. Which of the following is the correct order of seating
of persons to the right of A?
Sol. (Q. Nos.65-67) (a) ECHDGBF (b) ECHFBDG (c) EBHDCFG (d) CHBEDGF
(A) C HA I R Y DW E N
–4 69. Who is sitting third to A on its left side?
–4 (a) B (b) H (c) D (d) F
–4
–4 70. Who is sitting exactly in front of A?
–4 (a) B (b) C (c) H (d) F
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 11
Sol. (Q. Nos. 68-70) The sitting arrangement is as follows 74. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48 then BAT is equal to
E
(a) 39 (b) 44
C A (c) 46 (d) 50
(c) As, Z = 52 = 26 (positional value) ´ 2
H G ACT = (1 + 3 + 20) ´ 2
= 24 ´ 2 = 48
F D Similarly, BAT = (2 + 1 + 20) ´ 2
B = 23 ´ 2 = 46
68. (b) The correct order of seating of persons to the right 75. If 20 * 3 = 180 and 4 * 5 = 100 then the value of 7 * 7 is
of A, ECHFBDG.
(a) 21 (b) 49
69. (a) B sits third to the left of A. (c) 343 (d) 7
70. (d) F sits exactly in front of A.
(c) As, 20 * 3 = 20 ´ 32 = 180
71. If % means + @ means -; Ù means ´; Ú means ¸ 4 * 5 = 4 ´ 52 = 100
Then the value of 42 Ù 7 Ú 8 @ 25 % 63 Ù 9 is Similarly, 7 * 7 = 7 ´ 72 = 343
(a) -10 (b) 14
76. How many points will be on the face opposite to the
(c) -20 (d) 30
face which contains two points?
(*) % Þ +, @ Þ -; Ù Þ ´; Ú Þ ¸
42 Ù 7 Ú 8 @ 25 % 63 Ù 9
By replacing signs according to questions,
42 ´ 7 ¸ 8 - 25 + 63 ´ 9
7 (a) 1 (b) 4
= 42 ´ - 25 + 567
8 (c) 5 (d) 6
147 2315 (d) From first and second positions of the dice,
= + 542 = = 578.75
4 4

Common

Opposite

Opposite
First position 5 3 2
\ All options are incorrect.
Second position 5 4 6
72. Arrange the following words in the sequence in
Hence, face contains six points is opposite to face contains
which they occur in the dictionary, then choose the two points.
correct option.
(i) BHAGWAN (ii) BHAGWAT 77. How many minimum line segment required to draw
the given figure?
(iii) BHAGIRATH (iv) BHAGAT
(a) iv, i, iii, ii (b) iv, ii, i, iii (c) iv, iii, ii, i (d) iv, iii, i, ii
(d) As per the dictionary
(iv) BHAGAT ® (iii) BHAGIRATH ® (i) BHAGWAN ®
(ii) BHAGWAT

73. R is the brother of S and M is the father of R, J is

brother of P and P is daughter of S. What is the
relation of P with M? (a) 16 (b) 17
(a) Grand daughter (b) Niece (c) 18 (d) 19
(c) Aunty (d) Sister
(*)
(a) According to the question,
K J L
r
M

A F G
B
Father

E I H
r S
Gr

R Brother
an
dd

Daughter D C
au
gh

Brother
Jr
ter

s Total lines - KL, AB, DC, EH, AD, FE, IJ, GH, BC, FK, GL,
P HC, JC, ED and JD = 15
Hence, minimum 15 line segments are required to draw
\ P is the grand daughter of M. the given figure, which is not given in the options.
12 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

78. A piece of paper is folded as shown in the figure (a) Given, C

and then punched:
B D

A E
F
C
After, 1st move
B D

A E
(1) (2) (3) (4)
F
Choose the correct option from the answer figure C
After 2nd move,
which appears the same when unfolded.
B D
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) When the paper is unfolded, it is shown as in the A E
option figure (1).
F

After 3rd move, C

B D

79. A mirror is placed vertically as shown in the figure. A E

Choose the correct option for mirror image.
F

S U P E R -609 After 4th move, C

9 B D
(a) 9 0 6 - R E P U S (b) 09 - R E P US
9 9 A E
(c) 9 0 -REP US (d) R E P U S - 0 9
(c) Option (c) is the correct mirror image. F
Hence, after 4th move both the stars will be together
SUPER-609 906-REPUS again. And again after 6th, 8th and 10th move they will be
together.
So, option (a) is correct choice.
80. Each vowel in the word KILOMETER is replaced by
the previous letter in the English alphabet & each 82. Which of the given net from the answer options
consonant is replaced by the next letter in the when folded will results in the given cube?
English alphabet, then the substituted letters are
arranged in alphabetical order, which will be the
fifth from the left end?
(a) D (b) L (c) M (d) N
(c) Given word
K I L O M E T E R
+1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1
(a) (b)
L H M N N D U D S
ÞL H M N N D U D S
After arranging as per the alphabetical order
D D H L M N N S U

5 th from left end

(c) (d)
81. The black star moves one position at a time
anti-clockwise. The white star moves two positions
at a time clockwise. In now many moves will they be
together again? (b) When option (b) is folded, it will results as in the given
C cube.
B D
⇒
A E
F
(a) 4th (b) 6th (c) 8th (d) 10th
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 13
83. Which of the alternatives will complete the figure Directions (Q. Nos. 86 and 87) A net is given which can
be folded into a figure. Choose the correct alternative
which can be made from the net.
86. Question Figure

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer Figures
(a) iii (b) i (c) ii (d) iv
(a) Answer figure (iii) will complete the given figure.
Rotate

+ Þ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(*) No answer figure can be formed by folding the net
given in question figure.
Directions (Q. Nos. 84 and 85) Count the number of
87. Question Figure
cubes in the given figure of each question and choose
correct answer out of four alternative.
84.

Answer Figures

(a) 64 (b) 68 (c) 66 (d) 70 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(b) Number of cubes in lower most cuboid (d) From the given figure,
= 3 ´ 2 ´ 2 + 4 ´ 2 = 12 + 8 = 20 Opposite
Number of cubes in middle cuboid
=4´2 ´2 + 3 ´4 Opposite

= 16 + 12 = 28
Opposite
Number of cubes in upper most cuboid
=3 ´2 ´2 + 2 ´4
= 12 + 8 Answer figure (d) can be formed by folding the net given
in question figure.
= 20
Total number of cubes Directions (Q. Nos. 88 and 89) In each of the following
= 20 + 28 + 20 = 68 questions figure (X) is embedded in any one of the four
alternative figures (a), (b), (c) and (d). Find the alternative
85. The number of squares on a chess board is which contains figure (X) as its part.
(a) 203 (b) 204 (c) 205 (d) 206
(b) The number of squares on a chess board 88.
=8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 +1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

Sum of square of numbers

n (2 n + 1) (n + 1)
= (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
6
8 (2 ´ 8 + 1) (8 + 1) (d) The question figure (X) is embedded in the answer
=
6 figure (d).
8 ´ 17 ´ 9
=
6
= 204
14 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

89. Directions (Q. Nos. 92 and 93) In each of the following

questions, figures A and B are related. Find the figure from
figures (a), (b), (c) and (d). Which has same relationship
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
with figure C.

l (b) The question figure (X) is embedded in the answer 92. Question Figures
figure (b).

?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90. How many rectangles does the following figure
have? . Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (*)
90°
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 As, Similarly,
l (d)
B G

A H Here, correct answer figure is not available in the given

N alternatives.
I J

M O 93. Question Figures

Q
L K
F P C ?

E D
. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Total rectangles = FEPM, ABNM, GHON,
CDPO, FNOE, ABOP, GHPM, CDMN, Answer Figures
FEHG, ABCD, INPL, NJKP, IMOJ,
MOKL = 14

91. How many squares are there in the given figure?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (d) As, lower outer line is disappeared in figure A to get

figure B. Similarly, lower outer line will be disappeared in
figure C to get figure D. Hence, answer figure (d) is
correct choice.

Directions (Q. Nos. 94-96) In each of the following

(a) 11 (b) 17 (c) 13 (d 16) questions choose the correct water image of figure (X)
l (b) A G B
from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d).
94.
I N J
R V S
C U O D (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
M Y w
Q X T l (*)
L P K Real image

E H F
Total squares in the given fgure Water image
~ YURV, ~ YVSW, ~ YWTX, ~ YXQU, ~ QRST, ~ MNOP,
~ YMIN, ~ YNJO, ~ YOKP, ~ YPLM, ~ IJKL, ~ CGDH, Hence, correct water image is not available in the given
~ YCAG, ~ YGBD, ~ YDFH, ~ YHEC, ~ ABFE = 17 options.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 15
95. l (d) The question figure X is embedded in the answer
figure (d).

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) +

l (c) Option (c) is the correct water image.

Real image
98.

(X)

Water image Y

Y
96.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (a) The question figure X is embedded in the answer

(X) figure (a).

(a) (b) (b) (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) Select a figure from the
l (*) four alternatives, which placed in the blank space of figure
(X) would complete the pattern.
Real image
99.

Water image
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Here, correct water image is not available in the given l (b) Answer figure (b) will complete the given pattern.
options.

Directions (Q. Nos. 97 and 98) In each of the following

questions, you have figure (X) followed by four alternative
figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) such that figure (X) is embedded
in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure, which
contains figure (X) as its part. 100.
97.
+

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X)
l (d) Answer figure (d) will complete the given pattern.

+ + +
+

(a) (b) (c) (d)

16 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

Paper II Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

101. A body starts from rest is accelerated uniformly for l (b) Given, refractive index of medium 1 with respect to
30s. If x1 , x2 , x3 are the distances travelled in first medium 2,
10s, next 10s and last 10s, respectively, then 2
2 m1 =
x1 : x2 : x3 is 3
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 sin r sin 45°
Q 2 m1 = = (Q r = 45° )
(c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 3 : 9 sin x sin x
l (b) In uniformly accelerated motion, change in velocity of 2 1/ 2
a body in an equal time interval is same. Þ =
3 sin x
Dx
i.e. Dv = = k (constant) … (i) 3 3
Dt Þ sin x = Þ x = sin-1
According to the question, x1 , x2 and x3 are the distances 2 2
travelled by body in equal time interval i.e. 10 s. or x = 60°
Hence, from Eq. (i), we get 104. Which of the following statements is true?
x1 = x2 = x3 = 10 k (a) A convex lens with power +4D has a focal length -0.25 m.
\ x1 : x2 : x3 = 1 : 1 : 1 (b) A convex lens with power -4D has a focal length + 0.25 m
(c) A concave lens with power + 4D has a focal length -0.25 m
102. A bomb of mass 3m kg explodes into two pieces of
(d) A concave lens with power -4 D has a focal length -0.25 m
mass m kg and 2m kg. If the velocity of m kg mass 1
is 16 ms-1 , then the total kinetic energy released in l (d) Q Power of lens, P =
f (focal length) (in m)
the explosion is Focal length of convex lens is positive, hence its power is
(a) 192 mJ (b) 96 mJ always positive.
(c) 384 mJ (d) 768 mJ Focal length of concave lens is negative, hence its power
l (a) According to the question, a bomb of mass 3m kg is always negative.
explodes into two pieces of mass m kg and 2m kg. Hence, option (d) is true.
From momentum conservation law,
105. A constant current I flows in a horizontal wire in the
Þ m1 v1 + m2 v2 = 0
plane of the paper from West to East as shown in the
Where, m1 = m kg, v1 = 16 ms -1 ,
figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will
m2 = 2 m kg
be South to North
Þ m (16) + 2 m (v2 ) = 0
N
Þ v2 = - 8 m/s
Where negative sign indicates that motion of 2m kg is
opposite to direction of motion of m kg.
W E
Hence, total kinetic energy released in the explosion is,
k = k1 + k2
1 1
Þ k = m1 v12 + m2 v22 S
2 2
I
1 1
= (m)(16) + (2 m) (-8)2
2
(a) directly above the wire
2 2 (b) directly below the wire
= 128 m + 64 m = 192 mJ (c) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the North
side of the wire
103. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from
(d) at a point located in the plane of the paper, on the South
medium 1 to medium 2. If reflactive index of
side of the wire
2
medium 1 with respect to medium 2 is , l (b) According to the Maxwell’s right hand rule, the
3 direction of magnetic field at a point will be South to
then the value of angle x is North is directly below the wire.
It states that, if you hold the current carrying straight wire
Medium 2 in the grip of your right hand in such a way that the
45° stretched thumb points in the direction of current, then the
45° direction of the curl of the fingers will give the direction of
the magnetic field. This rule is also called Maxwell’s cork
screw rule.
x=?
Medium 1 106. If the current through a resistor is increased by 50%,
the increase in power dissipated will be
(a) 30° (b) 60° (assume the temperature remains constant)
(c) 15° (d) 45° (a) 225% (b) 200% (c) 250% (d) 125%
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 17
l (d) Power dissipated in a resistor, P = I2 R. 110. For the wave shown in the figure, calculate the
According to the question, current through a resistor is frequency and wavelength of the wave if its speed is
increased by 50% i.e. 320 ms-1 .
50 I
I¢ = I + = 15. I Y
100
\ P¢ = (15. I)2 R
Hence, increase in power dissipated will be,
P¢ - P
= ´ 100
P
X
. )2 I2 R - I2 R
(15 O 20 cm
= ´ 100
I2 R (a) 80 cm, 4000 Hz (b) 8 cm, 400 Hz
= 125% (c) 80 cm, 400 Hz (d) 80 cm, 40 Hz
107. The velocity-time graph of a moving body is shown l (c) Given, velocity of wave, v = 320 ms -1
in the figure. Q Wave velocity, v = Frequency (f) ´ Wavelength (l)
= 320 ms -1
By checking each option,
(a) f = 4000 Hz, l = 80 ´ 10 -2 m
v = 4000 ´ 80 ´ 10 -2 = 3200 ms -1
v
(b) f = 400 Hz, l = 8 ´ 10 -2 m
v = 400 ´ 8 ´ 10 -2 = 32 ms -1
O t (c) f = 400 Hz, l = 80 ´ 10 -2 m
Which of the following statements is true? v = 400 ´ 80 ´ 10 -2 = 320 ms -1
(a) The acceleration is constant and positive (d) f = 40 Hz, l = 80 ´ 10 -2 m
(b) The acceleration is constant and negative v = 40 ´ 80 ´ 10 -2 = 32 ms -1
(c) The acceleration is increasing and positive
Hence, option (c) is true.
(d) The acceleration is decreasing and negative
l (c) Slope of velocity-time graph is positive and increasing 111. If x calories of heat are supplied to 15g of water, its
with time. temperature rises from 20°C to 24°C. If specific heat
Q Acceleration, a =
DV
= tanq
for water is 1 cal g -1 °C, then the value of x is
Dt (a) 30 (b) 120
Hence, acceleration is increasing and it will be positive. (c) 15 (d) 60

108. Which of the following eye defects can be rectified l (d) Given, m = 15g,
using cylindrical lens? DT = (24 - 20) = 4° C
(a) Myopia C = 1 Cal -1 g-1 ° C -1
(b) Presbyopia Heat supplied to water, DQ = x = mCDT
(c) Astigmatism or DQ = 15 ´ 1 ´ 4 = 60 Cal
(d) Hypermetropia
112. In a hydro-power plant
l (c) Astigmatism eye defects can be rectified using (a) kinetic energy possessed by the stored water is converted
cylindrical lens. into potential energy
Near sightedness defect can be corrected by using (b) potential energy possessed by the stored water is
concave lens. Farsightedness defect can be corrected by converted into electricity
using a convex lens. Presbyopia can be corrected by using
bifocal or varifocal lenses. (c) water is converted into steam to produce electricity
(d) heat is extracted from water to produce electricity
109. The linear distance between a consecutive l (b) In a hydro-power plant, potential energy possessed by
compression and a rerefaction in longitudinal wave the stored water is converted into electricity.
is
g 113. The mass of a planet is twice and its radius is three
(a) g (b)
2 times that of the earth. The weight of a body, which
g 3g has a mass of 5 kg. On that planet will be
(c) (d)
4 4 (a) 11.95 N (b) 10.88 N (c) 9.88 N (d) 20.99 N

l (b) The linear distance between a consecutive l (b) Given,

Mass of planet, Mp = 2 ´ Mass of earth (Me )
compression and a rarefaction in longitudinal wave is half
g Radius of planet, Rp = 3 ´ Radius of earth (Re )
of wavelength æç ö÷. While the linear distance between two
è2 ø Hence, gravitational acceleration of the planet,
consecutive compressions or rarefactions is called as GMp
gp =
wavelength of wave (g). Rp2
18 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

G(2 Me ) æ 2 ö GMe 120. Tick the arrangement of metals Fe, Cu, Zn, Ag in
or gp = =ç ÷
(3 Re )2 è 9 ø Re2 the order of decreasing reactivity.
2 é GMe ù (a) Fe > Cu > Zn > Ag (b) Cu > Fe > Zn > Ag
or gp = ge êQ ge = 2 ú (c) Ag > Zn > Fe > Cu (d) Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag
9 ë Re û
Where ge is gravitational acceleration of earth. l (d) The arrangement of metals Fe, Cu, Zn, Ag in the order
of decreasing reactivity is
Hence, weight of body of 5 kg mass,
Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag
Wp = mgp = 5 æç ö÷ ge = 5 æç ö÷ ´ 9.8
2 2
(Q ge = 9.8 ms-2)
è9 ø è9 ø The above order is based on the values of standard
reduction electrode potential series.
Wp = 10.88 N
121. Which metal does not corrode easily?
114. Which of these can be used as olfactory indicator?
(a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Platinum (d) All of these
(a) Vanila (b) Onion
(c) Clove (d) All of these l (d) Metals such as gold (Au), Silver (Ag) and Platinum
(Pt) present at the bottom of the activity series do not
l (d) Vanila, onion and clove, all are natural olfactory corrode easily.
indicators as they have specific smell, which can be used
as indicator. 122. pH is defined as
(a) - log[H3O + ] (b) -log[H2O]
115. What will be the products when acid reacts with
(c) - log[OH- ] (d) - log[H+ ] [OH- ]
metals?
(a) Water and hydrogen gas (b) Acid and hydrogen gas l (a) pH is defined as the negative logarithm of H3 O + ion
(c) Salt and hydrogen gas (d) Base and hydrogen gas concentration (in mole per litre) present in it.
Thus, pH = - log [H3 O + ]
l (c) When acid (HCl and H2 SO4 ) react with active metals It is used to express and compare the acidic and basic
like Na, Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, etc., the products are hydrogen strength of a solution.
gas and the soluble salt of the metal.
e.g. 2Na + H2 SO4 ® Na2 SO4 + H2 ­ 123. A solution turns methyl orange into yellow the
(Sodium) (Hydrogen sulphate) (Salt) (Gas) approximate pH of solution is
116. What happen, when methyl orange solution mixed (a) 1.2 - 2.8 (b) 3.1 - 4.4 (c) 6.0 - 7.6 (d) 8.3 - 10.0
with HCl?
(a) Solution becomes Yellow (b) Solution becomes Red l (c) In a solution becoming less acidic, when methyl
(c) Solution becomes Blue (d) Solution becomes Pink orange moves from red to orange and finally to yellow.
So, the approximate pH of solution is 6.0 - 7.6.
l (b) Methyl orange is an acid-base indicator. When methyl
orange solution mixed with HCl, then solution becomes 124. Zinc reacts with NaOH solution to produce
red colour. The entire colour change occurs in acidic (a) O 2 (b) H2 (c) NH3 (d) NO 2
conditions. In an acid, it is reddish and in alkali, it is
yellow. l (b) Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce sodium
zincate and hydrogen. This reaction takes place at a
117. Which of these salts will give acidic solution? temperature near 550°C.
(a) Na 2CO 3 (b) NaCl Heat
(c) NH4 Cl (d) COONa Zn + NaOH ¾¾¾® Na2 ZnO2 + H2 ­
(Zinc)(Sodium
hydroxide) (550° C)
(Sodium (Hydrogen)
Zincate)
l (c) A neutral salt can dissolve in water to produce a
neutral solution. NH4 Cl is the salt which will give an
acidic solution when dissolve in water. 125. Aqueous solution of SO2 is
(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric
118. Name the metal which offers higher resistance to
l (a) An amphoteric solution is a substance that can
the passage of electricity than copper.
chemically react as either acid or base. However, it is also
(a) Gold (b) Silver possible for an oxide to be neither acidic nor basic. Oxides
(c) Mercury (d) None of these are binary compounds of oxygen with another element,
l (d) The metal that offers higher resistance to the passage e.g. CO2 , SO2 , CaO, CO, ZnO, BaO2 , H2 O, etc.
of electricity as compared to copper is tungsten. Here, SO2 is an acidic solution; as its solution can give H +
So, the answer is none of these. ions.
119. Name two metals both of which are very ductile as 126. Ethane with the molecular formula C2H6 has
well as malleable (a) 6 covalent bond (b) 7 covalent bond
(a) Gold and copper (b) Gold and silver (c) 8 covalent bond (d) 9 covalent bond
(c) Silver and copper (d) None of these
l (b) There are 7 covalent bonds: six C ¾ H bonds and one
l (b) Two metals which both are malleable and ductile are C ¾ C bond present in the molecule of ethane.
gold and silver. Malleable can be defined as those metals H H
which can be extended or can be shaped into any other ½ ½
form. Ductile is known to be those metals which can easily H ¾C ¾C ¾ H
be drawn into wires and undergoes a change without ½ ½
breaking. H H
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 19
127. A flagellum is present at one end of a protozoan. It is l (d) Cytokinin promotes cell division in plants. Abscisic
(a) Planaria (b) Paramecium (c) Hydra (d) Leishmania acid is a growth inhibitor hormone.
l (d) Leishmania is a protozoan which has a flagellum at Gibberellin hormone increases the height of the plant
(stem elongation).
one end of its body. It is a hair like structure, used
primarily as an organelle for locomotion in bacteria and Ethylene gas phytohormone is associated with fruit
protozoa. ripening, senescence and abscission.
Planaria and Paramecium are ciliated organisms. 133. Loop of Henle is found in
(a) lungs (b) liver
128. DNA is not present in
(c) nephron (d) neuron
(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria
(c) nucleus (d) ribosome l (c) Loop of Henle is found in Nephron. Each kidney is
composed of numerous complex tubular structure called
l (d) Ribosome does not contain DNA. Ribosomes are
nephrons, which are the functional units of kidneys.
mainly composed of ribonucleoproteins and are also
known as protein factories, as they are primarily involved 134. Flight and Fight hormone is
in the synthesis of proteins or polypeptides. (a) adrenaline (b) thyroxine
Chloroplast, mitochondria and nucleus contain their own (c) oxytocin (d) insulin
DNA.
l (a) ‘Flight and Fight’ hormone is adrenaline hormone,
Chloroplasts are responsible for trappping light energy,
essential for the photosynthesis. Mitochondria are because adrenaline hormone is secreted in response to any
essential for aerobic respiration of eukaryotic cells. kind of stress, danger, during emergency situations, from
the adrenal gland.
Nucleus contains the genetic information for controlling
all essential processes related to cell metabolism and 135. In the food chain given below, if the amount of
transmission of genetic material.
energy available at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what
129. The wings of house fly and the wings of a sparrow was the energy available at the producer level?
are an example of Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® Snake ® Hawk
(a) analogous organs (b) vestigial organs
(c) respiratory organs (d) homologous organs (a) 5000 kJ (b) 500 kJ
(c) 50 kJ (d) 5 kJ
l (a) The wings of house fly and the wings of a sparrow are
an example of analogous organs, because wings of house l (a) In this food chain energy available at the producer
fly and a sparrow have different origin and structural plan level is 5000 kJ.
but show similar appearance and perform similar function Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® Shake ® Hawk
of flight. The organs, which have different origin and 5000 kJ 500 kJ 50 kJ 5 kJ
structural plan, but show similar appearance and perform T1 T2 T3 T4
similar functions are called analogous organs.
Homologous organs are the opposite of analogous organs, According to Lindeman’s law of trophic efficiency, the
which have similar basic structure and origin but shows efficiency of energy transfer from one trophic level to next
different functions in different organisms. is about 10%.
Vestigial organs are non-functional organs. They are not 136. Jaya and Ratna are varieties of
functional in related animals but were functional in their
ancestors. (a) maize (b) rice
(c) wheat (d) bajra
130. Which of the following is not the purpose of l (b) Jaya and Ratna are varieties of Rice.
transpiration?
(a) Helps in absorption and transportation in plants 137. Which of the following is not an ancient water
(b) Prevents loss of water harvesting structure?
(c) Maintains the shape and structure of plants by keeping the (a) Kattas (b) Sargam
cell turgid (c) Kulhs (d) Surangam
(d) Supplies water for photosynthesis
l (b) Sargam is not an ancient water harvesting structure.
l (c) Maintaining the shape and structure of plants by Kattas (Karnataka), Kulhs (Himachal Pradesh) and
keeping the cell turgid is not the purpose of transpiration. Surangam (Kerala) are ancient water harvesting
Loss of water in the form of vapours, from the aerial parts structures.
of the plant is called transpiration.
138. ATP is formed in a photosynthesising plant cell by
131. Pulmonary vein carries (a) photophosphorylation
(a) deoxygenated blood (b) oxygenated blood (b) oxidative phosphorylation
(c) mixed blood (d) None of these (c) substrate level phosphorylation
l (b) Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated or pure blood from (d) All of the above
lungs to the heart. l (b) ATP is formed by photosynthesising plant cell by
oxidative phosphorylation. Oxidative phosphorylation in
132. Cell division in plants is promoted by
mitochondria in catalysed by a multi-component
(a) abscisic acid (b) gibberellin
enzymatic complex called ATP synthase.
(c) ethylene (d) cytokinin
20 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

139. Breathing rate in human is controlled by l (b) a cos q - b sin q = c

(a) thalamus (b) hypothalamus On squaring the both sides, we get
(c) cerebellum (d) medulla oblongata a2 cos2 q + b2 sin2 q - 2 ab sin q cos q = c2
l (d) Breathing rate in human is controlled by medulla Þ a2 (1 - sin2 q) + b2 (1 - cos2 q)
oblongata. The respiratory centre in medulla regulates the - 2 ab sin q cos q = c2
cycle of inspiration and expiration. It controls involuntary [Q cos2 q = 1 - sin2 q, sin2 q = 1 - cos2 q]
actions and regulates reflex responses like salivation and
Þ a - a sin2 q + b2 - b2 cos2 q
2 2
vomiting.
- 2 ab sin q cos q = c2
140. The number of pairs of nerves which arise from Þ a sin q + b2 cos2 q + 2 ab sin q cos q
2 2

spinal cord is = a2 + b2 - c2
(a) 21 (b) 31
Þ (a sin q + b cos q)2 = a2 + b2 - c2
(c) 41 (d) 51
Þ a sin q + b cos q = ± a2 + b2 - c2
l (b) Total 31 pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal
cord. 144. If x 2 - 3 x + 2 is a factor of x 4 - px 2 + q, then the
2 ax - 25 by values of p and q respectively are
141. If a : b = 2 : 3 and x : y = 3 : 4, then is
3 ay + 4 bx (a) -5, 4 (b) -5, - 5 (c) 5, 4 (d) 5, - 4
24 5 -24 12 l (c) x2 - 3 x + 2 = x2 - 2 x - x + 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 24 5 13 = x(x - 2) - 1(x - 2) = (x - 1)(x - 2)
l (c) Given, a : b = 2 : 3 Þ a = 2 m, b = 3 m Polynomial x2 - 3 x + 2 is the factor of polynomial
x4 - px2 + q
and x : y = 3 : 4 Þ x = 3 n, y = 4 n
2 ax - 25 by 2(2 m) (3 n) -25 (3 m) (4 n) \ x2 - 3 x + 2 = 0
\ = (x - 1) (x - 2) = 0
3 ay + 4 bx 3(2 m) (4 n) + 4 (3 m) (3 n)
12 mn - 300 mn Þ x = 1, x = 2 will be zeroes of polynomial x4 - px2 + q.
= Remainder = 0
24 mn + 36 mn
- 288 mn - 24 Put x = 1, (1)4 - p(1)2 + q = 0 Þ1 - p + q = 0 … (i)
= = Put x = 2, (2)4 - p(2)2 + q = 0
60 mn 5
Þ 16 - 4 p + q = 0 … (ii)
142. A square is inscribed in a circle of radius a. Another On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get
circle is inscribed in that square and again a square - 15 + 3 p = 0
is inscribed in this circle. The side of this square is 15
a a Þ 3 p = 15 Þ p = =5
(a) 2a (b) (c) (d) a 3
2 2 On putting the value of p in Eq. (i), we get
l (d) Given, radius of external circle = a 1 - 5 + q = 0 Þq = 5 -1 = 4
Diagonal of first in square = Diameter of circle Hence, p = 5, q = 4
\ 2 ´ side of first insquare = 2a
2a 145. If x1 , x2 , x3 , ..., x n are in AP, then the value of
Þ side of first insquare = = 2a
2 1 1 1 1
Diameter of incircle = side of first insquare = 2a + + +K+ is
x1 x2 x2 x3 x3 x4 xn - 1xn
Diagonal of second insquare = Diameter of incircle
n-1 n-1 n n+1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x1 xn x2 xn - 1 x1 xn x1 xn
l (a) Given, x1 , x2 , x3 , ... , x n are in AP.
\ x2 - x1 = x3 - x2 = K = x n - x n - 1 = d
(common difference)
1 1 1 1
\ + + + ... +
x1 x2 x2 x3 x3 x4 xn - 1 xn

1 é d d d d ù
Þ 2 ´ side = 2 a = ê + + + ... + ú
d ë x1 x2 x2 x3 x3 x4 x n -1 x n úû
2a
Þ side = =a
2 1 é x2 - x1 x - x2 x - x3 x - xn - 1 ù
= ê + 3 + 4 + ... + n ú
Hence, required side of insquare is a. d ë x1 x2 x2 x3 x3 x4 x n -1 x n úû
143. If a cos q - b sin q = c, then a sin q + b cos q = ? 1 é1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 ù
= ê - + - + - + ... + - ú
(a) ± a2 + b 2 + c 2 (b) ± a2 + b 2 - c 2 d x
ë 1 x2 x2 x3 x3 x4 x n -1 x ú
n û

(c) ± a2 - b 2 + c 2 (d) ± a2 - b 2 - c 2
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 21
1 é1 1 ù 1 é x n - x1 ù and draw AM ^ BE in the figure.
= ê - ú= ê ú 1 1 2
d x
ë 1 x n û d ë x1 x n û \ ar (DABD) = ´ BD ´ AM = ´ BE ´ AM
2 2 3
é x1 + (n - 1)d - x1 ù
1 1
= ê ú [Q Tn = a + (n - 1)d] = ´ BE ´ AM … (i)
d
ë x1 x n û 3
(n - 1) d n - 1 1
= = ar (DAPC) = ´ CP ´ AM
d(x1 x n ) x1 x n 2
1 1 1 1
= ´ BE ´ AM = ´ BE ´ AM
1 1 2 6 4 3
146. If x 2 + y 2 + + = 4, then the value of x 2 + y 2 is 1
x2 y2 = (ar DABD) [from Eq. (i)]
4
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
1 1 148. If x , y and z are positive real numbers and a, b and c
l (a) x2 + y2 + + = 4
x2 y2 are rational numbers, then value of
1 1
Þ x 2 + 2 - 2 + y2 + 2 - 2 = 0
x y 1 1 1
+ + is
2 1 + x b- a + x c - a 1 + x a- b + x c - b 1 + x b- c + x a- c
æx - 1 ö + æy - 1 ö = 0
2

Þ ç ÷ ç ÷ (a) -1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2

è xø è yø
1 1 1
On comparing the both sides, we get l (b) + +
1 1 1 + x b - a + x c - a 1 + x a - b + x c - b 1 + x b - c +x a - c
x - = 0 Þ x = Þ x2 = 1
x x 1 1 1
1 1 = + +
and y - = 0 Þ y = Þ y2 = 1 xb xc xa xc xb xa
y y 1+ a + a 1+ b
+ b 1+ c + c
x x x x x x
\ x 2 + y2 = 1 + 1 = 2 xa xb xc
= a + b +
x + xb + xc x + xa + xc xc + xb + xa
147. In the figure, BC = CD = DE and P is mid-point of
xa + xb + xc
CD. The area of DAPC is = =1
xa + xb + xc
A
149. If the height of right circular cylinder is increased
by 10% while radius of base is decreased by 10%,
then curved surface area of cylinder
(a) Remains same (b) Decreases by 1%
(c) Increases by 1% (d) Increases by 0.1%
l (b) Let radius and height of cylinder are r and h
B C P D E respectively.
1 1 \ Curved surface area of cylinder
(a) ar(DABC ) (b) ar(DABD)
3 2 S = 2prh … (i)
1 1
(c) ar(DABC ) (d) ar(DABD) At 10% decreasing, new radius
6 4 100 - 10 9 r
=r´ =
l (d) Given BC = CD = DE 100 10
1 At 10% increasing, new height
\ BC = CD = DE =
BE
3 100 + 10 11h
=h´ =
2 100 10
BD = BC + CD = BE
3 New curved surface area
= 2 p æç ö÷ æç
and P is the mid-point of CD. 9 r 11h ö 99
÷= (2 p rh)
A è10 ø è 10 ø 100
99
= S [from Eq. (i)]
100
\ Decreases per cent in surface area
First area - New area
= ´ 100
First area
99
S- S
B C MP D E = 100 ´ 100
S
1 100 - 99
\ CP = CD = ´ 100 = 1%
2 100
1 1 1
= ´ BE = BE
2 3 6
22 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

150. If a1 , a2 , a3 , .... , an are in AP and a1 = 0, then the value 152. In the given figure, the centre of the circle is A and
æa a a ö æ1 1 1 ö ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side 6cm. The
of ç 3 + 4 + .... + n ÷- a2 ç + + .... + ÷ is approximate area of segment BPF is (take p = 314 . )
è a2 a3 an - 1 ø è a2 a3 an - 2 ø
equal to
1 1
(a) n + (b) n +
n n-1
A
1 1
(c) (n - 1) + (d) (n - 2 ) +
(n - 1) (n - 2 )
B F
l (d) a1 , a2 , a3 , ... an are in AP and a1 = 0 P
then, an = 0 + (n - 1) d = (n - 1)d
C E
(where, d is common difference of AP)
æa ö æ ö D
\ ç 3 + a4 + ... + an ÷ - a2 Þ ç 1 + 1 + ... + 1 ÷
ça a3 ÷
an -1 ø ç an - 2 ÷ø 2
(b) 22 cm 2
è 2 è a2 a3 (a) 25 cm
(c) 32 cm 2 (d) 30 cm 2
æa a ö æa a ö
=ç 3 - 2÷+ ç 4 - 2÷ l (b) Each side of hexagon = 6 cm
è a2 a2 ø è a3 a3 ø
We know that, each angle of hexagon is120°.
æa a ö æ an - 1 a ö a
+ ç 5 - 2 ÷ + ... + ç - 2 ÷+ n \ ÐBAF = 120° (q)
è a4 a4 ø ça a ÷ a
è n -2 n -2 ø n -1 In DABF, AB = AF (radius of circle)
é d 2d 3d (n - 3)d ù (n -1) d \ Radius of circle = 6 cm (r)
=ê + + + ... + ú+
d 2 d 3 d (n - 3)d û (n - 2) d and ÐABF = ÐAFB = 30°
ë
(n – 1) Draw AM ^ BF.
= [1 + 1 + 1 ... (n - 3) terms] + A
In right angled triangle ABM,
n–2
AM 30° M
n -1 n -1 sin 30° = B F
= (n - 3) + = (n - 2) + -1 AB
n-2 n-2 P
1 AM
n -1 - n + 2 1 Þ =
= (n - 2) + = (n - 2) + 2 6 C E
n-2 n-2 6
Þ AM = = 3 cm
2 D
151. Three circles touch each other externally and all the
BM
three touch a line. If two of them are equal and and cos 30° =
AB
radius of third circle is 4cm, then radius of equal
3 BM
circles is Þ =
(a) 12cm (b) 8cm (c) 16cm (d) 20cm 2 6
Þ BM = 3 3 cm
l (c) Let centres of equal radii circles are O and O¢ and
\ BF = 2 ´ BM [Q AB = AF in D ABF]
centre of 4 cm radius circle is A.
= 2 ´ 3 3 = 6 3 cm
In figure O ¢ P = r, AP = 4 cm, O ¢T = r
\ Area of part BPF = Sector area of ABPF - Area of D ABF
\ O¢ A = r + 4
pr2 q 1
= - ´ BF ´ AM
360° 2
. ´ 36 ´ 120° 1
314
- ´6 3 ´3
O r r O′ 360° 2
r = 37.68 - 15.588 = 22108
. » 22 cm2
Q P 1 1 2
M
4 A 153. If + = , then what is the value of
S R T y +`z z + x x + y
Draw AM ^ O ¢T x2 + y2 ?
(a) 1 (b) -2 z2 (c) 2 z2 (d) y2 + z2
Then,
MT = AR = 4 cm 1 1 2 z+ x+y+ z 2
O ¢ M = O ¢T - MT = r - 4 and AM = r l (c) + = Þ =
y+ z z+ x x+ y (y + z) (z + x) x + y
Now, in DO ¢ AM, O ¢ A2 = O ¢ M2 + AM2
Þ (r + 4)2 = (r - 4)2 + r2 2z + x + y 2
Þ =
Þ r + 16 + 8 r = r2 + 16 - 8 r + r2
2
yz + xy + z2 + xz x + y
Þ r2 - 16 r = 0 Þ 2 yz + 2 xy + 2 z2 + 2 xz
Þ r (r - 16) = 0 Þ r - 16 = 0 = 2 xz + 2 yz + x2 + xy + xy + y2
Þ r = 16 cm Þ 2 z2 = x2 + y2 Þ x2 + y2 = 2 z2
Hence, radius of equal circle is 16 cm.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 23
154. If x 2 = y + z, y 2 = z + x and z2 = x + y , then what is 157. The minimum value of the expression
1 1 1 3b + 4c 4c + a a + 3b
the value of + + ? + + (a, b, c are +ve)
x +1 y +1 z +1 a 3b 4c
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) 2
3b + 4c 4c + a a + 3b
l (c) For minimum value of + +
l (a) Given, x2 = y + z, y2 = z + x a 3b 4c
Q a, b, c are positive number.
and z2 = x + y
\ The value of a, b and c are between in 0 and 1
\ x + x=x+ y+ z
2

or will be equal to 1.
Þ x(x + 1) = x + y + z
x+ y+ z i.e. 0 < a, b, c £ 1
Þ (x + 1) = 1 1
x If a = 1, b = , c = [Q find the value positive and integer]
3 4
y2 + y = x + y + z
3b + 4c 4c + a a + 3b
Þ y (y + 1) = x + y + z Then, + +
x+ y+ z a 3b 4c
Þ (y + 1) = 1 1 1 1
z 3´ +4´ 4 ´ +1 1+ 3 ´
= 3 4 + 4 + 3
and z2 + z = x + y + z 1 1 1
3´ 4´
Þ z(z + 1) = x + y + z 3 4
x+ y+ z 1+1 1+1 1+1
Þ (z + 1) = = + + =2 + 2 + 2 =6
z 1 1 1
1 1 1
Now, + +
x +1 y +1 z +1 158. The volume of a cube is numerically equal to sum of
x y z x+ y+ z the length of its edges. The total surface area of
= + + = =1 cube in square units is
x+ y+ z x+ y+ z x+ y+ z x+ y+ z
(a) 12 (b) 36 (c) 72 (d) 144
155. If a, b, g are the roots of the equation x 3 + 4 x + 1 = 0, l (c) Let length of side of cube is a unit.
then (a + b)-1 + (b + g )-1 + ( g + a )-1 is equal to According to the question,
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5 Volume of cube (numerical value)
l (b) Given, a, b, g are the roots of equation x3 + 4 x + 1 = 0. = Sum of length of all sides of cube
Coefficient of x2 Þ a3 = 12 a [Q numbers of side of cube are 12]
\ a+ b + g=
Coefficient of x3 Þ a2 = 12 Þ a = 2 3 unit
Þ a+ b + g =0 … (i) \ Curved surface area of cube = 6 a2 = 6(2 3 )2
ab + bg + ga =
Coefficient of x = 72 square unit
Coefficient of x3
159. The expression 14 m - 6 m will always divisible by
Þ ab + bg + ga = 4 … (ii)
Constant term (a) 8 (b) 20 (c) 14 (d) 6
and abg =
Coefficient of x3 l (a) 14 m - 6 m = (2 ´ 7)m - (2 ´ 3)m (take prime factors)
Þ a,bg = -1 … (iii) = 2 m (7 m - 3 m)
1 1 1 = 21 (71 - 31 )
Now (a + b)-1 + (b + g)-1 + (g + a)-1 = + +
a+ b b + g g + a [put m = 1 or putting minimum positive integer]
1 1 1 =2 ´4 =8
= + + [from Eq. (i)]
- g - a -b Hence,14 m - 6 m, will be divisible by 8.
é ab + bg + ga ù 4 160. PQRS is a square of side 6cm each and T is
=-ê ú = - (- 1)
ë abg û mid-point of QR. What is the radius of circle
[from Eqs. (ii) and (iii)] inscribed in DTSR.
=4 P Q

156. If x , y , z are three positive numbers, then the 3cm

y +z z +x x +y
minimum value of + + is
x y z 6cm T
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6 3cm
l (d) Given x, y, z are three positive numbers.
y+ z z+ x x+ y S R
\ Minimum value of + +
x y z 3 6
(a) (b)
1+1 1+1 1+1 3- 5 3+ 5
= + + =2 + 2 + 2 =6
1 1 1 2
(c) (d) 3 + 5
[Q 1 is the lowest positive number] 3+ 5
24 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

l (b) Given, PQ = QR = RS = PS = 6 cm l (a) Former Secretary General of UNO, Kofi A Annan said
and T is the mid point of QR. that ‘US war on Iraq was not legal’. Kofi A Annan was a
P Q Ghanaian diplomat who served as the 7th Secretary General
of the United Nations from January 1997 to December 2006.
In 2001, he was awarded by Nobel Peace Prize.

T 165. President can declare emergency when

(a) Prime Minister advises him to do so
(b) Parliament advises
(c) The council of ministers, in writing, advises him to do so
S R (d) Home Minister ask him to do so
6
\ QT = TR = = 3 cm l (c) Under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, President
2 can declare National Emergency on the grounds of war,
Q PQRS is a square. external aggression or armed rebellion.
\ ÐQRS = 90° Such emergency shall be imposed by the President on the
In right angled triangle TSR, basis of written request by the Council of Ministers.
ST = TR2 + SR2 = 32 + 62 = 45 = 3 5 cm
166. KOSOVO was a province of ........ before the split
1 1
Area of D TSR (D) = ´ SR ´ TR = ´ 6 ´ 3 = 9 cm2 (a) Vietnam (b) Zimbabve (c) Sri Lanka (d) Yugoslavia
2 2
l (d) KOSOVO was a province of Yugoslavia before the
and semi-perimeter of split. It is a partially recognised state and disputed
1
DTSR (s) = (ST + RS + TR) territory in South-Eastern Europe.
2
1 1 167. Which of the following state was born out of culture,
= (3 5 + 6 + 3) = (9 + 3 5 ) cm
2 2 ethnicity and geography?
D 9 ´2 6 (a) Kerala (b) Nagaland (c) Mizoram (d) Assam
\ Radius of incirle of DTSR = = = cm
s 9+3 5 3+ 5 l (b) North-East State Nagaland was born out of culture,
ethnicity and geography. Nagaland was carved out from
161. When was the democracy restored in Chile?
the state of Assam by the state of Nagaland Act, 1962.
(a) 1973 (b) 1988 (c) 1957 (d) 1991
Creation of the states can be considered as the first step for
l (b) Democracy was restored in Chile in 1988 when creating a democratic political environment.
Military General Pinochet’s dictatorship came to an end
after a referendum. A democratically elected government 168. ‘End of Racial Discrimination’ is a part of which
was formed as the army’s role in Chilean government was fundamental right?
eradicated. (a) Right to freedom
Chile is a country of South America continent and its (b) Right to equality
capital is Santiago. (c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to education and culture
162. Which of the following country is not an operational
member of Security Council? l (b) ‘End of Racial Discrimination’ is a part of Right to
equality fundamental right of citizen. Article 17 of the
(a) Russia (b) China (c) Germany (d) America
Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids
l (c) Germany is not an operational member of Security its practice in any form.
Council. Security Council comprises of five permanent
members namely China, UK, Russia, France and USA, and 169. The movement for the individual and family right of
10 non-permanent members, elected for a term of 2 years women is known as
by a two-third majority of the General Assembly. Germany (a) Mahila Adhikar Aandolan
is one of the non-permanent members of Security Council. (b) Mahila Shakti Aandolan
(c) Narivadi Aandolan
163. Who among the following was not a member of the
(d) Nari Sashaktikaran Aandolan
constituent assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru l (c) The movement for the individual and family right of
(c) Dr Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr BR Ambedkar women is known as Narivadi Aandolan. It emphasis on
political dissemination of women’s discussion on
l (a) Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the constituent reproductive rights, domestic violence, maternity leave,
assembly. Dr Rajendra Prasad was the President of equal pay related rights, sexual harassment,
constituent assembly, Dr BR Ambedkar was the Chairman discrimination and sexual violence.
of Drafting committee and Jawaharlal Nehru was the 170. What is the meaning of ‘Transparency’?
Chairman of several committees in Constitution making. (a) When decision is taken by the ruler
164. Which of the following Secretary General said that (b) When decision are made through leader’s conclusion
‘‘US war on Iraq was not legal’’? (c) When decision are made for individual greeds
(a) Kofi A Annan (b) B B Ghali (d) When decision are taken with honesty and proper follow of
(c) U Thant (d) Ban Ki Moon rules
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)
l (d) In politics, transparency is used as a means of holding
public officials accountable and fighting against
corruption. Therefore, the meaning of transparency is
‘Taking the decisions with honesty and properly follow the
rules’.
171. The International organisation that works for human
rights is
(a) Amety International (b) Amnesty International
(c) Asnesty International (d) Afnesty International
l (b) Amnesty International is the international organisation
that works for human right. It was founded in 1961 in
London. This organisation was awarded the Nobel Peace
Prize in 1977 and United Nations Prize in the field of
Human Rights in 1978.
172. What was Livre?
(a) Currency of France (b) Newspaper of France
(c) Magazine of France (d) Flag of France
l (a) Livre was the currency of France from 781 to 1794.
Presently, Euro is the official currency of France.
173. Who granted sole right to trade with East to East
India company?
(a) James I (b) James II
(c) Elizabeth I (d) Elizabeth II
l (c) Elizabeth I granted sole right to trade with East to East
India Company by a Royal Charter on 31st December,
1600. Initially, the focus of the company was trade not the
building of an empire in India.
174. In which Congress session, Non-cooperation
programme was adopted?
(a) Ahmedabad 1921 (b) Kolkata 1917
(c) Amritsar 1919 (d) Nagpur 1920
l (d) On 4th September, 1920 Congress met in Calcutta in a
special session in which Gandhi Ji proposed
Non-cooperation resolution which was opposed by CR
Das. In December 1920, the Nagpur session of the
Congress confirmed the resolution of starting
Non-cooperation movement. This movement envisaged
boycott of school, colleges, law courts, foreign cloths etc.
175. The first Modern Novel published in Malayalam in
the year 1889 was
(a) Indulekha (b) Rajasekhara Caritamu
(c) Manju Ghose (d) Pariksha Guru
l (a) The first Modern Novel published in Malayalam in the
year 1889 was ‘Indulekha’. It was written by Oyyarathu
Chandu Menon. It is a depiction of Nair society in the late
19th century with a love story at its core.
176. The painting ‘Damayanti’ was made by
(a) Abindra Nath Tagore
(b) William Jones
(c) Raja Ravi Verma
(d) Ravindra Nath Tagore
l (c) The painting ‘Damayanti’ was made by Raja Ravi
Verma. He was a Malayali painter and artist. He was
closely related to the royal family of Travancore in Kerala
state in India.
25
177. When was Simon Commission arrived in India?
(a) 1928 (b) 1930 (c) 1931 (d) 1932
l (a) Simon Commission was a group of seven British
Members of Parliament.
The commission under the chairmanship of Sir John
Simon arrived in India in 1928 to study the constitution
reform. Due to the absence of any Indian member in it, the
commission was boycotted by the Indian National
Congress and most other Indian political parties.
178. ‘Rinderpest’ is a term used for
(a) a cattle disease
(b) missing of cattle
(c) indentured labourer
(d) mass production in a factory
l (a) ‘Rinderpest’ is a term used for cattle disease. This
disease is characterised by fever, oral erosions, diarrhoea,
lymphoid necrosis and high mortality.
179. Giuseppe Garibaldi was a famous freedom fighter of
(a) Germany (b) Poland
(c) Ireland (d) Italy
l (d) Giuseppe Garibaldi was a famous freedom fighter of
Italy. He contributed to the Italian unification and the
creation of the kingdom of Italy.
180. Gudem Rebellion was led by
(a) Baba Ramchandra (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju (d) Mahatma Gandhi
l (c) Gudem Rebellion was led by Alluri Sitaram Raju.
Gudem Rebellion spread in the hills of Andhra Pradesh in
response to the Non-cooperation movement in 1921.
The methods adopted by the tribals to attain Swaraj was by
the means of violence and force.
181. ‘The Social Contract’ book was written by
(a) Dantey (b) Rousseau
(c) Petrarek (d) Napolean
l (b) ‘The Social Contract’ book was written by Rousseau.
Rousseau was a Genevan philospher, writer and composer.
In this book, he theorised about the best way to establish a
political community in the face of problems of commercial
society.
182. The principle of the ‘Garden City’ was developed by
(a) Raymond Unwin (b) Barry Parker
(c) Ebenezar Howard (d) Herbert Baker
l (c) The principle of the ‘Garden City’ was developed by
architect Ebenezar Howard to solve the problem of
growing congestion and pollution of the city of London.
183. Which of the following organisation looks after the
credit needs of agriculture and rural development in
India?
(a) FCI (b) IDBI
(c) NABARD (d) SBI
l (c) NABARD is an apex development financial institution
in India that looks after the credit needs of agriculture and
rural development in India. It was established on 12th
July, 1982 with its headquarter located at Mumbai.
26 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I)

184. How many phases are there in circular flow of 190. What per cent of the total surface area of India is
income? covered by mountains?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 5 (a) 33% (b) 35%
l (b) There are three different phases in circular flow of (c) 30% (d) 25%
income. These are l (c) The total surface area of India is covered by mountains
l Production Phase (Generation of Income) is 30%, rest 43% part is covered by plains and 27% part is
l Income Phase (Distribution of Income) covered by plateau.
l Expenditure Phase (Disposition of Income)
191. Which mineral has excellent dielectric strength,
185. Which of the following is considered as social insulating properties, low power loss factor and
infrastructure ? resistance to high voltage?
(a) Transport (b) Education (a) Aluminium (b) Lime stone
(c) Energy (d) Communication (c) Copper (d) Mica
l (b) Education is considered as social infrastructure. Social l (d) Mica has excellent dielectric strength, insulating
infrastructure is the interdependent mix of facilities, properties, low power loss factor and resistance to high
places, spaces, programs, projects, services and networks voltage.
that maintain and improve the standard of living and It is used in electricity tools like transformer. India is a
quality of life in a community. leading producer of mica.
186. Multiple cropping refers to 192. Which of the following is an example of joint sector
(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice industry?
(b) Cultivation of two crops in alternate rows (a) BHEL (b) OIL
(c) Cultivating more than one crop on the same field in a year
(c) SAIL (d) TISCO
(d) Cultivating crops and rearing animals simultaneously
l (b) Oil India Limited (OIL) is an example of joint sector
l (c) Multiple cropping refers to cultivating more than one industry. It is the second largest hydrocarbon exploration
crop on the same field in a year. With multiple cropping
and production Indian public sector company with its
the risk of total loss from drought, pests and diseases is
operational headquarters in Duliajan, Assam. It was
reduced.
founded on 18th February, 1959.
187. Infant mortality rate refers to the death of child 193. Which mode of transport reduces transshipment
under the age of losses and delays?
(a) 1 year (b) 2 year (a) Railways (b) Roadways
(c) 3 year (d) 4 year (c) Waterways (d) Pipelines
l (a) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) refers to the death of child l (d) Pipeline is the mode of transport that helps in reducing
under the age of one year. IMR is the number of deaths transshipment losses and delays. The pipeline mode is
per 1000 live birth of children under one year of age. It is used for transporting liquids and gases.
an important indicator of the overall physical health of a
community. 194. Which of the following lake lies on the Equator?
(a) Lake Victoria (b) Lake Malavi
188. In which year was the Integrated Child (c) Lake Nasser (d) None of these
Development Service (ICDS) introduced?
l (a) Lake Victoria lies on the Equator. With a surface area
(a) 1965 (b) 1975
of 68,800 sq km, lake Victoria is the Africa’s largest lake.
(c) 1985 (d) 1995
l (b) Introduced in 1975, Integrated Child Development 195. The longitudinal valleys lying between Lesser
Service (ICDS) is a government programme which Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as
provides food, pre-school education, primary healthcare, (a) Valleys (b) Coast (c) Passes (d) Duns
immunisation refferal services to children under 6 years of l (d) The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas
age and their mothers. and Shivaliks are known as Duns. Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun,
189. The first Chairman of Planning Commission was Patli Dun are the well known examples of Duns.
(a) Indira Gandhi 196. In winters, the western cyclonic disturbances
(b) Dr Rajendra Prashad originate from which sea?
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (a) Caspian sea
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Black sea
l (c) The first Chairman of Planning Commission was (c) Mediterranean sea
Jawaharlal Nehru. Planning Commission was an extra (d) Baltic sea
constitutional body, charged with the responsibility of
l (c) In winters, the western cyclonic disturbances originate
making assessment of all resources of the country.
from mediterranean sea and enter India after crossing over
Now, it has been replaced by new institution named NITI
Iraq, Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan under the influence
Aayog on 1st January 2015.
of westerly jet stream.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage I) 27
197. Balancing the need to use resources and also 199. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics’, when
conserve them for future is called some plates come towards each other which one of
(a) Resource development the following is formed?
(b) Resource conservation (a) Convergent boundary
(c) Sustainable development (b) Divergent boundary
(d) Human resource development (c) Transform boundary
l (c) Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve (d) None of the above
them for future is called sustainable development. l (a) According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics’, when
some plates come towards each other, then convergent
198. Which among the following has the maximum boundary is formed. While, when the plates move apart
number of National Parks? with the upwelling of material from the mantle, divergent
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island plate boundary is formed.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam 200. The largest producer of cotton in the world is
(d) Meghalaya (a) India
(b) China
l (a) With a total of 9 National Parks, Andaman and Nicobar
(c) Brazil
Island has the maximum number of National Parks. These
are: Campbell National Park, Galathea National Park, (d) USA
Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park, Middle Button l (b) The largest producer of cotton in the world in China
Island National Park, Mount Harriet National Park, North followed by India and United States of America.
Button Island National Park, Rani Jhansi Marine National China produced 6532 thousand metric tonnes while India
Park, Saddle Peak National Park and South Button Island produced 6423 thousand metric tonnes of the cotton in
National Park. 2018.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 1

NTSE Solved Paper

NATIONAL TALENT
SEARCH
EXAMINATION
2018 (Stage II)*

INSTRUCTIONS
This solved paper consists of two papers. Paper I consists of Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Paper II consists of
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT).
MAT covering (Q. Nos. 1-50) of Maths and (Q. Nos. 51-100) of Reasoning.
SAT consists of (Science, Mathematics and Social Science) which comprises 100 questions (40 Science, 20 Mathematics
and 40 Social Science).
There will be no negative marking.
Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.

Time : 240 Minutes Max. Mark : 200

Paper I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

1. Which figure completes the statement? I. Mehar has a goat.
II. Ravneet has a goat.
III. Mehar is lying.
Codes
(a) Only II (b) I and II (c) I, II and III (d) II and III
is to
l (c) From fact (3) i.e. Ravneet always tells the truth, it is
clear that Ravneet and Mehar both have goats and Mehar
is lying.
?
3. Look at the patterns in the squares and understand
is to their relationship to one another so as to fill in the
square missing symbols.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (a) Option figure (a) will come in place of question mark.

?
2. Fact 1: Ravneet said, “Mehar and I both have
goats.’’
Fact 2: Mehar said, “I don’t have a goat.”
Fact 3: Ravneet always tells the truth, but Mehar
sometimes lies.
If the three statements are facts, which of the
following statements must also be facts? (a) (b) (c) (d)

*Exam held on 13th May 2018

2 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

l (a) In first row, the rectangle is moving 1 step in clockwise l (d) Here, the pattern is,
direction and the circle is moving 2 steps in anti-clockwise (3)2 + (4)2 + (2)2 + (2)2 - (3 + 4 + 2 + 2)
direction. The arrow is moving 1 step in anti-clockwise = (9 + 16 + 4 + 4) - (3 + 4 + 2 + 2)
direction and at the same time it is rotating 45° clock-wise. = 33 - 11
In second row, the arrow remains at its position, the = 22
rectangle is moving 1 step in clockwise direction and the
circle is moving 2 steps in clockwise direction. (4)2 + (3)2 + (2)2 + (5)2 - (4 + 3 + 2 + 5)
In third row, the figures are following the same pattern as = 16 + 9 + 4 + 25 - (4 + 3 + 2 + 5)
of row 1. = 54 - 14
Hence, option figure (a) will come in place of question = 40
mark. Similarly,
4. Danish starts walking straight towards East. After (5)2 + (4)2 + (3)2 + (6)2 - (5 + 4 + 3 + 6)
walking 75 m, he turns to the left and walks 25 m = (25 + 16 + 9 + 36) - (5 + 4 + 3 + 6)
straight. Again he turns to the left, walks a distance = 86 - 18 = 68
of 40 m straight, again he turns to the left and walks
a distance of 25 m. Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Answer these questions by using
the following diagram.
How far is he from the starting point?
C
(a) 30 m (b) 35 m (c) 40 m (d) 50 m D 1

l (b) According to the given information, 12 2

D 40 m C 3
N 4 5 8 9

25 m 25 m W E
Final 7 10 11
Position
A B
E B S
Starting Point
75 m
Required distance = AE = AB - BE = AB - DC
= 75 - 40 = 35 m A

5. ln the question given below, there are four Each square stands for different class.
statements which are to be taken as truth even if A. represents Indians
they do not seem to be so. There are conclusions B. represents Students
numbered I, II, III and IV. Decide which of these C. represents Talented individuals
logically follow from the given statements. D. represents Players
All students who like English also like Mathematics.
7. How many Indian non-player students who are
Some students like Hindi. All students who like
talented?
Hindi do not like Mathematics. Students who like
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c)10 (d) 12
Mathematics also like English.
I. Students who like Hindi also like English. 8. How many talented Indians are players?
II. Students who like Mathematics also like Hindi. (a) 13 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 22
Ill. Students who like Mathematics do not like Hindi. 9. How many talented Indians are there, who are
IV. Students who like English do not like Hindi. students?
Codes (a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 19
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I and IV (d) III and IV l Sol. (Q. Nos. 7-9)
l (d) From the given information, i.e. all students who like 1
C (Talented Individuals)
English also like Mathematics and all students who like D (Players)
Hindi do not like Mathematics, we can say that students 12 2
who like English do not like Hindi. 3
Hence, both conclusions III and IV are correct. 4 5 8 9

6. The number in the place of ‘?’ should be 7 10 11

2 3 4
B (Students)
A (Indians)
3 22 2 4 40 2 5 ? 3

7. (c) 10 Indian non-player students are talented.

4 5 6 8. (b) Talented Indians who are players = 8 + 9 =17
(a) 42 (b) 58 (c) 59 (d) 68 9. (d) Talented Indians who are students = 9 + 10 = 19
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 3
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-11) Study the following diagram. On putting values of Eq (i) in Eq (ii)
A B Þ (58 - y) + y = 2 y + 44
2 y = 58 - 44
2 y = 14 (from Eq (i))
15 y x y =7
On putting value of y in Eq (i)
5
10 11 x = 58 - 7 Þ x = 51

12. In the question given below, some arguments is/are

25 logical and others are not. Identify the logical
argument(s).
C I. Eating lots of vegetables and fruits increases
A : Representing people who read newspaper A immunity. I eat lots of vegetables and fruits, so
my immunity is high.
B : Representing people who read newspaper B
II. Eating lots of vegetables and fruits increases
C : Representing people who read newspaper C
immunity. I do not eat vegetables and fruits, so
10. If the number of people in B is 10 more than A, what my immunity is low.
is the total number of people in only B (i.e. in B but III. Eating lots of vegetables and fruits increases
not in A or C)? immunity. My immunity is low, which means I
(a) 14 (b) 24 (c) 30 (d) 36 don’t eat fruits and vegetables.
(a) Only I (b) I and II (c) I and III (d) II and III
11. If sum of the number of people in only B and the
number of people common in both A and B is 63 l (c) Here, arguments I and III are logical.
and the number of people in B is twice the number 13. Consider the following figure
of people in A, then the values of x and y are
respectively
(a) 15, 4 (b) 48, 5 (c) 51, 7 (d) 51,8
l Sol. (Q. Nos. 10-11)

A (People who B (People who

15 y x
read newspaper A) read newspaper B) ?
5
10 11
Which of the following alternatives should replace
the question marks?
25 C (People who
read newspaper C)

10. (b) Number of people who read newspaper A (a) (b)

= 15 + 10 + 5 + y = 30 + y
and number of people who read newspaper B
= y + x + 11 + 5
= 16 + x + y
According to the given information,
(c) (d)
Þ x + y + 16 = (30 + y) + 10
Þ x + y + 16 = 40 + y
Þ x = 40 - 16
\ x = 24 l (d) After studying figure, it can be concluded that option
(d) will replace the question mark because in all the rows,
or number of people who read only newspaper B = 24
there are four trees and five fruits.
11. (c) Number of people reading only newspaper B = x
Number of people reading both A and B newspaper 14. Find out the water image of
=5 + y AVPU7436
A V PU 7 4 3 6 A V PU 3 6
According to the question, (a) (b) 7 4
x + y + 5 = 63 A V 4 3 6 A V 4 3 6
(c) PU7 (d) PU 7
Þ x + y = 63 - 5
A V P U 7 4 3 6
Þ x = 58 - y …(i) l (a) Here, A V P U 7 4 3 6
Also, 16 + x + y = 2(30 + y)
Þ x + y = 2 y + 44 …(ii) Hence, option figure (a) is the correct answer.
4 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

15. A man goes on trek from the bottom to the top of a 19. Which of the following alternatives will fit in the
mountain. He starts at 6 am of 15th October, 2017 place of ‘?’ ?
from the bottom and reaches the top at 6 pm of the AZ, GT, MN,? , YB
same day. On 16th October, 2017 he starts from the (a) KF (b) RX
top at 6 am and goes back following exactly the (c) SH (d) TS
same route and reaches the bottom at 6 pm. Based l (c) The pattern of the series is
on the above situation, the following possibilities –6 –6 –6 –6
are to be analysed.
I. It is not possible to find a point on the route which AZ GT MN SH YB
he will cross at the same time each day.
+6 +6 +6 +6
II. It is possible to find a point on the route which he
will cross at the same time each day provided 20. Look at this series
only if he travels on each day with equal uniform J14, L16, _____, P20, R22
speed.
Which of the following alternatives will fit in the
III. It is always possible to find a point on the route blank space?
which he will cross at the same time each day (a) N18 (b) S24
irrespective of his speed of travel. (c) M18 (d) T24
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true
(c) Only III is true (d) Both I and II are true
l (a) The pattern of the series is
+2 +2 +2 +2
l (b) Here only possibility II is true.
L 16 P R
16. At noon and at midnight the long and short hands of J 14 N 18 20 22
a clock are together. Between noon and midnight, +2 +2 +2 +2
how many times the long hand overtakes the short
hand? 21. What will be the missing term in the given
(a) 9 (b) 10 sequence?
(c) 11 (d) 12 ACC, ____, CEO, DFX
l (c) The minute hand of a clock will overtake the hour hand (a) BDD (b) BDE
of the clock 11 times in 12 hours. (c) BDH (d) BED
17. If MENTAL: SMXFOB, then ABILITY: ______ l (c) The pattern of the series is
(a) GJSXWJQ (b) GSXWJJQ +1 +1 +1
A B C D
(b) SGXWJJQ (d) SJXQJWG
+1 +1 +1
C D E F
l (a) As,
M E N T A L +5 +7 +9
C H O X

+6 +8 +10 +12 +14 +16

22. Which number comes in place of ‘?’ ?
S M X F O B 64, 57, 66, 55, ? 52
Similarly, (a) 68 (b) 69
A B I L I T Y (c) 70 (d) 71

+6 +8 +10 +12 +14 +16 +18

l (b) The pattern of the series is
–2 –3
G J S X W J Q
64 57 66 55 69 52
18. As JAISALMER is to JAILSARME as HYDERABAD
is to +2 +3
(a) HYDAERDBA (b) HYDRBEDAA
23. Select the suitable figure from the given alternatives
(c) HYDBDREAA (d) HYDEADRAB
to complete the figure.
l (a) As, J A I S A L M E R

J A I L S A R M E

Similarly,
H Y D E R A B A D
?

H Y D A E R D B A
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 5
27. When a square shaped transparent sheet with the
pattern shown in the figure is folded along the
dotted line which pattern would appear?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (a) Here, in each row the number of lines are decreasing

and the pin head is rotating 90° in clockwise direction.
Hence, option figure (a) will come in place of question
mark.

24. Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence

and find the correct sequence from the given
options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Wall B. Clay
l (a) The piece of sheet will appear like the figure given in
C. House D. Room option (a).
E. Bricks
(a) E, B, A, D, C (b) B, E, D, A, C 28. Fact 1 : All monkeys like to jump.
(c) B, E, A, D, C (d) A, B, C, D, E Fact 2 : Some monkeys like to swim.
l (c) The correct sequence is, Fact 3 : Some monkeys look like their masters.
Clay ® Bricks ® Wall ® Room ® House If the first three statements are facts which of the
i.e. B, E, A, D, C following statements must also be a fact(s)? .
I. All monkeys who like to swim look like their
25. Identify the figure the complete the pattern.
masters.
II. Monkeys who like to swim also like to jump.
III. Monkeys who like to jump do not look like their
masters.
Codes
? (a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) II and lll (d) I and II
l (b) According to the given facts, all monkeys like to jump
and some monkeys like to swim.

(a) (b) (c) (d) Masters Monkey Swim

l (c) Option figure (c) will complete the pattern of the given
figure.
Jump
26. Replace ‘?’ by the appropriate figure from the given
options. So, it is clear that those monkeys who like to swim also
like to jump. Hence, only statement II can be a fact.

? 29. Given below is a statement followed by two

assumptions.
Statement The population below poverty line has
increased in urban area during the last year.
Assumptions
I. The population below poverty line has decreased
in rural area.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
II. The population below poverty line has not
l (c) Here, the position of part of a figure is changing in increased during the current year.
each step and a new figure comes after every two steps. Which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement?
So, following the same pattern, option figure (c) will
(a) Only I is implicit (b) Only II is implicit
replace the question mark.
(c) Either I or II is implicit (d) Neither I nor II is implicit
6 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

l (d) No information regarding the population below
poverty line in rural areas is given in the statement.
Hence, statement I is not implicit.
Also, no information regarding the increase in population
during current year is given.
Hence, statement II is also not implicit.
crossings is called a block. Starting from a crossing, if
I travel four blocks North, take left and then travel
three blocks West, I reach another crossing. What is
the distance between these two crossings?

30. Identify the conclusion(s) which logically follow(s)

from the given statements: 1 block
A. Some men are educated.
B. Educated men prefer small families.
Conclusions
I. All small families are educated. (a) 5 km (b) 7 km
II. Some men prefer small families. (c) 7/8 km (d) 5/8 km
1 1 1 1 4 1
Codes l (d) AB = 4 blocks = + + + = km = km,
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows 8 8 8 8 8 2
1 1 1 3
(c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor ll follows BC = 3 blocks = + + = km
8 8 8 8
l (b) As, some men are educated and educated men prefer C B
small families. Hence, we can say that some men prefer 1/8 1/8 1/8
small families. While conclusion I, i.e. small families are
1/8
educated is doubtful.

31. A watch is showing right time at 9 pm. This watch 1/8

gains 10 minutes in every 24 hours. What will be the
time shown next day by the watch when the correct 1/8
time is 2 am?
(a) 02:00:24 am (b) 2:00:48 am 1/8
(c) 02:02.05 am (d) 02:02:30 am A
l (c) The watch shows the correct time at 9 pm. 2 2
Total time since 9 pm to 2 am = 5 hours \ Required distance = æ1 ö + æ3 ö
ç ÷ ç ÷
è2 ø è8 ø
Q The clock gains 10 min in 24 hours.
10 1 9
\ Time gained by clock in 5 hours = ´ 5 = 2 min 05 sec = +
24 4 64
Hence, the clock will show 02 : 02 : 05 am at 2 am. 25 5
= = km
64 8
32. In a school, students are offered subjects in such a
manner that they have to choose at least one subject 34. How many minimum right turns will you take to
from History and Geography. Accordingly: reach school from home?
All students who study History also study Geography Home
logically implies:
I. There are no students who study Geography and
do not study History.
II. There are no students who study History and do
not study Geography.
III. There are no students who do not study History
and do not study Geography. School
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
IV. All students who do not study Geography are
students who study History. l (c) Home
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) Il and III (d) II and IV
l (c) Statement II and III are true with respect to the
statements given in question.

33. In a city, all the roads are either parallel to the

East-West or North-South direction.
School
1
Every th of a kilometre from each road there is a Here, circle represents the point where I will take right
8 turn.
crossing and the square area covered between four Hence, minimum number of right turns = 9
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 7
35. The figure shows the Gender, Marital Status and 38. Which region contains exactly eight integers?
Profession (GMP) of a number of people. Each (a) P (b) Q
shape shows a different GMP. (c) R (d) S
Sol. (Q.Nos. 36-38)
Integers in I = {2 , 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 26}
Integers in II = {1, 4, 9, 16, 25}
Integers in III = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13,17, 19, 23}
Integers in W = {15, 21}
I I II = {4, 16}
I I III = {2, 3}
II I III = f
Circle indicates total population, trapezium is males, S + V = {4,16}
pentagon is married, rectangle is teachers, and
U + V = {2}
triangle is doctors.
V = f,
What do the shaded regions represent in the S = {4, 16}
diagram?
u = {2}
(a) married males who are teachers.
T=f
(b) unmarried males who are doctors.
(c) unmarried females who are doctors. Integers in P = {8, 10, 12, 14, 18, 20, 22, 24, 26}
(d) married males who are neither doctors nor teachers. Integers in Q = {1, 9, 25}
Integers in R = {3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23}
l (a)
Total Population
36. (c) Region S and W contains exactly two integers.
Males 37. (a) Number of integers in S = 2
Teachers Number of integers in R = 8
Married and number of integers in P = 10
38. (c) Region R contains exactly 8 integers.

39. In a school, commerce and arts subjects were

Doctor offered. Some students opted only for commerce
Here, shaded region represent the married males who are and some only arts. There were science students
teachers. also who did not choose any of these subjects. The
rest of them accepted both commerce and arts.
Directions (Q.Nos. 36-38) Which one of the following Venn diagram correctly
l Each of integers 1 to 26 is represented in the Venn diagram in reflects this situation?
the appropriate regions P to W where region K represents
integers from 1 to 26.
l I represents even integers from 1 to 26.
l II represents perfect square integers from 1 to 26.
l III represents prime numbers from 1 to 26.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
l W represents numbers from 1 to 26 other than those in I, II
and III. l (a) According to the given information,
K Total students
II I

Q S P Commerce
students Arts students

V
T U
Science students

R 40. A person walked 100 m straight from the point ‘A’ in

W
III the North-East direction, walked 200 m in South-
West direction from there, 100 m in North-East
direction again, walked 100 m eastward, 200 m
36. Which region contains exactly two integers?
southward and 100 m westward to reach at the point
(a) P and W (b) R and U (c) S and W (d) U and W
‘B’. Choose the right answer from the following to
37. The total number of integers in S and R is equal to find out his/her distance and direction from ‘A’.
the number of integers in (a) 100 m, North (b) 100 m, South
(a) P (b) T (c) V (d) W (c) 200 m, North (d) 200 m, South
8 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

l (d) According to the given information, l (d) Let the cost of 1 pen be `x.
C and cost of 1 pencil be ` y.
From statement I,
100 m E
6 x + 5 y = 30 …(i)
A
Starting point
N From statement II,
N-W N-E
12 æç
60 ö æ 60 ö y = 36
200 m ÷ x + 10 ç ÷
W E è100 ø è100 ø
D S-W S-E Þ 36 x + 30 y = 180
Final point S
100 m F
Þ 6 x + 5 y = 30 …(ii)
B
From both the statements, we get the same equation
Required distance = AB = EF (Q AE = BF)
Hence, we cannot find the cost of pen using both
= 200 m statements.
Hence, the person is 200 m away towards South from his
starting point. 43. What is the ratio of savings of A and B?
Directions (Q.Nos. 41-44) In the following question, each I. The ratio of income of A and B is 5 : 6.
contains two statements I and II, giving certain data. Select II. The ratio of expenditure of A and B is 3 : 4.
the correct answer from (1) to (4) depending on the (a) (1) (b) (2)
sufficiency of data given in the statements to answer each (c) (3) (d) (4)
question. l (d) From statement I,
(1) If I alone is sufficient and II alone is not sufficient Income of A = 5x
to answer the question. Income of B = 6x
(2) If II alone is sufficient and I alone is not sufficient From statement II,
to answer the question. Expenditure of A =3y
(3) If both I and II together are sufficient but neither Expenditure of B = 4y
statement alone is sufficient to answer the Even from both the statements we cannot find the ratio of
question. savings of A and B.
(4) If both I and II together are not sufficient to 44. What is the ratio of the selling prices of two articles
answer the question and additional data specific A and B?
to the question are needed. I. The cost price of article A is equal to the selling
41. A, B and C have money with them in the ratio 5:3:1. price of B.
How much money does B have? II. The profit made by selling A is equal to 1/5 of its
I. A has ` 60 more than C. selling price.
II. The money with B is 40 % less than the money (a) (1) (b) (2)
with A. (c) (3) (d) (4)
(a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4) l (c) Let the cost price of article A be ‘A’
l (a) From statement I, and selling price of article A be ‘a’.
Let A, B and C 5 x, 3 x and x, respectively. Also, cost price of article B be ‘B’
A has ` 60 more than C and selling price of article B be ‘b’.
i.e. 5 x - x = 60 (Q A : C = 5 : 1) from statement I
Þ x = 15 A=b …(i)
Hence, share of B = 3 ´ 15 = ` 45 from statement II
60 1
From statement II, B= A a- A= a
100 5
60 A a
or a- b= [from Eq. (i)]
100 = 3 5
\ (Q B : A = 3 : 5)
A 5 4
Þ a= b
3 3 5
Þ =
5 5 a 5
or =
Hence, we cannot find share of B from statement II. b 4
Hence, both the statement are required to find the ratio of
42. What is the cost of each pen? selling price of A and selling price of B.
I. The cost of 6 pens and 5 pencils is ` 30.
45. If in a code language STAR=50 and CIRUS=65
II. If the cost of each pen and each pencil is reduced
then PLANET will be
by 40%, then the cost of 12 pens and 10 pencils (a) 68 (b) 78
will be ` 36. (c) 84 (d) 94
(a) (1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (d) (4)
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 9
l (d) Here, each letter’s position is according to reverse l (a) The pattern of the series is,
English alphabetical order. (Prime
2 3 5 7 11 13 numbers)
S T A R = 8 + 7 + 26 + 9 = 50
and C I R U S = 24 + 18 + 9 + 6 + 8 = 65 Y V V T V T (Position of
(25=2+23) (22=3+19) (22=5+17) (20=7+13) (22=11+11) (20=13+7) alphabet)
Similarly,
23 19 17 13 11 7 (Prime
P L A N E T = 11 + 15 + 26 + 13 + 22 + 7 = 94 numbers)

46. Pankaja puts her alarm clock on the table in such a 50. Identify which number does not fit in the sequence?
way that at 6 pm the hour hand points to North. In
156, 182, 210, 240, 282, 306,
which direction will the minute hand point at 9:15
(a) 182 (b) 210 (c) 282 (d) 306
pm?
(a) South-East (b) South l (c) The pattern of the series is
(c) North (d) West 272

l (d) 6 156 182 210 240 282 306

N
N-W N-E (132–13) (142–14) (152–15) (162–16) (172–17) (182–18)
3 9 W E Hence, 282 is the wrong term.
S-W S-E
S 51. What is the number in place of ‘?’ ?
12 6, 15, 35,? 143, 221
At 9 : 15 pm the minute hand will point West. (a) 45 (b) 65 (c) 77 (d) 93
?
47. One evening before sunset two friends Rajni and l (c) 6, 15, 35, ¾® , 143, 221
Sanjiv were talking face to face. If Sanjiv shadow The series follows the pattern as
was exactly to his right side, to which direction 2 ´3 =6
Rajni was facing? 3 ´ 5 = 15
(a) North (b) North-East 5 ´ 7 = 35
(c) South (d) South-East 7 ´ 11 = 77
l (c) Rajni 11 ´ 13 = 143
13 ´ 17 = 221
N
This series is product of prime numbers.
W E 52. A pattern is being followed to derive numbers using
Sanjeev’s shadow
two out of the six numbers appearing on the faces of
Sanjeev S a dice having numbers from 4 to 9, both inclusive.
Clearly, Rajni is facing South direction. Two such pair yield 106 and 52. What will the third
pairs yield?
48. The square boxes in the figures below are to be
5 7 7
painted with different colours such that no two
adjacent boxes (even diagonally) have same colour. 4 4 5
8 5 6
How many minimum colours do you need' in each
case?
(a) 100 (b) 113 (c) 130 (d) 145
l (b) From the given dice
we obtained opposite faces as
Opposite Opposite Opposite
4 ¾¾® 6, 7 ¾¾® 8, 5 ¾¾® 9
(a) (3,4) (b) (4,4) This follows the pattern as
(c) (4,5) (d) (3,5)
42 + 62 = 16 + 36 = 52
l (b) 52 + 92 = 25 + 81 = 106
3 1 1 2 1
\ 72 + 82 = 49 + 64 = 113
2 4 2 4 3 4 3

1 3 1 2 1 53. Which group of letter given in the alternatives will

complete the sequence?
Hence, minimum four colours are needed in each case.
a_tta_ant_an_nt_an
49. What is the number in place of ‘?’ ? (a) a t n t t (b) n n t a t
2Y23, 3V19, 5V17, 7T13, 11V11, ? (c) n a n t t (d) t n t a t
(a) 13T7 (b) 13V9 l (b) This sequence will be completed as
(c) 13W9 (d) 13U7 anttan / anttan / anttan/
\ nntat is the correct answer.
10 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54-57) A group of students is sitting 59. Find the missing number at the place of ‘M’?
in such a way that each occupies a corner of a hexagonal
table. Ninong is sitting opposite to Yaangba, Ribiya is 5 4 3 8 9 4
sitting next to Silva, Nazeli is sitting opposite to Silva, but
not next to Ninong, one person is sitting between Talyang
and Yaangba. 20 9 24 11 M 13

54. Who is sitting opposite to Ribiya?

(a) Yaangba (b) Silva (c) Talyang (d) Nazeli (a) 36 (b) 52 (c) 81 (d) 117

55. Who is sitting between Ribiya and Ninong? l (a) In the given question
(a) Yaangba (b) Nazeli (c) Talyang (d) Silva As, 5 ´ 4 = 20
5+4 =9
56. Who is sitting between Talyang and Yaangba? and 3 ´ 8 = 24
(a) Nazeli (b) Ribiya (c) Ninong (d) Silva 3 + 8 = 11
57. If TaIyang sits to the right of Ninong, who is on the Similarly, 9 ´ 4 = 36 = M
left of Ninong? 9 + 4 = 13
(a) Ribiya (b) Nazeli (c) Yaangba (d) Silva \ M = 36
Sol. (Q.Nos. 54-57) 60. Which letter replaces the question mark (?) ?
Ninong

Talyang Silva E M H

N O A
Nazeli Ribiya

Yaangba I ? D
54. (c) From the above sitting arrangement, Talyang is
sitting opposite to Ribiya.
(a) A (b) E (c) H (d) M
55. (d) Silva is sitting between Ribiya and Ninong.
l (d) In the given question, the sum of number position of
56. (a) Nazeli is sitting between Talyang and Yaangba. letter 1st and IIIrd is equal to number position of letter
57. (d) Silva is sitting on the left of Ninong. second.
58. A cylinder is painted in 6 colours - Violet, Red, Blue, E + H ® M
Green, Yellow and Orange. The three positions of 5 + 8 ® 13
the cylinder are as follows. Looking at these figures, N + A ® O
identify the correct colour in place of ‘?’. 14 + 1 ® 15
Orange \ I + D ® M
9 + 4 ® 13
\ M = 13 is the right answer.
Orange
Yellow

? 61. Which letter replaces the question mark (?)?

Violet Violet
Blue 6 6 4 7
Red Green
6 N L 1
(I) (II) (III)

(a) Red (b) Blue (c) Green (d) Violet 5 U ? 1

6 10 14 2
l (c) In the given cylinder
Opposite (a) M (b) O (c) P (d) Q
Orange ¾¾® Blue l (d) In the given question,
Violet is adjacent to Red and Green. 6 + 4 + 4 = 14 ® N
Green is adjacent to Violet and Yellow. 4 + 7 + 1 = 12 ® L
Yellow is adjacent to Green and Red. 5 + 6 + 10 = 21 ® U
\ Yellow is come with Green. \ 14 + 2 + 1 = 17 ® Q
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 11
62. What is the number that should come in place of 65. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X Y, Z.
‘M’? Q is the son of R but R is not mother of Q.
5 6 M P and R are a married couple.
Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P.
95 36 68 Z is the brother of Q.
Which symbol represents all the children of P?
(a) QXYZ (b) QXZ (c) XZR (d) QZ
10 3 3 2 4 8
l (b) According to the question
(a) 2 (b) 3
Y+ R+ P–
(c) 4 (d) 6 Brother Couple
n
l (b) The pattern in the given question is So Son Daughter
5 ´ 10 + 10 ´ 3 + 5 ´ 3 = 50 + 30 + 15 = 95
6 ´ 3 + 3 ´ 2 + 6 ´ 2 = 18 + 6 + 12 = 36 Brother Brother/Sister
Z+ Q+ X–
\ M ´ 4 + 4 ´ 8 + 8 ´ M = 4 M + 8 M + 32 = 68
\ QZX represent the children of P.
12 M + 32 = 68
12 M = 68 - 32 1
66. I noticed that my watch goes min fast at dusk. but
12 M = 36 2
1
M=3 at dawn it loses min. On Ist March morning my
3
63. In the given figure which number should replace watch showed right time, then on which of the
‘M’? following dates the watch was 5 min fast?
18 (a) 28th March (b) 29th March
8 13 (c) 30th March (d) 31st March
11 8 1 1
l (a) As watch gain min at dusk and loses min at down
13 11 2 3
1 1 1
M 21 \ Total gain in one day = - = min
2 3 6
1
10 9 min gain is in 1 day
6
23 10 8 9 1 min gain = 6 day
9 9
(a) 4 (b) 11 min of gain = 6 ´ = 27 days
2 2
(c) 13 (d) 19
Last half minute is gained on next morning.
l (a) In the given pentagon the sum of number across one \ On 28th March the watch gaines 5 min.
side is 50
As, 18 + 8 + 11 + 13 = 50 67. What is the length ‘x’ of the line segment CD in the
18 + 19 + 8 + 11 = 50 triangle drawn below?
C
11 + 21 + 9 + 9 = 50
23 + 10 + 8 + 9 = 50
\ 13 + M + 10 + 23 = 50 6 8
Þ M + 46 = 50 x
Þ M=4

64. Manushi remembers that birthday of Chaitra is after A 5 D 5 B

July 10 but before July 17, but Vishakha remembers (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
that it is between 15 and 27 July. If July 10 was a l (b) C
Thursday and if both of them remember correctly
then on which day was Chaitra’s birthday?
(a) Sunday (b) Monday 6 8
x
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday h
l (d) Manushi, remembers, Chaitra’s birthday is between
10th July and 17th July i.e. (11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16) A M D B
and Vishakha, remember’s, Chaitra’s birthday is between 5 5
15th July to 27th July i.e. (16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, Let h be the perpendicular drawn on AB from vertex C.
25, 26, 27)
\ According to the question,
\ Chaitra’s birthday is on 16th July 1 1
10th July ® Thursday ´ 6 ´ 8 = ´ 10 ´ h
2 2
16th July = 10 + 6 = Thursday + 6 = Wednesday. 48 24
h= Þ h=
10 5
12 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

Now by using Pythagoras theorem, In D AMC l (d) In the given fig,

AM2 = AC2 - CM2
576
AM2 = 36 -
25 Opposite
324 18
AM2 = Þ AM =
25 5 Opposite
18 7
\ MD = 5 - =
5 5 Opposite
Now, In DCMD
CD2 = CM2 + MD2
2 2

Þ CD2 = æç ö÷ + æç ö÷
24 7 625
Þ CD2 = = 25 By folding the cube the face opposite to face having 3 dots
è5 ø è5 ø 25 contains 6 dots.
Þ CD = 25 Þ CD = 5 cm
71. If ‘÷’ is ‘+’, ‘×’ is ‘-’, ‘-’ is ‘÷’ and ‘+’ is ‘×’ then
68. If m+n=o+p, what is the value of 20 ¸ 4 ´ 12 - 6 + 11 ?
m+q=p+n, (a) 2
2 p <m+q and 2 m>o+n, then (b) 5
(c) 56
(a) o>m>n>p>q (b) m>o>p>n>q
(c) n>o>p>m>q (d) o>p>n>q>m (d) 65

l (a) Given, l (a) The expression is

m+ n = o + p …(i) 20 ¸ 4 ´ 12 - 6 + 11
m+ q = p + n …(ii) After sign changes
2p < m + q …(iii) 20 + 4 - 12 ¸ 6 ´ 11 = 20 + 4 - 2 ´ 11
2m > o + n …(iv) = 20 + 4 - 22 = 2
Now, as 2p < m + q 72. Six dice are stacked as shown in the figure.On each
Þ 2p < p + n dice, the sum of number appearing on a face and on
Þ p<n …(v) the face opposite to it is 7.
Also, 2m > o + n > o + p [from Eq. (v)]
Þ 2m > o + p
Þ 2m > m + n
Þ m> n …(vi)
Using Eq. (ii) m + q = p + n
Þ m- n = p -q
since, m > n, therefore p > q
Finally using Eq. (i), m + n = o + p
Þ m- o = p - n
What is the maximum possible sum of the numbers on
Since, p < n, therefore n < 0.
the visible faces?
Hence, o > m > n > p > q.
(a) 88
69. If water image of OXIDE is OXIDE, then water (b) 89
image of METAL will be (c) 96
M T A L (d) 147
(a) L A T E M (b) E
(c) M E T A L (d) M E T A L l (b) 6 3
T A L 5
l (b) The water image of METAL is W E . 2 5
6 3
70. How many dots lie opposite the face having three
5
dots when the given figure is folded to form a cube? 6 4 4
3
6
5
6 5 4 4

Maximum possible sum of the numbers on visible faces

= 6 ´5 + 5 ´ 3 + 4 ´ 6 + 3 ´ 6 + 2
= 30 + 15 + 24 + 18 + 2 = 89
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 13
73. Observe the sequence given below and select the On multiply equation (ii) by 4 both side
appropriate alternative which will maintain the 3
Þ 4x > ´ 4z
series. 2.4
5 6 3 4 5 ? Þ 4 x > 5z
\ 4 x ? 5z

77. If Q means ‘addition sign’, J means ‘multiplication

6 4 5 3 6 4 2 6 4 2 ? ? sign', T means 'subtraction' sign' and K means
6 3 2 1 'division sign' then,
30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 = ?
Find the number in place of ‘?’.
4 1 6 4 4 5 4 5 (a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 31 (d) 103
(a) (b) (c) (d)
l (b) 30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 = ?
l (d) The question follows the pattern as After sign coded language, the expression becomes
6 + 5 + 4 = 15 30 ¸ 2 + 3 ´ 6 - 5 Þ 15 + 18 - 5 = 28
6 + 5 + 3 = 14 78. Which figure should come next among the options
3 + 6 + 4 = 13 given below?
4 + 2 + 6 = 12
5 + 4 + 2 = 11
\ 1 + 4 + 5 = 10
So, option (d) is the correct answer.

74. Two positions of 8 dice are shown. When number 3

is on the top, what number will be at the bottom?
2 2

6 1
3 6
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) 1 but not 4 (b) 4 but not 1 (c) 5 or 4 (d) 5 but not 4
l (d) Following the same pattern figure in option (d) will
complete the series pattern.
l (a) From the given dices 2 and 6 are adjacent to 1 and 3.
Therefore 3 and 1 is at opposite faces. 79. Observe the trends in figures given below and find
the missing character.
75. Which interchange in signs and number would
make the equation correct?
(96 ÷128) + 64 = 2
(a)+ and ÷, 64 and 96 ?
(b) +and ÷,64 and 128
(c) + and ÷, 96 and 128
(d)÷ and ÷,94 and 128
l (a) After changing (+) and (¸) and 64 and 96 we get the
required answer.
As, (64 + 128) ¸ 96 = 2
Þ 192 ¸ 96 = 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
Þ 2 =2
l (a) In this given question the middle section is
76. Let ‘‘%’’ stands for ‘‘is equal to’’, ‘‘?’’ for ‘‘greater represented as the resultant of the difference between
than’’, ‘‘#’’ for ‘‘lesser than’’. If 6x% 5y and 2y?3z, number of circles and number of triangle in all four
section.
then'
\ Option (a) is the correct answer.
(a) 2x ? 3z (b) 4x ? 5z (c) 2x# z (d) 4x % 3z
l (b) 6 x % 5 y = 6 x = 5 y 80.
6 Equivalent + - ´ ¸ = ( )
Þ y= x signs
5 ® ¬ ­ ¯ ↵ ↵
2 y = 2.4 x …(i)
Now, 2 y ? 3z = 2 y > 3z 3 ­ 8 ¯ 4 ® 2 ¬ 5 ↵ 7 ® 12 ¬ 1 ?? 6
Þ 2.4 x > 3z [from Eq. (i)] What will come in place of ‘??’ ?
3 (a) ↵ ↓ (b) ↵ ↑
Now, x> z …(ii)
2.4 (c) ↵ ↑ (d) ↵ ↓
14 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

l (a) 3 ­ 8 ¯ 4 ® 2 ¬ 5 ↵ 7 ® 12 ¬ 1 ?? 6 l (b) In matrix,

3 ´ 8 ¸ 4 + 2 - 5 = 7 + 12 - 1 ?? 6 P = 0 #, 1# , 0$, 5*
3 ´ 2 - 3 = 19 - 1 ?? 6 E = 2$, 3@ , 4#
3 = 18 ?? 6 A = 0@, 4*
3 = (18) ¸ 6 C = 4@, 4$
3 =3 E = 2$, 3@, 4#
\ ?? Þ ) ¸ = ↵ ¯ PEACE ® 1# , 3@, 4*, 4@, 4#

81. Complete the missing pattern. 84. A square sheet is folded into half, the line of folding
being parallel to a side of the square. It is again
folded into half, the line of folding being parallel to
the shorter side. In this condition the front of the
paper always appears as it is given in the figure
below (the dotted lines represent the folded
portions).

(a) (b) (c) (d) From the alternatives choose the correct figure which
l (d) Option figure (d) will complete the missing pattern in represents the paper in to original unfolded form.
the question figure.

82. Find the number of rectangles in the following

figure.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (c) Answer figure (c) is represented original figure of given

question figure.

85. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are each to be assigned a

(a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 16 (d) 15 different number from 1 to 8. What should be values
of B, D, E, F and G so that no consecutive numbers
l (a) Number of single rectangle = 8 are in adjacent (even diagonally) squares?
Number of rectangles made by 2 rectangles = 2 + 3 = 5
Given: A = 5, C = 2, H = 4
Number of rectangles made by 3 rectangles = 2 + 2 = 4
Number of rectangle made by 4 rectangle = 1 A B
\ Total rectangle = 8 + 5 + 4 + 1 = 18 C D E F

83. In the given matrix, first row and the first column G H
consist of symbols and numbers respectively, the
(a) (6, 8, 1, 7, 3) (b) (3, 8, 7, 1, 6)
combination of those would be the code for specific
(c) (8, 6, 3, 7, 1) (d) (3, 8, 1, 7, 6)
alphabets given in other cells. For example, the
code for ‘G’ could be 1$ or 2@. In the same manner, l (d) According to the question
what from the given alternatives will be the correct A5 B3
code for ‘PEACE’?
C2 D8 E1 F7
@ # ∗ $
G6 H4
0 A P Q P
1 T P S G Thus, B = 3, D = 8, E = 1, F = 7, G = 6 Þ 3, 8, 1, 7, 6
2 G R N E
86. In a farmhouse there are 50 hens, 45 goats and
3 E M O T
8 camels which are maintained by a few
4 C E A C supervisors. If the total number of feet be 224 more
5 J R P V than the number of heads in the farmhouse then the
(a) 0*, 3#, 0$, 4@, 5$ (b) 1#, 3@, 4*, 4@, 4# total number of supervisors is
(c) 1*, 3*, 2#, 4$, 5* (d) 0$, 3#, 5*, 4@, 4$ (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 15
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 15
l (d) Let total number of supervisors be x. 90. In certain code 678 means ‘study very hard’, 347
\ Total number of legs = 50 ´ 2 + 45 ´ 4 + 8 ´ 4 + x ´ 2 means ‘hard work pays’ and 246 means ‘study and
= 100 + 180 + 32 + 2x work’.
= 2 x + 312 Which of the following is the code for ‘very’?
And number of heads = 50 + 45 + 8 + x (a) 4 (b) 6
= x + 103 (c) 7 (d) 8
Now, according to the question, l (d) According to the question,
(2 x + 312) - (x + 103) = 224
6 7 8 = study very hard
Þ x + 209 = 224
\ x = 15 3 4 7 = hard work pays

87. If in a coded language. 2 4 6 = study and work

●
‘Busy bees’ are coded as ‘Cpu off ’,
\ 7 ® hard, 6 ® study, 4 ® work
●
‘Busy crows’ are coded as ‘cpu hup’,
8 ® very, 3 ® pays, 2 ® and
●
‘Bright Crows’ are coded as 'Csj Hup’,
Thus, ‘8’ is coded for ‘very’.
Then, ‘Busy crows are clever’' will be coded as
(a) Cpu Hup Bsf Dmf 91. In a certain code ‘TOME’ is written as ‘@ $ * ?’ and
(b) Cpu hup bsf dmf ‘ARE’ is written as !& ?:
(c) cpu Hup Baf Dmf How can ‘REMOTE’ be written in that code?
(d) cpu hup bsf Dmf (a) & ? ! $ @ ? (b) & ? * $ @ ?
l (b) According to the question, (c) @ ? * $ @ ? (d) * @ $ * ?!
Busy bees Cpu off l (b) Given,
T O M E
Busy crows cpu hup

@ $ * ?
Bright Crows Csj Hup
and
\ Busy ® Cpu, crows ® Hup A R E
bees ® off , Bright ® Csj
Thus, Busy crows are clever ® Cpu hup bsf dmf.
! & ?
88. What is the code used for ‘Blue’ derived from the Similarly,
given coded statements as per a code language? R E M O T E
●
‘Flower Blue Red White' is coded as
‘Sa Ra Ga Ma’ & ? * $ @ ?
●
‘Take Red Pink Flower ’ is coded as
‘Sa Ha Ma Pa’ 92. If in a certain code
●
‘Take Blue Red Buds’ is coded as ‘Pa Da Ma Ga‘ 23×26=42 and 11×15=19, then 32×16=?
●
‘Bring Red Take White’ is coded as ‘Ma Na Pa Ra’ (a) 40 (b) 41
(a) Sa (b) Ga (c) Pa (d) Ra (c) 44 (d) 48
l (b) According to the question l (b) The following pattern is
(23 ´ 26) = (23 + 26) - 7 = 49 - 7 = 42
Flower Blue Red White Sa Ra Ga Ma and (11 ´ 15) - 7 = (11 + 15) = 26 - 7 = 19
Take Red Pink Flower Sa Ha Ma Pa
Similarly,
(32 ´ 16) = (32 + 16) - 7 = 48 - 7 = 41
Take Blue Red Buds Pa Da Ma Ga
93. In a family of 6 (A, B, C, D, E and F) members, there
Bring Red Take White Ma Na Pa Ra is one married couple with equal number of male
and female members. Read the following relations
\ ‘Ga’ is the code which is used for ‘Blue’.
and find out the one from the alternatives, which is
89. What will be the number of digits used in not true for the given family.
numbering the pages of a book having 199 pages? Relations
(a) 39 (b) 489 (c) 495 (d) 532 ●
A and E are sons of F.
l (b) Number of digits used is numbering the pages of a ●
D is the mother of a boy and a girl.
book having 199 pages ●
B is the son of A.
= 100 ´ 3 + 90 ´ 2 + 9 (a) A, E, B are males (b) C is the granddaughter of F
= 300 + 180 + 9 (c) C is the daughter of E (d) D is the wife of A
= 489
16 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

l (c) F– Directions (Q.Nos. 97-98) Study the pie chart and

Son Son information given below and answer the following
questions.
Couple
D– A+ E+
Brothers
Book
Daughter So Son
n reading
(–) Women
9%
Brother (+) Men Drawing
C– B+ 21%
Sister
Thus, option (c) is wrong according to the question. Sports
Pottery 23%
94. If P+Q means P is husband of Q, P/Q means P is 5%
sister of Q, P*Q means P is the son of Q. How is D Photography
6%
related to A in D*B+C/A?
(a) Son (b) Nephew (c) Sister (d) Couple Nature club
Music 14%
l (b) D * B + C / A Þ 22%
r Couple s Sister
B C A

Son Son
There are 1150 students of a school opted sports as
Nephew
a hobby.
Dr
Thus, ‘D’ is nephew of ‘A’. 97. How many students have book reading as a hobby?
(a) 390 (b) 420
95. Afsana was walking in a desert. Anwar was passing (c) 440 (d) 450
by riding on a camel. Afsana requested for a lift.
Anwar said he will give lift only to those who are 98. What is the total number of students in the school?
(a) 4990 (b) 5000
related to him.
(c) 5050 (d) 5100
At this, Afsana told him that Anwar’s mother-in-law is
l Sol. (Q.Nos. 97-98) Number of students who opted sports
the mother of her mother-in-Iaw.
= 1150 [given]
How is Anwar related to Afsana?
Let total student in a class be x.
(a) Father (b) Maternal uncle 23
(c) Brother-in-law (d) Father-in-law \ x´ = 1150
100
l (d) C
s 1150 ´ 100
Þ x=
23
Mother
Mother-in-law Þ x = 5000
r 97. (d) Number of students who opted book reading
s A
B Couple
Anwar 9
= 5000 ´ = 450
Mother-in-law
Son 10
Son
98. (b) Total number of students in a school = 5000
s Couple
E
Afsana r 99. The following table shows the distribution of Boys
D Father-in-law
and Girls students of seven different schools.
Thus, ‘Anwar’ is father-in-law of ‘Afsana’.
School Boys (Total 27300) Girls (Total 24700)
96. A person travels from Mumbai to Ahmedabad by car A 17% 8%
in 5 h. The speed of the car during first hour of B 12% 15%
journey was 60 km/h. For the next two hours speed
C 12% 12%
was 80 km/h, Next hour it was 100 km/h. Finally,
during the last hour of his journey he drove at D 13% 13%
40 km/h. What is the average speed during his E 19% 14%
journey? F 14% 21%
(a) 56 km/h (b) 67.4 km/h G 15% 17%
(c) 70 km/h (d) 72 km/h
l (d) Total distance covered by car in 5 h What is the ratio between the number of Girls and
= 60 + 80 ´ 2 + 100 + 40 = 360 Boys students respectively from school F?
360 (a) 14 : 21 (b) 19 : 21
\ Average speed of whole journey = = 72 km/h
5 (c) 17 : 21 (d) 19 : 14
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 17
l (d) Total students (Girls) in school F Odisha. George does not mind as long as it is not
21 Rajasthan.
= 24700 ´ = 247 ´ 21
100 Which destination would be acceptable to all?
Total students (Boys) in school F (a) Goa (b) Odisha
14
= 27300 ´ = 273 ´ 14 (c) Kerala (d) Madhya Pradesh
100
247 ´ 21 19 l (b) According to the question
\ Required ratio = =
273 ´ 14 14 Name Rajasthan Goa Kerala Odisha Madhya North
Pradesh East
100. Ayush, Hina, Harbhajan and George are student
Ayush 3 3 3 3 3 7
friends studying in Delhi and plan to go on winter
holiday somewhere in India. They can go to Hina 7 3 7 3 7 7
Rajasthan, Goa, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh or Harbhajan 3 7 7 3 3 3
any of the North-Eastern States.
George 7 3 3 3 3 3
Ayush is willing to go anywhere except
North-Eastern States. Harbhajan prefers not to go to Thus, ‘Odisha’ destination is acceptable to all.
Goa and Kerala. Hina wants to go either to Goa or

Paper II Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

101. Under which condition stated below, the six-carbon
glucose molecule is broken down into three-carbon
molecules pyruvate and lactic acid?
(a) Aerobic condition in muscle cells
(b) Anaerobic condition in yeast cells
(c) Aerobic condition in mitochondria
(d) Anaerobic condition in muscle cells
l (d) In muscle cells, under anaerobic conditions, the six-
carbon glucose molecule is broken down into three-carbon
molecules (pyruvate and lactic acid). The pyruvic acid
produced in glycolysis is directly reduced by NADH to
form lactic acid.
Lactic dehydrogenase
Pyruvic acid +NADH ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾®
FMN +Zn2+
Lactic Acid+NAD+
Lactic acid produced in muscles is sent to liver to
regenerate glucose.
102. Which among the following is the correct sequence
regarding the flow of impulse in a neuron?
(a) Dendrite ® Axon ® Cell body
(b) Axon ® Cell body ® Dendrite
(c) Axon ® Dendrite ® Cell body
(d) Cell body ® Axon ® Nerve terminal
l (d) The correct sequence regarding the flow of impulse in
a neuron is as follows:
Cell body® Axon® Nerve terminal
Cell body or cyton is the spherical or oval part of neuron. A
nerve impulse from cyton progresses towards axon. The
axon conducts nerve impulse away from the cell body.
It ends in a group of branches, called axon terminals or
dendrons.
103. In a hypertensive patient, the systolic pressure
increased to 150 mm of Hg. Which part of the brain
would be involved in the regulation of blood
pressure?
(a) Medulla (b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus
l (a) In the given situation, the medulla of the brain would
be involved in the regulation of blood pressure. Medulla
receives and integrates signal from spinal cord and sends
resulting signals to cerebellum and thalamus. It contains
centres that regulate heart rate, blood pressure, breathing,
swallowing, sneezing, vomiting, coughing and some other
involuntary movements.
104. Edward Jenner’s contribution for the eradication of
smallpox is
(a) his proposition that smallpox had possibly spread
throughout the world from India and China
(b) his discovery of transformation procedure
(c) his finding that rubbing of the skin crust of smallpox
victims on the arm of a healthy person, would develop
resistance against smallpox
(d) his finding that the cowpox infection protects the person
from subsequent infection from smallpox
l (c) Edward Jenner found out that cowpox infection
protects the person from subsequent infection from
smallpox. The development of disease results in the
immunisation of the body against the disease. Edward
Jenner contributed to the idea of vaccination to protect the
person from various diseases.
105. Four important events given below may have led to
the origin of life on the Earth.
I. Formation of amino acids and nucleotides
II. Availability of water
III. Organisation of cells
IV. Formation of complex molecules
Select the correct sequence of events.
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) II, I, IV and III
(c) I, IV, II and III (d) II, III, I and IV
l (b) The Earth formed about 4.6 billion years ago. The
liquid component, known as hydrosphere, appeared on the
Earth when it cooled down to a temperature below 100ºC.
Free atoms present on the Earth, combined to form
inorganic molecules such as H2 , N2 , H2 O, NH3, etc. Their
18
early inorganic molecules interacted and produced simple
organic molecules such as amino acids, purines and
pyrimidines, etc. These later on gave rise to complex
molecules like polysaccharides, fats, proteins, etc. Their
complex molecules formed protocells and then
organisation of cells.
106. Read the following statements carefully.
I. Energy transfer in the biotic world always
proceeds from the autotrophs.
II. Energy flow is unidirectional.
III. Energy availability is maximum at the tertiary
level.
IV. There is loss of energy from one trophic level to
the other.
Select the relevant statements for the forest
ecosystem.
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
l (a) Among the given statements, statement III is incorrect
because energy availability is minimum at the tertiary
level. Nearly 90% energy is lost when it moves from one
trophic level to the next. Therefore, the residual energy
decreases drastically within second and third.
Producer ¾® Herbivore ¾® Carnivore I ¾® Carnivore II
Biomass Biomass Biomass Biomass
1000 kcal 100 kcal 10 kcal 1 kcal
107. In a highly pesticide polluted pond, which of the
following aquatic organisms will have the maximum
amount of pesticide per gram of body mass?
(a) Lotus (b) Fishes
(c) Spirogyra (d) Zooplanktons
l (b) In a highly pesticide polluted pond, fishes will have
the maximum amount of pesticide per gram of body mass.
Heavy metals and persistent pesticides pass into food
chain and increase in amount per unit weight of
organisms with the rise in trophic level. They get
accumulated in the fat, which is known as
biomagnification. Lotus and Spirogyra are producers,
while zooplanktons form the first trophic level and fishes
form second trophic level. Therefore, fishes will show
maximum biomagnification.
108. A farmer made an observation in a backwater paddy
field of coastal Kerala that the paddy plants wilt
during noon onwards everyday but appear normal
next morning. What would be the possible reason
for wilting?
(a) The rate of water absorption is less than the rate of
transpiration in the afternoon
(b) The rate of water absorption is more than the rate of
transpiration in the afternoon
(c) The changes in the rate of water absorption and
transpiration are not associated with wilting
(d) The rate of water absorption is not related to the rate of
transpiration
l (a) The possible reason for wilting is that the rate of water
absorption is less than the rate of transpiration in the
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)
afternoon. Wilting is the loss of turgidity of leaves and
other soft aerial parts of a plant causing their drooping,
folding and rolling which occur due to loss of water as
vapours by higher transpiration.
109. Observe the experimental setup [A] and [B]
(A) (B)
Test tube
Water
Cotton
plug
Plant
Day 1 Day 5
From the options given below, choose the
combination of responses of shoot and root that are
observed in B.
(a) Positive phototropism and positive geotropism
(b) Negative phototropism and positive geotropism
(c) Positive phototropism and negative geotropism
(d) Only negative phototropism
l (a) In the given experimental setup, shoot is showing
positive phototropism while root is showing positive
geotropism. Phototropism is a growth response to a light
gradient. In the experimental setup, it is clear that after
5 days shoot bends towards light. Geotropism is the
growth movement induced by the stimulus of gravity. In
test-tube (B), it can be clearly seen that roots have bend
towards the Earth.
110. Raw banana has bitter taste, while ripe banana has
sweet taste. It happens because of the conversion of
(a) starch to sugar
(b) sucrose to fructose
(c) amino acids to sugar
(d) amino acids to protein
l (a) Raw banana has bitter taste, while ripe banana has
sweet taste. It happens because of the conversion of starch
to sugar. Starch is a polysaccharide, while sugar is a
monosaccharide. It has low molecular weight and is sweet
in taste.
111. In the flowering plants, sexual reproduction
involves several events beginning with the bud and
ending in a fruit. These events are arranged in four
different combinations. Select the combination that
has the correct sequence of events.
(a) Embryo, zygote, gametes, fertilisation
(b) Gametes, fertilisation, zygote, embryo
(c) Fertilisation, zygote, gametes, embryo
(d) Gametes, zygote, embryo, fertilisation
l (b) In flowering plants, sexual reproduction involves
several events. Male and female gametes are formed
through gametogenesis. After maturation and pollination,
one male gamete fuses with egg cell to form zygote. It is
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 19
known as true fertilisation. Zygote develops into embryo. food with the help of CO2 and H2 O in the presence of
Therefore, the correct sequence of events in sexual sunlight and chlorophyll. In this process, oxygen is
reproduction in flowering plants is released as a byproduct.
Gametes ® Fertilisation ® Zygote ® Embryo Sunlight
6CO2 + 12H2 O ¾¾¾¾¾® C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O + 6O2 ­
112. In pea plants, Round (R) and Yellow (Y) features of Chlorophyll Glucose
seeds are dominant over wrinkled (r) and green (y)
features. In a cross between two plants having the This oxygen is used in respiration for the oxidation of food.
same genotypes (RrYy), the following genotypic As a result, energy (ATP) is released which is used for
combinations of offspring are noticed. various metabolic processes.
A. RrYY B. Rryy Enzymes
C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 ¾¾¾¾® 6CO2 + 6H2 O + Energy as ATP
C. rrYy D. rryy Glucose
The phenotypic features of A, B, C and D are given
below in an order in four combinations. Select the 115. 100 grams of oxygen (O 2 ) gas and 100 grams of
correct combination of characters that corresponds helium (He) gas are in separate containers of equal
to the genotypes volume at 100°C. Which one of the following
(a) Round and yellow; round and green; wrinkled and yellow; statement is correct?
wrinkled and green. (a) Both gases would have the same pressure.
(b) Round and green; wrinkled and yellow; wrinkled and (b) The average kinetic energy of O 2 molecules is greater than
green; round and yellow. that of He molecules.
(c) Wrinkled and green; round and yellow; wrinkled and (c) The pressure of He gas would be greater than that of the
yellow; round and green. O 2 gas.
(d) Wrinkled and yellow; round and green; wrinkled and (d) The average kinetic energy of He and O 2 molecules is
yellow; round and yellow. same.
l (a) In the given situation, the correct combination of l (c) Pressure exerted by a gas is directly proportional to
characters that correspond to the genotypes is as follows number of mole of the gas present
A. Rr YY Round and Yellow 100
Number of moles of O2 gas= = 3.125 mol
B. Rr yy Round and Green 32
C. rr Yy Wrinkled and Yellow 100
Number of moles of He gas= = 25 mol
D. rr yy Wrinkled and Green 4
Hence, the pressure of He gas would be larger than that of
113. Eukaryotic organisms have different levels of O2 gas.
organisation. Select the combination where the
levels are arranged in the descending order. 116. At 298 K and 1 atm pressure, a gas mixture contains
(a) DNA, chromosome, cell, nucleus, tissue equal masses of He, H2 , O2 and NH3 . Which of the
(b) Tissue, cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA following is correct for their average molecular
(c) Nucleus, cell, DNA, chromosome, tissue velocities?
(d) Tissue, cell, chromosome, nucleus, DNA (a) He > H2 > NH3 > O 2 (b) He < H2 < O 2 < NH3
l (b) The correct combination in which levels are arranged (c) H2 < He < NH3 < O 2 (d) O 2 < NH3 < He < H2
in the descending order is as follows l (d) Average molecular velocity of a gas is inversely
Tissue ® Cell ® Nucleus ® Chromosome ® DNA proportional to the molar mass of the gas.
Tissue is a group of cells of same origin which perform Hence, the correct order of gases along with molar mass
the similar function. Cell is the basic and functional unit (written in brackets) are as follows
of life. It contains nucleus which controls all the activities O2 (32) < NH3 (17) < He (4) < H2 (2)
of cell. In the nucleus, chromosomes are found.
These chromosomes are formed by DNA which is 117. A test tube along with calcium carbonate in it
responsible for the transfer of genetic information from initially weighed 30.08 g. A heating experiment was
one generation to the next generation.
performed on this test tube till calcium carbonate
114. The gaseous byproduct of a process in plants is completely decomposed with evolution of a gas.
essential for another vital process that releases Loss of weight during this experiment was 4.40 g.
energy. Given below are four combinations of What is the weight of the empty test tube in this
processes and products. Choose the correct experiment?
combination. (a) 20.08 g (b) 21.00 g (c) 24.50 g (d) 2.008 g
(a) Photosynthesis and oxygen l (a) Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3 ) when heated, decomposes
(b) Respiration and carbon dioxide in calcium Oxide (CaO) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2 ) gas.
(c) Transpiration and water vapour
(d) Germination and carbon dioxide D
CaCO3 (s) ¾¾¾® CaO (s)+ CO2 (g)
( mass=100 ) ( mass=56 ) ( mass=44 )
l (a) The correct combination is photosynthesis and oxygen.
Photosynthesis is the process in which solar energy is
converted into chemical energy. Plants synthesise their
20 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

Since 100g (molar mass) of CaCO3 produces 44 g of CO2 l (a) Number of a-particles deflected in directly proportional
hence, in order to produce 4.4 g of CO2 we could require to the square of atomic number (Z). Hence, the correct
4.4 order of increasing number of alpha particles passing
100 ´ = 10 g of CaCO3 .
44 undeflected the foils of given metals in as follows
Therefore, the weight of empty test tube is Element Au < Ag < Cu < Al
30.08–10.00=20.08 g Z 79 47 29 13

118. Match List I (Mixture to be separated) with the 121. The correct order of increasing pH values of the
List II (Method used) and select the correct option aqueous solutions of baking soda, rock salt, washing
using the codes given below soda and slaked lime is
(a) baking soda < rock salt < washing soda < slaked lime
List I List II (b) rock salt < baking soda < washing soda < slaked lime
(Mixture to be separated) (Method used)
(c) slaked lime < washing soda < rock salt < baking soda
A. Petroleum products (i) Chromatography (d) washing soda < baking soda < rock salt < slaked lime
B. Camphor and rock salt (ii) Centrifugation l (b) Rock salt (NaCl) is the salt of strong acid and strong
C. Cream from milk (iii) Sublimation base, hence, its aqueous solution remains neutral
(i.e. pH = 7)
D. Coloured components in a dye (iv) Fractional distillation
Baking soda (NaHCO3 ) is the salt of strong base (NaOH)
and weak acid (H2 CO3 ). Hence, its aqueous solution is
A B C D A B C D
slightly basic.
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
NaOH + H2 CO3 ® NaHCO3 + H2 O
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Strong acid Weak base Alkaline
salt
l (d) Petroleum products (petrol, diesel, paraffin wax, etc)
Washing soda (Na2 CO3 ) is the salt of 2 mol of strong base
have different boiling points and distill out at different (NaOH) and 1 mol of weak acid (H2 CO3 ).
temperature. Hence, fractional distillation (which involves
heating a mixture at different temperature to distill 2NaOH+H2 CO3 —® Na2 CO3 + 2H2 O
different volatile components) is the suitable method. Hence, washing Soda is more alkaline than baking soda
i.e. pH(N2 CO3 ) > pH(NaHCO3 ) > pH =7
The mixture of camphor and rock salt can be suitably
separated by the method of sublimation as camphor Slaked lime [Ca(OH)2 ] is a base it self hence its aqueous
sublimates i.e. convert in vapour state without going into solution would be more alkaline than the other given salts.
liquid state) even at room temperature while rock salt do
not. 122. How many grams of oxygen gas will be needed for
Milk is a colloidal mixture and when subjected to complete combustion of 2 moles of 3rd member of
centrifugation (also called churning of milk) the lighter alkyne series?
particles of cream move outward and thus cream is
separated. (a) 186 g (b) 256 g (c) 352 g (d) 372 g
Coloured components of a dye (i.e.n pigments) propagate l (c) The third member of alkyne series is butyne (C4 H6 ).
is medium (say paper strip) at different rates. The chemical equation for combustion of 2 moles of
Chromatography exploits this property of pigments to butyne is as follows:
separate them. 2C4 H6 + 11 O2 ¾® 8 CO2 + 6H2 O
119. In the balanced chemical equation, Hence, it require 11 moles of oxygen for complete
combustion of 2 moles of butyne.
(a lead nitrate + b aluminium chloride Mass of 11 mol O2 = 11 ´ 32 = 352 g
® c aluminium nitrate + d lead chloride)
Which of the following alternatives is correct? 123. Match List I (Position of the metal in the activity
(a) a = 1, b = 2, c = 2, d = 1 (b) a = 4, b = 3, c = 3, d = 4
series) with the List II (Related reduction process)
(c) a = 2, b = 3, c = 2, d = 3 (d) a = 3, b = 2, c = 2, d = 3 and select the correct option using the codes given
below.
l (d) The balanced chemical equation for the reaction
between lead nitrate and aluminum chloride is as follows: List I (Position of the List II (Related
3Pb(NO3 )2 + 2AlCl3 ® 2Al (NO3 )3 + 3PbCl2 metal in the activity series) reduction process)
Lead nitrate Aluminium Aluminium Lead
chloride nitrate chloride A. The bottom of the series (i) Electrolysis
B. The top of the series (ii) Reduction by heat alone
120. The correct order of increasing number of alpha
C. The lower regions of the (iii) Found in native state
particles passing undeflected through the foils of
series
Au, Ag, Cu and Al of 1000 atoms thickness each in a
simulated alpha particle scattering experiment of D. The middle of the series (iv) Reduction using carbon
or some other reducing
Rutherford would be agent
(a) Au < Ag < Cu < Al
(b) Al < Cu < Ag < Au A B C D A B C D
(c) Au < Cu < Al < Ag (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) Ag < Cu < Al < Au (c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 21
l (c) Highly reactive metals (like, Na, Mg, Al, etc) are (ii) Substitution reaction
extracted by electrolysis. Moderately reactive metals (like C3 H7 Cl + KOH(aq) ¾¾®C3 H7 OH+KCl
iron, zinc etc) are extracted by using a reducing agents Propanol ( c)
like carbon. Less reactive metals (like Cu) can be extracted
(iii) Dehydration reaction
by only heating. Very less reactive metals (like Au, Pt) are Conc. H 2 SO4
found in native state. C3 H7 OH ¾ ¾¾¾¾ ®CH3 CH =CH2 +H2 O
Propane( D )

124. Which of the following statements can help a (iv) Addition reaction
chemistry student to predict chemical properties of CH3 C H = CH2 + H2 ¾ ¾¾¾ ¾®CH3 CH2 CH3
Ni / P+ /Pd
(D) Propane (A)
an element?
I. Position of element in the periodic table. 127. An organic liquid ‘A’ with acidified potassium
II. Atomic number of the element. dichromate gave product ‘B’. The compound ‘B’ on
heating with methanol in presence of concentrated
III. Number of shells in the atom.
sulphuric acid formed compound ‘C’ which on
IV. Number of electrons in the outer most shell. subsequent treatment with sodium hydroxide formed
Codes two products ‘D’ and ‘E’. The product ‘D’ is known to
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV affect of ‘D’ in very small quantities can cause
l (b) Chemical properties of an element is defined by its death. What are compound ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’?
valency that can be found out from position of element, (a) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid, C = Methanol,
atomic number and number of electrons in its valence D = Sodium acetate, E = Methyl ethanoate
(outermost) shell. Number of shell in atoms of elements (b) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid, C = Methyl ethanoate,
having different properties can be same, hence, it is not a D = Methanol, E = Sodium acetate
defining criteria. (c) A = Sodium acetate, B = Ethanoic acid,
125. Consider the elements A, B, C and D with atomic C = Methyl ethanoate, D = Methanol, E = Ethanol
numbers 6, 7, 14 and 15 respectively. Which of the (d) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid, C = Methyl ethanoate,
D = Sodium acetate, E = Methanol
following statements are correct concerning these
elements? l (b) The organic liquid ‘A’ is ethanol (C2 H5 OH). The
reactions involved are as follows :
I. D will lose electron easily than C. Acidified
C2 H5 OH ¾ ¾¾¾®CH3 COOH + CH3 OH
II. B will gain electron more easily than C. Ethanol (A) K 2 Cr2 O7 Ethanoic acid Methanol
(B)
III. The element with highest electronegativity is D. Conc. H SO NaOH
¾¾¾¾®
2 4
CH3 COOCH3 ¾¾® CH3 COONa + CH3 OH
IV. The element with largest atomic size is C. Methyl ethanonate Sodium Methanol ( D )
( C) acetate
Codes ( E)

(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
128. Two nichrome wires A and B, each of length 5 cm
l (c) The elements A, B, C and D are actually carbon (6),
and of radius 1 cm and 3 cm respectively are
nitrogen (7), silicon (14) and phosphorus (15)
connected to each other in series. If a current of 5A
Hence, statement II and IV are correct. And the incorrect
statements (I and III) in their corrected form are as follows flows through the combination of wires, the ratio of
I. Phosphorus (D) will tend to get electron more easily potential difference across wire A to that across wire
then silicon (C). B will be :
III. The element with highest electronegativity is (a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 9 : 1 (d) 1 : 9
nitrogen (B). l (c) Given, length of wire A (lA )= 5cm
126. A hydrocarbon ‘A’ (C3H8 ) on treatment with chlorine length of wire B (lB )= 5 cm
Radius of wire A (rA )=1cm
in presence of sunlight yielded compound ‘B’ as
Radius of wire B (rB )=3cm
major product. Reaction of ‘B’ with aqueous KOH
gave ‘C’ which one treatment with concentrated According to Ohm’s law
H2SO4 yielded ‘D’. Hydrogenation of ‘D’ gave back V = IR
I rlA rl
‘A’. The sequence of reactions involved in above VA = [Q for a given conductor = R = ]
conversion is p (rA )2 A
(a) substitution, substitution, addition, dehydration I rlB
and VB =
(b) substitution, substitution, dehydration, addition p (rB )2
(c) substitution, dehydration, addition, addition So, the ratio of potential difference across wire A to that of
(d) addition, substitution, dehydration, substitution wire B,
l (b) The hydrocarbon A (C3 H8 ) is propane. The reactions VA I rlA p(r )2
= ´ B [Q lA = lB ]
involved are as follows: VB p (rA )2
I rlb
(i) Substitution reaction (r )2 (3)2 9
Sunlight
C3 H8 +Cl2 ¾ ¾¾¾®C3 H7 Cl +HCl = B 2 = 2 = = 9 :1
Propane( A ) Chloropropane ( B ) (rA ) (1) 1
22 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

129. Two convex lenses A and B, each of focal length From c to d,

30cm are separated by 30 cm, as shown in the by conservation of momentum,
3
figure. An object O is placed at a distance of 40 cm Mu1 = 2 Mu2
to the left of lens A. 2
3 2
M ´ u = 2 Mu2 éQ u = 2 uù
A B êë 1 3 úû
2 3
u2 = u / 2
O Time c to d,
l 2L
40 cm 30 cm Tcd = = ...(iii)
æu ö u
ç ÷
What is the distance of the final image formed by this è 2ø
lens system? From d to e,
(a) 120 cm to right of lens A (b) 90 cm to right of lens A similarly,
(c) 22.5 cm to right of lens B (d) 45 cm to right of lens B 5M u 5M 2
2 Mu2 = u3 Þ2 M = u3 Þ u3 = u
l (c) Here f1 = f2 = f = 30 cm 2 2 2 5
For lens A, Time from d to e
1 1 1 1 1 æ 1 ö æ ö
= - Þ = - ç- ÷ ç L ÷ 5L
f v1 u1 30 u1 è 40 ø t de = ç ÷ = …(iv)
ç 2u ÷ 2u
1 1 1 1 1 1 è5 ø
= + Þ = -
30 v1 40 v1 30 40
From e to f,
1 40 - 30 10
= = by conservation of momentum,
v1 1200 1200 5M 5 M 2u éQ u = 2u ù
u3 = 3 Mu4 Þ ´ = 3 Mu4 êë 3
\ v1 = 120 cm 2 2 5 5 ûú
u2 = 120 - 30 = 90 u4 = u/3
This image will be treated as source for second lens, then Time taken from e to f,
again from lens formula. L/2 l éQ u = u ù
For lens B, t ef = = êë 4 3 úû
u4 2(u / 3)
u2 = 90 cm, f = 30 cm 3L
1 1 1 1 1 1 = …(v)
= - Þ = - 2u
f v2 u2 30 v2 90
Total time, T= t AB + t BC + t CD + t DE + t EF
1 1 1 3 +1
= + = L 3 L 2 L 5 L 3 L 17 L
v2 30 90 90 t = + + + + =
u 2u u 2u 2u 2u
\ v2 = 22.5 cm
which is positive, so that it is 22.5cm from lens B. 131. A ball is thrown vertically up from the point A (see
figure). A person, standing at a height H of the roof
130. A cart of mass M moves at a speed u on a frictionless
atop a building tries to catch it. He misses the catch,
surface. At regular intervals of length L, blocks of
M the ball overshoots and simultaneously the person
mass m = drops vertically into the cart. How starts a stop-watch. The ball reaches it highest point
2 and he manages to catch it upon its return. By this
9
much time is taken to cover a distance of L? time, a time interval T has elapsed as recorded by
2 the stop-watch. If g is the acceleration due to gravity
9L 5L 19L 17 L
(a) (b) (c) (d) at this place, the speed with which the ball was
2u 2u 2u 2u
thrown from point A will be
l (d)
a b c d e f
u 3m u1 u2 5m u3 u4
m 2m 3m
2 2
l l l l
2
From a to b, initial speed (u) and H
L
t ab = ...(i)
u
From b to c, by law of conservation of momentum, a
Mu = æç M + ö÷ u1
M 2
Þ u1 = u ( g 2T 2 + 4gH )
è 2ø 3 (a) gH + gT (b)
l 3L 2
So, time taken from b to c is t BC = = ...(ii) ( g 2T 2 + 8gH )
æ 2 uö 2u (c) (d) ( g T + 2 gH )
2 2
ç ÷
è3 ø 2
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 23
l (c) Let u, u1
\Velocity (v) = u - g (T / 2) [Q v = 0]
gT
u¢ =
2
\ v2 = u2 + 2 gH (from second equation of motion)
(u¢)2 = u2 - 2 gH d
g2 T 2
+ 2 gH = u2
4 Water
g2 T 2
u= + 2 gH
4
Speed with which the ball was thrown point A will be
g2 T 2 + 8 gH (a) F (b) F
u= (N) (N)
4
g2 T 2 + 8 gH
=
2
d (cm) d (cm)
132. A ray of light of pure single colour is incident on the
face of a prism having angle of the prism 30° at an
angle of incidence 45°. The refracted ray does not
(c) F (d) F
change its direction as it crosses the other face and (N) (N)
emerges out of the prism. The refractive index of the
material of the prism is
2
(a) (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 3 d (cm) d (cm)
3
l (c) A
l (c) Depth (d) of the lower surface of water, at some instant.
30º
S Buoyance forces, F = Adrg.
90º R where, A, r and g are constants.
Q θ So, F µ d
45º θ Hence, buoyance force increases linearly with depth of the
120º
P n1 dipped surface of block. But when cubic solid block is
n2
O dipped completely, then F becomes constant.
B
Hence, this condition is shown by graph (c).
C
134. Three balls A, B and C of same size but of different
In DOQR,
masses, are thrown with the same speed from the
q + q + 120° = 180° roof of a building, as shown in figure. Let v A , v B and
2 q = 180°-120° v C be the respective speeds with which the balls A, B
60°
Þ q= = 30° and C hit the ground. Neglecting air resistance,
2 which one of the following relations is correct?
At line AB, by Snell’s formula A
sin i n1
=
sin r n2 B
n1 sin45° = n2 sin30°
1 1 C
n1 × = n2 ×
2 2
n2 2
Þ = [Q n1 = 1]
1 2
\ n2 = 2
2 (it does not change mean incident at 90º on another (a) v A > vC > v B (b) vC > v A > v B
surface soÐr = 30°). (c) v A > v B > vC (d) v A = v B = vC
l (d) Let u is the initial velocity of balls at height h.
133. A metallic cubical solid block of side L is slowly
By conservation of mechanical energy between height and
lowered continuously in a large vessel, filled with ground,
water. Let d be the depth of the lower surface of the 1 1
block, measured from the surface of the water, at For ball A, mu2 + mgH = mv2A
2 2
some instant. The graph which represents correctly Þ v A = u2 + 2 gH …(i)
the variation of the buoyant force F with depth d is
24 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

1 1 2
(c) In the above graph, slope of car A is constant and slope
For ball B, mu2 + mgH = mv B l
2 2 car B well be same between origin to t0 . Therefore,
Þ v B = u2 + 2 gH …(ii) acceleration of two cars are equal to each other at an
1 1 2
instant earlier than t0 .
For ball C , mu2 + mgH = mv C
2 2 137. Three electric bulbs of rating 40 W - 200 V;
Þ v C = u2 + 2 gH …(iii) 50 W-200 V and 100 W - 200 V are connected in
From Eqs (i), (ii) and (iii), we get series to a 600 V supply. What is likely to happen as
vA = vB = vC the supply is switched on?
(a) Only 50 W bulb will fuse
135. Four blocks of different masses (m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2 kg, (b) Both 40 W and 50 W bulbs will fuse
m3 = 1 kg and m4 = 5 kg) are connected with light, (c) All the three bulbs will emit light with their rated powers
inextensible strings, as shown in figure. This system (d) 100 W bulb will emit light of maximum intensity
is pulled along a frictionless surface by a horizontal l (b)
force of 36 N. The force pulling the block of mass m1
will be
m4
m2
m1 m3
36 N

40W-200V 50W-200V 100W-200V

(a) 2 N (b) 4 N (c) 12 N (d) 36 N
(b) Given, f = 36 N, V 2
200 ´ 200
l R40 = =
m1 = 1kg, m2 = 2 kg, m3 = 1kg and m4 = 5 kg P40 40
We know that, = 1000 W
F = ma Similarly,
F F 36 200 ´ 200
a= = = = 4 m/s2 R50 = = 800 W,
m m1 + m2 + m3 + m4 1 + 2 + 1 + 5 50
For first block, 200 ´ 200
R100 = = 400 W
4 m/s 2 100
V
\ I=
m F R40 + R50 + R100
600 600
F = m ´ a, F =1 ´ 4, F = 4 N I= = = 0.2727 A
1000 + 800 + 400 2200
136. The velocity-time graph of motion of two cars A and P 40
I40 = 1 = = 0.2 A
B is shown in the figure V 200
Car B P 50 5
I50 = 2 = = = 0.25 A
V 200 20
Car A
P 100
I100 = 3 = = 0.5 A
V 200
0.27 Ampere current is flowing in the circuit but capacity
Velocity
of 40 W and 50 bulb is low. Hence, both 40 W and 50 W
(v)
bulbs will fuse.

138. A sound wave is sent simultaneously through a long

hollow pipe AB and a solid pipe CD of same length
and having same cross-sectional area. A person
standing at point P as shown in the figure will hear
the sound
t0
A B
Time (t)

Choose the correct statements.

P
(a) Accelerations of two cars are equal to each other at time
t = t 0.
(b) Acceleration of two cars are equal to each other at an C D
instant greater than t 0 . (a) at the same time from pipes AB and CD
(c) Acceleration of two cars are equal to each other at an
(b) first from pipe CD then from pipe AB
instant earlier than t 0 .
(c) first from pipe AB, then from pipe CD
(d) At no instant in the interval 0 £ t £ t 0 , the two accelerations
are equal. (d) from pipe AB only and not from pipe CD
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 25
l (b) As we know that , speed of sound is maximum in solid. (i) The key K1 is closed and the key K2 is open.
In case of hollow pipe AB the pipe occupy air.
(ii) The key K2 is closed and the key K1 is open.
Similarly, in pipe CD, the pipe in through solid. So, when
sound will travel faster in solid than that of air. Hence, The ratio of respective currents in these two case will
person standing at point P will hear the sound first from be
pipe CD and then from pipe AB. (a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
139. Two long current-carrying parallel wires are placed l (d) Case I: When K1 is closed and K2 is open.
as shown. R1 R2 3 ´ 12 36 12
Then, Req = = = =
R1 + R2 3 + 12 15 5
i 12
So, I1 = = 5A
2 12
3i 5
2 Case II When K2 is closed and K1 is open.
a 4 ´ 12 4 ´ 12
b Then, R eq = = = 3W
12 + 4 16
Which of the following figures will represent the So, I2 =
12
= 4A
magnitude and direction of the forces exerted on the 3
wires? \
I1 5
= = 5 :4
F F 3F F I2 4
i i
2 2 1
141. Given that = 0.142857, which is a repeating
(a) 3i (b) 3i 7
2 2 decimal having six different digits. If x is the sum of
such first three positive integers n such that
1
F 3F = 0. abcdef , where a, b, c, d, e and f are different
i F F i n
2 2 digits, then the value of x is
(c) 3i (d) 3i (a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 41 (d) 42
2 2 1
l (c) We have, = 0. abc def
n
(where a, b, c, d, e and f are different digits.)
l (a) From Ampere’s circuital law, 1
m0 I a \ = 0.142857
BA = 7
2 pd 1
The conductor carrying a current (I0 ) will experience a = 0.076923
sideways force due to the field (b). 13
1
The direction of this force is towards the conductor A. and = 0.047619
21
We can write this force as FBA . So, the magnitude of this
force is given by \ Required number are 7, 13 and 21.
F = iLB Sum of numbers = 7 + 13 + 21 = 41
= m0 I A iB [force segment L of B due to A] 142. Which of the following digits is ruled out in the
m0 I A I B units place of 12 n + 1 for every positive integer n?
= L
2 pd (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Similarly, we can find
l (a) For n = 1,121 = 12, on unit place digit = 2
FBA = - FAB
n = 2,122 = 144, on unit place digit = 4
When current flowing in the same direction in the
conductor, then conductor attract each other and n = 3,123 = 1728, on unit place digit = 8
oppositely directed current repel each other. n = 4,124 =20736, on unit place digit = 6
n = 5,125 = 248832, on unit place digit = 2 and so on.
140. An electrical circuit, shown below, consists of a
So,12 n + 1, for very positive integer, having unit place
battery, an ammeter, three resistors and two keys. 2 + 1, 4 + 1, 8 + 1, 6 + 1 i.e., 3, 5, 9, 7.

143. The rational roots of the cubic equation

3Ω 4Ω 12Ω x 3 + 14 kx 2 + 56 kx - 64 k3 = 0 are in the ratio 1:2:4.
The possible values of k are
12 V (a) Only 0 (b) Only 1
K1 K2
(c) 2, 0 (d) -2, - 1
l (b) Given, cubic equation,
x3 + 14 kx2 + 56 kx - 64 k3 = 0
Consider two cases.
26 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

Now, let roots of the given equation l, 2 l and 4l, But the remainder is given as x + a
then sum of roots, l + 2 l + 4 l = - 14k On comparing their co-efficients, we have
Þ 7 l = - 14 k 2k - 9 = 1
Þ l = - 2k Þ 2 k = 10 Þ k = 5
and multiplication of roots =l × 2 l + 2 l × 4 l + 4l × l = 56k and -(8 - k)k + 10 = a
Þ 14 l2 = 56 k So, a = - (8 - 5)5 + 10 = - 5
Þ l2 = 4 k
146. The value of k, so that the equations 2 x 2 + kx - 5 = 0
Þ (-2 k)2 = 4 k
Þ 4 k2 = 4 k
and x 2 - 3 x - 4 = 0 have one root in common, are
Þ k2 - k = 0 27 27 -27 4
(a) 3, (b) 9, (c) -3, (d) -3,
Þ k(k - 1) = 0 2 4 4 27
Þ k = 0 or 1 l (c) Given, equations 2 x2 + kx - 5 = 0 and x2 - 3 x - 4 = 0
Þ k =1 have one root common.
(since given equation having rational roots) We know that, if a1 x2 + b1 x + c1 = 0 and a2 x2 + b2 x + c2 = 0
have one common root, then
144. The odd natural numbers have been divided in (a1 b2 - a2 b1 )(b1 c2 - b2 c1 ) = (c1 a2 - c2 a1 )2 …(i)
groups as Here, we have,
(1, 3); (5, 7, 9, 11); (13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23); … a1 = 2, b1 = k, c1 = - 5
Then the sum of numbers in the 10th group is a2 = 1, b2 = - 3,c2 = - 4
(a) 4000 (b) 4003 (c) 4007 (d) 4008 On putting values in Eq (i)
l (a) Number of terms in Ist group = 1 ´ 2 = 2 \ [(2 ´ (-3) - (1)(k)][(k)(-4) - (-3)(-5))] = [(-5)(1) - (-4)(2)]2
Number of terms in IInd group = 2 ´ 2 = 4 Þ (-6 - k)(-4 k - 15) = (-5 + 8)2
Number of terms in IIIrd group = 3 ´ 2 = 6 Þ (6 + k)(4 k + 15) = (3)2
Number of terms in IVth group = 4 ´ 2 = 8 Þ 24 k + 90 + 4 k2 + 15 k = 9
Number of terms in IXth group = 9 ´ 2 = 18 Þ 4 k2 + 39 k + 81 = 0
Number of terms in Ist, IInd......, IXth group -27
After solving above equation, we get x = - 3,
9 9 4
2 + 4 + 6 + ......+18 = (2 + 8) = ´ 20 = 90
2 2
147. The value of cos x ° - sin x ° (0 £ x < 45) is
\ First term of Xth group = 1 + (91 - 1)(2)
(a) 0 (b) positive
= 1 + 90 ´ 2
(c) negative
= 1 + 180 = 181 (d) sometimes negative and sometimes positive
And numbers of term in 10th group = 10 ´ 2 = 20
l (b) We know that cos q > sin q, if 0 £ q < 45
\ Sum of terms in the 10th group
20 \ cos x° - sin x° > 0 for 0 £ x < 45
= [2 ´ 181 + (20 - 1)(2)]
2 148. A vertical pole of height 10 m stands at one corner
= 10(362 + 19 ´ 2) of a rectangular field. The angle of elevation of its
= 10(362 + 38) top from the farthest corner is 30°, while that from
= 10(400) = 4000 another corner is 60°. The area (in m 2 ) of
rectangular field is
145. If the polynomial x 4 - 6 x 3 + 16 x 2 - 25 x + 10 is
200 2 400 200 2 400 2
divided by another polynomial x 2 - 2 x + k, the (a) (b) (c) (d)
remainder comes out to be x + a, then the value of a 3 3 3 3
is l (a) Given, ABCD is a rectangular field and PC is a vertical
(a) -1 (b) -5 (c) 1 (d) 5 pole of height 10 m.
P
l (b) Given, polynomial x4 - 6 x3 + 16 x2 - 25 x + 10 and
x - 2 x + k,
2

10 m
then,
x2 - 2 x + k x4 - 6 x3 + 16 x2 - 25 x + 10 x2 - 4 x + (8 - k)
C
x4 - 2 x3 + kx2
-4 x3 + (16 - k)x2 - 25 x + 10
60º
-4 x3 + 8 x2 - 4 kx B
(8 - k)x2 + (4 k - 25)x + 10 D
(8 - k)x2 - 2(8 - k)x + (8 - k)k
30º
- + -
(2 k - 9)x - (8 - k)k + 10
A
\ Remainder = (2 k - 9)x - (8 - k)k + 10
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 27
In DAPC, 150. The surface of water in a swimming pool, when it is
PC full of water, is rectangular with length and breadth
tan30° =
AC 36 m and 10.5 m respectively. The depth of water
1 10
Þ = increases uniformly from 1 m at one end to 1.75 m
3 AC at the other end. The water in the pool is emptied by
Þ AC = 10 3 …(i) a cylindrical pipe of radius 7 cm at the rate of 5
and In DPDC, km/h. The time (in hours) to empty water in the pool
PC æ 22 ö
tan60° = is ç taken p =
CD ÷
è 7 ø
10
Þ 3 = 1 1 3 4
CD (a) 6 (b) 6 (c) 6 (d) 6
10 4 2 4 5
Þ CD = …(ii)
3 l (c) According to question
Now, BC2 = AC2 - AB2 A B
Þ BC2 = AC2 - CD2 (QCD = AB)
2 Before increase
BC2 = (10 3 )2 - æç ö÷
10
Þ in depth 10.5 m
è 3ø
100
= 100 ´ 3 -
3 D 36 m C
900 - 100 800
= = A 36 m B
3 3
800 After increase
Þ BC =
3 in depth 1m
20 2
= 1.75 m
3
\ Area of rectangular field = BC ´ CD (length ´ breadth)
20 2 10 200 2 2
= ´ = m
3 3 3
\ Volume of water of in a swimming pool
149. A circle is inscribed in a square and the square is 1
circumscribed by another circle. What is the ratio of = ´ (1 + 175
. ) ´ 3.6 ´ 10.5
2
the areas of the inner circle to the outer circle? 1
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 = ´ 2.75 ´ 36 ´ 10.5 = 519.75 m3
2
(c) 2 : 4 (d) 1 : 3
Length of the cylindrical pipe = 5 km = 5000 m
l (a) Let side of square is x, then radius of inscribed circle is Now, volume of water flowing in 1hour = pr2 h
x 22 7 7
. = ´ ´ ´ 5000 = 77 m3
2 7 100 100
x/2 A 519.75 3
\ Required time = =6 h
77 4
x/2
151. There is a right circular cone of height h and
vertical angle 60°. A sphere when placed inside the
O
cone, it touches the curved surface and the base of
the cone. The volume of sphere is
4 3 4 3 4 4 3
(a) ph (b) ph (c) ph3 (d) ph
3 9 27 81
\ Radius of circumscribed circle = OA l (d) Given, height of cone = h
2 2 A
= æx ö + æx ö
ç ÷ ç ÷
è2 ø è2 ø
º

h
60

x2 x2 2 x2 x
= + = =
4 4 4 2
\ Ratio of areas of the inner circle to the outer circle is
2 O
p æç ö÷ x2
x
è2 ø 2
2
= 42 = = 1 : 2
x 4
p æç ö÷
x D C
B
è 2ø 2
28 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

2
O is the centre of the circle, then OA : OB = 2 : 1
Then, l2 = (h)2 + æç 1 ö÷
x
2h h è2 ø
Then, OA = and OB =
3 3 x12
3
h3 Þ h2 = l2 - …(i)
\ Volume of sphere = p æç ö÷ = p ´
4 h 4 4
= ph3 4
3 3è ø 3 27 81 And let base of isosceles triangle is x2 when length of each
equal side is doubled.
152. A sealed bottle containing some water is made up of
two cylinders A and B of radius 1.5 cm and 3 cm
respectively, as shown in the figure. When the bottle 2l
is placed right up on a table, the height of water in it h
is 15 cm, but when placed upside down, the height
of water is 24 cm. The height of the bottle is
x2 x2
2 2
2
x22
(2 l)2 = h2 + æç 2 ö÷
x
Then, Þ 4 l2 = h2 +
è2 ø 4
x22
Þ h2 = 4 l2 - ...(ii)
15 cm 24 cm 4
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x2 x2
l2 - 1 = 4 l2 - 2
4 4
x22 x12
Þ - = 3l2

(a) 25 cm (b) 26 cm (c) 27 cm (d) 28 cm 4 4

Þ x22 - x12 = 12 l2
l (c) Let heights of cylinder A and B are h1 and h2 .
When bottle is placed is right up on a table 154. In the adjoining figure, ABC is a triangle in which
then volume of bottle ÐB = 90° and its incircle C1 has radius 3. A circle C2
= p(3)2 h2 + p(1. 5)2 ´ (15 - h2 ) of radius 1 touches sides AC, BC and the circle C1 .
= p[15 ´ (1. 5)2 + h2 ((3)2 - (1. 5)2 ] …(i) Then length AB is equal to
and when bottle is placed in up side down, then volume is A
p(1. 5)2 ´ h1 + p(3)2 ´ (24 - h1 )
= p[24 ´ (3)2 + h1 ((1. 5)2 - (3)2 )] …(ii)
According to question, in both situation volume of bottle is
same.
\ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get C1
p[24 ´ (3)2 + h1 ((1. 5)2 - (3)2 )] = p[15 ´ (1. 5)2 + h2 ((3)2 - (1. 5)2 )]
3 C2
Þ 24 ´ (3)2 - 15 ´ (1. 5)2 = (h1 + h2 )[(3)2 - (1. 5)2 ]
1
3 ´ (1. 5)2 (32 - 5)
Þ h1 + h2 = = 27 B C
3 ´ (1. 5)2
(a) 3 + 6 3 (b) 10 + 3 2
153. Let l be the length of each equal side of an isosceles (c) 10 + 2 3 (d) 9 + 3 3
triangle. If the length of each equal side is doubled, l (d)
keeping its height unchanged, then the difference A
of the squares of bases of the new triangles and the
x
given triangle is
2 x Q
(a) 0 (b) 4l
(c) 9l 2 (d) 12 l 2 C1
l (d) A R
P
P C2
3 3
l l 1
h
B S T C

Here, ST = C2 P = C1 C - C1 P
2 2 2
2
2
B C
x1 x1
2 2 Þ ST = 42 - 22
Let base of isosceles triangle is x1 and height is h. Þ ST = 16 - 4 = 2 = 2 3
Þ ST = 2 3 = C2 P
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 29
Since, DC1 C2 P ~ DC1 CS l (c) A
C1 P C1 S
Þ = 60º
C2 P CS
2 3
Þ =
2 3 CS
Þ 2 ´ CS = 2 3 ´ 3
60º P 60º
Þ CS = 3 3 = CQ B C
3 cm
Now, DABC, 4 cm
AC2 = AB2 + BC2 60º 60º
Þ (x + 3 3 )2 = (x + 3)2 + (3 + 3 3 )2 Q
Þ x2 + 27 + 6 3 x = x2 + 6 x + 9 + 9 + 27 + 18 3
Here, ÐBQA = ÐBCA = 60° (angle in same segment)
Þ x =6 + 3 3
Also, ÐAQC = ÐABC = 60° (angle in same segment)
\ AB = 3 + 6 + 3 3
\ QP is angle bisector of BC.
Þ AB = 9 + 3 3
\ PB : PC = QB : QC = 4 : 3
155. In DABC, AB = AC, P and Q are points on AC and (by using angle bisector theorem)
AB respectively such that BC = BP = PQ = AQ. Then Now, DBPQ ~ DAPC (By AA similarly criterion)
ÐAQP is equal to (use p = 180°) PQ PC
=
2p 3p BQ AC
(a) (b)
7 7 3
BC
4p 5p PQ 7
(c) (d) Þ =
7 7 4 BC
3 12
PQ = ´ 4 =
l (d) 7 7
A
157. How many points ( x , y ) with integral coordinates are
θ
there whose distance from (1, 2) is two units?
(a) one (b) two
θ (c) three (d) four
Q P
2θ l (d) According to question, we have
(x - 1)2 + (y - 2)2 = 2
Þ (x - 1)2 + (y - 2)2 = 4
B C Þ (x - 1)2 + (y - 2)2 = 4 + 0 or 0 + 4
Let ÐBAC = q Now, (x - 1)2 = 4
Þ ÐAPQ = q (Q AQ = PQ) Þ x -1 = ± 2
ÐPQB = 2q (Q exterior angle properties) Þ x = 3, - 1
Þ ÐBPC = ÐBAC + ÐABP = 3q and (y - 2)2 = 0
Þ y -2 =0
(Q PQ = PB Þ ÐPQB = ÐQBP) Þ y =0
Þ ÐBCP = ÐBPC = 3q (Q BP = BC) Hence, possible coordinates (3, 2), (-1, 2).
Also, ÐABC = ÐACB = 3q (Q AB = AC) And also, if (x - 1)2 = 0
Þ ÐBAC + ÐABC + ÐACB = q + 3 q + 3 q Þ x =1
(angle sum properties of triangle) and (y - 2)2 = 4
Þ 7q = p Þ y -2 = ±2
p Þ y = 4, 0
Þ q=
7 Possible coordinates (1, 4) and (1, 0)
Þ ÐAQP = p - ÐBQP \ Total integral coordinates are four.
= p - 2q
p 5p 158. If the vertices of an equilateral triangle have
= p -2 ´ = integral coordinates, then
7 7
(a) such a triangle is not possible.
156. A line from one vertex A of an equilateral DABC (b) the area of the triangle is irrational.
meets the opposite side BC in P and the circumcircle (c) the area of the triangle is an integer.
of DABC in Q. If BQ = 4 cm and CQ = 3 cm, then PQ (d) the area of the triangle is rational but not an integer.
is equal to l (a) Let integral coordinates of equilateral triangle
4 12 A(x1 , y1 ), B(x2 , y2 ) and C(x3 , y3 )
(a) 7 cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) 2 cm
3 7
30 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

A (x1, y1)
Þ x+5=m
Þ x = (m - 5) …(i)
Also, next 6 consecutive natural numbers are (x + 11),
(x + 12), (x + 13), (x + 14), (x + 15) and (x + 16),
then its sum = 6 x + 81
d d Again, new mean of 17 numbers
(11x + 55) + (6 x + 81) 17 x + 136
= = =x+8
17 17
= (m - 5) + 8 [by using Eq. (i)]
B (x2, y2) d C (x3, y3) = m+ 3
1 Now, change in mean = (m + 3) - m = 3
Then, area of triangle = [x1 (y2 - y3 ) + x2 (y3 - y1 ) 3 300
2 \ Percentage change in mean = ´ 100% = %
+ x3 (y1 - y2 )] m m
= Rational numbers 161. The Swaraj flag designed by Mahatma Gandhi had
3 3 2 the spinning wheel in it. What did it symbolise?
Now, area of equilateral DABC = (side)2 = (d)
4 4 (a) Ideal of self-help
3 (b) Symbol of defiance to the British rule
= [(x1 - x2 )2 + (y1 - y2 )2 ]
4 (c) Greatness of India in pre-colonial time
We know that (x1 - x2 )2 + (y1 - y2 )2 is rational. (d) Ahimsa (non-violence) in contemporary world
3 l (a) The Swaraj flag designed by Mahatma Gandhi had the
\ (Side)2 is a irrational.
4 spinning wheel at the centre. It symbolised Gandhi’s goal
of making Indians self-reliant by fabricating their own
Þ Area of DABC = irrational numbers.
clothing.
Hence, it is a contradiction.
\ No such DABC is possible. 162. Which of the following statements regarding the
Silk Routes are correct?
159. A box contains four cards numbered as 1, 2, 3 and 4
I. They also meant cultural links.
another box contains four cards numbered as 1, 4, 9
and 16. One card is drawn at random from each box. II. They spread over land and by sea.
What is the probability of getting the product of the III. They connected Asia with Europe and Africa.
two numbers so obtained, more than 16? IV. Besides textile, gold and silver got exported from
5 1 3 1 Asia to Europe through these routes.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 2 8 4 Codes
l (c) Ist box contains numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and IInd contains (a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
numbers1, 4, 9, 16 (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Now, getting the product of two numbers so obtained l (a) The Silk Route was a network of both the terrestrial
number is more than 16 and the maritime routes connecting China and the Far
\ Required pairs of numbers East with the Middle East, Africa and Europe. It was
(2, 9), (2, 16), (3, 9), (3, 16), (4, 9) and (4, 16) established when the Han Dynasty in China officially
Therefore favourable outcomes = 6 opened trade with the West in 130 BC. Through this route
not just transmission of goods took place but also ideas
and total outcomes = 4 ´ 4 = 16
and culture spread. These ideas were notably in the area
6 3
\ Required probability = = of religions such as Buddhism.
16 8
163. Which of the following statements regarding the
160. The mean of a group of 11 consecutive natural impact of Depression of 1929 are correct?
numbers is m. What will be the percentage change
I. India’s exports increased but imports decreased.
in the mean when next 6 consecutive natural
numbers are included in the group? II. India’s export of gold increased.
(a) m% (b)
m
% (c)
3
% (d)
300
%
III. Urban India suffered more than the rural India.
3 300 m IV. Industrial investment grew in India.
l (d) Let 11 consecutive natural numbers Codes
x, x + 1, x + 2, x + 3, x + 4, x + 5, x + 6, (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
x + 7, x + 8, x + 9, x + 10 (c) II, III and IV (d) II and IV
According to question, l (d) The Great Depression was the worst and prolonged
x + (x + 1) + (x + 2) + ¼ + (x + 10) economic downturn in the world history, which affected
=m
11 the whole world and United States particularly. It lasted
11x + 55 from 1929 to 1940s. During Colonial period, India’s
Þ =m
11 exports and imports were also affected due to Great
Depression between 1928 and 1934. As a result in India
Þ 11x + 55 = 11m
prices also fell down and many Indian farmers were under
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)
debt. To pay back their loans Indians started to export gold
which promoted global economic recovery. During this
period, the government, was forced to extend tariff
protection to industries. Thus, it led to increase in
industrial investments.
164. Which of the following statements about the French
in Vietnam are correct?
I. The Vietnamese teachers generally twisted the
school curriculum given by the French.
II. The students protested the undue dominance by
the colons.
III. The Annanese students was a French journal for
enlisting the students support.
IV. The French had to counter the Chinese influence.
Codes
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III, and IV (d) II, III and IV
l (b) The colonisation of Vietnam by the French brought the
people of the country into conflict with the colonisers in all
areas of life namely economic, cultural as well as
education. French colonisation was based on the idea of a
‘civilising mission’.
For this they started to bring changes in all aspects of life
of Vietnamese and the big change was started from
education system. French modified school syllabus of the
Vietnamese but the Vietnamese teachers twisted the
curriculum given by the French in order to save their
culture.
Many times the students were discriminated by the
French Colons (French people in the colonies) and they
protested their undue dominance. By the 1920s, the
Vietnamese students formed various political parties, such
as the Party of Young Annan and publishing nationalist
journals such as the Annanese student.
The French also faced another problem in the sphere of
education i.e. the elites in Vietnam were influenced by
Chinese culture. To consolidate their power, the French
had to counter this Chinese influence thus; they
systematically replaced the traditional educational system
and established French schools for the Vietnamese.
165. Read the statements about the impact of forest rules
on tribal communities in the 19th century. Which of
the following statements are incorrect?
I. Jhum cultivators could carry out their activities in
village forests?
II. Jhum cultivators took to plough cultivation with
ease.
III. Tribal people could collect wood and graze cattle
in the forests.
IV. Tribal people had access to protected forests for
collecting wood for fuel and house building.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) III and IV
l (a) The lives of tribal groups was severely affected during
British rule as the British brought about several changes in
the forest laws. The British extended their control over all
forests and declared that forests as state (government)
property. The tribal people were not allowed to collect
fruits/woods hunt freely in the forests.
31
The British wanted tribal groups to settle down and
become peasant cultivators, so that they could control and
administer them easily. But they failed because when their
fields did not produce good yields, shifting cultivators who
took to plough cultivation often suffered a lot.
After facing widespread protests, the British had to
ultimately allow the right to carry on shifting cultivation in
some parts of the forest.
166. Which of the following statements about the
Non-Cooperation Movement are correct?
I. The Justice Party participated in the elections in
Madras.
II. The nationalist lawyers did not join back the
courts.
III. The taluqdars were targeted.
IV. The import of foreign cloth declined and the
export of Indian textiles increased manifold.
Codes
(a) I and III (b) I and IV (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
l (a) The Non-Cooperation Movement started with
middle-class participation in the cities in India. Many
students left government-controlled schools and colleges,
headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up
their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted
in many places except Madras, where the Justice Party,
(the party of the non-Brahmans), participated in the
elections.
The movement spread in many places from urban areas to
countryside. In Awadh, peasants were led by Baba
Ramchandra, against the talukdars and landlords who
demanded high rates and a variety of other cesses from
peasants.
Indians boycotted foreign clothes and started to make
Indian ones. But this movement gradually slowed down
due to various reasons. Khadi clothes were more
expensive than mill clothes and poor people could not
afford that. During the movement, many alternative Indian
institutions had to be set up so that they could be used in
place of the British ones. But these were slow to be
established, up, as a result lawyers and students went
back to Government Institutions.
167. Which of the following regarding the Constitution of
1791 and the status of women in France are correct?
I. It made them active citizens.
II. Provisions were made for schools for both boys
and girls.
III. Divorce rules were made stringent.
IV. Provisions were made for training women for
jobs.
Codes
(a) I, II and III (b) II and IV (c) III and IV (d) II, III and IV
l (d) During 1791, many important changes brought in
French society. Provisions were made for schools for both
boys and girls. With the creation of state schools, girls now
could also attend schools as schooling was made
compulsory for all girls. Their fathers could no longer force
them into marriage against their will. With the new law
divorce was made legal, and could be applied for by both
women and men. Women could now train for jobs and
could opt any profession.
32
168. Arrange the following historical development in a
chronological sequence.
I. Rowlatt Act II. Kheda Satyagraha
III. Champaran Movement
IV. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
Codes
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, I, III, IV (c) III, I, IV, II
l (d) Champaran Satyagraha took place in 1917.
Kheda Satyagraha took place in 1918.
Ahmedabad Mill Strike took place in 1918.
Rowlatt Act took place in 1919.
Direction (Q. Nos. 169-174) Read the statements and
select the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statements are true, and Statement II
provides explanation to Statement I.
(d) Both Statements are true, but Statement II does
not provide explanation of Statement I.
169. Statement (I) In the 19th century, London was a
colossal city.
Statement (II) London had grown as an industrial city.
l (a) There are various reasons which explain that London
was a colossal city during 19th century. Some of them are:
l
It was seen that by 1750, one out of every nine people of
England and Wales lived in London. It was a colossal
city with a population of about 6, 75,000.
l
Over the 19th century, London was continued to expand
its population fourfold between 1810 and 1860,
increasing from 1 million to about 4 million.
l
The city of London was a powerful magnet for migrant
population, even though it did not have large factories.
Thus, it was not industrially well-off.
170. Statement (I) Indians not taking off their turban
before Colonial officials was considered offending.
Statement (II) Turban was a sign of respectability in
India.
l (c) The Indians during Colonial period often wore Turban
and thus named as ‘Turban Wearer’. Turban was
considered as a sign of respectability, and could not be
removed at will.
But this was considered as an offence when Indians did
not remove their turban before the British.
171. Statement (I) Louis Blanc built a cooperative
community.
Statement (II) He believed the community could
produce goods together and divide the profits among
the members.
l (b) The ideas of social change developed after the French
Revolution. There were many socialists who had different
visions of the future as some believed in the idea of
cooperative community. For example, Robert Owen
(1771-1858), a leading English manufacturer, built a
cooperative community called New Harmony in Indiana
(USA). Another sociologist was Louis Blanc (1813-1882)
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)
who wanted that the government to encourage
cooperatives and replace capitalist enterprises. These
cooperatives were communities of people who produced
goods together and divided the profits according to the
work done by members.
172. Statement (I) Hand printing developed in China.
(d) III, II, IV, I Statement (II) The Chinese state printed textbooks in
vast numbers.
l (c) The earliest kind of print technology also known as
hand printing was developed in China, Japan and Korea.
The imperial state in China was the major producer of
printed material. The bureaucratic system of China used to
recruit its personnel, through Civil Service Examinations.
For its examination a vast number of books were printed in
China.
173. Statement (I) Rainfall is low in the Western parts of
Deccan plateau and East of Sahyadris.
Statement (II) Western Ghats causes convectional
rainfall.
l (a) The South-west monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea
strike almost perpendicularly to the western slopes of the
Western Ghats as these are higher in elevation and more
continuous (1500 m), thus, cause Orographic rainfall. The
mountain barrier forces the moisture laden air to rise along
the slope. This ascended air becomes condensed and
causes heavy rainfall on the windward side or western side
of the Western Ghats.
But after reaching the crest, the air descends along the
leeward side or eastern slopes of the Sahyadri or Western
Ghats and gets warmed. This moisture present in this
warm air is already precipitated on the western slope, so
there’s little amount left for the rainfall to happen on
eastern slope. So, the eastern slopes and the Deccan
plateau beyond that, falls in the Rain-shadow region,
which receives scanty rainfall.
174. Statement (I) A large part of the Deccan plateau is
occupied by black soil.
Statement (II) Black soil in this part was formed by
denudation of basaltic rocks overtime.
l (c) The Deccan plateau is formed by cooling of the basaltic
lava. Thus, the soil found here is made after working of
weathering agents over this basalt rocks and as a result
give black soils.
175. If the local time at Varanasi, located at 83°E
longitude is 23:00 hour then what will be the local
time at Kibithu located at 97°E longitude (Arunachal
Pradesh) and Jodhpur, located at 73°E longitude?
(a) 00:00 hour, 22:00 hour (b) 22:20 hour, 23:56 hour
(c) 23:56 hour, 22:20 hour (d) 22:56 hour, 23:20 hour
l (c) The time at the Kibithu located at 97° East longitude is
23:56 (11:56 pm) hours.
The time at the Jodhpur located at 73° East longitude is
22:20 (10:20 pm) hours as per the local time of the at the
Varanasi which is located on 83° East longitude is 23:00
(11:00 pm).
Time at 80° East Longitude = 23 : 00
Time at Kibithu (Arunachal Pradesh) = 97°-83° = 14°
Q Time taken to cross 1° longitude is = 4 min
14° Þ 4 ´ 14 = 56 minutes = 23 : 56
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)
Time at Jodhpur = 83°-73° = 10°
10° = 10 ´ 4 = 40 minutes
= 23 : 00 - 40
= 22 : 20
176. Which one of the following statements are true
about latitudes and longitudes?
I. All latitudes are angular distances measured
towards the pole from the equator.
II. All longitudes do not join at poles.
III. All Parallels and Meridians are imaginary lines.
IV. Latitudes are used to determine the time of a
place.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
l (b) Latitudes and longitudes are imaginary lines used to
determine the location of a place on Earth. Latitude is the
angular distance of a point on the Earth’s surface,
measured in degrees from the centre of the Earth.
Longitude is an angular distance, measured in degrees
along the equator East or West of the Prime Meridian.
These lines are a series of semi-circles that run from Pole
to Pole passing through the equator. These determine
local time in relation to Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
177. If the current climatic condition of Srinagar (J & K)
with average annual temperature of 13.5°C and
annual average precipitation 710 mm get modified
and become similar to that of Ranchi (Jharkhand)
with annual average temperature 23.7°C and
precipitation 1430 mm. Which one of the following
types of vegetation will become predominant in
Srinagar?
(a) Tropical Semi Evergreen (b) Tropical Moist Deciduous
(c) Tropical Dry Deciduous (d) Tropical Dry Evergreen
l (b) Tropical Moist Deciduous forests need the following
climatic conditions
l
Annual rainfall 100 to 200 cm.
l
Mean annual temperature of about 27°C.
l
The average annual relative humidity of 60 to 75%.
l
Spring (between winter and summer) and summer are
dry.
These forests are found in Chota Nagpur plateau
(Jharkhand), along the Western Ghats, most of Odisha
and, some parts of West Bengal.
178. On a school field trip, a student spotted tigers,
turtles, gharials and snakes in their natural habitats.
Name the ecological region (delta) where that
student had gone.
(a) Cauvery (b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari (d) Ganga-Brahmaputra
l (d) Ganga -Brahmaputra region has a rich variety of
wildlife. For example, tigers, elephants, deer, monkeys,
turtles, gharials, snakes etc.
179. A person travelling by road (shortest distance) from
Mangaluru to Machilipatnam will be able to
observe natural vegetation types in which of the
following sequences?
33
(a) Montane Forest - Tropical Deciduous Forests - Tropical
Evergreen Forests
(b) Tropical Evergreen Forests - Tropical Thorn Forests -
Tropical Deciduous Forests
(c) Tropical Deciduous Forests - Tropical Evergreen Forests -
Mangrove Forests
(d) Tropical Evergreen Forests - Tropical Deciduous Forests -
Mangrove Forests
l (d) The correct sequence of the vegetation type is-
Tropical Evergreen Forests-Tropical Deciduous
Forests-Mangrove Forests.
180. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with
respect to monsoons in India?
I. The South-western Monsoon takes longer
duration as compared to retreating Monsoon in
covering India.
II. The South-western Monsoon has a shorter
duration as compared to retreating Monsoon in
covering India.
III. Both the Monsoons take almost the same
duration in covering India.
IV. The South-western Monsoon is propelled by the
depressions while retreating Monsoon results
from the movement of air masses.
(a) I and IV (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) II and IV
l (b) A major part of the South-western Monsoon rainfall is
generated by depressions originating in the Arabian Sea
and Bay of Bengal. Some depressions develop over land
also. About 3-4 depressions are formed per month from
June to September, which causes heavy rainfall in India.
181. Which one of the following regions marked on the
sketch is an ideal representation with the following
characteristics?
I. The approximate date for arrival of the
South-western Monsoon is 15th June.
II. Well-developed in Thermal and Nuclear energy
production.
III. Rich in the production of oil and natural gas.
IV. Well-developed Textile Industry.
D
C
A
B
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
34
l (c) The area C denotes Gujarat state where all the
mentioned conditions prevail.
182. With increasing urbanisation the main activity
which leads to loss of biodiversity is
I. rural-urban migration.
II. rapid increase in built-up area.
III. increased vehicular pollution.
IV. development of big industrial complexes.
(a) I and III (b) I and IV (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
l (c) The major causes for the destruction of bio-diversity are
various human activities. For example rapid growth in
build- up area, rapid development of big industrial
complexes, building dams and other major construction
works.
183. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct
about the shaded part on the given outline of India?
(a) It has high potential for hydel-power generation.
(b) It has the lowest degree of urbanisation.
(c) Ragi is an important millet grown here.
(d) It is famous for religious tourism.
l (b) The total population in Uttarakhand increased by 20%
during the 2001-2011 period, while the urban population
went up by 40%. During this period, the share of urban
population in the total population went up from 25.67% to
30.23%.
As per Census 2011, the share of urban population in the
total state population is almost 40% higher in Uttarakhand
compared to Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.
184. Chandimal, Jaysurya and Umesh left their
respective village in Sri Lanka for Chennai in India.
Who among the following could be a refugee?
I. Chandimal, who is an IT professional, could not
find a job in Sri Lanka.
II. Jaysurya, who left his village due to ethnic
conflicts.
III. Umesh, whose land and house were destroyed
due to Tsunami.
(a) Only Jaysurya (b) Only Chandimal
(c) Jaysurya and Umesh (d) Chandimal and Jaysurya
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)
l (c) Refugee is a person who has been forced to leave
his/her country in order to escape war, persecution, ethnic
conflicts or natural disaster.
185. Consider the following statements about the United
Nations Security Council (UNSC).
I. UNSC consists of 15 members.
II. US, Russia and Germany are among the
permanent members.
III. China is the only Asian nation among the
permanent members.
IV. All members of the UNSC have veto power.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I and IV (d) III and IV
l (b) There are 15 members in the United Nations Security
Council. It has given ‘veto power’ to its 5 permanent
members i.e. China, France, Russia, United Kingdom and
United States. Germany is not the member of UNSC.
186. Which of these statements about the Election
Commission of India are true?
I. It conducts and controls the election process in
the country.
II. It gets the voters list updated before the elections.
III. It also conducts the Panchayat elections in the
country.
IV. It approves the election manifestoes of political
parties.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) II and IV (d) III and IV
l (a) The Election Commission conducts and controls
elections according to the prevalent laws in India. The
commission also updates the voter list before the elections.
The State Election Commissions are vested with the power
to conduct elections to the Corporations, Muncipalities,
Zilla Parishads, District Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis,
Gram Panchayats and other local bodies. They are
independent of the Election Commission of India.
187. Consider the following statements about the Indian
Parliament.
I. It is the ultimate authority to make laws in India.
II. It consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha.
III. It consists of only the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha.
IV. Lok Sabha members are chosen by the people
through elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) I, II and IV
l (d) The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body
of India. It consists of the President of India and the
houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). Lok Sabha members
are the elected members by the people through election.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II) 35
188. Which of the following is the inspiring philosophy of 192. Read the following statements and select one of the
the Constitution of India? four options given below.
I. Secularism, Equality, Communism, Democratic Statement (I) Enjoyment of pollution-free water is a
Republic fulfilment of right to life.
II. Democratic Republic, Sovereignty, Fraternity Statement (II) Release from forced labour is a
III. Secularism, Equality, Justice fulfilment of right to life.
IV. Equality, Fraternity, Communalism, Secularism (a) Only I is correct (b) Only II is correct
(c) Both I and II are correct (d) Both I and II are incorrect
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) II and IV
l (c) Both the statements are correct.
l (c) The Indian Constitution is based on all those values
and principles which unite its people. The preamble is 193. The daily wage of a person in urban areas is ` 300.
based on these Principles. For example Sovereignty, The poverty line for a person is fixed at ` 1000 per
Socialist, Secularism, Democratic Republic, Fraternity,
Equality and Justice.
month for the urban areas. The following table
shows the details of employment of four families
189. Which of the following features of the Indian living in Mumbai city.
Judiciary are true?
Family Total days of Members of the
I. Integrated judicial system. employment got in a family
II. The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal. month by the family

III. Only the Supreme Court can interpret the Hari 12 3

Constitution. Tenzin 15 4
IV. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed only Bala 15 5
in the Supreme Court and the High Court. Phulia 20 5
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV
l (c) The Constitution of India provides for a single Identify the family living below poverty line.
integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the (a) Hari (b) Tenzin (c) Bala (d) Phulia
apex (the highest court of appeal), High Court at the l (c) Daily wages of Hari family = 12 ´ 300
middle (state) level and District Court at the local level. 3600
The Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed in any Per person wages of Hari family =
3
level of court mentioned above.
= `1200
190. Which of the following statements is NOT true Daily wages of Tenzin family = 15 ´ 300 = `4500
about Indian federalism? Per person wages of Tenzin family =
4500
(a) The Union Government is vested with more financial 4
powers than the State Government. = `1125
(b) Power to legislate on residuary subjects is vested in the Daily wages of Bala family = 15 ´ 300 =`4500
Union Government. 4500
(c) The name and boundaries of a state can be changed by Per person wages of Bala family =
5
the Union Government without the consent of the
concerned state. = ` 900
(d) The Union Legislature can amend any provision of the Daily wages of Phulia family = 20 ´ 300 = `6000
6000
Constitution without the consent of the State Government. Per person wages Phulia family = = `1200
5
l (d) The Union Legislature can amend any provision,
except basic features of the Constitution of India, with the So, it is clear that Bala family is living below poverty line.
consent of at least half of the State Legislatures. 194. In a particular year, the price of wheat in a market is `
191. Democracy promotes equality through the following: 15 per kg and a farmer produces 100 kgs of wheat. In
I. Universal Adult Franchise the next year the price of wheat has fallen to ` 10 per
II. Equality before law and equal protection of law kg and the farmer produces 120 kgs. If the
III. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled government wishes to stabilise the income of the
Tribes and Women farmer, then what will be the minimum support price?
IV. Independent and impartial media (a) ` 12 per kg (b) ` 12.5 per kg
(c) ` 13 per kg (d) ` 13.5 per kg
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II and IV
l (b) Given,
l (b) Democracy gives equal opportunity to all people by
providing Universal Adult Franchise, equality before law Price of wheat = `15/kg
and equal protection of law, and by providing dignity to ` 1500
\ Price of 100 kg wheat =
life irrespective of any caste, class, religion or any 120
biasness. For the upliftment of depressed classes, ` 1500
Hence, required minimum support price =
Constitution in India provides reservation under Article 120
19(9). = ` 12.5/kg
36 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2018 (Stage II)

195. A country has four groups of people. The table 198. Which of the following statements are correct?
below describes some social indicators of these I. Globalisation has led to increased flow of capital
groups. Identify the group that is the most across countries.
vulnerable. II. Increase in flows of labour across countries has
Groups Literacy rate Life Unemployment been larger than the increase in flows of capital.
(%) expectancy rate (%) III. MNCs spread their production and work with
(years)
local producers in various countries across the
A 74 82 5 globe.
B 93 80 10 Codes
C 63 78 15 (a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III
D 65 78 10
l (b) Globalisation is the ongoing process that is linking
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D people, countries, cities and regions much more closely
together than ever before. It also increased the business of
l (c) From the above data, it is clear that group C is the most many countries by flow of capital across countries.
vulnerable. Through globalisation many MNCs have spread their
196. Which of the following statements are correct? production and work with local producers in various
countries across the globe.
I. Bank deposits share the essential features of
money. 199. In a village Puranpur, 200 families are living. 85
II. Any depositor may demand his deposit at any families work on their own piece of land, 60 families
point of time from a bank. work on the field of other farmers, 5 families run
their own shops and 50 families work in a nearby
III. Bank must retain all deposits by itself.
factory to earn their livelihood. What percentage of
(a) I and II are true, but III is false.
(b) I is true, but II and III are false.
Purapur village depends on the secondary sector?
(c) I and II are false, but III is true. (a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) 55
(d) All statements I, II and III are true. l (d) Total dependent persons on secondary sector
l (a) Bank is the bases of financial system. Bank is an = 50 + 60 = 110
institution to deposit money and provides loans. Deposit Total families in Pooranpur = 200
made by people in the bank are in the form of currency. 110
Hence the required Percentage = ´ 100% = 55%
Depositors can demand their deposits anytime from the 200
bank. Bank does not keep its deposit with itself and give it
as the loan. In this way bank earns profit. 200. Identify the correct pairs from List-I (Rights) and
List-II (Violation of rights) and select the correct
197. Bira and his wife Sheena have two daughters aged 12 option using the codes given below.
and 16. Sheena’s mother and father, aged 65 and 72,
also live with them. Bira is currently looking for work, List I (Rights) List II (Violation of rights)
but can’t find any. His elder daughter completed A. Right to Choose (i) Raman buys a packet of milk on
class 10 and prefers to look for work. Sheena prefers which the company’s name,
manufacturing date, and expiry
to stay at home to look after house works. How many date were missing.
unemployed members does Bira’s family have?
B. Right to be (ii) Sakina wants a particular
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Informed channel from her cable operator
l (b) According to question, but operator offers some other
channel as part of a complete
s Couple r package.
65 Year 72 year
C. Right to Safety (iii) Joseph bought a television from
Mother Father a shop. He suffered electric
shock while using it.
Husband Sheena D. Right to Seek (iv) Murli felt ill and was admitted in
r Bira (She likes to stay at home)
Wife Redressal the hospital because of stale
food served in the restaurant.
er
Daughter ht
ug
Da
r

(a) A-I and C-III (b) B-II and C-III

hte

Daughter
ug

(c) B-II and D-IV (d) C-III and D-IV

Da

s
l (d) The correct order is
– Sister
(10th Pass and Unemployed) A - II B-I C - III D - IV
Hence, two persons are unemployed in the family.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 1

NTSE Solved Paper

NATIONAL TALENT
SEARCH
EXAMINATION
2017 (Stage I)*

INSTRUCTIONS
This solved paper consists of two papers. Paper I consists of Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Paper II consists of
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT).
MAT covering (Q. Nos. 1-50) of Maths and (Q. Nos. 51-100) of Reasoning.
SAT consists of (Science, Mathematics and Social Science) which comprises 100 questions (40 Science, 20 Mathematics
and 40 Social Science).
There will be no negative marking.
Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.

Time : 240 Minutes Max. Mark : 200

Paper I Mental Ability Test (MAT)

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) Letter series is given with one 4. KLE, IND, GPC, ? ,CTA.
term missing shown by question mark ( ? ). This term is (a) DRB (b) BSE (c) ERB (d) ECR
one of four alternatives given under it. Find the right l (c) The pattern of given series is
alternative. –2 –2 –2 –2
K I G E C
1. G, K, O, S, ? +2 +2 +2 +2
L N P R T
(a) U (b) W
(c) V (d) X E
–1
D
–1
C
–1
B
–1
A
l (b) The pattern of given series is
G K O S W Directions (Q. Nos. 5-8) A number series is given with
one term missing shown by question mark (?). This term is
+4 +4 +4 +4 one of the four alternatives given under it. Find the right
alternative.
2. DX, HT, KQ, OM, ?
(a) SJ (b) RK 5. 4, 9, 25, ?, 121, 169
(c) QJ (d) RJ (a) 36 (b) 49 (c) 64 (d) 81
l (d) The pattern of given series is l (b) The pattern of given series is
+4 +3 +4 +3
D H K O R 4 9 25 49 121 169

–4 –3 –4 –3
X T Q M J
22 32 52 72 112 132
3. H, D, A, Y, X,? All the numbers of given series are square of prime
(a) X (b) W numbers.
(c) T (d) V
6. 1, 3, 7, 13, 21, ?, 43, 57
l (a) The pattern of given series is
–4 –3 –2 –1 –0
(a) 31 (b) 29 (c) 30 (d) 32
H D A Y X X

*Exam held on 5th November 2017

2 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

l (a) The pattern of given series is Arguments I. Yes; it helps in all-round development
1 3 7 13 21 31 43 57 of the child.
II. No, it puts more burden on teachers.
+2 +4 +6 +8 +10 +12 +14
(a) Arguments I and II both are strong
7. 5, 3, 10, 8, 17, 15, ?, 24 (b) Arguments I and II both are weak
(a) 25 (b) 23 (c) 26 (d) 27 (c) Argument I is strong and II is weak
(d) Argument I is weak and II is strong
l (c) The pattern of given series is
+5 +7 +9
l (c) After observing the statement, we got that argument I
is strong and II is weak.
5 3 10 8 17 15 26 24 11. In the question given below, a statement is followed
by a reason. Choose correct option for them.
+5 +7 +9
Statement Narmada river flows to west.
8. 97, 77, 59, ?, 29, 17 Reason Narmada river falls in the Bay of Bengal.
(a) 34 (b) 39 (a) Statement and reason both are true
(c) 37 (d) 43 (b) Statement is true but reason is false
l (d) The pattern of given series is (c) Statement is false but reason is true
97 77 59 43 29 17 (d) Statement and reason both are false
l (b) After observing the statement we got that statement is
–20 –18 –16 –14 –12 true and reason is false.
9. In the given question there are two statements and 12. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
they have two conclusions I and II. You have to take represents Bus, Car and Vehicle?
the given statements to be true even if they seem to
vary to commonly known facts. Read the
conclusions and decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given
statements even disregarding commonly known
facts. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Statements
l (c) Venn, diagram (c) represents correctly bus, car and
1. All women are intelligent. vehicle.
2. Some women are educated.
Conclusions Vehicle

I. All educated women are intelligent.

II. All intelligent are women.
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
Bus Car
(c) Both conclusions I and II are true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true 13. Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly
l (a) According to the question, represents white colour, clothes and natural
flowers?
Intelligent

Women Or

Intelligent Educated Women Educated

(a) (b) (c) (d)
I ® True
l (a) Venn diagram (a) represent correctly white colour,
II ® False
clothes and natural flowers.
Thus, only conclusion I is true.

10. In the given question, a statement is followed by Natural Flowers

two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of
the following arguments is ‘strong’ or ‘weak’.
Statement Continuous and comprehensive
evaluation system should be implemented at school
Clothes White colour
level.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 3
Directions (Q. Nos. 14-15) Out of 500 students, the 19. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table
following Venn diagram represents the number of students facing centre to the table. R is just the right to P and
who got distinction in Physics, Chemistry and Maths is second to the left of S. T is not between P and S.
subjects. Who is second to the left of R?
(a) Q (b) S
(c) T (d) P
47 17 l (a) According to the question,
Chemistry 42
Physics
S
11
18 15

Q
T
Maths
50

14. How many students got distinction in both Physics

and Maths subjects, when the students who got P R
distinction in Chemistry subject is not included? Thus, ‘Q’ is second to the left of R.
(a) 26 (b) 15 (c) 28 (d) 24
20. If ‘<’ means ‘–’, ‘>’ means ‘+’, ‘=’ means ‘´’ and ‘$’
l (b) Number of student who got dictinction in only Physics means ‘¸’, then what will be the value of 27 > 81 $ 9
and Maths 15.
< 6?
15. What is the percentage of students who got (a) 6 (b) 36
distinction in all the three subjects? (c) 30 (d) 54
(a) 28% (b) 35% l (c) According to the question,
(c) 38% (d) 40% 27 > 81 $ 9 < 6 = 27 + 81 ¸ 9 - 6
l (d) Number of student in all three subject = 27 + 9 - 6
= 50 + 47 + 42 + 18 + 15 + 17 + 11 = 200 = 36 - 6
Q Total student in a class = 500 = 30
200
\ Required percentage = ´ 100% 21. The four different positions of the dice are given
500
= 40%
below. Which number is on the face opposite to 6?

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-17) In the following questions,

6 6 5 1
three alternatives are alike in a certain way but the rest
one is different. Find out the odd one and choose the 3 2 2 4 6 4 4 2
correct answer.
16. (a) Afghanistan (b) Kabul (1) (2) (3) (4)
(c) Spain (d) Iraq (a) 1 (b) 2
l (b) All except ‘Kabul’ are countries while ‘Kabul’ is the (c) 3 (d) 4
capital of Afghanistan. l (a) After observing all the given dice and got, 6 is adjacent
to face 2, 3, 4 and 5. So face ‘6’ is opposite to face ‘1’.
17. (a) 1 (b) 729 (c) 144 (d) 64
l (c) All except ‘144’ are perfect cube while ‘144’ is perfect 22. All faces of a solid cube of edge 8 cm are coloured.
square. It is divided equally in the cubes of edge 2 cm. How
many cubes will have all faces coloured ?
18. ‘A + B’ means A is the son of B. ‘A - B’ means A is (a) 1
the wife of B. Then what does P + R - Q mean? (b) 0
(a) Q is the father of P (b) Q is the son of P (c) 8
(c) P is the father of Q (d) R is the son of Q (d) 4
l (a) According to the question, l (b) If we divide a coloured solid cube whose edge is 8 cm
P + R-Q equally in cube of edge 2 cm, then there will be no cube
Couple formed which have all faces coloured.
– +
R Q
Father
23. In a coded language the word 'SOLID' is written as
Son
'HLORW’, then in the same code language 'GAS'
will be written as
P+ (a) THZ (b) TYI
(c) TZH (d) ZHT
Thus, ‘Q’ is father of ‘P’.
4 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

l (c) As, 28. Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence

Opposite
S O L I D H L O R W A. Medicine
Alphabet
B. Diagnosis
C. Doctor
D. Fever
E. Recovery
(a) D C A B E (b) D E C A B
Similarly, (c) D C B A E (d) C D B A E
Opposite
G A S
Alphabet
T Z H l (c) The meaningful sequence of given words is DCBAE.
1 2 3 4 5
Fever Doctor Diagnosis Medicine Recovery

D C B A E

24. If in a certain code I = 9 and GIRL = 46, then BOY 29. Find the missing number (?) from the given
=? alternatives, when same rule is applied in all three
(a) 37 (b) 39 (c) 24 (d) 42 situations.
l (d) As, I = 9 5 21 51
GIRL = 7 + 9 + 18 + 12 = 46
16 109 2 22 53 19 17 ? 48
Similarly,
BOY = 2 + 15 + 25 = 42 6 15 13

25. If Ranjana is the sister of the son of Sohan’s son, (a) 7 (b) 25
how is Ranjana related to Sohan? (c) 49 (d) 129
(a) Daughter (b) Sister
l (b) As (16 - 6)2 + (5 - 2)2
(c) Granddaughter (d) Uncle
= 102 + 32
l (c) = 109
Sohan
r
and (22 - 15)2 + (21 - 19)2
= 72 + 22
Granddaughter
= 53
Sohan’s Sonr
Similarly (17 - 13)2 + (51 - 48)2
= 42 + 32
Ranjanas = 25
Sonr Sister

Thus, ‘Ranjana’ is granddaughter of ‘Sohan’. 30. As ‘part’ is related to ‘whole’, in the same way an
‘Arc’ is related to which of the following?
26. If North direction is called East and South direction (a) Rectangle
is called West, then what will be called North-East (b) Circle
direction? (c) Triangle
(a) North-East (b) East-South (d) Square
(c) West-South (d) North-West
l (b) As, ‘part’ is related to ‘whole’, similarly ‘arc’ will be
l (b) According to question, related to ‘circle’.
North East
North-East East-South Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) In the following questions,
West East North
there are two sets of figures. One set contains problem
South
figures while the other has answer figures. There is a
sequence according to which the problem figures are
South West
arranged. You have to select an answer figure which can
Thus, ‘North-east’ direction will be called ‘East-South’ be added in sequence with the problem figures. Choose
direction.
the correct figure.
27. How many pairs of successive numbers have a 31. Problem-figures
difference of 2 in the following sequence?
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 1, 7, 0, 4, 1, 3, 2, 8, 6
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
l (d) There are 7 pair in given series whose difference is 2.
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 1, 7, 0, 4, 1, 3, 2, 8, 6 (A) (B) (C) (D)
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 5
Answer-figures l (d) Answer-figure (d) will complete the sequence of given
problem-figures.

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) There are four figures given in

each. One of these does not correlate with the rest of the
figures. Select that odd figure.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 35.
l (d) Answer-figure (d) will complete the sequence of given
problem-figures.

32. Problem-figures
C J S U
(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (d) ‘U’ is odd figure in given figures, because all except ‘U’
are different in mirror image which is same as original in
mirror image.

(A) (B) (C) (D) 36.

Answer-figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (c) All except figure (c) are formed from rotation.

l (c) Answer-figure (c) will complete the sequence of given 37.

problem-figures.

33. Problem-figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (a) Figure (a) is different from others.

38.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer-figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (d) Figure (d) is different from others because all the

shaded portion in figure (a), (b) and (c) digonally opposite.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 39-40) Find the correct mirror image
l (a) Answer-figure (a) will complete the sequence of given of the given figure, when mirror is placed on right side of
problem-figures.
the figure.
34. Problem-figures
39. STOP
(a) S T O P (b) PO T S (c) P T O S (d) P O T S

l (b) The correct mirror image of ‘STOP’ is

S TOP PO T S
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer-figures
40. Question-image

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

Answer-image 44. Transparent-sheet

(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (d) Answer-figure (d) is correct mirror image of given Answer-figures

question-figure.

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-42) In questions below, select the

correct water image of the given figure.
41. Question-figure
(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (b) When we folded transparent-sheet along the dotted

Answer-images line, its appear as answer-figure (b).

Directions (Q.Nos. 45-46) In the following figures there is

a question figure, which is embedded in one of the answer
figures. Trace out the correct figure.
45. Question-figure
(a) (b) (c) (d)

l (b) Answer-figure (b) is correct water image of given

question-figure.
42. Question-image
X7W4
Answer-image Answer-figures
7W4 W 7 4 7 W4
(a) X (b) X7 4 (c) X W (d) X
l (a) Answer-figure (a) is correct mirror image of given
question-figure.

Direction : (Q. Nos. 43-44) A square transparent sheet

with a pattern is folded along the dotted line. Which of the (a) (b) (c) (d)
following answer figures is formed after folding the
l (c) Question-figure is embedded in answer-figure (c).
transparent sheet?
43. Transparent-sheet 46. Question-figure

Answer-figures Answer-figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

l (c) When we folded transparent-sheet along the dotted l (d) Question-figure is embedded / hidden in answer-figure
line, its appear as answer-figure (c). (d).
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 7
47. Which of the answer figures completes the given Directions (Q. No. 51- 54) Read the passage and answer
matrix figure? the questions based on it.
Of all the trees of Southern Asia, the banyan is unique, not
only for the manner of its growth, but for the area of shade it
provides from the burning sun. Its close relationship with
man has evolved over the years to make the banyan a
popular meeting place, a focal point of worship and a source
of practical materials for commerce.
Known as the ‘Strangler fig’ because of its unusual manner of
growth, the banyan is an epiphyte or air plant, that has its
birth in the branches of a host tree and lives on airborne
moisture and nutrients. Banyan seeds are deposited by birds,
bats or monkeys in the rich soil collected in the crevices of
host tree branches.
As the banyan grows, it sends aerial roots down the trunk of
the supporting tree. In time, the roots that reach the ground
choke the host tree by preventing its trunk from enlarging.
The two best known species of banyans are : the Indian, one
(a) (b) (c) (d) of the world’s largest tropical trees; and the Chinese, a
smaller species with fewer aerial roots.
l (a) In each row, both the elements interchange their
position and the element at the right side rotates by 180°. 51. The banyan tree is unique for
(a) it grows in Southern Asia
48. If 20 * 3 = 180 and 4 * 5 = 100, then what is the (b) it is a small tree
value of 7 * 7 ? (c) its growth is unusual and it gives shade for big area
(a) 21 (b) 49 (d) its fruit is very big
(c) 343 (d) 7
l (c) As mentioned in the paragraph, Banyan tree is unique
l (c) As because of its manner of growth and it gives shade for big
20 * 3 = 20 ´ 32 = 180 area.
4 * 5 = 4 ´ 52 = 100 52. The banyan tree is a focal point of worship for
Similarly, (a) birds (b) wild animals
7 * 7 = 7 ´ 72 = 343 (c) nature (d) man
49. Determine the number of squares in the following l (d) The banyan tree is a focal point of worship for man.
figure 53. Owing to its unusual manner of growth, the banyan
tree is called
(a) a place of worship (b) a place of rest
(c) a strangler fig (d) a tree of beauty
l (c) The tree is named thus because of the manner in which
its roots choke the roots of the host tree.

(a) 14 (b) 9 54. The two species of banyan trees are

(c) 10 (d) 16 (a) the Indian and the Chinese (b) the shady and the big
(c) the aerial and the land (d) the host and the guest.
l (a) Number of smallest square = 9
Number of squares formed by combine four smallest
l (a) The two species of banyan trees are the Indian Banyan
square = 4 and largest square = 1 and the Chinese Banyan.
\ Total number of square in given figure
Directions (Q. No. 55- 90) Choose the suitable option for
= 9 + 4 + 1 = 14 each of the given questions.
50. How many cubes are laid on a plane as shown in 55. The aerial roots ……… the trunk of the host tree.
the following figure? (a) support (b) grow (c) choke (d) enlarge
l (c) Choke
56. A doctor ……… the patients but God cures all.
(a) treating (b) treated (c) treats (d) had treated
l (c) ‘Treats’ is the correct answer as the sentence is in simple
present tense.

(a) 14 (b) 12 57. While ……… basketball Sunil was badly hit.
(c) 10 (d) 8 (a) play (b) playing (c) played (d) had played
l (c) Number of cubes are laid on a plane = 6 + 3 + 1 = 10 l (b) The word playing has been used as present participle.
8 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

58. ……… slow, this is school area. 67. The policeman said to my mother, “May I help you?”
(a) Drive (b) Is driving (c) Drove (d) Driven The policeman asked my mother
l (a) Drive is the correct answer. (a) if she need his help (b) may he help you
(c) that he might help her (d) if he might help her
59. ‘Applaud’ means
(a) remark (b) backbite l (d) ‘The policeman asked my mother if he might help her’
is the correct sentence. It is in Indirect speech as the
(c) consent (d) praise
principal verb is in past tense.
l (d) Praise is the synonym of ‘applaud’.
The cricketer was applauded/praised for his speedy 68. The landlord commanded, “You ……… not enter my
century. house again.”
(a) can (b) shall (c) may (d) could
60. Find the odd one out.
(a) advance (b) promote (c) forward (d) farther
l (b) ‘Shall’ is the correct word to be filled here. Here, ‘shall’
is used to give order.
l (d) ‘Farther’ word is odd one here as advance, promote or
forward means ahead in position or time whereas farther 69. One ……… be punctual.
means a long way or a great distance. (a) can (b) may (c) should (d) will
61. The new slogan ……… by our school teacher last l (c) ‘Should’ is the correct modal to be filled in the blank. It
year. is used to show ‘obligation’.
(a) is given (b) is being given 70. The synonym of ‘benevolent’ is
(c) was given (d) was being given (a) honest (b) holy (c) generous (d) cruel
l (c) Sentence is in passive voice (simple past) so we will l (c) ‘Generous’ is the synonym of benevolent. Both words
use ‘was given’. mean charitable.
62. The notorious band ……… today. For example, the ‘benevolent’ gentleman donated
(a) has been arrested (b) had been arrested regularly in the orphanage.
(c) was been arrested (d) will have arrested 71. The antonym of ‘realistic’ is
l (a) Use of today indicates present perfect tense. So other (a) imaginary (b) true
options do not match here except (a). (c) reliable (d) authentic
63. Let the picture l (a) ‘Imaginary’ is antonym of realistic, which means
(a) is hung (b) being hung natural or authentic whereas imaginary means which is
(c) be hung (d) been hung unreal or non-existent.
For example, We had a realistic chance of winning. He
l (c) ‘Be hung’ is the correct the answer as sentence is in lives in an imaginary world.
passive voice (imperative type).
72. Gold and silver ………... precious metals.
64. Those cars ……… by robots years ago. (a) is (b) are (c) was (d) am
(a) are being built (b) are built
(c) were built (d) had built l (b) ‘Are’ is correct answer as with plural numbers. We use
‘are’ in simple present tense.
l (c) ‘Were built’ it the correct answer as the sentence is in
passive voice (simple past tense). 73. The wages of sin ……… death.
(a) is (b) are (c) were (d) am
65. The sages said, “You will be winner”.
The sages said l (a) Wages appear to be plural in form but it is singular in
meaning. Wages means salary so use of ‘is’ is correct here.
(a) if he would be winner (b) that he would be winner
(c) that he will be winner (d) that they would be winner 74. A rupee has ………. hundred paise.
l (b) ‘The sages said that he would be winner’ is the correct (a) the (b) a (c) an (d) any
sentence. It is in Indirect speech. Principal verb ‘said’ is in l (b) We pronounce hundred with ‘H sound, therefore we
simple past so whole sentence will be in past tense only. will use ‘a’ instead of ‘an’.
66. Sarla said to me, “I need your help today”. 75. Please give me …………… more tea.
Sarla told me (a) few (b) many
(a) that she needed my help that day (c) some (d) any
(b) that I needed her help that day l (c) ‘Some’ is the correct answer as some shows quantity
(c) that she needed your help that day which is uncountable.
(d) that you needed my help now
76. How ……… money do you need? She asked the boy.
l (a) ‘Sarla told me that she needed my help that day’ is the
correct sentence. It is in Indirect Speech as the principal (a) many (b) some (c) any (d) much
verb is in past tense. l (d) Much is used in uncountable noun. Here money is
uncountable noun.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 9
77. The correctly spelt word is 89. The king was happy ……… people gave him gifts.
(a) comepasion (b) compassion (a) where (b) when (c) whom (d) who
(c) comepation (d) compasion
l (b) ‘When’ is the correct adverb to be used in the sentence.
l (b) ‘Compassion’ is the correctly spelt word here which
means ‘pity’ or ‘sympathy’. 90. She broke the glass ……… was very expensive.
(a) what (b) how (c) who (d) that
78. The correctly spelt world is
(a) depandence (b) deppendance l (d) ‘That’ is correct option. It is used to elaborate details
(c) dependence (d) dependance about glass (adjective clause).
l (c) ‘Dependence’ is the correctly spelt word which means Directions (Q. Nos. 91-93) Reorder the words to make
‘state of relying on’ or ‘helplessness’.
sentences.
79. The Piper stepped ……… the street.
(a) on (b) in (c) into (d) for 91. is / my / democracy / ideal / political
l (c) ‘Into’ is the correct preposition to be used with verb
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
stepped. (a) 1 3 2 5 4 (b) 2 5 4 1 3 (c) 4 2 5 1 3 (d) 1 4 5 3 2

80. The sailors sailed ……… the river. l (b) My political ideal is Democracy.
(a) on (b) down (c) below (d) above 92. ideal/were/ as an/couple/ my parents/regarded
l (a) ‘On’ is the correct preposition as a ship sails on a river (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
meaning/showing its current location. (a) 5 2 6 3 1 4 (b) 3 1 4 6 5 2 (c) 2 4 1 5 6 3 (d) 5 4 6 3 1 2
81. The mail train is due ……… 3 p.m. l (a) My parents were regarded as an ideal couple.
(a) on (b) of (c) by (d) in
93. the model/we/the outlook/of/changed
l (c) ‘By’ is the correct preposition to be used to make the
sentence meaningful. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(a) 2 1 5 4 3 (b) 4 1 5 3 2 (c) 2 5 3 4 1 (d) 1 5 3 2 4
82. The tiger is now confined …………… national parks.
l (c) We changed the outlook of the model.
(a) to (b) off (c) at (d) of
l (a) ‘To’ is used after verb confined other options are not 94. The correct suffix that goes with the word ‘charge’ is
suitable. For example, The dog is confined to the floor. (a) - ment (b) - ity (c) - ish (d) - able

83. He learnt to play physical games. ……… ? l (d) ‘Able’ is the correct suffix that goes with ‘charge’. The
(a) Did he (b) Didn’t you word becomes chargeable.
(c) Doesn’t he (d) Didn’t he 95. The correct prefix that goes with the word ‘legal’ is
l (d) ‘didn’t he’ is the correct question tag to be used with a (a) un- (b) il- (c) in- (d) im-
sentence which is simple past tense (affirmative). l (b) The correct prefix with the word is ‘Il’ which makes the
84. I ain’t interested in video games. ……… ? word ‘Illegal’.
(a) Is you (b) Aren’t you (c) Am I (d) Are you
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-97) Choose the correct meaning of
l (c) ‘Am I’ is the correct question tag to be used here with a the given phrasal verbs.
sentence in simple present tense (negative type).
96. ‘Call for’
85. Be just ……… fear not. (a) shout (b) allow (c) require (d) give
(a) or (b) but (c) and (d) if
l (c) ‘Require’ is the most appropriate answer. For example,
l (c) Use of conjunction ‘and’ is appropriate here. Other His plan will call for a lot of money.
options are not suitable.
97. The company ‘turned down’ his application.
86. Catch me ……… you can. (a) rejected (b) put on table (c) accepted (d) entered
(a) or (b) but (c) and (d) if
l (a) Rejected is the correct meaning of phrasal verb ‘turned
l (c) ‘If’ is correct option be used in the blank for making the down’.
sentence meaningful.
98. The correct example of homophones is
87. Nalini’s grandfather died ……… she was born. (a) care - cure (b) liar - layer
(a) but (b) before (c) and (d) so (c) except - accept (d) gold - glad
l (b) ‘Before’ preposition is appropriate here to show an action l (c) Except - Accept is correct example of Homophone.
which took place earlier than a certain point of time. Homophones are two or more words having the same
pronunciation but different meanings.
88. The police caught the thief ……… looted travellers
Except means — not including (Every one except Shivani
in the passenger trains. were happy).
(a) which (b) whom (c) who (d) whose
Accept means — receive with approval. (He accepted the
l (c) ‘Who’ is correct option which used for ‘thief’ mentioned invitation).
in the sentence.
10 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

99. A person who seeks to promote the welfare of 100. A poem consisting of fourteen iambic pentameter
others is lines is
(a) atheist (b) philanthropist (a) lyric (b) ballad
(c) fatalist (d) pessimist (c) ode (d) sonnet
l (b) Philanthropist l (d) Sonnet

Paper II Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

101. Consider the following five graphs (note the axes 103. A ball is shot vertically upward with a given initial
carefully). Which of the following represents motion velocity. It reaches a maximum height of 100 m. If
at constant speed? on a second shot, the initial velocity is doubled, then
the ball will reach a maximum height of
(a) 70.7 m (b) 141.4 m (c) 200 m (d) 400 m
Distance

Speed

l (d) Given, maximum height (H) = 100 m

From question, if on a second shots, the initial velocity
(u) gets doubled,
Time Time So, H µ (u)2
(A) (B) 2
H æ u1 ö
=ç ÷ (Here u2 = 2u1 )
H ¢ è u2 ø
Acceleration

2
H æ u1 ö H u
=ç Þ = 1
Velocity

÷
H ¢ è 2u1 ø H ¢ 4u1
H 1
Þ =
Time Time H¢ 4
(C) (D) 100 1
Þ = = 400
H¢ 4
Hence, maximum height (H¢) achieved by ball at second
shot will be 400 m.
Acceleration

104. Let M denotes the mass of earth and let R denotes its
radius. The ratio g / G at earth’ s surface is
Time (a) R 2 / M (b) M / R 2 (c) M / R (d) R / M
(E)
GM
l (b) Acceleration due to gravity (g) =
(a) D only (b) D and E R2
(c) A, B and C (d) A and D where, G = universal gravitational constant,
l (d) If an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of R = radius of Earth
time, then it is said to be moving at constant or uniform and M = mass of Earth
speed.
Ratio of G/g at the surface of Earth,
Graph A represent distance-time constantly starting from GM
origin. g 2 M
Similarly, graph D represent velocity-time constantly. = R = 2
G G R
Hence, graphs A and D represent the motion at constant
speed. 1
\ M / R2
102. A bullet of mass 50 g is horizontally fired with a
velocity 100 ms-1 from a gun of mass 10 kg. What 105. The unit ‘hertz’ is same as
will be the recoil velocity of the gun ? (a) second (b) second –1 (c) metre (d) metre –1
-1 -1 -1
(a) 100 ms (b) 500 ms (c) 0.5 ms (d) Zero l (b) Hertz is the SI unit of frequency. It is defined as the
l (c) Given, mass of bullet (m2 ) = 50 g = 0.5 kg = 50 ´ 10 -3 kg number of complete waves (or oscillations) produced in
one second or the number of vibration per second. So, it
Mass of gun (m1 ) = 10kg
becomes inverse of second.
and final velocity (v2 ) = 100ms -1 1
According to law of conservation of momentum, The correct answer is , i.e. second-1 .
second
m1 v1 + m2 v2 = m1 v1 + m2 v2
- m1 v1 = m2 v2 106. A sound wave has a frequency of 10 kHz and
-10 ´ v1 = 50 ´ 10 -3 ´ 100 wavelength 3 mm. How much time will it take to
50 ´ 10 -3 ´ 100 travel 3m?
v1 = = 0.5 (a) 0.1 s (b) 1 s
10
(c) 10 s (d) 0.01 s
Therefore, recoil velocity of gun (v) = 0.5 ms -1 .
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 11
l (a) Given, frequency (n) = 10 kHz = 10 ´ 103 Hz l (b) For the given circuit, we find the resistance
Wavelength (l) = 3mm = 3 ´ 10-3 m 1Ω 2Ω
We know that,
Speed of wave (v) = nl 1Ω 3Ω 2Ω
A B
v = 10 ´ 103 ´ 3 ´ 10 -3
1Ω 2Ω
v = 30 m/s
Distance 3m 1
\ Time = = = s = 01. s Circuit 1 Circuit 2
Speed 30m/s 10 Ciruit 1 (in parallel combination),
1 1 1 1
107. The size of image formed by a concave mirror is = + +
R R1 R2 R3
same as the size of object. The position of the object
1 1 1 1
will be = + +
(a) at F (b) between F and C R 1 1 1
1
(c) at C (d) between C and infinity \ R=
3
l (c) At centre of curvature (C), it gives real, inverted and
equal to the object image. When we place an object at F Circuit 2 (in parallel combination),
1 1 1 1
(focus) in concave mirror, it gives real, inverted and = + +
extremely magnified image of object. R 2 2 2
1 1 +1 +1
When we place image in between focus (F) and centre of =
inverted curvature (C), it gives real and bigger than object R 2
image. Hence, it will form the image of same the size of 2
\ R=
object. 3
When we place image in between centre of curvature (C) Now, the equivalent resistance between points A and B
and infinity, it gives real, inverted and diminished image. 1 2 12
Req = + 3 + = = 4W
3 3 3
108. A convex has focal length 30 cm. If an object is
placed at a distance of 15 cm from it, then the 111. 4 bulls rated 100 W each, operate for 6 hours per
magnification produced by the lens is day. What is the cost of the energy consumed in
(a) 6.66 (b) 0.5 (c) 1 (d) 2 30 days at the rate of ` 5 / kWh ?
l (d) Given, focal length (f) = 30 cm (a) ` 360 (b) ` 90 (c) ` 120 (d) ` 400
Distance of object (u) = 15 cm l (a) Given,
Magnification (m) = ?
No. of Device Power (kW) Time Energy
By Lens formula, devices (Hour) (kWh)
1 1 1 1 1 1
- = Þ = + 100 12
v u f v f u 4 Bulb ´4 6
1 1 1 1000 5
Þ = + (Q it is convex lens, so u = -15 cm)
v 30 (-15) 12
Energy consumed in 1 day = kWh
Þ v = - 30 cm 5
v -30 12
Magnification (m) produced by lens = = =2 \ Energy consumed in 30 days = ´ 30 = 72 kWh
u -15 5
As, 1 kWh rate of ` 5
109. The electrical resistivity of a conducting wire is K. If
\ 72 kWh = 72 ´ 5 = ` 360
its length and area of cross-section are doubled,
then the new resistivity of the wire will be 112. An electric current is passed through a straight
(a) K (b) 2K (c) K / 2 (d) K / 4 wire. Magnetic compasses are placed at the points
l (a) Resistivity of a conductor is defined as the resistance of A and B. True statement is
a conductor of unit length and unit area of cross-section. A
The resistivity of a material does not depend on its length B
(l) and area of cross-section ( A), i.e. it is independent.
(a) their needles will not deflect
110. What is the equivalent resistance of the given circuit (b) only one of the needles will deflect
between points A and B ? (c) both the needles will deflect in the same direction
1Ω 2Ω (d) the needles will deflect in the opposite direction
l (d) An electric current through a metallic conductor
1Ω 3Ω 2Ω produces magnetic field around it. The direction of
A B magnetic field produced by the electric current is reversed.
1Ω 2Ω Hence, when a magnetic compass is placed in above figure,
the direction of magnetic field will be opposite as given.
(a) 10W (b) 4W A
14 17 B
(c) W (d) W
3 6
12 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

113. Which diagram below illustrates the path of a light 119. The polymer formed by condensation of adipic acid
ray as it travels from a given point X in air to and hexamethylene diamine is
another given point Y in glass? (a) isoprene (b) rayon (c) terylene (d) nylon-6, 6
Y
Glass
l (d) The polymer formed by condensation of adipic acid
(a) Glass (b) Y
and hexamethylene diamine is nylon-6,6. The numerals
6,6 represent number of carbon atoms in the monomers.
Air Air
120. The method for separation of mixture of common
X X
salt and ammonium chloride is
(a) fractional distiliation (b) sublimation
Glass Y Glass Y (c) chromatography (d) crystallisation
(c) (d)
l (b) Ammonium chloride sublimates at room temperature
Air Air while sodium chloride (table salt) does not. Hence,
sublimation can be applied to separate the mixture of
X these two.
X
l (d) When a light travels from a rarer medium to a denser 121. Number of molecules present in 14 g of N2 molecule is
one, it bends towards the normal (i>r) and when travels (a) 6.022 ´ 1023 (b) 3.011 ´ 1023
from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away . ´ 1023
(c) 151 (d) 6.022 ´ 1022
from the normal (i< r).
l (b) 1 mole of N 2 (i.e. 28 g of N 2 ) contains 6.022 ´ 1023
114. Conjugate base of HCl in the following reaction is molecules (Avogadro number).
6.022 ´ 1023
HCl ( aq ) + H2O —® Cl -( aq) + H3O+ 14 g of N2 = ´ 14 = 3.011 ´ 1023
(a) H3O + (b) H2O 28
(c) Cl – (d) HCl Hence, 14 g of N2 (0.5 mol) will have 3.011 ´ 1023
molecules.
l (c) Conjugate base of any species is obtained by removing
H+ ion from that species. Hence, Cl - ion is the conjugate 122. Which of the following elements has an electronic
base of HCl. configuration 2, 8, 6 ?
(a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen
(c) Phosphorus (d) Chlorine
115. The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is
(a) CaSO 4 (b) CaSO 4 .2H2O l (a) The electronic configuration 2,8,6 represents atomic
(c) CaSO 4 .1/2H2O (d) CaSO 4 .H2O number16 (2 + 8 + 6 = 16), which is the atomic number of
sulphur.
l (c) Chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is represented as
CaSO4 ×1 / 2 H2 O or (CaSO4 )2 × H2 O. 123. Which of the following elements shows variable
116. Which type of catalyst is ethanol in the following valency?
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Fe (d) Zn
reaction?
C2 H 5 OH
CHCl 3 + O2 ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® 2 COCl 2 + 2 HCl l (c) Iron (Fe) shows variable valency, while all the given
elements show only one type of valency.
(a) Positive catalyst (b) Negative catalyst
(c) Bio-catalyst (d) Autocatalyst Element Valency
l (b) For the given reaction, ethanol (C2 H 5 OH) acts as a Iron (Fe) 2, 3
negative catalyst as it decreases the rate of reaction. Sodium (Na) 1
Magnesium (Mg) 2
117. Metalloid among the following is
Zinc (Zn) 2
(a) lithium (b) sulphur
(c) sodium (d) silicon
124. Formula of aluminium carbonate is
l (d) Silicon is a metalloid. Lithium and sodium are metals, (a) Al 2 (CO 3 )3 (b) Al 2CO 3 (c) Al 2HCO 3 (d) AlCO 3
while sulphur is a non-metal.
l (a) The chemical formula of aluminium carbonate is as
CH3 follows:
118. The IUPAC name of C == CH2 is Al CO3
CH3 º Al2 (CO3 )3
(a) 1, 1 dimethyl-2- ethene 3 2
(b) 2-methyl-1 propene
(c) 2, 2-dimethyl ethene 125. Formula of freon-112 is
(d) 2-methyl prop-2-ene (a) C 2F2Cl 4 (b) CF2Cl 2 (c) CFCl 3 (d) CCl 3F

l (b) IUPAC name for the given structure is l (a) Freon 112 is a refrigerant which has following structure
Cl F
2-methyl-1-propene.
CH 3 ½ ½
Cl ¾ C ¾ C ¾Cl
½ ½ ½
CH 3 ¾ C == CH 2 F Cl
3 2 1
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 13
126. The element X reacting with chlorine forms a water 133. The substance not essential for photosynthesis is
soluble compound having high melting point. (a) sunlight (b) chlorophyll
Element X is (c) nitrogen (d) carbon dioxide
(a) magnesium (b) argon (c) carbon (d) neon l (c) Among the given options, the substance that is not
l (a) Magnesium reacts with chlorine to form magnesium essential for photosynthesis is nitrogen. Photosynthesis is
chloride (MgCl 2) which is water soluble and has high a process in which solar energy is converted into chemical
melting point. energy. In this process, carbon dioxide and water react in
the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form glucose
127. Which tissue is found in fibrous covering of cocount? and oxygen is released as a byproduct.
(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma Sunlight
6CO2 +12 H 2 O ¾¾¾® C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O + 6 O2 ­
(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Meristematic tissue Chlorophyll Glucose
l (c) Sclerenchyma is found in fibrous covering of coconut.
It is a simple, dead and protective tissue with highly-thick 134. The nature of nerve impulse is
walled cells alongwith little or no protoplasm. The (a) chemical (b) magnetic
thickening of the wall may be made up of cellulose or (c) electrochemical (d) electromagnetic
lignin or both. l (c) The nature of nerve impulse is electrochemical.
A nerve impulse may be defined as wave of depolarisation
128. Nucleus of the cell was discovered by of the membrane of the nerve cell.
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Leeuwenhoek
(c) Robert Brown (d) Virchow 135. The examples of uricotelic animals are
l (c) Nucleus of the cell was discovered by Robert Brown in (a) fishes (b) reptiles
1831. It is a specialised double membrane bound largest (c) amphibians (d) mammals
cell organelle. It contains nucleolus and all the genetic l (b) The examples of uricotelic animals are reptiles. They
information for controlling cellular metabolism as DNA or excrete uric acid as nitrogenous waste to conserve water in
chromatin. their bodies, e.g. lizards, snakes, etc.
129. Which of the following is a plant hormone? 136. According to Mendel, in monohybrid cross the
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine (c) Cytokinin (d) Oestrogen genotypic ratio of F2 -generation is
l (c) Among the given options, cytokinin is a plant hormone. (a) 3 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 1
It is basic in nature, which is either aminopurine or phenyl l (d) According to Mendel, in monohybrid cross the
urea derivative. It promotes cell division. It is essential for genotypic ratio of F2 - generation is 1 : 2 : 1. In
tissue culture and promotes morphogenesis. F1 -generation all offspring are hybrid. On self-pollination
of F1 offsprings, in F2 - generation, one homozygous
130. Plant group more sensitive to the levels of sulphur dominant, two heterozygous dominant and one
dioxide in air is homozygous recessive trait organisms are obtained.
(a) Thallophyta (b) Lichen TT tt
(c) Pteridophyta (d) Gymnosperm (Tall) (Dwarf) P-generation

l (b) The plant group more sensitive to the levels of sulphur (Hybrid Tall)
Tt
dioxide in air is lichen. They (lichens) are dual organisms F1 -generation
Gametes
which possess a permanent symbiotic association of a T t
fungus or mycobiont and an alga or phycobiont. Lichens On selfing
T t
are not found in SO2 or acid rain affected areas.
T TT Tt
(Pure Tall) (Hybrid Tall)
131. Examples of perennial evergreen and woody plants F2 -generation
t Tt tt
are (Hybrid Tall) (Pure Dwarf)
(a) Funaria, Marchantia (b) Marsilea, Horsetail
(c) Cycas, Pinus (d) Ulothrix, Spirogyra Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
l (c) Among the given options, the examples of perennial,
evergreen and woody plants are Cycas and Pinus. They are 137. Example of connective tissue is
gymnospermic plants. Their seeds do not occur inside a (a) cartilage (b) skeletal muscles
fruit, thus, they remain exposed over the surface of the (c) skin of animals (d) nerve cells
megasporophylls.
l (a) Example of connective tissue is cartilage. It is a
132. Turgidity of cell is maintained by specialised connective tissue. It is found more abundantly
(a) Vacuole (b) Lysosome (c) Plastid (d) Golgi body in vertebrate embryos, while it is only found in the few places
of body of adult vertebrates, e.g. ear pinna, trachea, etc.
l (a) The turgidity of cell is maintained by vacuole. They are
non-cytoplasmic area present inside the cytoplasm which 138. The example of egg laying mammal is
are separated from the latter by specific membranes (a) bat (b) kangaroo
(Tonoplast). They content very high level of water which (c) pigeon (d) echidna
helps in maintaining turgidity of cell by osmoregulation.
l (d) The example of egg laying mammal is echidna. It
Depending upon the content and functions, vacuoles are
belongs to the sub-class Prototheria of class Mammalia. Its
of four types; viz sap vacuoles, contractile vacuoles, food
body is covered with strong pointed spines.
vacuoles and air vacuoles.
14 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

139. Non-communicable disease is 143. If a , b are zeros of polynomial x 2 - p ( x + 1) - k such

(a) cancer (b) AIDS (c) amoebiasis (d) jaundice that (a + 1)(b + 1) = 6, then value of k is
l (a) Among the given options, cancer is a (a) 5 (b) –1
non-communicable disease. It involves an abnormal and (c) –3 (d) –5
uncontrolled division in some cells. Cancer cells are
l (d) Given, a, b are zeros of polynomial.
different from normal cells in some aspects as in some
cases they do not remain confined to one part of the body x2 - p(x + 1) - k or x2 - px - (p + k)
and show metastasis. \ Sum of roots, a + b = p and ab = - (p + k) ...(i)
Since, (a + 1)(b + 1) = 6
140. Animals of which phylum are pseudocoelomate?
Þ ab + ( a + b) + 1 = 6
(a) Porifera (b) Platyhelminthes
(c) Aschelminthes (d) Mollusca Þ -(p + k) + p + 1 = 6 [using Eq. (i)]
l (c) The animals of Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate Þ -k + 1 = 6
because their mesoderm is found as scattered pouches in Þ -k = 5
between the ectoderm and endoderm, and originated from Þ k = -5
blastocoeld. Such a body cavity is called pseudocoelom
and animals possessing them are called 144. Which is unit digit of 618 - 510 ?
pseudocoelomates, e.g. Ascaris. (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 1 (d) 9
l (c) We have, 618
-5 10
3+2 3
141. If = a + 3 b, then the value of a + b, where Now, 61 = 6 , 51 = 5
3- 3 62 = 36, 52 = 25
a and b are rational numbers is 63 = 216, 53 = 125
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 16 64 = 1296, 54 = 625
3+2 3
l (c) Given, = a + 3b For every positive integral power of 6 and 5 having unit
3- 3 digit 6 and 5 respectively.
3+2 3 3+ 3
Þ ´ = a + 3b \ Unit digit of 618 - 510 = 6 - 5 = 1
3- 3 3+ 3
9 + 6 3 + 3 3 + 2 ´3 145. In the following figure QT^ PR and QS = PS. If
Þ = a+ 3b
9 -3 ÐTQR = 40º and ÐRPS = 20º, then value of x is
15 + 9 3 P
Þ = a + 3b
6
5 3
Þ + 3 = a + 3b
2 2 T
On comparing both sides; we get
5 3
a= , b=
2 2 x
5 3 8
Þ\ a+ b = + = = 4 =2
2 2 2
Q S R
142. For which positive values of k and p, equations (a) 80º (b) 25º (c) 15º (d) 35º
2 x 2 + px + 8 = 0 and p ( x 2 + x ) + k = 0 have equal l (c) We have, in DPQS
roots?
QS = PS
(a) k = 1, p = 4 (b) k = 2, p = 8
(c) k = 4, p = 8 (d) k = 2, p = 4 Þ ÐQPS = ÐPQS = x + 40°
P
l (b) Given equations, 2 x2 + px + 8 = 0 and p(x2 + x) + k = 20°
or px + px + k = 0 have equal roots.
2

\ Both have discriminant equal to zero. x+40°

T
\ P2 - 4 ´ 2 ´ 8 = 0
Þ P2 = 64
Þ P = ±8
Þ P=8 x
[Q P > 0] 40° 50°
Again, P - 4 pk = 0
2
Q S R
when P=8
Now, ÐQPR = ÐQPS + ÐRPS
(8)2 - 4 ´ 8 k = 0
= (x + 40° ) + 20° = x + 60°
Þ 32 k = 64
And also, in DQTR
Þ k =2
ÐTRQ = 180°-(ÐQTR + ÐTQS)
\ k = 2, p = 8
= 180°- (90°+40° ) = 180° - 130° = 50°
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 15
In DQPR, 1 12
Þ =
ÐQPR + ÐPQR + ÐPRQ = 180° (angle sum properly of tanq x
triangle) 1 12
Þ =
(x + 60° ) + (x + 40° ) + 50° = 180° 3/4 x
Þ 2 x + 150° = 180° 3
Þ x = 12 ´ =9m
Þ 2 x = 30° 4
Þ x = 15° cos A cos A
148. If m = and n = , then ( m2 + n2 ) cos2 B is
1 1 cos B sin B
146. Which term of AP 20, 19 , 18 , ..... is first negative
4 2 equal to
term? (a) m2 (b) n2 (c) m2 + n2 (d) m + n
(a) 18th (b) 15th (c) 28th (d) 27th cos A cos A
l (b) Given, m = and n =
l (c) Given AP, cos B sin B
1 1 æ cos2
A cos2 A ö
20,19 ,18 , ……… Now, (m2 + n2 )cos2 B = ç + ÷ × cos B
2

4 2 è cos B
2
sin2 B ø
77 77 - 80 -3 æ sin2 B + cos2 B ö
Here, a = 20, d = - 20 = = = cos2 Aç ÷ × cos B
2
4 4 4 è cos2 B sin2 B ø
Here, Tn = a + (n - 1)d
= cos2 Aæç 2 ö÷
1
-3 (Q sin2 x + cos2 x = 1)
= 20 + (n - 1)æç ö÷ è sin B ø
è4 ø
cos2 A
= 20 -
3 n 3 83 3 n
+ = - = = n2
4 4 4 4 sin2 B
For first negative term, Tn < 0 149. If ratio of heights of two similar triangles is 4 : 9,
83 - 3 n then ratio between their areas is
Þ <0
4 (a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 81:16 (d) 16: 81
Þ 83 - 3 n < 0
l (d) Given ratio of heights of two similar triangle is 4 : 9 We
Þ 83 < 3 n know that ratio of areas of two similar triangle is equal to
83 the ratio of square of their corresponding altitude.
Þ n>
3 2
\ Required ratio = æç ö÷ = 16 : 81
4
2
Þ n > 27 è9 ø
3
\ n » 28 150. In a circle of 10 cm radius, two chords
AB = AC = 12cm, then the length of the chord BC is
147. The angles of elevation of the top of a 12 m high
(a) 12 cm (b) 9.6 cm (c) 19.2 cm (d) 7.2 cm
tower from two points in opposite directions with it
are complementary. If distance of one point from its l (c) Given, radius of circle = 10 cm
base is 16 m, then distance of second point from and chords AB = AC = 12 cm
tower’s base is B
(a) 24 m (b) 9 m A
(c) 12 m (d) 18 m P
l (b) Let PQ be a tower of height 12 m and A and B are two
points in opposite directions with tower and angles of O
elevation are complementary. C
P

Here, AO is perpendicular bisector of BC and passes

through the centre O.
Now, in DABP, ÐP = 90°
12 m
AB2 = AP2 + BP2
θ (90 – θ) Þ BP2 = AB2 - AP2
A B = 122 - AP2 …(i)
16 m Q x
In DOPB, BO2 = BP2 + OP2
PQ 12 3 Þ BP2 = BO2 - OP2
Now, in DAPQ, tanq = = =
AQ 16 4 Þ BP2 = 102 - OP2
PQ 12
and in DBQP, tan(90 - q) = = = 100 - ( AO - AP)2
BQ x
= 100 - (10 - AP)2
12
Þ cot q = [where, x be the distance of = 100 - (100 + AP2 - 20 AP)
x
second point from tower’s base] = - AP2 + 20 AP …(ii)
16 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get Now, area of shaded region
122 - AP2 = - AP2 + 20 AP = 2 ´ area of quadrant ABPD - area of square ABCD
Þ 144 = 20 AP Þ AP = 7.2 550
=2 ´ - (10)2
Again from Eq. (i), we get 7
BP2 = 122 - (7.2)2 = 144 - 5184 1100 - 100 ´ 7 1100 - 700 400
. = = = cm2 (sq. unit)
= 92.16 7 7 7
Þ BP = 92.16 = 9.6 153. Find the capacity of a glass which is in the shape of
\ BC = 2 BP = 2 ´ 9.6 = 19.2 cm frustum of height 14 cm and diameters of both
151. If mean of 10 consecutive odd numbers is 120, then circular ends are 4 cm and 2 cm.
the mean of first five odd numbers among them is 308 298 3
(a) cm3 (b) cm
(a) 113 (b) 115 (c) 114 (d) 116 3 21
298 2
l (b) Let 10 consecutive odd numbers are (c) 112 cm2 (d) cm
21
x + 1, x + 3, x + 5, x + 7, x + 9,
l (a) Given, height of frustum, h = 14 cm
x + 11, x + 13, x + 15, x + 17, x + 19
and diameters of both circular ends are 4 cm and 2 cm
According to question,
(x + 1) + (x + 3) + (x + 5) + (x + 7) + (x + 9) \ 2 r1 = 4 Þ r1 = 2 cm
and 2 r2 = 2 Þ r2 = 1 cm
+ (x + 11) + (x + 13) + (x + 15) + (x + 17) + (x + 19)
= 120 Now, volume of frustum
10 ph 2
Þ 10 x + (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 +13 + 15 + 17 + 19) = 1200 = (r1 + r22 + r1 r2 )
3
10 x + 100 = 1200 Þ 10 x = 1100 22
´ 14
Þ x = 110 = 7 (22 + 12 + 2 ´ 1)
Now, mean of first five odd numbers 3
(x + 1) + (x + 3) + (x + 5) + (x + 7) + (x + 9) 22 ´ 2 44
= = (4 + 1 + 2) = ´7
5 3 3
5 x + 25 =
308
cm3
= = x+5
5 3
= 110 + 5 (Q x = 110) æ 23 33 ö
= 115 154. If a point P ç , ÷, divides line AB joining two
è5 5 ø
152. Find the area of shaded region, where side of points A(3, 5) and B( x , y ) internally in ratio of 2 : 3,
square ABCD is 10 cm and two arcs drawn from two then the values of x and y will be
opposite vertices of the sequare. (a) x = 4, y = 7 (b) x = 5, y = 9
D C (c) x = 7, y = 9 (d) x = 7, y = 8
æ 23 , 33 ö
l (c) ç ÷
è5 5 ø
P
A (3, 5) m n B (x,y)
Given, m : n = 2 : 3
A B Now, by using section formula
10 cm 2 ´ x + 3 ´ 3 23
=
200 400 2+3 5
(a) sq unit (b) sq unit
7 7 2 x + 9 23
600 100 Þ =
(c) sq unit (d) sq unit 5 5
7 7 Þ 2 x + 9 = 23
l (b) Area of sector, ABPD (quadrant ) Þ 2 x = 14
22 Þ x =7
´ 100
pr2 22 / 7 ´ (10)2 22 ´ 25 550 2 ´ y + 3 ´ 5 33
= = = 7 = = cm2 and =
4 4 4 7 7 2+3 5
D C 2 y + 15 33
Þ = Þ 2 y + 15 = 33
90° 5 5
Þ 2 y = 18 Þ y =9
P
155. If a leap year is elected randomly, then what is the
probability of having 53 Mondays in this year ?
Q 1 2 53 52
90° (a) (b) (c) (d)
A B 7 7 366 365
10 cm
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 17
l (b) In a leap year, there are 366 days. It means 52 full Now, GD is the median of DGBC
weeks + 2 days. These two days can be (Mon, Tues), \ ar (DBGD) = ar(DCGD)
(Tues, Wed), (Wed, Thurs), (Thurs, Fri), (Fri, Sat), (Sat, Þ ar (DCGD) = 1 …(iii)
Sun), (Sun, Mon)
Similarly ar (DCGE) = ar(DAEG) = 1 …(iv)
2
So, required probability = as GE is the median of D AGC
7
Now,
156. If the length of circumference of a circle is 60 cm ar (DDCEG) = or(DCGD) + ar (DAEG)
more than its diameter, then length of its = 1 + 1 = 2 cm2 [using Eqs. (iii) and (iv)]
circumference is
(a) 14p cm (b) 28 p cm 158. What is the radian value of angle 60 º 30 ¢ ?
(c) 35p cm (d) 42 p cm pc 121 c 121pc 121 c
(a) (b) p (c) (d) p
l (b) Let radius of circle be r. 3 360 180 540
Then, according to question ° °
(b) 60°30 ¢ = æç60 +
30 ö æ 1ö
l ÷ = ç60 + ÷
2 pr = 2 r + 60 è 60 ø è 2ø
Þ pr = r + 30 °
p
= æç
121 ö 121
Þ r(p - 1) = 30 ÷ = ´ radian
è 2 ø 2 180
30
Þ r= 121 121 c
p -1 = p radian = p
360 360
Now, circumference = 2pr
30 30 159. The diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%. By
= 2p ´ = 2p ´
p -1 22 what per cent does its curved surface area decrease?
-1
7 (a) 25% (b) 56.25%
30 ´ 7 30 ´ 7 (c) 4375
. % (d) 62.5%
= 2p ´ = 2p ´
22 - 7 15 l (c) Let radius of sphere = r, diameter = 2r
= 28p cm Then, surface area of sphere = 4 pr2
Given, diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%.
157. In given DABC, AD and BE are medians of triangle 75 3 r
New diameter = (2 r) ´ =
which intersect each other at point G. If area of 100 2
DBDG is 1 cm2 , then what is the area of DCEG ? and radius =
3r
A 4
New surface area of sphere
2
9 r2 9 pr2
= 4 p æç ö÷ = 4 p ´
3r
=
E è4 ø 16 4
G
9 p r2
7 pr2
\ Decrease surface areas = 4 pr2 - =
4 4
Per cent decrease in surface area
B D C
7 pr2
(a) 2 cm2 (b) 3 cm2 (c) 4 cm2 (d) 1 cm2
= 4 2 ´ 100
l (a) Given, AD and BE are medians of D ABC. 4 pr
A 7
= ´ 100
16
2 = 43.75%
E
2 G 160. Value of ( x - y )3 + ( y - z)3 + ( z - x )3 is
1
(a) ( x - y)3 + ( y - z)3 ( z - x)3
2 (b) 3( x - y)( y - z)( z - x)
B D C (c) x3 + y3 + z3 - 3 xyz
(d) x3 + y3 + z3 - 2 x2 y - 2 y2 z - 2 z2 x
1
\ ar ( ABD) = ar (DABC) …(i) l (b) Let a = x - y,
2
1 b = y - z,
and ar (DABE) = ar (DABC) …(ii)
2 and c = z - x
On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get Here,
ar (DABD) - ar (DABE) = 0 a + b + c = (x - y) + (y - z) + (z - x) = 0
Þ ar (DABG) + ar (DBGD) - ar (DABG) - ar (DAGE) = 0 Þ (x - y)3 + (y - z)3 + (z - x)3 = 3(x - y)(y - z)(z - x)
Þ ar (DBGD) - ar (DAGE) = 0 (Q If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3 abc)
Þ ar (DBGD) = ar(DAGE) = 1
18 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

161. Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the 165. The year of the partition of Bengal was
correct code from the following. (a) 1903 (b) 1905 (c) 1907 (d) 1909
List-I List-II l (b) The British Government announced the idea for
Partition of Bengal in January 1904 on the grounds of
A. Meeting of the Estates General (i) 20th June, 1789 administrative reasons since Bengal was geographically as
B. Bastille was destroyed on (ii) 4th August, 1789 large as France and had a significantly larger population.
The partition took place on 16th October, 1905, by Viceroy
C. Abolishment of feudal system (iii) 14th July, 1789
Curzon. Now the province of Bengal was divided into two
in France
new provinces-‘Bengal’ (comprising West Bengal, Bihar
D. Swore of Tennis Court (iv) 5th May, 1789 and Odisha) and ‘Eastern Bengal and Assam’. But it was
not supported by the people of Bengal as they considered it
Codes as the ‘Divide and Rule’ policy of the British Government.
A B C D A B C D 166. Which one of the following countries was not among
(a) i ii iii iv (b) iv iii ii i
the Allied Powers ?
(c) iv i ii iii (d) i iv iii ii
(a) England (b) France (c) Russia (d) Germany
l (b) The Estates General was made up of different groups
of people called ‘Estates’. It was divided into First Estate, l (d) In World War II, there were two powers namely and
Second Estate and Third Estate. On 5th May, 1789, the Axis Powers. Allied Powers were comprised of Great
King Louis XVI called a meeting of the Estates General Britain, France, the Soviet Union, the United States of
because the French government was having financial America and China. The Axis powers were comprised of
problems. Germany, Japan and Italy.
The Bastille formally known as ‘Saint-Antoine, the 167. When was the publication of Bengal Gazette
Bastille’, was a fortress in Paris which was used as a state initiated?
prison by the kings of France. It was destroyed by a crowd
on 14th July, 1789, in the French Revolution, and became (a) 1750 (b) 1780 (c) 1850 (d) 1880
a symbol for the French Republican movement and later l (b) The Bengal Gazette was started in 1780. It was the first
replaced by the Place de la Bastille. major newspaper in English which published from Kolkata
Abolition of feudalism was an important event of the (then Calcutta), India. It was a weekly newspaper. It was
French Revolution. The National Constituent Assembly published for two years and was ceased by the British
announced on 4th August, 1789 that, ‘The National government on 23rd March, 1782.
Assembly abolishes the feudal system entirely.’
The Tennis Court Oath was also an important event in the 168. Consider the following points
French Revolution. It took place on 20th June, 1789 by the A. Mahatma Gandhi started Salt March with his 78
members of the French Estates-General or the Third
Estate, who called themselves the National Assembly. confidential volunteers.
They took the oath, that ‘‘not to separate, and to B. Mahatma Gandhi violated the Salt law at Dandi
reassemble wherever circumstances require, until the on 20th April, 1930.
Constitution of the kingdom is established’’.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given
162. The state of India where the Jallianwalla Bagh is below
situated, is (a) Only A (b) Only B
(a) Haryana (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) both A and B (d) None of these
(c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan
l (d) The Salt March, also known as Dandi March, was
l (c) Jallianwalla Bagh is situated in Amritsar, Punjab. It is a started by Mahatma Gandhi with his 79 volunteers (stated
public garden which was established in 1951 by the in the Gazateer of India. It was a peaceful Civil
Government of India. It commemorates the massacre of Disobedience Movement against the British Raj and which
peaceful celebrators by Brigadier General R.E.H. Dyer gave impetus to the Indian Independence Movement. It
along with British forces during British India, on 13th was a 25 day march which lasted from 12th March, 1930 to
April, 1919. 6th April, 1930 in Dandi, Gujarat where Gandhiji broke the
‘Salt Law’ by making salt from sea water.
163. The German King in 1871 was
(a) William I (b) Napoleon III 169. After which war the British rule was founded in
(c) Frederik William IV (d) Emmanuel II India?
l (a) William I was the King of Germany in 1871. He was (a) Battle of Sabrao (b) Battle of Panipat
the king of Prussia from the Hohenzollern dynasty. (c) Battle of Plassey (d) Second Anglo Mysore war
l (c) The Battle of Plassey led foundations of British rule in
164. Who discovered the spinning Jenny? India. In 1756, Siraj-ud-Daula succeeded his grandfather
(a) John Ke (b) T.E. Nicholson Alivardi Khan as the Nawab of Bengal who was worried by
(c) Raphael Samuel (d) James Hargreaves the growing power of the British East India Company, as
l (d) The spinning jenny was invented by James Hargreaves they were extending fortification.’ Siraj-ud-Daula ordered
in Stanhill, Lancashire in England in 1764. It is a them to stop this extension but they disobeyed the Nawab.
multi-spindle spinning frame, which had that great This disobedience was changed into Battle of Plassey and
importance in the industrialisation of weaving during the after defeating the Nawab by a conspiracy, the British
early Industrial Revolution. established their power over India.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 19
170. When was the Great Economic Depression between 175. In which Indian forest are silver, fir and pine trees
the two World Wars held? found?
(a) 1921 (b) 1929 (a) Tropical deciduous forest
(c) 1935 (d) 1939 (b) Montane forest
l (b) The Great Depression was the worst and prolonged (c) Mangrove forest
economic downturn in the world history which affected the (d) Tropical evergreen rain forest
whole world and United States particularly. It lasted from l (b) Montane forest are found in mountainous areas. These
1929 to 1940s. This was a significant event between two forests are divided into Wet Temperate, Temperate and
world wars. Alpine forests. The important tree species of these forests
are silver, fir, pine, birches, fir, junipers, etc.
There were many reasons behind this. Some of these are:
176. Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct code
l
Speculation on borrowed money, which led to the
collapse of American Share Market. from the following
l
Rapid selling created further fall in prices. List-I List-II
l
Failure of banks to provide credit to peasants and A. Northern end (i) 8º 4¢ N
industries.
B. Southern end (ii) 37º 6¢ N
l
Economic inactivity due to First World War.
Over the next several years, this event remained in worse C. Eastern end (iii) 68º 7 ¢ E
condition as investment dropped, steep declines in D. Western end (iv) 97º 25¢ E
industrial output and employment.
Codes
171. Who composed Anandamath? A B C D A B C D
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (a) ii iii iv i (b) i ii iv iii
(b) Munsi Premchand (c) ii i iv iii (d) iii ii i iv
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay l (c) India is a South-Asian country with area of 32, 87, 263 sq
km. It is situated on the north of the equator between 8°4 to
l (d) Anandamath is a Bengali fiction which was written by 37°6’ North latitude and 68°7’ to 97°25’ East longitude. It is
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. It was published in the seventh largest country in the world in terms of area and
1882. second largest country in terms of population.
172. ‘Khadar’ is found in 177. Which of the following is the major sugarcane
(a) the Northern mountain region producing state?
(b) Thar desert (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
(c) the vast Northern plain (c) West Bengal (d) Madhya Pradesh
(d) the Peninsular plateau
l (a) As per 2015-16 estimates, Uttar Pradesh is the largest
l (c) The floodplains formed by younger alluvium in the producer of sugarcane as it produces about 41.28% of the
Northern plains are called Khadar. The soil in this region all India production. Maharashtra comes at the second
is highly fertile as this is renewed every year. place with the production of 20.52% followed by Karnataka
(11%) and Tamil Nadu (7.5%).
173. The rising place of the largest river of Peninsular
plateau is 178. Important deposits of which mineral are found in
(a) Betul (b) Nasik Koraput in Odisha ?
(c) Jabalpur (d) Cuddalore (a) Iron ore (b) Coal (c) Copper (d) Bauxite
l (b) Godavari is the second longest river of India and l (d) Koraput is a district of Odisha which lies on the
largest river of Peninsular plateau. Its source lies in Eastern Ghats. It has rich and diverse types of mineral
Triambakeshwar, Nasik, Maharashtra. deposits like limestone, bauxite, China clay, gold, etc.
174. The quantity of rainfall received on the Western 179. In which year was the first successful cotton textile
Ghats by South-West monsoon is mill established in India?
(a) 100-150 cm (a) 1853 (b) 1854 (c) 1855 (d) 1856
(b) 150-200 cm
(c) 200-250 cm l (b) Although the first Indian cotton cloth mill was
(d) Above 250 cm established in 1818 at Fort Gloaster near Kolkata, but this
mill was a failure. In 1854, the first successful modern
l (d) Western Ghats is a mountain range that lies parallel to cotton mill ‘Bombay Spinning and Weaving Company’ was
the Western coast of Indian Peninsula. During the established by KGN Daber in Bombay, India.
Monsoon season (June to September) it receives a good
amount of rainfall (400-500 cm), as the continuous 180. Indian Population Policy 2000 not includes
Western Ghats chain acts as a barrier to the moisture laden (a) free education
Clouds. The Western Ghats do not allow the wind to cross (b) free from diseases
over without shedding their moisture on the Western (c) reducing infant mortality rate below 30
slopes. (d) increase the employment opportunities
20 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

l (d) The National Population Policy 2000 was a policy 185. Which of the following institutions can make
framework of achieving the set goals and prioritising changes to an existing law of our country?
strategies during the next decade. It laid emphasis on (a) Supreme Court of India (b) International Court of Justice
some issues related to public welfare like to meet the (c) Prime Minister (d) Parliament
reproductive and child health needs and to achieve net
replacement levels of TFR (Total Fertility Rate) by 2010. l (d) The Parliament of India has the power to enact a law or
Some of its goals are: bring amendments to the Constitution of India and can
l
To make School Education upto the age of 14 free and change the existing law with retrospective effect.
compulsory, and reduce drop outs at primary and
secondary school levels to below 20% for both boys and
186. Which one of the following is considered as a
girls. Fundamental Right according to the Constitution of
l
To reduce infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live India?
births. (a) Right to Work
l
To achieve universal immunisations of children against (b) Right to Adequate Livelihood
all vaccine preventable diseases. (c) Right to Protect One’s Culture
l
To promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than (d) Right to get Higher Education
age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age and so on. l (c) The Fundamental Rights are sections of the
181. Gas transportation pipeline which passes through Constitution of India which provide basic rights to its
Kota in Rajasthan is citizens. There are six Fundamental Rights such as :
(a) Guwahati– Barauni– Allahabad– Kanpur 1. Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
(b) Barauni– Rajbandh– Haldia 2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
(c) Hazira– Vijaipur– Jagdishpur 3. Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
(d) Salaya– Viramgam– Mathura– Delhi 4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
l (c) Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur gas pipeline is 1,750 km 5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30)
long. It was constructed by Gas Authority of India Limited Article 29 deals with the protection of language, script,
(GAIL) to transport gas. It connects Hazira in Maharashtra and culture of minorities.
to Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh and Jagdishpur in Uttar Article 30 deals with the right of minorities to establish
Pradesh. It passes through Kota in Rajasthan. and administer educational institutions
182. In which State of India is red and yellow soil found? 6. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Rajasthan 187. Match the following in reference to Constitution
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) None of these making process
l (a) Red soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide
List-I List-II
diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It
looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. Often, A. B. N. Rao (i) President of the Constituent
their upper layer is red and the lower layer is yellow. Assembly
These soils are found mainly along the piedmont zone of B. B.R. Ambedkar (ii) Member of the Drafting
the Western Ghats, parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh and Committee
in the Southern parts of the middle Ganga plain. C. Rajendra Prasad (iii) Chairman of the Drafting
Committee
183. In which house is the Finance Bill presented first?
(a) Rajya Sabha D. T.T. Krishnamachari (iv) Legal Advisor
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha anywhere Codes
(d) Reserve Bank of India A B C D A B C D
(a) iv iii i ii (b) iv ii i iii
l (b) Finance Bill is introduced each year in Lok Sabha just (c) i iii iv ii (d) iii iv iii ii
after the presentation of the Union Budget. It is presented
in the Lower House or Lok Sabha to give effect to the l (a) The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India
financial proposals of the Government of India for the which consists of fundamental political principles,
immediately following financial year. procedures, powers and duties of government institutions,
Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and the duties
184. Who among the following is a part of the political of citizens. It is the longest written Constitution in the
executive ? world. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
(a) District Collector 26th November, 1949, and came into effect on 26th
(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs January, 1950. There were many members who were
(c) Home Minister engaged in the Constitution making process like :
(d) Director General of Police l
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar- the Chairman of the Drafting
Committee
l (c) The political executive branch of Indian Government l
B.N. Rao- Legal Advisor
consists of President, Vice-President, Prime Minister and
Council of Ministers. Council of Ministers consists of
l
Dr. Rajendra Prasad- President of the Constituent
Defence Minister, Home Minister, External Minister, Assembly
Finance Minister and so on. l
T.T. Krishnamachari- Member of the Drafting
Committee.
NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I) 21
188. Choose the correct statement describing the word 192. The Vice-President of India is elected by
‘Code of Conduct’. (a) elected members of Lok Sabha
A. A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by (b) all members of Rajya Sabha
Political Parties. (c) elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) all members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and all state
B. A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by Legislative Assemblies
candidates in Election
l (c) The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral
C. Guidelines for Election Commission college consisting of members of both Houses of
D. Compulsory voting for voters Parliament namely the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(a) A, B, C (b) A, B (c) B, C (d) C, D through the Single Transferable Voting System.
l (b) A ‘Code of Conduct’ is a set of norms and guidelines 193. Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct code
which are set for political parties and the candidates who from given codes.
contest election. These rules are expected to be followed
by each political party to act properly and their supporters List-I List-II
during an election campaign.
A. Union List (i) Computer Software
189. According to the Constitution of India, how many B. State list (ii) Communications
maximum number of judges can be appointed in
C. Concurrent list (iii) Police
Supreme Court?
(a) 29 + 1 (b) 30 + 1 D. Residuary powers (iv) Forests
(c) 28 + 1 (d) 31 + 1
Codes
l (b) The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of A B C D A B C D
appeal under the Constitution of India with the power of (a) iii ii i iv (b) ii iii iv i
Constitutional review. It consists of the Chief Justice of
(c) ii iv i iii (d) iv iii ii i
India along with 30 sanctioned other judges. It has
extensive powers of original, appellate and advisory l (b) The division of powers between the Union (Centre)
jurisdictions. and states is provided by the Constitution of India. There
are three lists under which subjects are divided between
190. How many members will be nominated in both the powers like
Legislative Council? l
The Union List 97 subjects under the control of central
1 1 1 1 Government. e.g. Defence, Foreign Affairs, currency and
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 6 4 coinage, war and peace, communications, etc.
l (c) In bicameral legislatures, the Legislative Council or
l
The State List 61 subjects under the jurisdiction of
states. e.g. public order, police, state court fees, prisons,
Vidhan Parishad is the Upper House in some states of
local government, public health and sanitation,
India. According to Article 171 of the Constitution of India, hospitals and dispensaries, police, etc.
the strength of any council shall not exceed 1/3rd of the l
The Concurrent List 52 subjects under the joint control
strength of the State Assembly. But for smaller states, the
of the Centre and States. e.g. criminal law, criminal
minimum strength of the council can be 40. The people of procedure, preventive detention for reasons concerned
the Council are elected through five different with the security of state, marriage and divorce, transfer
constituencies : of property other than agricultural land, forests , etc.
l
One third (1/3rd) of the members are elected by l
Residuary Power The subjects which do not fall in these
representatives of the local authorities such as lists i.e. residuary subjects have been given to the
Municipalities, District Boards, etc. Centre. e.g., computer technology, hardware, software,
l
1/3rd members are elected by the members of the internet regulation, etc.
Legislative Assembly of the State.
l
1/12th members are elected by an electorate of 194. The example of capital is
university graduates. (a) water (b) forest (c) climate (d) machine
l
1/12th members are elected by the electorate consisting l (d) Capital is more durable than money and is used to
of the secondary school teachers. generate wealth through investment like machine tools,
l
1/6th members are nominated by the Governor on the automobiles, software and brand names, etc.
basis of their special knowledge/practical experience in
literature, art, science, cooperative movement or social 195. The rabi crop is
service. (a) Jowar (b) Bajra (Millet)
(c) Maize (d) Wheat
191. By which article of the Constitution of India is the
Prime Minister appointed? l (d) There are three major cropping seasons in India. These
are
(a) 74th (b) 75th (c) 52nd (d) 61st
(i) Rabi (October to March) – Important crops are wheat,
l (b) The Prime Minister of India is the head of the Council oat, barley, etc.
of Ministers and leader of the executive of the Government (ii) Kharif (July to October) – Important crops are rice,
of India. The Prime Minister is also the chief advisor to the millet, maize (corn), cotton, etc.
President of India. Under Article 75 (1), it is stated that (iii) Zaid (March to June) – Important crops are
‘‘the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President’’. watermelon, cucumber, muskmelon, sunflower, etc.
22 NTSE~ SOLVED PAPER 2017 (Stage I)

196. In India, the currency note is issued by (ii) Secondary Sector includes manufacturing,
(a) Reserve Bank of India (b) State Bank of India construction works, etc.
(c) NABARD (d) Bank of India (iii) Tertiary Sector or Service Sector includes Banking
services, mass media, education,
l (a) The Currency Department in Reserve Bank of India information technology, etc.
has the sole right to issue currency notes in India.
199. The Government of India enacted the law of ‘Right
197. The source of institutional credit is to Information’ Act in
(a) money lender (b) landlord (a) October, 2005 (b) November, 2006
(c) bank (d) relatives (c) December, 2007 (d) January, 2008
l (c) Institutional sources of credit are the cooperative l (a) Right to Information (RTI) is an Act of the Parliament
societies, commercial banks, regional rural banks and of India which enacted on October 2005. It provides
state governments. These are the best sources of credit as people the right to request information from a ‘public
compared to private credit sources which charge high rate authority’ or a body of Government which is required to
of interest. reply within thirty days.
198. The example of tertiary sector is 200. The Multinational Company of India is
(a) agriculture (a) Infosys (b) Asian Paints
(b) fisheries (c) Tata Motors (d) All of these
(c) making sugar from sugarcane
(d) banking services l (d) Multinational Companies (MNCs) are business units
which operate and establish their offices simultaneously in
l (d) There are three sectors of economy different countries of the world. In India, some MNCs are
(i) Primary Sector includes agriculture, fishing, mining, Infosys, Tata Motors, Asian Paints, Parle Agro, Dabur, etc.
etc.
 Part-1 : Verbal Reasoning
Chapter

1
Coding-Decoding
Coding means a method to transmit a message between the sender and the receiver without a third person knowing
it. Decoding means the method of making out the actual message that is hidden in coding. In questions based on
coding-decoding a word is coded in a particular way and the candidate are asked to code other word in the sameway.
The questions based on coding-decoding are of the following types

Type I Letter Coding

In these type of questions, the real alphabet letters in a word are replaced by certain other alphabet letters
according to a specific rule to form its code. The students are required to detect the common rule and answer the
questions accordingly.
It is always easy to handle numbers than alphabet letters. So, if there is a set of questions on alphabet coding in the
exam, it is better to use this table to decode the code.
Left to Right
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

To Remember ! E J O T Y C F I L O R U X
5 10 15 20 25 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24

Right to Left
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
M L K J I H G F E D C B A
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26

To Remember ! B G L Q V C F I L O R U X
25 20 15 10 5 24 21 18 15 12 9 6 3

Series of Opposite Alphabets

A B C D E F G
Z Y X W V U T
H I J K L M
S R Q P O N
î Sum of the positional numbers of opposite letters in the alphabet is always 27.
4 Study Package for NTSE

Example 1 If TAP is coded as SZO, then how will be FREEZE coded?

(a) EQDFYG (b) ESDFYF (c) GQFDYF (d) EQDDYD
Solution (d) Clearly, each letter in the word TAP is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the
code.
S Z O
–1↑↑ –1 ↑ –1
T A P
Thus, in FREEZE, F will be coded as E, R as Q , E as D and Z as Y.
So, the code of FREEZE becomes EQDDYD.

Type II Number-Alphabet Coding

In these type of questions, either numerical code values are assigned to a word or alphabetical code letters are
assigned to the numbers. The students are required to analyse the code as per the directions given.
Example 2 If in a certain language A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2, C is coded as 3 and so on, how is BIDDIC coded
in that language?
(a) 294493 (b) 284563 (c) 375582 (d) 394492
Solution (a) As given the letters are coded as
A B C D E F G H I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
So, in BIDDIC, B is coded as 2, I as 9, D as 4 and C as 3. Thus, BIDDIC is coded as 294493.

Example 3 In a certain code, 15789 is written as XTZAL and 2346 is written as NPSU. How is 23549 written in that
code?
(a) NPTUL (b) PNTSL (c) NPTSL (d) NBTSL
Solution (c) Looking into the method of coding, it is clear that 2 is coded as N, 3 as P, 5 as T, 4 as S and 9 as L.
So, 23549 is coded as NPTSL.

Type III Substitution Coding

In these type of questions, some particular objects are assigned codes. Then, a question is asked that is to be
answered in that code language.
Example 4 If ‘cook’ is called ‘butler’, ‘butler’ is called ‘manager’, ‘manager’ is called ‘teacher’, ‘teacher’ is called
‘clerk’ and ‘clerk’ is called ‘principal’, who will teach in the class?
(a) Clerk (b) Butler (c) Manager (d) Teacher
Solution (a) Clearly, a teacher teaches in a class and as given teacher is called clerk.
So, a clerk will teach in the class.

Type IV Mixed Letter Coding

In these type of questions, three or four complete messages are given in the coded language and the code for a
particular word is asked. To analyse such codes, any two messages bearing a common word are picked up. The
common code word will mean that word. Proceeding similarly by picking up all possible combinations of two, the
entire message can be analysed.
Example 5 If ‘nso ptr kli chn’ stands for ‘Sharma gets marriage gift’, ‘ptr inm wop chn’ stands for ‘wife gives
marriage gift’ and ‘tti wop nhi’ stands for ‘he gives nothing’, what would mean ‘gives’?
(a) chn (b) nhi (c) ptr (d) wop
Solution (d) nso ptr kli chn Sharma gets marriage gift .....(i)

ptr inm wop chn wife gives marriage gift .....(ii)

tti wop nhi he gives nothing .....(iii)

In the second and third statements, the common word is ‘gives’ and the common code word is ‘wop’. So, ‘wop’ means
‘gives’.
Coding-Decoding 5
Example 6 If ‘tee see pee’ means ‘drink fruit juice’, ‘see kee lee’ means ‘juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘he is
intelligent’, which word in that language means ‘sweet’?
(a) see (b) kee (c) lee (d) pee
Solution (b) tee see pee drink fruit juice .....(i)

see kee lee juice is sweet .....(ii)

lee ree mee he is intelligent .....(iii)

In the first and second statements, the common word is ‘Juice’ and the common code word is ‘see’. So, ‘see’ means ‘juice’.
In the second and third statements, the common word is ‘is’ and the common code is ‘lee’. So, ‘lee’ means ‘is’. Thus, in the
second statement, the remaining word ‘sweet’ is coded as ‘kee’.

Type V Mixed Number Coding

In these type of questions, a few groups of numbers each coding a certain short message, are given. Through a
comparison of the given coded messages, taking two at a time, the candidate is required to find the number code for
each word and then formulate the code for the message given.
Example 7 In a certain code, ‘786’ means ‘study very hard’, ‘958’ means ‘hard work pays’ and ‘645’ means ‘study and
work’. Which of the following is the code for ‘very’?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 5
Solution (c) 7 8 6 study very hard .....(i)

9 5 8 hard work pays .....(ii)

6 4 5 study and work .....(iii)

In the first and second statements, the common word is ‘hard’ and the common code digit is ‘8’, so ‘8’ means ‘hard’. In the
first and third statements, the common word is ‘study’ and the common code digit is 6, so ‘6’ means ‘study’. Thus, in the first
statement ‘7’ means ‘very’.

Miscellaneous Solved Examples

Example 8 If D = 4 and COVER = 63, then BASIC is equal to
(a) 49 (b) 50 (c) 34 (d) 55
Solution (c) In the alphabets, D is the 4th.
So, A = 1, B = 2 and C = 3 ⇒ COVER = 3 + 15 + 22 + 5 + 18 = 63
∴ BASIC = 2 + 1 + 19 + 9 + 3 = 34

Example 9 In a certain code, ‘RATIONAL’ is written as ‘ARITNOLA’. How would ‘TRIBAL’ be written in that code?
(a) TRIALB (b) RBTLAI (c) RTBILA (d) TIRABLE
Solution (c) As, R A T I O N A L

A R I T N O LA
Sim ilarly, T R I B A L

RT B I LA

Example 10 In a certain code, SIKKIM is written as THLJJL. How is TRAINING written in that code?
(a) SQBHOHOH (b) UQBHOHOF
(c) UQBJOHHO (d) UQBJOHOH
Solution (b) Clearly, the letters in the word SIKKIM are moved alternately one step forward and one step backward to
obtain the letters of the code.
So, in TRAINING, T will be coded as U, R as Q, A as B, I as H, N as O and so on. Thus, the code is UQBHOHOF.
6 Study Package for NTSE

Example 11 If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?
(a) 5279431 (b) 5978213 (c) 8251896 (d) 8543691
Solution (c) Letter D E L H I C A U T
Code 7 3 5 4 1 8 2 9 6
The code for CALICUT is 8251896.

Example 12 In a certain language, TRANSMISSION is written as RTANMSISISON. How will COMMUNICATIONS be

written in same language?
(a) OCMMUNCIATOINS (b) OCMMNUCTAIONS (c) OCMMNUICTAIONS (d) OCMMNUICTAIOSN
Solution (d) The word is divided into section of two letters and then the places of the letters of the odd numbered
sections are interchanged.
Similarly, by interchanging the letters
CO MM UN IC AT IO NS OC MM NU IC TA IO SN TR AN SM IS SI ON RT AN MS IS IS ON

Example 13 In a certain code, BRAIN is written as ⊕ % ÷ # × and TIER is written as $ # + %. How is RENT
written in that code?
(a) % × # $ (b) % # × $ (c) % + × $ (d) + × % $
Solution (c)
Letter B R A I N T E
Code ⊕ % ÷ # × $ +

The code for RENT is % + × $.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. If ‘TEAM’ is coded as ‘VGCO’, then ‘LIFE’ will be coded 5. In a certain code, ‘POLISH’ is written as ‘MLIFPE’,
as then ‘DIG’ is the code for which word?
(a) NJGE (b) NLIH (a) GLJ (b) CHI
(c) NKHH (d) NKHG (c) ECH (d) AFD

2. In a certain code language, ‘MAN’ is coded as ‘NBO’, 6. If ‘FRIEND’ is coded as ‘HUMJTK’, how is ‘CANDLE’
then in the same code language ‘TUL’ will be written written in that code?
as (a) EDRIRL (b) ESJFME
(a) UVP (b) UWN (c) UVM (d) UMW (c) DCQHQK (d) DEQJQM

3. If the word ‘CLERK’ is coded as ‘EOIWQ’, how would 7. In a certain language, ‘CHAMPION’ is coded as
you code the word ‘TABLE’? ‘HCMAIPNO’, how is ‘NEGATIVE’ coded in that code?
(a) VCDNG (b) VCDGIN (a) BGAETVIE (b) ENAGITEV
(c) VDFQK (d) VDFOK (c) EGAITEVN (d) NEAGVEIT

4. If the word ‘TRADE’ is coded as ‘XVEHI’, how the word 8. If ‘FULFNHW’ is the code for ‘CRICKET’, then
‘PUBLIC’ should be coded? ‘EULGH’ is the code for which word?
(a) TYFMPG (b) SXEOLF (a) PRIDE (b) BRIDE
(c) TYFPMG (d) SXLLOP (c) BLADE (d) BLIND
Coding-Decoding 7
9. In a certain code, ‘FORGET’ is written as ‘DPPHCU’. 20. If ‘air’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is
How would ‘DOCTOR’ be written in that code? called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ is called
(a) BPAUPS (b) EMDRPP ‘water’ and ‘water’ is called ‘pink’, then what is the
(c) BPAUMS (d) BRARPP colour of clear sky?
(a) Blue (b) Sky
10. In a certain code, ‘SIKKIM’ is written as ‘THLJJL’.
(c) Yellow (d) Water
How is ‘TRAIN’ written in that code?
(a) SQBHO (b) UQBHO 21. If ‘sky’ is called ‘sea’, ‘sea’ is called ‘water’, ‘water’ is
(c) UQBJO (d) UBQJO called ‘air’, ‘air’ is called ‘cloud’ and ‘cloud’ is called
‘river’, then what do we drink when thirsty?
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) The number in each question (a) Sky (b) Air
below is to be codified in the following code. (c) Water (d) Sea

Code digit 7 2 1 5 3 9 8 6 4 22. A ‘room’ is called ‘bed’, ‘bed’ is called ‘window’,

W L M S I N D J B ‘window’ is called ‘flower’ and ‘flower’ is called ‘cooler’,
Letter digit
on what would a man sleep?
11. 184632 (a) Cooler (b) Flower
(a) MDJBSL (b) MDJBIL (c) Window (d) Bed
(c) MDJBWL (d) MDBJIL 23. In a certain code, OVER is written as $ # % * and
12. 879341 VIST is written as # + × − , then how SORE will
(a) DWNIBS (b) DWNBIM written in that code?
(c) DWNIBM (d) NDWBIM (a) × $ * % (b) % × $ *
(c) × * $ % (d) None of these
13. 69428
(a) JBNLD (b) JNBLD 24. Certain letters are coded as TODAY-45738,
(c) JDNLB (d) JBLND WROTE-10542, DATE-7342 and DIRTH-79046.
What does the code number ‘5’ stand for?
14. 1234567
(a) D (b) R
(a) MILBSJW (b) MLISBJW
(c) O (d) T
(c) MLIBSJW (d) MLIJWBS
25. In certain code language, ‘UNIVERSITY’ is written
15. 39394929
as ‘VNJVERTIUY’. Following the same code
(a) ININBNLN (b) NINIBNLN
(c) ININNBNL (d) INBNINLN language, how would you write ‘SECRETARY’?
(a) TFDRFTBRZ (b) TFERFTBRY
(c) SFCSEUASY (d) TEDRFTBRZ
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-22) Choose the correct option for
following coding problems. 26. If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT will be equal to
(a) 41 (b) 39
16. If ‘diamond’ is called ‘gold’, ‘gold’ is called ‘silver’, (c) 44 (d) 46
‘silver’ is called ‘ruby’ and ‘ruby’ is called ‘emerald’,
which is ‘golden yellow metal’? 27. If E = 5 and PEN = 35, then PAGER is equal to
(a) Diamond (b) Silver (c) Gold (d) Ruby (a) 47 (b) 39
(c) 58 (d) 67
17. If ‘eye’ is called ‘hand’, ‘hand’ is called ‘mouth’, ‘mouth’
is called ‘ear’, ‘ear’ is called ‘nose’ and ‘nose’ is called 28. If ‘POND’ is written as ‘RSTL’. HEAR may be written
‘tongue’, with which of the following would a person as
hear? (a) JKLZ (b) GHIZ
(c) GHIJ (d) JIGZ
(a) Eye (b) Mouth (c) Nose (d) Ear

18. If ‘rat’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘lion’, ‘lion’ is called 29. In a certain code ‘COURT’ is written as 5%@38 and
‘snake’ and ‘snake’ is called an ‘elephant’, which is TILE is written as 8 $4 .How is CITE written in that
smallest in size? code?
(a) 5$84 (b) 5%84
(a) Rat (b) Dog (c) Mangoes (d) Lion
(c) 584 (d) 384
19. If ‘finger’ is called ‘toe’, ‘toe’ is called ‘foot’, ‘foot’ is
30. In a certain code 59346 is written as $ AD % F and
called ‘thumb’, ‘thumb’ is called ankle, ‘ankle’ is called
8173 is written as HB # D. How is 9865 written in
‘palm’ and ‘palm’ is called ‘knee’, which one finger has
that code?
different name?
(a) HAF$ (b) AHF$
(a) Thumb (b) Ankle (c) Knee (d) Palm
(c) ADF$ (d) BHF$
8 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. If ‘TEACHER’ is coded as ‘VGCEJGT’. What will be 15. If in a certain coding A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2
the code for ‘CHILDREN’? and so on, how is ‘FEBEDDI’ coded in that coding?
(a) EJKNFTGP (b) EJKNFHTP (a) 294493 (b) 6525449
(c) EJKNFGTO (d) EJKNEGTP (c) 6255449 (d) 6255494

2. In a certain code language, ‘PARENTS’ is written as 16. If D = 4 and FAN = 21, then TAPE is eqaul to
‘RCTGPVU’. How will ‘CHILDREN’ be written in same (a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 44 (d) 43
code language?
17. In a certain code language, ‘749’ means ‘fruit is
(a) EFJKCPCM (b) EJKNFTGP
sweet’; ‘248’ means ‘very sweet voice’ and ‘637’ means
(c) DGJKCQDO (d) MDGFKSNB
‘eat fruit daily’. Which digit stands for ‘is’ in that
3. In a certain code, ‘ROMANTIC’ is written as code?
‘MORNACIT’. How is ‘MARRIAGE’ written in that (a) 7 (b) 9
code? (c) 4 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) MARRIAGE (b) RAMRIEGA
18. In a certain code language, ‘851’ means ‘good sweet
(c) RAMIRAGE (d) RAMIREGA
fruit’; ‘783’ means ‘good red rose’ and ‘341’ means
4. If the word ‘PENCIL’ is coded as ‘LICNEP’, how the ‘rose and fruit’. Which of the following digits stand for
word ‘INKPOT’ should be coded? ‘sweet’ in that language?
(a) TOPINK (b) JOLQPU (a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 3
(c) HMKOPS (d) TOPKNI 19. In a certain code language, ‘Mink Young Pe’ means
5. In a certain code ‘IDIOT’ is written as ‘KFKQV’. How ‘Fruits are ripe’; ‘Pe Lao May Mink’ means ‘Oranges
can ‘GENIUS’ be written in that code? are not ripe’ and ‘May Pe Neu Mink’ means ‘Mangoes
(a) HFOJVT (b) IFOKWT (c) IGPKWU (d) HGOKVU
are not ripe’. Which word in that language means
‘Mangoes’?
6. In a code language, ‘TIGER’ is written as ‘RIGET’. (a) May (b) Lao (c) Neu (d) Mink
How ‘CROWN’ will be written in the same code? 20. If ‘gnr tag zog qmp’ stands for ‘seoul olympic
(a) NRWCO (b) NROWC (c) ROWRC (d) NOWCR
organising committee’; ‘hyto gnr emf’ stands for
7. In a code language, A is written as B, B is written as ‘summer olympic games’ and ‘emm sdr hyto’ stands
C, C is written as D and so on, then how will ‘SMART’ for ‘modern games history’. What would be the code
be written in that code language? for ‘summer’?
(a) TLBSU (b) SHBSU (c) TNBSU (d) SNBRU (a) hyto (b) gnr (c) emf (d) zog

21. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) The number in each question
Eternal’, ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’
below is to be codified in the following code.
and ‘9a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not Perish.
Letter code A I D O P E U R S T Which of the following means ‘Enmity’ in that
Digit code 0 3 1 4 2 9 6 7 8 5 language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
8. SPORT
(a) 84275 (b) 82475 (c) 82457 (d) 84257 Directions (Q. Nos. 22-24) In the table given below, there
are two column, Column I and Column II. Four words are
9. ARREST
written in Column I. In Column II, equivalent codes are used
(a) 077859 (b) 770985 (c) 077985 (d) 077589
for these words. For each of the four words, four different
10. DROPER patterns are used. Identify the pattern in the questions given
(a) 714297 (b) 172497 (c) 179742 (d) 174297 below and choose the correct option.
11. PASTA Column I Column II
(a) 20850 (b) 20580 (c) 20058 (d) 02058 S. No. Word Code Equivalent
12. RUST A. CAR XZI
(a) 5678 (b) 7685 (c) 7865 (d) 7568 B. BOOK CQRO
13. If ‘SHARP’ is coded as 58034 and ‘PUSH’ as 4568, the C. FRIEND KWNJSI
‘RUSH’ will be coded as D. TABLE RYZJC
(a) 3685 (b) 3658 (c) 3568 (d) 3583
22. If ‘POLISH’ is coded as ‘NMJGQF’, the code pattern
14. If ‘POWER’ stands for 97254, then ‘ROW’ stands for followed is serial number
(a) 472 (b) 425 (c) 497 (d) 427 (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Coding-Decoding 9
23. If ‘TRADE’ is coded as ‘YWFIJ’, the code pattern 28. Which word will be code for word keep?
followed is serial number (a) joc (b) per (c) pod (d) tan
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
29. Which word will be code for word the?
24. If ‘PEN’ is coded as ‘KVM’, the code pattern followed (a) nu (b) tan (c) per (d) sa
is serial number
30. If E is replaced by 2, R by 5, T by 7, D by 3, S by 4, I by
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
6 and N by 9, then how is RESIDENT written if its
letters are reversed?
Directions (Q. Nos. 25-29) Some words are given in
(a) 79326425 (b) 52463279
Column I. These words are written in a code language in
(c) 52463297 (d) 54263927
Column II. The code equivalents of the words given in
Columns I and II are not necessarily in the corresponding 31. In a certain code language
order. Choose the correct code for the words from the given Try to understand is written as AaAa AAAA aaaa
alternatives. Find your problem is written as aAaA AaaA aAAa
Way to win is written as AAaa AaAa AAAa
S.No. Column I Column II
Then, how can, Please try to understand my problem,
(i) pod na joc very bright boy be written in that code language?
(ii) tan nu pod the boy comes (a) AAaa AAAA AAaa AaAa AAAa AaAa
(iii) nu per ton keep the doll (b) AaAa aaaA aaaa AAAA Aaaa aAAa
(iv) joc ton su very good doll (c) AaAa AAAA aAaA aAAa AAaa AAAa
(v) sa pod ton doll is boy (d) AAaa AaAa aaaa aAAa AAAa aAAa

32. In a certain coding scheme, consonants and vowels

25. Which word will be code for word doll? are coded differently as illustrated below :
(a) ton (b) na (c) joc (d) per
B is coded as 4 ,T is coded as 20
26. Which word will be code for boy? E is coded as 9, I is coded as 17
(a) nu (b) sa (c) pod (d) tan Then, find the sum of numerals in the coded version
27. Which word will be code for word bright? of TRUTH.
(a) 150 (b) 91 (c) 40 (d) 173
(a) pod (b) tan (c) nu (d) na

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
4. (c) As, T R A D E X V E H I
1. (d) As, T E A M
+2 +2 +2 +2 +4
+4
V G C O +4
Similarly, L I F E +4
+4
+2 +2 +2 +2
N K H G Similarly, P U B L I C T Y F P M G
+4
2. (c) As, M A N Similarly, T U L +4
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +4
+4
+4
N B O U V M +4

3. (c) As, C L E R K E O I W Q 5. (d) AS, P O L I S H M L I F P E

+2
+3 –3
+4 –3
+5 –3
+6 –3
–3
Similarly, T A B L E V D F Q K –3
+2 Similarly, D I G
+3 A F D
+4 –3
+5 –3
+6 –3
10 Study Package for NTSE

6. (a) As, F R I E N D +2
H U M J T K 16. (b) Golden yellow metal is gold, which is called as silver.
+3 17. (c) We can hear with ear, which is called as nose.
+4
+5 18. (b) Rat is smallest in size, which is called dog.
+6
+7 19. (b) Thumb is a finger having a different name. But ‘thumb’ is
called ‘ankle’.
Similarly,
20. (b) Colour of clear sky is blue, which is called sky.
C A N D L E E D R I R L
+2 21. (b) We drink water, which is called air.
+3
+4 22. (c) Man can sleep on bed, which is called window.
+5
+6 23. (a) O V E R V I S T
+7
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ and ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
7. (b) As, C H A M P I O N $ # % * # + × −
HCMAIPNO
So, by using the above two
Similarly, S O R E
N E G A T I V E ENAGITEV ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
× $ * %
8. (b) As F U L F N H W C R I C K E T
–3 24. (c) The number ‘5’ is common in words TODAY and WROTE,
–3 and so it is clear that O and T are common letters but T cannot be
–3
–3 correct option because it is common in all the four words and so
–3 option (c) is correct answer.
–3
–3 25. (d) Given,
U N I V E R S I T Y
Similarly, EU L GH BR I D E
+1 +0 +1 +0 +1 +0 +1 +0 +1 +0
–3
–3 V N J V F R T I U Y
–3
–3 Similarly,
–3
S E C R E T A R Y

9. (c) As, F O R G E T D P P H C U +1 0 +1 0 +1 0 +1 0 +1

–2
+1 T E D R F T B R Z
–2
+1 26. (d) Z is 26th letter, so it is coded as 2 × 26 = 52
–2
+1 Similarly, A = 2 × 1, C = 2 × 3 and T = 2 × 20
∴ ACT = 2 + 6 + 40 = 48
Similarly, D O C T O R B P A U M S
Now, similarly, B = 2 × 2, A = 2 × 1 and T = 2 × 20
–2
+1 ∴ BAT = 4 + 2 + 40 = 46
–2
+1 27. (a) P = 16, E = 5, N = 14
–2
PEN = 16 + 5 + 14 = 35
+1
PAGER = 16 + 1 + 7 + 5 + 18 = 47
10. (b) As, S I K K I M T H L J J L
+2
+1 28. (d) P  → R ....... a gap of (1) letter forward
–1
+4
+1 O  → S ....... a gap of (3) letter forward
–1 +6
+1 N  → T ....... a gap of (5) letter forward
+8
–1 D  → L ...... a gap of (7) letter forward
Similarly, T R A I N UQ B HO Using the same trend,
+2
+1 H J
–1 +4
+1 E I
–1 +6
+1 A G
+8
11. (d) 184632 = MDBJIL R Z

12. (c) 879341 = DWNIBM 29. (c) C OUR T T I L E CITE

⇒
13. (b) 69428 = JNBLD 5 %@ 3 8 8$ 4 5©84

14. (c) 1234567 = MLIBSJW 30. (b) 5 934 6 8 173 9865

⇒
15. (a) 39394929 = ININBNLN $ A D% F H B#D AHF$
Coding-Decoding 11
High Skill Questions
1. (a) As, T E A C H E R +2
V G C E J G T 8. (b) SPORT = 82475
+2 9. (c) APREST = 077985
+2
+2 10. (d) DROPER = 174297
+2 11. (a) PASTA = 20850
+2
+2 12. (b) RUST = 7685
Similarly, C H I L D R E N E J K N F T C P 13. (c) SHAR P PUSH
+2 58 03 4 45 6 8
+2
+2 Q RUSH = 3568
+2
+2 14. (a) P O W E R
+2 9 7 2 5 4
+2
+2 ⇒ ROW = 472
2. (b) As, P A R E N T S R C T G P V U 15. (b) A → 1, B → 2, C → 3 and so on
+2 ⇒ FEBEDDI = 6525449
+2
+2 16. (b) A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4 etc.
+2
+2
FAN = 6 + 1 + 14 = 21
+2 TAPE = 20 + 1 + 16 + 5 = 42
+2
17. (b) 7 4 9 = fruit is sweet
Similarly, C H I L D R E N E J K N F T G P
+2 2 4 8 = very sweet voice
+2
+2 6 3 7 = eat fruit daily
+2
+2 Fruit correspond to 7 and is will correspond to 9.
+2 18. (b) ‘good sweet fruit’ and ‘good red rose’ have ‘good’ common
+2
+2 word which corresponds to ‘8’.
‘good sweet fruit’ and ‘rose and fruit’ have’ ‘fruit’ common word
3. (d) As, which corresponds to ‘1’.
ROM AN TIC MOR NA CIT
good sweet fruit
⇒ = 851
8 5 1
Similarly, 19. (c) Mink Yoing Pe → Fruits are ripe …(i)
MARRIAGE R AM I R E G A
Pe Lao May Mink → Oranges are not ripe …(ii)
May Pe Neu Mink → Mangoes are not ripe …(iii)
4. (d) PENCIL →
Reverse
LICNEP From Statements (i) and (ii). Pe mink means are ripe and from
Reverse Statements (ii) and (iii) may means not, so pe mink may means
Similarly, INKPOT  → TOPKNI
are not ripe and finally from Statement (iii) neu will be mangoes.
5. (c) As, I D I O T K F KQ V
20. (c)
+2
+2 gnr tag zog qmp seoul olympic organising committee.....(i)
+2
+2 hyto gnr emf summer olympic games .....(ii)
+2

Similarly, G E N I U S I G P K W U emm sdr hyto modern games history .....(iii)

+2 From Statements (i) and (ii), gnr means olympic and from
+2
+2 Statements (ii) and (iii), hyto means games. So, summer will be
+2 emf with the help of Statement (ii).
+2
+2 21. (c) 3a 2b 7c Truth is Eternal .....(i)
6. (b) TIGER RIGET
7c 9a 8b 3a Enmity is not Eternal .....(ii)
Similarly, by interchanging first and last letter
9a 4d 2b 8b Truth does not Perish .....(iii)
CROWN NROWC
In the Statements (ii) and (iii) we find that ‘9a’ means ‘not’. In
7. (c) A →
+1
B →
+1
C the Statements (i) and (ii) the common codes are ‘7c’ and ‘3a’,
so as the common words are ‘is’ and ‘Eternal’. Finally, in the
Similarly, SMART ⇒ TNBSU Statement (ii), ‘8b’ means ‘Enmity’.
12 Study Package for NTSE

Sol. (Q. Nos. 22-24) Sol. (Q. Nos. 25-29)

(A) 3 1 18
C A R pod na joc very bright boy
opposite
letter tan nu pod the boy comes
X Z I
nu per ton keep the doll
24 26 9
(B) B O O K joc ton su very good doll
+1 +2 +3 +4
sa pod ton doll is boy
C Q R O
(C) 25. (a) doll → ton
F R I E N D
26. (c) boy → pod
+5 +5 +5 +5 +5 +5
27. (d) bright → na
K W N J S I 28. (b) keep → per
(D) T A B L E 29. (a) the → nu
–2 –2 –2 –2 –2 30. (a) The following table depicts the code off the given letters

R Y Z J C Letter R E S I D E N T

22. (d) P O L I S H Codes 5 2 4 6 3 2 9 7

–2 –2 –2 –2 –2 –2 The code for RESIDENT is 52463297.
N M J G Q F when RESIDENT is reversed
The above pattern follows code pattern (D). ∴ TNEDISER = 79236425
23. (c) T R A D E 31. (b) From first statement, the required code must contain ‘AaAa
+5 +5 +5 +5 +5
AAAA aaaa’ for ‘try to understand’.
Now, Problem = aAaA/AaaA/aAAa
Y W F I J
The given sentence has two new word, so the required code
The above pattern follows code pattern (C). must have two new code.
24. (a) 16 5 14 Hence, option (b) is the most suitable option.
P E N
opposite 32. (d) Here, the numerical value of consonant gets double and the
letter numerical value of vowel is equal to (2 × numerical value −1)
K V M T R U T H
11 22 13 (20 × 2 ) + (18 × 2 ) + (21 × 2 − 1) + (20 × 2 ) + (8 × 2 )
The above pattern follows code pattern (A). 40 + 36 + 41 + 40 + 16 = 173
 Chapter

2
Classification
Classification means to distinguish different items from a given group on the basis of certain common properties
like shape, size, category colour, trait etc. More clearly in such type of questions, alphabets, words, objects or things
are purely based on similarity or similar relationship and one to be picked out is that which does not belong to the
group.

Type I Word Classification

In this type, similar groups are found among the names, places, things, nouns, verbs, different sexes, or any other
matter. Candidate should identify the odd one out.
Example 1 Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
(a) Apple (b) Carrot (c) Orange (d) Guava
Solution (b) Here, all except carrot are fruits, while carrot is a vegetable.
Example 2 Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Brass (d) Aluminium
Solution (c) Here, all except brass are metals, while brass is an alloy.
Example 3 Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
(a) Volume : Litre (b) Time : Second (c) Length : Metre (d) Pressure : Barometer
Solution (d) In all other pairs, except (d) second is the unit to measure the first. On the other hand, barometer is an
instrument to measure the atmospheric pressure.

Type II Letter Classification

In such questions, four or five groups of letters are given as options. Out of these groups, one is different which is
your correct answer.
Example 4 Which one of the following pair is different from the other groups?
(a) CFIL (b) PSVX (c) JMPS (d) ORUX
Solution (b) In all other groups, except PSVX, each letter moves 3 steps forward to obtain the next letter.
Example 5 Which one of the following pair is different from the other groups?
(a) ABC : CBA (b) JKL : KLJ (c) XYZ : ZYX (d) MNO : ONM
Solution (b) The letters in the second group are the letters of the first group written backward.
14 Study Package for NTSE

Type III Odd Numbers Classification

In such questions, certain numbers are given out of which all, except one are same in some manner while one is
quite different.
Example 6 Choose the one which is different from the rest of three.
(a) 27 (b) 63 (c) 56 (d) 49
Solution (a) 27 is not divisible by 7.
Example 7 Which of the following pair of numbers is different from the others?
(a) 14, 28 (b) 30, 60 (c) 25, 50 (d) 15, 35
Solution (d) In each pair, the second number is double the first number. In option (d), the number 35 should have been
30, so it is the odd one.

Type IV Odd Pair of Number Classification

In such questions, certain pairs of numbers are given. Out of which all except one are similar in some manner while
one is different.
Example 8 Choose the numerical pair which is different from others.
(a) 14-22 (b) 17-25 (c) 16-24 (d) 26-34
Solution (b) In all the pairs, the difference of two numbers is 8 and both are even number, but in option (b) both numbers
are odd (not divisible by 2).

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-20) In the following questions, three terms are alike in some way and so form a group while one is
different than others. Identify the term that does not belong to that group.
1. (a) Pen (b) Pencil 11. (a) Ramayana (b) Mahabharata
(c) Ball pen (d) Eraser (c) Geeta (d) Godan
2. (a) Carrot (b) Tomato 12. (a) Silver (b) Gold
(c) Ginger (d) Potato (c) Copper (d) Mercury
3. (a) Delhi (b) Lucknow 13. (a) Ring (b) Bangle
(c) Hyderabad (d) Jaipur (c) Bracelet (d) Necklace
4. (a) Asia (b) Europe 14. (a) Jowar (b) Urad
(c) Australia (d) India (c) Moong (d) Gram
5. (a) Ear (b) Eye 15. (a) Dozen (b) Yard
(c) Nose (d) Throat (c) Metre (d) Inch
6. (a) Mother (b) Father 16. (a) Haldighati (b) Panipat
(c) Sister (d) Friend (c) Plassey (d) Shirdi
7. (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Punjab 17. (a) Bharat Ratna (b) Padma Shri
(c) Haryana (d) Chandigarh (c) Padmini (d) Param Vir Chakra
8. (a) Hindi (b) English 18. (a) Green (b) Violet
(c) Sanskrit (d) Mathematics (c) Red (d) Orange
9. (a) Rose (b) Lotus 19. (a) Dollar (b) Pound
(c) Marigold (d) Lily (c) Franc (d) Cuba
10. (a) Pistol (b) Sword 20. (a) He-goat (b) He-buffalo
(c) Gun (d) Rifle (c) Cow (d) Bull
Classification 15
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-45) In the following questions, four 32. (a) PR (b) SU (c) VX (d) YZ
groups of letters/numbers are given, three of them are alike in 33. (a) Xa (b) Xb (c) Xc (d) XX
some way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
34. (a) ABC (b) DEF (c) PQS (d) GHI
21. (a) AB (b) CD (c) EF (d) GI
35. (a) AaB (b) BcC (c) DdE (d) FfG
22. (a) AC (b) QT (c) IK (d) LN
36. (a) 100 (b) 125 (c) 121 (d) 225
23. (a) xX (b) iI (c) aB (d) lL
37. (a) 37 (b) 49 (c) 131 (d) 154
24. (a) Bb (b) Cc (c) Dd (d) eE
38. (a) 27 (b) 400 (c) 125 (d) 1000
25. (a) AZ (b) BY (c) CQ (d) DW
39. (a) 18 (b) 27 (c) 36 (d) 26
26. (a) VX (b) FG (c) PR (d) DF
40. (a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 66 (d) 50
27. (a) ZX (b) RS (c) TU (d) XY
41. (a) 115 (b) 66 (c) 110 (d) 220
28. (a) AE (b) BD (c) CG (d) DH
42. (a) 1357 (b) 7841 (c) 3517 (d) 7935
29. (a) ac (b) pq (c) rt (d) df
43. (a) 1001 (b) 2004 (c) 2211 (d) 3004
30. (a) ap (b) qr (c) ST (d) pt
44. (a) 27 (b) 45 (c) 63 (d) 35
31. (a) az (b) bz (c) zc (d) dz
45. (a) 123 (b) 204 (c) 305 (d) 240

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) In the following questions three 13. (a) Stallion : Colt (b) Drake : Duck
are alike in some way and so form a group while in different (c) Dog : Bitch (d) Drone : Bee
one is different than others. Identify the term that does not
14. (a) Bees : Humm (b) Snake : Hiss
belong to that group.
(c) Frog : Bleat (d) Lion : Rar
1. (a) Numerus (b) Carpals
15. (a) Pascal : Pressure (b) Watt : Power
(c) Forearm (d) Ulna
(c) Ampere : Current (d) Radian : Degree
2. (a) Trigonometry (b) Calculus
(c) Algebra (d) Thermodynamics Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In each of the following
3. (a) Speedometer (b) Thermometer
questions, certain pairs of words are given out of which the
words in all pairs except one, bear a certain common
(c) Galvanometer (d) Compass-needle
relationship choose the pair in which the words are
4. (a) Fable (b) Elegy differently related.
(c) Epic (d) Ballad 16. (a) Tripitaka : Buddhist (b) Temple : Hindu
5. (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Avesta : Parasi (d) Torah : Jew
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
17. (a) Whale : Mammal (b) Frog : Amphibian
6. (a) Aryabhatta (b) Bhaskara (c) Salamander : Insect (d) Snake : Reptile
(c) Rohini (d) Apollo soyuz
18. (a) Donald : Comedy (b) Holmes : Suspense
7. (a) Nightingle (b) Skylark (c) Premchand : Novel (d) Robinson : Adventure
(c) Parrot (d) Canary
19. (a) Sahara : Africa (b) Thar : India
8. (a) Onion (b) Coriander (c) Gobi : Mangolia (d) Kalahari : America
(c) Beetroot (d) Ginger
20. (a) Mulder : Proteins (b) Curle : Radium
9. (a) Uranium (b) Jupiter (c) Becquerel : Radioactivity (d) Einstein : Television
(c) Mars (d) Earth
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) In the following questions three
10. (a) Diabetes (b) Chickenpox of the following groups are similar in connection with the
(c) Smallbox (d) Conjunctivitis position of these letters in English alphabet and hence form a
group. Which one does not belong to the group?
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In the following questions, three
are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one 21. (a) ADFG (b) MPQR
that does not belong to that group? (c) EHJK (d) ILNO
11. (a) Lock–key (b) Motorcycle–fuel 22. (a) NSWX (b) HMQR
(c) Book–copy (d) River–water (c) KPSU (d) EJNO
12. (a) Food : Hunger (b) Water : Thirst 23. (a) HOL (b) JQM
(c) Air : Suffocation (d) Talent : Education (c) MTP (d) DKG
16 Study Package for NTSE

24. (a) SUV (b) KLN Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) Choose the odd number pair
(c) BDE (d) GIJ in each of the following questions.
25. (a) HJG (b) PQN 31. (a) 14-23 (b) 36-63
(c) DEB (d) TUR (c) 45-54 (d) 27-72
32. (a) 80-9 (b) 64-8
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In the following questions, three (c) 36-6 (d) 49-7
of the following have similar relationship and hence belong to
the group. Find the one which does not belong to the group.
33. (a) 13-31 (b) 45-54
(c) 16-61 (d) 71-88
26. (a) DISTASTE : AFSATSXI
(b) GASWORKS : DXROWSNV 34. (a) 2-8 (b) 3-12
(c) MARTYRED : JXRYTRIH (c) 4-15 (d) 5-20
(d) OUTHOUSE : LRUOHTWI 35. (a) 3-9 (b) 4-16
27. (a) BANKING : HPLOSGI (c) 5-25 (d) 6-35
(b) CUSTOMER : SGPSYYBK 36. (a) 99-86 (b) 70-57
(c) BUYERS : TTHCZH
(c) 56-43 (d) 49-35
(d) INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ
28. (a) WANT : NATW (b) WITH : TIHW
37. (a) 1-1 (b) 2-4
(c) 3-9 (d) 5-20
(c) HAVE : AVEH (d) JUST : SUTJ
29. (a) SAFETY : VYICWW (b) SMOKER : VKRIHP
38. (a) 81-9 (b) 36-6
(c) 69-8 (d) 121-11
(c) SERIES : VCUGHQ (d) HEALTH : KCYJWF
30. (a) PLENTY : LEPTYN 39. (a) 14-16 (b) 17-14
(c) 12-18 (d) 11-19
(b) COWARD : OWCRAD
(c) ALWINS : LWANIS 40. (a) 10-30 (b) 50-60
(d) EXAMIN : XAEIMN (c) 30-40 (d) 70-80

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (d) Except eraser, all are used for writing. 17. (c) Except Padmini, all are prestigious awards.
2. (b) Except tomato, all others grow under the ground or soil. 18. (d) Except Orange, Green, Violet and Red are primary colours.
3. (a) Except Delhi, all others are state capital. 19. (d) dollar, pound and franc are currencies of different countries.
4. (d) India is country while others are continents. 20. (c) Except cow, all are male characters.
5. (d) Throat is not a sense organ. 21. (d) 1
A B , C D , E F while G I
23 123 123 123
+ 1 + 1 + 1 + 2
6. (d) Friend is not a blood relation.
7. (d) Chandigarh is not a state of India. 22. (b) Q
123T , while others
+ 3
8. (d) Mathematics is not a language.
A C D F I K L N in each term.
123 123 123 123
9. (b) All except lotus are flowers that grow on land whereas lotus + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2
is a water-flower.
23. (c) aB
10. (b) All except sword are fire arms.
24. (d) Capital letter, then small letter but eE does not follow the
11. (d) Except Godan, all are religious books. order.
12. (d) Mercury is liquid while others are solids. 25. (c) In AZ, BY and DW first letter and second letter have similar
13. (d) Necklace is wear in neck while others are concerned with positions from left and right, respectively in English alphabets.
hand. 26. (b) 1
V23XP RD
123 123F F123
G
+2 +2 +2 +1
14. (a) All except Jowar are pulses while Jowar is a millet.
27. (a) R
123S 1
T 23
U1X 23
Y1Z23X
15. (a) All except dozen are units of measuring distances. +1 +1 +1 −2
16. (d) Shirdi is famous for Sai temple while others are famous for 28. (b) A
battle. 123EB DC
123 GD
123 H
123
+4 +2 +4 +4
Classification
29. (b) a123c p123q 1
r23t d123f
+2 +1 +2 +2
30. (c) Except ST, all includes small English alphabets (a, b, c, … , z).
31. (c) Except zc, in all others second letter is z.
32. (d) P123
RS U1
123 V23X Y
123Z
+ 2 + 2 + 2 + 1
33. (d) Except XX, all contains first letter is X and second is other
than X.
34. (c) PQS, all others follow the correct sequence (ABC, DEF, GHI,
FGH).
35. (b) Except BcC, all others have second letter similar to first letter.
36. (b) (10)2 = 100, (11)2 = 121, (13)2 = 169 and (15)2 = 225 but 125 is
not a square of some numeral value.
High Skill Questions
1. (a) Except (a), rest are parts of human of human hand.
2. (d) Except (d), all others are branches of Mathematics.
3. (b) Except (b), all others have needle.
4. (a) Except (a), all others are type of poems.
5. (c) Except (c), all others are fat soluble vitamins.
6. (d) Except (d), all others are satellites.
7. (c) Except (c), all others are singing birds.
8. (b) Except (b), all others are obtained from ground.
9. (a) Except (a), all others are celestial bodies.
10. (a) Except (a), all others are infections diseases.
11. (c) Except (c), all others forms a complementary pair.
12. (d) Except (d) the lack of first causes the second.
13. (a) Except (a), second is the female of the first.
14. (c) Except (c), second is the noise produced by the first.
15. (d) Except (d), first is the unit to measure the second.
16. (b) Except (b), first is a religious book of the second.
17. (c) Except (c), second is the class of animals to which the first
belongs.
18. (c) Except (c), first is the character of the type of movie denoted
by the second.
19. (d) Except (d), first is the name of a desert which is situated in the
country denoted by the second.
20. (d) Except (d), first is the name of the scientist who discovered
the second.
21. (b) In all others, the sequence is that of +3, + 2 and +1,
respectively as in English alphabet.
22. (c) In all others, there is a gap of four letters between the first two
letters and no gap between the last two letters.
23. (a) In all other, the sequence is that of +7 and − 4, respectively in
English alphabet.
24. (b) In all other, the sequence is that of + 2 and + 1, respectively
as in English alphabet.
17
37. (d) Except 154, all are odd numbers.
38. (b) (3)3 = 27, (5)3 = 125, (10)3 = 1000 but 400 is not a cube of
same numeral value.
39. (d) Except 26, all are divisible by 3 and 9.
40. (c) Except 66, all are divisible by 10.
41. (a) Except 115, all are divisible by 11.
42. (b) Only 7841 contains an even number, while others have odd
numbers only.
43. (c) Except 2211, all numbers have two zeroes between two
numerals.
44. (d) Except 35, all are divisible by 9.
45. (c) Except 305, all are divisible by 3.
25. (a) In all other, the sequence is that of + 1and − 3, respectively
in English alphabet.
26. (b) In all others, the first two letters move three places
backward while the last two move four places forward. The
middle four letters reverse among themselves.
27. (d) All letters are reversed and then coded as one, two, three...
letters forward as in English alphabet.
28. (c) In each option, a word consists of four letters the loglc of
two relationship is related with the order of letter used in the word.
29. (d) Except (d), the following rule is followed in other pairs the
first, third and fifth letters of the first word are being replaced
with three letters forward as in English alphabet and second,
fourth and sixth letters of the first word are being replaced with
two letters backward as in English alphabet.
30. (a) In each option, a word consist of six letters. The logic
of the relationship is related with order of letter used in the word.
31. (a) Except 14-23, in all others pairs of number numeral digits
get exchange their position like, 27-72.
32. (a) (8)2 = 64 (64- 8), (6)2 = 36 (36- 6), (7 )2 = 49 (49-7 ), but in
(80-9) 80 ≠ (9)2
33. (d) Except 71-88, be in all other pairs of number member al
digits get exchange three position.
34. (c) 2 - 8 (2 × 4 = 8), 3- 12 (3 × 4 = 12 ), 5-20 (5 × 4 = 20), but
4-15 (4 × 4 = 16) is not following the trend.
35. (d) Except 6-35, in all pairs second number of the pair is a
perfect square of first.
36. (d) Except 49-35, in all other pair the difference of numbers is 13.
37. (d) Except 5-20, in all pairs second number is a perfect square
of first number.
38. (c) Except 69-8, in all pairs second number is a perfect square
of first number.
39. (b) Except 17-14, because in all other pairs the difference
between number is even.
40. (a) 10-30, all other pairs having a difference of 10 between the
numbers.
 Chapter

3
Analogy
The word Analogy has been derived from two words taken together, Ana means relation and Logus means
knowledge.
The word ‘Analogy’ means
l a similar feature, condition, state etc., shared by two things that are compared and
l a process of reasoning based on similar feature of two things. Thus, we can conclude that ‘Analogy’ means ‘similar feature’,
‘a common feature’ or ‘correspondence’.
In questions based on analogy, a particular relationship is given and another similar relationship has to be
identified from the given alternatives. Analogy can be of types from which questions are generally asked in
competitive exams.

Word Analogy
In questions based on word analogy, two words are (b) Dog — Bitch
given related to each other in some way. The candidate (c) Horse — Mare
has to find that relationship and apply the same to (d) Man — Woman
choose the correct alternative which is either in the form (e) Lion — Lioness
of a word or a pair of words.
V. Singular and Plural
I. Synonymous Relationship (a) Man — Crowd
(a) Slim — Thin (b) Bees — Swarm
(b) Meet — Contact (c) Flowers — Bouquet
(c) Endless — Eternal (d) Sailors — Crew
(d) Ban — Prohibition
(e) Vacant — Empty VI. Animal and Young one
(a) Cow — Calf
II. Antonymous Relationship
(a) Scarcity — Abundance (b) Man — Child
(b) Deep — Shallow (c) Hen — Chicken
(c) Choos — Peace (d) Butterfly — Caterpillar
(d) Harsh — Gentle (e) Horse — Pony
(e) Blunt — Sharp VII. Physical Quantity and Unit
III. Worker and Tool (a) Force — Newton (N)
(a) Author — Pen (b) Area — Hectare (H)
(b) Soldier — Gun (c) Time — Second (s)
(c) Tailor — Needle (d) Mass — Gram (g)
(d) Doctor — Stethoscope (e) Volume — Litre (L)
(e) Chef — Knife (f) Pressure — Pascal (P)
IV. Gender (g) Work — Joule (J)
(a) Tiger — Tigress (h) Length — Metre (m)
Analogy 19
VIII. Worker and Product XI. Games and Place of Playing
(a) Cobbler — Shoes (a) Badminton/Tennis — Court
(b) Chef — Food (b) Cricket — Pitch
(c) Goldsmith — Ornament (c) Boxing — Ring
(d) Racing — Track
(d) Tailor — Clothes
(e) Wrestling — Arena
(e) Mason — Wall/Building
(f) Farmer — Crop
XII. Study and Topic
(a) Ornithology — Birds
IX. Country and Currency (b) Seismology — Earthquakes
(a) India — Rupee (c) Anthropology — Man
(b) China — Yuan (d) Pathology — Diseases
(c) Iraq — Dinar (e) Taxonomy — Classification
(d) Thailand — Baht (f) Botany — Plants
(e) Bangladesh — Taka (g) Entomology — Insects
(f) Japan — Yen (h) Cardiology — Heart
(g) UK — Pound (i) Nephrology — Kidney
X. Individual/Thing and Class XIII. Animal/Things and Sound
(a) Man — Mammal (a) Lion — Roar
(b) Frog — Amphibian (b) Donkey — Brey
(c) Butterfly — Insect (c) Snake — Hiss
(d) Snake — Reptile (d) Elephant — Trumpet
(e) Chair — Furniture (e) Goat — Bleat
(f) Cup — Crockery (f) Coins — Jingle
(g) Ostrich — Bird (g) Rain — Patter

Kinds of Relationship
Example 1 Find out the missing word from the given alternatives, which bears the same relationship to the third
word, as the first two bear. Cattle : Herd : : Sheep : ?
(a) Flock (b) Swarm (c) Shoal (d) Mob
Solution (a) Herd is a group of cattle. Similarly, flock is a collection of sheep.
Example 2 Cat is related to mouse in the same way as Bird is related to ………
(a) Worm (b) Snake (c) Animal (d) Crow
Solution (a) In this case, cat feeds on mouse. Similarly, bird feeds on worm.
Example 3 Find out the pair in which the words bear the same relationship as given pair bears.
Chalk : Blackboard : : ……… : ………
(a) Door : Handle (b) Table : Chair (c) Ink : Paper (d) Dog : Tail
Solution (c) As, we write with chalk on a blackboard. Similarly, we write with ink on a piece of paper.

Alphabet Analogy
It is based on letters of alphabet. These letters are parts i.e., third group will relate the fourth group in the
written in a particular pattern. All are divide in four pattern as first and second bears the relation.
Example 4 K c a C : C a c K : : X g m F : ?
(a) E m g F (b) E m g X (c) F m g X (d) G m e F
Solution (c) K c a C X g m F

As, Similarly,

C a c K F m g X
∴ ? = Fmgx
20 Study Package for NTSE

Points to Remember
In dealing with an analogy question, the following points should be followed
1. Analyse the relationship between the question pair.
2. Look for the pair of words (among the choices with a similar relationship).
3. If more than one pair of words seem to be fit, reexamine the relation in the question pair.
4. Eliminate answers that do not appear to be the best.

Number Analogy
In this type of analogy, a group of numbers is given in question, having a particular pattern. On the basis of that
pattern a candidate have to find out the same pattern in a particular option.
Example 5 Which set of numbers is like the given set (64 , 32, 8)?
(a) (125, 25, 5) (b) (81, 27, 3) (c) (56, 28, 7) (d) (112, 56, 16)
Solution (c) (64, 32, 8) First number is divided by 2 to get the second and second is divided by 4 to get the third number.
56 28
Option (c), = 28, = 7 is correct as per the same relationship.
2 4

Alpha-Numeric Analogy
In this type of analogy, letters and numbers are given following a certain relationship. The relationship may be
based on the position of alphabets or letters. Sum or product of the position of alphabet or letters etc. The candidate
is required to understand the relationship and complete the analogy.
Example 6 Choose the number which will replace the question mark(?).
FILM : 10 : : HOTEL : ?
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 30
Solution (a) As,
F I L M

6 + 9 + 12 + 13 = 40 = 40 ÷ 4 =10 [Q number of letters = 4]

Similarly,
H O T E L

8 + 15 + 20 + 5 + 12 = 60 = 60 ÷ 5 =12 [Q number of letters = 5]

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-8) In the following questions, there (a) Pakistan (b) Japan
are three words. The first two words to the left of (: :) are (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
related in some way. The same relationship holds between the 4. Plough : Farmer : : Sword : ?
third words to the right of the sign (: :) and one of the responses (a) Soldier (b) Surgeon
(a), (b), (c) or (d). Identify the correct related word. (c) Tailor (d) Carpenter
1. Newspaper : Editor : : Film : ? 5. Wax : Candle : : Pulp : ?
(a) Actor (b) Producer (a) Fruits (b) Sand
(c) Director (d) Story writer (c) Paper (d) Transport
2. Calendar : Dates : : Dictionary : ? 6. Dog : Bark : : Goat : ?
(a) Language (b) Sentences (a) Bleat (b) Howl (c) Grunt (d) Bray
(c) Words (d) Vocabulary
7. Birds : Ornithology : : Animals : ?
3. Rupee : India : : Yen : ? (a) Botany (b) Philology
Analogy 21
(c) Zoology (d) Seismology 22. 37 : 63 : : 25 : ?
8. Patient : Doctor : : Student : ? (a) 76 (b) 75 (c) 60 (d) 90
(a) School (b) Teacher
(c) Mother (d) Friend
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-26) In this type of questions, a
group of three words is given, followed by four other words as
Directions (Q. Nos. 9-11) In the following given questions, alternatives. The candidate is required to choose the
two words are given, they have a certain relationship to each alternative which is similar to the given three words.
other, four alternatives each with one pair of words are given. 23. Jam, Jelly, Pickles
Select the pair which has same relationship as the original pair (a) Butter (b) Marmalde (c) Grapes (d) Preserve
of words has.
24. Wrestling, Karate, Boxing
9. Kapil Dev : Cricket (a) Swimming (b) Polo (c) Pole vault (d) Judo
(a) P T Usha : Hockey
25. Dozen, Score, Decade
(b) Vishwanathan Anand : Chess
(a) Century (b) Number
(c) Sania Mirza : Golf
(c) Measurement (d) Counting
(d) Sachin Tendulkar : Tennis
10. Platform : Train 26. Edge, Corner, Tip
(a) Snow (b) Hill (c) Brink (d) Cap
(a) Aeroplane : Aerodrome (b) Hotel : Tourist
(c) Footpath : Traveller (d) Quaf : Ship
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-30) For the following questions,
11. Light : Darkness choose the correct option.
(a) Education : Illiteracy (b) Medicine : Patient
(c) Anger : Friendship (d) None of these
27. Mirror is related to Reflection in the same way as
‘Water’ is related to …
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-22) In each of the following (a) Conduction (b) Dispersion
(c) Immerison (d) Refraction
questions, there are some relationship between the two terms
to the left of (: :) and the same relationship holds between the 28. Engineer is related to Machine in the same way as
two terms to the right to the sign (: :). You have to identify the ‘Doctor’ is related to …
related option which come in place of questions mark (?). (a) Hospital (b) Body
(c) Disease (d) Medicine
12. AF : KP : : FK : ?
(a) GL (b) OX (c) TY (d) PU 29. Sweet is related to Chocolate in the same way as
13. CIRCLE : RICELC : : SQUARE : ? ‘Book’ is related to …
(a) Dictionary (b) Library
(a) QSUERA (b) QUSERA
(c) Encyclopaedia (d) Atlas
(c) UQSAER (d) UQSERA
30. Umbrella is related to Rain in the same way as
14. Dda : aDD : : Rrb : ?
‘Goggles’ is related to …
(a) BBr (b) bRR (c) RRr (d) rBB
(a) Light (b) Sun rays (c) Star (d) Sight
15. PALE : LEAP : : POSH : ?
(a) HOSP (b) POHS (c) SHOP (d) POSH Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) In each of these questions,
find out the missing term from the given alternatives.
16. DWH : WDS : : FUL : ?
(a) UFO (b) UFU 31. C : 16 : : F : ?
(c) FOU (d) ELV (a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 49 (d) 50
17. BUCKET : ACTVBDJLDFSU : : BONUS : ? 32. M × N : 13 × 14 : : F × R : ?
(a) ACMNMOTVRT (b) SUNOB (a) 7 × 19 (b) 5 × 17 (c) 14 × 15 (d) 6 × 18
(c) ACNPMOTVRT (d) ACMNMOTURT 169
33. MK : : : JH : ?
18. 63 : 21 : : 27 : ? 121
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 1 (d) 3 100 100 64 81
(a) (b) (c) (d)
64 81 120 100
19. 9 : 24 : : ? : 6
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 3 T X
34. :2:: :?
J H
20. 85 : 42 : : 139 : ? 23
(a) 68 (b) 69 (c) 70 (d) 67 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) (d) 4
7
21. 2 : 8 : : 4 : ?
(a) 24 (b) 64 (c) 40 (d) 44
22 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) For the following questions, choose 11. Hunt : Pleasure : Panic
the correct option. (a) Death : Disease : Germs (b) Game : Match : Win
(c) Theft : Gain : Loss (d) Rain : Cloud : Flood
1. As COUNSEL is to BITIRAK, so also GUIDANCE is
to 12. The words in the bottom row are related in the same
(a) HOHYBJBA (b) FPHZZKAB way as the words in the top row. Find the word that
(c) FOHYZJBB (d) OHYZKBB completes the bottom row of words.
2. As BLOCKED is to YOLXPVW, so also OZFMXS is to Evaporation Cloud Rain
(a) LABOUR (b) LAUNCH Sneezing Cough ?
(c) NAUGHT (d) RESULT
(a) Cold (b) Injury
3. As THEREFORE is to TEEOERFRH, so also
(c) Flower (d) Pain
HELICOPTER is to
(a) RETPOCILNE (b) RETPOCILEH 13. Which of the following represent the similar
(c) HLCPERTOIE (d) HELICORETP relationship as ‘CASE’ has with ‘EASC’ ?
(a) PILE : EPLI (b) DOME : MOED
4. As RATIONAL is to RATNIOLA, so also TRIBAL is to (c) JAIL : IJLA (d) None of these
(a) TRILBA (b) TIRLBA
(c) TRIALB (d) TIRLAB 14. Which of the following represent the same
relationship as ‘HEART’ has with ‘THREA’?
5. As CIRCLE is related to RICELC, so also SQUARE is
(a) SWORN : NSOWR (b) FUNDS : FSDUN
to (c) GLAZE : EGZAL (d) None of these
(a) UQSERA (b) UQSAER (c) QUSERA (d) QSUERA
15. Which of the following represent the same
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 and 7) Choose the correct option on relationship as ‘OFTEN’ has with ‘FOTNE’?
the basis of similar pattern in pyramid given below.
(a) HEART : TRAHE (b) OPENS : SNEOP
1 (c) RISKY : IRSYK (d) FIRST : IFRST
2 3 4 16. Which of the following represent the same
9 8 7 6 5 relationship as ‘BELOW’ has with ‘OBWEL’?
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 (a) DRAFT : FDTRA (b) REPLY : LRYPE
(c) YOUNG : UYGON (d) YEARS : RESYA
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 17. Which of the following represent the same
49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 relationship as ‘LOWER’ has with ‘WORLE’?
(a) ENTRY : RNYET (b) WORDS : ROSWD
6. 2812 : 765 : : 91123 : ? (c) AMONG : GNOMA (d) YEARS : RESYA
(a) 121110 (b) 121314 (c) 122132 (d) 303132
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-22) Choose the set of numbers
7. 129 : 145 : : 3811 : ? from the four alternatives which is similar to the given set.
(a) 3713 (b) 328 (c) 346 (d) 3615
18. Given set (9, 15, 21)
Directions (Q. Nos. 8-11) In each of the following (a) (10, 14, 16) (b) (7, 21, 28)
questions, some words are given which are related in some (c) (5, 10, 25) (d) (4, 8, 12)
way. The same relationship is obtained among the words in
one of the four alternatives given under it. Find the correct
19. Given set (12, 20, 60)
alternative. (a) (15, 12, 90) (b) (8, 12, 24)
(c) (7, 11, 75) (d) (6, 16, 90)
8. Researcher : Historian : Scholar 20. Given set (10, 30, 70)
(a) History : Story : Book (b) Teacher : Graduate : Poet
(a) (17, 37, 77) (b) (20, 30, 60)
(c) Epic : Novel : Book (d) Teacher : Professor : Lecturer
(c) (41, 55, 66) (d) (60, 70, 90)
9. France : Spain : Germany 21. Given set (9,15, 24)
(a) Canada : California : Mexico (a) (11, 14, 16)
(b) Iraq : Kuwait : Iran
(b) (6, 21, 28)
(c) Sri Lanka : Japan : India
(c) (5, 10, 25)
(d) Japan : China : Nigeria
(d) (4, 8, 15 )
10. Love : Adoration : Infatuation 22. Given set (256, 64, 16)
(a) Smile : Frown : Anger (b) Murder : Stab : Assassinate (a) (160, 40, 10) (b) (144, 36, 9)
(c) Hate : Dislike : Attract (d) None of these (c) (80, 20, 5) (d) (64, 32, 8 )
Analogy 23
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-25) What number will be come in 26. HNP : PBA :: DLP : ?
place of question mark? (a) PJG (b) CDP (c) CLP (d)PME
23. 2836 : 13; 9423 : 14; 7229 : ? 27. AFHO : GBDM :: CHFM : ?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 12 (a) GBLD (b) GBJO
24. 4322 : 48; 4172 : 56; 7615 : ? (c) GPLD (d) GBDM
(a) 110 (b) 210 (c) 140 (d) 180 28. AKJO : IOHN :: ? : CLBK
25. 14 + 55 → 69, 28 + 23 → 60, 22 + 31 → 35, (a) LDME (b) EMGH
17 + 28 → 99, 41 + 27 → ? (c) GNFM (d) EHDL
(a) 118 (b) 115 (c) 116 (d) 113
Directions (Q. Nos. 29-32) In each of these questions find
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-28) The following questions are out the missing term from the given alternatives.
based on the alphabets written along the figure given below. E 22 B
29. : :: : ?
In each question, the relationship between the two terms H 19 I
written left of (::) is retained in the two terms written to the 24 25
(a) (b)
right of it. Out of these four terms, one term is missing. 17 18
Choose this term out of the given alternatives. 3 17
(c) (d)
A 7 19
C
30. MLO : 121114 :: GJL : ?
B
(a) 192022 (b) 060911
(c) 160813 (d) 2218175
K L 31. GREAT : 25 :: NUMBER : ?
(a) 36 (b) 38
J D (c) 27 (d) 24
P
O M 32. X M A E : 16 :: V T N G : ?
I (a) 21 (b) 17
H N F E
(c) 35 (d) 18

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) Editor and director have same functions in newspaper and 11. (a) The words in each pair are antonyms of each other.
film, respectively.
12. (d) +10 +10
2. (c) Calendar is a list of dates and dictionary is collection of Similarly,
AF KP FK PU
words. Hence, the correct option is (c).
+10 +10
3. (b) As, Rupee is the currency of India, in the same way, Yen is
the currency of Japan. 13. (d) As,
C I R C L E
4. (a) Plough is used by farmer, similarly sword is used by soldier.
5. (c) We get wax by candle in same manner pulp is get by
paper. R I C E L C

6. (a) Dog is bark, similarly goat is bleat. Similarly,

S Q U A R E
7. (c) Study of birds is ornithology same as study of animals is
called zoology.
8. (b) Patient : Doctor :: Student : Teacher U Q S E R A

9. (b) Kapil Dev is associated with cricket similarly, Vishwanathan 14. (b) Dda : aDD, similarly Rrb : bRR
Anand is associated with chess. 15. (c) As,
P A L E
10. (d) As, platform is the place, where the train stops during the
journey in the same way quaf is the place where a ship stay
during its journey.
L E A P
24 Study Package for NTSE
Similarly, 21. (b) (2 )3 = 8 ⇒2 : 8
P O S H
Similarly, (4)3 = 64 ⇒ 4 : 64
22. (b) 37 : 63 ⇒ 37 + 63 = 100
S H O P
Q 25 : ? ⇒ 25 + ? = 100
16. (a) DWH : WDS ⇒ ? = 75
First two letters are rearranged and the third letter occupies the 23. (b) The given three words are all different forms in which
same position from the beginning and the end. fruits/vegetables are preserved. So, marmalde is a similar one.
Similarly, FUL : UFO 24. (d) All the given words are martial arts and hence, Judo is
17. (c) Each letter of the first group is replaced by two letters–one similar to others.
that comes after it and one that comes before it, in the second
25. (a) The given words are all terms used for a definite number of
group.
items. Century is the answer.
B U C K E T
26. (c) All the given words and the brink are synonyms.
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
AC TV BD JI DF SU 27. (d) Light rays following on mirror undergo reflection and those
falling on water undergo refraction.
Similarly,
B O N U S 28. (c) As engineer tackles the machine, similarly doctor tackles
the disease.
29. (c) As sweet is one of the material of chocolate, similarly book
AC NP MO TV RT material are part of encyclopaedia.
∴ ? = ACNPMOTVRT 30. (b) As umbrella protects from rain. Similarly, goggles protect
18. (b) As, 63 ÷ 3 = 21 from Sun rays.

Similarly, 27 ÷ 3 = 9 31. (c) C is the 3rd letter of the English alphabet and (3 + 1)2 = 16
19. (d) As, 9 × 3 − 3 = 27 − 3 = 24 Similarly, F is the 6th letter of the English alphabet and
(6 + 1)2 = 49
Similarly, ? ×3−3=6
⇒ ? ×3=6+ 3
32. (d) M and N are 13th and 14th letters of the English alphabets,
respectively. So, M × N corresponds to 13 × 14. Similarly, F and
9
⇒ ?= =3 R are 6th and 18th letters of the English alphabet, respectively.
3 So, F × R corresponds to 6 × 18.
⇒ ?= 3
33. (a) M and K are 13th and 11th letters of English alphabet,
20. (b) As, 85 42 132 169
respectively and = . Similarly, J and H are 10th 8th
112 121
1 1 102 100
×
2
–
2 letters of the English alphabet, respectively and 2 = .
8 64
Similarly, 139 69 34. (b) T and J are 20th and 10th letters of the English alphabet,
respectively and 20 ÷ 10 = 2.
1 1
× – Similarly, X and H are 24th and 8th letters of the English
2 2
alphabet, respectively and 24 ÷ 8 = 3.
∴ ? = 69

High Skill Questions

1. (c) As, 2. (b) As,
C O U N S E L B L O C K E D
Opposite
–1 –6 –1 –5 –1 –4 –1
letters
B I T I R A K Y O L X P V W
Similarly, Similarly,
G U I D A N C E O Z F M X S
–1 –6 –1 –5 –1 –4 –1 –3
Opposite
letters
F O H Y Z J B B L A U N C H
Analogy 25
3. (c) As, 13. (d) As,
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 3 5 7 9 8 6 4 2
T H E R E F O R E T E E O E R F R H 1 2 3 4 4 2 3 1
Similarly, C A S E E A S C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 3 5 7 9 10 8 6 4 2
H E L I C O P T E R H L C P E R T O I E (a) 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 2
P I L E E P L I
4. (a) As,
R A T I O N A L (b) 1 2 3 4 3 2 4 1
D O M E M O E D
(c) 1 2 3 4 3 1 4 2
R A T N I O L A J A I L I J L A
Similarly, Clearly, no option shows the correct pattern.
T R I B A L
14. (d) As,
1 2 3 4 5 5 1 4 2 3
T R I L B A H E A R T T H R E A
5. (a) As, (a) 1 2 3 4 5 5 1 3 2 4
C I R C L E S W O R N N S O W R
(b) 1 2 3 4 5 1 5 4 2 3
R I C E L C
F U N D S F S D U N
(c) 1 2 3 4 5 5 1 4 3 2
Similarly,
S Q U A R E G L A Z E E G Z A L
Clearly, no option shows the correct pattern.

U Q S E R A 15. (c) As,

1 2 3 4 5 2 1 3 5 4
6. (b) The answer to the above question should be (b) 121314 to
O F T E N F O T N E
satisfy the same relation.
Clearly, this pattern is show in option (c).
1
2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 2 1 3 5 4
9 8 7 6 5 R I S K Y I R S Y K
10 11 12 13 14 15 16
16. (a) As,
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
1 2 3 4 5 4 1 5 2 3
7. (d)
1 B E L O W O B W E L
2 3 4 Clearly, this pattern is show in option (a).
9 8 7 6 5 1 2 3 4 5 4 1 5 2 3
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 D R A F T F D T R A
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
17. (b) As,
So, correct similar pattern is followed in 3615. 1 2 3 4 5 3 2 5 1 4
8. (d) Third donates the class to which the first and second L O W E R W O R L E
belong. Clearly, this pattern is shown in option (b).
9. (c) As, all three are European countries and Sri Lanka, India 1 2 3 4 5 3 2 5 1 4
and Japan are Asian countries. W O R D S R O S W D
10. (b) Second and third are of higher intensity than the first and 9 + 21
18. (d) As, = 15.
second, respectively. 2
4 + 12
11. (c) As hunting gives pleasure to the hunter and creates panic for Similarly, =8
the haunted. Similarly, theft is a gain to the theft and a loss to the 2
person robbed. 19. (b) As, LCM of 12, 20 = 60,
12. (a) First is caused by the second and second leads to the Similarly, LCM of 8, 12 = 24
third. So, correct answer set is (8, 12, 24).
26 Study Package for NTSE
E 22
20. (a) As, 10
1
30 30 70,
424
3 1 424
3 As, =
H 19
+ 20 + 40
B 25
Similarly 17 37 37 77 Similarly, =
1 31
424 424
3 I 18
+ 20 + 40 −1
30. (b) As, 13M   → 12
21. (c) As, 9, 15 and 24 are divisible by 3. −1
12 L   → 11
Similarly, from option (c), 5, 10 and 25 are divisible by 5. −1
15O   → 14
22. (d) All the numbers in the each set can be expressed in terms
i.e. MLO : 121114
of power of 2.
−1
Similarly, 07 G   → 06
23. (a) As, 2 + 8 − 3 + 6 = 13 −1
10 J   → 09
9 + 4 − 2 + 3 = 14
−1
Similarly, 7 + 2 − 2 + 9 = 16 12 L   → 11

24. (b) As, 4322 = 48 ∴ GJL : 060911

⇒ 4 × 3 × 2 × 2 = 48 31. (a) As, GREAT has 5 letters, it is represented by square of 5
and 4172 = 56 i.e 25. Similarly, NUMBER has 6 letters. So, it is represented by
4 × 1 × 7 × 2 = 56, square of 6 i.e. 36.
Similarly, 7 × 6 × 1 × 5 = 210 32. (d) As,
25. (d) Reverse the digits to the right of the plus sign. As, X M A E

As, 14 + 55 → 69 ⇒ 14 + 55 = 69
24 13 1 5
and 22 + 31 → 35 ⇒ 22 + 13 = 35
and 28 + 23 → 60 ⇒ 28 + 32 = 60
2+4 1+3 1 5
and 17 + 28 → 99 ⇒ 17 + 82 = 99
Similarly, 41 + 27 → ? ⇒ 41 + 72 = 113 6 + 4 + 1 + 5 =16
26. (a) As HNP is corresponding to PDA, similarly DLP is Similarly,
corresponding to PJG. V T N G

27. (b) As AFHO is corresponding to GBDM, similarly CHFM is

corresponding to GBJO. 22 20 14 7

28. (a) As AKJO is corresponding to IOHN, similarly LDME is

corresponding to CLBK. 2+2 2+0 1+4 7

29. (b) Here, each letter is assigned its positional value in reverse
English alphabetical order. 6 + 2 + 5 + 7 =18
 Chapter

4
Alphabet Test
Alphabet test is a test to solve the problems based on letters of English alphabet.
This requires the knowledge of English alphabets. Some important points related to English alphabet are given
below
1. Positional values of letters in English alphabet.
Forward 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Alphabet A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Backward 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

2. Opposite letters of English alphabet

A ↔ Z, B ↔ Y, C ↔ X, D ↔ W, E ↔ V, F ↔ U, G ↔ T, H ↔ S, I ↔ R, J ↔ Q, K ↔ P, L ↔ O, M ↔ N
There are three types of questions based on English alphabet which are as follows

Type I Arranging the Words in Alphabetical Order

In these type of questions, some words are given. The candidate is required to arrange them as per dictionary in
order to answer the question. We know that in a dictionary, the words are arranged in alphabetical order.
Therefore, you must know the basics of the dictionary usage.
The words beginning with the same letter of English alphabet are again arranged in alphabetical order with
respect to the second letter of words and so on. To solve such questions, first of all observe the first letter of each
word. If the first letter is the same, observe the second letter and so on till you get the required arrangement of the
words.
Example 1 Which of the following will be the third word in the dictionary?
(a) Countdown (b) Cough
(c) Council (d) Couch
Solution (c) C o u n t d o w n
C o u g h
C o u n c i l
C o u c h
On the basis of the fourth letter, the arrangement of words would be as follows
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Couch → Cough → Council → Countdown
(d) (b) (c) (a)
On the basis of fifth letter in countdown and council, word ‘council’ will come third in the dictionary order.
28 Study Package for NTSE

Type II Meaningful Word Formation

In these type of questions, you are required to form meaningful word(s) using the specified letters of a keyword
using each letter only once. In such type of questions, a keyword is given and some letters of that word are singled
out with the help of those letters, you are required to form a new meaningful word and then point out the required
letter of the word so formed.
Example 2 Select the combination of numbers, so that letters arranged accordingly will form a meaningful word.
M T R E N I L A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1, 6, 5, 8, 7 (b) 2, 4, 3, 6, 1, 5, 8, 7 (c) 2, 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 8, 7 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2, 6, 8, 5, 7
Solution (c) Clearly, the given letters, when arranged in the order 2, 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 8, 7 form the word ‘TERMINAL’.
Example 3 Choose one word out of the given alternatives, which cannot be formed from the letters of the word
‘INTERNATIONAL’.
(a) LATTER (b) TERMINAL (c) ORIENTAL (d) RATIONALE
Solution (b) Carefully, looking on the words, it is clear that ‘TERMINAL’ cannot be formed by given word because the key word
does not contain ‘M’, so correct answer is TERMINAL.

Example 4 If we make a meaningful word of the first, fourth, ninth and fourteenth letters of the word
‘ADMINISTRATION’, which of the following will be second letter of the word from the left end of that word?
(a) R (b) A (c) I (d) N
Solution (b) The first, fourth, ninth and fourteenth letters of the word ‘ADMINISTRATION’ are ‘A’, ‘I’, ‘R’ and ‘N’.
The meaningful word is ‘RAIN’.
The second letter of the word from the left end is ‘A’.

Type III Finding the Positions of Letters

In such type of questions, the position of letters in English alphabets are determined based on certain conditions, such
as which letter is in the middle, end or at the first position etc. The candidate has to analyse the questions based upon
those condition and then has to determine the answer.
Example 5 Which letter will be in the middle between 6th letter from the left and 14th letter from the left in the
English alphabet?
(a) K (b) L (c) J (d) O
Solution (c) To determine mth and nth letters from the left in English alphabet, following formula can be used. Letter in
m + n
the middle from left =   it letter
 2 
6 + 14
= = 10th letter which is J.
2
[Remember E J O T Y – 5 10 15 20 25]

Example 6 Which letter will be in the middle between 6th letter from the left and 13th letter from the right in the
English alphabet?
(a) K (b) L (c) O (d) J
Solution (d) To determine mth letter from left and nth letter from the right in English alphabet, following formula can be
{(m − n) + 27}
used. Letter in the middle =
2
(6 − 13) + 27 20
= = = 10th letter = J
2 2
− +
î = = =
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Arrange the given words in an 17. (1) Inward (2) Iron
alphabetical order and choose the one that comes first. (3) Iodine (4) Invite
1. (a) Xylem (b) Xylophone
(5) Iodoform
(c) Xylophagous (d) Xylograph (a) (4), (1), (2), (5), (3) (b) (4), (1), (3), (5), (2)
(c) (1), (3), (2), (4), (5) (d) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3)
2. (a) Artist (b) Artificial
(c) Astrology (d) Ascent 18. (1) Matter (2) Meal
(3) Maze (4) Maximum
3. (a) Opportunity (b) Opposite (5) Mean
(c) Optics (d) Option
(a) (2), (3), (5), (4), (1) (b) (1), (4), (2), (5), (3)
4. (a) Inspect (b) Install (c) (1), (4), (3), (2), (5) (d) (4), (1), (3), (2), (5)
(c) Insist (d) Insulin
19. (1) Overweight (2) Overtime
5. (a) Magical (b) Media (3) Overtax (4) Overzeal
(c) Machine (d) Magnet (5) Overwork
6. (a) Penalty (b) Pedestrian (a) (2), (1), (4), (5), (3) (b) (3), (1), (2), (5), (4)
(c) People (d) Pencil (c) (3), (2), (1), (5), (4) (d) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3)

7. (a) Demand (b) Demon 20. (1) Recreate (2) Recollect

(c) Democracy (d) Demerit (3) Reclaim (4) Recover
(5) Recognise
8. (a) Scenery (b) School
(c) Scholar (d) Scientist (a) (3), (2), (5), (4), (1) (b) (3), (5), (2), (4), (1)
(c) (3), (2), (4), (1), (5) (d) (3), (5), (1), (2), (4)
9. (a) Cover (b) Caught
(c) Collect (d) Career 21. (1) Satellite (2) Scholar
(3) Saturday (4) Scenery
10. (a) Literature (b) Little
(5) Satisfaction
(c) Literacy (d) Litchi
(a) (1), (4), (5), (3), (2) (b) (1), (3), (5), (4), (2)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Arrange the given words in an (c) (1), (5), (3), (4), (2) (d) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
alphabetical order and choose the one that comes in last.
22. (1) Mechanical (2) Mechanist
11. (a) Sunderlal (b) Soonderlal (3) Mechanism (4) Mechanician
(c) Sundaralal (d) Sunder (5) Mechanic
12. (a) Thermo (b) Thermodynamics (a) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1) (b) (5), (1), (4), (2), (3)
(c) Thermometer (d) Thermal (c) (5), (1), (4), (3), (2) (d) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)

13. (a) Central (b) Census Directions (Q. Nos. 23-25) Find one word which cannot
(c) Center (d) Ceramics be made from the letters of the given word.
14. (a) Develop (b) Determination 23. ADULTERATION
(c) Determine (d) Detect (a) RELATION (b) RATIO
15. (a) Fluorescence (b) Florentine (c) RETURN (d) TOILET
(c) Floriculture (d) Flop 24. RECREATION
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-22) In each of the following (a) ACTION (b) REFER
questions, arrange the given words in the sequence in which (c) TORN (d) RATION
they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct 25. QUESTIONNAIRE
sequence.
(a) QUINATE (b) QUEUE
16. (1) Page (2) Palisade (c) QUESTOR (d) QUERIES
(3) Pageant (4) Parrot 26. Which letter is midway between 8th letter from left
(5) Peacock and 7th letter from right in the English alphabet ?
(a) (1), (3), (2), (5), (4) (b) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) (a) N (b) M
(c) (1), (3), (2), (4), (5) (d) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3) (c) P (d) O
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) In each of the following 9. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the
questions, arrange the given words in the sequence in which following series?
they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct NDP, QWB, ZFR, ?
sequence. (a) SVI (b) AFS (c) IVS (d) SFA
1. (1) Cloth (2) Cinema 10. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of
(3) Chronic (4) Christmas thirteenth letter from your left?
(5) Create
(a) U (b) J (c) S (d) Z
(a) (4), (3), (2), (1), (5)
(b) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) 11. If every alternate letter starting from O is replaced
(c) (4), (2), (3), (5), (1) with odd numbers starting from 1, which letter or
(d) (4), (2), (3), (5), (1) number will be third to the left of tenth letter from
2. (1) Dialogue (2) Diagram your right?
(3) Diameter (4) Diagnose (a) 15 (b) L (c) 13 (d) J
(5) Dial 12. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the
(a) (4), (2), (5), (1), (3) (b) (2), (4), (5), (1), (3) eight, sixteenth, seventeenth and twenty second
(c) (1), (2), (4), (5), (3) (d) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) letters from your left in the given series, which will be
3. (1) Enlock (2) Enrich the first letter of that word? If no such word can be
(3) Energetic (4) Encounter formed, your answer would be ‘X’ and if more than
(5) English one such words can be formed answer is P.
(a) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) (b) (4), (3), (5), (1), (2) (a) M (b) T (c) X (d) P
(c) (1), (3), (2), (4), (5) (d) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15) These following questions are
4. (1) Handkerchief (2) Handsome based on the alphabetical series given below.
(3) Handloom (4) Handglass
SLUAYJVEIONQGZBDRH
(5) Handicraft
(a) (1), (2), (4), (5), (3) (b) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1) 13. If ‘SU’ is related to ‘HD’ and ‘UY’ is related to ‘DZ’ in a
(c) (4), (5), (1), (3), (2) (d) (5), (4), (1), (3), (2) certain way, to which of the following is YV related to
the following in the same pattern?
5. (1) Navigate (2) National
(a) ZQ (b) IN (c) QO (d) DZ
(3) Naughty (4) Nation
(5) Narrow 14. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the
(a) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1) (b) (5), (4), (2), (3), (1) following series?
(c) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) (d) (5), (2), (3), (4), (1) LA, UJ, YI, EG, ?
(a) IB (b) NR (c) QR (d) QH
6. (1) Peerless (2) Penal
(3) Petroleum (4) Pedestrian 15. In a certain code‘VERB’ is coded as ‘ YJBG’ and
(5) Pharmacy ‘QUIZ’ is coded as ‘OSVQ’. How will ‘JOHN’ be coded
(a) (4), (1), (2), (5), (3) (b) (1), (2), (5), (4), (3) in the language?
(c) (4), (1), (2), (3), (5) (d) (4), (1), (5), (3), (2) (a) EQDG (b) AEDI (c) YIRO (d) VNRQ
7. (1) Unstable (2) Unship 16. Choose the word that cannot be formed by using the
(3) Unsafe (4) Unseat letters of the given word PROMINENT.
(5) Unshared (a) PENT (b) TENT (c) RENT (d) MINT
(a) (1), (3), (2), (4), (5) (b) (3), (4), (5), (2), (1)
(c) (1), (4), (5), (2), (3) (d) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1) 17. Choose the word that cannot be formed by using the
letters of the given word RECOMMENDATION.
Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) Answer these questions (a) MOTION (b) DANCE (c) NATIONAL (d) MAN
referring to the letter sequence given below.
NOPQYBZARSHIJKLMTUVGFEWXDC
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-22) Select the combination of
numbers so that letters arranged accordingly will form a
8. If the letter of the above given series are written in meaningful word.
reverse order, then which letter will be third to the
18. B L I P U S H
left of eighteenth letter from your right?
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) Z (b) F
(a) 4, 5, 1, 2, 6, 3, 7 (b) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1, 6, 7
(c) I (d) L
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (d) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6, 7
Alphabet Test 31
19. H L R A O C S 24. If you pickup from the following alphabet, the sixth
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 and fourteenth letters from your right and then
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 pickup the fifth and twentieth letters from your left
(b) 7, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 and form a meaningful word, what is the first letter of
(c) 7, 6, 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 that word?
(d) 7, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
20. I K E S R T (a) M (b) E
1 2 3 4 5 6 (c) No word can be formed
(a) 6, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 (b) 4, 6, 5, 1, 2, 3 (d) More than one word can be formed
(c) 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
25. If in the word EQUALITY, the position of first and
21. M B L A L R U E the fifth letters are interchanged. Similarly, the
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 positions of the second and the sixth letters are
(a) 7, 1, 2, 6, 8, 3, 5, 4 interchanged and so on, which letter will be third
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 from the right end?
(c) 8, 7, 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 6 (a) Q (b) U (c) I (d) T
(d) 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 8, 4, 5
26. If each vowel in the word ‘GLADIOLUS’ is
22. R G O S I E A N substituted with the next letter of the English
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 alphabetical series and each consonant is substituted
(a) 3, 8, 7, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2 with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are
(b) 3, 2, 1, 5, 8, 7, 4, 6 present in the new arrangement?
(c) 3, 1, 2, 8, 7, 4, 5, 6 (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
(d) 3, 1, 2, 7, 8, 5, 4, 6
27. Each consonant in the word ‘TIRADES’ is replaced by
23. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the the previous letter and each vowel is replaced by the
second, sixth, ninth and twelfth letters of the word next letter in the English alphabet and the new letters
‘CONTRIBUTION’, which of the following will be the are rearranged alphabetically. Which of the following
last letter of that word? will be the fourth from the right end?
(a) N (b) O (c) T (d) M (a) F (b) J (c) Q (d) C

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) Observe the words letter by letter 10. (d) On the basis of fourth letter, litchi will come first.
Xylem 11. (a) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
Xyl ophone (1) (2) (3) (4)
Xyl ophagous Soonderlal Sundralal Sunder Sunderlal
(b) (c) (d) (a)
Xyl o graph
12. (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
On the basis of fourth letter, ‘Xylem’ comes first.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2. (b) In ‘artist’ and ‘artificial’, artificial will come first on the basis Thermal Thermo Thermodynamics Thermometer
(d) (a) (b) (c)
of fifth letter.
Hence, thermometer comes last.
3. (a) On the basis of fifth letter, opportunity comes first.
13. (d) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
4. (c) On the basis of fourth letter, insist will come first.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5. (c) Out of magical, machine and magnet, on the basis of third Census Center Central Ceramics
(b) (c) (a) (d)
letter, machine will come first.
Hence, ceramics comes last.
6. (b) On the basis of third letter, pedestrian will come first.
14. (a) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
7. (a) On the basis of fourth letter, demand will come first.
Detect Determination Determine Develop
8. (a) On the basis of third letter, scenery will come first. (d) (b) (c) (a)

9. (d) On the basis of third letter, career will come first. Hence, develop comes last.
32 Study Package for NTSE

15. (a) Arrangement of words as per dictionary. 20. (b) Arrangement of words as per dictionary
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Reclaim → Recognise → Recollect → Recover → Recreate
Flop Florentine Floriculture Fluorescence (3) (2) (4) (1)
(d) (b) (c) (a) (5)
Correct sequence = 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
Hence, fluorescence comes last.
21. (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
16. (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
Satellite → Satisfaction → Saturday → Scenery → Scholar
Page → Pageant → Palisade → Parrot → Peacock (1) (5) (3) (4) (2)
(1) (3) (2) (4) (5) Correct sequence = 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
⇒ Correct sequence = 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 22. (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
17. (b) Arrangement of word as per dictionary. Mechanic → Mechanical → Mechanician → Mechanism
(5) (1) (4) (3)
invite → inward → iodine → iodoform → iron Correct sequence = 5, 1, 4, 3, 2 → Mechanist
(4) (1) (3) (5) (2) (2)
Correct sequence = 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 23. (c) RETURN cannot be made from the given word. As, R does
not appears twice in the given word.
18. (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
24. (b) REFER cannot be made from the given word. As, given
Matter → Maximum → Maze → Meal → Mean word do not contain letter F.
(1) (4) (3) (2) (5)

Correct sequence = 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 25. (b) QUEUE cannot be made from the given word. As, U does
not appears twice in the given word.
19. (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
Overtax → Overtime → Overweight → Overwork → Overzeal 26. (a) 7th letter from right = (27 − 7 ) th from left
(3) (2) (1) (5) (4)
= 20th letter from left
Correct sequence = 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 8 + 20
∴ Required middle letter = = 14 th letter from left = N
2

High Skill Questions

1. (a) Arrangement of words as per dictionary. 7. (b) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
Christmas → Chronic → Cinema → Cloth → Create Unsafe → Unseat → Unshared → Unship → Unstable
(4) (3) (2) (1) (5) (3) (4) (5) (2) (1)
Correct sequence = 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 Correct sequence = 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
2. (a) Arrangement of words as per dictionary. 8. (b) Third to the left of eighteenth letter from the right means
Diagnose → Diagram → Dial → Dialogue → Diameter (18 + 3) = 21st letter from the right in the reverse series or 21st
(4) (2) (5) (1) (3) letter from left in the original series. That is (26 − 21 + 1) = 6 th
Correct sequence = 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 letter from the right in the original series, i.e., F.
3. (b) Arrangement of words as per dictionary. 9. (a) N + 3 = Q Q+ 3= Z Z+ 3= S
Encounter → Energetic → English → Enclock → Enrich D− 2= W W− 2= F F− 2= V
(4) (1) (2)
(3) (5) P+ 3= B B+ 3= R R+ 3= I
Correct sequence = 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
Hence, ? = SVI
4. (d) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
10. (a) Fifth to the right of the thirteenth from left means
Handicraft → Handglass → Handkerchief → Handloom →
(5) (4) (1) (3) (13 + 5) = 18 th letter from your left i.e., U.
Handsome
(2) 11. (c) Third to the left of tenth letter from right means (10 + 3)
Correct sequence = 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
= 13 th letter from the right i.e., K. K will be replaced by the
5. (b) Arrangement of words as per dictionary. number 13, if we number the letter starting from O.
Narrow → Nation → National → Naughty → Navigate 12. (d) The specified letters are A, M, T and E. Meaningful words
(5) (4) (2) (3) (1)
made with the help of these letters are as follows
Correct sequence = 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
1. MEAT 2. TEAM 3. MATE 4. TAME
6. (c) Arrangement of words as per dictionary.
13. (a) After find the corresponding letters from the right, we get
Pedestrian → Peerless → Penal → Petroleum → Pharmacy
(4) (1) (2) (3) (5) ZQ.
Correct sequence = 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
Alphabet Test 33
14. (d) The first letter follows +1, + 2, + 3, + 4, ... 22. (d) Meaningful word
3 1 2 7 8 5 4 6
The second letter follows + 2, + 3, + 4, + 5, ...
O R G A N I S E = ORGANISE
We get, QH.
23. (b) CO N T R I B U T I O N
15. (b) After moving two letters backward in the given alphabetical 2 6 9 12
series from each corresponding letter. So, letters are O, I, T and N and the meaningful word can be
As, V E R B and Q U I Z ‘INTO’, last letter of this word is ‘O’.
–2 –2 –2 –2 –2 –2 –2 –2
Y J B G O S V Q 24. (a) From right, sixth letter = U
Similarly, J O H N Fourteenth letter = M
–2 –2 –2 –2 From left, fifth letter = E
A E D I
Twentieth letter = T
16. (b) TENT can not be formed from the given word. By using these letters, the meaningful word is ‘MUTE’. First
As, T does not appear twice in the given word. letter of this word is ‘M’.
17. (c) National cannot be formed from the given word. 25. (a) Given word = EQUALITY
As, given word does not contain letter L.
After interchanging the letters, new word formed = LIUAEQTY
18. (d) Meaningful word So, Q is the third from the right.
4 512367
26. (a) According to the question,
P U B L I S H = PUBLISH
Given word G L A D I O L U S
19. (c) Meaningful word
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
7 6 1 5 2 4 3 New word F K B C J P K V R
S C H O L A R = SCHOLAR
So, no vowel is present in the new arrangement.
20. (b) Meaningful word
27. (b) According to the question,
465123
S T R I K E = STRIKE Original word, T I R A D E S
i. Change, S J Q B C F R
21. (a) Meaningful word
ii. Change, B C F J Q R S
7 1 2 6 8 3 5 4
So, J will be the fourth from the right end.
U M B R E L L A = UMBRELLA
 Chapter

5
Series
A series is a sequential arrangement of terms. All the terms in the sequence follow a certain pattern. The term can
be in the form of numbers, letters or both numbers and letters. We come across several types of questions based on
any given series. In order to solve such questions, you must recognise the pattern of the given series and then
complete the given series with the most suitable alternative or find a incorrect number in the series.

Type I Number Series

The series in which all the terms are number is called Solution (a) 11 23 48 99 ? 409
number series. ×2+1 ×2+2 ×2+3 ×2+4 ×2+5
Some suggestive relationship between the numbers may be Q ? = 99 × 2 + 4 , ? = 198 + 4 = 202
(i) Consecutive odd/even number
Example 4 Find the missing term in the following series.
(ii) Consecutive prime numbers set 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, ? , 225
(iii) Squares/cubes of some numbers with/without variation (a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 13 (d) 15
of addition or subtraction of some numerals
(iv) Sum/product/difference of preceding number(s) Solution (d) There are two series
(v) Addition/subtraction/multiplication/division by some First series 1 3 6 10 ?

numbers +2 +3 +4 +5

? = 10 + 5 = 15
Example 1 Which number would replace question mark (?) in
the given series? 11, 22, 44, 77, 121, ? Second series is the squares of the correspondent
number of first series.
(a) 167 (b) 176 (c) 165 (d) 146
1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, ?, 225
Solution (b)
11 22 44 77 121 ? 12 = 1, 3 2 = 9 , 6 2 = 36 , 10 2 = 100, 152 = 225
+11 +22 +33 +44 +55
Example 5 Find the number in the given series, which is
121 + 55 = 176 incorrect. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96
Example 2 Find out the missing number in the following (a) 16 (b) 96 (c) 64 (d) 32
series. 4, 10, 22, 46, 94, ?
Solution (b) 1 2 4 8 16 32 64 96
(a) 190 (b) 178 (c) 122 (d) 116
×2 ×2 ×2 ×2 ×2 ×2 ×2
Solution (a) The order of the given series is as follows
? = 64 × 2 = 128
4 10 22 46 94 ? Hence, 96 should be replaced by 128.
×2+2 ×2+2 ×2+2 ×2+2 ×2+2
î For solving this type of number series questions, we should check
? = 94 × 2 + 2 = 190 the following thing
(i) Each number of series may be multiply by a fix number.
Example 3 Find the missing term in the following series. (ii) The numbers may be divided to get the next number.
11, 23, 48, 99, ? , 409 (iii) The numbers may be squared to get the next one.
(a) 202 (b) 212 (c) 102 (d) 216 (iv) Sometimes, something is added to get the next number or
subtracted or divided or multiplied to get the next one.
Series 35
Type II Alphabet Series Solution (b) A B D G K

The series in which all the terms are alphabet letters +1 +2 +3 +4

called alphabet series. ∴ ?= K

Directions (Ex. 6 and 7) In each of the following Example 7 CE, GI, KM, OQ, ?
questions, various terms of a letter series are given with one (a) ST (b) TP (c) SU (d) SQ
term missing. Choose the missing term out of the given
Solution (c) +2 +2 +2 +2
alternatives.
C E G I K M O Q S U
Example 6 A, B, D, G, ?
(a) J (b) K +2 +2 +2 +2 +2

(c) L (d) M ∴ ? = SU

Type III Alpha-Numeric Series

The series in which both alphabets and numbers î Trick 9 + 7 = 16th term from right
constitute the series is called alpha-numeric series. Hence, seventh to the left to the ninth from right means
16th from right is 5.
Directions (Ex 8 and 9) Study the following
letter/number sequence and answer the questions given below. Example 10 What should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following letter series with reference to the below
B3KG5PD79ERJIMT6ZHQ3W2A given sequence?
Example 8 Which of the following is exactly in the middle KBH, PGM, ULR, ?
between the ninth letter/number from the left end and seventh (a) ZQW (b) ZHW (c) Z82 (d) ZQ2
letter/number from the right end?
(a) I (b) R (c) M (d) J Solution (a) K
+5
P
+5
U
+5
Z
Solution (a) The ninth letter/ number from the left is 9 +5 +5 +5
and seventh letter/number from the right is Z. From 9 to B G L Q
Z, there are total nine letters and numbers. So, middle +5 +5 +5
letter between 9 and Z is I. H M R W
E R J I M T 6
Example 9 If the first twelve ∴ ? = ZQW
letters/numbers in the above sequence are Middle term
Example 11 a a b __ a a a __ b b a __
written in the reverse order, which of the following letter/number
will be seventh to the left to ninth letter/number from our right? (a) b a a (b) a b b (c) b a b (d) a a b
(a) K (b) P Solution (a) Divide it into triplet
(c) 5 (d) None of these a a b, __ a a, a __ b, b a __
Solution (c) 12th term from left is J. Therefore, we have Thus, the missing letters for completing the series are b,
to start the sequence, with J in the reverse order. a and a.
Thus, J R E 9 7 D P 5 G K 3 B I M T 6 Z H Q 3 W 2 A The answer b, a and a, then series will be
aab baa aab baa
7th from left to T 9th from right Hence, required answer is b a a.

Type IV Continuous Pattern Series

In continuous pattern series, a series of small/capital Example 12 In the following series, some of the letters are
letters is given which follows a particular pattern. missing. Select the correct alternatives.
However, some letters are missing from the series. In mc_m_a_ca_ca_c_mc
some of the questions, a set of letters is given four or five (a) acmmma (b) camcam (c) aaacmm (d) acmmca
times with blank spaces or question marks in between.
Solution (a) Here, the pattern is as follows
The series follows a specific pattern and candidates are
mca / mca / mca / mca / mca / mc
required to find the letters which should come in place of
⇒ Required answer is acmmma.
the blank spaces or question marks.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) Complete the given series. 17. 5, 11, 24, 52, 106
(a) 11 (b) 24
1. 5, 9, 17, 29, 45, ? (c) 52 (d) 106
(a) 60 (b) 65 (c) 70 (d) 68
18. 7, 9, 16, 25, 41, 66, 105
2. 15, 51, 105, ? (a) 41 (b) 66
(a) 501 (b) 51 (c) 15 (d) 150 (c) 16 (d) 105
3. 25, 20, 15, 10, ? 19. 8, 24, 72, 248, 648
(a) 50 (b) 75 (c) 100 (d) 5 (a) 72 (b) 248 (c) 24 (d) 648
4. 3, 7, 15, 31, ? 20. 10, 90, 170, 250, 340, 410
(a) 63 (b) 53 (c) 43 (d) 73 (a) 170 (b) 250 (c) 340 (d) 410
5. 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, ?
(a) 56 (b) 55 (c) 57 (d) 58 Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Complete the given series.
6. 4, 9, 19, 34, 54, ? 21. AZ, GT, MN, ?, YB
(a) 79 (b) 74 (c) 89 (d) 83 (a) KF (b) RX (c) SH (d) TS

7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ? 22. AZ, CX, FU, ?

(a) 64 (b) 56 (c) 71 (d) 81 (a) IR (b) IV (c) JQ (d) KP

8. 0, 3, 8, 15, ?, 35 23. OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?

(a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (d) 20 (a) SYJ (b) TXI (c) SXJ (d) SXI

9. 1, 8, 27, 64, ?, 216 24. BEH, KNQ, TWZ, ?

(a) 127 (b) 125 (c) 124 (d) 128 (a) IJL (b) CFI (c) BDF (d) ADG

10. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?, 28, 36 25. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ, ?

(a) 24 (b) 22 (a) RRN (b) QRN (c) QRM (d) QQN
(c) 64 (d) 21

11. 6, 36, 7, 49, 8, 64, ?, 81, 10, 100 Directions (Q.Nos. 26-28) Study the following
arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 69 (d) 66
F @ 3 9 H A D I % 4 E $MK2URP5Wδ81TJV7
12. 90, 84, 86, 80, ?, 76, 78
(a) 87 (b) 82 (c) 77 (d) 89 26. How many consonants are there in the given
13. 2, 5, 10, 13, 26, 29, ? arrangement, which are preceded by a number and
(a) 32 (b) 44 (c) 52 (d) 58 not followed by a letter?
(a) None (b) One
14. 7, 13, 25, 43, 67, ? (c) Two (d) Three
(a) 99 (b) 100 (c) 97 (d) 98
27. Four of the following five options are alike in a certain
15. 17, 25, 41, 65, 97, ? way, based on their positions in the above
(a) 147 (b) 100 (c) 137 (d) 98 arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
Directions (Q. Nos.16-20) In each of the following (a) D %  (b) 5 δ R (c) T V 8 (d) E % $
questions, one term is wrong. Find out the wrong/incorrect
term. 28. If all the symbols from the above arrangement are
dropped, then which of the following will be the
16. 11, 22, 44, 77, 122 twelfth from the left end?
(a) 22 (b) 122 (c) 77 (d) 44 (a) 4 (b) K (c) 2 (d) U
Series 37
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) Find the missing term in the Directions (Q.Nos. 16-25) In each of the following
following questions of series. questions, a letter series is given in which some of the letters
are missing. The missing letters are given in that order as
1. 6, 9, 18, 21, 42, 45, ?, ?
one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct
(a) 90 and 91 (b) 90 and 92
alternative.
(c) 90 and 93 (d) 90 and 94
16. a b_ _ _ b_ b b a a_
2. 9, 5, 14, 19, 33, ? (a) a b a a b (b) a b b a b
(a) 50 (b) 48 (c) b a a a b (d) b a b b a
(c) 62 (d) 52
17. _ _a b a_b a_a b
3. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, ? (a) a b b a b (b) a b b b
(a) 27 (b) 29 (c) b a a b b (d) b b a b a
(c) 26 (d) 24
18. _b a a_a a b_a_a
4. 5, 7, 10, 15, 22, ? (a) a a b b (b) a a b a
(a) 33 (b) 25 (c) a b a b (d) b a a b
(c) 27 (d) 29
19. a_b b c_a a b_c c a_b b c c
5. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ? (a) b a c b (b) a c b a
(a) 240 (b) 290 (c) a b b a (d) c a b a
(c) 336 (d) 540 20. b c_ b_ c_ b_c c b
(a) c b c b (b) b b c b
6. 10, 15, 30, 45, 90, ?
(c) c b b c (d) b c b c
(a) 140 (b) 135
(c) 145 (d) 125 21. a b b_b a a_a_b a b_a b
(a) a b b a (b) a b a b
7. 1, 4, 2, 8, 6, 24, 22, 88, ? (c) c c a c (d) a a b b
(a) 86 (b) 90
(c) 154 (d) 352 22. a a b_a a_c a a_ c a a_ c
(a) b b c a (b) b c b c
8. 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, ? (c) c a b a (d) c b b b
(a) 541 (b) 415
(c) 511 (d) 521 23. a c_c a b_b a c a_a b a_a c a c
(a) a a c b (b) a c b c
9. YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? (c) b a b b (d) b c b b
(a) QOL (b) QGL
24. _ b c_ a b_c a a b c
(c) TOL (d) QNL
(a) a c b (b) b a b
10. A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY (c) a b a (d) a a c
(a) LMNO (b) MNOL 25. a b_ b c_ c_b a_c
(c) NOPQ (d) MNOP (a) b a a c (b) a a b b
11. 3 F, 6 G, 11 I, 18 L, ? (c) c a a b (d) a a a b
(a) 21 O (b) 25 N
(c) 27 P (d) 27 Q Directions (Q. Nos. 26-28) Find the missing term in the
following series.
12. CX, FU, IR, ?, OL, RI
(a) LO (b) MN 26. APZLT, CQYNR, ERXPP, GSWRN, ITVTL, ?
(c) NO (d) OP (a) KUUVJ (b) KVUUJ
(c) JUVUR (d) KVUVJ
13. BF, CH, ?, HO, LT
(a) DN (b) EL (c) EK (d) EM 27. ACEGI, JLNPR, SUWYA, ?, KMOQS
(a) LBGHI (b) ADIFH
14. C1L, F4O, I9R, L16U, ? (c) YWXAC (d) BDFHJ
(a) O25X (b) N25X (c) N25Y (d) N20Z
28. 3624, 4363, 3644, 4563, 3664 ?
15. KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, ?
(a) 4263 (b) 4363
(a) BY17 (b) CY18 (c) CZ17 (d) CY17
(c) 4563 (d) 4763
38 Study Package for NTSE

Directions (Q. Nos. 29-31) A pyramid of letters is given 30. ZWOHL, BQFLM, GTRMQ, ?, ESJGZ
below. Study the pyramid and select the correct alternatives (a) OXCQG (b) HESFR
to fill in the missing term. (c) OCXCQ (d) XCJQG
P 31. PJXZM, LBQZG, ?
Z J M (a) DWZYS (b) AUCBO
(c) UACBO (d) DZWYS
L Y X U I
Z B G O E V H 32. What letter will come next in the following series?
A W Q T X S D E M
ABCDEFZYXWVUBCDEYXWV
(a) C (b) A
B U O F R C J W S I T
(c) U (d) B
N P C H L M Q G Z Y R F D
33. What letter will come next in the following series?
29. LBQF, UXYL, GTRM, ? ABCDABCDEABCDEFABCDEF
(a) HEVO (b) DSXT (a) E (b) G
(c) VEOG (d) IUXY (c) F (d) H

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) The pattern of the series is 8. (a) The pattern of the series is
0 3 8 15 24 35
5 9 17 29 45 65
+3 +5 +7 +9 +11
+4 +8 +12 +16 +20 ∴ ? = 24
+4 +4 +4 +4 9. (b) The pattern of the series is
? = 45 + 20 = 65 1 8 27 64 125 216
2. (a) 15 ←→ 51,105 ←→ 501 reverse order of numerals.
3. (d) The pattern of the series is 13 23 33 43 53 63
25 20 15 10 5 ∴ ? = 125
–5 –5 –5 –5 10. (d) The pattern of the series is
21 28 36
∴ ?=5
1 3 6 10 15

4. (a) The pattern of the series is +2 +3 +4 +5 +6 +7 +8

3 7 15 31 63 ? = 15 + 6 = 21

×2+1 ×2+1 ×2+1 ×2+1 11. (a) The pattern of the series is
6 36 7 49 8 64 9 81 10 100
∴ ? = 63
×6 ×7 ×8 ×9 ×10
5. (a) The pattern of the series is
1 2 6 15 31 56 ∴ ?=9

+12 +22 +32 +42 +52 12. (b) The pattern of the series is
∴ ? = 56 90 84 86 80 82 76 78

6. (a) The pattern of the series is –6 +2 –6 +2 –6 +2

4 9 19 34 54 79 Q ? = 82

+5 +10 +15 +20 +25 13. (d) The pattern is as follows

2 5 10 13 26 29 58
+5 +5 +5 +5
+3 ×2 +3 ×2 +3 ×2
∴ ? = 79
∴ ? = 58
7. (d) The pattern of the series is
1 9 25 49 81 14. (c) The pattern of the series is
7 13 25 43 67 97

+6 +12 +18 +24 +30

12 32 52 72 92
+6 +6 +6 +6
∴ ? = 81
? = 97
Series 39
15. (c) The pattern of the series is 22. (c) The pattern of the series is
17 25 41 65 97 37 A Z C X F U J Q
+8 +16 +24 +32 +40 +2
+3 +4
+8 +8 +8 +8 –2
–3
? = 137 –4
∴ ? = JQ
16. (b) The pattern of the series is
121 23. (d) The pattern of the series is
11 22 44 77 122 +1 +1 +1 +1
O P Q R S
+11 +22 +33 +44 +1 +1 +1 +1
T U V W X
Hence, term 122 is wrong, it should be replaced by 121. +1 +1 +1 +1
E F G H I
17. (c) The pattern of the series is
51 ∴ ? = SXI
5 11 24 52 106
24. (b) The pattern of the series is
×2+1 ×2+2 ×2+3 ×2+4 +9 +9 +9
B K T C
Hence, term 52 is wrong. It should be replaced by 51. +9 +9 +9
E N W F
18. (d) The pattern of the series is H
+9
Q
+9
Z
+9
I
7 + 9 = 16 ∴ ? = CFI
9 + 16 = 25
25. (b) The pattern of the series is
16 + 25 = 41 +1 +1 +1 +1
M N O P Q
25 + 41 = 66 +1 +2 +3 +4
H I K N R
41 + 66 = 105 –3 –3 –3 –3
Z W T Q N
Hence, term 105 is wrong, it should be replaced by 107.
∴ ? = QRN
19. (b) The pattern of the series is
216 26. (c) Number Consonant Number Symbol
8 24 72 248 648
Here, F @ 3 9 H  A D I % 4 E $MK2URP5Wδ 81TJV7
×3 ×3 ×3 ×3 In the given arrangement, 2 such consonants are there viz. 9 H 
Hence, term 248 is wrong. It should be replaced by 216. and 5 W δ which are preceded by a number and not followed by a
20. (c) The pattern of the series is letter.
330
27. (d) Here, F @ 3 9 H  A D I % 4 E $MK2URP5Wδ 81TJV
10 90 170 250 340 410
7
+80 +80 +80 +80 +80 In all the groups except ‘E % $’, second element is two positions
Hence, term 340 is wrong. It should be replaced by 330. ahead of first element and the third element is two positions
21. (c) The pattern of the series is behind to the first element.
+6 +6 +6 +6 28. (c) After dropping all the symbols, the resultant arrangement will
A G M S Y
be
Opposite Opposite Opposite Opposite Opposite
letter letter letter letter letter F39HADI4EMK 2 URP5W81TJV7
Z T N H B
12th from left
∴ ? = SH
So, twelfth element from the left is 2.
40 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. (c) The pattern of the series is 12. (a) The pattern of the series is
×2 ×2 ×2 C X F U I R L O O L R I
+3
6 9 18 21 42 45 90 93 +3 +3 +3
–3 –3 –3 –3
+3 +3 +3
∴ ? = LO
+3
∴ ? = 90, 93 13. (c) The pattern of the series is
+2 +3 +4 +5
2. (d) Each number is the total of its two preceeding numbers.
Hence, the missing number is 52. (19 + 33 = 52 ) BF CH EK HO LT

3. (b) A prime number series, next number in series will be 29. +1 +2 +3 +4

4. (a) The pattern of the series is Q ? = EK

14. (a) The pattern of the series is
5 7 10 15 22 33 +3 +3 +3 +3
C F I L O
+2 +3 +5 +7 +11 +3 +5 +7 +9
1444442444443 1 4 9 16 25
Prime number +3 +3 +3 +3
L O R U X
Q ? = 33
∴ ? = O 25 x
5. (c) Given series is 13 − 1, 2 3 − 2, 33 − 3, 43 − 4, 53 − 5, 63 − 6
15. (d) The pattern of the series is
etc., next term 7 3 − 7 = 336 –2 –2 –2 –2
K I G E C
6. (b) The pattern of the series is M
+3
P
+3
S
+3
V
+3
Y
×3 ×3 +3 +3 +3 +3
5 8 11 14 17
10 15 30 45 90 135 ∴ ? = CY17
×3 ×3 16. (c) The series is : a, b b; a a, b; a, b b; a a, b
∴ ? = 135 Required answer is b a a a b
17. (a) The series is : a b, a b, a b, a b, a b, a b
7. (a) The pattern of the series is
Required answer is a b b a b
1 4 2 8 6 24 22 88 86
18. (c) The series is : a b a, a b a, a b a, a b
×4 –2 ×4 –2 ×4 –2 ×4 –2 Required answer is a b a b
∴ ? = 86 19. (b) The series is : a a, b b, c c, a a, b b, c c, a a, b b, c c
Required answer is a c b a
8. (c) The pattern of the series is
20. (a) The series is : b c c, b b, c c, b b, c c, b
2 3 − 1, 33 − 1, 43 − 1, 53 − 1, 63 − 1,7 3 − 1, 83 − 1
Required answer is c b c b
Q = 8 × 8 × 8 − 1= 512 − 1 = 511
21. (a) The series is : a b b a, b a a b, a b b a, b a a b
9. (a) The pattern of the series is Required answer is a b b a
–2 –2 –2 –2
Y W U S Q 22. (d) The series is : a a b c; a a b c, a a b c, a a b c
+1 +2 +3 +4
E F H K O Requried answer is c b b b
+2 +3 +2 +3
B D G I L 23. (a) The series is : a c a c, a b a b, a c a c, a b a b, a c a c
∴ ? = QOL Required answer is a a c b

10. (d) The pattern of the series is 24. (a) The series is : a b c, c a b, b c a, a b c
Requried answer is a c b
A CD GH I MNOP UVWXY
25. (c) The series is : a b c, b c a, c a b, a b c
+2 +3 +4 +5
Required answer is c a a b
The number of letters in each term is increasing by one.
26. (a) The pattern of the series is
∴ ? = MNOP +2 +2 +2 +2 +2
A C E G I K
11. (c) The pattern of the series is +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
P Q R S T U
+3 +5 +7 +9 –1 –1 –1 –1 –1
3 6 11 18 27 Z Y X W V U
+1 +2 +3 +4 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2
F G I L P L N P R T V
–2 –2 –2 –2 –2
T R P N L J
∴ ? = 27 P
∴ ? = KUUVJ
Series 41
27. (d) The pattern of the series is 30. (a) P
+1 +1
A C E G I J L N P R S U W Y A Z J M
L Y X U I
+2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2
Z B G O E V H
+1 A W Q T X S D E M
B D F H J K M O Q S
B U O F R C J W S I T
+2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2
N P C H L M Q G Z Y R F D
28. (d) Reverse the previous number and add 1 to the same digit
each time. ? = OXCQG
⇒ 3624 → 4263 31. (b)
|
→ + 1 = 4363 P
Z J M
3644 → 4463
|→ + 1 4563 L Y X U I
=
Z B G O E V H
3664 → 4663
|→ + 1
= 4763
A W Q T X S D E M

∴ ? = 4763 B U O F R C J W S I T

29. (c) N P C H L M Q G Z Y R F D
P
Z J
? = AUCBO
M
L Y X U I 32. (a) The given series contain two different series,
Z B G O E V H I→ ABCDEF BCDE CD
A W Q T X S D E M
B U O F R C J W S I T II → Z Y X W V U YXWV

N P C H L M Q G Z Y R F D
33. (b) The series follows below pattern
? = VEOG ABCD/ABCDE/ABCDEF/ABCDEF G
 Chapter

6
Complex
Sequence
In these type of questions, a long series of numbers with or without repetitions is given. The candidate must find
out how many times a number satisfying the conditions, specified in the questions.
While solving the questions based on complex sequence candidate is required to follow the given steps
Step 1. First of all, spot the number in the given sequence.
Step 2. Observe minutely to the left and right of such numbers to examine whether they satisfying the conditions or not
as given in the question.
Step 3. Finally, count the numbers which satisfying the required conditions.

Example 1 In the series given below, how many 8’s are there which are exactly divisible by its immediate preceding
as well as succeeding numbers?
2838248248682824838286
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
Solution (b) Given series,
28382 48248682824838286
↓ ↓
Therefore, there are only two such 8’s that fulfill the given condition.

Example 2 In the following series, how many such odd numbers are there which are divisible by 3 or 5, then
followed by odd number and again followed by even number?
12, 19, 21, 3, 25, 18, 35, 20, 22, 21, 45, 46, 47, 48, 9, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
Solution (c) Odd numbers in the given series 19, 21, 3, 25, 35, 21, 45, 47, 9, 55
Odd numbers divisible by 3 : 21, 3, 21, 45
Odd numbers divisible by 5 : 25, 35, 45, 55
Multiple of 3 or 5 (odd) Odd number Even number

12, 19, 21, 3, 25, 18, 35, 20, 22, 21, 45, 46, 47, 48, 9, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56

Satisfies conditions Satisfies conditions

Thus, there are two such odd numbers.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. How many such 4s are there in the following number 6. How many 8s are there in the following number
series which are immediately preceded by an odd sequence which are immediately followed by 5 but not
number and immediately followed by an even immediately preceded by 3?
number? 385685857385285638578532585
12342341344241231234132412341241 (a) Five (b) Six (c) Seven (d) Four
(a) Nil (b) One
7. How many 6s are there in the following number
(c) Two (d) Three
sequence which are immediately followed by an even
2. How many 5s are there in the following number number and immediately preceded by one odd
sequence which are immediately followed by 2 and number?
immediately preceded by 7? 3625632632627646586764268
6543752378525775275314752352 (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
(a) Nil (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three 8. How many odd numbers are there in the following
sequence which are immediately followed by an odd
3. How many such 5s are there in the following number number?
sequence which are immediately preceded by 7 but
51473985726315863852243496
not immediately followed by 9?
(a) Five (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
25975214759317528759475
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four 9. How many numbers amongst the numbers 9 to 99 are
there which are exactly divisible by 9 but not by 3?
4. How many 7s are there in the following sequence (a) Eight (b) Ten (c) Twelve (d) None of these
which are preceded by 5 as well as followed by 3?
7753757377335737573 10. Nitin was counting down from 32. Sumit was
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four counting upwards the numbers starting from 1 and
he was calling out only the odd numbers. What
5. How many 5s are there in the following number series common number will they all out at the same time,
which are immediately followed by 3 but not if they were calling out at the same speed?
immediately preceded by 7? (a) 19
2153253855687335775365325739 (b) 21
(a) One (b) Two (c) 22
(c) Three (d) Four (d) They will not call out the same number

High Skill Questions

1. How many such 9s are there in the following number 3. How many even numbers are there in the series
sequence which are either immediately preceded by or which are preceded as well as followed by an even
immediately followed by an even number in the series? number?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
39549783921897315699516972
(a) Two (b) Three 4. In the following number series, how many 5s are
(c) Four (d) More than four there which are immediately preceded by an odd
number and immediately followed by an even
Directions (Q. Nos. 2-3) Read the following number series number?
carefully and answer the questions given below it. 249765543794583567984256752
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
7828938523847819885
2. How many 8s are there in the series which are 5. How many pairs of successive numbers have a
preceded by an odd number but not followed by an difference of 2 each in the below series?
even number? 641228742153862171453286
(a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) Five (a) Four (b) Three (c) Five (d) Six
44 Study Package for NTSE

6. How many 3s are there in the following number 8. In the following series of numbers, how many times 1,
sequence which are immediately preceded by 7 but not 3 and 7 have appeared together, 7 being in the middle
immediately followed by 4? and 1 and 3 on either side of 7?
73483736534735873437353 2973173771331738571377173906
(a) Four (a) Three (b) More than three
(b) Three (c) Two (d) More than five
(c) Five
(d) Six Directions (Q. Nos. 9 and 10) Study the number series
given below and answer the questions that follow.
7. In the following number sequence, how many such
even numbers are there which are exactly divisible by 7897653428972459297647
its immediate preceding number but not exactly 9. How many 7’s are preceded by 9 and followed by 6?
divisible by its immediate following number? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
38415728348939421582
10. Which figures have equal frequency?
(a) Five (b) Two
(a) 253 (b) 245 (c) 375 (d) 865
(c) Three (d) Four

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) Odd number 4 Even number 2153253855687335775365335739
Thus, there are three such 5’s.
12 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 4 4 2 4 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 4 1
6. (a) 3 8 5 6 8 5 8 5 7 3 8 5 2 8 5 6 3 8 5 7 8 5 3 2 5 8 5
Thus, there are two such 4s.
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
2. (d) 6 5 4 3 7 5 2 3 7 8 5 2 5 7 7 5 2 7 5 3 1 4 7 5 2 3 5 2 Satisfies conditions
↓ ↓ ↓ Thus, there are five such 8’s.
Satisfies Satisfies Satisfies 7. (c) Odd number 6 Even number
conditions conditions conditions
3625632632627646 586764268
Therefore, there are three such 5’s.
↓ ↓ ↓
3. (c) 2 5 9 7 5 2 1 4 7 5 9 3 1 7 5 2 8 7 5 9 4 7 5 Satisfies conditions Satisfies conditions
↓ ↓ ↓ Thus, there are three 6’s satisfy the condition.
Satisfies Satisfies Satisfies
conditions conditions conditions 8. (d) 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
Therefore, there are three such 5’s. ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
4. (c) 7 7 5 3 7 5 7 3 7 7 3 3 5 7 3 7 5 7 3 Satisfies conditions
↓ ↓ ↓ There are four odd numbers satisfy the condition which are
Satisfies Satisfies Satisfies immediately followed by an odd number.
conditions conditions conditions
9. (d) 9, 18, 27, 36, 45, 54, 63, 72, 81, 90, 99
Therefore, there are three such 7’s. There is no such number because a number which is divisible by
5. (c) A number which comes after a given number is said to follow 9 is also divisible by 3.
it while one which comes before the given number preceded it. 10. (d) Nitin—32, 31, 30, 29, 28, 27, 26, 25, 24
The 5s satisfying the given conditions, can be shown in the Sumit—1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17
series as
Clearly, both will never call out the same number.
Complex Sequence 45
High Skill Questions 5. (d) In the series,
6412287 421 53 8 6 21714 53 286
1. (d) 2 or 4 or 6 or 8 9 or 9 2 or 4 or 6 or 8
There are six pairs having a difference of 2.
3954978392189 731 56 9 95 1 6 9 72
6. (b) In the series,
Thus, there are five such 9s.
2. (b) Odd number 8 Odd number 73483 7 3 6 534 7 3 5 87343 7 3 5 3
Thus, here only three such 3’s which preceded by 7 but not
782893852384 7819885
immediately followed by 4.
↓ ↓
Satisfies Satisfies 7. (b) 3 8 4 1 5 7 2 8 3 4 8 9 3 9 4 2 1 5 8 2
conditions conditions
Thus, there are two such 8s. So, there are two such sets which satisfy the conditions given in
the question.
3. (a) Even number Even number Even number
8. (a) 1 7 3 or 3 7 1
7 82838523847819885
2973 1 7 3 77133 1 7 3 8571377 1 7 3 906
↓
Satisfies conditions Thus, three times 1, 3 and 7 have appeared together.
Thus, there is only one even number which is preceded as well
as followed by even numbers. 9. (a) 7 8 9 7 6 5 3 4 2 8 9 7 2 4 5 9 2 9 7 6 4 7
Thus, there are two times 7’s are preceded by 9 and followed
4. (b) Odd number 5 Even number
by 6.
24976 5 5 4 37945 8 3 5 6 7984256 7 5 2
↓ ↓ ↓
10. (d) In the given series, 2 occurs 3 times, 3 occurs once, 4 occurs
3 times, 5 occurs 2 times, 6 occurs 2 times, 7 occurs 5 times, 8
Satisfies Satisfies Satisfies
occurs 2 times and 9 occurs 4 times clearly. The frequency of
conditions conditions conditions
5, 6 and 8 is same i.e., 2.
Thus, there are three such 5s.
 Chapter

7
Logical Sequence
of Words
In these type of questions, a group of words is given. The candidate is required to arrange these words in a
meaningful order such as the sequence of occurrence of events, sequence form a part to the whole, sequence of
increasing/decreasing size, value, intensity, etc., and then choose the correct sequence accordingly.
Example 1 Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence.
(1) Consultation (2) Illness
(3) Doctor (4) Treatment
(5) Recovery
(a) (2), (3), (1), (4), (5) (b) (2), (3), (4), (1), (5)
(c) (4), (3), (1), (2), (5) (d) (5), (1), (4), (3), (2)
Solution (a) We know that, illness occurs first. Then, patient goes to the doctor and after consultation with
him undergoes treatment to finally attain recovery.
Thus, the correct order is (2), (3), (1), (4) and (5).

Example 2 Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence.

(1) Cut (2) Stitch
(3) Mark (4) Measure
(5) Tailor
(a) (5), (4), (3), (1), (2) (b) (4), (5), (3), (2), (1)
(c) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1) (d) (5), (3), (4), (2), (1)
Solution (a) The meaningful sequence is
Tailor → Measure → Mark →Cut → Stitch i.e., (5), (4), (3), (1) and (2).

Example 3 Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence.

(1) Country (2) Furniture
(3) Forest (4) Wood
(5) Trees
(a) (1), (3), (5), (4), (2) (b) (1), (4), (3), (2), (5)
(c) (2), (4), (3), (1), (5) (d) (5), (2), (3), (1), (4)
Solution (a) From the above words, it is deduced that a country contains forests, a forest has trees. Trees give
wood that is used to make furniture.
Thus, the correct order is (1), (3), (5), (4), (2).
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-20) In the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the
most appropriate sequence from the options given below in the each question.
1. (1) Maharashtra (2) Shirdi 10. (1) September (2) April
(3) India (4) Asia (3) December (4) August
(5) World (5) March
(a) (2), (1), (3), (4), (5) (b) (1), (2), (5), (4), (3) (a) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) (b) (5), (2), (4), (1), (3)
(c) (5), (1), (2), (4), (3) (d) (3), (2), (1), (4), (5) (c) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1) (d) (5), (4), (2), (1), (3)

2. (1) Village (2) State 11. (1) Mother (2) Cry

(3) World (4) Country (3) Milk (4) Smile
(5) District (5) Child
(a) (1), (5), (3), (4), (2) (b) (1), (5), (2), (4), (3) (a) (5) , (2), (1), (3), (4) (b) (1), (5), (4), (3), (2)
(c) (1), (5), (3), (2), (4) (d) (1), (2), (5), (4), (3) (c) (1), (4), (3), (2),(5) (d) (4), (2), (3), (5), (1)

3. (1) Post-box (2) Delivery 12. (1) Lake (2) Sea

(3) Letter (4) Envelope (3) River (4) Pool
(5) Clearance (5) Pond
(a) (4), (3), (1), (5), (2) (b) (4), (1), (3), (2), (5) (a) (4), (1), (2), (3), (5) (b) (4), (3), (2), (1), (5)
(c) (4), (2), (3), (5), (1) (d) (4), (3), (5), (2), (1) (c) (4), (5), (1), (3), (2) (d) (4), (5), (2), (1), (3)

4. (1) Child (2) Play-way 13. (1) Seed (2) Wood

(3) College (4) School (3) Tree (4) Plant
(5) Job (5) Furniture
(a) (2), (1), (3), (4), (5) (b) (1), (5), (3), (2), (4) (a) (1), (3), (4), (2), (5) (b) (1), (4), (3), (2), (5)
(c) (1), (2), (4), (5), (3) (d) (1), (2), (4), (3), (5) (c) (1), (3), (4), (5), (2) (d) (1), (4), (3), (5), (2)

5. (1) Locality (2) Member 14. (1) Whale (2) Elephant

(3) Community (4) Country (3) Dog (4) Tiger
(5) Family (5) Mosquito
(a) (2), (5), (3), (1), (4) (b) (2), (3), (4), (1), (5) (a) (5), (3), (4), (2), (1) (b) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3)
(c) (2), (5), (1), (3), (4) (d) (2), (3), (5), (4), (1) (c) (5), (3), (4), (1), (2) (d) (5), (3), (2), (4), (1)

6. (1) Delhi (2) India 15. (1) Bungalow (2) Flat

(3) Universe
(5) Asia
(a) (1), (5), (2), (3), (4)
(c) (1), (2), (4), (5), (3)
7. (1) Deepawali
(3) Christmas
(5) Republic day
(a) (5), (4), (2), (3), (1)
(c) (5), (4), (2), (1), (3)
8. (1) VI
(3) VIII
(5) V
(a) (5), (1), (2), (4), (3)
(c) (5), (3), (1), (2), (4)
9. (1) Reading
(3) Proofreading
(5) Printing
(a) (4), (3), (2), (1), (5)
(c) (4), (2), (3), (1), (5)
(4) World (3) Cottage
(5) Palace
(b) (2), (1), (5), (3), (4) (a) (3), (5), (4), (2), (1)
(d) (1), (2), (5), (4), (3) (c) (5), (1), (2), (4), (3)
(2) Independence day 16. (1) Child
(4) Holi (3) School
(5) Salary
(b) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
(a) (1), (3), (2), (4), (5)
(d) (4), (1), (2), (3), (5)
(c) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(2) IX 17. (1) Key
(4) XI (3) Lock
(5) Switch on
(b) (5), (2), (4), (3), (1)
(a) (3), (2), (4), (5), (1)
(d) (5), (1), (3), (2), (4)
(c) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(2) Composing 18. (1) Rainbow
(4) Writing (3) Sun
(5) Child
(b) (4), (2), (3), (5), (1)
(a) (2), (4), (1), (5), (3)
(d) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
(c) (4), (3), (5), (1), (2)
(4) House
(b) (3), (2), (4), (1), (5)
(d) (3), (4), (2), (1), (5)
(2) Job
(4) College
(b) (1), (4), (5), (2), (3)
(d) (1), (3), (4), (2), (5)
(2) Door
(4) Room
(b) (1), (2), (3), (5), (4)
(d) (2), (1), (3), (4), (5)
(2) Rain
(4) Happy
(b) (2), (3), (1), (5), (4)
(d) (2), (4), (1), (3), (5)
48
19. (1) Morning
(3) Night
(5) Midnight
(a) (1), (2), (5), (4), (2)
(b) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(c) (1), (2), (4), (3), (5)
(d) (1), (2), (4),(5), (3)
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos.1-15) In the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose
the most appropriate sequence from the options given below in the each question.
1. (1) Copper
(3) Silver
(5) Platinum
(a) (1), (2), (3),(5), (4)
(c) (2), (1), (3), (4), (5)
2. (1) July
(3) May
(5) June
(a) (4), (5), (3), (2), (1)
(c) (4), (3), (5), (1), (2)
3. (1) XII
(3) B A
(5) Ph. D
(a) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
(c) (4), (2), (1), (3), (5)
4. (1) Birth
(3) Funeral
(5) Education
(a) (1), (3), (4), (2), (5)
(c) (1), (5), (4), (2), (3)
5. (1) Letter
(3) Paragraph
(5) Sentence
(a) (1), (2), (4), (5), (3)
(b) (1), (2), (5), (4), (3)
(c) (1), (2), (4), (5), (3)
(d) (1), (2), (5), (3), (4)
6. (1) Foetus
(3) Baby
(5) Youth
(a) (1), (2), (4), (3), (5)
(b) (1), (3), (2), (5), (4)
(c) (2), (3), (5), (4), (1)
(d) (5), (4), (2), (3), (1)
7. (1) Kanchanjunga
(3) Godwin Austin
(5) Everest
(a) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
(b) (5), (3), (4), (1), (2)
(c) (5), (3), (1), (4), (2)
(d) (5), (4), (3), (1), (2)
(2) Afternoon 20. (1) Graduate education
(4) Evening (2) Secondary education
(3) Pre-primary education
(4) Middle education
(5) Primary education
(a) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
(c) (3), (5), (4), (2), (1)
(2) Iron 8. (1) Yarn
(4) Gold (3) Saree
(5) Cloth
(b) (1), (2), (4),(5), (3) (a) (2), (5), (4), (3), (1)
(d) (5), (4), (2), (3), (1) (c) (2), (4), (1), (5), (3)
(2) August 9. (1) Index
(4) April (3) Title
(5) Introduction
(b) (4), (3), (5), (2), (1) (a) (2), (3), (4), (5), (1)
(d) (4), (5), (3), (1), (2) (c) (3), (2), (1), (4), (5)
(2) M A 10. (1) Colonel
(4) X (3) General
(5) Lieutenant
(b) (4), (1), (3), (2), (5) (a) (5), (4), (2), (1), (3)
(d) (4), (3), (2), (1), (5) (c) (1), (2), (5), (3), (4)
(2) Death 11. (1) Table
(4) Marriage (3) Wood
(5) Seed
(b) (1), (4), (5), (2), (3) (a) (4), (5), (3), (2), (1)
(d) (1), (5), (4), (3), (2) (c) (5), (4), (2), (3), (1)
(2) Word 12. (1) Grass
(4) Story (3) Cow
(5) Curd
(a) (2), (1), (5), (4), (3)
(c) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
13. (1) Cutting
(3) Vegetable
(2) Child (5) Cooking
(4) Adult (a) (4), (3), (1), (2), (5)
(c) (1), (2), (3), (5), (4)
14. (1) Punishment
(3) Arrest
(5) Judgement
(a) (1), (5), (4), (3), (2)
(2) Nanda Devi (c) (1), (2), (5), (4), (3)
(4) Nanga Parbat
15. (1) Window
(3) Foundation
(5) Roof
(a) (1), (5), (4), (2), (3)
(c) (3), (2), (1), (5), (4)
Study Package for NTSE
(b) (4), (5), (3), (2), (1)
(d) (3), (5), (4), (1), (2)
(2) Plant
(4) Cotton
(b) (2), (1), (3), (4),(5)
(d) (2), (4), (3), (5), (1)
(2) Content
(4) Chapter
(b) (3), (2), (5), (4), (1)
(d) (3), (4), (2), (1), (5)
(2) Major
(4) Captain
(b) (3), (4), (5), (2), (1)
(d) (5), (4), (2), (3), (1)
(2) Tree
(4) Plant
(b) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(d) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3)
(2) Milk
(4) Butter
(b) (1), (3), (2), (5), (4)
(d) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
(2) Dish
(4) Market
(b) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3)
(d) (5), (1), (2), (4), (3)
(2) Prison
(4) Crime
(b) (1), (2), (3), (5), (4)
(d) (4), (3), (5), (1), (2)
(2) Wall
(4) Room
(b) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(d) (5), (4), (1), (2), (3)
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) The meaningful sequence is 12. (c) The meaningful sequence is
Shirdi Maharashtra India Asia World Pool Pond Lake River Sea
→ → → → → → → →
(2) (1) (3) (4) (5) (4) (5) (1) (3) (2)
i.e., 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 i.e., 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
2. (b) The meaningful sequence is 13. (b) The meaningful sequence is
Village District State Country World Seed Plant Tree Wood Furniture
→ → → → → → → →
(1) (5) (2) (4) (3) (1) (4) (3) (2) (5)
i.e., 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 [Development of furniture product]
3. (a) Firstly, we took an envelope and put a letter in it, which is i.e., 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
posted in a post-box and after clearance it will be delivered, so 14. (a) Animals must be arranged according to increasing body
the correct sequence is (4), (3), (1), (5) and (2). size.
4. (d) Child firstly go the play-way, then school, then college and Mosquito Dog Tiger Elephant Whale
→ → → →
finally as a result he/she will get a job. (5) (3) (4) (2) (1)
5. (a) The meaningful sequence is i.e., 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
Member Family Community Locality Country 15. (b) The meaningful sequence is
→ → → →
(2) (5) (3) (1) (4) Cottage Flat House Bungalow Palace
→ → → →
i.e., 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 (3) (2) (4) (1) (5)
6. (d) The meaningful sequence is i.e., 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
Delhi India Asia World Universe 16. (d) The meaningful sequence is
→ → → →
(1) (2) (5) (4) (3) Child School College Job Salary
→ → → →
i.e., 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 (1) (3) (4) (2) (5)
7. (c) Festivals must be arranged as per annual calendar. i.e., 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
Hence, 17. (d) Process to enter in a locked room.
Republic day Holi
→ Door
→
Key
→
Lock
→
Room
→
Switch on
(5) (4) (2) (1) (3) (4) (5)
Independence Day Deepawali Christmas
→ → →
(2) (1) (3) i.e., 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
i.e., 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 18. (b) The meaningful sequence is
Rain Sun Rainbow Child Happy
8. (d) The meaningful sequence is → → → →
(2) (3) (1) (5) (4)
V < VI < VIII < IX < XI (increasing order)
i.e., 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 i.e., 2, 3, 1, 5, 4

9. (b) The meaningful sequence is 19. (c) The meaningful sequence is

Morning Afternoon Evening Night Midnight
Writing
→
Composing
→
Proofreading
→
Printing
→
Reading → → → →
(4) (2) (3) (5) (1) (1) (2) (4) (3) (5)

i.e., 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 i.e., 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

10. (b) Months must be arranged as per annual calendar. 20. (c) Ascending order of different education levels
March April August September December Pre-primary education → Primary education
→ → → →
(5) (2) (4) (1) (3) (3) (5)
i.e., 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 → Middle education → Secondary education
(4) (2)
11. (a) The meaningful sequence is → Graduate education
Child Cry Mother Milk Smile
→ → → → (1)
(5) (2) (1) (3) (4) i.e., 3, 5, 4, 2, 1
i.e., 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
50 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. (c) Metals are arranged in the increasing order of their cost. 8. (c) The meaningful sequence is
Iron Copper Silver Gold Platinum Plant Cotton Yarn Cloth Saree
→ → → → → → → →
(2) (1) (3) (4) (5) (2) (4) (1) (5) (3)
i.e., 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 i.e., 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

2. (c) The meaningful sequence is 9. (b) The meaningful sequence is

Title Content Introduction Chapter Index
April May June July August → → → →
→ → → → (3) (2) (5) (4) (1)
(4) (3) (5) (1) (2)
i.e., 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
i.e., 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
10. (a) Army designations in ascending order
3. (b) Qualification in ascending order Lieutenant Captain Major Colonel General
→ → → →
X XII BA MA Ph.D (5) (4) (2) (1) (3)
→ → → →
(4) (1) (3) (2) (5) i.e., 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
i.e., 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 11. (c) The meaningful sequence is
4. ( c ) The meaningful sequence is Seed Plant Tree Wood Table
→ → → →
(5) (4) (2) (3) (1)
Birth Education Marriage Death Funeral
→ → → →
(1) (5) (4) (2) (3) i.e., 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

i.e., 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 12. (b) Process of obtaining butter follow the sequence

Grass Cow Milk Curd Butter
5. (d) Letters form word, words form sentence, sentence form → → → →
paragraph, paragraph form a story. (1) (3) (2) (5) (4)
i.e., 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
i.e., 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
6. (b) The meaningful sequence is 13. (a) The meaningful sequence is
Market Vegetable Cutting Dish Cooking
Foetus Baby Child Youth Adult → → → →
→ → → → (4) (3) (1) (2) (5)
(1) (3) (2) (5) (4)
i.e., 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
i.e., 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
14. (d) The meaningful sequence is
7. (c) Mountain peaks must arranged in descending order of Crime Arrest Judgement Punishment Prison
height. → → → →
(4) (3) (5) (1) (2)
Everest Godwin Austin Kanchanjunga
→ → i.e., 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
(5) (3) (1)
15. (c) The meaningful sequence is
Nanga Parbat Nanda Devi
→ → Foundation Wall Window Roof Room
(4) (2) → → → →
(3) (2) (1) (5) (4)
i.e., 5, 3, 1, 4, 2 i.e., 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
 Chapter

8
Blood Relations
Blood relations means any relation between two or more persons. Which is acquired by them by the virtue of their
birth. In these questions, a chain of relationship is given in the form of information and on the basis of this
information relation between any two members of the chain is to determined. So, candidates are supposed to be
familiar with the knowledge of different relations in the family. Some of the blood relationships are listed below to
help in solving these problems.
(i) Mother’s or father’s son Brother
(ii) Mother’s or father’s daughter Sister
(iii) Mother’s or father’s brother Uncle
(iv) Mother’s or father’s sister Aunt
(v) Mother’s or father’s father Grandfather
(vi) Mother’s or father’s mother Grandmother
(vii) Son’s wife Daughter-in-law
(viii) Daughter’s husband Son-in-law
(ix) Husband’s or wife’s sister Sister-in-law
(x) Husband’s or wife’s brother Brother-in-law
(xi) Brother’s son Nephew
(xii) Brother’s daughter Niece
(xiii) Uncle or aunt’s son or daughter Cousin
(xiv) Sister’s husband Brother-in-law
(xv) Brother’s wife Sister-in-law
(xvi) Grandson’s or granddaughter’s, daughter/son Great granddaughter/son
(xvii) Son’s or daughter’s son Grandson
(xviii) Son’s or daughter’s daughter Granddaughter

Some other relationships are also listed below to help in Important Notations
solving the problem easily l + Male

l The only son of your father — Yourself l - Female l + - Husband-wife

The only son of grandfather or grandmother — Father + - Brother-sister Father-son
+

l l l

l Father-in-law of mother — Grandfather

+

l Son of the father of the sister — Brother

Father-daughter Mother-son
-
+

l l
l Wife of uncle — Aunt
l Husband of maternal aunt — Uncle -
+

Mother-daughter
-
l

-
52 Study Package for NTSE

There are three types of questions based on Blood Relations which are as follows

Type I Statement Based Questions

In this type of questions, some description is given in the form of certain small relationships and candidate is
required to analyse the whole chain of relations and then, find out the direct relationship between the concerned
people.
Example 1 Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s
son”. Whose photograph was it?
(a) His own (b) His son’s (c) His father’s (d) His nephew’s
Solution (a) Since, the narrator has no brother, his father’s son is he himself. The photograph is his own
photograph.

Example 2 Introducing a woman, a man said, “Her husband is only son of my mother”. How is the woman related
to that man?
(a) Sister (b) Daughter (c) Wife (d) Mother
Solution (c) Only son of man’s mother means the man himself. Therefore, the Man Mother
man is the husband of that woman. Hence, the woman is the wife of that man.
Husband
Woman
Type II Relation Puzzle
In this type, mutual blood relations of more than two persons are mentioned. Candidate has to analyse the
information and find the required relation.
Example 3 A is B’s sister and C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. How is A related to D?
(a) Grandmother (b) Grandfather (c) Daughter (d) Granddaughter
Solution (d) According to the given information,
E(–)
(Mother)

D(+)

(Grand (Father)
daughter)
C(–)
(Mother)
(–)
A B
Sister
Clearly, A is granddaughter of D.

Example 4 Given that

1. P is the mother of Q. 2. R is the son of P. 3. S is the brother of T. 4. T is the daughter of Q.
Who is the grandmother of S?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
Solution (a) From the given informations, S is the brother of T and T is the daughter of Q. This means that S is
the son of Q. Since, P is the mother of Q, so P is the grandmother of S.

Directions (Ex. 5 and 6) Read the information and answer the questions given below.
Ram and Sita are married couple having two daughters, Medha and Deepti. Deepti is married to Anurag, who is the son of Garima and
Tarun. Nidhi is the daughter of Anurag. Komal, who is Anurag’s sister, is married to Harshit and has two sons, Amar and Prem.
Example 5 What is the relationship between Amar and Nidhi?
(a) Cousins (b) Husband-Wife (c) Father-Daughter (d) Uncle-Niece

Example 6 How is Komal related to Deepti?

(a) Aunt (b) Sister-in-law (c) Sister (d) None of these
Blood Relations 53
Solution (5 and 6) According to the given information,
Ram == Sita Garima == Tarun

Daughter Daughter
Son
(–) (+)
(–) Medha Deepti == Anurag Komal == Harshit
Sister
(–) (+)
Son Son
(+) (+)
Amar Prem

(a) Nidhi is the daughter of Anurag and Amar is the son of Anurag’s sister. So, Amar and Nidhi are cousins.
(b) Deepti is Anurag’s wife and Komal is Anurag’s sister. So, Komal is Deepti’s sister-in-law.

Type III Questions Based on Use of Mathematical Sign

In this type of questions, relation is given between two persons in the form of algebraic equation. You have to
choose the equation from given options which is best related to given information.
Example 7
1. P + Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
2. P – Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’.
3. P × Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
Which of the following means P is the maternal uncle of Q?
(a) P + Q + R (b) P – Q + R (c) P + R – Q (d) P + R × Q
Solution (c) Option (a), P + Q + R implies that P is the brother of Q, who is the brother of R means that P is the
brother of Q. So, it is not correct.
Option (b) also does not correspond to required relationship.
Option (c), P + R – Q means P is the brother of R, who is the mother of Q means that P is the maternal uncle of Q.
Hence, it is correct.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. Pointing to Amit, Anita said, “His mother is the only 5. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said,
daughter of my mother”. How is Anita related to the “His brother’s father is the only son of my
Amit? grandfather”. How is the woman related to the man
(a) Mother (b) Daughter in the photograph?
(c) Sister (d) Grandmother (a) Mother (b) Niece
(c) Sister (d) Daughter
2. P and Q are brothers, X and Y are sisters, son of P is
the brother of Y. How is Q related to X? Directions (Q. Nos. 6 and 7) Read the following
(a) Father (b) Brother (c) Daughter (d) Uncle information and answer the questions given below it.
3. If Mohan says that his mother is the only daughter of A is the father of C but C is not his son. E is the daughter of C.
Shyam’s mother. Then, how is Shyam related to F is the spouse of A. B is the brother of C. D is the son of B. G is
Mohan? the spouse of B. H is the father of G.
(a) Son (b) Father (c) Sister (d) Uncle 6. Who is the grandmother of D?
4. Ram is the brother of Deepak, Sunita is sister of (a) A (b) C
(c) F (d) H
Rajesh. Deepak is the son of Sunita. How is Ram
related to Sunita? 7. Who is the son of F?
(a) Son (b) Brother (c) Nephew (d) Father (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
54 Study Package for NTSE

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) Read the information given 19. Pointing towards a girl, a teacher said, “She is the
below and answer the following questions. only daughter of the only son of the wife of the
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. father-in-law of my wife”. How is the girl related with
(ii) One couple has parents and their children in the family. the teacher?
(iii) A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A. (a) Daughter (b) Niece
(iv) D is the daughter of F, who is the mother of E.
(c) Sister (d) Daughter-in-law
8. Who are the male members in the family?
20. Pointing to Keshav, Priyanka said, “His mother’s
(a) A, C or B (b) C and F (c) A, B and D (d) D and F
brother is the father of my son Nikhil”. How is
9. Which of the following pairs is the parents of the Keshav related to Priyanka?
children? (a) Niece (b) Aunt (c) Nephew (d) Sister-in-law
(a) BC (b) CF (c) BF (d) None of these
21. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says,
10. Which of the following pairs is the parents of the “She is the mother-in-law of the sister-in-law of the
couple? only sister of my son”. How is the woman related to
(a) AB (b) BC (c) AF (d) CF man?
11. How many female members are there in the family? (a) Sister (b) Sister-in-law
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Mother (d) Wife
(c) Four (d) Cannot be determined
22. Pointing to a man, Radhika said, ‘‘His sister is my
12. What relationship of D and E bear to each other? daughter’s brother’s mother’’. How is the man related
(a) Sister and brother to Radhika?
(b) Mother and son (a) Brother (b) Father
(c) Grandmother and granddaughter (c) Uncle (d) Grandfather
(d) Sisters
23. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, “This man’s
13. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven members of a family
son’s sister is my mother”. How is the woman related
consisting of four adults and three children, two of
to the man in the photograph?
whom, U and V are girls. P and S are brothers and Q
(a) Daughter (b) Mother
is a doctor. T is an engineer married to one of the
(c) Granddaughter (d) Mother-in-law
brothers and has two children. Q is married to S and
V is their child. Who is R? 24. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says,
(a) P’s son (b) T’s daughter ‘‘She is the mother of my son’s only daughter’’. How is
(c) U’s father (d) Cannot be determined the woman related to the man in the photograph?
14. Radha is the niece of Alok. Alok’s mother is Priya. (a) Daughter (b) Wife
Seema is Priya’s mother. Seema’s husband is Hari. (c) Mother (d) Daughter-in-law
Rita is the mother-in-law of Hari. How is Alok related 25. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman says,
to Hari? ‘‘He is the father of my only daughter-in-law’s
(a) Daughter (b) Daughter’s son father-in-law’’. What is the man to the woman?
(c) Grandniece (d) Great grandson’s daughter
(a) Father (b) Brother
15. Pointing to a man, Sanjay said, “His son is my son’s (c) Husband (d) Father-in-law
uncle”. How is the man related to Sanjay? 26. Pointing to a woman in the photograph, a man says,
(a) Father (b) Uncle (c) Brother (d) Grandfather
‘‘This woman is the wife of the father of my
16. Ram is the brother of Shyam and Mahesh is the brother-in-law’’. How is the woman related to the
father of Ram. Jagat is the brother of Priya and Priya man?
is daughter of Shyam. Who is the uncle of Jagat? (a) Mother (b) Mother-in-law
(a) Shyam (b) Mahesh (c) Sister (d) Sister-in-law
(c) Ram (d) None of these
27. Pointing to a man in the photograph, a woman says,
17. A husband and wife had five married sons and each of “He is the son of my sister’s mother’s husband”. Who
them had four children. How many members are is the man related to the woman?
there in the family? (a) Brother (b) Father
(a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 32 (d) 36 (c) Uncle (d) Brother-in-law

18. Introducing a man, a woman says, “His wife is the 28. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman says, ‘‘He
only daughter of my father”. How is the man related is the only son of the only daughter-in-law of my only
to the woman? son’s father’’. How is the man related to the woman?
(a) Husband (b) Father-in-law (a) Son (b) Father
(c) Maternal uncle (d) Paternal uncle (c) Son-in-law (d) Grandson
Blood Relations 55
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Read the following information 10. How is L related to O?
and answer the questions given below it. (a) Father (b) Mother-in-law
(c) Brother-in-law (d) Father-in-law
There are six persons in a family A, B, C, D, E and F.
(i) C is the sister of F. 11. How is K related to O?
(ii) A is the brother of the husband of E. (a) Sister (b) Mother
(iii) D is the father of A and D is the grandfather of F. (c) Mother-in-law (d) Brother-in-law
(iv) There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the
family. 12. How is N related to L?
(a) Son (b) Cousin
1. What is the relationship between E and F? (c) Brother (d) Brother-in-law
(a) Daughter-Father (b) Mother-Son
(c) Husband-Wife (d) Grandfather-Grandson 13. How is M related to L?
(a) Aunt (b) Niece
2. Who is the mother in the family? (c) Daughter (d) Daughter-in-law
(a) E (b) D (c) C (d) B
14. Q’s mother is sister of P and daughter of M. S is
3. How many male members are there in the family? daughter of P and sister of T. How is M related to T?
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3 (a) Father (b) Grandfather
(c) Grandmother
4. Who is the husband of E?
(d) Either grandfather or grandmother
(a) F (b) D (c) B (d) C

5. How many persons are there in the category of Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17) Study the following
brothers? information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3 Five girls Madhu, Arti, Kamla, Rekha and Suman are married
to Mahesh, Yogesh, Ravi, Mukesh and Gyan, but not in the
6. If (i) A 5 B means ‘A is the husband of B’. same order.
(ii) A 4 B means ‘A is the sister of B’. (i) First letters of the names of couple are not the same.
(iii) A 3 B means ‘A is the son of B’. (ii) Arti and Kamla are not married to Yogesh. Suman is not
married to Mukesh.
Then, which of the following shows that A is the
(iii) Yogesh and Gyan are not Suman’s or Madhu’s husband.
daughter of B?
(iv) Kamla’s and Rekha’s husband’s names do not start with M.
(a) A 4 C 3 B (b) C 3 B 4 A (c) B 5 C 3 A (d) C 3 B 5 C 4 A
15. Who is Ravi’s wife?
7. (i) P + Q means ‘P is the father of Q’.
(a) Madhu (b) Arti (c) Kamla (d) Rekha
(ii) P × Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
(iii) P – Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’. 16. Who is Arti’s husband?
(iv) P ÷ Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’. (a) Mahesh (b) Yogesh (c) Mukesh (d) Gyan
If P– R + Q, which of the following statements is true? 17. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) P is the mother of Q (b) P is the aunt of Q (a) Gyan is married to Kamla (b) Suman is not Mukesh’s wife
(c) P is the sister of Q (d) P is the brother of Q (c) Arti is not Ravi’s wife (d) Rekha is not Yogesh’s wife
8. A is the father of C and D is the son of B. E is the
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Read the following information
brother of A. If C is the sister of D, how is B related to
carefully and answer the questions which follow.
E?
(a) Daughter (b) Brother-in-law If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
(c) Husband (d) Sister-in-law If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.
If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
9. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “He is the only If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.
son-in-law of my mother’s father”. How is the woman
related to that man?
18. How is L related to Q in the expression
L ÷ M × O − P ÷ Q?
(a) Aunt (b) Daughter (c) Sister (d) Wife
(a) Granddaughter (b) Niece
(c) Daughter-in-law (d) Daughter
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-13) Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given below. 19. What will come in the place of the question mark to
Five persons K, L, M, N and O are sitting around dinning establish that Q is the nephew of T in the expression
table. K is the mother of M, who is the wife of O. N is the Q(?) R ÷ S × T?
brother of K and L is the husband of K. (a) + (b) × (c) − (d) ÷
56 Study Package for NTSE

20. Which of the following relations is true based upon 21. How is Mrs. Mohan related to Sumit?
the relations given in the equation, ‘A – B × C + D – E’? (a) Aunt (b) Mother-in-law
(a) C is the mother of A (b) E is the wife of B (c) Mother (d) Sister-in-law
(c) D is the brother of A (d) None is true
22. What is the surname of Sohan?
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-24) Study the following information (a) Sharma (b) Mohan (c) Mishra (d) Raghu
carefully to answer these questions. 23. What is the surname of Leela?
Adhir Mishra has three children—Urmila, Raghu and Sumit. (a) Sharma (b) Mohan
Sumit married Roma, the eldest daughter of Mr. and Mrs. (c) Mishra (d) None of these
Mohan. The Mohan married their youngest daughter to the
eldest son of Mr. and Mrs. Sharma and they had two children 24. How is Shivendar related to Roma’s father?
Sandeep and Shaifali. Mohan has two more children, Roshan (a) Son-in-law (b) Cousin
and Bimla, both elder to Sheila. Sohan and Shivendar are sons (c) Son (d) Grandson
of Sumit and Roma. Leela is the daughter of Sandeep.

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions Sol. (Q. Nos. 8-12)
A, B, C, D, E and F are six family members.
1. (a) Anita’s
mother C B
Son Spouse
Only
daughter (+) Spouse (–)
A F

Amit’s Daughter r Daughter

Anita the
mother Mo D
(–)
(–) E

Amit 8. (a) So, the male members are A, C or B.

Anita is only daughter of her mother. So, she will be mother of 9. (d) AF is parents of the children.
Amit.
10. (b) BC is the parents of the couple.
2. (d) On the basis of statements, we conclude that Q is the brother
of P and P’s son is the brother of Y. So, Y is the daughter of P. 11. (c) Four (F, D and E, C or B)
Thus, Q is the uncle of X. 12. (d) D and E are sisters.
3. (d) Only daughter of Shyam’s mother means that Shyam is Married Married
13. (d)
brother of Mohan’s mother i .e., Shyam is uncle of Mohan.
(–) (+) (+) (–)
Sister T P S Q
4. (a) (–)
Sunita Rajesh

Son Daughter
Girl
(+) Deepak Ram (+) R (+)/(–)
U (–)
(–)
Girl V
So, Ram is also son of Sunita.
5. (c) Only son of woman’s grandfather means woman’s father, So, R is either son of P or daughter of P.
man’s brother. So, the woman is the sister of the man. 14. (b) (–)
Mother-in-law Rita
Sol. (Q. Nos. 6 and 7) Mother
(+)
(+) Hari Seema (–)

H (+) Spouse A F (–)

Not son Father
Mother
daughter
Father
Priya (–)
(+)
Brother
(–) G B C (–)
Spouse
Son Mother
Daughter Niece
(–) (+)
(+) D E (–) Radha Alok

6. (c) So, grandfather of D is F. So, Alok is Hari’s daughter’s son.

7. (a) Son of F is B.
Blood Relations 57
15. (a) From the given information, man’s son is brother of Sanjay. Keshav’s mother is Priyanka's husband’s sister.
Hence, man is father of Sanjay. Keshav is the son of Priyanka’s husband’s sister.
∴Keshav is teacher’s nephew.
16. (c) (+)
Mahesh 21. (d) Sister of son = Daughter of man
Sister-in-law of daughter = Daughter-in-law of man
Father Mother-in-law of daughter-in-law = Wife of man
∴Woman is wife of man.
(+) (+) 22. (a) Man’s sister = Radhika’s daughter’s brother’s mother =
Ram Shyam
Brother Radhika’s son’s mother = Radhika. Hence, man is Radhika’s
brother.
Uncle Daughter 23. (c) ‘This man’s sister is my mother’ means ‘‘This man’s daughter
is woman’s mother’’ ⇒ Man is grandfather. So, woman is the
(+) (–) granddaughter of man.
Jagat Priya
Brother 24. (d) Mother of son’s daughter = Son’s wife. Hence, the woman is
Clearly, Ram is the uncle of Jagat. daughter-in-law of a man.

17. (c) Total family member = Husband + Wife + Their five married
sons + Each son have four children
= 1 + 1 + 10 + 4 × 5 = 12 + 20 = 32
18. (a) The only daughter of the woman’s father is the woman
herself. Therefore, the man is the husband of the woman.
19. (a) The wife of the father-in-law of the person’s wife ⇒ The
mother of the person and only son of the person’s mother is the
person himself. Hence, the girl is the teacher’s only daughter.
20. (c) His mother’s brother is the father of my son means
his mother’s brother is Priyanka’s husband.
25. (d) Daughter-in-law’s father-in-law = Husband. Hence, man is
husband of the woman.
26. (b) Father of man’s brother-in-law means man’s father-in-law.
Wife of the man’s father-in-law means man’s mother-in-law.
27. (a) Mother’s husband = Father
Sister’s mother’s husband = Sister’s father son of father a man
is brother of man.
28. (b) My only son’s father = My husband
Daughter-in-law of husband = Daughter-in-law
Only son of daughter-in-law = Grandson = Father
Hence, a man is father of the woman.

High Skill Questions

Sol. (Q. Nos. 1-5) 7. (a) From option (a),
According to the given information. ⇒P − R + Q
(–) P R (+)
(+) D

Father Mother Father

(+) (–)
(+) A B E Q
Brother
Hence, P is the mother of Q is true.
Son 8. (d) According to the question,
Son
(+) (+) Brother (+)
(–) (B) A E
(–) C F
Sister
Father Son
1. (b) E and F are Mother-Son.
2. (a) E is the mother in the family. (–)
C D (+)
Sister
3. (c) There are 4 male members i.e., D, A, B and F. Clearly, B is sister-in-law of E.
4. (c) B is the husband of E. 9. (b) Father of
5. (b) Two persons i.e., A and F are in the category of brothers. woman's mother
Son-in-law
6. (a) From option (a)
⇒ A4C3B
B Mother of
Man
a woman
Daughter
Son

Daughter
(–) A C (+) Woman
Sister
Hence, A is the daughter of B.
Hence, a woman is daughter of a man.
58 Study Package for NTSE

Sol. (Q. Nos. 10-13) 18. (a) From the below figure, it is clear that L is granddaughter of Q.
(–) Q
Brother Wife (+)
N K L Daughter
(+)
Husband
Sister
Father-in-Law M(+) P(–)
Mother
Daughter Father Son
Wife (+)
(–) M O O(+)
L(–)
10. (d) L is father-in-law of O.
19. (c) On putting sign (–) in place of question mark (?),
11. (c) K is mother-in-law of O.
S(+)
12. (d) N is brother-in-law of L. Father
Daughter
13. (c) M is daughter of L.
T R(–)
Sister Son
14. (d) (+) M
Nephew
G

Q(+)
ra
nd

Daughter
m

From the above figure, it is clear that Q is the nephew of T.

ot
he
ro

•
Sister 20. (d) (+)
rG

(–) P B E
ra
nd

Father
fa

Mother Daughter Son Son

th
er

(–) (+)
(–) Q S T (+)(A) C D
Sister Sister (–)

Clearly, M is either grandfather or grandmother of T. Hence, none is true.

Sol. (Q. Nos. 15-17) Sol. (Q. Nos. 21-24)

On the basis of information provided.
Madhu Arti Kamla Rekha Suman Married
Adhir Mishra Mr and Mrs Mohan
(–)
Mukesh Gyan Ravi Yogesh Mahesh Urmila Raghu Sumit Roma Roshan Bimla Sheila
Sons
Husband Wife Eldest son
Married
of Mr Sharma
Yogesh → Rekha (+) Sohan Shivendar (+)

Ravi → Madhu Sundeep

Daughter
Mukesh → Arti Shaifali
Leela
Gyan → Kamla
21. (b) Mrs. Mohan is Sumit’s mother-in-law.
Mahesh → Suman 22. (c) Surname of Sohan is Mishra because Sohan is son of Sumit
15. (a) Madhu is the wife of Ravi. and Sumit is son of Mishra.
23. (a) Surname of Leela is Sharma because Leela is granddaughter
16. (c) Mukesh is the husband of Arti. of Mr. Sharma.
17. (d) Rekha is not Yogesh’s wife is wrong statement. 24. (d) Shivendar is grandson of Roma’s father (Mr Mohan).
 Chapter

9
Direction Sense Test
In this chapter the questions consist of a sort of direction In this triangle, AC is hypotenuse, AB is perpendicular
puzzle. A successive follow up of directions is formulated and BC is base of triangle.
and the candidates are required to ascertain the final In the morning, sunrise in the East, the shadow of
direction or the distance between two points. The test is person or object falls in the West. In the evening, the
meant to judge the candidates ability to trace and follow sunset in the West, the shadow of a person or object falls
correctly and sense the direction correctly. in the East.
Some important points to be kept in mind while solving Movement in the direction of clock is called clockwise
the quesiton on direction sense test. movement and in the direction opposite to that of clock
Four major directions (clockwise) are North (N), is called anti-clockwise movement.
East (E), South (S) and West (W). 360º 360º
325º 45º 325º 45º
N

270º 90º 270º 90º

W E

225º 135º 225º 135º

S 180º 180º
Clockwise Anti-clockwise
Four sub-major directions (clockwise) North-East (NE),
South-East (SE), South-West (SW) and North-West The different types of questions which are asked in
(NW). exams related to direction sense test are as follows

Type I Finding the Direction

N
NW NE
This type of questions are based on the final direction of
45º 45º
an object with respect to its starting point or the
45º 45º
W
45º 45º
E direction facing by it in the end.
45º 45º
Example 1 Mohan starts from point A and walks 1 km
SW SE
towards South, turns left and walks 1 km. Then, he turns left
again and walks 1 km. Now, he is facing
S
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South
Solution (c)
Pythagoras Theorem N
A A Final
The theorem is applicable only in right
angled triangle. Right angled triangle W E 1km 1km
is one in which one angle is of 90°. a c

According to this theorem, S 1km

(AC) 2 = (AB) 2 + (BC) 2 ⇒ c2 = a 2 + b 2 B b C So, Mohan is facing in North direction.
60 Study Package for NTSE

Example 2 Ram is facing North-West. He turns 90° in the Type II Finding the Total Distance
clockwise direction and then turns 135° in the anti-clockwise
direction, which direction is he facing now? In this type of questions, we have to find out the final
(a) West (b) North (c) South (d) East distance between the starting and the final points or
N distance between two points/persons/things.
Solution (a) Ram faces in OA direction, NW A B
by first move of 90° clockwise, he faces Example 6 One day, Ravi left home and cycled 10 km
in the direction OB and in final move of W E Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned right and
O
135° anti-clockwise, he faces in the West cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many
direction. S kilometres will he have to cycle to reach his home straight.
Example 3 If SE becomes West, NE becomes South and so (a) 10 km (b) 15 km
on. What will North become? (c) 20 km (d) 25 km
(a) North-East (b) North-West (c) South-East (d) South-West Solution (b) According to the given information,
Solution (c) The directions are as follows
10 km D N
N A (Home)
(SE) E
N-W N-E (end point)
(E) (S) 10 km 10 km W E
W E
(NE) (SW) C 5 km B S
S-W S-E
S
(N)
(NW)
(W) Thus, his distance from initial position A = AE = AD + DE
= BC + DE = (5 + 10 ) km = 15 km
Clearly, North will become South-East.

Example 4 Early morning after sunrise Sangeeta went for a Type III Finding Both Direction
walk. Her brother, Ramesh, who was coming towards, her from and Distance
opposite direction, saw that Sangeeta’s shadow had fallen to his
right. From which direction was Ramesh coming? In this type of questions, the candidate have to
determine both the distance and direction.
(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West
Solution (b) The directions are as follows. Example 7 Kunal walks 10 km towards North. From there,
he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards East.
N Ramesh
How far and in which direction is he with reference to his
starting point?
W E
Sun (a) 5 km West
S (b) 7 km West
Sangeeta shadow Sangeeta (c) 7 km East
(d) 5 km North-East
Clearly, Ramesh was coming from North.
Solution (d) According to the given information,
Example 5 In a clock at 12 : 30, hour hand is in North B
direction while minute hand is in South direction. In which N
6 km N-W N-E
direction would be minute hand at 12 : 45?
(a) North-West (b) South-East (c) West (d) East W E
10 km
Solution (c) The hour hand of the clock is North 3 km
D S-W S-E
C S
direction and minute hand is in South direction (End point)
At 12 : 30 At 12 : 45
North North A
(Starting point)
12 1 12 1
11 11
10 2 10 2 Then, AC = (AB − BC)
Hour Hour
West 9 3 East West 9 3 East = (10 − 6 ) = 4 km
Minute
minute
8 4 8 4 Kunal’s distance from starting point A
7
6 5 7
6 5 AD = AC2 + CD2 (Pythagoras theorem)
South South
= 4 2 + 3 2 = 5 km
As, it is clear from the above diagram that minute hand is
in West direction. Also, D is to the North-East of A.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. Janki started from her house and walked 2 km 9. Ruby leaves her home and walks 30 m in North-West
towards North. Then, she took a right turn and direction and then 30 m in South-West direction.
covered 1 km, then she again took a right turn and Next, she walks 30 m in South-East direction.
walked for 2 km. In which direction is she going? Finally, she turns towards her house. In which
(a) North (b) East (c) South (d) West direction is she moving?
(a) North-East (b) North-West (c) South-East (d) South-West
2. A man starts from a point, walks 4 miles towards
North and turns left and walks 6 miles, turns right 10. A man is facing North-East. He turns 90° in the
and walks for 3 miles and again turns right and clockwise direction and then 135° in anti-clockwise
walks 4 miles and takes rest for 30 min. He gets up direction. Which direction is he facing now?
and walks straight 2 miles in the same direction and (a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South
turn right and walks 1 mile. What is the direction, he
11. Anuj started walking positioning his back towards
is facing?
the Sun. After sometime, he turned left, then turned
(a) North (b) South (c) South-East (d) West
right and then towards the left again. In which
3. A cat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, runs direction is he going now?
10 m and again turns to right, runs 9 m and again (a) North or South (b) East or West
turns to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs (c) North or West (d) South or West
12 m and finally, turns to left and runs 6 m. Which 12. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes
direction is the cat facing now? West and so on, what will West become?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South (a) North-East (b) North-West
4. Ram wants to go to the school. He starts from his (c) South-East (d) South-West
home which is in the East and comes to the crossing. 13. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand points East,
The road to the left ends in a fire station ahead is the in what direction will the hour hand point?
bookshop. In which direction is the school? (a) North (b) North-West (c) South-East (d) North-East
(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West
14. A man travels 4 km due North, then travels 6 km due
5. From his house, Vikki went 15 km to North. Then, he East and further travels 4 km due North. How far he
turned West and covered 10 km. Then, he turned South is from the starting point?
and covered 5 km. Finally turning to East, he covered (a) 6 km (b) 14 km (c) 8 km (d) 10 km
10 km. In which direction is he from his house?
(a) East (b) West (c) North (d) South 15. Shikha went 10 km South from her house. She turned
right and goes 5 km, again turned right and cycled
6. After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a 10 km. Now, she turned left and cycled 10 km. What
distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a is the shortest distance of Shikha from her house?
distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the (a) 5 km (b) 15 km
North, from which direction did I start my journey? (c) 20 km (d) 25 km
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
16. Sheela walks from A to B, which is 2 km away turns
7. Raj starts from his office facing West and walks right at 90° and walks for 3 km to point C, turns right at
100 m straight, then takes a right turn and walks 90° and walks to D, which is 8 km away, turns 90° right
100 m. Further, he takes a left turn and walks 50 m. and goes 3 km to point K. Then, once again she turns
In which direction is Raj now from the starting right 90° and walks 4 km to point F. How far is she
point? from A?
(a) North-East (b) South-West (c) North (d) North-West (a) 2 km (b) 4 km
(c) 6 km (d) 8 km
8. I am facing South. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then,
I turn right again and walk 10 m. Then, I turn left 17. Rina walks 20 m towards North. She then turns left
and walk 10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. and walks 40 m. She again turns left and walks 20 m.
Then, I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which Further, she moves 20 m after turning to the right.
direction am I from the starting point? How far is she from her starting point?
(a) North (b) North-West (a) 60 m (b) 40 m
(c) East (d) North-East (c) 20 m (d) 80 m
62 Study Package for NTSE

18. Sunita walks 14 m towards West, then turn to right again turns left and walks 40 m. How many metres is
and walks 14 m and then turn to her left and walks he from his original position?
10 m. Again turning to her left she walks 14 m. What (a) 0 (b) 10
is the shortest distance (in metres) between her (c) 20 (d) 40
starting point and her present position? 21. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he turns to
(a) 38 (b) 28 (c) 24 (d) 10 South and walks 5 km. Again, he turns to East and
19. Ashish walks 40 m towards North. He then turns left walks 2 km, after this he turns to North and walks
and walks 40 m. He again turns left and walks 40 m. 9 km. Now, how far is he from his starting point?
(a) 3 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km (d) 7 km
Further, he moves 40 m after turning to the right.
How far is he from his original position? 22. A boy ride his bicycle Northwards, then turned left
(a) 20 m (b) 30 m (c) 50 m (d) 80 m and ride 1 km and again turned left and ride 2 km. He
found himself exactly 1 km West of his starting point.
20. Umesh goes 30 m South, then turns left and walks How far did he ride Northwards initially?
40 m, then again turns left and walks 20 m, then (a) 1 km (b) 2 km (c) 3 km (d) 5 km

High Skill Questions

1. Mohan starts from his house and walks 4 km straight. 6. Raj starts from his office facing West and walks
He then turns towards his right and walks 2 km. He 100 m straight, then takes a right turn and walks
turns again to his right and walks 2 km. If he is 100 m. Further, he takes a left turn and walks 50 m.
North-West from the starting position now, then In which direction is Raj now from the starting point?
in which direction did he start in the beginning? (a) North-East (b) South-West
(a) North (b) South (c) North (d) North-West
(c) East (d) West
7. If ‘South-East’ is called ‘East’, ‘North-West’ is called
2. Lalit walks 8 km East, turns South-West and walks ‘West’, ‘South-West’ is called ‘South’ and so on, what
another 8 km. He again takes a turn towards will ‘North’ be called?
North-West and walks another 8 km. In which (a) East (b) North-East
direction from his starting point, is he standing now? (c) North-West (d) South-West
(a) North-East (b) South-East
(c) West (d) East 8. One evening before sunset, two friends Ram and
Shyam were talking to each other face to face.
3. Mohit walks a distance of 5 km towards South, then
If Shyam’s shadow was exactly to his right side,
turns to his right and walks 3 km. He again turns
which direction was Ram facing?
right and walks 5 km. He then turns to his left and
(a) North-East
walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point and
(b) South
in what direction? (c) South-West
(a) 5 km and West
(d) South-East
(b) 3 km and North
(c) 3 km and East 9. Indu walked 25 m towards South. Then, turning to
(d) 8 km and West his right he walks 30 m. Then, turning to his left, he
4. A dog is taken out every evening by the owner whose walks 20 m. Again, he turns to his left and walks
house faces East. They walk 200 m West, then 500 m 30 m. How far is she from his initial position?
in South direction. Which direction should they take (a) 20 m (b) 30 m
to reach home? (c) 45 m (d) 80 m
(a) North-East (b) North 10. Govind went 15 km from his house to the North.
(c) North-West (d) South-East
Then, he turned West and covered 10 km. Then, he
5. A man travels 2 km towards North, then he turns 45° turned South and covered 5 km. Finally, turning to
1 East, he covered 10 km. Then, he turned South and
South-East and travels 1 km. From there, he makes
2 covered 5 km. In which direction is he from his house?
a line towards his starting point. Which direction (a) East (b) West
(c) North (d) South
would he then be travelling?
(a) South 11. If X is to the South of Y and Z is to the East of Y. In
(b) West what direction is X with respect to Z?
(c) South-West (a) North-East (b) North-West
(d) South-East (c) South-East (d) South-West
Direction Sense Test 63
12. Raju from A moved North-West side 2 km to B from Directions (Q. Nos. 15 and 16) Study the information
there he turned 90° clockwise and moved 2 km to C. given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
From there, he turned 90° clockwise and travelled From a same point K, Indu and Saumya walked in opposite
2 km to D. Which of the answer figures shows the directions. After walking 5 km, Indu turned right and
exact path he traced? walked 3 km, again turned right and walked 5 km, from the
C C starting point Saumya walked.
15. At this point, if Indu was facing East, Saumya would
(a) D (b) be facing which direction?
B B
(a) North
A (b) South
(c) East
D
(d) North-West
A
(c) D (d) 16. How far is Indu from the starting point?
C (a) 1 km (b) 2 km
(c) 3 km (d) 4 km
B
13. Mahesh starts from A and walks North to B, then he Directions (Q. Nos. 17 and 18) Study the information
turned to East and walks to C and then turns given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
North-West and walks to D. Finally, he turns to East Anshu started from ‘A’ and walked 10 km Eastwards to
and walks to E. Which of the answer figures shows the reach ‘B’, then turned to North and walked 3 km to reach ‘C’
exact path he traced? and then turned West and walked 12 km to reach ‘D’. He
D then again turned South and walked 3 km to reach ‘E’.
C
B E
B
C 17. How far is Anshu from his starting point?
(a) (b) (a) 2 km (b) 3 km
E D A
(c) 1 km (d) 2.5 km

C
A 18. In which direction is point ‘E’ from point ‘A’?
D E
B (a) East
(b) West
(c) D (d) B C
(c) North
E
A (d) South
A
Directions (Q. Nos. 19 and 20) Read the given information
14. Ranjana starts from A and walks towards South-East carefully and answer the given questions.
to B. She turns West and walks to C. Then, she turns
Point N is 8 m to the West of point O. Point P is 4 m to the
North-West and walks to D. Finally, she turns East
South of point O. Point Q is 4 m to the East of point P. Point
and walks to E. Which of the answer figures exactly R is 6 m to the North of point Q. Point S is 8 m to the West
shows the path Ranjana traced? of point R. Point T is 2 m to the South of point S.
E A E D A
D 19. How far and in which direction is point T from
point N?
(a) (b) (a) 4 m to the East
C B C B (b) 8 m to the West
(c) 4 m to the West
E (d) 8 m to the East
D C B
(c) (d) 20. If point T is 4 m to the North of point E. Then, what is
the distance between E and Q?
B C D (a) 11m (b) 8 m
(c) 15 m (d) 5 m
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) C
1 km
B
N 6. (b) Clearly, the route is as shown in the diagram. Thus, the man
2 km started his journey from the South and moved Northwards.
W E
2 km
S
10 km

End point
2 km
Starting point
(House) 6 km

So, the final position is towards the F, i .e., South direction.

7. (d) From the figure given below, Raj is finally in the North-West
2. (b) 4 miles 2 miles E direction from the starting point.
D
1 mile 50 m
3 miles Final N N
End NW NE
6 miles
C B W E 100 m
W E
4 miles S
SW SE
A Start S
Starting point 100 m
He is finally in South facing state from point E. 8. (d) The movements of 60 m F
E
the person are from A to
3. (c) N 20 m
F, as shown in figure.
Clearly, the final position C
of F which is to the D 10 m 10 m
North-East of the starting B A
A 20 m
W E point A.
O 20 m 10 m
B 9. (a) N
5m 9m 6m
D 12 m E A
m
30
30

S
m

B
W E
From the figure, cat is facing North.
30

O
m
m

4. (b) Starting from his house which is Eastward and moves

30

C
Westwards comes at O, the crossing. To his left is fire station
(South) and straight, i .e., towards West, there is a bookshop. So,
S
obviously his school is towards North.
Final direction is CO which is in North-East.
North N
O School 10. (c)
Final Anti-clockwise
initial (N–E)
Y C
West East
O House
Bookshop W E
O
Clockwise
O
South
(S–E)
Fire station S
OC is initial direction and he moves 90° clockwise, then 135°
5. (c) Clearly, his final position is E which is to the North of his house anti-clockwise, it means as a result the change in position will be
at A. 45° anti-clockwise direction that is OY direction in North
C 10 m B direction.
11. (a) Clearly, there are two possible movements of Anuj as shown
5m
below.
North
15 m
D 10 m E

A South
Thus, Anuj is finally moving towards either North or South.
Direction Sense Test 65
12. (c) From the diagram, it is clear that West will be called 17. (a) EA = ED + DA = ED + CB 40 m
C B
South-East = 20 + 40 = 60m
S-W 20 m 20 m
E

W
S D C
20 m D 40 m A
S-E N-W
18. (c) 10 m
14 m 14 m
E
A
B 14 m
N
E

Final Starting
N-E point
13. (d) Clearly to show 4:30, the position of the minute and hour Shortest distance = AB + BE = 14 + 10 = 24 m
hands of a clock will be as shown. So, again as shown, if the N
minute hands points East, the hour hand will point in the 19. (d)
North-East. 40 m
12 1 W
11
40 m 40 m
W

N
-W
S-

10 2
W D E
9 3 40 m C O
S N
8 4
7 5
-E
S-

6
N
E

E
S
14. (d) End point
Q Distance from initial point OW = OC + CD
D
= 40 + 40 = 80 m
N
20. (b)
4 km
6 km
B C
W E
O 40 m
4 km 4 km D C
30 m 20 m
A E A
Starting 6 km 40 m B
point S
Distance between the starting point and end point is AD. Distance OD = OA – AD = 30 − 20 = 10 m
(Pythagoras theorem in ∆ ADE,) 21. (c) The movements of the man are shown in figure.
Now, AD2 = AE2 + DE2 E
AD2 = (6)2 + (8)2
4 km
∴ AD = 36 + 64 = 100 = 10 km
A F
15. (b) She starts from A. 1 km B
D 5 km
E A 5 km
10 cm
C D
10 cm 10 km 2 km
(A to B, B to C, C to D and D to E)
C B Clearly, DF = BC = 5 km
5k EF = (DE − DF) = (9 − 5) = 4 km
Distance = ED + DA = (10 + 5) BF = CD = 2 km
= 15 km AF = AB + BF = AB + CD = (1 + 2) = 3 km
16. (a) 4 km ? 2 km Man’s distance from starting point A = AE
K F A B
= (AF)2 + (EF)2 = 32 + 42 = 25 = 5 km
3 km 3 km
22. (b) Clearly, the boy rode from A to B, then B to C and finally upto
D C D. Since, D lies to the West of A, so required distance
8 km = AB = CD = 2 km
∴ Distance between A and F C B
= DC − (AB + FK) = 8 − (4 + 2 )
= 8 − 6 = 2 km 2 km

D A
1 km
66 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

N
1. (d) NW 8. (b) In the evening, Sun is in the West and so the shadows fall
2 km towards East. Now, since Shyam’s shadow fell towards right, so
2 km Shyam is facing North. Thus, Ram is standing face to face with
W
4 km O
E Shyam and is facing South.
9. (c) B
N
S
6 km N-W N-E
From the figure, we can see that Mohan starts from his home O
in West direction. W E
10 km
2. (c) Initial position
3 km S-W S-E
C D
W 8 km (End point) S
E
Final 45°
A
8

km

(Starting point)
km

NW
8

90°
SW Starting
25 m point
He is now in West from its starting point.
B
3. (d) 5 km
Start 30 m A
3 km
End 5 km 5 km
20 m 20 m
3 km
He is 18 km West from the starting point. C 30 m D
4. (a)
House
NE N Final distance = OA + AD
= 25 + 20
200 m
500 m W E
= 45m
S
10. (c) Clearly, he is in North direction from his house
Direction from final point is North-East. 10 km
5 km 5 km
5. (c) North
1.5 km 10 km 5 km 15 km
2 km A
45° B end point
West East 5 km
starting
point

South 11. (d) Y Z (East)

Final direction is along AO, i.e., South-West. N

6. (d) End
50 m W E

100 m S
X (South)

100 m Clearly, X is in South-West direction with respect to Z.

Starting point 12. (b) Raju’s sequence of the path is
So, the final direction is North-West.
C
m 2k
7. (c) South-East is called East means that the direction is turning 2k m N
NW NE
anti-clockwise through 45°. So, North will become North-West. B
N D
2k W E
N
W

m
N

A SW SE
W E S
SE
SW

S
Direction Sense Test 67
13. (d) Mahesh’s sequence of the path is Sol. (Q. Nos. 17 and 18)
N
N D 12 km C
D E NW NE

W E
W E 3 km
B C 3 km
SW SE S
S
A E A 10 km B
Obviously, Anshu is 2 km West from A, starting point.
14. (a) Ranjana’s sequence of the path is
N
17. (a) AE = EB − AB = 12 − 10 = 2 km
E A NW
D
18. (b) Clearly, Anshu is 2 km West from A, starting point.
W E
Sol. (Q. Nos. 19-20) According to the question, the direction diagram
SE is as given below.
C B S
S 8m R
Sol. (Q. Nos. 15 and 16) 2m N
5 km 4m 4m
A N N O
8m 6m W E
3 km T
3 km W E 4m 4m
S
K S E 4m P 4m Q
5 km 4 km
Indu Saumya 19. (a) Clearly, point T is 4 m to the East of point N.
15. (a) Saumya would be facing towards North. 20. (b) Distance between E and Q
16. (c) Indu’s distance = KA = 3 km = PQ + PE [QPE = OT = 4 m ]
= 4m+ 4m
= 8m
 Chapter

10
Inserting the Missing
Character
In such type of questions, some figures are given which have certain characters, numbers or a combination of
number and characters. The numbers and letters are allotted according to some rules. They may follow a pattern
and arranged according to a rule [continuation, square root, multiplied, divided, cube etc]. The students are
required to find out the rule that has been applied and select the suitable answer from the given choices.
Some examples are given below to clear the concept

Type I Questions Based on Numbers

Example 1 Insert the missing number. Solution (d) As, 6 × 7 + 4 = 46 ,5 × 4 + 5 = 25.
1 1 1 Similarly, 7 × 5 + 12 = 47 .
2 4 16 ∴ The missing number is 47.
3 9 ?
Example 3 Insert the missing number.
(a) 81 (b) 18 (c) 27 (d) 17
2
Solution (a) In this set of problem the consequent ? 5
number in each line from left to right is the square of the
predecessor digit/number. 20 9
(i) line — 12 = 1, 12 = 1 14

(ii) line — 22 = 4 , 4 2 = 16
(a) 25 (b) 26
(iii) line — 3 2 = 9, 9 2 = 81
(c) 27 (d) 29
∴ The missing number is 81.
Solution (c) Starting with 2, move in the clockwise
Example 2 Find the missing character. direction for making the series.

2 + 3 = 5
5 + 4 = 9
7 6 7 5 5 4 9 + 5 = 14
46 ? 25 14 + 6 = 20
20 + 7 = 27
4 12 5
∴ The missing number is 27.
(a) 25 (b) 41 (c) 37 (d) 47
Inserting the Missing Character 69
Type II Questions Based on Letters
Example 4 Insert the missing character.
L G H

C W A

J ? O

(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) G

Solution (b) In each row add the numerical value of the left and right hand letters together and write the letter
with the reverse alphabetical value in the centre.
Hence, J + O = 10 + 15 = 25 Reverse alphabet on 25 = B.

Example 5 Insert the missing letter.

Z B X D ? F T

A Y C W E U G

(a) V (b) F (c) G (d) X

Solution (a) Every column has opposite letter. So, V is opposite to E or addition of colums letter is equal to 27.
Example 6 Which letter replaces the question mark?

A P Y C V C G Y K ?
U S E G B

(a) L (b) K (c) J (d) I

Solution (d) Working from left to right, letters in corresponding segments of the circles move through the
alphabet in steps of 2, 3, and 4, with their relative positions moving one place clockwise at each step.
∴ Missing term = G + 2 = 7 + 2 = 9 = I.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-26) Insert the missing letter or numerical value in following questions.

1. A F K 4. 15 25 30
C H M 12 14 16
F K ? 6 ? 16
(a) N (b) O (c) P (d) Q (a) 60 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 10

2. 6 8 10 5.
1 4 4 9 9 ?
5 110 10 15 305 10 10 ? 11

10 15 12
2 6 12
(a) 240 (b) 230 (c) 100 (d) 132
(a) 14 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 16
3.
6 3 12 07 09 08 6. 10 15 12

18 09 84 19 ? 17 4 48 8 9 78 8 4 ? 8

(a) 72 (b) 17 8 10 11
(c) 153 (d) 25 (a) 88 (b) 100 (c) 32 (d) 132
70 Study Package for NTSE

7. 15. 9 A 12
5
4 B 10 7
4 8 C 11
6

100 81
(a) A = 13, B = 11 and C = 9
2 ? 64 5
(b) A = 13, B = 9 and C = 11
4 3 (c) A = 9, B = 11 and C = 13
(d) A = 9, B = 13 and C = 11
(a) 64 (b) 36 (c) 16 (d) 72
16. 7
8.
13 11 56
12 14 4 28 ? 8
15 ? 60
10 16 15
(a) 33 (b) 145
(a) 17 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 18
(c) 120 (d) 18
9. 10
4 3
17.
4
3 64 5
9 7 27 125
? 216
8 343 6
13 12 7
?
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 6 (a) 640 (b) 512 (c) 16 (d) 24

10. 18. 0 2 4
4 3 5 6 7 8
2 6 3
25 61 ? 3 ? 5
3 4 6 5 8 7 35 225 216
(a) 0 (b) 2
(a) 64 (b) 113 (c) 49 (d) 15
(c) 1 (d) 4
11. 11 1 10 02 09 03
19. 6 1 15

120 96 ? 2 60 4 4 40 2 20 ? 03
(a) 81 (b) 72
(c) 90 (d) 27 3 3 09
(a) 235 (b) 141
12. (c) 144 (d) 188
84 81 88

14 12 18 09 ? 11 20.
?

(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 20 27 25

13. 31 23 27
112 128 55
7 4 11 (a) 26 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 24
32 64 ? 3 7
21 52
5 11 126
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 13 ? 9 107

14. (a) 18 (b) 26 (c) 36 (d) 6

101 43 48 34

38 142 22. 5 11 55
7 ? 91
35 15 56 ? 6 16 96
(a) 198 (b) 142 (c) 158 (d) 184 (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
Inserting the Missing Character 71
23. 4 20 25 3 8 10 2 ? 1
25.
27 81 9 6 56 90 2 20 0
11 44 ?
(a) 0 (b) 3
(a) 4 (b) 30 (c) 55 (d) 16 (c) 5 (d) 7

24. 3 5 4 7 3 5
26. B2 ?
39 51 ? Q48
F4
6 3 5 4 5 4 K12
A B C (a) W, 210 (b) X, 240
(a) 47 (b) 45 (c) 37 (d) 35 (c) X, 120 (d) Y, 220

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-22) Insert the missing number or letter from among the given alternatives.

1. 6 18 15 7. 2Z 10Y 5X
3 2 5 20X ? 4Y
4 3 ? 10Y 40X 4Z
8 27 9
(a) 8Z (b) 80Z (c) 80X (d) 8X
(a) 11 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2 8. 18 60 ?
2. 1 2 1 3 1 5
2 3 4
4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7
4 5 6 6 9 ?
(a) 98 (b) 116 (c) 125 (d) 126
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
9. 1 6 5 2 2 0 5 3 3
3. 7
4
3
5

1 64 131 248 ?

11 27 ? 8
2 3 4 4 6 8 7 9 1
8 2
(a) 320 (b) 274 (c) 262 (d) 132

(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 125 (d) 216 10. 15 2 9 7 13 16

4. 13
80 65 ?
1
? 4 2 5 5 6 4 6 11 8

3
(a) 48 (b) 35 (c) 72 (d) 120
11.
8 A C G I
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 E Y K E
5. 7 5 5 21 24 06
I U O A
6 13 ?
M Q S ?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 15 (d) 13
(a) U (b) W (c) V (d) X
6. B K F
12. 4 8 0

G A
5 0 6 7 1 6 11 ? 2

L Q ?
7 4 2
(a) S (b) V (c) T (d) U (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 11 (d) 12
72 Study Package for NTSE

13. 18. 1 4 6
9 5 5 3 8 3

425 416 ? 551 246 ?

2 5 2 4 3 5 3 4 7 9 2 1
6 8 4
(a) 140 (b) 280 (A) (B) (C)
(c) 875 (d) 925 (a) 262 (b) 622 (c) 631 (d) 824
14. 5 4 8 2 19. 12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27
4 7 2 8

7 4 2 9
5 4 4 ?
6 8 ?
(A) (B) (C)
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 14 (d) 5 (a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 6

15. 20. 3 GHT 5

1
15
?
2 17 5 MZO 4
16
4 6 3 JTI 9
3 18 5
19 3 MOH 6
3 OEL ?
(a) 13 (b) 14 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
(c) 20 (d) 21
21. 5 4 3
16. 16 25 49
2 4 10 7 7
9 25 16 36 36 ? 5 4 2 10 2 3 4
36 49 81 7 2 ? 1 2
4 4 4
(a) 64 (b) 144
(c) 169 (d) 25 (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 3
17. 4 8 5 22.
2 V 9 ?
6 14 6 14 6 ? 2 5 10
8 8 4
X 4 Q ?
10 A 18 14 B 22 11 C 15
(a) 6 (b) 8 (a) G, 19 (b) H, 14
(c) 10 (d) 14 (c) I, 20 (d) E, 14

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions Similarly, 10 × 12 + 10 × 11 = 120 + 110 = 230
∴ ? = 230
1. (c) In first column, A C F

+2 +3 3. (a) As, 6+ 3=9 12 + 7 = 19

6 × 3 = 18 12 × 7 = 84
In second column, F H K
Similarly, 9 + 8 = 17
+2 +3
Q 9 × 8 = 72
∴ In third column, K M P
∴ ? = 72
∴ ?= P +2 +3
4. (c) As, (15 + 25) − 30 = 10
2. (b) As, 6 × 10 + 5 × 10 = 60 + 50 = 110
and 8 × 10 + 15 × 15 = 80 + 225 = 305 (12 + 14) − 16 = 10
Inserting the Missing Character 73
Similarly, (6 + ?) − 16 = 10, 32 × 7
13. (b) As, = 112
? = 26 − 6 = 20 2
64 × 4
5. (d) As, (1)2 = 1 (2 )2 = 4,1 × 2 = 2 and = 128
2
(2 )2 = 4, (3)2 = 9, 2 × 3 = 6 ? × 11
Similarly, = 55
2
Similarly, (3)2 = 9, (?) = ( x)2 ,
∴ ? = 10
but 3 × x = 12
14. (d) As, (101 + 15) − (43 + 35) = 38
⇒ x = 4 and ? = 42
Similarly, (48 + ?) − (34 + 56) = 142
⇒ ? = 16 ⇒ ? = 184
6. (b) As, 10 × 8 − 8 × 4 = 80 − 32 = 48 15. (d) As, row III, 12 + 7 + 11 = 30
15 × 10 − 9 × 8 = 150 − 72 = 78 row I, 9 + B + 8 = 30
Similarly, 12 × 11 − 4 × 8 = 132 − 32 = 100 B = 30 − 17
∴ ? = 100 B = 13
7. (b) As, 5 + 4 = 9 ⇒ 92 = 81 row II, A + 10 + C = 30
A + C = 30 − 10
5 + 3 = 8 ⇒ 82 = 64
A + C = 20
6 + 4 = 10 ⇒ 102 = 100 From option (d),
Similarly, (2 + 4) = 6 ⇒ 62 = 36 A = 9, B = 13, C = 11
∴ ? = 36 16. (c) As, 7 × 4 = 28, 4 × 15 = 60, 8 × 7 = 56
8. (c) Quarter parts of circle have total 25. Similarly, 15 × 8 = 120
As, 11 + 14 = 25 ∴ ? = 120
10 + 15 = 25 17. (b) As, 43 = 64, 53 = 125, 63 = 216.
12 + 13 = 25 7 3 = 343, 33 = 27
Similarly, ? + 16 = 25 Similarly, 83 = 512
⇒ ?=9 ∴ ? = 512
9. (d) Sum of numbers on line = 16 18. (c) As, (0)3 + (2 )3 + (3)3 = 35
As, 3 + 13 = 16 (4)3 + (3)3 + (5)3 = 216
7 + 9 = 16 Similarly, (2 )3 + (6)3 + (?)3 = 225
12 + 4 = 16 (?)3 = 1
Similarly, 10 + ? = 16 ⇒ ? =1
⇒ ?=6
19. (d) As, 4 × (6 + 2 + 3 + 4) = 4 × 15 = 60
10. (b) As, 4 × 4 + 3 × 3 = 16 + 9 = 25 4 × (1 + 4 + 3 + 2 ) = 4 × 10 = 40
and 5 × 5 + 6 × 6 = 25 + 36 = 61 Similarly, 4 (15 + 20 + 9 + 3) = 4 × 47 = 188
Similarly, ? =7 ×7 + 8× 8 ? = 188
= 49 + 64 31 + 23 54
20. (a) As, = = 27
∴ ? = 113 2 2
23 + 27 50
11. (b) As, (11 + 1) × (11 − 1) = 12 × 10 = 120 = = 25
2 2
(10 + 2 ) × (10 − 2 ) = 12 × 8 = 96 27 + 25 52
Similarly, = = 26
Similarly, ? = (9 + 3) × (9 − 3) = 12 × 6 2 2
? = 72 ∴ ? = 26

12. (b) As, 12 ×

14
= 12 × 7 = 84 21. (b) As, (7 ) = 49, 49 + 3 = 52
2

2 (11)2 = 121, 121 + 5 = 126

18
9× = 9 × 9 = 81 Similarly, (9)2 = 81, 81 + ? = 107
2
? ? = 107 − 81 = 26
Similarly, 11 × = 88, ? = 8 × 2 ,
2 22. (c) As, 5 × 11 = 55, 6 × 16 = 96
∴ ? = 16 Similarly, 7 × ? = 91
∴ ? = 13
74 Study Package for NTSE
20 As, 32 − 3 = 9 − 3 = 6
23. (d) As, = 5, (5)2 = 25
4
81 82 − 8 = 64 − 8 = 56
and = 3, (3)2 = 9
27 102 − 10 = 100 − 10 = 90
44
Similarly, = 4, (4)2 = ?
11 22 − 2 = 4 − 2 = 2
⇒ ? = 16 ⇒ 12 − 1 = 1 − 1 = 0
24. (c) As, In figure (A), (3 × 3) + (6 × 5) = 9 + 30 = 39 Similarly, 52 − 5 = 20
In figure (B), (4 × 4) + (5 × 7 ) = 16 + 35 = 51 So, the missing number is 5.
Similarly,
26. (b) Letter follow below pattern
∴In figure (C), missing number +4 +5 +6 +7
B 
→ F  
→ K  
→ Q   → X
= (3 × 4) + (5 × 5) = 12 + 25 = 37
Number follow below pattern
×2 ×3 ×4 ×5
25. (c) Suppose, X denotes the number in the first row and Y denotes 2 → 4   → 12  → 48  → 240
the number in the second row. Then , the pattern is X 2 − X = Y

High Skill Questions

6×4 8. (d) As, 2 × 3 = 6 × 3 = 18
1. (c) As, I column, =8
3 4 × 5 = 20 × 3 = 60
18 × 3
II column, = 27 6 × 7 = 42 × 3 = 126
2
15 × ? ∴ ? = 126
III column, = 9 ⇒? = 3
5 9. (c) As, (2 − 1) = 1, (6 − 3) = 3, (5 − 4) = 1 ⇒ 131
2. (b) The upper number at the cross is to be added to the right side (4 − 2 ) = 2, (6 − 2 ) = 4, (8 − 0) = 8 ⇒ 248
upper number to get the left side lower and cross is to be added
to the left side upper and number to get the right side lower Similarly, (7 − 5) = 2 , (9 − 3) = 6,
number. (3 − 1) = 2 ⇒ 262
As, 2 + 2 = 4, 1 + 4 = 5, 3 + 3 = 6, 10. (a) As, I. (15 − 5) × ( 2 + 6) = 80
1 + 5 = 6 and Similarly 1 + 6 = 7.
II. (9 − 4) × ( 7 + 6) = 65
3. (d) In each quarter (a − b)3 pattern is followed.
Similarly, III. (13 − 11) × (16 + 8) = 48
As, 7 − 3 = 4 = 43 = 64
+4 +4 +4
5 − 4 = 1 = 13 = 1 11. (b) As, column I, A → E → I → M
11 − 8 = 3 = 33 = 27 −4 −4 −4
column II, C → Y → U → Q
8 − 2 = 6 = 63 = 216
∴ ? = 216 +4 +4 +4
column III, G → K → O → S
4. (c) As, 5 + 3 = 8 , 8 + 4 = 12
−4
column IV, I → −4 −4
Similarly, 12 + 1 = 13 E → A → W
∴ ? = 12 ∴ ? =W
7+ 5 5 + 21
5. (c) As, = 6, = 13 12. (c) As, I. (5 + 6) − ( 7 + 4) = 0
2 2
24 + 6 II. (7 + 6) − (8 + 4) = 1
Similarly, = = 15
2
III. (11 + 2 ) − ( 2 + 0) = 11
∴ ? = 15
13. (d) As, (2 )2 = 4, (5)2 = 25 ⇒ 425
6. (b) Starting at the top left, and moving anti-clockwise around the
figure, letters advance through the alphabet 5 letters at a time. (2 )2 = 4, (4)2 = 16 ⇒ 416
Hence, missing term is V.
10Y Similarly, (3)2 = 9, (5)2 = 25 ⇒ 925
7. (b) As, first row, = 5X
2Z ∴ ? = 925
40X
Second row, = 4Z 14. (a) In each figure the addition of numbers is equal to 20.
10Y
Similarly, third row,
?
= 4Y ∴ 2 + 9 + 4 + ? = 20
20X ⇒ 15 + ? = 20
∴ ? = 80Z ⇒ ? = 20 − 15 = 5
Inserting the Missing Character 75
15. (b) As, outside numbers 19 + 1 = 0, 17 + 3 = 20, 15 + 5 = 20 J T I ⇒10 + 20 + 9 = 39

Inside numbers, 18 + 2 = 20, 16 + 4 = 20 (Positional values)

Similarly, 6 + ? = 20 ⇒ ? = 14 M O H ⇒13 + 15 + 8 = 36
(Positional values)
16. (a) In the Circle, the number of squares are given in ascending
order. O E L ⇒15 + 5 + 12 ⇒ 32

∴ In last circle start from side of circle (Positional values)

6 = 36
2 21. (a) In first row,
7 2 = 49 5+ 3=8
8 = 64
2 ⇒ 8 ÷ 2 = 4 (in middle circle)
9 = 81
2 In second row,
2 + 4 + 7 + 7 = 20
So, 64 will replace the question mark.
⇒ 20 ÷ 2 = 10 (in middle circle)
17. (c) As, In figure (A), 10 − 4 = 6
In third row,
18 − 10 = 8
5+ 4+2 +2 + 3+ 4
18 − 4 = 14
In figure (B), 14 − 8 = 6, ⇒ 20 ÷ 2 = 10 (in middle circle)
22 − 14 = 8 In fourth row,
22 − 8 = 14 7 + 2 + 1+ 2
In figure (C), 11 − 5 = 6, 15 − 11 = 4 ⇒ 12 ÷ 2 = 6 (in middle circle)
Similarly, missing number = 15 − 5 = 10 In fifth row,
∴ ? = 10 4+4=8
18. (b) As, In figure (A), (915 − 364) = 551 ⇒ 8 ÷2 = 4 (in middle circle)
In figure (B), (789 − 543) = 246 ∴ ?=6
Similarly, In figure (C), missing number 22. (a) Number follow below pattern
= (863 − 241) = 622 2 + 2 = 4, 4 + 5 = 9
19. (c) The above three numbers are multiples of the number at the 9 + 10 = 19
bottom.
Letter follow below pattern
Clearly, 36, 18 and 27 are all multiples of 9. So, the missing
2 + 24( X ) = 26 (Q positional value of X is 24)
number is 9.
4 + 22(V ) = 26 (Q positional value of V is 22)
20. (a) G H T ⇒7 + 8 + 20 = 35
(Positional values) 9 + 17(Q ) = 26 (Q positional value of Q is 17)
M Z O ⇒13 + 26 + 15 = 54 19 + ? = 26
(Positional values) ⇒? = 26 − 19 = 7 = 9 (Q positional value of G is 7)
 Chapter

11
Ranking Test
The process of determining the position or place of a person or a thing on the basis of comparision or relative
position of other person or thing is called ranking. There are two types of questions based on ranking test which is
as follows.

Type I Statement Based Questions

In this type of questions, a set of information pertaining to persons, objects or some other entities along with their
qualities, which can be compared is provided. Candidates are required to arrange the given entities in either
ascending or descending order on the basis of relative quality. The candidate has to understand the given
information systematically candidate is to answer the question.
Sometimes candidate is required to ascertain only the rank of a person either from top or bottom in a class or a
group of persons. In determining the rank, the information about total number of persons in the class or a group is a
pre-requisite otherwise the candidate cannot determine the rank. Sometimes the rank of a person from either end
is given and the candidate is required to calculate the total number of persons.
Note Total number of persons = Position of person from top + Position of person from bottom −1
l If two persons are on a definite position from top and bottom and they interchange their ranks. Then, total number of
persons = (First position of first person + Second position of second person) − 1
e.g., Let there be n persons who qualified in a certain event. A particular girl Priya is one of them whose rank from the top
e.g., Top rank (Tr ) is 16th and his rank from the other side i. e., Bottom rank (Br ) is 2nd. Then, total number of girls (n) who
qualified, is
⇒ n = Tr + Br − 1 ⇒ n = 26 + 16 − 1 = 41
Example 1 In a row of boys, Ram is seventh from the left and Shyam is twelfth from the right. If they interchange
their positions, Ram becomes twenty-second from the left. How many boys are there in a row?
(a) 49 (b) 31 (c) 33 (d) Data inadequate
Solution (c) Ram’s new position is 22nd from left. But is the same as Shyam’s earlier position, which is 12th
from right.
⇒ The number of persons in a row = Tr + Br − 1 = ( 22 + 12 − 1) = 33

Example 2 In a class, Ajit ranks 11th from the top and 27th from the bottom. If in the same class Anuja ranks
14th from the top, how many children below Anuja, in the class?
(a) 23 (b) 30 (c) 24 (d) 29
11th
Solution (a) 10 students Ajit
→
26 students
27th ←
Total number of students in the class = 10 + 1 + 26 = 37
Anuja’s rank from top = 14th
Therefore, the number of students, who are below Anuja in the class = 37 − 14 = 23
Ranking Test 77
Type II Comparison Based Questions
In another type of questions on ranking, you are required to ascertain some other qualities such as height, weight,
marks, age etc., In this type of questions, the two extreme ends are occupied by the persons having the lowest and
the highest degrees of quality that has to be compared. While, solving this type of questions, you should employ
certain symbols and notations to organise the given information, so that you can use the data more conveniently
and quickly too.
Example 3 A is taller than E, B is taller than D, F is taller than C, D is taller than A and E is taller than F, then
who is the tallest among them?
(a) D (b) B (c) E (d) F
Solution (b) A>E …(i)
B>D …(ii)
F>C …(iii)
D>A …(iv)
E>F …(v)
From equations B > D > A > E > F > C. Clearly, B is the tallest among them.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. Vishnu ranks 16th from the top and 49th from the 7. Sixty students were there in a mental ability test.
bottom in a class. How many students are there in the Ten students did not qualify, out of remaining Yogesh
class? ranked 25th from the last. What was his rank from
(a) 66 (b) 65 top?
(c) 64 (d) Cannot be determined (a) 27th (b) 26th
(c) 29th (d) 28th
2. Mita is taller than Rita but not as tall as Soni. Rita is
taller than Sarita. Soni is not as tall as Rupa. Who 8. Rajesh ranked 25th in the class of forty-one students.
among them is the tallest? What is the rank of Rajesh from the end?
(a) Mita (b) Rupa (a) 15th (b) 17th
(c) Soni (d) Sarita (c) 16th (d) 18th

3. In a class of twenty students, X ranks above Y who 9. Rajni is 6th from either end of a row of girls. How
ranks below M. N ranks above X but below M. T ranks many girls are there in that row?
between X and Y. Y ranks between T and L. Who (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 11
among them has secured the topmost ranks? 10. Ravi is 7th ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If
(a) M (b) N Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last, what is Ravi’s
(c) T (d) X rank from the top?
4. In a cricket match, Sachin scored more runs than (a) 14th (b) 12th
Rahul but not as many as Kiran. Vinod scored less (c) 16th (d) 11th
than Rahul but more than Gagan and Anand. Whose 11. In a row of children facing North, Seema is shifted to
score was the lowest in the match? her right by four places becomes eighteenth from the
(a) Rahul (b) Gagan right end of the row. Sudhakar, who is fifteenth from
(c) Anand (d) Either Gagan or Anand the left end of the row, is fifth to Seema. How many
children are there in the row?
5. Sudhir is shorter than Ram. Rajan is shorter than
(a) 42 (b) 38
Preetam,Vijay is shorter than Ram. Who among
(c) 41 (d) 39
them is the shortest?
(a) Vijay (b) Rajan 12. In a row of thirty boys, R is fourth from the right end
(c) Sudhir (d) Cannot be determined and W is tenth from the left end. How many boys are
6. In a row of plants, a plant is 16th from either end of there between R and W?
the row. How many trees are there in the row? (a) 15 (b) 16
(c) 17 (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 32 (b) 30 (c) 31 (d) 16
78
13. Ravi is sixteenth from the first in a column of boys.
There are twice as many behind him as there are in
first. How many boys are there between Ravi and
fifth boy from the end of the column?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 28
14. In a row of girls, Purnima is eight from the right and
Bhavana is twelfth from the left when Purnima and
Bhavana interchange their positions, Bhavana becomes
High Skill Questions
1. In a row of students Prabhu is 9th from left and
Padma is 12th from right. In the same row, Ram is
12th from left and Radha is 9th from right. How many
students are there between Prabhu and Radha?
(a) 18 (b) 21
(c) 24 (d) Data inadequate
2. In a group of six students, Nitin is heavier than
Mahesh but lighter than Nandu. Ketan is lighter
than Mahesh but he is not as light as Ramesh. If
Nandu is lighter than Amit, then who is the lightest?
(a) Mahesh (b) Ketan
(c) Ramesh (d) Cannot be determined
3. Ravi ranked 14th from the top and 29th from the
bottom among those who passed an examination. Five
boys did not participate in examination and five get
failed in it. How many boys were there in the class?
(a) 52 (b) 50 (c) 54 (d) 51
4. In a class, ‘A’ ranks 5th from the top while ‘B’ ranks
8th from the bottom. If ‘C’ ranks 6th from A and is
immediately preceding B, then how many students
are there in the class?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 19
5. Out of six towns, Dhulia is bigger than Amalner,
Shrirampur is bigger than Nasik, Jalgaon is not as
big as Shrirampur but is bigger than Amalner.
Amalner is smaller than Nasik but bigger than
Manmad. Which is the smallest?
(a) Amalner (b) Nasik (c) Jalgaon (d) Manmad
6. Five friends A, B, C, D and E read a newspaper. The
one who reads first givens it to C. The one who reads
last had taken it from A. E was neither the first nor
the last one to read. There were two readers between
B and A. Who reads the newspaper last?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
7. In a row of 40 girls, when Komal was shifted to her
left by 4 places, her number from the left end of the
row became 10. What was the number of Swati from
Study Package for NTSE
twenty-first from the left. Which of the following will be
Purnima’s new position from the right?
(a) 8th (b) 17th
(c) 21st (d) Data inadequate
15. Three persons P, Q and R are standing in a queue.
There are eight persons between P and Q and twelve
persons between Q and R. If there be seven persons
ahead of R and twenty eight persons behind P, what
could be the minimum number of persons in the
queue?
(a) 57 (b) 42
(c) 40 (d) Data inadequate
the right end of the row, if Swati was 3 places to the
right of Komal’s original position?
(a) 22nd (b) 23rd (c) 25th (d) 24th
8. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F start climbing a hill
together. After sometime, it is observed that ‘D’ has
reached the position higher than ‘B’ but not as high as
‘E’, ‘C’ is at a position not higher than ‘D’ and not lower
than ‘A’, who is not lower than ‘F’ and not higher than
‘B’. Who has climbed to the highest position?
(a) D (b) E
(c) B (d) Cannot be determined
9. Five students participated in an examination and
each scored different marks. Nidhi scored higher
than Mamta. Kavita scored lower than Prashant but
higher than Nidhi. Anil’s score was between Mamta
and Nidhi. Which of the following pairs represents
the highest and lowest scores respectively?
(a) Nidhi and Kavita (b) Kavita and Mamta
(c) Anil and Kavita (d) Prashant and Mamta
10. Among six friends L, M, N, P, Q and S, each having a
different height, N is taller than Q and P but shorter
than M. P is taller than only Q while S is shorter than
only. Which of the following pairs represents the
tallest and shortest among the five friends?
(a) M and P (b) L and Q
(c) P and Q (d) Cannot be determined
11. In a unit test Suman’s marks in Mathematics is more
than her marks in History but not more than
Geography. Her marks in Science is more than that
in History but not as much as in Mathematics and her
marks in English is not as much as in Geography. In
which of the given subjects did she score the lowest?
(a) History (b) English (c) Science (d) Data inadequate
Directions (Q. Nos. 12 and 13) Read the following
information given below to answer the questions that follow.
Among A, B, C and D, B is heavier than A and C but C is taller
than him. D is not as tall as C while A is the shortest. C is not
as heavy as A. D is heavier than B but shorter than him.
Ranking Test 79
12. Who is the heaviest? 15. Who is the eldest?
(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C (a) Deepti (b) Lata
(c) Anita (d) Rajan
13. Who is the tallest?
(a) D (b) C 16. Which of the following pairs of persons are of the
(c) Either A or D (d) Cannot be determined same age?
(a) Mahima and Lata
Directions (Q. Nos. 14-18) Read the following information (b) Anita and Mahima
carefully to answer the questions that follow. (c) Mahima and Rajan
I. Anita, Mahima, Rajan, Lata and Deepti are five cousins. (d) There are no person
II. Anita is twice as old as Mahima. 17. Anita is younger than whom?
III. Rajan is half the age of Mahima.
(a) Rajan (b) Mahima
IV. Anita is half the age of Deepti.
(c) Deepti (d) Lata
V. Rajan is twice the age of Lata.
18. If Mahima is 16 yr old, then what is the age of Lata?
14. Who is the youngest?
(a) 4 yr (b) 5 yr
(a) Deepti (b) Rajan
(c) 7 yr (d) 14 yr
(c) Lata (d) Anita

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
Top Bottom 6. (c) Numbers of plants = 16 + 16 − 1 = 31
16th
15 students 48 students
1. (c) → Vishnu ←
49th
7. (b) Out of 60 students, 10 of them did not qualify the test. So,
only 50 could qualify.
Total number of students in the class
= (16 + 49) − 1= 65 − 1 = 64 Or = 15 + 48 + 1 = 64 n = 50,B r = 25th
Tr = n + 1 − B r = (50 + 1) − 25 = 26th
2. (b) Soni > Mita > Rita …(i)
8. (b) n = 41, Tr = 25th
Rita > Sarita …(ii)
Rupa > Soni …(iii) ⇒ n = Tr + B r − 1
From Statements (i), (ii) and (iii), B r = 41 + 1 − 25 = 17th
Rupa > Soni > Mita > Rita > Sarita
9. (d) Rajni is on 6th place.
So, it is clear that Rupa is the tallest. So, n = 6 + 6 − 1= 11
3. (a) According to the question, 10. (c) Sumit is 17th from the last and Ravi is 7th rank ahead means
M>X>Y Ravi is 24th rank from the last.
M>N>X So, Ravi’s rank from the top
X>T>Y = 39 − 24 + 1= 16th
T>Y>L 11. (c) From the given information, we get
For all the statements, M > N > X > T > Y > L 14 children → Sudhakar → 4 children
Clearly, M secured the topmost rank. → Seema → 21 children
∴ Total number of children in the row
4. (d) Kiran > Sachin > Rahul = 14 + 1 + 4 + 1 + 21 = 41
Rahul > Vinod > Gagan or Anand
12. (b) W = 10th from the left, R = 4 th from the right
From both the statements, Kiran > Sachin > Rahul > Vinod >
Gagan or Anand. Thus, it is clear that either Gagan or Anand = (30 − 4 + 1) = 27 th from left
scored the lowest runs in the match. ∴ Number of boys between R and W
5. (b) Ram > Sudhir, = (27 − 10) − 1 = 16
Preetam > Rajan 13. (b) 15 students → Ravi → 30 students
Ram > Vijay ∴ Total boys = 15 + 1 + 30 = 46
From all three statements,
∴ Total boys between Ravi and the fifth boy from the end
Ram > Vijay, Sudhir > Rajan and Preetam > Rajan
= 46 − 16 − 5 = 25
Thus, it is clear that Rajan is the shortest among them.
80 Study Package for NTSE

14. (b) Purnima is eighth from the right and Bhavana is twelth from Purnima Bhavana
the left, we have left 11 girls 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 7 girls right
Bhavana Purnima [11 + 1 + 8 + 1] = 21
left 11 girls 7 girls right Now, Purnima’s new position from the right = 7 + 1 + 8 + 1 = 17
Again, when Purnima and Bhavana interchange their positions 15. (c) 7 persons → R → 3 persons → P → 8 persons → Q.
Bhavana becomes twenty first from the left, we get the following Hence, required number of persons
= 7 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 28 = 40

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 9th 12th 12th 9th Combining all the informations, we obtained the following
8 Students sequence.
P 12 Padma Radha
8 Students Prashant > Kavita > Nidhi > Anil > Mamta

Number of students unknown ∴ The pairs represent the highest and lowest scores are
Prashant and Mamta.
Since, the total number of students in the row is not given, we
cannot find the number of students between Prabhu and Radha. 10. (b) If P is taller than only Q, we can infer that Q is the shortest.
Similarly, if S is shorter than only L, we get to know that L is the
2. (c) Nandu > Nitin > Mahesh …(i)
tallest.
Mahesh > Ketan > Ramesh …(ii)
Amit > Nandu …(iii) 11. (d) Geography > Mathematics > History ...(i)
From all the three statements, Mathematics > Science > History ...(ii)
Amit > Nandu > Nitin > Mahesh > Ketan > Ramesh Geography > English …(iii)
Hence, Ramesh is the highest Thus, the lowest score was either in History or English.
3. (a) Number of boys who passed = 14 + 29 − 1 = 42 Sol. (Q. Nos. 12 and 13) Here, H and T in the subcript denote heavier
∴ Total number of boys in class = 42 + 5 + 5 = 52 and taller.
4. (d) Total number of students = 5 + 6 + 8 = 19 BH > A H and CH CT > B T
5. (d) Dhulia > Amalner A H > CH C T > D T, D T> AT
Shrirampur > Nasik DH > BH BT > DT
Jalgaon < Shrirampur 12. (c) DH > B H > A H > C H
Jalgaon > Amalner
Here, D is the heaviest.
Amalner < Nasik
Amalner > Manmad 13. (b) CT > BT > DT > AT

6. (d) According to the question, Here, C is the tallest.

B, C, E, A, D Sol. (Q. Nos. 14-18)

Hence, D reads the newspaper last. Let age of Mahima = x
7. (d) On shifting 4 places left, Komal is 10th from the left end of the Then, age of Anita = 2 x
row. Thus, Komal’s original position was 14th from the left end. x
Age of Rajan =
Swati is 3 places to the right of Komal’s original position. 2
Clearly, Swati is 17th from the left end. Age of Deepti = 4 x
Number of girls to the right of Swati = (40 − 17 ) = 23 Age of Lata =
x
4
Thus, Swati is 24th from the right end of the row.
Now, we have the following arrangement in descending
8. (b) E > D> B ...(i) order Deepti > Anita > Mahima > Rajan > Lata
D>C>A>F ...(ii)
14. (c) Lata is youngest.
B>A ...(iii)
15. (a) Deepti is eldest.
Combining all three, we get
E>D>B>C>A>F 16. (d) There are no two persons of the same age as per the given
∴ E has climbed the highest position. information.
17. (c) Anita is younger than Deepti.
9. (d) According to the question,
18. (a) Mahima’s age = 16 yr
Nidhi > Mamta
16
Prashant > Kavita > Nidhi ∴ Lata’s age = = 4 yr
4
Nidhi > Anil > Mamta
 Chapter

12
Arithmetical
Reasoning
In arithmetical reasoning, simple unitary method based Example 1 Mani is double the age of Prabhu. Ramona is
questions and intelligent puzzle type questions are asked half the age of Prabhu. If Mani is sixty, then find out the age
in exams. of Ramona.
Some important formulae which can be used for solving (a) 20 yr (b) 15 yr
such problems are as follow (c) 10 yr (d) 24 yr
1. HCF and LCM of fractions Solution (b) According to the question,
HCF of numerators age of Mani = 2 × age of Prabhu and age of Ramona
HCF of fraction = 1
LCM of denominators = × age of Prabhu
2
LCM of numerators
and LCM of fraction = Now, age of Mani = 60 yr
HCF of denominators
⇒ 60 = 2 × age of Prabhu
2. In rule of BODMAS for simplification, we follow the order
⇒ Age of Prabhu = 30 yr
Bracket → Of → Division → Multiplication → Addition →
1
Subtraction ∴ Age of Ramona = × 30 = 15 yr
m 2
3. To find m% of a given number A = ×A
100 Example 2 Four numbers whose average is 60, the first is
4. To convert a decimal into a per cent, we shift decimal 1
th of the sum of last three. The first number is
point by two places top its right and put symbol of per 4
cent. (a) 15 (b) 45
Total profit
5. Profit percentage = × 100, (c) 42 (d) 48
Total cost
Total loss Solution (d) Let the four numbers be a, b , c and d.
Loss percentage = × 100
Total cost Then, a + b + c + d = 4 × 60
Principal × Rate × Time
6. Simple interest = a + b + c + d = 240
100
⇒
Sum of observations
7. Mean or average = a=
1
( b + c + d) (given)
Number of observations 4
Value of all units
8. Value of one unit = Suppose, b+ c+ d = y
Number of given units
1
Distance Now, y + y = 240
9. Speed = 4
Time
⇒ y + 4 y = 240 × 4
10. Proportion Two ratios are said to be in proportion, if 960
they are equal. The ratio 3/4 and 6/8 are equal. ∴ y=
5
3 6
The statement 3 : 4 = 6 : 8 or = is called a proportion. = 192
4 8
a c ∴ a = 240 − 192
If = ⇒ a × d =b×c
b d = 48
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. In a fraction, if the denominator is increased by 1, it 11. In a row of girls, if Seeta who is 7th from the left and
becomes 1/2. If the numerator is increased by 9, it Leena who is 9th from the right interchange their
becomes 1. Find the denominator. seats, Seeta becomes 11th from the left. How many
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21 girls are there in the row?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 22
2. The number of students in each section of a modern
school is 36. After admitting some new students, four 12. In a row of children, Kamal is 6th from the left and
new sections were started. If the total number of Appu is 4th from the right. When Kamal and Appu
students in each section now is 30, then what was the exchange their positions, Appu becomes 17th from
number of sections initially? the right. Which will be Kamal’s position from the
(a) 3 (b) 4 left?
(c) 6 (d) Cannot be determined (a) 12th (b) 19th (c) 21st (d) 7th
3. Two persons x and y together have total ` 50 with 13. Mohan is 15th from both ends of a row of boys. How
them. If x loses half of his money and y loses 1/3rd of many boys are there in the row?
his money, they will have only ` 20. How much (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 30 (d) 29
amount does y has?
(a) ` 13 (b) ` 20 (c) ` 30 (d) ` 35
14. If a clock strikes once at 1 O’ clock, twice at 2 O’ clock
etc., How many times will it strike in 24 h?
4. Age of Rajesh is 1/5th of his father’s age. The father’s (a) 300 (b) 156 (c) 78 (d) 136
age will be twice of Rekha’s age after 10 yr. If 3 yr ago,
15. Manisha is 11th from the either end of the row of
Rekha’s age was 12 yr, find the present age of Rajesh.
girls, how many girls are there in the row?
(a) 3 yr (b) 12 yr (c) 10 yr (d) 8 yr (a) 19 (b) 20
5. One-fourth of Nikhil’s money is equal to 1/6th of (c) 21 (d) 22
Yogesh’s money. If they both have ` 600, then the 16. 69 is divided into 3 parts such that the first number is
difference between their amounts is the arithmetic mean of the other two numbers. The
(a) ` 125 (b) ` 110 (c) ` 100 (d) ` 120 second number is 4 more than the third number. The
6. Sum of three numbers is 432. First number is three numbers are
3/4 times the second and the third number is half of (a) 23, 27 and 19 (b) 21, 27 and 23
the second number. The smallest number is (c) 23, 25 and 21 (d) 19, 29 and 21
(a) 96 (b) 97 (c) 85 (d) 98 17. A is 3 yr older than B and 3 yr younger then C, while
7. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 10. If 18 B and D are twins. How many years older is C
is subtracted from the numbers, the place values of than D?
the digit get interchanged. Find the number. (a) 3 yr (b) 6 yr
(a) 96 (b) 99 (c) 90 (d) 64 (c) 2 yr (d) 10 yr

8. The middle digit of a number between 100 and 1000 is 18. The cost of four pens, eight sharpeners and nine
zero and sum of the digits of the number is 12. If the erasers is ` 136, the cost of three pens, six sharpeners
digits in unit’s place and hundred’s place are and seven erasers together is ` 104. Find the cost of
interchanged, the number increases by 396. Find the an eraser.
(a) ` 7 (b) ` 8 (c) ` 4 (d) ` 5
number.
(a) 402 (b) 408 (c) 412 (d) 420 19. The cost of 5 mangoes is equal to the cost of
9. Five burgers, six pizzas and seven cokes cost is ` 178. 20 oranges. If the total cost of 2 mangoes and
Six burgers, four pizzas and two cokes cost is ` 124. 10 oranges is ` 22.50, find the cost of one orange.
(a) ` 1.20 (b) ` 1.30
Find the cost of one burger, one pizza and one coke.
(c) ` 1.25 (d) ` 1.35
(a) ` 28 (b) ` 30 (c) ` 32 (d) ` 40
20. In a school, half of the boys and a one-fourth of the
10. In a team, the captain took 1/3rd of a cake and the
girls enrolled for a course. If 7/8th of the boys and
remaining was divided equally among the others. The
3/4th of the girls actually joined, then what fraction of
captain had twice the share of any others member.
the total number of students did not join the course?
How many members are there in the team? 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 15 16 14 13
Arithmetical Reasoning 83
High Skill Questions
1. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and 12. In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English
soldiers are travelling in a train. For every 15 soldiers while 3 of them read none of these two. How many of
there is one captain. The number of captains in the them read French and English both?
group is (a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) 85 (b) 80 (c) 75 (d) 70
13. Father’s age is 6 yr more than three times his son’s
2. At the end of a business confrence, ten people present age. If after 4 yr, the father’s age would be 12 yr more
all shakehands with each other once. How many than two times the son’s age, find the present age of
hands will there be altogether? the father.
(a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 90 (a) 30 yr (b) 35 yr
(c) 36 yr (d) 37 yr
3. A students got twice as many sums as he got right. If
he attempted 48 sums in all. How many did he solved 14. Divide ` 320 among A, B and C, so that A may have
correctly? `30 more than B and C may have ` 20 more than A.
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 24 (a) ` 110, ` 80 and ` 130 (b) ` 110, ` 150 and ` 70
(c) ` 80, ` 120 and ` 120 (d) ` 100, ` 100 and ` 120
4. A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He
used 27 fence poles on each sides of the square. How 15. The length of a rectangle is 10 cm more than its
many poles did he need altogether? breadth. If its perimeter is 84 cm, then what is the
(a) 100 (b) 104 length of the rectangle?
(c) 108 (d) None of these (a) 20 cm (b) 24 cm
(c) 28 cm (d) 26 cm
5. If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterations
in sleeves and every 4 out of 5 need it in the body, how 16. In 5h Pawan can walk 4 miles more than what Sachin
many alterations will be required for 60 shirts? can in 8h. In 7h Sachin can walk 2 miles more than
(a) 24 (b) 123 (c) 133 (d) 143 Pawan can walk in 3h. What is Pawan’s speed?
(a) 4 m/h (b) 5 m/h
6. If a clock takes seven seconds to strike seven, how (c) 6 m/h (d) 7 m/h
long will it take to strike ten?
(a) 7 s (b) 9 s 17. Atul’s age is 8 yr more than thrice the sum of the ages
(c) 10 s (d) None of these of the two grandsons who are twins. After 8 yr, Atul’s
age will be 10 yr more than twice the sum of the ages
7. On children’s day, sweets were to be equally of his grandsons. What was the age of Atul when his
distribute among 175 children in a school. Actually on grandsons were born?
the children’s day, 35 children were absent and (a) 70 yr (b) 72 yr (c) 73 yr (d) 75 yr
therefore each child got 4 sweet extra. Total how
many sweets were available for distribution? 18. There are some monkeys on two trees T1 and T2 . If
(a) 2400 (b) 2480 (c) 2600 (d) 2800 two monkeys jump from T1 to T2 the number of
monkeys on each tree will be equal. If two monkeys
8. Between two book ends in your study are displayed jump from T2 to T1, number of monkeys on T1 would
your five favourite puzzle books. If you decide to be doubled the number of monkeys on T2 . Find the
arrange the five books in every possible combination initial number of monkeys on T1 and T2 respectively.
and moved just one book every minute, how long (a) 15 and 12 (b) 14 and 10
would it take you? (c) 12 and 10 (d) 14 and 12
(a) 1 h (b) 2 h (c) 3 h (d) 4 h
19. A sum of ` 1420 is distributed among 7 men, 11 women
9. If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would and 10 boys, so that each woman gets thrice the
kill 4 mice in how many days? amount that a boy gets, and the share of one man
(a) 4 days (b) 10 days (c) 40 days (d) 100 days
equals the sum of the shares of a woman and a boy.
10. Mr. Johnson was to earn ` 300 and a free holiday for Find the sum of the shares of the women and the boys
seven weeks work. He worked for only 4 weeks and put together.
earned ` 30 and a free holiday. What was the value of (a) 1220 (b) 660 (c) 860 (d) 760
the holiday? 20. The sum of the heights of three persons is 5.4 m.
(a) ` 300 (b) ` 330 When the shortest person stands on a box of height
(c) ` 360 (d) ` 420 30 cm, he is taller than the middle person by the same
11. A father is now three times as old his son. Five years amount by which he is shorter than the tallest
back, he was four times as old as his son. The present person. Find the height of the shortest person.
age of the son (in years) is (a) 380 cm (b) 160 cm
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 20 (c) 540 cm (d) Cannot be determined
84 Study Package for NTSE

21. If ‘L’ is less than ‘M’ which is less than ‘N’, then it 29. Given that LOT ÷ TO = 8. Find out which of the
follows that following does not stand for TOL to fulfill the above
(a) ‘L’ is not equal to ‘M’ which is less than ‘N’ equation.
(b) ‘L’ is equal to ‘M’ which is greater than ‘N’ (a) 3, 2 and 8 (b) 5, 7 and 8 (c) 8, 5 and 7 (d) 7, 3 and 8
(c) ‘L’ is less than ‘M’ which is greater than ‘N’
(d) ‘L’ is equal to ‘M’ which is less than ‘N’ 30. Given the following subtraction problem, find out which
of the following numbers does not stand for LENS?
22. The teacher gave the following puzzle to students :
L E N
‘A container holds the equivalent of 30 glasses of
water. If the tap on it is turned with a uniform speed, –E N S
it takes 10 s to fill a glass of water. How long will the 2 2 2
container take to be emptied, if the tap is kept open?’
(a) 9753 (b) 8420 (c) 6420 (d) 7531
Four different answers came from the students. They
were 31. In a examination, a student scores 3 marks for every
(a) 4 min (b) 5 min correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong
(c) more than 4 min (d) more than 5 min answer. If he attempts all 60 questions and secures
23. Visiting the historical monuments, a tourist asked, 160 marks, the number of questions he attempted
‘‘How old is this monument’’? The guide replied, ‘‘The correctly is
monument’s exact age was a square number two years (a) 50 (b) 55 (c) 45 (d) 48
ago, and will be a cube number after two years’’. What 32. A monkey climbs 4m at the beginning of each
is the age of this historical monument?
(a) 343 (b) 216 (c) 66 (d) 123
hour and rest for a while when he slips back 2m
before he again starts climbing in the beginning
24. Today, the age of mother is thrice as that of her next hour. If he starts climbing as 6 am. At what
daughter. After 12 yr, the age of the mother will be time will he first touch the flag at 10m from the
twice that of her daughter. The present age of the ground?
daughter is (a) 10 am (b) 11 am
(a) 18 yr (b) 16 yr (c) 14 yr (d) 12 yr (c) 9 am (d) 9 : 30 am
25. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 33. A newspaper has 6 sheets consisting of 24 pages in
4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I keep 5 in a total. If page number 10 of that newspaper is missing
pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum then find the set of missing pages in that newspaper,
number of sweets I can pack and distribute? from the alternatives given below
(a) 54 (b) 25 (c) 37 (d) 65 (a) 8, 9, 16, 17 (b) 9, 10, 15, 16
(c) 11, 12, 13, 14 (d) 7, 8, 17, 18
26. A train running at 60 km/h or a car speeding at 100 m
per 6 s. Which runs faster? 34. If p, q, r, s and t are positive numbers, and it is given
(a) Train that
(b) Car
(c) Both will progress in the same speed p + q = r + s, q + s = 2p
(d) It is not possible to say s + t > p + q and r + s > p + t
27. In the following multiplication problem, find the then which of the following statement is true?
numerical values of T, F and H in that order (a) s > p > q > t > r (b) s > q > t > p > r
L T B D F (c) p > q > r > s > t (d) p > s > q > t > r

4 6 35. Study the figure given below representing a

3 4 T G F T particular number in coded manner.
2 3 D 4 H D
7 2 1
D 6 L F 6 L 8
(a) 2, 8 and 9 (b) 8, 3 and 9 0 4
(c) 6, 3 and 5 (d) 8, 4 and 7
for example, the number 7 6 1 coded by the following
28. Given the following addition problem, find the symbols
number NET in digits.
N O T
Based on the above information find the number
+ T O N E
coded for the following symbols.
9 0 0 0
(a) 6, 2 and 8 (b) 2, 6 and 8
(c) 8, 5 and 3 (d) 2, 1 and 6 (a) 4256 (b) 7210 (c) 4078 (d) 8406
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
x 3x + 4x + 2 x
1. (b) Let the given fraction be . ∴ = 432
y 4
If the denominator is increased by 1, it becomes 1/2. 9 x = 432 × 4 ⇒ x = 192
x 1 ∴ Smallest number is x/2.
⇒ = ⇒ 2x − y − 1= 0 …(i)
y+1 2 192
⇒ = 96
2
If the numerator is increased by 9, it becomes 1.
x+ 9 7. (d) Let the unit’s place number be y and ten’s place number be x.
⇒ =1
y Then, number = 10 x + y
⇒ x− y+ 9=0 …(ii) ∴ 10 x + y − 18 = 10 y + x
On multiplying Eq. (ii) by 2 and then subtract from Eq. (i), we ⇒ x − y =2 …(i)
get Also, given that, x + y =10 …(ii)
∴ y = 19 On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
2. (d)Let the number of sections of the school be x. 2 x = 12
⇒ x = 6 and y = 4
Number of students in each section = 36
∴ The required number = 64
Total number of students in the school = 36 x
8. (b) Let the number be xyz, i.e., 100 x + 10 y + z
If y new students were added, then total number of students
Given, y = 0 and x + z = 12 …(i)
= 36 x + y
Also, (100 z+ 10 z+ x) − (100 x + 10 y + z) = 396
Number of section, if four new section were started = x + 4 z− x = 4 …(ii)
Number of students in each section = 30 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Now, total number of students = 30 ( x + 4 ) z = 8 and x = 4
∴ 36 x + y = 30 ( x + 4 ) ∴ The required number is 408.
6 x + y = 120 9. (b) Let the cost of each burger, pizza and a coke be b, p and c
Since, the question involves two unknowns and only one respectively.
equation, So, x cannot be determined uniquely. Given, 5b + 6 p + 7c = 178 …(i)
3. (c) Given, x + y = 50 …(i) 6b + 4 p + 2c = 124 …(ii)
x y On multiplying Eq. (i) by 2 and then adding, we get
and + = 20 = 3 x + 2 y = 120 …(ii)
2 3 ⇒ 16b + 16 p + 16 c = 480
On multiplying Eq. (i) by 2 and then subtracting from Eq. (ii), ⇒ b + p + c = ` 30
we get the values of x = ` 20 and y = ` 30. 10. (b) Let there be x members in the team excluding the captain.
1
4. (d) Rekha’s age, 3 yr ago = 12 yr Captain’s share = of the cake
3
∴ Rekha’s present age = 15 yr 2
Rekha’s age, after 10 yr = 15 + 10 = 25 Other’s share = of the cake
3
∴ Father’s age, after 10 yr = 2 (25) = 50 2
The share of each member of the team =
∴ Father’s present age = 50 − 10 = 40 yr 3x
40
∴ Rajesh’s present age = = 8 yr
2   =
2 1
5 Given,
 3x 3
5. (d) Let Nikhil and Yogesh’s money be N and Y, respectively. ⇒ x=4
N Y
Given, = ⇒ 3N = 2Y
4 6 ∴ Total number of members = 4 members + captain
2Y = 5 members
Also, N + Y = 600 ⇒ + Y = 600
3 11. (c) 7th 9th
⇒ 5Y = 1800 Seeta
⇒ Y = ` 360 and N = ` 240 Leena
∴The difference in the amounts is ` 120.
11th
6. (a) Given, the sum of the three numbers is 432.
Seeta
Let the second number be x, then
3x x Leena is 9th from the right.
+ x + = 432
4 2 ∴Total number of girls = 10 + 9 = 19
86 Study Package for NTSE

12. (b) After exchanging position with Kamal, Appu becomes 6th 17. (b) Since, B and D are twins, therefore, D is also 3 yr younger to A,
from left and 7th from right, which means there are 22 children in and A is 3 yr younger to C. Therefore, C is older than D by 3 + 3, i.e.,
the row. After exchanging positions with Appu, Kamal will be 4th 6 yr.
from right and 19th from left. 18. (b) Let the cost of each pen, sharpener and an eraser be p, s and
14 boys Mohan 14 boys e respectively.
13. (d) → 15th ←
4p + 8s + 9 e = ` 136 …(i)
Total number of boys in the row = 14 + 1 + 14 = 29 and 3 p + 6s + 7e = ` 104 …(ii)
14. (b) In 12 h, it will strike = 12 × 13/ 2 = 78 On multiplying Eq. (i) by 3 and Eq. (ii) by 4, we get
In 24 h, it will strike = 78 × 2 = 156 times 12 p + 24 s + 27e = ` 408
10 girls 10 girls 12 p + 24 s + 28 e = ` 416
15. (c) ← Manisha → On solving both the equations, we get
←11th → e =` 8
10 + 1 + 10 = 21 19. (c) Let the cost of each mango be x and cost of each orange be y.
16. (c) Let the third number be x. Given that, 5 x = 20 y ⇒ x = 4 y
∴Second number = x + 4 1 45
Also, 2 x + 10 y = 22 ⇒18 y =
Arithmetic mean of second and third numbers = (x + x + 4) / 2 2 2
= (2x + 4) / 2 = x + 2 45 1
∴ y= × = ` 125
.
∴ First number = x + 2 2 18
So, x + 2 + x + 4 + x = 69 or 3 x + 6 = 69 20. (b) Let the number of boys be b.
3 x = 69 − 6 Number of girls be g.
x = 63/ 3 ⇒ x = 21 Number of students who did not join the course
=  1 −  +
∴ First number = 21 + 2 = 23 b 7 g  3 1
 1 −  = (b + g ) ×
Second number = 21 + 4 = 25 2  8 4  4 16

Third number = 21 So, the fraction of total number of students who didn’t join the
1
course =
16

High Skill Questions

1. (c) Clearly, out of every 15 persons including caption, which is 7. (d) Let total number of sweets be x.
equal to 16. x x
Then, − =4
1200 140 175
∴Number of captains = = 75
16 = 5 x − 4 x = 4 × 700
2. (b) Clearly, total number of shakehands ∴ x = 2800
= (9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1) = 45 8. (b) Clearly, number of ways of arranging 5 books
3. (b) Suppose the boys got x sums right and 2 x sums wrong. = 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120
Then, x + 2 x = 48 So, total time taken = 120 min = 2 h
⇒ 3 x = 48 ⇒ x = 16 Cats Mice Days
9. (d)
4. (b) Since, each pole at the corner of the plot is comman to its two 100 100 100
4 4 x
sides, so we have
100 : 4 
Total number of poles needed  x : 100
4 : 100
= 27 × 4 − 4
⇒ 100 × 4 × 100 = 4 × 100 × x
= 108 − 4 = 104
100 × 4 × 100
5. (c) Number of alterations required in 1 shirt ⇒ x= = 100
4 × 100
=  + +  =
2 3 4 133
∴ x = 100 days
 3 4 5 60
10. (b) Let the value of the holiday be x.
∴Numbers of alterations required in 60 shirts
133 Then, pay for seven weeks work = ` 300 + x
= × 60 = 133 ` 300 + x
60 So, × 4 = ` 30 + x
7
6. (d) Clearly, seven strikes of clock have 6 intervals while 10 strikes
have 9 intervals. ⇒ ` 1200 + 4 x = ` 210 + 7 x
7 1 ⇒ 3 x = ` 990
∴ Required time = × 9 = 10 s
6 2 ∴ x = ` 330
Arithmetical Reasoning 87
11. (b) Let son’s present age be x yr. a + 8 = 2 (2 s + 16) + 10 …(ii)
Then, father’s age = 3x ⇒ 6s + 8 = 4 s + 34
5 yr ago, father’s age = (3 x − 5) yr ⇒ 2 s = 26 ⇒ s = 13
and son’s age = ( x − 5) yr and a = 86
So, 3 x − 5 = 4( x − 5) ⇒ 3 x − 5 = 4 x − 20 ∴When the twins were born Atul’s age was 86 − 13 = 73 yr.
∴ x = 15 18. (b) Let the number of monkeys on T1 be x and the number of
12. (b) Let circles F and E represent people who read French and monkeys on T2 be y.
English respectively. Now, x − 2 = y +2
F E ⇒ x− y = 4 …(i)
Further, x +2 =2 ( y − 2)
P Q R ⇒ x = 2y − 6 …(ii)
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
3
x = 14 and y = 10
(P + Q + R) + 3 = 15 19. (c) 1 woman = 3 boys
or P + Q + R = 12 ...(i)
1 man = 1woman + 1boy
Also, P+Q =7 …(ii)
1 man = 3 boys + 1boy
and Q+R = 8 …(iii)
1 man = 4 boys
On adding, Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
7 men : 11 women : 10 boys
P + 2Q + R = 15 …(iv)
⇒ (7 × 4) boys : (11 × 3) boys : 10 boys
Subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (iv), we get
⇒ 28 : 33 : 10
Q=3 1420
Hence, each part of the ratio = = 20
∴Number of people who read French and English both = 3 71
13. (c) Let the son’s age be x. Share of 11 women = 33 × 20 = ` 660
Father’s age = 3 x + 6 Share of 10 boys = 10 × 20 = ` 200
Son’s age, after 4 yr = x + 4 Share of the shares of 11 women and 20 boys
Father’s age, after 4 yr = 3 x + 6 + 4 = 3 x + 10 = 660 + 200 = 860
Given that, after 4 yr, the father’s age would be 12 more than
20. (b) Let heights of the shortest, middle and the tallest persons be
2 times the son’s age.
x, y and z cm.
⇒ 3 x + 10 − 2 ( x − 4) = 12
x + y + z = 540 cm …(i)
x = 12 − 2 = 10
Also, ( z + 30) − y = x − ( z + 30)
⇒ Father’s present age = 3 x + 6 = 3 (10) + 6 = 36 yr
⇒ 2 z − ( y + x) = − 60 …(ii)
14. (a) Let the amount with B is ` b. On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
So, the amount with A is 30 + b and the amount with C is 50 + b. ⇒ 3 z = 480
According to the question, ∴ z = 160 cm
b + 30 + b + 50 + b = 320, b = 80 So, height of the shortest person is 160 cm.
So, ` 110, ` 80 and ` 130 are distributed among A, B and C,
21. (a) L<M<N
respectively.
⇒ L ≠ M and M < N
15. (d) Let the width of rectangle be x and its length be ( x + 10).
22. (b) A plain mathematical calculation gives us the answer– five
Perimeter = 2 (l + b ) minutes.
⇒ 2 ( x + 10 + x) = 84 Time required = 30 × 10 = 300 s
2 x + 20 + 2 x = 84 ⇒ x = 16, x + 10 = 26 Time in minutes =
300
= 5 min
∴ Length of the rectangle = 26 cm 60

16. (a) Let the speed of Pawan and Sachin be P and S respectively. 23. (d) Take exact age as 66 yr.
66 − 2 = 64,which is square of 8 but 66 + 2 = 68. It is not cube of
5P = 4 + 8S …(i)
any number.
7S = 2 + 3 P …(ii) Then, take 343, 216 for exact age but these figures do not satisfy
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get the two criteria. Then, take 123 as exact age, it will satisfy the two
criteria.
S = 2 and P = 4
∴ Pawan walks 4 m/h. 24. (d) Let the age of daughter be x.
∴ Age of mother = 3x
17. (c) Let the age of Atul be a and that of each of the twins be s.
12 yr later, Daughter = x + 12
a = 3 × (2 s ) + 8 …(i)
88 Study Package for NTSE

Mother = 3 x + 12 31. (b) Let the number of correct questions = x

2 ( x + 12 ) = 3 x + 12 and the number of incorrect questions = y
2 x + 24 = 3 x + 12 Now, according to the question,
2 x − 3 x = − 24 + 12 x + y = 60 …(i)
− x = − 12, x = 12 3 x − y = 160 …(ii)
On adding Eqs (i) and (ii), we get
25. (b) LCM of 2, 3 and 4 = 24, 24 + 1 = 25
4 x = 220
26. (c) 60 km/h = 60000 m/h ∴ x = 55
= 60000 m/3600 s So, the student attempted 55 question correctly.
= 600 m/36 s = 100 m/6 s 32. (a) The monkey actually climbs in 1h
27. (b) 5 8 1 2 3 = 4 − 2 = 2m
4 6 So, in 3 h he climbs 3 × 2 = 6 m
3 4 8 7 3 8 Now, in next hour he climbs 4 m and he will reach at the top of
2 3 2 4 9 2 the flag.
2 6 7 3 6 5 8 So, the required time = 6 + 4 = 10 am
∴T= 8, F = 3 and H = 9 33. (b) Group of pages are —
6 3 8 (1, 2, 23, 24)
28. (a)
+ 8 3 6 2 (3, 4, 21, 22)
9 0 0 0 (5, 6, 19, 20)
(7, 8, 17, 18)
∴B = 6, E = 2 and T = 8
3×2 × 8 (9, 10, 15, 16)
29. (c) From option (a), =8 (11, 12, 13, 14)
3×2
5×7 × 8 So, the missing pages are (9, 10, 15, 16).
From option (b), =8
5×7 34. (a) Given, p+ q = r + s …(i)
8× 5×7 q + s = 2P …(ii)
From option (c), =7
8×5 s + t > p+ q …(iii)
7 ×3×8 r + s> p+ t …(iv)
From option (d), =8
7×3 From Eqs. (i) and (iv), we get
p+ q < p+ t
Hence, option (c) does not stand for fulfill the equation.
∴ q>t
30. (b) From option (a),
From Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
9 7 5 s+t>r+ s
– 7 5 3 t>r
2 2 2
From Eqs. (iv), we get
From option (b), r + s> p+ t
8 4 2 Q t>r
– 4 2 0 ∴ s> p
4 2 2 From Eqs. (ii), we get
From option (c), q + s = p+ p
6 4 2 Q s> p
– 4 2 0 ∴ q < p or p > q
2 2 2 So, we get s > p > q > t > r
From option (d), 35. (d) Given,
7 5 3
– 5 3 1 (7 + 1) 4 0 (2 + 4)
2 2 2 ∴ 8406
Hence, option (b) does not stand for LENS. ∴ =8406
 Chapter

13
Mathematical
Operations
In this section, questions are related to simple mathematical operations.
There are four fundamental operations
(i) Addition ( + ), (ii) Subtraction (–), (iii) Multiplication ( ×) and (iv) Division ( ÷ ).
There are some additional symbols such as; less than (<), greater than (>), equal to (=) and not equal to (≠) etc., also
used in problems.
In this type of questions, the candidate has to make a substitution of real sign and solve the equation accordingly.
For solving mathematical expressions, proceed according to the rule of ‘BODMAS’ i.e. Brackets, Of, Division,
Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction.

Type I Questions Based on Substitution of Mathematical Sign

In this type of questions, you are provided with substitutes for various mathematical symbols or numbers. Followed
by a question involving calculations of an expression or choosing the correct/incorrect equations. The candidate is
required to put in the real signs or numerals in the given equation and then solve the questions.

Example 1 If L stands for +, M stands for –, N stands for × Example 3 Find the value of (10 α 8) γ (7 β 5).
and P stands for ÷, then 14 N 10 L 42 P 2 M 8 is equal to 5 7
(a) (b)
(a) 153 (b) 216 (c) 248 (d) 251 4 4
Solution (a) Using the proper signs, we get 9 3
(c) (d)
= 14 × 10 + 42 ÷ 2 − 8 = 14 × 10 + 21 − 8 4 4
= 140 + 21 − 8 = 161 − 8 = 153 Solution (a) (10 α 8 ) γ (7 β 5) =  10 + 8  γ  7 − 5  = 9 γ 1
 2   2 
Example 2 If + means ÷, – means ×, ÷ means + and
 9 + 1 5
× means –, then the value of 48 × 12 + 6 ÷ 9 + 3 − 3 = =
when simplified, is  9 − 1 4
(a) 55 (b) 42 (c) 18 (d) 24 Example 4 Find the value of [1 β (4 γ 5)] θ (8 α 2).
Solution (a) Using proper signs, we get (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 40
= 48 − 12 ÷ 6 + 9 ÷ 3 × 3 = 48 − 2 + 3 × 3 = 48 − 2 + 9 = 55
Solution (a) [1 β (4 γ 5)] θ ( 8 α 2)
Directions (Ex. 3 and 4)   4 + 5   8 + 2
= 1 β   θ
A+B A−B   4 − 5    2 
If A α B = , Aβ B = ,
2 2 1 − ( − 9 )  5−5
A+B A−B =  θ5= 5θ5= 5 + 5 = 0
AγB= and A θ B =  2 
A−B A+B
90 Study Package for NTSE

Type II Based on Correction of Expression by Interchange of Sign

In this type of questions, an equation becomes incorrect due to the interchange of two signs. One of the four
alternatives under specifies the interchange of sign in the equations which when made will make the equation
correct, find the correct alternative.
Example 5 16 − 8 ÷ 4 + 5 × 3 = 13
(a) ÷ and × (b) – and ÷ (c) ÷ and + (d) – and ÷
Solution (b) On interchanging – and ÷ , we get
= 16 ÷ 8 − 4 + 5 × 3 = 13

Type III Based on Some Specific Rule

In this type of questions, three statements of numbers following same rules are given. Find the rule and according,
find the value of the number.
Example 6 If 84 ⊕ 72 = 45 and 63 ⊕ 41 = 33 , then 94 ⊕ 82 is equal to
(a) 45 (b) 59 (c) 56 (d) 65
Solution (c) The rule is difference of the digits of the number
84 ⊕ 72 = ( 8 − 4 ) (7 − 2) = 45
63 ⊕ 41 = ( 6 − 3 ) (4 − 1) = 33
∴ 94 ⊕ 82 = ( 9 − 4 ) ( 8 − 2) = 56

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. If + means ×, – means ÷, × means + and ÷ means –, 7. In the problem below instead of conventional +, –, ×
then 10 × 18 − 9 + 3 ÷ 1 is equal to and ÷ symbols, some others are used. However, all
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 18 lead to the same final answer. Correct final answer
after assessing the new symbols.
2. If + means ×, – means ÷, × means – and ÷ means +,
then the value of 9 + 8 ÷ 8 − 4 × 9 is (i) 10 * 6 * 7 = x
(a) 56 (b) 65 (c) 66 (d) 55 (ii) 3 * 10 * 10 = x
(iii) 8 * 5 * 10 = x
3. If – means ×, × means +, + means ÷ and ÷ means –, (iv) 4 * 8 * 11 = x
then the value of 14 − 10 × 4 ÷ 16 + 8 is (a) 352 (b) – 15 (c) 420 (d) 23
(a) 241 (b) 124 (c) 142 (d) 412

4. If + means ×, – means ÷, × means – and ÷ means +, Directions (Q. Nos. 8-10) In each of the following
questions an equation becomes incorrect due to the
then the value of 32 ÷ 8 − 4 × 12 + 4 is
interchange of two signs. One of the four alternatives under it
(a) – 14 (b) – 41
(c) – 40 (d) – 12 specifies the interchange of signs in the equation, which when
made will make the equation correct. Find the correct
5. If A means ‘+’, B means ‘–’, C means ‘×’ and D means alternative.
‘÷’, then 18 C 14 A 6 B 16 D 4 is equal to
8. 12 ÷ 2 − 6 × 3 + 8 = 16
(a) 63 (b) 288
(a) ÷ and + (b) – and +
(c) 254 (d) 1208
(c) × and + (d) ÷ and ×
6. If A denotes ÷, B denotes +, C denotes – and D
9. 9 + 5 ÷ 4 × 3 − 6 = 12
denotes ×, then which of the following is not true?
(a) + and × (b) ÷ and ×
(a) 24 A 6 B 10 = 5 D 6 C 16
(c) ÷ and – (d) + and –
(b) 60 − 4 D 6 = 4 B 2 D 6
(c) 30 D 4 A 12 = 30 A 12 D 4 10. 16 − 8 ÷ 4 + 5 × 2 = 8
(d) 108 C 72 = 78 C 42 (a) ÷ and × (b) – and ÷ (c) ÷ and + (d) – and ×
Mathematical Operations 91
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-14) In the questions given below, 16. If sign ‘–’ means ‘+’, sign ‘+’ means ‘–’, sign ‘×’
which one of the following four interchanges in signs and/or means ‘÷’ and sign ‘÷’ means ‘×’, then simplify
numbers would make the given equation correct. 7 − 8 × 5 ÷ 6 + 4.
11. 3 + 5 − 2 = 4 (a) 3 (b) 12
3 48
(a) + and –, 2 and 3 (b) + and –, 2 and 5 (c) 12 (d)
(c) + and –, 3 and 5 (d) None of these 5 5

12. 6 × 4 + 2 = 16 17. If A denotes +, B denotes ×, C denotes – and D denotes

(a) + and ×, 2 and 4 (b) + and ×, 2 and 6 ÷, then what is the value of
(c) + and ×, 4 and 6 (d) None of these 5 B 9 A 7 C 9 D 3 A 6?
13. 4 × 6 − 2 = 14 (a) 55 (b) 54 (c) 45 (d) 50
(a) × to ÷, 2 and 4 (b) – to ÷, 2 and 6 18. Which of the following meanings of the arithmatical
(c) – to +, 2 and 6 (d) × to +, 4 and 6 signs will yield value ‘Zero’ for the expression given
14. (6 ÷ 2) × 3 = 0 below?
(a) ÷ and ×, 2 and 3 (b) × to –, 2 and 6 200 × 100 + 300 × 200 − 10 ÷ 2 + 40
(c) ÷ and ×, 2 and 6 (d) × to –, 2 and 3 (a) + means –, – means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +
(b) + means –, – means ÷, × means + and ÷ means ×
15. If × stands for +, < stands for –, > stands for ×,
(c) + means ×, – means –, × means ÷ and ÷ means +
+ stands for ÷, – stands for =, ÷ stands for >, and =
stands for <, then which of the given equations is (d) + means ÷, – means +, × means – and ÷ means ×
correct? 19. If 20 – 10 means 200, 8 ÷ 4 means 12, 6 × 2 means 4
(a) 8 < 4 × 3 − 3 × 2 × 1 and 12 + 3 means 4, then 100 – 10 × 1000 ÷ 100 + 100
(b) 8 > 4 < 3 − 3 > 2 < 1 × 10 is equal to
(c) 8 + 4 < 3 ÷ 3 < 2 < 1 (a) 1090 (b) 0 (c) 1900 (d) 20
(d) 8 + 4 × 3 = 3 > 2 × 1

High Skill Questions

1. If ( a * b) stands for ( a + b)2 and ( a ⊕ b) stands for 6. Find θ [ λ (1, 3), θ (1, 3)].
( a − b)2 , then the value of ( a * b) + ( a ⊕ b) is (a) 5 (b) 2
(a) 2 a2 + b 2 (b) a2 + 2 b 2 (c) 4 (d) 0
(c) 2 (a2 + b 2 ) (d) None of these  λ { − ( − 3 + 2), ( − 2 + 3)}
7. What is the value of  ?
2. If x * y = x − y
2
when x ≥ y and ( y − x) when y > x,
2 2
 − ( − 2 + 1) 
then find the value of 6 * ( 4 * 3). (a) 1 (b) 0
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(c) 3 (d) 0
8. Find θ [0, λ {0, θ (0, 1)}].
3. If @ is –, * is +, × is –, + is × and % is ÷, then the value (a)
1
(b)
1
(c)
1
(d) 2
of [{(5 ⊕ 2) @ 1} % 3 ] * 2 is 2 3 4
(a) 30 (b) 28
(c) 32 (d) 5 Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
4. If 16 − 2 = 2, 9 − 3 = 0, 81 − 1 = 8, then what is
64 − 4 = ? For two numbers a and b, P( a, b) = a − b,
(a) 4 (b) 2 Q ( a, b) = a × b, R ( a, b) = a ÷ b, S ( a, b) = a + b, if a
(c) 6 (d) 8 = 1, b = 2 and c = 3.

5. If 7 * 2 = 81, then what is the value of 8 * 5? 9. The value of P [a, Q {b, R (b, c)}], is
(a) 144 (b) 89 (a) > 0 (b) < 0
(c) 169 (d) 121 (c) 1 (d) 0

10. Solve P [Q {R ((c, a), S (a, b)), S {Q (a, c), P (c, a)}]
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Read the following information
(a) 2 (b) – 4
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(c) 4 (d) 3
λ ( a, b ) = ( a − b )2 , if a≥b
=a + b , if b >a
11. Solve R [Q {S (x, y), P (x, y), P (Q {3, S (x, y), S (x, y)}]
a+b (a) 0 (b) xy
θ ( a, b ) = , if a + b ≥ 0 x+ y x− y
2 (c) (d)
= − ( a + b ), if a + b > 0 2 2
92 Study Package for NTSE

12. Which value is the greatest? (a) 7 ← 43 ↑ 6 ↓ 1 4

I. S (P (a, b), P (a, b)))
II. Q (S (a, b), R (a, b)))
III. P (S (a, b), Q (a, b)))
(a) I
(c) III
(b) 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2 → 3 ← 6 5
(c) 5 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 2 5
(d) 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2 6
(b) II 16. Figure below represents a balance, which symbol
(d) Cannot be determined replaces (?).

Directions (Q. Nos.13 and 14) Read the following

information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
If a * b = 1 when a × b is even and a * b = a × b otherwise,
then
13. What is the value of 1 * (2 * (1 * (2 * ((1 * 2))))
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 ?
14. If a and b are natural numbers, then the value of
(3 * ( a * (2 * ( b * 4)))) is (a) oO (b) o
(a) 3a, if a is odd (b) 3, if a is even (c) ∆ (d) O
(c) 3a, if a is even (d) Cannot be determined
17. If ∆ + ∆ = 10, ∆ + O + O = 10, ∆ + O − o × ∆ = 5
15. If → stands for ‘addition’, ← stands for ‘subtraction’,
↑ stands for ‘division’, ↓ stands for ‘multiplication’ and Then, the value of o will be
(a) 0.5 (b) 5
 stands for ‘equal to’, then which of the following
(c) 2.5 (d) 7.5
alternatives is correct?

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) Using proper symbols, we get 11. (c) By interchanging (+ and –, 3 and 5)
= 10 + 18 ÷ 9 × 3 − 1 5−3+2 =4
1
= 10 + 18 × × 3 − 1= 10 + 6 − 1 = 15 12. (c) By interchanging (+ and ×, 4 and 6)
9
4 + 6 × 2 = 16
2. (b) Using proper symbols, we get
= 9 × 8 + 8 ÷ 4 − 9 = 72 + 2 − 9 = 65
13. (c) By interchanging (– to +, 2 and 6)
4 × 2 + 6 = 14
3. (c) Using proper symbols, we get
= 14 × 10 + 4 − 16 ÷ 8 = 140 + 4 − 2 = 142 14. (d) By interchanging ( × to –, 2 and 3)
4. (a) Using proper operations, we get 6 ÷2 − 3 = 0
= 32 + 8 ÷ 4 − 12 × 4 = 32 + 2 − 12 × 4 15. (d) 8 + 4 × 3 = 3 > 2 × 1
= 34 + (− 48) = − 14 By changing the signs 8 ÷ 4 + 3 < 3 × 2 + 1
5. (c) Using proper signs, we get = 18 × 14 + 6 − 16 ÷ 4 = 2 + 3< 6 + 1= 5< 7
= 252 + 6 − 4 = 254 16. (c) The given expression becomes after changing signs
6. (b) 60 − 4 × 6 = 36, while 4 + 2 × 6 = 16 48 3 3
= 7 + 8 ÷ 5 × 6 − 4= 7 + − 4 = 3 + 9 = 12
5 5 5
7. (d) If we replace all the stars by the sign of addition ‘+’, we get a
common figure.
17. (a) After replacing the symbols, we get
(i) 10 + 6 + 7 = 23 (ii) 3 + 10 + 10 = 23 = 5 × 9 + 7 − 9 ÷ 3 + 6 = 45 + 7 − 3 + 6 = 55
(iii) 8 + 5 + 10 = 23 (iv) 4 + 8 + 11 = 23 18. (b) Using the information given in option (b), we get
8. (b) By interchanging (– and +) 200 + 100 − 300 + 200 ÷ 10 × 2 − 40
12 ÷ 2 + 6 × 3 − 8 = 16 = 300 − 300 + (20 × 2 ) − 40 = 0(Zero)
9. (c) By interchanging (÷ and –) 19. (b) Here, ‘–’ ⇒ ‘×’, ‘÷’ ⇒ ‘+’, ‘×’ ⇒ ‘–’ and ‘+’ ⇒ ‘÷’
9 + 5 − 4 × 3 ÷ 6 = 12 Hence, 100 − 10 × 1000 ÷ 1000 + 100 × 10 can be written as
10. (b) By interchanging (– and ÷ ) 100 × 10 − 1000 + 1000 ÷ 100 − 10
16 ÷ 8 − 4 + 5 × 2 = 8 = 1000 − 1000 + 10 − 10 = 0
Mathematical Operations 93
High Skill Questions
1. (c) (a * b) + (a ⊕ b) = (a + b)2 + (a − b)2 III. P (S (a, b), Q (a, b)) = P (a + b, a ⋅ b)
= a + b + 2 ab + a + b − 2 ab = 2 (a + b )
2 2 2 2 2 2 = a + b – ab
= 1 + 2 − 1⋅ 2 = 1
2. (b) 6 * (4 * 3) = 6 * (42 − 32 ) = 6 * (7 ) = (7 − 6)2 = 1
13. (a) 1 * (2 * (1 * (2 * ((1 * 2 ))))
3. (d) [{(5 × 2 ) − 1} ÷ 3] + 2 = (10 − 1) ÷ 3 + 2 = 1 * (2 * (1 * (2 * 1)[1 * 2 = 1 as, 1 × 2 is even.
= (9 ÷ 3) + 2 = 3 + 2 = 5 = 1 * (2 * (1 * 1))
4. (a) As, 16 − 2 = 4 − 2 = 2 = 1 * (2 * 1) (as 1 × 1 * is odd, so 1 * 2 1× = 1)
9−3=3−3=0 = 1* 1 = 1
and 81 − 1 = 9 − 1 = 8 14. (a) (3 * (a * (2 * (b * 4)))) = (3 * (a * (2 * 1)))
Similarly, 64 − 4 = 8 − 4 = 4
= (3 * (a * 1))
5. (c) Rule is a * b = (a + b)2 Case When a is odd.
So, 8 * 5 = (8 + 5)2 = 169 = 3* a ( a * 1 = a × 1 = a)
4 + (−4) 4 − 4 0 = 3a (Q a is odd)
6. (d) θ ((1 + 3), − (1 + 3 )) = θ (4, − 4) = = = =0
2 2 2 15. (d) Using the proper notations in (d), we get the statement as
 λ {− (− 3 + 2 ), (− 2 + 3)}  λ (1, 1) (1 − 1) 2 2 × 5 − 6 + 2 = 6 or 10 − 6 + 2 = 6 or 6 = 6, which is true.
7. (b) 
− (− 2 + 1) = 1 = 1
=0
  16. (d) Given,
 0 + 1 
8. (c) θ  0, λ 0, 
=
... (i)
 
   2  
=
1 ... (ii)
0+
  0, 1   = θ  0, 1  = 2 = 1
= θ 0, λ  
  2    2  2 4
= ? ... (iii)

9. (b) P [a, Q {b, R (b, c)}] = P  a, Q b, 

2 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
 3
=
= P  a, 2 ×  = P  1,
2 4 4 1
 = 1− = − < 0
 3  3 3 3 =
10. (c) P [Q {R ((c, a), S (a, b)}, S{Q (a, c), P (c, a)}]
∴ =
= P (Q (R (3, 1), S (1, 2), S (Q (1, 3), P (3, 1)))
= P (Q (3, 3), S (3, 2)))= P (9, 5) = 4 Now, from Eq. (iii), we get
11. (d) R [Q (x + y, x – y)], P (Q (3, S (x, y)), S (x, y)))) =
R (Q (x + y, x – y), P (Q (3, x + y), S (x + y)))
R (Q (x + y, x – y)), P (3x + 3y), (x + y) 17. (a) Given, 2 ∆ = 10
x2 − y2 ( x − y) ( x + y) x − y
R (x 2 – y 2 , 2x + y) = = ∴ ∆=5
2x + 2y 2 ( x + y) 2
Now, ∆ + O + O = 10
12. (b) I. S [P (a, b), P (a, b)] = S (a – b, a – b) 5 + O + O = 10, 5 + 2 O = 10∴ O = 2.5
= a – b + a – b = 2a – 2b = – 2 Now, 5 + 2.5 − o × 5 = 5
7.5 − 5 o = 5
Q (S (a, b), R (a, b)) = Q  a + b, 
a
II.
 b 5 o = 2.5
(a + b) ⋅ a 3 × 1 3 ∴ o = 0.5
= = =
b 2 2
 Chapter

14
Sitting Arrangement
and Puzzles
Sitting Arrangement
Sitting arrangement is a sequential arrangement of objects/persons on the basis of predefined conditions.
In this type of questions, some conditions are given, on the basis of which candidates are required to arrange
objects/persons, either in a row or in a circular order or in any other geometrical shape. While making
arrangements, it should be noted that all the conditions given are complied with.

Puzzles
Puzzles are the mind boggler and head hunters, which checks the mental ability of candidate to comprehend and
analyse the given information presented in twisted and unsegragated manner and transform them into sequential
and logical manner to know the hidden ideas and information behind it.
The puzzles can generally be classified into the following
l Simple problem of categorisation l Comparison problems l Arrangement problems
l Blood relations and professions l Conditional selection l Miscellaneous problems

Example 1 Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing towards North. C is sitting between A and E. D is not at the
extreme end. B is sitting at immediate right of E. F is not at the right end but D is sitting at 3rd left of E.
1. How many persons are there to the right of D?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
2. Which of the following is sitting to the left of D?
(a) F (b) C
(c) E (d) A
3. Who is at the immediate left of C?
(a) A (b) E
(c) Either E or A (d) Cannot be determined
4. Who is at the right end?
(a) A (b) B
(c) E (d) Cannot be determined
Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles 95
Solutions According to the given information, the sitting arrangement of six friends is as given below
N

F D A C E B
W E

Facing North S

1. (d) It is clear from the diagram that there are four persons to the right of D—A, C, E and B.
2. (a) It is clear from the diagram that F is sitting to the left of D.
3. (a) It is clear from the diagram that A is at the immediate left of C.
4. (b) It is clear from the diagram that B is at the right end.

Example 2 Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There are six cities A, B, C, D, E and F.
A is not a hill station. B and E are not historical places. D is not industrial city.
A and D are not historical places. A and B are not alike.
1. Which two cities are industrial centers?
(a) A and B (b) E and F (c) C and D (d) B and F
2. Which two cities are historical places?
(a) A and C (b) B and F (c) C and F (d) B and E
3. Which two cities are hill stations?
(a) A and B (b) C and A (c) B and D (d) A and F
4. Which city is a hill station and an industrial center but not historical place?
(a) E (b) F (c) A (d) B
5. Which two cities are neither historical places nor the industrial centers?
(a) A and B (b) D and E (c) F and C (d) B and D
Solution The given information can be summarised in tabular form as follow

A B C D E F
Historical × × ✓ × × ✓
Industrial ✓ × ✓ × ✓ ✓
Hill station × ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. There are 30 plants of Chiku, Guava, Sitafal and 2. Four girls (G1, G2, G3, G4) and three boys (B1, B2, B3)
Mango in a row. There is one pair of Mango plants after are to sit for dinner such that not two boys should sit
Chiku and Guava and Mango plants are followed by together nor two girls. If they are successively sitting,
one Chiku and one Sitafal plant and so on. If the row what is the position of B2 and G3?
begins with a plant of Chiku, then which of the (a) 5th and 6th
following will be last in the row? (b) 4th and 5th
(a) Guava (b) Mango (c) 3rd and 4th
(c) Chiku (d) Sitafal (d) 2nd and 3rd
96 Study Package for NTSE

3. Four friends were playing a game of cards sitting in a Directions (Q. Nos. 9-14) Read the following information
circle. Shankar was on the right of Ram and Gopal carefully and answer the questions given below.
was on the left of Arvind. Which of the following pairs Asha and Charu are good in Mathematics and Athletics.
were partners? Deepa and Asha are good in Athletics and Studies, Charu and
(a) Ram and Shankar Beena are good in General Knowledge and Mathematics.
(b) Gopal and Shankar Deepa, Beena and Ela are good in Studies and General
Knowledge. Ela and Deepa are good in Studies and Art.
(c) Ram and Arvind
(d) Gopal and Ram 9. Who is good in Studies, General Knowledge, Athletics
4. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A and Art?
is between E and F, E is opposite to D and C is not in (a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (d) Deepa
either of the neighbouring seats of E. Who is opposite 10. Who is good in Studies, General Knowledge and
to B? Mathematics?
(a) F (b) C (a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (d) Ela
(c) D (d) None of these
11. Who is good in Studies, Mathematics and Athletics?
5. Seven men A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing (a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (d) Deepa
in a queue. Each one is wearing a cap of different
12. Who is good in Athletics, General Knowledge and
colours–Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange
Mathematics?
and Red. D is able to see infront of him Green and
(a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (d) Deepa
Blue but not Violet. F can see Violet and Yellow but
not Red. G can see caps of all the colours other than 13. Who is good in Studies, General Knowledge and Art
Orange. If E is wearing an Indigo coloured cap, then but not in Athletics?
the colour of the cap worn by F is (a) Asha (b) Beena (c) Charu (d) Ela
(a) Blue (b) Violet 14. Who is not good in only one area?
(c) Red (d) Orange (a) Deepa (b) Asha (c) Charu (d) Beena
6. Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a
single row. After the first car, there is one scooters. Directions (Q. Nos. 15-19) Study the following information
After the second car, there are two scooters. After the carefully and answer the questions given below.
third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing at
the number of scooters in the second half of the row. the centre. R is fourth to the left of P, who is second to the
(a) 10 (b) 12 right of S. V is fourth to the right of S. Q is fourth to the left of
(c) 15 (d) 17 W, who is not an immediate neighbour of P or S. Z is not an
immediate neighbour of R.
7. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a line facing the
East. C is immediate right of D. B is at one of the 15. Who is to the immediate right of V?
extreme ends and has E as his neighbour. G is (a) R (b) W
between E and F. D is sitting third from the South (c) Z (d) Data inadequate
end. Who are the persons sitting at the extreme ends? 16. Who is to the immediate right of R?
(a) A and E (b) A and B (a) T (b) S
(c) F and B (d) C and D (c) W (d) Data inadequate
8. Asha, Babita, Chinni, Deepa, Evita and Fatima are 17. In which of the following pairs is the first person
standing in a row. Babita is between, Fatima and sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
Deepa. Evita is between Asha and Chinni. Asha does (a) VW (b) RT (c) WR (d) ZP
not stand next to either Fatima or Deepa. Chinni does
not stand next to Deepa. Fatima is between which of 18. Who is third to the right of R?
the following pair of persons? (a) P (b) S
(c) Q (d) Data inadequate
(a) Chinni and Babita
(b) Babita and Deepa 19. Who is second to the left of Z?
(c) Evita and Chinni (a) Q (b) V
(d) Asha and Evita (c) S (d) W
Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles 97
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Read the following information Directions (Q.Nos. 10-13) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below. carefully and answer the given questions given below.
At a party A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a circle. The group P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are the seven members of a family.
comprises a professor, an industrialist and a businessman. There are three female members. Each of them has a different
The businessman is sitting in between the industrialist and his profession—Lawyer, Chartered Accountant (CA), Engineer,
wife D. A, the professor is married to E, who is the sister of B. Teacher, Doctor, Architect and Pharmacist. No lady is either
The industrialist is seated to the right of C. Both the ladies are Pharmacist or Chartered Accountant. Each of them has a
unemployed. different monthly income. The Chartered Accountant earns
1. What is A to B? the most. S, the Engineer earns less than V, the Doctor. R, the
Teacher, earns more than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the
(a) Brother (b) Uncle
least. T is an unmarried lady Lawyer and she earns less than
(c) Brother-in-law (d) Cannot be determined
P and more than only Q. The Pharmacist’s income is not the
2. A is sitting to the right of lowest.
(a) the industrialist (b) his wife
(c) D (d) Cannot be determined
10. Who earns the least?
(a) P (b) Q
3. Who is the industrialist? (c) P or Q (d) R
(a) D (b) A
(c) B (d) Cannot be determined
11. What is P’s profession?
(a) Pharmacist (b) Lawyer
4. Who is unmarried in the group? (c) Teacher (d) Cannot be determined
(a) Professor (b) Industrialist
12. How many members earn less than the Doctor?
(c) Businessman (d) Cannot be determined
(a) 2 (b) 3
5. Who among them must be graduate? (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) B (b) A 13. Which of the following represents the three female
(c) C (d) None of these
members of the family?
Directions (Q.Nos. 6-8) Study the following information (a) PTQ
carefully and answer the questions given below. (b) TRQ
(c) VTQ
There are eight persons namely S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z lives (d) Cannot be determined
on eight different floors from one to eight. Ground floor is
number one and one above that is number two and so on till Directions (Q.Nos. 14 and 15) Study the following
the topmost floor is number eight. X lives on odd number floor information carefully to answer the given questions.
but does not live on 3rd floor. Z lives immediate below X. More Seven people J, K, L, M, N, O and P have to attend a seminar
than two person lives between Z and Y. There are six person on seven different days of the same week starting from
lives between S and Y. V lives immediate above W, but live Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the
below T. U does not live above X. W does not live immediate same order.
above Y. K has to attend a seminar on Wednesday. Only one person has
6. Who lives on floor number five? to attend a seminar between K and P. J attends a seminar
(a) U (b) S (c) Z (d) T immediately after P. The number of people who have to attend
a seminar before J is same as who have to attend a seminar
7. How many persons live between W and X?
after L. Only one person has to attend a seminar between L
(a) One (b) Three (c) Five (d) Two and M. O has to attend a seminar immediately after M.
8. Who lives immediately above V? 14. On which of the following days does N have to attend
(a) Z (b) T (c) Y (d) W a seminar?
9. P, Q, R, S, T and U are 6 members of family in which (a) Sunday (b) Thursday
there are two married couples. T, a teacher, is married (c) Saturday (d) Wednesday
to a doctor who is mother of R and U. Q, the lawyer, is 15. As per the given arrangement, four of the following
married to P. P has one son and one grandson. Of the five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
two married ladies one is a housewife. There is also Which one of the following does not belong to the
one student and one male engineer in the family. group?
Which of the following is true about the (a) M-Friday
granddaughter of the family? (b) M-Wednesday
(a) She is a lawyer (b) She is an engineer (c) O-Sunday
(c) She is a student (d) She is a doctor (d) O-Thursday
98 Study Package for NTSE

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Read the following information 20. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
and answer the questions that follow. organising plays?
(i) Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F are to be organised from Monday (a) A E C F B D (b) D F E C B A
to Saturday. i.e. From 5th to 10th one play each day. (c) B D E F C A (d) None of these
(ii) There are two plays between C and D and one play between
A and C. Directions (Q. Nos. 21-24) Read the following
(iii) There is one play between F and E is to be organised before information carefully and answer these questions.
F. A Blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E each
(iv) B is to be organised before A, not necessarily immediately. having a different weight.
(v) The organisation does not start with B.
(i) A weights twice as much as B.
16. The organisation would start from which play? (ii) B weights four and half times as much as C.
(a) A (iii) C weights half as much as D.
(b) F (iv) D weights half as much as E.
(c) D (v) E weights less than A but more than C.
(d) Cannot be determined
21. Which of the following is the highest in weight?
17. On which date, the play E is to be organised? (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) D
(a) 5th
(b) 7th
22. E is lighter in weight than which of the other two
(c) 6th articles?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) A and C (b) D and C
(c) A and B (d) D and B
18. The organisation would end with which of the
following plays? 23. E is heavier than which of the following two articles?
(a) A (b) F (a) A and C (b) D and C
(c) D (d) Cannot be determined (c) D and B (d) A and B

19. On which day, the play B is organised? 24. Which of the following articles is the lightest in
(a) Tuesday (b) Friday weight?
(c) Thursday (d) None of these (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) D

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (d) Chiku - Guava - Mango - Mango - Chiku - Sitafal. This sequence 5. (c) On the basis of the information given in the question, the
is followed throughout, so the required 30th plant will be Sitafal. colours of cap of all the seven persons is given as under.
2. (b) G1 B1 G2 B2 G3 B3 G4 A – Green or Blue
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 B – Green or Blue
Arvind C – Yellow
3. (d)
D – Violet
E – Indigo
Ram Gopal
F – Red
G – Orange
Shankar 6. (c) In the second half of the row, there are 18 vehicles. Thus, the
Clearly, two partners are Gopal and Ram. number of scooters is 15.
4. (a) C 7. (b) The order in which they sit is given below
B D B E G F D C A
Hence, A and B are sitting at the extreme ends.
E F 8. (a) The order in which all the six women stands is given below
A Asha, Evita, Chinni, Fatima, Babita, Deepa.
F is opposite to B. Hence, Fatima is between Babita and Chinni.
Sitting Arrangement and Puzzles 99
Sol. (Q. Nos. 9-14) The given information can be summarised as Sol. (Q. Nos. 15-19) According to the given information, the sitting
follows arrangement as shown below
T
Math Athletics Studies GK Art
S R
Asha P P P O O
Charu P P O P O Q W
Deepa O P P P P
Beena P O P P O P V
Ela O O P P P Z

9. (d) Clearly, Deepa is good in Studies, GK, Athletics and Art. 15. (b) W sits to the immediate right of V.
10. (b) Beena is good in Studies, GK and Mathematics. 16. (a) T is to the immediate right of R.
11. (a) Asha is good in Studies, Mathematics and Athletics. 17. (d) In pair ZP, Z is sitting to the immediate right of P.
12. (c) Charu is good in Athletics, GK and Mathematics.
18. (c) Q is third to the right of R.
13. (d) Ela is good in Studies, GK and Art but not in Athletics.
19. (a) Q is sitting second to the left of Z.
14. (a) Deepa is not good in only one area i.e. Mathematics.

High Skill Questions

Sol. (Q. Nos. 1-5) 9. (c) According to the given information, arrangement is as
Professor A is married to E and E is the sister of B. Industrialist is follows
(–) Couple
married to D. Since, industrialist is seated to the right of C. (Lawyer) Q P(+)(Housewife)
Hence, industrialist cannot be A or C. Hence, B is an industrialist
and C is a businessman. A\E Son
A - Professor A\E
B - Industrialist
(Teacher) T(+) Couple (–)
(Doctor)
C - Businessman
D B S
D - Unemployed
Mother Mother
E - Unemployed C
1. (c) A is the husband of E and E is the sister of B. Hence, A is the R
brother-in-law of B. (Student/Engineer) U
(Engineer/Student)
2. (d) No information about its position is given.
So, the granddaughter of the family is a student and either R or
3. (c) B is the industrialist. U is a student.
4. (c) Businessman is unmarried in the group. Sol. (Q. Nos. 10-13) According to the given information,
5. (b) Since, A is professor, hence he must be graduate. arrangement is as follows
Sol. (Q.Nos. 6-8) According to the given information, arrangement is Persons Professions Sex
as follows
P Pharmacist M
Floor Person Q Architect F
8 S R Teacher M/F
7 X S Engineer M/F
6 Z T Lawyer F
5 T V Doctor M/F
4 V W Chartered Accountant M
3 W Q ← W
Wife
2 U In terms of income, Q < T < P < R < S < V < W
1 Y
10. (b) Q earns the least.
6. (d) T lives on floor number five. 11. (a) P is Pharmacist.
7. (b) Three persons live between W and X. 12. (d) V is Doctor and Q, T, P, R and S earn less than V.
8. (b) T lives immediately above V. 13. (d) The females are Q, T and one from R, S and V.
100 Study Package for NTSE

Sol. (Q. Nos. 14 and 15) According to the given information, 18. (a) The organisation would end with A.
arrangement is as follows
19. (a) B is to be organisation on Tuesday.
Person Day
20. (d) None of these
P Monday
J Tuesday Sol. (Q. Nos. 21-24) We have,
A:B=2:1
K Wednesday
B:C=9:2
M Thursday
C:D=1:2
O Friday
D:E=1:2
L Saturday
A:B:C:D:E
N Sunday 2:1
14. (a) N has to attend a seminar on Sunday. 9:2
1:2
15. (c) Except option (c), in all other options, the given day is either
1:2
the previous day or the next day of the day on which the given
person has to attend a seminar. 2 × 9 × 1× 1 : 1× 9 × 1× 1 : 1× 2 × 1× 1 :
Sol. (Q. Nos. 16-20) 18 : 9: 2 :
On the basis of information given in the question the following 1× 2 × 2 × 1 : 1× 2 × 2 × 2
arrangement can be made. 4 : 8
5 6 7 8 9 10 A>B>E>D>C
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday 21. (c) A has highest weight.
D B E C F A
22. (c) E is lighter then A and B.
16. (c) The organisation would start from D. 23. (b) E is heavier then D and C.
17. (b) E is to be organised on 7th. 24. (a) C is lighter in the weight.
 Chapter

15
Problems Based
on Calendar
The record of all the days of the year is given in the calendar. A calendar shows us the days, weeks, months in a
year.
1 yr → 12 months
1 week → 7 days
1 yr → 52 weeks or 365 or 366 days.
î Year with 29 days in February has 366 days. It is called leap year. It is divisible by 4.
The number of days in a month of a year are as follows
January 31 days May 31 days September 30 days
February 28 days or 29 days June 30 days October 31 days
March 31 days July 31 days November 30 days
April 30 days August 31 days December 31 days

Same day is always repeated after 7 days.

Odd Days
In a given period, the number of days more than the complete weeks are called odd days. When total number of days
is divided by 7, then the remainder is called odd Days.

Counting of Odd Days

l Number of days in an ordinary year = 365 days l Number of days in a leap year = 366 days
7 365 52 7 366 52
35 35
15 16
14 14
1 odd days 2 odd days

or 365 = 52 × 7 + 1 = 1 odd days. or 366 = 52 × 7 + 2 = 2 odd days.

102 Study Package for NTSE

Important Points
l Days of the week related to odd days
Number of days 0/7 1 2 3 4 5 6
Days Sunday Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday

l A century (100 yr) contain = 5 odd days

l Number of odd days in 200 yr = 5 × 2 = 10 = 3 odd days
l Number of odd days in 300 yr = 5 × 3 = 15 = 1 odd days
l Number of odd days in 400 yr = 5 × 4 + 1 = 20 + 1 = 21 = 0 odd days
l To determine the number of leap year, divide the numbers of year by 4. The remaining will be ordinary year.

Example 1 How many months are there in 5 yr 7 months?

(a) 60 (b) 65 (c) 67 (d) 70
Solution (c) 5 yr = 5 × 12 = 60 months
Total number of months = 60 + 7 = 67 months
Example 2 If 24th day of January 1999 is Saturday. What will be the day of 20th day of September of the same
year?
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Friday (d) Saturday
Solution (a) Let us count days from 24th January to 20th day of September.
January 31 − 24 = 7 days June 30 days
February 28 days July 31 days
March 31 days August 31 days
April 30 days September 20 days
May 31 days 239 days

Divide 239 by 7, we get remainder as 1. Now, 24th day of January is Saturday. So, 20th September will be Sunday.

Example 3 Find the day of the week on 26 January 1950?

(a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
Solution (c) 26 January 1950 means 1949 yr + 26 days
Number of odd days in 1949 yr 1600 yr give 0 odd day.
300 yr give 1 odd day.
49 yr have 12 leap years and 37 ordinary years.
So, there are 12 × 2 + 37 × 1 = 24 + 37 = 61 odd days or 5 odd days.
Number of days between 1st January to 26th January 1950 = 26
odd day = 5
Total number of odd days = 0 + 1 + 5 + 5 = 11 = 4 odd days
So, 26 January 1950 was Thursday.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. If 3rd January of a year was Thursday, what will be the 3. If 15th October of a year was Saturday, what will be
day on 25th January of the same year? the day on 27th October of the same month?
(a) Thursday (b) Friday (a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Saturday (d) Sunday (c) Wednesday (d) Thursday

2. If 7th February of a year was Monday, what will be the 4. If 29th April of a year was Friday, what will be the day
day on 24th February of the same year? on 18th September of the same year?
(a) Thursday (b) Friday (a) Sunday (b) Monday
(c) Saturday (d) Sunday (c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
Problems Based on Calendar 103
5. If 17th September of a year was Monday, what will be 8. If day before yesterday it was Monday, what day will
the day on 29th October of the same year? fall on day after tomorrow?
(a) Saturday (b) Sunday (a) Saturday
(c) Monday (d) Tuesday (b) Friday
6. If today is Thursday, then what will be the day on (c) Sunday
363rd day? (d) Thursday
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Thursday (d) None of these
9. How many months are there in 7 yr 2 months?
(a) 72 (b) 86
7. If Saturday falls on 4th January 1997, what day of (c) 80 (d) 94
the week will fall on 4th January 1998?
10. How many weeks are there in 3 yr 3 months?
(a) Monday (b) Friday
(a) 150 (b) 160
(c) Wednesday (d) Sunday
(c) 170 (d) 169

High Skill Questions

1. If 17th January of a year was Monday, what will be 7. If 21st August of 1989 was Friday, what would be the
the day on 19th June of the same year? (February has day on 13th July of 1988?
28 days.) (a) Friday (b) Saturday
(a) Sunday (c) Monday (d) Sunday
(b) Monday
(c) Tuesday 8. If 16th July of 1995 was Sunday, what would be the
(d) Wednesday day on 30th March of 1994?
(a) Sunday (b) Monday
2. If it was Monday on 4th February of 2004, what will (c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
be the day on 1st January of the same year?
(a) Saturday 9. If 9th June of 2003 was Friday, what will be the day
(b) Sunday on 9th June 2006?
(c) Monday (a) Sunday
(d) Tuesday (b) Monday
(c) Tuesday
3. If it was Thursday on 15th July of 2001, what will be
(d) Friday
the day on 17th December of the same year?
(a) Thursday 10. If 25th December of 2008 is Thursday, what will be
(b) Friday the day on 1st January of 2010?
(c) Wednesday (a) Friday (b) Saturday
(d) Saturday (c) Sunday (d) Monday
4. If 23rd February of 2008 was Saturday, what will be 11. Film actor-director Raj Kapoor died on 2nd June
the day on 3rd November of the same year? 1988. What day of week was it?
(a) Sunday (a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(b) Tuesday (c) Thursday (d) Saturday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Monday 12. Find the day of the week on August 15, 1947?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday
5. If 13th March of 2003 was Tuesday, what will be the (c) Thursday (d) Friday
day on 11th May of 2004?
(a) Friday
13. My Brother’s date of birth is May 3, 1999 but I do not
(b) Saturday remember the day, can you tell me which day it was?
(c) Sunday (a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
(d) Monday

6. If 15th November of 2002 was Wednesday, what will 14. On what dates of January 1998 did we have Friday?
(a) 2, 9, 16, 23, and 30 (b) 4, 11, 18, and 25
be the day on 27th October of 2003?
(c) 3, 10, 17, 24, and 31 (d) 1, 8, 15, 22, and 29
(a) Wednesday
(b) Thursday 15. How many days were there from January 2, 1995 to
(c) Friday March15 , 1995?
(d) Saturday (a) 73 (b) 74 (c) 71 (d) 35
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) As we know, the days repeat after every 7 days. Number of 5. (c) Number of days from 18 September to 30th September
days between 25th January and 3rd January = 22 days. = 13 days
The day after 21 days will be same means Thursday. Number of days in October = 29 days
So, on 25th January, it will be Friday. Total number of days = 42 days
42
2. (a) As we know, the days repeat after every 7 days. Number of Number of weeks = = 6 weeks
7
days between 24th February and 7th February = 17 days.
Days after 6 weeks will again be Monday.
The day after 14 days will be also Monday.
So, on 24th February, it will be Thursday. It will be Monday on 29th October again.
363
3. (d) Number of days between 27th October and 15th October 6. (d ) Here, = 51 weeks + 6 odd days
7
= 12 days. ∴ Thursday + 6 days = Wednesday
The day after 7 days will be also Saturday. The day after 5 days
7. (d) Total number of days from 4th January 1997 to 4th January
will be Thursday. On 27th October, it will be Thursday.
1998 = 365
4. (a) Number of days in April = 30 April = 1day 365
Q Number of odd days = = 52 + 1
Number of days in May = 31days 7
Number of days in June = 30 days After one day, it will be Sunday.
Number of days in July = 31days 8. (b) Day before yesterday = Monday
Number of days in August = 31days So, today is Wednesday. Hence, day after tomorrow = Friday.
Number of days in September = 18 days 9. (b) 7 yr = 7 × 12 = 84 months
Total number of days = 1 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 18 = 142 days ∴ Total number of months = 84 + 2 = 86 months
142 2
Number of weeks = = 20 weeks 10. (d) 3 yr = 52 × 3 = 156 weeks
7 7
1
Day after 140 days will be Friday. 3 months = 52 × = 13 weeks
4
Day after 2 days will be Sunday.
∴ Total weeks in 3 yr and 3 months = 156 + 13 = 169 weeks
On 18th September, it will be Sunday.

High Skill Questions

1. (a) Number of days between 17th January and 19th June Days after 22 weeks will be Thursday again.
= 14 days in January + 28 days in February + 31 days in March Day after 1 day will be Friday.
+ 30days in April + 31days in May + 19days in June = 153days. Day on 17th December will be Friday.
153 6
Number of weeks = = 21 days 4. (d) Number of days between 23rd February and 3rd November
7 7
= 6 days in February + 31 days in March + 30 days in April
Day after 21 weeks will be Monday again. Day after 6 days will be
+ 31days in May + 30 days in June + 31days in July + 31days in
Sunday. Day on 19th June will be Sunday.
August + 30 days in September + 31days in October + 3 days in
2. (d) Number of days between 1st January and 4th February November = 254 days.
= 3 days in February + 31days in January = 34 days 254 2
6 Number of weeks = = 36 weeks
Number of weeks = 4 weeks 7 7
7
Day after 36 weeks will be Saturday. Day after 2 days will be
Day before 4 weeks will be Monday again. Day before 6 days will Monday. Day on 3rd November will be Monday.
be Tuesday.
5. (c) Number of days between March 13, 2003 to May 11, 2004
3. (b) Number of days between 15th July and 17th December = 366 days from 2003 to 13th March 2004 + 18 days in March,
= 16 days in July + 31 days in August + 30 days in September
2004 + 30 days in April + 11days in May, 2008 = 425 days.
+ 31 days in October + 30 days in November + 17 days in
December = 155 days 425 5
Number of weeks = = 60 weeks
155 1 7 7
Number of weeks = = 22 weeks
7 7 Day after 60 weeks will be Tuesday. Day after 5 days will be
Sunday. Day on 11th May 2004 will be Sunday.
Problems Based on Calendar 105
6. (d) Number of days between 15th November 2002 and 27th Jan Feb March April May June
October 2003 = 365 days from 15th November 2002 to 15th 31 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 2 = 154 days
November 2003 – (15 days of November, 2003 + 4 days in or 22 weeks and 0 odd day
October 2003) = 346 days. ∴ Total number of odd days = 0 + 1 + 3 + 0 = 4
346 3 So, the day was Thursday.
Number of weeks = = 49 weeks
7 7 12. (d) 15th August 1947 means
Day after 49 weeks will be Wednesday. 1946 year + 7 months + 15 days
Day after 3 days will be Saturday. Number of odd days in 1946 yr
Day on 27th October 2003 will be Saturday. 1600 year give 0 odd day.
7. (d) Number of days between 13th July 1988 to 21st August 1989 300 year give 1 odd day.
= 365 days from 13th July, 1988 to 13th July, 1989 + (18 + 21) 46 year have 11 leap years and 35 ordinary years.
days = 404 days. So, there are 11 × 2 + 35 × 1 = 57 odd days or 1 odd day.
404 5 Number of days between 1st January 1947 to 15th August
Number of weeks = = 57 weeks
7 7 1947.
Day before 57 weeks will be Friday. Day before 5 days will be Jan Feb March April May June July Aug
Sunday. 31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 15
8. (d) Number of days between 30th March 1994 and 16th July, = 227 days
1995 = 365 days from 30th March 1994 to 30th March 1995 = + 1 i.e., 32 weeks and 3 odd days.
day in March, 1995 + 30 days in April, 1995 + 31 days in May, ∴ Total number of odd days = 0 + 1 + 1 + 3 = 5 odd days
1995 + 30 days in June, 1995 + 16days in July, 1995 = 473days. So, August 15, 1947 was Friday.
473 4
Number of weeks = = 67 weeks 13. (a) May 3, 1999 means 1998 complete years + first 4 months
7 7
upto April of 1999 + 3 days of May.
Day before 67 weeks will be Sunday.
1600 year have 0 day.
Day before 4 days will be Wednesday.
300 year have 1 day.
Day on 30th March 1994 will be Wednesday. 98 year have 24 leap years + 74 ordinary years.
9. (c) Number of days between 9th June 2003 to 9th June 2006 = (24 × 2 ) + (74 × 1)
= 366 days from 9th June 2003 to 9th June 2004. =122 days = 17 weeks + 3 odd days
From 9th June 2004 to 9th June 2005 = 365 days 1998 year have (0 + 1+ 3) = 4 odd days.
From 9th June 2005 to 9th June 2006 = 365 days January has 31 days i.e., 3 odd days.
1999 is an ordinary year.
Total days = 366 + 365 + 365 = 1096
1096 4 Hence, February has 28 days i.e., 0 odd day.
Number of weeks = = 156 weeks
7 7 March has 31 days i.e., 3 odd days.
Day after 156 weeks will be Friday. Day after 4 days will be April has 30 days i.e., 2 odd days.
Tuesday. Day on 9th June 2006 will be Tuesday. May 3 gives 3 more odd days.
10. (a) Number of days between 25th December 2008 to 1st Total number of odd days on May 3, 1999.
January of 2010 = 365 days between 25th December 2008 to = (4 + 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3) odd days.
25th December 2009 + 7 days from 25th December 2009 to 1st = 15 odd days i.e., 1 odd day.
January 2010 = 372 days. Hence, May 3, 1999 was Monday.
372 1
Number of weeks = = 53 weeks + 1 odd day 14. (a) Let us first find the day on 1st January 1998.
7 7
Period Number of odd days
Day after 53 weeks will be Thursday again.
1600 0
Day after 1 day will be Friday.
300 1
Day on 1st January 2010 will be Friday.
97 (97 + 24 = 121)
11. (c) 2nd June 1998 means January 1, 1998 1 (Q 24 leap years)
1987 yr + 5 months + 2 days. = 23 days which is equivalent to 4 odd days.
Number of odd days in 1987 yr. ∴ January 1, 1998 was Thursday.
1600 yr give 0 odd day. Therefore, first friday in January 1998 was on January 2, 1998.
300 yr give 5 × 3 = 15 ∴ We had Friday on 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd and 30th January 1998.
or 1 odd day.
15. (a) The year 1995 was not a leap year.
87 yr have 21 leap years and 66 ordinary years.
∴Number of days from January 2, 1995 to March 15, 1995.
So, there are 21 × 2 + 66 × 1 = 108 odd days on 3 odd days.
January + Febaruary + March
Number of days between 1st January 1988 to 2nd June 1988.
30 + 28 + 15 = 73 days
 Chapter

16
Problems Based
on Clock
A clock is a circular/square shape instrument used to Minute hand The longer hand of the clock is known
view/measure time in hours, minutes and seconds. as minute hand. The minute hand moves from one small
Measurement of time is an important aspect of our division to the next small division in 1 min.
daily life. It helps us to prepare our schedule and work The minute hand goes once round the dial in 1 h.
in an orderly manner. There are, mainly, four Thus, the minute hand covers 60 small divisions in 1 h.
important parts of a clock—Dial, Hour hand, Minute
î 60 min = An hour
hand and Second hand.
30 min = Half an hour
12 15 min = Quarter of an hour
11 1
l Angle traced by minute hand in 60 min = 360°
10 2
Dial Minute hand l Angle traced by minute hand in 1 min = 6°
9 3
Hour hand Hour hand The shorter hand of the clock is known as
8 4
Second hand hour hand. The hour hand moves from one number to
7 5
6 the next number in 1 h. The hour hand takes 12 h to
Clock complete one round.
Also, it takes 2 full rounds of the clock in a day. Its
The Dial movement is also in a clockwise direction.
The dial of a clock is circular one, whose circumference 1 day = 24 h
is divided into 12 parts (12 equal big divisions) labelled l Angle traced by hour hand in 12 h = 360°
as 1, 2, 3, 4, ... and 12. The space between every pair of
two numbers is divided in 5 equal small divisions. l Angle traced by hour hand in 1 h = 30°

Thus, the dial is divided into 60 small divisions. The There are some important points that would help the
clock has two hands. One is longer (minute hand) and candidate while solving the problems.
another is shorter (hour hand).

Points to Remember
● In 60 min, the minute hand gains 55 min on the hour hand.
● In every hour, both the hands coincide once.
● The hands are in the same straight line when they are opposite to each other.
● When the two hands are at right angles (90°) they are 15 min space apart.
● When the hands are in opposite directions, they are 30 min space apart.
● Both hands of a clock occurs right angle twice in one hour, 22 times in 12 h and 44 times in 24 h.
● Both hands of a clock occurs straight or opposite once in one hour, 11 times in 12 h and 22 times in 24 h.
1°
● When minute hand covers distance of 1 min, in this time, hour hand covers distance of
2
Problems Based on Clock 107
Example 1 An accurate clock shows 8 O’clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock
shows 2 O’clock in the afternoon?
(a) 144 ° (b) 150° (c) 168° (d) 180°
°
Angle traced by the hour hand in 6 h =  × 6  = 180 °
360
Solution (d)
 12 

Example 2 A clock is started at noon. By 10 min past 5, the hour hand has turned through
(a) 145° (b) 150° (c) 155° (d) 160°
Solution (c) Angle traced by hour hand in 12 h = 360 °
°
h ⇒ 
31 360 31 
Angle traced by hour hand in 5 h 10 min i.e., ×  ⇒155°
6  12 6

Example 3 The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is
(a) 80° (b) 75° (c) 60° (d) 105°
°
Solution (b) Angle traced by hour hand in 17 h =  360 × 17  ⇒ 255°
2  12 2
°
Angle traced by minute hand in 30 min =  × 30  = 180 °
360
 60 
Hence, required angle = 255° − 180 ° = 75°

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. A man seeing a watch in the mirror which is hanging 7. A monkey climbing up a greased pole; ascends 5 m
on the wall. In the mirror, the condition of watch is and slips down 2 m in alternate minutes. If the pole is
hour hand on 9 and minute hand on 12. Find out the 35 m high, then the monkey will reach the top in
exact time in watch. (a) 11 min (b) 11 min, 24 s
(a) 2 pm (b) 8 pm (c) 7 pm (d) 3 pm (c) 11 min, 36 s (d) None of these
2. A watch shows 1:30 pm, if minute hand is towards 8. A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a
South, find the direction of hour hand. bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the
(a) North (b) South-East bus had already left ten minutes ago and next bus
(c) North-West (d) North-East will leave at 9:35 am. At what time did the enquiry
3. Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 min clerk give this information to the passenger?
before 8:30 h, Anuj found himself half an hour earlier (a) 9:10 am (b) 8:55 am (c) 9:08 am (d) 9:15 am
than the man who was 40 min late. What was the 9. What will be the angle between hour hand and
scheduled time of the meeting? minute hand, if clock shows 5:15 pm?
(a) 8:00 h (b) 8:05 h (c) 8:15 h (d) 8:45 h (a) 90° (b) 70° (c) 67.5° (d) 85°
4. A person is to go up a tree 60 ft high. In every second, 10. How many times are the hands of a clock is at right
he climbs 5 ft but slips down 4 ft. After how many angle in a day?
seconds, will he be able to reach the top of the tree? (a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 44 (d) 48
(a) 60 (b) 59 (c) 56 (d) 58 11. At what time, (in minutes) between 3 O’clock and
5. A clock buzzes 1 time at 1 O’clock, 2 times at 4 O’clock, both the needles will coincide with each
2 O’clock, 3 times at 3 O’clock and so on. What will be other?
the total number of buzzes in a day? 1 4
(a) 5 min past 3 (b) 12 min past 3
(a) 150 (b) 156 11 11
4 4
(c) 100 (d) None of these (c) 13 min past 3 (d) 16 min past 3
11 11
6. A tortoise walks 1 km in 4 h. He takes rest of 20 min
12. At what time between 5:30 and 6 O’clock, will the
after every kilometre. So, you have to find out, how
hands of a clock be at right angle?
much time would be taken by tortoise to complete 3.5 3 4
km journey? (a) 43 min past 5 (b) 46 min past 5
11 11
(a) 14 h (b) 13 h (c) 15 h (d) 12 h (c) 40 min past 5 (d) 45 min past 5
108 Study Package for NTSE

13. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a 17. How many times do the hands of a clock points
day? towards each other in a day?
(a) 24 (b) 22 (a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 12 (d) 22
(c) 21 (d) 20
18. A clock is set right at 8 am. The clock gains 10 min in
14. A clock is set right at 5 am. The clock loss 16 min in 24 h. What will be the right time when the clock
24 h. What will be the right time when the clock indicates 1 pm on the following day?
indicates 10 pm on the third day? (a) 11:40 pm (b) 12:48 pm
(a) 11:15 pm (b) 11:00 p (c) 12:00 pm (d) 10:00 pm
(c) 12:00 pm (d) 12:30 pm 19. At what time between 4 and 5 O’clock, will the hands
15. At what time between 5 and 6, are the hands of a of a watch point in opposite directions?
clock coincides? (a) 45 min past 4 (b) 40 min past 4
(a) 22 min past 5 (b) 30 min past 5 4 6
(c) 50 min past 4 (d) 54 min past 4
8 3 11 11
(c) 22 min past 5 (d) 27 min past 5
11 11 20. Find at what time between 8 and 9 O’clock will the
hands of a clock be in the same straight line but not
16. At what time between 9 and 10 O’clock, will the
together.
hands of a watch be together? 10 10
(a) 45 min past 9 (b) 50 min past 9 (a) 10 min past 8 (b) 50 min past 8
1 2 11 11
(c) 49 min past 9 (d) 48 min past 9 12
11 11 (c) 10 min past 8 (4) 10 min past 8
11

High Skill Questions

1. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 6. The angle between the minute hand and the hour
10 : 25 is hand of a clock when time is 4 : 20, is
1° (a) 0° (b) 10°
(a) 180° (b) 192
2 (c) 5° (d) 20°
1°
(c) 195° (d) 197 7. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at
2
15 min past 3?
2. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 min was set right 1°
(a) 10 (b) 64°
at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day, when the 2
watch indicated quarter past 4 O’clock, the true time 1° 1°
(c) 7 (d) 72
is 2 2
7 8. At 3 : 40 the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock
(a) 59 min past 3 (b) 4 pm
12 from an angle of
7 3
(c) 58 min past 3 (d) 2 min past 4 (a) 120° (b) 125°
11 11
(c) 130° (d) 135°
3. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hand
9. In Ravi’s clock shop, two clocks were brought for
coincide every 64 min?
8 5
repairs. One clock has the cuckoo coming out every 16
(a) 32 min (b) 36 min min, while the other one has the cuckoo coming out
11 11
every 18 min. Both cuckoos come out at 12:00 noon.
(c) 90 min (d) 96 min
When will they both come out together again?
4. At what time between 7 and 8 O’clock will the hands (a) 2 : 06 PM (b) 2 : 08 PM
of a clock be in the same straight line but, not (c) 2 : 24 PM (d) 2 : 32 PM
together? 10. At what time, in minutes, between 3 O’clock and
2
(a) 5 min past 7 (b) 5 min past 7 4 O’clock both the needles will coincide each other?
11 1” 4” 4” 4”
3 5 (a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 16
(c) 5 min past 7 (d) 5 min past 7 11 11 11 11
11 11
5. A clock gains five min every hour. What will be the 11. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 min low at noon
on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 pm on the
angle traversed by the second hand in 1 min?
following Monday. When was it correct?
(a) 360° (b) 360.5°
(c) 390° (d) 380° (a) 2 pm on Tuesday (b) 2 pm on Wednesday
(c) 3 pm on Thursday (d) 1 pm on Friday
Problems Based on Clock 109
12. (b)
Elementary Level Questions 11 12 1 11 12 1 11 12 1
10 2 10 2 10 2
9 3 9 3 9 3
1. (d) 12 12 8 4 8 4 8 4
7 6 5 7 6 5 7 6 5
9 3 9 3

6 6 Fig. (i) Fig. (ii) Fig. (iii)

At 5, both the hands are 25 min apart and to be at right angle

2. (d) N
NE both the hands have to be 15 min apart as shown in Fig. (ii) and
W

Fig. (iii). Since, we have to take the position of clock between

N

N 11
12 1
10 2 5:30 and 6 O’clock, therefore the positions of hands of clock as
W E W 9 3 E above Fig. (iii) is our answer.
8 4
Now, it is clear from Fig. (ii) and Fig. (iii) that minute hand needs
7 5
S
SW
6
SE to travel 15 min space in order to form a right angle with the hour
S hand. 55 min space is gained in 60 min. Therefore, 15 min

spaces will be gained in  × 15 min or

Hence, hour hand is towards North-East. 60 180
min.
 55  11
3. (b) Anuj reached the place of meeting at 8:15 h, he reached
Past  + 30 min = 46 min
30 min earlier than the man who was 40 min late, i .e., he 180 4
reached 10 min late. Hence, the scheduled time of the  11  11
4
meeting was 8:05 h. Therefore, the hands are at right angle at 46 min past 5.
11
4. (c) Effective distance covered in one second = (5 − 4) = 1ft
13. (b) From the properties of the clock, we know that hands of a
Hence, required time = 60 − [(1 + 1) + (1 + 1)] = 60 − 4 = 56 clock coincide once in every hour but between 11 O’clock and
12 (12 + 1) 1 O’clock, they coincide only once. Therefore, the hands of a
5. (b) Number of buzzes in a day = × 2 = 156
2 clock coincide 11 times in every 12 h. Hence, they will coincide
6. (c) Total time taken by tortoise (11 × 2 ) = 22 times in 24 h.

= (4 + 4 + 4 + 2 ) h and (20 + 20 + 20) min 14. (b) Time from 5 am of a particular day to 10 pm on the 4th day is
89 h. Now, the clock loses 16 min in 24 h or in other words, we
= 14 h + 60 min = 15 h
can say that 23 h 44 min of this clock is equal to 24 h of the
7. (a) Effective length covered in 1 min = 5 − 2 =3m correct clock.
First 30 m = 3 m × 10 min  23 + 44 
Second 5 m = 5 m × 1 min or  
 60 
∴Overall time taken by monkey is 11 min. 356
⇒ h of this clock = 24 h of the correct clock
8. (d) Next bus will leave at 9:35 am. So, last bus left at 15
24 × 15
(9:35 − 0 :30) = 9:05 am ∴ 89 h of this clock =  × 89 h of correct clock
 356 
So, enquiry clerk gave the information to the passenger at
= (9 : 05 + 0 : 10) = 9 : 15 am = 90 h of the correct clock
1 360 21 315 ⇒ 89 h of this clock = 90 h of the correct clock
9. (c) Angle traced by hour hand in 5 = × =
4 12 4 2 Therefore, it is clear that in 89 h this clock loses 1 h and hence,
360 the correct time is 11:00 pm when this clock shows 10:00 pm.
Angle traced by minute hand in 15 min = × 15 = 90°
60 15. (d)
315 11 12 1
Hence, required angle = − 90° = 67 . 5° 10 2
2 9 3
10. (c) In 12 h, they are at right angles, 22 times. 8 4
7 6 5
So, in 24 h, they are at right angles, 44 times.
11. (d) At 3 O’clock, the minute hand is 15 min away from the hour From the figure, we find that minute hand is 25 min spaces apart
hand. To coincide, it must gain 15 min as 55 min are gained in from hour hand. In order to coincide, it has to gain 25 min
60 min. spaces. Now, 55 min are gained by minute hand in 60 min.
60 3
15 min are gained in  × 15 = 16 min
60 4 25 min will be gained in × 25 = 27 min
 55  11 55 11
4 3
Hence, the hands are coincide at 16 min past 3. So, the hands will coincide at 27 min past 5.
11 11
110 Study Package for NTSE

16. (c) Both the hands are 15 min space apart at 9 O’clock. To be 19. (d)
11 12 1 11 12 1
together between 9 and 10, minute hand has to gain 45 min. 10 2 10 2
9 3 9 3
11 12 1 8 4 8 4
10 2 7 6 5 7 6 5
9 3
8 4 Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
7 6 5
At 4 O’clock, the hands are 20 min apart from each other and
for having in the opposite direction they needs to be 30 min
Now, minute hand gains 55 min in 60 min. apart.
60 1 From Fig. (i) and Fig. (ii), it is clear that minute hand has to travel.
It will gain 45 min in × 45 = 49 min
55 11 (20 + 30) min space in order to be in opposite direction of each
1 other. Now, 55 min space is gained in 60 min.
Therefore, the hands are together at 49 min past 9.
Therefore, 50 min space will be gained in  × 50 min or 54 min.
60 6
11
 55  11
17. (d) The hands of a clock point towards each other 11 times in Hence, the hands of the clock will be in opposite direction at
every 12 h (because between 5 and 7, they point towards each
6
other only once at 6 O’clock). 54 min past 4.
11
Therefore, in a day, the hands points 22 times in all, towards
each other. 20. (a)
11 12 1 11 12 1
18. (b) Time from 8 am of a particular day to 1 pm of the following day 10 2 10 2
= 29 h 9 3 9 3
8 4 8 4
Now, the clock gains 10 min in 24 h, it means that 24 h 10 min of 7 6 5 7 6 5
this clock is equal to 24 h of the correct clock.
145 Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
h of this clock = 24 h of the correct clock
6 Fig. (i) shows the positions of the hands of the clock and it is
24 clear that they are 20 min apart. To be in the straight line, they
29 h of this clock = × 6 × 29 = 29 h 48 min of the correct
145 have to be 30 min apart. So, the minute hand will have to move
clock 29 h of this clock = 28 h 48 min of the correct clock 10 min space in order to be 30 min apart from hour hand. 55 min
It means that the clock in question is 12 min faster than the are gained in 60 min.
60 12
correct clock. 10 min will be gained in × 10 = × 10 min
55 11
Therefore, when this clock indicates 1 pm the correct time will be
Therefore, the hands will be at right angle but not together at
12 min to 1 pm. 10
10 min past 8.
11

High Skill Questions

1. (d) Angle traced by hour hand in 3. (a) 55 min spaces are covered in 60 min.
125
h=  360 × 125  ° = 312 1° 60 min spaces are covered in 
60
× 60 min = 65 min
5
 
12  12 12  2  55  11

Loss in 64 min =  65 − 64 =

Angle traced by minute hand in 25 min 5 16
min
°  11  11
=  × 25 = 150°
360
 60 
Loss in 24 h =  × 24 × 60 min
16 1
° ×
 11 64 
∴ Reflex angle = 360° −  312 − 150
1
 2  8
1° 1° = 32 min
= 360° − 162 = 197 11
2 2
37 4. (d) When the hands of the clock are in the the same straight line
2. (b) Time from 7 am to 4 : 15 pm= 9 h 15 min = h but not together, they are 30 min spaces apart. At 7 O’clock, they
4
are 25 min space apart.
3 min 5 sec of this clock = 3 min of the correct clock.
37 1 ∴Minute hand will have gain only 5 min spaces. 55 min space are
⇒ h of this clock = h of the correct clock. gained in 60 min.
720 20
5 min spaces are gained  × 5 min = 5 min
60 5
hof this clock = 
37 1 720 37 
⇒ × ×  h of the correct clock.  55  11
4  20 37 4
5
= 9 h of the correct clock. ∴Required time = 5 min past 7
11
So, the correct time 9 h after 7 am i.e., 4 pm.
Problems Based on Clock 111
5. (c) Each seconds space equals 6°. 9. (c) Both the cuckoos will come out together after intervals which
A clock gains 5 min every hour. are common multiples of 16 min and 18 min.
Q Clock gains 5 min in 60 min. LCM of 16 and 18 = 2 4 × 9
5 = 144
It means the clock gains min in 1 min.
60 144
5 144 min = h
∴Angle traversed × 360 = 30° 60
60
= 2h 24 min
The second hand will traverse
360°+30° = 390° in 1 min. ∴Both the cuckoos will come out together
360 13  ° again at 12 : 00 PM + 2h 24 min = 2 : 24 PM
6. (b) Angle traced by hour hand in h = 
13
×  = 130°
3  12 3 10. (d) At 3 O’clock, the minute hand is 15 min spaces apart from the
° hour hand.To be coincident, it must gain 15 min spaces.
Angle traced by min hand in 20 min =  × 20 = 120°
360
 60  Since, 55 min are gained in 60 min.

15 min are gained in  × 15 min = 16 min

60 4
∴ Required angle = (130 − 120)° = 10°
 55  11
360 13  °
h = 
13 1
7. (c) Angle traced by hour hand in ×  = 97 ° 4
4  12 4 2 So, the hands are coincident at 16 min past 3.
11
°
Angle traced by min hand in 15 min =  × 15 = 90°
360
 60  11. (b) Time from 12 pm on Monday to 2 pm on the following
Monday = 7 days 2 h = 170 h.
1 ° 1°
∴ Required angle =  97  − 90° = 7
The watch gains  2 + 4  min or
 2 4 34
2 min in 170 h
 5 5
8. (c) Angle traced by hour hand in 12 h = 360° 34
Now, min are gained in 170 h.
360 11 °
Angle traced by it in h = 
11 5
×  = 110°
3  12 3
∴2 min are gained in  170 × × 2  h = 50 h
5
Angle traced by minute hand in 60 min. = 360°  34 
°
Angle traced by it in 40 min =  × 40 = 240°
360 So, watch is correct 2 days 2 h after 12 pm on Monday i.e., it will
 60  be correct at 2 pm on Wednesday.
∴Required angle (240 − 110)° = 130°
 Chapter

17
Venn-Diagrams
This section deals with questions, which aim to analyse the ability of candidates to relate a certain given group of
items and illustrate it diagrammatically by Venn-diagram.

Type I Questions of Diagrams Based on Words Relation

In this type of questions, few different types of sets of Venn-diagrams are given to clear with their implications.
1. If the items belong to three different groups. They can 4. If two separate items belong to the class of the third,
be represented by three separate figures. they are represented by two disjoint circles inside a
e.g., Doctors, Engineers and Lawyers. bigger circle as shown in figure given below.
Doctors Engineers
e.g., Table, Chair and Furniture.

Furniture

Table Chair

Lawyers
2. Three items that are partly related to each other are
represented by Venn-diagram is as follows Clearly, table and chair are separate items but both
e.g., Authors, Teachers and Men. are furniture.
5. If one item belongs to the class of second while third
Authors
is entirely different from the two. It can be
Teachers
represented by Venn-diagram given below.
e.g., Thief, Criminal and Judge.
Men

3. If one item belongs to the class of Hours

Thief Judge
the second and the second belongs Minutes
to the class of third, then the
Seconds
representation by Venn-diagram is Criminal
as follows
e.g., Seconds, Minutes and Hours. Thief is a criminal and judge is not directly related
Clearly, seconds are a part of with thief or criminal.
minutes and minutes are a part of hours.
Venn-Diagrams
6. If one item is related to second while second is
related to third but first and third are not related
to each other, then it must be represented as
e.g. Travellers, Train, Bus. Clearly,some
travellers travel by train and some travellers
travel by bus.
Travellers
Train Bus
7. If two items are partly related to one another but
both items belong to a single group, then it can
represented by Venn-diagram given below.
Teachers, Graduates and Human beings
Human being
Teachers Graduates
Clearly, all graduates are human being and
some graduates can be teachers also all teachers
are human beings and some teachers are
graduates.
Type II Questions Based on Geometrical Figure
In some problems, a Venn-diagram is given in the
form of a geometrical figure that represents
different classes. The candidate is required to study
and analyse the figure carefully and then answer
certain questions as per given informations.
Directions (Ex. Nos. 3-5) In the following diagram,
three classes of population are represented by three
geometrical figures. The triangle represents the teachers,
the square represents the married persons and the circle
represents the persons living in joint families.
F
E B C
D (a) C
A Solution (b) Married teachers are represented by the region
Example 3 Married persons living in joint families but
not working as teachers are represented by
(a) C (b) F
(c) D (d) A
113
Example 1 Choose from the four diagrams given below, the one
that illustrates the relationship among Languages, Hindi and English.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Solution (c) Both Hindi and English are languages but both of
them are different from each other.
Example 2 Select from the four alternative diagrams, the one
that best illustrates the relationship among the three
classes—Pigeons, Birds and Cats.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Solution (a) All pigeons are birds but cats are entirely different.
Solution (c) Married persons living in joint families are
represented by the region common to the square and the circle,
i.e., D and B but according to the given conditions, the persons
should not be teachers. So, B is to be excluded. Hence, the
required condition is denoted by region D.
Example 4 Persons who live in joint families, are unmarried and
who do not work as teachers are represented by
(a) C (b) B (c) E (d) D
Solution (c) According to the given conditions, the persons
should be unmarried and not working as school teachers. So, the
region should not be a part of either the square or the triangle.
Thus, the given conditions are satisfied by the region E.
Example 5 Married teachers living in joint families are
represented by
(b) B (c) D (d) A
common to the square and the triangle, i.e., B and C. But,
according to the given conditions, the persons should be living in
joint families. So, the required region should be a part of the
circle. Since, B lies inside the circle, so the given conditions are
satisfied by the persons denoted by the region B.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) You are to choose from the five Directions (Q. Nos. 15-18) These questions are based on
Venn-diagrams that best illustrates the relationship among the following Venn-diagram and answer the questions given
three given classes or groups in the questions. below.
The rectangle represents artists, the circle represents players
and the triangle represents doctors.

6 28
25
(a) (b) (c) 20 4
10
40

15. How many players are neither artists nor doctors?

(a) 20 (b) 10
(c) 25 (d) 45
(d) (e)
16. How many doctors are both players and artists?
1. Language, Hindi, Science
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 10 (d) 20
2. Boy, Girl, Player
3. Copper, Silver, Zinc 17. How many doctors are neither players nor artists?
(a) 28 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 10
4. Deer, Rabbit, Goat
5. Sea, Island, Mountain 18. How many artists are players but not doctors?
6. Atoms, Protons, Electrons (a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 28 (d) 10
7. Liquid, Milk, Water Directions (Q. Nos. 19-28) The four alternatives in each of
8. Engineers, Lawyers, Doctors the following questions, three alternatives are such that the
9. Jaipur, Rajasthan, Haryana three words are related among themselves in one of the four
ways represented by (a), (b), (c), and (d) below while none of
10. World, Asia, India
these relationship is applicable to the remaining alternative.
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-14) These questions are based on That is your answer.
the following diagram. Answer the questions given below.
A B
1 2 5
Cricket Hockey
3
4 6 (a) (b) (c) (d)
7
19. Authors, Teachers, Women
Football
C
20. Elements, Metals, Non-metals
21. Cats, Dogs, Pets
11. Which numeral represents the set of persons, who
22. Games, Cricket, Hockey
play all three games?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7 23. Elephants, Tigers, Animals
24. Country, State, District
12. Which numeral represents the set of persons, who
play football and hockey but not cricket? 25. Rose, Flower, Lotus
(a) 7 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6 26. Father, Mother, Child
13. Which numeral represents the set of persons, who 27. Biology, Botany, Zoology
play cricket and hockey but not football? 28. Flowers, Clothes, White
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4 29. In a dinner party, both fish and meat were served.
14. Which numeral represents the set of persons, who Some took only fish and some took only meat. There
play hockey but neither cricket nor football? were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7 rest accepted both fish and meat. Which of the
Venn-Diagrams 115
following logic diagrams correctly reflects this cocacola. There were some teetotaller who did not
situations? accept either. The rest accepted both thums up and
cocacola. Which of the following logical diagrams
correctly effects this situation?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

30. In a cocktail party, both thums up and cocacola were (a) (b) (c) (d)
served. Some took only thums up and some took only

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Each of the questions given below sections of the diagram. On the basis of these numbers,
is based on the given diagrams. The diagram comprises three answer the following.
circles showing people from three different countries who
4 Female
have travelled to either, both or none of the countries
graduates
mentioned in the diagrams. 1 7
9
5 8
R
us

China
si

6
a

A SE females 2 3
E C D F
bank loan facility
Self-employed female
B
India 6. How many female graduates are self-employed?
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 20
1. Which of the following is true about A?
(a) It represents Russians who have travelled only to China but 7. How many female graduates are not self-employed?
not to Indians. (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 29
(b) It represents Indians who have travelled only to Russia but
not to China 8. How many non-graduate females are self-employed?
(c) It represents Chinese who have travelled only to Russia but (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 21 (d) 15
not to India
9. How many self-employed female graduates are with
(d) It represents all those Indians who have travelled only to
Russia as well as to the China
bank loan facility?
(a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 7 (d) 15
2. Which of the following represents Indians who have
10. How many non-graduate self-employed females are
travelled only to China but not to Russia?
with bank loan facility?
(a) Only C (b) Only B
(a) 3 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12
(c) Only A (d) Only E

3. Which of the following represents choose Chinese Directions (Q. Nos. 11-13) Study the following diagram
who have travelled only to the Russia but not to consisting of a circle, a rectangle and a triangle and answer
India? the questions given below it.
(a) Only A (b) Only C
(c) Only D (d) Not shown in diagram 10

4. Which of the following represents such Indians who 07 18 20

have travelled only to Russia but not to China? 15 17
40
(a) Only F (b) Only D
(c) A and D (d) C and F 27 18
12
5. Which of the following represents Russians who have 15 16
travelled neither to China nor to India?
(a) Only D (b) C and D (c) A and D (d) Only F 11. Which is the largest number among those which are
there in the rectangle but not in the circle?
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) The following five questions are (a) 27 (b) 40 (c) 15 (d) 17
based on the following diagram in which the triangle 12. Which is the smallest number among those which are
represents female graduates, square represents self-employed there in the triangle but not in the rectangle and
females and circle represents self-employed females with circle?
bank loan facility. Numbers are shown in the different (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 12
116 Study Package for NTSE

13. Which of the following numbers is common in all the 19. Educated hardworking and honest urban people are
three diagrams? indicated by
(a) 40 (b) 18 (c) 12 (d) 15 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

20. Urban people who are hardworking and educated but

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-15) In the following figure,
rectangle, square, circle and triangle represent the regions of not honest are indicated by
wheat, gram, maize and rice cultivation respectively. On the (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
basis of the figure, answer the following questions. 21. Non-urban educated people who are neither
hardworking nor honest are indicated by
3
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 11
2 22. Urban educated people who are neither honest nor
4 8 hardworking are indicated by
7 9 1
6 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 9
5 10

11 Directions (Q. Nos. 23-26) The following questions are

based on the diagram given below.
14. Which of the area is cultivated for wheat and maize
9
only? 4
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4 7 13
14 16
15. Which of the area is cultivated for maize only ? 10 6
(a) 10 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 15
05
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18) In the following diagram, the
square represents girls, the circle represents tall persons, the (i) Rectangle represents females.
triangle is for tennis players and the rectangle stands for the (ii) Triangle represents uneducated persons.
swimmers. On the basis of the given diagram, answer the (iii) Circle represents urban.
following questions. (iv) Square represents Government servants.
In different regions in the diagram some numbers are
indicated which corresponds to the persons.
E B A 23. How many persons are uneducated female?
C (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 15 (d) 21
D
G
I 24. How many persons are Government servants but not
L F H females as well as uneducated?
K J (a) 13 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 20

25. How many persons are urban females but not

16. Which letter represents tall girls who are swimmers uneducated and Government servants?
but don’t play tennis? (a) 14 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 6
(a) C (b) D (c) G (d) H 26. How many total females which are Government
17. Which letter represents tall girl who do not play servants but not urban?
tennis and are not swimmers? (a) 26 (b) 20
(a) C (b) D (c) E (d) G (c) 13 (d) 7

18. Which letter represents tall persons who are male 27. 4
and swimmers but do not play tennis?
4 2
(a) I (b) J (c) K (d) L 1
7 7 8 2 11
Directions (Q. Nos. 19-22) These 9 6
questions are based on the following 5 15
diagram in which the circle stands for
3 2 6 7
educated, the square stands for
hard-working, the triangle stands for 4
1 8 Let X denote sum of numbers present in only on circle
9
urban and the rectangle stands for honest. 11 10
and Y denote sum of number present in any two
Different regions in the diagram are 12
circle. Then X − Y = ……… .
numbers from 1 to 12. Study the diagram (a) 8 (b) 16
carefully and answer the each question. (c) 12 (d) 19
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) Hindi is a language but it is not related with science.
2. (a) Player can be a girl or a boy.
3. (d) All are different metals.
4. (d) All are different animals.
5. (d) All are different and not related to one another.
6. (a) Atom contains protons as well as electrons.
7. (a) Milk and water both are liquids.
8. (d) All are different professions.
9. (b) Jaipur is the capital of Rajasthan but Haryana is different
state.
10. (e) India is part of Asia and Asia is part of World.
11. (a)
Hockey
Cricket
Football
So, three persons will play all games.
12. (d) 6 persons will play football as well as hockey but not cricket.
13. (a) Three numerals 1, 2 and 5 are not related with football and
numeral 2 is common. So, 2 persons play cricket and hockey but
not football.
14. (a) Only numeral 5 is related with hockey and not with cricket and
football.
15. (c) Part of circle not common in triangle as well as rectangle, i.e.,
numeral 25, so 25 persons are neither doctors nor artists.
16. (b) Common region of all three figures, i.e., numeral 4 containing
part which corresponds to doctors which are both players as
well as artists.
High Skill Questions
1. (d) Region A is common to all the three circles. Hence, it
represents all these Indians who have travelled to Russia as well
as China.
2. (a) Region C is common to the circles representing India and
China. Hence, it represents Indians who have travelled only to
China but not to Russia.
3. (d) There is no common region between only China and Russia
in the given diagram.
4. (b) The region D is common to India and USA. Hence, it
represents those Indians who have travelled only to Russia but
not to China.
5. (d) The region F represents Russians who have travelled neither
to China nor to India.
17. (a) 28 persons are doctors but they are neither players nor artists.
18. (a) Numeral which do not corresponds to doctors are 20, 25 and
40 but for both artists as well as players numeral 20 is suitable,
so 20 persons are artists as well as players but not doctors.
19. (d) Authors, teachers and women are partly related to each other.
20. (c) Metals and non-metals both are elements.
21. (c) Both cats and dogs are pets.
22. (c) Cricket and hockey both are games.
23. (c) Elephant and tiger both are animals.
24. (a) Country contains states and state contains number of
districts.
25. (c) Rose and lotus both are flowers.
26. (d) Child is equally related with father and mother.
27. (c) Zoology and Botany are branches of Biology.
28. (d) Flowers and clothes both can be white in colour.
29. (a) The given situation can be represented as under
Both fish and meat
Fish Meat
Vegetarian
30. (a) The given situation can be represented as under
Both thums up
and cocacola
Thums Cocacola
up
Teetotallers
6. (d) The region common to the triangle, square and circle
represents the number of self-employed female graduates. It is
8 + 5 + 7 = 20.
7. (a) The region lying inside the triangle but outside the circle and
square represents the number of female graduates who are not
self-employed. It is represented by 4.
8. (c) The region lying outside the triangle but inside square and
circle represents number of non-graduates self-employed
females. It is 3 + 6 + 2 + 1 + 9 = 21.
9. (b) The region common to triangle and circle represents the
number of self-employed female graduates with bank loan
facility. It is 7 + 5 = 12.
118
10. (c) The region lying outside the triangle but inside the circle
represents the number of non-graduate self-employed females
with bank loan facility. It is 6 + 2 + 1 = 9.
11. (a) Two numerals 27 and 18 are in rectangle but not in the circle,
so largest number will be 27.
12. (a) Three numerals 10, 15 and 16 are in the triangle but not in the
rectangle and circle. Out of these smallest number is 10.
13. (a)
40
Three figures common part is shaded region, which contains
numeral 40.
14. (d) The required region is the one which is common only to the
rectangle and circle and is not a part of either the triangle or square,
i .e., 4.
15. (c) The required region is the one which lies inside the circle but
outside the rectangle, square and triangle, i .e., 3.
16. (c) Tall girls can be represented by common region of square
and circle. (D, C, G and H). For swimmers, G, H part is common
among the above mentioned common region. According to the
question, if they are not tennis players, then ‘G’ region fulfill all
the conditions.
17. (b) Tall girls region is D, C, G, H part, out of G, H and C are either
swimmer or tennis. So, D region fulfill all the conditions
according to question.
Study Package for NTSE
18. (c) A, I, J, K and L are not girls.
Out of A, I, J, K only K and J are tall persons.
J is not swimmer.
K is swimmer but do not play tennis.
19. (a) Common region of all four figures, i .e., 1 corresponds to
educated hardworking and honest urban people.
20. (b) Urban hardworking and educated can be represented by
common region of square, triangle and circle but not related with
rectangle. So, number 2 will be correct answer.
21. (b) Non-urban educated, who are neither hard working nor
honest can be represented by region of circle which is not part of
other figures. So, number 7 will be correct answer.
22. (c) Urban educated people who are neither honest nor hard
working can be indicated by 6 because it must be common part
of circle and triangle.
23. (a) Uneducated female = Common region of rectangle and
triangle that corresponds 6 persons.
24. (c) Government servants not uneducated and not females
= Non-common part of square that corresponds to 9 persons.
25. (a) 14 persons.
26. (c) Female Government servants = 20 but 7 are urban females.
∴ Total females which are Government servant but not urban
= 20 − 7 = 13.
27. (b) X = 7 + 4 + 11 + 15 = 37
Y = 4 + 2 + 6 + 9 = 21
∴ X − Y = 37 − 21 = 16
 Chapter

18
Syllogism
Venn Diagram Representation of Four Propositions
Syllogism Types of Propositions Venn Diagram
Syllogism is a greek word which means inference or A : All S is P
deduction. It is deductive argument in which conclusion S Always
has to be drawn from the given statements. P

In this type of questions, a set of statements along with E : No S is P S p Always

two or more conclusions is given on the basis of these
statements. Candidates are required to check the Either Some S are P
S p [All S are P]
correctness of conclusions whether the conclusions
follows from statement or not. or S Some S are P
I : Some S are P P [All S are P]

Propositions
or P Some S are not P
Proposition is a statement giving a relation between two S [All P are S]

terms. It is also known as premise.

Either Some S are not P
P S [Some P are not S]
Classification of Proposition
or P Some S are not P
This classification is based upon the quantity and O : Some S are not P
S [All P are S]
quality of proposition. Here, quantity denotes whether
the proposition is universal or particular and quality or S p Some S are not P
[No S are P]
denotes the proposition is affirmative or negative.
There are four types of propositions which are as Example 1 Statements All terrorists are
follows: human. All humans are bad.
Propositions Quantity Quality
Conclusions I. All terrorists are bad.
II. No human can be a terrorist.
A All A are B Universal Affirmative (a) Only Conclusion I follows
E No A are B Universal Negative (b) Only Conclusion II follows
I Some A are B Particular Affirmative (c) If neither I nor II follows
O Some A are not B Particular Negative (d) If both I and II follow
120 Study Package for NTSE

Solution (a)
Bad
Human
Figure I Validity
Terrorist Conclusion I 3 3
Conclusion II × ×

From above, only Conclusion I follows.

Example 2 Statements Some teachers are professors.

Some professors are readers.
All readers are rectors.
Conclusions I. Some readers are teachers. II. Some rectors are teachers.
III. All rectors are readers.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows (c) Only II follows (d) All follow
Solution (a)
Teachers
Readers Figure I Figure II Validity
Teachers
Conclusion I × 3 ×
Readers
Conclusion II × 3 ×
or
Rectors Conclusion III × × ×

Hence, none of the conclusion follows.

Professors Professors
Rectors
Fig. (I) Fig. (II)

Example 3 Statements All calculators are computers.

No computer is television.
No television is radio.
No radio is transistor.
Conclusions I. No calculator is television. II. No calculator is radio.
III. No television is transistor. IV. No computer is radio.
(a) None follows except I (b) None follows except II (c) None follows except III (d) All follow

Solution (a)
Radio
r
R

ute ter
ad

p u
om mp
io

Computer C Co
Calculator Television Calculator
Calculator Television Radio Transistor or or
Television
to r
n sis
Tra
Transistor
Fig. (I) Fig. (II) Fig. (III)

Figure I Figure II Figure III Validity

Conclusion I 3 3 3 3
Conclusion II 3 × × ×
Conclusion III 3 3 × ×
Conclusion IV 3 × × ×

Hence, none follows except I.

 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions 5. Statements
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) In these questions, two statements Alcoholic drinks are injurious to health.
are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assume All old women drink whisky.
the given statements to be true, even, if they seem to be at Conclusions
variance with commonly known facts. Read both the I. All old women have poor health.
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions II. All young women are in good health.
logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts. 6. Statements
Give Answer All ants are hardworking.
(a) If only Conclusion I follows Some ants are lazy.
(b) If only Conclusion II follows Conclusions
(c) If both the Conclusions follow I. All lazy are hardworking.
(d) If neither I nor II follows II. All hardworking are lazy.
1. Statements 7. Statements
All players are smokers. All rivers are mountains.
Some smokers are wine-addicts. Some rivers are deserts.
Conclusions Conclusions
I. All smokers are players. I. Some mountains are deserts.
II. Some wine-addicts are smokers. II. Some deserts are not mountains.
2. Statements Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) In these questions, two
All women are ministers. statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
All ministers are simpleton. Assume the given statements to be true, even, if they seem to
be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the
Conclusions
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
I. All women are simpleton. logically follows from the given statements disregarding
II. All ministers are simpleton. commonly known facts.
3. Statements Give Answer
All cars are not trains. (a) If only Conclusion I follows
(b) If only Conclusion II follows
All cars are four-wheeled vehicles.
(c) If both I and II follow
Conclusions (d) If neither I nor II follows
I. All trains are not four-wheeled vehicles. 8. Statements
II. Some trains are four-wheeled vehicles.
All books are pencils,
4. Statements All pencils are flowers.
All jails are guest houses. Conclusions
All guest houses are comfortable. I. All books are flowers.
Conclusions II. Some pencils are not books.
I. All jails are comfortable. 9. Statements
II. No jail is comfortable.
Some books are pencils.
Directions (Q. Nos. 5-7) In these questions, there are two Some pencils are pens.
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Conclusions
Decide which of the two given conclusions logically follows I. Some books are pens.
from the two given statements, disregarding commonly II. Some pens are books.
known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the 10. Statements
given statements disregarding commonly known facts. All horses are bullocks.
Give Answer All bullocks are parrots.
(a) If only Conclusion I follows Conclusions
(b) If only Conclusion II follows I. All horses are parrots.
(c) If neither I nor II follows
II. All parrots are horses.
(d) If both I and II follow
122 Study Package for NTSE

11. Statements 16. Statements

All flowers are leaves. Some years are decades.
Some leaves are birds. All centuries are decades.

Conclusions Conclusions
I. Some birds are flowers. I. Some centuries are years.
II. Some decades are years.
II. Some leaves are flowers.
III. No century is a year.
12. Statements (a) Either I or III and II follow
All windows are doors. (b) II and III follow
No door is wall. (c) Only I follows
(d) Only II follows
Conclusions
I. No window is wall. 17. Statements
II. No wall is door. All Shares are debentures.
No debenture is an equity.
Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15) In these questions, two
statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and
Conclusions
II. Assume the given statements to be true, even, if they seem I. No equity is a share.
to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the II. Some debentures are shares.
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions III. No share is an equity.
logically follows from the given statements disregarding (a) Only I follows
commonly known facts. (b) Only II follows
Give Answer (c) All follow
(a) If only Conclusion I follows (d) Only III follows
(b) If only Conclusion II follows 18. Statements
(c) If neither I nor II follows All nets are jets.
(d) If both I and II follow All jets are sets.
13. Statements Conclusions
All markers are flude. I. All jets are nets.
All fludes are copies. II. Some sets are neither nets nor jets.
Conclusions III. No set is a net.
I. All markers are copies. (a) Only I follows
II. Some copies are markers. (b) Only III follows
(c) Only II follows
14. Statements (d) None follows
Some pens are tables. 19. Statements
No table is blue.
All cities are towns.
Conclusions Some cities are villages.
I. No pen is blue. Conclusions
II. No blue thing is pen.
I. All villages are towns.
15. Statements II. No village is a town.
Some trees are horses. III. Some villages are towns.
Some ships are trees. (a) Only III follows (b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows (d) None of the above
Conclusions
I. Some horses are ships. 20. Statements
II. Some trees are not ships. Some tables are chairs.
Some chairs are beds.
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In these questions, there are two Conclusions
statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and
I. Some tables are beds.
III. You have to take the given statements to be true even, if
II. No bed is either a chair or a table.
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and
then decide, which of the given conclusions logically follows
III. All beds are chairs.
from the given statements. (a) Only either I or II follows (b) Only III follows
(c) Only II follows (d) None follows
Syllogism
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-20) In these questions, there are
statements followed by three conclusions. You have to take
the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and then decide, which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements.
1. Statements
Some benches are beads.
All beads are flowers.
No tree is a flower.
Conclusions
I. Some trees are benches.
II. Some trees are beads.
III. No tree is a bead.
(a) Only I follows
(c) Either II or III follows
2. Statements
All breads are tables.
Some tables are brushes.
All brushes are paints.
Conclusions
I. Some paints are breads.
II. Some brushes are breads.
III. Some paints are tables.
(a) None follows
(c) Only III follows
3. Statements
Some pictures are frames.
Some frames are idols.
All idols are curtains.
Conclusions
I. Some curtains are pictures.
II. Some curtains are frames.
III. Some idols are frames.
(a) I and II follow
(c) I and III follow
4. Statements
Some blades are papers.
Some papers are books.
Some books are pens.
Conclusions
I. Some pens are papers.
II. Some books are blades.
III. Some pens are blades.
(a) Only I follows
(c) Only III follows
5. Statements
Some pencils are marbles.
All marbles are buses.
Some buses are trucks.
123
Conclusions
I. Some trucks are pencils.
II. Some buses are pencils.
III. No truck is pencil.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or III and II follows
(d) Either I or III follows
6. Statements
All stamps are packets.
Some packets are buckets.
All buckets are tubes.
Conclusions
I. Some tubes are stamps.
(b) Either I or II follows II. Some buckets are stamps.
(d) Only III follows
III. Some tubes are packets.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
7. Statements
Some doors are windows.
Some windows are lamps.
All lamps are candles.
Conclusions
I. Some candles are doors.
(b) Only II follows
II. Some candles are windows.
(d) I and II follow
III. Some lamps are doors.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows (d) I and II follow
8. Statements
All furnitures are jungles.
No jungle is road.
Some roads are hills.
Conclusions
I. Some roads are furnitures.
(b) II and III follow
II. Some jungles are furnitures.
(d) All follow
III. Some hills are jungles.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows (d) I and II follow
9. Statements
All bricks are stones.
Some stones are rocks.
All rocks are mountains.
Conclusions
I. Some mountains are stones.
(b) Only II follows
II. Some mountains are bricks.
(d) None follows
III. Some stones are bricks.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) I and III follow
(d) All follow
124
10. Statements
Some bags are plates.
Some plates are chairs.
All chairs are tables.
Conclusions
I. Some tables are plates.
II. Some chairs are bags.
III. No chair is bag.
(a) Only I follows
(c) I and either II or III follow
11. Statements
All pens are bags.
No glass is a spoon.
Conclusions
I. Some glasses are pens.
II. Some books are bags.
III. No spoon is a pen.
IV. No bag is a book.
(a) II and III follow
(c) Either II or IV follows
12. Statements
All petals are flowers.
All thorns are flowers.
Some leaves are thorns.
Some stems are flowers.
Conclusions
I. Some petals are leaves.
II. All leaves are flowers.
III. Some stems are petals.
IV. No petal is a leaves.
(a) None follows
(c) II and either I or IV follow
13. Statements
All buses are cars.
Some buses are not motorcycles.
No motorcycle is scooter.
All scooters are tempos.
Conclusions
I. Some tempos are not cars.
II. Some tempos are not motorcycles.
III. No car is tempo.
IV. Some cars are not motorcycles.
(a) Only IV follows
(c) I and II follow
14. Statements
Some umbrellas are sticks.
Some sticks are balls.
Some balls are bats.
All bats are guns.
Conclusions
I. Some balls are umbrellas.
II. Some guns are bats.
Study Package for NTSE
III. Some sticks are guns.
IV. Some balls are guns.
(a) I, II and IV follow (b) II and IV follow
(c) II, III and IV follow (d) I, II and III follow
15. Statements
Some books are notebooks.
Some notebooks are dictionaries.
Some dictionaries are files.
(b) Either II or III follows All files are envelopes.
(d) Only III follows Conclusions
I. Some envelopes are notebooks.
All bags are glasses. II. Some files are books.
All spoons are books. III. Some books are dictionaries.
IV. No book is an envelope.
(a) None follows (b) I, II and III follow
(c) II and III follow (d) III and IV follow
16. Statements
Some keys are chains.
(b) I, III and either II or IV follow All chains are locks.
(d) All follow All locks are numbers.
No number is a digit.
Conclusions
I. Some keys are numbers.
II. All chains are numbers.
III. Some locks are keys.
IV. No digit is a chain.
(a) I, II and III follow (b) II and III follow
(c) II, III and IV follow (d) All follow
17. Statements
All graduates are advocates.
(b) Only II follows Some advocates are judges.
(d) Either I or IV follows All judges are lawyers.
Some lawyers are doctors.
Conclusions
I. Some doctors are advocates.
II. All graduates are judges.
III. Some doctors are graduates.
IV. Some lawyers are advocates.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Either III or IV follows (d) None of the above
18. Statements
Some roses are flowers.
(b) II and IV follow Some flowers are buds.
(d) None of these All buds are leaves.
All leaves are plants.
Conclusions
I. Some plants are flowers.
II. Some roses are buds.
III. No leave is rose.
IV. No rose is bud.
(a) Only I follows (b) I and II follow
(c) I and either II or IV follow (d) Either II or IV follows
Syllogism 125
19. Statements 20. Select the conclusion which logically follows from the
All snakes are eagles. given Statements
Some eagles are rabbits. All doors are windows.
All rabbits are birds. No window is chair.
Some birds are animals. All chairs are tables.
Conclusions No table is bottle.
Conclusions
I. Some animals are snakes.
II. Some birds are snakes. I. All windows are doors.
II. Some tables are chairs.
III. Some birds are eagles.
III. Some tables are not doors.
IV. All birds are rabbits.
IV. No door is bottle.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows (d) None follows (c) Only III follows (d) None follows

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions 4. (a)
Comfortable
1. (b)
Guest house
Wine
Smokers Smokers addicts Jail

Players Wine or
addicts Players

I
Figure Validity
II
Conclusion I 3 3
Figure I Figure II Validity Conclusion II × ×
Conclusion I × × × Only Conclusion I follows.
Conclusion II 3 3 3 5. (c) None of the conclusions follow, because it cannot be said
Only Conclusion II follows. that all old women have poor health and also we cannot say
definitely. On the basis of statements, that all young women
2. (c) Simpleton are in good health.
Ministers 6. (c)
Hardworking
Woman
Ants Lazy

Figure Validity Figure Validity

Conclusion I 3 3 Conclusion I × ×
Conclusion II 3 3 Conclusion II × ×
Both the conclusions follow. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
3. (d) 7. (a)
FW V Mountains

Cars Trains or Cars Trains Rivers Deserts

FW V I II

Figure I Figure II Validity Figure Validity

Conclusion I 3 × × Conclusion I 3 3
Conclusion II × 3 × Conclusion II × ×
None of the conclusion follows. Only Conclusion I follows.
126 Study Package for NTSE

8. (a) 12. (c) Doors

Windows Wall
Books

Pencils
Flowers
Figure Validity
Figure Validity Conclusion I 3 3
Conclusion II 3 3
Conclusion I 3 3
Conclusion II × × Both Conclusions I and II follow.
13. (d)
Only Conclusion I follows. Copies

9. (d) Flude
Pencils
Books Pens I Markers

or

Books Pencils Figure Validity

II Conclusion I 3 3
Conclusion II 3 3
Pens
Both Conclusions I and II follow.
14. (c)
Figure I Figure II Validity Pens Tables Blue I
Conclusion I × 3 ×
Conclusion II × 3 ×

Neither Conclusion I nor II follows. or Blue Pens Tables II

10. (a)

Figure I Figure II Validity

Horses Conclusion I 3 × ×
Conclusion II 3 × ×
Bullocks
Neither I nor II follows.
Parrots
15. (c)
Ships Trees
Figure Validity
Conclusion I 3 3 Ships Trees Horses or
Conclusion II × ×
Horses
Only Conclusion I follows. I
11. (b) II
Leaves Leaves
Figure I Figure II Validity
Flowers Birds or Flowers Birds Conclusion I × 3 ×
Conclusion II 3 × ×
Neither I nor II follows.
I II
16. (a) Decades
Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion I × 3 × Years Centuries I
Conclusion II 3 3 3

Only Conclusion II follows.

Syllogism 127
Decades
Centuries 20. (d)

or Tables Chairs
II
Chairs
or
Tables Beds
Years
Beds
Figure I Figure II Validity
I
Conclusion I × 3 Doubtful
II
Conclusion II 3 3 3
Conclusion III 3 × Doubtful Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion I × 3 ×
Here, Conclusions I and III are complementary pair and
Conclusion II is valid. Conclusion II × × ×
Conclusion III × × ×
17. (c) Debentures
None follows.
Shares Equity
High Skill Questions
1. (d)
Flowers
Figure Validity
Conclusion I 3 3 Benches Beads Tree I
Conclusion II 3 3
Conclusion III 3 3
Flowers
All follow.
18. (d) or Benches Beads II

Nets Tree

Jets
Sets Figure I Figure II Validity

Figure Validity Conclusion I × 3 ×

Conclusion II × × ×
Conclusion I × ×
Conclusion III 3 3 3
Conclusion II × ×
Conclusion III × × Only Conclusion III follows.
None follows.
2. (c) Tables Paints

19. (a) Towns Villages

Breads Brushes
Cities I
I

or
Paints
Towns

Cities Villages II or Breads Brushes II

Tables

Figure I Figure II Validity

Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion I × 3 ×
Conclusion I × 3 ×
Conclusion II × × ×
Conclusion II × 3 ×
Conclusion III 3 3 3
Conclusion III 3 3 3
Only III follows. Only Conclusion III follows.
128 Study Package for NTSE

3. (b) Curtains
6. (d)
Frames
Figure I Figure II Validity
Pictures Idols I
Conclusion I × 3 ×
Conclusion II × 3 ×
or Conclusion III 3 3 3
Curtains Only Conclusion III follows.

Frames 7. (b)
Idols II Windows

Doors Lamps I

Pictures
Candles
or

Figure I Figure II Validity Candles

Conclusion I × 3 ×
Windows Lamps
Conclusion II 3 3 3 II
Conclusion III 3 3 3

Conclusions II and III follow.

Doors
4. (d) Books
Blades Pens I

Papers
Figure I Figure II Validity
or Conclusion I × 3 ×
Conclusion II 3 3 3
Blades Papers
Conclusion III × 3 ×
II Only Conclusion II follows.
Books Pens 8. (b)

Figure I Figure II Validity Furnitures Road Hills I

Conclusion I × 3 ×
Conclusion II × 3 × Jungles
Conclusion III × 3 ×
None follows.
5. (c) II
or Furnitures Hills Road

Pencils Marbles Trucks I

Jungles
Buses
or Figure I Figure II Validity
Buses
Conclusion I × × ×
Pencils Marbles II Conclusion II 3 3 3
Conclusion III × 3 ×
Only Conclusion II follows.
Trucks
9. (c) Stones Mountains
Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion I × 3 Doubtful Bricks Rocks I
Conclusion II 3 3 3
Conclusion III 3 × Doubtful
Either I or III and Conclusion II follows.
Syllogism 129
Stones Flowers
Mountains 12. (d)

or Bricks Rocks II
Thorns Petals

Leaves

Figure I Figure II Validity

Conclusion I 3 3 3 Stems
Conclusion II × 3 ×
Figure I Validity
Conclusion III 3 3 3
Conclusion I Doubtful ×
Conclusions I and III follow. Conclusion II × ×
10. (c) Conclusion III × ×
Plates
Conclusion IV Doubtful ×
Bags Chairs I Either I or IV follows (complementary pair).
13. (d) Cars
Tables

Buses Motorcycles I
Tables Scooters

Tempos
or Bags
Chairs II
or

Cars
Motorcycles
s
Plates se
Bu

Scooters II
Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion I 3 3 3 Tempos
Conclusion II × 3 Doubtful
Conclusion III 3 × Doubtful Figure I Figure II Validity

Conclusion I and Either II or III follow (complementary pair). Conclusion I × × ×

Conclusion II × × ×
11. (b)
Glasses Conclusion III × 3 ×
Bags Books Conclusion IV × × ×
None follows.
Pens Spoons I
14. (b) Guns

Umbrellas Sticks Balls Bats I

or

Glasses or
Bags Guns
Books

Pens Spoons Balls Bats

II
II

Sticks Umbrella

Figure I Figure II Validity

Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion I 3 3 3
Conclusion II × Doubtful Conclusion I × 3 ×
3
Conclusion II 3 3 3
Conclusion III 3 3 3
Conclusion III × 3 ×
Conclusion IV 3 × Doubtful
Conclusion IV 3 3 3
I, III and either II or IV follow. Conclusions II and IV follow.
130 Study Package for NTSE

15. (a) 18. (c)

Plants

Notebooks

Dictionaries
I Leaves
Books Files

Flowers
Flowers
or Buds
Envelopes Roses Buds
or
Envelopes Leaves
Plants
Books Roses
Files I
II
II
Notebooks Dictionaries
Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion I 3 3 3
Figure I Figure II Validity Conclusion II × 3 Doubtful
Conclusion I × 3 × Conclusion III × × ×
Conclusion II × 3 × Conclusion IV 3 × Doubtful
Conclusion III × × × Conclusion I and either II or IV follow.
Conclusion IV 3 × × 19. (c)
Eagles Birds
None follows.
16. (d)
Snakes Rabbits Animals I

or Keys Chains
Keys Chains Digits

Locks Eagles Birds

Locks
Numbers Digits Numbers
or Snakes Rabbits II
II
I

Figure I Figure II Validity

Conclusion I 3 3 3 Animals

Conclusion II 3 3 3
Conclusion III 3 3 3 Figure I Figure II Validity
Conclusion IV 3 3 3 Conclusion I × 3 ×
All follow. Conclusion II × 3 ×
Conclusion III 3 3 3
17. (d)
Conclusion IV × × ×

I
Only Conclusion (III) follows.
Graduates Judges Doctors
20. (b)
Advocates Windows Tables
Lawyers
Windows Tables
or
Lawyers Chairs
es

Doors
at

Doors Chairs
c
vo
Ad

Judges II
Graduates
Bottles
Bottles

Doctors
I II

Figure I Figure II Validity Figure I Figure II Validity

Conclusion I × 3 × Conclusion I × × ×
Conclusion II × × × Conclusion II 3 3 3
Conclusion III × × Conclusion III × × ×
3
Conclusion IV 3 × ×
Conclusion IV 3 3 3
Conclusion II follows.
None follows.
 Chapter

19
Statement and
Conclusion
The ‘conclusion’ means the facts or relevant thought that can be clearly and truly inferred from the content of the
given sentence or passage. It checks the mental ability of the candidate to analyse the statement understand their
direct and indirect implications and then decide which conclusion would logically follow from the given statement.
In this type of questions, the statement is followed by two conclusions. The candidate is required to find out which of
these conclusions would definitely follow from the given statement and state their answer in form of the given
conclusion.

Example In the following question, a statement is given Conclusions

followed by two conclusions numbered I and II choose
answer.
(a) If only Conclusion I follows
(b) If only Conclusion II follows
(c) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows
(d) If both Conclusions I and II follow
Statement Sealed tenders are invited from competent
contractors experienced in executing construction jobs.
I. Tenders are invited only from experienced contractors.
II. It is difficult to find competent tenders in construction jobs.
Solution (c) According to the given statement, tenders are
invited from contractors experienced in executing
construction jobs but it is not mentioned in the statement
that tenders are invited only from experienced contractors.
So, Conclusion I does not follows. The availability of
competent tenderers in construction is not mentioned, so
Conclusion II does not follow.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) In these questions, two Conclusions
statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and I. It is not raining.
II. You have to consider both the statements to be true
II. X has some urgent business to transact.
even, if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given Conclusions 2. Statements In a golf club, all the members are not active
is/are definitely drawn from the given statements. players of the game but all of them are rich. Mrs X is a
member.
Give Answer
(a) If only I follows (b) If only II follows Conclusions
(c) If neither I nor II follows (d) If both I and II follow I. Mrs X is a golfer. II. Mrs X is rich.
1. Statements When it rains, usually X does not 3. Statements All employees of company A have identity
go out. X has gone out. cards. Ram is an employee of company A.
132 Study Package for NTSE

Conclusions 7. Statements All persons who own a house or a car

I. Ram has an identity card. should file income tax return. Sheela files her income
II. Ram is the General Manager of the company. tax return.
Conclusions
4. Statements If there is shortage in the production
I. Sheela owns a house or a car.
of onions, the price of onions will go up.
II. Sheela neither owns a house nor a car.
Price of onions has gone up.
8. Statements In order to be selected for the local
Conclusions cricket team, a person should be either a good
I. There is shortage in the production of onions. batsman or a bowler. Shyam is selected for the team.
II. Onions were exported. Conclusions
I. Shyam is a good batsman.
5. Statements If all players play to their full
II. Shyam is not a good bowler.
potential, we will win the match.
9. Statements Without rains the crops will not be
We have won the match.
good. The crops were good.
Conclusions
Conclusions
I. All players played to their full potential. I. There were rains.
II. Some players did not play to their full potential. II. Crops were good due to good fertilizers.
6. Statements Some businessmen are rich. Soman is 10. Statements According to the evolution theory, man
rich. evolved from a monkey.
Conclusions X is a monkey.
I. Soman is a businessman. Conclusions
I. X can become a man.
II. Soman has a big farm.
II. Man can become a monkey.

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) In each of these questions a
statement is given followed by two Conclusions I and II.
Mark your answer as
Give Answer
(a) If only Conclusion I follows
(b) If only Conclusion II follows
(c) If neither I nor II follows
(d) If both I and II follow
1. Statement The Prime Minister emphatically stated
that this government will make every possible effort
for the upliftment of poor farmers and farmhands.
Conclusions
I. Except poor farmers and farmhands, all others
have got benefits of fruits of development.
II. No serious efforts have been made in the past for
upliftment of farmers.
2. Statements The distance of 900km by road
between Bombay and Jafra will be reduced to 280 km
by sea. This will lead to a saving of ` 7.92 crore
per annum on fuel.
Conclusions
I. Transportation by sea is cheaper than by road.
II. Fuel must be saved to the greatest extent.
3. Statement The manager humiliated Sachin in the
presence of his colleagues.
Conclusions
I. The manager did not like Sachin.
II. Was not Sachin popular with his colleagues?
4. Statement Any young man who makes dowry as a
condition for marriage discredits himself and
dishonours womanhood.
Conclusions
I. Those who take dowry in marriages should be
condemned by the society.
II. Those who do not take dowry in marriages respect
womanhood.
Directions (Q. Nos. 5-10) One or two statement (s) are
given followed by two Conclusions I and II. Take the
statement to be true and then decide which of the conclusions
logically follows.
Give Answer
(a) If only Conclusion I follows
(b) If only Conclusion II follows
(c) If either Conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Statement and Conclusion
5. Statements Of the ten fisherman caught in a storm,
nine managed to return to the shore. Praveen has not
yet returned after four days.
Conclusions
I. Praveen got killed in the storm.
II. Praveen has survived the storm.
6. Statement Now you don’t need import licence to
own a VCR.
Conclusions
I. VCRs are now manufactured indigenously.
II. VCRs are now freely permitted to be imported.
7. Statements Just about everyone in Germany has
been on a diet at one time or the other and millions of
them have learned that the weight they lose is all too
easily regained. Still despite their frustration, few
question the wisdom of dieting.
Conclusions
I. Germans should stop dieting.
II. Germans do not learn from experience.
8. Statements A study of planning commission
reveals boom in revenues. However, this has been of
little avail owing to soaring expenditure. In the event,
there has been a high dose of deficit financing, leading
Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) It is given that when it rains, X does not go out, but reverse of it
may or may not be true. Hence, none of the conclusions is a valid
conclusion in the light of the statement.
2. (b) It is clear that all the members are necessarily rich, hence
Mrs X, being a member, will definitely be rich.
3. (a) Ram being the employee of company A, has an identity card.
4. (a) Clearly, there is shortage in the production of onions.
5. (a) Given, the match can be won only if all players play to their full
potential. Since, match has been won this implies that all players
played to their full potential.
6. (c) It is given that some businessman are rich which implies that
some rich are businessman. Hence, man may or may not be a
businessman.
7. (c) Besides owning a car or house there may be other
requirements for filling an Income Tax. Hence, nothing can be
concluded on the basis of statement given.
8. (c) No conclusion is logically correct as Shyam is selected, it
implies that he is a good batsman or a bowler.
9. (a) Clearly, Conclusion I follows.
10. (c) Both the conclusions are invalid as nothing can be said in
view of the statement.
133
to marked rise in prices. Large financial outlays year
after year had little impact on level of living.
Conclusions
I. A boom in revenues leads to rise in prices.
II. Large financial outlays should be avoided.
9. Statements The average number of students per
teacher is 50 in the urban area whereas it is 60 in rural
areas. The national average is 55.
Conclusions
I. The student teacher ratio in the rural areas is
higher than in the urban areas.
II. More students study with the same teacher in the
rural areas as compared to those in the urban areas.
10. Statement The Government run company has
asked its employees to declare their income and
assets but it has been strongly resisted by employees
union and no employee is going to declare his income.
Conclusions
I. The employees of this company do not seem to
have any additional undisclosed income besides
their salary.
II. The employees union wants all senior officers to
declare their income first.
High Skill Questions
1. (c) Given, both conclusions are not related to the statement,
which gives the right conclusions.
2. (a) It is given in the statement that reducing distance will lead to a
saving of ` 7.92 Cr per annum on fuel. Hence, Conclusion I is
implicit, Conclusion II is a fact but not related with statement.
Hence, Conclusion I follows.
3. (a) The manager disliking led to humiliation of Sachin. Hence,
Conclusion I follows. Nothing has been given about the
popularity of Sachin. Hence, Conclusion II does not follow.
4. (b) We can easily conclude from the statement that those who do
not take dowry in marriages respect womanhood.
5. (c) Either Conclusion I or II follows, since there one of two
possibilities can be possible either Praveen got killed in the
storm and not come back or Praveen has survived but he is not
getting any route to come back.
6. (b) Statement implies that VCR can be imported but no tax is
applicable, it does not mean that VCR are manufactured in the
country. Hence, only Conclusion II follows.
7. (d) Both the conclusions are invalid in the light of the statement
given.
8. (d) None of the conclusions follows.
9. (b) From the given information, it is easily concluded that more
students study with the same teacher in the rural areas as
compared to those in the urban areas.
10. (d)
 Chapter

20
Data Sufficiency
Data sufficiency is a method to analyse the given set of Now, from both statements,
information and decide whether the given information Eit
he
is sufficient to answer the question. Data sufficiency R rs
on
questions include problems based on Coding-Decoding, or
Son da
Blood-Relations, Direction Sense Test, Ranking and ug
hte
Time Sequence Test, Arithmetical Reasoning, Brother r
Q P
Mathematical Operations and Puzzle Test etc.
Here, P is either the son or daughter of R. So, we cannot
The problems based on this topic consist of two or more find the exact relation between P and R.
than two statements containing the information related Hence, Statements I and II together are not sufficient to
to it. You have to decide whether the problem can be answer the question.
solved by using the information from the given Illustration 2. Who is older Ritu or Situ?
statements combined or individually.
I. Situ was born in the year 1980 and she is 5 yr younger
In these questions, it is also possible that either of the than Ritu’s brother.
given statements is sufficient to answer the question. II. Ritu is twice as old as her brother.
Solution (c) From Statement I, it is clear that Situ is
Directions (Illustrations 1-3) The questions given below younger than Ritu's brother.
consist of a question followed by two statements labelled as I
and II. We have to decide whether these statements give From Statement II, it is clear that Ritu is older than her
brother.
enough information required to answer the question or not.
So, from both the statements, we get
Give Answer Ritu > Ritu’s brother > Situ
(a) If Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
Hence, Ritu is older than Situ.
(b) If Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(c) If Statements I and II together are needed to answer the Illustration 3. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in
question a row facing North. A and F are sitting at two extreme ends of
(d) If Statements I and II together are not sufficient to the row. B is to the immediate right of A and D is 2nd left of F.
answer the question What is the position of E with respect to A?
Illustration 1. How is P related to R? I. E is to the right of A.
I.Q is the son of R. II. Q is the brother of P. II. E is to the left of C.

Solution (d) Statement I Solution (b) On the basis of the statements given in the
question, we can arrange the persons in a row in the
R
following way
Son A B C or E D C or E F

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6
Positions of C and E can be either 3rd or 5th.
Statement II
From the Statement I, we get that E is to the right of A
Q Brother P and hence, position of E can either be 3rd or 5th.
Data Sufficiency
Therefore, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
the question. Statement II fixed the positions of C at 5th
and E at 3rd place, respectively. Therefore, we get our
answer from Statement II.
Direction (Illustration 4) In the question given below,
three Statements I, II and III are given. You are required to
find out which of the given statements is/are sufficient to
answer the question.
Illustration 4. On which day Suresh went to Chennai, if week
starts on Monday?
I. Suresh took leave on Wednesday.
Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Each of the following question
below consists of a question and two statement numbered I
and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer
(a) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question
(b) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone
is sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary
to answer the question
(d) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question
1. Who amongst L, M, N, O and P is the shortest?
Statements
I. O is shorter than P, but taller than N.
II. M is not as tall as L.
2. Point A is towards which direction from Point B?
Statements
I. If a person walks 4 m towards the North from
Point A and takes two consecutive right turns,
each after walking 4 m, he would reach Point C,
which is 8 m away from Point B.
II. Point D is 2 m towards the East of point A and
4 m towards the West of point B.
3. How many brothers does Bharat have?
Statements
I. Shiela, the mother of Bharat, has only three
children.
II. Meena, the grandmother of Bharat, has only one
granddaughter.
4. Is T the grandmother of Q?
Statements
135
II. Suresh went to Chennai the next day of the day his
mother came to his house.
III. Suresh’s mother came to his house neither on Monday
nor Friday.
(a) II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) Even I, II and III together are not sufficient
Solution (d) Statements I, II and III together are not
sufficient as the required day can be anyone of
Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Sunday.
I. P is the mother of Q. Q is the son of R. R is the
son of T.
II. L is the father of N and N is the daughter of T.
5. Are all the five friends viz. Leena, Amit, Arun, Ali and
Ken who are seated around a circular table facing the
centre?
Statements
I. Leena sits second to the left of Amit. Amit faces
the centre. Arun sits second to the right of
Leena.
II. Ali sits third to the left of Ken. Ken faces the
centre. Amit sits to the immediate left of Ali but
Ken is not an immediate neighbour of Amit.
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-12) Each question consists of a
question and two statements numbered I and II given below
it. You have to decide, whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and mark the appropriate answer.
Give Answer
(a) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient
to answer the question
(b) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone
is sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data in both statements together are necessary to
answer the question
(d) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question while the data in Statement I is not sufficient to
answer the question
6. How many sisters does Madhu have?
Statements
I. Madhu’s parents have four children.
II. Madhu has three brothers.
136
7. Is R the granddaughter of C?
Statements
I. The only sister of A is the mother of R’s
brother, B.
II. C, the mother of A has only one grandson, B.
8. Four friends A, B, C and D are seated in circle facing
the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Is
anyone seated exactly between C and D, when counted
from the left of C?
Statements
I. B is seated to the immediate right of C.
II. B is seated to the immediate left of A. D is not an
immediate neighbour of B.
9. Among five friends M, N, O, P and Q (each earning a
different amount), who earns the least?
Statements
I. M earns more than O, P and N.
II. P earns more than only O.
10. Among A, B, C, D and E, seated in a straight line, but
not necessarily in the same order, facing North, who
sits exactly in the middle of the line?
Statements
I. A sits third to left of D. B sits to the immediate
right of C.
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) Each of the following question below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and give answer.
Give Answer
(a) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question
(b) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is
sufficient to answer the question
(c) If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to
answer the question
(d) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question
1. How is ‘also’ written in a code language?
Statements
I. ‘he also show data’ is written as ‘sx fa mn ca’ and
‘now many person also’ is written as ‘zb ct sx ya’
in that code language.
II. ‘she visit the also’ is written as ‘sx lm nc ty’ and
‘she visit the always’ is written as ‘lm kc ty nc’ in
that code language.
2. Point Q is in which direction with respect to Point P?
Study Package for NTSE
II. B sits second to right of A. E is not an
immediate neighbour of D.
11. How many people are standing in a straight line
(Note: All are facing North)?
Statements
I. U stands third from the left end of the line. U is
an immediate neighbour of P and W. Only one
person stands between W and T. Only two
people stand to the right of W.
II. S stands at extreme left end of the line.
T stands to the extreme right end of the line.
Only one person stands between S and U.
Only one person stands between T and W.
12. How far is point M from point K?
Statements
I. Point D is 5m to the South of Point P. Point M
is 8m to the West of point D. Point S is 2.5m to
the North of point M. Point O is 10m to the east
of Point S. Point K is 2.5m to the South of point
O.
II. Point K is 10m to the East of point M. Point U
is 8m to the West of point M. Point D is to the
East of M. Point M is the midpoint of the lines
formed by joining points U and D.
Statements
I. Point P is in East of Point L. Point L is in
North of Point M. Point M is in West of Point
N. Point N is in South of Point O. Point O is
in West of Point Q.
II. Point L is in West of Point P and North of Point
M. Point M is in East of Point N which is South
of Point O. Point Q is in East of Point O and
North of Point L.
3. Six persons viz. A, B, C, D E and F are sitting on a
circular table for lunch, who among them sits
immediate left of F (If all the persons are facing
towards the centre)?
Statements
I. A sits third of right of F. One person sits
between A and C. E sits third to left of C.
II. Only one person sits between E and D. F sits
second to right of D. A sits third to left of F.
4. Sharvan’s birthday is in which of the following
month in a year?
Statements
Data Sufficiency
I. Sharvan’s mother correctly remembers that
Sharvan’s birthday will come after September
but not in the month which has 30 days.
II. Sharvan’s father correctly remember that
Sharvan’s birthday will not come in first and last
month of the year.
5. How far and in which direction is Point B with respect
to Point A?
Statements
I. Point G is 6 m to the East of Point A. Point C is
9 m to the North of Point G. Point F is 3 m to
the West of Point C. Point B is 6 m away from
Point F.
II. Point M is 8 m to the West of Point B. Point R is 8
m to the South of Point M. Point A is 11 m to the
East of Point R. Point C is to the North-East of
Point A.
6. Amongst the people viz. A, B, C, D, E and F sitting
around a circular table facing the centre, who sits
second to the right of A?
Statements
I. A sits second to the right of F. Only two people
sit between A and D. B is neither an
immediate neighbour of D nor F.
II. Only one person sits between A and F (either
from left or right). Only two people sit between F
and B. C sits to the immediate left of D. D is not
an immediate neighbour of B.
7. Among six people viz. C, D, E, F, G and H, sitting in a
straight line with equal distance, between each other
and facing North, who sits second to the left of G?
Statements
I. C sits third from the left end of the line Only
one person sits between C and H. Only two
people sit between E and G.
G sits at one of the position to the right of E.
II. E sits third to the left of G. G does not sit at any
extreme end of the line. More than three people
sit between H and F. F sits at one of the positions
to the right of H.
Directions (Q. Nos 8 and 9) Each of the question below
consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II
and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the questions.
Read all the three statements and give answer
(a) If the Statements II and III are sufficient to answer the
question, but Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
question
(b) If all the Statement taken together are not sufficient to
answer the question
(c) If the Statements I and II are sufficient to answer the
question, but Statement III is not sufficient to answer the
question.
137
(d) If all the statements are sufficient enough to answer the
question
8. Which of the following represents ‘come’ in a code
language?
Statements
I. ‘pit na ja od’ means ‘you may come here’ in that
language.
II. ‘ja ta ter’ means ‘come and go’ in that code
language.
III. ‘od na pit ter’ means ‘you may go home’ in that
code language.
9. How many sons does D have?
Statements
I. B and F are brothers of A.
II. C is the sister of A and F.
III. C and E are daughters of D.
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-12) Each of the question given
below consists of a question and three statements numbered I,
II and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Give Answer
(a) If the data in Statements I and II are sufficient to answer the
question while the data in Statement III are not required to
answer the question
(b) If the data in Statements I and III are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement II are not required to
answer the question
(c) If the data in Statements II and III are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement I are not required to
answer the question
(d) If the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are
necessary to answer the question
10. Among six people viz. P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on
a different floor of a six storey building having six
floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is
numbered1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on
and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on
the topmost floor?
Statements
I. There is only one floor between the floors on
which R and Q live, P lives on an even numbered
floor.
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives
on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the
topmost floor.
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two
floors between the floors on which S and P live.
T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.
11. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is
‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the
following operations using these six letters only?
Statements
138 Study Package for NTSE

I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not Statements

placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right)
to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or
right) to S.
III. N and W are placed immediately before and
after S. The word does not begin with R. A is not
placed immediately next to W.
12. Point D is in which direction with respect to point B?
I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C is to the
North of point B. Point D is to the South of point
C.
II. Point G is to the South of point D. Point G is 4 m
from point B. Point D is 9 m from point B.
III. Point A is to the West of Point B. Point B is
exactly midway between points A and E. Point F
is to the South of Point E. Point D is to the West
of point F.

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (d) From Statement I, P > O > N 5. (b) From Statement I, Arun
From Statement II, L > M
Amit
Here, we cannot find the shortest and tallest by both the
statements. Hence, the data in both the statements are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Leena
2. (a) From Statement II,
N Hence, Leena faces outside.
From Statement II,
W E Ali
A 2m D 4m B
S
Amit
Now, it is clear form the diagram that, Point A is in West direction
from Point B.
Hence, Statement II alone is sufficient. Ken

3. (c) From both Statements it is clear that Meena, the grandmother

of Bharat has only one granddaughter and Shiela the mother of Hence, Ali faces outside.
Bharat has only three children. It means one is Bharat, second It is clear from diagrams that all the five friends are not facing
his sister and third one definitely his brother because the centre of circular table.
grandmother has only one granddaughter, So, Bharat has one Hence, either Statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the
brother. Hence, both the statements together are necessary. question.
4. (c) From Statement I, 6. (c) From Statement I, Madhu has three siblings.
T
Son From Statement II, Madhu has three brothers.
Couple So, from both statements, we can say that Madhu has no sister.
P R
s r
7. (c) From Statements I and II,
Mother C–
n

Mother
So

Q
r
–
A
From Statement II, Sister
Married
Couple Mother
T L
–
Da B+
Father

R
u gh Brother
te
r Hence, R is the granddaughter of C.
N
8. (d) From Statement I,
From Statement I, it is clear that T is either the grandmother or
grandfather of Q. B
And, from Statement II, it is clear that T is female. So, T is the
grandmother of Q. Hence, both the statements together are C
necessary.
Data Sufficiency 139
From Statement II, From Statements I and II,
D
E A C B D
C A
Hence, C sits exactly in the middle of the line.
B 11. (a) From Statement I
P U W T
So, from Statement II, we can say that there is no person
between C and D. From, Statement II,
S U ....... W T
9. (d) From Statement I,
M > O, P, N Hence, data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
Nothing is given about Q. question, while data in Statement II is not.
From Statement II, 12. (b) From Statement I,
...... P > O 10 m P N
S O
Here, P earns more than only O. So, O earns least. Hence, only
2.5 m 5 m 2.5 m W E
Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
M D K
8m
10. (c) From Statement I, S
or
E A C B D A C B D E Clearly, Point M, is 10m away from Point K.
From Statement II, Point K is 10m to the East of Point M.
From Statement II, E is not an immediate neighbour of D and B
Hence, data in either of the two statements is sufficient to answer
sits second to the right of A.
the question.

High Skill Questions

1. (b) From Statement I, A A

he also show data sx fa mn ca

E C or C E
now many person also zb ct sx ya

∴ also = sx F F
From Statement II, From Statement II,
F
she visit the also sx lm nc ty
she visit the always lm kc ty nc

∴ also = sx D
E
Hence, the data in either Statement I or II in Statement II alone is A
sufficient to answer the question. Now, from Statements I and II,
2. (a) From Statement II, F
O Q B C
N-W N N-E
W E D
L P E
S-W S-E A
S
N M Clearly, C sits to the immediate left of F.
Hence, data in both the statements are required to answer the
Clearly, Q is in North-West direction with respect to P.
question.
Hence, data in Statement II alone is sufficient.
4. (c) From Statement I,
3. (c) From Statement I,
Months according to Sharvan’s mother = October, December
From Statement II,
140 Study Package for NTSE

Months according to Sharvan’s father = February to November Hence, C sits second the left of G. The data in both Statements
∴From Statements I and II, I and II are together necessary to answer the question.
Sharvan’s birthday = October. 8. (c) From Statement I,
Hence, the data in both the statements are necessary to answer You may come here → pit na ja od
the question. From Statement II,
5. (a) From Statement I, come and go → ja ta ter
B 6m F 3m C 3m B From Statements I and II together, come → ja
Hence, it is clear that Statements I and II together are sufficient to
N answer the question.
6m 9m
9. (b) From all the three statements, the gender of A is not clear. So,
W E we cannot determine how many sons D have.
B
S 10. (d) From the given statements, we get
A 6m G Floors People
6 P
We cannot determine the position of B.
5 T
From Statement II, 4 R
M 8m B 3 S
2 Q
1 V
8m C Therefore, the data in Statements I, II and III together are
necessary to answer the question.

R 11 m A 11. (b) From Statement I,

A _ S _ E _ or _ A_ S_ E
So, B is in the North-West direction with respect to A.
From Statement II,
Thus, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. E R _ or R E and S W or W S
6. (a) From Statement I, From Statement III, N S W or W S N
B A is not placed next to W and the word does not begin with R.
C/E From Statements I and III together,
ANSWER
D A Hence, data only in Statements I and III are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement II is not required to answer
the question.
C/E
F 12. (b) From Statement I,
C C
C or E is second to right of A. ↑ ↓
A ← B, D
From Statement II,
From Statement III,
D
A ← B → E
F ↓
D ← F
E C By combining Statements I and III, we get
C

B A B E
A
D F
C is sitting second to the right of A.
Hence, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. So, the data in Statements I and III are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement II is not required to answer
7. (c) From Statements I and II, the question.

H E C D G F
 Part-II : Non-Verbal Reasoning
Chapter

1
Series
This is the most important section of non-verbal reasoning. The word series is defined as anything that follows to
form a specific pattern or as continuation of a given pattern or sequence. In simple terms, after observing the trend
of pattern involved in three or four items (figures/designs), you have to decide which will be the next figure to
complete the given series.
In these questions a series of figures is given as problem figures and the candidates are asked to select one of the
figure from the set of answer figures which will continue the given series.
For solving such series problems, some important points must be kept in mind to solve such problems correctly and
rapidly.
l In series questions, figures may move in clockwise or anti-clockwise direction by 45°, 90° or 135°. So, observe the question
figure carefully.
W CW
AC 45° 45°
90° 90° 45° 45°
90° 90°

Clockwise Anti-clockwise
(CW) (ACW)

l In series questions, the design can be took place by the addition or deletion of lines or some design, so observe the change
carefully and answer the question correctly.
l In some problems of such series, problem figure (first) is same as the problem figure (third), then the answer figure must
be similar to (second) figure.
l In some cases, one element of the figure is moved by clockwise and other is moved by anti-clockwise, answer must be
drawn by following both the moves.
l In some questions, mirror images are used to frame a series of figures. This can be understood by careful watching of the
following figure.

l In some cases, mirror images of digits or English alphabets are also used in series.

Example 1
Problem Figures Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (d) Answer figure (d), is correct in the series because in each subsequent step one arm as well as one
dot is increasing, so answer figure must have six arms and four dots.
142 Study Package for NTSE

Example 2
Problem Figures Answer Figures

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (d) From problem figure (1) to (2), two inner line segments disappear similar from problem figure (2)
to (3) two line segments disappear similarly. Again from problem figure (4) to (5) two line segments will
disappear. Therefore, in answer figure, there should be only four line segments.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-30) In each of the question, four problem figures are given. Select a figure from amongst the
answer figures which will continue the same series as given in the problem figures.
Problem Figures Answer Figures

1. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

7. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Series 143
Problem Figures Answer Figures

8. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

9. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

10. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

+
11. ?
+

+
+
+

(a) (b) (c) (d)

12. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

13. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

14. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

15. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

16. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

X
X X
17. X ? X
X
(a) (b) (c) (d)

18. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

144 Study Package for NTSE

Problem Figures Answer Figures

19. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

20. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

21. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

?
22.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

?
23.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

?
24.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

25. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

26. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

27. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

28. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Series 145
Problem Figures Answer Figures

29. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

30. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-20) In each of the questions, five problem figures are given. Select a figure from the answer
figures which will continue the same series as given in the problems figure.
Problem Figures Answer Figures

×
×

×
1.

×
× ?
×
×

× ×

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

7. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

R
8. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

9. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

146 Study Package for NTSE

Problem Figures Answer Figures

10. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

11. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

12. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

13. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

14. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

S C C S
15. C S C S ? C S
S S C S C C
(a) (b) (c) (d)

16. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

17. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

18. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

S
19. C S ? S S S S
S
(a) (b) (c) (d)

20. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21 and 22) In the following questions, find which figure is to be removed, starting from A.
So, that all fit into a pattern.
21. 22.

A B C D E A B C D E
(a) B (b) C (a) B (b) C
(c) E (d) D (c) D (d) E
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) In each subsequent step, one quarter part of square as
well as number of dots increases.
2. (b) In each subsequent step, one inner circle is removed in
clockwise direction.
3. (b) Figure is moving 90° in clockwise.
4. (b) As, figure (ii) and (iii) is similar in the same way. Answer
figure (b) is similar to figure (i).
5. (c) One flower lob is removing in clockwise direction and it get
converted into triangle in front of the removing lob.
6. (c) Black dot moves two places in anti-clockwise direction.
7. (a) Figure moves 90° in clockwise direction.
8. (d) Figure moves 90° in clockwise direction.
9. (d) In each subsequent step, two small lines are added to a
horizontal line.
10. (a) Shapes in figure moves right to left.
11. (a) + moves in anti-clockwise while shaded part in clockwise
direction.
12. (a) In each subsequent step, black shaded square get
converted into white.
13. (c) In each subsequent step, shaded part increases.
14. (b) Figure moves in clockwise direction.
15. (b) Figure moves 90° in anti-clockwise direction.
16. (a) Figure (a) is correct answer, because one by one each
arrow rotate by 180° in each subsequent step.
High Skill Questions
1. (b) Square rotates 45° anti-clockwise on its axis while arrow
rotates 45° anti-clockwise in each subsequent figure.
2. (d) The shape design moves anti-clockwise alternatively while
the triangles rotates 180° and 90° anti-clockwise alternatively in
each subsequent figure.
3. (c) In each subsequent figure, one arrow is added and the
pre-existing arrow(s) is/are reversed.
4. (b) In one step, the number of arrows increases by one and in
the second step, the number of circle decrease by one.
These two processes are repeated alternately while in each
step the entire figure rotates 90° clockwise.
5. (d) In each subsequent figure, an arrow is inverted starting
from left.
6. (b) In every alternate figure, the outer design is circle. Thus, in
the answer figure, the outer design would be circle. Therefore,
answer figure (c) and (d) can be ruled out. Again, in each
subsequent figure, the outer design of the previous figure is
reduced and becomes the inner figure.
17. (b) × moves in clockwise while shaded part moves in
anti-clockwise direction.
18. (b) In each figure, one line is removed in the design
subsequent.
19. (c) In each figure, one arrow is added in the design subsequent.
20. (b) Figure moves in 90° anti-clockwise direction.
21. (a) In each successive problem figure, a new design is added
and circle at the top of the design comes at the bottom.
22. (b) In each successive problem figure, a new arrow is added.
23. (c) In each successive problem figure, bigger circle inside the
smaller circle.
24. (c) In each successive problem figure, cross mark gets
accompanied with black circle followed by removal and addition
in subsequent stage.
25. (a) In each successive problem figure, the flags moves one,
two, three and four steps in clockwise direction.
26. (c) In each successive problem figure, a line is added which get
transformed into rectangle in subsequent step.
27. (b) One dash is added in opposite direction in each step while
the main figure takes a similar shape every three steps.
28. (a) Similar figure appears alternately while the number of
dashes decreases by one in each step.
29. (a) In each step one line segment is reduced from the upper
figure and one line segment is added to the lower figure.
30. (a) In each step a plus is disappeared and a small circle is
added inside the circle.
7. (c) One of the line segments from the lower and upper bars
reverse its direction alternately and it changes into T-shaped
design on the lower bar and into pin-head on the upper bar.
8. (d) From problem figure (i) to (ii), the designs interchange
position and the larger design becomes smaller and the smaller
design becomes larger after being reversed.
9. (b) From problem figure (1) to (2), the main design rotates
45° clockwise. Similar, problem figure (5) would rotates to give
answer figure. Again, both dots interchange sides and remain
inside the main design in the first step and in the second step
both dots come out of the main design.
10. (c) In the first step, one arc starting from upper left gets inverted
and in the second step two arcs get inverted. These two
processes are repeated alternately and the process of inversion
takes place in clockwise direction.
11. (c) In the first step, the lower triangle is reversed, in the second
step, the middle triangle and in the third step, the upper triangle
is reversed. The same procedure is repeated to get the answer.
148
12. (b) In each step, one more part of the square gets blackened. In the
first step, the previous shaded part of the square moves two steps
and in the next step, it moves three steps in clockwise direction.
These two steps are repeated alternately and the other parts of the
square just behind the previous one get shaded.
13. (a) In each subsequent figure, the entire design rotates
90° clockwise and three and four arrow heads are reversed at
their position respectively.
14. (d) In each successive problem figure, the two designs of
upper row and lower interchange their positions alternately and
the remaining four designs move one step anti-clockwise. So,
in the next step the elements of the upper row will interchange.
15. (d) In each successive problem figure, alternate designs (namely
C, O and S) move one step clockwise while the remaining three
move one step anti-clockwise.
16. (c)
From I to II From II to III
From III to IV From IV to V
From V to VI
The changes in the position of designs are taking place in the
following manners.
Study Package for NTSE
17. (d) In each successive problem figure, second design get
enlarged and is placed on LHS while larger figure gets
reduced and is placed on RHS.
18. (b) In each successive problem figure, larger part reduces in
size while smaller part enlarges in size and whole figure gets
laterally inverted.
19. (d) In each successive problem figure, the designs move one
step clockwise. The designs on the clockwise side is
replaced by a new one in first step and in the next step, the
designs on the clockwise side is lost and new design
appears on the anti-lockwise side. The lost or replaced
design does not reappear. So, the possibility of (c) is ruled
out.
20. (b) In each successive problem figure, a new design
appears at the left most position on the lower part and the
lower left design moves to upper left, upper left to lower
middle, lower middle to upper right and upper right to right
to lower right and lower right design is lost.
21. (d) In each successive figure the black circle moves one step
clockwise and the white circle moves one step
anti-clockwise. So, in the given series figure D must be
removed to make the sequence correct.
22. (b) In each successive figure a design is added in
clockwise direction. So, in this sequence figure C have to
be removed to make the sequence correct.
 Chapter

2
Analogy
Analogy literally means ‘similarity’ i.e., having similar features or characteristic. This section of non-verbal
reasoning has been designed to test the ability of a candidate to understand the relationship between two figures
which follow a certain rule and apply the same rule to select the figure which establishes the same relationship
with the figures asked in the questions.
In these types of questions, two sets of figures namely problem figures and answer figures are given. The set of
problem figures consists of two parts. The first part comprises of two figures which have same relationship between
them on the basis of certain rule. The second part comprises one figure and a sign of question mark (?). Candidates
are asked to select one figure from the set of answer figures which replaces the sign of questions mark (?). In such a
way that it bears same relationship with the other figure as first figure of the first part bears with second figure of
the same part.
Examples given below, will give you a better idea about the types of questions generally asked.

Directions (Examples 1 and 2) Study the relationship between the first and second figure. Following the same relationship,
change the third figure to get fourth figure. Find the answer figure.

Example 1 Problem Figures Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (c) In the above example, first figure is moved 135°, in anti-clockwise direction to get second figure.
Applying the same rule on third figure, we get the answer figure i . e., figure (c) of answer figures, which is the
correct answer.

Example 2 Problem Figures Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (c) In the second unit, the figure rotates 90° in clockwise direction and its shaded inverted image is
placed over it. This rule is also observed in third figure (c) of answer figures. So, option (c) is correct.
150 Study Package for NTSE

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-30) Each of the following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures (A), (B), (C) and (D)
constitute the problem set while (a), (b), (c), and (d) constitute answer sets. There is a definite relationship between figures (A)
and (B), establish a similar relationship between figures (C) and (D) by choosing a suitable figure from answer figures.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

1.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

×
3. ×

× ? ×
× ×
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

5.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

7.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

8.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Analogy 151
Problem Figures Answer Figures
9.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

10.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

11.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

12.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

13.
? × × × ×
×
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

14.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

15.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

16.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

17.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

18.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

152 Study Package for NTSE

Problem Figures Answer Figures

19.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

20.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

21.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

22.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

23.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

P M K
24. P M K N K N K N K N
?
R B
R S S L B B B B
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

25.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

+
26.
?
+ +
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

27.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

28.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Analogy 153
Problem Figures Answer Figures
29.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

30.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-23) Each of the following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures (A), (B), (C) and (D)
constitute the problem set while (a), (b), (c) and (d) and constitute answer sets. There is a definite relationship between figures
(A) and (B), establish a similar relationship between figures (C) and (D) by choosing a suitable figure from answer set.
Problem Figures Answer Figures

1. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2.
?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3.
? –
–

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4. ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

5. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (B) (C) (D)
=

6. +
?
=

+
=

+
+
+

=
=

+
+

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

7. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (B) (C) (D)
154 Study Package for NTSE

Problem Figures Answer Figures

+
8. ?
+ (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

9.
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

10.
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

11.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

12.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

13.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

14.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

S

S S C S C S C
15.
?
C C
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

16. ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

17.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Analogy 155
Problem Figures Answer Figures

18.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

19.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

20.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

21.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

22.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

23.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 24 and 25) In each of the following questions, choose the picture that would go in the empty box so that
the two bottom pictures are released in the same way as the top two are related.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

24.
?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

25.
ERASER ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) Cross diagonals must be placed in rectangle.
2. (d) Figure moves 90° anti-clockwise.
3. (b) Dot (•) moves one place forward clockwise and cross (× )
moves one place forward anti-clockwise.
4. (d) Figure moves 90° clockwise or anti-clockwise.
5. (d) From figure A to B, the central figure becomes the outer
one, the inner arrow rotates 135° anti-clockwise and outer
figure diminishes in size and gets attached to the end of the
arrow.
6. (c) From figure A to B, the figure is rotated by 180° and the
arrowhead is replaced on the ‘U’ shaped figure.
7. (a) Change the position of darkened square accordingly.
8. (d) Corner figure must be placed in the central figure
accordingly.
9. (b) One arm increases in figure as observed in A and B.
10. (b) Inner figure moves 180° in clockwise direction.
11. (c) From figure A to B, the figure is rotated by 180° and one line
and one circle are added. The circle is added on the same
side as in the previous figure.
12. (a) Line remains at same place but the figure get reverted by
180°.
13. (a) One other sign is added to the initial sign.
14. (a) From figures A to B, the outer figure gets replaced by a
figure with one lesser number of sides. The circles present
inside it comes out and new black circle is introduced inside.
15. (a) Inner items and outer item(s) get exchanged and figure is
reverted by 180°.
16. (c) From figures A to B, the inner circle changes to square and
vice-versa. The arrow rotates by 180°. A dot appears inside.
17. (b) Figure get reverted diagonally.
High Skill Questions
1. (b) Figure rotate 180° in clockwise direction.
2. (c) As, triangle in the figure rotate 180° in clockwise direction
and rectangle rotate 90° in clockwise direction.
3. (b) Internal figure get interchanged their position.
4. (a) Option (a) is correct.
5. (d) Figure rotate 90° in anti-clockwise direction.
6. (c) From figures A to B, the main design/arrows rotates
through 90° clockwise while inner design move one step in
anti-clockwise direction.
7. (c) From figures A to B, the arrow sign is replaced by circle and
vice-versa, similarly square and arc sign interchanged.
18. (b) From figures A to B, the number of circles increases from 1 to 2
and one of the circle is inverted and small dark circle become
unshadded. An additional line appears in each circle.
19. (b) Figure (A) has two four arms while figure (B) have total eight arm
figures. Similarly, answer figures must have six arms.
20. (a) Figure rotated by 45° clockwise while the inner part get reverted
outside.
21. (d) The whole figure rotates through 135° clockwise. The arc
attached to it gets reversed while the bar with ‘equal to’ sign rotates
45° anti-clockwise.
22. (c) The shaded portion moves one side anti-clockwise. The
abjacent line segments shift one side clockwise and rotates
through 45° clockwise.
23. (b) Figure is rotated 45° clockwise and two half leaves are added
on clockwise side.
24. (d) The second is the water image of the first.
25. (a) The upper left figure gets enlarged and encircles all the
elements. The lower right elements gets reduced and becomes the
innermost.
26. (b) The number of lines in the main figure is reduced by one. One
of the outer elements goes inside the main figure and gets
shaded while the inner design moves out and encircles the outer
design, which moves one sides in clockwise direction.
27. (b) Lines equal to the number of sides are added inside the main
figure. The outer design interchange their position and half of these
are shaded.
28. (b) The shaded portion gets unshaded and vice-versa.
29. (a) The innermost figure comes in the middle with one more side
while the middle one becomes innermost with one lesser side.
The number of sides of the outermost figure increase by two.
30. (b) The main figure get inverted and inner lines join to form a new
figure in right corner.
8. (b) From figures A to B, the complete figure gets inverted.
9. (d) From figures A to B, the second figure is the inverted image of
the first figure and the inner bulge becomes the outer and
vice-versa.
10. (b) From figures A to B, the first left hand figure becomes enlarge
and others are inserted inside the enlarged figure, similarly from III
to IV, we get answer figure.
11. (c) The first and third design from the top rotate 90° clockwise and
interchange their positions. The second from the top and first from
the bottom rotate by 90° anti-clockwise and interchange positions.
The line of orientation rotates by 90° anti-clockwise.
Analogy
12. (d) The two designs rotates 180° clockwise and shift two
arm clockwise while third rotates by 90° clockwise and
shift one arm clockwise.
13. (a) The innermost figure becomes the outermost and
vice-versa. The two middle figures also interchange
themselves.
14. (a) The main figure gets vertically inverted while the base
arrow gets laterally inverted.
15. (a) The upper left design gets inverted vertically at its
position while other three designs interchange their
positions. The lower right design gets inverted vertically
while the lower left and upper right design gets shaded
after shifting.
16. (a) The number of lines in each design reduces by one.
The design on the right column interchange their position.
17. (d) The number of sides in the main figure increases by
one and the other design interchange places diagonally.
157
18. (b) The design of the upper left portion moves one are anti-clockwise
and design on the right moves one arm clockwise. The lower portion
remains as it is.
19. (c) The number and sides of the upper figures reduces by one while the
number of the lower figure increases by one.
20. (d) Except the upper left design other three designs exchange their
positions in anti-clockwise direction and designs insides rotate by 45°.
21. (a) The left design becomes the main one while the right one goes inside.
The main design gets reduced and shaded and shifts to lower side.
22. (d) The whole figure rotates by 180°. The small circle outside and the
line inside to main figure move one step anti-clockwise.
23. (c) The inner figures gets divided into two parts which get separated
and inverted. The outer figure gets reduced in size and is placed in the
gap between two portions.
24. (d) As, a car has four wheels, similarly, a cycle has two wheels.
25. (a) As, shirt and pants both are cloths. Similarly, eraser and pencil both
are stationary items.
 Chapter

3
Classification (Odd One Out)
In non-verbal classification questions, you will be given a group of four or five items (diagrams). All but one of these
items will be similar in a certain way or some other way. You will be asked to choose the one that is not similar to
the other figures given in the questions.
In other words we can say that the questions based on classification are designed to test the candidate’s ability to
classify or segregate a group of objects from the given objects, on the basis of their common property i. e., it is a
process of marking out a homogeneous group from a heterogeneous larger group.
In these types of questions, four figures, labelled as a, b, c and d are given , three of these four figures have common
feature and hence are similar in a certain way. One of the figures does not share the common feature and hence does
not fit with other figures. You have to select that figure which does not belong to the group and this figure is your
answer.
While solving the problems the candidate has to observe all the figures minutely and try to correlate them.
Example 1 Choose the figure which is different from the other.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (d) The figures form a series. The complete figure rotates 90° clockwise in each step. Figure (d) does
not fit in the series.

Example 2 Choose the figure which is different from the other.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (d) In this case, all the figures except figure (d), can be rotated into each other.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-25) In the following exercises, group of four figures are given in questions. Out of these four figures
one figure is different, while three figures are similar in some way. Find out the different figure (odd one out).

1. 9. R R R 17.
R

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

18.
2. 10.

T L V R (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
19.
3. 11.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) 20.

4. 12. × × × – + × + × – × – +
+ + + – + ×+ × – × – + (a) (b) (c) (d)
– – – – + ×+ × – × – +
21.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

5. 13.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

22.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6. 14. (a) (b) (c) (d)

23. O × ×
O

×
×O O
×
O ×

O O
O
× O× ×O×
×

×
×
O O

×
×

O××
×

×OO
O

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

×

(a) (b) (c) (d)

7. 15.
24.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

8. 16. 25.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
160 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos.1-24) Out of the four figures (a), (b), (c) and (d), given in each problem, three are similar in a certain
way. Choose the figure which is different from other figures.

1. 9. 17.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
10. × × × × × G
QS
2. 18.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a)
× ×
(b) (c) (d)
×
R (a) (b) (c) (d)
11. 19.
3.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
12. 20. =
××
= +
===== ++
= =
+
+
4. =
= = +
+
×××

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
13. 21.
5.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
14. 22.
6.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
15. 23.
7.
T V X I
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16. 24.
8.
121 231 301 341

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (d) In figure (d), outer and inner figure is different. 13. (b) In figure (b), along diagonal of square figures are different.
2. (d) Except figure (d), all other have only straight line, there is no 14. (c) In figure (c), outer shapes are different.
curved part.
15. (c) In figure (c), there are two same straight lines.
3. (d) In figure (d), inner and outer figure is not connected by small 16. (d) In figure (d), parts are in same direction.
lines.
17. (c) In figure (c), arrow direction is different from the terminal dots.
4. (a) In figure (a), inner and outer shaded part concide to one other
part. 18. (c) Both the arrow heads are in the same direction in figure (c). In
all other figures, they are in the opposite direction. Hence, (c) is
5. (d) In figure (d), three lines are headed by arrows on the both the answer.
sides, while other figure has four arrows.
19. (b) In figure (b), centre have black dot, which makes it different
6. (a) In figure (a), inner circle is not in touch with other outer circles. from others.
7. (c) In figure (c), and are not on a single line. 20. (d) In figure (d), both niddles are at the angle of 180°.
8. (c) In figure (c), directions of arrows is not alternative direction. 21. (d) In figure (d), direction of small hooks is different from others.
9. (c) In figure (c), cyclic ring contains only two small lines. 22. (a) In figure (a), small end line is opposite to shaded triangle.
10. (c) Figure (c) is different in direction. 23. (d) Figure (d), is different from other figures.
11. (a) Direction of outer figures are same in figure (a). 24. (a) Figure (a) has three black dots.
12. (a) In figure (a), columns have different signs (+ , ×, −, etc). 25. (c) Figure (c) has identical arrows.

High Skill Questions

1. (d) In figure (d), shaded part have different distance or angle 15. (d) Figure (d), is different from others. As, figure (d) is made of
from arrow. only one line.
2. (d) In figure (d), there are four dots, two black circles and two 16. (c) In figure (c), black dot is not present in small rectangle region.
small circles.
17. (d) In figure (d), parts are not mirror images of each other.
3. (d) Figure (d) is different from others.
18. (b) Except figure (b), all are mirror images while it is a water
4. (c) In figure (c), arrow makes 90° angle. image of G.
5. (c) In figure (c), directions of alternative arrows are different. 19. (d) In figure (d), there is no part with three arms while other
6. (c) In figure (c), one line cannot passes through the centre of figures have 1, 2, 3 and 4 arms parts.
circle. 20. (a) In figure (a), outer sign marks are not in increasing number of
7. (d) In figure (d), small line (—) and —o have same direction. signs is, i.e., 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
8. (c) 301 is not divisible by 11. 21. (d) Except figure (d), In all the remaining figure, there are two
9. (d) In figure (d), black dot is placed on the bottom of arrow. curves are attached outside of the square.

10. (c) Except figure (c), in all other figures the black and white circles
occur on opposite corners of the square and so do the symbol x.
11. (d) In figure (d), figure is not divided into two equal parts.
12. (d) In figure (d), direction of inner part is different, then outer figure.
13. (d) In figure (d), all three angles are mentioned while other
figures have two angles marked.
14. (d) In figure (d), figure does not contains any in side figure but
figure have four lines.
22. (d) Except figure (d), in rest of the figure, the number of lines on
the neck of the pot are same as the number of lines on the
middle of the pot.
23. (d) Except figure (a), all other figures have two arrows.
24. (a) Except figure (a), in rest of the figure, the number of
projected part on the circumference of circle are even.
Or in rest of the figure, there are projected tooth on the
circumference of circle in opposite direction.
 Chapter

4
Matrix
Matrix is also one of the most important chapter of non-verbal reasoning. There are two types of matrix-one of them
is figure matrix and remaining one is word or letter based matrix.

Type I Figure Based Matrix

Figure matrix is one kind of magical block. It is divided into n number of small squares. In each small square,
different symbols are given. In this matrix one small square is left blank in which you have to fill in a square from
the answer choices such that each row. Vertically, horizontally and diagonally follow the same rule.
Candidates are required to analyse the given matrix, find out the common rule and then basis on the common rule,
choose the missing figure from the given answer figures.
Example 1 Select one alternative figure out of (a), (b), (c) and (d), which completes the given matrix.

Problem Figure

Answer Figures

? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (d) Clearly, in the first and second rows, the second figure is the inner part of the first figure and the
third figure is the inner part of the second figure.
Thus, the missing figure should be the inner part of the second figure in third row, i.e., a small darkened circle.

Type II Word or Letter Based Matrix

Basically, this type of matrix is based on coding-decoding. In this matrix, the codes of letters and numbers are given
in two matrix. To solve the question based on it, first of all the possible values of letters must be write and after that
choose the correct answer from given alternatives.
Matrix I Matrix II
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 F O M S R 5 A T D I P
1 S R F O M 6 I P A T D
2 O M S R F 7 T D I P A
3 R F O M S 8 P A T D I
4 M S R F O 9 D I P A T
Matrix 163
Example 2 MOST
(a) 40, 44, 22, 89 (b) 33, 20, 11, 79 (c) 21, 00, 03, 88 (d) 02, 13, 34, 56
Solution (d) From matrix I, M can be coded as 02, 14, 21, 33 or 40.
From matrix I, O can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 32 or 44.
From matrix I, S can be coded as 03, 10, 22, 34 or 41.
From matrix II, T can be coded as 56, 68, 75, 87 or 99.
Clearly, (d) is the only set of correct codes.

Example 3 ROAD
(a) 42, 32, 79, 58 (b) 23, 32, 98 , 99 (c) 11, 13, 67, 69 (d) 04, 20, 55, 78
Solution (c) From matrix I, R can be coded as 04, 11, 23, 30 or 42.
From matrix I, O can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 32 or 44.
From matrix II, A can be coded as 55, 67, 79, 86 or 98.
From matrix II, D can be coded as 57, 69, 76, 88 or 95.
Clearly, only (c) contains the correct codes.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In each of the following questions, find out which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d)
completes the figure matrix.
1. 4. Matrix I
0 1 2 3 4
0 A E S T H
?
1 T H A E S
? 2 E S T H A
3 H A E S T
4 S T H A E
Matrix II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
5 6 7 8 9
2. 5. 5 P O R K L
6 K L P O R
7 O R K L P
8 L P O R K
? ? 9 R K L P O
6. EAST
(a) 44, 32, 21, 03 (b) 32, 31, 02, 04
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) 20, 43, 33, 11 (d) 13, 12, 14, 10

3. 7. ROSE
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) In each of (a) 95, 75, 02, 32 (b) 88, 76, 31, 32
the following questions, a word is (c) 86, 67, 33, 44 (d) 57, 87, 32, 33
represented by only one set of numbers as
given in any one of the alternatives. The 8. SOLE
? sets of numbers given in the alternatives (a) 41, 57, 87, 31 (b) 33, 99, 66, 44
are represented by two classes of (c) 21, 75, 44, 02 (d) 02, 78, 87, 13
alphabets as in the two given matrices.
The columns and rows of Matrix I are 9. LAKE
(a) (b) (c) (d) numbered from 0 to 4 and those of
Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these (a) 97, 00, 77, 12 (b) 66, 12, 58, 40
matrices can be represented first by its (c) 85, 31, 77, 44 (d) 77, 43, 76, 31
row and then the column number.
164 Study Package for NTSE

10. LEST 14. Matrix II

(a) 97, 32, 21, 34 (b) 87, 32, 21, 31
(c) 85, 02, 04, 22 (d) 66, 00, 20, 34 5 6 7 8 9
5 W N R M L
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In each 6 N R M L W
?
of the following questions, find out 7 R M L W N
which of the anwer figures (a), (b), (c) 8 M L W N R
and (d) completes the figure matrix. 9 L W N R M
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. 16. DRAW
15.
(a) 41, 66, 23, 55
(b) 32, 75, 44, 76
(c) 23, 57, 30, 68
? (d) 14, 89, 12, 78
?
17. BAND
(a) 43, 21, 97, 33
(b) 11, 21, 79, 41
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) 34, 44, 66, 14
12. (d) 20, 30, 89, 23
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In each of the
following questions, a word is represented 18. BLOW
by only one set of numbers as given in any (a) 11, 68, 42, 69
one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers (b) 21, 95, 33, 97
? given in the alternatives are represented by (c) 34, 68, 10, 88
two classes of alphabets as in the two given (d) 34, 86, 44, 78
matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix I
are numbered from 0 to 4 and those of 19. RAIN
Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these (a) 57, 12, 31, 56
(a) (b) (c) (d)
matrices can be represented first by its row (b) 57, 21, 23, 79
13. and then the column number. (c) 66, 44, 42, 96
(d) 75, 30, 31, 87
Matrix I
20. LAMB
0 1 2 3 4
(a) 68, 21, 58, 34
0 D O B A I
? (b) 77, 44, 76, 33
1 O B A I D
(c) 86, 21, 67, 12
2 B A I D O
(d) 95, 30, 80, 20
3 A I D O B
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4 I D O B A

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In each of the following questions, find out which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d)
completes the figure matrix.

1. 2. AA BB CC 3. a a a
b b b

Aa Bb Cc b b b

a a
? aa bb ? ?
b b

b a a a
C CC cc c b b b b
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Matrix 165
4. 8. FINE 15.
?
(a) 31, 32, 33, 82 (b) 24, 19, 21, 78
(c) 12, 10, 13, 67 (d) 00, 04, 02, 56

(a) (b) (c) (d) 9. HEAT

(a) 79, 53, 20, 87 (b) 65, 56, 13, 57 ?
5.
(c) 57, 56, 01, 59 (d) 29, 85, 34, 93

10. BOTH
? (a) 88, 30, 85, 86 (b) 75, 22, 76, 79
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 69, 67, 68, 59 (d) 58, 02, 68, 65
16. + ÷
(a) (b) (c) (d) Directions (Q. Nos. 11-19) In each +
of the following questions, find out ÷
÷ –
which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) –
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) In each of – –
the following questions, a word is and (d) completes the figure matrix. + ÷ ?
+
represented by only one set of numbers 11. –
as given in any one of the alternatives. + ÷ + ÷
÷
+
The sets of numbers given in the ÷ +

alternatives are represented by two (a) (b) (c) (d)

classes of alphabets as in the two given ?
17.
matrices. The columns and rows of
Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and
those of Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter (a) (b) (c) (d)
from these matrices can be represented
first by its row and then the column 12.
?
number.
Matrix I
0 1 2 3 4 ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
0 F A N O I
1 I O F A N 18.
2 A N O I F
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 O F I N A
4 N I A F O 13.
Matrix II ?
5 6 7 8 9
5 S E H B T ?
6 H S E T B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 B T S E H
8 E H T B S 19.
(a) (b) (c) (d) + +
+

9 T S E H B
+
+
+ +

6. NEST 14.
+

(a) 02, 56, 55, 59

(b) 14, 67, 66, 67
+

(c) 21, 76, 77, 76 θ ψ

(d) 33, 85, 88, 86 ψ φ φ θ
?
?
7. FAITH φ θ θ φ φ ψ φ
(a) 43, 42, 41, 78, 89
ψ ψ θ ψ θ
(b) 31, 34, 23, 76, 79
(c) 24, 31, 10, 59, 57 (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) 12, 20, 40, 68, 65
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) Considering row wise, both the figures rotate 180° and joined
together. The common line in the middle of the figure gets
disappear.
2. (a) Each row of the matrix contains one shaded circle with bar
lines in each subsequent step of a column is being removed.
3. (b) The shaded part inside the square moves from one corner to
another in clockwise direction, as we move from left to right in a row.
4. (b) The third column contains the line which is common to the
design in the first two columns.
5. (c) There are 3 outer figures (circle, triangle and square), 3 inner
figures (circle, triangle and square) and 3 types of
shading–plane, line and dark and inner figure becomes outer
figure in each step.
6. (d) From matrix I, E can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 32 or 44.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 00, 12, 24, 31 or 43.
From matrix I, S can be coded as 02, 14, 21, 33 or 40.
From matrix I, T can be coded as 03, 10, 22, 34 or 41.
Required answer – 13, 12, 14, 10.
7. (a) From matrix II, R can be coded as 57, 69, 76, 88 or 95.
From matrix II, O can be coded as 56, 68, 75, 87 or 99.
From matrix I, S can be coded as 02, 14, 21, 33 or 40.
From matrix I, E can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 32 or 44.
Required answer – 95, 75, 02, 32.
8. (b) From matrix I, S can be coded as 02, 14, 21, 33 or 40.
From matrix II, O can be coded as 56, 68, 75, 87 or 99.
From matrix II, L can be coded as 59, 66, 78, 85 or 97.
From matrix I, E can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 32 or 44.
Required answer – 33, 99, 66, 44.
9. (c) From matrix II, L can be coded as 59, 66, 78, 85 or 97.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 00, 12, 24, 31 or 43.
From matrix II, K can be coded as 58, 65, 77, 89 or 96.
From matrix I, E can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 32 or 44.
Required answer – 85, 31, 77, 44
10. (a) From matrix II, L can be coded as 59, 66, 78, 85 or 97.
From matrix I, E can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 32 or 44.
From matrix I, S can be coded as 02, 14, 21, 33 or 40.
From matrix I, T can be coded as 03, 10, 22, 34 or 41.
Required answer – 97, 32, 21, 34.
High Skill Questions
1. (a) In each column, second arrow rotate 90° anti-clockwise, so
answer (a) is correct for third column.
2. (c) As per order in column, both will be small English alphabets.
3. (c) In each column, third figure contains to half parts of
first figure, placed first on one another, so answer (c) is
correct.
4. (b) Half figures are joined in such a way to produce a complete
figure, so figure (b) will be correct.
5. (b) As per the pattern in first and second column, answer figure
must have three rectangles as mentioned in figure (b).
11. (b) The first figure in each row is completely unshaded, the second
one has one-fourth part shaded and the third-one is half shaded.
12. (b) In each figure, the circles are towards the longer line.
The number of the lines in the first and third figures are identical
and number directions of circles are increased by one in each
step.
13. (b) The third figure in each row comprises of parts, which are not
common to the first two figures.
14. (a) There are three triangles, in which one has number of lines
and other is shaded. The figures has different number of legs.
15. (d) Each row and column contains three black and four white
stars.
16. (d) From matrix I, D can be coded as 00, 14, 23, 32 or 41.
From matrix II, R can be coded as 57, 66, 75, 89 or 98.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 03, 12, 21, 30 or 44.
From matrix II, W can be coded as 55, 69, 78, 87 or 96.
Required answer – 14, 89, 12, 78.
17. (b) From matrix I, B can be coded as 02, 11, 20, 34 or 43.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 03, 12, 21, 30 or 44.
From matrix II, N can be coded as 56, 65, 79, 88 or 97.
From matrix I, D can be coded as 00, 14, 23, 32 or 41.
Required answer – 11, 21, 79, 41.
18. (a) From matrix I, B can be coded as 02, 11, 20, 34 or 43.
From matrix II, L can be coded as 59, 68, 77, 86 or 95.
From matrix I, O can be coded as 01, 10, 24, 33 or 42.
From matrix II, W can be coded as 55, 69, 78, 87 or 96.
Required answer – 11, 68, 42, 69.
19. (a) From matrix II, R can be coded as 57, 66, 75, 89 or 98.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 03, 12, 21, 30 or 44.
From matrix I, I can be coded as 04, 13, 22, 31 or 40.
From matrix II, N can be coded as 56, 65, 79, 88 or 97.
Required answer – 57, 12, 31, 56.
20. (a) From matrix II, L can be coded as 59, 68, 77, 86 or 95.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 03, 12, 21, 30 or 44.
From matrix II, M can be coded as 58, 67, 76, 85 or 99.
From matrix I, B can be coded as 02, 11, 20, 34 or 43.
Required answer – 68, 21, 58, 34.
6. (a) From matrix I, N can be coded as 02, 14, 21, 33 or 40.
From matrix II, E can be coded as 56, 67, 78, 85 or 97.
From matrix II, S can be coded as 55, 66, 77, 89 or 96.
From matrix II, T can be coded as 59, 68, 76, 87 or 95.
Requried answer – 02, 56, 55, 59.
7. (b) From matrix I, F can be coded as 00, 12, 24, 31 or 43.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 34 or 42.
From matrix I, I can be coded as 04, 10, 23, 32 or 41.
From matrix II, T can be coded as 59, 68, 76, 87 or 95.
From matrix II, H can be coded as 57, 65, 79, 86 or 98.
Required answer – 31, 34, 23, 76, 79
Matrix
8. (d) From matrix I, F can be coded as 00, 12, 24, 31 or 43.
From matrix I, I can be coded as 04, 14, 23, 32 or 41.
From matrix I, N can be coded as 02, 14, 21, 33 or 40.
From matrix II, E can be coded as 56, 67, 78, 85 or 97.
Required answer – 00, 04, 02, 56.
9. (c) From matrix II, H can be coded as 57, 65, 79, 86 or 98.
From matrix II, E can be coded as 56, 67, 78, 85 or 97.
From matrix I, A can be coded as 01, 13, 20, 34 or 42.
From matrix II, T can be coded as 59, 68, 76, 87 or 95.
Required answer – 57, 56, 01, 59.
10. (b) From matrix II, B can be coded as 58, 69, 75, 88 or 99.
From matrix I, O can be coded as 03, 11, 22, 30 or 44.
From matrix II, T can be coded as 59, 68, 76, 87 or 95.
From matrix II, H can be coded as 57, 65, 79, 86 or 98.
Required answer – 75, 22, 76, 79.
11. (d) The second figure in each row forms the outermost and
innermost part of the third figure, and the first one forms the
middle part.
167
12. (d) In each row, one figure is unshaded, the other has its upper part
shaded and the third one has its RHS part shaded. There are three
specified positions of the two triangles each of which is used only
once in a row. Also of the figures in each row have one triangle
shaded.
13. (c) Clearly, triangle figure in third row forms the outermost and
rectangle becomes inner most part of the third figure.
14. (d) There are 3 types of faces i.e. triangle, circle and rectangle, 3 types
of body, 3 types of hands and 3 types of legs, each of which is used
only once in a single row. So, the features which have not been used
in the first two figures of the third row would combine to produce the
missing figure.
15. (a) The third figure in each row having one lesser figure than
second figure.
16. (b) As per similar pattern in first and second row, option (b) will
correct answer in the sequence.
17. (d) Each line across and down contains one each of the three
symbols. In each line one symbol is black and one is upside down.
18. (b) Figure (b) will satisfy the similar trend in third row.
19. (c) Signs in square are moving 90° clockwise, option (c) is correct.
 Chapter

5
Completion of Figures
Completion of figures is also one of the most important chapter of non-verbal reasoning. In these types of questions,
a segment in a figure, generally a quarter is left blank. This incomplete figure is followed by few choices showing
the missing segment which if fitted in the incomplete figure, completes the figure.
Candidates are expected to be vigilant and be extra careful while selecting the correct option as sometimes, the
alternatives have very minute differences among them.
Example 1
Problem Figure Answer Figures

? (a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (d) Figure (d) will complete the pattern. For solving such problems, firstly complete
the figure by using pencil with following the trends in the rest of the figure. Then, compare this
imagined figure drawn in the blank space with the answer figure. The answer figure that
resembles with this imagined figure is the correct answer. For above example, completion by
imagination will give the following figure.

Now, we can say is the imagined figure, which resembles with answer figure (d). Therefore, figure (d) is
correct answer figure. Now, rub the figure drawn in blank space by pencil.
Example 2
Problem Figure Answer Figures

?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Solution (c) If option (c) is placed in the missing portion of the original figure, it completes the original figure
and the figure will look like the figure given below
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-18) In these questions, problem figure is given on the left side of the line, which is incomplete. One, out
of the four answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) can complete the same. You have to locate the answer figure which if inserted in the
problem figure without changing the direction completes the same.
Problem Problem
Figure Figure
1. 7. Answer Figures
Answer Figures

?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

8.
2.

? ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

9.
3.

? ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4. 10.

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
5. 11.

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6. 12.

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
170 Study Package for NTSE

Problem Problem
Figure Figure
13. 16.
Answer Figures
Answer Figures

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

14. 17.
?
× ×
× × ×

× ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
15. 18.

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-14) In these questions, a problem figure is given on the left side of the line, which is incomplete. One
out of the four answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) can complete the same. You have to locate the answer figure which if inserted
in the problem figure, without changing the direction, completes the same.
Problem Problem
Figure Figure
1. 5.
Answer Figures Answer Figures

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2. 6.

? ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

3. × × 7.
?
× ×
×
?
×
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4. 8.

? ?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Completion of Figures 171
Problem Problem
Figure Figure
9. 12.
Answer Figures Answer Figures

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

10. 13.

? ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

11. 14.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
In questions, the problem figures have been shown as a complete figure. The new portion, which is completed is shown
dark. Students can compare this portion to the answer figures. Only that identical answer figure is the required
answer to the given question.

1. (c) 5. (c) 9. (d)

(c) (c) (d)

2. (d) 6. (a) 10. (b)

(d) (a) (b)

3. (d) 11. (d)

7. (d)

(d) (d)
(d)

12. (c)
4. (a) 8. (c)

(a) (c) (c)

172 Study Package for NTSE

13. (c) 15. (c) 17. (a)

(a)
(c) (c)

18. (b)
14. (d) 16. (b)
×
(b)
(d)
(b)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 6. (b) 11. (b)

(c) (b) (b)

2. (c) 7. (c) 12. (a)

(c) (c) (a)

13. (b)
3. (a) × × × 8. (c)

× ×
× ×
(a) (c)
× × (b)

4. (d) 9. (b) 14. (a)

(d) (b)
(a)

5. (c) 10. (c)

(c) (c)

Answers
Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a)
 Chapter

6
Spotting Out the
Embedded Figure
In this chapter, a figure is given as an original figure followed by four answer figures. One of the answer figures is
embedded or hidden in the original figure. These non-verbal tests are designed to judge the candidate’s sense of
observation and analytical ability. Candidates are required to select the alternative that carries the correct figure
which clearly shows the embedded portion in the original figures.
Example 1 Figure (X) is embedded in any one of the four alternative figures. Find the alternative which contains
figure (X).

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (b) Figure (b) contains the figure (X). It can become more clear from the figure given below.

Example 2 Figure (X) is embedded in any one of the four alternative figures. Find the alternative
which contains figure (X).

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (b) The problem Figure (X) is embedded in the answer figure (b).
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) In each of the questions given below, you are given a figure (X) followed by four figures (a), (b),
(c) and (d) such that (X) is embedded in one of them. Find out the correct alternative.
Problem Figure
Problem Figure
1. Answer Figures 9. Answer Figures

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2.
10.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

3. (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

11.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

12.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

5.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

13.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

14.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

7.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

15.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

8.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Spotting Out the Embedded Figure 175
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-14) In each of the questions given below, you are given a figure (X) followed by four figures (a), (b),
(c) and (d) such that (X) is embedded in one of them. Find out the correct alternative.

Problem Problem
Figure Figure
1. 8.
Answer Figures Answer Figures
Y

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2. 9.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

3. 10.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4. 11.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

5. 12.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
6.
13.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
7.
14.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 6. (c) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 11. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (d). the answer figure (c). the answer figure (b).

2. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 7. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 12. (a) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (d). the answer figure (b).
the answer figure (a).

8. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in

3. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in the answer figure (b). 13. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (d). the answer figure (d).

9. (a) Problem figure (X) is embedded in

4. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in the answer figure (a).
14. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (b). the answer figure (b).

10. (c) Problem figure (X) is embedded in

the answer figure (c).
5. (c) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 15. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (c). the answer figure (d).

High Skill Questions

1. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 3. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 5. (c) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (b). the answer figure (b). the answer figure (c).

2. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 4. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 6. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (b). the answer figure (d). the answer figure (d).
Spotting Out the Embedded Figure 177
7. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 10. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 13. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (b). the answer figure (b). the answer figure (d).

8. (a) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 11. (b) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 14. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (b). the answer figure (b). the answer figure (d).

9. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in 12. (d) Problem figure (X) is embedded in
the answer figure (d). the answer figure (d).
 Chapter

7
Mirror and Water Images

Mirror Images
Reflection of an object into the mirror is called its mirror image. It is obtained by inverting an object laterally i. e.,
towards the sides.
In these types of questions, a key/main figure is given under which four alternatives are given. Candidates are
required to identify the figure that is the mirror reflection of the main figure. For this identification, remember that
the mirror image is always opposite to the original and of the same size.

Variable
LHS RHS
Constant
UP Down

For English alphabets and number, mirror images are as follow

English Alphabets
Letter A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Mirror A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Letter N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Mirror N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

Mirror Images of Small Letters

Letter Mirror Image
a j
b d
c c
d d
e e
f f
g g
h h
i i
Letter Mirror Image Letter Mirror Image
j s s
k k t t
I I u u
m v v
n n w w
o o x x
p p y y
p p z z
r r - -

Digit
Mirror 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Image 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 01
Mirror and Water Images 179
Water Images
The reflection of an object into the water is called the water image of that object. It is obtained by inverting an object
vertically.
Examples of formation of water images of alphabets and numbers are given below.

Water Images of Capital Letters

Letters Water Image Letters Water Image Letters Water Image
A J S
A J S
B K T
B K T U
L
C C L U
M V
D D M V W
N
E E N W
F
F G O O X X
Y
P
G P Y
Q Z
H H Q Z
R
I I R - -

Water Images of Small Letters

Letter Water Image Letter Water Image Letter Water Image
a j s
a j s
b k t
b k t
c u
c I I u
d m v
d m n v
e w
e n w
f
f o o x x
g p y y
g p
h q z
h q z
r
I I r - -

Water Images of Numbers

Number 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Water Image 0

Here, some examples will give you a better idea about the type of questions generally asked in NTSE
examination.
Example 1 In the following question, choose Example 2 In the following question, choose
the correct mirror image of the figure (X) from the correct water image of the figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d)
given along with it. given along with it.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Solution (a) Option figure (a) is the correct Solution (c) Option figure (c) is the correct
mirror image of the given figure ( X ). water image of the given figure ( X ).
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-14) In each one of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image of the figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.
1. 12.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. 13.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
3.
14.

B
B
B
R R R R R
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
4.
Directions (Q. Nos. 15-20) In each one of the following
questions, choose the correct water image of the figure (Z) from
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along
with it.
5.
15.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6. (Z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

16. ×
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
× × × +
7.
(Z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

17.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
8.
(Z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) 18.

9.

(Z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
19.
10.

(Z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
20.
11.

(Z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Mirror and Water Images 181
High Skill Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) In each of the following questions, you are given a combination of letters and numbers followed
by four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given
combination.
1. STROKE 9. panipat
(a) STROKE (b) EKORTS (a) tapinap (b) qaniqat
T
(c) S ROKE (d) E KORTS (c) taqinaq (d) patpani

10. GANDHI1869
2. JUDGEMENT A
(a) GANDHI1899 (b) 6981IHDN G
A
(a) TNEMEGDUJ (b) TNEMEGDUJ (c) 9681IHDNAG (d) G NDHI1896
(c) TNEME GDUJ (d) JUD GE ME NT
11. DOCTOR 7829
3. QUANTITATIVE (a) ROTCOD 2687S
UANTITATIVE T T (b) DOCTOR 2687
(a) (b) EVI ATI NAUQ
Q
6
(c) QUANTITATIVE (d) EVITATITNAUQ (c) 287 ROTCOD
T 6
(d) RO COD 87
2
4. REASONING
A
(a) RE SONING (b) GNINOS AE R 12. Disturb
A
(c) GNINOS ER (d) REASONING (a) brut siD (b) brutsiD
(c) brutsiD (d) bisturD
5. WESTERN
(a) NRETSEW (b) RE SEW
N T
13. LATERAL
L L
(c) NRE SEW
T
(d) NRETSE
W
(a) ABETA (b) LARETAL
(c) LARETA
L
(d) LARETAL
6. DBV8478
V
(a) 8 48 BD (b) 8748VBD 14. REPUBLIC
7
(c) 8748DBV (d) 8748VBD (a) CILB UPE R (b) CILB UPE R
(c) CILBUPE R (d) CILBUPE R
7. 15UP5062 U
(a) 5062UP15 (b) 2605P 51 15. INDEPENDENCE
(c) 5905P U5 (d) None of these
1
(a) EC EDNEPEDNI
N

8. 247593 (b) ECNEDNEPEDNI

(a) 395742 (b) 395742 (c) ECNEDNEPEDNI
(c) 3 57 2 (d) 247593 (d) ECNEDNE PEDNI
9 4

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In each of the following questions, you are given a combination of letters or/and numbers
followed by four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d). Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the water image of the
given combination.
16. DISC-6 18. UP 15847
6 UP15 47 UP 47 UP1 47 UP 5 4
(a) CSID-6 (b) CSID- (a) 8 (b) 8 (c) 8 (d) 8 7
51 5 1
6
(c) DISC- (d) DISC-6
19. FRUIT
F FR URF FRU
17. TRAY (a)
TIUR
(b)
T U
I (c) TI (d) IT
R
YA T
(a) (b) YART
RA T 20. FAMILY
(c) Y
TRAY
(d) F
YL MA FAMI Y L FAMILY
(a)
MAF Y
IL (b) I (c) (d)

Answers
Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d)
 Chapter

8
Paper Folding
In this section of non-verbal reasoning, a figure is obtained by folding the piece of paper containing some design
along the dotted line. The resultant figure is to be selected out of a set of four figures given as alternatives
(a), (b), (c) and (d). This test is designed to judge the candidate’s understanding of forming a design by folding a
sheet of paper.
Here, some examples will give you a better idea about the type of questions generally asked in NTSE examination.

Directions (Ex. 1 and 2) In each of the following questions, find one correct answer figures from four alternatives which
resembles the pattern formed when the transparent sheet, having a design folded along the dotted line.

Example 1
Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (a) In this question, lower half of the square sheet has been folded over the upper half, hence the
answer is (a).

Example 2
Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (d) Similarly, on folding the transparent answer sheet along the dotted line the answer figure must
be figure (d).
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-13) In each of the following questions, find one correct answer figure from four alternatives which
resembles the pattern formed when the transparent sheet, having a design folded along the dotted line.
Problem 8. Problem
Figure Figure
1. Answer Figures Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2.
9.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3.
10.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

s
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4.
11.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. (a) (b) (c) (d)

12.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

6.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

13.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

7.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

184 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-18) In each of the following questions, find one correct answer figures from your alternatives which
resembles the pattern formed when the transparent sheet, having a design folded along the dotted line.
Transparent Transparent
Sheet Sheet
1. 8.
Answer Figures Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2. 9.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3.
10.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
11.
4.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. 12.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6. 13.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

7. 14.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Paper Folding 185
Transparent 17. Transparent
Sheet Sheet
15.
Answer Figures Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

16. 18.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 19 and 20) In each of the following questions, two figure on transparent sheets are given. When the left
figure is exactly placed on the right figure, Find from the option figures how the resultant looks like.
19. 20.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answers
Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d)
 Chapter

9
Paper Cutting
This chapter deals with the questions related with paper cutting. In the questions based on paper cutting, few
figures are given showing the manner in which a piece of paper is folded and then cut from a particular section. A
cut may be of varying designs. The design on the paper, after the cut which appears when the paper is unfolded is
shown by four answer figures. One of the answer figures correctly represents the design that the paper have after it
is unfolded.
The candidate has to select the one answer figure from the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) which would most
closely resemble the pattern when the paper is unfolded.
Example 1 Consider the following three figures, marked (x), (y), (z) showing one fold in (x) another in y and cut in
(z). The candidate has to select one figure from the answer figure (a), (b), (c) and (d), when showing the unfold position
of (z).

Problem Figures Answer Figures

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (c)
In figure (x),
square is folded diagonally from upper part.

In figure (y),
paper is refolded to a quarter triangle of square.

In figure (z),
a square is punched in the folded quarter triangle of square like.

So, each quarter triangle will have a square.

So, triangle answer figure can be drawn.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) In following questions, three figures (x), (y) and (z) showing a sequence of folding a paper are
given. The figure depicts the cut made on the folded paper. Select the answer from the alternatives, which would most closely
resemble the third figure, when it is unfolded.
Problem Figures Answer Figures
1.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

3..

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

5.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

7.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

8.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

9.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

188 Study Package for NTSE

Problem Figures Answer Figures

10.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

11.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

12.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

13.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

14.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

15.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-15) In following questions, three figures (x), (y) and (z) showing a sequence of folding a paper are
given. The figure depicts the cut made on the folded paper. Select the answer from the alternatives which would most closely
resemble the third figure when it is unfolded.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

1.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

3.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Paper Cutting 189
Problem Figures Answer Figures
4.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

5.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

7.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

8.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

9.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

10.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

11.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

12.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

13.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

190 Study Package for NTSE

Problem Figures Answer Figures

14.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

15.

(x) (y) (z) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Answers
Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c)
 Chapter

10
Counting of Figures
In these types of problems, a complex figure is given which includes different kinds of geometrical figures and
candidates are asked to find the number of lines, triangles, squares, rectangles or any other geometrical figure
present in such complex figures.

For solving such problems, students must observe the figure carefully and mark the desired geometrical figures in
complex figure and then counted and rechecked. This test are designed to check the analytical disposition of the
candidates. Examples given below, will give you a better idea about the types of questions generally asked in NTSE
examination.
Example 1 Count the number of triangles in the following figure.

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14

Solution (c) We must label the entire figure as shown below. A B C
Count the number of simplest triangles. These are ABH, BHO, BOD, BCD, DEF, DFO, FGH and
FHO. Thus, there are 8 such triangles. Now, count the number of bigger triangles, they are
HBD, BDF, DFH and FHB. Thus, there are 4 such triangles. H D
O

∴ The total number of triangles in the given figure = 8 + 4 = 12

G F E
Example 2 How many triangles are present in the following figure?
A

B E

C D

(a) 14 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 16

Solution (c) This figure includes 12 triangles.
∆ACD, ∆ABF, ∆AFE, ∆BCF, ∆CFD, ∆DEF
∆ACF, ∆AFD, ∆CAE, ∆ABD, ∆BCD, ∆CED
192 Study Package for NTSE

Example 3 How many parallelograms are there in the figure given below?
A B C D

F G
E H

I J K L
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 19 (d) 17

Solution (a) There are 18 parallelograms.

ABFE, BCGF, CDHG, EIJF, FJKG, GKLH = 6 parallelograms ACGE, BDHF, EGKI, FHLJ = 4 parallelograms
ABJI, BCKJ, CDLK = 3 parallelograms ADHE, EHLI = 2 parallelograms
ADLI = 1 parallelogram ACKI, BDLJ = 2 parallelograms

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. How many squares are present in the given figure? 4. How many triangles are contained in the given
figure?

(a) 9 (b) 10
(a) 9 (b) 12
(c) 11 (d) 14
(c) 13 (d) 20
2. How many triangles are there in the figure given
5. Count the number of rectangles in the following
below?
figure.

(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 10 (d) 8 (a) 21 (b) 18
(c) 19 (d) 20
3. Find the number of rectangles contained in the figure
given below. 6. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
F E D

H J
G C

A K B

(a) 9 (b) 8 (a) 8 (b) 9

(c) 14 (d) 11 (c) 16 (d) 11
Counting of Figures 193
Directions (Q. Nos. 7 and 8) These questions are based on 12. What is the number of hexagon(s) in the following
the figure given below. figure?

7. How many rectangles are there in the figure?

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 21 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 1

8. How many triangles are there in the figure? 13. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 18 (d) 12

9. Count the number of triangles in the

figure given below.
(a) 17 (b) 16
(c) 15 (d) 14 (a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 24 (d) 20

10. Count the number of triangles in the figure given 14. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
below.

(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32

(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
15. How many squares are there in the figure given
11. What is the number of rectangles in the following below?
figure?

(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 16 (d) 17
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

High Skill Questions

1. How many squares does the following figure contain? 2. Count the number of triangles in the figure.
(a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 16

3. How many straight lines are needed to draw the

figure?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 12

4. How many squares are there in the figure?

(a) 20 (b) 19 (c) 11 (d) 12
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 27
5. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
Directions (Q. Nos. 2-4) These questions are based on the
figure given below.

(a) 27 (b) 23 (c) 21 (d) 25

194 Study Package for NTSE

6. How many cubes are present in the figure? 11. How many squares are there in the following figure?

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 6

(a) 15 (b) 12
12. How many circles are there in the figure given below?
(c) 16 (d) 18

7. How many straight lines are present in the figure?

(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 14

(a) 11 (b) 12
13. How many squares are there in the following figure?
(c) 14 (d) 13

8. How many squares are there in the following figure?

(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 22 (d) 12

(a) 24 (b) 25
(c) 26 (d) 27 14. How many quadrilaterals are there in the figure
given below?
9. Count the number of triangles and squares in the
figure given below.

(a) 12 (b) 20
(c) 29 (d) 30

15. How many quadrilaterals are there in the figure

given below?

(a) 26 triangles and 8 squares

(b) 32 triangles and 8 squares
(c) 27 triangles and 9 squares
(d) 30 triangles and 10 squares
(a) 6 (b) 7
10. How many triangles are there in the following figure? (c) 9 (d) 10

16. How many parallelograms are there in the figure

given below?

(a) 22 (b) 18 (a) 14 (b) 15

(c) 20 (d) 24 (c) 18 (d) 16
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
A B C D Rectangles are — ABED, DEGF, ABGF, ACHF, BCHG, IJML,
1. (d)
LMON, IJON, IKPN, OPKJ, PQST, STVU, PQUV, OQRV,
OPRU, BCOP, BCJK, JKRU, GHRU, BCRU, and GHJK = 21.
E H
F G A
6. (c)
I J K L
F O E
M N O P
Squares are — AMPD, ABFE, BFCG, CGHD, EIJF, FJKG, C
GKLH, IMNJ, JNOK, KOPL, AIKC, BJLD, EGOM, and B D
FNPH = 14. ABC, ABD, ADC, AEB, AFC, EBC, FBC, FOB, BOD, COD, COE,
2. (c)
A AOE, AOF, AOB, AOC and BOC. Clearly, there are 16 triangles.
Q
7. (d)
A L B
G H
C D
J I E H
I J K
F T R

E F M N O G
B

Triangles are — AGH, HID, IFB, FEJ, JCG, FCD, EIA, JBA, D P C
CHB, and GED = 10.
S
3. (a) FE D
ABCD, EFGH, ADPL, BLPC, ALIJ, IJMN, MNDP, LBJK, JNOK,
NOPC, EIMF, HGOK, HJNG, HIMG, EKOF, EJNF, EIMF, AMNL,
G
H J
C DIJP, LNOB and PJKC.
There are 21 rectangles.

B
8. (d) Triangles are — ∆AQB, ∆BKH, ∆HRG, ∆GOC, ∆CSD, ∆DMF,
A K ∆FTE, ∆EIA, ∆QEH, ∆RBC, ∆SGF, ∆TDA . Clearly, there are 12
Rectangles are — ABDF, KBDE, AKEF, JCDE, JKBC, FHCD, triangles
HCAB, HJEF, and HJAK = 9. N
9. (d)
4. (d) A E
B I E J
A B

I J
M
H F
H F
O
L K
D C
G
D G C
L K
AIH, AIE, EJB, BJF, AHE, EBF, FCK, KCG, EHG, HEF, EFG, FGH, O
FGC, LDG, DLH, GHD, EHO, HGO, GFO and EFO = 20. HNF, LMK, AHI, HNM, BFJ, FMN, DGM, HDM, CGM, FMC, LOM,
Clearly, there are 20 triangles contained in given figure. MOK, IEN and ENJ.
Clearly, there are 14 triangles.
5. (a) B C
A 10. (d) A
D E D

F H E
G F
J C
I K G J B
L M
P Q H
N O
S T I
R U V Triangles are— ACF, CFG, AEF, AGJ, CGH, CGI, GHI,
ACI, ACG, ACJ and BCD. Clearly, there are 11 triangles.
196 Study Package for NTSE

11. (d) A F L B 14. (d) A G

B
M
I J
E J
K G O
I
E F
P Q
D H C K
L N
AELJ, AFKE, FKJL, HLBC, LIGB, HIGC, EJHD, ALHD and ABCD. D H C
Clearly, there are 9 rectangles. There are sixteen triangles in the main figure
12. (d) B
ABCD —AOG, GOB, BOF, FOC, CON, HOD, DOE, EOA, AOB,
BOC, COD, DOA, ABC, BCD, CDA and DAB.
C D
A E Similarly, there are 16 more triangles in section I J K L of the figure.
Hence, there are total 32 triangles.
F L M 15. (d) A F
B

G J K M J
I I
Q V R
H
CDMJIF ⇒ Number of Hexagon = 1 E N W U
G
X O
13. (c) A
T Y S
E O F K P L
C
B

D C D
H
BEA, EOA, AOF, AFC, BED, EDO, DOF, DFC, BOA, AOC, COD, ABDC, EFGH, IJLK, MNPO, QRST, VUXR, VUQW, UYTW, UXSY,
DOB, BAD, DCA, BAC, BDC, AEF, EDF, DEA, AFD, BAF, EAC, MUNI, MUOJ, UPLO, NUPK, AFUE, FUGB, UGDH and ECHU.
BDF and DEC. Clearly, there are 24 triangles. = There are 17 squares.

High Skill Questions ABM, MA1A 2 , CDR, RA 3 A 4 , BMO, MOA 2 , CPR, PRA 3 , MBA 2 ,
CRA 3 , MEW, RHZ, BEF, CGH, WXA 2 , YZA 3 , EMN, MNW, HQR
1. (d) A
I J
B and QRZ. Clearly, there are 20 triangles.
E K L
F
3. (c) AD, AA1, A1A 4 , DA 4
M
N O P Q
W BA 2 , CA 3 , CR, RA 3
S T U V EH, IL, SV, WZ, MR
R X
EW, HZ
H MB, MA 2 . These 17 lines are needed.
G Y Z
C D 4. (a) ADA1 A 4 , EHWZ, ABMU, MOA1A 2 ,
A1 A2
RA3A4, CDPR, BCOP, OPA2A3, EFIJ, FGJK, GHKL, IJNO, JROP,
ABCD, EFGH, IJKL, KLOP, OPTU, TUYZ, YZA1A 2 , MNRS, KLPQ, NOST, OPTV, PQUV, STWX, TUXY and UVYZ. Clearly,
NSOT, AVPU, QVWX, EKNO, LFPQ, STGY, UVZH, UXA 2 D, there are 20 squares.
RTCA1, AIMO, JPBW, ELSU, KFTV, QOYH, NPGZ, AJRU, 5. (c) A F B
OWDA1, IBTX and MPCA 2 . Clearly, there are 27 squares.
G M N H
2. (a) B C
S K R
A D
L J
E F G H
J K L
I E P I Q D
M N O P Q R
S T U V
C
X Y
W Z
The triangles are as follows.
ABC, AFC, FBC, GHI, GKI, KHI, FED, FEI, FDI, FMN, FMK, FNK,
A1 A2 A3 A4
PQC, PIC, IQC, ALF, GSM, NHR, JDQ, EPL and FBJ. Clearly,
there are 21 triangles.
Counting of Figures 197
6. (a) Number of cubes in first lower layer = 9 11. (c) A G B

I J

E O F

Number of cubes in second layer = 5

L K
Number of cubes in third layer =1 C
∴ Total number of cubes = 9+5+1 = 15 D H

7. (b) A
F H Clearly, there are total 7 squares in the figure namely, ABCD,
B
EGFH, IJKL, EIOL, IGJO, OJFK and KHLO.
J
E 12. (c)

G L 1 3
2 7
D C
I K 4 6
Straight lines — AD, DC, BC, AB, EK, FL, AC, FE, HG, BD, 8 5 12
JI and LK. 9 11

There are 12 straight lines in the figure. 13 10 16

A E G I K B
8. (c) 14 15

M N
Q R S T There are 16 circles in the given figure.
O U V W X
P 13. (a) A B
row 4
D L C C
F H J D G
There are five squares in upper row of the main figure namely. H
row 3
E I
AEQM, EGRQ, GISR, IKTS and KBNT. F row 2
Q
Hence, there are fifteen squares, five in each row of the main P S J
R
figure. Similarly, there are total eight squares, (AOVG, EUWI, row 1
GVXK, IWPB, MDHR, RHLT, QFJS, SJCN) and finally there are
O
three squares (AIJD, EKLF and GBCH) from main figure. N M L K
∴ Total squares = 26 Clearly, there are four, three, two and one squares in the first,
9. (b)
A second, third and fourth row (counting from bottom),
C D
respectively. Besides there are four more squares namely, :
B
DGQR, EHMO, FILN and RFQN = 14 squares.
F
E G H I 14. (d) A B C D E
J L
K M N O
L F
M
K G
N O P J I H

ABDG, GJLM, BDJL, JLNP, BCFG, CDGH, FGJK, and GHKL. Smallest quadrilaterals = ABML, BCNM, CDON,
MNO, MOP, KML, KJM, JMN, LMP, MNP, JCM, GJK , GKL, GJL, DOFE, LKJM, MNIJ, NIHO, OFGH = 8
FGJ, GHL, BGJ, DGL, BFG, DGI, BGE, DGH, DHI, BEF, BPG, Quadrilaterals formed with two quadrilaterals
ABC, ACD, ABD, AEI, BDI, DJL, JNP, LNP, GLM and GJM. = ABJK, BCIJ, CDHI, DEGH, ACNL,
There are 8 squares and 32 triangles in this figure. CEFN, LNIK, NFGI, BDOM, MOHJ = 10
A G I K Quadrilaterals formed with three quadrilaterals
10. (a) B
P Q = ADOL, BEFM, LOHK, MFGJ = 4
F
Quadrilaterals formed with four quadrilaterals
E
M N O = ACIK, CEGI, BDHJ, AEFL, LFGK= 5
R S Quadrilaterals formed with six quadrilaterals
D H J L C = ADHK, BEGJ = 2
ABFE → PEM, PGI, AEI, EIN, IKQ, QOF, IBF, INE, IEF Largest quadrilateral = AEGK = 1
EFCD → has another 9 triangles and 4 more triangles. ∴Total number of quadrilaterals = 8 + 10 + 4 + 5 + 2 + 1
EPR, EIJ, IFJ and QFS. = 30
Hence, total number of triangles = 9 + 9 + 4 = 22
198 Study Package for NTSE

15. (c) B C From the above diagram parallelograms are as follow

G (i) Parallelograms from the outer figure

A D = ABCD, AIJD, GBCH, ADHG,
H
GHJI, IJCB = 6
F E (ii) Parallelograms from the upper half of the figure
9 quadrilaterals are as follow = AGKE, GILK, IBFL, AILE,
~ AGDH, ~ BAFD, ~ CAED, ~ AGDF, ~ AGDE, ~ ABDH, GBFK, ABFE = 6
~ ACDH, ~ ACDF, and ~ ABDE (iii) Parallelograms from the lower half of the figure
16. (c)The figure in question has been labelled at different points as = EKHD, KLJH, LFCJ, KFCH,
shown in the following figure ELJD, EFCD = 6
∴ Total number of Parallelograms = 6 + 6 + 6 = 18
A G I B

K L F
E

D H J C
 Chapter

11
Cubes and Dice
Cube A cube is a three dimensional block, having 8 corners, 6 surface and 12 edges.
Dice Dice is a three dimensional figure with 6 surfaces. It may be in the form of a cube or a cuboid.
In this chapter, we will study about the problems based on cubes and dice which is as follow
F E
H
G Corner
Edge Face
(surface)
D C
A a B

Type I Problems Based on Cubes

(i) Volume of cube = a 3unit, if a unit is the edge length of cube.
3
(ii) The number of small cubes of edge ‘b’ unit to be cut from the large cube of edge ‘a’ unit is   .
a
 b
(iii) If a cube is painted on all its outer surface with a colour and further divided into small cubes, then different kind of small
cubes can be computed as given below
2
(a) Number of smaller cubes with three painted surfaces = 8
3 2 3
2 1 1 2
2 1 1 2 3
(b) Number of smaller cubes with two painted surfaces = ( N − 2) × 12
3 2 2 3 2
2
3 2 2 3 3
(c) Number of smaller cubes with one painted surface = ( N − 2)2 × 6
2
1
1
(d) Number of smaller cubes with no painted surface = ( N − 2) 3 2 1 1 2 2 2
1
(where, N is the number of divisions on the surfaces of the bigger cube) 2
1
3
2 1 1 2
2
Edge length of big cube
N=
2
3 2 2 3 3
Edge length of smaller cube
(iv) Counting the number of cubes in the figure.
To count the number of total cubes, firstly each column and then add column wise sum to find the total number of cubes
in the figure.
Example 1 A cube of side 6 cm is painted white on all of its surfaces and then divided into various smaller cubes of
side 1 cm each. Then, determine
(i) number of smaller cubes.
(a) 218 (b) 108 (c) 216 (d) 105
(ii) number of smaller cubes with three painted surfaces.
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 5 (d) 8
(iii) number of smaller cubes with two painted surfaces.
(a) 56 (b) 46 (c) 49 (d) 48
200 Study Package for NTSE
(iv) number of smaller cubes with one painted surfaces.
(a) 96 (b) 108 (c) 56 (d) 110
(v) number of smaller cubes with no painted surfaces.
(a) 54 (b) 64 (c) 61 (d) 69
Solution (i) (c) Total number of small cubes = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216
1×1×1
(ii) (d) Number of smaller cubes with three painted surfaces = 8
(iii) (d) Number of smaller cubes with two painted surfaces = (N – 2) × 12 = ( 6 − 2) × 12 = 48
(iv) (a) Number of smaller cubes with one painted surface = ( N − 2) 2 × 6 = ( 6 − 2) 2 × 6 = (4 ) 2 × 6 = 96
(v) (b) Number of smaller cubes with no painted surface = ( N − 2) 3 = ( 6 − 2) 3 = (4 ) 3 = 64

Example 2 Count the number of cubes in the given figure.

(a) 80 (b) 85 (c) 88 (d) 90

Solution (c) There are 9 columns have 5 cubes and 7 columns have 4 cubes each, 5 columns have 3 cubes each.
So, total number of cubes = ( 9 × 5) + (7 × 4 ) + (5 × 3 ) = 88

Type II Construction of Boxes

If cube or cuboid is unfolded, it may appear in any of the following forms.

1 a

1 1 2 1 2 1

2 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 d 2 3 4 b

5 4 4 5 5
a
6 5 6 5 6 6 c d b
c
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Opposite faces Opposite faces Opposite faces Opposite faces

 1 ↔ 5  1 ↔ 6 1 ↔ 4  1 ↔ 3
       
2 ↔ 4 2 ↔ 4  2 ↔ 6  2 ↔ 5
 3 ↔ 6  3 ↔ 5  3 ↔ 5  4 ↔ 6
       
Example 3 Select from the alternatives, the box that can be formed by folding the sheet shown in figure (X).

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) Only A (b) A, B and C (c) B and C (d) A, B, C and D

Solution (d) Sheet in figure (X) is folded, then the face bearing a ∆ appear opposite to a blank face, the face
bearing a sign appears opposite to another blank face and the face bearing a black dot appears opposite to the
third blank face. Clearly, all the four cubes shown in figures (A), (B), (C) and (D) can be formed.
Cubes and Dice 201
Type III Problems Based on Dice
A dice is a three-dimensional figure with six surfaces. It may be in the form of a cube or a cuboid. After observing
these figures, we have to find the opposite side of the dice.
E
H
A
D

G
F
B
C

Front surface → ABCD

opposite
Back surface → EFGH
Top surface → ADHE
opposite
Bottom surface → BCGF
Left surface → ABFE
opposite
Right surface → DCGH
Types of Dice
There are two types of dice.

1. Ordinary Dice
In this type of dice, the sum of opposite sides is not 7. But the sum of two adjacent sides are 7.
2. Standard Dice
In such type of dice, the sum of opposite sides is 7.
3 1
7=+ 4 5 5 4

(i) Ordinary (ii) Standard

dice dice

Here, In dice (ii), 1 + 4 = 5, 4 + 5 = 9, 1 + 5 = 6

Opposite of 1 → 6, Opposite of 2 → 5, Opposite of 3 → 4
Example 4 A dice is thrown four times and its four different positions are given below. Find the number on the face
opposite the face showing 6.
6 6 5 1
3 2 2 4 6 4 4 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Solution (a) From figures (A), (B) and (C), it is clear that the numbers 3, 2, 4 and 5 lie adjacent to the number 6,
so 1 lies opposite 6.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In the figures below marked (X) at left hand side is folded in such a way that it could form the
shape of a box. You have to choose one of the choices given as (A), (B), (C) and (D) that is similar as the box formed.
1. 5.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (b) ‘B’ and ‘D’
(a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (c) ‘B’ and ‘C’ (d) ‘A’ and ‘D’
(b) ‘B’ and ‘C’
(c) ‘B’ and ‘D’ 6. Which of the given net from the answer options when
(d) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ folded will results in the given cube?
2. +
@
÷

÷ +
(a) + @ (b) ÷ @
#

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) ÷

(c) + (d) ÷ @ +
(a) ‘A’ and ‘D’
(b) ‘C’ and ‘D’ @
(c) ‘A’ and ‘B’
(d) ‘B’ and ‘C’
7. Which of the following figures marks (A), (B), (C) and
(D) can be fitted suitably in the figure marked ( X)?
3.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) Only A (b) Only B
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D) (c) Only C (d) Only D
(a) ‘C’ and ‘D’ 8. Which number is opposite to 3?
(b) ‘A’ and ‘D’
(c) ‘B’ and ‘C’ 6 5 3 2
(d) ‘B’ and ‘D’ 3 1 2 4 5 1 3 6
4. (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

9. If the total number of dots on opposite faces of a dice

is 7. Find the correct figure among the following.

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) Only ‘A’ (b) ‘B’ and ‘C’ (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) ‘A’ and ‘C’ (d) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘D’
Cubes and Dice 203
10. Which one of the following figures is correct, if total 13. If number 1 is marked on the bottom, which number
number of dots on opposite faces of a dice always will be on the top?
remains 7?

(I) (II)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6

11. Which number is opposite to face 3? 14. If number 4 is placed on the bottom, which number
will be on the top?
2 3 4
1 3 1 5 2 3

(I) (II) (III)

(I) (II)
(a) 1 (b) 6 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
(c) 5 (d) 4
15. All the sides of the dice are painted with the paints
12. If the bottom face is marked as number 1, green, blue, red, yellow, orange and white. Some of
which number will be on the top among the following the faces of the dice are visible. Which colour will be
two figures? on the top when bottom is Blue?

White n ge
Ora
Blue Red
Green Yellow
(I) (II)
(I) (II)
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) Orange (b) Red (c) White (d) Yellow

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1 and 2) Read the following 4. Which of the following does not form correct pair on
information carefully and answer the questions that follow. opposite faces?
(a) Circle-rectangle
An electronic dealer selling colour TVs, VCD players and (b) Pentagon-cross mark
computer (PCs), is offering stereo radio, movable trolley and (c) Rectangle-cross mark
stainless steel rack free with these. The item, which goes (d) Triangle-question mark
free with a particular item is written on the face opposite it
on a cube. Two views of the cube are shown below. Directions (Q. Nos. 5-7) Read the following information
CTV VCD carefully and answer the questions that follow.
D
VC PC
Rack Trolley Ram paint a cubical box with three different colours,
green, white and yellow with instructions that two
1. Stereo radio is being offered free with opposite faces must have the same colour. He was asked
(a) colour TV (b) computer
to cut this box into twenty seven small cubes of equal
(c) VCD (d) VCD or TV
size.
2. The item offered free with the computer is
(a) stainless steel rack (b) trolley
5. How many small cubes will be there with no face
(c) radio (d) radio or trolley painted at all?
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 4 (d) 1
Directions (Q. Nos. 3 and 4) Study carefully the three
views of the same cube shown below and then answer the 6. How many cubes will be there with all the three
questions. colours on them?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 4

7. How many cubes will be there with only one face

3. The figure on the face opposite the triangle is painted in blue?
(a) pentagon (b) circle (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) question mark (d) rectangle (c) 2 (d) 3
204 Study Package for NTSE

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-10) Count the number of cubes in Directions (Q. Nos. 12-14) Read the following
the given figures. information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
8. The six faces of a cube are coloured black, brown, green,
red, white and blue.
(i) Red is opposite to black.
(ii) Green is between red and black.
(iii) Blue is adjacent to white.
(iv) Pink is adjacent to blue.
(v) Red is at the bottom.
12. Which colour is opposite to pink colour?
(a) White (b) Red (c) Green (d) Blue
(a) 68 (b) 69
(c) 70 (d) 71 13. The four colours adjacent to one another are
(a) black, blue, pink and red (b) black, blue, pink and white
9. (c) black, blue, red and white (d) black, pink, red and white

14. Which colour of the following, can be deduced from (i)

and (v)?
(a) Black is on the top (b) Blue is on the top
(c) Pink is on the top (d) Red is on the top
(a) 25 (b) 35 15. A cube has six different symbols drawn over its six
(c) 32 (d) 34 faces. The symbols are •, , ∆, ×, # and >→. Three
10. different positions of the cube are shown in figures (I),
(II) and (III) below.

(I) (II) (III)

Which symbol is opposite to triangle?
(a) >→ (b) (c) × (d) •
(a) 45 (b) 46
16. The opposite faces of Dice X are :
(c) 48 (d) 49
[(1, 3), (4, 5), (2, 6)]
11. From a 10 × 10 × 10 cube, which is formed by
combinations of 1 × 1 × 1 cubes, a layer of the smaller The opposite faces of Dice Y are :
cubes is removed, at each corner. What will be the [(2, 1), (5, 4), (3, 6)]
number of 1 × 1 × 1 cubes present in this new cube? Which figure can represent both Dice X and Dice Y
(a) 900 with faces shown below ?
(b) 488
3 6 4 2
(c) 512 5 2 6 5
1 5 2 3
(d) 729
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (d) The half shaded faces are opposite to each other. On careful
observation of figure (X), we can find that cube ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are
possible.
2. (a) On careful study of the figure (X), we can observe that on
folding the figure (X), cubes ‘A’ and ‘D’ can be formed.
3. (a) As per the given question, two dots can not be adjacent.
Hence, figure A, C and D are similar to the figure (X).
4. (c) The shaded face and the face bearing the square will lie
opposite to each other. So, the cubes ‘B’ and ‘D’ cannot be
formed. Cubes ‘A’ and ‘C’ can be formed by folding the figure (X).
5. (c) The figure (X) is similar to form E. So, the four triangular
positions combine to form a single face of the cube. Therefore,
cubes ‘A’ and ‘D’ cannot be formed. As per the pattern cubes ‘B’
and ‘C’ can be formed.
6. (b) From the given figure, +, @ and ÷ are adjacent to each other
and they cannot be opposite to each other. In net (a), + and @, in
net (c) ÷ and @, in net (d), ÷ and + are opposite to each other, so
these nets are incorrect.
Hence, only net (b) is correct.
7. (a) Only figure ‘A’ can be formed by folding the figure (X).
Cubes and Dice
8. (c) From figures I, III and IV, it is clear that numbers 6, 1, 5 and 2
are adjacent to 3. So, number 4 is opposite to 3.
9. (c) Since, the sum of the number of dots on opposite faces of the
block is always 7, we cannot get 1 dot adjacent to 6 dots, 2 dots
adjacent to 5 dots and 3 dots adjacent to 4 dots. So, the figures
‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’ cannot be correct.
10. (a) Since, the sum of the number of dots on opposite faces of the
block is always 7, we cannot get 1 dot adjacent to 6 dots,
2 dots adjacent to 5 dots and 3 dots adjacent to 4 dots. So, the
figures ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ cannot be correct.
11. (b) It is clear from the given figures that the numbers 1, 2, 4 and 6
appear adjacent to number 3. Therefore, none of these can
appear opposite to number 3. Therefore, number 6 appears
opposite to number 3.
High Skill Questions
1. (c) Since, neighbouring faces of VCD have CTV, rack, trolley and
PC, it follows that stereo radio is written opposite the VCD and
hence, is offered free with it.
2. (a) Considering the neighbouring of rack (figure I), these are VCD,
CTV, radio (which is opposite to VCD) and trolley (PC) cannot be its
neighbour, because then, it goes free with CTV, (which is not true).
Hence, rack must be free with a Personal computer.
3. (c) The neighbouring faces of the face having a triangle on it have
circle, cross mark, rectangle and pentagon marked on these as
can be seen from figures (I) and (III). Therefore, the question mark
must be opposite the triangle.
4. (b) Pentagon is opposite the cross mark.
5. (d) Number of smaller cubes without painted (no surface
painted) = (N − 2 )3
[Q 27 smaller cubes, it means N = 3]
= (3 − 2 )3 = 1
6. (c) Numbers of cubes have all three colours = 8, because all
corner cubes have all three colours.
7. (c) Total number of cubes having colour on one face
= (N − 2 )2 × 6
= (3 − 2 )2 × 6 = 6
But only two faces have blue colour, so number of cubes will be
6
there with only one face painted blue = × 2 = 2
6
8. (b) In the figure, there are 11 columns containing 4 cubes each, 7
columns containing 3 cubes each and 2 columns containing
2 cubes each.
∴ Total number of cubes = (11 × 4) + (7 × 3) + (2 × 2 )
= 44 + 21 + 4 = 69
9. (b)∴ Total number of cubes = 5 × 3 + 3 + 6 + 6 + 2 + 3 = 35
10. (b) There are 21 columns containing 2 cubes each and
4 columns of 1 cube each. So, the number of cubes in this figure
= (21 × 2 ) + (4 × 1) = 46
205
12. (b) It is clear from the figures that 4, 5, 2 and 6 dots cannot
appear opposite to 3 dots. So, 1 dot appears opposite to 3 dots.
Therefore, if 1 dot is at the bottom, then 3 dots will be on the top.
13. (d) It is clear from the two positions of a dice, that 1 is opposite
to 6.
14. (a) It is clear from the figures that 2, 4, 3 and 5 dots cannot appear
opposite to 1 dot. So, 6 dots appear opposite to 1 dot. Assume
that 6 dots are on the face opposite to 1 dot in the two figures
and rotating figure I in the position of figure II, we get that 3 dots
are opposite to 4 dots. Therefore, if 4 dots will be on the bottom,
then 3 dots will be on the top.
15. (b) By rotating first dice in the position of second dice, we get the
blue colour opposite to red colour. Therefore, if blue is on the top,
then red will be at the bottom.
11. (c) A 10 × 10 × 10 cubes have 10 cubes of 1 × 1× 1 cubes along its
length, breadth and width each. If we remove a layer of 1 × 1 × 1
cubes (the smaller cubes), then the new cubes will have
following dimensions
Length = 10 − 1 − 1 = 8
Breadth = 10 − 1 − 1 = 8
Width = 10 − 1 − 1 = 8
So, the number of 1 × 1 × 1 cubes in this 8 × 8 × 8 cube
= 8 × 8 × 8 = 64 × 8 = 512
Sol. (Q. Nos. 12-14)
On the basis of the given informations, the given cube looks like
having colours on the faces as given below.
Top Black
Side 4
Pink
Side 2
White Side 1 Side 3
Blue Green
Bottom Red
12. (a) Side 4 is pink coloured and the opposite will be side 2, which
is coloured white.
13. (d) Black, pink, red and white are adjacent colours, which lie
respectively on top, side 4, bottom and side 2.
14. (a) Red is opposite to black and red is at the bottom implies
‘black is on the top’.
15. (a) Arrow is opposite to triangle, because •, , # and × are
adjacent figures.
16. (d) In figure (a), 3 and 1 are adjacent to each other, so this dice is
incorrect for Dice X.
In figure (b) and (c), 6 and 2 are adjacent to each other, so this
dice is incorrect for Dice X.
In figure (d), no opposite faces of Dice X and Y are adjacent to
each other. So, option (d) is the correct figure.
 Chapter

12
Dots Situation
In such problems based on dot situation involve selection of a trace of similar condition in the alternative figures as
indicated in the problem figure.
The problem figure contains dots placed in the spaces enclosed between the combinations of geometrical figures
like triangle, square, circle etc. Select in one of these dots, we observe the region in which the dot is enclosed, i.e., to
which of the four figures is this region common. The candidates, now has to observe for such a region in the four
alternatives given. After having found it the same procedure has to be repeated to find the other dot if any.
Examples given below will give you a better idea about the type of questions generally asked in NTSE examination.

Example 1 From amongst the figures marked Example 2 From amongst the figure marked
(a), (b), (c) and (d) select the figure, which satisfies (a), (b), (c) and (d) select the figure, which satisfies
the same conditions of placement of dots as in the name conditions of placement of dots as in
figure. (X). figure ( X ).

(X) (a) (b) (c ) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (c) In figure (X), the dot lies in the Solution (b) In figure (X), the dot lies in the
region common to the circle and triangle. Such a region common to the circle, triangle, rectangle.
region is present in figure (c). Such a region is present in figure (b).

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-13) In each of the following question, there is a diagram marked (X), with one or more dots placed
in it. This diagram is followed by four other figures, marked (a), (b), (c) and (d) only one of which is such as to make possible
the placement of the dot (s) satisfying the same conditions as in the original diagram. Find the correct alternative in each
case.

1. 3.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2. 4.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Dots Situation 207
5. 9.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
10.
6.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) 11.
7.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
12.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

8.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
13.
(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) In each of the following questions, there is a diagram marked (X), with one or more dots placed in it.
This diagram is followed by four other figures, marked (a), (b), (c) and (d) only one of which is such as to make possible the
placement of the dot (s) satisfying the same conditions as in the original diagram. Find the correct alternative in each case.
1. 6.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

2. 7.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

3. 8.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4. . 9.
.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)
5. 10.

(X) (a) (b) (c) (d) (X) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Elementary Level Questions

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a)
High Skill Questions
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
 Chapter

13
Grouping of
Identical Figures
Grouping of different figures on the basis of certain common properties/qualities, is called grouping of identical
figures.
In this chapter, we have a set of few figures or geometrical shapes which are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on. We are
required to analyse these figures and classify them into groups consisting of figures having same properties.
Grouping of figures can be done on the basis of their shape, orientation, the number of elements and other such
characteristics. The best answer is to be selected from a given set of fairly close alternatives.
Examples given below, will give you a better idea about the type of questions generally asked in NTSE examinations.
Direction (Ex. 1) In the following question, group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once .

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (7, 8, 9); (2, 4, 3); (1, 5, 6) (b) (1, 3, 2); (4, 5, 7); (6, 8, 9)
(c) (1, 6, 8); (3, 4, 7); (2, 5, 9) (d) (1, 6, 9); (3, 4, 7); (2, 5, 8)
Solution (d) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures (1), (6) and (9) can be grouped together, as
they all are triangles. Figures (3), (4) and (7) can be grouped together, as they all are quadrilaterals and figures
(2), (5) and (8) can be grouped together, as they all are pentagons.

Direction (Ex. 2) There are two classes of three figures each. Class ‘A’ figures differ in certain way from the figures in class
‘B’. Which two of the four answer figures belong to class ‘A’?
Answer Figures

Class A Class B (1) (2) (3) (4)

(a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 2 and 4 (d) Both 2 and 3
Solution (d) By observing the given figures, we found that, each figure in class ‘A’ consists of two similar closed
figures, which are placed one inside the other.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) In each of the following question, group the given figures into three classes using each figure only
once.
1.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6)

(a) (1, 4); (2, 3); (5, 6) (b) (1, 5); (2, 6); (4, 3) (c) (1, 6); (2, 3); (4, 5) (d) (1, 2); (3, 6); (4, 5)

2.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 3, 4); (6, 7, 8); (2, 5, 9) (b) (1, 2, 3); (4, 5, 6); (7, 8, 9) (c) (1, 5, 9); (2, 4, 7); (3, 6, 8) (d) (3 7, 8); (1, 6, 5); (4, 2, 9)

3.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 5, 7); (2, 4, 6); (3, 9, 8) (b) (1, 5, 7); (2, 4, 8); (3, 6, 9) (c) (1, 5, 7); (4, 8, 9); (2, 3, 6) (d) (1, 5, 7); (3, 8, 9); (2, 4, 6)

4.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 4, 9); (2, 6, 8); (3, 5, 7) (b) (1, 4, 5); (3, 6, 8); (2, 7, 9) (c) (1, 4, 6); (2, 7, 8); (3, 5, 9) (d) (1, 3, 6); (2, 4, 7); (5, 8, 9)

5.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 2, 4); (3, 5, 6); (8, 7, 9) (b) (9, 7, 6); (5, 3, 1); (4, 8, 2) (c) (2, 3, 4); (7, 6, 5); (9, 8, 1) (d) (1, 4, 7); (2, 6, 9); (3, 5, 8)

6.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 5, 7); (2, 3, 9); (4, 6, 8) (b) (1, 3, 9); (2, 4, 6); (5, 7, 8) (c) (3, 4, 7); (2, 4, 9); (1, 6, 8) (d) (6, 7, 9); (1, 3, 4); (2, 4, 8)

7.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 2, 3); (4, 8, 9); (5, 7, 6) (b) (4, 5, 7); (3, 1, 2); (7, 8, 9) (c) (1, 3, 7); (4, 8, 9); (2, 5, 6) (d) (3, 5, 6); (8, 7, 4); (9, 1, 2)

8.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 4, 8); (2, 5, 7); (3, 9, 6) (b) (1, 4, 6); (2, 5, 8); (3, 7, 9) (c) (1, 4, 6); (2, 5, 7); (3, 8, 9) (d) (1, 2, 3); (4, 5, 6); (7, 8, 9)

9.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 5, 6); (2, 3, 4); (7, 8, 9) (b) (1, 2, 4); (3, 5, 8); (6, 7, 9) (c) (5, 6, 7); (1, 2, 4); (3, 8, 9) (d) (1, 2, 4); (3, 5, 7); (6, 8, 9)
210 Study Package for NTSE

10.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 5, 7), (2, 3, 8), (4, 6, 9) (b) (3, 6, 7), (1, 4, 8), (2, 5, 9) (c) (1, 4, 9), (2, 5, 6), (3, 7, 8) (d) (1, 2, 6), (3, 4, 5), (7, 8, 9)

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) In each of the following questions, group the given figures into three classes using each figure only
once.
1.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8)

(a) (1, 4, 6); (3, 5); (2, 7, 8) (b) (2, 5, 8); (1, 3, 8); (4, 6) (c) (3, 7); (14, 5); (2, 5, 8) (d) (2, 5, 8); (1, 6); (4, 7)

2.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 5, 8); (3, 4, 7); (2, 6, 9) (b) (1, 3, 6); (4, 5, 9); (2, 7, 8) (c) (1, 3, 6); (2, 5, 7); (4, 8, 9) (d) (6, 7, 8); (1, 3, 7); (2, 4, 9)

3.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 5, 8); (2, 6, 7); (3, 4, 9) (b) (1, 5, 7); (2, 6, 8); (3, 4, 9) (c) (1, 7, 8); (2, 6, 9); (3, 4, 5) (d) (1, 5, 8); (2, 4, 7); (3, 6, 9)

4.
A M B H W D E N U
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)
(a) (1, 3, 6); (2, 8, 9); (4, 7, 5) (b) (1, 4, 8); (2, 5, 7); (3, 6, 9) (c) (1, 4, 7); (2, 5, 8); (3, 6, 9) (d) (1, 4, 7); (3, 5, 8); (2, 6, 9)

5.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 4, 7); (3, 6, 9); (2, 5, 8) (b) (1, 4, 5); (2, 6, 8); (3, 7, 9) (c) (1, 7, 9); (3, 6, 8); (2, 4, 6) (d) (1, 6, 9); (2, 5, 8); (3, 4, 7)

6.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 4, 7); (3, 6, 9); (2, 5, 8) (b) (1, 4, 7); (2, 6, 9); (3, 5, 8) (c) (1, 6, 9); (2, 4, 7); (3, 5, 8) (d) (1, 5, 7); (2, 6, 9); (3, 4, 8)

7.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9)

(a) (1, 4, 7); (2, 5, 9); (3, 8, 6) (b) (2, 6, 9); (1, 4, 7); (5, 8, 3) (c) (1, 4, 7); (2, 3, 6); (5, 8, 9) (d) (3, 5, 1); (4, 7, 8); (6, 2, 9)

8. There are two classes of three figures each. Class ‘A’ figures differ in certain way from the figures in class B. Which
two of the four answer figures belong to class ‘A’?

Class A Class B (1) (2) (3) (4)

(a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 2 and 4 (d) Both 2 and 3
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1 and 4) are similar.
Figures (2 and 3) are similar, as they all are triangles.
Figures (5 and 6) are similar.
2. (a) By observing the given figures, we found that,
figures made by three lines = (1, 3, 4)
Figures made by four lines = (6, 7, 8)
Figures made by five lines = (2, 5, 9)
3. (b) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 5 and 7) are composed of two similar figures, one inside the other.
Figures (2, 4 and 8) contain a figure placed inside a different
figure. Figures (3, 6 and 9) are figures with thick boundaries.
4. (a) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 4 and 9) are the similar.
Figures (2, 6 and 8) are the similar.
Figures (3, 5 and 7) are the similar.
5. (d) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures of four sides
= (1, 4, 7)
Figures of one big and small circle = (2, 6, 9)
Figures (3, 5 and 8) are wide from one side and narrow from other.
6. (a) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 5 and 7) contain two similar figures, one inside the other. Figures
(2, 3 and 9) form a group of figures in which half portion of the figure is
enclosed inside that figure.
Figures (4, 6 and 8) contain two straight lines perpendicular to each
other dividing the figure into four parts.
High Skill Questions
1. (a) By observing the given figures, we found that, grouping the figure
on the basis of their use, figures (1, 4, 6) are used for lighting. Figures
(3 and 5) are used for playing and figures (2,7 and 8) are used for
learning.
2. (c) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 3 and 6) contain one complete circle each. Figures (2, 5 and 7)
contain a semi-circle each. Figures (4, 8 and 9) contain a triangle each.
3. (d) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 5 and 8) form a group of figure having a circle and a triangle. The
triangle is divided into two equal parts. Figures (2, 4, and 7) contain
figures which have curved portions. Figures (3, 6 and 9) form a group
of figures formed by straight lines only.
7. (c) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 3 and 7) have three petals, three rectangles and three
triangles, respectively. So, they should be grouped in one
group. Figures (4, 8 and 9) have one triangle, one rectangle
and one oval respectively. So, they should be grouped in
one group.
Figures (2, 5 and 6) have five petals, five triangles and five
squares, respectively. So, they should be grouped in one
group.
8. (b) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 4 and 6) have two triangles, two circles and two
hexagons, respectively.
Figures (2, 5 and 8) are similar in shape.
In figures (3, 7 and 9), there are eight small circles around
a big circle.
9. (b) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 2 and 4) are made of three lines.
Figures (3, 5 and 8) are made of four lines.
Figure (6, 7 and 9) are made of five lines.
10. (b) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(3, 6 and 7) form a group of figures which are divided into
three unequal parts.
Figures (1, 4 and 8) form a group of figures which are
divided into three equal parts.
Figures (2, 5 and 9) form a group of figures in which the
figures are divided into three parts in such a way that one
part is half and the other two parts are one-fourth of the
original figure.
4. (b) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 4 and 8) are made of three lines. Figures (2, 5 and 7) are
made of four sides. Figures (3, 6 and 9) have curved
portions.
5. (a) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 4, 7); (3, 6, 9) and (2, 5, 8) are similar.
6. (b) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 4, 7); (2, 6, 9) and (3, 5, 8) are similar.
7. (c) By observing the given figures, we found that, figures
(1, 4, 7); (2, 3, 6) and (5, 8, 9) are similar.
8. (c) By observing the given figures, we found that, each
figure in class A consists of two similar intersected figures.
 Chapter

14
Formation of Figures
Formation of figures refers to the use of pieces of different designs to construct a desired figure. It requires a high
spatial visualisation skill, as different fragmented parts of a figure are combined to form the desired figure.
In this chapter, two sets of figures are provided namely problem figure and answer figures. A candidate is asked to
arranged the different components of the problem figure, so as to form one of the answer figure.
Besides this, there are questions in which one problem figure is given and the candidate is asked to find out the
correct answer figure in which all the pieces which are required to form the question figure are present.
Examples given below, will give you a better idea about the types of questions generally asked in NTSE examination.
Example 1. In the question given below, find out which of the figures can be formed from the pieces given in the
problem figure.
Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (a) Figure given in option (a) can be formed by joining the pieces given in question figure, as shown
below.

Example 2. In the question given below, find out which of the figures can be formed from the pieces given in the
problem figure.
Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the pieces given in question figure, as shown below.
Formation of Figures 213
Example 3. In the question given below, find the figure given in answer figures, that can form the problem figure.
Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (a) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given in option (a), as shown below.

Example 4. Which of the following answer figure can be combined with the question figure, so as to form a square.
Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Solution (a) Figure given in option (a) will make a square by joining with the given problem figure, as shown
below.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-9) In each of the following question, find the figure given in the answer choices, that can form the problem
figure.
1. Problem Figure Answer Figures 5. Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6.
2.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 7.

3.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 8.

4.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 9.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

214 Study Package for NTSE

10. Which of the following answer figure can be combined 11. Which of the answer figure can be combined with the
with the problem figure, so as to form a square. problem figure, so as to form a circle.
Problem Figure Answer Figures Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-11) In each of the following question, find out which of the figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) can be formed
from the pieces given in problem figure.
1. Problem Figure Answer Figures
9. Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
2.
10.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
3.
11. Problem Figure

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4.
Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

12. Which of the following answer figure can be combined

(a) (b) (c) (d) with the problem figure, so as to form a square.

6. Problem Figure Answer Figures

(a) (b) (c) (d)

7. (a) (b) (c) (d)

13. Which of the following answer figure can be combined
with the problem figure, so as to form a circle
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Problem Figure Answer Figures

8.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (c), as shown below.

7. (c) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (c), as shown below.
2. (c) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (c), as shown below.

8. (b) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (b), as shown below.
3. (d) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (d), as shown below.

9. (d) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (d), as shown below.
4. (c) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (c), as shown below.

10. (a) Figure given in option (a) will make a sqaure by joining with
the given problem figure, as shown below.

5. (c) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (c), as shown below.

11. (b) Figure given in option (b) will make a circle by joining with the
given problem figure, as shown below.

6. (c) The problem figure can be formed by joining the pieces given
in option (c), as shown below.

High Skill Questions

1. (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the
pieces given in question figure, as shown below.

4. (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the

pieces given in question figure, as shown below.

2. (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the

pieces given in question figure, as shown below.

5. (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the

pieces given in question figure, as shown below.

3. (a) Figure given in option (a) can be formed by joining the

pieces given in question figure, as shown below.
216 Study Package for NTSE

6. (c)Figure given in option (c) can be formed by joining the pieces 10. (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the
given in question figure, as shown below. pieces given in question figure, as shown below.

7. (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the 11. (c)Figure given in option (c) can be formed by joining the pieces
pieces given in question figure, as shown below. given in question figure, as shown below.

8. (b) Figure given in option (b) can be formed by joining the

pieces given in question figure, as shown below. 12. (c) Figure given in option (c) will make a square by joining with
the given problem figure, as shown belolw.

9. (d) Figure given in option (d) can be formed by joining the

pieces given in question figure, as shown below.
13. (a) Figure given in option (a) will make a circle by joining with the
given problem figure, as shown below.

Chapter
1
Motion
Scalar and Vector Quantities
Scalar Quantities Those physical quantities which
have only magnitude are considered as scalar
quantities, e.g., time, speed, density, volume, work,
distance etc. are the examples of scalar quantities.
Vector Quantities Those physical quantities which
have magnitude as well as direction. Acceleration, force,
linear momentum, angular velocity, torque, current,
density etc. are examples of vector quantities.
Mechanics
The branch of physics which deals with the study of
motion of material-objects is called mechanics.
Mechanics can be broadly classified into following
branches
Kinematics
It is a branch of mechanics which deals with the study of
the motion of the objects without taking into account the
cause of their motion.
Statics
It is a branch of mechanics which deals with the study of
objects at rest. An object can be at rest, even when a
number of forces acting on it are in equilibrium.
Distance and Displacement
Distance The total length of the path travelled by a
body in any given time interval is called distance. This
is a scalar quantity and is never negative. Its SI unit is
metre.
Part-I : Physics
Displacement When a body moves from one position to
another, the shortest (straight line) distance between
the initial position and final position of the body, along
with direction is known as its displacement. It is a
vector quantity.
Comparison between Distance and
Displacement
l Distance is always greater than or equal to the
displacement i. e., distance ≥ displacement.
l The distance travelled by a moving body cannot be zero
but the final displacement of a moving body can be zero.
l When a body travels along a straight line in a positive
direction, its distance and displacement are equal and
have same sign.
l Zero displacement means that body after motion has
came back to initial position.
î Whenever a body travels along a zig-zag path, the final
displacement is obtained by joining the starting point and
finishing point of the body by a straight line.
Rest and Motion
l If the position of a body changes with time, then the body
is said to be in motion but if the position of the body
does not change with time then it is said to be in rest.
l The motion of an object is said to be one-dimensional,
when one of the three coordinates specifying the position
of the object changes with time. The motion of a car on
the road, the motion of train along a railway track and
an object falling freely under gravity are examples of
one-dimensional motions.
l The motion of an object is said to be two-dimensional,
when two of the three coordinates specifying the position
220 Study Package for NTSE
Initial velocity + Final velocity
of the object change with time. The motion of a planet Average velocity =
around the sun, a revolving in circle and an insect 2
crawling on a floor are examples of motion in two (ii) Uniform Velocity A body has a uniform velocity if it
travels in a specified direction in a straight line and move
dimensions.
over equal distances in equal intervals of time.
l The motion of an object is said to be three- (iii) Non-uniform Velocity When a body does not cover
dimensional, when all the three coordinates specifying equal distances in equal interval of time, the velocity is
the position of the object change with time. The motion said to be non-uniform velocity.
of gas molecules, the motion of bird in the sky and flying l The magnitude of speed and velocity of a moving body
kite are examples of motion in three dimensions. is equal only if the body moves in a single straight
line.
Speed l The average speed of a moving body can never be zero,
but the average velocity of a moving body can be zero.
Speed of a body is the distance travelled by it per unit
time. It is a scalar quantity. Its SI unit is m/s.
Distance travelled Acceleration
Speed =
Time taken Acceleration of a body is defined as the rate of change of
Speed is measured by speedometer, while distance is its velocity with time. It is a vector quantity. Its SI unit
is m /s 2 .
measured by odometer. Change in velocity
Acceleration =
Average Speed The average speed of a body is the Time taken for change
total distance travelled divided by the total time taken Final velocity − Initial velocity
to cover this distance. =
Total distance travelled Time taken
Average speed =
Total time taken Types of Acceleration
The average speed of some of the moving objects are given
Acceleration can be further divided into two types
below
(i) Uniform Acceleration A body has a uniform
S. No. Moving object Average speed acceleration if it travels in a straight line and its velocity
1. Light (in vacuum) 3 × 108 m/s or 1.08 × 109 km/h increases by equal amounts in equal interval of time.
2. Sound (in air) 332 m/s or 1195.2 km/h (ii) Non-uniform Acceleration A body has a non-uniform
3. Jet aeroplane 500 m/s or 1800 km/h acceleration if its velocity increases by unequal
4. Cheetah 27 m/s or 97.2 km/h amounts in equal intervals of time.
î Retardation A body is said to retarded if its velocity is
Uniform Speed A body has a uniform speed if it decreasing. When the velocity of a body increases with then
travels equal distances in equal intervals of time. its acceleration is positive, if velocity decreases with time
then its acceleration is negative and if a body moves with
uniform velocity, its acceleration is zero.
Velocity
Velocity of a body is the distance travelled by it per unit Uniform Motion and
time in a given direction. It is a vector quantity.
Its SI unit is m/s. Non-Uniform Motion
Distance travelled in a given direction
Velocity = Uniform Motion
Time taken
l A body has a uniform motion, if it travels equal distances
Displacement
= in equal intervals of time.
Time taken
l The distance-time graph for body having uniform
Types of Velocity motion is a straight line.
n
io

Velocity further divided into three types

ot
m
Distance

(i) Average Velocity If the velocity of body is always

r
fo
ni

changing, but changing at a uniform rate (the

U

acceleration is uniform), then the average velocity is

given by the arithmetic mean of the initial velocity and
final velocity for a given period of time, Time
Motion 221
Non-Uniform Motion Graphical Representation
l A body has a non-uniform motion, if it travels unequal
distances in equal intervals of time.
Distance-Time Graphs
l The distance-time graph for body having non-uniform l The distance-time graph of a body moving at uniform
motion is a curved line. speed is always a straight line.
Y A

d
ee
Distance

sp
Distance

rm
rm

fo
fo
ni n

ni
u

U
n- otio
No m
Y
O Time
Time
l The speed of a body is non-uniform, then the graph
between distance travelled and time is a curved line
Equations of Motion (called a parabola).
Let a body starts to move with velocity u, after time t, X A
and after covering a distance s, velocity becomes v and
acceleration of the body is a, then there are three relation

Distance
rm
among these quantities. These relations are called fo
u ni d
n- ee
equations of motion. No sp
(i) First equation of motion v = u + at Y
O Time
(ii) Second equation of motion v2 = u 2 + 2as
1 Speed-Time Graphs (or Velocity-Time Graphs)
(iii) Third equation of motion s = u t + at 2
2
l Speed-time graph for a body moving with constant speed
Distance travelled by the body in nth second is
a is straight line parallel to the time axis.
Sn = u + (2n − 1)
2
Speed

Constant speed
Motion Under Gravity
If a body is thrown upwards or falling downwards, then,
its motion is called motion under gravity.
Time
l If a body is projected vertically downward with some
l The speed-time graph for a uniformly changing speed
initial velocity, then equation of motion
will be a straight line.
(i) v = u + gt
n
tio

1
(ii) s = ut + gt 2
ra
le

2
ce
Speed

ac

(iii) v2 = u 2 + 2 gh
mr
fo
ni

If a body is projected vertically upward, then equations

U

(i) v = u − gt
Time
1
(ii) s = ut − gt 2 l Speed-time graph of a body is a straight line sloping
2
downwards indicates uniform retardation.
(iii) v = u − 2 gh
2 2

g = acceleration due to gravity

Un
where, ifo
v = initial velocity rm
Speed

re
u = final velocity ta
rda
h = height tio
n
t = time
Time
222 Study Package for NTSE

l Speed-time graph of a body when its initial speed is not to be uniform circular motion. In uniform circular
zero. motion velocity is not constant.
(ii) Non-uniform circular motion If a particle is moving

n
tio
ra
on a circular track such that its speed at each point on

le
ce
the circular path is not equal, its motion in
ac
Speed

non-uniform circular motion.

rm
fo
ni
U

Centripetal Acceleration
When a body executes uniform circular motion, then its
Time speed remains same but direction goes on changing i.e.,
l Speed-time graph of the body when speed changes at its velocity is changes, its means that there is an
non-uniform rate is curved line. acceleration in uniform circular motion, this
C
acceleration is called centripetal acceleration.
A v2
a= or a = rw2
ra rm
Speed

r
n
le ifo
tio
ce un

Direction of centripetal acceleration is always towards

ac o n -

l
N

centre.
l Centripetal acceleration is always same in magnitude
B
Time but its direction changes continuously.

l When a body moves with a constant acceleration its

acceleration time graph will as straight line as follows Centripetal Force
Acceleration The force which is needed to make an object travel in a
circular path is called centripetal force.
mv2
a F=
r
t1 t2 t3 F = mrω 2
o Time
Examples of Centripetal Force
Angular Velocity The angle turned by the body
l Centripetal forces acts on the earth moving round the
executing circular motion in 1s is called its angular
sun.
velocity.
∆θ l Electrons moving round the nucleus, require centripetal
Angular velocity ω = force.
∆t
l Cyclist bends his body towards the centre on a turn
If a body is moving on a circular path of radius r with while turning.
angular velocity ω then its linear velocity v = rω.
l Banking of road is to provide the sufficient centripetal
force to the vehicles.
Circular Motion Speed in Uniform Circular Motion The speed of body
When a particle moves along a circle of certain radius r, 2πr
moving along a circular path is given by v = .
its motion is known as circular motion. t
or
When a body moves in a circle, its motion is called Centrifugal Force
circular motion. l The virtual force that balances the centripetal force in
There are two types of circular motion uniform circular motion is called centrifugal force.
(i) Uniform circular motion If the magnitude of linear l Centripetal force is not the real force but it arises due to
speed of a body at each point on the circular path is acceleration of rotating frame.
equal (however its directions are different), it is said Its SI unit N-m.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. A body has an acceleration of −4 ms −2 . What will be 6. A car travelling at 20 km/h speeds up to 60 km/h in
value of its retardation? 6 s. Its acceleration will be
(a) −4 ms −2 (a) 1.85 m / s 2 (b) 1.00 m / s 2
(b) 4 ms −2 (c) 1.58 m / s 2 (d) 2.85 m / s 2
(c) Zero 7. The area under a speed-time graph represents a
(d) Nothing can be decided physical which has the unit of
2. If the time-displacement graph of a particle is parallel (a) m (b) m2 (c) m/s (d) ms −2
to the time-axis, the velocity of the particle is 8. If the displacement of an object is proportional to the
square of time, then the object is moving with
(a) uniform velocity
Displacement

A B
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration
9. A sprinter is running along the circumference of a big
O
Time sports stadium with constant speed. Which of the
(a) firstly infinity and then comes to zero following do you think is changing in this case?
(b) constant (a) Magnitude of acceleration being produced
(c) equal to acceleration of the body (b) Distance covered by the sprinter per second
(d) zero (c) Direction in which the sprinter is running
3. When body is moving along a circular path then its has (d) Centripetal force acting on the sprinter
(a) a constant speed (b) a constant velocity 10. The speedometer of a car measures
(c) no tangential velocity (d) None of the above (a) average speed (b) instantaneous speed
(c) acceleration (d) None of these
4. Velocity-time graph shown below shows that the body
has 11. Which of the graphs represents the motion with
A
uniform speed?
v
Distance

Distance

(a) (b)

B Time Time
O t
Speed
Speed

(a) a uniform acceleration (c) (d)

(b) a non-uniform retardation
(c) uniform velocity
(d) initial velocity OA and is moving with uniform retardation Time Time
5. In figure as shown below, the velocity
12. A body whose speed is constant
(a) has a constant velocity
Displacement

(b) must be accelerating

A (c) might be accelerating
(d) cannot be accelerating
13. A player completes a circular path of radius r in 40s.
O Time B At the end of 2 min 20 s. The displacement will be
(a) 2r (b) 2 πr (c) 9πr (d) zero
(a) decreases between point O and A
(b) increases between points A and B 14. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
(c) decreases between points A and B (a) Energy (b) Acceleration
(d) is zero throughout (c) Velocity (d) Force
224 Study Package for NTSE

15. Four car A, B, C and D are moving on levelled straight R

road. Their distance, time graphs are shown in the B
given figure. Which of the following is the correct
S T
statement regarding the motion of these case?

Speed
C
D P Q
A
Distance (m)

B
A
Time

(a) ST (b) QR (c) RS (d) PQ

Time (s) 17. Velocity-time graph as shown below shows that the
body has
(a) Car A is faster than car D
(a) uniform acceleration
(b) Car B is the slowest
(b) uniform retardation
(c) Car D is faster than the car C
(c) uniform velocity throughout its
(d) Car C is the slowest v
motion and has zero initial
16. In the speed-time graph for a moving object shown velocity
here, the part which indicates uniform deceleration of (d) None of the above
the object is? t

High Skill Questions

1. A cyclist moves from a certain point X and goes round 4. A driver is driving his car
Car
a circle of radius r and reaches Y , exactly at the other along a road. The driver
side of the point X. The displacement of the cyclist makes sure that speedometer
would be reads exactly 40 km/h. What A B
happens to the speed of the
car when it travels from A to B as shown in figure?
r (a) Speed remains constant
(b) Speed first increases then decreases
X O Y (c) Speed first decreases then increases
(d) Nothing can be decided
5. In 1.0 s, a particle goes from A to point B moving in a
(a) πr (b) 2 πr (c) 2r (d) 2 π/r semicircle of radius 1.0 m. The magnitude of the
2. A man walks 8 m towards east and then 6 m towards average velocity is
north. His magnitude of displacement which he (a) 3.14 m/s (b) 2.0 m/s
covers is (c) 10 m/s (d) zero
(a) 10 m (b) 14 m (c) 2 m (d) zero 6. The numerical rational of average velocity to average
3. A body is moving, as shown in the graph given below, speed is
represents the motion as (a) always less than 1
(b) always equal to 1
(c) always more than 1
(d) equal to or less than 1
Displacement

7. The displacement-time graphs A and B as shown

below for a body moving in straight path drawn on
the same scales. Then
Displacement
Displacement

O Time
(a) backward with uniform velocity
(b) forward with uniform velocity
(c) backward with non-uniform velocity
(d) forward with non-uniform velocity Time Time
A B
Motion 225
(a) slope of line in A with time axis is greater than the slope of 13. Which of the following is a one-dimensional?
line in B (a) Landing of an aircraft
(b) slope of line in B with time axis is greater than the slope of (b) Earth revolving around the sun
line in A (c) Motion of wheels of a moving trains
(c) slope of line in A with time axis is equal to the slope of line (d) Train tunning on a straight track
in B 14. The correct statement from the following.
(d) nothing can be said about the slopes
(a) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero
8. A body under the action of several forces will have acceleration
zero acceleration. (b) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero
(a) When the body is very light acceleraition
(b) When the body is very heavy (c) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform
(c) When the body is a point body acceleration
(d) When the vector sum of all the forces acting on it is zero (d) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero
acceleration
9. The displacement-time graph shown in figure
represents 15. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
Displacement

A. One-dimensional 1. Motion of freely falling body

motion
t1
B. Three-dimensional 2. Motion of billiards ball
motion
Time C. Two-dimensional 3. Motion of flying insect
(a) constant velocity motion
(b) velocity of the body is continuously changing D. Uniform circular 4. Artificial satellites moves
(c) instantaneous velocity motion around the earth
(d) the body travels with constant speed upto time t 1 and then
stops Codes
A B C D
10. The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The speed
(a) 2 1 3 4
of the tip of second’s hand is (b) 1 3 2 4
(a) 0.21 cm/s (c) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2.1 cm/s (d) 3 4 2 1
(c) 21.0 cm/s
(d) None of the above 16. Assertion If the displacement of the body is zero, the
distance covered by it may be zero.
11. The angular velocity of a scooter wheel is 40 rad/s. If
the diameter of the scooter wheel is 80 cm. Calculate Reason Displacement is a vector quantity and
the speed of the scooter in m/s? distance is a scalar quantity.
(a) 18 (b) 9 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
(c) 16 (d) 18 correct explanation of the assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
12. Which of the following velocity-time graph represent correct explanation of the assertion
uniform motion? (c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true
17. Assertion A body falling freely may do so with
(a) v (b) v
constant speed.
Reason The body falls freely, when acceleration of a
t t body is equal to acceleration due to gravity.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
(c) v (d) v correct explanation of the assertion
(c) If assertion is true, but reason is false
(d) If assertion is false, but reason is true
t t
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b)
5 100
6. (a) Initial speed = 20 km/h = 20 × = m/s 9. (c) If an object is travelling with uniform speed along a circular
18 18 path, then its velocity is continuously changing because its
5 300 direction is continuously changing.
Final speed = 60 km/h = 60 × = m/s
18 18 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c)
v ⋅u
We have v = u + at , a = 13. (d) Total time of motion is 2 min 20 s = 140 s. Its time period of
t
circular motion is 40 s so in 140 s athlete will complete 3.5
300 100
− revolution i .e., the circle be at diametrically opposite points
Acceleration of car, a = 18 18 = 200
6 18 × 6 i .e., Displacement = 2 r
14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d)
= 1.85m/s

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 9. (d) Upto time t 1 slope of the graph is constant and after the t 1 slope
5. (b) Displacement covered by the particle is zero i .e., the body travel with constant speed upto time t 1 and
then stops.
10. (a) 11. (c)
12. (a) Slope of velocity time-graph measures acceleration.
For graph a slope is zero.
A B
1.0m Hence a = 0 i .e., motion is uniform.

Diameter of circle = 2r = 2 × 1 = 2 m 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a)

Average velocity =
Displacement 2
= = 2 m/s 17. (d) When a body falling freely, only gravitational force acts on it
Time 1 in vertically downward directions. Due to this downward
acceleration the velocity of a body increases and will be
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) maximum when the body touches the ground.
 Chapter
2
Force and Laws of Motion
Force
Force is that cause which produces acceleration in the
body on which it acts. The direction in which a body is
pushed or pulled is called the direction of force. Its unit
is Newton and it is a vector quantity.
Effects of Force
A force can produce the following effects
l A force can move a stationary body.
l A force can stop a moving body.
l A force can change the speed of a moving body.
l A force can change the direction of a moving body.
l A force can change the shape and size of a body
Balanced and Unbalanced Forces
Balanced Forces
If the resultant of all the forces acting on a body is zero,
the forces are called balanced forces.
Though balanced forces cannot produce motion in a
stationary body or stop a moving body, they can,
however, change the shape of the body.
Unbalanced Forces
If the resultant of all the forces acting on a body is not
zero, the forces are called unbalanced forces.
Unbalanced forces can move a stationary body or they
can stop a moving body.
î 1. To move a stationary object, we have to push it with a force
greater than the opposing force of friction.
2. When we talk of a force acting on a body, it usually means
an unbalanced force.
Torque or Moment of Force
The turning effect of a force on a body is known as the
moment of the force or torque.
Moment of force or torque τ = F. d
l Moment or torque is a vector quantity having SI unit N-m.
Newton’s Laws of Motion
Sir Isaac Newton, who was a great physicist,
astronomer mathematician, propounded the law of
motion in his book Principia.
There are three laws of motion
First Law
A body at rest will remain at rest and a body in motion
will continue in motion in a straight line with a uniform
speed, unless it is compelled by an external force to
change its state of rest or of uniform motion.
First law defines inertia and is rightly called the law of
inertia.
Inertia
The tendency of a body to remain at rest or, if moving to
continue moving in a straight line, is called inertia.
Inertia is of two types
(i) Inertia of rest
(ii) Inertia of motion
l Mass is a measure of the inertia of a body.
l Heavy objects have more inertia than lighter objects as a
cricket ball has more inertia than a rubber ball of the
same size.
Examples of Inertia
l When a car or bus starts suddenly, the passengers fall
backward.
l When a running car or bus stops suddenly, the
passengers are jerked forward.
l When a hanging carpet is beaten with a stick, the dust
particle start coming out of it.
î 1. Newton’s first law of motion is called Galileo’s law of
inertia.
2. Newton’s first law of motion gives us a definition of force.
228 Study Package for NTSE

Second Law Examples of Impulse

The rate of change of linear momentum of a body is l A cricketer moves his hands backward while catching a
proportional to the force applied and it takes place in the ball.
direction of the force l Vehicles like cars, buses and scooters are provided with
Change in momentum
i. e., Force ∝ shockers.
Time taken l Bogies of trains are provided with Buffers.
mv
F=k , F = k ma
t
Q a = v (where, k is a constant)
Friction
 
 t If two bodies are in contact with each other, the property
F = ma, Force = mass × acceleration by virtue of which a force is exerted by them at their
point of contact to prevent one body from slipping over
The SI unit of force is newton (N).
the other, is called the friction and the force thus
exerted is called the force of friction.
Momentum Force of friction always opposes the relative motion
The momentum of a body is defined as the product of its between two surfaces in contact for a body moving on
mass and velocity. Its unit is kg-m/s. another it will always act in a direction opposite to that
Momentum = Mass × Velocity of the motion.
p = mv
Types of Friction
l Momentum is a vector quantity.
l If a body is at rest, its momentum is zero. Types of friction are
(i) Static Friction The opposing force that comes into play
Third Law when one body tends to move over the surface of another
Whenever one body exerts a force on another body, the body but the actual actual motion has yet not started is
second body exerts on equal and opposite force on the called static friction.
first body. Static friction is a self adjusting force and it adjusts itself
so that it becomes equal to the applied force.
Examples of Third Law
(ii) Limiting Friction The maximum static friction force
l During firing of a bullet the gun recoils back with a great
which comes into play, when one body is just at the verge
force.
of moving over the surface of the other body.
l To drive water boat forward the bamboo stick is pressed
into the land of water. Limiting friction ( f s ) = µs
l Jet aeroplanes utilise the principle of action and reaction. R = µmg
(iii) Kinetic Friction The opposing force that comes into
Law of Conservation of Momentum play when one body actually moves over the surface of
When two (or more) bodies act upon one another. Their another body, is called kinetic friction.
total momentum remains constant provided no external (iv) Sliding Friction It comes into play when one body slides
forces are acting. over the surface of the another body.
i. e., Total momentum before collision = Total momentum (v) Rolling Friction It comes into play when one body rolls
after collision over the surface of the another body.
Application of the law of conservation of momentum
(i) Motion of rocket (ii) Motion of jet aeroplane Coefficient of Friction
(iii) Recoil of a Gun (iv) Jumping from boat to the shore
Ratio of force of friction to the normal reaction. It is
represented by µ. Since it is a number and it has no
Impulse unit.
If a very large quantity of force is applied for a very short µ = F/R
interval of time, then the product of force and time is î Rolling friction is lesser than sliding friction. The limiting
called impulse. frictional force is independent of the area of contact but
Impulse = Force × Time depends on the nature of the material of the surfaces in contact
and their roughness or smoothness.
Its unit is kg-m/s.
Force and Laws of Motion 229
Methods of Reducing Friction l Two body sticks together due to friction.
We can reduce friction l Brake works on the basis of friction.
(i) By polishing l The transfer of motion from one part of a machine to other
(ii) By lubrication part through belts is possible by friction.
(iii) By proper selection of material
(iv) By streamlining the shape of the body
Disadvantages of Friction
(v) By using ball bearing l Friction causes wear and tear of the parts of machinery in
contact. Thus their life times reduces.
Advantages of Friction l Frictional force result in the production of heat which
l Walking is possible due to friction. causes damage to the machinery.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The action and reaction forces involved in Newton’s 7. A metallic ball strikes a wall and falls down whereas a
third law tennis ball having the same mass and velocity bounces
(a) must act on the same objects back. The reason for this is
(b) must act on the different objects (a) both suffer equal change in momentum
(c) may act on different objects (b) the tennis ball suffers a greater change in momentum
(d) None of the above (c) metallic ball suffers a greater change in momentum
(d) the momentum of the tennis ball is less than that of the
2. A long jumper runs before jumping to take long jump metallic ball
because
(a) he covers a greater distance 8. Which one of the following is wrong?
(b) he maintains momentum conservation (a) 1 kg-wt = 9.8 N
(c) he gains energy by running (b) Momentum is a vector quantity
(d) he gains momentum (c) Force is always conserved
(d) Momentum is conserved in the absence of an external force
3. Which one is a measure of inertia of a body?
(a) Momentum
9. A stone is tied to the middle of a string and suspended
(b) Mass from one end as shown in the figure. Here, S is the
(c) Velocity stone and O is the point of suspension. At what point a
(d) None of the above sharp jerk will break the string?

4. When an unbalanced force is applied to a body, then O

what quantity does not change?
(a) Its velocity
S
(b) Its momentum
(c) Its mass
(d) None of these
(a) Below the stone
5. A force acts on an object which is free to move. If we (b) At the point it self
know the magnitude of the force and the mass of the (c) Form above the stone
object, Newton’s second law of motion enables us to (d) Nothing can be decided
determine the object’s 10. A and B are two objects with masses 8 kg and 32 kg
(a) weight respectively. Then,
(b) speed
(a) A has more inertia than B
(c) acceleration
(b) B has more inertia than A
(d) position
(c) A and B have the same inertia
6. If action and reaction were to act on the same body or (d) Neither A nor B has any inerita
object then 11. Friction between any two objects is due to
(a) the resultant force would be zero (a) attraction between them
(b) the body would not move at all (b) repulsion between them
(c) Both a and b are correct (c) some adhesive forces between them
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct (d) irregularities on the surfaces
230 Study Package for NTSE

12. External forces 14. It is difficult to walk on surface because of

(a) are always balanced (a) absence of inertia
(b) never balanced (b) absence of friction
(c) may or may not be balanced (c) more friction
(d) None of the above (d) more inertia

13. Rate of changes of momentum gives 15. When a toothpaste tube is squeezed, its shape
(a) impulse changes, the force responsible for this is an example of
(b) force (a) balanced force (b) centripetal force
(c) momentum (c) unbalanced force (d) centrifugal force
(d) acceleration

High Skill Questions

1. When a bicycle is in motion, (without pendelling) the (a) 0.6 m/s 2 (b) 6 m/s 2 (c) 0.06 m/s 2 (d) 60 m/s 2
force of friction exerted by the ground on the two
wheels act
7. A ball of mass 150 g starts moving with an
acceleration of 20 m/s2 . When hit by a force which
(a) in the backward direction, on the front wheel and in the
forward direction on the rear wheel acts on it for 0.1 s, the impulsive force, is
(b) in the forward direction on the front wheel and in the (a) 0.5 N-s (b) 0.1 N-s (c) 0.3 N-s (d) 1.2 N-s
backward direction on the rear wheel
8. A driver accelerates his car first at the rate of 1.8 m/s2
(c) in the backward direction on both the front and the rear
wheels and then at the rate of 1.2 m/s2 . The ratio of the force
(d) in the forward direction on both the front and the rear wheels exerted at by the engines will be respectively equal to
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 2 (d) 3 : 2
2. A cylinder rolls up without slipping on an inclined plane
and, after reaching a certain height, rolls down without 9. A body of mass m collides against a wall with velocity
slipping then, the direction of the frictional forces on the v and rebounds with the same speed.The change in
cylinder acting parallel to the inclined plane are momentum is
(a) upwards at the time of rolling up and downwards at the time (a) zero (b) mv (c) 2 mv (d) − mv
of rolling down 10. You are marooned on a frictionless horizontal surface
(b) upwards at the time of rolling up as well as at rolling down
cannot exert any horizontal force by pushing against
(c) downwards at rolling up and upwards at rolling down
(d) downwards at rolling up as well as at rolling down the surface. How can you get out of it?
(a) By jumping
3. Which of the following is correct when a person walks (b) By spitting or sneezing
on a rough surface? (c) By rolling your body on the surface
(a) The frictional force exerted by the surface keep him moving (d) By running on the plane
(b) The force which the man exerts on the floor keep him moving
11. Certain observation and certain causes are listed in
(c) The reaction of the force which the man exerts on floor keeps
columns I and II respectively in this following.
him moving
(d) None of the above Column I Column II
4. A particle is moving with a constant speed along a A. First law of Motion 1. Change in linear momentum
straight line path. A force is not required to B. Second law of Motion 2. Action and reaction
(a) increase its speed C. Third law of Motion 3. Law of inertia
(b) decrease the momentum D. Impulse 4. F = ma
(c) change the direction
(d) keep it moving with uniform velocity Codes
A B C D A B C D
5. An object will continue moving uniformly untill (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
(a) the resultant force acting on it begins to decrease (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3
(b) the resultant force on it is zero
12. The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are
(c) The resultant force is at right angle to its rotation
connected by a massless spring. A force of 200 N acts on
(d) the resultant force on it is increased continuously
the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown, the 10 kg mass
6. A force of 5 N gives a mass m1 an acceleration of 8 m/s2 has an acceleration of 12 ms −2 , what is the acceleration
and a mass m2 an acceleration of 24 m/s2 . What of 20 kg mass?
acceleration would it give if both the masses are tied
together?
Force and Laws of Motion 231
mass M2 . If the surfaces are frictionless, the force
between the blocks is
10 kg 20 kg
M1
−2 −2
(a) 12 ms (b) 4 ms (c) 20 ms −2 (d) None of these M2

13. A rocket can go vertically upwards in earth’s F

atmosphere because
(a) it is lighter than air M1 F M1 M 2 g
(b) of gravitational pull of the sun (a) (b)
(c) it has a fan which displaces more air per unit time than the M2 M1 + M 2
weight of the rocket M2 F
(c) (d) None
(d) of the force exerted on the rocket by gases ejected by it M1 + M 2 B C
of these E
14. In which of the following cases forces may not be
required to keep the 16. Figure shows the displacement of a A D
(a) particle going in a circle particle going along the x-axis as a
(b) particle going along a straight line function of time. The force acting on the particle is
(c) the momentum of the particle constant zero, in the region
(d) acceleration of the particle constant
(i) A B (ii) BC (iii) C D (iv) DE
15. A single horizontal force F is applied to a block of
mass M1 which is in contact with another block of (a) i, iv (b) iii, ii (c) i, iii (d) iv, iii

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
12. (b)
5
6. (b) We have, F = m1 a 1 5 = m 1 × 8; m1 =
8 10 kg 2 kg
5
and F = m 2 a 2 ; 5 = m 2 × 24; m 2 =
24 10 kg mass has an acceleration of 12 m/s 2
5 5 15 + 5 20 F = m1a; F = 10 × 12; F = 120 N
Total mass of system = m1 + m 2 = + = = kg
8 24 24 24 Force of 120 N is applied on the mass of 20 kg
Again, F = ma Remaining force = 200 − 120, F′ = 80 N
20 24 × 5 80
5= × a; a = ; a = 6 m/s 2 Again, F ′ = m 2 a ; 80 = 20 × a ; a =
24 20 / 4 20
150
7. (c) Impulsive I = F × ∆ t = ma × ∆ t = × 20 × 0.2 = 0.6 a = 4 m/s 2
1000
F
N-s 15. (c) In this case, acceleration a =
M1 + M 2
8. (d) We have, F = ma
M2 F
∴ F1 = m a × 1.8 and F2 = m 2 × 1.2 The force between the blocks F ′ = M 2 a, F ′ =
M1 + M 2
F1 m × 1.8
∴ = 1 16. (c) In region AB and CD slope of the graph is consult i .e.,
F2 m 2 × 1.2
velocity is constant. It means no force acting on the particle in
F 1.8 F1 3 this region.
Because m1 = m 2 ∴ 1 = , =
F2 1.2 F2 2
 Chapter

3
Work, Energy and Power
Work l Work done by a man to carry mass m to a height h above
ground is given by mgh.
Work is said to be done only when a body acted upon by a
Negative Work
force moves actually through some distance in the
direction of the force. In other words, work is the Negative work means that force opposite to displacement
product of force, F and the distance, s travelled in the (i.e., 90° < θ < 180°).
direction of force. It is represented by W. Examples of Negative Work
∴ W = F⋅s l When a person lifts a body from the ground, the work
If there is an angle θ between the direction of force and done by the force of gravity is negative.
direction of displacement, the work done l When a body is made to slide over a rough surface, the
work done by the frictional force is negative.
W = Fs cos θ
F
l When a positive charge is moved to towards another
positive charge. The work done by electrostatic force
between them is negative.
θ Motion
s
Zero Work
The amount of work done depends upon Under three conditions, work done becomes zero.
(i) the force applied
(i) If the force is perpendicular to the displacement
(ii) the displacement of a body
F⊥s
(iii) angle between the direction of force and displacement.
(ii) If there is no displacement
The SI unit of work is joule and work is a scalar quantity. s =0
1 Joule = 10 7 erg (iii) If there is no force acting on the body
For work to be done, the following conditions should be F =0
satisfied Examples of Zero Work
(i) Force must act on the body l When a coolie travels on a horizontal platform with a
(ii) The point of application of the force should move in load on his head, work done against gravity by the coolie
the direction of the force or opposite to it. is zero.
l When a body moves in a circle the work done by the
Nature of Work centripetal force is always zero.
Positive Work l When a person tries to displace a wall or heavy stone by
applying a force and it does not move, then work done
Positive work means that force is parallel to
is zero.
displacement (i.e., 0° ≤ θ ≤ 90°).
l A weightlifter does work in lifting the weight off the
Examples of Positive Work ground but does not work in holding it up.
l A body falls freely under gravity, the work done is positive. l Motion of an isolated body in free space.
l When a lawn roller is pulled by applying a force along l A man standing still at a bus stop with heavy suitcases
the handle at an acute angle, the work done by the force in his hands may get tired soon but he does not no work
is positive. in this situation.
Work, Energy and Power
Energy
The energy of a body is defined as its capacity for doing.
It is a scalar quantity. The SI unit of energy is Joule.
Relation between Different Units
1 Joule =10 7 erg, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10 −19 Joule
1 kWh = 3.6 × 10 Joule, 1 calorie = 4.18 Joule
16
l Energy has various forms such as mechanical energy,
heat energy, light energy, magnetic energy, sound
energy, chemical energy and nuclear energy etc.
Mechanical energy is in two forms
(i) Kinetic energy
(ii) Potential energy
Kinetic Energy
The energy of a body due to its motion is called kinetic
energy. If a body of mass m is moving with velocity v, the
kinetic energy of the body is given by
1
K = mv2 = F ⋅ s
2
l Since the kinetic energy of a body depends on its mass
and velocity, therefore, heavy bodies moving with high
velocities have more kinetic energy than slow moving
bodies of small mass.
l If the mass of body is doubled, its kinetic energy also gets
doubled and if the velocity of a body is doubled, its
kinetic energy becomes four times.
Relation between Kinetic Energy and Momentum
2 2
1 1 m v
Kinetic energy K = mv2 =
2 2 m
p2
K =
2m
where, p is the momentum.
Therefore, a body cannot have KE without having linear
momentum and vice-versa.
Potential Energy
The energy of a body due to its position or change in
shape is known as potential energy. If a body of mass
m is raised to a height h from the Earth’s surface, the
potential energy of the body U = mgh
Mass-Energy-Equivalence
Einstein for the first time established that mass and
energy are two different forms of the same entity.
i.e., E = mc2
where, E is the energy obtained when a mass is
completely converted into energy and c is the velocity of
light in free space (= 3 × 10 8 m /s ).
233
Transformation of Energy
The change of one form of energy into another form of
energy is known as transformation of energy. For
example
l A motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
l A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical
energy.
l An electric iron converts electrical energy into heat energy.
l An electric bulb converts electrical energy into light
energy.
l A radio converts electrical energy into sound energy.
l A steam engine converts heat energy into kinetic energy.
l A cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
l A solar water heater converts lights energy into heat
energy.
l A solar cell converts light energy into electrical energy.
l Electric motor is used in electric fans, washing machine,
refrigerators, mixer and grinder, hair dryer etc.
Law of Conservation of Energy
l Energy can neither be created nor can be destroyed, but
can only be converted from one form to another, the total
amount of energy of the universe remaining constant.
l The mechanical energy of a freely-falling body remains
constant at all positions. As the body falls, its potential
energy decreases, but at the same time, kinetic energy
increases by an equal amount.
Example of Conservation of Energy
Simple Pendulum A simple pendulum consists of a
small metal ball (called bob) suspended by a long thread
from a rigid support, such that the bob is free to swing
back and forth when displaced.
A swinging simple pendulum is an example of
conservation of energy.
C (PE = maximum)
B KE = 0
PE = maximum
KE = 0
A
KE = maximum, PE = 0
(i) When the pendulum bob is at position B, it has only
potential energy.
(ii) As the bob starts moving down from position B to
position A, its potential energy goes on decreasing
but its kinetic energy goes on increasing.
(iii) When the bob reaches the centre position A, it has
only kinetic energy.
(iv) As the bob goes from position A toward position C, its
kinetic energy goes on decreasing but its potential
energy goes on increasing. So at position C, the bob
has only potential energy.
234 Study Package for NTSE

Power
Power is measured as the rate of doing work. It is a scalar quantity having SI unit J/s or watt(W).
Work done ( W)
Power (P) =
Time taken ( t)
The power of object is the product of the force applied to a body and the velocity produced in the body P = F ⋅ v.

Other Units of Power

1 Kilowatt = 1000 W
1 Megawatt = 10 6 W
1 Horse power = 746 W

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. A body moves a distance of 6 m in the following 5. A 6 kg weight is attached to a spring. It is pulled down
different ways. In which case is the maximum work and then released. It oscillates up and down. Its KE
done? will be
(a) When pushed over an inclined plane (a) maximum in the middle of the movement
(b) When lifted vertically upward (b) maximum at the bottom
(c) When pushed over smooth rollers (c) maximum just before it is released
(d) When pushed on a plane horizontal surface (d) constant
2. Ashok lifts a doll from the floor and places it on a 6. A photocell converts light energy into
table. If the weight of the doll is known, what else (a) chemical energy (b) electrical energy
need not be known in order to calculate the work, (c) heat energy (d) mechanical energy
Ashok has done on the doll?
(a) The time taken
7. A body is dropped from a certain height from the
(b) Height of the table ground. When, it is halfway down, it possesses
(c) Mass of the ball (a) KE
(d) Cost of the doll or the table (b) Both KE and PE
(c) PE
3. In which of the following cases will the work done be (d) Zero energy
maximum? The body is moved through a distance S
on the ground? 8. An wound watch spring has the energy of type
(a) mechanical
F (b) kinetic
F
(c) potential
(a) (b) (d) kinetic and potential
30° 45°
9. A car is moving along a straight levelled road having
F constant speed. Then,
(a) the work done on the car is infinite
(c) (d) (b) the work done on the car is zero
60° F (c) the work done on the car is a measure of the gravitational
potential energy
(d) the work done on the car cannot be found
4. Two springs A and B are identical but A is harder
than B. On which spring’s more work will be done, if 10. Which of the following does not possess the ability to
they are stretched by the same force? do work not because of motion?
(a) In spring A (a) A sparrow flying in the sky
(b) In spring B (b) A sparrow moving slowly on the ground
(c) In spring A as well as in spring B (c) A sparrow in the nest on a tree
(d) Work done is zero for both springs (d) A squirrel going up a tree
Work, Energy and Power 235
11. A stone is thrown upwards as shown in the diagram. 13. How much work should be done on a bicycle of mass
When it reaches P, which of the following has the 20 kg to increase its speed from 2 m/s to 5 m/s?
greatest value for the stone?
(a) 210 J (b) 100 J
P
(c) 2100 J (d) 21 J

14. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired with a speed of 100 m/s,

the mass of gun is 50 kg. The velocity of recoil is
(a) 0.2 m/s (b) 0.1 m/s
(c) 0.5 m/s (d) 0.05 m/s
(a) Its acceleration (b) Its kinetic energy
(c) Its potential energy (d) Its weight 15. A bird flying in the sky has
(a) KE only
12. A 12 HP motor has to be operated 8 hour/day. How (b) PE only
much will it cost at the rate of 50 paisa/kWh in 10 days? (c) Neither KE nor PE
(a) ` 350 (b) ` 358 (c) ` 375 (d) ` 397 (d) Both KE and PE

High Skill Questions

1. The kinetic energy possessed by a body of mass m
1
moving with a velocity v is equal to mv2 , provided p p
2 (a) (b)
(a) the body moves with velocities comparable to that of light
(b) the body moves with velocities compared to the speed of light
(c) the body moves with velocities greater than that of light
O K O K
(d) None of the above statement is correct

2. You lift a heavy book from the floor of the room and p p
keep it in the book-shelf having a height 2 m. In this (c) (d)
process, you take 5 s. The work done by you will
depends upon
(a) mass of the book and time taken
O K O K
(b) weight of the book and height of the book shelf
(c) height of the book-shelf and time taken 8. Which of the following graph shows the graphical
(d) mass of the book, height of the book-shelf and time taken relation between momentum p and kinetic energy K
for a body in motion?
3. A lorry and a car moving with the same KE are brought
to rest by applying the same retarding force, then 9. A body of mass 3 kg is acted on by a force which varies
(a) lorry will come to rest in a shorter distance as shown in the graph below. The momentum
(b) car will come to rest in a shorter distance acquired is given by
(c) both come to rest in a same distance F (N)
(d) None of the above

4. A man starts walking from a point on the surface of 10

earth (assumed smooth) and reaches diagonally
opposite point. What is the work done by him?
(a) Zero (b) Positive
2 4 6 t (s)
(c) Negativ (d) Nothing can be said
(a) Zero (b) 5 N-s (c) 30 N-s (d) 50 N-s
5. A total of 490 J energy was used in lifting a 5 kg mass. v
The mass was raised to
B C
(a) 10 m (b) 9.8 m (c) 960 m (d) 1000 m

6. When the momentum of a body decreased by 10%, its E

D
KE decreases by
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 36% (d) None of these
A t
7. A force 20 N displaces an object 10 cm and does work
of 1 J in the process. Find the angle between the force 10. The diagram shown the velocity verus time plot for a
and the displacement particle, the work done by the force on the particle is
(a) 60° (b) 30° positive from
(c) 120° (d) None of these (a) A to B (b) B to C (c) C to D (d) D to E
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
25 − 4
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) as =
2
6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 21 2 2
as = m /s
11. (a) 2
12. (b) Power P = 12 HP = 12 × 746 W Work done on a bicycle
Watt × Hours × Days 21
Unit = W = F ⋅ s = ma ⋅ s = 20 ×
1000 2
12 × 746 × 8 × 20 W = 210 J
= = 716.16 kWh
1000 14. (a) From conservation of linear momentum,
Cost = 716.16 × 0.50 = ` 358 mv1 = mv 2
13. (a) We have, M v1 = 0.1 × 100
v 2 − u 2 = 2 as 5 v1 = 0.2 × 200
0.1 × 100
∴ 2 as = v 2 − a2 v1 =
5
2 as = 52 − 2 2 v1 = 0.2 m/s
2 as = 25 − 4 15. (d)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 81p2
p2
2. (b) Work done = Force × Displacement Kinetic energy decreases K % = 100 / × 100
2m 2m
= Weight of the books × Height of the book shelf
= 81%
3. (c) 4. (a)
7. (a)
5. (a) The potential energy = 490 J, mgh = 490
8. (d)
490 490
h= = = 9.8 m 9. (d) Momentum = Area of F-t graph
m × g 5 × 10
1
6. (d) Suppose the momentum of a body is P when the momentum m= × 2 × 10 + 4 × 10
2
of a body decrease by 10%, then
p × 20 9p = 10 + 40
p′ = p − p′ =
100 10 = 50 N-s
We have, 10. (a) From the graph, it is clear that force is acting on the particle
2 in the region ABand due to this force kinetic energy (velocity) of
 9p  81p2
  the particle increases. So, the work done by the force is
p′ 2
 2 m
Kinetic energy K = , K= , K = 100 positive.
2m 2m 2m
 Chapter

4
Gravitation
Gravity l The value of g is maximum on the surface of the earth, it
decreases on going above the surface of earth or on going
The earth attracts (or pulls) all the objects towards its inside the surface of the earth.
centre. The force with which the earth pulls the objects
l At the centre of earth, the value of g is zero.
towards it is called the gravitational force of the earth or
gravity.
l The value of g on the moon is about one-sixth of the value
of g on the earth.
Universal Law of Gravitation
The gravitational force acting between two points Mass
objects is directly proportional to the product of their The mass of a body is the quantity of matter contained
masses and inversely proportional to the square of the it. Mass is a scalar quantity. Its unit is kg.
distance between them. l The mass of a body is constant and does not change from
G m1 m2
Gravitational force ( F) = place to place.
r2 l The mass of a body cannot be zero.
where, G is universal gravitational constant. Its value is
6.67 × 10 −11 N-m 2 kg −2 and remain same throughout
the universe. Weight
l The earth exerts a gravitational force of 9.8 N on a ball of The weight of a body is the force with which it is
mass 1 kg. attracted towards the centre of the earth.
Weight ( w) = mg
Acceleration due to Gravity (g)
SI unit of weight is Newton.
The uniform acceleration produced in a freely falling
l The weight of a body also changes from place to place.
body due to the gravitational force of the earth is known
as acceleration due to gravity. Its value is 9.8 m/s 2 . l The weight of body can be zero.
GM l The weight at the centre of earth is zero (because the
Relation between g and G is given by g = 2 where, M value of g is zero) at the centre of earth.
R
is mass of the earth, and R is the radius of the earth.
l Weight of any object on moon will be about one-sixth of
what it is on the earth.
î The acceleration produced in the freely falling bodies is the
same for all the bodies. Example If the weight of a body on the earth is 6 N, what
will it be on the moon?
Variation of Acceleration due to Gravity (g) Solution Weight of a body on the earth = 6 N
l The radius of the earth at the poles is minimum, the 1
Weight of a body on the moon = × Weight of a body on the
values of g is maximum at the poles. 6
The radius of the earth is maximum at the equator so, the 6
l
earth = =1N
value of g is minimum at the equator. 6
238 Study Package for NTSE

Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion

1. The planets move in elliptical orbits around the sun, with the sun at one of the two foci of the elliptical orbit.
2. Each planet revolves around the sun in such a way that the line joining the planet to the sun sweeps over
equal areas in equal intervals of time. It means that a planet moves faster when it is closer to the sun and
moves slowly when it is farther from the sun.
3. The cube of the mean distance of a planet from the sun is directly proportional to the square of time it takes
to move around the sun i.e.,
T2 ∝ r3
T2
or = constant
r3

Target Exercise
Elementary level
1. The mass of moon is about 0.012 times that of earth 6. Force of gravity is least at
and its diameter is about 0.25 times that of earth. The (a) the equator
value of G on the moon will be (b) the poles
(a) less than that on the earth (c) a point in between equator and any pole
(b) more than that on the earth (d) None of the above
(c) same as that on the earth 7. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is
(d) about one-sixth of that on the earth
(a) zero
2. Two particles are placed at same distance from each (b) infinite
other. If keeping the distance between them unchanged, (c) same as on the surface of earth.
(d) None of the above
the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, the value
of gravitation force between them will become 8. The gravitational force between two point masses m1
1 1 m1m2
(a) times (b) times and m2 at separation r is given by F = k .
4 2 r2
(c) 4 times (d) 2 times The constant k
(a) depends on system of unit only
3. An apple of mass 100 g falls from a tree because of (b) depends on medium between masses only
gravitational attraction between the earth and the (c) depends on both a and b
apple. If the magnitude of force exerted by the earth (d) is independent of both a and b
on the apple be F1 and the magnitude of force exerted
by the apple on the earth be F2 , then 9. The correct answers to above question is based on
(a) F1 is very much greater than F2 (a) acceleration due to gravity in vacuum is same irrespective
(b) F2 is very much greater than F1 of size and mass of the body
(c) F1 is only a little greater than F2 (b) acceleration due to gravity in vaccum depends on the
(d) F1 and F2 are exactly equal mass of the body
(c) there is no acceleration due to gravity in vacuum
4. The force of attraction between two unit point masses (d) in vacuum, there is resistance offered to the motion of the
separated by a unit distance is called body and this resistance depends on the mass of the
(a) gravitational potential body
(b) acceleration due to gravity
(c) gravitational field strength 10. When a body is taken from the equator to the poles,
(d) universal gravitation constant its weight
(a) remains constant
5. As we go from the equator to the poles, the value of g (b) increases
(a) remains the same (b) decreases (c) decreases
(c) increases (d) decreases upto a latitude of 45° (d) increases at N pole and decreases at S pole
Gravitation 239

High Skill Questions

m
1. Spot the wrong statement 6. In the relation, F = G × M × , the quantity G
The acceleration due to gravity g decreases if d2
(a) depends on the value of g at the place of observation
(a) we go down from the surface of the earth towards its centre
(b) is used only when the earth is one of the two masses
(b) we go up from the surface of the earth
(c) is the greatest on the surface of the earth
(c) we go from the equator towards the poles on the surface of
(d) is of the same value irrespective of the place of
the earth
observation.
(d) the rotational velocity of the earth is increased of the earth
2. Which of the following statement is wrong? 7. A The ratio of inertial mass of gravitational mass is
equal to one.
(a) g is less at the earth’s surface than at a height above it or
a depth below it. B The inertial mass and gravitational mass of a body
(b) g is same at all places on the surface of the earth. are equivalent
(c) g has its maximum value at the equator (a) Both A and B are true (b) Both A and B are false
(d) g is greater at the poles than at the equator (c) A is true but B is false (d) A is false but B is true
3. At the surface of a certain planet, acceleration due to 8. A A force act upon the earth revolving in a circular
gravity is one quarter of that on earth. If a brass is orbit about the sun. Hence, work should be done on
transported to this planet, then which one of the the Earth.
following statement is not correct?
B The necessary centripetal force for circular motion
(a) The mass of the brass ball on this planet is a quarter of its
mass as measured on earth. of earth comes from the gravitational force between
(b) The weight of the brass ball on this planet is quarter of the earth the sun.
weight as measured on earth. (a) Both A and B are true
(c) The brass ball has the same mass on the other planet as (b) Both A and B are false
on earth. (c) A is true but B is false
(d) The brass ball has the same value on the other planet as (d) A is false but B is true
on earth. 9. Match the columns
4. Weight of a body is maximum at
(a) moon (b) poles of Earth Column I Column II
(c) equator of Earth (d) centre of Earth 1
A. Universal law of gravitation 1. w= mg
5. Which of the following graph represents the motion of 6
a planet moving about the sun? B. Kepler’s law of planetary motion 2. T 2 ∝ r 3
m1m2
C. Acceleration due to gravity 3. F =G
(a)
(b) r2
T2 T2 GM
D. Weight on the moon 4. g=
R2
3 3
R R
Codes
A B C D
T2 (d) T 2 (a) 4 2 1 3
(c) (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
R3 R3 (d) 3 2 4 1
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (c) 4. (d)
m1 m 2 5. (c) As we go from the equator to the poles, the value of g
2. (c) Force F = G
r2 increases.
The mass of each particle is doubled, then 6. (a) Since g is minimum at the equator. So the force of gravity is
least at the equator.
(2 m1 )(2 m 2 ) m1m 2
F′ = G = 4G 7. (a)
r2 r2
F′ = 4 F 8. (a)
3. (d) From Newton’s Third Law that every action have equal 9. (a)
and opposite reaction. Action and reaction always act on the 10. (b)
different bodies.

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 6. (d)
2. (a,b,c) 7. (a) Inertial mass and gravitational mass are equivalent. Both are
scalar quantities and measured in the same unit. They are quite
3. (a)
different in the method of their measurement. Also gravitational
4. (b) weight w = mg mass of a body is affected by the presence of other bodies near
since g is maximum at the poles. So the weight of the body will it whereas internal mass remain unaffected.
be at the poles. 8. (a) Earth revolves around the sun in circular path and required
5. (c) According to Kepler’s law centripetal force is provided by gravitational force between Earth
T ∝R
2 3
or T ∝R and sun but the work done by this centripetal force is zero.

The graph will be straight line. 9. (d)

 Chapter

5
Pressure and
Archimedes’ Principle
Pressure Density
Magnitude of normal force per unit area is known as The density of a substance is defined as mass of the
pressure. It is a scalar quantity. Its unit is Nm −2 . substance per unit volume
Mass M
Thrust Density = or ρ =
Pressure = Volume V
Area
Its SI unit is kg / m 3 .
Force
=
Area Relative Density
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its
î The force acting on a body perpendicular to its surface is density to that of water.
called thrust. Its unit is Newton.
Density of the substance
î The same force produces less pressure if it acts on a large area Relative density =
but it can produce high pressure if it acts on small area. Density of water

Densities of Some Common Substances

Pressure in Fluids
Substance Density
At the depth h below the surface of a liquid of density ρ,
pressure p is given by 1. Wood 800 kg/m3
2. Ice 920 kg/m3
p = ρgh 3. Glycerine 1260 kg/m3
where, g is an acceleration due to gravity. 4. Iron 7800 kg/m3
5. Mercury 13600 kg/m3
Atmospheric Pressure 6. Gold 19300 kg/m3

The pressure exerted by the atmosphere is called

atmospheric pressure. The value of atmospheric
pressure on earth at sea level is nearly 1.013 × 105 Nm −2
or pascal.
l Aneroid barometer is used to measure atmospheric
pressure and height of a place.
l The pressure exerted by a liquid increases with depth
and acts in all directions.
Buoyancy
The upward force exerted by a fluid on the immersed
body is called buoyant force or upthrust.
l Every liquid exerts an upward force on the object
immersed in it.
l The maximum upward buoyant force acts on an object
when it is completely immersed in the liquid.
242 Study Package for NTSE

l As the volume of solid object immersed inside the liquid 2. When weight of solid is less than force of buoyancy
increases, the upward buoyant force also increases (upthrust) of liquie, then solid will float.
l The magnitude of buoyant force acting on a solid object
does not depend on the nature of the solid object. Floatation of Bodies
When a body of density and volume V is immersed in a
Archimedes’ Principle liquid of density, the forces acting on the body are
When a solid body i.s immersed wholly or partially in a Weight of body w = mg = Vρg
liquid, then there is some apparent loss in its weight. This (acting vertically downward)
loss in weight is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced Upthrust force = Vρg (acting vertically upward)
by the body. The observed weight of a body immersed in a
There are three possible cases
liquid is less than its true weight by an amount equal to
(i) An object will float in a liquid if its density is less than of
the weight of the liquid displaced by the body.
the liquid (i. e., weight is less than upthrust)
Applications of Archimedes’ Principle
l Archimedes’ principle is used in determining the
relative density of a substance.
l The hydrometer used for determining the density of
liquids are based on Archimedes’ principle.
(ii) An object will also in a liquid if its density is equal to
l The lactometer used for determining the variety of that of the liquid (i. e., weight is equal to upthrust)
milk are based on Archimedes’ principle.
l Archimedes’ principle is used in designing ship and
submarines.

Laws of Floatation
(iii) An object will sink in a liquid if its density is more
Whenever a solid body dipped into a fluid, the fluid
than that of the liquid (i. e., weight is more than
exerts force of buoyancy on it, if the force of buoyancy upthrust)
equals to the weight of the solid i.e., F = W , the solid will
remain in equilibrium. This is called floatation.
1. When weight of solid is greater than the force of
buoyancy (upthrust) of liquid, in this condition solid
will be sink. i.e., F < W .

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. An object is put in three liquids having different 3. A solid of density 900 kg / m 3 floats in oil as shown in
1 2 the given diagram. The oil floats on water of density
densities one by one. The object floats with , , and
9 11 1000 kg / m 3 as shown. The density of oil in kg/m 3
3
parts of its volume outside the surface of liquids of could be
7
densities d1, d2 and d3 respectively. Which of the
following is the correct order of the densities of the Oil
three liquids?
(a) d1 > d 2 > d 3 (b) d 2 > d 3 > d1
(c) d1 < d 2 < d 3 (d) d 3 > d 2 > d1

2. Four balls A, B, C and D displace 10 ml, 24 ml, 15 ml

Oil Water
and 12 ml of a liquid respectively, when immersed
completely. The ball which will undergo the (a) 850
maximum apparent loss in weight will be (b) 900
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (c) 980
(d) 1050
Pressure and Archimedes’ Principle 243
4. The diagram represent four measuring cylinders 10. The buoyant force depends on the
containing liquids. The mass and volume of the liquid (a) depth of a liquid (b) density of a liquid
in each cylinder are stated. Which two measuring (c) colour of a liquid (d) None of these
cylinders could contain an identical liquid?
11. The buoyant force will be exerted on the body when
(a) the body is immersed partially and displaces same amount
of liquid
80 g 100 g 100 g 80 g (b) the body is not immersed in liquid
(c) the body is immersed fully in liquid
(d) the body is immersed partially
100 cm3 100 cm3 80 cm3 80 cm3
12. The pressure in the bottle filled with water, is
maximum
W X Y Z (a) in the middle of bottle
(b) at the top of the bottle
(a) W and X (b) W and Y (c) first at the top then in the middle
(c) X and Y (d) X and Z (d) in the bottom of bottle
5. Which of the following physical quantity has no unit? 13. From the adjacent figure, the correct observation is
(a) Relative density (b) Mass
(c) Pressure (d) None of these
Water Water
6. An ice cube is floating in glass of water. What
happens to the water level when the ice melts
completely? A B
(a) Rises (b) Falls (a) the pressure on the bottom of tank A is greater than that the
(c) Remains same (d) First rises and then falls bottom of B
7. A wooden piece is completely immersed in water. The (b) the pressure on the bottom of the tank A is smaller than that
the bottom of B
upthrust of water on wooden piece in comparison to
(c) the pressure depend on the shape of the container
the weight of the piece will be (d) the pressure on the bottom of A and B is the same
(a) more (b) equal (c) less
(d) Zero 14. A sample of metal weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water
and 120 g in liquid, then relative density of
8. A piece of wood floats in water. What happens to the
(a) metal is 3 (b) metal is 7
piece of wood when it floats in alcohol? 1
(a) Floats higher (b) Stays as before sinks (c) liquid is 3 (d) liquid is
5
(c) Sinks (d) Sinks and rises
15. An ice-berg of density 900 kg / m 3 is floating in water
9. An object of wood has a weight w and volume V. The
of density 1000 kg / m 3. The percentage of volume of
apparent weight of object after the object is made to
ice-cube outside the water is
float on water, will be
(a) 20% (b) 35% (c) 10% (d) 25%
w
(a) (b) w − V (c) Zero (d) w
V

High Skill Questions

1. The piece of wood of 28 cm −3 volume and the piece of
glass of 1 cm 3 volume are tied to each other. The
density of wood is 0.6 g / cm 3 and the density of
glass 11.3 g / cm 3. According to the calculation, the
both pieces will
(a) swim in water (b) sink in the water
(c) sink the middle (d) None of these

2. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. If the

whole system as shown in figure falls freely under
gravity, then the upthrust on the body due to liquid is
(a) zero
(b) equal to the weight of liquid displaced
(c) equal to the weight of the body in air
(d) None of the above
3. An aircraft is moving with a velocity of 300 ms −1. If
all forces acting on it are balanced, then
(a) it still moves with the same velocity
(b) it will be just floating at the same point in space
(c) it will fall down instantaneans
(d) it will lose its velocity gradually
244 Study Package for NTSE

4. A cold soft drink is kept on the balance. When the cap 8. A beaker containing a liquid is kept inside a big
is open, then the weight closed jar. If the air inside the jar is continuously
(a) increases pumped out, the pressure in the liquid near the
(b) decreases bottom of the liquid will
(c) first increases then decreases
(a) increases
(d) remain same
(b) decreases
5. A box of mass 10 kg has as base area of 1 m 2. Find the (c) remain constant
pressure exerted by it on the ground. (d) first decreases and then increases
(a) 100 Pa (b) 50 Pa (c) 150 Pa (d) 200 Pa 9. The relative densities of four liquids P, Q, R and S are
6. A metallic block of density 5 g / cm and having 3 1.26, 1.0, 0.84 and 13.6 respectively. An object is
dimensions 5 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm is weighed in water. floated in all these liquids, one by one. In which
Its apparent weight will be liquid, the object will float with its maximum volume
(a) 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 g (b) 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 g submerged under the liquid?
(c) 5 × 4 × 4 × 4 g (d) 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 g (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

7. A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with 10. A A piece of ice floats in water, the level of water
water and is accelerated horizontally with an remains unchanged when the ice melts completely.
acceleration in towards right. B According to Archimedes’ principle the loss in
Pressure is (i) Maximum at and (ii) Minimum at weight of the body in the liquid is equal to the weight
(a) Maximum at B, minimum at D of the liquid displaced by the immersed part of the
(b) Maximum at C, minimum at D body.
A D
(c) Maximum at B, minimum at C (a) Both A and B are true (b) Both A and B are false
(d) Maximum at B, minimum at A C (c) A is true but B is false (d) A is false but B is ture
B

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) By solving these Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) ρ = 2 and σ = 3

13. (d) Pressure = hρg , i .e., pressure at the bottom is independent 15. (c) Let the total volume of ice-berg floats is V and its density is ρ. If
at the bottom is independent of the area of the bottom of the this ice-barg floats in water with volume Vin inside it,
 ρ
tank. It depends on the height of water upto which the tank is Then Vin σg = Vρg Vin =   g
filled with water. As in both the tanks, the levels of the water are σ
the same, pressure at the bottom is also the same.  σ − ρ
or Vout = V − Vin Vout =  g
14. (c) Density of metal = ρ, Density of liquid = σ  σ 
Vout  σ − ρ  1000 − 900
If V is the valume of sample, then according to problem = =
Vin  ρ  1000
210 = Vρg ...(i)
1
180 = V (ρ − 1) g ...(ii) = Vout = 10%of V
10
120 = V (ρ − σ ) g ...(iii)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 7. (a ) Due to acceleration towards right there will be a pseudo
2. (a) Upthrust = Vρ liquid = g − a force in left direction so the pressure will be more on rear side
(points A and B) in comparison with front side (points D
where, a = downward acceleration and C)
V = volume of liquid displaced
Also due to height of liquid column pressure will be more at the
But for free fall a = 2g, ∴ Upthrust = 0
bottom (points Band C) in comparison with top (points A and D)
3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) so overall maximum pressure will be at point B and minimum
6. (d) Apparent weight = V (ρ − σ )g , = l × b × h × (5 − 1)g pressure will be at point D.
= 5 × 5 × 5 × 4 × g = 4 × 5 × 5 × 5g 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
 Chapter

6
Sound
Wave Motion
Sound is a wave motion, produce by a vibrating source. A
medium is necessary for the propagation of sound waves.
A wave is a vibratory disturbance in a medium which
carries energy from one point to another without being
in direct contact with the two points.
Longitudinal Waves
In this, the particles of the medium vibrate back and
forth along the directions of the propagation of wave.
Longitudinal waves can propagate freely through solids,
liquids and gas. These waves propagates in the form of
alternative compressions and rarefaction.

Mechanical or Elastic Waves

The waves which can be produced in a material medium
are called elastic waves or mechanical waves. In
other words, mechanical waves require material Compression Rarefaction
medium for their propagation.
On the basis of the vibrations of the particles of the For example,
medium, the waves are classified into two types l The waves which travel along a spring (or slinky) when it
is pushed and pulled at one end, are longitudinal waves.
(i) Transverse waves (ii) Longitudinal waves
l Sound wave in air are longitudinal waves.
Transverse Waves
In this, the particles of the medium vibrate Graphical Representation
perpendicular to the direction of the propagation of
waves. These waves can propagate through solids and Density-Distance Graph
on the surface of liquids but not through gas. Transverse A longitudinal wave is represented by a density-distance
waves propagates in the form of crests and troughs as graph
shown in the figure.
Density greater

Crest
than normal

Compression Compression
A C
Distance
Trough Normal
density
l The waves produced by moving one end of a long spring
Density less

B
than normal

(or slinky) up and down rapidly, whose other end is D

fixed, are transvere waves. Rarefaction Rarefaction
l The water waves (or ripples) formed on the surface of
water in a pond are also transverse waves.
246 Study Package for NTSE

Displacement-Distance Graph Sound Waves

A transverse wave is represented by a displacement- Sound wave is a longitudinal mechanical wave which is
distance graph. generated or produced by the transmission of the
displacement

distrubances in the form of compressions and

rarefactions.
Positive

Crest Crest
A C
Audible Waves
Line of zero
disturbance Sound waves having frequency between 20 Hz to 20,000
Hz are audible to human ear. This frequency range is
displacement

B D
called audible frequency range.
Negative

Trough Trough
Infrasonic Waves
Sound waves of frequency less than 20 Hz are called
Terms Related to Wave Motion infrasonic waves.
Wavelength (λ)
Ultrasonic Waves or Ultrasound
The minimum distance in which a wave repeats ifself is
Sound waves of frequency more than 20000 Hz are
called its wavelength. The unit for measuring
known as ultrasonic waves. Ultrasound wave is
wavelength is metre (m).
produced by dolphins, bats and porpoises. Rats also play
Amplitude (A) games by producing ultrasound.
The maximum displacement of the particles of the Applications of Ultrasound
medium from their original undistrubed positions, l Ultrasounds are used extensively in industries and for
when a wave passes through the medium, is called medical purposes.
amplitude of the wave. l Ultrasound is generally used to clean parts located in
hard to reach places. For example, spiral tube, odd
Time Period (T) shaped parts, electronic components etc.
The time required to produce one complete wave (or l Ultrasound can be used to detect cracks and flaws in
cycle) is called time period of the wave. metal blocks.
l Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts
Frequency of the heart and form the image of the heart. This
The number of complete wave (or cycle) produced in one technique is called echocardiography.
second is called frequency of the wave. The SI unit of l Ultrasound scanner is an instrument which uses
ultrasonic waves for getting images of internal organs of
frequency is hertz.
the human body such as liver gall bladder, pancreas,
The frequency of a wave is the reciprocal of its kidney, uterus and heart etc.
time-period. l Ultrasound may be employed to break small stones
1
Frequency = formed in the kidneys into fine grains.
Time period l Ultrasound scans are used to monitor the development
of fetus (unborn baby) inside the mother’s uterus.
Velocity of Wave ( v) l Ultrasound is used in sonar apparatus to measure the
The distance travelled by a wave in one second is called depth of sea (or ocean) and to locate under sea objects
velocity of the wave (or speed of the wave). The SI unit like shoal of fish, shipwrecks submarines, sea-rocks and
for measuring the velocity of a wave is metre per hidden ice-bergs in the sea.
second (m/s). l The use of ultrasound waves to investigate the action of
the heart is called echocardiography.
Relationship between Velocity, Frequency
SONAR
and Wavelength of a Wave
The word SONAR stands for Sound Navigation And
The velocity of a wave in medium is equal to the product
Ranging. SONAR is an apparatus (or device which is
of its frequency and wavelength.
used to find the depth of a sea or to locate the
Velocity of a wave = Frequency × Wavelength under-water things like shoals of fish, shipwrecks and
⇒ v = nλ enemy submarines.
Sound 247
Speed of Sound (ii) The ceiling of concert halls, conference hall and
cinema halls are curved so that sound after reflection
l The speed of sound is different in different mediums.
reaches all corners of the half and curved sound
The speed of sound is dependent on elasticity, density
and temperature of medium. Sound travels slowest in board may be placed behind the stange so that the
gases, faster in liquids and fastest in solids. sound, after reflecting from the sound board, spreads
evenly across width of the hall.
l 1° C increase in temperature, the speed of the sound is
increased by 0.61 m/s.
Echo
l The density of dry air is more than of moist air. Thus in
moist air the speed of sound is more than dry air. Echo is the repetition of sound of short duration. To get
l If the medium has also the speed other the speed of an echo, the minimum distance of the source of sound
sound increases in the same direction and decrease in from the body should be 17 m.
opposite direction. Echo is heard sooner on a hot day (than a cold day)
Speed of Sound in Various Materials
Reverberation
S.No. Medium Speed of sound
The peristence of sound in a big hall due to repeated
1. Dry air (0° C) 332 m/s reflection from the walls, ceiling and floor of the hall is
2. Dry air (at 20° C) 344 m/s called reverberation.
3. Hydrogen (at 0° C) 1284 m/s
î The soft and porous materials are bad reflectors of sound. The
4. Water (at 20° C) 1498 m/s soft and porous materials are actually good absorbers of
5. Copper (at 20° C) 3750 m/s sound. In addition to certains carpets and sofa-sets in our
6. Iron (at 20° C) 5130 m/s rooms also reduce the formation of echos by absorbing sound
7. Glass (at 20° C) 5170 m/s waves.

Shock Waves
When an object moves with a velocity greater than that
of sound it is termed as supersonic, when such a
supersonic body or plane travels in air, it produces
energetic disturbance which moves in backward
direction and diverge in the form alone such distrubance
are called the shock waves.
Sonic Boom
Sonic Boom is an explosive noise caused by the shock
waves from an aircraft (or any other object) which is
travelling faster than the speed of sound.
Reflection of Sound
The bouncing back of sound when it strikes a hard
surface is called reflection of sound.
Law of Reflection
l The incident sound wave, the reflected sound wave, and
the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the same
plane.
l The angle of reflection of sound is always equal to the
angle of incidence of sound.
(i) The reflection of sound is utilised in the hearing of
devices such as Megaphone, Bulb horn, stethoscope,
and sound board.
Characteristics of Sound
A sound has three characteristic loudness, pitch and
quality
Loudness
l The loudness of sound is a measure of the sound energy
reaching the ear per second.
l The loudness of sound depends on the amplitudes of
sound waves.
l The loudness of sound is measured in decibel.
l Loudness depends on intensity of sound. Unit of loudness
is bel.
Pitch
l Pitch is that characteristic of sound by which we can
distinguish between different sounds of the same
loudness.
l The pitch of a sound is directly proportional to its
frequency.
l Greater the frequency of a sound, the higher will be its
pitch.
Quality (or Timbre)
l Quality is that characteristic of musical sound which
enables us to distinguish between the sound of same pitch
and loudness produced by different musical instruments.
l The quality of a musical sound depends on the shape of
sound wave produced by it.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. A sound wave 6. Speed of sound at constant temperature depends on
(a) requires a material medium for its propagation (a) pressure (b) density of gas
(b) does not require a material medium for its propagation (c) above both (d) None of the above
(c) in some situations requires a material and in some other
cases does not 7. Sound travels in rocks in the form of
(d) None of the above (a) longitudinal elastic waves only
2. Sound waves cannot pass through (b) transverse elastic waves only
(a) a solid liquid mixture (b) a liquid gas mixture (c) both longitudinal and transverse elastic waves
(c) an ideal gas (d) a perfect vacuum (d) Non-elastic waves
3. A pulse is a wave 8. Water waves are
(a) of high duration
(b) of short duration (a) longitudinal
(c) which travels in vacuum only (b) transverse
(d) which travels in solids only (c) both longitudinal and transverse
4. A wave completes 48 cycle in 1.6 s, its frequency is (d) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
(a) 48 Hz (b) 1.6 Hz
9. The intensity of sound increases at height due to
(c) 30 Hz (d) 76.8 Hz
(a) increase in density of air
5. In transverse waves, particles of the medium vibrate (b) decrease in density of air
about their mean position (c) low temperature
(a) along the direction of propagation of wave (d) None of the above
(b) perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave
(c) sometimes along and sometimes normal to the 10. Sonar emits which of the following waves?
propagation of wave
(a) Radio waves (b) Ultrasonic waves
(d) None of the above
(c) Light waves (d) Magnetic waves

High Skill Questions

1. Velocity of sound in air 3. Which of the following device does not work on the
I. increase with temperature multiple reflection of sound waves?
II. decrease with temperature (a) Stethoscope
III. increase with pressure (b) Hydrophone
IV. is independent of pressure (c) Soundboard
V. is independent of temperature (d) Megaphoner
Choose the correct answers 4. In the sound wave produced by a vibrating turning
(a) Only I and II are true
fork shown in the diagram, half the wavelength is
(b) Only I and III are true
(c) Only II and III are true represented by
(d) Only I and IV are true
2. A key of mechanical piano is first struch gently and
B C D E
then struck again but much harder this time. In the
A
second case
(a) Sound will be louder but pitch will not be drifferent
(b) Sound will be louder and the pitch will also be higher
(c) Sound will be louder but pitch will be lower (a) A B (b) B D
(d) Both loudness and pitch will remain unaffectd (c) D E (d) A E
Sound 249
5. When the pitch of note produced by a harmonium is 9. A rock under water is 1595 m deep. Calculate the
lowered, then the wavelength of the note time in which an ultrasonic signal return after
(a) decrease reflection from rock. Given velocity of ultrasonic
(b) first decrease and then increase waves in water is 1450 m/s
(c) increases (a) 1.4 s (b) 1.8 s (c) 2 s (d) 2.2 s
(d) remain the same
10. A The velocity of sound increases with increase in
6. When an aeroplane attains a speed higher than
humidity.
velocity of sound in air, a loud bang is heard. This is
because B Velocity of sound does not depend upon the
(a) It explodes medium.
(b) It produces a shock wave which is receives as the bang (a) Both A and B are true (b) Both A and B are false
(c) Its wings vibrate so violently that the bang is heard (c) A is ture and B is false (d) A is false and B is true
(d) the normal engine noises undergo a Doppler shift to
generate the bang 11. Which of the following frequency of sound can be
generated by a vibrating simple pendulum as well as
7. A body vibrating with a periodic time of 2 milli second
produces a wave travelling in a medium with a by the vibrating vocal cords of a rhinoceros?
(a) 8 Hz (b) 25 Hz
velocity of 1250 m/s. What is its wavelength?
(c) 10 Hz (d) 15000 Hz
(a) 1.5 m
(b) 1.5 cm 12. A Sound wave travel faster on a hot summer day
(c) 2.5 cm than on a cold winter day.
(d) 2.5 m
B Velocity of sound is directly proportional to square
8. A water wave is travelling with a speed of 1.5 m/s. If
of its absolute temperature.
the distance between two consecutive crests is 2.5 cm. (a) Both A and B are true
Calculate the frequency of the wave. (b) Both A and B are false
(a) 50 Hz (b) 60 Hz (c) A is true but B is false
(c) 80 Hz (d) 100 Hz (d) A is false but B is true

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)

High Skill Questions

1 1
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) Frequency = =
Time period 5 × 10−2
5. (c) 6. (b) 3
7. (d) Given, T = 2 × 10−3 s, u = 1250 m/s =
3
= 60 Hz
v ∴ n = 1 5 × 10−2
v = nλ , λ =
n  t 
9. (d) Time =
2d 2 × 1595
= = 2 .2 s
λ = vt = 1250 × 2 × 10 −3
= 2.5 m v 1450
10. (c) 11. (c)
8. (b) Speed of water wave v =15
. m/s
2.5 12. (c) The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the
d = 2.5 cm, T = × 10−2 square root of it absolute temperature. Since, temperature of a
.
15
hot day is more than cold winter day, therefore sound would
5
T= × 10−2s travel faster on a hot summer day than on a cold winter day.
3
 Chapter

7
Heat
Temperature
Temperature of a body is defined as the degree of
hotness or coldness of that body. The temperature of the
body is a measure of average kinetic energy of the
molecules of the body. Kinetic energy of the molecules of
a body increases as its temperature rises.
Thermometer
The device which measures the temperature of the body
is called thermometer. Clinical thermometer measures
temperature in degree fahrenheit (F). In thermometer,
mercury is commonly used because it is opaque; shiny
and undergoes uniform thermal expansion through a
wide range from – 30°C to 300°C.
Temperature Scale
The different types of temperature scales are
(i) Celsius scale (ii) Fahrenheit scale
(iii) Kelvin scale (iv) Reaumur scale
Thermal Equilibrium
When two bodies attain the same temperature, they are
said to be in thermal equilibrium with each other.
Formula for calculating the quantity of heat absorbed or
given out by a body
Q = mc∆ t
where, Q = heat absorbed (or given out) by a body,
m = mass of the body,
c = specific heat of the body,
∆ t = change in temperature of the body.
Thermal Expansion
When a body is heated then there is some increase in its
size, this expansion is called thermal expansion.
Expansion of Solids
All the solids expand on heating. This expansion of
solids is called thermal expansion of solids.

Relation between the readings of temperature of these There are three types of expansion of solids
scales (i) Coefficient of linear expansion The increase in per
C F − 32 R K − 273 unit length, per degree celsius rise in temperature is
= = = called the coefficient of linear expansion.
100 180 80 100
∆L
5 Coefficient of linear expansionα =
Also, C= (F − 32) L × ∆t
9
Its unit is per °C.
Heat (ii) Coefficient of superficial expansion The increase in
per unit area per degree celsius size in temperature is
The form of energy which is exchanged among various called the coefficient of superficial expansion.
bodies or system an account of temperature difference is ∆A
Coefficient of superficial expansion β =
defined as heat. Its SI unit is joule and other unit A × ∆t
calorie is also usidely used. Its unit is per °C.
Heat 251
(iii) Coefficient of volume expansion The increase in per Melting Point (MP) The constant temperature at which a solid
unit volume per degree celsius rise in temperature is substance is converted into its liquid state is called melting point.
called the coefficient of volume expansion.
Boiling Point (BP) The constant temperature at which a liquid is
∆V
Coefficient of volume expansion γ = converted into its gaseous state is called its boiling point.
V × ∆t
Its unit is per °C. Calorie
î Relation between α , β and γ is α : β : γ = 1: 2 : 3
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature
of 1 g water by 1°C is called calorie.
Expansion of Liquid
1 cal = 4.18 J
Liquids have only cubical expansion because they have
no shape and size. When liquids are heated, then the Specific Heat
vessel in which liquids is kept also heated, so first vessel
The specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat
expands and then liquid.
which is required to raise the temperature of unit mass
Hence expansion of liquid is of two types
of the substance by 1°C.
1. Apparent Expansion The expansion of liquids
SI unit of specific heat is joule/kg/°C or J/kg/°C.
neglecting expansion of vessel is called
Q
apparent expansion. Specific heat c =
m × ∆t
Apparent expansion coefficient
Apparent increase in volume where, Q = amount of heat given to the substance
γα = m = mass of the substance
intial volume × rise in temperature
∆v α ∆t = rise in temperature
γα =
V × ∆t Principle of Calorimetry
2. Real Expansion It is the actual increase in When a hot body is mixed with a cold body, the heat lost
volume of liquid. Real expansion coefficient.
by hot body is equal to the heat gained by the cold body
Real expansion in volume provided no heat is allowed to escape to the surroundings.
γr =
Initial volume × rise in temperature Heat gained = Heat lost
∆V
γr =
V ×∆t Latent Heat
Latent heat of a substance is defined as the quantity of
Expansion of Gases heat which is supplied to a substance to bring about a
In expansion of gases, there are two coefficients change in its state without changing the temperature.
1. Volume Coefficients ( γ V ) The change in volume gas SI unit of latent heat is J/kg.
per unit volume per unit degree celsius constant pressure Formula for the heat absorbed or given out during
is known as coefficient of volume expansion. change of state of a substance
2. Pressure coefficient ( γ p ) The change in pressure of gas Q = mL
per unit degree celsius at constant volume is known as
where, Q = heat absorbed (or given out) during the
pressure coefficient.
change of state,
Thermal Capacity m = mass of the substance,
L = latent heat of the substance.
The thermal capacity of a body is the amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of the whole body Latent Heat of Fusion
by 1°C.
Latent heat of fusion of a solid is defined as the amount
Thermal capacity Q=m×c of heat required to convert a unit mass of the substance
where, m = mass of the body, from the solid state to the liquid state without
c = specific heat of the body. changing the temperature. The latent heat of fusion is
SI unit of thermal capacity is joule per degree centigrade 80 cal/g.
or J/°C.
252 Study Package for NTSE
î How does a water cooler cool the air? The Specific Heat Capacity of Some Materials
In the water cooler grass pads are used in all the three sides
and water is poured over them from the top. The atmospheric Specific Heat Capacity
air sucked through the wet pads evaporates water which Substance (103 J /g°C)
causes cooling.
Water 4.18
Aluminium 0.920
Latent Heat of Vaporization Glass 0.669
Latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the amount of Iron 0.419
heat required to change a unit mass of the substance from Copper 0.389
the liquid state to vapour state without changing the Brass 0.385
Silver 0.234
temperature. The latent heat of vaporization is 540 cal/g.
Mercury 0.138
Latent heat of vaporization is more than the latent heat
of fusion. The Values of Coefficient of
Linear Expansion (α)
Vaporization Coefficient of Linear Expansion
Solid
(10−5 °C −1 )
The process of converting a liquid into its gaseous state is
called vaporization. When water is heated Aluminium 2.5
continuously even after it attains the boiling point, it Brass 1.8
receives the latent heat due to which it changes its state Iron 1.2
Copper 1.7
from liquid to gaseous state.
Silver 1.9
Gold 1.4
Evaporation Glass 0.3
Lead 0.31
The process in which a liquid changes into vapours
called evaporation. Evaporation takes place below its The Values of Coefficient of Cubical (Volume)
boiling point. Expansion (γ)
The rate of evaporation depends upon
Coefficient of Coefficient of
l temperature of liquid Volume Expansion Volume Expansion
Solid Liquid
area of exposed surface
(10−5 per ° C −1 ) (10−5 per ° C −1 )
l

l nature of liquid
l open space available Iron 3.55 Mercury 18.2
Lead 0.84 Water 20.7
Paraffin 58.4 Petroleum 89.9
Relative Humidity Glass 2.53 Alcohol 122.0
Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of mass of
water vapour actually present in the certain volume of Difference between Fahrenheit Thermometer
air to the mass of water vapours required to saturate the and Celsius Thermometer
same volume of air at the same temperature. It is Fahrenheit Thermometer Celsius Thermometer
always expressed in percentage.
Lower fixed point is 32°F. Lower fixed point is 0°C.
m
Relative humidity = × 100 Upper fixed point is 212°F. Upper fixed point is 100°C.
M It is divided into 180 equal It is divided into 100 equal
where, m = mass of the water vapour actually present in divisions. divisions.
a given volume of air at the certain temperature, It is used to find out the It is used to find out the
temperature of human body. temperature of any substance
M = mass of the water vapour required to saturate the and atmosphere too.
same volume of air at the same temperature.
Heat 253
Difference between Heat and Temperature The Relationship between Heat
Heat Temperature and Work
Heat is form of energy. Temperature is the degree of When mechanical work is done, heat ( H) is produced.
hotness or coldness of body. The amount of heat produced is directly proportional to
The SI unit for measuring heat The SI unit for temperature is mechanical work done (W ).
is Joules. kelvin. W
i.e., W = JQ or J =
Heat is the sum of potential Temperature is the average Q
and kinetic energy of all the kinetic energy of all the
where, J is called the mechanical equivalent of heat.
molecules of a substance. molecules of a substance.

Difference between Specific Heat Air

and Thermal Capacity of a Body
Specific Heat
It is the amount of heat required
to raise the temperature of a unit
mass of a substance through
1°C.
SI unit is J/kg/°C.
It is of three types
Thermal Heat (i) Dry air If the amount of water vapour present in the air
is very small. The air is said to be dry.
It is the amount of heat
required to raise the (ii) Humid air If the amount of water vapour present in the
temperature of the whole body air is very large. The air is said to be humid.
by 1°C.
(iii) Saturated air The air containing maximum amount of
SI unit is J°/C. water vapour at some particular temperature is called
saturated air at that temperature.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. During change of state, the temperature of a 9. When vapour condenses into a liquid, then
substance (a) it absorbs heat
(a) increases (b) remains same (b) it evolves heat
(c) decreases (d) None of these (c) its temperature rises
(d) its temperature drops
2. At what temperature will the celsius and fahrenheit
scales indicate the same reading? 10. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature
(a) 40°C (b) – 40°C (c) 100°C (d) 0°C of 1 kg of substance by 1°C is called its
(a) specific heat (b) the total energy
3. One calorie is the heat required to raise the temperature (c) the latent heat (d) heat of fusion
of 1 g of water by
(a) 1°C (b) l K 11. Two blocks of lead, one twice as heavy as the other,
(c) 1°F (d) None of these are at 50°C. The ratio of the heat content of the
heavier block to that of the lighter block is
4. The unit of the coefficient of linear expansion (a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
(a) m (b) / °C (c) m/ °C (d) °C
12. A and B are two objects. The temperature of A is
5. The absolute zero on celsius scale is greater than that of B. This means that
(a) 80°C (b) – 12°C
(a) the molecules of A are moving faster on the average than
(c) 100°C (d) – 273°C
the molecules of B
6. Earliest thermometer was developed by (b) the total energy of A is greater than the total energy of the
(a) celsius (b) fahrenheit molecules of B
(c) kelvin (d) galileo (c) the average potential energy of A is greater than the average
potential energy of B
7. The unit of latent heat is (d) the heat content of A will always be greater than that of B
(a) cal/g (b) kcal/g/°C
(c) kcal/kg/°C (d) J/kg/°C 13. The temperature of a body is an indicator of
(a) the total energy of the molecules of the object
8. SI unit of temperature is (b) the average energy of the molecules of the object
(a) kelvin (b) celsius (c) the total velocity of the molecules of the object
(c) fahrenheit (d) joule (d) the average velocity of the molecules of the object
254 Study Package for NTSE

14. Heat energy of an object is 15. When an object is heated, the molecules of that object
(a) the average energy of the molecules of the object (a) begin to move faster
(b) the total energy of the molecules of the object (b) lose energy
(c) the average velocity of the molecules of the object (c) become heavier
(d) the average potential energy of the molecules of the object (d) become lighter

High Skill Questions

1. The temperature of the sun is measured with 8. What will be the thermal capacity of a vessel of mass
(a) platinum thermometer 20 kg and specific heat 450 J/kg/°C?
(b) gas thermometer (a) 2000 J/°C
(c) pyrometer (b) 4000 J/°C
(d) vapour pressure thermometer (c) 9000 J/°C
2. A litre of alcohol weighs (d) None of the above
(a) less in winter than in summer 9. When 500 g of boiling water is poured into a mug
(b) less in summer than in winter which weighs 0.15 kg, the temperature of water falls
(c) same both in summer and winter to 70°C, if the specific heat capacity of the substance
(d) None of the above of the mug is 800 J/kg° C, then the amount of heat lost
3. Water is used to coal radiators of engines, because by water will be
(a) of its lower density (b) it is easily available (a) 48000 J (b) 50000 J
(c) it is cheap (d) it has high specific heat (c) 58000 J (d) 63000 J
4. A metallic ball and highly stretched spring are made 10. The density of mercury at 0°C is 13.596 g/cm 3. Its
of the same material and have the same mass. They density at 100°C will be
are heated so that they melt, the latent heat required (a) 13.849 g/cm3
(a) are the same for both (b) 13.349 g/cm3
(b) is greater for the ball
(c) 18.849 g/cm3
(c) is greater for the spring
(d) 13.349 g/cm3
(d) for the two may or may not be the same depending upon
the metal 11. When hot tea is mixed with cold tea, the temperature
5. 540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g of water at 80°C. of the mixture.
The final temperature of the mixture is (a) first decreases then becomes constant
(a) 0°C (b) 40°C (c) 80°C (d) less than 0°C (b) first increases then becomes constant
(c) continuously increasers
6. At what temperature will the fahrenheit scale have (d) is undefined for sometimes and then becomes nearly
the double reading as that of celsius? constant
(a) 260°C (b) 240°C
(c) 160°C (d) 370°C
12. A A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. It
will overflow, both when heated or cooled.
7. How much heat is required to convert 1 kg of ice at
B There is expansion of water below and above 4°C.
0°C to water at 0°C?
(a) Both A and B are true
(Latent heat of ice = 3.34 × 103 J / kg) (b) Both A and B are false
(a) 8.94 × 108 J (b) 3.34 × 103 J (c) A is true and B is false
(c) 3.34 × 108 J (d) 3.34 × 102 J (d) A is false and B is true
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 8. (c) Themal capacity W = m s
5. (a) Heat taken by ice to melt at 0°C is W = 20 × 450 = 9000 J/ ° C
Q1 = mL = 540 × 80 = 43200 cal
Heat given by water to cool upto °C is 9. (d)
Q2 = ms∆θ = 540 × 1 × (80 − 0) 10. (b)
= 540 × 80 = 43200 cal
Hence, heat given by water is just sufficient to melt the whole 11. (c) From Calorimetry
ice and final temperature of mixture is °C. m1 × s ∆t 1 ≡ m2 × s × ∆t 2
C F − 32
6. (c) = 2 × ∆t 1 = 1 × ∆t 2
5 7
C 2 C − 32 ∆t 1 1
= =
5 9 ∆t 2
2
7C = 10C − 32 × 5 ∆t 1
= 0.5
C = 32 × 5 = 160° C ∆t 2

7. (b) Q = mL 12. (a) Water has maximum density at 4°C on heating above 4°C or
cooling below, 4°C. Density of water decreases and its volume
= 1 × 3.34 × 103 = 3.34 × 103 J increases and therefore, water overflow in both the cases.
 Chapter

8
Light
Reflection, Refraction
and Human Eye
l The light ray which falls on the mirror’s surface is
Light known as incident ray.

Light may be defined as the radiant energy which l The light ray which is sent back by the mirror is called
reflected ray. The normal is a line at right angle at the
causes sensation of sight. In other words, light itself
point of incidence.
is invisible but makes other objects visible. Light
l Angle between incident ray and the normal to the
waves are electromagnetic waves and do not require
surface is known as angle of incidence and the angle
any medium to propagate. The speed of light is between reflected ray and the normal to the surface is
different in different medium e.g., the speed of light called angle of reflection.
in vacuum is 3 × 10 8 ms −1 . When light travels in a
straight line, then this is known as rectilinear Laws of Reflection
propagation of light. There are two laws of reflection
Luminous object Those objects which emit their own (i) The incident ray, reflected ray and the normal, all lie
in the same plane.
light, stars, sun, fire, lamp candle are some examples of Normal
luminous objects. Reflected
Incident
Non-luminous object Those objects which do not emit ray i r ray
light energy itself are considered as non-luminous Mirror
objects.
(ii) Angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of
Planets, moon, buildings, chair are some examples of reflection.
non-luminous objects.
∠i = ∠r
Optical Medium A substance through which light can
travel without much loss in its intensity is known as Mirror
optical medium. For example air, water, glass etc.
A smooth and well polished surface which reflects most
Reflection of Light of the light falling on it regularly is known as mirror.
Phenomenon of change in the path of light without any Those images which can be obtained on the screen are
change in medium is known as reflection of light. In called real images.
other words, the process of sending back, the rays which Those images which cannot be formed on the screen are
falls on the surface of an object. Silver is the best called virtual images.
reflector of light.
Light Reflection, Refraction and Human Eye 257
Plane Mirror Centre of Curvature
l One surface of the mirror is plane and another surface It is the centre of the sphere of which the spherical
has a sharp metallic polish which is pasted. mirror is a part.
l For showing the full image of an object, the size of the Radius of Curvature
plane mirror should be at least half of the object.
Radius of curvature of spherical mirror is the radius of
l Image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual and
erect. The size of the image is equal to that of the object.
the sphere of which the mirror forms a part.
The image is laterally inverted. Mirror Formula
1 1 1
Spherical Mirror = +
f v u
A spherical mirror is a part of a hollow sphere, whose
one side is reflecting and other side is opaque. where, v is image distance, u is object distance and f is
focal length.
There are two types of spherical mirror R
Relation between f and R, f =
l Concave Mirror Whose reflecting surface is towards 2
the centre of sphere of which the mirror is a part. A
i.e., focal length is always equal to half the radius of
concave mirror is known as a converging mirror.
curvature of mirror or lens.
l Convex Mirror Whose reflecting surface is away from
the centre of sphere of which the mirror is a part. A Magnification
convex mirror is known as a diverging mirror. The linear magnification (m produced by a mirror is
Important terms Related to Spherical defined as the ratio of the size of the image (h′ to the size
Mirrors of the object h).
Size of image
Magnification =
Pole Size of object
The mid point or centre of the reflecting surface of h′
spherical mirror is called pole of the mirror. m=
h
Principal Axis v Image distance
and m= − =
The line joining the pole and the centre of curvature is u Object distance
called the principal axis of the mirror. It extends on both î If m is positive, then the image is erect and m is negative then
side of the mirrors. image is inverted.

Position and Nature of Image for Concave

S.
No. Position of object Ray diagram Position of image Nature and size of image
1. At infinity At focus or in the focal plane Real, inverted, extremely diminished in
size
C
P
F
m

2. Beyond the centre of Between focus and centre of Real, inverted and diminished
curvature A D curvature
C B
F P
B
A′
E

3. At the centre of At the centre of curvature Real, inverted and equal to object
curvature A D
B F
P
B' C
A' E
258 Study Package for NTSE

S.
Position of object Ray diagram Position of image Nature and size of image
No.
4. Between focus and centre Beyond centre of curvature Real, inverted and bigger than
of curvature E object
A
B' C D
B F P

A'

5. At the focus At infinity Extremely magnified

E
A
B' C D
B F P

A'

6. Between the pole and focus A' Behind the mirror Virtual, erect and magnified

A
C
B P B'
F

Position and Nature of Image for Convex Mirror

Image formed by convex mirror is always virtual, erect and smaller in size.
S.
No. Position of object Ray diagram Position of image Nature and size of image
1. At infinity Appears at the principal Virtual, erect and extremely
focus diminished

F C

2. Between infinity and the Appears between the Virtual, erect and diminished
pole A' principal focus and the pole
A
C
B' B F

Uses of Concave Mirrors

l Concave mirrors are commonly used in torches, search-lights and vehicles headlights to get powerful parallel beams
of light.
l They are used as shaving mirror.
l The dentists use concave mirrors to see large images of the teeth of patients.
l Large concave mirror are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar furnaces.

Uses of Convex Mirrors

Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles.
Light Reflection, Refraction and Human Eye 259
Refraction of Light Refractive Index of Some Material Media
The phenomenon of change in path of the light when it Material medium Refractive index
goes from one medium to another is known as refraction Air 1.0003
of light. The basic cause of refraction is change in the Water 1.0003
velocity of light while going from one medium to the Crown glass 1.31
Carbon 1.52
other. Disulphide 1.63
N'
Incident Ruby 1.72
i
ray Diamond 2.42
O
r
M'
Effects of Refraction
Glass N
(i) A stick partly immersed in water appears to be bent
Emergent at the water surface.
Air O ray
(ii) An invisible coin placed in a vessel become visible
θ
C when water is poured in the vessel.
M
(iii) Rising and setting of sun appears visible even it
or below the horizon.
The phenomenon of bending of light when it passes from (vi) Twinkling of stars.
one medium to another is called refraction. î The refractive index depends upon the nature of the material
of the medium and on the wavelength of the light used. It
Law of Refraction does not depend on angle of incidence.

There are two laws of refraction

(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at Lens
the point of incidence all three lie in the same plane.
(ii) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of
Lens is a portion of a transparent refracting medium
angle of refraction remains constant for a pair of bounded by two spherical surfaces.
media These are of two types
sin i
i.e., = constant
sin r (i) Convex Lens
The constant value is called the refractive index of A convex lens is thicker in the middle and thinner at the
the second medium with respect to the first.
edges. This convex lens is also known as a converging
This law is also called Snell’s law.
lens.
Refractive Index
(ii) Concave Lens
Ratio of speed of light in two different mediums is
A concave lens is thinner at the middle and thicker at
known as refractive index. It is represented by µ.
the edges. This concave lens is also known as a
sin i
µ= diverging lens.
sin r
v Lens Formula
= 1
v2 1 1 1
= −
f v u
where, sin i = sine of angle of incidence (in air) and
sin r = sine of angle of refraction (in medium). where, f = focal length of lens
v = distance of image from lens
The refractive index of medium 1 with respect to
u = distance of object from lens
medium 2 ( 2 n1 ) is equal to the reciprocal of the refractive
index of medium 2 with respect to medium ( 1 n2 ).
1 Magnification Produced by Lenses
2 n1 = Linear magnification produced by a lens is the ratio of
1 n2
l

the size of the image to the size of the object.

The ratio of speed of light in vacuum c to the speed of h′
Linear magnification m =
light in any medium v is called absolute refractive index h
of the medium. l The linear magnification is equal to the ratio of image
c
Refractive index of a medium = distance to the object distance.
v v
m=
u
260 Study Package for NTSE

Power of Lens
Reciprocal of focal length is known as power of lens. Its unit is dioptre.
1
Power, P =
Focal length ( f )
If a number of thin lenses having power P1 , P2 and P3 etc., are placed in close contact with one another then their
resultant power P = P1 + P2 + P3 + ...
A convex lens has positive power and a concave lens has negative power.
Formation of Image by a Convex Lens

S. No. Position of object Ray diagram Position of image Nature and size of image
1. At infinity At focus Real, inverted, extremely small

F1 2F2
2F1 F2

2. Beyond 2 F1 Between F2 and 2 F2 Real, inverted, smaller than object

A
F2 B'
B 2F1 F1
A'

3. At 2 F1 At 2 F2 Real, inverted and same size as that of

A object
2F1 F2 B'
B F1 2F2
A'

4. Between F1 and 2 F1 Beyond 2 F2 Real, inverted and magnified

A
2F1 F2 2F2 B'
B F1 2F2
A'

5. At F1 At infinity Real, inverted and extremely magnified

A
F1 F2
B

6. Between pole and F1 A' On the same side as the Virtual, erect and magnified
object

B′ F1 B F2
Light Reflection, Refraction and Human Eye 261
Formation of Image by a Concave Lens
S.
Position of object Ray diagram Position of image Nature and size of image
No.
1. At infinity At F1 (on the same side as the object) Virtual, erect and extremely diminished

2. Between infinity Between the lens and F Virtual, erect and diminished
A
and the lens
A'
F2 2F2
2F1 B F1 B'

Optical Instruments 3. Telescope Telescope consists of two convex lenses

1. Simple Microscope This is simply a convex lens placed coaxially in a hollow tube. The lens facing the
of small focal length. The object to be enlarged is object is called objective and the lens toward the eye
placed within the focus of lens. is called eye piece.
B Objective
B
B

B2 Eye piece

A1 A u
A β
v α A2 A1
Fe Fe Fo

Magnification’s when final image is formed at D

Ve + L 2
and infinity B1
 D B2
mD = 1 + 
 f L1

 D fo  fe  fo
and m∞ =   Magnification mD = 1 +  and m∞ =
f fe  D fe
where, D is least distance of distinct vision. Length LD = f o + ue and L∞ = f o + f e
2. Compound Microscope It consists of two convex
lenses coaxially fitted in a hollow tube. The lens
facing the object is called objective and the lens
Human Eye
towards the eye is called eye piece. The front transparent part of the hard outer surface of
v  D the eye ball is called cornea. It protects the inner
Magnification mD = − o 1 + 
uo  fo  delicate parts of the eye. The image of an external object
Length of the microscope tube between two lenses is formed by the crystalline lens on the retina. The
L = vo + ue retina is a film of nerve fibres converting the curved
Ciliary
uo vo uo muscels

A Iris containing
fluid called Lens
1 Ratina
humour
B2 B
Cornea

A1

ve Optic
A2 nerves
262 Study Package for NTSE

back surface of eye. The most sensitive point on the
retina is called the yellow spot. The retina contains
rods and cones, which senses light intensity and colour
respectively. The line joining the centre of cornea and the
centre of lens is called the optical axis of eye. The
anterior chamber contains a water fluid called aqueous
humour and posterior chamber contains a transparent
jelly called vitreous humour. The part from where the
optic nerve starts from retina and enters the brain is
insensitive to light and is called the blind spot. The ability
of the eye to observe distinct objects situated at widely
different distances from it is known as accommodation.
Near Point and Far Point
l The point nearest to the eye at which an object is visible
distinctly is called the near point of the eye.
l The maximum distance up to which the normal eye can
see the things clearly is called the far point of the eye.
l The distance of near point from the eye is known as least
distance of distinct vision. For a normal eye, its value is
about 25 cm.
l The distance between the near point and the far point is
called the range of vision.
î Sometimes the crystalline lens of people at old age become
milky and cloudy. This condition is called cataract.
Persistence of Vision
The effect of vision due to which the impression of an
image rests on the retina even after the removal of the
image on it is called the persistence of vision.
Defects of Vision
1. Myopia or Short Sightedness
It is a defect in which we can see near objects clearly but
cannot see objects at far clearly. This defect can be
corrected by using a concave lens.
Retina
Parallel rays
from distant object
Image is
formed
in front of
Eye lens has more
converging power or
retina
eye ball is too long
Myopic eye
Its correction
Parallel rays Retina
coming from infinity
2. Hypermetropia or Long Sightedness
In this defect, we can see objects at far clearly but
cannot see which are near objects, clearly. This defect
can be corrected by using convex lens.
Nearby
object
O
Image is formed
behind the retina
Hypermetropic eye
Its correction
Retina
Rays coming
from distance object
N R
Convex lens
Correction for
hypermetropic eye
3. Presbyopia
It is that defect by which old man cannot read
comfortably and clearly without spectacles. It can be
corrected by applying convex lenses.
4. Astigmatism
It is that defect due to which a person cannot focus on
horizontal and vertical line simultaneously. It can be
corrected by superimposing cylindrical lenses.
Colour Blindness
Colour blindness is that defect of the eye due to which a
person is unable to distinguish between certain colours.
The colour blind person do not posses some cone cells
that respond to certain colours. For example, red-green
colour blind person does not have red and green colour
pigment containing cells in the retina of his eye.
Prism
A prism is a transparent refracting medium bounded by
two plane surface inclined at same angle.

Red
F R Orange
Yellow
Green
Concave lens Blue
White Indigo
Correction Light Violet
for Myopia Glass Prism
Light Reflection, Refraction and Human Eye 263
Dispersion of light l The brilliant red colour of rising and setting sun is due to
scattering of light.
The process of splitting up of a white beam into
constituent colours as it passes through a refracting î In the visible spectrum, the wavelength increases from violet
to red. Therefore blue or violet light is scattered much more
medium is known as dispersion of light. than red light.
î Higher the refractive index of the light rays, higher is the
angle of deviation caused by a prism. Colour
Rainbow Red, green and blue are primary or basic colours of light.
Dispersion and internal reflection results in production The colours obtained by mixing of any two primary colours
of colours are which appear hanging in the sky and of light are known as secondary colours.
known as rainbow. (i) Red + blue = magenta
(ii) Blue + green = peacock blue
Scattering of Light (iii) Red + green = yellow
l When light falls on various types of suspended particles, A mixture of all the three primary colours of light red,
it is deviated from its path in random directions. This green and blue produces white light.
phenomenon is called scattering.
(i) Red + green + blue = white
l The phenomenon of scattering of light by the suspended
⇒ Yellow + blue = red + peacock blue = green + magenta
particles (e.g., tiny water droplets) gives rise to Tyndall
= white
effect.
l The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of Any two colours on mixing, produces white light are
the scattering particles. known as complementary colours e.g.,
(i) Blue and yellow
l Scattering of light is maximum in case of violet colour and
minimum in case of red colour of light. (ii) Red and peacock blue
(iii) Green and magenta.
l Blue colour of sky is due to scattering of blue light.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which one of the following materials cannot be used 6. A tank of water appears to be less deep than it
to make a lens? actually is due to
(a) Water (b) Glass (c) Plastic (d) Clay (a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
2. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex (c) high refractive index of water
lens to get a real image of the size of the object? (d) low refractive index of air
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
7. Unit of power of lens is
(c) At infinity (a) metre (b) dioptre
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus (c) kg-m (d) dioptre-cm 2
8. The focal length of the thick lens having greater
3. The middle vascular coat that darkens the eye chamber
radius of curvature in comparison to the thin lens will
and prevents refraction by absorbing the light rays is be
(a) choroid (b) vitreous humour (a) more (b) less
(c) retina (d) aqueous humour (c) equal (d) None of these
4. Image of an object is formed by the human eye at? 9. Which one is not a primary colour?
(a) Pupil (b) Retina (c) Iris (d) Cornea (a) Red
(b) Blue
5. What should be the position of an object so that a real (c) Yellow
and inverted image of same size is obtained using a (d) All are primary colour
convex lens?
(a) Between the lens and its focus 10. The image formed by an object due to long
(b) At the focus sightedness
(c) At twice the focal length (a) behind the retina (b) on retina
(d) At infinity (c) before retina (d) None of these
264 Study Package for NTSE

11. Astigmatism occurs when the cornea does not have a 14. When an object approaches a convex lens, the size of
truly spherical shape. This defect can be rectified by the image formed will
the use of a (a) decrease
(a) concave lens (b) cylindrical lens (b) increase
(c) convex lens (d) plano-convex lens (c) first decreases then increases
(d) remains the same
12. Which one represents the unit of refractive index?
(a) Metre (b) Degree 15. Which one of the following denotes the unit of power
(c) Diopter (d) It has no units of a lens?
13. Planets do not twinkle like stars, because (a) Metre
(a) they do not have light of their own (b) Dyne
(b) they are nearer to earth as compared to stars (c) Diopter
(c) they are rotating all the time (d) None of the above
(d) they are smaller than stars

High Skill Questions

1. The true statement is
(a) The order of colours in the primary and secondary rainbow is
the same
(b) The intensity of colours in the primary and the secondary
(a) P
rainbows is the same Principal axis F
(c) The intensity of light in the primary rainbow is greater and the
order of colours is the same than the secondary rainbow
(d) The intensity of light for different colours in primary rainbow
is greater and the order of colours is reverse than the 4. Which one of the following correctly defines the
secondary rainbow reflection of light ray on a spherical mirror?
2. Match the List I with the List II from the combination
shown.
List I List II
(b) P
A. Presbiopia 1. Sphere-cylindrical lens Principal axis F
B. Hypermetropi 2. Convex lens of proper power may
a be used to close to the eye
C. Astigmatism 3. Concave lens of suitable focal
length
D. Myopia 4. Bifocal lens of suitable focal length

Codes (c) P
Principal axis F
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 4 3 1

3. Which one of the following is correct for concave

mirror? (d) P
Principal axis F
Position Position Nature of
Image size
of object of image image
(a) At C At C Equal to Real and
object inverted 5. An object of size 4 cm placed perpendicular to the
(b) Beyond C Between F Diminished Virtual and principal axis of a concave mirror. The distance of the
and C erect object from the mirror equals radius of curvature. The
(c) Between F At infinity Enlarged Real and size of the image will be
and C inverted (a) 1 m (b) 2 m
(d) At F At infinity Highly Virtual and (c) 3.5 cm (d) 4 cm
diminished erect
Light Reflection, Refraction and Human Eye 265
6. The path of a refracted ray of light in a prism is 11. Which of the following would form a highly diminished
parallel to the base of the prism only when the image at focus?
(a) light is of a particular wavelength
(b) ray is incident normally at one face
(c) ray under goes minimum deviation
(d) prism is made of a particular types of glass
2F1 F 2F1 F
7. The distance v of the real image formed by a convex
lens is measured for various objects distance u.
(I) (II)
A graph is plotted between v and u, which one of the
following graph is correct? (a) I (b) II
(c) I and II (d) None of these

(a) v (b) v 12. An object is placed at a distance 30 cm from a convex

mirror of focal length 15 cm. The image formed is
(a) 20 cm from the pole
(b) real and magnified − 10 cm from the pole
u u
(c) + 10 cm from the pole
(d) + 60 cm from the pole

(c) v (d) v 13. A 10 mm long alpin is placed vertically in front of a

concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the alpin is
formed at a distance of 30 cm in front of the mirror.
u u
The focal length of this mirror is
(a) − 30 cm (b) − 20 cm
8. A The air bubble shines in water. (c) − 40 cm (d) − 60 cm
B Air bubbles in water shines due to refraction of light.
(a) Both A and B are true (b) Both A and B are false 14. Figure shows a ray of light as it travel from
(c) A is true and B is false (d) A is false and B is true medium A to medium B. The refractive index of
medium B relative to medium A is
9. A The cloud in sky generally appear to be whitish.
B Diffraction due to cloud is efficient in equal measure at all
wavelengths. Medium B
(a) Both A and B are true (b) Both A and B are false 45°
(c) A is true and B is false (d) A is false and B is true 45°
10. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected 30°
60°
if the upper half of the lens is covered with a black
paper? Medium A
one-half
Black paper (a) 3 / 2 (b) 2 / 3
(c) 1/ 2 (d) 2 /2

15. A light bulb is placed between two plane mirrors

inclined at angle of 60°. The number of images formed
(a) The size of the image is reduced to per half of the image will
are
be absent (a) 6
(b) The up (b) 2
(c) The brightness of the image is reduced (c) 5
(d) There will be no effect (d) 4
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (d ) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 13. (b) Magnification
5. (d) 6. (c) v h2
m= − =
u h1
7. (d) For lens
1 1 1
= − v h2
− =
f v u u h1
If u = ∞, v = f and if u = f, v = ∞ 30 5
− =
So, option d is correct. u 10
8. (c) Shining of air bubble in water is an account of total internal u = − 60 cm
reflection. we have u = − 60 cm
9. (c) The clouds consists of dust particles and water droplets. v = − 30 cm
Their size is very large as compared to the wavelength of the 1 1 1
incident light from the sun. So, there is very little scattering of = +
f v u
light. Hence the light which we receive through the clouds has all
1 1
the colours of light. As a result of this, we receive almost while = −
− 30 60
light, therefore the cloud are generally white.
−2 −1
10. (c) 11. (a) =
60
12. (c) Here u = − 30 cm, f = 15 cm 1 −3
=
1 1 1 f 60
We have = +
f v u 60
f= = − 20 cm
1 1 1 30
= −
15 v 30 sin i
14. (b) Refractive index µ =
1 1 1 sin r
= +
v 15 30 sin 45°
µ=
1 2+2 sin 60°
=
v 30
1/ 2 2 2
1 3 µ= = =
= 3 3× 2 3
v 30
2
⇒ v = 10 cm
360° 360°
15. (c) Number of image n =  − 1 =  − 1 = 5
Hence, the image formed is 10 cm from the pole.  0   60° 
 Chapter
9
Electricity
Charge
Charge is a fundamental property of matter. There are
two types of charges
(i) Positive Charge Charge obtained by a glass rod
when rubbed with a silk cloth.
(ii) Negative Charge Charge obtained by ebonite rod
when rubbed with woolen cloth.
Like charges repel each other while unlike charges
attract each other. Electric charge is conserved, additive
and quantised. Charge carried by a body does not
depend upon velocity of the body. Force between charges
can be attractive or repulsive, according as charges are
opposite or similar charges.
î Proton carries positive charge, neutron is electrically neutral
and electron carries negative charge.
The magnitude of charge on an electron is called the
fundamental charge. Its value is 1.6 × 10 −19 coulomb
and is denoted by e.
Conservation of Charge The charge can neither be
created nor destroyed but it may simply be transferred
from one body to another. This is called the principle of
conservation of charge.
Coulomb’s Law
According to this law, the force of attraction or repulsion
between any two point charges is directly proportional to
the product of the magnitude of charges and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them.
qq
F ∝ 12 2
r opposite to the direction of the flow of electrons that is, from
k q1 q2
F =
r2
where, k is electrostatic force constant. The value of k in
SI unit is 9.0 × 10 9 Nm 2 / C2 , q1 and q2 are two point
charges and r is the distance between them. The force
acts always along the line joining the two charges.
Conductors and Insulators
Conductors The substances through which charges
can flow easily are called conductors. The examples of
conductors are all metals like copper, silver, gold,
aluminium and iron etc. Carbon in the form of graphite is
also a conductor. The human body is a very good
conductor.
Insulators The substances through which electricity
cannot flow are called insulators. The examples of
insulators are glass, ebonite, paper, plastic, cotton, dry
air, mica and bakellite etc.
Electric Current
Electric current is the rate of flow of electric charges. If a
net charge q flows across any cross-section in time t, the
current I through the cross-section is
q ne
I = =
t t
The unit of electric current is ampere.
1 milli ampere (mA) = 10 −3 A
1 micro ampere ( µA ) = 10 −6 A
Electric current is a scalar quantity.
î The conventional direction of electric current is taken as
the positive terminal of the battery to the negative, through
the external circuit.
268 Study Package for NTSE
y
Electrostatic Potential where, R is proportionality
constant called resistance of a
The electrostatic potential difference or potential
conductor.
difference is defined as the work done in bringing a unit
This graph shows that if we plot l
of positive charge from one point to another in an
electric field. It is denoted by V. a graph between current flowing
SI unit of potential difference is volt. and potential difference, we get x
V
a straight line passing through
Electric Potential and Potential Difference origin.
The work done on the electric charge in the process of Resistance The resistance R of a conductor is defined
charging gets stored as potential energy of charges. The as the ratio of the potential difference V across it to the
potential energy per unit charge is called electric current I flowing through it.
potential. V
Resistance R =
Electric potential energy I
i.e., Electric potential =
Charge The SI unit of resistance is the Ohm.
Work done
= 1 kΩ = 10 3 Ω
Charge
W Resistivity
or V =
q l Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its
length.
Electric potential difference between two points in an
electric circuit carrying some current as the work done R ∝ l
to move a unit charge from one point to the other. l Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the
area of cross-section.
The SI unit of electric potential is volt.
1
R ∝
Voltmeter A
l The device which is used to measure the potential l Resistance of a conductor also depends upon the nature
difference between the two ends of the conductor is of material and temperature of the conductor.
called voltmeter. From all above discussion, we conclude that
l The voltmeter is connected parallel across the two ends l ρl
of the conductor where potential difference is to be R∝ or R =
A A
determined.
where, ρ is constant and is called resistivity of the
l A voltmeter must have high resistance.
conductor. The resistivity of a material does not depend
Ammeter on length and area of cross-section of wire. So resistivity
An ammeter is a device which is used to measure of wire remains unchanged.
electric current. An ammeter is always connected in
series with the circuit. Combination of Resistances
The resistances can be combined in two ways
Ohm’s Law l In series When we have to increase the resistance of a
conductor then individual resistors are connected in
This law states that the current flowing through a series. These resistors are connected end to end
conductor is directly proportional to the potential consecutively. The resistors are said to be connected in
difference across the ends of the conductor, provided series if same current is flowing through each resistor
physical condition such as temperature, mechanical when some potential difference applied across the
strain etc., are kept constant. conductor.
I ∝V R1 R2 R3

or V ∝I
or V = RI R = R1 + R2 + R3
V Maximum current can be drawn when the resistors
or =R are connected in series.
I
Electricity 269
l In parallel When we have to decrease the resistance of The SI unit of electric power is watt.
a conductor then individual resistors are connected in
1 kilowatt = 1000 W
parallel. These resistors are connected between the
same two points. In this combination, potential 1 Megawatt (MW) = 10 6 W
difference remains same
1
=
1
+
1
+
1 1 Horse power = 746 W
R R1 R2 R3
Kilowatt Hour Kilowatt hour is the commercial unit of
R1
electrical energy.
R2 Electrical energy = Power × Time
1 kWh = 1 kW × 1 hour
R3
= 1000 W × 60 × 60 s
= 3600000 J
Heating Effect of Electric Current 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10 6 J
l When an electric current flow through a metallic conductor, it gets
heated up. This is called heating effect of current. This effect utilised
in devices such as electric heater, electric iron etc. Household Electrical Appliances
l More amount of current passing through the conductor, large is the
rate of collision and consequently larger is the amount of heat Electric Bulb
produced. It is based on the principle of heating effect of electrical
current and used for lighting purposes. It consists of a
coiled filament fitted on a glass stem inside a glass bulb,
Electrical Energy the filament is made up of pure tungsten because it has
The amount of heat produced (or the electrical energy a high resistivity and a high melting point (3000°C).
spent) is equal to the amount of work done sending the The bulb is evacuated and is filled with an inert gas like
current through the conductor. argon and neon. This prevents oxidation and
V2T
H = I 2 RT = VIT = evaporation of the filament and thus increases its life.
R
The SI unit of electrical energy is Joule. Electric Iron

This relation was recognised and experimentally In the electric iron, nichrome wire is used because
verified by joule and is so called joule’s law of heating nichrome has a high resistivity and high melting point.
effect. When an electric current is passed through the
filament coil, it gets heated to about 800°C and
Electric Power becomes red hot.

The rate at which work is done by an electric current is Electric Fuse

known as electric power. A fuse is a device for the safety of appliances and electric
W H circuits against excessive heating during a short circuit
P= =
t t or overloading. Generally, the fuse is a wire of pure tin
2
I Rt or an alloy of tin and lead (63% tin + 37% lead). The fuse
= = I2R
t wire has high resistance and low melting point. It is
V2 used in series with electric installations.
P=
R
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The resistivity does not change if 8. What is one kilowatt hour equal to?
(a) the material is changed (a) 1 J (b) 3.6 × 106 J
(b) the temperature is changed (c) 1000 J (d) None of these
(c) the shape of the resistor is changed 9. The resistance of germanium ……… with increase in
(d) both material and temperature are changed temperature.
2. The commonly used safety fuse wire is made of (a) decrease (b) increase
(a) copper (c) remains same (d) Cannot say
(b) lead 10. Which one is the correct graph between current and
(c) nickel potential difference?
(d) an alloy of tin and copper
3. An electric iron draws a current 4 A when connected

Current
Current
to a 220 V mains. Its resistance must be (a) (b)
(a) 1000 Ω (b) 55 Ω
(c) 44 Ω (d) None of these
Potential difference Potential difference
4. Out of three bulbs 25 W, 60 W and 100 W, which bulb
has least resistance?
(a) 25 W bulb

Current
Current

(b) 60 W bulb (c) (d)

(c) 100 W bulb
(d) All bulbs have equal resistance
Potential difference Potential difference
5. The unit of electric charge is
(a) watt (b) coulomb
11. The element used almost exclusively for filaments of
(c) joule (d) ampere
incandescent lamps
6. The force between two parallel wires carrying current (a) copper (b) gold
has been used to define (c) silver (d) tungsten
(a) ampere (b) pressure 12. Voltmeter is used to measure
(c) volt (d) force (a) potential difference (b) current
7. The resistance of carbon ……… with rise in the (c) power (d) resistance
temperature. 13. With which wire is the fuse wire connected?
(a) decrease (a) Live wire (b) Earth wire
(b) increase (c) Neutral wire (d) Any wire
(c) remains constant
(d) firstly decrease then increase 14. Fixed resistance is called
(a) rheostat (b) resistor (c) key (d) switch
Electricity 271

High Skill Questions

1. How many electrons will contribute in causing one 7. Four cells of resistance 1/4 Ω are connected in series
microampere of current? with one cell has its terminal reversed. The current
(a) 6.25 × 1015 (b) 6.25 × 109 flowing will be, if each cell has emf 1.5 V and 1 Ω is
(c) 6.25 × 1012 (d) 6.25 × 106 the external resistance
(a) 1.5 A
2. Two wires that are made up of two different
(b) 3.5 A
materials whose specific resistance are in the ratio (c) 2.8 A
2 : 3, length 3 : 4 and area 4 : 5. The ratio of their (d) None of the above
resistance is
(a) 6 : 5 (b) 6 : 8 (c) 5 : 8 (d) 1 : 2 8. If a wire of resistance 1 Ω is stretched to double its
length, then the resistance will become
3. The current flowing through a conductor when a 1
charge of 40 C flows through for 2 min is (a) Ω
2
(a) 20 A (b) 80 A
(b) 2 Ω
(c) 0.48 A (d) 0.33 A 1
(c) Ω
4. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B 4
in the circuit as shown in the figure given below is (d) 4 Ω
9. Calculate current flowing in the circuit given below
2Ω 2Ω 2Ω
A B
2Ω
2Ω
(a) 1 Ω (b) less than 1 Ω
(c) more than 1 Ω (d) 8 Ω
24V
5. In the circuit shown here, what is the value of the (a) 0.4 A
unknown resistor R so that the total resistance of the (b) 10 A
circuit between points P and Q is also equal to R (c) 24 A
10 Ω (d) 16 A

3Ω 10. Certain observation and certain causes are listed in

P Q
columns I and II respectively in the following table.
3Ω R
Column I Column II
(a) 3 Ω (b) 39 Ω
A. Electric charge 1. watt
(c) 69 Ω (d) 10 Ω
B. Electric potential 2. ampere
6. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads 2 A the C. Electric current 3. Coulomb
resistor R is D. Electric power 4. volt
3Ω
R Codes
A B C D
6Ω
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
6V
A (c) 1 2 4 3
(a) 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 3 Ω (d) 4 Ω (d) 3 1 2 4
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a)
q 40
3. (d) Current i = , i = = 0.33 A 10. (b) From Ohm’s law,
t 2 × 60
V=i R
V2 V ∝i
4. (c) We have, P= or
R
where, R is constant. Therefore, graph between an potential
1
i.e., P∝ difference V current will be straight line.
R
11. (d) 12. (a)
Therefore, as resistance decreases power increases.
13. (a) 14. (b)
So, bulb of 100 W has least resistance.

High Skill Questions

10 × (3 + R ) 30 + 10 R
1. (b) R=3+ =3+
10 + (3 + R ) 13 + R
2. (c) We have, ρ1 : ρ2 = 2 : 3 , l1 : l 2 = 3 : 4
39 + 3 R + 30 + 10 R 69 + 13 R
R= =
and A1 : A 2 = 4: 5 13 + R 13 + R
We have,
13 R + R 2 = 69 + 13 R
l
Resistance R= ρ
A R= 69 Ω
R1 ρ1 l A 2 3 5 R 5 6. (a) Resultant resistance
= × 1 × 2= × × , 1 =
R 2 ρ2 l 2 A1 3 4 4 R2 8 6×3
R’ = + R
i.e., R1 : R 2 = 5 : 8 6+ 3

3. (c) R’ = 2 + R
V
4. (c) Current I =
2Ω 2Ω R
6
A B 2=
2+ R
2Ω R = 1Ω

2 Ω and 2 Ω are in series, then 7. (b)

R = 2 + 2 = 4Ω l
8. (d) Resistance R = ρ
A
4 Ω and 2 Ω are in parallel, then R1  r
2
After stretching = M 
1 1 1 1+ 2 1 3 4 R2  l2 
= + = , . Ω
= R’ = = 133
R' 4 2 4 R’ 4 3 2
1 l 
Therefore, the equivalent resistance between the points A and B =  1
in the circuit is more than 1Ω . R2  l 2 
2
5. (c) The given circuit can be simplified as follows 1  l 
= 1
10 Ω R2  2 l 2 
1 1
3Ω =
R2 4
P Q
R2 = 4 Ω
(3 + R) R1 R 2 2 ×2
9. (c) Equivalent resistance Req = = = 1Ω
10 Ω R1 + R 2 2 + 2
V 24
3Ω Hence, current flowing in the circuit I = = = 24
Req 1
P Q
3Ω R 10. (a)
 Chapter
10
Magnetic Effects of
Electric Current
Magnets
An object which shows the property of attracting small
pieces of iron towards it and resting in north-south
direction, when it suspended freely is called a magnet.
This property of magnet is called magnetism.
The substances which have magnetism and are found
naturally are known as natural magnets, whereas the
materials which are made magnets artificially by
different methods are known as artificial magnets. A
piece of lodestone (Fe 3O4 ) is a natural magnet.
Magnetic Field The space surrounding a magnet
where a magnetic force is experienced is called a
magnetic field.
Magnetic Field Lines A magnetic fields line is a
continuous curve in a magnetic field.
Properties of Magnetic Field Lines
l They travel from north pole to south pole outside the
magnet and south pole to north pole inside the magnet.
l They are always in the form of closed and continuous
curve.
l The number of field lines per unit area is the measure of
the strength of magnetic field.
l Magnetic field lines are closed near the pole of a
magnet and become wider as we move away from the
pole.
l Two magnetic lines of forces never intersect each other. If
the lines intersect then at the point of intersection there
would be two directions for the same magnetic field,
which is not possible.
Uniform and Non-uniform Field If the magnetic field
lines parallel and equidistant, the field is uniform and if
they are unequally spaced the field is non-uniform.
Magnetic Field due to Current Carrying Conductor When
an electric current is passed through a conductor, a
magnetic field is set up around it, which exists so long as
the current flows in the conductor. This is called magnetic
effect of electric current.
Magnetic Field due to a Current through a Straight
Conductor The magnetic field produced at a given
point is directly proportional to the current flowing in
the wire.
The magnetic field produced is inversely proportional to
distance of that point from the wire
1
i. e., B∝
r
Thus greater is the current in the wire, stronger is the
magnetic field produced and greater is the distance of a
point from the wire, weaker is the magnetic field.
Force on a Current Carrying Conductor
Placed in Magnetic Field
l If a straight conductor of length l carrying current I of
ampere is placed in a magnetic field B, perpendicular to
the field, thus it will be acted upon by a force
F = BIl
l Force on a charge q, moving in magnetic field in a
direction perpendicular to the field with a velocity v, is
given by the formula
F = qvB
274 Study Package for NTSE
ordinary steel. Such types of strong magnets are used in
Right Hand’s Thumb’s Rule microphones, loudspeakers, ammeters, voltmeters and
If a current carrying conductor is imagined to be held in speedometers etc.
your right hand such that the thumb points along the Force on a Current Carrying Conductor in a Magnetic
direction of current then the direction of magnetic field Field The magnetic force on a current carrying
lines. conductor
(i) is directly proportional to the strength of current
– Direction of i. e., F∝i
current (ii) is directly proportional to the length ( l ) of the
conductor
Direction of i. e., F ∝ l
magnetic field
(iii) is directly proportional to the strength of external
magnetic field ( B )
i. e., F ∝ B
+
(iv) is directly proportional to the sine of angle between
direction of current in conductor and the magnetic
Accordingly if current in wire is vertically upward, the field F ∝ sin θ
magnetic field lines are anticlockwise while if current in ∴ Force F = Bil sin θ
wire is vertically downward, the magnetic field lines are
clockwise. Fleming’s Left Hand Rule
Magnetic Field Due to a Circular Coil The magnitude If fore finger, middle finger and thumb of our left hand
of magnetic field at the centre of current carrying are stretched mutually perpendicular in such a way that
circular loop is directly proportional to the current fore finger points along the direction of magnetic field,
passing through the circular loop and is inversely middle finger points along the direction of current then
proportional to the radius of circular loop. thumb will indicates the direction of force.
µ I
i. e., B= 0 Thumb
2r (Motion)

Magnetic Field due to a Solenoid The magnetic First finger

(Field)
induction B at the centre of such solenoid is given by
µ NI
B = 0 where, N is the number of turns of length l
l Second finger
of solenoid, I is the current in ampere and µ 0 is the (Current)
permeability of material used to make magnet. Motion
Field
Electromagnet
l If an electric current is passed round a straight bar of soft Current
iron, it becomes a very strong magnet so long as the
current passes through it. As soon as the current is Electric Motor
stopped it loses its all magnetism. Such a magnet is called l An electric motor is a device which converts electrical
an electromagnet. energy into mechanical energy.
l The electromagnets are used in electric bell, telephone, l The electric motor works on the magnetic effect of current.
electric motor, etc. l Electric motor is used as an important component in electric
l The permanent magnets are made of steel while the fans, refrigerators, mixers, washing machines etc.
electromagnets are made of soft iron. Materials like
carbon steel, chromium steel, cobalt and tungsten steel Magnetic Flux
and some of the alloys which have trade names are
usually used for making permanent magnets.
l The total number of magnetic field lines passing through
a given area normally is called magnetic flux.
l Nipermag is an alloy of iron, nickel aluminium and
l Magnetic flux = Magnetic field × Normal area
titanium while alnico is an alloy of aluminium of these
alloys are many times stronger than those made up of φ = B⋅ A
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 275
Electromagnetic Induction
Whenever there is a change in magnetic flux linked with

Voltage
a coil (or circuit) an emf is induced in the coil. This
phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction and Time
emf produced in the coil is called the induced emf.
Galvanometer A galvanometer is an instrument that
can detect the pressure of a current in a circuit. The
l The frequency of AC supply in india is 50 cycles/second (or
pointer remains at zero (the centre of the scale) for zero hertz).
current flowing through it. It can deflect either to the
left or to the right of the zero mark depending on the
direction of current. Generator/Dynamo
An electrical machine used to convert mechanical
Faraday’s Law energy into electrical energy is known as generator.
l Whenever there is a change in magentic flux linked with a
conductor an emf is induced. AC Dynamo
l The magnitude of the emf induced is directly proportional to It is a device which produces alternating current or in
the rate of change of magnetic flux by the conductor.
other words, in which the direction of the induced
The direction of current induced in a closed circuit is always such as
current changes alternatively after equal intervals of
to oppose the cause that produces it. This is called Lenz’s law. Lenz’s
law is based on conservation of energy. time. In this case we use slip rings due to which the
direction of the current changes. It works on the
principle of electromagnetic induction.
Fleming’s Right Hand Rule
If we stretch the forefinger, middle finger and thumb of DC Dynamo
our right hand in such a way that thumb points along It is a device which produces direct current or in other
the direction of motion of conductor, forefinger along the words, the direction of the current remains the same. In
direction of magnetic field, then the middle finger points case of DC dynamo, split ring commutator is used,
along the direction of induced current. which gives current only in one direction.
Thumb
(Motion) î An important advantage of AC over DC is that electric power
can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of
First finger energy.
(Field)
Motion
Field Points to Remember
Second finger
l
Neon testor is used to indicate the presence of electricity (AC
(Current) Current or DC ) in a circuit.
l
A switch is a device used to ON and OFF an electric circuit or
appliance.
l
A fuse is a small piece of wire made of a materials of high
Direct and Alternating Current resistance and low melting points. The maximum safe current
in an electric fuse I ∝ D3/2
Direct Current where I is current and D is diameter of wire.
l A current that always flows in one direction l
To avoid the risk of fatal electric shock, the metal body of
is called Direct Current (DC). electric appliance is earthed.
Current

l It is graphically represented by a straight l

The fuse in the lightning and fans circuit of a small house is of15
line parallel to the time axis. A rating which means that the fuse will melt if the current
Time exceeds 5A value.
l
Electric bell and electric fan are application based on magnetic
Alternating Current effect of current.
l An electric current which flows first in one direction in a
l
When a current carrying coil is suspended freely in earth’s
circuit called the positive direction, then in the reverse or magnetic field. It’s plane stays in east-west direction.
negative direction at a regular interval of time is called
Alternating Current (AC).
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Magnetic lines of force 8. Which is immaterial for an electric fuse?
(a) have more directions (a) its radius (b) its material
(b) have no physical reality (c) its length (d) All of these
(c) can be used to indicate the directions of the magnetic field 9. According to international convention of colour
of a point coding in a wire
(d) All of the above (a) live is red, neutral is black and earth is green
2. The direction of the force on a current carrying wire (b) live is brown, neutral is blue and earth is green
(c) live is brown, neutral is green and earth is black
placed in a magnetic field depends on
(d) live is red, neutral is yellow and earth is blue
(a) the direction of the current but not on the direction of the field
(b) the direction of the field but not on the direction of the current 10. The magnetic field inside a long solenoid carrying
(c) the direction of the current as well as the direction of the field current
(a) is zero
(d) neither the direction of the current nor the direction of the
(b) decreases as we move towards its ends
field
(c) increases as we move towards its ends
3. An electric current can be produced in a closed loop (d) is the same at all points
(a) by connecting it to a battery, but not by moving a magnet 11. Which of the following is not associated with
near it Fleming’s right-hand rule?
(b) by moving a magnet near it, but not by connecting it to a (a) Magnetic field (b) Movement
battery (c) Resistance (d) Induced current
(c) by connecting it to a battery, as well as by moving a magnet 12. For a current in a long straight solenoid N and S
near it poles are created at the two ends. Among the
(d) neither by connecting it to a battery nor by moving a magnet following statements, the incorrect statement is
near it
(a) The field lines inside the solenoids are in the form of straight
4. Which of the following involves electromagnetic lines which indicate that the magnetic field is same at all
induction? points in the solenoid
(a) A rod is charged with electricity (b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can
(b) An electric current produced a magnetic field be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material, when
(c) A magnetic field exerts a force on a current carrying wire soft iron is placed inside the coil
(d) The relative motion between a magnet and a coil produces (c) The pattern of magnetic field associated with the solenoid is
an electric current different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a
magnet
5. You have a coil and a bar magnet. You can produce an (d) The N and S poles exchange positions when the direction of
electric current by moving current through the solenoid is reversed
(a) the coil, but not the magnet
13. In the arrangement shown in figure, there are two
(b) the magnet, but not the coil
coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod.
(c) either the magnet or the coil
Initially the key is not inserted, then the key is
(d) neither the magnet nor the coil
inserted and later removed. Then
6. Which of the following measures will decrease the
strength of the magnetic field of a current carrying
solenoid?
(a) Increase the temperature of the solenoid
(b) Increase the current
(c) Increase the number of turns of wire G
K
(d) All of the above
(a) the deflection in the galvanometer remains zero throughout
7. When is the back emf of an electric motor the
(b) there is a momentary deflection in the galvanometer but it
greatest? dies out shortly and there is no effect when the key is removed
(a) When the motor is first switched on
(c) there are momentary deflections in the galvanometer that
(b) When the motor is speeding up
die out shortly, the deflections are in the same direction
(c) When the motor is at maximum speed
(d) there are momentary deflections in the galvanometer that
(d) When the motor is slowing down
die out shortly, the deflections are in opposite directions
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 277
14. The most important safety method used for 15. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
protecting home appliances from short circuiting or (a) are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet
overloading is (b) are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet
(a) earthing (b) use of fuse
(c) do not exist
(c) use of stablizers (d) use of electric meter
(d) depend upon the area of cross-section of the bar magnet

High Skill Questions

1. If the key K in the arrangement (figure) is taken out 4. Dynamo core is laminated because
(i.e., circuit is made open) and the magnetic field (a) magnetic field increases
lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD. The (b) magnetic saturation level in case increase
lines are (c) residual magnetism in core decrease
Variable resistance
(d) loss of energy in core due to eddy currents decrease
– +
A 5. A Magnetic flux can produce induced emf.
A Long strength B Faraday established induced emf experimentally.
conductor
(a) Both A and B are correct
B (b) Both A and B are false
D (c) A is true and B is false
(d) A is false and B is true
C
6. A A spark occur between the poles of a switch when
K the switch is opened.
(a) concentric circles B Current flowing in the conductor produces
(b) elliptical in shapes magnetic field.
(c) straight lines parallel to each other (a) Both A and B are correct
(d) concentric circles near the point O, but of elliptical shapes as (b) Both A and B are false
we go away from it (c) A is true and B is false
2. A circular loop placed in a perpendicular to the plane (d) A is false and B is true
of paper carries a current when the key (K , is ON the 7. Match the following columns.
current as seen from point A and B (in the plane of
paper and on the axis of the coil) is anticlockwise and Column I Column II
clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines A. Electric motor 1. Indicate the presence of
points from B to A. The north pole of the resultant electricity
magnet is on the close to B. Generator 2. Electrical energy into
mechanical energy
A B C. Neon tester 3. Mechanical energy into
electrical energy
+ –
A B C
Variable
(a) 2 3 1
resistance (b) 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 2
A
8. A conducting wire is moving towards right in a
(a) A magnetic field B. The direction of induced current in
(b) B the wire is shown in the figure. The direction of
(c) A if current is small and B if current is large magnetic field will be
(d) B if current is small and A if current is large
(a) in the plane of paper pointing
3. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic towards right
induction (b) in the plane of paper pointing
(a) the direction of induced current is such that it opposes the towards left Bi
cause producing it (c) perpendicular to the plane of v
(b) the magnitude of induced emf produced in a coil is directly paper and downwards
proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux (d) perpendicular to the plane of
(c) the direction of induced emf is such that if opposes paper and upwards
(d) None of the above
278 Study Package for NTSE
9. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle of 10. Due to 10 A of current flowing the circular coil of
radius 0.8 m in 2s. The values of the magnetic field B 10 cm radius, the magnetic field produced at its
at the centre of the circle will be centre is 3.14 × 10−3 Wb/m2 . The number of turn in
10−9 the coil will be
(a) (b) 10−19 µ 0
µ0 (a) 5000 (b) 50
−10 (c) 50 (d) 25
2 × 10
(c) 2 × 10−10 µ 0 (d)
µ0

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 14. (d) AC generator consist of construction, armature, strong field
magnet. Slip rings and brushes while DC generator consist of
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c)
armature coil, magnet, commutator and brushes.
13. (d) In arrangement, the key is inserted and later removed, then
15. (a) Magnetic field lines travel from north pole to south pole
there are momentary deflections in the galvonometer are in
outside the magnet and south pole to north pole inside the
opposite directions.
magnet.

High Skill Questions

1. (a) Magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point is spark as the current bridges the air gap between the poles of the
directly proportional to the current flowing in the wire. switch. The spark is more of likely in circuits wire of large
The magnetic field produced is inversly proportional to distance inductances.
of the point from the wire 7. (a)
1
B ∝
r 8. (c) According to Fleming right hand rule, the direction of B will be
perpendicular to the plane of paper and act downward.
If the current in wire i vartically downward the magnetic field lines
are clockwise that is the magnetic field lines are concentric . × 10−19
q 2 × 16
9. (c) Current i = = . × 10−19 A
= 16
circles. t 2
2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) . × 10−19
µ 0 i µ 0 × 16
∴ B= = = µ 0 × 10−19
2r 2 × 0.8
5. (d) Electromagnetic force induces, when there is no change in
magnetic flux. Faraday did experiments in which, there is relative 10. (c) The magnetic field
motion between the coil changes and emf induces. µ 0 π Ni
B= ⋅
6. (a) According to Lenz’s law, induced emf are in a direction such 4π r
as to attempt to maintain the original magnetic flux when a 10−7 × 3.14 × N × 10
3.14 × 10− 3 =
change occurs. When the switch is opened, the sudden drop in (10 × 10−2 )
the magnetic field in the circuit induces an emf in a direction that
N = 50
attempts to keep the original current flowing. This can cause a
 Chapter
11
Sources of Energy
Energy
Ability or capacity to do work is called energy. The
energy associated with a hot body is called heat energy
or thermal energy. The energy produced by nuclear
reactions is called nuclear energy. The energy
produced by chemical reactions is called chemical
energy. The energy associated with an electric current
is known as electrical energy. These are some forms of
energy. SI unit of all the forms of energy is joule and
denoted by J. Energy of a body is a scalar quantity.
Sources of Energy
The main source of energy on this earth is the solar
energy. Sources of energy can be classified as renewable
sources or non-renewable sources
Renewable Sources
Those sources which are being produced continuously in
nature and are inexhaustible and are also known as
non-conventional sources of energy. Wood, falling
water, sun, winds, plants are some examples of
renewable sources.
Non-renewable Sources
Those sources which are not produced continuously and
it takes a long time to replenish and are exhaustible.
These sources are also known as conventional
sources of energy. Coal, natural gas, petroleum are
some examples of non-renewable sources.
Fossil Fuels
A natural fuel formed deep under the earth from the
prehistoric remains of plants and animals is called
fossil fuel. Examples of the fossil fuel are: natural gas,
coal, petroleum etc.
Coal
Coal is a complex mixture of compounds of carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen and some free carbon. It is found
in deep coal mines under earth’s surface. Some small
amounts of nitrogen and oxygen are also present.
Uses of Coal
(i) It is used as fuel for heating purposes in homes and in
industries.
(ii) Coal after destructive distillation formed coke which is
used as a reducing agent in the extraction of metals.
(iii) It is also used as a fuel in thermal power plants for
generating electricity.
(iv) It is used in the manufacture of fuels gases like coal gas.
Petroleum
Petroleum (from Latin petra means rock and oleum
means oil) is a dark viscous oily liquid and is considered
to be of biological origin. Usually, it is formed by the
decomposition of marine animals under high pressure
and temperature. It is well known that the crude
petroleum oil is not a single compound but it is a mixture
of compounds. It is lighter than water and insoluble in it.
In the crude petroleum oil, there is a complex mixture of
several solid, liquid and gaseous hydrocarbons mixed
with water, salt and earth particles.
Natural Gas
It is another important fossil fuel which is found with
petroleum in oil wells. It is by product of petroleum
mining. There are also some oil wells, which yield only
natural gas. Natural gas mainly consists of methane
(CH4 ) with a small quantities of ethane and propane.
Uses of Natural Gas
Following are the uses of Natural Gas
(i) As we know, natural gas mainly consists of CH4.
When it is heated strongly, it produces carbon and
hydrogen. When this hydrogen is heated with
280
nitrogen, it combines to form ammonia (NH3 ) . NH3 is
reacted with acid to form ammonium salts, which are
used as fertilisers.
(ii) As natural gas is heated strongly, methane
decomposes to form carbon and hydrogen. The carbon
thus formed is called carbon black which is used as
filler in the tyre industry.
(iii) When natural gas is compressed highly due to high
pressure, it is changed into CNG (compressed
natural gas), it is used in vehicles (cars, trucks, buses
etc.). It is a good alternative of petrol and diesel
because it does not cause much air pollution.
(iv) It is also used as a fuel in thermal power plants for
generating electricity.
(v) It is used as a domestic and industrial fuel. Natural
gas burns readily to produce a lot of heat.
Advantages of Natural Gas
Natural gas is a complete fuel in itself (when heated,
produces a lot of heat without pollution) so it can be used
both in homes and industries directly. It does not
produce pollutants, so it is termed as eco-friendly fuel.
Natural gas can be directly supplied from the gas wells
to homes and factories for burning purposes through a
network of underground pipelines and which eliminates
the need for additional storage and transport.
Thermal Power Plant
A power plant in which heat energy is used to generate
electricity is called thermal power plant. Heat energy is
obtained by burning fossil fuels like coal, oil or gas.
Solar Energy
The sun is one of the main sources of renewable sources
of energy. The energy obtained from the sun is called
solar energy. The light and heat energies of sunlight are
collectively called solar energy.
One square metre of the Earth’s upper atmosphere
receives 1.4 kJ of energy per second from the sun.
Then, solar energy
Amount of energy by Earth’s surface
=
Time (second) × Area
Thus, if E is total energy received by area A of earth
surface in time t.
E
Then, solar constant S =
A×t
Uses of Solar Energy
The main uses of solar energy are
(i) Solar energy is used for drying clothes.
Study Package for NTSE
(ii) For producing electricity, light energy of the sun
radiation can be used to produce electricity by using
solar cells made of silicon (these are called
photovoltaic cells). Photovoltaic cells are also used for
running the equipments in satellites.
(iii) Solar energy is used for making salt from the sea
water.
(iv) Solar energy is used for cooking food by solar cooker.
(v) Solar energy has been used for the preservation of
fruits, vegetables and fish etc., by the process of sun
drying.
(vi) Solar energy is used to run watches and calculators.
(vii) Solar energy is used by the plants for photosynthesis.
(viii) Solar energy keeps the atmosphere warm. We can sit
in sunlight during the winter for making the body
warm.
Advantages of Solar Energy
(i) It is renewable (non-conventional) form of energy
which is produced coutinuous in nature and therefore
it is inexhaustible.
(ii) It is free and available in adequate quantities in
almost all the parts of world.
(iii) It is very clean in use and causes no pollution.
Solar Panel
l A single solar cell produces very small current at a small
potential difference. So for practical use, a large number
of such solar cells are connected together.
l A combination of a large number of solar cells is called a
solar cell panel. A solar cell panel can provide stronger
currents under high potential difference.
l Solar cell panels are used for producing electricity for use
in space stationary artificial satellites.
Solar
irrandlance
Module
Battery
charger
controller
Battery
DC Loads
Battery system
Solar Panel
Sources of Energy 281
Use There are some conditions necessary for combustion,
these are
Solar cells are being used
l Attainment to ignition temperature
(i) in wrist watches, toys and calculators. l Presence of air
(ii) in artificial satellites and space probes as main l Presence of combustible material
source of energy.
(iii) in radio or wireless transmission systems or TV relay Calorific Value of Fuel
stations in remote locations.
The amount of heat produced by the unit mass of a fuel
(iv) in traffic signals.
is called the calorific value of a fuel. Heigher the
(v) in street lighting in rural areas.
calorific value, better the fuel.
(vi) for operating water pumps for domestic and
agricultural purposes. Calorific value of fuel
(vii) for operating radio and TV sets in remote/rural areas. Heat produced on complete combustion
=
(viii) for providing electricity to lighthouses, situated in Amount of fuel
the sea and off-shore oil drilling platforms.

Advantages of Solar Cells Nuclear Reaction

l A nuclear reaction may be defined as the reaction in
(i) Solar cells directly utilise solar energy.
which nucleus or nuclei of atom or atoms undergoes a
(ii) They can work satisfactorily even in the presence of change and new elements are formed.
diffused radiations.
(iii) They do not produce any pollution.
l We can consider when uranium-235 atoms are
bombarded with neutrons, nucleus of each uranium atom
(iv) They do not require maintenance.
breaks to form nuclei of barium and krypton with the
emission of neutrons.
Conventional Non- 235
92 U + 0 n → 56 Ba
1 139
+ 94
36 Kr + 3 10 n + Energy
Conventional Sources of Energy Uranium Neutron Barium Krypton Neutron

Nuclear reaction are mainly of two types

Conventional Energy l Nuclear fission
The traditional sources of energy which are being used l Nuclear fusion
for countries and are known to common people are called
the conventional sources of energy. Some Nuclear Fission
conventional sources of energy like wood, flowing water The process in which nucleus of a heavy element splits
are renewable while like coal, petroleum are non into two constituent nuclei is called nuclear fission.
renewable.
For example, when isotope of uranium U-235 is
bombarded with slow moving neutron, its nucleus splits
Non-Conventional Energy
into the nuclei of barium, krypton and 3 neutrons with
The sources of energy which are available in nature and release of enormous amount of energy.
can be used by technology of recent times are called the 235
92 U + 0 n → 56 Ba
1 139
+ 94
36 Kr + 3 10 n + Energy
non-conventional or alternate sources of energy.
Uranium Neutron Barium Krypton Neutron
The example of non conventional energy sources are
solar energy, wind energy, bio-mass energy, ocean Nuclear Fusion
energy, geothermal energy and nuclear energy etc.
The process in which two nuclei of light atoms combine
Bio-Energy together to form a heavy nucleus is called nuclear
fusion. In nuclear fusion also a large amount of energy
Green plants convert solar energy into chemical energy
is released, but to begin a nuclear fusion reaction, a very
by photosynthesis process, this energy is known as
high temperature is required and it is about 10 6 °C.
bio-energy.
We can see it, in sun, at temperature 4 × 10 6 ° C, 4 nuclei
Combustion of hydrogen combine to give the nuclear fusion as shown
l Process of burning of fuel is known as combustion.
below.
During the process of combustion, heat and light are 4 11 H → 4
2 He + 210 e + Energy
produced by the fuels. The mixture of methane and other Hydrogen Helium Positron
gases produced by an aerobic decomposition of slurry of
plants and animals wastes is called bio-gas.
282 Study Package for NTSE

92 U + → 139
56 Ba+ + 3 10 n + Energy
235 1 94
Difference between Nuclear Fission and 0n 36 Kr
Nuclear Fusion Uranium Neutron Barium Krypton Neutron

S.No. Nuclear Fission
1. In nuclear fission, a heavy
nucleus splits into two
lighter nuclei.
2. High temperature is not
required to initiate the
reaction.
3. It is chain reaction.
4. It is carried by bombarding
the heavy nucleus with
neutrons.
5. Controlled fission reaction is
used to generate electrcity in
nuclear reactors.
6. A large amount of energy is
released.
7. Splitting of uranium shows
nuclear fission.
8. The products formed as
result of nuclear fission are
radioactive and harmful. No
proper method of disposal
of the waste products has
been invented so far.
Nuclear Fusion
In a fusion reaction, two light
nuclei combine to form a
heavy nucleus.
Very high temperature
4,000,000°C is required to
initiate the reaction.
It is not a chain reaction.
It is carred by heating light
nuclei at very high.
temperature, bombarding
of neutrons is not required.
Nuclear fusion reactions
have not been controlled till
today.
In fusion reactions energy
released is several times
greater than that of fission
reactions.
Combinatins of hydrogen
nuclei to form helium nuclei
in sun shows nuclear fusion.
The products formed as a
result of nucelar fusion are
not radioactive and not
harmful.
From above reaction, we can see that uranium is the
radioactive element.
Chain Reaction
Chain reaction is that reaction in which the particle that
begins a reaction is also produced in larger number
during the time of reaction and the reaction continues
on its own till one of the reactants is consumed
completely.
e.g., Fission of U-235 is a chain reaction.
l Suppose a neutron is incident on a nucleus of U-235, it
splits into two parts and 3 neutrons. The 3 neutrons will
strike the three nuclei and they will produce 9 neutrons
and then 27 neutrons, and so on.
l The amount of energy released is very-very large and
result is a big explosion. A chain reaction is the basis of an
Atom bomb.
Nuclear Reactor
The whole arrangement where controlled fission
reaction is carried out and' nuclear energy is converted
into heat energy is called nuclear reactor.
It was Italian scientist Enrico Fermi who carried out
a controlled nuclear fission in the United States on
2 December 1942 and mankind entered the nuclear
age.

Radioactivity Principle of Working of Nuclear Reactor

l The phenomenon in which the unstable nuclei tend to
disintegrate into smaller atomic nuclei to get stability
and radiates some radiations is known as radioactivity
and elements are called radio-active elements or
radioisotopes.
l In some atomic nuclei, there is a balance between the
nuclear force which is attractive force and electrostatic
force which is repulsive force and a slight disturbance
makes the nucleus of atom unstable and nucleus
disintegrates into smaller nuclei. We can see it when
U-235 bombarded with slow moving neutrons, it starts to
split into new elements barium and krypton with the
emission of large amount of heat as given below
Disintegration of nuclear fuel is carried out and heat
energy, so generated is used to heat water which then
turns turbines and electric generators. In this way,
nuclear energy is used for peaceful work.
l Brown rods absorb excess neutrons in the nuclear
reactor.
l A substance that slows down the speed of neutron in the
nuclear reactor, is called moderator.
l Graphite and Heavy water act as a moderator in the
nuclear reactor.
l Cadmium rod also absorbs neutrons in the nuclear
reactor.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. At the present rate of consumption, our total oil 10. In a nuclear reaction the particles that take part, are
reserve would last for (a) electrons and protons
(a) 10-12 years (b) 12-15 years (b) protons and neutrons
(c) 20-30 years (d) 50-60 years (c) neutrons only
(d) All of the above
2. At the present rate of consumption, our total coal
reserves would last for 11. In a chemical reaction only ...... take part.
(a) 200-300 years (b) 300-400 years (a) electrons in outermost orbitals
(c) 50-100 years (d) 100-200 years (b) electrons in innermost orbitals
(c) protons of nucleus
3. India obtains … of energy from nuclear reactors. (d) neutrons of nucleus
(a) 9% (b) 17% (c) 8% (d) 3%
12. When all the hydrogen in sun’s crust change into
4. Enrichment of uranium is carried out at nuclear fuel helium
complex (a) stop extinguishing the nuclear fire
(a) Kota (b) Narora
(b) sun would, begin to collapse and shrink under its own
(c) Hyderabad (d) New Delhi
gravitational attraction
5. In India, uranium mainly comes from (c) the temperature in the interior core would rise again and
(a) Khetri mines (b) Jadugada mines helium nuclei will change to carbon nuclei
(c) Nangalam (d) Hyderabad (d) All the above processes may take place
6. The first nuclear reactor set up in India was at 13. A neutrino is
(a) Rana Pratap Sagar (b) Kalpakkam (a) massless and positively charged
(c) Tarapur (d) Trombay (b) equal to mass of electron and negatively charged
7. To absorb excess neutrons from the nuclear fuel we use (c) massless and negatively charged
(a) sodium or potassium rods (d) massless and having nil charge
(b) magnesium or beryllium rods
14. A positron is
(c) cadmium or boron rods
(d) sodium or lithium rods (a) equal to proton in mass and positively charged
(b) equal to electron in mass and positively charged
8. The scientist who first performed the fission reaction (c) equal to neutron in mass and negatively charged
was? (d) equal to electron in mass and negatively charged
(a) Hans Bethe (b) Enrico Fermi
(c) Rutherford (d) Alfred Noble 15. When two protons moving at high speed collide they
change into
9. In a nuclear fission reaction
(a) one neutron, one positron, one neutrino
(a) only electrons are redistributed, protons remain as such
(b) one positron, one neutrino
(b) only protons are redistributed, neutrons remain as such
(c) one proton, one positron, one neutrino
(c) only neutrons are redistributed, protons remain as such
(d) one proton, one neutron, one positron, one neutrino
(d) protons and neutrons both are redistributed
284 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. Complete the following reaction 21 H + 21 H → 5. The nuclear fusion reaction takes place at the
(a) 10
(b) 3 condition of
4 Be 2 He
4 4 (a) extremely high temperature
(c) 2 He (d) 2 Be (b) 378°C
2. Certain observation and certain are listed in (c) 205°C
(d) low pressure
Columns I and II respectively in the following table.
6. There are three elements A, B, C having mass
Column I Column II number 3, 180 and 235 respectively. Which one of
A. Electron 1. James Chadwick them is suitable for making an atom bomb?
(a) A (b) B
B. Proton 2. Rutherford
(c) C (d) All of these
C. Neutron 3. J.J. Thomson
D. Positron 4. Carl D. Anderson 7. Which two are isotopes of each other
88 Z 230 , 90 Z
230
, 88 Z 228 , 89 Z
230
A B C D
230 228 230 230
(a) 3 2 1 4 (a) 88 Z and 88 Z (b) 88 Z and 89 Z
(b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 230
and 230
(d) 228
and 230
88 Z 90 Z 88 Z 90 Z
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 1 4 3 8. Total coal reserves in our country will last for …
3. In addition to visible light, which other type of years only.
(a) 50-100 (b) 100-200
radiations are emitted by a 100 W bulb when it is
(c) 200-300 (d) 500-1000
glowing?
(a) Red light 9. In which kind of reaction only electron can take part?
(b) Violet light (a) Fusion (b) Fission
(c) Infra-red rays (c) Physical (d) Chemical
(d) None of the above 10. Which of the nuclear reaction are useful in the
4. Atom bombs based on which nuclear reaction? generation of electricity?
(a) Chemical (b) Physical (a) Fission (b) Fusion
(c) Fusion (d) Fission (c) Both a and b (d) None of these

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 7. (a) The atoms of element having same atomic number but different
mass number are called isotopes. If isotopes have same chemical
5. (a) The precess in which lighter nucleus fuse together to form a
properties.
heavier nucleus is called nuclear fusion. At very high temperature
230 230
or very high speed is required by two particles for fusion. i.e., Z 88 and 90 Z are isotopes
At high temperature, the material consisting of moving charged 8. (c) 9. (d)
particle with equal number of positive and negative charges are
called plasma. 10. (a) Nuclear reactor is used for generating electricity. A nuclear
reactor is a device in which nuclear fission can be controlled
6. (c) chain reaction.
 Part-II : Chemistry
Chapter

1
Is Matter Around
us Pure
Matter
Anything which occupies space and has mass is called matter.
Matter

Classification on the basis Classification on the basis

of physical state of chemical constitution

Element Compound Mixture

Solid Liquid Gas

Solid is rigid, having Liquid is fluid, Gas having

definite shape having definite indefinite shape
and volume volume and volume

Mixture
A mixture is a chemical substance which consists of two or more elements or compounds not chemically combined
together. Mixture contains the properties of constituent elements or compounds. e.g., Air is a mixture of gases
like oxygen, nitrogen, argon, carbon dioxide and water vapour etc.

Types of Mixtures
Mixtures are of two types
1. Homogeneous Mixture Mixture having uniform composition throughout, is known as homogeneous mixture. A
mixture of sugar in water is homogeneous mixture.
2. Heterogeneous Mixture Mixture which doesn’t have a uniform composition throughout its mass, is known as
heterogeneous mixture. A mixture of petrol and water is a heterogeneous mixture.
286 Study Package for NTSE

Solution
Homogeneous mixture of two or more non-reacting substances, is known as solution. In a binary solution, the
substance exists in excess is known as solvent, while the substance in minority is known as solute.
e.g., In sugar solution, sugar is solute and water is solvent.
Types of Solutions
Solute Solvent Example Solute Solvent Example
Gas Gas Air (mixture of many gases). Liquid Solid Mercury in an amalgam, hydrated salts.
Gas Liquid Aerated drinks. Solid Gas Iodine vapours in air.
Gas Solid Gases adsorbed over metal surface Solid Liquid Salts dissolved in water.
(occlusion). Gases dissolved in minerals.
Liquid Gas Humidity in air. Solid Solid Alloys of metals e.g., Interstitial solid solution.
Liquid Liquid Mixture of miscible liquids (alcohol in water).

Saturated, Unsaturated Supersaturated Solutions

Saturated solution is a solution, which has the maximum amount of the solute dissolved in it at a particular
temperature. If such a solution is heated, it becomes unsaturated in the sense that it can dissolve more of the same
solute. Similarly, if a saturated solution is cooled, the solubility of the solute will decrease and it will come out of the
solution and will appear on the surface, such a solution is known as supersaturated solution.
Suspension, Colloidal Solution and True Solution
Colloidal Colloidal
Property Suspension True solution Property Suspension True solution
solution solution
Particle size > 10−7 m 10−7 − 10−9 m < 10−9 m Appearance Opaque Generally Transparent
transparent
Separation by Tyndall effect Shows Shows Doesn’t show
(a) Ordinary Possible Not possible Not possible Diffusion of Doesn’t diffuse Diffuse slowly Diffuse rapidly
filtration particles
(b) Ultrafiltration Possible Possible Not possible Nature Heterogeneous Heterogeneous Homogeneous
Setting of Settle under Settle only on Doesn’t settle Example Chalk-water Milk, blood, Sugar solution,
particles gravity centrifugation mixture, muddy soap solution salt solution
water

Separation of Mixtures
It can be done by the following methods
1. Evaporation To separate the volatile component from its non-volatile solute, we use evaporation e.g., Dye from ink.
2. Centrifugation The method of separating finely suspended particles in a liquid when it is rotated at a very high
speed in a used container is called centrifugation, e.g., Separating cream from milk.
3. Separating Funnel This method is used for immiscible liquids that separate out in layers depending on their
densities.
4. Sublimation The changing of a solid directly into vapour on heating is called sublimation e.g., Separation of salt and
ammonium chloride because ammonium chloride sublimes.
5. Chromatography It is used to separate those solutes that dissolve in the same solvent e.g., To separate colours in a
dye.
6. Distillation The process of separation of a liquid from a soluble solution by converting a liquid into its vapour and
then condensing vapour to its pure form in the liquid state is another container is called distillation.
7. Fractional Distillation It is used to separate the components of air, which is a homogeneous mixture.
8. Crystallisation To obtain pure copper sulphate from an impure sample we use crystallisation. It is generally used to
purify solids.
Is Matter Around us Pure 287
Physical and Chemical Changes
A physical change is one in which some of the physical properties colour, state etc., of the substances undergoing
change are altered temporarily, but the actual composition and mass remain unchanged and no new substances are
produced. The substance is restored to its original state as soon as the carve of change is withdrawn. Evaporation of
water, dissolution of salt in water etc., are the examples of physical change.
A chemical change is one in which the substances undergoing change are transformed into new substances,
chemical properties of which are quite different from the original substances. e.g., Burning of coal, souring of milk,
digestion of food in our body, rusting of iron etc. Chemical changes are irreversible, i. e., The obtained substance can
be changed back to the original substances.

Element
Elements are building blocks of matter and it can neither be broken nor be built up from two or more simple
substances by any known physical and chemical method.
There are 118 elements known at present, out of which 92 elements occurs in nature and rest are man-made.
Solid elements Sodium (Na), Carbon (C), Aluminium (Al) etc.
Liquid elements Mercury (Hg), Bromine (Br) etc.
Gas elements Helium (He), Neon (Ne) etc.

Compound
Compound is a pure substance made up of two or more elements chemically combined in a fixed ratio by weight. It is
always homogeneous.
A compound cannot be separated into its components by physical methods. The properties of a compound are
different from the constituent elements. e.g., Water (H2 O) is a compound made up of two elements, hydrogen and
oxygen, chemically combined in a fixed ratio of 1 : 8 by weight.

Points to Remember
● A mixture can be classified as homogeneous or heterogeneous.
● Mixtures can be separated by using various separation techniques, into pure substances.
● The concentration of a solution is the amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution/solvent.
Mass of solute
(i) Mass by mass percentage of a solution = × 100
Mass of solution
Mass of solute
(ii) Mass by volume percentage of a solution = × 100
Volume of solution
● Colloids are useful in industry and daily life. The particles are called dispersed phase and the medium in which they are distributed is called
dispersion medium.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect? 3. A mixture of naphthalene and sodium chloride can be
(a) Salt solution (b) Milk separated by
(c) Copper sulphate solution (d) Potassium nitrate solution (a) steam distillation (b) fractional distillation
(c) filteration (d) sublimation
2. Which of the following is not a chemical change?
(a) Heating of wax 4. The formation of mixture
(b) Heating of hydrated CuSO 4 (a) releases energy
(c) Rusting of iron (b) absorb energy
(d) Burning of candle (c) does not involve any energy change
(d) None of the above
288 Study Package for NTSE

5. Which out of the following given options is not an 11. Solubility of a solute in a solvent to form a solution
element? (a) decreases with temperature
(a) Gold (b) Graphite (b) increases with temperature
(c) Silicon (d) Silica (c) shows no change
(d) None of the above
6. Which of the following is a compound?
(a) N2 (b) CO 2 (c) O 2 (d) H2 12. Chemical formula for hydrated copper sulphate is
(a) CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H2O (b) FeSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O
7. A liquid with soluble impurities is purified by (c) CuSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O (d) ZnSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O
(a) sublimation (b) crystallisation
(c) distillation (d) filteration 13. No new substance is formed in
(a) a physical change (b) a chemical change
8. Two immiscible liquids that have different density
(c) chemical reaction (d) None of the above
values can be separated by
(a) using separating funnel (b) distillation 14. Melting of ice is a ……… change.
(c) filteration (d) fractional distillation (a) chemical (b) physical
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
9. NH4Cl shows the property of
(a) freezing (b) boiling 15. Which of the following is not a physical change?
(c) cooling (d) sublimation (a) Melting of wax
10. Air, a homogeneous mixture can be separated by (b) Stretching of a rubber band
(c) Digestion of food
(a) filteration (b) fractional distillation
(d) Grinding of wheat
(c) evaporation (d) distillation

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following substances is essential to 9. Consider the following processes.
solute in saline water? 1. Rusting of iron
(a) Salicylic acid (b) Acetic acid 2. Electrolysis of water
(c) Sodium chloride (d) Ammonium chloride
3. Condensation of water
2. Which of these methods is used to extract alcohol 4. Heating of iron powder with water
from a mixture of alcohol and water?
Which of the above can be considered as chemical
(a) Distillation (b) Oxidation change?
(c) Crystallisation (d) Bleaching
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
3. What is the missing reactant? (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
H2 O + → H 2 CO 3 10. When hydrogen and oxygen combined chemically in a
(a) CO (b) CO 2 (c) C (d) HCOOH fixed ratio of 1 : 8 by weight, X is obtained. X

4. An element which is not found in nature is 1. can be separated into its constituent by physical
methods.
(a) Pt (b) K (c) Zn (d) Pm
2. has properties quite different from hydrogen and
5. Which of the following is a compound? oxygen.
(a) Milk (b) Diamond 3. has fixed melting point.
(c) Marble (d) Air 4. is homogeneous.
6. Which of the following is not a homogeneous mixture?
Which of the above is/are considered as the
(a) A mixture of O 2 and N2 (b) Solution of salt in water characteristics of X?
(c) Brass (d) Milk
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
7. Which substance is not a colloidal solution? (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Milk (b) Blood 11. Match the columns
(c) Muddy water (d) Soap solution
Column I Column II
8. Which type of solution doesn’t exhibit Tyndall effect?
(a) True solution A. Salt 1. Mixture
(b) Heterogeneous suspension B. Air 2. Contains only one type of atoms
(c) Colloidal solution C. Diamond 3. Compound
(d) None of the above D. Sodium 4. Lowest melting point
Is Matter Around us Pure 289
Select the correct answer for the given alternatives. 14. The composition of each new substance is always
Codes fixed for a
A B C D (a) mixture (b) compound
(a) 3 1 2 4 (c) element (d) None of these
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
15. There are ……… elements that are naturally
(d) 4 1 3 2 occurring.
(a) 72 (b) 92 (c) 100 (d) 112
12. Some solutions are given below
16. The element(s) that are liquid at room temperature
1. Milk churned with water
(a) Mercury (b) Bromine
2. Water containing mud (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Gold
3. Blood
4. Starch solution
17. How many elements are in gaseous state at room
temperature?
Which of these show Tyndall’s effect? (a) 12 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 11
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
18. Malleability with respect to metals is the property
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
(a) to be drawn into wires (b) to be drawn into sheets
13. Some processes are given below (c) to be drawn into circle (d) None of the above
1. Use of biogas as fuel 19. Purification of salt that we get from sea water is done
2. Burning of candle by
3. Mixing of iron and sulphur (a) filteration (b) crystallisation
4. Distillation of water (c) coding (d) decantation
Which of these are considered as only physical 20. The technique used to separate pigments from
change? natural colours is known as
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) sublimation (b) chromatography
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (c) crystallisation (d) filteration

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (b) Milk is a colloidal solution, that’s why it exhibits Tyndall effect, 4. (c) 5. (d)
i.e., scatter light passing through it.
6. (b) Compounds contains two or more elements in fixed
2. (a) When wax is heated, it melts but its chemical composition proportions. Thus, among the given only CO 2 is a compound.
remains unchanged. So, heating of wax is an example of
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
physical change.
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b)
3. (d) Naphthalene, being a sublimate, is separated from the non-
sublimate substance like sodium chloride by a process called 15. (c) Digestion of food is a chemical change because the
sublimation. chemical composition of food gets changed.

High Skill Questions

1. (c) Saline water is aqueous solution of sodium chloride. 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b)
2. (a) 16. (c) Mercury and bromine both are liquid elements one is a metal
(Hg) and the other is a non-metal (Br).
3. (b) H2O + CO 2 → H2CO 3
17. (d)
4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c)
18. (b) Malleability is a property of metals by virtue of which metals
8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (a) can be drawn into sheets.
12. (d) All the solutions are examples of colloidal solutions. So, they 19. (b)
all show Tyndall effect which is the scattering of the light by 20. (b) Chromatography is the technique for separating pigments
colloidal particles. from natural colours.
 Chapter

2
Atomic Structure
Atoms and molecules are the building block of matter. (i) Mass of proton = 1 u = 1.66 × 10−24 g
For a long time it was thought that, the atoms are (ii) Charge of a proton = 1.6 × 10−19C
indivisible but now these days atoms are divisible and (iii) Relative charge of a proton = + 1
they do have an inner structure.
l Indian philosopher Maharishi Kanad was the first man Neutron
to state that the matter is made up by Anu and
Paramanu. After the discovery of protons and electrons, it was noticed
l John Dalton gave the atomic theory and states that that all the mass of an atom cannot be accounted for, on
atoms are indivisible, which takes part in chemical the basis of only protons and electrons present in it, so
reaction. Chadwick (1932) suggested an another subatomic particle
l According to modern attempt, atoms are made up of three called neutron. The neutron is a neutral particle found in
subatomic particles : Electrons, Protons and Neutrons. the nucleus of an atom.
(i) Protons and neutrons are present in a small nucleus (i) Mass of a neutron = 1 u = 1.66 × 10−24 g
at the centre of the atom.
(ii) Charge of a neutron = 0
(ii) Electrons are outside the nucleus.
(iii) The atoms of different elements differ in the number Comparison between Proton, Neutron and Electron
of electrons, protons and neutrons.
Subatomic Relative Relative Location in the
S.No.
Electron particle mass charge atom

The existence of fundamental subatomic particle 1. Proton 1u +1 In the nucleus

electron was shown by JJ Thomson in 1897, by using a 2. Neutron 1u 0 In the nucleus
discharge tube and demonstrated the cathode ray 1
3. Electron u –1 Outside nucleus
experiment. Cathode rays consist of small, negatively 1840
charged particles called electrons.
1
(i) Mass of an electron = u = 9.11 × 10−28 g
1840 X-ray
(ii) Charge of an electron = −1.6 × 10−19 C
(iii) Relative charge of an electron = − 1 X-rays were discovered by WK Roentgen. X-rays are
(iv) Electron was named by Stoney produced when cathode rays strike with hard metals
like copper, tungsten etc. X-rays having a great
Proton penetrating power, so they can directly create shadows
The existence of protons in atoms was shown by of bones and doctors can easily trace the fractured part
E Goldstein by demonstrating anode ray experiment in of bone if any.
which a perforated cathode is used.
Atomic Structure
Radioactivity
The phenomenon of spontaneous emission of invisible
radiations by certain substance is called radioactivity
and this substance is known as radioactive substance.
l Radioactivity was discovered by Henri Becquerel.
l Po and Ra was discovered by Madam Curie.
l There are three types of radioactive radiations. These
are α-rays, β-rays and γ-rays.
l α-ray consist of positively charged He 2+ particles. Each
particle has a mass of 4u.
l β-rays are negatively charged and γ-rays are high energy
electromagnetic radiations having no charge and
negligible mass.
Thomson’s Model of Atom
l An atom consists of a sphere (or ball) of positive charge
with negatively charged electrons uniformly distributed
in the entire atom.
l The positive and negative charges in an atom are equal
in magnitude, due to which an atom is electrically
neutral.
Although this model of atom explained the neutrality of
the atom, but it could not explain the Rutherford’s
experiment.
Rutherford’s Experiment
On the basis of this experiment, nucleus was discovered by
Rutherford Rutherford’s model of an atom (or structure of
atom) can be described as follows
l An atom consists of a positively charged, dense and very
small, nucleus containing all the protons and neutrons.
Almost the entire mass of an atom is concentrated in the
nucleus.
l The nucleus is surrounded by negatively charged
electrons. The electrons are revolving round the nucleus
in circular paths called orbits.
l Atom is electrically neutral due to same number of
protons and electrons in an atom.
l Most of the atom is empty space.
A major drawback of this model of the atom is that it
doesn’t explain the stability of the atom. Actually,
according to the electromagnetic theory, if a charged
particles moves around positively charged nucleus then it
will lose energy continuously and finally drop into the
nucleus.
Bohr’s Atomic Model
The present concept of an atom was given by Neils Bohr,
which can be described as follows
l An atom is made up of three particles : electrons, protons
and neutrons. Electrons have negative charge, protons
291
have positive charge whereas neutrons have no charge,
they are neutral. Due to the presence of equal number of
negative electrons and positive protons, the atom on the
whole is electrically neutral.
l The protons and neutrons are located in a small nucleus
at the centre of the atom. Due to the presence of protons,
nucleus is positively charged.
l The electrons revolve rapidly round the nucleus in fixed
circular paths called energy levels or shells. The energy
levels or shells are represented in two ways; either by
the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 or by the letters
K , L, M , N, O and P. The energy levels are counted
from the centre onwards.
l There is a limit to the number of electrons which each
energy level (or shell) can hold. e.g., The first energy
level (or K shell) can hold a maximum of 2 electrons;
second energy level (or L shell) can hold a maximum of 8
electrons; third energy level (or M shell) can hold a
maximum of 18 electrons and fourth energy level (or N
shell) can hold a maximum of 32 electrons.
l Each energy level (or shell) is associated with a fixed
amount of energy, the shell nearest to the nucleus
having minimum energy and the shell farthest from the
nucleus having the maximum energy.
l There is no change in the energy of electrons as long
as they keep revolving in the same energy level and
the atom remains stable. The change in the energy of
an electron takes place only when it jumps from a
lower energy level to a higher energy level or when
it comes down from a higher energy level to a
lower energy level.
Atomic Number The number of protons in one atom of
an element is known as atomic number of that element.
Atomic number was discovered by Moseley.
Mass Number The total number of protons and
neutrons present in one atom of an element is known as
its mass number.
Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons.
Mass number = Atomic number + Number of neutrons
An atom may be represented as follows
Symbol
Mass number A
of or X
Atomic number Z
Element
Electronic Configuration of Elements The arrange-
ment of electrons in the various shells of an atom of the
element is known as electronic configuration of the
element. Electronic configuration of an element can be
written by Bohr-Bury scheme.
l The maximum number of electrons which can be
accommodated in any orbit is given by 2n 2.
292 Study Package for NTSE

l Electrons in an atom doesn’t occupy a new shell unless all the inner shells are completely filled with electrons.
Orbit Maximum Capacity Orbit Maximum Capacity
K (n = 1) 2 electrons M (n = 3) 18 electrons
L (n = 2 ) 8 electrons N(n = 4) 32 electrons

Electronic Configurations of First Twenty Elements

Electronic Electronic
Atomic Atomic
S.No. Element Symbol Configuration S.No. Element Symbol Configuration
Number Number
in K, L, M, N shells in K, L, M, N shells
1. Hydrogen H 1 1 11. Sodium Na 11 2, 8, 1
2. Helium He 2 2 12. Magnesium Mg 12 2, 8, 2
3. Lithium Li 3 2, 1 13. Aluminium Al 13 2, 8, 3
4. Beryllium Be 4 2, 2 14. Silicon Si 14 2, 8, 4
5. Boron B 5 2, 3 15. Phosphorus P 15 2, 8, 5
6. Carbon C 6 2, 4 16. Sulphur S 16 2, 8, 6
7. Nitrogen N 7 2, 5 17. Chlorine Cl 17 2, 8, 7
8. Oxygen O 8 2, 6 18. Argon Ar 18 2, 8, 8
9. Fluorine F 9 2, 7 19. Potassium K 19 2, 8, 8, 1
10. Neon Ne 10 2, 8 20. Calcium Ca 20 2, 8, 8, 2

Valence Electrons The electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom are known as valence electrons
because they decide the valency of an atom. Only valence electrons take part in the chemical reaction.
Isotopes Two or more form of an element having the same atomic number but different mass number. e.g.,
1 2 3
l 1 H (protium), 1 H (deuterium), 1 H (tritium)
35 37
l 17 Cl, 17 Cl Isotopes having different number of neutrons.

Points to Remember
● Isobars are atoms with same mass number, but different atomic number e.g., 14
6 C and
14
7 N.
● Isotones are atoms of different elements which contain the same number of neutrons. e.g., 15
7 N and
16
8 O.
2− − + 2+
● Isoelectronic species contain the same number of electrons, e.g., O , F , Na and Mg .
● e/m value is measured by Millikan in its oil drop experiment.
● Maximum number of electrons in an orbit can be calculated by using 2 n2 formula.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Number of electrons in sodium ion (Na+) and oxide 4. Who measured the e/m value of electron?
ion, (O 2− ) are (a) Dalton (b) Rutherford
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11 (c) Goldstein (d) Millikan

2. Neutrons are present in all elements except 5. What is the charge on α particle?
(a) H (b) He (c) C (d) Ne (a) +2 (b) –2 (c) +1 (d) –1

3. An atom of an element has 15 electrons and has a 6. C-14 has a half-life period …… .
mass number 31. The nucleus of this atom (a) 5770 yr (b) 11520 yr (c) 2880 yr (d) 28750 yr
contains…… neutrons. 7. Which species of phosphorus is most stable?
(a) 31 (b) 16 (c) 46 (d) 15
(a) P (b) P 1 − (c) P2− (d) P3−
Atomic Structure 293
8. How many electrons are present in the outermost 15. Select the pair of atoms having the same number of
shell of aluminium ? electrons in their outermost shell.
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (a) Na, Mg (b) N, S (c) Be, Al (d) C, Si

9. The shells or orbits are in atom denoted by 16. Which subatomic particle has negligible mass?
(a) K, L, M, N . . . (b) a, b, c, d , . . . (a) Electron (b) Proton (c) Neutron (d) Hydrogen
(c) A, B, C, D . . . (d) P, Q, R, S . . .
17. When alpha particles are bombarded on thin gold foil,
10. Electron revolve around the nucleus in definite most of the alpha particles pass through straight
circular paths called orbits. This was suggested by because
(a) Thomson (b) Bohr (a) α-particles are positively charged
(c) Dalton (d) Rutherford (b) α-particles have more mass than electron
11. In general, the nth shell can accommodate electrons, (c) nucleus is at the centre of the atom
where ‘n’ stands for the number of the shell. (d) most of the part of atom is empty
(a) 3n2 (b) 2 n2 (c) n2 (d) 2n 18. The relative atomic masses of some elements are not
whole numbers because of
12. Which of the following is the correct electronic
configuration of sodium? (a) accurate determination of atomic mass with respect to C-12
is difficult
(a) 2, 8, 1 (b) 8, 2, 1 (c) 2, 1, 8 (d) 12, 8, 2
(b) existence of isotopes of elements
13. Which rays can be used to detect the fractured bones (c) unstable nature
in our body ? (d) atoms may get ionised during atomic mass determination
(a) Canal rays (b) Cathode rays 19. The mass of neutron is nearly the same as that of
(c) X-rays (d) Cosmic rays
(a) electron (b) proton (c) atom (d) nucleus
14. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is
20. Lithium has 3 electrons, 4 neutrons, 3 protons. Its
(a) protium (b) deuterium mass number is
(c) tritium (d) heavy water
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 10

High Skill Questions

13
1. 6 Cand 12
6 C differ from each other in respect to 2. Its valence electrons lies in N-shell
number of 3. 24 Cr 54 is isotonic with 25 Mn 60
(a) electrons (b) protons
(c) neutrons (d) None of the above The correct alternative/s is
(a) only 1 (b) 1 and 2
2. Match the columns (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Column I Column II 5. Isoelectronic species are
A. Radioactivity 1. Chadwick (a) N3− , O 2 − (b) Na + , Ca 2 +
B. Electron 2. Roentgen (c) O 2− , C 2 − (d) K + , Na +
C. X-rays 3. Thomson
D. Neutron 4. Bacquerel 6. How many neutrons are present in tritium nucleus?
(a) 2 (b) 3
Codes (c) 1 (d) 0
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 7. An atom contains 2 electrons in K shell, 8 electrons in
(b) 4 3 2 1 L shell and 4 electrons in M shell. The element is
(c) 3 4 2 1 (a) calcium (b) potassium
(d) 4 3 1 2 (c) silicon (d) magnesium
76
is isotonic with 8. How many valence electrons does calcium (atomic
3. 32Ge
(a) 77
(b) 77 number = 20) has?
32 Ge 33 C
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) 2
77 78
(c) 34 C (d) 33 C
9. Which pair shows isobars?
4. The true statement(s) about chromium (atomic (a) 1H2 and 1H3 (b) 14 Si
30
and 15 P31
number = 24) is/are 40
(c) 18 Ar and 19 K 40 (d) 92 U
235
and 90 Th
231
1. It contains 24 neutrons
294 Study Package for NTSE

10. The number of electrons and neutrons in an element 13. The electronic configuration of phosphorus is
are 18 and 20 respectively. Its mass number is (a) 2, 4 (b) 2, 8, 4
(a) 22 (b) 32 (c) 38 (d) 42 (c) 2, 8, 5 (d) 2, 8, 1
11. The number of electrons in the nucleus of chlorine is 14. K + ion has ……… number of electrons.
(a) 17 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 0 (a) 18 (b) 17
(c) 20 (d) 19
12. Which is not true with respect to cathode rays?
(a) A stream of electrons 15. Which particle contains 2 neutrons and 1 proton?
4
(b) Charged particles beam (a) H2 (b) 2 He
(c) Moved with speed same as that of light (c) 1 T 3
(d) 2
1D
(d) Can be deflected by electrical field

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (c) Na + = 11 − 1 = 10 electrons 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (a)
O 2−
= 8 + 2 = 10 electrons 13. (c) 14. (c)
2. (a) 15. (d) C ans Si belongs to 14 group of periodic table so, having
same number of valence electrons i.e., 4.
3. (b) Number of neutrons = 31 − 15 = 16
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b)
4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d)
20. (c) Mass number = 3 + 4 = 7
8. (d) Al13 = 2, 8, 3 Number of valence electrons = 3

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 7. (c) Silicon has atomic number 14
2. (b) 13
6 C atomic number = 6,. mass number = 13 So, electronic configuration

∴ Number of neutrons = 13 − 6 = 7 = 2, 8, 4
K, L, M
12
6 C atomic number = 6, mass number = 12
8. (d) Electronic configuration of calcium is 2, 8, 8, 2. So, 2 valence
∴ Number of neutrons = 12 − 6 = 6 electrons.
3. (b) Isotones have same neutron number, so they both have 44 9. (c)
neutrons 10. (c) Number of electrons = 18 = number of protons
76
32 Ge → 76 − 32 = 44 Number of neutrons = 20
So, mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
77
33 C → 77 − 33 = 44
= 18 + 20 = 38
4. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c)
5. (a) N3− has 7 + 3 = 10 electrons
13. (c) Phosphorus has atomic number 15. So, the electronic
O 2− has 8 + 2 = 10 electrons configuration is 2, 8, 5.

So, they are isoelectronic because number of electrons is same. 14. (a) Atomic number of potassium (K) is 19. So, the number of
electrons for K + is 19 − 1 = 18.
6. (a)
15. (c)
 Chapter
3
Chemical Reactions
and Equations
Chemical Equations
The method of representing a chemical reaction with
the help of symbols and formulae of the substances
involved in it, is known as a chemical equation and
unbalanced chemical equation are called skeleton
equation.
Balanced Chemical Equation
The process of making the number of atoms of each
element equal on both the sides of an equation is called
balancing of an equation.
e.g., 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
Types of Chemical Reactions
1. Combination Reaction A chemical reaction in
which two or more substances combine to form a
single substance is called a combination reaction.
CaO( s ) + H2O( l) → Ca(OH)2 ( aq)
(Quicklime)
(Slaked lime)
Reactions in which heat is released along with the
formation of products are called exothermic
chemical reactions.
CH4 ( g ) +2O2( g ) → CO2( g ) + 2H2O( g )
2. Decomposition Reaction A reaction in which a
substance breaks down into two or more substances
is called decomposition reaction.
e.g.,
l 2FeSO4( s ) → Fe 2O3( s ) + SO2( g ) + SO3( g )
(Ferrous (Ferric oxide)
sulphate)
l Silver chloride turns grey in sunlight. This is due to the
decomposition of silver chloride into silver and chlorine
by light.
Sunlight
2AgCl( s ) → 2Ag( s ) + Cl2( g )
3. Displacement Reaction The reaction in which
a metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt
solution, is called single displacement reaction.
Fe( s) + CuSO4 ( aq) → FeSO4 ( aq) + Cu( s)
4. Double Displacement Reaction A chemical
reaction in which two compounds in their aqueous
solution react by exchanging their radicals is called
a double displacement reaction.
The reaction in which two compounds in their
aqueous solution react to form an insoluble salt (a
precipitate) as one of the products is known as the
precipitation reaction.
e.g., AgNO3 + HCl → AgCl ↓ + HNO3
Silver Silver chloride
nitrate (white precipitate)
5. Oxidation and Reduction Reaction which
involves the addition of oxygen or the removal of
hydrogen is termed as oxidation.
Reaction that involves the addition of hydrogen or the
removal of oxygen is termed as reduction reaction.
296 Study Package for NTSE

The substance that can bring about oxidation is called
an oxidising agent while the substance which brings
about reduction is called reducing agent.
Reduction
Heat
e.g., CuO + H2 → Cu + H2 O
Oxidation
Rancidity When fats and oils are oxidised, they
become rancid and their small and taste change,
keeping food in air tight containers and adding
antioxidants to foods help to slow down oxidation.
Points to Remember
l A chemical reaction is a process in which substance (s) undergo a
change to produce a new substance (s) having different properties.
l Substances that take part in a chemical reaction are called reactants
while substances that are formed in a chemical reaction is known as
products.
l Chemical equation is the method of representing chemical reaction
in terms of symbols and formulae of substances.
l Balancing of equation is the process of making the number of atoms
of each element equal on both the sides of an equation.
l Combination reaction, decomposition reaction, displacement
reaction and double displacement reaction are the common types of
chemical reaction.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The substance that takes part in a chemical reaction is Codes
known as A B C D
(a) reactant (b) product (a) 3 4 1 2
(c) element (d) None of these (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
2. In the chemical reaction iron powder + sulphur → iron (d) 4 3 2 1
sulphide, the product is
6. The colour of copper oxide is
(a) iron powder (b) sulphur
(a) green (b) black
(c) iron sulphide (d) All of these
(c) blue (d) white
3. Chemical change is generally
7. In exothermic reaction, heat is
(a) reversible (b) irreversible
(a) released (b) required
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) absorbed (d) None of these
4. If the number of atoms of each element is equal on both
sides of an equation then the equation is known as 8. The precipitate formed when copper sulphate reacts
(a) skeletel equation
with hydrogen sulphide
(b) balanced equation (a) H2SO 4 (b) H2O
(c) unbalanced equation (c) CuS (d) H2SO 3
(d) Both (a) and (b) 9. Carbon burns with oxygen to form
5. Match the column I and column II. (a) carbon dioxide
(b) carbon trioxide
Column I Column II (c) carbon salt
(d) None of the above
A. Product(s) 1. A + B → AB
B. Reactant(s) 2. AB → A + B 10. Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide is formed due to the
C. Combination 3. Right side of a chemical equation decomposition of
reaction (a) calcium sulphide
D. Decomposition 4. Left side of a chemical equation (b) calcium chloride
reaction (c) calcium carbonate
(d) calcium bicarbonate
Chemical Reactions and Equations 297

High Skill Questions

1. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe 8. When a copper vessel is exposed to moist air for long
The above reaction is an example of a time, it acquires a dull green coating. This is due to
(a) combination reaction the
(b) decomposition reaction (a) formation of copper oxide
(c) displacement reaction (b) formation of copper sulphide
(d) double displacement reaction (c) formation of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide
(d) formation of copper nitrate
2. Which of the statements about the reaction below are
incorrect? 9. Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon
dioxide in air to form a thin layer of
2PbO( s) + C( s) → 2Pb( s) + CO2 ( g) (a) calcium bicarbonate (b) calcium oxide
1. Lead is getting reduced. (c) calcium carbonate (d) None of these
2. Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
10. Lead nitrate on thermal decomposition gives lead
3. Carbon is getting oxidised.
oxide, ……… and ……… .
4. Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(a) NO 2 , H2O (b) NO, NO 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) NO 2 , O 2 (d) None of these
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
11. Foods containing fats and oil usually contain ……… to
3. On burning magnesium in air we get
prevent oxidation.
(a) MgO (b) MgCO 3
(a) moisture (b) autooxidants
(c) MgSO 4 (d) Mg(NO 3 )2
(c) antacids (d) medicines
4. The metal that can displace Fe from its salt is 12. Which of the following is not a chemical change?
(a) Hg (b) Au
(a) Heating of wax
(c) Ag (d) Zn
(b) Rusting of iron
5. In the reaction,Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 magnesium (c) Heating of limestone
acts as (d) Burning of candle
(a) an oxidising agent 13. Which of the following is a reversible reaction?
(b) a reducing agent (a) CaCO 3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2O + CO 2
(c) oxidising as well as reducing agent
(b) 2 Mg + O 2 → 2MgO
(d) None of the above
(c) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
6. When iron reacts with copper sulphate to form ferrous (d) Fe + CuSO 4 → FeSO 4 + Cu
sulphate and copper in this reaction change of colour
occurs from 14. Calcium oxide is commonly named as
(a) white to blue (b) blue to white (a) limestone (b) quicklime
(c) blue to pale green (d) white to black (c) slaked lime (d) None of these

7. Redox reactions are useful in 15. Silver chloride turns grey in sunlight because of its
(a) extraction of metals decomposition into
(b) bleaching industry (a) silver oxide
(c) dyeing industry (b) silver and chlorine
(d) All of the above (c) chlorine
(d) None of the above
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (a) 8. (c) CuSO 4 + H2S → CuS + H2SO 4
Copper Hydrogen Copper Sulphuric
2. (c) The substance which is obtained by the reaction of reactants sulphate sulphide sulphide acid
and is written on right side of arrow is called product. Thus, iron
sulphide is the product of the reaction. 9. (a) C + O2 → CO 2
Carbon Oxygen Carbon dioxide
3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)
10. (c) CaCO 3 → CaO + CO 2
6. (b) 7. (a) Calcium Calcium Carbon
carbonate oxide dioxide

High Skill Questions

1. (c) This is displacement reaction because aluminium is 9. (c) Ca(OH)2 + CO 2 → CaCO 3 + H2O
displacing Fe from Fe 2O 3 . Calcium
carbonate
2. (b)
Heating
3. (a) 2Mg + O 2 → 2MgO 10. (b) 2Pb(NO 3 )2 → 2 PbO + 4 NO 2 + O 2
air Lead nitrate
4. (d) Zn, because it is above Fe in the reactivity series and Au, Ag 11. (b)
and Hg are below Fe in the series. 12. (a) Heating of wax is a physical change because only the state is
5. (b) It is acting as a reducing agent. changing from solid to liquid.
6. (c) 13. (c) N2 + 3H2 j 2NH 3 is a reversible reaction.
7. (d) 14. (b)
8. (c) CuCO 3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2 , this is green in colour. hν
15. (b) 2AgCl  
→ 2Ag + Cl 2
 Chapter

4
Acids, Bases and Salts
Electrolytes
Chemical substances decompose into the constituent l Acids react with metal to form hydrogen gas.
ions in solutions or in molten state and allow flow of Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas
current. They include salts, acids and bases. Zn( s ) + H2 SO4 ( aq ) → ZnSO4 ( aq ) + H2 ↑
All electrolytes can be divided into two groups l Acids react bases or alkalis to form salt and water.
1. Strong Electrolytes Electrolyte which decomposes Acid + Base → Salt + Water
completely almost 100% into the constituent ions in HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2 O
solutions or in molten state are called strong Acid Base Salt Water
electrolytes. Virtually all salts, strong acids and l Acids have corrosive nature because they causes severe
strong bases are strong electrolytes, e.g., NaCl, burns on the skin and eat up materials.
KCl, HCl, H2SO4, HNO3, KOH, Ba(OH)2 etc. l Acids are never stored in metal containers because they
2. Weak Electrolytes Electrolyte which decomposes gradually corrode and eat up the metal container.
partially into constituent ions are known as weak
Name of acid Place where found
electrolytes. Weak electrolytes are organic acids or
weak bases. e.g., CH3COOH, H2CO3, NH4OH, H2S Acetic acid (ethanoic acid) Vinegar
Formic acid (methanoic acid) Red ant’s
Citric acid Citrus fruits such as lemons
Acids Hydrochloric acid Human stomach
Lactic acid Sour milk
l Acids are those chemical substances which have a sour
taste. Acids are those chemical substances which change
l Acids react with metal carbonates and metal hydrogen
the colour of blue litmus to red.
carbonates to liberate carbon dioxide.
l The acids present in plant materials and animals are
Na 2 CO 3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H 2 O + CO2 ↑
called organic acids.
NaHCO 3 + HCl → NaCl + H2 O + CO2 ↑
l The acids prepared from minerals of the Earth are called
mineral acids. Mineral acids are man made acids. e.g., On passing the carbon dioxide gas through lime
HCl, H2SO4, HNO3 etc. water, a white precipitate is formed (lime water
turns milky).
l All the acids can be divided into two groups.
Strong acids and weak acids Ca(OH)2( aq) + CO2( g ) → CaCO3( s ) + H2O( l)
(Lime water) (White precipitate)
(a) HCl, H2SO4, HNO3 are strong acids.
On passing excess CO2 the following reaction takes
(b) H2CO3, CH3COOH, HCOOH and citric acid are place
weak acids.
CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 → Ca(HCO3 )2( aq)
l Concentrated and Dilute acids A concentrated (Soluble in water)
acid is one which contains the minimum possible
l Acids react with metallic oxides to form salt and water
amount of water in it, while a dilute acid is one which
because metallic oxides are basic oxides.
contains much more of water in it.
300 Study Package for NTSE

Bases
l Bases are those chemical substances which have a bitter taste. Bases changes the colour of red litmus to blue.
l A base which is soluble in water is called an alkali e.g., KOH, NH4OH.
l Strong bases NaOH, KOH, Weak bases NH4OH, Ca(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2.
l Bases feel soapy on touching it, Bases react with acids to form salts and water.
l Bases react with non-metal oxides to form salt and water, e.g.,
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
l Insoluble bases in water are CuO, ZnO, FeO etc.

Arrhenius Theory
Arrhenius acids are the chemical substances that produces hydrogen ions or hydronium ion (H 3O + ), when mixed
with water and bases are substances that produces OH − , i.e., hydroxyl ion when dissolved in water.
H O
e.g., HNO 3 →
2
H + ( aq) + NO 3− ( aq)
or HNO 3 + H2 O → H 3O + + NO 3−
HNO 3 is an acid.
Similarly, NaOH is a base.
NaOH( aq) → Na + ( aq) + OH − ( aq)

pH Scale
l In 1909, Sorenson devised a scale known as pH scale, which represent the strength of acid or base.
l pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of hydrogen ion concentration.
 1   1 
pH = − log [H+ ] = + log or similarly pOH = log
 H  OH 
+ −

pH + pOH = 14
Neutral
These pH values are for acids These pH values are for bases (alkalis)

pH 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Weak base Strong base
Strong acid Weak acid or or
Weak alkali Strong alkali
Increasing basic nature
Increasing acidic nature (or Increasing alkaline nature)

Increasing H+ ion concentration Increasing OH+ ion concentration

(Decreasing OH– ion concentration) (Decreasing H+ ion concentration)
pH scale

The pH values of some of the common substances from our everyday life are given below
pH Values of Some Common Substances

S.No. Solution pH S.No. Solution pH

1. Gastric juices (digestive juices in stomach) 1.4 6. Soft drinks 6.0
2. Lemon juice 2.5 7. Milk 6.5
3. Vinegar 4.0 8. Pure distilled water 7.0
4. Tomato juice 4.1 9. Blood 7.4
5. Coffee 5.0 10. Toothpaste 8.0
Acids, Bases and Salts 301
Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH) is prepared by chloro alkali
Salts process.
A salt is a compound made from an acid, when a metal 2NaCl( aq) + 2H2 O( l) →
takes the place of hydrogen in the acid. Salts can be
formed by neutralisation of an acid by a base. Salts are 2NaOH( aq) + Cl 2 ( g) + H2 ( g)
usually soluble in water. They are solids with high Bleaching Powder ( CaOCl2 ) Bleaching powder is
melting point and high boiling point. Aqueous solutions produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime
of salts conduct electricity. Ca(OH) 2 + Cl 2 → CaOCl 2 + H2 O
Neutral Salts, e.g., NaCl are formed by neutralisation Bleaching powder

of a strong acid and a strong base. On hydrolysis, the
solution of NaCl remains neutral.
Acidic Salts, e.g., NH4 Cl are formed by neutralisation of
a weak base by a strong acid. On hydrolysis, NH4 Cl gives
an acidic solution.
It is used for bleaching purposes, as an oxidising agent
and as disinfectant for drinking water.
Baking Soda (NaHCO 3 ) The chemical name is sodium
hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO 3 ).

Basic Salt, e.g., CH 3COONa (salt of NaOH and NaCl + H2 O + CO2 + NH 3 → NH4 Cl + NaHCO 3
CH 3COOH) on hydrolysis gives a basic solution. When it is heated during cooking the following reaction
Sodium chloride is used as table salt, for tanning of takes place
leather, manufacture of washing soda, baking soda and Heat
2NaHCO 3 → Na 2 CO 3 + H2 O + CO2
sodium hydroxide.
Baking soda is used for making baking powder, antacids
Hydrated Salts Hydrated salts are salts with water in
and in fire extinguishers (soda-acid type).
them. Their general formulae are
(i) Blue vitriol CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O Washing Soda (Na 2 CO 3 ⋅ 10 H2 O) Washing soda is
(ii) Green vitriol FeSO4 ⋅ 7H2O used in glass, soaps and paper industries, to make
(iii) Gypsum CaSO4 ⋅ 2H2O
borax, as a cleansing agent and for remaining
1 permanent hardness of water.
(iv) Plaster of Paris CaSO4 ⋅ H2O
2 Na 2 CO 3 + 10H2 O → Na 2 CO 3 ⋅ 10H2 O
Plaster of Paris CaSO4 ⋅ H2 O It is used by doctors
(v) Epsom MgSO4 ⋅ 7H2O 1
 2 
Chemicals from Common Salt The common salt is an
important raw material for various materials of daily as plaster for supporting fractured bones in the right
use like NaOH, baking soda, washing soda, bleaching position.
powder and many more. 373 K 1 1
CaSO4 ⋅ 2H2 O → CaSO4 ⋅ H2 O + 1 H2 O
Gypsum 2 2
Plaster of Paris

Points to Remember
● At 25ºC acid cannot have pH > 7 in any diluted state.
● Basicity corresponds to number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in acid.
● Acidity corresponds to number of replaceable hydroxyl ions in a base.
● Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules chemically attached to each formula unit of a salt in its crystalline form.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following acid is present in sour milk? 11. Bases turn red litmus into …… .
(a) Tartaric acid (b) Citric acid (a) black (b) blue
(c) Acetic acid (d) Lactic acid (c) yellow (d) orange
2. Which of the following is not an organic acid? 12. Which of the following is a dibasic acid?
(a) H2CO 3 (b) CH3COOH (a) H3PO 4 (b) HCl
(c) HCOOH (d) HCl (c) H2SO 4 (d) HNO 3
3. Which of the following acid is used in inverter 13. Which gas will be evolved when metal is reacted with
batteries? some mineral acid?
(a) Nitric acid (HNO 3 ) (a) H2 (b) O 2
(b) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) (c) CO 2 (d) N2
(c) Sulphuric acid (H2SO 4 )
(d) Acetic acid (CH3COOH) 14. Which acid is present in red ant?
(a) Formic acid (b) HCl
4. Acids are always stored in containers made of
(c) Citric acid (d) CH3COOH
(a) plastic (b) glass (c) metals (d) clay
15. Which type of substances feel soapy on touching it?
5. Acids turn blue litmus into …… .
(a) Acids (b) Bases
(a) green (b) red (c) Salts (d) None of these
(c) yellow (d) orange
16. Which of the following acid is present in vinegar?
6. Which of the following is a weak acid?
(a) Lactic acid (b) Malic acid
(a) CH3COOH (b) HCl (c) Acetic acid (d) Tartaric acid
(c) HNO 3 (d) H2SO 4
17. Which of the following acid is used in fire
7. Which of the following is a chemical formula of
extinguishers?
gypsum?
1 (a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid
(a) CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H2O (b) CaSO 4 ⋅ H2O (c) Nitric acid (d) Tartaric acid
2
(c) FeSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O (d) CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H2O 18. When SO2 dissolves in water the acid formed is
8. Who proposed pH scale? (a) sulphuric acid (b) sulphurous acid
(c) sulphonic acid (d) None of these
(a) Ostwald (b) Sorenson
(c) Mendeleef (d) Bohr 19. Soft drinks like pepsi/cola contain
9. A water soluble base is known as …… . (a) CH3COOH (b) H2CO 3
(c) HNO 3 (d) H2SO 4
(a) basic (b) alkali (c) acidic (d) salty
20. Which of the following is a hydrated salt?
10. Which base is insoluble in water?
(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) MgCO 3
(a) CuO (b) NH4OH
(c) MgSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O (d) BaCO 3
(c) NaOH (d) KOH

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following types of medicines is used for 3. The taste of an acid is
treating indigestion? (a) salty (b) sour (c) sweet (d) bitter
(a) Antibiotics (b) Analgesics 4. Which of the following is not a natural acid?
(c) Antacids (d) Antiseptic
(a) Citric acid (b) Acetic acid
2. A solution reacts with caused egg shells to give a gas (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Lactic acid
that turns lime water milky the solution contains
5. The acid used in batteries of cars and trucks is
(a) NaCl (b) LiCl
(c) HCl (d) KCl (a) nitric acid (b) sulphuric acid
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) tartaric acid
Acids, Bases and Salts 303
6. If the pH of a solution is 10 the given solution is 12. The chemical compound used by doctors as plaster for
(a) acidic (b) neutral supporting fractured bones, so as to put them in right
(c) basic (d) None of these place is
1
7. By dissolving metal oxide in water we get (a) MgSO 4 ⋅ 2H2O (b) MgSO 4 ⋅ H2O
2
(a) acid (b) salt 1
(c) CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H2O (d) CaSO 4 ⋅ H2O
(c) base (d) None of these 2
8. Which of the following is a strong base? 13. When hydrated CuSO4 is heated
(a) it becomes colourless (b) it becomes hydrous
(a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2
(c) it gets melted into liquid (d) None of these
(c) KOH (d) NH4OH
14. Some statements related to bases are given below
9. Which of the following is a neutralisation reaction? 1. Bases change the colour of blue litmus red.
(a) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O 2. Base may be soluble or insoluble.
(b) Na 2O + H2O → 2NaOH 3. All bases are alkali, but all alkalies are not base.
(c) SO 3 + H2O → H2SO 4 The correct statements are
(d) 2Mg + O 2 → 2MgO
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
10. Which of the following salt is used as an antacid? (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Potassium nitrate (b) Copper sulphate 15. Match the following.
(c) Sodium bicarbonate (d) Potash alum A. Aqueous solution of NaHCO3
11. Match the column I with column I. B. Aqueous solution of common salt
C. Hydrogen chloride gas
Column I Column II D. Aqueous solution of ammonium chloride
A. Acid 1. NaOH 1. does not affect dry litmus
B. Base 2. Pb(OH)Cl 2. turns blue litmus red
C. Neutral salt 3. HCl 3. aqueous solution is neutral
D. Basic salt 4. Na 2SO 4 4. turns red litmus blue

Codes Which of the following show correct matching?

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 14. (a) Formic acid (HCOOH)
− +
6. (a) CH3COOH is partially ionized into CH3COO and H . 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 19. (b) H2O + CO 2 → H2CO 3
(Carbonic acid)
12. (c) H2SO 4 → 2H+ + SO 24 − (Dibasic)
13. (a) Zn + HCl → ZnCl 2 + H2 ↑ 20. (c) MgSO 4 ⋅ 7H2O having seven water molecules as hydrate.

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 7. (c) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
(Metal oxide) (Base)
2. (c) Crushed egg shells have CaCO 3
8. (c)
(calcium carbonate)
9. (a) Neutralisation reaction is when acid and base react to give
CaCO 3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2O + CO 2 salt and water.
So, CO 2 gas is given out and it turns lime water milky. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
3. (b) 10. (c) 11. (c)
1
4. (c) H2SO 4 (sulphuric acid) is a mineral acid. 12. (d) Plaster of Paris → CaSO 4 ⋅ H2O
2
5. (b) 6. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
 Chapter

5
Metals and Non-Metals
All the materials found in nature are made up of chemical elements. There are 118 elements known so far, 92
elements are naturally occurring elements and rest are man made or synthetic. 92 elements are classified into 72
metals and 20 non- metals by Lavosier.
Classification of Metals

Types of metals Symbols of metals

Heavy metals Hg, Pb, Ag, Pt, Cu
Light metals K, Mg, Na, Al
Noble metals Au, Ag, Pt
Rare metals Li, Be, Sr
Radioactive metals U, Th, Ra
Protective metals Cr, Ni, Zn, Sn

Differences between Metals and Non-Metals

Property Metals Non-metals
Electronic configuration Have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in their Have 4 to 8 electrons in their outermost orbit.
outermost orbit.
Physical state Generally solid (except mercury which Solids or gases (exception to bromine in liquid state).
exist in liquid state).
Lustre Lustrous and can be polished. Non lustrous except iodine.
Hardness Very hard (due to strong inter molecular Brittle (weak forces of attraction).
attraction forces).
Density High density. Low density
Malleability High. Low
Ductility High. Low
Conductivity Good conductor of heat and electricity. Poor conductor of heat and electricity.
Nature of oxide Basic. Acidic
Electropositive or Electronegative These are electropositive. These are electronegative.
character
Displacement of hydrogen from Displaces hydrogen. Doesn’t displace.
weak acids
Reaction with chlorine Reacts to form ionic chlorides. Reacts to form covalent chlorides.
Reaction with hydrogen Form electrovalent hydride. Stable covalent hydride.
Oxidising and reducing properties Reducing agent. Oxidising agent.
Metals and Non-Metals 305
Strategic Metals Metals and their alloys are Reaction of Metals and
important for the atomic energy, space science project
and in jet engines. Examples are titanium (Ti), Non-Metals
zirconium (Zr). Reaction of metals and non-metals can be explained by
taking the example of formation of sodium chloride.
Important Facts about Metals and Non-Metals Sodium loses one electron and forms sodium cation
l Most abundant element on Earth Oxygen (Na + ). On the other hand chlorine has seven electrons in
l Most abundant metal Aluminium the outer shell, it accepts one electron to complete its
l Liquid metal Mercury octet and hence forms chloride anion (Cl − ).
Lustrous non-metal Iodine
Opposite charges attract each other, so Na + and Cl −
l

l Hard non-metal Diamond

l Soft metals Sodium, Potassium ions are attracted to each other and held by strong
l Best ductile metals Gold, Silver electrostatic forces called as anion bond.
l Best conductor metal Silver Na → Na + + e − Na Cl
Noble metal Platinum 2, 8, 1 2, 8
− −
l

l Metal kept in paraffin wax Lithium

Cl + e → Cl Formation of NaCl
2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8
l Non-metal conductor Graphite Thus, ionic compounds are formed by the transfer of
l Coinage metals Ag, Cu, Au, Al electrons from metals to non-metals. The ionic
l Metal kept under kerosene Sodium
compounds are solids, have high melting and boiling
l Heaviest metal Osmium (Os)
points, are generally soluble in water and conduct
l Solid non-metals Carbon, Iodine, Sulphur
electricity in the molten or aqueous state.
l Liquid non-metal Bromine
l
Most electropositive metal Caesium (Cs)
Reactivity Series of Metals
The arrangement of metals in vertical column in order
Chemical Reactions of Metals of decreasing reactivities is called reactivity series.
l Reaction with oxygen Reactivity Series of Metals
4Na + O2 → 2Na 2O Potassium K (Most reactive)
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO Sodium Na
Barium Ba
4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3
Calcium Ca
l Reaction with water Magnesium Mg

Decreasing chemical reactivity

2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 ↑ Aluminium Al
Zinc Zn Metals more reactive
Mg + H2O → MgO + H2 ↑ than hydrogen
Iron Fe
l Reaction with dilute acids Cobalt Co
2Na + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2 ↑ Nickel Ni
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 ↑ Tin Sn
Lead Pb
l Reaction with salt solutions Hydrogen H
CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu Copper Cu
2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3 )2 + 2Ag Mercury Hg
Silver Ag Metals less reactive
l Reaction with chlorine than hydrogen
Gold Au
2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl Platinum Pt
(Least reactive)
Ca + Cl2 → CaCl2
2Fe + 3Cl2 → 2FeCl3
Applications of Reactivity Series
l Reaction with hydrogen
l Metals at the top of reactivity table doesn’t become
2Na + H2 → 2NaH available in nature in free state.
Mg + H2 → MgH2 l A metal placed higher in the series is more metallic than
that below in the series.
306 Study Package for NTSE

l All metals placed above hydrogen can displace hydrogen

from its compounds such as water and acids to form
Minerals and Ores
hydrogen gas. The various compounds of metals which occur in the
l A metal placed in the above reactivity series can displace Earth’s crust and are obtained by mining are called
the less reactive metal from its salt solution. minerals.
Those minerals from which the metal can be extracted
Alloys profitably and conveniently are called ores. All ores are
minerals but all minerals are not ores.
An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more
metals or a metal with a non-metal.
Metallurgy
Importance of making alloys
(i) To increase resistance to corrosion. Branch of science, which deals with the extraction of
(ii) To increase hardness. metals from their ores, is known as metallurgy.
(iii) To increase tensile strength. Some Important Metals and their Ores
(iv) To modify chemical reactivity.
S. No. Metal Ore Chemical formula
S.No. Name of alloy % Composition Applications 1. Copper Copper pyrites CuFeS2
1. Brass Cu—60-80% and Utensils, pipes, nut 2. Silver Argentite Ag 2S
Zn—40-20% and bolts 3. Zinc Zinc blend ZnS
4. Lead Galena PbS
2. Bronze Cu—70-90% and Statues, coins
Sn—30-10% 5. Aluminium Bauxite Al 2O 3 ⋅ 2H2O
6. Iron Haematite Fe 2O 3
3. Stainless steel Fe—80.6%, Utensils,
Cr—18%, Ni—1%, automobile, parts,
C—0.4% knives of blades
Based on the reactivity metals are grouped into three
categories
4. Duralumin Al—95%, Cu—4%, Air craft bodies,
Mg—0.5%, rockets l Metals of low reactivity
Mn—0.5% l Metals of medium reactivity
l Metals of high reactivity
Amalgam During metallurgy purification of ore is the first step
It is a special class of alloy in which one of the carried.
component of alloy is mercury (Hg). Metals low in the activity series e. g., Mercury can be
e. g., Sodium amalgam, (Na-Hg), Zinc amalgam (Zn-Hg). extracted by heating its oxide.
Heat
2HgS + 3O2 → 2HgO + 2SO2
Corrosion Heat
It can be defined as the gradual eating away of a metal 2HgO → 2Hg + O2 ↑
by chemical reaction with its environment consisting of Metals in the middle of activity series like zinc, iron,
oxygen, water vapour, acids and other chemicals. lead, copper etc., are extracted as follows.
The following two conditions are necessary for corrosion. Heat
Roasting 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 ↑
l Presence of air.
Heat
l Presence of water or moisture. Calcination ZnCO 3 → ZnO + CO2 ↑
(i) Corrosion of iron ZnO + C → Zn + CO ↑
4Fe + 3O2 + 3H2O → Fe 2O3 + 2 Fe(OH)3
Rust
Metals towards the top of the activity series like sodium,
(ii) Corrosion of aluminium magnesium, calcium, etc., are obtained by electrolytic
4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3
reduction.
Methods for Prevention of Corrosion e. g., Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of molten
(i) Painting of surface of metal. sodium chloride.
(ii) By using oil or greases.
At cathode Na + + e − → Na
(iii) Galvanisation.
At anode 2Cl − → Cl 2 + 2e −
(iv) Electroplating.
(v) Alloying. The last step in metallurgy is purification of metals
known as refining of metals.
Metals and Non-Metals 307
Metallurgy Process (the chart for metallurgy process) Points to Remember
Ore l Reactivity or activity series of metals can be reported as
Potassium > Sodium > Barium > Calcium > Magnesium > Aluminiu
Powdered ore m > Zinc > Iron > Copper > Mercury > Silver > Gold.
Froth floatation process l Aluminium foils are used to wrap chocolates, cigarettes, medicines
Liquation
Magnetic separation method and food stuff.
Leaching l The black material inside a lead pencil contains graphite, a non-metal
Concentrated and not the metal lead.
ore l Displacement reactions may be useful in determining the relative
Calcination
Roasting reactivities of metals. A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive
metal from its solution.
Conversion into
metal oxide Reduction by coke l Of the 21 non-metals, 11 non-metals are in the gaseous state, 1 is in
Reduction by metal the liquid state and the rest are in the solid state, at room
Electrolytic reduction temperature.
Crude metal Zone refining l The reaction of iron(III) oxide (Fe2O3) with aluminium is used to join
Liquation railway tracks and is known as thermite reaction.
van Arkel method
Pure metal Electrolytic refining Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Name of the first synthetic element is ……… 9. Who classified the elements in metals and
(a) U (b) Zn (c) Tc (d) Am non-metals?
(a) Lavoisier (b) Mendeleef
2. The most impure form of iron is
(c) Rutherford (d) Dalton
(a) steel (b) stainless steel
(c) cast iron (d) wrought iron 10. Which metal can be cut by a knife?
(a) Silver (b) Sodium
3. Coinage metals are
(c) Zinc (d) Aluminium
(a) Ca, Ag, Ni (b) Cu, Ag, Au
(c) Zn, Na, K (d) Cu, Zn, Cs 11. Which of the following element is a metalloid ?
(a) Lead (b) Tin
4. An essential constituent of amalgam is
(c) Antimony (d) Barium
(a) mercury (b) silver
(c) zinc (d) aluminium 12. The non-metal which is used to make electrodes of
dry cells
5. Metal M occurs in the Earth’s crust as its oxide M2O 3.
(a) carbon (b) silicon
An alloy of this metal is used in making aircrafts. The
(c) chlorine (d) oxygen
ore of the metal M is
(a) magnetite (b) haematite 13. Which metal reflects about 90% of light falling on it?
(c) bauxite (d) pyrolusite (a) Gold (b) Silver
(c) Sodium (d) Aluminium
6. Which is the purest form of gold?
(a) 24 carat (b) 14 carat 14. Which metal is the best conductor of heat and
(c) 20 carat (d) 10 carat electricity?
(a) Silver (b) Gold
7. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, carbon and
(c) Sodium (d) Copper
(a) chromium
(b) nickel 15. Non-metal used for making the tip of match stick
(c) chromium and nickel (a) phosphorus (b) carbon
(d) copper and silver (c) silicon (d) nitrogen
8. Which was the first metal discovered by primitive 16. Which metal is used in thermometer?
man? (a) Na (b) Cs
(a) Fe (b) Cu (c) Pb (d) Ag (c) Hg (d) Ca
308 Study Package for NTSE

17. The metal present in haemoglobin is 19. Non-metals which occur in a solid state at room
(a) Na (b) Mg temperature are
(c) Fe (d) Ca (a) carbon and sulphur (b) bromine and iodine
(c) iodine and helium (d) nitrogen and phosphorus
18. The thin foils of which metal are used to decorate
sweets? 20. Complete the chemical reaction
(a) Aluminium (b) Silver 2Al + 6H2O → 2 . . . + 3H2
(c) Zinc (d) Copper (a) Al(OH)3 (b) Al 2O 3
(c) Al(OH)3 ⋅ H2O (d) Al 2O 3 ⋅ 2H2O

High Skill Questions

1. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound 10. Which of the following is correct reactivity series?
with a high melting point. This compound is also (a) K, Na, Mg, Ca (b) K, Ca, Mg, Na
soluble in water. The element is likely to be (c) K, Ca, Na, Mg (d) K, Na, Ca, Mg
(a) calcium (b) carbon
11. Non-metal that exist in liquid state is
(c) silicon (d) iron
(a) mercury (b) bromine
2. Which of the following pairs will give displacement (c) sodium (d) chlorine
reactions? 12. Oxides of non-metals turn
(a) NaCl solution and Cu metal (a) red litmus blue (b) blue litmus red
(b) MgCl 2 solution and Al metal (c) no effect on litmus (d) None of these
(c) FeSO 4 solution and Ag metal
(d) AgNO 3 solution and Cu metal 13. Metals are malleable and ductile because
(a) metals are lustrous
3. In electrolytic refining impure copper is made of (b) metals are sonorous
(a) anode (b) electrolyte (c) layers of metal atoms can slip over each other
(c) cathode (d) None of these (d) attains form close clusters
4. Element used in making barometer is 14. Iron is galvanised when it is dipped in
(a) copper (b) iron (c) mercury (d) tin (a) molten zinc (b) molten copper
5. Oxides of potassium are reduced by (c) molten carbon (d) molten silver
(a) heat alone (b) carbon ∆
(c) aluminium (d) electrolytic reduction
15. PbO + C → Pb + CO
∆
6. Cinnabar is an ore of ZnO + C → Zn + CO
(a) magnesium (b) mercury In the above reactions
(c) lead (d) tin (a) carbon is reduced
7. Rusting can be prevented by (b) carbon monoxide is oxidised
(a) painting (b) galvanisation (c) metal oxide is reduced
(c) greasing (d) All of these (d) metal oxide is oxidised

8. Which among the following is a noble metal? 16. Metal reacts with chlorine to form
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (a) covalent chloride (b) ionic chloride
(c) Platinum (d) Aluminium (c) coordinate compound (d) None of these

9. Match the column I and column II 17. Copper corrodes in moist air containing CO2 and O2
and changes to
Column I Column II (a) red Cu2O (b) green CuCO 3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2
A. Calcination 1. Froth floatation (c) green CuCl 2 (d) black CuO
B. Roasting 2. Smetling 18. Silver articles turn black after a period of time due to
C. Reduction with carbon 3. Absence of air the formation of
D. Sulphide ores 4. Presence of air (a) silver nitrate (b) silver oxide
(c) silver chloride (d) silver sulphide
A B C D 19. A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals is
(a) 3 4 2 1
(a) allotrope (b) alloy
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) isotope (d) None of these
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2
Metals and Non-Metals 309
20. In which test-tubes does the rusting occur?

Stopper
Olive
oil
Tap
Calcium
Iron water Boiled
chloride
nail water
(drying
agent)
1 2 3 4

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
2. (c) Cast iron contains 1.8 to 4.5% of carbon. 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a)
3. (b) 4. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b)
5. (c) Aluminium forms M2O 3 type oxide and it is used in making 19. (a) Carbon and sulphur are non-metals which occur in a solid
aircrafts, the ore of metal is bauxite. state at room temperature.

6. (a) 24 carat = 100% gold. 20. (a) 2Al + 6H2O → 2 Al(OH)3 + 3H2

High Skill Questions

1. (a) The element is calcium and the reactions are 13. (c)
2Ca + O 2 → 2CO 14. (a) Galvanisation is coating with zinc and this is mainly done to
(High melting point) prevent corrosion.
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
15. (c)
2. (d) Cu + 2 AgNO 3 → Cu(NO 3 )2 + 2 Ag
16. (b)
Because copper is above than silver in the reactivity series. 17. (b)
3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 18. (d) SAg + H2S → Ag 2S
6. (b) Cinnabar is an ore of mercury. From air Silver sulphide
(black colour)
7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (b) 19. (b)
12. (b) Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature because they 20. (c) Because rusting process to take place requires the presence
dissolve in water to form acids, so they turn blue litmus red. of air and moisture both.
 Chapter
6
Carbon and Its
Compounds
The compounds derived from living organisms are
called organic compounds and the chemistry dealing
with them was named organic chemistry.
Organic compounds are now defined as the compounds
of carbon and carbon has a unique nature. This gives
rise to the formation of a large number of compounds.
Carbon has four valence electrons. It forms covalent
bonds by sharing its four electrons with other atoms.
This property by virtue of which it forms for covalent
bonds is called tetravalency of carbon.
The property of self linking of atoms to form long chains
is also possessed by carbon atoms and is termed as a
catenation. This is due to the greater strength of
carbon-carbon bond and hence, it forms straight, branch,
cyclic chain of atoms and can involved single, double or
triple covalent bonds.
Different Forms of Carbon
Crystalline Form of Carbon
1. Diamond It is a very hard crystalline solid.
Diamond has a rigid structure. All four valence
electrons of carbon are used up in bonding. It is used
as precious stone for jewellery and for cutting glass
etc.
Diamonds are found in Panna mines in Madhya
Pradesh and Golkunda mines of Karnataka. It is an
insulator.
2. Graphite It is a dark grey substance with layer
structure and having a greasy feel. It is a good
conductor of electricity due to presence of free
electron. It is used as a lubricant in making lead
pencils and as an electrode in a dry cell.
3. Fullerenes Fullerenes are the most recently
known allotropes of carbon, which was discovered in
1996. The C60 structure has named as Buckminster
Fullerene in honour of American architect
Buckminster Fuller. It resembles with a soccer ball.
Amorphous Form of Carbon
1. Coal It is the most impure form of carbon. It is
formed from vegetable matter burried under the
Earth due to pressure and temperature conditions.
Coal is extracted from coal mines. On the basis of
carbon percentage coals are classified in various
types-peat (contains 60% C and lowest grade of
coal), lignite (67% carbon, brown in colour),
bituminous (88% carbon, soft coal) and anthracite
(96% carbon lustrous hard coal).
2. Coke It is obtained by the destructive distillation
of coal. It contains almost 85-95% of carbon. It is used
as smokeless fuel and as a reducing agent in
metallurgy.
3. Charcoal It is obtained by burning a carbon
compound in the absence of air. The different types of
charcoal are wood charcoal, animal charcoal and
sugar charcoal.
4. Lamp black It can be obtained by burning carbon
rich oils in an insufficient amount of air. It is used in
the production of printer ink and carbon papers.
Coal Tar
It is a black, thick liquid with an unpleasant smell. It is
a mixture of about 200 substances like benzene, phenol,
aniline etc. Which are used in dyes, drugs and polymer
industry. Now these days bitumen, a petroleum product
is used in place of coaltar for metalling the roads.
Carbon and Its Compounds 311
Coal Gas
It is a mixture of CO, CH4 and H2 . It is used as a fuel in many industries situated near the coal processing plants.
Coal gas was used for street lighting, first time in London in 1810.

Classification of Hydrocarbons
Hydrocarbons are classified as
Hydrocarbons

Aliphatic or open chain compounds Cyclic or closed chain compounds

Saturated alkanes Unsaturated

(paraffins)
CnH2n+2
CH3 —CH3 Alkenes Alkynes
CnH2n CnH2n–2
H H
C—
—C — C—H
H—C —
H H

Chains, Branches and Rings To explain branching we can take example of C4 H10
The name and structure of six compounds of carbon in H H H H
| | | |
chain form are H — C— C— C— C— H
| | | |
No. of carbon H H H H
Name Formula Structure
atoms
H H

—
H
— —

| —H
C—
CH4 H —C— H H—C—C — H
1. Methane
—

| C——H
H H H H —
H H H
| |
H — C— C— H In addition to straight and branched carbon chains
2. Ethane C 2H6 | | some compounds have carbon atoms arranged in the
H H
form of ring also. e. g., Cyclohexane
H H H H H
| | |
3. Propane C 3H8 H —C—C—C— H
| | | C
H H
H H H C C
H H
H H H H
| | | | H H
4. Butane C 4H10 H —C—C—C—C— H C C
| | | | H H
H H H H C
H H H H H H H
| | | | |
5. Pentane C 5H12 H —C—C—C—C—C— H
| | | | | Homologous Series
H H H H H
H H H H H H A homologous series is a group of organic compounds
| | | | | | having a similar structure and similar chemical
6. Hexane C 6H14 H —C—C—C—C—C—C— H
| | | | | | properties in which the successive compounds differ by
H H H H H H a CH 2 group.
312 Study Package for NTSE

Nomenclature of Carbon Compounds l Ignition Temperature

The following simple rules are as follows
l Selection of longest carbon chain known as parent chain.
l The remaining carbon atoms that are not the part of
parent chain are taken as substituents.
l The carbon chain is numbered in such a way that the
alkyl groups (substituents) get the smallest possible
number.
l If any functional group is present then it is gets the
smallest possible number. The ‘e’ of alkane is replaced
by suffix of functional group indicating the position.
l In case different types of substituents are attached to
the chain, they are arranged and named alphabetically.
l If the compound has unsaturation then ‘ene’ is used for
double bond and ‘yne’ is used for triple bond.
Chemical Properties of Carbon
Compounds
Chemical properties of carbon compounds are classified as
1. Combustion
Chemical process in which a substance (fuel) burns in
the presence of air (oxygen) with the release of heat and
light. It is an exothermic process. In this process, sound
produced may be a bissing sound, crackling sound or an
explosion. e. g.,
(i) Charcoal (C) + Oxygen → CO2 + heat + light
(ii) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + energy
Types of Combustion
l Incomplete Combustion
2C + O2 → 2CO
l Complete Combustion
C + O2 → CO2
l Rapid Combustion LPG gas, petrol and camphor go to
flames even with a spark from a gas lighter. These
materials are highly inflammable.
l Slow Combustion Burning of wood, candle, paper etc.
l Explosive Combustion When a cracker is ignited, it
explodes with a big-bang producing heat and light.
l Spontaneous Combustion Strike the head of a
matchstick on the side of the match box. The head of
matchstick catches fire instantaneously.
Conditions Necessary for Combustion
l Combustible material (the fuel)
l Air
The lowest temperature up to which a substance
must be heated before it catches fire, is called ignition
temperature. Every combustible substance has its
own ignition temperature.
(i) The ignition temperature of petrol is lower than
that of kerosene, so petrol can easily vapourise
and catches fire.
(ii) Coal doesn’t catch fire just by putting in air
because it has high ignition temperature.
(iii) Alcohol, LPG, ether, benzene have low ignition
temperature, so they are kept and stored very
carefully.
2. Oxidation
Carbon compounds can be easily oxidised on
combustion. We also have reactions where alcohols are
converted to carboxylic acids.
Alkaline KMnO + heat
CH 3CH2 OH       
4
 → CH 3COOH
Acidified K 2Cr2O 7
3. Addition Reactions
When alkenes and hydrogen are passed over finely
divided catalysts like platinum, palladium at ordinary
temperature or nickel at 200°C, the two atoms of
hydrogen molecule are added to the unsaturated
molecule which thus becomes a saturated one.
H H Ni/
C====C + H2 CH3 CH3
H H 200°C
4. Substitution Reactions
Alkanes react with chlorine, bromine or iodine in the
presence of sunlight to give halogen substituted
products known as alkyl halides e. g.,
CH4 + Cl 2  Diffused
 → CH 3Cl + HCl
sunlight
Some Important Carbon
Compounds
Ethanol
Ethanol also known as ethyl alcohol is a liquid at room
temperature. It is prepared by the addition of H2 SO4 on
ethene at 80°C followed by hydrolysis with boiling
water. It is a good solvent for gums and resins. It is used
in the manufacture of chemicals and synthetic products.
It is used as a beverage in alcoholic drinks intake of
small amount of absolute alcohol can be lethal.
Carbon and Its Compounds 313
Properties of Ethanol Soaps and Detergents
1. Reaction with sodium
2CH3CH2OH + 2Na → 2C2H5O− Na + + H2 Soaps
Sodium ethoxide
2. Dehydration with concentrated sulphuric acid These are made by reacting fats or oils with sodium
Conc. H2SO4 hydroxide. Soap has hydrophobic as well as
CH3CH2OH      → CH2 == CH2 + H2O
170 °C Ethene
hydrophilic parts. Hydrophilic part have affinity
towards water. Whereas hydrophobic part repel water
Ethanoic Acid molecules.
It is also known as acetic acid. Vinegar commonly The hydrophobic long chain part of molecule attaches
called ‘Sirka’ is a dilute (4-5%) solution of acetic acid. It itself to the grease and dirt particles and the hydrophilic
is widely used as a preservative. Acetic acid is used as a group makes the particles soluble in water so that by
solvent, in medicines, for coagulating rubber and for the agitation they are loosened from the fabric and
manufacture of cellulose acetate which is used for dispersed during the process of cleaning.
varnishes. Acetic acid in the pure state is also called
Hard water doesn’t produce lather with soap. Hard
glacial acetic acid.
water contains calcium and magnesium ions which
Properties of Ethanoic Acid react with soap and produce insoluble carbonates. This
prevents the formation of lather. This can be overcome
1. Esterification reaction
by adding sodium carbonate to precipitate the insoluble
H2SO4 carbonates.
CH3COOH + HOC2H5   → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Acetic acid Ethanol Ethyl acetate (ester)
Esters are sweet smelling compounds and on reaction with Detergents
alkalines like NaOH convert ester back to alcohol and These doesn’t form scum in hard water. Detergents are
sodium salt of carboxylic acid and the reaction is called
made chemically from petroleum hydrocarbons. Like
saponification.
soaps, detergents also possess two headed molecules,
CH3COOC2H5  NaOH
 → C2H5OH + CH3COONa i. e., hydrophilic and hydrophobic.
2. Action of a base They can wash the dirt in soft water as well as in hard
CH3COOH + NaOH → CH2COONa + H2O water, as they don’t produce insoluble compounds of
Sodium acetate calcium and magnesium salts. Now-a-days certain
3. Reaction with carbonates and bicarbonates enzymes are also added to detergents to improve their
2CH3COOH + Na 2CO3 → 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2 ↑ efficacy. All detergents are of household use, are
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2 O + CO2 ↑ alkaline in nature and turn red litmus blue.

Points to Remember
l Carbon is a versatile element that forms the basis for all living organisms and many of the things we use.
l Carbon forms a variety of compounds due to its tetravalent nature and the property of catenation shown by it.
l Carbon forms both saturated and unsaturated compounds. The carbon chains may be in the form of straight chains, branched chains or rings.
l A functional group is an atom or a group of atoms which largely determines the chemical properties of an organic compound e.g. , Alcohol (  OH),
aldehyde (—CHO), ketone ( C==O) and carboxylic acid (—COOH).
l Carbon and its compounds are some of our major sources of fuels.
l Saponification process is used in the preparation of soaps.
l The action of soaps and detergents is based on the presence of hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups in the molecule and this helps to emulsify the oily
dirt and hence its removal.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The variety of coal having highest carbon content is 13. The variety of coal used as old house coal is
(a) peat (b) anthracite (a) anthracite (b) lignite
(c) bituminous (d) lignite (c) peat (d) bituminous

2. The main constituent of LPG is 14. When petroleum is heated the vapours contain
(a) methane (b) ethane mainly
(c) butane (d) propane (a) kerosene
(b) petroleum ether
3. Thermodynamically the most stable allotrope of (c) diesel
carbon is (d) machine oil
(a) diamond (b) graphite
(c) carbon black (d) charcoal 15. Which of these substances is made from coal?
(a) Paper (b) Coke
4. Graphite is used as a lubricant in machines because (c) Iron (d) Lactose
(a) it is a good conductor of electricity
(b) it has a high melting point and slippery layers 16. The soft brown coal mined in Germany and Australia
(c) its density ranges from 1.9 to 2.3 g/cm 3 is called …… coal.
(d) it is strong and soft (a) lignite (b) peat
(c) bituminous (d) anthracite
5. The allotrope of carbon which is a good conductor of
heat and electricity is 17. Which of these fules is smokeless?
(a) diamond (b) graphite (a) Coal (b) Wood
(c) charcoal (d) None of these (c) Paraffin (d) Coke

6. Which of the following is not considered as crystalline 18. When petrol burns, chemical energy changes into
allotrope of carbon? …… energy.
(a) Coal (b) Diamond (a) electrical
(c) Graphite (d) Fullerene (b) heat
(c) wind
7. Which form of carbon is found in Golkunda mines of (d) kinetic energy
Karnataka?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite 19. The process in which a substance combines chemically
(c) Coal (d) Coke with oxygen above its ignition temperature with the
evolution of large amount of heat and light in a very
8. Lead pencil contains short time is
(a) graphite (b) diamond
(a) slow combustion
(c) lead (d) lead sulphate
(b) complete combustion
9. The major component of CNG is (c) spontaneous combustion
(a) CH4 (b) C 3H8 (d) rapid combustion
(c) C 4H10 (d) C 2H6 20. Match the column I with column II.
10. Which form of coal is the preferred domestic fuel? Column I Column II
(a) Anthracite (b) Peat
(c) Lignite (d) Bituminous A. Solid fuel 1. LPG
B. Liquid fuel 2. CNG
11. Petroleum is refined by
(a) simple distillation C. Gaseous fuel used in cooking 3. Paraffin wax
(b) fractional distillation Gaseous fuel used in
D. transportation 4. Kerosene
(c) destructive distillation
(d) None of the above Codes
12. An allotropic form of carbon used for cutting and A B C D
drilling is (a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(a) diamond (b) charcoal
(c) fullerenes (d) graphite (c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 2 1 3
Carbon and Its Compounds 315
High Skill Questions
1. A dilute solution of ethanoic acid in water is called 9. Which of the following is an aldehyde?
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) vinegar (a) CH3  C CH3 (b) H  C H
(c) acetone (d) acetaldehyde || ||
O O
2. The gas evolved when ethanoic acid reacts with (c) CH3  C CH2CH3 (d) H  C OH
sodium carbonate is || ||
(a) carbon dioxide O O
(b) oxygen 10. Which of the following functional group represents a
(c) hydrogen
ketone?
(d) carbon monoxide
(a)  C H (b)  C 
3. The ability of carbon to form long chain compounds is || ||
called O O
(a) isomerisation (b) tetravalency (c)  C  OH (d) —OH
(c) polymerisation (d) catenation ||
O
4. The type of reaction shown by unsaturated 11. Ethene with the molecular formula C2H 6 has
hydrocarbons is (a) 6 covalent bonds (b) 7 covalent bonds
(a) displacement (b) substitution (c) 8 covalent bonds (d) 9 covalent bonds
(c) addition (d) None of these
12. The number of carbon atoms in Buckminister
5. Pure ethanol is also given the name of fullerenes are
(a) spirit (b) acetone (a) 60 (b) 75 (c) 40 (d) 100
(c) absolute alcohol (d) vinegar
13. Crystalline form of carbon is
6. The IUPAC name of (CH 3) 3C CH == CH2 is (a) charcoal (b) coke
(a) hex-1-ene (c) cool (d) diamond
(b) 3, 3-dimethyl but-1-ene
(c) 2, 2-dimethyl 3-butene 14. Which amongst the given pair of compounds forms a
(d) pent-1-ene homologous series?
(a) CH3OH and CH3CH2CH2OH
7. The acid present in vinegar is known as
(b) CH3CHO and CH3CH2CHO
(a) butanoic acid (b) ethanoic acid
(c) methanoic acid (d) propanoic acid (c) CH3COOH and C 3H7COOH
(d) CH3CH2 OH and CH3CHO
8. The number of single and double bonds present in
benzene are 15. Which out of the following is a unsaturated
(a) 12 single and 3 double bonds hydrocarbon?
(b) 6 single and 6 double bonds (a) Cyclobutane (b) Propyne
(c) 15 double bonds (c) Hexanol (d) Ethane
(d) 6 single and 6 double bonds

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (b) Anthracite is the purest variety of coal. It contains about 98% 10. (a) 11. ( b)
carbon.
12. (a) 13. ( d)
2. (c) 3. ( a) 4. (b) 5. (b)
14. (b) 15. ( b)
6. (a) 7. (a)
16. (a) 17. ( d)
8. (a) Lead pencil are made up of graphite, not of lead.
18. (b) 19. ( d)
9. (a) Methane, CH4 is the major component of compressed
20. (c)
natural gas (CNG).
316 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 9. (b)
− +
2. (a) 2 CH3COOH + Na 2CO 3 → 2CH3COO Na + H2O + CO 2 ↑ 10. (b)
3. (d) 11. (b) Ethane is C 2H6 .
4. (c) e. g., CH2 == CH2 + H2 Ni 
→ CH3 — CH3 H H
| |
(Addition reactions) H —C —C — H
| |
5. (a) H H
7 covalent bonds
CH 3
4 | 2 1 12. (a)
6. (b) CH3 —C — CH == CH2
| 13. (d)
CH 3 14. (b)
3, 3 - dimethyl but-1-ene
15. (b) Cyclo butane is
7. (b)
H 2C— CH 2
8. (a) Benzene is C 6H6 . | |
H H2C — CH2
—

C— Hexanol is CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH
—
H—C C—H
Ethane is CH3 CH3
—
—
—

•
H—C— C—H Propyne is CH3 C ≡≡ CH
C—
—
—

Hence, it is the unsaturated hydrocarbon an example of an

H alkyne.
= 12 single and 3 double bonds.
 Chapter
7
Periodic Classification
of Elements
Need for the Classifation of Elements At present, as
many as 118 elements are known , it become difficult to
study these elements individually, so classification of
elements was done, to make the study easier.
Dobereiner’s Triads Dobereiner arranged certain
elements with similar properties in groups of three
(triads) in such a way that the atomic mass of the middle
element was nearly the same as the average atomic
masses of the first and the third elements. A few triads
proposed by him are listed e.g.,
(i) Li, Na, K (ii) Cl, Br, I
(iii) Ca, Sr, Ba (iv) S, Se, Te
Newland’s law of Octaves Elements are arranged in
increasing order of atomic masses and it was observed
that every eighth elements had similar properties to
those of the first element.
However, law of octaves also could not be applied
beyond calcium. Moreover, with the discovery of noble
gases, the eighth element no longer remains the similar
properties with first element.
Mendeleef’s Periodic Table
It is based upon Mendeleef’s periodic law, which states
that the physical and chemical properties of the
elements are a periodic function of their atomic masses.
Mendeleef named Gallium (Ga) and Germanium (Ge)
elements as eka-aluminium and eka-silicon
respectively.
Structural Features of the Mendeleef’s
Periodic Table
l Mendeleef’s original periodic table consisted of eight
vertical columns called groups I-VIII and
seven horizontal rows called periods 1-7. Modified
Mendeleef’s periodic table contains nine groups, i.e.,
I-VIII and zero group (of noble gases).
l All groups except VIII and zero have been further
divided into two sub-groups called A and B. A groups of
left hand side consist of normal elements while groups
B of right hand side consist of transition elements.
l Elements of group I A are called alkali metals while
those of group IB (i.e., Cu, Ag, Au) are called coinage
metals.
Modern Periodic Table
Moseley forms the basis of the modern periodic law. He
discovered that the square root of the frequency of the
more prominent X-rays emitted by a metal was
proportional to the atomic number and not the atomic
mass of the atom of the metal. Hence, atomic number
should be the basis of classification of the elements.
Modern periodic law states that “the physical and
chemical properties of the elements are a periodic
function of their atomic number.”
It was observed that the elements with similar
properties reoccurred at regular intervals of 2, 8, 8, 18,
or 32. These numbers (2, 8, 8, 18 and 32) are called
magic numbers, and cause of periodicity in properties.
318
Structural Features of the Long form of
the Periodic Table
1. Groups
l The 18 vertical columns of the periodic table, are called
groups.
l Elements of groups 1, 2, 13-18 are called normal or
representative elements.
l Elements of groups 3-12 are called transition elements.
l The elements belonging to a particular group is known
as a family and is usually named after the first element.
e. g., Boron family (group 13).
In addition to this, some groups have typical names.
e. g.,
(i) Elements of group 1 are called alkali metals
(ii) Elements of group 2 are called alkaline Earth
metals
(iii) Elements of group 3 are called pnicogens
(iv) Elements of group 16 are called chalcogens
(v) Elements of group 17 are called halogens
(vi) Elements of group 18 are called noble gases
2. Periods
The 7 horizontal columns (of rows) are called periods.
The seven periods of periodic table are
Shortest Period 1st period ( 1 H → 2 He) contains
2 elements.
Short Periods 2nd period ( 3 Li → 10 Ne) and 3rd period
( 11 Na → 18 Ar) contains 8 elements each.
Longest Period 6th period ( 55 Cs → 86 Rn) contains 32
elements and is the longest period.
Long Periods 4th period ( 19 K → 36 Kr) and 5th period
( 37 Rb → 54 Xe) contain 18 elements each.
Incomplete Period 7th period ( 87 Fr) is however,
incomplete and contains at present only
26 elements.
Periodic Properties
Properties which show a regular gradation when we
move from left to right in a period or from top to bottom
in a group are called periodic properties. These
properties are atomic size, ionisation energy, electron
affinity etc.
Atomic Radii
It refers to the distance between the centre of the
nucleus of atom to its outermost shell of electrons.
Study Package for NTSE
The absolute value of atomic radius cannot be
determined because
l it is not possible to locate the exact position of electrons
in an atom as an orbital has no sharp boundaries.
l it is not possible to isolate an individual atom.
l in a group of atoms, the probability distribution of
electrons is influenced by the presence of neighbouring
atoms.
Since, absolute value of atomic size cannot be
determined, it is expressed in terms of the operational
definitions such as covalent radius, Van der Waals’
radius, ionic radius and metallic radius.
Periodic variation of atomic radii
(i) On moving down the group due to addition of new
shell the valence shells become far away from the
nucleus and thus the atomic radius increases.
(ii) On moving along the period, the effective nuclear
charge increases and thus the electron cloud is
attracted more strongly towards the nucleus
resulting contraction in the atomic radius.
Isoelectronic ions or species The ions of the different
elements which have the same number of electrons but
different magnitude of the nuclear charge. The size of
isoelectronic ions decreases with the increase in the
nuclear charge.
e.g., O2– , F − , Na + , Mg 2+ , Al 3+
Ionisation Energy (IE)
The amount of energy required to remove an electron
from the last orbit of an isolated (free) atom in gaseous
state is known as ionisation potential or energy or
better first ionisation energy of the element, i.e.,
M ( g) + IE → M + ( g) + e −
l The amount of energies required to remove the
subsequent electron (2nd, 3rd, …) from the monovalent
gaseous cation of the element one after the other are
collectively called successive ionisation energies. These
are designated as IE2, IE3, and so on. It may be noted
that. IE3 > IE2 > IE1 (for a particular element). IE is
expressed in eV/atom or kcal mol −1 or kJ mol −1 Note
that eV atom −1 = 23.06 kcal mol −1 = 96.3 kJ mol −1.
l In general, the first IE increases along the period from
left to right. However, there are some exceptions to the
general trend.
(i) IE decreases from elements of group 2 → 3.
(ii) IE decreases from elements of group 15 → 16.
l In a group of the Periodic Table, the ionisation energy
decreases from top to bottom.
Periodic Classification of Elements 319
Electron Affinity (EA) l Non-metallic character decreases down the group and
increases across a period.
It is the amount of energy released when a gaseous atom l Both metallic and non-metallic character depends upon
accepts the electron to form gaseous anion. the atomic size and nuclear charge.
X ( g) + e − → X − ( g) + EA
l EA values are expressed in eV/atom or kcal/mol or Electronegativity (EN)
kJ/mol. It is the tendency of an atom in a molecule to attract the
l The energy changes accompanying the addition of first, shared pair of electrons towards itself.
second, third etc electrons to neutral isolated gaseous
l In a period EN increases from left to right due to
atoms are called successive electron affinities and are
decrease in size and increase in nuclear charge of atoms.
designated as EA1, EA 2, EA 3 etc.
l In a group, EN decreases from top to bottom due to
l The first EA is always taken as positive. However, the
increase in atomic size.
addition of second electron to the negatively charged ion
is opposed by coulombic repulsion and hence required Valency It is the number of electrons gained or lost or
(absorbed) energy for the addition of second electron. shared with other atoms in the formation of compounds.
Thus, second Electron Affinity (EA 2) of an element is
taken as negative.
Valency of group 1 and 2 elements is equal to the
number of electrons in the outermost shell, while that
e. g.,
O ( g ) + e − → O− ( g ); EA1 = +141 k J mol−1 for groups 13 to 14 is group number-minus 10 and that
(Exothermic) for group 15-18 is 8-minus the number of electrons in
O − ( g) + e − → O2 − ( g); EA 2 = −780 kJ mol −1 the outermost shell.
(Endothermic)
l Electron affinity increases in moving across the period Points to Remember
from left to right due to increase in charge, but the l Moseley discovered atomic number.
values are unexpectedly low in elements of group 2, 15 l Smallest period of Modern periodic table contains 2 elements.
and 18 due to stable electronic configurations. (H and He)
l Within a group of the Periodic Table the electron l Variation in periodic properties
affinities decreases from top to bottom.
Period Atomic size ↓
l In general, electron affinity follows the following trend
Halogens > oxygen family > nitrogen Ionisation enthalpy or energy ↑
family > metals of groups 1 and 13 and non-metals of Electron affinity ↑
group 14 > metals of group 2. Electronegativity ↑
Metallic character ↓
Metallic and Non-metallic Character Those elements Group Non-metallic character ↓
which have a tendency to lose their valence electrons
and form a positive ion are considered as metals. Atomic size ↑
l The metallic character increases as one moves down a Ionisation enthalpy or energy ↓
group and decreases across a period, moving from left to Electron affinity ↓
right. Electronegativity ↓
Metallic character ↑
l Those elements which have a tendency to gain electrons
in order to obtain octet in their outermost orbit are Non-metallic character ↓
considered as non-metals.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Who is known as the father of chemistry? 15. Mendeleef’s periodic table is based on
(a) Lavoisier (b) van’t Hoff (a) atomic number (b) atomic mass
(c) Rutherford (d) Mendeleef (c) atomic value (d) atomic radii

2. Who was awarded the first nobel prize in chemistry? 16. On going from left to right in a period in the periodic
(a) Rutherford (b) Einstein table the electronegativity of the elements
(c) van’t Hoff (d) Mendeleef (a) increases
(b) decreases
3. ‘Law of octaves’ was proposed by (c) remains unchanged
(a) Newland (b) Dobereiner
(d) decreases first than increased
(c) Mendeleef (d) Lother Meyer
17. Which of the following is isoelectronic with carbon
4. The elements of group 18 are
atom?
(a) halogens (b) noble gases
(a) Na + (b) Al 3+ (c) O 2− (d) N+
(c) chalcogens (d) alkaline Earth metals

5. According to the Modern Periodic Law of elements 18. Which of the following have same number of electrons
the variation in properties of elements is related to in the outermost orbit?
their (a) As, Bi (b) N, O
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass (c) Pb, Sb (d) P, Ca
(c) mass number (d) nuclear mass 19. Which of the following remains unchanged on
6. Dobereiner’s triad of elements is illustrated by descending a group in the periodic table?
(a) Fe, Co, Ni (b) Na, K, Cs (a) Valence electrons (b) Atomic size
(c) F, Cl, I (d) Li, Na, K (c) Density (d) Metallic character

7. Which of the element has maximum ionisation 20. Which pair of elements belongs to the same group?
energy ? (a) Elements with atomic number 17 and 38
(a) C (b) N (c) B (d) O (b) Elements with atomic number 20 and 40
(c) Elements with atomic number 17 and 35
8. Which of the following has the largest atomic size? (d) Elements with atomic number 11 and 33
(a) Al (b) Al+ (c) Al 2+ (d) Al 3+
21. Elements of group-2 are called
9. Element ‘A’ has eleven protons in its nucleus. To (a) transition elements (b) alkali metals
which group of the periodic table it will belong? (c) alkali earth metals (d) halogens
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 8
22. Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon are known as
10. The family of elements with the highest ionisation (a) gallium and germanium (b) aluminium and silicon
enthalpy is (c) iron and sulphur (d) neutron and proton
(a) alkaline Earth metals (b) halogens 23. Which of the following is the most electronegative
(c) noble gases (d) alkaline metals
element?
11. Which of the following is not a transition metal? (a) F (b) Cl
(a) Ag (b) Pb (c) W (d) Mn (c) Br (d) I

12. The element which exists in liquid state at room 24. The correct decreasing order of the size of the
temperature is following ions is
(a) Na (b) Br (c) Hg (d) Ga (a) Li+ > H+ > H− (b) H+ > H− > Li+
(c) H− > Li+ > H+ (d) H− > H+ > Li+
13. Which amongst the following is not an alkali metal?
(a) Na (b) Li (c) Mg (d) K 25. What is the atomic number of next halogen after
85 At?
14. Who developed long form of the periodic table?
(a) 85 (b) 117
(a) Lother Meyer (b) Neils Bohr
(c) 104 (d) 167
(c) Mendeleef (d) Moseley
Periodic Classification of Elements 321
High Skill Questions
1. Which group of the periodic table contains no metal? 13. Arrange in the increasing order of ionic radii the
(a) I A (b) III A elements O, C, F, Cl, Br
(c) VII A (d) VIII (a) F, O, C, Cl, Br (b) F, C, O, Cl, Br
(c) F, Cl, Br, O, C (d) C, O, F, Cl, Br
2. The atomic radius decreases in a period due to
(a) increase in nuclear attraction 14. Which are the three elements of Dobereiner’s triad?
(b) decrease in nuclear attraction (a) H, Li, Be (b) Be, N, O
(c) increase in number of electrons (c) Ti, Mn, Fe (d) Li, Na, K
(d) decrease in number of electrons
15. Which of the following set has the strongest tendency
3. Match the column A with column B to form anions?
Column A Column B (a) V, Cr, Mn (b) Ga, In, Tl
(c) Na, Mg, Al (d) N, O, F
A. Alkaline Earth metal 1. Rb
B. Radioactive element 2. As 16. According to the periodic law of elements, the
C. Alkali metal 3. Mg variation in properties of elements is related to their
D. Metalloid 4. Fr (a) atomic masses
Codes (b) nuclear masses
A B C D A B C D (c) atomic numbers
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 1 2 (d) nuclear neutron proton number ratios
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 17. Which element has the maximum density?
4. How many elements are found in nature? (a) Os (b) Li (c) H (d) Bi
(a) 92 (b) 107 (c) 105 (d) 104 18. The number of elements in 5th period of periodic table
5. The element with atomic number 9, 17, 35, 53 and 85 (a) 8 (b) 18
are all (c) 10 (d) 32
(a) noble gases (b) heavy metals 19. One element M is present in the 13th group, the
(c) light metals (d) halogens
formula of its chloride is
6. The neutral particle of an atom is (a) MCl 3 (b) M 2Cl 3
(a) electron (b) proton (c) M 3 Cl (d) MCl 2
(c) neutron (d) None of these
20. The law of octaves was only applicable up to which
7. An atom is electrically neutral because element?
(a) protons = neutrons (b) electrons = neutrons (a) Sodium (b) Calcium
(c) protons = electrons (d) None of these (c) Fluorine (d) Bromine
8. The third energy level is 21. Eka-aluminium was replaced by which element later
(a) K (b) M (c) L (d) N on
(a) Silicon (b) Indium
9. The atomic number of an atom with electronic
(c) Gallium (d) Scandium
configuration 2, 8, 1 is
(a) 2 (b) 1 22. The element with atomic number 8 resembles with the
(c) 8 (d) 11 element having atomic number
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 26 (d) 27
10. The number of electrons present in the outer most
shell of all noble gases (except helium) is 23. Which element is not a noble gas?
(a) 2 (b) 8 (a) Helium (b) Neon
(c) 6 (d) 10 (c) Radium (d) Argon
11. The most active step in the development of Periodic 24. Which of the following periodic property generally
Table was taken by decreases along a period?
(a) Mendeleef (b) Dalton (a) Metallic character (b) Electron affinity
(c) Avogadro (d) Cavendish (c) Ionisation energy (d) Valency
12. In the periodic table going down in fluorine group 25. Chloride and potassium ions are isoelectronic. Then
(a) reactivity will increases (a) their atomic sizes are same
(b) electronegativity will increase (b) Cl − ion is bigger than K + ion
(c) ionic radius will increase (c) K + ion is relatively bigger
(d) ionisation potential will increase (d) None of the above
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a)
6. (a) 7. (b) 17. (d) Carbon and N+ have 6 electrons, so they are isoelectronic.
8. (a) Neutral atom have bigger sizes from the consitituent positive 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (a)
ions.
23. (a)
9. (a) Eleven protons means valence shell contains 1 electron, so it
will belong to group 1. 24. (c) H− > Li+ > H+

10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 25. (b) Atomic number of halogen = 85 + 32 = 117

High Skill Questions

1. (c) Group VIIA contains F, Cl, Br, I, At, all are halogens and 10. (b) 11. (a)
non-metals.
12. (c) In the periodic table for all the group ionic radius increases on
2. (a) Since, the number of electrons increases the attraction by the going down the group.
nucleus increases thereby increasing the effective number
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a)
charge.
18. (b) There are 18 elements in the 5th period starting from
3. (b) 4. (a)
Rubidium to Xenon.
5. (d) Atomic number
9 → fluorine 19. (a) M is belonging to group 13, so the cation of
17 → chlorine M → M 3 + → MCl 3 .
35 → Bromine
20. (b) 21. (b)
53 → Iodine
85 → Astatine 22. (a) Atomic number 8 is of oxygen → 2, 6 is the electronic
They are all called halogens. configuration. So at number 16 is of sulphur → 2, 8, 6 is the
electronic configuration. Since valence electrons are same so
6. (c) 7. (c) they both belong to the same group and show similar properties.
8. (b) n = 1, 2, 3 K (energy levels) and alphabetically → K, L, M 23. (c) Radium is not a noble gas it s radioactive element belonging
.... So third energy level is M shell. to group 2.
9. (d) The atomic number = number of electrons 24. (a) 25. (b)
∴ 2 + 8 + 1 = 11
 Chapter

8
Atoms and Molecules
Law of Chemical Combination Symbols Derived from Latin Names of the Elements

There are two laws of chemical combination. English name of Latin name of the
S. No. Symbols
the elements elements
Law of Conservation of Mass It states that mass can 1. Sodium Na Natrium
neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical
2. Potassium K Kalium
reaction. 3. Iron Fe Ferrum
Law of Constant Proportion It states that in a 4. Copper Cu Cuprum
chemical substance the elements are always present in 5. Silver Ag Argentum
definite proportions by mass. 6. Gold Au Aurum
7. Mercury Hg Hydragyrum
Chemical Symbols 8. Lead Pb Plumbum
9. Tin Sn Stannum
The symbol of an element is the ‘first letter’ or the ‘first
letter and another letter’ of the English name or Latin
Atomic Masses of a Few Elements
name of the element.
Element Atomic mass ( µ)
Symbols Derived from English Names
of the Elements Hydrogen 1
Carbon 12
English name English name
S. S. Nitrogen 14
of the Symbols of the Symbols
No. No.
elements elements Oxygen 16
1. Hydrogen H 10. Zinc Zn Sodium 23
2. Helium He 11. Iodine I Magnesium 24
3. Lithium Li 12. Sulphur S Sulphur 32
4. Carbon C 13. Calcium Ca Chlorine 35.5
5. Nitrogen N 14. Phosphorus P Calcium 40
6. Oxygen O 15. Silicon Si
7. Fluorine F 16. Chlorine Cl
Atomicity
8. Neon Ne 17. Bromine Br
The number of atoms present in one molecule of an
9. Aluminium Al
element or compound is called its atomicity.
324 Study Package for NTSE
Atomicity of Some Elements 1st step Mg O → MgO
Type of element Name Atomicity 2nd step Mg 2
O 2 → Mg 2 O2
Non-metal Argon Monoatomic 3rd step Mg 2 O2
Helium Monoatomic
Common factor is 2, so divide both by 2 to get 1.
Oxygen Diatomic
Hydrogen Diatomic Hence, MgO is the formula.
Nitrogen Diatomic
Phosphorus Tetraatomic
Sulphur Octaatomic
Atoms and Molecules
An atom is the smallest particle of an element that can
take part in a chemical reaction.
Ion and Radical
An atom carrying a unit positive or negative charge is A molecule is the smallest particle of a substance
called as an ion. (element or compound) which has the properties of that
substance and can exist in free state. e.g.,
A group of atoms of different elements that carries
a charge and behaves as single unit are called (i) Molecule of an element H2, Cl2, O2
radicals. (ii) Molecule of a compound H2O, HCl, NH3

Names and Symbols of Some Ions Molecular Mass

Names Symbols Names Symbols Molecular mass of a substance is the relative mass of its
Sodium Na +
Oxide O 2− molecule as compared with the mass of a 12 C atom
Potassium K+ Sulphide S 2− taken as 12 units. Molecular mass can be computed by
Silver Ag + Nitride N 3− taking an algebric sum of atomic masses of different
Copper (I) Cu + Ammonium NH+4 atoms present in the molecule.
Magnesium Mg 2+ Hydroxide OH − Molecular mass of H2O = Mass of H atoms + Mass of O
Calcium Ca 2+ Nitrate NO −3 atom = 2 + 16 = 18
Zinc Zn 2+ Bicarbonate HCO −3
The molecular mass expressed in grams is called gram
Iron (II) Fe 2+ Carbonate CO 2−
3 molecular mass of substance.
Copper (II) Cu 2+ Sulphite SO 2−
Aluminium Al 3+
3 Gram molecular mass of H2O = 18 g
Sulphate SO 2−
Iron (III) Fe 3+ 4

Chloride Cl −
Phosphate PO 3−
4 Mole Concept
One mole is the quantity of a substance that contains
Writing Chemical Formulae of a the number of entities equal to the number of atoms
Compound contained in 12 g of carbon.

The chemical formula of a compound is the short hand 1 mole of atoms = 6.022 × 1023 atoms
notation to represent the name of the compound.
1st Step Write the symbols of the elements in such a
Points to Remember
way that positive ion is written on the left hand side and Amount of substance (in grams)
l
Number of moles =
negative ion on the right hand side. Gram atomic mass
Amount of substance (in grams)
2nd Step Write the valency of each above the symbol. l
Number of moles =
Gram molecular mass
3rd Step Now criss-cross the valencies to get the Gram molecular mass
l
Mass of a molecule =
chemical formula. Avogadro number NA
e. g., Let us write the chemical formula of magnesium l
For a gas at STP (0°C temperature and 760 mm Hg pressure)
oxide. volume is 22.4 L for one mole gas.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Atomicity of phosphorus is 8. Which of the following is not represented by chemical
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6 symbol?
2. The chemical symbol of silver is (a) Size of the atom/element
(a) Ag (b) Si (c) Cu (d) S (b) Name of the element
3. How many atoms of oxygen are contained in (c) Definite mass of the element
10 molecules of sulphur trioxide? (d) None of the above
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 30 (d) 40 9. The chemical symbols for elements were stated by
4. What is the gram molecular mass of H2SO4 ? (a) Berzelius (b) Dalton
(a) 49 g (b) 98 g (c) Ostwald (d) Mendeleef
(c) 196 g (d) 92 g 10. A compound is formed by the combination of atoms of
5. Match Column I and Column II at least ……… elements.
(a) four (b) three
Column I Column II (c) five (d) two
A. Thallium 1. Co
11. Atomicity of helium is
B. Titanium 2. Zn
(a) 1 (b) 2
C. Zinc 3. Ti
D. Cobalt 4. Tl (c) 3 (d) 4
12. The particle in an atom which has negative charge
Codes
(a) electron (b) proton
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (c) neutron (d) nucleus
(b) 2 1 3 4 13. The symbol of magnesium element is
(c) 4 3 2 1 (a) Na (b) Mo
(d) 4 1 3 2 (c) Mg (d) Mn
6. What is the Latin name of mercury (Hg)? 14. Hydrogen is
(a) Hydragyrum (b) Argentum (a) an element (b) a compound
(c) Aurum (d) Ferrum (c) a mixture (d) None of these
7. The number of atoms present in a molecule of an
element is called 15. Which among the following element has valency of 1?
(a) Magnesium (b) Calcium
(a) allotropy (b) atomicity
(c) Aluminium (d) Sodium
(c) aromaticity (d) None of these

High Skill Questions

1. How many moles are represented by 90 g of glucose 5. If 60g of sugar is dissolved in 180 g of water, the
(C6H12O6 )? concentration of solution is
(a) 1 mol (b) 0.5 mol (a) 60% (b) 40%
(c) 1.5 mol (d) 2 mol (c) 25% (d) 75%
2. Calculate the ratio of molecules present in 4.4 g of 6. How many molecules of H2O2 are present in 68 g of
CO2 and 1.6 g of SO2 . H2O2 ?
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 8 (a) 6.022 × 1023 (b) 12.044 × 1023
3. What is the exact weight of 3 moles of Na? (c) 3.011 × 10 23
(d) 24.088 × 1023
(a) 23 g (b) 46 g (c) 69 g (d) 92 g
7. The cost of sucrose (sugar) C12H22O11 is ` 20 per kg. Its
4. The mass of one atom of an element X, is 2 × 10−23 g. cost per mole is
What could element X be? (a) ` 3.60 (b) ` 7.20
(a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen
(c) ` 4.00 (d) ` 10
(c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur
326 Study Package for NTSE
8. If the mass of 1 mole of water is 18 g, what is the mass 12. Which of the following has largest number of atoms?
of 1 molecule of H2O ? (a) 0.5 g atom of Cu (b) 0.635 g of Cu
(a) 3.99 × 10−23 g (b) 2.99 × 10−23 g (c) 1 g of Cu (d) 0.25 moles of Cu atom
(c) 6.022 × 1023 g (d) 18 g 13. One mole of oxygen gas is the volume of
9. What is the numerical value of Avogadro number? (a) 1 L of oxygen at STP
(a) 6.022 × 10 23
(b) 6.022 × 1024 (b) 32 L of oxygen at STP
(c) 6.022 × 1022 (d) 6.022 × 1025 (c) 22.4 L of oxygen at STP
(d) 6.02 × 1023 molecules at any temperature and pressure
10. Total number of atoms in 44 g of CO2 is
(a) 6.02 × 1023 (b) 6.02 × 1024 14. The volume of 4.4 g of CO2 at STP is
(c) 1.806 × 1024 (d) 18.06 × 1022 (a) 22.4 L (b) 0.224 L
(c) 2.24 L (d) 0.01 L
11. The number of grams of H2SO4 present in 0.25 mole of
H2SO4 is 15. The largest number of molecules is in
(a) 0.245 (b) 2.45 (a) 34 g of H2O (b) 28 g of CO 2
(c) 24.5 (d) 49 (c) 46 g of CH3OH (d) 54 g of N2O 5

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (c) Phosphorus exists as P4 molecule. 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (a)
Thus, its atomicity is 4. 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a)
2. (a) 15. (d) Mg (magnesium), 12 = 2, 8, 2
3. (c) In one molecule of SO 3 , Ca (calcium), 20 = 2, 8, 8, 2
Number of O atoms = 3 Al (aluminium), 13 = 2, 8, 3
∴ in 10 molecule of SO 3 , Na (sodium) 11 = 2, 8, 1
Number of O atoms = 10 × 3 = 30 Thus, the valency of Na is 1 (as valency shows the number of
4. (b) Molecular mass of atomic H2SO 4 = atomic mass of H × 2 + electrons present in outermost shell.)
mass atomic of S + atomic mass of O × 4
= 1 × 2 + 32 + 16 × 4 = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98 g

High Skill Questions

ω 90 8. (b) 6.023 × 1023 molecules of water weigh 18 g
1. (b) Number of moles = = = 0.5 mol
m 180 18
1 molecule = = 2.99 × 10−23 g
2. (a) 6.023 × 1023
ω
3. (c) n = , ω = 3 × 23 = 69 g 9. (a) 10. (c)
m
ω 0.25
11. (c) n = , ω = n × m = × 98 = 24.5 g
4. (a) m 100
60
5. (c) Concentration of solution = × 100 12. (c) 13. (c)
180 + 60
14. (c) 44 g of CO 2 occupies 22.4 L at STP
60 100
= × 100 = = 25%
22.4 4.4
240 4 4.4 g of CO 2 occupies × = 2.24 L
44 100
6. (b)
15. (a)
7. (a)
 Chapter
Matter in Our
Surroundings
Physical Nature of Matter
A substance from which an object is made is called a
material. Anything that has mass and occupies space is
called matter.
Classification of Matter
Matter can be classified on the basis of its physical state
as solid, liquid or gas.
Properties of Solids and Molecular Arrangement in
Solids In solids, the molecules are closely packed
together, there is a strong force of attraction between
the molecules of a solid which holds them together
in fixed position. The space between the molecules is
very small.
l Solids have definite shape and volume.
l Solids are rigid (cannot be compressed).
l Solids do not flow.
Properties of Liquids and Molecular Arrangement in
liquids In liquids the molecules are not very closely
packed like solids. They do not have strong
intermolecular force of attraction which can hold the
molecules of liquid together in fixed position. Therefore,
the molecules of a liquid can move freely from one
position to another. The intermolecular spaces between
the molecules is larger.
l Liquids have definite volume, but no definite shape.
l Liquid is slightly compressible.
l Liquids can flow easily.
9
Properties of Gases and Molecular Arrangement in
Gases In gases, the molecules are much farther apart
from one another. The force of attraction between the
molecules of a gas is negligible. The spaces between the
molecules of a gas are very large.
l Gases neither have a definite shape nor a definite volume.
l Gases are highly compressible.
l Gases flow in all directions.
Interconversion of States of Matter
The change of matter from one state to another state
and back to the original state is known as
interconversion of states of matter.
Heating Heating
Ice s Water s Steam
Cooling Cooling
(Solid form) (Liquid form) (Gaseous form)
Concept of Molecules
Matter whether solid, liquid or gas is made up of very
small particles called molecules. Some forces of
attraction exists between the molecules of matter. This
is called intermolecular force of attraction.
The intermolecular forces of attraction tend to hold the
molecules together the molecules of matter are in
continuous motion. The space between the molecules is
called intermolecular space.
328 Study Package for NTSE

Evaporation
This method is used to obtain a solid substance that has dissolved in a liquid common salt dissolved in water can be
separated by the process of evaporation. The process of changing a liquid into its vapour by heating is called
evaporation.
The rate of evaporation depends upon the surface area exposed to the atmosphere, the temperature, the humidity and
the wind speed. Evaporation causes cooling.

Points to Remember
● Matter is made up of small particles. Matter around us is present in three phases i.e., solid, liquid and gas.
● The forces of attraction between the particles are maximum in solids, intermediate in liquids and minimum in gases.
● In gases the particles move about randomly.
● The states of matter can undergo interconversion on changing the pressure or temperature.
● Boiling is a bulk phenomenon.
● During sublimation the solid state changes to the gaseous state without going through liquid state.
● Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.
● Latent heat of vaporisation is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid to gas at atmospheric pressure at its boiling point.
● Latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to change 1 kg of solid into liquid at its melting point.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following has maximum intermolecular 7. On converting the following i.e., 25°C from °celsius to
force? °kelvin, we get
(a) Honey (b) Water (a) 298 K (b) 248 K
(c) Ice (d) Water vapour (c) 246 K (d) 500 K
2. Which of the following is the property of matter? 8. 470 K temperature can be written in the celsius scale
(a) It has mass as
(b) It occupies space (a) 440°C (b) 197°C
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) 177°C (d) 187°C
(d) None of the above
9. Particles of matter are continuously moving that is,
3. The form of matter which has a definite shape and a they possess what we call
definite volume is called (a) potential energy
(a) solid (b) liquid (b) nuclear energy
(c) gas (d) All of these (c) kinetic energy
4. A liquid has (d) atomic energy
(a) fixed shape and fixed volume 10. The ……… of a solid is an indication of the strength of
(b) no fixed shape but fixed volume the force of attraction between its particles
(c) fixed shape but no fixed volume
(a) boiling point (b) freezing point
(d) neither fixed shape nor fixed volume
(c) transition point (d) melting point
5. The form of matter which neither has a definite shape
11. The physical state of water at 100°C is
nor a fixed volume is called
(a) liquid (b) gaseous
(a) solid (b) liquid
(c) semi solid (d) solid
(c) gas (d) All of these
12. Cotton is a good absorber of water hence it makes
6. Which of the following is the smallest unit of an
……… easier.
element?
(a) Molecule (b) Compound (a) boiling (b) evaporation
(c) Atom (d) Matter (c) vaporisation (d) condensation
Matter in Our Surroundings 329

High Skill Questions

1. What type of clothes should we wear in summer? 6. The intermixing of particles of two different types of
(a) Cotton (b) Nylon matter on their own is called
(c) Woollen (d) Polyester (a) evaporation (b) diffusion
(c) condensation (d) effusion
2. ……… is change from solid to gaseous state without
going through a liquid state. 7. The kinetic energy of the particles increases on
(a) Melting (b) Boiling increasing the ………
(c) Evaporation (d) Sublimation (a) pressure (b) humidity
(c) temperature (d) None of these
3. Why does a palm full cold when we put some acetone
on it? 8. Full form of CNG is
(a) Evaporation takes place causing cooling (a) Combined Natural Gas
(b) Boiling takes place (b) Common Natural Gas
(c) Condensation takes place (c) Compressed Neutral Gas
(d) None of the above (d) Compressed Natural Gas
4. The amount of water vapour present in the air is 9. In homes for cooking the gas used is
known as (a) LPG (b) methane
(a) condensation (b) sublimation (c) CNG (d) ethane
(c) humidity (d) None of these 10. The states of matter are
5. Evaporation increases with the ……… of surface area (a) not known (b) now interconvertible
(a) contraction (b) decrease (c) interconvertible (d) None of these
(c) no effect (d) increase

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level
1. (c) Among the given intermolecular forces are maximum in ice. 9. (c)
2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 10. (d) Higher the melting point of a solid, stronger is the force of
attraction. Thus, melting point is an indicator of strength of forces
5. (c) 6. (c)
of attraction between its particles.
7. (a) Temperature at Kelvin scale = ° C + 273 = 25 + 273 = 298 K
11. (b)
8. (b) Temperature at celcius scale = K − 273= 470 − 273 = 197 °C 12. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 8. (d) CNG → Compressed Natural Gas, its major component is
2. (d) Sublimation is the change from solid to gaseous state. methane.

3. (a) 9. (a) LPG → Liquified petroleum gas is used in homes for

cooking and its major component is butane.
4. (c)
10. (c) States of matter are interconvertible.
5. (d) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon and it increases with
the increase of surface area. Heat Heat
6. (b)
Solid state s
Cool
Liquid state s
Cool
Gaseous state

7. (c)
 Part-III : Biology
Chapter

1
Fundamental Unit
of Life
Cell
Cell is the structural and functional unit of life. In 1665, Robert Hooke made a chance observation, while
examining a thin slice of cork. It resembled the structure of honey comb consisting of many little compartments.
Free living cells were first discovered by Leeuwenhoek in 1674. In 1831, Robert Brown discovered nucleus in
cell. Purkinje coined the term ‘protoplasm’. Schleiden and Schwann put forward cell theory according to which
all plants and animals are made-up of cell. Virchow furthur expanded this theory by suggesting cells arises from
pre-existing cells.

Types of Cells
Despite the complexity and variety, all living cells can be classifed into two groups namely
1. Prokaryotic cell (Gr Pro = Primitive or pre be before; karyon = Nucleus) These are primitive cells lacking a true
nucleus and most of other cell organelles, e. g., bacterial cell, blue-green algae, mycoplasma etc.
2. Eukaryotic cell (Eu = true; karyon = Nucleus) These have the nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles. These
are present in unicellular and multicellular plant and animal.

Differences between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cell

S.No. Feature Prokaryotic Cell Eukaryotic Cell
1. Size Generally, small in size 1-10 µm. Generally, large in size 10-100 µm.
2. Nuclear Nuclear region is not well defined. Nuclear membrane Nuclear region is well defined and enclosed in a nuclear
region is absent. membrane.
3. Histones Histone proteins are absent. Histone like proteins are Histone proteins are present, which forms an octamer with
attached to nucleic acid. nucleic acid.
4. Membrane Absent Present
bound cell
organelles
5. Nucleolus Absent Present
6. Cell division Fission or budding Mitosis or meiosis
Fundamental Unit of Life 331
Differences between Plant and Animal Cell barrier for internal components and surroundings. The
S.No. Plant Cell Animal Cell cell membrane is also called selectively permeable
membrane.
1. Cell wall is present. Cell wall is absent.
l CO2 and O2 move across the cell membrane by a process
2. Plastids are present. Plastids are absent.
called diffusion (spontaneous movement of a substance
3. Vacuoles are larger in size Vacuoles are smaller in size
and less in number. and more in number. from region of high concentration to a region, where
4. Nucleus lies on one side Nucleus lies in the centre. concentration of solute is low).
in the peripheral cytoplasm. l The movement of H2O across the plasma membrane
5. Plant cell contains several Prominent and highly complex occurs by the process called osmosis. Osmosis is
sub-units of Golgi Golgi apparatus is present movement of solvent (H2O) from region of high
apparatus called near nucleus. concentration through a semi-permeable membrane to a
dictyosomes. region of low water concentration. Movement of water
6. Plant cells are larger in size. Animal cells are comparatively across the cell membrane is affected by the amount of
smaller in size.
solutes present in the cell.
Rough endoplasmic Three types of solution depending upon solute
reticulum Nucleolus
concentration are
Smooth
endoplasmic
Hypertonic Solution When the solute concentration
Chloroplast with the surrounding medium is higher than the solute
reticulum
Nucleus concentration in cell. When cell is put in hypertonic
Golgi
apparatus
solution, the cell lose water by osmosis, e.g., when grape
Nuclear
is put into sugar solution, it becomes flaccid. This
envelope phenomenon is known as exo-osmosis.
Plasma
membrane
Hypotonic Solution If the medium surrounding the
Peroxisome cell has high H2 O concentration than the cell, i.e., very
Middle lamella
Cell wall diluted solution. Water enter the cell through osmosis
Mitochondrion and cell swell up. This process is known as
Cytoplasm Ribosomes
endo-osmosis.
Chloroplast
Structure of plant cell When RBCs are put into hypotonic solution. Water
enters the cell through endo-osmosis and cells bursts.
Microvilli
Isotonic Solution If the solute concentration is same
as that of the cell, there will be no net movement of H2 O.
Golgi Plasma membrane
apparatus Lysosome
There will be no change in the cell size.

Smooth Centriole Cell Wall

endoplasmic
reticulum Ribosomes In plant cells, cell membrane is surrounded by another
Nuclear Mitochondrion wall called cell wall. It is made up of ‘cellulose’ whose
envelope function is to give structural strength to plants. Also
Rough
Nucleus endoplasmic maintains its shape and size and provides rigidity to
reticulum
plant cells.
Nucleolus
When a living plant cell loses H2 O through exosmosis
Cytoplasm
there is shrinkage or contraction of the contents of the
Structure of animal cell
cell away from the cell wall. This phenomenon is known
as plasmolysis.
Cell Structure
Nucleus
Cell contains the following parts
The nucleus is spherical and located in the centre of the
Cell Membrane or Plasma Membrane cell. It is separated from cytoplasm by a membrane
It is the boundary for each cell, present in both animals called nuclear membrane. In nucleus, two components
and plants. Its components are molecules of lipids and are present chromatin material and nucleolus. Nucleolus
proteins. The main function of cell membranes are allows contains RNA and DNA is present as the part of
selective molecules through it, acts as a mechanical chromatin material.
332 Study Package for NTSE

During cell division chromatin material gets organised Secretory vesicles

into chromosomes. Chromosomes contain information trans region

for inheritance of features from parents to next

generation in form of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) Medial region
molecules.
Golgi sac
Chromosome consist of both DNA and histone proteins
and functional segments of DNA are called genes. In cis region
cis
bacteria, nuclear membrane is absent and nuclear Structure of Golgi apparatus
region is undefined containing only nucleic acid. This
undefined region is called nucleoid.
Group of cisternae is called dictyosome. It is various
Cytoplasm enzymes are present in Golgi apparatus like
It is a jelly-like substance present between the cell (i) Glycosyl transferases
(ii) Sulpho and glucotransferases
membrane and nucleus. Various other organelles of
(iii) Oxidoreductases
cells are present in cytoplasm, viz., mitochondria, Golgi
(iv) Phosphatases
bodies, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum etc. In (v) Phospholipases
eukaryotes, cell organelles are enclosed in a well defined (vi) Kinases
membrane. In prokaryotes, membrane bound cell
organelles are absent. Lysosomes
These are small vacuoles, which contains strong
Cell Organelles digestive enzymes are also called as digestive bags or
suicidal bags of the cell.
Cell organelles are following types
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) These are rod or spherical-shaped organelles having a
It consists of double membrane. One of its end is double membrane. The inner membrane is folded into
connected to the plasma membrane and another to finger-like structures called cristae but the outer
outer nuclear membrane. Proteins and lipids are membrane is smooth. It contains enzymes for cellular
synthesised by endoplasmic reticulum. The fluid filled respiration, also called as ‘power house of the cell’.
between the membranes are called as cisternae. Mitochondria have their own DNA and it is semi-
There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum autonomous in nature.
(i) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) It is Inner membrane
connected to plasma membrane. It looks rough due to the (cristae)
presence of ribosomes attached to its surface. Ribosomes
are the site of protein synthesis. The manufactured
proteins are transported to different parts of the cell
depending upon need.
(ii) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) It is the site
of fat lipid synthesis, protein and lipid together help in
building the cell membrane called membrane biogenesis. Matrix
It also help in detoxification of the xenobiotic compounds. Outer membrane
Ultra structure of mitochondria
Golgi Apparatus
First time observed by Camillo Golgi in 1898. It Plastids
consists of semilunar-shaped cisternae and flat These are present in plant cells only. These are of three
membranes appears in stacked manner. It synthesises types
the complex sugars from simple sugars. It is involved in Chromoplasts Coloured due to presence of pigments.
cell trafficking material synthesised near the
endoplasmic reticulum is packaged and dispatched to Chloroplasts Green-coloured plastids, the green
various targets. colour is due to the presence of chlorophyll.
Fundamental Unit of Life 333
Leucoplasts Colourless plastids, stores fat and starch. Ribosome
These also possess their own DNA. Plastid consist of It synthesise proteins that are used in cytoplasm and
numerous membrane layer thylakoid embedded in a found free in cytoplasm. Ribosomes are formed in
material called the stroma. nucleolus from ribosomal RNAs and proteins.
Smallest cell organelle which is not surrounded by any
Vacuoles cell membrane. In prokaryote, 70 S ribosome is present,
These are small sac-like structures surrounded by a while in eukaryotes 80 S ribosomes is present. Both 70 S
single membrane called tonoplast. In plant cells, large and 80 S ribosome is composed of two subunits.
central vacuole is present and they are permanent but 70 S 80 S
in animal cells they are small and uniformaly
distributed throughout the cytoplasm.
30 S 50 S 40 S 60 S
Centrosome Small sub-unit Large sub-unit Small sub-unit Large sub-unit

It is mainly found in animal cells only. It helps in the ‘S’ stands for Svedberg’s unit, which is a sedimentation
formation of spindle during cell division. coefficient. It gives indirect measurement of density
and size.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following is called as ‘digestive bags’ of 8. Lysosomes are called as ‘digestive bags’ because of
the cell? the presence of
(a) Plastids (b) Ribosomes (a) parasitic activity (b) catalytic activity
(c) Lysosomes (d) Peroxisomes (c) hydrolytic activity (d) saprophytic activity
2. Which of the following is called as ‘power house’ of the 9. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesises
cell? (a) proteins (b) steroids and lipids
(a) Cell wall (b) Chromosomes (c) carbohydrates (d) vitamins
(c) Mitochondria (d) Lysosomes
10. Starch grain is developed in
3. Golgi apparatus is absent in (a) mitochondria (b) lysosomes
(a) plants (b) yeast (c) Golgi apparatus (d) chloroplast
(c) blue-green algae (d) cells
11. Which of the following is a hereditary unit?
4. Largest animal cell is (a) Nucleolus (b) Gene
(a) liver cell (b) ostrich egg (c) Chromosome (d) Centrosome
(c) nerve cell (d) chicken egg
12. Plasma membrane is
5. Mitochondria are found in (a) permeable (b) selectively permeable
(a) eukaryotic cell (c) semi-permeable (d) impermeable
(b) prokaryotic cell
13. Undefined region containing only nucleic acid in
(c) plant cells
bacteria is
(d) All of these
(a) nucleoid (b) nucleolus
6. Largest cell in human body is (c) nucleus (d) cytoplasm
(a) DNA (b) kidney 14. In prokaryotes which type of ribosome are present?
(c) nerve cell (d) muscle cell (a) 70 S (b) 80 S
7. Orange-yellow colours of flowers is due to the (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
presence of 15. In 70 S ribosome what ‘S’ stands for
(a) chlorophyll (b) chloroplasts (a) Svedberg unit (b) sedimentation
(c) leucoplast (d) chromoplast (c) size (d) shape
334 Study Package for NTSE

16. In animal cell, centrosome are involved in the 21. Who suggested that cells arises from pre-existing
(a) protein synthesis cells?
(b) formation of spindle fibres during cell division (a) Robert Brown (b) Virchow
(c) respiration (c) Schleiden and Schwann (d) Robert Hooke
(d) transport of proteins
22. Who discovered nucleus?
17. Membrane which encloses vacuole in plant cells is (a) Robert Brown (b) Virchow
known as (c) Purkinje (d) Robert Hooke
(a) tonoplast (b) chloroplast
23. Who discovered free living cell?
(c) protoplast (d) plasma membrane
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Leeuwenhoek
18. Cell organelle involved in the detoxification of (c) Purkinje (d) Virchow
xenobiotic compounds 24. Who coined the term ‘protoplasm’ for the fluid
(a) RER (b) SER substance of cell?
(c) lysosome (d) centrosome (a) Purkinje
19. Rough endoplasmic reticulum looks rough due to the (b) Schleiden and Schwann
presence of (c) Robert Brown
(a) ribosomes (b) cristae (d) Virchow
(c) gene (d) vacuoles 25. Cell looses water when put in hypertonic solution by
20. Cell theory was put forwarded by a process known as
(a) Robert Brown (b) Schleiden and Schwann (a) hypotonic solution (b) end-osmosis
(c) Purkinje (d) Virchow (c) exo-osmosis (d) reverse osmosis

High Skill Questions

1. Bacteria are not present in highly salted pickles due to 7. What supports the presence of DNA in mitochondria
(a) pickles doesn’t have necessary nutrients and chloroplasts?
(b) bacteria killed by plasmolysis (a) Chloroplasts and mitochondria undergoes meiosis and
(c) photosynthesis doesn’t occurs mitosis independent of nucleus
(d) salt inhibits reproduction (b) Glycolysis occurs in both mitochondria and chloroplasts
(c) Chloroplast and mitochondria both originated as
2. Major role of Golgi complex is independent free-living organisms
(a) in trapping light quanta
(d) ATP is produced in chloroplasts as well as in mitochondria
(b) as energy transferring organelles
(c) in glycosidation of lipids and proteins to produce glycolipids 8. Which of the following shows the selective digestion
and glycoproteins of cytoplasmic organelles by the lysosomes?
(d) in digestive system (a) Autolysis
3. Electron transport system is present in which of the (b) Autophagy
(c) Heterophagy
following cell organelle?
(d) Osmotrophy
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Centriole
(c) Nucleolus (d) Mitochondria 9. Identify the correctly matched pair
4. Enzyme used for Kreb’s cycle in mitochondria are I. Nucleolus — RNA synthesis
located II. Spherosome — Transport of macromolecules
(a) on inner membrane (b) on outer membrane III. Glyorysome — Glyoxylate cycle
(c) in mitochondrial matrix (d) in perimitochondrial space
IV. Plasmodesmata — Lipid storage
5. In which organelles, chemical energy changes into (a) I, II and III (b) I and II
utilisable energy? (c) II and IV (d) I and III
(a) Microsomes (b) Chromosomes
10. I. Mitochondria contain DNA.
(c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria
II. 70 S ribosomes occur in prokaryotes.
6. What happened when green tomatoes turn red? III. Ribosomes are made-up of phospholipids and
(a) Chromoplasts changed into chloroplasts oligosaccharides.
(b) New chloroplasts are made IV. Ribosomes are not found in Protista and Monera.
(c) Chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into
chromoplasts
The correct statements are
(d) All of the above (a) I, II and III (b) I and II
(c) II and IV (d) I, II and III
Fundamental Unit of Life 335
11. Unit cell membrane is having average thickness of 18. Fungal cell wall is composed of
(a) 5 Å (b) 250 Å (a) chitin (b) cellulose
(c) 75 Å (d) 25 Å (c) pectin (d) peptidoglycan

12. When dried raisins or apricots are put in plain water, 19. Bacterial cell wall is composed of
what you observe (a) cellulose (b) chitin
(a) cells gains, water and swell up (c) peptidoglycan (d) fructose
(b) it loses H2O and consequently shrinks 20. Much of the DNA is localised in chromosome of
(c) no change occur in cells nucleus. The other major constituent of the
(d) None of the above chromosome is
13. When RBCs are put in hypotonic solution cell are (a) RNA (b) histones
(c) acid protein (d) None of these
likely to get
(a) burst (b) shrink 21. Smooth endoplamsic reticulum is specialised for
(c) swell up and then burst (d) flaccid synthesis of lipids and steroids. These organelles are
14. Cells of plants, fungus and bacteria exist in hypotonic found predominantly in
(a) pancreas (b) ovary
solution without bursting due to the presence of
(c) reticular cells (d) blood
(a) cell wall (b) cell membrane
(c) vacuole (d) tonoplast 22. In a living cell, the site of anaerobic respiration is
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria
15. Which among the following is an organalle within an
(c) cell membrane (d) cell wall
organelle?
(a) Ribosomes (b) Endoplasmic reticulum 23. Chemically mitochondria is consist of
(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast (a) proteins (b) lipids
(c) phospholipids (d) All of these
16. Mitochondria and chloroplast are also known as self
autonomous in nature because 24. Type of ribosomes present in mitochondria and
(a) they can make their own food chloroplast
(b) they have their own DNA and ribosome (a) 70 S (b) 80 S
(c) 60 S (d) 40 S
(c) can exist independently
(d) None of the above 25. In which of the following phase of replication of DNA
take place?
17. In plant cell wall plasmodesmata is made-up of (a) G1-phase (b) G 2 -phase
(a) calcium pectate (b) chitin
(c) S-phase (d) All of these
(c) magnecium pectate (d) silica

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (c)
 Chapter

2
Tissues
Group of cells having a common origin and performing similar functions are called ‘tissues’. Tissues are a group of
cells with similar embryonic origin and specific functions. The branch of zoology in which tissue are studied is
called Histology.
Tissues are divided into two types
1. Plant Tissues 2. Animal Tissues

Plant Tissues
Plant tissues are the following types

Meristematic Tissues Apical meristem

Group of similar cells, which are in a continuous state of division are called as
meristems or meristematic tissues. They have dense cytoplasm, very less
vacuoles and have large nuclei. It produces new cells for maintenance and Intercalary meristem
repairing of the plants. Depending on the region they are divided into three
apical, lateral and intercalary meristem.
Apical Meristem It is present at the growing tips of stem and roots. It helps in
increasing the length of stem and root.
Lateral Meristem It is responsible for the increase in girth of the stem and
root. Lateral meristem

Intercalary Meristem It is present at the base of leaves or internodes.

Permanent Tissues Location of meristematic tissue

in plant body
The meristematic cells when lose their power of division, become permanent
tissues. These are classified into two types—simple permanent tissue and complex permanent tissue.

Simple Tissues
Group of similar type of cells
(i) Parenchyma The cells of parenchyma are thin-walled living cells found everywhere in plant like, in leaves, roots,
stems, flower and fruits. Parenchyma is oval, round, polygonal or iso-diametric shapes. It stores food and metabolic
waste products like gum. They are loosely packed and contain large intercellular spaces. If it contains chlorophyll and
perform photosynthesis they are known as chlorenchyma. In case of aquatic plants, large air cavities are present
which provide buoyancy to the plant such cells are called arenchyma.
Tissues
(ii) Collenchyma These are living cells generally
polygonal in shape and located in stems and roots. It
helps the plants to carry out photosynthesis.
(iii) Sclerenchyma It occurs in the old roots, stems and
branches. These cells are dead with no protoplasm. Its
main function is to give mechanical support. Walls are
thickened due to presence of lignin. It is present in
husk of coconut.
Complex Tissues
Those tissues which are made-up of more than one type
of cells.
(i) Xylem It is responsible for conducting water and
mineral salts. It is made-up of four parts–tracheids,
vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem sclerenchyma.
(a) Trachieds are elongated or tube-like cells with
thick and lignified walls and tapering ends.
(b) Vessels are long cylindrical tube-like structure
made-up of many cells. Protoplasm is absent.
Vessels are interconnected through perforations.
Vessels are absent in gymnosperm, its a chief
characteristic feature of angiosperms.
(c) Xylem parenchyma cells are made-up of
cellulose and usually stores food.
(d) Xylem sclerenchyma provides support to the
tissue.
(ii) Pholem It is responsible for conducting sugar from
the leaf. It is made-up of four parts namely–phloem
fibres, pholem parenchyma, sieve tubes and
companion cells. Gymnosperm lack sieve tube and
companion cells.
(a) Phloem fibres are made-up of sclerenchy-
matous cells.
(b) Sieve tube elements are long tube-like
structures associated with companion cell.
(c) Companion cells help in maintaining in the
pressure gradient in the sieve tubes.
(d) Gymnosperm have albuminous cells in place
of companion cells.
(e) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
monocotyledons.
Animal Tissues
Animal tissues are the following types
Animal Tissues
Epithelial Connective Muscular Nervous
tissues tissues tissues tissues
337
Epithelial Tissues
It is called as covering tissues and forms a continuous
layer on the entire body. Depending on shape, following
are the types of epithelial tissues—squamous
(flattened), cuboidal (cubical), columnar, ciliated and
glandular epithelial tissues.
(i) Simple Squamous Epithelium These are
extremely thin and flat. Oesophagus and lining of
mouth is covered by such cells.
(ii) Stratified Squamous Epithelium These are
simple squamous epithelium arranged in many layers
to prevent wear and tear.
(iii) Columnar Epithelium It is present in inner lining
of intestine. In respiratory tract, columnar epithelial
consist of cilia having hair-like projections forming
ciliated columnar epithelium.
(iv) Cuboidal Epithelium Corms the lining of kidney
tubules and ducts of salivary glands.
Connective Tissues
Its function is to bind and pack different tissues and
organs together and support.
Connective Tissues
Proper Supporting Liquid connective
connective tissues connective tissue tissue
Areolar Bone Blood
Adipose
Cartilage Lymph
Tendons
Ligaments
Proper Connective Tissues
This types of tissues are defined as
(i) Areolar tissue is present in internal organs
helps in repair of the tissue, present between skin
and muscles, around blood vessels and nerves and
in the bone marrow.
(ii) Adipose tissue are found below the skin and
between internal organs. Cells of this tissue is
filled with fat globules.
(iii) Tendons connects muscle to the bones having
great strength but limited flexibility.
(iv) Ligament connects bone to bone. It is very elastic
with considerable strength.
Supporting Connective Tissues
(i) Bone are porous tissues, it contains blood vessels
and nerves. Its function is to form the skeleton and
help in locomotion.
(ii) Cartilage is composed of proteins and sugars. It
smoothens bone surfaces at joint and is also
present in nose, ear, trachea and larynx.
338 Study Package for NTSE

Liquid Connective Tissue

(i) Blood It is a bright red colour fluid, a connective tissue. It has three types of cells.
(a) Red Blood Cells (RBCs) or Erythrocytes.
(b) White Blood Cells (WBCs) or Leucocytes.
(c) Blood platelets. Its function is to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide and regulate temperature of the
body. Haemoglobin is a complex molecule, includes iron, proteins called globin.
(ii) Lymph does not contain RBC. It is a colourless fluid. It has lower protein contents. It contain very small amount
of nutrient and oxygen but contains abundant CO2 and other metabolic wastes.

Muscular Tissues
Muscles of the body are made-up of muscle cells. Following are the types of muscular tissues
(i) Striated Muscle These are also known as skeletal muscle. These are uninucleated cells.
(ii) Cardiac Muscle This muscle is present in the heart, therefore, also called heart muscles. Cells are in long
and faint striations are present.
(iii) Unstriated Cells These cells are called as smooth muscles. These are found in ureter, bronchi, stomach, etc.
These cells are long with pointed ends.

Nervous Tissues
The cells of nervous tissues are known as neurons. It is responsible for transmission of nerve message, which is
nerve impulse. Neuron consist of a cell body with a nucleus and cytoplasm from which long thin hair parts arises.
Each neuron has single long part called axon and many short branched parts called dendrites.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The difference between collenchyma and parenchyma 6. Which of the following blood pigments contains copper?
is (a) Haemoglobin (b) Chlorocruorin
(a) cellulose walls (c) Haemocyanin (d) Haemoerythrin
(b) vacuoles 7. Bones formed from the cells called
(c) pectin deposits at corners
(a) chondroclasts (b) osteoclasts
(d) living protoplasm
(c) chondroblasts (d) osteoblasts
2. From the following, best methods of determining the
8. Tendon is connected with
age of tree is to
(a) bones with muscles (b) ligaments with muscles
(a) measure its height
(c) bones with bones (d) cartilage with muscles
(b) count the number of leaves
(c) measure its diameter 9. Ligaments contain
(d) count the number of annual rings in the main stem at the base (a) yellow fibres only
3. Lateral meristem is due to growth (b) white fibres only
(c) white and some yellow elastic fibres
(a) length (b) cortex
(d) yellow fibres and muscle fibres
(c) thickness (d) collenchyma
10. Blood is ............ in nature.
4. Commercial cork is obtained from which of the
(a) alkaline (b) acidic
following species?
(c) neutral (d) variable
(a) Berberis (b) Betula (c) Salix (d) Quercus
11. Which of the following is a tissue?
5. In haemoglobin, iron is present as
(a) Lung (b) Kidney
(a) ferric ions only
(c) Pancreas (d) Blood
(b) unionised iron atom
(c) ferrous ions only 12. Life span of RBC is
(d) ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated state (a) 75 days (b) 50 days
of the haeme moiety (c) 120 days (d) 100 days
Tissues 339
13. Tissue forming glands are 19. Wrinkles in old age, appears due to
(a) epithelial (b) muscle (a) keratin (b) actin
(c) nervous (d) connective (c) myosin (d) collagen
14. A tissue is called as 20. Camel’s hump is made-up of a tissue, which provides
(a) layer of cells surrounding an organ water when oxidised
(b) sheet of cells, one layer thick (a) adipose (b) areolar
(c) group of similar cells functions in specialised manner (c) skeletal (d) muscular
(d) group of separate organs 21. Body is warm due to
15. Tissue forming inner lining of blood vessels are (a) hairs (b) sweat glands
(c) adipose tissue (d) connective tissue
(a) nervous (b) connective
(c) epithelial (d) muscle 22. Cork tissue is also named as
16. In man, thickest skin part is (a) periderm (b) phelloderm
(c) phellem (d) phellogen
(a) thumb (b) sole
(c) thigh (d) palm 23. Plant cells without nucleus is
17. Horns of mammals are made-up of (a) root hair (b) xylem vessels
(c) companion cells (d) cambium cells
(a) chitin (b) connective tissues
(c) cartilage (d) keratin 24. Companion cells is the characteristic feature of
18. Tissue forming external ear’s framework is (a) albunious cell (b) gymnosperms
(c) angiosperms (d) monocots
(a) muscle
(b) nervous 25. Vessels are absent in
(c) epithelial (a) gymnosperms (b) angiosperms
(d) connective (c) dicots (d) monocots

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following are smooth muscle fibres? 7. Due to which of the following reasons, grafting is not
(a) Cylindrical, striated, unbranched and multinucleate possible in monocots?
(b) Spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleate and (a) Have parallel venation
involuntary (b) Lack cambium
(c) Spindle-shaped, unbranched, non-striated, multinucleate (c) Herbaceous
and involuntary (d) Having scattered vascular bundles
(d) None of the above
8. Sieve tubes are mostly used for translocation because
2. Autonomic genome system is present in these
(a) Golgi body and mitochondria (a) possess bordered pits
(b) ribosomes and chloroplast (b) possess no end walls
(c) mitochondria and chloroplast (c) are broader than long
(d) mitochondria and ribosome (d) possess a broader lumen and perforated cross walls
3. How many nucleus are present in striped muscle 9. Connective tissue
fibre? (a) transport various materials in body
(a) One nuclei (b) Two nuclei (b) provides the body a supporting skeletal framework
(c) Many nuclei (d) No nuclei (c) act as packing material in various organs
4. Triceps and biceps are the examples of which of the (d) allow the absorption of nutrients from the gut
following? 10. Consider the following statements
(a) Involuntary muscles (b) Antagonistic muscles I. Aerenchyma is present in Potamogeton.
(c) Smooth muscles (d) Sphincter muscles
II. Aerenchyma is also found in Neptunia.
5. The surface of myelin sheath bears narrow areas III. Air containing tissue is found in Vallisneria.
called IV. Aerenchyma is present in Bryophyllum.
(a) Schwann nodes (b) Schwann cells
(c) nodes of Ranvier (d) Nissl’s granules Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
6. Striated muscles are found in which of the following (a) I, II and III
parts? (b) I and II
(c) II and IV
(a) Lungs (b) Walls of bronchi
(d) I and III
(c) Leg muscles (d) Gall bladder
340 Study Package for NTSE
11. The exchange of gas takes place due to which type of (c) dicot stem
tissue? (d) upper epidermis of dicot leaves
(a) Muscle (b) Connective 14. Sebaceous glands are found in
(c) Nervous (d) Epithelial (a) dermis of skin of mammals
12. Sieve tubes are having (b) epithelium of intestine of frog
(c) epithelium of stomach of frog
(a) apical and oblique plates
(d) epidermis of skin of mammals
(b) perforated and oblique septa
(c) simple oblique wall 15. Cardiac muscle contains branched fibres which are
(d) perforated and longitudinal plates (a) striated and under voluntary control
13. Bulliform cells are present in (b) striated and not under voluntary control
(c) non-striated and not under voluntary control
(a) lower epidermis of monocot leaves
(d) non-striated and under voluntary control
(b) upper epidermis of monocot leaves

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)
 Chapter

3
Life Processes
Various metabolic processes, which together perform in an order to maintain life is called life processes.
Maintenance of life requires processes like nutrition, respiration, transport of material within the body and
excretion of waste products.

Nutrition l The energy generated during light reaction is utilised to

In order to maintain a state of order in our body, energy
is needed. This demand of energy is fulfilled by food.
Some organisms can make their own food by utilising
inorganic sources in form of CO2 and H2 O and
converting them into stored forms of energy. Such
organisms are called autotrophs (like green plants and
some bacteria).
There are some organism are dependent on autotrophs
to meet their energy demands. They consume complex
food material and breakdown into simpler ones. Such
organisms are known as heterotrophs.
Types of Nutrition
Nutrition are divided into following two categories
Autotrophic Nutrition
l Autotrophs make their own food through a process
known as photosynthesis. They convert CO2 and H2O
into carbohydrates and O2 in presence of sunlight and
chlorophyll. General reaction which occur during this
process is
Chlorophyll
6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
Sunlight
l This reaction take place in chloroplast and stromal
lamella and grana constitutes the membranous system.
This is responsible for trapping the light energy and for
the synthesis of ATP and NADPH. This set of reactions
is known as light reaction.
fix CO2 and converting it into starch. This set of reaction
occurs in stroma and known as dark reaction.
However, this reaction is dependent on light reaction to
get assimilatory powers (ATP and NADPH).
Heterotrophic Nutrition
l Heterotrophs are dependent on autotrophs to get food,
directly or indirectly. Some organism directly eats
plants. Such organism are known as herbivores.
l There are some organism are dependent on herbivores
to get food. Such organism are known as carnivores.
There is wide range of strategies by which food is taken
in and utilised by organism. In unicellular organism, the
food is taken in by the entire surface.
l Amoeba takes in food using temporary finger-like
projections called psuedopodia. In case of Paramecium,
food is taken at a specific spot.
Nutrition in Human
The human digestive system consist of an alimentary
canal and the associated glands.
Alimentary Canal
It begins with anterior opening, called mouth and it
opens out posterior through the anus. Firstly, food is
taken in mouth. Food is crushed with our teeth. To make
its passage smooth food is wetted by saliva secreted by
salivary gland. It contains an enzyme called salivary
amylase.
342 Study Package for NTSE

That breakdown starch which is a complex molecule
into simpler sugar molecule. From mouth food is taken
to stomach Muscular walls of stomach expand when
food enters it.
(i) Gastric glands present in the wall of the
stomach releases HCl (Hydrochloric Acid) and
protein digesting enzyme called pepsin. HCl
provides an acidic medium to facilitate the
action of pepsin. Mucus secreted by this gland
protects the inner lining of stomach from acidic
medium. From stomach food enters small
intestine, it is the longest part of alimentary
canal. Herbivores have longer small intestine in
comparison to carnivores. Complete digestion of
carbohydrates, proteins and fats occurs in small
intestine.
(ii) Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice, which
contain trypsin and lipase. Trypsin digest
proteins while lipase digest fats.
(iii) Liver also secretes bile juice into small
intestine, which is used to emulsify fats.
Glands present in small intestine also produce
intestinal juice. It converts carbohydrate into
sugar protein into amino acids and fats into
fatty acid and glycerol.
The inner lining of small intestine contain
microscopic projections called villi, which
absorbs digested food. Undigested food is sent to
large intestine, where food and water is
absorbed by villi. The undigested food material
is removed from the body via anus.
Respiration
Respiration is breakdown or oxidation of food into CO2
and H2 O. Some organism utilise O2 to breakdown
glucose into CO2 and H2 O. Such process is called
aerobic respiration. There are some organism in
absence of O2 convert pyruvate into CO2 and ethanol.
Such process is called anaerobic respiration. Common
step in both the reaction is breakdown of glucose (6 C)
into 3C pyruvate.
l ATP acts as energy currency and utilised in various
endothermic processess. O2 is absorbed by different
organs in different animals. Aquatic organisms take O2
through gills. In case of humans, O2 is taken into body
through nostrils. Hair projection present inside nostrils
contain mucous, which helps in filtering the air. From
nose air passess through the throat and finally into
lungs.
l In throat, air passes through trachea, which divides into
right and left primary bronchi. Bronchi further
undergoes repetitive division and divided into
bronchioles. Bronchioles give rise to bag-like small
structure called alveoli. Exchange of gases take place at
alveoli. Blood brings CO2 from rest of the body and takes
up O2to transport it to other parts of the body. In blood,
RBC respiratory pigment haemoglobin is present,
which has high affinity for O2. It takes up O2 from lung
and carry it to tissues which are O2 deficient.
Glucose In cytoplasm 2 Pyruvate
(6 C) 3 (C)
(glycolysis)
+
(Breakdown Energy
of glucose) (ATP)
(In cytoplasm)
In absence of O2
(2C) Ethanol
Anaerobic + CO2 + ATP
respiration
Lack of O2
(3C) Lactic acid
(in muscle
cells)
+ energy
In presence
of O2
CO2 + H2O
(in mitochondria) + energy
(Krebs’ cycle)
Breakdown of glucose by various pathways
Transportation in Human
In humans, blood is the chief connective tissue, which
transports food, carbon dioxide (CO2 ) and waste
material. O2 is carried by RBC and plasma transports
food, CO2 and nitrogenous waste. For proper circulation
of blood throughout the body. A pumping organ is
needed. This pumping organ is our heart. Humans have
four-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricle.
The deoxygenated blood comes from body to the upper
right atrium and from right atrium it reaches to right
ventricle. Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to
lungs through pulmonary artery. From lungs
oxygenated blood enters left atrium. Then it moves to
left vertricle. From left ventricle oxygen rich blood is
pumped to various parts of the body through aorta.
l Pulmonary circulation is done by right atrium and
right ventricle which move blood from right ventricle to
lungs. Left atrium and left ventricle. Powers systemic
circulation, which moves blood from left ventricle to the
tissues of the body. Tricuspid valve is present between
right atrium and right ventricle.
l Bicuspid or mitral valve is present between left atrium
and left ventricle. When blood fill the two atria, atria
and ventricles are relaxed called artrial diastole.
When artria contracts simultaneously causes artrial
systole.
Life Processes
l When ventricles contracts and AV value is closed.
Ventricular systole occurs. At this points first heart
sound lub arises. When ventricles relax ventricles
diastole occurs. The normal systolic pressure is about
120 mm Hg and distolic pressure is 80 mm Hg. Blood
pressure is measured by an instrument called
sphygmomanometer.
l Arteries carries the oxygenated blood and are thick,
while veins carries deoxygentated blood. Smaller vessels
which are one cell thick are called capillaries. Apart
from blood another types of fluid involved in
transportation is lymph. From walls of the capillaries
some amount of plasma, protein and blood cell reaches
the interstitial space to form colourless fluid called
lymph.
Transportation in Plants
In case of plants, water and food is transported to the
different parts of plant. Water is transported through
xylem tissues, vessels and trachieds. These are
interconnected to form continuous system of H2 O
conducting channels reaching all the parts of the body.
l At roots cells, which are close to the soil particles
actively takes up ions. So solute concentration within
these cells is high. H2O from soil enters to the cell. H2O is
also lost by stomata of the leaves, which creates a
suction which pulls water from xylem cells of the roots.
l This process of evaporation of H2O through stomata is
known as transpiration. Transport of food material
occurs through phloem and known as translocation.
l It take place in sieve tubes with the help of adjacent
companion cells both in upward and downward
direction. Food is transported in form of sucrose by
utilising energy.
Excretion in Human
Excretion is the process of elimination of metabolic
wastes from the body.
Organism eliminate N2 in form of
Ammonia → Ammonotelism
Urea → Ureotelism
Uric acid → Uricotelism
Excretory system of human beings include pair of
kidneys, pair of ureters a urinary bladder and urethra.
Kidneys
Kidneys are solid, bean-shaped, reddish brown, paired
structures lying in the abdominal cavity one on either
side of the vertebral column. Each kidney is enclosed in
a thin, fibrous covering or capsule. Oxygenated blood
and nitrogenous waste materials are supplied to the
kidney by renal artery.
343
A cross section of a kidney shows two distinct regions–an
outer dark granular cortex and an inner lighter medulla.
The region where ureter leaves the kidney is a hollow
space, which is called pelvis. Each kidney is made up of
numerous (about one million) coiled tubules or
nephrons which are known as the structural and
functional unit of the kidney.
Kidneys have two types of nephrons–cortical (80-85%)
and juxta medullary nephrons (15-20%). Each nephron
has two parts–Malpighian corpuscle and renal tubule.
Malpighian corpuscle consists of glomerulus and
Bowman’s capsule. Renal tubule is long tube
consisting of PCT (Proximal Convoluted Tubule),
Henle’s loop, DCT (Distal Convoluted Tubule) and
collecting tubule.
Ureters
These are two in number and each emerges from their
respective kidneys. Each ureter opens their respective
kidneys to urinary bladder and thus, helps in transfer of
urine from kidney to urinary bladder.
Urinary Bladder
It is one in number sac-like bean-shaped muscular
structure. It has three openings, two openings due to two
ureters coming from kidneys and one opening through
which the urethra leaves the bladder. The main function
of urinary bladder is to store urine temporarily.
Urethra
It is a canal-like structure present in both male and
female, longer in male than female. Urethra extends
from neck of urinary bladder to the exterior and helps in
excretion of urine.
Excretion of Urine
Kidneys get oxygenated blood and nitrogenous waste
materials by renal artery. Blood is filtered from the
blood capillaries into Bowman’s capsule. After
filtration, the filtrate passes through the tubular parts
of the nephron.
Useful products such as glucose, amino acids, water,
sodium ions, etc., are reabsorbed while the waste
materials (urine) drain by nephrons into a space inside
kidney leading to the ureter. From the ureters, urine
passes into the urinary bladder, where it remains
temporarily stored till micturition (expulsion of urine
from the urinary bladder).
344 Study Package for NTSE

Excretion in Plants
Plants use a variety of techniques to excrete (i.e., get rid of waste materials). Oxygen generated during
photosynthesis can be thought as a waste product. Plants can get rid of excess water by transpiration. Some other
waste materials may be stored in the cell-vacuoles or as gums and resins in old xylem, removed in the falling leaves
or excreted into the surrounding soil.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Autotrophic mode of nutrition requires 12. Lactic acid accumulation occurs in muscle due
(a) CO 2 and H2O (b) chlorophyll (a) aerobic respiration (b) anaerobic respiration
(c) sunlight (d) All of these (c) fermentation (d) None of these
2. The breakdown of pyruvate to give CO2 , H2O and 13. In higher mammals, in the transport of oxygen,
energy take place in haemoglobin plays an important role. The metal
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondria associated with haemoglobin is
(c) chloroplast (d) nucleus (a) magnesium (b) iron
(c) manganese (d) copper
3. The xylem in plants is responsible for
(a) transport of H2O 14. Which one of the following binds with haemoglobin
(b) transport of food irreversibly?
(c) transport of amino acids (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
(d) transport of oxygen (c) Ethane (d) Nitrogen
4. The phloem in plants is responsible for 15. The tricuspid value occurs between the
(a) translocation of food (b) transport of H2O (a) right auricle and right ventricle
(c) transport of O 2 (d) transport of amino acids (b) pulmonary aorta
(c) cortico-systemic aorta and left ventricle
5. The kidneys in human being are the part of (d) left ventricle
(a) excretory system (b) respiratory system
(c) circulatory system (d) nutrition 16. Indicate correct statement for man
(a) Arteries always carry deoxygenated blood, while veins
6. Dark reaction in photosynthesis always carry deoxygenated blood.
(a) is dependent on light reaction (b) Arteries are provided with valves, while veins are devoid of
(b) is independent of light reaction
valves.
(c) occurs only in dark
(d) None of the above (c) Arteries always carry blood away from the heart, while veins
always carry blood towards the heart.
7. Site of light reaction in photosynthesis is
(d) Venous blood is returned to left auricle.
(a) stroma (b) stroma lamellae
(c) grana (d) Both (b) and (c) 17. The smallest blood vessel in the body is a
8. Which gland releases HCl and pepsin in stomach? (a) capillary (b) artery (c) vena cava (d) vein
(a) Pancreas (b) Gastric 18. The carbohydrate synthesised in the leaves are
(c) Liver (d) Salivary gland transported through sieve tubes most commonly in
9. Bile juice is secreted by the form of
(a) liver (b) gall bladder (a) glucose (b) triose sugar
(c) pancreas (d) stomach (c) sucorse (d) soluble starch
10. Basic functional unit of kidney is 19. Which of the following is used for determining the
(a) neuron (b) nephron rate of transpiration in plants?
(c) capillaries (d) None of these (a) Tensiometer (b) Auxanometer
(c) Porometer (d) Potometer
11. Blood pressure is measured with an instrument
called 20. Which one of the following is the most common type of
(a) spirometer (b) tensiometer transpiration?
(c) sphygmomanometer (d) sthescope (a) Stomatal (b) Lenticular
(c) Foliar (d) Cuticular
Life Processes 345

High Skill Questions

1. Transpiration rate is dependent upon 5. Which of the following processes keeps plant cool?
I. stomatal frequency (a) Transpiration (b) Guttation
II. position of stomata (c) Photosynthesis (d) Translocation
III. state of stomata 6. The process of the escape of liquid from the tip of
IV. epidermal cells uninjured leaf or through hydathodes is called
The correct statement is (a) transpiration (b) guttation
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II (c) evapo-transpiration (d) evaporation
(c) II and IV (d) I and III
7. Body tissues obtain oxygen from haemoglobin
2. Match the different type of instrument with their use because of its dissociation in tissues caused by
(a) low oxygen concentration and high carbon dioxide
List I List II concentration
(b) low oxygen concentration
A. Auxanometer 1. Measurement of imbibition
(c) low carbon dioxide concentration
pressure
(d) high carbon dioxide concentration
B. Potometer 2. Measurement of blood
pressure 8. The principal pathway by which water is
C. Dilatometer 3. Measurement of transpiration translocated in angiosperms is
rate (a) xylem vessel system
D. Sphygmomanometer 4. Measurement of diffusion (b) xylem and phloem
(c) sieve tubes members of phloem
5. Measurement of growth in
(d) sieve cells of phloem
plants
9. Phenylmercuric acetate
Codes (a) reduces transpiration rate (b) reduces photosynthesis
A B C D A B C D (c) kills the plant (d) reduces respiration
(a) 5 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 5 3 2 1 (d) 5 3 1 2 10. Rate of transpiration in a dorsi-ventral leaf is
(a) greater at the upper surface
3. The mechanism of uric acid excretion in nephron is (b) greater at the lower surface
(a) diffusion (b) ultrafiltration (c) equal at both the surfaces
(c) osmosis (d) secretion (d) None of the above
4. The conversion of protein waste and the ammonia 11. Which one of the following is responsible for
into urea occurs mainly in guttation?
(a) kidney (b) lungs (a) Root pressure (b) Transpiration
(c) liver (d) intestine (c) Photosynthesis (d) Osmosis

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a)
346 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

4
Control and Coordination
Nervous System At the end of the axon it releases neurotrans mitters,
which cross the gap of synapse and starts same impulse
In animals, control and coordination is provided by in the consecutive next neuron.
nervous and muscular tissues. All information from our
environment is detected by specialised tips of nerve
Reflex Action
cells. Receptors are usually located in our sense organs It is the process of detecting the signal or the input and
such as the inner ear, the nose, the tongue to receive the responding to it by an out put action, which might be
stimulus. completed quickly.
l Structural and functional unit of nervous system is The connection between input nerve, which detects the
neuron. Neuron is largest cell in the human body. signal and output nerve, which responds towards the
Neuron has two main components—axon and cyton.
signal is known as reflex arc.
Cyton consist of dendrites and nucleus. Axon consist of
long extension of cyton having medullary sheath and Nervous system divided into three parts
nodes of Ranvier. (i) Central Nervous System (CNS)
(ii) Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
Nucleus
Dendron (iii) Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
Dendrites Central nervous system consists of brain and spinal
Cyton
Axon
Nissl’s granules cord. Peripheral nervous system consists of cranial
Nucleus and spinal nerves. Autonomic nervous system is of
Medullary sheath two types, i.e., sympathetic and parasympathetic. Brain
Node of Ranvier is covered by protective layer called meninges.
Cerebrum


Cranium (skull)

Axon endings


Midbrain
Forebrain
Synapse
Neuron Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Spinal cord
l Stimulus is acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of  Pons
nerve cell, it sets off a chemical reaction, which creates an Hindbrain  Medulla
Cerebellum
electric impulse. This electric impulse travel from
dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its Brain
end.
Control and Coordination 347
Human brain is divided into three parts Hormones
(i) Forebrain
These are chemical substances secreted by certain
Forebrain is classified as
glands directly into the blood stream. These are called
(a) Cerebrum — Muscular activities
endocrine glands or ductless glands.
(b) Parietal lobe — Touch, smell and temperature
(c) Temporal lobe — Hearing Endocrine Glands
(d) Occipital lobe — Seeing
It is found in human body in form of hypothalamus,
(e) Olfactory lobe — Smell
pituitary gland, pineal gland, thyroid gland,
(ii) Midbrain parathyroid gland, thymus gland, pancreatic islets,
In mid brain thalamus and hypothalamus makes a respiratory adrenal gland, ovaries and testes.
centre controls that pituitary gland (i) Pituitary gland It secrete a growth hormone.
(iii) Hindbrain (ii) Thyroid gland (thyroxine hormone) It regulate
carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism and
It can be classified as
provide a balance of growth.
(a) Cerebellum Movements responsible for voluntary
(iii) Pancreas (Insulin) It helps in regulating the blood
actions and maintaining posture and balance of the
sugar.
body.
(iv) Adrenal gland It secretes adrenaline. It increases
(b) Pons Regulate respiration
heart beat due to contraction of muscles around small
(c) Medulla oblongata Swallowing, coughing, sneezing arteries.
and vomiting central involuntary action.

Pineal body
Pituitary
Parathyroid
Thyroid
Thymus
Stomach
Adrenal
Pancreas
Kidneys
Intestine

Testes
Ovaries

Endocrine glands in male and female

Movement in Plants (i) Phototropism movement in response to light.

(ii) Geotropism movement in response to gravity.
The situations, which initiate a response are called
(iii) Chemotropism movement in response to
stimuli. The reaction to situation is called response. chemical stimulus.
Plants do not bear a nervous system, their response (iv) Hydropism growth of roots towards soil moisture.
mechanism is controlled by hormones. This is called (v) Thigmotropism growth response to touch.
chemical coordination and the chemical substance are (vi) Seismonasty nastic response resulting from
called as phytohormones. Movement of a plant in contact or mechanical disturbance.
response to a stimulus is called tropism, e.g.,
348 Study Package for NTSE

Nastic Movement
This movements is neither towards nor away from the stimulus, e.g., leaves of ‘touch me not’ (Mimosa pudica)
plant. The length of the day during which sunlight is available to plants is photoperiod and the effect of photoperiod
on development of plants is called photoperiodism.

Phytochrome
Plant pigment that is a photoreceptor of red light and is involved in a number of developmental process. Such as
flowering, dormancy and leaf formation.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following is a plant hormone? 12. Which of the following acts as both exocrine and
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxin endocrine glands?
(c) Oestrogen (d) Cytokinin (a) Liver (b) Pancreas
(c) Spleen (d) Adrenal
2. Gap between two neurons is called a
(a) dendrite (b) synapse 13. Phototropic movements of roots and stems are due to
(c) axon (d) impulse (a) action of gravity
(b) effect of light
3. Brain is responsible for (c) differential hormonal effect
(a) thinking (b) regulating the heart beat
(d) epinasty and hyponasty
(c) balancing the body (d) All of these
14. Bending of growing shoot towards sunlight is called
4. The longest cell in the body of an animal is (a) heliotropism (b) hydrotropism
(a) osteocyte (b) neuron (c) photonasty (d) phototropism
(c) chromatophore (d) blood corpuscle
15. Nastic movements are
5. Which cell stops dividing after birth? (a) towards the stimulus
(a) Glial cells (b) Epithelium (b) away from stimulus
(c) Liver (d) Neuron (c) independent of direction of stimulus
6. The largest number of cell bodies of neurons in our (d) None of the above
body is found in 16. Endocrine glands put their secretion directly into
(a) brain (b) spinal cord (a) ducts (b) blood
(c) tongue (d) retina (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
7. Learning is related to 17. Nastic response resulting from contact or mechanical
(a) cerebrum (b) cerebellum disturbance is known as
(c) pons (d) medulla oblongata (a) phetotropism (b) geotropism
8. Voluntary movements in human beings are (c) chemotropism (d) seismonasty
controlled by 18. Adrenaline causes
(a) cerebrum (b) cerebellum (a) increase in heart beat (b) decrease in heart beat
(c) pituitary (d) spinal cord (c) no change in heart beat (d) None of these
9. The brain is protected by 19. Brain is covered by a protective layer
(a) spinal fluid (b) cerebrospinal fluid (a) meninges (b) cranial nerves
(c) peptoneal fluid (d) peritoneal fluid
(c) myelin sheath (d) All of these
10. Which is also called ‘emergency gland’? 20. Which of the following acts as a photoreceptor of red
(a) Pituitary (b) Thyroid
light and involved in flowering?
(c) Pancreas (d) Adrenal
(a) Phytochrome
11. Hormone insulin is secreted by (b) Cryptochrome
(a) liver (b) pancreas (c) Chlorophyll
(c) spleen (d) adrenal (d) Haemoglobin
Control and Coordination 349
High Skill Questions
1. The information pairing through neurons is in the 10. Which of the following statements are correct about
form of body coordination
(a) chemical and electrical signal I. Controlled by nervous system.
(b) chemical and electronic signal II. Controlled by circulatory system.
(c) thermal and electrical signal III. Maintained by endocrine system.
(d) chemical signal IV. Maintained by excretory system.

2. The neurons that transmit impulses from the The correct statements are
central nervous system towards the muscle cells are (a) I, II and III (b) I and II
called (c) II and IV (d) I and III
(a) sensory neurons (b) motor neurons 11. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland secrete by
(c) relay neurons (d) synapse
I. ACTH, TSH and oxytocin II. STH, GH and TSH
3. The characteristic feature of axon is III. TSH, ADH and prolactin IV. FSH, GH and LH
(a) receiving impulse (b) conducting impulse
Which of the following is correct?
(c) hormone secretion (d) electrolyte balance
(a) I, II and III (b) II and IV (c) III and IV (d) I and III
4. Centre of thirsty and hunger are located in
(a) cerebellum (b) cerebrum
12. Photoperiodism is
(a) recurrence of day and night
(c) medulla oblongata (d) hypothalamus
(b) effect of day length on flowering of a plant
5. Flowering and seed germination are regulated by (c) flowering plant
(a) geotropism (b) phototropism (d) growth curvature in response to light
(c) photoperiodism (d) photosynthesis 13. Pneumatophores are
(a) positive geotropic (b) negative phototropic
6. Which coordination system is present in plants?
(c) thigmotropic (d) ageotropic
(a) Nervous coordination (b) Chemical coordination
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 14. Melatonin and serotonin, the recently reported
hormones is secreted by
7. The nerves which carry message from brain to (a) thymus (b) pineal (c) adrenal (d) pituitary
effector organ are called
(a) sensory nerves (b) motor nerves 15. Which of the following compounds is involved in
(c) sympathetic nerves (d) parasympathetic nerves decreasing blood glucose levels?
(a) Insulin (b) Glycagon
8. The region where the nerve endings of one neuron
(c) Glucogen (d) Parathyroid hormone
come into contact with another neuron is called as
(a) cyton (b) receptor 16. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
(c) effector (d) synapse
9. Increase in heart beat after seeing an accident is due S.No. Gland Hormone
to
I. Pituitary Follicle stimulating hormone
(a) sympathetic response
(b) parasympathetic response II. Thyroid Somatotrophic hormone
(c) hormonal response III. Parathyroid Thyroxine
(d) All of the above (a) Only I (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) I, IV and III

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a)
 Chapter

5
How do Organism
Reproduce
Reproduction
It is a biological process in which an organism give rise Regeneration
to young ones (offspring) similar to itself. This event is Simple animals like Hydra and Planaria cut into
important for the continuity of life species.Two basic number of pieces and each piece grows into complete
types of reproduction are asexual and sexual. organism. Specialised cells are responsible for
regeneration.
Asexual Reproduction
When the offspring is produced from a single parent
without the involvement of gamete formation. In this
case all the individual are genetically identical and clone
of each other. It is more common among unicellular
organism and plants.
Asexual reproduction includes

Fission
Many bacteria split into two equal halves during cell
division, e.g., in case of Amoeba, splitting of two cells
occur in any plane.
Regeneration in Planaria

Budding
Organism like Hydra develops an outgrowth at a
specific site. Bud develops into a new individual.
Tentacles
Binary fission in Amoeba

Plasmodium shows multiple fission.

Fragmentation
Bud
In case of Spirogyra. It simply breaks up into smaller
pieces. These pieces or fragments later grow into new
individual. Budding in Hydra
How do Organism Reproduce 351
Vegetative Reproduction by Natural Method
Part Type Description Example
Stem (a) Bulb Modified shoot, short stem having apical and axillary bud. Onion, tulipa, etc.
(b) Runner Creeping step, produce roots at nodes. Doob grass, etc.
(c) Rhizomes Underground horizontally brewing stem. Ginger
(d) Corm Condensed rhizome growing vertically. Saffron and Colocasia
(e) Tuber Modification of underground stem tip. Potato
(f) Offset Prostate branch with leaves at apex. Water lettuce and water hyacinth
Root Root tubers Root develop buds and each forms a plant. Sweet potato, Asparagus, dahlia, etc.
Leaves Plantlets develop along the leaf margin, which an Bryophyllum pinnatum
detachment produces independent plant.

Vegetative Propagation transferred to the stigma of the same flower it is called

It is the regeneration or formation of a new individual
from vegetative part of the plant body.
Spore Formation
During unfavourable conditions, some unicellular algae
forms unicellular, uninuclear thick walled spores.
Sexual Reproduction
Sexual reproduction involves involvement of two
parents. Sexual reproduction causes variation in a
individual by process of combining DNA from two
different individuals during reproduction.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Reproductive part of a plant is flower. It the flower male
part is stamen known as microsporophyll or androecium
and female part is carpel known as megasporophyll or
gynoecium. Stamen includes filament and anther.
Anther consist of four microsporangia in which pollen
grain matures.
l Carpel has three parts, swollen part is ovary. Slender
part is style and sticky head is stigma. Ovary contain
ovules or megasporangia. It laters develops into seed,
after fertilisation. Transfer of pollen grains from stamen
to carpel is called pollination. It could be
self-pollination or cross pollination. When pollen grain is
self-pollination.
l When pollen grains are transferred to the stigma of
another flower by an agent is known as
cross-pollination. These agents are wind (anemophily),
birds (ornithophily), bats (chiropterophily). Water
(hydrophily) and insects (entomophily).
l When pollen sticks to the stigma, it reach the female
germ cell which are in ovary. Pollen tube grows out of
the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach
the ovary. Pollen tube carries two male gamete. One
male gamete fuses with the egg cell and another male
gamete fuses with the polar nuclei. This event is known
as double fertilization.
One male gamete + egg cells → embryo (syngamy)
(n) (n) (2n)
Second male gamete + polar nuclei → endosperm
(n) (2n) (3n)
Endosperm is a nutritive tissue. It is the product of
triple fusion.
Reproduction in Human
Humans uses sexual made of reproduction.
Male Reproductive System
Functions and components of male reproductive system.

Organs and their Description

Organs Description Function
Scrotum Pouch of pigmented skin arising from the lower abdominal wall. It maintain testes at 2°C to 2.5°C and
causes thermoregulation.
Testes Primary sex organ suspended in scrotal sac. Sperm production in seminiferous tubules.
Epididymis Greatly coiled long tube attached to hind surface of testes. Site of sperm maturation and storage.
Vas deferens Continuation of cauda epididymis. Duct of sperm maturation storage and transport.
Ejaculatory duct It is 2 cm long thin walled tubes. passes through prostrate gland Transport of sperm.
and opens into urethra.
Penis External intromettent organ through which urethra runs. Erectile organ used during copulation
352 Study Package for NTSE

Female Reproductive System

Function of components of female reproductive system
Organs and their Description
Organs Description Function
Ovaries Primary sex organ, have ovarian follicles. Produces ova secretion of sex hormones oestrogen and progesterone.
Fallopian tubes About 10-12 cm long. Transports oocycte from ovary to the uterus, also the site of fertilisation.
Uterus Hollow pear-shaped muscular organ. Site for embryo development.
Vagina Flexible muscular tube extend forward and Organ for sexual intercourse.
downward opens out at its lower end into vestibule.

l Through spermatogenesis one spermatogonia produces four spermatocytes in seminiferous tubules which are haploid in
number. Oogenesis one oogonia produces, one large ovum and three secondary polar body.
l Spermatids enters through vaginal passage during sexual intercourse. It travels and reach the oviduct, where it
fertilises with egg. After fertilisation it forms zygote and gets implanted in the lining of uterus. Zygote develops into an
embryo, which gets nourishment from placenta. Gestation period in case of human being is 9 months.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Oocyte is fertilised in the 10. The process of transfer of pollen grain from anther to
(a) vagina (b) Fallopian tube stigmatic surface with the help of water is called
(c) uterus (d) ovary (a) anemophily (b) zoophily
2. Ovule integument gets transformed into (c) hydrophily (d) ornithophily
(a) seed (b) fruit wall 11. Anemophily is pollination by
(c) seed coat (d) cotyledons (a) wind (b) air (c) insects (d) birds
3. In humans mature sperms are stored in the 12. Wind pollination is common in
(a) epididymis (b) seminiferous tubules (a) lilies (b) grasses (c) orchids (d) legumes
(c) vas deferens (d) seminal vesicles
13. Transfer of pollen grain from one flower to another
4. Each diploid cell during oogenesis produces flower of same plant is
(a) two functional eggs and two polar bodies
(a) geitonogamy (b) autogamy
(b) one functional egg and three polar bodies (c) allogamy (d) pollen kit
(c) four functional eggs
14. How many sperms are formed by four primary
(d) None of the above
spermatocytes?
5. Spermatogenesis requires the availability of (a) 1 (b) 4
(a) oestrogen (b) progesterone (c) 16 (d) 32
(c) thyroxine (d) testosterone 15. Endometrium is the lining of
6. Stem cuttings are commonly used for the propagation of (a) bladder (b) vagina
(a) banana (b) rose (c) mango (d) cotton (c) uterus (d) oviduct
7. What is pollen grain? 16. Which of the following process ensures the continuity
(a) Microspore mother cell (b) Male gamete of life on Earth?
(c) Male gametophyte (d) Partially developed embryo (a) Reproduction (b) Respiration
8. Triploid tissue in angiosperm is (c) Digestion (d) Growth and development
(a) nucellus (b) endosperm 17. Binary fission is a mode of
(c) endothelium (d) tapetum (a) micropropagation (b) vegetative propagation
9. Double fertilisation is fusion of (c) macropropagation (d) asexual reproduction
(a) two eggs 18. Fertilisation of egg takes place inside
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei (a) anther (b) stigma
(c) one male gamete with egg and other with synergids (c) pollen tube (d) embryo sac
(d) one male gamete with egg and other with polar nuclei
How do Organism Reproduce 353
19. Match the items in column I with column II and Codes
choose the correct option. A B C D E
(a) 1 4 5 3 2
Column I Column II (b) 2 1 4 3 5
(c) 2 4 3 5 1
A. Binary fission 1. Algae
(d) 1 4 3 2 5
B. Zoospore 2. Amoeba
20. The ovary after fertilisation is converted into
C. Conidium 3. Hydra
(a) embryo
D. Budding 4. Penicillium
(b) endosperm
E. Gemmules 5. Sponge (c) fruit
(d) stem

High Skill Questions

1. Pollen kit material is secreted by 8. Parthenogenesis is a type of
(a) tapetum (b) endothecium (a) sexual reproduction (b) asexual reproduction
(c) epidermis (d) endodermis (c) budding (d) regeneration
2. The embryo sac n, 2n, 3n conditions are found 9. Which of the following provides nutrition to sperm?
respectively in (a) Leydig cell (b) Scrotum (c) Sertoli cell (d) Epididymis
(a) egg, antipodal and endosperm 10. In mammals, corpus luteum is found in which organ?
(b) nucleus, endosperm and egg (a) Brain (b) Ovary (c) Liver (d) Eyes
(c) antipodal, zygote and endosperm
(d) endosperm, nucleus and egg 11. Primary spermatocyte differs from spermatogonium in
(a) number of chromosomes (b) size of volume
3. Tapetum is found in (c) DNA content (d) size of chromosomes
(a) anther (b) microspore
(c) male gametophyte (d) female gametophyte 12. Which of the following hormone is not the secretory
product of human placenta?
4. Double fertilisation was discovered by
(a) Prolactin
(a) Nawaschin (b) Strasburger
(b) Human gonadotropin hormones
(c) Emerson (d) None of these
(c) Progesterone
5. Which of the following is not true for double (d) Oestrogen
fertilisation?
13. Natural parthenogenesis is found in
(a) Discovered by Nawaschin (a) housefly
(b) Male gamete and secondary nucleus fused to form (b) honey bee
endosperm nucleus (c) Drosophila
(c) Endosperm nucleus is diploid (d) All of the above
(d) Endosperm provides nutrition to embryo
14. Which of the following is viviparous?
6. The wall of pollen tube is made of (a) Running bird (b) Whales
(a) cellulose (b) pectin (c) Bats (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
15. Sexual reproduction leads to
7. One of the most resistant known biological material is (a) genetic recombination (b) polypoidy
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose (c) aneuploidy (d) euploidy
(c) sporopollenin (d) lignocellulose

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a)
 Chapter
6
Heredity and Evolution
Heredity
Heredity is defined as the transmission of features from
one generation to another. Genetics is the study of
heredity and variations.
Inherited Traits
These are the features/traits, which a child gets from
parents. Father and mother contribute equal amount of
genetic material (DNA) to the child. Each trait is
influenced by maternal and paternal DNA.
l Variation is defined as the differences, which exist
between individuals belonging to same species.
l Theory of inheritance was given by Gregor Johann
Mendel in 1866. He started his experiment on
controlled hybridization in garden pea
( Pisum sativum). He explained that each cell have two
copies of each chromosome.
l One from male parent and other from female parent.
Germ cells carries one of the chromosome, which may
be paternal or maternal in origin. When two germ cells
combines they restores the original number of
chromosome with different features.
l Mendel undertook seven contrasting visible
features/characters of garden pea.
These seven characters were
(i) round/wrinkled seeds
(ii) tall/short plants
(iii) white/violet flowers
(iv) green/yellow seeds
(v) constricted inflated pod shape
(vi) green/yellow pod colour
(vii) axial/terminal flower position
l Based on his observation he proposed. Law of
dominance, according to which characters are
controlled by pair of factors.
l In a dissimilar pair of factor one member of a pair
dominate the other which is recessive. Dominant factor
will mask the affect of recessive factor.
(Male) (Female)
TT
tall
tt
dwarf
Tt × Tt
TT Tt Tt tt
Tt F1 Tall Dwarf
l Another law proposed by him was law of segregation.
According to which alleles do not show any blending
and both the characters are recovered in the F2
generation.
Sex Determination
Different species uses different strategies in order to
determine sex. Some uses environmental signals like
temperature.
l In animals like snails sex is not genetically determined.
l In human being sex is largely genetically determined.
Humans have 22 set of chromosome called autosome
and one pair of chromosome called sex chromosomes.
Woman have XX pair of sex chromosome while males
have XY pair of sex chromosome. A child who inherits
X-chromosome from her father will be a girl and other
who inherits Y-chromosome will be boy.
Organic Evolution
The branch of science, which deals with fossils is known
as Palaeontology. The first organisms which first
appeared on the Earth at about 3.5 billion (350 crore)
years ago. Age of mammals, birds, fishes, insects and
angiosperms is called Cenozoic era.
Heredity and Evolution
Theory of Special Creation
According to Father Suarez, God created life about
4004 BC. Life was created by some super natural power.
Theory of Catastrophism
Sudden creation of life from inorganic material. It is
suported by Cuvier (Father of Modern Palaeontology).
Analogous organs are also known as, homoplastic
organs. They differs in basic structure and origin but
similar in functions, e.g., wings of insects, bats and
birds.
Theory of Evolution
The main requirements of this theory is progression and
variation. The main and ultimate source of organic
variation is known as mutation.
355
Homologous Organs
These are the organs, whose basic structure is same but
function vare like four limbs of birds, reptiles and
amphibians.
Analogous Organs
These are the organs whose basic structure is very
different but performs same function. e.g., wings of birds
and bat.
Fossils
These are the preserved traces of a living organism in
form of impression skeleton imprints, etc.
Molecular Phylogeny
When evolutionary relationships are set up by studying
the variation in DNA among individuals human.

Human Evolution
Origin of Life on Earth
In year 1953 Stanley and Miller and Harold C Urey
in 1953 conducted an experiment. They took four gases,
which were thought to exist on Early earth
(NH 3, CH4, H2 S, H2 O vapour but no O2 ). It was
maintained just below 100° C and spark was passed four
amino acids were formed.
(i) alanine (ii) aspartic acid (iii) glutamic acid (iv) glycine
Speciation
It is the change/variation in two sub-population when
subjected to geographical isolation.
l Study of human evolution is known as anthropology.
The arrangement of fossils in evolutionary sequence
includes
Tree shrews → Prosimi early arthropoids →
Dryopithecus → Ramapithecus → Australopithecus →
Homo erectus → Cro-magnon → Homo sapiens.
l Evolution of man take place in Pleistocene period
l Dryopithecus was the common ancestor of humans and
apes that lived an arboreal life in Asia as well as in Africa.
l Australopithecus was the first man ape. Modern man
Homo sapiens sapiens appeared after last glacial period
about 10000 years ago.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The wings of birds and bats are called as 5. Wings of birds and insects are called as
(a) vestigial organs (b) homologous structures (a) homologous structures
(c) analogous structures (d) None of these (b) vestigial organs
(c) analogous structures
2. Which of the following is similar to analogous organs?
(d) inactive structures
(a) Origin (b) Structure
(c) Function (d) None of these 6. Archaeopteryx is related to
(a) Aves and reptiles (b) mammals
3. The study of fossil plants is known as (c) Pisces (d) reptiles
(a) Botany (b) Palaeontology
7. Evolution refers to
(c) Zoology (d) None of these
(a) life in sea
4. Dinosaurs are called as (b) fossils
(a) extinct birds (b) extinct animals (c) living things constantly changes
(c) extinct reptiles (d) extinct amphibians (d) None of the above
356 Study Package for NTSE
8. Theory of evolution that was supported by Lamarck, 12. Dead remains of plants and animals is called as
named as (a) fossils (b) coal
(a) mutation theory (c) charcoal (d) All of these
(b) inheritance of acquired characters 13. Which of the following is the correct term for
(c) natural selection
homologous organs?
(d) None of the above
(a) Origin (b) Function
9. Theory of spontaneous generation was given by (c) Structure (d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) Von Helmont (b) Pasteur
(c) Redi (d) None of these 14. Which of the following ‘analogous organs’ contains?
10. An organism having two same types of alleles of a (a) Different embryonic origin and perform different functions
(b) Different embryonic origin but perform similar functions
gene in a cell, is known as
(c) Common embryonic origin and perform dissimilar functions
(a) hybrid (b) dihybrid (d) None of the above
(c) homozygous (d) heterozygous
15. Which one is found in male only?
11. Source of organic variations is
(a) X-chromosome (b) Y-chromosome
(a) mutations (b) sexual reproduction (c) 2 X-chromosome (d) X + Y-chromosome
(c) asexual reproduction (d) None of these

High Skill Questions

1. Which one of the following statements is correct? 5. Which of the following symbols are used for
(a) Cro-magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia representing chromosomes of birds?
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man (a) ZZ-ZW (b) XX-XY (c) XO-XX (d) ZZ-WW
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapeins
6. Universe originated about 15 billion year ago by
(d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
(a) thermonuclear explosion (b) fusion
2. Which one of the following pair has homologous (c) gravity (d) destruction of atmosphere
organs?
7. Age of Earth is about
(a) Pectoral fins of a fish and forelimbs of a horse
(b) Wings of a bat and wings of cockroach (a) 4.6 billion years (b) 10 billion years
(c) Air sac of fish and lungs of frog (c) 3.0 billion years (d) 20 billion years
(d) Wings of a bird an wings of a butterfly 8. Which of the following is known as oldest living
3. A child receives genes from his father to the extent of fossil?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (a) Eubacteria (b) Archaebacteria
(c) 75% (d) 100% (c) Protozoa (d) Eukaryotes
4. Transfer of genes from one gene pool to another is 9. Atmosphere of earth at the time of origin of life was
called (a) reducing (b) oxidizing
(a) speciation (c) Neither (a) or (b) (d) aerobic
(b) genetic drift 10. There is no life on moon because there is no
(c) gene flow
(a) H2O (b) N2 (c) carbon (d) silicate
(d) mutation

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
 Chapter
7
Why do we Fall Ill
Health
Health is defined as the state of physical, mental and
social well being which depends upon their surroundings
and environments.
Health depends upon social environment. Social
equality and harmony among individuals is necessary
for individual health.
Physical Environment
Health of a person depends upon his surroundings.
Public cleanliness and hygiene is important for an
individual health.
Disease
Disease free person may not be healthy. Disease literally
means being uncomfortable. For a diseased person we
can find a specific and particular cause of discomfort.
Some types of disease are as follows
Acute disease which last for few days or short time,
e.g., common cold.
Chronic disease which last for longer period of time or
life time. The symptoms of such diseases appear at later
stages, e.g., elephantiasis. Chronic diseases causes more
harmful effect on body.
Infectious diseases which are caused due to infection
of microorganism. These may be virus, bacteria or fungi.
Non-infectious diseases which are internal in origin.
For example, some cancers arises due to presence of
genetic abnormalities, high blood pressure, diabetes.
Communicable diseases which could be easily
transmitted from a diseased person to a healthy person
via various agents like air, food, water, vectors
(mosquitoes and insects), physical contact, etc., e.g.,
small pox, measeles, cold, etc.
Infectious Agents
Microorganisms which causes diseases comes under
wide range of classification. These include virus,
bacteria, some fungi and some are protozoans. Before
giving treatment, it is necessary to diagnose the type of
microorganism causing the infection.
Common Methods of Transmission
of Diseases
Air Pneumonia, common cold, tuberculosis spread
through air.
Water Excrete of diseased person carries the
infections agent and may mix up with the drinking
water, e.g., incase of cholera.
Vectors Common vector is mosquitoes they carry the
infecting agent from sick person to another potential
host. Anopheles mosquito carries Plasmodium vivax,
which causes malaria.
Physical Contact AIDS, syphillis and gonorrhoea
are sexually transmitted diseases, which are
transmitted by sexual contact from one partner to
another. Although these are not spread by casual
physical contact including hand shake or hugs.
358 Study Package for NTSE

Some common effects of diseases include inflammation. To kill disease causing microorganism many cells of our
immune system are recruited at the site of infection in order to kill that microbe such situation causes inflammation.
Treatment
Disease could be cured by killing the microorganism or by providing treatment that will reduce the symptoms.
Biochemical processess could be targeted to kill the microorganism. Antibiotics are the chemical substance
released by fungi which kills the bacteria.

l Penicillin is an antibiotic, which attacks the cell wall of Gram positive bacteria. Human do not have such cell wall so,
bacterial cells are killed selectively.
l Viruses live inside host cell and do not have their own biochemical pathways, which could be targeted to control them. Due
to this limitation antiviral drugs are difficult to make.

Some Important Diseases Caused by Microorganism

Microorganism Disease Symptoms

Viruses ● Influenzas Sudden fever with headache

● Common cold (rhinovirus)
● Small pox (variola DNA virus)
● Measeles (paramyxo RNA) virus
● Rabies (rabies virus)
● Mumps paramyxo virus (RNA virus)
● Poliomyelitis (polio virus) picornovirus
● AIDS (caused by HIV virus)
● Hepatitis-B
Bacteria ● Diphtheria (Cornebacterium diphtheriae)
● Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis)
● Whooping cough (pertusis) Bordetella pertusis
● Tetanus (Clostridium tetani )
Protozoa ● Malaria (Plasmodium vivax)
● Ameabiasis (Entamoeba histolytica)
Fungi ● Athletes foot (Tinea pedis)
Helminths ● Taeniasis (Taenia solium) tapeworm
● Ascariasis (Ascaris lumbricoides)
● Filiariasis (Wuchereria bancrofti) also known as Legs become heavy stout
elephantiasis
Nasal and bronchial irritation
High fever bodyache rashes on body
Sore threat, cough, fever, small white spots
Hydrophobia
Fever followed by swelling of the parotid or salivary gland.
Nerve cells to muscles are destroyed causing paralysis
Breakdown of immune system
Infected liver, fever, jaundice
Fever, severe damage to heart
Infects lungs and bones
Severe coughing bouts
Toxins causes muscular spasm
High fever
Diarrhoea loss of blood in stools fever vomiting
Presense of sudden peding and cracked skin between toes
Infects intestine
Infects intestine

Prevention
General ways of preventing an infection is to present exposure to infectious microbes by providing safe drinking
water, clean environment, better public hygiene, etc. Another way of preventing an infection is boosting our
immune system.
l Human body has ability to resist among types of organism or toxins. When the immune system first sees the infectious
agent, it responds against it and remembers it specifically. When a particular microbe again attacks the person,immune
system recognises it and shows greater response eliminating the infection. Highly effective method of immunisation is
using vaccines.
l Vaccines are the live or inactivated pathogen purified antigen or recombinant peptide, which could elicit immune
response in body against particular pathogen. Edward Jenner first time developed vaccine for small pox.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. BCG vaccine is used for 14. Which of the following is a viral disease?
(a) polio (b) malaria (a) Influenza (b) Cholera
(c) cholera (d) tuberculosis (c) Dengue fever (d) Plague
2. AIDS virus contains 15. Plague is caused by
(a) single stranded DNA (b) double stranded RNA (a) Yersinia pestis (b) Monocystis
(c) single stranded RNA (d) double stranded DNA (c) Shigella (d) Streptococcus
3. Mumps is caused by which type of gland? 16. Match the disease with the causative organisms
(a) Sublingual gland (b) Thyroid gland
A. Pneumonia 1. Vibrio cholera
(c) Parotid gland (d) None of these
B. Citrus canker 2. Mycobacterium leprae
4. Which of the following drug is used for the treatment C. Cholera 3. Xanthomonas citri
of typhoid? D. Leprosy 4. Diplococcus penumoniae
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Tetracyclin
(c) Penicillin (d) Chloroquinine Codes
A B C D
5. DPT vaccine is used to immunise infants against (a) 4 2 1 3
(a) diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus (b) 4 3 1 2
(b) cholera and typhoid (c) 2 1 3 4
(c) influenza (d) 3 4 2 1
(d) pneumonia
6. Gonorrhoea is caused by 17. A non-communicable disease is
(a) bacteria (b) virus (a) maseles (b) rabies
(c) TMV (d) Giardia (c) diphtheria (d) diabetes

7. Who discovered small pox vaccine? 18. A chemical substance produced by microorganism for
inhibiting of growth of another is
(a) D Jenner (b) Salk
(c) Charles Laveran (d) Edward Jenner (a) antibody
(b) antibiotic
8. Mumps is caused due to the inflammation of (c) aflatoxin
(a) thyroid gland (d) antiallergic
(b) parotid gland
(c) eyes
19. Bacterium which is concerned with pertusis is
(d) sneezing (a) Bordetella pertusis
(b) Bacillus
9. Salk vaccine fights against (c) Diplococcus
(a) polio (b) cholera (d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) typhoid (d) rabies
20. Which of the following is a protozoan disease?
10. Typhoid is caused by (a) Malaria
(a) Salmonella (b) Virus (b) Amoebiasis
(c) Streptococcus (d) Mycobacterium (c) Sleeping sickness
(d) All of the above
11. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
21. Which of the following is a bacterial disease?
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Malaria
(a) Typhoid (b) Dengue fever
(c) Plague (d) Mumps
(c) Malaria (d) AIDS
12. Jaundice affects which part of the body?
22. A sexually transmitted disease, symptomised by the
(a) Kidney (b) Liver
development of ulcers on the genitals is caused by
(c) Stomach (d) Brain
infection of
13. Leprosy is caused by (a) Treponema pallidum
(a) Mycobacterium (b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(b) Pneumococcus (c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
(c) Shigella (d) hepatitis-B virus
(d) Giardia
360 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following disease is communicable? 9. AIDS virus contain
(a) Rickets (b) Amoebiasis (a) RNA with protein (b) DNA with protein
(c) Diabetes (d) Cancer (c) DNA without protein (d) single stranded DNA
2. Resistance against pathogen is due to 10. Which of the following organs is not involved in the
(a) antibodies (b) RBCs eliutation of immune response?
(c) haemoglobin (d) pertusis (a) Brain (b) Lymph node
3. First antibiotic was discovered by (c) Spleen (d) Thymus
(a) A Flemming (b) W Flemming 11. Disease which last for longer period of time are
(c) R Koch (d) Louis Pasteur known as
4. Who among the following established the scientific (a) acute diseases (b) chronic diseases
basis of vaccination? (c) infections diseases (d) communicable diseases
(a) Edward Jenner (b) George Kohler 12. Which of the following is transmitted through air?
(c) Louis Pasteur (d) Von Behring (a) Pneummia (b) Common cold
5. The primary host of Plasmodium is (c) Tuberculosis (d) All of these
(a) man (b) male Culex 13. Aedes aegypti is a vector for
(c) sheep (d) female Anopheles (a) dengue fever
6. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases? (b) yellow fever
(a) Ringworm, AIDS (c) Both dengue and yellow fever
(b) Common cold, AIDS (d) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Dysentery, common cold 14. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give quick relief
(d) Typhoid, tuberculosis from
7. The organ related with immunity is (a) allergy (b) nausea
(a) liver (b) parathyroid (c) cough (d) headache
(c) spleen (d) thymus 15. Which cell secretes antibody?
8. Which one of the following acts as a physiological (a) Lymphocytes
barrier to the entry of microorganism in human body? (b) Monocytes
(c) Eosinophils
(a) Tears (b) Monocytes
(d) Neutrophils
(c) Skin (d) Epithelium of urogenital tract

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a)
 Chapter
8
Diversity in Living
Organism
Biodiversity
It is the existence of wide variety of species (species
diversity) in a specified region. Region between tropic
of cancer and tropic of capricon is megadiversity region.
Basis of Classification
Classification is the arrangement of life forms into
various groups on the basis of common characteristic,
affinities or relationships.
Classification of organism is based on
(i) Nuclear organisation presence or absence of
clearly defined nucleus.
(ii) Mode of nutrition whether an organism is able to
produce its own food or dependent of others.
(iii) Unicellularity/Multicellularity.
(iv) Organisation of different body parts.
(v) Presence of specialised organs and their functions.
Classification of life forms is linked to evolution.
Evolution is the gradual change over a period of time to
allow the organism to survive better.
Hierarchy of Classification
Ernst Haeckel (1894), Robert Whittaker (1959) and
Carl Woese (1977) have classified into broad categories
called kingdom.
These are defined as
Later Woese modified this classification by dividing
Monera into archaebacteria and eubacteria.
Classification is done under following scheme
l Kingdom l Phylum l Division
l Class l Order l Family
l Genus l Species
RH Whittaker in year 1959 give five kingdom
classification on the basis of cell structure, mode and
source of nutrition and body organisation. Five kingdoms
were Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.
Monera
These are unicellular organism. It includes all
prokaryotes like bacteria, mycoplasma, Actinomycetes
and blue-green algae. Some are autotrophs and
synthesise their own food like cyanobacteria. These are
sub-divided into archea having thermophiles and
archaebacteria and eubacteria.
Protista
These include unicellular eukaryotic organism. Some
species are autotrophs some are heterotrophs.
Possesses hair like appendages and whip like flagella,
e.g., protozoans, dinoflagellates, diatoms, slime mould
and algae.
Fungi
These are eukaryotic heterotrophic organisms. These
may be saprophyte (feeds on decaying organic matter)
or parasitic in nature. Their cell wall is made up of
chitin, e.g., yeast and mushrooms.
362 Study Package for NTSE

Plants

Water vacuole
Cilia Do not have Have differentiated
differentiated plant body
Macronucleus plant body

Thallophyta Without specialised With vascular

vascular tissue tissue
Micronucleus

Oral groove Bryophyta

Food vacuole
Cytosome Do not produce seeds Produce seeds-phanerogams

Cytopyge Pteridophyta
Bear naked seeds Bear seeds
inside fruits
Waste Gymnosperms
Angiosperms
Paramecium
Have seeds with Have seeds with
Endoplasm two cotyledons one cotyledon

Ectoplasm Dicots Monocots

Mitochondria
Nucleus Thallophyta
Crystals These do not have well differentiated body design.
Plants in this group are known as algae. These are
photosynthetic autotrophs like red algae, brown algae,
green algae and mosses.

Bryophyta
These are also known as amphibians of plant kingdom.
Food vacuole Contractile vacuole
Advancing They are differentiated into stem and leaf-like
pseudopodia structure. Do not have specialised tissue for conduction
Amoeba
of H2 O and other substance, e.g., moss (Funaria and
Marchantia).
Flagellum (long)
Eye spot
Pteridophyta
Plant body is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. It
Nucleolus
Photoreceptor has specialised tissue for conduction of H2 O and other
Flagellum
substances, e.g., in Marsilea ferns.
(short) All the above three thallophytes, bryophytes and
Contractile pteridophytes are also known as cryptogams.
vacuole Reproductive organs of these groups are not well
Chloroplast
Nucleus defined and have naked embryos called spores.
Euglena
Gymnosperms
It is made up of two greek words gymno means naked
Plantae and sperma means seed.
Plants are classified on the basis of their ability bear Plant of these group bear naked seeds vascular system
seeds type of tissues for the transport of H2 O and is well developed. They are perennial, evergreen and
substance. These are classified as woody.
Diversity in Living Organism 363
Angiosperms
l This word is made up of two greek words angio means covered and sperma means seed. Reproductive organ is well defined
and known as flower hence, these are also known as flowering plants.
l Ovules inside ovary modifies into seed after fertilisation. Ovary later modified to became fruit and encloses seed. Embryo
in seeds have structure called cotyledons also known as seed leaves.
l On the basis of number of cotyledons plants are divided into monocots/ monocotyledonous or dicots/ dicotyledonous plants,
e.g., Paphiopedilum (monocot) and Ipomoea (dicot).

Animalia
These include multicellular eukaryotic and heterotrophic animals. They include both predator and parasite. Their
classification is based on the extent and type of body design.

Animals

Cellular level of Tissue level of

organisation organisation

Porifera

No body cavity between Pseudocoelom Coelomate

epidermis and gastrodermis

Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes Nematoda

Mesodermal cells from Coelom formed from

a single cell during pouches pinched off
growth of the embryo from the endoderm

Annelida, Mollusca and

Arthropoda Notochord absent Notochord present

Echinodermata Chordata

Notochord present
in at least larval forms, Notochord replaced by vertebral
but very rudimentary column in adults

Protochordata Vertebrata

Exoskeleton of Gills in larva, Exoskeleton Exoskeleton Exoskeleton

scales, endoskeleton lungs in most of scales, laying of feathers, lay of hair, external
of bone/cartilage adults, slimy eggs outside eggs outside ears, mostly
breathing through skin water water, flight giving birth
gills possible to live young

Pisces Amphibia Reptilia Aves Mammalia

364 Study Package for NTSE

Porifera
l These are non-motile animals attached to a solid support.
They have holes all over the body leading to a canal
system helps in circulating H2O throughout the body.
l Contractile cells change openings at body surfaces
commonly called sponges. Animals are covered with
skeleton, e.g., Sycon, Euplectelea and Spongilla.
Cnidaria (Coelenterata)
l These are mostly marine attached creeping swimming
or floating carnivore. There is cavity in the body showing
hydrostatic support (by fluid in gut).
l Body is made up of two layers of cell. One makes up
outside of the body and other makes up inner living of
the body, e.g., Hydra, sea anemone, jellyfish.
Nematods
Their body is bilateral symmetrical and triplobastic body
is cylindrical. They show hydrostatic support through
psuedocoel, have tough cuticle. They have complete gut
and gas exchange system across the body surface, e.g.,
parasitic worms causing elephantiasis (filarial worms)
and worms in intestine (roundworm or pinworm).
Annelida
These are also bilaterally, symmetrical and triploblastic.
They have well developed musculature in body wall.
Showing extensive organ differentiation have brain,
double ventral nerve cord. Differentiation occurs in
segmental fashion, e.g., leeches, earthworm, etc.

Platyhelminthes
l These are marine fresh water and some terrestial
organism. They have brain and shows hydrostatic
support. Body is bilaterally symmetrical (both the
halves of the body have equal design).
l They possess 3 layers of cells and also known as
triploblastic. These may be parasitic or free living, e.g.,
planarians (free living) and parasitic like liver flukes
also known as flatworms.
Arthropoda
l Largest group of animals. These are bilaterally
symmetrical as well as segmented. They Shows open
circulatory system, blood do not flow in defined vessels.
They have brain, double ventral nerve cord has
exoskeleton jointed appendages (arthropod means
jointed legs).
l Coelomic cavity is blood filled, e.g., prawn, scorpion,
spider, butterfly, house fly, centipede, cockroach, etc.

Eyes
Mollusca
Branched Acetabulum They show bilateral symmetry little segmentation.
gastrovascular They shows hydrostatic skeleton, well-developed
cavity
musculature in foot mantle other structure. They form
Pharynx haemocoel. These have open circulatory system.
Mouth and
anus Echinodermata
l Echinos means hedgehog and derma means skin. Has
endoskeleton and have spines. Uses tube feet for
locomotion. They are strictly marine, mostly carnivores,
have hard calcium carbonate structures that they use as
Planaria Liverfluke skeleton.
l They are triploblastic and have a coelomic cavity, e.g.,
Scolex Sucker
Neck
Asterias (star fish), Echinus (sea urchin), Antedon
(feather star), Holothuria (sea cucumber).

Protochordata
Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and have a
coelom. Possess long red like support structure called
notochord it separates the nervous system from gut.
These are marine animals, e.g., Balanoglossus,
Hardmania and Amphioxus.

Tapeworm Vertebrata
Some Platyhelminthes animal They have true vertebral column and an internal
skeleton. These are bilaterally symmetrical
triploblastic, coelomic and segmented.
Diversity in Living Organism
These possess
l notochord l dorsal nerve cord
l triploblastic l hair paired gill pouch
l coelom.
Pisces
These includes fish which are exclusively aquatic
animals and skin is covered with plates/scales. They are
cold-blooded animals and have two-chambered heart.
In some fishes skeleton is made up of cartilage, in some
it is made up of both bones and cartilage. They lay eggs,
e.g., angler fish, lion fish, dog fish and string ray.
Amphibia
These include frogs, toad, salamander. They can live in
H2 O as well as land due to the presence of both gill and
lungs. They lay eggs. They have mucous secretion in the
skin and possess three-chambered heart.
365
Reptilia
These have scales all over the body and breathe through
lungs. They have two-chambered heart but in crocodile
four-chambered heart is present. Lay eggs with tough
coverings and these are cold-blooded animals.
Aves
These are warm-blooded animals. They possess
four-chambered heart. Forelimbs are modified into
feathers for flight. They breath through lungs, e.g., all
birds.
Mammalia
They have four-chambered heart. These are
warm-blooded. They give birth to young ones and
possess mammary glands for milk production, e.g.,
human beings, dog, cat, etc.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which is the only phylum in the animal kingdom 7. A chordate character is
without any nerve cell? (a) gills (b) spiracles
(a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata (c) post-anal tail (d) chitinous exoskeleton
(c) Annelida (d) Nematoda
8. The canal system is a characteristic feature of
2. Which of the following animal belongs to the (a) echinoderms (b) helminthes
phylum–Mollusca? (c) coelenterates (d) sponges
(a) Devil fish (b) Dog fish
(c) Silver fish (d) Jelly fish
9. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but
lacks vascular tissues and seeds is
3. The Hierarchial arrangement of taxonic categories in (a) Pteridophyta (b) Rhodophyta
descending order is (c) Bryophyta (d) Phaeophyta
(a) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
(b) kingdom, division, phylum, order, family, genus, species
10. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits
(c) kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus belongs to
(d) division, kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus, (a) pteridophyte (b) mosses
species (c) ferns (d) gymnosperms
4. The shape of the cocci bacteria is 11. The basic unit of classification is
(a) rod shaped (b) spherical shaped (a) species (b) genus (c) family (d) phylum
(c) comma shaped (d) spiral shaped
12. Scientific study of diversity of organisms and their
5. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is evolutionary relationship is
(a) presence of skull (a) morphology (b) anatomy
(b) division fo body into head, neck, trunk and tail (c) taxonomy (d) systematics
(c) presence of two pairs of functional appendages
(d) body is covered with an exoskeleton
13. Chitin is present in cell wall of
(a) fungi (b) bacteria (c) yeast (d) algae
6. All chordates possess
14. The kingdom of prokaryotes is
(a) exoskeleton (b) limbs
(a) Protista (b) Monera
(c) skull (d) axial skeletal rod of notochord
(c) Fungi (d) Plantae
366 Study Package for NTSE
15. Single celled eukaryote are included in 18. Canal system is present in phylum
(a) Protista (b) Fungi (c) Archaea (d) Monera (a) Annelida (d) Porifera
(c) Acanthocephala (d) Echinodermata
16. Which of the following are called vascular
cryptograms? 19. Budding is found in
(a) Pteridophyte (b) Bryophytes (a) Sycon (b) Hydra
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Algae (c) Fasciola (d) Obelia
17. Gametophytic and sporophyte phases are 20. Which of the following phyla does not possess a
independent in coelom?
(a) pteridophytes (b) bryophytes (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida
(c) gymnosperms (d) pheophytes (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata

High Skill Questions

1. Female reproductive part of bryophyte is 8. Dry skin with scales or scutes without gland is a
(a) anthredium (b) oogonium characteristic of
(c) archaegonium (d) sporangium (a) mammals (b) birds
(c) snake (d) crocodile
2. Which has vascular tissue, produces spores but does
not has seeds? 9. Mosses occur in moist place because
(a) Bryophyta (b) Pteridophyta (a) they cannot grow on land
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms (b) their gamete fuses in water
(c) they lack vascular tissue
3. Fruits are not found in gymnosperm because (d) they lack root and stomata
(a) they are not seedless
(b) they are not pollinated 10. Which of the following is a gymnosperm?
(c) they have no ovary (a) Mango (b) Walnut (c) Funaria (d) Chilgoza
(d) fertilisation does not take place 11. Pseudocoelom is not found in
4. Which of the following plants produces seed but not (a) Ascaris (b) Ancylstoma
flower? (c) Fasciola (d) None of these
(a) Maize (b) Mint 12. Nephridia of earthworm are performing same
(c) Peepal (d) Pinus functions as
5. Classification of sponges is primarily based on the (a) gills of prawn (b) flame cells of planaria
(a) body organisation (b) body plan (c) trachea of insects (d) nematoblast of Hydra
(c) skeleton (d) canal system 13. The number of heart chambers found in cockroach is
6. Which of the following have highest number of (a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 13
species in nature? 14. Pearls are produced by the animals of phylum
(a) Insects (b) Birds
(a) Annelid (b) Arthropoda
(c) Angiosperms (d) Fungi
(c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
7. Tube-feet is the locomotory organ of
15. Tube feet is the locomotory organ in
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Echinodermata (a) star fish (b) jelly fish
(c) Mollusca (d) Arthropoda (c) silver fish (d) Scoliodon

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a)
 Chapter
9
Our Environment
Ecosystem
Term ‘Ecosystem’ was proposed by British ecologist
AG Tansley (1935). He defined the ecosystem as ‘The
system’ resulting from the integration of all the living
(biotic) and non-living (abiotic) factors of environment.
An ecosystem consist of biotic components like living
organism, (autotrophs, heterotrophs, macroconsumers,
microconsumers) and abiotic components (air, wind,
water, etc.), which interact with each other and
maintain a balance in nature.
Components of Ecosystem
Components of ecosystem are classified as
Abiotic Components
l Basic abiotic components are inorganic substances like
C, N, P, H2O, etc. These are involved in mineral cycle.
Organic compound like carbohydrate, fat, protein,
which links abiotic with biotic components.
l Physical factors which includes air, temperature, solar
radiation, etc.
Biotic Components
l Autotrophs/Produces These are mostly green
plants including photosynthetic bacteria, which can
synthesise their own food. It also includes chemosynthetic
bacteria.
l Heterotrophs or Consumers These are the
organism, which are dependent on autotrophs to obtain
their food energy.
l Decomposers These include mainly bacteria,
actinomycetes, fungi. These breakdown complex
compound into simpler compounds.
Food Chain
It is the simpler and linear relationship between the
producer and consumer of different trophic levels. It
shows the flow of energy from one trophic level to
another in linear direction.
Types of Food Chain
Grazing Food Chain It starts from producers (green
plants) goes to herbivores and finally to carnivores.
e.g., green plants → rabbit → jackal → tiger.
Prasitic Food Chain It starts from host and reaches
to parasite, e.g., human beings → helminthes → bacteria.
Saprophytic Chain It starts from organic material
and goes to microorganism, e.g., leaves→ primary colonizer
→ secondary colonizer. It is also known as detritus food
chain.
Flow of Energy
Flow of energy is unidirectional. Energy captured by
autotrophs does not revert back or taken by
heterotrophs. Green plants capture 1% of the solar
energy which fall on them and covert it into food energy.
Some amount of energy is lost through decay or
respiration from one trophic level to another. Only 10%
of the food eaten is turned into its own body and made
available for the next consumers.
Ecological Pyramids
It represents the trophic structure and function of the
ecosystem. Producers forms the base and successive
trophic level make up the apex.
368 Study Package for NTSE

It includes pyramid of number. It is the relationship

between the number producers, primary consumers, Biomagnification
etc. It is the gradual accumulation of chemicals/pesticides
Pyramid of number of grassland ecosystem is upright, from one trophic level to another. Soil contain several
while that of tree ecosystem is inverted. pesticides and chemicals, which is absorbed by plants.
These plants are taken up by animals and pesticides
enters the food chain. These chemicals are
TC TC
non-biodegradable and gets accumulated from one
SC SC trophic level another trophic level.
Humans occupies top most position in the food chain
PC PC
hence maximum concentration of chemicals get
P P accumulated in humans.

Upright pyramid Inverted pyramid Ozone Depletion and Ozone Hole

l Ozone is present in the stratosphere. It is formed when
P — Producers
O2 combine with free (O) to give O3.
PC — Primary Consumers (herbivores)
SC — Secondary Consumers (carnivores) O2  UV
→ O + O
TC — Tertiary Consumers (carnivores) O + O2 → O3 (ozone)
l Presence of ozone is an essential necessity of life on
Pyramid of Biomass Earth. It absorbs dangerous UV β-rays of sun and
protects the earth surface from high energy radiation.
It represents the biomass of members of each trophic
l In recent years, amount of ozone began to decrease
level. It could be inverted or upright. sharply. It is due to man-made pollutants, which
catalyze. The dissociation of O3 at very fast rate. Major
Pyramid of Energy pollutants which deplete ozone layer are
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), N2O (nitrogen oxide).
It shows the flow of energy from one trophic level to
Hydrocarbons and oxides of chlorine and bromine.
another trophic level. It is always upright and
l In 1987, the United Nations Environment Programme
unidirectional.
(UNEP) succeeded to freeze CFC production.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Energy flow in ecosystem is 5. Extinction of species in a food chain is compensated
(a) bidirectional (b) unidirectional by
(c) all around (d) None of these (a) food chain (b) ecological pyramid
2. Pyramid that is never inverted (c) food web (d) None of these
(a) energy (b) mass 6. Which of the following is an example man-made
(c) number (d) size ecosystem?
(a) Herbarium (b) Aquarium
3. Pond is defined as a
(c) Tissue culture (d) Forest
(a) biome (b) agroecosystem
(c) natural ecosystem (d) community 7. In a pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem,
the largest population is that of
4. Which of the following shows detritus food chain? (a) producers
(a) Organic waste → bacteria→molluscs (b) tertiary consumers
(b) Grass → insects → snakes (c) secondary consumers
(c) Plankton → small fishes → large fishes (d) primary consumers
(d) All of the above
Our Environment 369
8. The ultimate energy source of ecosystem is 15. These belong to the category of primary consumers
(a) solar energy (b) biomass (a) snakes and frogs
(c) producer (d) carbohydrates (b) water insects
(c) eagle and snakes
9. The term ‘ecosystem’ was given by
(d) insects and cattle
(a) Odum (b) Koestler
(c) Tansley (d) Mobius and Forbes 16. If a water body is contaminated with a toxicant, its
10. In food chain, maximum energy is stored in biomagnification will be more marked in
(a) producer (b) primary consumer (a) water (b) planktons
(c) small fishes (d) birds
(c) secondary consumer (d) decomposer
11. In food chain, lion is a 17. Biological equilibrium is found among the
(a) tertiary consumer (b) secondary consumer (a) producers, consumers and decomposers
(b) producers and consumers
(c) primary consumer (d) None of these
(c) producers and decomposers
12. The correct sequence of food chain is (d) None of the above
(a) grass → insect → snake → bird
18. In terrestrial ecosystem such as forest, maximum
(b) grass → bird → insect → snake
(c) snake → bird → insect → grass
energy is found in which trophic level?
(d) grass → snake → bird → insect (a) T1 (b) T2
(c) T3 (d) T4
13. Ecosystem consist of
(a) producers (b) consumers
19. Most stable ecosystem is
(c) decomposer (d) All of these (a) desert (b) marine
(c) mountain (d) forest
14. In a food chain total amount of living material is
depicted by 20. Most diverse organisms of an ecosystem are
(a) pyramid of biomass (b) pyramid of energy (a) producers (b) consumers
(c) carnivores (d) decomposers
(c) pyramid of number (d) trophic levels

High Skill Questions

1. The ecological niche of population is a 6. The 10% energy transfer law of food was given by
(a) geographical area that it covers (a) Lederberg (b) Lindemann
(b) place where it lives (c) Weismann (d) Lindley
(c) set of conditions and resource it uses
(d) None of the above
7. Overlapping region between two ecosystem is called
(a) biome (b) ocotone
2. The great barrier reef along the East coast of (c) niche (d) photic zone
Australia can be categorised as
8. In ecotone, some species become abundant called
(a) population (b) community
(c) ecosystem (d) biome (a) sibling species (b) endemic species
(c) rare species (d) edge species
3. An ecosystem which cab be easily damaged but can
recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will
9. Energy flow and energy transformation in living
system strictly conform to the
be having
(a) law of limiting factors
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) Liebigs law of minimum
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) law of thermodynamics
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience (d) Shelford’s law of tolerance

4. The amount of living matter present in an ecosystem 10. The lentic ecosystem includes
at a given time is called (a) gravitational H2O (b) standing H2O
(c) rain water (d) running water
(a) biomass (b) standing crop
(c) standing state (d) productivity 11. Mr X is eating curd/yoghurt. For this food take in a
5. Stratification occurs in food chain, he should be considered as occupying
(a) desert (a) first trophic level
(b) tropical forest (b) second trophic level
(c) deciduous forest (c) third trophic level
(d) fourth trophic level
(d) tundra
370 Study Package for NTSE

12. In a comparative study of grassland ecosystem and 14. Detritus food chain law accounts for more energy flow
pond ecosystem. It may be observed that than grazing food chain because
(a) biotic components are almost similar (a) most organisms die without having being eaten
(b) the abiotic components are almost similar (b) most organisms do not die
(c) primary and secondary consumers are similar (c) most organism having being eaten
(d) both biotic and abiotic components are different (d) None of the above

13. Energy storage at consumers level is called 15. Niche is defined as the
(a) gross primary productivity (a) position of species in a community in relation to other
(b) secondary productivity species
(c) net primary productivity (b) place where organism lives
(c) place where organism live and perform its duty
(d) net productivity
(d) place where population perform their duties

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)
 Chapter
10
Natural Resources
Natural resources of earth constitutes land, water, air,
mineral, etc. 75% of the earth’s surface is covered by
water, which constitutes hydrosphere. Outer layer of
the earth crust is called lithosphere and constitutes 25%
of earth’s surface. Air which covers the earth like a
blanket and is known as atmosphere. Hydrosphere,
lithosphere and atmosphere together with living
components constitute biosphere. Abiotic components of
biosphere is soil, H2 O and air.
Air
It is the mixture of many gases like N2 , O2 , CO2 and
water vapour. Air constitutes 21% of O2 , 78% N2 , 0 .03%
of CO2 . Percentage of CO2 in air is less since, it is fixed by
green plants to convert CO2 into glucose in presence of
sunlight. Marine animals also uses calcium carbonate to
make their shells.
Role of Atmosphere in Climate Control
Atmosphere plays a very important role in
thermoregulation. It maintains the temperature during
the day and night. During the day time it does not allow
harmful UV rays to reach Earth. In night, it slows down
the escape of heat into the outer space.
Movement of Air
l Due to uneven heating of the atmosphere in different
regions , convection currects are set up which causes
movement of air.
l During day time water vapour is formed due to
evaporation. Excessive heating causes air over the plain
to rise up creating low pressure above the land. Air over
the sea is heavy and it start moving towards the low air
pressure such movements causes wind.
Rain
During the day time water bodies get heated up, large
amount of water evaporates goes up into the air. It
expands and condenses into tiny droplets which fall
down in form of rain.
Air Pollution
l It could be defined as unfavourable alteration in physical,
chemical or biological characteristics of air.
l Air pollutants could be gaseous in nature like CO2,
NO2, SO2, SO3 or particulate (substances which may be
solid or liquid, e.g., aerosols, smoke. Unburnt carbon
particles) in nature. In winters, this suspended
particulate matter combines with fog to produce smog
which lowers the visibility.
Bioindicators
Some organisms are very sensitive towards the level of
contaminants like sulphur dioxide. These are indicators
of pollution for example, lichens which are commonly
found on barks of trees as thin greenish white crust.
Water
It occupies 75% of the earth’s surface and also found
underground. It is essential for animals and plants in
order to survive. All the cellular processes need water as
medium. It is one of the major factor which determines
the sustainability and survival of life in a particular
region.
Water Pollution
l It could be defined as the addition of undesirable
substances to the water bodies which deteiorates
physical, chemical and biological properties of water.
Water pollutants could be organic or inorganic in
nature.
372 Study Package for NTSE
Organic water pollutants include detergents, food
l
processing waste, insecticides and herbicides, Nitrogen Cycle
petroleum hydrocarbons, volatile organic compounds, Ultimate source of N2 in living organism is atmospheric N2 .
etc. Aerial N2 could be fixed by nitrogen fixing bacteria in
l Inorganic water pollutant includes acidity caused by form of ammonia. This unstable form is converted into
industrial discharge. Ammonia from food processing nitrites and finally into nitrates. Plant take up nitrogen
waste. Chemical waste as industrial byproduct. in nitrate form and convert nitrate into amino group
which is available for animals.
Soil Nitrogen is return to H2 O and soil through excretion and
death of nitrogenous compounds in living matter.
It is the outmost layer of Earth called crust and the Denitrifying bacteria also converts nitrate and nitrites
minerals found in this layer capable of supporting life. into elemental nitrogen.
Process of formation of soil from huge rocks, is known
N2 in
as weathering. It occurs with the aid of biological, atmosphere
Nit
physical and chemical agents. Denitrification
fixaroge
tio n
n
Physical Agents Nitrates
It includes sun, water and wind. Sun heats up the rocks Protoplasm
(green plants)
during the day. So that they expand, when these rocks Protoplasm
(animals)
cool down they contract and develops cracks.
Ultimately huge rocks break up into smaller pieces.
Nitrification Nitrites
l Water moves into these cracks, it freezes and causes
cracks to widen. Fast flowing water can also bring Ammonification
down big and small pieces of rock. The rocks
sub-against each other causing abrasions, which Ammonia
Nitrification
causes the rocks to wear down into smaller and smaller
particles.
Atmos n
pheric and industrial fixatio
l Winds also acts in same way.
Nitrogen cycle in nature
Biological Agents
Lichen grows on surface of the rocks. They release Carbon Cycle
certain chemical substances which degrades the rock Carbon is found in various forms. In elemental form it
surface. occurs as granite and diamond. It is find as CO2 in
atmosphere. Carbonates and hydrogen carbonates in
Humus various minerals.
CO2 in atmosphere
It is the top layer of soil, which contain bits of decayed
Respiration and decomposition

living organism and organic matter. It causes soil to

become more porous and allows water and air to
penetrate deep underground.
Organic compounds
(plants)
Biogeochemical Cycle
It is the representation which shows the interaction
between biotic and abiotic component of ecosystem. It
shows the circulation of chemicals from environment to Organic compounds
organism and back to environment in a cyclic manner. (animals)
Carbonates
Inorganic in water
Water Cycle carbonates Coal
(shells)
Water from oceans evaporates from water bodies and Petroleum
Limestone
condense to form clouds. It fall down on earth as rain. Carbon cycle in nature
Some water flow back into sea, some form the
Photosynthesis incorporates CO2 into organic substances.
underground water and some is utilized by plants and
It replenished through respiration, burning of industrial
animal as freshwater.
fuel combustion.
Natural Resources 373
Oxygen Cycle
It is found in its elemental form O2 . It is also found as oxides of most metals and silicon. It is also an important
component of most biological molecules. Atmospheric molecular O2 enters the organism through respiration and
back to atmosphere through photosynthesis.

Greenhouse Effect
The increased amount of CO2 in atmosphere is found to increase temperature of Earth. CO2 has higher capacity to
trap infra red radiation and does not allow long wave radiation from Earth to escape into outer space. This causes
increase in temperature and called greenhouse effect.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. One of the following greenhouse gas contribute about 9. Common indicator organism of water pollution is
20% of the global warming (a) Lemna pancicostata
(a) CH4 (b) CFCs (b) Eichhornia crassipes
(c) CO 2 (d) N2O (c) Escherichia coli
2. Section through different layers of soil is called (d) Entamoeba histolytica
(a) soil section (b) soil horizon 10. Which of the following are the indicators of pollution?
(c) soil profile (d) All of these (a) Licher (b) Fungi
3. Organic matter present in soil is called (c) Algae (d) None of these
(a) fertiliser (b) humus 11. Which of the following nutrient cycle shows
(c) living matter (d) non-living matter sedimentary cycle?
4. Which layer of soil is richest in humus? (a) Sulphur cycle (b) Phosphorous cycle
(c) Oxygen cycle (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) B-Horizon (b) A-Horizon
(c) C-Horizon (d) Bed rock 12. The solid component of Earth is called
(a) lithosphere (b) stratosphere
5. The best soil for the growth of wheat crop is
(c) atmosphere (d) troposphere
(a) loamy soil (b) sandy soil
(c) clayey soil (d) All of these 13. The multilayered gaseous envelope surrounding
planet Earth is called
6. Loamy soil is most suitable for
(a) lithosphere (b) hydrosphere
(a) paddy (b) pulses (c) atmosphere (d) ionosphere
(c) wheat (d) None of these
14. The main factor responsible for water pollution is
7. Which of the following pair of gases are the major (a) smoke
cause of ‘greenhouse effect’? (b) NH3
(a) CO 2 and CO (b) CFCs and SO 2 (c) industrial waste
(c) CO 2 and N2O (d) CO 2 and O 3 (d) detergent
8. CO2 is called greenhouse gas because it is 15. Melting of glaciers may result from
(a) used in greenhouse to increase plant growth (a) depletion of ozone layer
(b) transparent to heat but traps sunlight (b) increase in UV rays
(c) transparent to sunlight but traps heat (c) increase in O 2 in the atmosphere
(d) transparent to both sunlight and heat (d) increase in CO 2 in the atmosphere
374 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following atoms typically cycles within 6. Mercury pollution causes
the most localised area? (a) black-foot disease
(a) Carbon (b) Water (b) itai-itai disease
(c) Nitrogen (d) Phosphorus (c) blue-baby syndrome
(d) minamata disease
2. Smog is caused by the
(a) depletion of ozone layer 7. CO is a pollutant because it
(b) presence of high humidity in the atmosphere (a) reacts with O 2
(c) rapid accumulation of CO 2 in the atmosphere (b) inhibits glycolysis
(d) rapid build-up of products of photochemical oxidation of (c) reacts with haemoglobin
pollutant in the atmosphere (d) makes nervous system inactive

3. Water pollution is best assessed by determining 8. Acid rain is due to

(a) DO and BOD (a) CO 2 and H2O (b) CO and NO 2
(b) BOD and turbidity (c) SO 2 and NO 2 (d) SO 2 and N2O
(c) DO and acidity
9. At present the concentration of CO2 in atmosphere is
(d) Hardness and alkalinity
about
4. The protective ozone shield is to be found in the (a) 100 ppm (b) 240 ppm
(a) hydrosphere (b) ionosphere (c) 380 ppm (d) 520 ppm
(c) stratosphere (d) troposphere
10. Eutrophication is often seen in
5. Acid rain is mainly caused due to increase in the (a) freshwater lakes
levels of the gases (b) ocean
(a) SO 2 (b) CO 2 (c) mountains
(c) SO 2 and CO 2 (d) NO 2 and SO 2 (d) deserts

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
 Chapter
11
Management of Natural
Resources
It includes sustainable use and conservation of our
natural resources (like forest, water bodies, wildlife,
coal, petroleum, etc.). It includes protection uplift and
scientific management of our resources to maintain
their optimum level, and derive sustainable benefits for
present as well as future generation.
l There are number of national laws and acts for
environmental protection.
l There is general 3R rule to save our resources.
l This implies Reduce, Recycle and Reuse.
Reduce Reduction is the usuage of resources, e.g., not
wasting water, switching off unnecessary lights and fans.
Recycle Recycle of non-biodegradable products like
recycling of plastic paper, glass or metal.
Reuse It is using the things again and again, e.g.,
plastic bottles could be used to store jam or pickle.
Forest and Wildlife
Forest are ‘biodiversity hot spots’ and loss of
biodiversity leads to ecological instability’ We are
dependent on forest for Fibre, fodder, food, furniture,
fuel. The forest department of the Government owns the
land and control the resources of forest.
India has 581 protected areas, covering 4.7% of the land
surface. Protected areas are the part of land or sea.
Specially dedicated to protection and maintenance of
biological diversity. There are 89 National Parks and
492 Wildlife Sanctuaries in India.
l In 1731 Amrita Devi Bishnoi died with 363 others for
protection of ‘khojri’ trees in Khojrali village near
Jodhpur in Rajasthan. Government of India has
recently instituted an ‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National
Award’ for wildlife conservation in memory of Amrita
Devi.
Sustainable Management
Forest resources are often made available for industrial
use of rates for below the market value while these are
denied to the local people.The Chipko Movement was
the result of a grassroot level effort to end the alienation
of people from their forests.
Chipko Movement (Hug the Trees Movement)
Originated in remote village called Reni in Garhwal
high up in Himalayas during 1970. Local villagers
actively participated in protect the forest. There was
dispute in between. Local villagers and contractor.
Contractor was not able to cut down the forest trees
because women of the village reached the forest and
clasped the tree trunk preventing the workers from
felling the trees.
Peoples Participation in the
Management of Forest
Due to the lack of traditional practice sal forest in southern western. District
of West Bengal was degraded. West Bengal forest department was not able
to revive this forest. In years 1972, forest officer AK Banarjee involve local
villagers to protect 1,272 hectares of Arbari forest range of Midnapore district
due to active and willing participation of local people. Sal forest underwent a
remarkable recovary.
Water Resource Management
Water availability depends upon the rain fall pattern.
Rains in India is largely dependent on monsoons.
Despite of heavy rainfall. We are not able to sustain
376 Study Package for NTSE

the ground water level. It is due to the neglact local Water Harvesting
irrigation methods and conservation strategies.
It aims at developing a primary resource for
Irrigation methods like dams, tanks and canals have
conservation of water. Which could be used in a manner
been used in various parts of India since ancient times.
which will not disturb ecological imbalance. Ancient
Kulhs in Himachal Pradesh system of water harvesting is being promoted to
conserve water.
It is the local system of canal irrigation water flowing in stream is diverted
into man-made channels, which took this water this numerous villages Some ancient practices for water harvesting is
down hill.
(i) Khadins and Nadis — Rajasthan
(ii) Bandharas and Tal — Maharashtra
Dams (iii) Bundhis — Madhya Pradesh
(iv) Ahors and Pynos — Bihar
l Dams are the large reservoires of water. They ensure
the storage of adequate water for irrigation as well as (v) Kulhs — Himachal Pradesh
generating electric it. People close to the H2O source can (vi) Surangams — Kerala
be benefitted by, growing H2O intensive crops like (vii) Kaltas — Karnataka
sugarcane and rice, e.g., Indira Gandhi canal has
brought greenary to considerable areas of Rajasthan.
l Apart from benefits there arises opposition to the Coal and Petroleum
construction of large Dam, e.g., Tehri dam on river Ganga. These are essential and non-renewable resource of
Narmada Bachao Andolan etc.
energy. These are formed by the degradation of biomass
l Criticism of construction of large dam is due to following million years ago and hence can be exhausted in near
reason. Inadequate compensation or rehabilitation to
future.
large number of local tribes.
The management of coal and petroleum also addresses
l Construction of dam involves huge amount of public
money, which would be masted if benefit are not the efficiency of our machines. Fuel is most commonly
generated. used in internal combustion engines for transportation
and recent research in the field of ensuring complete
l It involves enormous deforestation, which would lead to
loss of biodiversity. Apart form these there is also threat combustion in these engines in order to increase
from Natural calamities like earthquake, etc. efficiency and also reduce air pollution.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. ‘Chipko Movement’ is concerned with 4. Which soil has the maximum water holding capacity?
(a) plant conservation (b) project tiger (a) Sandy soil (b) Clayey soil
(c) animal breeding (d) plant breeding (c) Loamy soil (d) Both (a) and (c)
2. In the recent years, there has been an increasing 5. Most fertile farm lands have
incidence of floods in the plains of northern India (a) acidic soil (b) alkaline soil
because (c) neutral soil (d) None of these
(a) there has been an increase in annual rainfall
6. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to
(b) the rate of silting of dams has done up
(c) there has been increased deforestation in the catchment
conserve the plant diversity of an area?
areas (a) By tissue culture method
(d) increased areas of land is being self cultivated (b) By creating biosphere reserve
(c) By creating botanical garden
3. Which agricultural practice help in maintaining soil (d) By developing seed bank
fertility? 7. India has only 2.4% of the world’s land area, its share
(a) Crop rotation cropping of the global species diversity is
(b) Inter cropping
(a) 1.8% (b) 3.1%
(c) Multiple cropping
(d) All of the above (c) 5.1% (d) 8.1%
Management of Natural Resources 377
8. Total number of identified biodiversity hot spots in 10. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of
the world are pollution?
(a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 40 (d) 34 (a) Lichens are not related with pollution
9. Kanha National Park is located in .....and is famous (b) They act as bioindicators of pollution
(c) They treat the polluted water
for ..... .
(d) They promote pollution
(a) Madhya Pradesh, elephant (b) Madya Pradesh, tiger
(c) Odisha, tiger (d) Asom, elephant

High Skill Questions

1. The general rule to preserve of our resource is 6. The wild life protection Act was introduced in
(a) Reduce (b) Recycle (a) 1972 (b) 1981 (c) 1986 (d) 1991
(c) Reuse (d) All of these
7. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural field is
2. ‘Amrita Dui Bishnoi’ is associated with likely to create problem of
(a) Protection of Tigers (a) acidity (b) aridity
(b) Protection of ‘Khejn Trees’ in Kejrali (c) metal toxicity (d) salinity
(c) Protection of trees in Reni in Garhwal
8. Minerals, metals and fossil fuel are which type of
(d) Protection of Arbari forest range
resources of energy?
3. Local system of canal irrigation in Himachal Pradesh (a) Renewable
is (b) Non-renewable
(a) Khadins (b) Bandharas (c) Biodegradable
(c) Kulhs (d) Ahars and Pynos (d) Degradable
4. Rajaji National Park is situated in 9. The greatest problem of water conservation is to
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka reduce the amount of
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Rajasthan (a) precipitation (b) run-off water
5. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the (c) ground H2O (d) evaporation
parliament in year 10. Which of the following is an in exhausitable resource?
(a) 1996 (b) 1992 (a) Fossil fuel (b) Solar energy
(c) 2002 (d) 2000 (c) Coal (d) Petroleum

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
 Chapter
12
Improvement in Food
Resources
As the population is growing, there is an increase in food
demand. Although several efforts have been done to
meet this demand by increasing food production. There
is an urgent need to increase our food production
without degrading our environment and disturbing
ecological balance.
Improvement in Crop Yield
There are mainly two types of crops which are grown,
e.g., Kharif crops and Rabi crops.
Kharif crops are grown in rainy season, e.g., paddy,
soyabean, pigeon pea, etc.
Rabi crops are grown in winter season, e.g., wheat,
gram, peas, mustard, linseed.
Crop yield could be improved by
Crop Production Management
l Crop variety improvement.
l Crop production improvement.
l Crop protection management.
Crop Variety Improvement
The basis of crop variety improvement programme is
breeding of superior quality variety.
l Breeding of superior quality could be done on the basis of
Nutrient Management
disease resistance, high yield, product quality, post
resistance, abiotic stress tolerance.
l Hybridisation is a common technique, which is used to
incorporate desired characteristics in crop.
Various traits for which variety improvement is done
are
l High Yield to increase the productivity.
l Improved Quality Quality of seeds, protein content,
type of fatty acids, preserving quality in fruits and
vegetables.
l Biotic and Abiotic Resistance Biotic stress includes
disease caused by various post and abiotic stress includes,
drought, salinity water logging, heat, cold and frost.
l Change in Maturity Duration Uniform maturity is
helpful in harvesting shorter duration of crop from
sowing to harvesting enables the farmers to grow
multiple rounds of crops in a year.
l Wider Adaptability Crop should have capability to
be grown under different climatic conditions.
l Desirable Agronomic Traits This includes
dwarfness in case of cereals. Tallness and profuse
branching is desirable characteristics for fodder crops.
l Yield of a crop depends upon the farming practices and
agricultural technologies employed during its cultivation.
l There is correlation in between higher inputs and yield.
Better financial condition of farmers boosts farmers
purchasing capacity for inputs and decides the type of
cropping system to be followed.
l In total 16 nutrient are required for the proper growth of
plant. Some of them are macronutrients which are
required in large quantities, e.g., N, P, K, C, O,
Ca, S and Mg. Some of them are micronutrients
which are required in small quantities, e.g., Zn, Fe, Cu,
Mn, Cl, Mo and B.
Improvement in Food Resouces 379
Manure
It is the decomposed organic matter which enriches the soil with nutrients and increases soil fertility. Increases the
water holding capacity of soil.
Manure

Vermicompost Green Manure

Compost consist of decomposed organic matter Before sowing some plants like sunnhemp
which include animal waste, vegetable waste, and guar are grown and later mulched by
sewage waste, etc. ploughing. These act as a green manure
and enriches the soil with N2 and O2.

When earthworms are used for decomposition of this waste process is known as vermicomposting

Fertilisers Cropping Pattern

These are the chemical compounds which provide
specific type of nutrient to the plant. These should be
applied in propordose, time and with precautions.
Continuous use of fertilisers destroys soil fertility since,
microorganisms in soil are harmed by fertilisers and
organic matter cannot be replenished.
It includes different way of growing crops
Mixed Cropping
Growing two or more crops together on same field, e.g.,
wheat, gram or ground nut and sunflower.

Organic Farming
Inter Cropping
Growing of two crops simultaneously in a definate
Farming system with maximum use of organic manures
pattern, e.g., few rows of one crop and few rows of
and minimal or no use of chemical fertilisers.
another crop, e.g., soyabean + maize and millet + cowpea.
Biopesticides and biofertilisers are used in this type of
cropping system.
Crop Rotation
Irrigation Growing of different crop alternatively on same piece of
Farming system in India is largely dependent on land. It helps in maintaining the fertility of soil.
monsoons. Sometimes crop failure occurs due to poor
monsoon. Hence, proper irrigation is needed to ensure Crop Protection Management
that the crop get water at right stage of plant
development. Field crops are damaged by large number of weeds and
pest.
Different type of irrigation system are
Weeds are the unwanted plants in cultivated field,
Well e.g., Parthenium (gajar ghas), Xanthium (gokhroo),
Cyperinus rotundrus (motha).
Pests Various insects attacks the plant, through root,
Dug well Tube well
stem and leaf. They suck cell sap or bore into stem and
Water is collected from H2O Tube well can trap energy fruits.
bearing a strata. from deeper strata by using pumps.
Pathogens Various pathogens like bacteria, fungi and
viruses attack crops. Fungicides, insecticides and
Canals It receive H 2O from main river. Canal is
herbicides are used to control this problem.
divided into many distributories to irrigate the field.
River Lift System Water is directly drawn from the
river.
Animal Husbandry
It is the scientific management of animal livestock,
Tanks Small storage reservoire which store the run
off rain water and later could be used for irrigation. which includes feeding, breeding and disease control. As
the population is increasing there is an increase in
Rain water harvesting and small check dams are also demand for milk, eggs and meat. Hence, livestock
used for irrigation. production need to be improved and managed.
380 Study Package for NTSE

Cattle Farming Egg and Broiler Production

It is done to get milk as drought labour for agricultural Broiler chickens are fed with vitamin-A and vitamin-K
work like tilling, irrigation, carting, etc. Indian cattle rich diet. Maintenance of temperature and hygienic
belongs to Bos indicus (cows) and Bos bubalis (buffaloes). conditions in housing and poultry feed.

Milch Fish Production

These are milk producing females.
Drought Animals
l Use to farm labour. Milk production depends upon
lactation period some foreign breed with increased
lactation period are Jersey, Brown swiss, while, local
breeds like red Sindhi, Sahiwal show resistance to
diseases.
l Proper cleaning and shelter facilities are required for
cows and buffaloes. Maintenance of proper hygiene is
required. Food requirement of dairy animals includes
roughage and concentrates.
Poultry Farming
It is undertaken to raise the domestic fowl after egg
production.
Fish production is done through marine and freshwater
ecosystem. Popular marine fish varieties are pomphret,
mackerel, tuna, sardines, Bombay duck, finned fishes
like mullet, bhetki, pearl spots, shell fish like prawns.
Oysters are also cultivated for the pearl they make.
Some freshwater fishes includes catlas, rohus, silver
carp, grass carp, mrigal and common carp.
Bee Keeping
Bee keeping is also known as apiculture. Local varieties
are used for commercially honey production like Apis
corana indica known as Indian bee. A. dorsata (rock
bee) and A. florae (little bee). An Italian bee variety A.
Mellifera has also brought an increase in commercial
honey production.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Crosses between the plants of same variety are called 8. BGA is chiefly used as biofertiliser in the crop of
(a) interspecific (b) intervarietal (a) wheat (b) gram
(c) intravarietal (d) inter generic (c) paddy (d) mustard
2. Plants having similar genotypes produced by plant 9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
breeding are called (a) Green manure added to the soil
(a) clone (b) haploid (b) Fertilisers causes soil and water pollution
(c) auto polyploid (d) genome (c) Biofertilisers improve soil fertility
(d) Berseem is an ideal biofertiliser
3. Dwarf wheat was developed by
10. A manure supply makes which nutrients available to
(a) MS Swaminathan (b) Vavilov
(c) Dr NE Borloug (d) BD Singh the plants
(a) nitrogen (b) phosphorus
4. Quickest Method for plant breeding is (c) potassium (d) All of these
(a) introduction (b) selection
11. Crop rotation is used by farmers to increase
(c) hybridization (d) mutation breeding
(a) soil fertility
5. Objective of plant breeding is (b) community area
(a) better yield (b) better quality (c) organic content of the soil
(c) disease/stress resistance (d) All of these (d) nitrogenous content in the soil
6. A man made allopolyploid cereal crop is 12. Bee keeping is known as
(a) Hordeum vulgare (b) Triticale (a) pearl culture (b) pisciculture
(c) Raphanus brassica (d) Zea mays (c) sericulture (d) apiculture
7. The name Norman Borlaug is associated with 13. Apis dorsata refers to
(a) green revolution (b) yellow revolution (a) rock bee (b) little bee
(c) white revolution (d) blue revolution (c) Indian bee (d) European bee
Improvement in Food Resouces 381
14. Which of the following is called marine fish 15. Pearl is get from
(a) Catla catla (b) Labio rohita (a) fish (b) whale
(c) Bombay duck (d) Wallago attu (c) oyster (d) Sepia

High Skill Questions

1. Uprooting of weeds is a method of controlling them by 5. Humus is
……… means. (a) partially decomposed organic matter
(a) biological (b) completely decomposed organic matter
(b) mechanical (c) partially decomposed inorganic matter
(c) cultural (d) completely decomposed organic matter of pond
(d) chemical 6. The scientist who are concerned with the
2. Integrated pest management discourages the improvement of plants is known as
excessive use of (a) plant breeders (b) pathologist
(a) biological methods (c) microbiologist (d) economist
(b) chemical pesticides 7. Disease resistance crop is obtained by
(c) mechanical methods (a) crossing with new varieties
(d) variable cultural control (b) crossing with wild varieties
3. Which of the following is not used as Biopesticide? (c) injecting with organic compounds
(d) None of the above
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Trichoderma harzianum 8. Heterosis is
(c) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV) (a) hybrid sterility (b) hybrid vigour
(d) Xanthomonas campestris (c) hybrid incompatibility (d) hybrid in viability
4. Cow dung is appropriatly used as 9. Pureline breeds refers to
(a) manure (a) Homozygosity and independent assortment
(b) fuel (b) Homozygosity only
(c) medicine (c) Heterozygosity
(d) building material (d) Heterozygosity and linkage

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a)
382
Chapter
1
Number System
A system in which we study to write and read of the
numbers, is called number system. In the Hindu Arabic
system we use the symbols 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9.
These symbols are called digits.
To write a number, we put digits from right to left the
places as the following table (e.g. the number 16 9 75 2
384 write).
Ten Crore’s Crore’s Ten Lakh’s Lakh’s Ten Thousand’s
1 6 9 7 5 an even number.
Thousand’s Hundred’s Ten’s Unit’s
2 3 8 4
It is read Sixteen crore ninty seven lakh fifty two
thousand three hundred eighty four.
Face and place values of the Digits in a
Number
In a numeral the face value of a digit is the value of the
digit itself and place value of digit changes according to
the change of its place. e.g., Face value and place value of
3 in the numeral 4 8 3 7 2 9, are 3 and 3000.
Types of Numbers
There are following some types of numbers
Natural Numbers
Numbers which are used for counting i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4, ...
are called natural numbers. Smallest natural number is
1 but we cannot find the largest natural number as
successor of every natural number is again a natural
number.
Whole Numbers
When zero is included in natural numbers, then it is called
a set of whole numbers i.e., 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ... . Zero is the
smallest whole number but there is no largest whole
number. Every natural number is also a whole number.
Study Package for NTSE
Part-IV : Mathematics
Even and Odd Numbers
Numbers which are divisible by 2 are called even and
which are not divisible by 2 are called odd numbers.
In general, even numbers can be represented by 2n
and odd numbers can be represented by 2n ± 1, where
n is an integer.
Note ● The sum and product of any number of even numbers is
● The difference of two even numbers is an even number.
● Prime number A number greater than 1 having
exactly two factors, 1 and itself is called a prime
number. e.g., 2, 3, 5, 7, ...
Note 2 is the only even prime number.
● Composite number A number which has factors
besides other than 1 and itself is called composite
number. e.g., 6, 8, 12, 15, ...
Note 1 is neither prime nor composite.
● Coprime or relative prime Two numbers are
called coprime or relative primes, if they have only one
common factor which is 1. e.g., (7, 9) is coprime but 15
and 21 is not coprime.
Integers
Whole numbers and negative natural numbers
constitute the set of integers.
i.e., Z = ..., - 4, - 3, - 2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3,...
Here, positive numbers are called positive integer and
negative numbers are called negative integers.
Rational and Irrational Numbers
Any number which can be expressed in the form of
p/q, where p and q are integers and q ¹ 0 is called a
rational number. e.g., 4 / 5, -1/ 2, 0 etc. Every natural
Number System
number, whole number and integer is also a rational
number. Any number which cannot be expressed in
p 5. e.g., 895, 700 etc.
the form of , is called irrational numbers.
q (v) Test for a number divisible by 6 If a number is
x+ y
● If x and y are any two rational numbers, then is a
2 e.g., 759312: Here, as the last digit or unit’s digit is
rational number between them.
● If x and y are any two distinct irrational numbers, then
xy is an irrational number between them.
Real Numbers
All these numbers which have been discussed above
are called real numbers i.e., when natural numbers,
whole numbers, integers, rational and irrational
numbers are collected together, they are called real
numbers.
Example 1 The product of any number and the 1st whole
number is
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) -1
Solution (a) 1st whole number = 0
Clearly, when any number is multiplied with 0 (the 1st whole
number), then the result is 0.
p
Example 2 Express 0.235 in the form, where p and q are
q
integers and q ¹ 0.
235 1 233 235
(a) (b) (c) (d)
990 99 990 999
Solution (c) In the numerator, take the difference between
the number formed by all the digits after decimal point
(repeated digits will be taken only once) and the number
formed by non-repeating digits. In the denominator, place as
many nines as there are repeating digits and after nine, put
as many zeroes as the number of non-repeating digits.
235 - 2 233
0.235 = =
990 990
Divisibility Test
(i) Test for a number divisible by 2 If the number is an
even number or has ‘0’ in its unit place.
e.g., The numbers like 17980, 314782, 2854, 316,
6148, as all are even numbers, so are divisible by 2.
(ii) Test for a number divisible by 3 If the sum of the
digits of the given number is divisible by 3.
e.g., 23457 : Here, 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 7 = 21 ¸ 3 = 7
Hence, 23457 is divisible by 3.
(iii) Test for a number divisible by 4 If the number
formed by the ten’s place and unit’s place digits is
divisible by 4 or last two digits are zero or divisible
by 4. e.g., 589372 . Here, 72 ÷ 4 = 18
So, it is divisible by 4.
383
(iv) Test for a number divisible by 5 If the digit at
unit’s place is 5 or 0, then the number is divisible by
divisible by 2 and 3, then it is also divisible by 6.
2. So, number is divisible by 2.
Also, the sum of digits 7 + 5 + 9 + 3 + 1 + 2 = 27 ¸ 3 = 9
is divisible by 3. Thus, the number is divisible by 6.
(vi) Test for a number divisible by 7 If double of
unit’s place digit of given number is subtracted from
rest of digits and if the remainder is divisible by 7,
then that number is divisible by 7.
e.g., 875 ® 87 - (2 ´ 5) = 87 - 10 = 77 ¸ 7 = 11
Hence, 875 is divisible by 7.
î This trick is applicable for number greater than 99.
(vii) Test for a number divisible by 8 If the last three
digits of a number are divisible by 8 or are 000, then
the number is divisible by 8.
e.g., 96432 ® 432 ¸ 8 = 54 is divisible by 8 and 16000
is divisible by 8.
(viii) Test for a number divisible by 9 If the sum of all
the digits of a number is completely divisible by 9,
then the number is divisible by 9.
e.g., 317349 ® 3 + 1 + 7 + 3 + 4 + 9 = 27 ¸ 9 = 3
So, 317349 is divisible by 9.
(ix) Test for a number divisible by 10 If zero exists at
the unit’s place, then the number is divisible by 10.
e.g., 130, 15680 etc.
(x) Test for a number divisible by 11 If the difference
between the sum of digits at even places and sum of
digits at odd places is 0 or 11, then the number is
divisible by 11.
e.g., 123432166
Sum of digits at odd places = 1 + 3 + 3 + 1 + 6 = 14
Sum of digits at even places = 2 + 4 + 2 + 6 = 14
Again, 14 - 14 = 0, so number is divisible by 11.
Division on Numbers
(Division Algorithm)
Let ‘a’ and ‘b’ be two integers such that b ¹ 0 on
dividing ‘ a’ by ‘b’.
Let ‘q’ be the quotient and ‘r’ the remainder, then the
relationship between a, b, q and r is a = bq + r.
In general, we have
Dividend = Divisor ´ Quotient + Remainder
384 Study Package for NTSE

Example 3 Find the dividend when divisor is 13, quotient is O — Of (Multiplication); D — Division
30 and remainder is 12. M — Multiplication; A — Addition
(a) 402 (b) 543 (c) 436 (d) 455 and S — Subtraction
Solution (a) Given, divisor = 13, quotient = 30,
remainder = 12 and dividend = ?
Formulae to Remember
We know that,
● + b)22 = a 22 -+ 22ab
(a - ab ++ bb22

Dividend = Divisor ´ Quotient + Remainder ● ( a + b + c )2 = a 2 + b2 + c 2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca

= 13 ´ 30 + 12 = 390 + 12 = 402 ● ( a + b)3 = a 3 + b3 + 3 ab ( a + b) = a 3 + 3 a 2b + 3 ab2 + b3
● ( a - b)3 = a 3 - b3 - 3 ab ( a - b) = a 3 - 3 a 2b + 3 ab2 - b3
To Find the Unit’s Place Digit of a Given ● a 2 - b2 = ( a + b) ( a - b)
Exponential ● a 3 + b3 = ( a + b) ( a 2 - ab + b2 )
● In case of 0, 1, 5, 6—the unit’s place digit is 0, 1, 5 and ● a 3 - b3 = ( a - b) ( a 2 + ab + b2 )
6, respectively. ● a 3 + b3 + c 3 - 3 abc
● In case of 4 and 9 = ( a + b + c ) ( a 2 + b2 + c 2 - ab - bc - ca )
(i) If power is odd, then unit’s place digit is 4 and 9, ● a 3 + b3 + c 3 = 3 abc, if a + b + c = 0
respectively.
Example 4 Find the value of (625 - 425 + 25) + 50 ¸ 10 ´ 3?
(ii) If power is even, then unit’s place digit is 6 and 1,
respectively. (a) 240 (b) 250 (c) 350 (d) 154
● In case of 2, 3, 7, 8-see the following examples Solution (a) ( 625 - 425 + 25) + 50 ¸ 10 ´ 3
e.g., = ( 200 + 25) + 50 ¸ 10 ´ 3 = 225 + 50 ¸ 10 ´ 3
= 225 + 5 ´ 3 = 225 + 15 = 240
To Find the Unit’s Place Digit of (134647) 553

Step I 553 ¸ 4 gives 1 as remainder, this remainder is Simple Fraction

taken as new power.
553 1 1 The fraction, which has denominator other than power
Step II (134647) º (134647) º 7 = 7
of 10, is called simple fraction.
So, the unit’s place digit is 7. 3 5 7
or e.g., , , , etc.
7 11 9
Step III If on dividing the remainder obtained is zero,
● Simple fraction is also known as vulgar fraction.
take 4 as new power instead of zero.
e.g., (134647)552 º (134647)0 º ( 7)0 º ( 7)4 = 2401 Types of Simple Fractions
So, the unit’s place digit is 1. There are following types of fractions
Note ● an - bn is always divisible by ( a - b), if a, b and n are natural
1. Proper Fraction When the numerator of a fraction
numbers and divisible by ( a + b), if n = Even numbers.
● an + bn is divisible by ( a + b), if n = Odd numbers. is less than its denominator, then fraction is called
● The total number of factors of a number proper fraction.
N = a p ´ b q ´ c r , where a , b , c are different prime 1 15 21
e.g., , , , etc.
numbers, is ( p + 1) (q + 1) ( r + 1.
) 2 17 43
2. Improper Fraction When the numerator of a
To Find the Number of Prime factors of the fraction is greater than its denominator, then
Expression fraction is called improper fraction.
The number of the prime factors the expression 17 18 45
a p b q c r d s = p + q + r + s, where a, b, c and d are prime e.g., , , , etc.
13 14 19
numbers.
3. Like and Unlike Fractions The fractions whose
denominators are same, is called like fractions,
Simplification whereas fractions whose denominators are different,
The word ‘simplification’ refers to a procedure useful is called unlike fractions.
for converting long fractions or expressions in one 2 3 6
e.g., , , etc., are like fractions
fraction or numbers. 11 11 11
For solving questions on simplification, we should use the 2 8 6
‘VBODMAS’ rule. The letters of word means
and , , etc., are unlike fractions.
3 7 4
V — Vinculum, i.e., bar; B — Brackets;
Number System 385
4. Equivalent Fractions The fractions whose values (ii) Non-terminating and non-repeated
are same, is called equivalent fractions. decimals The number which neither terminates nor
2 4 6 repeats in process of division. e.g., 1.030030003........
e.g., = = .
3 6 9 3 etc. These numbers are also called irrational
numbers.
5. Compound Fraction A fraction, in which
numerator or denominator or both are in fraction,
is called compound fraction. Indices
1 11 / 9 1 / 4 Any number, multiplied by itself m times is written as
e.g., , , , etc.
7 / 9 13 7 / 13 a m , where a is called base and m is called power or
index or exponent.
6. Inverse Fraction If we inverse the numerator
and the denominator of a fraction, then the
● Any non-zero real number when raised to the power zero
is equal to 1.
resultant fraction will be the inverse fraction of the
original fraction. ● When m is a positive integer, a m = a ´ a ´ a ´ a ´ K m
3 8 times.
e.g., If fraction = , then its inverse fraction = .
8 3 Laws of Exponents
7. Mixed Fraction The fraction, which is the
combination of integer and fraction, is called mixed S.No. Laws Examples
m+ n
fraction. 1. m
a ´a =a n
2 ´ 23 = 22 +
2 3
= 25
2 1 2. m
a ¸a = a n m- n 6
2 ¸2 = 2 2 6-2
= 24
e.g., 3 , 7 , etc.
5 9 3. a- m = 1/ am 2 -4 = 1/ 2 4
q
8. Continuous Fraction It has no certain 4. a p /q
= a p 3
24/ 3 = 24
definition but only say that a fraction contains 5. (am ) n = amn (2 3 )2 = 2 6
additional fractions in its denominators, is called
6. (a b )m = am × b m (2 ´ 3)6 = 2 6 ´ 36
continuous fraction. m m 6 6
7. æ aö a æ2 ö = 2
1 1 ç ÷ = ç ÷
e.g., (i) 2 + (ii) 6 + èbø bm è 3ø 36
2 1
2+ 1+ 8. a0 = 1
2 1 1
5+ + 9. a means a1
3 2 2
l
To simplify a continuous fraction, start from bottom and work
upwards. Surds
9. Decimal Fraction It the fraction has nth root of a i.e., n a is called a surd, if a is a rational
denominator in the powers of 10, then fraction is number, n is a positive integer and n a is irrational.
6
called decimal fraction. e.g., = 06
..
10 e.g., 2, 3, 5 etc., p, 9 are not surds as p is not
There are two types of decimal fraction. rational and value of 9 is not irrational.
Terminating Decimals Laws of Surds
The rational number which terminates after a finite
S.No. Laws Examples
number of step in process of division is called a
terminating decimals. 1. (n P )n = (P1/ n )n = P (3 4 )3 = (41/ 3 )3 = 4
e.g., 1.25, 3.14 etc. 2. n PQ = n
P ´nQ 3
2´3 = 32 ´3 3
n
3. P P 6 36
Non-Terminating Decimals n = 3 =
Q nQ 7 37
● The number which doesn’t terminate in the process of
4. (n P )m = (P1/ n )m = P m / n (3 5 )4 = (51/ 3 )4 = 54 / 3
division is called non-terminating decimals.
It has two types 5. mn
P = mn
P 3 4
12 = 3´4
12
(i) Non-terminating repeated decimals The
number which doesn’t terminate but repeats the Types of Surds
same numbers in process of divisions. ● Order of a surd Order of a surd n a is n.
e.g., 1/ 3 = 0.3333....... = 0. 3 e.g., Order of 4 7 is 4.
386 Study Package for NTSE

● Pure surds A surd which has 1 (unity), the only ● Comparison of surds Suppose the given surds a P ,
rational factor. It may have other factors but only bq, c r . First we take LCM of power of surds a, b, c.
irrational.
Then, we can change of all surds in same order and
4 3
e.g., 2, 9 and 15 comparing them. e.g., In 3 2, 4 5 is the greatest.
● Mixed surds A surd which has rational factors other LCM of 3 and 4 is 12. So 12 24 = 12 16, 12 53 = 12 125. so 4 5
than 1.
is the greatest.
e.g., 2 7, 5 3 7 etc.
9 1
● Like surds Two or more surds having same Example 5 If 27 x = , then find the value of ?.
irrational factor is called like surds.
3 x
x4
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 12
e.g., 2 5 3 and 7 5 3
Solution (b) 27 = 9x Þ(3 3 ) x ´ 3 x = 3 2
x

Operations of Surds 3
● Addition and subtraction of like Þ 3 3x + x = 3 2 [
surds Addition and subtraction is defined only for Q am ´ an = am + n ]
like surds. They can be added or subtracted by taking 1
By comparing, 4 x = 2 Þ x=
the irrational factor common. 2
e.g., 53 17 + 19 3 17 = 3 17(5 + 19) = 24 3
17 Now,
1
=
1
=
1
= 16
x4 4 1
5 17 - 17 17
3 3 æ1ö
ç ÷ 16
è 2ø
= 3 17 (5 - 17)
= -12 3 17
HCF and LCM of Numbers
● Multiplication and division of surds
● Factor If y is divisible by x leaving remainder zero,
Multiplication and division is defined only for the surds
n then x is a factor of y.
of same order as n a ´ n b = n ab and a = n a .
n
b b ● Prime factorisation When factorisation of a number
expressed completely involving only prime factors.
● Rationalising factor If product of two surds is a
rational number, then they are rationalising factors of ● Highest common factor The greatest number which
each other. divides two or more numbers is called their HCF or
e.g., 3 16 ´ 3 4 = 4. So, RF of 3 16 is 3 4 GCD (Greatest Common Divisors).
and RF of 3 4 is 3 16. e.g., HCF of 2 and 4 is 2.
● Rationalisation of surds Process of converting ● Least common multiple The least number which is
surd into rational number is called it’s rationalisation. It divisible by two or more given numbers is called their
is carried out by multiplying surd with an appropriate LCM.
rationalising factor. e.g., LCM of 3 is 6 is 6.
(i) The conjugate surd of a + b is ± ( a - b ).
Some formulae related to HCF and LCM
1 ( a - b)
(ii) To rationalise , multiply it by or (i) (LCM ´ HCF) of two numbers = Product of two
a + b ( a - b)
numbers
( b - a)
. LCM of numerators
( b - a) (ii) LCM of fractions =
HCF of denominators
(iii) a a a ... ¥ = a HCF of numerators
(iii) HCF of fractions =
1-
1 LCM of denominators
(iv) a a a a ... n times = a 2n
Example 6 Two numbers have an HCF of 18 and a product
of 3240. Find their LCM.
(v) If a + a + a + ... ¥ = p, then p ( p - 1) = a.
(a) 150 (b) 160 (c) 180 (d) 164
(vi) The rationalising factor of a + b is a - b. Solution (c) According to the question,
(vii) The rationalising factor of a - b is a + b. Product of numbers = HCF ´ LCM Þ 3240 = 18 ´ LCM
(viii) The rationalising factor of a + b is a - b. 3240
\ LCM = = 180
18
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. The rational form of - 71.625 is 10. The 6th power of an even number will always end with
71 573 (a) 4 or 2 (b) 2 or 6
(a) - (b)
625 8 (c) 6 or 0 (d) 0, 4 or 6
71
(c) (d) None of these 11. If 32 x is divisible by 9, the value of x is
625
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 8
2. The sum of the face value and place value of 7 in
12. The unit’s digit of 3 82 is
343742.
(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 1 (d) 7
(a) 693 (b) 700
(c) 770 (d) 707 13. The total number of factors of 40 is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
3. 0.6 + 0.8 + 0. 92 + 0.3 is equal to
31 31 32 32 14. 1015 + 1215 is divisible by
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 11 11 12 (a) 15 (b) 22
4. The number of prime factors in the expression (c) 27 (d) None of these
618 ´ 711 ´ 913 is 15. According to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic,
(a) 70 (b) 42 each number can be expressed as product of
(c) 73 (d) None of these
(a) prime numbers (b) composite numbers
5. Maximum number of students, in which 175 bananas (c) even numbers (d) odd numbers
and 105 oranges can be equally divided, is 16. If the sum of two numbers is 15 and their HCF is 5, the
(a) 35 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 105 numbers can be
6. Which of the following is the greatest? (a) 5, 10 (b) 10, 15
(c) 5, 15 (d) None of these
(a) 8+ 22 (b) 1+ 29
(c) 12 + 18 (d) 10 + 20 17. The expression 14 n - 6n is always divisible by
(a) 8 (b) 20 (c) 14 (d) 6
7. The value of 42 + 42 + 42 + ... ¥ is
18. If HCF of ( p, q) = 1, then p and q are
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9 (a) even (b) coprime
1 1 (c) odd (d) composite
8. If = 02437
. , then the value of is
4.103 00004103
. 19. If LCM ( p, q) = p ´ q, then their HCF is
(a) 2437 (b) 24370 (a) p q (b) p + q
(c) 2.437 (d) 243700 (c) 1 (d) None of these
9. The last digit of the number (1076) 976 is 20. If 3214 a4 is divisible by 4, then the number of possible
(a) 4 (b) 5 values of a is
(c) 6 (d) 7
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

High Skill Questions

1. The unit’s digit of (65) 73 ´ (19)45 is 4. The LCM of two numbers is 45 and their HCF is 5, how
(a) 9 (b) 5 (c) 0 (d) 1 many such pairs of numbers are possible?
2n 2n (a) 1 (b) 2
2. The expression 6 -4 is divisible by (c) 3 (d) None of these
(a) 20 (b) 17
(c) 8 (d) None of these 5. The unit’s digit of 12 222 + 23 333 + 34444 is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
3. The total number of factors of 120 is
3 3 3
(a) 8 (b) 10 6. 15 - 8 - 7 is divisible by which of the following?
(c) 12 (d) 16 (a) 32 (b) 49 (c) 56 (d) 25
388 Study Package for NTSE

7. The least number which should be multiplied with 12. A number having odd number of factors is
525, so that it becomes a perfect square, is (a) odd number (b) even number
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 21 (c) perfect square (d) None of these
1 13. The total number of factors of 12 4 ´ 20 5 is
8. If x + = 2, then what is x equal to?
1 (a) 30 (b) 420 (c) 570 (d) 430
1+
1
2+ 2 4 5
3 14. The HCF of , , is
7 13 11 17 3 9 6
(a) (b) (c) (d) 5 4 1 1
10 10 10 10 (a) (b) (c) (d)
9 27 18 9
9. The area of smallest square which can be formed with
rectangles of dimension 6 cm ´ 4 cm , is
15. The value of 0.2 72 + 0.1363 is
2 2 2 2 3 41 9 1
(a) 16 cm (b) 24 cm (c) 36 cm (d) 144 cm (a) (b) (c) (d)
22 100 22 2
10. The remainder when 13 6 - 3 6 is divided by 2170, is 16. ( x b+ c ) b- c ( x c + a ) c - a ( x a + b) a - b is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 1 2 + b2 + c 2
(c) 16 (d) None of these (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) x (d) xa
. ) 3 - (225
(275 . )3
11. The number of zeroes at the end of 1530 ´ 1012 is 17. The values of 2
(a) 30 (b) 12 . ) + 275
(275 . ´ 225 . )2
. + (225
(c) 42 (d) 6 (a) 0.3 (b) 0.5 (c) 3 (d) 5

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
71625 -573 ( 10 + 20 )2 = ( 10 )2 + ( 20 )2 + 2 ´ 10 ´ 20
1. (d) -71625
. =- =
1000 8
= 10 + 20 + 2 200 = 30 + 2 200
2. (d) Required sum = 700 + 7 = 707 Thus, 12 + 18 is greatest.
6 2 8 92 1
3. (b) 0.6 = = , 0.8 = , 0.92 = , 0.3 = 7. (a) Let 42 + 42 + ... ¥ = x
9 3 9 99 3
2 8 92 1 31 i.e., 42 + x = x
\ 0. 6 + 0. 8 + 0. 92 + 0. 3 = + + + =
3 9 99 3 11 Þ 42 + x = x2 [Q by squaring both sides]
4. (c) 6 ´ 7 ´ 9 Þ 2 ´ 3´7 ´ 3´ 3 Þ x2 - x - 42 = 0 Þ ( x - 7 ) ( x + 6) = 0
Þ 2, 3 and 7 are three prime numbers.
\ x=7
\ 618 ´ 711 ´ 913 = (2 ´ 3)18 ´ 711 ´ (32 )13
= 0.2437 ´ 10000 éQ = 0.2437 ù
1 10000 1
8. (a) =
= 218 ´ 318 ´ 711 ´ 326 0.0004103 4.103 êë 4103
. úû
= 218 ´ 344 ´ 711 = 2437
\ Prime factors = 18 + 44 + 11 = 73
9. (c) Last digit of (1076)976 = 6
5. (a) HCF of (175, 105)
5 175, 105 Because, here 6 at the unit place.
7 35, 21 10. (d) Even6 = Even4 + 2 ® 2 6 = 2 4 + 2 = 2 4 ´ 2 2
5, 3
= 5 ´ 7 (taken only common factor for HCF) = 35 Þ 22 = 4
Number of students = 35
46 Þ 4 and 66 ends with 6 and 86 ends with 82 = 4 and 106 ends
6. (c) ( 8 + 22 )2 = ( 8 )2 + ( 22 )2 + 2 ´ 8 ´ 22
with 102 = 0
= 8 + 22 + 2 176 = 30 + 2 176 Thus, 0 or 4 or 6.
( 1+ 29 )2 = ( 1)2 + ( 29 )2 + 2 ´ 1 ´ 29
11. (b) A number is divisible by 9, if the digit’s sum is divisible by
= 1 + 29 + 2 29 = 30 + 2 29 9 Þ 3 + 2 + x = 5 + x be divisible by 9. So, x = 4.
( 12 + 18 )2 = ( 12 )2 + ( 18 )2 + 2 ´ 12 ´ 18 12. (b) 382 = 380 + 2 , so the unit’s digit of 34 K + 2
= 380 + 2
form is
= 12 + 18 + 2 216 = 30 + 2 216 same as for 3 = 9.2
Number System 389
13. (c) 40 = 2 3 ´ 51 17. (a) an - b n is always divisible by (a - b), so 14n - 6n is divisible
So, total number of factors = (3 + 1) (1 + 1) = 8 by 14 - 6 = 8.
n n
14. (b) a + b is divisible by (a + b), if n is odd, so 10 15 15
+ 12 is 18. (b) If HCF ( p, q ) = 1
divisible by 10 + 12 = 22. Then, ( p, q ) both are coprime.

15. (a) We get factors of some numbers like 6, 8 and 14. 19. (c)Q First number ´ Second number
6 = 2 ´ 3, 8 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 2, 14 = 2 ´ 7 = Their LCM ´ Their HCF
Here, we say that each number can be expressed as product of Þ p ´ q = LCM ( p, q ) ´ HCF ( p, q )
prime numbers. p´q p´q
Þ HCF( p, q ) = =
16. (a) Let the numbers be bx and by, b = HCF LCM ( p, q ) p´q
So, numbers are 5x and 5y, where ( x, y) = Coprime Þ HCF( p, q ) = 1
5 x + 5 y = 5 ( x + y) = 15
20. (c) 3214 a4 is divisible by 4, if the last 2 digits are divisible by 4
Þ x + y = 3 Þ ( x, y) = (1, 2 )
i.e., a4, so a can be 0/2/4/6/8 i.e., 5 values.
So, numbers are 5 x, 5 y = 5 and 10

High Skill Questions

1. (b) Unit’s digit of (65)73 = 5 9. (d) LCM of (6, 4) = 12 = Smallest possible side of square
and 45
(19) = 9 (9 odd
= 9 and 5 any number
= 5) So, area of square = 12 2 = 144 cm 2
So, 5´9=5
10. (a) 136 - 36 = (133 )2 - (33 )2 = (2197 )2 - 27 2 is divisible by
2. (a) 62 n - 42 n = (62 )n - (42 )n = 36n - 16n is divisible by 2197 - 27 = 2170, so the remainder is zero.
a - b = 36 - 16 = 20, for all natural number values of n.
11. (b) 1530 ´ 1012 , number of zeroes in any product depends upon
3. (d) 120 = 2 3 ´ 31 ´ 51, the presence of number of 5’s and number of 2’s in it.
So, total number of factors 1530 ´ 1012 = 330 ´ 530 ´ 212 ´ 512 = 212 ´ 330 ´ 542
= (3 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) = 16 The product has12, 2’s and 42, 5’s, so the number of zeroes is 12.
4. (a) LCM = hxy, where h = HCF and ( x and y) coprime 5 xy = 45 (since, 5’s alone cannot give 10, same
number of 2’s are required)
Þ xy = 9 Þ xy = 1 ´ 9is the every coprime combination possible.
Thus, option (a) is correct. 12. (c) A perfect square number always has an odd number of factors.

5. (a) 12 222
+ 23 333
+ 34 444 13. (c) 12 4 ´ 205 = (2 2 ´ 31 )4 ´ (2 2 ´ 51 )5
= 2 8 ´ 34 ´ 210 ´ 55 = 218 ´ 34 ´ 55
= 12 4 ´ 55 + 2
+ 234 ´ 83 + 1 + 34even number
So, the total number of factors = (18 + 1) (4 + 1) (5 + 1) = 570
= 12 2 + 231 + 34even number 2 4 5 HCF of 2, 4, 5 1
14. (c) HCF of , , = =
=4+ 3+ 6=3 3 9 6 LCM of 3, 9, 6 18
6. (c) We know, a3 + b 3 + c 3 = 3abc 272 1363 - 13 272 1350 9
15. (c) 0.272 + 0.1363 = + = + =
If a+ b+c=0 999 9900 999 9900 22
Here, 15 - 8 - 7 = 0 16. (b) ( xb + c )b -c ( xc + a )c - a ( xa + b )a - b
3 3 3
So, 15 - 8 - 7 = 3 ´ 15 ´ 8 ´ 7 2 -c 2 2 - a2 2 - b2
= ( x)b ( x)c ( x)a
which is divisible by 56 = 8 ´ 7. 2 -c 2 + c 2 - a 2 + a 2 - b 2
2 1 1
= ( x)b = ( x)0 = 1
7. (d) 525 = 5 ´ 3 ´ 7 is a perfect square number should have
even powers as prime numbers. (2.75)3 - (2.25)3
17. (b)
(2.75) + 2.75 ´ 2.25 + (2.25)2
2
So, 3 ´ 7 = 21 is to be multiplied with 525 to make it a perfect
square. Let 2.75 = a, 2.25 = b
1 1 7 a3 - b 3
8. (b) Given, x + =2Þx+ =2 Þx+ =2 Then given expression =
1 3 10
1+ 1+ a2 + ab + b 2
1 7
2+ 2
(a - b )(a + ab + b ) 2
3 =
7 20 - 7 13 (a2 + ab + b 2 )
Þ x=2- Þ x= =
10 10 10 = (a - b ) = 2.75 - 2.25 = 0.5
 Chapter
2
Basic Operations on
Arithmetic
Ratio
Ratio of two quantities is the number of times one
quantity contains another quantity of same kind.
The ratio between x and y can be represented as x : y,
where x is called antecedent and y is called consequent.
x
i.e. or x : y
y
Types of Ratios
There are various types of ratios, which are as follow
1. Duplicate Ratio If two numbers are in ratio, then
the ratio of their squares is called duplicate ratio. If
x and y are two numbers, then the duplicate ratio of
x and y would be x2 : y2 .
e.g., Duplicate ratio of 3 : 4 = 32 : 42 = 9 : 16
2. Sub-duplicate Ratio If two numbers are in ratio,
then the ratio of their square roots is called
sub-duplicate ratio. If x and y are two numbers, then
the sub-duplicate ratio of x and y would be x : y.
e.g., Sub-duplicate ratio of 2 : 3 is 2 : 3 .
3. Triplicate Ratio If two numbers are in ratio, then
the ratio of their cubes is called triplicate ratio. If x
and y are two numbers, then the triplicate ratio of x
and y would be x 3 : y 3.
e.g., Triplicate ratio of 2 : 3 = 23 : 3 3 = 8 : 27
4. Sub-triplicate Ratio If two numbers are in ratio,
then the ratio of their cube roots is called
sub-triplicate ratio. If x and y are two numbers, then
the sub-triplicate ratio of x and y would be 3 x : 3 y .
e.g., Sub-triplicate ratio of 1 : 125 = 3 1 : 3 125 = 1 : 5
5. Inverse Ratio If two numbers are in ratio and their
antecedent and consequent are interchanged, then
the ratio obtained is called inverse ratio.
If x and y are two numbers and their ratio is x : y,
then its inverse ratio will be y : x.
e.g., Inverse ratio of 4 : 5 is 5 : 4.
6. Compound Ratio If two or more ratios are given
and the antecedent of one is multiplied with
antecedent of other and respective consequents are
also multiplied, then the ratio obtained is called
compound ratio. If a : b, c : d and e : f are three ratios,
then their compound ratio will be ace : bdf .
e.g., Compound ratio of 2 : 5, 6 : 7 and 9 : 13
2´6´9 108
= =
5 ´ 7 ´ 13 455
Proportion
An equality of two ratios is called the proportion. If
a c
= or a : b = c : d, then we can say that a, b, c and d
b d
are in proportion and can be written as a : b :: c : d,
where symbol ‘::’ represents proportion and it is read
as ‘ a is to b ¢ as ‘c is to d¢.
Here, a and d are called ‘extremes’ and b and c are
called as ‘means’.
Example 1 The ratio of A : B = 1 : 3, B : C = 2 : 5 and C : D =
2 : 3. Find the value of A : B : C : D.
(a) 4 : 12 : 30 : 45
(b) 12 : 4 : 30 : 55
(c) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
Basic Operations on Arithmetic 391
Solution (a) Given, A : B = 1 : 3, B : C = 2 : 5, C : D = 2 : 3 ● The number of men (M1 ) is multiplied by the number of
\ A : B : C : D = (1 ´ 2 ´ 2) : (3 ´ 2 ´ 2) : (3 ´ 5 ´ 2) : (3 ´ 5 ´ 3 ) days ( D1 ) that is taken to complete a given work. The
= 4 : 12 : 30 : 45 total number of man-days required to complete the work
remains same i.e., M1D1 = M 2D2.
Mixture ● If two persons can do a certain work in a and b days,
respectively, then they together can do the same work
The new product obtained by mixing two or more
ingredients in a certain ratio is called a mixture. in ab days.
a+b
or ● M1D1 = M 2D2 or M1D1H1 = M 2D2H2
Combination of two or more quantities is known as M1D1H1 M 2D2H2
mixture. or =
W1 W2
Mean Price
The cost price of a unit quantity of the mixture is where, M ® Number of Men, D ® Number of Days,
called the mean price. It will always be higher than H ® Number of Hours, W ® Work done by men
cost price of cheaper quantity and lower than cost ● If a pipe can fill/empty a tank in ‘m’ h, then the part of
price of dearer quantity. 1
tank filled/emptied in 1h = .
m
Rule of Mixture or Alligation ● Time taken to fill a tank is taken positive (+ve) and time
It is the rule that enables us to find the ratio in which taken to empty a tank is taken negative (-ve).
two or more ingredients at the given price must be ● If a pipe fills a tank in mh and another pipe fills in nh.
mixed to produce a mixture of a desired price. 1 1
n1 A 2 - A w Then, part filled by both pipes in 1h = + .
According to this rule, = m n
n2 A w - A 1
Example 2 A and B together can do a piece of work in 12
where, n 1 /n 2 is the ratio, in which two quantities days and A alone can do it in 18 days. In how many days can B
should be mixed, while A1 , A2 and A w are the cheaper alone do it?
price, dearer price and mean price, respectively. (a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 40 (d) 20
The above rule can be represented pictorially as shown Solution (b) ( A + B)'s 1 day work = 1
below 12
Dearer price 1
Cheaper price and A’s 1 days work =
A1 A2 18
Mean price \ B’s 1 day’s work = ( A + B)'s 1 day’s work -A’s 1 day’s work
Aw 1 1 3-2 1
= - = =
12 18 36 36
A2 – Aw Aw – A1
\ Time taken by B to complete the work alone = 36 days
[remember, A1 < A w < A2 ]
Amount of cheaper : Amount of dearer Speed, Time and Distance
A - Aw Time, distance and speed are always related to each
( n1 : n2 ) = 2
A w - A1 other for a body in motion.
Problems involving these quantities can be solved using
Time and Work the following formulae
For doing any work certain time is required. Hence, d 1 s t
● s= , when distance is constant, s µ , Þ 1 = 1
time and work are related to each other. t t s2 t2
The number of units of work (W) done in a unit of time where, s = Speed, d = Distance, t = Time
is the rate of work (R) per unit of time (T). d d
● When speed is constant, d µ t Þ 1 = 2
W t1 t2
Hence, W = RT, T =
R d1 d2
● When time is constant, d µ s Þ =
i.e., R and T are inversely related. s1 s2
A very useful approach to solve problems is the concept ● Speed in metres per second = Speed in kilometres
of man-days. 5
per hour ´
18
392 Study Package for NTSE

Total distance covered

● Average speed =
Total time taken
Percentage
● Relative speeds of two bodies moving with speeds of u1 Per cent means per hundred. To make a comparison
and u2 easier, the concept of percentage is used 16%
(i) in opposite directions = u1 + u2 (read as sixteen per cent which means 16 for every
(ii) in same direction = u1 - u2 16
100) is same as or 0.16 or 16 : 100.
(iii) upstream speed of a boat = u - w 100
(iv) downstream speed of a boat = u + w Any percentage value can be expressed as
(where, u = speed of boat, w = speed of stream) (i) An ordinary fraction (ii) A decimal fraction
● If equal distance (i.e., m : n is 1 : 1) are covered at speeds (iii) As a ratio
of u and v units, then
2 uv To convert a given fraction or decimal or ratio into a
Average speed = percentage, we multiply it by 100.
(u + v)
To convert a given percentage into a fraction, decimal
● If a train of length l, moving at a speed s, or ratio, we divide it by 100.
(i) passes a tree in time t, then l = s ´ t Actual increase
● Percentage increase = ´ 100
(ii) passes a bridge/platform/stationary train of Original quantity
length L in time t, then d = l + L = s ´ t Actual decrease
● Percentage decrease = ´ 100
● If a train of length l, moving with a speed v, crosses a Original quantity
car/moving with a speed u, (v > u ), in time t, then
● If percentage increase is p%, then new value
(i) if they are moving in same directions, then
l = (v - u ) t
p ö
(ii) if they are moving in opposite directions, then = æç + ÷ ´ Initial value
l = (v + u ) t è 100 ø
● If a train of length l1, moving with a speed v, crosses ● If the value of an item goes up/down by x%, the
another train of length l2 moving with speed u(v > u ) percentage reduction/increment to be now made to bring
time t, then
it back to the original level is 100x %.
(i) if they are moving in same directions, then (100 ± x )
( l1 + l2 ) = (v - u ) ´ t
100x
(ii) if they are moving in opposite directions, then ● If A is x% more/less than B, then B is %
(100 ± x )
( l1 + l2 ) = (v + u ) ´ t
less/more than A.
Example 3 A train of length 250 m, passes a platform of 350
m length in 50 s. What time will this train take to pass the
● If the price of an item goes up/down by x%, then the
platform of 230 m length? quantity consumed should be reduced/increased by
100x
(a) 40s (b) 30 s (c) 50s (d) 25 s %, so that the total expenditure remains the
(100 ± x )
Solution (a) Given, length of train = 250 m ; length of
platform = 350 m and time taken to cover the distance = 50 s same.
So, to cross the platform, the train has to cover a distance ● If p1, p2, p3, ... are successive percentages of change, then
= Length of train + Length of platform Final value = [(1 ± p 1%)(1 ± p2%)(1 ± p3%)... ]
= ( 250 + 350 ) m = 600 m ´ (Initial value)
Distance covered 600 If a certain quantity is first increased by x% and then
\ Speed of train = = ●

Time of train 50 increased by another y% , then the effective percentage

= 12 m/s increase in the quantity will be æç x + y + xy ö÷% .
Now, the time taken to cross the platform of length 230 m è 100 ø
Total distance covered
=
Speed of train Growth in Population
Length of train + Length of platform Problems of growth or decay in population can be
=
Speed of train solved by using the formula of compound interest.
r ön
=
250 + 230 480
= = 40 s A = P æç1 + ÷
12 12 è 100 ø
Basic Operations on Arithmetic 393
where, A = Increased value ● If the selling price of m articles is equal to cost price of n
P = Original value articles, where
m-n
r = Rate of growth (i) m > n, then profit percentage = ´ 100
m
n = Time in number of years n-m
(ii) m < n, then loss percentage = ´ 100
m
Description in Vehicle or Machine ● If d1, d2, d3, ... are percentages of successive discounts
r ön
A = P æç1 - ÷ offered on a marked price MP, then
è 100 ø
SP = MP (1 - d1 / 100)(1 - d2 / 100)(1 - d3 / 100)
where, A = Depriciated value ● If d1, d2, d3, ... are the percentages of successive
P = Original value discounts offered, then the effective discount is
r = Rate of depriciation d% = 100 [1 - (1 - d1/100)(1 - d2/100) (1 - d3/100)... ]
n = Number of years ● If x and y are two successive discount percentages, then
Example 4 If the price of a commodity is raised by 40%, by it is equivalent to a single discount percentage of
how much per cent must a householder reduce his consumption x + y - xy/100.
of that commodity, so as not to increase his expenditure? Example 5 Ravish lost 20% by selling a radio set for ` 3072.
4 2 What per cent will he gain by selling it for ` 4080?
(a) 28 % (b) 31 %
7 5 (a) 7.25% (b) 6.25%
3 (c) 5.45% (d) 7.15%
(c) 29 % (d) None of these
7 Solution (b) Given, SP = ` 3072 and loss = 20%
Solution (a) Here, x = 40% 100 ö ´ SP = 100 ´ 3072 = ` 3840
\ CP = æç ÷
According to the formula, è 100 - Loss% ø 80
40
Reduction in consumption = æç ´ 100 ö÷ % Now, CP = ` 3840 and SP = ` 4080
è 100 + 40 ø
\ Gain = SP – CP
40 200 4
= æç ´ 100 ö÷ % = % = 28 % = 4080 - 3840 = ` 240
è 140 ø 7 7
Gain
\ Gain% = ´ 100%
CP
Profit and Loss =
240
´ 100% = 6 .25%
In our daily life, we come across so many financial 3840
transactions. We purchase and sale of some items.
Shopkeepers and businessmen has different Simple Interest and
situations of profit and loss. This is very much Compound Interest
applied aspect of Mathematics in our daily life. Formulae to calculate interest (I) on principal (P) at
Following are some important formulae based on profit the rate of r% of per annum after n yr have been
and loss given below
Important Formulae Amount A= P+I
Pnr
● Profit = Sale Price - Cost Price (i) Simple interest, SI =
100
● Loss = Cost Price - Sale Price
(ii) Compound interest,
● Discount = Marked Price - Sale Price éæ r ö
n ù
CI = P ê ç1 + ÷ - 1ú
● Profit % =
Sale Price - Cost Price
´ 100 êë è 100 ø úû
Cost Price (iii) Compound Amount,n
Cost Price - Sale Price æ r ö
● Loss % = ´ 100 A = P ç1 + ÷
Cost Price è 100 ø
Marked Price - Sale Price
● Discount % = ´ 100 ● Difference between SI and CI
Marked Price
(compounded annually) for
● If two articles are sold at the same price (i.e., the selling
(i) one year is zero.
prices are equal) and the magnitude of percentage of
r ö2
profit x on one article is the same as the magnitude of (ii) two years is P æç ÷.
è 100 ø
percentage of loss x on the second article, then there is
an overall loss and the percentage of loss is x 2/100. r ö2 æ r
(iii) three years is P æç ÷ ç + 3 ö÷ .
è 100 ø è 100 ø
394 Study Package for NTSE

Equal annual instalment under Solution (d) Difference between CI and SI for 3 yr = ` 152
2
r ö æ r
(i) Simple interest, x =
2P(100 + nr) \ P æç ÷ ç + 3 ö÷ = 152
n [200 + ( n - 1)r] è 100 ø è 100 ø
2
20 ö æ 20
P æç + 3 ö÷ = 152
Pr
(ii) Compound interest, x = Þ ÷ ç
é è 100 ø è 100 ø
100 ö ù
n
100 ê1 - æç ÷ ú 1 16
êë è 100 + r ø úû Þ P æç ö÷ æç ö÷ = 152
è 25 ø è 5 ø
Example 6 The difference between CI and SI for 3 yr at the 152 ´ 25 ´ 5
Þ P=
rate of 20% per annum is ` 152. What is the principal lent? 16
(a) ` 1180 (b) ` 1080 Þ P = 9.5 ´ 25 ´ 5 = ` 1187.5
(c) ` 1190 (d) ` 1187.5

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
a2 + b2 8. A job has to be completed by 12 boys in 15 days. If
1. If a : b = c : d, then the value of is
c2 + d2 three boys are absent from the first day, then by what
1 a+ b a-b ab percentage should the remaining boys increase their
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 c+d c -d cd rate of working to complete the job?
1 1 2 1
(a) 33 % (b) 22 % (c) 40 % (d) 30 %
2. What should be subtracted from each of the numbers 3 2 3 3
54, 71, 75 and 99, so that the remainder are in
continued proportion ? 9. Ravi and Prince contract for a work for ` 3000. Ravi
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 3 alone can do it in 12 days. Prince alone can do it in
24 days. With the help of Reena, they complete the
3. In three vessels of 10L capacity, mixture of milk and work in 4 days. The wages of Reena is
water is filled. The ratio of milk and water are 2 : 1, (a) ` 1400 (b) ` 1600
3 : 1, and 3 : 2 in the respective vessels. If all the three (c) ` 1500 (d) ` 1700
vesseles are emptied into a single large vessel, find
10. Ram can count 100 notes of ` 100 in 1 min. Counting
the ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture
machine can do it in 20 s. If they work together, they
(a) 121 : 41 (b) 117 : 22 (c) 121 : 59 (d) 127 : 41
will count 100 notes in
4. If y varies directly with x and the constant of (a) 12 s (b) 14 s (c) 13 s (d) 15 s
variation is 20, then value of y for x = 6 is
20 11. A train, 130 m long crosses a platform in 30 s with a
(a) 120 (b) 26 (c) (d) 72 speed of 45 km/h, length of platform is
6
(a) 270 m (b) 245 m
5. If 6 men working 8 h per day earn ` 1680 per week, (c) 280 m (d) 296 m
then amount earned by 9 men working 6 h per day
per week is 12. Moving at 140% more than his usual speed. Ravi
(a) ` 1890 (b) ` 1950 reaches his office 6 min early. Time taken with usual
(c) ` 1980 (d) ` 2000 speed is
(a) 21 min (b) 25 min
6. Two pipes can fill a tank in 3 h and 4 h separately and (c) 18 min (d) 15 min
a drain pipe can empty it in 6 h. If tank is empty and
all pipes are opened simultaneously, then number of 13. A and B start at the same time and move with a speed
12 9
hours to fill the whole tank is of km/h and km/h, respectively. B reaches 5 min
(a) 2 h 12 min (b) 2 h 48 min (c) 2 h 36 min (d) 2 h 24 min
5 4
before than A. Distance they have moved is
7. Sita and Gita can do a piece of work in 15 days and (a) 2 km (b) 3 km (c) 4 km (d) 5 km
30 days, separately. They both work for 3 days, then
14. Average speed of train without stops is 40 km/h and
Gita withdraws. Number of days in which Gita
with stops is 26 km/h. How many minutes per hour
completes the remaining work is
does the train stops?
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23
(a) 20 min (b) 21 min (c) 22 min (d) 23 min
Basic Operations on Arithmetic 395
15. Vinod covers a distance of 75 km in 40 min with a 24. Which of the following is 10% of the year?
x (a) 36 days (b) 37 days
speed of x km/h for 8 min, km/h for next 12 min,
2 (c) 36.5 days (d) 36.5 days
x
km/h for next 20 min, the value of x is
2 25. Rahim gets 73% marks and got 135 marks more than
(a) 180 km/h (b) 185 km/h Rita who got 58% marks. Then, which of the following
(c) 187.5 km/h (d) 172.5 km/h is total maximum marks?
(a) 900 (b) 1000
16. Dinesh can row at 18 km/h in still water. If speed of (c) 1100 (d) None of these
stream is 6 km/h, then how long will Dinesh take to
row upto a distance of 6 km and return to the starting 26. A man’s salary is increased by 10%. In order to have
point? his salary back to the original amount, it must be
(a) 40 min (b) 45 min reduced by x%, then value of x is
1 11
(c) 50 min (d) 52 min (a) 11 % (b) 1 %
9 9
17. Hasan rows 36 km with the stream in 6 h and 40 km 9 1
(c) 1 % (d) 9 %
against the stream in 8 h. Speed of boat in still water 11 11
is
27. A gets ` 5000. He spends 15% on study, 28% on house,
(a) 5 km/h (b) 6 km/h
10% as tax. His saving will be
(c) 5.5 km/h (d) 6.5 km/h
(a) ` 2500 (b) ` 2400 (c) ` 2350 (d) ` 2450
18. In a river C is the mid-point between A and B. Hari
28. The salaries of Rohan and Raj together amount to
can row from A to C and return in 8 h and from A to B
` 3500, if they spend 60% and 80% of their respective
in 4 h. How long would he take to row from B to A?
salary and ratio of their savings is 1 : 3, then their
(a) 10 h (b) 11 h
(c) 12 h (d) 13 h respective salaries should be
(a) ` 500, ` 3000 (b) ` 1500, ` 2000
19. A train leaves Delhi at 6 : 00 am and reaches (c) ` 2500, ` 100 (d) None of these
Haridwar 10 : 00 am. Another train leaves Haridwar
at 8 : 00 am and reaches Delhi at 11 : 30 am. At what 29. The salaries of A and B together amount to ` 26000, if
time the trains meet? they spend 75% and 60% of their respective salaries
(a) 8 : 50 am (b) 8 : 52 am
and their savings are equal, then their respective
(c) 8 : 56 am (d) 8 : 45 am
salaries should be
(a) ` 15000, ` 10000 (b) ` 18000, ` 8000
20. X , Y and Z move along a circular path of length (c) ` 20000, ` 6000 (d) ` 16000, ` 10000
1.2 km with speeds of 6 km/h, 8 km/h and 9 km/h,
30. A candidate gets 71% of votes and wins the election
respectively. X and Y move in the same direction but
by 756 votes. If there are two candidates, then the
Z move in opposite directions. If they all start at the
total number of votes is
same time and from same place, how many times will
(a) 1800 (b) 1850 (c) 1860 (d) 1812
X and Z meet any where on the path by the time X
and Y for the first time anywhere on the path? 31. The present value of a vehicle is ` 7290. Its value
(a) 6 times (b) 7 times decreases every year by 10%, then its value before
(c) 8 times (d) 9 times 3 yr should be
21. In a survey, 34% of population was found to know (a) ` 10000 (b) ` 12000
Hindi, 46% to know English and 23% to know both (c) ` 13000 (d) None of these
languages. The percentage of those knowing neither 32. A student fails by 50 marks when he gets 30% marks.
English nor Hindi, is
Another student pass by 30 marks when he gets
(a) 42% (b) 43%
230 marks. Then, which of the following is the
(c) 44% (d) 45%
passing marks?
22. If 40% of a number exceeds the 25% of it by 54. The (a) 500 (b) 600
number is (c) 550 (d) None of these
(a) 350 (b) 240
(c) 360 (d) 260
33. How many shares can be purchased for ` 113625,
if the market value is ` 112.5 and brokerage paid
23. What per cent of an hour is 2 min? is 1%?
(a) 3.2% (b) 3.3% (a) 1200 (b) 1000
(c) 3.6% (d) None of these (c) 1100 (d) 800
396 Study Package for NTSE

34. A person sold two chairs for ` 990 each. On one he 40. The difference between the simple and compound
gained 10% while on other he lost 10%, which of the interest on a certain sum for 3 yr at 10% per annum is
following is correct? ` 46.5. Then, which of the following is the sum?
(a) He gained 1% (b) He lost 1% (a) ` 1500 (b) ` 1600
(c) Neither profit nor loss (d) None of these (c) ` 1700 (d) ` 1800

35. A person purchases 15 L of milk at ` 18.6 per L and 41. The compound interest on a sum of ` 6000 at 16% per
dilute it with 3 L of water. In order to earn the profit of annum for 9 months when interest is compounded
30%, he should sold it at the rate of quarterly, is
(a) ` 20.05 (b) ` 20.10 (a) ` 762.80 (b) ` 854.10
(c) ` 20.15 (d) None of these (c) ` 749.20 (d) ` 924.10
36. By selling a cooler for ` 630, a man gains 5%, at what 42. A sum of ` 8000, invested at compound interest,
price he must sell it to gain 20%? doubles in 5 yr. After 20 yr, it becomes
(a) ` 670 (b) ` 720 (a) ` 964000 (b) ` 128000
(c) ` 780 (d) None of these (c) ` 78000 (d) None of these

37. A person purchased 18 dozen eggs at the rate of ` 8 43. Ajay lent a certain sum of money to Bhanu at 12% per
per dozen. On checking, he found that 16 eggs were annum under simple interest for 3 yr. The interest
broken during transport. In order to earn a profit of received by Ajay is less than the sum by ` 5760. The
12.5%, he should sold each egg for how much whole sum is
amount? (a) ` 8000 (b) ` 10000
(a) 80 paise (b) 82 paise (c) ` 8500 (d) ` 9000
(c) 81 paise (d) None of these
1 44. A certain amount x was deposited for 4 yr and
38. The simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5 % 3 months at 3% simple interest and amounts to
4 2
per annum for 2 yr is ` 1100, Then which of the ` 5412. Then, x is equal to
23 (a) ` 4800 (b) ` 4900
following is the sum? (c) ` 5000 (d) ` 5100
(a) ` 9000 (b) ` 9100 (c) ` 9150 (d) ` 9200
45. Sanjay needs to earn a monthly interest of ` 80.
39. Raj borrowed ` 5000 at 10% per annum on simple The interest rate is 15% per annum but it is paid
interest and lent the same amount at 15% per annum every month. Which of the following is his
on compound interest. At the end of 2 yr, he would investment?
(a) gain ` 612 (b) gain ` 615 (a) ` 6000 (b) ` 6200
(c) gain ` 612.5 (d) loss ` 612.5 (c) ` 6400 (d) ` 6600

High Skill Questions

1. Ajay says to Bharat, ‘‘I am 4 times as old as you were 4. When the distance between a policeman and a thief is
when I was as old as you are’’. The difference of their 150 m, the policeman starts chasing the thief. The
present ages is 15 yr, then the age of Bharat at policeman runs at a speed of 18 m/s and speed of thief
present, is is 12 m/s. Policeman catches the thief in
(a) 30 yr (b) 25 yr (c) 35 yr (d) 40 yr (a) 20 s (b) 25 s
(c) 30 s (d) Cannot catch him
2. A train running at a speed of 54 km/h takes 12 s to
pass a certain point. Then, the length of the train is 5. A bus travels from A to B at a speed of 65 km/h in one
(a) 160 m (b) 170 m (c) 180 m (d) 190 m hour. If the speed is reduced by 15 km/h, then the
extra time taken to cover the same distance is
3. An employee goes to his office from his home at a (a) 18 min (b) 12 min
speed of 33 km/h. If he takes 2 h 10 min for the entire (c) 16 min (d) None of these
journey. Then, the distance between the house and
office is 6. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel
(a) 71.5 km lines in the same direction at the rate of 46 km/h and
(b) 70.4 km 36 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in
(c) 211 km 36 s, the length of each train is
(d) 89.6 km (a) 50 m (b) 80 m
(c) 72 m (d) None of these
Basic Operations on Arithmetic 397
7. Certain distance is covered at a certain speed. If half 17. A man incurred a loss by selling a pen for ` 80. Had he
their distance is covered in doubled the time. The sold it for ` 180, his gain would have been four times
ratio of the two speeds is the earlier loss. The cost price of the pen will be
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1: 4 (a) ` 100 (b) ` 110
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 (c) ` 120 (d) None of these

8. If 4 men reap 40 acres in 30 days. How many acres 18. A shopkeeper mixes two varieties of rice in the ratio
will 18 men reap in 12 days? 3 : 4 and sells the mixture at ` 18 per kg. If the cost of
(a) 70 (b) 72
two varieties respectively is ` 16 and ` 13 per kg, then
(c) 60 (d) 68
his profit is
(a) 22% (b) 24%
9. A and B can do a work in 72 days. B and C in 120 days, (c) 25% (d) 26%
A and C in 90 days. In how many days can A alone do
19. 4/11 of a commodity was sold at a loss of 20% and the
the work? rest at a profit of 20%. The net gain is ` 120. The cost
(a) 80 (b) 100 (c) 110 (d) 120 of the commodity is
(a) ` 220 (b) ` 2220
10. Two cars A and B starts at the same time from two
(c) ` 2020 (d) ` 2200
points P and Q, respectively. A starts from P to Q
while B starts from Q to P. They arrive their 20. Ram sold his bag to Amir at a gain of 8% and Amir
1 1 sold it to Raj at a gain of 10%. If Raj paid ` 297 for it,
destination in 3 h and 7 h, respectively. At what the price paid by Ram is
5 5
speed does car A travels, if car B travels with a speed (a) ` 250 (b) ` 260 (c) ` 270 (d) ` 280

of 36 km/h? 21. Sohan sell a plot of land valued at ` 500000 to Mohan

at a loss of 10%. After some time, Mohan sells it back
(a) 24 km/h (b) 54 km/h
to Sohan at a gain of 10%. Then, Sohan had a
(c) 81 km/h (d) 72 km/h
(a) loss of ` 43000 (b) loss of ` 45000
5 (c) gain of ` 5000 (d) None of these
11. Walking of his usual speed, Ram reaches his school
7
6 min late. His usual time to reach school is 22. Raj bought a cycle for ` 1500 and spent ` 100 for
transport and sold it to Jai at gain of 10%. Jai spent
(a) 25 min (b) 30 min
(c) 15 min (d) 20 min
` 180 on it and sold it to Rama at 15% gain. The cost of
cycle for Rama will be
12. A boy walks 1/3 of a journey at 6 km/h, 1/4 of a journey (a) ` 2200 (b) ` 2210
at 2 km/h and the rest at 4 km/h. The average speed of (c) ` 2221 (d) ` 2231
a boy for the total journey is
23. The cost price of 25 articles is equal to the selling
(a) 3.5 km/h (b) 3 km/h
price of 20 articles. Find the gain%.
(c) 2.5 km/h (d) 2 km/h
(a) 20% (b) 25%
13. A boy goes to school with the speed of 3 km/h and (c) 30% (d) 40%
returns with a speed of 2 km/h. If he takes 5 h in all
24. A trader mixes 220 kg of tea purchased at ` 110 per kg
the distance between the village and the school is
with 80 kg of tea purchased at ` 90 per kg. At what
(a) 6 km (b) 7 km
price per kg should he sell the mixture to make a profit
(c) 8 km (d) 9 km
of 18%?
14. If the weight of a 13 m long iron rod be 23.4 kg. The (a) ` 123 (b) ` 124
weight of 6 m long of such rod will be (c) ` 123.51 (d) None of these
(a) 7.2 kg (b) 12.4 kg
(c) 10.8 kg (d) 18 kg 25. A man buys an old car for ` 55000 and sells it at a gain
of 3%. If his overhead expenses are 1%, he sold the car
15. The milk and water ratio in 16 L mixture is 5 : 3, then for
the amount of milk to be added to make this ratio 2 : 1 (a) ` 57216.50 (b) ` 56000
is (c) ` 56111 (d) None of these
(a) 5 L (b) 2 L
(c) 4 L (d) 8 L 26. Ram buys a scooter at 13/15 of its value and sells it for
10% more than its value. His gain percentage is
16. 17% of [18% of {19% of 1000000} ] is 13 13
(a) 29 % (b) 3 %
(a) 5812 (b) 6812 3 23
(c) 5816 (d) 5814 3
(c) 29 % (d) None of these
13
398 Study Package for NTSE

27. When 40% of a number is added to 75, then 34. 30.8% of 745 is same as which of the following?
multiplied by 4, we get 1200. Which one is the value of (a) 3.08% of 74.5
number? (b) 3.08% of 7.45
(a) 668.5 (b) 550 (c) 578 (d) 562.5 (c) 3.08% of 745
(d) 3.08% of 7450
28. Two candidates contested for a post 85 votes were
declared invalid. The winner secured 60% of votes 35. (78% of 1000) + (69% of 500) = (x% of 1000) + (78% of 500).
and win by 78 votes. Total number of votes is polled, Which of the following is the value of x ?
is (a) 69 (b) 73.5
(c) 6.9 (d) 7.35
(a) 562 (b) 482 (c) 475 (d) 745

29. If x is z% of y. Then, y will be how much per cent of x? 36. A merchant buys 200 kg of rice at ` 7.25 per kg,
400 kg of rice at ` 5.75 per kg. He mixes them and
1000 100
(a) % (b) % sells one-third of mixture at ` 6 per kg. At what rate
z z2 should he sell the remaining mixture, so that he may
1000 10000
(c) % (d) % earn a profit of 20% on the whole outlay?
z2 z
(a) ` 28.25 per kg
30. Mohan purchased oranges at the rate of 8 oranges for (b) ` 13.25 per kg
(c) ` 8.25 per kg
` 6 and sold the whole at the rate of 3 oranges for ` 5.
(d) None of the above
The net gain is ` 286. The number of purchased
oranges is 37. By selling an article for ` 450 a man loses 25%. At
(a) 302 (b) 320 (c) 312 (d) 316 what price he should sale in order to gain 25%?
(a) ` 750 (b) ` 700
31. Suresh purchases 20 L of milk at ` 5 per L and dilutes (c) ` 800 (d) ` 650
it with water to increase the volume to 24 L. In order
to earn a profit of 32%, he should sell the milk at the 38. If a shopkeeper sells a bat marked ` 150 at 15%
rate of discount and gives a ball costing 7.50 free with each
(a) ` 5.4 per L (b) ` 5.5 per L bat, then he makes a profit of 20%. His cost price per
(c) ` 5.6 per L (d) None of these bat will be
(a) ` 90 (b) ` 100
32. Deepak purchased a certain quantity of rice at the (c) ` 110 (d) ` 120
rate of ` 1200 per quintal. 20% of the rice was spoilt.
He mixes the impurities to make it again that much 39. A merchant purchase 11 toys for ` 10 and sold 10 toys
quantity. At what price should he sale the rice to gain for ` 11. His profit percentage is
10%? (a) 15% (b) 20%
(a) ` 13 per kg (b) ` 14 per kg (c) 21% (d) 25%
(c) ` 13.4 per kg (d) ` 13.2 per kg
40. A shopkeeper sold the article at a loss of 12%. If he
33. If the commission of 10% is given on marked price, had purchased it for 15% lesser price and sold it for
the gain is 60%. If the commission of 20% is given, the ` 49 more, he would have gained 20%. His original
gain would be cost price is
2 2 2 (a) ` 330 (b) ` 350
(a) 44 % (b) 42 % (c) 43 % (d) None of these
9 9 9 (c) ` 370 (d) None of these
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
a c b ´c 10. (d) When Ram and machine will work together counting of 100
1. (d) = or a =
b d d 60 ´ 20
notes will completed in = 15 s
c2 60 + 20
b ´ 2 + b2
2
a2 + b 2 d b 2 (c 2 + d 2 ) b 2
Hence, = = = 11. (b) Length of platform = l1
c2 + d 2 c2 + d 2 d 2 (c 2 + d 2 ) d 2
b 2
b ´ b a b ab and length of train = l2
Now, = = ´ = 5
d 2
d ´ d c d cd Þ l1 + l2 = Speed ´ Time = 45 ´ ´ 30 = 375
18
2. (d) Let number x be subtracted from each of the numbers, then \ l1 = 375 - 130 = 245 m
54 - x 75 - x 7
= . For x = 3, this relation is correct. 12. (a) New speed = 140% of usual speed = of usual speed
71 - x 99 - x 5
3. (c)\ Required Ratio = Quantity of milk : Quantity of water 1
Time µ
Speed
= æç
2 3 3 ö æ 1 1 2 ö
+ + ÷:ç + + ÷
è2 + 1 3 + 1 3 + 2 ø è2 + 1 3 + 1 3 + 2 ø 5
New time = of usual time
7
= æç + + ö÷ : æç + + ö÷ = 121 : 59
2 3 3 1 1 2
è 3 4 5ø è 3 4 5ø 5 2
Time saved = 1 - = of usual time
7 7
4. (a) According to the question, 6´7
= = 21min [Q 6min=usual time]
y= kx [Q k = constant] 2
= 20 ´ 6 = 120 13. (b) Time taken by the person walking slowly
5. (a) By formula, d é Distance ù
= h êQ Time = Speed ú
M1H1 M 2 H2 6´8 9´6 9/ 4 ë û
= Þ =
W1 W2 1680 W2 d
and that of the other = h
\ W2 = ` 1890 12 / 5
6. (d) If all pipes are opened, the part of tank filled in 1 h According to the question,
1 1 1
= + - =
5 d
-
d
=
5 éQ 1min = 1 hù
3 4 6 12 9 / 4 12 / 5 60 êë 60 úû
12 2 4d 5d 1
\ Required time = = 2 h = 2 h 24 min Þ - =
5 5 9 12 12
16d - 15d 1 d 1
7. (b) Let Gita finish the remaining job in x days. Þ = Þ =
36 12 36 12
Þ Sita’s 3 days work + Gita’s ( x + 3) days work = 1
3 x+ 3 6+ x+ 3 \ d = 3 km
Þ + = 1Þ = 1 Þ 9 + x = 30
15 30 30 14. (b) 40 km covered in 60 min without stoppage, 26 km covered in
\ x = 21 60 min with stoppage and difference 14 km cannot be covered
M1D1R1 M 2 D2 R 2 due to stops 40 km takes 60 min.
8. (a) By formula, = 14
W1 W2 So, 14 km takes = ´ 60 = 21min/h
40
4R1
Þ 12 ´ 15 ´ R1 = 9 ´ 15 ´ R 2 Þ R 2 =
3 15. (c) Total distance covered in 40 min
R - R1 8 12 x 20 x
Þ Percentage increase is = 2 ´ 100 = x+ × + × = 75 [Q distance = speed ´ time]
R1 60 60 2 60 2
8x x x 24 x 75 ´ 5
4R1 Þ + + = 75 Þ = 75 Þ x =
- R1 60 10 6 60 2
(R / 3) 1
= 3 ´ 100 = 1 ´ 100 = 33 %
R1 R1 3 \ x = 187.5
16. (b) Speed upstream = 18 - 6 = 12 km/h
9. (c) Ravi worked for 4 days.
4 Speed downstream = 18 + 6 = 24 km/h
He will get = ´ 3000 = ` 1000 Distance
12 Total time taken to row up 6 km and return =
Speed
Prince worked for 4 days.
4 6 6 3
He will get = ´ 3000 = ` 500 = + = h = 45 min
24 12 24 4
So, Reena will get = 3000 - 1000 - 500 = ` 1500
400 Study Package for NTSE

17. (d) Let speed of boat in still water be x km/h and speed of stream 25. (a) Let total marks be x.
is y km/h. Then , 73% of x - 58% of x = 135
36 é distance ù 73 x 58 x
=6 êQ time = speed ú Þ - = 135
x+ y ë û 100 100
Þ x+ y=6 …(i) \ x = 900
40
Þ =8
x- y 26. (d) Let original salary = x
10 x 11x
Þ x- y=5 …(ii) New salary = x + =
100 10
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
11x x
2 x = 13 Salary to be reduced = - x=
10 10
\ x = 6.5 km/h x
1
18. (c) Time taken from A to B = 4 h Percentage reduction in salary = 10 ´ 100 = 9 %
11x 11
1
Time taken from A to C = ´ 4=2h 10
2
Alternate Method
Time taken from C to A = Time taken from A to C and back x
\ Required percentage = ´ 100
– Time taken from A to C (100 + x)
= 8 - 2 = 6h 10 1000 1
= ´ 100 = =9 %
(100 + 10) 110 11
Time taken from B to A = 2 ´ Time taken from C to A
27. (c) Saving = 5500 - æç ´ 5000ö÷
15 28 10
= 2 ´ 6 = 12 h ´ 5000 + ´ 5000 +
è 100 100 100 ø
19. (c) Ratio of time of travel of two trains
= 5000 - 2650 = ` 2350
= 4:
7
= 8:7 éQ speed µ 1 ù
2 êë time úû 28. (a) Let the salaries be ` x and ` y.
Ratio of speed of two trains = 7 : 8 According to the question,
Ratio of distance of two before they meet is 7 : 8. x ´ (100 - 60)
100 1
Before the second train started the first travelled for 2 h. =
y ´ (100 - 80) 3
The two trains will meet after 100
7
´ 2 = 56 min after 8 : 00 am æ 40 ´ xö
15 ç ÷
è 100 ø 1 x 1
= Þ =
i.e., 8 : 56 am 20 3 y 6
´ y
20. (b) Time taken by A and B to meet Ist time anywhere on the path 100
1
Distance 1.2 1.2 Hence, Rohan’s salary = 3500 ´ = ` 500
= = = = 0.6h (1 + 6)
Relative speed 8 - 6 2
6
and Raj’s salary = 3500 ´ = ` 3000
Time taken by A and C to meet anywhere out the path (1 + 6)
Distance 1.2 1.2
= = = = 0.8 h 29. (d) Let salaries be ` x and ` y.
Relative speed 9 + 6 15
The number of times A and C meets anywhere on the path by the Then, x + y = 2600
1 \ 25% of x = 40% of y
time A and B meets each other for the first time = 36 ¸ 4.8 = 7
2 x 2y 8y
Þ = Þx=
i.e., 7 times. 4 5 5
8y
21. (b) Percentage of knowing neither Hindi nor English Þ + y = 26000
= 100% - (34% + 46% - 23%) = 43% 5
54 Þ 13 y = 26000 ´ 5
22. (c)\ Required number = 26000 ´ 5
(40 - 25)% \ y= = ` 10000
13
54
= ´ 100 = 360 and x = ` 16000
40 - 25
30. (a) Let total votes be x.
x 71x 29 x
23. (b) Let it is x%, then ´ 60 min = 2 min [Q 1 h = 60 min] 71% of x - 29% of x = 756 Þ - = 756
100 100 100
200
\ x= = 3. 3 % Þ 42 x = 75600
60
10 75600
24. (c) 10% of 365 = ´ 365 = 36.5 days \ x= = 1800
100 42
[Q 1 normal year = 365 days]
Basic Operations on Arithmetic 401
n 3
A = Pæç1 -
r ö æ 10 ö 40. (a) Let x be the sum of amount.
31. (a) ÷ Þ 7290 = P ç1 - ÷ P ´ n ´ r x ´ 3 ´ 10
è 100 ø è 100 ø Simple interest = =
729 100 100
Þ 7290 = P ´
1000 3x
=
\ P = ` 10000 10
3 3
CI = x æç1 +
10 ö æ 11ö - x
32. (a) Let total marks be x. ÷ - x Þx´ ç ÷
è 100 ø è 10 ø
30 ´ x
Then, + 50 = 230 - 30 According to the question,
100
CI–SI = 46.5
3x 150 ´ 10
Þ = 200 - 50 Þ x = é 11 3 ù 3x
10 3 Þ x ê æç ö÷ - 1ú - = 46.5
êë è 10 ø úû 10
\ x = 500
3x
Þ x [1. 331 - 1] - = 46. 5
33. (b) Let the shares are x. 10
1 x [0 . 331 - 0 . 3] = 46.5
Total price for shares, 112.5 x + ´ 112.5 x = 113625
100 46 . 5 46500
\ x= = = ` 1500
Þ112.5 xé1 +
1 ù 0 . 031 31
= 113625
êë 100 úû
41. (c) Here, P = ` 6000 and r = 16%,
113625
\ x= = 1000 é 12 ù
113 .625 éæ r ö
n ù æ 16 1ö 4
Now, CI = P ê ç1 + ÷ - 1ú = 6000 ç1 +ê ´ ÷ - 1ú
34. (b) In this type of transaction always loss accured. êë è 100 ø úû êè 100 4 ø ú
2 2
ë û
Loss % = æç
Common loss or gain ö æ 10 ö éæ 3 ù é 3 ù
\ ÷ % = ç ÷ = 1% 4 ö æ 26 ö
è 10 ø è 10 ø = 6000 ê ç1 + ÷ - 1ú = 6000 ê ç ÷ - 1ú
êë è 100 ø úû êë è 25 ø úû
35. (c) Total cost price = 15 ´ 18.6 = `279
= 6000 æç - 1ö÷ = 6000 ´
17576 1951
15 ´ 18.6 ´ 30 è 15625 ø 15625
Total selling price = 15 ´ 18.6 + = ` 362.7
100 11706000
= = 749.184
362.7 15625
Hence, new selling price = = `20.15
18
= ` 749.20
36. (b) Let cost of cooler be ` x.
42. (b) According to the question,
Then, CP + profit = SP 5
16000 = 8000 æç1 +
r ö
5x ÷
Þ x+ = 630 è 100 ø
100
\ x = ` 600
20 é æ Rate ö
Time ù
SP for gain of 20% = 600 + ´ 600 = ` 720 êQ Compound amount = Principle ç1+ ÷ ú
100 êë è 100 ø úû
5
37. (c) Total CP = 18 ´ 8 = ` 144
2 = æç1 +
r ö
Þ ÷ …(i)
Total SP = 144 + 144 ´
12.5
= ` 162 è 100 ø
100 4
20 é r ö ù
5
After 20 yr, A = 8000 æç1 +
r ö
Total saleable eggs = 18 ´ 12 - 16 = 200 ÷ = 8000 ê æç1 + ÷ ú
è 100 ø êë è 100 ø úû
162
SP of each egg = = 81paise
200 = 8000 ´ 2 4 = ` 128000 [from Eq. (i)]
38. (d) Let the sum be ` x. 43. (d) Let amount is ` x.
x ´ 11 ´ 50 éQ SI = P ´ n ´ r ù
Then, = 1100 Then,Amount – SI = 5760
2 ´ 23 ëê 100 ûú
x ´ 3 ´ 12 64 x
2 ´ 23 ´ 1100 Þ x- = 5760 Þ = 5760
Þ x= = ` 9200 100 100
11 ´ 50 576000
n 2
\ x= = ` 9000
64
39. (c) Earning = Pæç1 +
r ö æ 15 ö
÷ = 5000 ç1 + ÷
è 100 ø è 100 ø 44. (a) SI = Amount – Principal
P ´ n ´ r 5000 ´ 2 ´ 10 x ´ 51 ´ 3
Borrowing = = = ` 1000 = 5412 - x Þ x = ` 4800
100 100 100 ´ 12
5000 ´ 115 ´ 115 P´r´n x ´ 1 ´ 15
\ Gain = - (5000 + 1000) = ` 612.50 45. (c) SI = Þ 80 =
100 ´ 100 100 12 ´ 100
\ x = ` 6400
402 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. (b) Let their present ages are x (Ajay) and y (Bharat), respectively. 1
9. (d) Work done by ( A + B) in 1 day =
According to the question, 72
x = 4[ y - ( x - y)] 1
Work done by (B + C ) in 1 day =
120
Þ x = 8y - 4x
1
Þ 5x = 8y Work done by (C + A) in 1 day =
90
and x - y = 15 (given)
Work done by ( A + B + C ) in 1 day
8y
So, - y = 15 1 ö 1 æ 5 + 3 + 4ö 1
= æç
1 1 1
5 + + ÷= ç ÷=
Þ 3 y = 15 ´ 5 2 è 72 120 90 ø 2 è 360 ø 60
\ y = 25 yr 1 1 1
Work done by A in 1 day = - =
60 120 120
2. (c) Length of train = Distance covered in 12 s
So, A alone will do in 120 days.
= Speed ´ Time
54 ´ 1000 10. (c) P A → ←B Q
= ´ 12 = 180 m
3600
Speed of B = 36 km/h
3. (a) Distance = Speed ´ Time 1 36
1 13 429 Time taken = 7 = h
= 33 ´ 2 = 33 ´ = = 71.5 km 5 5
6 6 6
Distance = Speed ´ Time = æç 36 ´
36 ö 1296
÷= km
4. (b) Difference in speed = 18 - 12 = 6 m/s è 5ø 5
Distance 150 Distance between P and Q = 1296/ 5 km
\ Time taken = = = 25 s
Speed 6 1 16
Time taken by A = 3 = h
5 5
5. (a) Let time taken is x h.
1296 5
So, 65 ´ 1 = (65 - 15) ´ x [Q Distance = Speed ´ Time] Speed = Distance/ Time = ´ = 81km/h
5 16
65 13
\ x= = h 5 7
50 10 11. (c) Since, he walks at of usual speed, so he will take of usual
7 5
Extra time taken = æç - 1ö÷
13
time.
è 10 ø
Extra time = æç - 1ö÷ of usual time = 6 min
7
3 è5 ø
= h = 18 min
10 2
Þ ´ usual time = 6
6. (a) Speed of faster train relative to slower one (relative speed) 5
\ usual time = 15 min
= (46 - 36) km/h = æç10 ´ ö÷ m/s
5
è 18 ø 12. (a) Let the total distance = x km
25 Distance x / 3 x
= m/s Time taken for 1st part = = = h
9 Speed 6 18
Distance covered in 36 s = speed×time = æç ´ 36ö÷ = 100 m
25 x/ 4 x
è9 ø Time for 2nd part = = h
2 8
\ 2 (length of each train) = 100 m Distance 5x 5x
Time for 3rd part = = = h
or length of each train = 50 m Speed 12 ´ 4 48
7. (a) Let x km be covered in y h. Total distance x
Average speed = =
Total time x x 5x
Distance æ x ö + +
Then, 1st speed = = ç ÷ km/h 18 8 48
Time è yø 144 x 144
= = » 3.5 km/h
1 41x 41
x
x
2nd speed = 2 = km/h 13. (a) Let distance between home and school = y km
2 y 4y
Time taken from home to school = x h
x x 1
\ Required ratio = : = 1: = 4 : 1 Time taken from school to home = (5 - x) h
y 4y 4
For journey from home to School
M1 ´ D1 M 2 ´ D2
8. (b) By formula, = y = 3 ( x)
W1 W2
y = 3 x km …(i)
4 ´ 30 18 ´ 12
Þ = For journey from school to Home
40 W2
y = 2 ( 5 - x)
\ W2 = 72 acres y = (10 - 2 x) km …(ii)
Basic Operations on Arithmetic 403
21. (d) He sold at æç 500000 - 500000 ´
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 10 ö
÷ = ` 490000
x=2h è 100 ø
Distance between home to School 10
Bought at 450000 + 450000 ´ = `495000
Þ y = 3 (2 ) = 6 km 100

14. (c) Weight of 13 m long rod = 23.4 kg Loss = 500000 - 495000 = ` 5000
123.4 22. (d) CP of cycle for Raj = 1500 + 100 = ` 1600
Weight of 1 m long rod = kg
13
CP of cycle for Jai = æç1600 + ´ 1600ö÷ + 180 = ` 1940
10
23.4 è ø
Weight of 6 m long rod = ´ 6 = 10.8 kg 100
13
CP of cycle for Rama = æç1940 + ´ 1940ö÷ = ` 2231
15
5
15. (b) Milk = ´ 16 = 10 L è 100 ø
8
3 SP 25
and water = ´ 16 = 6 L 23. (b) 25 ´ CP = 20 ´ SP Þ =
8 CP 20
Þ Gain percentage = æç 1ö÷ ´ 100 = æç - 1ö÷ ´ 100 = 25%
Let x L of milk is added. SP 25
-
x + 10 2 è CP ø è 20 ø
So, =
6 1
24. (c) Total CP = 220 ´ (110) + (80) ´ 90 = ` 31400
Þ x + 10 = 12
\ x=2L CP ´ 18
SP = CP + = 31400 + 5652 = ` 37052
17 é 18 ì 19 100
ù
16. (d) í (1000000)üýú = 5814 37052
100 êë 100 î100 þû \ New rate = = ` 123.51
300
17. (a) Let cost of the pen = x 1
25. (a) Total cost price = 55000 + ´ 55000 = ` 55550
Case I Loss = CP–SP = x - 80 100
Case II Gain = SP–CP = 180 - x 3
Gain = ´ 55550 = ` 1666.50
180 - x = 4( x - 80) 100
Þ 180 + 320 = 5 x \ Selling price = CP+gain
\ x = ` 100 = 55550 + 1666.50 = ` 57216.50
18. (d) Let varieties are 3x kg and 4x kg, respectively. 26. (c) Let the value of scooter = ` x
\ Selling price = 18 (3 x + 4 x) = 126 x 13
CP of scooter = ` x
and cost price = 3 x ´ 16 + 4 x ´ 13 = 100 x 15
x ´ 10 11x
\ Profit = SP–CP = 126 x - 100 x = 26x SP of scooter = x + =`
100 10
Profit 11x 13 x
\ Profit percentage = ´ 100 Gain = SP - CP = -
CP 10 15
26 x 33 x - 26 x 7 x
= ´ 100 = 26% = -
100 x 30 30
7x
19. (d) Profit – Loss = Net gain Gain
Gain percentage = = 30 ´ 100
Let quantity be x. CP ´ 100 13 x
20 æ 7 x ö 20 æ 4 x ö = ` 120 15
ç ÷- ç ÷
100 è 10 ø 100 è 11 ø
=
7 x 15
´ ´ 100 = 29 %
3
30 13 x 13
\ x = ` 2200
20. (a) Let Ram paid ` x.
8 27. (a) Let number be x.
Then, CP for Amir = x + x
100 æ 40 x + 75ö 4 = 1200 Þ 2 x = 225
ç ÷
108 x 10 æ 108 x ö è 100 ø 5
After that, CP for Raj = + ç ÷
100 100 è 100 ø 225 ´ 5
x= = 668.5
2
According to the question,
108 x æ 1 ö 28. (c) Let the total votes are Q.
ç1 + ÷ = 297
100 è 10 ø Then, 60% of (Q - 85) - 40% of (Q - 85) = 78
297 ´ 100 ´ 10 6Q - 510 4Q - 340
\ x= = ` 250 Þ - = 78
108 ´ 11 10 10
\ Q = 475
404 Study Package for NTSE

x y 100 100 36. (c) CP of 200 kg of rice = (7.25 ´ 200) = ` 1450

29. (d) ´ 100 = z Þ = Þy= of x
y x z z
CP of 400 kg of rice = (575
. ´ 400) = ` 2300
10000
Þ y= % of x Total CP of 600 kg of mixture = (1450 + 2300) = ` 3750
z
Profit required on whole mixture = 20%
30. (c) Let x oranges were purchased. CP ´ (100 + Profit ) æ 120
\ SP must be = =ç ´ 3750ö÷ = ` 4500
6 100 è 100 ø
So, CP of x oranges = ´ x
8 1
Now, one-third of the mixture = ´ 600 = 200 kg
5 3
SP of x oranges = ´ x
3 SP of this 200 kg of mixture = (6 ´ 200) = 1200 kg
5 6x 5x 3 SP of remaining 400 kg = (4500 - 1200) = 3300 kg
Now, SP - CP =Gain x - = 286 Þ - x = 286
3 8 3 4
So, rate of selling the remaining mixture = æç
3300 ö
Þ 20 x - 9 x = 286 ´ 12 Þ 11x = 286 ´ 12 ÷
è 400 ø
\ x = 26 ´ 12 = 312
= ` 8 .25 per kg
31. (b) CP of milk = 5 ´ 20 = ` 100 S1 S2
37. (a) =
SP = CP + 32% of CP = 100 + 32 = ` 132 100 + x1 100 + x2
SP 132
SP = = = ` 5.5 per L 450 S2
20 + 4 24 Þ =
100 + (-25) 100 + 25
1200
32. (d) Price = = ` 12 per kg
100 \ S 2 = ` 750
As quantity remains same. 38. (b) Marked price = ` 150
10
So, profit = ´ 12 = ` 1.20 150 ´ 85
100 Selling price = = ` 127.5
100
SP = CP + Profit = (12 + 1.20)
= ` 13.20 per kg Ball price = ` 7.5
Net selling price = 127.5 - 7.5 = ` 120
33. (b) Let marked price = x
100
90 \ CP = ´ SP
Price after commission = x 100 + 20
100
100
Profit = 60% = ´ 120 = ` 100
100 9 9 120
CP = ´ x= x
100 + 60 10 16 39. (c) CP of 1 toy = `
10
When commission = 20% 11
80 4 11
SP = x= x SP of 1 toy = `
100 5 10
4 x 9 x 19 x Here, SP > CP
Profit = - =
5 16 80 11 10 121 - 100 21
Profit = SP - CP = - = =
Profit 10 11 110 110
Profit percentage = ´ 100
CP Profit
19 Profit percentage = ´ 100
x CP
19 x 16
= 80 ´ 100 = ´ ´ 100 21
9x 80 9x
110 21 11
16 = ´ 100 = ´ ´ 100 = 21%
10 110 10
2
= 42 % 11
9
12 22
30.8 40. (b) Let CP = ` x, SP = x - x= x
34. (d) ´ 745 = 0.308 ´ 745 100 25
100 15 x
3.08 If CP = x -
and option (d), ´ 7450 = 0.308 ´ 745 100
100 17 20 17 102 x
1000 500 1000 78 SP = x+ ´ x=
35. (b) 78 ´ + 69 ´ = x´ + ´ 500 20 100 20 1000
100 100 100 100 22 102 x
Þ 78 ´ 10 + 69 ´ 5 Now, x + 49 =
25 1000
= 10 x + 78 ´ 5
\ x = ` 350
\ x = 73.5
Algebra
Algebra
Polynomial
An expression of the form a 0 x + a1 x n n -1
+ a2 x
+...+ a n-1 x + a n , where a 0 , a1 , a2 ,..., a n are real
numbers and n is a non-negative integer, is called a
polynomial in the variable x.
Polynomials in the variable x are usually denoted by
f ( x), g( x) and h( x) etc.
Thus, f ( x) = a 0 x n + a1 x n - 1 + a2 x n-2 + ... + a n-1 x + a n
● If a 0 ¹ 0, then n is called the degree of the
polynomial f ( x ); it is written as deg f ( x ) = n.
● a 0x n , a1x n -1, a 2x n - 2, ..., a n -1x, a n are called the terms of
the polynomial f ( x ); a n is called the constant term.
● a 0, a1, a 2, ..., a n -1, a n are called the coefficients of the
polynomial f ( x ).
● If all the coefficients a 0, a1, a 2, ¼, a n -1, a n are zero,
then f ( x ) is called a zero polynomial. It is denoted by
the symbol 0. The degree of the zero polynomial is
never defined.
Degree of Polynomial
The degree of a polynomial is zero if and only if it is a
non-zero constant polynomial i.e., if f ( x) = c, c ¹ 0.
(i) A polynomial of degree one is called a linear
polynomial. It is of the form ax + b, where a and
b are real numbers and a ¹ 0.
(ii) A polynomial of degree two is called a quadratic
polynomial. It is of the form ax 2 + bx + c, where
a, b and c are real numbers and a ¹ 0.
(iii) A polynomial of degree three is called a cubic
polynomial. It is of the form ax 3 + bx 2 + cx + d,
where a, b, c and d are real numbers and a ¹ 0.
(iv) A polynomial of degree four is called a
biquadratic polynomial etc.
405
Chapter
3
Value of a Polynomial f( x ) at x = a
n -2 Let f ( x) = a 0 x n + a1 x n-1 + a2 x n-2 + ¼ + a n be a
polynomial in x and a be a real number, then the real
number a 0 a n + a1a n-1 + a2 a n-2 + ... + a n is called the
value of f ( x) at x = a.
Thus, if f ( x) is a polynomial in x and a is a real number,
then the value obtained by replacing x by a in f ( x) is
called the value of f ( x) at x = a. It is denoted by f (a ).
e.g., Let f ( x) = x2 - 2x - 3 be a quadratic polynomial in
x, then value of f (2) is
f (2) = 22 - 2 ´ 2 - 3 = - 3.
Algebraical Identities
The following identities are used in factorisation and
simplification of algebraical expression
(i) ( a + b)2 = a 2 + 2ab + b2
(ii) ( a - b)2 = a 2 - 2ab + b2
(iii) ( a + b + c )2 = a 2 + b2 + c 2 + 2ab
+ 2bc + 2ca
(iv) a 2 - b2 = ( a + b) ( a - b)
(v) ( a + b)3 = a 3 + b3 + 3 ab ( a + b)
(vi) ( a - b)3 = a 3 - b3 - 3 ab ( a - b)
(vii) a 3 + b3 = ( a + b)3 - 3 ab ( a + b)
(viii) a 3 - b3 = ( a - b)3 + 3 ab ( a - b)
(ix) a 3 + b3 = ( a + b)( a 2 - ab + b2 )
(x) a 3 - b3 = ( a - b)( a 2 + ab + b2 )
(xi) a 3 + b3 + c 3 - 3 abc
= ( a + b + c )( a 2 + b2 + c 2 - ab
- bc - ca)
3 3 3
(xii) If a + b + c = 0, then a + b + c = 3 abc
(xiii) ( x + a ) ( x + b)
= x 2 + ( a + b) x + ab
406 Study Package for NTSE

Zeroes of a Polynomial f( x ) Coefficientof x2 -b

a +b+g =- =
A real number a is a zero of the polynomial f ( x) if and Coefficientof x 3 a
only if f (a ) = 0. Coefficientof x c
ab + bg + ga = =
e.g., If f ( x) = 2 x + 3, then Coefficientof x 3
a
-3 Constant term - d
f æç - ö÷ = 2 ´ æç ö÷ + 3 = -3 + 3 = 0.
3 and product of zeroes, abg = - =
è 2ø è 2 ø Coefficientof x 3 a
3
Therefore - is a zero of f ( x).
2 Ratio of Polynomial
● Ratio is defined as the comparison of two or more
To Find the Zeroes of a Polynomial f( x ) similar or identical variables. A ratio, being a
Put f ( x) = 0 and solve it for x. The values of x will be comparison is an abstract quantity i.e., it is dimension
the zeroes of the polynomial f ( x). less and has no units. The ratio 1 : 6 means that for
every 1 units of the first element there are 6 units of
● Remainder theorem If f ( x ) be any polynomial of second element.
degree 1 or greater than 1 and p be any real number ● The elements of a ratio may or may not be the actual
and f ( x ) is divided by ( x - p), then remainder is f ( p). values of the quantities that are being compared. The
● Factor theorem If f ( x ) be any polynomial of degree actual values of the quantities can be assumed to be ‘k’
1 or greater than 1 and p be any real number such that times the elements of the ratio (here, k ¹ 0).
f ( p) is 0, then ( x - p) is a factor of f ( x ). ● The meaning conveyed by the fraction a/b is the same as
Note A quadratic polynomial can have atmost two zeroes.
● the meaning conveyed by the ratio denoted as a : b.
● A cubic polynomial can have atmost three zeroes. ● Ratios are compared in the same way as fractions.
● A polynomial of degree n( > 1) can have atmost n zeroes.
● a 2 : b2 and a 3: b3 are called the duplicate and the
2
Example 1 Find remainder, if f (x ) = x - 5 x + 6 is divided triplicate ratios of a : b, while a : b and 3 a : 3 b are
by x - 5. called the subduplicate and subtriplicate ratios of a : b.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 10 ● a : b is greater than unity, if a > b.
Solution (a) x - 5 = 0 Þ x = 5 ● a : b is less than unity, if a < b.
● a : b is equal to unity, if a = b.
So, remainder is f (5) = (5) 2 - 5 (5) + 6
● When a/b = c/d, then ( a + b)/ b = ( c + d )/d
= 25 - 25 + 6 = 6 (called componendo)
Example 2 If f (x ) = x 2 - 5 x + 6, then find whether (x - 2) ● When a/b = c/d, then ( a - b) / b = ( c - d ) / d
(called dividendo)
is a factor of f (x ) or not.
(a) yes (b) Not ● When a/b = c/d, then ( a + b) / ( a - b) = ( c + d ) /( c - d )
(called componendo and dividendo)
(c) Cannot be determined (d) None of these
Solution (a) f( 2) = ( 2) 2 - 5 ( 2) + 6 = 4 - 10 + 6 = 0 Proportion of Polynomial
As remainder is zero, so ( x - 2) is a factor of f( x). A proportion is formed when two ratios are equal.
If a : b = c : d, then it is said that a, b, c, d are in
Relation between Zeroes and
proportion.
Coefficients of Polynomial
● Continued proportion If three quantities x, y and z
For quadratic polynomial Let a and b be the zeroes are such that x : y = y : z, then x, y, z are said to be in
of the two degree polynomial continued proportion, y is called mean proportional of x
p( x) = ax2 + bx + c, a ¹ 0. and z and z is called the third proportional of x and y.
Coefficient of x b
Here, sum of zeroes, a + b = - 2
=- ● Rational expression If f ( x ) and g( x ) are two
Coefficient of x a
Constant term c polynomials and g( x ) ¹ 0, then quotient f ( x ) is called a
and product of zeroes, ab = = g( x )
Coefficient of x2 a
rational expression. Every polynomial is a rational
For cubic polynomial Let a , b and g be the zeroes of expression but every rational expression is not a
the three degree polynomial polynomial. f ( x ) is said to be in lowest form, if f ( x ) and
p( x) = ax 3 + bx2 + cx + d, a ¹ 0 g( x )
Here, sum of zeroes, g( x ) have no common factor.
Algebra 407
● Addition of rational expression ● Multiplication of rational expression
f (x) f (x) f (x) p(x)
Addition of and is defined as When and are multiplied, we get it as
g( x ) r( x ) g( x ) r (x)
f ( x ) p ( x ) f ( x )r ( x ) + p ( x ) g ( x ) f ( x) p( x)
+ = ´
g( x ) r ( x ) g(x) ´ r (x)
g( x) r ( x)
f ( x) ´ p( x)
● Subtraction of rational expression =
f (x) p(x) g ( x) ´ r ( x)
When we subtract from , we get it as
g( x ) r (x) f (x)
● Division of rational expression When is
g( x )
p( x) f ( x) p( x) g ( x) - f ( x) r ( x) p(x) f (x) p(x) f (x) r (x)
- = divided by , we get it as ¸ = ´
r ( x) g ( x) r ( x) g ( x) r (x) g( x ) r( x ) g( x ) p ( x )

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
f (2) + f ( -2) 8. If a x = b 3, b y = c3, c z = a 3, then the value of xyz will be
1. If f ( x) = x4 + 3 x 3 + 2x2 - x + 1, then is
4 (a) 9 (b) 0
equal to (c) 27 (d) None of these
25 26 27 28
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
2 2 2 2 9. If 2 x + y = 4 and 2 x - 2 y = , then the value of x will be
8
2. If x + 2 y = 8, 2x + 3 z = 16 and 4 y + 5 z = 32, then the (a) 3 (b) 1
value of x, y and z will be (c) 1/3 (d) 0
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) -1, 2, 3
æ 1 1 ö
(c) 2, 3, 4 (d) -2, - 3, - 4 10. ç 2 2
- 2 ÷ is equal to
èx + y x - y2 ø
3. If a = - 1, b = - 2 and g = 3, then value of
2 x2 2 x2 2 y2 - 2 y2
a 3 + b 3 + g 3 - 3abg is (a) - 4 4
(b) 4 4
(c) 4 4
(d)
x - y x - y x - y x 4 - y4
(a) -1 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 2 1 1
11. If 7 x - 2
= 21 - 2 , then x will be
x -4 x -4
4. If x = 2, then the value of x + x + x + x +K is
(a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 1 or 2 (b) 2 (c) 1 or 4 (d) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these
1 1 3 4 3
5. If x + y = p and xy = q, then the value of + will 12. If + = , then z will be
x3 y3 2 x 3 y 5z
be x+ y 27 xy 18 xy 9 xy
(a) (b) (c) (d)
p3 - 3 p3 - 3 p 3 xy 5 ( 9 y + 8 x) 5 ( 9 y + 8 x) 5 ( 8 y + 9 x)
(a) (b)
q2 q3
p3 - 3 pq 3
q - 3 pq 13. Eight years hence a man will be twice as he was 8 yr
(c) (d)
q 3
p2 ago, then his present age is
(a) 24 yr (b) 26 yr
1 1
6. If x + y = 5 and xy = 6, then the value of + 2 will be (c) 28 yr (d) 30 yr
x2 y
1 æ1ö
(a)
13
(b)
11
(c)
13
(d)
13 14. If f ( y) = y 3 - 2 y + 1, then value of f ç ÷ will be
24 30 32 36 3 è3 ø
27 1
(a) (b)
1 81 3
7. If x = 2, then value of x - is
1 10
x- (c) Both (a) and (b) (d)
1 81
x-
x
15. If 4 x +2 y = 2 4 x +10 y , then y is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 2
x -1 1
(c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined (a) (b) x (c) x (d) -3x
3 3 2
408 Study Package for NTSE

16. The zeroes of 2 y2 - 9 y + 4 are 22. Find the HCF and LCM of the polynomials
(a)
1
,2 (b) 2,
1
(c) 4,
1
(d) 2, 4 ( x2 - 5x + 6) and ( x2 - 7 x + 10).
4 2 2 (a) ( x - 2 ), ( x - 2 ) ( x - 3) ( x - 5)
17. The zeroes of x2 - 6x + 8 are (b) ( x - 2 ), ( x - 2 ) ( x - 3)
(c) ( x - 3), ( x - 2 ) ( x - 3) ( x - 5)
(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3 (c) 2, 4 (d) 3, 4
(d) None of the above
x+ y x- y 2 2 2
18. If 2 = 32 and 2 = 4 , then x + y is equal to
41 19 17 29 23. If the polynomial 2 x 3 - 9 x2 + 15 x + P, when divided
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2 by ( x - 2), leaves - P as remainder, then P is equal to
1 1 (a) - 16 (b) - 5 (c) 20 (d) 10
19. If y + = 12, then y 3 + 3 is equal to
y y 24. If ( x + a) is the HCF of x2 + p x + q and x2 + lx + m,
(a) 1680 (b) 1686 (c) 1692 (d) 1694 then the value of ‘a’ is given by
1 1 p- l q-m
20. If x + y = 12 and xy = 32, then + is equal to (a) (b)
x y q-m p- l
2 1 1 3 l+ p q+ m
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)
8 8 2 8 q+ m p+ l
x
21. If 2 ´ 0 .2 ´ x = 3 ´ 2 ´ 0 .2, then the value of is 25. If x2 - 3 x + 2 is a factor of x4 - px2 + q, then the
3
values of p and q respectively, will be
(a) 0.35 (b) 0.33
(a) - 5, 4 (b) - 5, - 4 (c) 5, 4 (d) 5, - 4
(c) 0.20 (d) None of these

High Skill Questions

1. If (7 x + 3 y) : (3 x + 8 y) = 9 : 17, then x : y will be 8. What should be added to x to make it equal to 1/ x ?
(a) 21 : 92 (b) 22 : 93 x2 -1 1- x 2 x x
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 22 : 95 (d) 23 : 93 x x x 2 -1 1- x 2
2 ax - 25by x+5 x-1
2. If a : b = 2 : 3, x : y = 3 : 4 , then is 9. If = , then value of x is
3 ay + 4 bx x-6 x+2
(a) 24 : 5 (b) 5 : 24 3 2 -2 -3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) -24 : 5 (d) None of these 7 7 7 7
3. A ratio is 7 : 9, if increment of 14 takes place in 10. A number is 27 times the square of its reciprocal. The
numerator, then the increment in denominator number is
should be (a) 2 (b) 2.5 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 16 (b) 18
11. The value of x satisfying the equation
(c) 20 (d) 22
x2 + a2 = ( x - b)2 is
27 m + 4 ´ 32 m - 3n ´ 55 m + 3n + 4 ´ 6 m +2 n - 3 a2 - b 2 b 2 - a2
4. The value of 2 m + 4 n+ 7 3m - n - 3 6 m -2 n-5
is (a) (b)
10 15 2 2b 2a
1 b 2 - a2
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) (c) (d) None of these
2 2b
5. What must be added to ( x 3 + 5x2 + 7 x - 9) to obtain a 12. The value of n for which the expression
polynomial exactly divided by ( x - 6)? x4 + 4 x 3 + nx2 + 4 x + 1 becomes perfect square is
(a) 423 (b) 425 (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 427 (d) 429 (c) 5 (d) 6
n2 - 8 2x 5
6. If 3 n = 81, then is equal to 13. If = , then x will be
n 36 6
(a) 8 (b) 7 23 25
(a) (b) 12 (c) (d) 24
(c) 10 (d) 11 2 2
2 -9x
7. If 32 x = (81) -1, then x is equal to 14. If 2 x + 3 y = 13 and xy = 6, then 8 x 3 + 27 y 3 should be
1 1 equal to which of the following?
(a) 4, (b) 2,
2 4 (a) 790 (b) 793
(c) 2, 1 (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) 783 (d) None to these
Algebra 409
15. The value of 8 x2 + 6 2 yzx - 4 y2 z2 is 17. If 2 a + b = 8 and 8 a - b = 2, then which of the following is
(a) ( x + 8 2 yz)( x - 2 2 yz) correct?
(b) (4 x + 2 yz)(2 x - 2 yz) 5 4 5 4
(a) a = ,b= (b) b = ,a=
4 3 4 3
(c) ( x + 2 yz)(8 x - 2 2 yz)
5 4 5 4
(d) None of these (c) a = ,b= (d) a = ,b=
3 5 3 3
16. The value of 8 + 2 15 is
(a) 3 + 2 18. If 49 x - 49 x -1 = 16464, then which of the following is
(b) 3 + 5 equivalent of (2x) x ?
(c) 2 + 5 (a) (5)5 / 2 (b) (7 )7/ 2
(d) None of the above (c) (3)3 / 2 (d) None of these

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) Given, f( x) = x4 + 3 x3 + 2 x2 - x + 1 5. (c) Use (a3 + b 3 ) = (a + b) (a2 + b 2 - ab)
\ f(2 ) = (2 )4 + 3(2 )3 + 2(2 )2 - 2 + 1 æ 1 1 ö æ 1 1ö æ 1 1 1ö
So, ç 3 + 3 ÷ = ç + ÷ ç 2 + 2 - ÷
èx y ø è x yø è x y xy ø
= 16 + 3 ´ 8 + 8 - 2 + 1 = 23 + 24 = 47
æ x + yö æ x 2 + y2 1 ö
and f(-2 ) = (-2 )4 + 3(-2 )3 + 2(-2 )2 - (-2 ) + 1 =ç ÷ çç - ÷÷
è xy ø è ( xy)
2
xy ø
= 16 - 24 + 8 + 2 + 1= 27 - 24 = 3
f(2 ) + f(-2 ) 47 + 3 æ x + yö æ x2 + y2 - xy ö x+ y
Now, = =ç ÷ çç ÷÷ = [( x + y)2 - 3 xy]
4 4 è xy ø è ( xy)2 ø ( xy)3
50 25 p
= = = ( p 2 - 3 q ) [Qput the values of( x + y) and ( xy)]
4 2 q3
2. (c) Given, x + 2 y = 8 …(i) p3 - 3 pq
=
2 x + 3 z = 16 …(ii) q3
and 4 y + 5 z = 32 …(iii) 1 1 y2 + x2 ( x + y) 2 - 2 xy
6. (d) 2
+ 2
= 2 2
=
Multiply by ‘2’ in Eq. (i) and subtracted from Eq. (iii), x y x y x 2y 2
5 z - 2 x = 16 …(iv) (5)2 - 2 ´ 6
= [Qput the values of( x + y) and ( xy)]
From Eqs. (ii) and (iv), we get (6)2
z=4 25 - 12 13
= =
From Eq. (ii), x = 2 36 36
From Eq. (i), y = 3 1 1
7. (a) Let x - = y Þ 2 - = y Þ 2 y - 1 = y2
1 y
3. (b) If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b 3 + c 3 - 3abc = 0 x- ¼
x
Here, a + b + g = - 1 - 2 + 3 = 0 Þ y2 - 2 y + 1 = 0 Þ y = 1
So, a3 + b 3 + g 3 - 3abg = 0
8. (c) a x = b 3 Þ (a x ) y = (b 3 ) y
4. (c) Let x+ x+ x+ x+¼ = y Þ a x y = b3 y
Þ a xyz = [(c 3 )3 ]z [Q b y = c 3 ]
Þ 2+ 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 +¼ = y [Q given x = 2] Þ a xyz = (c z )9 = a27 [Qc z = a3 ]
Þ 2+ y= y By comparing, xyz = 27
Þ 2 2
( y ) = ( y - 2 ) [Q by squaring both sides] 9. (c) 2 x + y = 2 2 , 2 x - 2 y = (2 )-3 [given]
2
Þ y = y + 4 - 4y On comparing given Eqs. we get
Þ y2 - 5 y + 4 = 0 Þ ( y - 4)( y - 1) = 0 \ x+ y=2 ...(i)
and x - 2y = - 3 ...(ii)
\ y = 4 or 1
On multiplying Eq. (i) by 2 and then adding them, we get
Hence, x + x+ x+ x+ ... = 1or 4 3x = 1
\ x = 1/ 3
410 Study Package for NTSE

1 1 x2 - y2-x2 - y2 -2 y 2 20. (d) Given, x + y = 12 and xy = 32

10. (d) 2 2
- 2 2
= 4 4
=
x + y x - y x - y x 4 - y4 1 1 x+ y
Hence, + =
1 1 x y xy
11. (a) 7x - = 21 - Þ 7 x = 21
x2 - 4 x2 - 4 12 3
= =
\ x=3 32 8
3 4 3 9y + 8x 3 18 xy 21. (d) On squaring both sides, we get
12. (c) + = Þ = Þ z=
2 x 3y 5z 6 xy 5z 5 ( 9 y + 8 x) 2 ´ 0 . 2 ´ x = 3 ´ 4 ´ 0.04
x 016 . 2
13. (a) Let age of man at present be x yr. Þ = = = 0.4
3 0.4 5
Then, according to the question,
22. (a) x 2 - 5 x + 6 = x2 - 3 x - 2 x + 6
x + 8 = 2 ( x - 8)
Þ x + 8 = 2 x - 16 = x( x - 3) - 2( x - 3) = ( x - 3) ( x - 2 )

Þ 2 x - x = 8 + 16 Þ x = 24 yr x - 7 x + 10 = x2 - 5 x - 2 x + 10
2

14. (d) Given, f ( y) = y3 - 2 y + 1 = x( x - 5) - 2( x - 5)

3 = ( x - 5) ( x - 2 )
f æç ö÷ = æç ö÷ - 2 ´ + 1 =
1 1 1 1 2 10
- + 1=
è 3ø è 3ø 3 27 3 27 \ HCF = ( x - 2 )
1 æ 1 ö 1 10 10 and LCM = ( x - 2 ) ( x - 3) ( x - 5)
\ fç ÷ = ´ =
3 è 3 ø 3 27 81 23. (b) Given, f( x) = 2 x3 - 9 x2 + 15 x + P
15. (b) 4 x + 2 y = 2 4 x + 10 y = 42 x + 5 y So, x - 2 = 0 or x = 2
Þ x + 2 y = 2 x + 5 y [Q on comparing both sides] Þ f(2 ) = 2(2 )3 - 9(2 )2 + 15 ´ 2 + P
Þ - x = 3y
-1 Þ - P = 16 - 36 + 30 + P
\ y= x
3 Þ - 2 P = 10
16. (c) 2 y2 - 9 y + 4 = 2 y2 - 8 y - y + 4 Þ P=-5
= 2 y( y - 4) - 1( y - 4) = (2 y - 1)( y - 4) 24. (b) f ( x) = x 2 + p x + q
1
Þ y = ,4 Þ f ( - a) = a 2 - p a + q = 0
2
g ( x) = x2 + lx + m
17. (c) x2 - 6 x + 8 = x2 - 4 x - 2 x + 8
Þ g (- a) = a2 - la + m = 0
= x( x - 4) - 2( x - 4) = ( x - 4)( x - 2 )
Þ x = 4, 2 Þ a2 - p a + q = a2 - la + m = 0

18. (a) 2 x + y = 2 5 Þ x + y = 5 ¼ (i) q-m

\ a=
p- l
2 x-y = 2 4 Þ x - y = 4 …(ii)
25. (c) x2 - 3 x + 2 = x2 - 2 x - x + 2
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
9 1 = x( x - 2 ) - 1( x - 2 ) = ( x - 2 ) ( x - 1)
x= , y=
2 2 f( x) = x4 - px2 + q
2 2
Hence, x2 + y2 = æç ö÷ + æç ö÷ =
9 1 81 1 41 Þ f(2 ) = (2 )4 - p(2 )2 + q
+ =
è2 ø è2 ø 4 4 2
3 = 16 - 4 p + q = 0
æ 1ö 3 1 æ 1ö
19. (c) çy + ÷ = y + 3 + 3 çy + ÷ Þ 4 p - q = 16 …(i)
è yø y è yø
and f(1) = 1 - p + q = 0
[Q(a + b )3 = a3 + b 3 + 3ab (a + b )]
Þ p-q =1 …(ii)
1 1
Þ (12 )3 = y3 + 3
+ 3 ´ 12 [Q given, y + = 12] On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
y y
1 p = 5 and q = 4
Þ y3 + 3
= (12 )3 - 3(12 ) = 1692
y
Algebra 411
High Skill Questions
7 x + 3y 9 x2 + a2 = x 2 + b 2 - 2 bx
1. (a) Given, = Þ119 x + 51y = 27 x + 72 y 11. (c)
3 x + 8 y 17
b 2 - a2
x 21 Þ 2 bx = b 2 - a2 Þ x =
Þ 92 x = 21y Þ = 2b
y 92
12. (d) Let f( x) = x4 + 4 x3 + nx2 + 4 x + 1
\ x : y = 21 : 92
2b 3 = ( x4 + 1) + 4 x ( x 2 + 1) + nx 2
2. (c) Put a = and x = y
3 4 é ù
= x 2 ê æç x 2 + 2 ö÷ + 4 æç x + ö÷ + nú
1 1
2b 3y ëè x ø è xø û
2´ ´ - 25by
2 ax - 25by 3 4 by - 25by
So, = = é 2 ù
= x2 ê æç x + ö÷ - 2 + 4 æç x + ö÷ + nú
3ay + 4bx 3 ´ 2 b ´ y + 4 ´ b ´ 3 y 2 by + 3by 1 1
3 4 êë è x ø è x ø úû
-24 é ù
= or - 24 : 5 2
= x2 ê æç x + ö÷ + 4 æç x + ö÷ + (n - 2 )ú
1 1
5
êë è x ø è x ø úû
3. (b) Let increment be y.
7 + 14 7 éì ü
2 ù
= x ê íæç x + ö÷ + 2 ý + (n - 6)ú.
1
Then, = Þ189 = 63 + 7 y
9+ y 9 êë îè xø þ úû
Þ 7 y = 126 Þ y = 18 Here, (n - 6) must be equal to zero, then f( x) becomes a perfect
2 7m + 4 ´ 32 m - 3 n ´ 55 m + 3 n + 4 ´ 6 m + 2 n - 3 square.
4. (d)
102 m + 4 n + 7 ´ 153 m - n - 3 ´ 2 6 m - 2 n - 5 i.e., n-6=0 Þ n=6
2 7m + 4 ´ 32 m - 3 n ´ 55 m + 3 n + 4 ´ (2 ´ 3)m + 2 n - 3 13. (c)
2 x 5 2 x 25
= Þ = Þ 2 x = 25 Þ x =
25
=
(5 ´ 2 )2 m + 4 n + 7 ´ (3 ´ 5)3 m - n - 3 ´ 2 6 m - 2 n - 5 36 6 36 36 2
2 8 m + 2 n + 1 ´ 33 m - n - 3 ´ 55 m + 3 n + 4 1 14. (b) (2 x + 3 y)3 = 8 x3 + 27 y3 + 18 xy (2 x + 3 y)
= =
2 8 m + 2 n + 2 ´ 33 m - n - 3 ´ 55 m + 3 n + 4 2 Þ (13)3 - 18 ´ 6 (13) = 8 x3 + 27 y3
5. (d) Put x = 6 in given polynomial [Q given, 2 x + 3 y = 13 and xy = 6 ]
f(6) = (6)3 + 5 ´ (6)2 + 7 ´ 6 - 9 = 216 + 180 + 42 - 9 = 429 Þ 2197 - 1404 = 8 x3 + 27 y3
6. (b) 3 n/ 2 = 34 Þ n = 8 [Q by comparing] Þ 8 x3 + 27 y3 = 793
n2 - 8 64 - 8 15. (c) 8 x2 + 6 2 xyz - 4 y2 z2
Þ = =7
n 8
2 -9 x = 8 x2 + 8 2 xyz - 2 2 xyz - 4 y2 z2
7. (a) 32 x = (81)-1
2 -9 x
= 8x ( x + 2 yz) - 2 2 yz ( x + 2 yz)
Þ 32 x = 3-4
= (x + 2 yz) (8 x - 2 2 yz)
Þ 2 x2 - 9 x = - 4 [Q by comparing]
16. (b) 8 + 2 15 = 5 + 3 + 2 15
2 2
Þ 2 x - 9x + 4 = 0 Þ 2 x - 8x - x + 4 = 0
= ( 5) 2 + ( 3) 2 + 2 5 3
Þ 2 x( x - 4) - 1( x - 4) = 0 Þ ( x - 4)((2 x - 1) = 0
1 = ( 5+ 3) 2 = 5+ 3
\ x = 4,
2 17. (d) 2 a + b = 2 3 Þ a + b = 3 ¼ (i)
1 1- x 2 1
8. (b) Required number = - x = and 8 a -b = 2 Þ 8 a -b = 83
x x
1
x+ 5 x-1 Þ a-b= ¼(ii)
9. (c) = Þ ( x + 5)( x + 2 ) = ( x - 1)( x - 6) 3
x-6 x+2
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Þ x2 + 7 x + 10 = x2 - 7 x + 6 5 4
a= ,b=
-4 -2 3 3
Þ 14 x = 6 - 10 Þ x = =
14 7 18. (a) 49 x - 49 x -1 = 16464 Þ (49) x-1 ´ 48 = 16464
10. (c) Let number be x. 5
Þ (49) x-1 = 343 Þ (7 )2 x- 2 = 7 3 Þ x =
1 2
Then, x = 27 × Þ x3 = (3)3 5/ 2
x2 \ (2 x) x = æç2 ´ ö÷
5
= (5)5/ 2
Þ x=3 [Q by comparing] è 2ø
412 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

4
Linear Equations
Linear Equation in One Variable
If c < 0, a, b > 0 the graph will look like.
A linear equation in which the number of variables is e.g., The graphical representation of 3 x + 4 y = 12 will be
one, is known as linear equation in one variable.
for x = 0 ⇒ y = 3 and for y = 0 ⇒ x = 4 i. e., ( 4, 0) i. e., (0, 3)
e.g., 3 x + 5 = 10, y + 3 = 5 etc.
Y
Example 1 Solve the following equation 2 x + 6 = 18. (0, 3)
B
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
(4, 0)
Solution (a) Given, O A
X
2x + 6 = 18
2x = 18 − 6 ⇒ 2x = 12 ⇒ x = 6

Linear Equation in Two Variables Methods of Solving Linear Equations in Two

Equation ax + by + c = 0 has two variables x and y has Variables
the power of the variables 1 is a linear equation Two linear equations involving two variables
involving two variables.
a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 …(i)
Graphical representation of linear equation involving
and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 …(ii)
two variables
ax + by + c = 0 (i) Elimination method We will eliminate all of
Put x =0 ⇒ y = − c/ b the variables x or y by making their coefficients
i. e., (0, − c / b) same and then subtracting or adding.
Put y =0 ⇒ x = − c/ a On multiplying Eq. (i) with a 2 and Eq. (ii) with a1 and
i.e., ( − c / a, 0) subtracting the equations, we get
Y a2 a1 x + a2 b1 y + c1 a2 = 0
B
(0, –c/b) a2 a1 x + a1 b2 y + c2 a1 = 0
− − −
(–c/a, 0)
X ( a2 b1 − a1 b2 ) y = ( c2 a1 − c1 a2 )
O A ax + by + c = 0 c a − c1 a2
i. e., y= 2 1
a2 b1 − a1 b2
On substituting this value in Eq. (i), we get
Depending upon the signs of a, b and c, we will plot the
points.
Linear Equations 413
 c a − c1 a2  (i) (ii) (iii)
a1 x + b1  2 1  + c1 = 0
 a2 b1 − a1 b2  x
=
y
=
1
b2 c1 − b1 c2 c2 a1 − a2 c1 a2 b1 − a1 b2
( a2 b1 − a1 b2 ) ⋅ a1 x + b1 c2 a1 − b1 c1 a2
b c − b1 c2
+ a2 b1 c1 − a1 b2 c1 Taking (i) and (iii), x = 2 1
⇒ =0 a2 b1 − a1 b2
( a2 b1 − a1 b2 )
c a − a2 c1
( b2 c1 − b1 c2 )  b c − b1 c2  and taking (ii) and (iii), y = 2 1
i. e., a1 x = a1 ⇒x =  2 1  a2 b1 − a1 b2
( a2 b1 − a1 b2 )  a2 b1 − a1 b2 
Example 2 Solve for x and y, y − 2 x = 10 and 3 x + 2 y = 6.
b2 c1 − b1 c2 c2 a1 − c1 a2
Thus, x = and y = (a) (– 2, 6) (b) (8, –2) (c) (– 6, 2) (d) (1, 2)
a2 b1 − a1 b2 a2 b1 − a1 b2
Solution (a) Let us solve the equations using all the
three methods
(ii) Substitution method
− 2x + y = 10 …(i)
a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 …(i)
and 3 x + 2y = 6 …(ii)
and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 …(ii) (i) Elimination method On multiplying the Eq. (i) with
We calculate the value of x in terms of y from Eq. (i), 2 and subtraction both the equations, we get
( c + b1 y) − 4 x + 2y = 20
we get x=− 1 …(A)
a1 3 x + 2y = 6
− − −
On substituting this value in Eq. (ii), we get − 7x = 14 ⇒ x= −2

 ( c + b1 y)  Now, substituting the value of x in Eq. (i), we get

a2 − 1  + b2 y + c2 = 0 − 2 ( − 2) + y = 10 ⇒ y = 10 − 4 = 6
 a1 
Thus, x = − 2 and y = 6
i. e., − a2 c1 − a2 b1 y + a1 b2 y + c2 a1 = 0
(ii) Substitution method From Eq. (i), we get
c a − a2 c1
i. e., y= 2 1 y = 10 + 2x …(iii)
a2 b1 − a1 b2
On substituting the value of y in Eq. (ii), we get
On substituting this value in formula (A), we get 3 x + 2 (10 + 2x) = 6
the value of x i.e., 3 x + 4 x = 6 − 20
  c a − a2 c1   i.e., 7 x = − 14 ⇒ i.e., x = − 2
− c1 + b1  2 1  Now, from Eq. (iii), we get
− ( c1 + b1 y)   a2 b1 − a1 b2  
x= = y = 10 + 2x = 10 + 2 ( − 2) = 10 − 4 = 6
a1 a1 Thus, x = − 2 and y = 6
 a b c − a1 b2 c1 + b1 c2 a1 − a2 c1 b1 
=− 1 1 1 
(iii) Cross-multiplication method
 a2 b1 − a1 b2 
x
=
y
=
1
b2 c1 − b1 c2 c2a 1 − a 2 c1 a 2 b1 − a 1 b2
a1
On comparing by Eqs. (i) and (ii),
− a2 b1 c1 + a1 b2 c1 − b1 c2 a1 + a2 c1 b1
= −2x + y = 10 3 x + 2y = 6
a1 ( a2 b1 − a1 b2 ) a 1 b 1 c1
and
a b c
2 2 2
a ( b c − b1 c2 ) b c − b1 c2
= 1 2 1 ∴x= 2 1 x
=
y
=
1
a1 ( a2 b1 − a1 b2 ) a2 b1 − a1 b2 2 × 10 − 1 × 6 − 2 × 6 − 3 × 10 − 2 × 2 − 1 × 3
x y 1
(iii) Cross-multiplication method i.e., = =
a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 14 − 42 − 7
14 − 42
⇒ x= = − 2 and y = =6
−7 −7
a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 Thus, x = − 2 and y = 6
a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 Hence, we can follow any all of the three methods to solve
the equations.
î Elimination method is quicker to solve as compared with the other
a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 two methods.
414 Study Package for NTSE

Conditions of Solvability of Equations Example 3 A two-digit number has units digit and tens
digit sum 9 and the reverse of number subtracted from the
Thelinear equations a 1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 number, the result obtained is 63. Find the number.
and a 2x + b2 y + c2 = 0 (a) 18 (b) 81 (c) 20 (d) 15
Solution (b) Let 10a + b be the number.
will have
a1 b1 Now, given a+ b=9 …(i)
c1
● infinite number of solutions, if = = and, then and (10 a + b) − (10 b + a ) = 63 ⇒ 9 (a − b) = 63
a2 b2 c2
⇒ a− b=7 ... (ii)
pair of linear equation is dependent and consistent. On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
a 1 b1 c1 a = 8 and b = 1
● no solution, if = ≠ and then pair of linear
a2 b2 c2 Thus, number = 10a + b = 81
equation is inconsistent. î A 2-digit number, ab = 10a + b and its reverse = ba = 10b + a
a 1 b1 ab + ba = 11( a + b) and ab − ba = 9 ( a − b)
● unique solution, if ≠ and then pair of linear Sometimes given pair of equations are not of linear form but they
a 2 b2 can be reduced to linear form by making some suitable
equation is consistent. substitutions.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. If the cost of 4 books and 5 notebooks is ` 32 and the 7. The sum of the two-digit number and its reverse is m
cost of 4 notebooks and 5 books is ` 31. The cost of each times the sum of its digits. If the subtraction of the
book is reverse from the number is n times the subtraction of
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 the digits, the value of m + n is
(a) 2 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 20
2. The digits of a 2-digit number, when written in
reversed form and subtract from the original number, 8. If the numerator and denominator of a fraction are
the result is 36. If the sum of the digits is 10, the increased by ‘1’ and ‘3’ respectively, the fraction
original number is becomes 1/2. What is the fraction, if the increase of 2 in
(a) 37 (b) 73 the numerator and 7 in denominator makes it 2/5?
(c) 36 (d) None of these 3 1 2 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 3 5
3. 4 yr back, A’s age was 4 times that B’s age. What is A’s
1 9. The difference of the squares of two numbers is 8000.
present age, if after 3 yr, B’s age will be rd of A’s age?
3 What is the smaller of the two numbers, if their sum is
200?
(a) 56 yr (b) 60 yr (c) 63 yr (d) 66 yr (a) 80 (b) 100
4. The cost of 3 tables and 4 chairs is ` 2800 whereas the (c) 120 (d) 160
cost of 2 tables and 3 chairs is just ` 1950. What is the 10. The combined cost of 5 doors and 7 bells was ` 2350
cost of 1 table? while, the cost of 10 doors and 4 bells is ` 2200. How
(a) 250 (b) 300 much is the cost of 2 doors?
(c) 600 (d) None of these (a) ` 100 (b) ` 240
5. 10 yr ago, the age of a father was thrice the age of his (c) ` 80 (d) ` 120
son whereas, 10 yr later the son will be half the age of 11. 20 yr ago the combined age of Ram and Shyam was
the father. The difference between their present 5/ 9th the sum of their present ages. If Ram is 20 yr
ages is elder to Shyam, the present age of Ram is
(a) 30 yr (b) 40 yr (a) 25 yr (b) 35 yr (c) 55 yr (d) 90 yr
(c) 70 yr (d) 100 yr
12. Sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 24 times the
6. For what value of m, the equations 6x − 9 y = m and sum of their reciprocals. If the sum of there reciprocals
2 x − 3 y = 4 given will have infinite number of is 5/12, the number is
solution?
(a) 64 (b) 46
(a) 10 (b) − 12
(c) 36 (d) Cannot be determined
(c) 12 (d) None of these
Linear Equations 415
13. For what value of k, the equations kx − 9 y = 66 and 15. Kashish has coins only in 2 denominations i. e.,
2x − 3 y = 8 will have no solution? 10 paise and 25 paise. If the total number of coins and
(a) − 6 (b) 6 (c) 33/4 (d) None of these the total amount she has is ` 70 and ` 10 respectively,
14. The value of x − y, when the two equations are what is the number of 10 paise coins she has?
x + y = 50 and 3 x − 2 y = 0 is (a) 10 (b) 20
(a) − 10 (b) + 10 (c) 20 (d) 25 (c) 30 (d) 40

High Skill Questions

8 21 10 16 7
1. If + = and − = 1. 6. In an parking space, a total of 20 bikes and cars were
3 (2a + 3 b) 3 a + 2b 3 2a + 3 b 3 a + 2b parked. If the total number of tyres were found to be
The value of (3 a + 2b) is 70, the numbers of cars in the parking place was
13 3 47 49 (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 13 28 29 7. Amar has only 3 denominations of coins i. e.,
2. A 2-digit number has tens digit greater than the unit’s ` 1, ` 2 and ` 5. If he has a total of 40 coins and the total
digit. If the sum of its digits is equal to twice the amount of ` 130, the maximum number of ` 5 coins he
difference, how many such numbers are possible? can have, is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 21
3. 4 friends went to fair. They found only 2 tickets 8. 4 yr hence, a father’s age will be 2 yr less than three
available at the counter. For the 2 more tickets they times the age of his son. Also, 6 yr back his age was
had to pay ` 50 more each ticket, then the actual cost. 2 yr more than five times the age of his son. After how
If at the end they found the per head cost to be ` 60, many years from now will their combined age be
what was the actual price of the ticket? 100 yr?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (a) 40 yr (b) 14 yr (c) 19 yr (d) 38 yr
(c) 35 (d) 40
9. A two-digit number ‘ab’ can be obtained either
4. Sum of the present ages of husband and wife is 90 yr. subtracting 12 from 4 times the sum of its digits or by
What is husband’s present age, if 27 yr back, men’s age adding 6 to twice the difference of its digits. What is
was half of his wife’s present age? the number equal to ab?
(a) 39 yr (b) 51 yr (a) 12 (b) 16
(c) 78 yr (d) None of these (c) 18 (d) Cannot be determined
5. The age of Sita is 8 yr more than twice the age of Sonu. 10. If abc − cba = 792, where abc is a 3-digit number, if
If after n yr, the age of Sita will be twice the age of a + b + c = 18 and a = 9 c, what is the number?
Sonu, then the value of n is (a) 990 (b) 981
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 918 (d) None of these
(c) 10 (d) Cannot be determined

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) Let the number of books and notebooks be a and b. 2. (b) Let the 2-digit number be ab = (10 a + b)
respectively. We have, a b − b a = 36 ⇒ 10a + b − (10b + a) = 36
4 a + 5 b = 32 …(i) ⇒ 9 (a − b ) = 36
and 5 a + 4 b = 31 …(ii) ⇒ a−b=4 …(i)
On multiplying Eq. (i) by 4 and Eq. (ii) by 5 and then subtracting,
Also, a + b = 10 …(ii)
we get
16 a + 20 b = 128 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
_ a + 20 b = 155
25 we get a = 7, b = 3
−
Thus, the number
−9 a = − 27
⇒ a=3 a b = 10 × 7 + 3 = 73
416 Study Package for NTSE

3. (b) Let A and B’s present ages be a and b yr, respectively. 9. (a) a2 − b 2 = 8000 and a + b = 200 …(i)
So, (a − 4) = 4 (b − 4) Now, (a + b )(a − b ) = 8000
i .e., a − 4 b = − 12 …(i) 200 × (a − b ) = 8000
and (a + 3) = 3 (b + 3) 8000
⇒ (a − b) = = 40 …(ii)
i .e., a − 3b = 6 …(ii) 200
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
b = 18 yr and a = 60yr a = 120, b = 80
A’s present age = 60 yr
10. (b) Let the cost of one door and bell be D and B respectively.
4. (c) We know that, 3 t + 4 c = 2800 …(i) According to the question,
and 2 t + 3 c = 1950 …(ii) 5 D + 7 B = 2350 …(i)
On multiplying Eq. (i) by 3 and Eq. (ii) by 4 and subtracting, then
and 10 D + 4 B = 2200 …(ii)
we get
On multiplying Eq. (i) by 2, we get
9t + 12c = 8400 10 D + 14 B = 4700
8t + 12c = 7800 10 D + 4 B = 2200
− − −
− − − ⇒ B = `250
t = 600
10 B = 2500
⇒ t = 600 From Eq. (i), we get
5. (b) (F − 10) = 3 (S − 10) i .e., F − 3 S = − 20 2350 − 7 × 250
…(i) D= = ` 120
and (F + 10) = 2 (S + 10) i .e., F − 2S = 10 …(ii) 5
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get S = 30 yr and F = 70 yr So, cost of two doors = 2 D = ` 240
Thus, the difference between their ages = 70 − 30 = 40 yr 11. (c) Let the age of Ram and Shyam be R and S respectively.
5
6. (c) The equations have infinite solutions, if [(R − 20) + (S − 20)] = (R + S )
a1 b c 9
= 1 = 1 i .e., 9(R + S − 40) = 5 (R + S )
a2 b2 c 2
⇒ 9 (R + S ) − 5(R + S ) = 360
⇒ a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0
⇒ 4 (R + S ) = 360
and a2 x + b2 y + c 2 = 0
⇒ R + S = 90 …(i)
So, the equations 6 x − 9 y = m
We know that, R = S + 20
and 2 x − 3 y = 4,we have
i .e., R − S = 20 …(ii)
6 −9 m
= = On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
2 −3 4
R = 55yr and S = 35 yr
⇒ m = 12
12. (a) Let the number be 10x + y. Then,
7. (d) We know that,
1 1 5
+ = …(i)
ab + ba = 10a + b + 10b + a = 11(a + b ) x y 12
So , m = 11  1 1
and x + y = 24  + 
⇒ a b − b a = 10a + b − (10b − a) = 9 (a − b )  x y
So, n=9 5
= 24 × = 10 …(ii)
Thus, m + n = 11 + 9 = 20 12
N
8. (c) Let the fraction be . x+ y 5 10 5
From Eq. (i), = ⇒ =
D xy 12 x y 12
N+1 1
We know that, = ⇒ x y = 24
D+ 3 2
Now, ( x − y)2 = ( x + y)2 − 4 xy
⇒ 2N + 2 = D + 3
⇒ 2N − D = 1 …(i) = (10)2 − 4 × 24 = 100 − 96 = 4
N+2 2 x− y =2 …(iii)
and =
D+7 5 From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), x = 6 and y = 4
⇒ 5N + 10 = 2 D + 14 Hence, required number = 10 × 6 + 4 = 64
⇒ 5N − 2D = 4 …(ii) 13. (b) kx − 9 y = 66
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 2 x − 3y = 8
N = 2 and D = 3 Condition of no solution,
2
Thus, fraction = k 9 66
= ≠ ⇒k = 6
3 2 3 8
Linear Equations 417
14. (a) x + y = 50 …(i) 15. (c) Let the number of 10 paise and 25 paise coins be x and y,
and 3x − 2 y = 0 …(ii) respectively.
On multiplying in Eq. (i) by 2 , we get So, x + y = 70 …(i)
2 x + 2 y = 100 and . x + 025
010 . y = 10
3x − 2 y = 0 ⇒ 2 x + 5 y = 20 …(ii)
⇒ x = 20 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
5 x = 100
y = 40, x = 30
and as x + y = 50 ⇒ y = 30
Thus, the number of 10 paise coins = 30
So, x − y = 20 − 30 = − 10

High Skill Questions

8 21 10
1. (a) We have, + = 6. (c) Let the number of bikes and cars be B and C respectively,
3(2 a + 3 b ) 3 a + 2 b 3 B + C = 20 … (i)
16 7 2 B + 4 C = 70
and − =1 and
2a + 3b 3a + 2b [Q 2 tyres in bike and 4 tyres in car]
1
Taking = x i .e., B + 2 C = 35 ...(ii)
2a + 3b
1 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
and = y, we get C = 15 and B = 5
3a + 2b
8 x + 42 y = 10 …(i) 7. (b) Let the number of ` 1, ` 2 and ` 5 coins be x, y and z
and 16 x − 7 y = 1 …(ii) respectively, x + 2 y + 5 z = 130
On multiplying Eq. (i) by 2 and subtracting from Eq. (ii), we get and x + y + z = 40 (subtracting)
− − −
13 47
y= and x= y + 4 z = 90
3 28
Now, for maximum value of z, we take options. If we take
1 13
∴Hence, = 3 a + 2b = option (a), z = 24
y 3
⇒ y = 90 − 4 × 24 = − 6 < 0 ( not possible)
2. (c) Given for the two digit number 10a + b, a > b Taking (c), z = 23
(a + b ) = 2(a − b ) ⇒ y = 90 − 4 × 23 = 90 − 92 = −2 < 0
⇒ a = 3b Taking (b), z = 22 ⇒ y = 90 − 4 × 22 = 2 > 0
b = 1, 2, 3 ⇒ a = 3, 6, 9 So, z = 22 is the maximum possible value.
So, the possible numbers are 31, 62 and 93. 8. (c) Let the age of father and son be F and S respectively,
3. (c) Actually cost per ticket = ` x F + 4 = 3 ( S + 4) − 2
and increased cost = `( x + 50) ⇒ F − 3S = 6 …(i)
i.e., ( x + x) + 2 ( x + 50) = Total amount paid and F − 6 = 5 (S − 6) + 2
4 x + 100 ⇒ F − 5 S = − 22 …(ii)
⇒ = ` 60 ⇒ x + 25 = 60
4 On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get F = 48, S = 14
∴ x = 35 = Actual cost of ticket Let us assume after ‘x’ yr their combined age will be 100 yr.
4. (b) Let the present age of husband and wife be H and W i .e., (48 + 14 + x + x) = 100
respectively, ⇒ 2 x = 100 − 62 = 38, x = 19 yr
H + W = 90 …(i)
9. (d) a b = 4 (a + b ) − 12 …(i)
and 2(H − 27 ) = ( W − 27 )
and a b = 2(a − b ) + 6 …(ii)
⇒ 2 H − W = 27 …(ii)
On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get b = 2 a + 4
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
W = 39 For a = 1, b = 6 and a = 2 ⇒ b = 8
and H = 51 Thus, the possible number, a b = 16 or 28

5. (d) Let Sita = x yr old and Sonu = y yr old 10. (b) abc − cba = 792 …(i)
100 a + 10 b + c − (100c + 10 b + a) = 792
So, x = (2 y + 8)
⇒ 100a + 10b + c − 100c − 10 b − a = 792
We know that, ( x + n) = 2 (2 y + 8 + n) and 99 (a − c ) = 792 …(ii)
⇒ x + n = 4 y + 16 + 2 n ⇒ a−c = 8
⇒ x = 2x + n On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get c = 1and a = 9
Since, there are no value for any variable, we cannot determine Now, using a + b + c = 18, we get, 9 + b + 1 = 18 ⇒ b = 8
the years. Thus, the number = a bc = 981
 Chapter

5
Quadratic Equation

Quadratic Equation We need to split the middle term 5 into two parts so that
there sum/subtraction is 5 and product is a × c = 1 × 6 = 6
Equation of the form ax + bx + c = 0, where a ≠ 0 is a
2
Those numbers will be 3 and 2 as 3 + 2 = 5 and 3 × 2 = 6.
quadratic equation. So, x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 is
e.g., x2 + 2 x + 5 = 0, 4 x2 − 5 = 0 and 3 x2 + 6 x − 4 = 0 x2 + 3 x + 2x + 6 = 0
are some examples of quadratic equations. ⇒ x( x + 3 ) + 2( x + 3 ) = 0
⇒ ( x + 3 ) ( x + 2) = 0
Roots of a Quadratic Equation
⇒ x+3=0
The value of variable which is satisfied the given or x+ 2= 0
equation, is called the roots of the equation. ∴ x = − 3 and − 2
Finding the Roots of a Quadratic Equation Hence, − 3 and − 2 are the roots of the equation.
ax + bx + c = 0
2
Nature of Roots of a Quadratic Equation
Method I By splitting the middle term i.e., b into
two parts whose addition/subtraction is equal to b and For quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b and
the product of two parts is equal to a × c. c are real,
l if D = 0, roots of the equation are real and equal.
Method II Sridharacharya’s Rule
l if D > 0, roots of the equation are real and distinct.
− b + b2 − 4 ac −b+ D if D < 0, roots of the equation are complex /imaginary.
α= = l

2a 2a Example 2 If the roots of the equation x 2 − 4 x + k = 0 are

−b− b2 − 4 ac − b− D real and equal, what is the value of k?
and β= = (a) 2 (b) 4
2a 2a
(c) 8 (d) 1
where, D = b2 − 4 ac is called the discriminant. Solution (b) We know that, roots of a quadratic equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0 are real and equal, if
Example 1 Find the roots of the equation x 2 + 5 x + 6 = 0.
D = b2 − 4 ac = 0
(a) ( −3, − 2 ) (b) ( 3, 2 )
So, for quadratic equation
(c) ( −3, 2 ) (d) ( 2, − 3 )
x2 − 4 x + k = 0 roots will be real and equal
Solution (a) x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 D = ( − 4)2 − 4 × k × 1 = 0
Comparing by quadratic equation, ax + bx + c 2
⇒ 16 − 4 k = 0 ⇒ k = 4
Here, a = 1, b = 5, c = 6
Quadratic Equation 419
Sum and Products of the Roots Example 3 Form a quadratic equation whose roots are − 4
and 2/3.
For quadratic equation ax + bx + c = 0, let the roots
2

are α and β, then (a) 3x 2 + 10x − 8 = 0

b (b) 10x 2 + 3x − 8 = 0
Sum of the roots = α + β = −
a (c) 8x 2 + 3x − 5 = 0
c
Product of the roots = αβ = (d) 5x 2 + 5x − 2 = 0
a
Solution (a) Sum of roots = α + β = − 4 + 2
Formation of a Quadratic Equation 3
− 12 + 2 −10
= =
Let the roots of an equation is α and β, then the 3 3
equation can be made as 2 −8
and product of roots = αβ = − 4 × =
3 3
x2 − (Sum of roots) x + (Product of roots) = 0
So, the quadratic equation is
⇒ x2 − (α + β) x + (αβ) = 0 x2 − (Sum of roots) x + (Product of roots) = 0
 b −10   −8 
⇒
c
x2 −  −  x + = 0 ⇒ x2 −   x+   =0
 3   3 
 a a
⇒ 3 x2 + 10 x − 8 = 0
⇒ ax + bx + c = 0
2

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. The roots of the quadratic equation x2 − 14 x + 45 = 0 7. If the roots of the quadratic equation kx2 + 3 x + 2 = 0
are are real and unequal , which of the following is true
(a) − 5 and − 9 (b) 5 and −9 for k?
(c) 5 and 9 (d) −5 and 9 (a) k > 9 / 8 (b) k < 9 / 8
2. If α and β are the roots of equation 3 x + 5 x + 2 = 0,
2 (c) k < − 9 / 8 (d) k < 8 / 9
the value of α + β is 8. Which of the following equation have 3 and 4 as the
(a) 5 / 3 (b) 2 / 3 roots?
(c) − 5 / 3 (d) − 3 / 5 (a) x 2 + 7 x + 12 = 0
3. Which of the following is one of the roots of the (b) x 2 − x + 7 = 0
quadratic equation 5x2 − 12 x − 9 = 0? (c) x 2 − 7 x + 12 = 0
(a) −3 (b) 3 / 5 (d) x 2 + 7 x − 12 = 0
(c) −3 / 5 (d) −5
9. The product of two integers is 20. If one number is
4. Which of the following quadratic equations have real 8 less than the other, the smaller number is
and distinct roots? (a) 10 (b) −2
(a) x2 − 3 x + 9 = 0 (b) x2 − 4 x + 4 = 0 (c) 2 (d) None of these
(c) x2 + 2 x + 3 = 0 (d) x2 + 5 x + 1 = 0 10. There a number 3x is 10 less than the square of the
number x. If the number is a positive integer, its
5. The nature of the roots of the quadratic equation
value is
x − 2 x − 4 = 0 is
2
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(a) real and equal (b) distinct and rational
(c) complex/imaginary (d) irrational 11. If the sum and the product of the roots of a quadratic
6. If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation equation is −14 and −32, respectively, then the roots are
1 1 (a) 16, 2
x2 + 2 x − 3 = 0 , then the value of + is (b) − 16, 2
α β
(a) −2 / 3 (b) 2 / 3 (c) 16, − 2
(c) 3 / 2 (d) −3 / 2 (d) −16, − 2
420 Study Package for NTSE

12. If the product of the roots of the equation 14. For what values of n, the roots of the quadratic equation
x2 − ( k + 7) x + 2 (2 k − 2) = 0 is three times the sum of x2 + x (14 − n) − 14 n + 1 = 0 are equal integers?
the roots, what is the value of k? (a) −13, − 15 (b) −11, − 16
(a) 20 (b) 23 (c) 25 (d) 30 (c) −12, − 16 (d) −11, − 12

13. If one root of the equation x2 + 6 mx + 64 = 0 is the 15. The sum of the squares of two consecutive positive
square of the other, the value of m is integers is 365, the smaller of the two numbers is
(a) 5 / 3 (b) 8 / 3 (a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 10 / 3 (d) None of these (c) 14 (d) 15

High Skill Questions

1. The number of real roots of quadratic equation 8. If the root of the equation ( b − c) x2 +
x − 5 x − 6 = 0, is
2
( c − a) x + ( a − b) = 0 is 1 , the other root will be
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 b−a
(a) 1 (b)
b−c
2. The graph of quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c , if a > 0 a−b
has minimum value at what of following values? (c) (d) None of these
b −c
(a) b / a (b) −b / 2 a
−b 9. The values of x for the equation
(c) (d) Cannot be determined
a 1 3 1
x + 2 = 2 +  x −  is
2

3. If the sum of the reciprocal of two numbers, whose x 2 x

normal sum is 80 , is 4 / 75, then the smaller of the two (a) ± 1 (b) 0
numbers is (c) ± 2 (d) None of these
(a) 20 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 50
10. Roots of the equation 31− a + 3 a −1 = 2 is/are
(a) 0 (b) −1 (c) 1 (d) 2
4. If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation
11. Which of the quadratic equation has roots 4 more
x2 − 5 x + 1 , then the value of α4 + β 4 is
than the roots of the equation x2 + 3 x + 1 = 0 ?
(a) 527 (b) −527
(a) x2 − 5 x + 5 = 0 (b) x2 − 5 x − 5 = 0
(c) 0 (d) None of these
(c) x2 + 5 x + 5 = 0 (d) None of these
5. What is the value of the common root of equations
( a − b) x2 + ( b − c) x + ( c − a) = 0 and a ( b − c) x2 + 12. If α and β are the roots of the equation
b ( c − a) x + c ( a − b) = 0 ? x2 − k ( x + 1) − c = 0, the value of (α + 1) (β + 1) is equal
(c − a) to
(a) 0 (b)
(a − b) (a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) None of these (c) 1 − c (d) None of these

6. Which of the equations will have real and distinct 13. The roots of the quadratic equation
roots? ( a + b)2 x2 − 2 ( a2 − b2 ) x + ( a − b)2 = 0 are
(a) 5 x2 − 3 2 x + 2 5 = 0 (a) distinct (both positive) (b) equal
(c) distinct (1 −ve and 1 + ve) (d) complex
(b) 2 3 x2 + 2 x − 3 = 0
(c) x2 − 4 x + 5 = 0 14. The value m for which the equation
(d) None of the above
3 x2 + (7 + m) x + 2 − m = 0 has equal roots is
(a) −1 (b) 1
7. If the equations ax2 + bx + c = 0 and x2 + 2 x + 9 = 0 (c) 25 (d) None of these
have a common root and a, b and c are real numbers,
15. The nature of the roots of the quadratic equation
the ratio of a : b : c is
( b − c) x2 + 2 ( c − a) x + ( a − b) = 0
(a) 2 : 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 2 : 9
(a) real and equal (b) imaginary
(c) 9 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 9 : 2 (c) real and distinct (d) Cannot be determined
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) Given quadratic equation, 10. (d) Let the number be x.
x − 14 x + 45 = 0 ⇒ x − 9 x − 5 x + 45 = 0
2 2
Then, 3 x = x2 − 10 ⇒ x2 − 3 x − 10 = 0
⇒ x ( x − 9) − 5 ( x − 9) = 0 i.e., x2 − 5 x + 2 x − 10 = 0
⇒ ( x − 9) ( x − 5) = 0 ⇒ x = 9, 5 ⇒ x ( x − 5) + 2 ( x − 5) = 0
So, the roots of the equation are 9 and 5 . ⇒ ( x − 5) ( x + 2 ) = 0
∴ x = 5, − 2
2. (c)Q 3 x2 + 5 x + 2 = 0
11. (b) We know, α + β = − 14 and αβ = − 32
∴α + β = −b/a = − 5/3
Equation is x2 − ( − 14) x − 32 = 0
3. (c)Q 5 x − 12 x − 9 = 0 ⇒ 5 x − 15 x + 3 x − 9 = 0
2 2
⇒ x2 + 14 x − 32 = 0
⇒ 5 x ( x − 3) + 3 ( x − 3) = 0 ⇒ (5 x + 3) ( x − 3) = 0
⇒ x2 + 16 x − 2 x − 32 = 0
⇒ 5 x + 3 = 0 ⇒ x = − 3 /5
and ( x − 3) = 0 ⇒ x = 3 ⇒ x ( x + 16) − 2 ( x + 16) = 0
Thus, x = − 3 /5 and 3 are the roots. ⇒ ( x + 16) ( x − 2 ) = 0
4. (d) Roots are real and distinct, if D = b − 4 ac > 0
2
So, the roots are −16 and 2 .
(a) x2 − 3 x + 9 = 0 12. (c) x2 − (k + 7 ) x + 2 (2 k − 2 ) = 0
D = ( − 3)2 − 4 × 1 × 9 = 9 − 36 = − 27 < 0
Sum of roots = α + β = − b/a = (k + 7 )
(b) x − 4 x + 4 = 0 , D = ( − 4)2 − 4 × 1 × 4 = 16 − 16 = 0
2
2 (2 k − 2 )
and αβ = Product of roots = c/a =
(c) x2 + 2 x + 3 = 0 , D = (2 )2 − 4 × 1 × 3 = 4 − 12 = − 8 < 0 1
(d) x2 + 5 x + 1 = 0 , D = (5)2 − 4 × 1 × 1 = 25 − 4 = 21 > 0 We know that, 3 (α + β ) = αβ
⇒ 3 (k + 7 ) = 2 (2 k − 2 ) ⇒ 3 k + 21 = 4 k − 4
Thus, roots are real and distinct for option (d).
∴ k = 25
5. (d) x2 − 2 x − 4 = 0
13. (d) Let the roots be α and α 2 .
D = (−2 )2 − 4 × 1 × (−4) = 4 + 16 = 20 > 0
Then, x2 + 6 mx + 64 = 0
Thus, roots are irrational. c
Product of roots = = α × α 2 = α 3 = 64 ⇒ α = 4
6. (b) For x2 + 2 x − 3 = 0 a
b c So, the roots are 4 and 16.
α+β=− = 2 ⇒ αβ = = − 3
a a −b −20 10
Sum of the roots = = − 6 m = 4 + 16 ⇒ m = =−
1 1 α + β −2 2 a 6 3
Now, + = = =
α β αβ −3 3 14. (c) x2 + x (14 − n) − 14 n + 1 = 0
7. (b) Roots are real and unequal, if Roots are equal integers, when D = 0 = b 2 − 4 ac
D = b − 4 ac > 0
2
⇒ (14 − n)2 − 4 (1) ( − 14 n + 1) = 0
So, for equation kx + 3 x + 2 = 0 roots will be real and unequal,
2
⇒ 196 + n2 − 28 n + 56 n − 4 = 0
if D = (3)2 − 4 × 2 × k > 0 ⇒ n2 + 28 n + 192 = 0
9
i.e., 9− 8k> 0 ⇒ k< ⇒ n + 16 n + 12 n + 192 = 0
2
8
⇒ (n + 16) (n + 12 ) = 0
8. (c) We know quadratic equation is
∴ n = − 16 and −12
x2 − (Sum of roots )x + (Product of roots) = 0
15. (b) Let the two consecutive integers be x and ( x + 1.)
So, the equation having 3 and 4 as the roots is
We know that, x2 + ( x + 1)2 = 365
x2 − (3 + 4) x + 3 × 4 = 0
⇒ x2 + x2 + 2 x + 1 = 365
i.e., x2 − 7 x + 12 = 0
⇒ 2 x2 + 2 x − 364 = 0
9. (c) Since, the integer is 8 less than the other, let the integer be
x and x − 8. ⇒ x2 + x − 182 = 0
We have, x ( x − 8) = 20 i.e., x − 8 x − 20 = 0
2
⇒ x2 + 14 x − 13 x − 182 = 0
⇒ x − 10 x + 2 x − 20 = 0
2
⇒ ( x + 14) ( x − 13) = 0
⇒ x ( x − 10) + 2 ( x − 10) = 0 ⇒ ( x − 10) ( x + 2 ) = 0 ⇒ x = 13 and −14
∴ x = 10 and− 2 Since, the integers are positive, they are 13 and 14.
Thus, the smaller number is 10 − 8 = 2. Hence, the smaller number = 13.
422 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. (c) The equation x2 − 5 x − 6 = 0 1 3 1
9. (a) x2 + =2 + x− 
x2 2  x
Let x = y 2
⇒  x −  −  x − 1 = 0
1 3
y2 − 5 y − 6 = 0    
 x 2 x
y2 − 6 y + y − 6 = 0 [Q(a − b )2 = a2 + b 2 − 2 ab]
y ( y − 6) + 1 ( y − 6) = 0 ⇒ ( y − 6)( y + 1) = 0
2
1
Let x − = P ⇒ P 2 − 3 / 2 P = 0 ⇒ P = 0, 3 / 2
y = 6 and y = −1 x
x = 6 and x = −1 x2 − 1
If P=0 ⇒ = 0 ⇒x= ± 1
∴ x = 6 is the real roots of given quadratic equation. x
1 x2 − 1 3
−b If P = 3 /2 ⇒ x − = 3 /2 ⇒ =
2. (b) Since, the quadratic graph has minimum value at x = x x 2
2a
⇒ 2 x2 − 2 − 3 x = 0
when a > 0.
⇒ 2 x2 − 4 x + x − 2 = 0
⇒ 2 x( x − 2 ) + 1( x − 2 ) = 0
2
⇒  x − 1 − 3  x − 1 = 0
   
 x 2  x
– b/2a ⇒ ( x − 2 ) (2 x + 1) = 0 ⇒ x = 2 , x = − 1/2
1 1 4 a+ b 4 80 4 Thus, x = ± 1, 2, − 1/2
3. (b) a + b = 80 and + = ⇒ = ⇒ =
a b 75 ab 75 ab 75 3a 3 x 3
10. (c)Q + a =2 ⇒ + =2 (Q x = 3a )
⇒ a b = 20 × 75 = 1500 3 3 3 x
= 15 × 100 = 15 × 2 × 50 = 30 × 50 ⇒ x2 − 6 x + 9 = 0
∴ Smaller number = 30 ⇒ x = 3 = 3a ⇒ a = 1
4. (a) Since, α + β = 5 and αβ = 1 11. (a) For roots to be 4 more, we replace x with ( x − 4) in
∴ α 4 + β 4 = (α 2 + β 2 )2 −2α 2β 2 x 2 + 3x + 1 = 0
= [(α + β )2 − 2αβ ]2 − 2(αβ )2 So, the equation is
= (25 − 2 ) − 2 = 529 − 2 = 527
2 ( x − 4)2 + 3 ( x − 4) + 1 = 0
⇒ x 2 − 8 x + 16 + 3 x − 12 + 1 = 0
5. (c) Let x = 1be the common root of given equations,
⇒ x2 − 5 x + 5 = 0
(a − b ) x2 + (b − c ) x + (c − a) = 0 ...(i)
12. (c) The equation is x2 − kx − (c + k ) = 0
a (b − c ) x2 + b (c − a) x + c (a − b ) = 0 ...(ii)
∴ α + β = k and αβ = − ( c + k )
Put x = 1in Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
∴ (α + 1) (β + 1) = αβ + (α + β ) + 1
a− b + b −c + c − a = 0 ⇒0 = 0 = − (c + k ) + k + 1 = 1 − c
and a(b − c ) + b(c − a) + c(a − b )
13. (b) D = b 2 − 4 ac = 4(a2 − b 2 )2 − 4(a + b)2 (a − b)2
⇒ ab − ac + bc − ab + ca − bc = 0 ⇒ 0 = 0
= 4(a2 − b 2 )2 − 4(a2 − b 2 )2 = 0
i.e., 1 satisties of both equation.
So, the roots are equal.
So, 1 is the common roots of given equation.
14. (a) 3 x2 + (7 + m) x − (2 − m) = 0
6. (b) (a) 5 x2 − 3 2 x + 2 5 = 0
Roots are equal, if D = 0
D = b 2 − 4 ac = 18 − 4 × 10 < 0 b 2 − 4 ac = (7 + m)2 − 12 (2 − m) = 0
(b) 2 3 x2 + 2 x − 3 = 0 ⇒ 49 + 14 m + m 2 − 24 + 12 m = 0
D = 4 + 24 > 0 ⇒ Real and distinct roots. ⇒ m2 + 26 m + 25 = 0
7. (b) The roots of x2 + 2 x + 9 are imaginary. ⇒ (m + 25) (m + 1) = 0
∴ m = − 25 and − 1
So, it will come in conjugate pairs.
So, both the roots should be common. 15. (d) (b − c ) x2 + 2 (c − a) x + (a − b) = 0
Thus, the equations D = b 2 − 4 ac = 4 (c − a)2 − 4(b − c ) (a − b )
x + 2 x + 9 = 0 and ax2 + bx + c = 0 are identical. = c 2 + a2 − 2 ac − a b + b 2 + ac − bc
a b c
= = ⇒ a : b : c = 1: 2 : 9 = a2 + b 2 + c 2 − ac − bc − a b
1 2 9
= 2 (a2 + b 2 + c 2 − a b − bc − c a)
8. (c) Let α = 1and β = ?
(a − b) (a − b) = (a − b )2 + (b − c )2 + (c − a)2 ≥ 0
∴ αβ = c/a = ⇒ β=
(b − c ) (b − c ) So, the roots are real and may or may not be equal.
Arithmetic Progression 423

Chapter

6
Arithmetic Progression
Definition e.g.,
Sum of 10 terms of an AP 12, 14, 16, 18, ... is
An arithmetic progression is a series in which the gap
between the terms is constant/fixed. Here, n = 10, a = 12, d = 2
10
An Arithmetic Progression (AP) is like So, S10 = [2 × 12 + (10 − 1) × 2]
2
a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3 d, ...
= 5 (24 + 18) = 5 ( 42) = 210
where, a = first term and d = common difference
(ii) If in an AP first and last term and number of terms
e.g., 2, 5, 8, 11, 14, ... and 8, 3, − 2, − 7, ... are given, then
are two examples of AP with common differences of 3  a + l
and − 5, respectively. Sn =   × Number of terms
∴ nth term of an AP = Tn = a + ( n − 1) d  2 
where, a = First term where, a = First term
and l = Last term
n = Number of term
e. g., Sum of 9 terms of an AP whose first and last
and d = Common difference term are 1 and 17, respectively.
e.g., Here, n = 1, l = 17, number of terms = 9
(i) 10th term of an AP 3, 7, 11, 15, ... is 1 + 17 
∴ Sn =   × 9 = 81
T10 = 3 + (10 − 1) × 4 = 3 + 9 × 4  2 
[Qd = 7 − 3 = 4] Note ● Three terms a, b and c are in AP, if 2b = a + c

= 3 + 36 = 39 ● In an AP, Sum of 1st and last term = Sum of 2nd and the
2nd last term
(ii) 20th term of an AP having first term 8 and the = Sum of 3rd and 3rd last term and so on
common difference(−2), is ⇒ S n − S n −1 = an
⇒ Sum of 1st n terms − Sum of 1st (n − 1) terms = nth term
T20 = a + (20 − 1) d = 8 + 19 × ( − 2) = 8 − 38 = − 30
Example 1 If the first term and the common difference of
Sum of n Terms of an Arithmetic an arithmetic progression is 4 and 8 respectively, which is its
Progression 15th term?
(i) If in an AP number of terms and common difference (a) 116 (b) 120 (c) 125 (d) 115
are given, then Solution (a) First term, a = 4 and common difference, d = 8
n
Sn = [2 a + ( n − 1) d] We know nth term, Tn = a + ( n − 1)d
2
So, T15 = 4 + (15 − 1) 8 = 4 + 14 × 8
where, a = First term d = Common difference
= 4 + 112 = 116
and n = Number of terms
424 Study Package for NTSE

Example 2 If the first term and the last term of an arithmetic Example 3 If sum of 1st 5 terms of an arithmetic
progression are 3 and 153, respectively. If the sum of all the terms is progression is equal to the sum of first 6 terms, then find
2418, then find the number of terms in AP. the 6th term of an AP.
(a) 28 (b) 31 (c) 34 (d) 30 (a) 1 (b) 0
Solution (b) Here, first term, a = 3 and last term = 153 (c) 5 (d) 2

Let the last term of the series be the n th term, then Solution (b) We know that, S6 = S5
153 = 3 + ( n − 1) × d n
[usingSn = ( 2a + ( n − 1) d )]
2
⇒ ( n − 1) × d = 150 …(i) ⇒
6
[2a + ( 6 − 1) d ]
n 2
As the sum of these n terms = 2418 = [2a + ( n − 1)d ] 5
2 = [2a + (5 − 1) d ]
2
n
⇒ 2418 = [2 (3 ) + 150 ] [from Eq. (i)] ⇒ 12a + 30d = 10a + 20d
2
⇒ 2a = − 10 d
2418 × 2
∴ n= = 31 ⇒ a = − 5d
156
Now, a 6 = a + ( 6 − 1) d = a + 5d
Thus, the number of terms = 31 But a = − 5d
Alternate Method ∴ a6 = 0
We know, sum of terms of an AP Alternate Method
= 
First term + Last term We know that, S5 = S6
 × Number of terms
 2  ⇒ S6 − S5 = 0
3 + 153  S n − S n − 1 = an
2418 = 
and
⇒  × Number of terms
 2  ⇒ S 6 − S 5 = a6 = 0
2418 × 2 Thus, 6th term = 0
∴ Number of terms = = 31
156

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. 10th term an AP whose first term and the common 8. The number of terms in the series 11, 15, 19, ...,
difference are 3 and 4, respectively is 211 is
(a) 39 (b) 42 (c) 45 (d) 50 (a) 49 (b) 50
(c) 51 (d) None of these
2. How many terms are there in AP 2, 6, 10, 14 ,......, 130?
(a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35 9. If the sum and the product of first 3 terms of an AP
3. If the first term is equal to the common difference and the series is 42 and 2240 respectively, what are the
2nd term is 10. Then, the sum of first 20 terms is terms of the series?
(a) 1150 (b) 950 (c) 1050 (d) 1000 (a) 8, 12, 16 (b) 8, 14, 20
(c) 10, 16, 22 (d) None of these
4. If the sum of 1st n terms of an AP is 2n( n + 3). Then, what is
the value of its 6th term? 10. If the sum of 3 consecutive terms of an AP is zero.
(a) 24 (b) 28 Then, what will be their product?
(c) 32 (d) None of these (a) 15 (b) 3
(c) 27 (d) None of these
5. The sum of 3 terms of an AP is 39 and their product is 2080,
the terms are 11. If a, b and c terms an AP, which of the following
(a) 13, 15, 17 (b) 14, 18, 22 will also be an AP?
(c) 10, 13, 16 (d) None of these (a) a − 4, b + 4, c − 4 (b) a + 4, b + 4, c − 4
(c) a + 5, b + 6, c + 7 (d) None of these
6. The sum of first and the last term of an AP of 150 terms is
equal to the sum of which of the following two terms? 12. The sum of terms of two AP’s is an
(a) AP (b) GP
(a) 15th and 135th (b) 20th and 131th
(c) HP (d) None of these
(c) 50th and 51th (d) 90th and 60th
13. If the nth term of an AP is 4 n − 2. Then, the 10th
7. The 40 th term of the AP 2, 8, 14, 20, ... is
(a) 230 (b) 232
term will be
(a) 28 (b) 38 (c) 42 (d) 60
(c) 240 (d) 236
Arithmetic Progression 425
High Skill Questions
1. The first and the last term of an arithmetic
progression are 4 and 128, respectively. If the sum of 9. If a, b and c are in AP, then which of the following will
all the terms is 2970, what is the number of terms? also term an AP?
(a) 40 (b) 45 a b c
(a) a − b, b − c, c − a (b) , , +1
(c) 51 (d) Cannot be determined 2 2 2
2. What is the value of 11th term of an AP series, if the (c) a + b, b − c, c + a (d) None of these
sum of its first 11 terms is equal to the sum of 10. If the nth term of an AP is 5n − 2. Then, what is the
1st 10 terms? sum of first 10 terms of the same series?
(a) 11 (b) 1
(a) 250 (b) 255
(c) 0 (d) None of these
(c) 300 (d) None of these
3. What is the value of 9th term of an AP series whose
11. If the sum of first n terms of an AP is n(3 n + 7). Then,
6th term and 12th terms are 32 and 56, respectively? its 10th term is
(a) 42 (b) 44 (a) 63 (b) − 64 (c) 64 (d) 16
(c) 34 (d) None of these
12. In a AP series of 100 terms a1 + a50 + a51 + a100 = 400,
4. If the sum of first 9 terms of an AP is equal to the sum
so what is the sum of all the terms of the series?
of 1st 13 terms. Then, the sum of first 22 terms will be
(a) 10000 (b) 5000
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) − 1 (d) 35
(c) 1000 (d) None of these
5. The ratio of the sum of first ‘P’ terms of two AP series is
13. The value of the 20th term for the AP series
( 4 P + 16) : (7 P − 17), what is the ratio of their 6th 1 2 1
terms? 10, 10 , 10 , 11, 11 , ... is
15 3 3 3
(a) 1 (b) 790
43 (a) (b) 260
59 3
(c) (d) None of these (c) 268 (d) None of these
160
6. If a7 = 13 a13, where a7 and a13 are the 7th and the 14. The sum of first 9 terms of an AP series is equal to the
13th terms respectively and the common difference is sum of first 11 terms of the same series what is the
6. Then, 29th term of the same AP is value of the sum of first and the last term of the series,
(a) 80 (b) 93 if there are 20 terms in it?
(c) − 93 (d) None of these (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) − 1 (d) None of these
7. An AP series which has 20 terms has the first term
and the last term 5 and 158, respectively. What is the 15. If x1, x2 , x3, …, xn are in AP. Then, the value of
sum of its 9th and the 12th term? 1 1 1 1
+ + + ... + is
(a) 213 (b) − 213 x1 x2 x2 x3 x3 x4 xn − 1 xn
(c) 200 (d) Cannot be determined
n−1 n−1
8. Two AP’s 45, 41, 37, ... and 5, 9, 13, ... have their kth (a) (b)
x1 xn x2 xn − 1
terms same. Find the value of k.
n
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) (d) None of these
x1 xn
(c) 4 (d) None of these

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) a = 3, d = 4 ⇒ a10 = a + (n − 1) d 3. (c) a = d , a + d = 10 ⇒ a = d = 5
20
= 3 + (10 − 1) × 4 S 20 = [2 × 5 + (20 − 1) × 5]
2
= 3 + 36 = 39
= 10 (10 + 19 × 5)
2. (b) a = 2, d = 4, an = 130 = 10 (105) = 1050
an = a + (n − 1)d 4. (b) S n − S n − 1 = an
⇒ 130 = 2 + (n − 1) × 4
S 6 − S 5 = [2 × 6 (6 + 3)] − [2 × 5 (5 + 3)]
⇒ n = 33
= (108 − 80) = 28
426 Study Package for NTSE

5. (c) Let the terms be a − d , a and a + d . 9. (b) (a − d ) + a + (a + d ) = 42 ⇒ a = 14

then, (a − d ) + a + (a + d ) = 39 ⇒ a = 13 and (a − d ) × a × (a + d ) = 2240
⇒ (13 − d ) × 13 × (13 + d ) = 2080 (14 − d ) × 14 × (14 + d ) = 2240
⇒ (142 − d 2 ) × 14 = 2240
∴ 13 (169 − d 2 ) = 2080 ⇒ d = 3
∴ d=± 6
So, the terms are 13 − 3, 13, 13 + 3, i.e., 10, 13, 16. So, the terms are 8, 14 and 20.
6. (b) In a series of 150 terms, 10. (d) If (a − d ) + a + (a + d ) = 0
a1 + a150 = a2 + a149 = a3 + a148 = …
⇒ a=0
So, a20 + a131 = a1 + a150
Thus, product = (a − d ) a (a + d ) = 0
7. (d) an = a + (n − 1)d 11. (c) Since, a + 5, b + 6, c + 7 is an addition of two AP, so it
a40 = [2 + (40 − 1) × 6] = 2 + 39 × 6 should be an AP.
= 2 + 234 = 236
12. (a) Sum of two AP’s is an AP.
8. (c) an = a + (n − 1)d
13. (b) an = 4n − 2, a10 = 4 (10) − 2 = 38
211 = 11 + (n − 1) × 4 ⇒ n = 51

High Skill Questions

1. (b) We know that, sum of terms of an AP series Alternate Method
S p = Sq
= 
First term + Last term If
 × Number of terms = 2970
 2  ⇒ Sp =0
+q
4 + 128 So, if S 9 = S13
⇒ × n = 2970
2 ⇒ S 9 + 13 = S 22 = 0
2970 × 2
⇒ n= SP 4P + 16 P /2 [2 a + (P − 1) d ]
132 5. (a) Given, = =
S P′ 7 P − 17 P /2 [2 a′ + (P − 1) d ′ ]
⇒ n = 45
2 a + (P − 1) d
2. (c) Given, S11 = S10 =
2 a′ + (P − 1) d ′
⇒ S11 − S10 = 0
Put P = 2 × 6 − 1 = 11 [Q n = 6]
We know that, S n − S n − 1 = an ,
2 a + 10 d 4 × 11 + 16 60
So, S11 − S10 = 0 Given, = = =1
2 a′ + 10d ′ 7 × 11 − 17 60
⇒ a11 = 0 a + 5d a
⇒ = 6 =1
3. (b) Given that, 6th term (a6 ) = 32 a′ + 5 d ′ a6 ′
⇒ a + (6 − 1) d = 32 [Q an = a + (n − 1)d ] 6. (b) a7 = 13 a13
⇒ a + 5 d = 32 …(i)
⇒ a + 6d = 13(a + 12d ) [Q an = a + (n − 1)d ]
and 12th term (a12 ) = 56
⇒ a + (12 − 1) d = 56 ⇒ 12 a + 150 d = 0
⇒ a + 11 d = 56 …(ii) ⇒ 2 a = − 25d
On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get = − 25 × 6 = − 150 ⇒ a = − 75 [Qd = 6]
⇒ 2 a + 16 d = 88 ∴ a29 = a + (28)d = − 75 + 28 × 6
⇒ a + 8 d = 44 …(iii) = − 75 + 168 = 93
∴ a9 = a + (9 − 1) d
= a + 8 d = 44 [from Eq. (iii)] 7. (a) Sum of first and last term of an AP = Sum of 2nd and 2nd last
term = Sum of 3rd and 3rd last term and so on
4. (a) Given, S 9 = S13 So, Sum of first and last term = a1 + a20 = 5 + 158
9 13
i .e., [2 a + (9 − 1) d ] = [2 a + (13 − 1) d ] = Sum of 9th and 12th term = a9 + a12 = 213
2 2
Q S = n [2 a + (n − 1)d ] 8. (a) We know that, 45 + (k − 1) × (− 4) = 5 + (k − 1) × 4
 
n
2 [Q an = a + (n − 1)d ]
⇒ 18 a + 72 d = 26 a + 156 d ⇒ 40 = 8 (k − 1) ⇒(k − 1) = 5
⇒ 8 a = − 84 d
⇒ 2 a = − 21 d …(i) ∴ k=6
22 Thus, 6th term is common.
Now, S 22 = [2 a + (22 − 1) d ]
2
9. (a) a − b, b − c, c − a each term has is ‘d’ it is an AP with all
= 11 (2 a + 21 d )
= 11 (2 a − 2 a) = 0 terms having ‘0’ gap.
Arithmetic Progression 427
10. (b) an = 5n − 2, a1 = 3, a2 = 8, a3 = 13 and so on 14. (a) Q S 9 = S11

S10 =
10
[2 × 3 + (10 − 1) × 5] Q S = n [2 a + (n − 1)d ] ∴ S11 − S 9 = 0 and a11 + a10 = 0
 
n
2 2 As there are 20 terms in AP,
= 5 (6 + 45) = 51 × 5 = 255 a1 + a20 = a2 + a19
11. (c) S n = n(3 n + 7 ) = ... = a10 + a11 = 0
We know that S n − S n − 1 = an Thus, a1 + a20 = 0
1 1 1 1
So, S10 − S 9 = a10 = 10 (3 × 10 + 7 ) − 9 (3 × 9 + 7 ) 15. (a) + + + ... + is
x1 x2 x2 x3 x3 x4 xn − 1 xn
= 370 − 306 = 64
12. (a) As AP has 100 terms, we know 1  d d d 
=  + + ... + 
a1 + a100 = a2 + a99 = a3 + a98 = ... and so on xx xn − 1 xn 
d  1 2 x2 x3
So, a1 + a50 + a51 + a100 = 400
x − x x − xn − 1 
1 =
1
 2 1 + x3 − x2 + K + n 
⇒ a1 + a100 = (400) = 200  x x
2 d  2 1 x3 x2 xn − 1 xn 
a + a100
Thus, S100 = 1 × 100 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 =  − + − + + K+ − 
d  x1 x2 x2 x3 x3 xn − 1 xn 
= 100 × 100 = 10000
13. (a) a = 10, d = , S 20 = 2 × 10 + (20 − 1) × 
1 20 1
1 1 1  1  xn − x1  1  (n − 1)d 
3 2  3  =  −  =   =  xx 
d  x1 xn  d  x1 xn  d  1 n 
= 10  20 +
19  790
 = (n − 1)
 3 3 =
x1 xn
428 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

7
Introduction to
Euclid’s Geometry
● Axioms or postulates Axioms or postulates are the
assumptions which are obvious universal truths. They
● Euclid’s five postulates Euclid’s five postulates are
are not proved. given below
Mainly postulates are used for specially Geometry and (i) Postulate 1 A straight line may be drawn from
axioms are used for specially Algebra. any one point to any other point.
● Theorems Theorems are statements which are proved A B
using definitions, axioms, previously proved statements
Axiom Given two distinct points, there is a
and deductive reasoning.
unique line that passes through them.
● Euclid’s Definitions, Axioms or Postulates B
(i) A point is that which has no part. A
(ii) A line is breadth less length.
(iii) The ends of a line are points.
(ii) Postulate 2 A terminated line can be produced
(iv) A straight line is a line which lies evenly with the
indefinitely. Euclid’s terminated line is called a
points on itself.
line segment. So, according to the present day
(v) A surface is that which has length and breadth only.
terms, ‘A line segment can be extended on either
(vi) The edges of a surface are lines. side to form a line’.
(vii) A plane surface is a surface which lies evenly with
(iii) Postulate 3 A circle can be drawn with any
the straight lines on itself.
centre and any radius.
● Undefined terms There are some terms like point etc.,
A
which have no definitions, these terms are called
undefined terms.
In Geometry, a point, a line and a plane (in Euclid’s O
words, a plane surface) are undefined terms.
● Euclid’s Axioms
(iv) Postulate 4 All right angles are equal to one
(i) Things which are equal to the same things, are another.
equal to one another.
O X
(ii) If equals are added to equals, the wholes are equal.
(iii) If equals are subtracted from equals, the 2
remainders are equal. O Z
(iv) Things which coincide with one another are equal to 1
one another. A C B
(v) The whole is greater than the part. Y
(vi) Things which are double of the same things are
equal to one another. If Ð 1 = 90°
(vii) Things which are halves of the same things are and Ð 2 = 90°
equal to one another. Then, Ð1 = Ð2
Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 429
(v) Postulate 5 If a straight line falling on two Solution. (a) Given, Ð1 = Ð4 and Ð3 = Ð2 ...(i)
straight lines makes the interior angles on the If Ð2 = Ð4
same side of it taken together less than two right Then, Ð2 = Ð1 [Q Ð1 = Ð4, by axiom 1] ...(ii)
angles, then the two straight lines, if produced
Þ Ð3 = Ð1 [Q Ð2 = Ð3]
indefinitely, meet on that side on which the sum of
angles is less than two right angles. Hence, Euclid’s axiom 1 is used to show the above result.

Example 2. In the given figure, if ÐDOB = 87° , ÐCOA = 82°

B
P and ÐBOA = 35°, then find ÐCOB and ÐCOD.
A
1
D C
2
Q B
C
D 35°
O A
e.g., The line PQ falls on lines AB and CD such (a) 45° and 40° (b) 47° and 40°
that the sum of the interior angles 1 and 2 is less (c) 50° and 50°(d) None of these
than 180° on the left side of PQ. Therefore, the
lines AB and CD will eventually intersect on the Solution (b) From figure, we have ÐDOB = ÐDOC + ÐCOB
left side of PQ. Given, ÐDOB = 87°
î Two distinct lines cannot have more than one point in \ ÐDOC + ÐCOB = 87° [by axiom 1] ...(i)
common. Similarly, ÐCOB + ÐBOA = ÐCOA
● Equivalent versions of Euclid’s fifth Þ ÐCOB + ÐBOA = 82° ...(ii)
postulate For every line l and for every point P not [QÐCOA = 82°, given]
lying on l, there exists a unique line m passing through
But ÐBOA = 35° [given]
P and parallel to l.
This result can also be stated in the following form. From Eq. (ii), ÐCOB + 35° = 82°
Two distinct intersecting lines cannot be parallel to the Þ ÐCOB + 35°-35° = 82°-35°
same line. [using axiom 3, subtracting equal thing, i.e. ÐBOA = 35° from
both sides]
Example 1. In the given figure, it is given that Ð 1 = Ð4 and
Þ ÐCOB = 47° ...(iii)
Ð 3 = Ð 2. By which Euclid’s axiom, it can be shown that, if
Ð 2 = Ð 4, then Ð 1 = Ð 3 ? On subtracting equal thing, ÐCOB from both sides from
Eq. (i), we get
D C
1 ÐDOC + ÐCOB - ÐCOB = 87° - ÐCOB [using axiom
3 3]
4
2 Þ ÐDOC = 87° - ÐCOB
A B
Þ ÐDOC = 87° - 47° [from Eq. (iii)]
(a) Axiom 1 (b) Axiom 2
\ ÐDOC = 40°
(c) Axiom 3 (d) Axiom 4
Hence, ÐCOB = 47° and ÐDOC or ÐCOD = 40°

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. The number of dimensions, a solid has 4. A pyramid is a solid figure, the base of which is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0 (a) only a triangle (b) only a square
(c) only a rectangle (d) any polygon
2. Euclid divided his famous treatise ‘The Elements’
into 5. It is known that, if x + y = 10, then x + y + z = 10 + z.
(a) 13 chapters (b) 12 chapters (c) 11 chapters (d) 9 chapters The Euclid's axiom that illustrates this statement is
(a) first axiom (b) second axiom
3. If A, B and C are three points on a line such that A (c) third axiom (d) fourth axiom
lies in between B and C, then
1 BC 6. The number of interwoven isosceles triangles in
(a) BC = AC (b) AC = Sriyantra (in the Atharvaveda) is
2 4
(c) AC = BC (d) AB + AC = BC (a) seven (b) eight (c) nine (d) eleven
430 Study Package for NTSE

7. Greek’s emphasised on 9. If PQ is a line segment of length 12 cm and R is a point

(a) inductive reasoning in its interior,
(b) deductive reasoning then PR2 + QR2 + 2 PR × QR equals
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 144 (d) 169
(d) practical use of geometry
10. In the given figure, C is the mid-point of the segment
8. Which of the following needs a proof? AB. P and Q are mid-points of the segments AC and
(a) Theorems BC respectively, then AP is equal to
(b) Axiom
A P C Q B
(c) Definition
(d) Postulate AB AB AB
(a) (b) (c) (d) AB
4 2 3

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following statements are false? 6. In the given figure, if Ð1 = Ð3, Ð2 = Ð4 and Ð3 = Ð4,
(a) The Euclidean Geometry is valid only for figures in the plane then the relation between Ð1 and Ð2.
(b) Euclid’s fourth axiom says that everything equals itself D C
(c) Two distinct intersecting lines cannot be parallel to the same 3
line 4
(d) There are an infinite number of lines which pass through two
distinct points 1
2
A B
2. Given four collinear points A, B, C and D. How many
all the line segments determined by these? (a) Ð1 > Ð2 (b) Ð1 < Ð2
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4 (c) Ð1 = Ð2 (d) None of these

3. Solve the equation y - 25 = 40 and state which axiom 7. If P and Q are the centres of two intersecting circles,
will you use here? then
(a) Axiom 2 (b) Axiom 3 (c) Axiom 4 (d) Axiom 5 (a) PQ = QR + PR (b) PQ + QR = PR
(c) QR = PQ + PR (d) PQ = QR = PR
4. In the given figure, if AC = BD, then
(a) AB = BD (b) BC = AD (c) AB = CD (d) AC = CD 8. In the given figure, if AC = DC and CB = CE, then
A
5. In the given figure, if AB = BC and BX = BY , then E
C
B
D
B
X Y
(a) AB = DE (b) AD = CD (c) BE = CD (d) AD = AC

9. If AB = x + 3, BC = 2x and AC = ( 4 x - 5), then for

A C what value of x, B lines on AC?
(a) AX = CY (b) AX = BY (c) AX = BC (d) BY = AB (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) A solid has shape, size, position and can be moved from one Now, by using Euclid axiom 4, things which coincide with one
place to another. So, solid has three dimensions, e.g., Cuboid. another are equal to one another, we get
2. (a) Euclid divided his famous treatise ‘The Elements’ into BC = BA + AC
13 chapters. 4. (d) A pyramid is a solid figure, the base of which is a triangle or
3. (d) Since, A lies between B and C, therefore BC coincides with square or some other polygon.
BA + AC. 5. (b) The Euclid’s axiom that illustrates the given statement is
B A C second axiom, according to which. If equals are added to
equals, the wholes are equal.
Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 431
6. (c) The Sriyantra (in the Atharvaveda) consists of nine interwoven 10. (a) Since, C is mid-point of the line segment AB.
isosceles triangles. \ AB = AC + CB [by axiom 4]
7. (b) Greek’s emphasised on deductive reasoning. Þ AB = AC + AC [Q AC = CB]
1
8. (a) The statements that were proved are called propositions or Þ AC = AB ...(i)
theorems. 2
Similarly as, P is mid-point of line segment AC.
9. (c) Here, point R lies in the interior of PQ. 1
12 cm \ AP = AC ...(ii)
2
P R Q From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
AP = ìí ABüý = AB.
So, PR + RQ = PQ = 12 cm [by axiom 4] 1 1 1
Now, PR 2 + QR 2 + 2 PR × QR = (PR + QR )2 2 î2 þ 4
= (PQ )2 = (12 )2 = 144 cm

High Skill Questions

1. (d) (a) True, it fails on the curved surface. 6. (c) Given, Ð1 = Ð3,
(b) True, as it is the justification of the principle of superposition. Ð3 = Ð4 … (i)
(c) True, it is an equivalent version of Euclid’s fifth postulate. and Ð2 = Ð4 … (ii)
(d) False, because from two distinct points, only one straight line According to Euclid’s axiom 1, things which are equal to the
can pass. same things, are equal to one another.
2. (b) Here, are 6 lines segments. Therefore, from Eq. (i), Ð1 = Ð4 …(iii)
All the line segments determined by A, B, C and D are Now, from Eqs. (ii) and (iii), Ð1 = Ð2 [by axiom 1]
AB, BC, CD, AC, BD, AD 7. (d) In the given figure,
A B C D PR = PQ [radii of the same circle] … (i)
R
3. (a) There are use axiom 2.
y - 25 = 40
P Q
Add 25 both sides [by axiom 2, if equals are added to equals, the
wholes are equal]
y - 25 + 25 = 40 + 25 and QP = QR [radii of the same circle] … (ii)
Þ y = 65 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), PR = QR [by axiom 1] …(iii)
4. (c) Given, From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
AC = BD …(i) PQ = QR = PR [by axiom 1]
From figure, it is clear that 8. (a) Given, AC = DC
AC = AB + BC Þ CB = CE
and BD = BC + CD Þ AC + CB = DC + CE Þ AB = DE
On putting these values in Eq. (i), we get
9. (c) If B lies on AC, then
AB + BC = BC + CD
On subtracting BC from both sides, we get A B C
AB + BC - BC = BC + CD - BC AC = AB + BC
Þ AB = CD [by axiom 3] Þ 4x - 5 = x + 3 + 2 x
5. (a) Given, Þ 4x - 5 = 3x + 3
AB = BC … (i) Þ4 x - 5 + 5 + 3 x + 3 + 5 [adding 5 on both sides]
and BX = BY … (ii) Þ 4x = 3x + 8
On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get Þ 4x - 3x = 3x + 8 - 3x [subtracting 3x from both sides]
AB - BX = BC - BY Þx= 8
Þ AX = CY Hence, the value of x is 8.
432 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

8
Lines and Angles
Point
A fine dot on paper or a location on plane is called a
point. Point has no length, breadth or thickness. Point
is denoted by capital letters such as A, B or C etc.
Plane
A sheet of paper or surface of table has a flat surface.
If we extend it in all directions to unlimited length,
then the extended flat surface is called a plane.
Line
intersecting lines. When two lines intersect vertically,
then opposite angles are equal.
∠ 1 = ∠ 2 and ∠3 = ∠ 4
● Line segment Line segment is a part of line. It has
two end points and a definite length.
● Ray If a line segment is extended to unlimited length
on one of the end point, then we name it by a ray.
(i) A line contains infinite points.
(ii) Infinite lines can pass through a point.
(iii) Two distinct lines in a plane cannot have more than
one point common.

The basic idea of line is straightness. It has no breadth

or thickness. It can be extended indefinitely on both
Angle
directions. Line is denoted by small letters as l, m, n etc. Two rays having a common point, form an angle.
● Parallel lines Lines in the same plane that never e. g., ∠AOB
B
intersect and are always at equal distance from each
other are called parallel lines.
(i) l1 and l2 are parallel lines
(ii) line XY is called transversal. O
(iii) ∠ 1 = ∠ 7, ∠ 2 = ∠ 8, ∠ 3 = ∠ 5, ∠ 4 = ∠ 6, these A
angles are called alternate angles.
(iv) ∠ 1 = ∠ 5, ∠ 2 = ∠ 6, ∠ 3 = ∠ 7, ∠ 4 = ∠ 8, these Types of Angles
angles are called corresponding angles. ● Acute angle An angle which is less than 90° is called
X an acute angle.
2 1 ● Right angle An angle of 90° is called right angle.
I1
3 4 ● Obtuse angle An angle which is lying between 90°
6 5 and 180° is called obtuse angle.
I2
7 8 ● Straight angle An angle of 180° is called a straight
Y angle.
● Reflex angle An angle which is lying between 180°
● Intersecting lines When two and 360° is called a reflex angle.
1
lines or line segments cross each other
3 4 ● Complete angle An angle of 360° is called complete
at a single point, then they are called
2 angle.
Lines and Angles 433
● Complementary angles Two angles whose sum is 90° Example 2 In the figure shown, if PQ || RS, then find ∠QOS.
are called complementary angles.
P
● Supplementary angles Two angles whose sum is Q
35°
180° are called supplementary angles.
O
● Adjacent angles Two angles are said to be adjacent, if
they have a common arm and same vertex ∠COB and 75°
∠BOA are adjacent angles.
R S
C
B (a) 120° (b) 110° (c) 100° (d) 90°
Solution (b) Let us draw TU || PQ || RS.
O A Now, ∠PQO = ∠QOU = 35°
P
● Linear pair of angles Two adjacent angles form a Q
35°
linear pair of angle, if their non-common arms are two
opposite rays. Sum of angles of linear pair is always 180°. T O U

Angle Bisector 75°

A line which cuts an angle into two equal angles is R S

called an angle bisector. An angle bisector can be
internal or external. and ∠RSO = ∠SOU = 75° (alternate angles)
Thus, ∠QOS = ∠QOU + ∠SOU = 35° + 75° = 110 °
Internal Angle Bisector
Example 3 In the figure shown, if AF || CE , then find ∠FOP.
Here, two angles are formed ∠AOB and ∠BOC. Both
angles are equal (θ) because OB is the internal bisector. B

C A F
B (2x + 5) O
θ
θ (3x – 7)
O A
C P E
External Angle Bisector
D
Here, ∠A ′ OB and ∠BOC are equal and external
bisector is OB.
(a) 150° (b) 145° (c) 151° (d) 125°
A
Solution (c) We know, ∠AOP = ∠EPO (alternate angles)

O i.e., ( 2x + 5)° = (3 x − 7 )° ⇒ x = 12
θ C Thus, ∠AOP = 2x + 5 = 24 + 5 = 29
A′ θ
∴ ∠FOP = 180 ° − ∠AOP = 180 − 29 = 151°
B
Example 4 If ∠AOC = 3 x − 70 and ∠COB = 3 x + 40, what
Example 1 In the given figure, if AD ⊥ BC , then find y − x . value of x will make A, O and B, the collinear points?
A B
(a) 45° (b) 40° (c) 36° (d) 35°
y
5x x Solution (d) (3 x − 70 ) + (3 x + 40 ) = 180 °, i.e., ∠AOC and ∠BOC
E O F will form a linear pair for A , O and B to be in a straight line
i.e., 6 x − 30 = 180 °
D
C C
(a) 75° (b) 65° (c) 60° (d) 45°
(3x – 70)°
Solution (a) Since, BC ⊥ AD, we get y = 90° and ∠BOD = 90 ° (3x + 40)°
∴ x + 5x = 90 ° A O B
(Q ∠AOE = ∠FOD = 5x)
⇒ 6 x = 90 ° ⇒ x = 15° ⇒ 6 x = 210 °
Thus, y − x = 90 ° − 15 = 75° ⇒ x = 35°
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. How many least number of distinct points determine a 8. In the figure shown, if l1 ||l2 , then y is
unique line?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Infinite y
l1
2. Which one of the following determines a plane? 5x
x
(a) A line and a point on it l2
(b) Two points
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 50° (d) 60°
(c) Three non-collinear points
(d) None of the above 9. If an angle is increase 25% more than its
3. Which of the following statements is false? supplementary angle, the angles are
(a) A line segment can be produced to any desired length (a) 80° and 40° (b) 80° and 100°
(c) 25° and 75° (d) None of these
(b) Through a given point, only one straight line can be drawn
(c) Through two given points, it is possible to draw one and only 10. In the figure, if AB||CD and EG and GF are the angle
one straight line bisectors of ∠BEF and ∠CFE, respectively. What is
(d) Two straight lines can intersect in only one point the value of ∠EGF?
4. Number of pairs of vertical angles formed when two
lines intersect is/are E
(a) one pair (b) two pairs A B
40° G
(c) four pairs (d) None of these
F
5. Find the value of x in the figure shown. D C

(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 120° (d) 150°

(3x + 7)°
(4x – 5)
11. If AB||CD and BC ||DE, what is the value of x?
A B E
45°
(a) 12° (b) 14°
(c) 16° (d) 18° x

6. In the figure given, find the value of a. C D

C (a) 35° (b) 105°
A (c) 145° (d) None of these
a
D 12. If PQ||ST, the value of x is
140°
B a
P Q
40°
E S
F T
°
15

x
(a) 60° (b) 70°
(c) 90° (d) None of these R
7. In the figure shown AB|| PQ, then ∠RSQ is (a) 25° (b) 55° (c) 155° (d) 105°
A 13. If ABCD is a parallelogram, then the value of x is
P A B
6x – 40
60°
B Q 20° R
5x + 15
S
D C
(a) 20° (b) 30°
(a) 55° (b) 135°
(c) 40° (d) 50°
(c) 85° (d) None of these
Lines and Angles 435
14. In the figure shown, the value of x is 15. If AD||BC, then ∠BAC is equal to
A D
35°

90° x
7x x
85°
(a) 10° B C
(b) 20°
(c) 30° (a) 30° (b) 60°
(d) 40° (c) 40° (d) 80°

High Skill Questions

1. In the figure shown, if m ||n and 5 ( ∠5) = 7 ( ∠8), what 4. If x = 2 ( ∠BEC) and AB||CG, what is the value of x?
is the value of ∠2 + ∠7?
A B
1 2 80°
m x°
3 4
F

5 6 C G
n D
8 7 110

(a) 120° (b) 105° E

(c) 150° (d) 180°
(a) 20° (b) 10° (c) 30° (d) 40°
2. In the figure shown, if BE ||DF , what is the value of
∠ABC? 5. If TU ⊥ ST, QP ||ST and SR ||TV , then the value of y
is
B Q P

20° C D 60°
A y
70° R
E
T
F S
35°

(a) 20° (b) 30° U

V
(c) 50° (d) 70°
(a) 10° (b) 20° (c) 30° (d) 115°
3. If in the figure, ∠PQR = 40° and ∠RSU = 70° with
6. If AB||CD||EF and GI ||JL, what is the value of
QT ||SU, what is the value of ∠PRQ?
∠JLE?
Q G
B
120°
A
H
J
R S D
P
K
C I
T
U
F
L
(a) 35°
(b) 70° E
(c) 85°
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(d) None of the above
(c) 120° (d) None of these
436 Study Package for NTSE

7. If AB||CD, ∠BHF = 40° , ∠BCI = 100° and 11. If AB||HG, what is the value of a?
∠CEF = 130°, then find ∠EFH. E
(6a – 5)°
B 40°
A H F
80° A B
C
30° E F
(10a + 5)° D
D H G
C
(a) 15
I (b) 2.5
(a) 50° (c) 7.5
(b) 80° (d) None of the above
(c) 110°
12. If AB||FE and AF = FC, then ∠FCD is equal to
(d) 150°
B
8. If PR ||TS and PU ||RS, then x is equal to
T D
C
P x° U E
40°
75°
70° G
A F
(a) 35° (b) 105°
40°
(c) 135° (d) 155°
Q R S
(a) 30° (b) 45° 13. In the figure, the value of y is
(c) 75° (d) None of these M
y
9. If m ||n, then the value of ∠QSR is 30°
P
m
60° 3a
50° x°
40°
R
S P Q
b
a b (a) 30° (b) 60°
n
Q R (c) 120° (d) None of these

(a) 60° 14. In the figure, the value of y is

(b) 120° T
(c) 160° O
(d) None of the above
90°
10. Which of the following two lines are parallel in the x°
figure shown? B A R
y°
45°
l
115° P
m (a) 20° (b) 30°
n (c) 50° (d) Cannot be determined
65°
o 15. If AB||CD, then y is equal to
75°
p
45°
q
A B
4x° 3y°
(a) l || m 2x°
(b) m|| n D C
(c) n|| o .
(d) None of the above (a) 20° (b) 30° (c) 40° (d) 50°
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) In order to determine a unique line, atleast two distinct points 10. (b) Since, EG in an angle bisector, we get
are required. ∠BEG = ∠GEF = 40°
2. (c) Three non-collinear points are sufficient enough to determine
a plane. E
A B
3. (b) Since, an infinite number of straight lines can be drawn to 40° G
50°
pass through a given point. Hence, (b) is false statement. F 50°
4. (b) When two lines intersect, then four angles are formed. Thus, D C
there are two pairs of vertical angles.
5. (a) (4 x − 5)° = (3 x + 7 )° (vertically opposite
Also, as AB|| CD
angles)
⇒ ∠BEF + ∠CFE = 180°
⇒ 4 x − 3 x = 7 + 5 ⇒ x = 12 ° ⇒ (40° + 40° ) + ∠CFE = 180°
6. (b) 140° = 2 a (vertically opposite angles) ⇒ ∠CFE = 100°
⇒ a = 70° ∴ ∠EGF = 180° − (40° + 50° ) = 90°

7. (c) Given, AB|| PQ
Then, ∠ABQ = ∠PQR = 60°
A
11. (d) Given, AB|| CD Then, ∠ABC = ∠BCD = 45°(alternate angles)
(corresponding angles) A B E
45°
P x°

60° 60° C D
B Q 20° R
Q BC || ED
S ∴ ∠BCD + ∠EDC = 180°
⇒ x = 180° − 45° = 135°
So, ∠PQR + ∠RQS = 180° (linear pairs)
⇒ 60° + ∠RQS = 180° 12. (c) ∠PQR = ∠QRU = 40° (alternate angles)

i.e., ∠RQS = 120° So, ∠SRU = 40° − 15° = 25°

P Q
Now, in ∆RQS, ∠RSQ = 180° − (120° + 20° ) = 40°
40°
[Q sum of all three angles of triangle = 180°] S
T
°
15

8. (a) Given, l1 || l2 x°
U
R
y° Also, as ST || RU
l1
5x° ⇒ x + ∠SRU = 180°
x° ∴ x = 180° − 25° = 155° [by property of alternate angles]
l2
13. (a) As, ABCD is a parallelogram.
y= x (corresponding angles)
A B
Also, 5 x + x = 180° (interior angles of same side)
(6x – 40)°
⇒ 6 x = 180°
∴ x = 30° = y (5x + 15)°
x × (100 + 25) 5x
9. (b) Supplementary angles are x and ⇒ . D C E
100 4
5x ∠BAD + ∠BCD = ∠BCD + ∠BCE = 180°
Then, x+ = 180°
4 ⇒ 6 x − 40 = 5 x + 15
⇒ 4 x + 5 x = 4 × 180° ⇒ x = 55°
⇒ 9 x = 4 × 180° [Q putting the values of ∠BAD and ∠BCE]
⇒ x = 80°, so the angles are 80° and 100°.
438 Study Package for NTSE

14. (a) Given, A D

35°

90° x
7x x
85°
7 x + 90° + x + x = 180° (angles on straight line) B C
9 x = 90° ⇒ x = 10°
Now, in ∆ABC,
15. (b) As, AD|| BC ∠BAC +∠ABC + ∠ACB = 180°
∠DAC = ∠ACB = 35° (alternate angles) ∴ ∠BAC = 180° − (85° + 35° ) = 60°

High Skill Questions

1. (d) Given, 5 (∠5) = 7 (∠8) ...(i) 4. (a) ∠ABD = ∠BDC = 80° (alternate angles)
∠5 + ∠8 = 180° (linear pairs) ∠EDC = 180° − (∠BDC ) = 180° − 80° = 100°
7
⇒ ∠8 + ∠8 = 180° [Q from Eq. (i)] A B
5
180° × 5
⇒ ∠8 = = 75°
80°
x°
12 F
7 7
So, ∠5 = ∠7 = × ∠8 = × 75 = 105° 80°
C
5 5 G
D
and ∠2 = ∠6 = ∠8 = 75° 100° 110°
Thus, ∠2 +∠7 = 75°+105° = 180° x/2

Alternate Method E
Q ∠4 + ∠6 = 180° ⇒ ∠2 + ∠7 = 180°
Also, ∠CDE + ∠DEC = 110°
(angle between two parallel lines are supplementary) x x
i.e., + 100° = 110° [Q ∠DEC = ∠BEC = ]
2. (c) Given, BE || DF 2 2
⇒ x = 20°
∠BCD = ∠FDC = 70° (alternate angles)
B
5. (d) Given, TU ⊥ ST

70° D ⇒ ∠STV = 90° − (∠UTV ) = 90° − 35° = 55°

20°
A C Q P
70°
60°
E y
F Z R W

Now, in ∆ABC, T
S
∠BAC + ∠ABC = ∠BCD
3 5°

⇒ 20°+∠ABC = 70°
U
∴ ∠ABC = 70° − 20° = 50° V

3. (b) Given, QT || SU Q RS || TV

Then, ∠QPR = ∠RSU = 70° (alternate angles) We get, ∠RST = ∠STV = 55° (alternate angles)
Q Now, let us draw ZW passing through R is parallel to QP and ST.

40° So, ∠RQP = 60° = ∠QRZ

and ∠RST = ∠SRZ = 55° (alternate angles)
70° R S Thus, y = ∠QRZ + ∠ ZRS
P
70° = 60° + 55° = 115°
T
U 6. (c) Given, AB||CD,

Now, in ∆PRQ, ∠QPR + ∠PQR + ∠QRP = 180° Then, ∠GHA = ∠HIC = 120° (corresponding angles)
∠HIC + ∠HIK = 180°
⇒ 70° + 40° + ∠ QRP = 180°
120° + ∠HIK = 180°
∴ ∠QRP = 70° ⇒ ∠HIK = 60°
Lines and Angles 439
G 10. (b) For lines m and n, A
B 115° C
120° m
B
A
H
n
J D 65° E
120° D
F
K
C I ∠EDF + ∠EDB = 180° [Q straight line angle]
∠EDB = 180°− 65° = 115°
F
L m|| n as corresponding angles are equals.
E 11. (c) ∠HDC = ∠DCF = 10 a + 5 (alternate angles)
Q GI || JL
10 a + 5 = 40 + 6 a − 5 (exterior angle of ∆ECF = ∠DCF)
∠HIC = ∠JKI = 120° (corresponding angles)
E
Now, ∠JKI = ∠JLE = 120° (Q CD|| EF) (6a – 5)°
40°
7. (c) Given, EF || CD
A B
∴ ∠CEF + ∠ECD = 180° [Q interior angle] C F
⇒ ∠ECD = 180° − (130° ) = 50°
⇒ ∠HBC + ∠BCD = 180° (10a + 5)°
∴ ∠HBC = 100° [Q ∠ BCD = 80° ] H D G
Now, in quadrilateral BHFP, sum of all 4 angles is 360°. ⇒ 4a = 30 ⇒ a = 7.5
B
A H 12. (d) Given, ∠BAF = ∠EFG = 75° (corresponding angles)
80° 80° 40°
°
30 E
So, ∠CAF = 75° − 40° = 35°
P 1
F
30° 130° B
50°
D
C D
C

I E
40°
⇒ ∠EFH = 360° − (80° + 40° + 130° ) = 360° − 250° = 110°
75°
G
8. (d) Given, PU || RS and PR || TS A F
Since, PURS is a parallelogram. Q AF = FC ⇒ ∠FAC = ∠FCA = 35°
T Thus, ∠FCD = (180° − 35° ) = 155° [Q straight line angle]
13. (c) Given, ∠PMQ + ∠MPQ = ∠MQR
P x U x = 30° + 50° = 80° (exterior angle)
M
70° y
30°
40°
Q R S
∴ ∠UPR = ∠USR = 40°
50° x°
Now, ∠TPU + ∠UPR + ∠RPQ = 180° [Q straight line angle] 40°
R
P Q
⇒ x + ∠UPR + 70° = 180°
∴ x = 180° − (70° + 40° ) = 70° Now, y = x + 40° = 80° + 40° = 120° [Q similarly as above]
9. (b) Given, 60° + 3a = 180° [Q straight line angle] 14. (d) We know that, x + y = 180. The value of y cannot be
⇒ a = 40° determined because x is not known.
P T
M O
60° 3a
90°
x°
A°
S y
b
a b
n
Q R 15. (a) We know that,
Also, 3a + a + b = 180° [Q interior angle of same sides] 4 x + 2 x = 180° [Q interior angle of same sides]
⇒ b = 180° − 160° = 20° ⇒ x = 30° and 2 x = 3 y [Q corresponding angles]
∴ ∠QSR = 180° − (a + b ) 2
⇒ y = x = 20°
= 180° − (40° + 20° ) = 120° 3
440 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

9
Triangles
A figure bounded by three line segments A
in a plane is called a triangle. It has
three vertices, three sides and three
angles.
B C
Types of a Triangle
Triangle further divided into following types
Based on Angle
● Acute angled triangle When all three angles of
triangle are acute, then it is an acute angled triangle.
● Right angled triangle When one angle of triangle is
90°, then it is called right angled triangle.
● Obtuse angled triangle When one angle of the
triangle is obtuse angle, then triangle is called obtuse
angled triangle.
Based on sides
● Scalene triangle When all three sides of triangle are
of different length, then triangle is scalene triangle.
● Isosceles triangle When two sides of triangle are of
equal length, then triangle is called isosceles. Two
angles of isosceles triangle are also equal.
● Equilateral Triangle It has all three sides of equal
length. It has all three angles as 60°.
Properties of a Triangle
● Sum of three angles of a triangle are always 180°.
● Sum of length of any two sides of a triangle is greater
than the length of third side and difference of any two
sides of a triangle is less than the third side.
A ●
B C D
● Side opposite to the greatest angle is the longest side.
● Sides opposite to equal angles are equal.
● The exterior angles of a triangle (at each vertex) is equal
to the sum of the two opposite interior angles.
∠D = ∠A + ∠B
Example 1 The angles of a triangle are x , y and z, such
that y − x = z − y = 15 ° , then find the value of y.
(a) 55° (b) 65° (c) 60° (d) 45°
Solution (c) We know that, x + y + z = 180° ...(i)
A
x
y z
B C
and y − x = 15° ⇒ x = y − 15°
and z − y = 15° ⇒ z = 15° + y
On substituting these in Eq. (i), we get
( y − 15° ) + y + (15° + y ) = 180 °
3 y = 180 ° ⇒ y = 60 °
Congruent Triangles
Two triangles are said to be congruent, if all sides,
angles of one triangle are equal to corresponding sides
and angles of another triangle.
Condition for congruency have been given below
● Side-Side-Side If all three sides of one triangle are
equal to the corresponding sides of another triangle,
then the two triangles are congruent.
Side-Angle-Side If two sides and included angle of
one triangle are equal to the corresponding sides and
included angle of another triangle, then triangles are
congruent.
Triangles 441
● Angle-Side-Angle If two angles and included side of Results on Similar Triangles
one triangle are equal to two angles and included side of
Theorem 1 If line is drawn parallel to one side of a
another triangle, then triangles are congruent.
triangle intersecting the other two sides, then it
● Right-Hypotenuse-Side If hypotenuse and one side divides these sides in the same ratio.
of a right triangle is equal to hypotenuse and one side of
another right triangle, then triangles are congruent. A

Medians
The line segment joining a vertex of triangle to D E
mid-point of opposite side is called median.
● Median of triangle pass through common points which B C
divides each median in 2 : 1.
● If two medians of a triangle are equal, then triangle is Here, DE|| BC, then
isosceles. AD AE AD AE AB AC
= or = or =
DB EC AB AC BD EC
Altitude
Theorem 2 The ratio of areas of two similar triangles
A line segment from a vertex which is perpendicular to is equal to the ratio of the squares of any two
opposite side of triangle is called altitude. corresponding sides.
Example 2 In the given figure, find the measure of A P
∠B ′ A ′ C ′.
A A′
m

3x
m
6c

6c

2x+20° B C Q R

∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
60° 60°
B C Here,
B′ C′
Area ( ∆ABC) AB2
6 cm 6 cm
BC2 AC2
(a) 60° (b) 50° (c) 40° (d) 65° Then, = = =
Area ( ∆PQR) PQ2 QR2 PR2
Solution (a) In ∆ABC and ∆ A ′ B′C′,
AB = A ′ B′ = 6 cm [given] Theorem 3 The areas of two similar triangles are in
the ratio of the squares of corresponding altitudes.
∠ABC = ∠A ′ B′ C′ = 60 ° [given]
and BC = B′ C′ = 6 cm [given]
Here, ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
A P
∴ ∆ABC ≅ ∆A ′ B′ C′ [by SAS congruence rule]
Then, ∠BAC = ∠B′ A ′C′
⇒ 3 x = 2x + 20 ° [from figure]
⇒ 3 x − 2x = 20 ° ⇒ x = 20 °
∴ ∠B′ A ′ C′ = 2x + 20 ° = 2 × 20 °+20 ° = 60 ° B D C Q S R

Area ( ∆ABC) AD 2
Similar Triangles Then, =
Area ( ∆PQR) PS2
Two triangles are said to be similar, if they are alike in
shapes only. The corresponding angles of two similar Theorem 4 The areas of two similar triangle are in
triangles are equal but the corresponding sides are the ratio of the squares of the corresponding medians.
A P
only proportional and not equal.
Condition for similarity of two triangles have been
given below.
● The three angles of one triangle are respectively equal to
the three angles of the second triangle. B D C Q S R
● Two sides of one triangle are proportional to two sides of
the other and the included angles are equal. Here, ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR
(i) Ratio of sides = Ratio of heights = Ratio of medians Area ( ∆ABC) AD2
Then, =
= Ratio of angular bisectors Area ( ∆PQR) PS2
(ii) Ratio of area = Ratio of square of corresponding sides
442 Study Package for NTSE

Theorem 5 The areas of two similar triangles are in A

the ratio of squares of the corresponding angle bisector
segments.
A P
O

B C

B X C Q Y R Also, AO = OC = OB = Circumradii
Here, ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR The position of circumcentre is as
Area ( ∆ABC) AX 2 ● Acute triangle is inside the triangle.
So, here =
Area ( ∆PQR) PY 2 ● Obtuse triangle is outside the triangle.
● Right triangle is the mid-point of the hypotenuse.
Theorem 6 If the areas of two similar triangles are
equal, then the triangles are congruent. Incentre
or
Equal and similar triangles are congruent. The point of intersection of the angle bisector of a
triangle is called the incentre.
Theorem 7 Mid-point theorem The line joining
the mid-points of any two sides of a triangle is parallel e.g., In the triangle shown AD, BE and CF are the angle
to the third side and is half of the third side. bisectors of ∠A, ∠B and ∠C, respectively and their point
A of intersection which is 'I' is the incentre of ∆ ABC.
A

P Q
F E
I

B C
B D C
Here, P and Q are mid-point of AB and AC.
1
1 î In ∆ABC, shown ∠BIC = 90 + ∠A,
So, PQ = BC 2
2 1 1
∠AIC = 90 + ∠B and ∠AIB = 90 + ∠C
2 2
Example 3 In a right ∆ABC, right angled at B, BD is
perpendicular on AC, then find the value of BD2 . Centroid
(a) AB × AD (b) AB × CD The point of intersection of medians in a triangle is
(c) AD × CD (d) None of these called the centroid.
Solution (c) We know that, ∠ ADB = ∠CDB e.g., In ∆ ABC, G the centroid, is the point of
∠ BAD = ∠ DBC A intersection of medians AD, BE and CF.
and ∠ABD = ∠DCB A

Thus, ∆ ABD ~ ∆ BCD D

AB BD AD
So, = =
BC CD BD F E
(i) (ii) (iii) G
Using ratios (ii) and (iii), C
B
we get B D C
BD 2 = AD × CD
Centroid divides the medians in 2 : 1 ratio,
Circumcentre i.e., AG : GD = BG : GE
The point of intersection of perpendicular bisectors of = CG : GF
sides of a triangle is called the circumcentre. = 2:1
e.g., O in ∆ABC is the point of intersection of The centroid divides the triangle into 6 triangles of
perpendicular bisector of sides AB, BC and CA. equal area.
Triangles 443
● In a right angled triangle, right angled at B, Example 4 Find the value of x in the figure shown, if BO
AB2 + BC 2 = AC 2 (by Pythagoras theorem) and CO are the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C, respectively.
A A

40°

O
C x
B
B C
● Appolonius theorem In a ∆ABC, if AD is the median,
then AB2 + AC 2 = 2 ( AD 2 + BD 2 ) (a) 100° (b) 90° (c) 110° (d) 95°
A
Solution (c) Since, BO and CO are the bisectors of ∠ B and
∠C, respectively.
1 1
We know that, ∠ BOC = 90 ° + ∠A = 90 ° + × 40 °
2 2
= 90 ° + 20 ° = 110 °
B C Thus, ∠ x = ∠ BOC = 110 °
D

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. In the figure shown, the value of x is 5. In the figure shown, ∠XYO : ∠XZO is equal to
A X

O
65°
60°
B C D
(a) 5° (b) 6° (c) 7° (d) 8° Y Z

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 1
2. In the figure, if ∠ABC = ∠ACB = 48 ° and ∠D = 37 °,
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1
then the value of ∠CAD is
A 6. In a ∆PQR, if ∠ R > ∠ Q, then
(a) PQ < PR (b) QR > PR
(c) QR < PR (d) PQ > PR

7. If ratio of the bases of two similar triangles is 2 : 5,

then the ratio of their areas is
(a) 2 : 25 (b) 4 : 5 (c) 4 : 25 (d) 4 : 9
B C D
(a) 10° (b) 11° 8. The length of two sides of a triangle are 15 cm and
(c) 12° (d) 13° 21 cm, then the third side will be
(a) 6 cm
3. If angles of a triangle are in ratio 3 : 1 : 5, the smallest
(b) 36 cm
angle is
(a) 20° (b) 60° (c) more than 6 but less than 36 cm
(c) 80° (d) 100° (d) more than 36 cm

4. If BO and CO are the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB of 9. In a ∆ABC, D, E and F are the mid-points of sides AB,
∆ABC, then ∠BOC is BC and CA, respectively. The area of ∆DEF is 24 cm2 ,
(a) less than 90° (b) more than 90° then area of ∆ABC is
1 (a) 48 cm 2 (b) 60 cm 2 (c) 72 cm 2 (d) 96 cm 2
(c) ∠ BAC (d) 90°
2
444 Study Package for NTSE

10. If the sides of a triangle are in 4 : 6 : 7 ratio, then the 15. The medians of a right angled triangle which are
triangle is drawn from the vertices of acute angles are 6 cm and
(a) acute angled 8 cm, then the length of the hypotenuse is
(b) obtuse angled
(a) 4 5 cm (b) 3 5 cm (c) 2 5 cm (d) 5 cm
(c) right angled
(d) None of the above 16. In ∆ABC, AB = 6 cm and DE ||BC, such that
1
11. In a right angled triangle ∆ABC, AD is perpendicular AE = AC, then AD is equal to
4
to the hypotenuse BC, then AB2 is equal to
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 4 cm
(a) AD × CD (b) DB × CB
(c) DB (d) None of these 17. If D is the point on the side BC of a ∆ABC, such that
AD bisects ∠BAC and perpendicular to BC, then
12. If G is the centroid of ∆ABC and the median AD is
(a) BD = CD (b) CD > CA (c) BA > BD (d) BD > BA
21 cm, then the value of DG is
(a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm 18. If RB||SC ||TD in the figure given, then the ratio of
(c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm
y : x is
13. ABC is an equilateral triangle. If straight line R
perpendicular to AB, BC and CA thought the points
T
B, C and A, respectively form a ∆PQR, then ratio of
∆PQR and ∆ABC is x S
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 z
y
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 3 : 1

14. ABC is a triangle in which AB = AC. The base BC is B

p
C
q
D
produced to D and ∠ACD = 130°, then ∠A is equal to p q p q
(a) 40° (b) 50° (a) (b) (c) (d)
q p p+ q p+ q
(c) 60° (d) 80°

High Skill Questions

1. In the figure shown, if AD = BD and AE = EC, what is 3. In ∆PQR shown PQ = 24 cm, PR = 30 cm and
y + z in terms of x? QR = 40 cm, if PS is the median, which of the
A following is true for the length of PS?
P
x

y z
B D E C

(a) 90 + x Q S R
(b) 90 − x (a) 23 < PS < 24
(c) 90 − x /2 (b) 21 < PS < 22
(d) 90 + x /2 (c) 20 < PS < 21
2. In the ∆ABC, DE is the perpendicular bisector of AC. (d) 18 < PS < 19
If ∠AED = 70°, what is the measure of ∠BCA? 4. In ∆ABC, AC = 3 cm, AB = 4 cm and AD is the bisector
(a) 80°
of ∠A, then the ratio BD : DC is
(b) 60°
(c) 40° (a) 9 : 16 (b) 16 : 9
(d) None of the above (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3
Triangles 445
P
5. The three sides of ∆PQR, the lengths of PQ, QR and
RS are 10 cm, 12 cm and x cm, respectively. If the S
U T
perimeter of the ∆PQR is ‘P’, which of the following is
true for P ? V
(a) 23 < P < 44 (b) 24 < P < 44
(c) 24 ≤ P ≤ 44 (d) None of these Q R
6. In ∆ABC shown in the figure, ∠A = 90°. D is a point (a) 20° (b) 30°
on BC such that DB : DC = 1 : 3. If DM and DL are (c) 45° (d) None of these
perpendiculars on AB and AC respectively, then
DM : LC is equal to 11. If O is the incentre of ∆PQR, where 120 < ( ∠QOR)
B < 130. Which of the following is a possible value of
∠P?
(a) 60° (b) 65° (c) 80° (d) 90°
D 12. If in the figure shown, U is the mid-point of SR and
M
PQ = 8 units, what is the length of TQ?
P
S
A L C U
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 20

7. ABC is an equilateral triangle in which AC is T Q 6 R

1
produced to R, such that CR = AC, then (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
2
13. In the figure shown, DH : HG = 3 : 1, EG : GF = 1 : 2.
(a) BR 2 = 5 CR 2 (b) BR 2 = 3 CR 2
Find DI : IF.
(c) BR 2 = 7 CR 2 (d) None of these D

8. In the figure shown, AE ⊥ BC, D is the mid-point of

BC, then x is equal to I
A
H

a b
h d E G F
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4

B E x D C 14. If D, E and F are the mid-points of the sides AB, AC

a and BC, respectively of an equilateral ∆ABC, the
a2 ratio of the perimeter of ∆ABC to that of ∆DEF is
b2 − d 2 −
a2 + b 2 + c 2 − d 2 4 A
(a) (b)
4 a
(h + d ) (c + d − h)
(c) (d) D E
3 2

9. In ∆ABC shown, ∠DAC is the exterior angle. If

AB = AE and AE = EC, how much is ∠ABE? B G C
D (a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
A
108° 15. If in the triangle shown, BD = AD and AE = EC, how
much is ∠DAE?
A

15°
B E C
(a) 18° (b) 36° (c) 48° (d) 72°

10. In ∆PQR, S and T are any points on PQ and PR such 40°

that ∆PST is isosceles with PS = PT the bisector of B D E C
∠R meets ST at U. If we know ∠PQR = 60°, what is (a) 65° (b) 95°
∠TUR ? (c) 70° (d) None of these
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) Given, 65° = ∠ACD is the exterior angle of ∆ABC. 6. (d) Since, ∠R > ∠Q, we get PQ > PR
Q Exterior angle of triangle is equal to the sum of two opposite (side opposite to the larger angle is longest)
interior angle P
So, ∠ ACD = ∠CAB + ∠ABC
A

65° Q R
60°
B C D 7. (c) We know that ratio of the area of two smaller triangles is equal
i.e., 65° = x + 60° ⇒ x = 5° to the ratio of the square of their corresponding sides.
2
2. (b) We have, ∠ABC = ∠ACB = 48° and ∠D = 37 ° So, ratio of area =   =
2 4
A  5 25
8. (c) We know that, subtraction of two sides < third side
< addition of two sides
So, 21−15 < Third side < 21 + 15
48° 48° 37°
i.e., 6 < Third side <36
B C D
∠ACB + ∠ACD = 180° (linear pairs)
9. (d) We know that, the line joining the mid-points of the side of a
triangle is parallel to the third side triangle is half of it. So, the
i.e., 48° + ∠ACD = 180°
figure is divided into 4 equal area triangles, if the area of
⇒ ∠ACD = 132 °
∆DEF = 24 cm2 , we get
Now, in ∆ACD ∠ DAC + ∠ ACD + ADC = 180°
A
⇒ ∠DAC + 132 ° + 37 ° = 180°
⇒ ∠DAC = 180° − 169° = 11°
3. (a) Since, angles of triangle are in the ratio 3 : 1 : 5. D F
Let the angles be 3x, x and 5x.
We know that, Sum of the angles of a triangle = 180°
3 x + x + 5 x = 180° ⇒ 9 x = 180° B E C

⇒ x = 20° (smallest angle) Area of ∆ABC = 4 × 24 = 96 cm 2

4. (b) We know that, BO and CO are the angle bisectors, so 10. (a) Let the sides of the triangle are 4 k, 6 k and 7k
1 Now, (7 k )2 = 49 k 2 and (6 k )2 + (4 k )2 = 36 k 2 + 16 k 2 = 52 k 2
∠BOC = 90 + ∠A
2 Since, (7 k )2 < (6 k )2 + (4 k )2
A So, the triangle is an acute angled triangle.
Alternate Method
O Let a, b, c be the sides of the triangle and c being the longest.
A
B C

i.e., more than 90°. a b

5. (d) Since, XY = XZ ⇒ ∠XYZ = ∠XZY …(i)
Also, OY = OZ ⇒ ∠OYZ = ∠OZY …(ii)
On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get X
B c C
∠XYZ − ∠OYZ = ∠XZY − ∠OZY If c 2 = a2 + b 2 ⇒ ∠A = 90°
i.e., ∠XYO = ∠XZO O If c 2 > c 2 + b 2 ⇒ ∠A > 90° and c 2 < a2 + b 2
Thus, ∠XYO : ∠XZO = 1 : 1 ⇒ ∠A < 90°
Y Z
Triangles 447
11. (b) We know that, in ∆ADB and ∆ABC, In ∆EBC, (2 x)2 + ( y)2 = 64 [Q by Pythagoras theorem]
∠B = ∠B (common) ⇒ 4 x + y = 64
2 2
…(i)
∠ADB = ∠BAC (90° each) In ∆ABD , (2 y)2 + ( x)2 = 36
and ∠DAB = ∠C [Q by AAA Congruent]
⇒ 4 y2 + x2 = 36 …(ii)
⇒ ∆ADB ~ ∆CAB
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
C
64 176
4 x2 = and 4 y2 =
3 3
D
Now, in ∆ABC,
AC 2 = (2 x)2 + (2 y)2 = 4 x2 + 4 y2
64 176 240
A B ⇒ AC 2 = + = = 80
3 3 3
AD DB AB
So, = = ⇒ AB2 = DB × CB ∴ AC = 4 5 cm
CA AB CB
16. (b) Since, DE || BC ⇒ ∆ADE ~ ∆ABC
12. (a) We know centroid divides the medians in 2 : 1 ratio, so if
1 1 A
AD = 21, we get DG = × AD = × 21 = 7 cm
3 3
A
6D E

G B C
AD AE
= ⇒
AD 1
=  using AE = 1 
So,  
AB AC 6 4  AC 4 
B D C
∴ AD = 1.5 cm
13. (b) Since, it is an equilateral triangle P, Q and R will be the
mid-points of the respective sides, so arc of ∆ABC will be 4 times 17. (c) We know that,
the area of ∆PQR. Hypotenuse > (Base + Perpendicular)
A A

P Q

B R C
B D C
∴ Required ratio = 1 : 4
In ∆ABC, AB > (BD + DA)
14. (d) Given, A
i.e., AB > BD
18. (d) Given, RB|| SC
Then, ∆DSC ~ ∆DRB
1 1 130°
R
B C D T
We know, AB = AC
x S
⇒ ∠ABC = ∠ACB = ∠1 (say) z
Now, ∠1 + 130° = 180° (linear pair) y
⇒ ∠1 = 50°
Thus, ∠A = 180° − 2 ∠1 = 180° − 2 × 50° = 80° B C D
p q
15. (a) A DC SC q y
= ⇒ = …(i)
DB RB p+ q x
y
Also, SC || TD ⇒ ∆BSC ~ ∆BTD
6c

BC SC p y
m

E = ⇒ = …(ii)
BD TD p+ q z
8c
y m q
Thus, the ratio of y/x = [using Eq. (i)]
p+ q
B x D x C
448 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. (c) As AD = BD ⇒ ∠DBA = ∠DAB = y A 6. (a) We know that, DB : DC = 1 : 3 B
and AE = EC ⇒ ∠EAC = ∠ECA = z x Since, ∠BMD = ∠BAC = 90° 1
Thus, in ∆ABC, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° MD|| AC, ∆BMD ~ ∆BAC
⇒ ( y + x + z) + y + z = 180° D
BM MD BD 1 M
⇒ 2 ( y + z) = 180° − x ⇒ = = = ...(i)
y z BA AC BC 4 3
⇒ y + z = 90° − x / 2 B D E C
Using Eq. (i), we know 90°
2. (b) Since, DE is a perpendicular bisector of MD MD
AC, we get AD = DC = A L C
AC A L + LC
B
In ∆AED, MD 1
∠AED + ∠EDA + ∠EAD = 180° ⇒ = (using MD = AL)
100° E MD + LC 4
⇒ 70° + 90° + ∠EAD = 180°
⇒ ∠EAD = 20° 70° ⇒ 4MD = MD + LC
Now, in ∆ABC ⇒ 3 MD = LC
∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° A ⇒ MD : LC = 1 : 3
C D
⇒ 20° + 100° + ∠C = 180°
⇒ ∠C = 60° = ∠BCA 7. (b) Since, CR is the half of AC, we can place it on AC on the
∆ABC, so CR = CR ′ joining
3. (d) Since, PS is a median it bisects the base, QS = SR
3 A
P BR′ = Median of ∆ABC = side
2
Side R'
24 30 and CR =
2
In ∆ BR ′ R, BR 2 = (BR ′ ) 2 + (R ′ R )2
2
 3a  B C
Q S R =  + ( a)
2
R
40  2 

We know that, PQ 2 + PR 2 = 2 (PS 2 + QS 2 ) 3a2 7 a2

= + a2 =
(by Appolonius theorem) 4 4
⇒ 242 + 302 = 2(PS 2 + 202 ) a2
7 ×4
⇒ PS 2 = 338 = PS = 338 ⇒18 < PS < 19 ∴ BR 2 = 4
4
2
4. (d) Since, AD is an angle bisector using angle bisect theorem,
= 7   = 7 CR 2
a
we get 2
A [Q on squaring both sides]
8. (b) In ∆AED, d 2 = x2 + h2 …(i)
4 cm [Q by Pythagoras theorem]
3 cm 2
and in ∆AEC, b =  x +  + h2
2 a
…(ii)
 2
B D C From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
AB BD 4 a2
= = b 2 = x2 + + ax + (d 2 − x2 )
AC DC 3 4
BD 4 A
Thus, =
DC 3
5. (b) We know that, third side of a triangle is greater than the a b
subtraction of the other two sides and less than, the addition of h d
the other two sides. P
i.e., 12 − 10 < x < 10 + 12
i.e., 2 < x < 22 B E x D C
a/2 a/2
Since, x lies between 2 and 22. 10 x
The perimeter (P) would lie between ⇒ ax = b 2 − d 2 − a2 / 4
10 + 12 + 2 < P < 10 + 12 + 22 b 2 − d 2 − a2 / 4
∴ x=
i.e., 24 < P < 44 a
Q 12 R
Triangles 449
9. (d) Given, AB = AE UQ RU RQ
= =
ST RS RT
Then, ∠ABE = ∠AEB = α (let)
P
1 6
D ⇒ =
2 RT S
A ⇒ RT = 12 U 10
108° 8
(using RU = US)
20
α/2 So, RT − RQ = TQ
⇒ 12 − 6 = 6
T Q 6 R
α α α/2 13. (a) Let us drawn GJ || EI.
DH DI 3
B E C Q HI || GJ , = =
HG IJ 1
AE = EC Let DI = 3y and IJ = y
α Now, in ∆EIF, GJ || EI
⇒ ∠EAC = ∠ECA = (Q α = ∠EAC + ∠ECA)
2 D
α 3α EG FJ 2
= =
We know that, 108° = + α ⇒ = 108° 3y
2 2 GF JI 1 I
⇒ α = 72 ° = ∠ABE
3
Let FJ = 2 z and JI = z y=z
H J
10. (b) ∠QPR = 180° − (60 + 2 α) = 120° − 2α …(i) We have, IJ = z = y. 1 2z
P Thus, y = z
So, DI : IF = 3 : 3 = 1 : 1 E 1 G 2 F
S
U T 14. (b) Let each side of equilateral triangle be x m. Since, the side,
V DE, EF and DF are the side formed by joining the mid-points of
α the equilateral triangle, so ∆DEF as also equilateral triangle will
x
60°
α have side half of the sides of ∆ABC, i.e., each
2
Q R A
and ∠PTS = ∠PST (Q SP = TP, given)
Q ∠PTS = ∠TUR + α (∠PTS is an exterior angle of ∆UTR)
D E
⇒ ∠QPR = 180° − 2 ( ∠TUR + α ) …(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
⇒ 120° − 2α = 180° − 2 ∠TUR − 2α B F C

⇒ 2 ∠TUR = 180°−120° Thus, the ratio of perimeter of ∆ABC : Perimeter of ∆DEF

⇒ ∠TUR = 30° 3x
= 3x : ⇒2 :1
2
11. (b) If O is the incircle of ∆PQR, we get
∠QOR = 90° +
1
∠P 15. (c) Given, BD = AD
2 ⇒ ∠DBA = ∠DAB = 15°
P
Since, A
120° < (∠QOR ) < 130°
i.e., 15°
1
120° < 90° + ∠P < 130°
2 O
⇒
1
120° − 90° < ∠P < 130° − 90° Q R
40°
2 B D E C
∠P
⇒ 30° < < 40°
2 Also, AE = EC
⇒ 60° < ∠P < 80° ⇒ ∠EAC = ∠ECA = 40°
By options, the possible value of ∠P = 65° Q ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
⇒ (15° + ∠DAE + 40° )
12. (c) QR = 6 and PQ = 8 and ∠Q = 90°
+ 15° + 40° = 180°
⇒ PR = PQ 2 + QR 2 = 10 (using Pythagoras theorem) [Q putting the value of angles A, Band C]
∆RUQ ~ ∆RST ⇒ ∠DAE + 110° = 180° ⇒ ∠DAE = 70°
(Q ∠R = ∠R common and ∠TQR = ∠STR = 90° )
450 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

10
Quadrilaterals
Quadrilateral
Rectangle
A four sided closed figure is called a quadrilateral.
Sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is 360°. A rectangle is a parallelogram in which each angle is
90° and diagonals are equal.
Various Types of Quadrilaterals In the above figure, ABCD is a rectangle in which
AB||DC A B
Parallelogram and AB = DC
A quadrilateral in which opposite sides are parallel Also, BC||AD
and equal is called a parallelogram. and BC = AD
A D C
B Also, ∠A = ∠B = ∠C
= ∠D = 90°

Square
C
A parallelogram in which all sides are equal and each
D E
angle is 90°.
In the above figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. In which In the above figure, ABCD is a square, in which
AB|| CD and BC||AD. AB||DC, BC||AD A B
● Adjacent angles are supplementary. and AB = BC
● Opposite sides and opposite angles are equal. = CD = DA
● Diagonals bisect each other and each diagonal divide Also, ∠A = ∠B = ∠C
D
the triangle into two congruent triangles. = ∠D = 90° C

Rhombus Trapezium
A parallelogram in which all sides are equal and A quadrilateral in which one pair of opposite sides are
diagonals bisect each other at 90°. parallel is called a trapezium. If the non-parallel sides
A of a trapezium are equal, the trapezium is called an
isosceles trapezium.
B D A B
O

C
In the above figure, ABCD is a rhombus in which
AB = BC = CD = DA and AB || DC, BC|| AD C
D E
Quadrilaterals 451
Example 1 In the figure shown, if ABCD is a square, then C
find the value of y.
S R
D C
120° D B
y
O P Q
E
A
A B ● The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of
the sides of a square, is also a square. The figure formed
(a) 75° (b) 85° (c) 90° (d) 65° by joining the mid-points of the pairs of consecutive
Solution (a) We know that, sides of a quadrilateral is a parallelogram.
∠DOC + ∠COE = 180 ° Here, ABCD is a quadrilateral while, EFGH is a
parallelogram.
⇒ ∠COE = 180 ° − 120 ° = 60 ° G
D C
As diagonals of a square bisect the angles ∠OCE = 45°
Now, in ∆COE, ∠OCE + ∠COE + ∠CEO = 180 °
H F
i.e., 45° + 60 ° + y = 180 °
⇒ y = 180 ° − 105° = 75°
A E B
Example 2 If the sides of a rhombus are 5 cm each and its
one diagonal is 6 cm, then find the length of the other diagonal. ● Two parallelograms on the same base and between
(a) 8 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4 cm same parallel lines have equal areas.
● One parallelogram and one rectangle on the same base
Solution (a) Let ABCD be the rhombus in which sides are
and between same parallel lines have equal areas.
5 cm each and diagonal AC = 6 cm. Since, diagonals bisect
each other at 90°. Polygon
A B Any figure in a plane bounded by three or more line
segments is called a polygon. A regular polygon has
O all sides and angles equal. A regular polygon can be
D C inscribed in a circle. They are named according to their
AC number of sides as triangle, quadrilateral, pentagon,
AO = OC = = 3 cm
2 hexagon, for 3, 4, 5, 6, sides, respectively.
Now, in ∆AOD ∠AOD = 90 °
Applying Pythagoras theorem, we get (in ∆ADO)
● Sum of all the angles in a convex polygon is (2n − 4) 90°.
360°
AD 2 = AO 2 + OD 2 ● Exterior angle of a regular polygon is .
n
i.e., 52 = 3 2 + OD 2 ⇒OD = 25 − 9 = 4 360°
● Interior angle of a regular polygon is 180° − ⋅
Thus, the other diagonal, BD = 2 (OD) = 8 cm n
● Number of diagonals of a convex polygon with sides is
Some Facts about Quadrilaterals n( n − 3 )
.
● The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of 2
the consecutive sides of a rectangle is rhombus. Here, Example 3 The ratio of the numbers of sides of two regular
E, F, G, H are mid-points of AB, BC, CD, DA polygons is 1 : 2. If each interior angle of the first polygon is
respectively, then EFGH is a rhombus. 120°, then the measure of each interior angle of the second
D G polygon is
C
(a) 140° (b) 135° (c) 150° (d) 160°
H F Solution (c) Given, interior angle of the first polygon = 120 °
Let number of sides in first polygon be n 1 .
A B n1 − 2
E Then, × 180 ° = 120 ° ⇒ 3 n 1 − 6 = 2n 1 ⇒ n 1 = 6
n1
● The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-point of the
consecutive sides of a rhombus is a rectangle. Here, ∴ Sides of the second polygon = 2 n 2 = 6 × 2 = 12
PQRS will be a rectangle. 12 − 2
∴ Interior angle of the second polygon = × 180 ° = 150 °
12
452 Study Package for NTSE

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. If a pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral are 10. In the figure shown, if AB = 8 cm , BC = 6 cm and
supplementary, then the quadrilateral is a AD = 7 cm, what is the length of CD?
(a) rhombus (b) rectangle D
A
(c) parallelogram (d) square

2. ABCD is a rhombus. If ∠ACB = 56°, then ∠ADB is

equal to
(a) 32° (b) 34° (c) 124° (d) 134°

3. In a parallelogram ABCD, if AB = 2x + 5, CD = y + 1, B C
AD = y + 5 and BC = 3 x − 4, then ratio of AB : BC is (a) 7 (b) 51 (c) 2 7 (d) 42
(a) 4 : 7 (b) 12 : 11 (c) 31 : 35 (d) 71 : 21
11. ABCD is a rectangle and O is any point inside it, then
4. In a quadrilateral PQRS, side PQ is longest and RS is
which of the following is true?
the shortest , then (a) OB + OD = OA + OC
(a) ∠P < ∠R (b) ∠P > ∠R
(b) AO + OB + AB = CD + OC + OD
(c) ∠P = ∠R (d) ∠P = 2 ∠R
(c) BC + OC + OD = AD + OD + OA
5. If angles P, Q, R and S of the quadrilateral PQRS, (d) OA 2 + OC 2 = OB2 + OD2
taken in order, are in the ratio 3 : 7 : 6 : 4, then PQRS is
a 12. In a quadrilateral PQRS, the sides and diagonals are
(a) rhombus (b) parallelogram related as
(c) trapezuim (d) square (a) PQ + QR + RS + SP = 2(PR + QS )
(b) PQ + QR + RS + SP < PR + QS
6. If diagonals of a quadrilateral , with no angle equal to
(c) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 2(PR + QS )
90° bisect each other at right angles, then the
(d) PQ + QR + RS + SP > (PR + QS )
quadrilateral is a
(a) rhombus (b) trapezuim 13. The external angle of a regular polygon is 72°. Find
(c) rectangle (d) parallelogram the sum of all the internal angles of it.
7. In the figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, then (a) 360° (b) 480° (c) 352° (d) 540°
2∠ABC − ∠ADC is equal to 14. In a rhombus ABCD, if AC = 24 cm and BD = 32 cm,
A B what is the each side of ABCD?
(a) 36 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 80 cm (d) 87 cm

15. The difference between the interior and exterior

65°
angles of a regular polygon is 60°. Then, how many
sides are there in that polygon?
D C E (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
(a) 50° (b) 60° (c) 65° (d) 75° 16. In the figure given below, PQRS is a parallelogram.
8. In a parallelogram ABCD, if the angle bisectors of ∠A PA bisects ∠P and SA bisects ∠S. What is ∠ PAS
and ∠B meet at a point P. Then, ∠APB is equal to equal to?
P Q
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) 90° (d) Cannot be determined A
S R
9. In the quadrilateral shown, if BE = BC and
(a) 60° (b) 75° (c) 90° (d) 100°
∠ABE = 60°, how much is ∠EBC?
A B 17. In quadrilateral ABCD shown in the figure
∠DAB = ∠DCX = 120°. If ∠ABC = 105°, then what is
130°
the value of ∠ADC?
X
D C
50°
D E C
120°
A B
(a) 40° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 30°
(a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 75° (d) 95°
Quadrilaterals 453
18. In the figure shown, if ABCD is a square and ∆AEB is 19. ABCD is a rectangle. The diagonals AC and BD
equilateral. The measure of ∠DEC is intersect at O. If AB = 32 cm and AD = 24 cm, then
E what is OD equal to?
(a) 22 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 16 cm

20. In the figure given below, PQRS is a parallelogram.

A B
If AP, AQ, CR and CS are the bisectors of ∠P, ∠Q, ∠R
and ∠S respectively, then ABCD is a
P Q
C
D B

S A
C R
D
(a) 15° (b) 20° (a) square (b) rhombus
(c) 30° (d) 45° (c) rectangle (d) None of these

High Skill Questions

1. In a trapezium ABCD, AB is parallel to CD and the 6. A circle is inscribed in a square PQRS of side x units
diagonals intersect each other at O. What is the ratio each. In the gap remaining at each corner a square of
of OA to OC equal to? minimum possible area is drawn. Find the radius of
(a) Ratio of OB to OD (b) Ratio of BC to CD the circle that can be inscribed in each of the smaller
(c) Ratio of AD to AB (d) Ratio of AC to BD squares.
2. If ABCD is an isosceles trapezium inscribed in a ( 2 − 1) ( 2 − 1)
(a) x (b) x
semi-circle with diameter AD and AB = CD = 2 and 2 2 2
the radius of the semi-circle is 4 cm, what is the ( 2 − 1) ( 2 − 1)
length of BC? (c) x (d) x
B C 4 4 2

7. Two rectangular boards are joined to form a bigger

board. The length of each board is 6 cm. If the ratio of
A O D the length to width of the bigger piece is equal to the
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm length to width of each of the smaller pieces, then the
(c) 8 cm (d) None of these width of the bigger piece is
(a) 6 2 cm
3. In the figure given below, ABCD is a trapezium. If EF (b) 8 cm
is parallel to AD and BC. Then, ∠y is equal to (c) 5 cm
A D (d) More than 1 answer possible
x° y°

E θ 120° 8. ABCD is a rhombus. If AB is produced to F and BA is

F
Q z
produced to E such that AB = AE = BF , then
90° 50°
B C (a) ED2 + CF 2 = EF 2 (b) ED|| CF
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 65° (c) ED > CF (d) ED ⊥ CF
4. An equilateral ∆TQR is drawn inside a square PQRS. 9. A square is inscribed in a circle of radius ‘a’. Another
The value of ∠PTS is circle inscribed a square in it and another square
(a) 75° (b) 90° (c) 120° (d) 150° inscribed in this circle. The side of the square is
5. Let ABCD be a rectangle and P, Q, R, S be the (a) 2a (b) a / 2
mid-points of sides AB, BC, CD, DA respectively. (c) a / 2 (d) a
Then, the quadrilateral PQRS is a 10. ABCD is a quadrilateral such that BC = BA and
(a) square
CD > AD. Which one of the following is correct?
(b) rectangle but need not be a square
(a) ∠BAD = ∠BCD (b) ∠BAD < ∠BCD
(c) rhombus but need not be a square
(d) parallelogram but need not be a rhombus (c) ∠BAD > ∠BCD (d) 2∠BAD = ∠BCD
454 Study Package for NTSE

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) Pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral is supplementary is a 6. (a) Diagonals bisect each other at 90° without each vertex angle
parallelogram. being 90° is in rhombus.
2. (b) ∠ACB = ∠CAD = 56° (alternate angles) 7. (c) We know that,
Now, in ∆AOD, ∠BCE = ∠ABC = 65° (alternate angle)
A and ∠ADC = ∠BCE = 65° (corresponding angle)

A B
56°
B D
O
56°
65°
C D C E
∠OAD + ∠AOD + ∠ODA = 180° So, 2 ∠ABC − ∠ADC = 2 × 65° − 65° = 65 °
i.e., 56° + 90° + ∠ODA = 180°
8. (c) We know that,
⇒ ∠ODA = 34°
A B
3. (c) We know that, AB = CD [Q for parallelogram]
⇒ 2x + 5 = y + 1
⇒ y − 2x = 4 ...(i) P
Also, y + 5 = 3x − 4 [Q AD = BC]
⇒ y − 3x = − 9 ...(ii)
D C
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x = 13 and y = 30 ∠A + ∠B = 180°
AB : BC = 2 x + 5 : 3 x − 4 = 31 : 35 (adjacent angles in a parallelogram are supplementary)
4. (a) By property of quadrilateral, we get 1 1 180°
⇒ ∠A + ∠B = = 90°
∠P < ∠R 2 2 2
S i.e., ∠PAB + ∠PBA = 90°
P Now, in ∆ABP,
∠BAP + ∠ABP + ∠APB = 180°
⇒ 90° + ∠APB = 180°
R ∴ ∠APB = 90°
9. (b) In quadrilateral ABED, we have
Q ∠BAD + ∠ADE + ∠ABE + ∠BED = 360°
5. (c) Let the angles of the quadrilateral PQRS be 3 k, 7 k, 6 k and A B
4k, respectively.
P Q 130° 60°
3k 7k
50°
D E C
4k 6k
R i.e., 130° + 50° + 60° + ∠BED = 360°
S
⇒ ∠BED = 120°
We know that,
Now, ∠BEC = 180° − ∠BED (linear pairs)
3 k + 7 k + 6 k + 4 k = 360°
= 180° − 120° = 60°
⇒ 20 k = 360°
⇒ k = 18° Q BE = BC
We get,
⇒ 3 k = 54°, 7 k = 126°, 6 k = 108° and 4 k = 72 °
∠BEC = ∠BCE = 60°
Since, the 2 pairs of adjacent angles are supplementary, PQRS ⇒ ∠EBC = 180° − (∠BEC + ∠BCE )
is a trapezium with PS||QR. = 180° − 120° = 60°
Quadrilaterals 455
10. (b) In ∆ABC, ∠B = 90° A

Using Pythagoras theorem,

12
AC 2 = AB2 + BC 2 16 16
B D
i.e., AC 2 = 82 + 62 = 100 ⇒ AC = 10 O
Now, in ∆ADC, AC 2 = AD2 + CD2
12

i.e., 102 = 7 2 + CD2 (by Pythagoras theorem) C

⇒ CD = 100 − 49 ⇒ CD =
2
51 cm
⇒ AD = 12 2 + 162
11. (c) Option (c) is true. (diagonals of rhombus bisect each other at 90°)
i.e., BC + OC + OD = AD + OD + OA = 144 + 256
A B = 400 = 20
Thus, the each side of the rhombus = 20 cm
15. (b) Here, (interior angle) − (exterior angle) = 60°
O (n − 2 ) × 180° 360°
⇒ − = 60°
n n
1
D C ⇒ [(n − 2 ) × 180° − 360°] = 60°
BC = AD and OC + OD n
= OD + OA = Diagonals of rectangle 1
⇒ [180° n − 360° − 360°] = 60°
If ‘O’ is the intersection point of diagonals, then ‘BC + OC + OD’ n
1
is always equal to ‘AD + OD + OA’. ⇒ [180° n − 720°] = 60°
n
12. (d) In ∆PQR, PQ + QR > PR ...(i) ⇒ 180° n − 720° = 60° n
and in ∆PSR, PS + SR > PR ...(ii) ⇒ 180° n − 60° n = 720°
P Q ⇒ 120° n = 720°
∴ n=6
Therefore, the polygon contains 6 sides.
16. (c) Since, PQRS is a parallelogram.
∴ PQ||SR
∴ ∠QPS + ∠RSP = 180° ([Q cointerior
S R
angles)
In ∆QSR, QR + SR > QS 1 1 1
...(iii) ⇒ ∠QPS + ∠RSP = × 180°
and in ∆PQS, 2 2 2
PQ + PS > QS ...(iv) ⇒ ∠ APS + ∠ASP = 90° ...(i)
On adding Eqs. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get (Q PA and SA are the angle bisectors of
∠P and ∠Q respectively)
2 (PQ + QR + SR + SP) > 2(PR + QS )
Now, in ∆APS,
PQ + QR + SR + SP > (PR + QS )
∠APS + ∠ASP + ∠PAS = 180°
13. (d) External angle of any polygon ⇒ 90° + ∠PAS = 180°
360°
= 72 ° ⇒ n = 5 ⇒ ∠PAS = 180° − 90° = 90°
n
∴ Given, polygon is regular pentagon. 17. (c) Given, ∠ABC = 105°
∴ Every interior angle of it ∠DAB = 120°, ∠DCX = 120°
= 180° − external angle = 180° − 72 ° = 108° X
120°
∴ Sum of interior angles of it D
C
= 5 × 108° = 540° 60°
14. (b) Given, AC = 24 cm
AC 120° 105°
Then, AO = OC = = 12 cm and BD = 32 cm
2 A B
⇒ BO = OD =
BD
= 16 cm ⇒ ∠DCB = 180° − 120° = 60°
2 We know that, sum of angles of a quadrilateral is equal to 360°.
In ∆AOD, AD2 = AO 2 + OD2 ∴ ∠ADC = 360° − (120° + 105° + 60° )
[Q by Pythagoras theorem] = 360° − 285°
= 75°
456 Study Package for NTSE

18. (c) We know that, AE = AD 19. (b) We have,

So, ∠AED = ∠ADE AB = 32 cm, AD = 24 cm
E
Since, ∠A = 90°
D C
∴ BD2 = AB2 + AD2
= (32 )2 + (24)2 24 cm
O

A B = 1024 + 576 = 1600

∴ BD = 40 cm A 32 cm B
Since, diagonals of a rectangle bisects
each other.
1 1
D C ∴ OD = BD = × 40 = 20 cm
2 2
180° − (90° + 60° )
∠EAD = = 15° 20. (c) Clearly, AB||DC and AD||BC. Therefore, ABCD is a
2
(Q ∠EAB + ∠DAB = ∠EAD) parallelogram but it is not necessary that AB = BC.
Now, ∠ DEC = 60° − (15° + 15° ) = 30° Thus, ABCD is a rectangle.

High Skill Questions

1. (a) Since, AB|| CD 3. (c) From the figure,
D C A D
x° y°
O θ 120º
E F
Q z°
A B
∴ ∠OAB = ∠OCD [alternate interior angles] …(i) 90º 50º
and ∠OBA = ∠ODC [alternate interior angles] …(ii) B C
Now, in ∆AOB and ∆COD, x° = z° = 50° [alternate interior angles
∠OAB = ∠OCD [from Eq. (i)] and corresponding angles]
∠OBA = ∠ODC [from Eq. (ii)] ∴ θ + z° = 180° [linear pair]
∠AOB = ∠COD
[vertically opposite angle] ⇒ θ = 180° − 50° = 130°
Hence, ∆AOB ~ ∆COD [by AA similarity] Now, in quadrilateral AQFD,
∴
OA OB
= x° + y° + 120°+ θ = 360° ⇒ 50° + y° + 120° + 130° = 360°
OC OD ∴ y = 360° − 300° = 60°
2. (b) Let AE = x 4. (d) In ∆SRT,
B C
P S
∠SRT = 90° − 60° = 30°
2 2 T
1
∴ ∠RTS = (180° − 30° ) = 75°
2 60º
E Similarly, ∠PTQ = 75°
60º 60º
A 4 O F D Q ∠PTS + ∠PTQ + ∠QTR + ∠RTS = 360° Q R
8 ⇒ ∠PTS + 75° + 60° + 75° = 360°
⇒ EO = 4 − x ⇒ ∠PTS = 360° − 210° = 150°
In ∆ABE, BE 2 = A B2 − A E 2 = 4 − x2 ...(i)
5. (c) Given, ABCD is a rectangle.
[Q by Pythagoras theorem] ∴∠A = ∠B = ∠C = ∠D = 90°
In ∆BEO, BE 2 = BO 2 − EO 2
a/2 R a/2
D C
= 42 − (4 − x)2 = 16 − (4 − x)2 ...(ii)
b/2 b/2
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
S Q
4 − x2 = 16 − (4 − x)2
b/2 b/2
⇒ 16 − 4 = (4 − x)2 − ( x)2
A B
⇒ 12 = (4 − x − x) × (4 − x + x) a/2 P a/2
⇒ 12 = 16 − 8 x ⇒ 4 − 2 x = 3 Let AB = CD = a and BC = AD = b
⇒ x = 1/ 2 Also, given P, Q, R and S are mid-points of AB, BC, CD and AD,
∴ BC = AD − 2 x = 8 − 1 = 7 cm respectively.
Quadrilaterals 457
Now, in ∆PBQ, Q ∠DAB + ∠CBA = 180°
PQ 2 = PB2 + QB2 ∴ ∠DAE + ∠CBF = 180°
2 2 2 2 In ∆AED,
PQ 2 =   +   ⇒ PQ =  a +  b 
a b
    ∠EAD + ∠AED + ∠ADE = 180° …(i)
2 2 2 2
In ∆BCF,
Similarly, in ∆QCR, ∆RDS and ∆SAP, ∠CBF + ∠CFB + ∠BCF = 180° …(ii)
2 2
PQ = RQ = SR = SP =  a +  b  On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
   
2 2 (∠EAD + ∠CBF ) + (∠AED + ∠ADE )
∴Quadrilateral PQRS can be a square or rhombus. + (∠CFB + ∠BCF ) = 360°
But, the diagonals of PQRS are not equal. ⇒ 180° + ∠ 2 AED + 2 ∠CFB = 360°
Hence, PQRS is a rhombus. [Q AE = AD and BC = BF ]
⇒ ∠AED + ∠CFB = 90° ⇒ 180° − ∠EMF = 90°
6. (d) Radius of the bigger circle = x /2
[angle sum property of a triangle]
P Q
⇒ ∠EMF = 90° ⇒ EM ⊥ FM
∴ ED ⊥ CF
9. (d) OA = a and AC = 2 a

S R D C
G H
Let the side of small square = a
Diagonal of smaller square = a 2
x 2 − x x ( 2 − 1) O
= a 2⇒ a =
2 2 2
y
1
Radius of the smaller circle = (length of the side of the F E
I
2 A B
smaller square) x

1  x( 2 − 1) x ( 2 − 1)
=   = Let AB = x, then in ∆ABC,
2  2 2  4 2
x 2 + x 2 = 4 a2 [Q by Pythagoras theorem]
7. (a) We know that, l = 6 cm ⇒ x = a 2, AE = a / 2
l
a2 a
In ∆OEA, OE = OA 2 + AE 2 = a2 − = = OF
b 2 2
2b (by Pythagoras theorem)
FH = 2 × a / 2 = a 2
Now, in ∆FHI, FI = y (let)
Ratio of length to width of the smaller rectangle equal to the Then, (HI) 2 + (FI) 2 = (FH) 2
bigger i.e., y2 + y2 = (a 2 )2 ⇒ 2 y2 = 2 a2 ⇒ y = a
l 2b
= ⇒ l 2 = 2 b2 ⇒ l = 2 b 10. (c) Join AC.
b l A B
(6)2 36
⇒ = b2 ⇒ = b ⇒b = 3 2
2 2
Thus, width of the bigger rectangle = 2 × 3 2 = 6 2 cm D C
8. (d) Produce ED and FC to meet at a point M. Now, in ∆ABC,
M AB = BC ⇒ ∠BAC = ∠BCA ...(i)
[angles opposite to equal sides]
D x C In ∆ADC,
CD > AD
x x ∴ ∠DAC > ∠DCA ...(ii)
E x x x F [since, in a triangle, angle opposite to greater side is greater
A B
than the angle opposite to smaller side]
Let each side of the rhombus be x. Then,
On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
AB = BC = CD = AD = BF = AE = x
∠BAD > ∠BCD
458 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

11
Circles
A circle is a set of points which are equidistant from a ● Equal chords substand equal angles at the centre and
given point. The given point is known as the center of the chords which substand equal angle at the centre
circle. are equal in length.
ÐAOB = ÐCOD Û AB = CD
In the given figure ‘O’ is the centre and ‘r’ is radius of
the circle. ● Equal chords of circle are equidistance from the
centre and the chords equidistance from the centre
are equal in length.
AB = CD Û OM = ON
O
r
θ
r Sector
● The region between an arc and the two radii joining
A B
the centre to the end points of the arc is called a sector.

Basic Terms Related to Circle

Major sector
Chord O
We know that, radius ( r) = 1/ 2 (diameter) θ
Minor
● A line segment joining two points on the circumference of sector
A B
the circle is called a chord of the circle. In figure, PQ is a
chord of the circle. ● Sectors are of two types–minor sector and major
sector. The sector corresponding to minor arc is called
minor sector and the sector corresponding to major
arc is called major sector.
● When two arcs are semi-circles, then both segments
P Q and both sectors become same and each is known as a
semi-circular region.
● Perpendicular from the centre to the chord bisects it and ● The angle substanded by an arc at the centre of the
chord bisected by line from the centre is perpendicular on it. circle is twice the angle substanded by the same arc
M
at any other point on the circle.
A B
A

C 2θ
O
O
N
θ
D C
B
AM = MB Û OM ^ AB
Circles 459
● Angles inscribed in the same segment (or same arc) of a C
circle are equal.

D
B

80°
70°

E A F
Þ ÐDCB = 100°
● Angles in a semi-circle is a right angle.
Now, ÐDAE = ÐACD = 70°
● A quadrilateral inscribed in a circle is called a cyclic
quadrilateral and its each pair of opposite angles is 180° (angles are alternate segment)
and vice-versa. As AC bisects ÐDAB
● Exterior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the ÐBAC = ÐDAC = 40°
interior opposite angle. In DADC, ÐADC = 180° - ( ÐDAC + ÐACD)
Example 1 In the figure shown, if AB = 12, DC = 16 and = 180° - (40° + 70° )
OM = 8, then what is the value of MN ? = 70°

12 Tangents
A B
M A line which touches the circle at any one point is
8
O called tangent.
N Q
D 16 C

P O
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 15 (d) 11
Solution (b) Let us join OB and OC. R

In DBOM, 2
OB = MB + OM 2 2 ● Radius is perpendicular on tangent i.e., OQ ^ PQ and
OR ^ PR.
Þ OB = 62 + 82 éQ MB = AB ù
ëê 2 úû ● Two tangents meeting at a common point outside the
circle arc equal in length i.e., PQ = PR.
= 10 = Radius
● Two circles touching each other externally have
Now, in DONC, OC2 = ON 2 + NC2
distance between the centre equal to the difference of
i.e., ON = 10 2 - 8 2 = 6 their radii and they can have only one tangent is
common.
Thus, OM + ON = MN = 8 + 6 = 14

Example 2 If AC bisects Ð DAB , what is the value of ÐADC?

C

D
B
● Two circles touch each other externally have distance
between their centres equal to the sum of their radii.
80° These circles can have 3 common tangents.
70°

E A F
(a) 65° (b) 75°
(c) 70° (d) 85°
Solution (c) We know that, ● Angle between the tangents and the chord drawn from
Ð DAB + Ð DCB = 180° the point of contact is equal to the angle in the alternate
(cyclic quadrilateral opposite angles are supplementary) segment.
460 Study Package for NTSE

(a) PT 2 = PA ´ PB = PC ´ PD
B C
(b) PT = PA ´ PB = PC ´ PD
(c) PT 3 = PA ´ PB = PC ´ PD
(d) None of the above

A
Solution (a) We know that, PT 2 = PA ´ PB
● If PCD and PAB are two secants, we have and PA ´ PB = PC ´ PD
PC ´ PD = PA ´ PB (tangent and a secant meeting at a common point)
D
Thus, PT 2 = PA ´ PB = PC ´ PD

Example 4 In the figure shown, find the value of PR.

C
P

P A B 45°
D
● Tangent and secant meeting at a common point outside 4
90°
the circle have, PT 2 = PA ´ PB.
R
T E 5 √2 Q

(a) 20 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 18
P A B Solution (d) Angles of DRPQ are 90°, 45° and 45° .
Þ PQ = RQ = a
Example 3 Find the relation between PT (a tangent), PAB and PR = a 2
and PCD (secants).
T Also, as RDP and REQ are secants.
B
RD ´ RP = RE ´ RQ
A i.e., 4 ´ a 2 = (a - 5 2 ) ´ a
P Þ 4 2=a-5 2
Þ a=9 2
C
D Thus, PR = ( 9 2 ) 2 = 18

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. Number of tangents that can be drawn through a 4. What is the locus of a centre of circle which touch a
point on the circle, is given line at a given point?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (a) A line perpendicular to the given line, passing through the
(c)1 (d) 0 given point
(b) A line parallel to the given line
2. What is the number of circle passing through all the (c) A circle tangent to the given line at the given point
vertices of a given triangle? (d) A closed curved other than a circle
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Infinite 5. In the figure shown, find the value of x.

3. What is the number of circle passing through a given

O
pair of points?
x
(a) One
(b) Two R 60° P
(c) More than two but finite Q
(d) Infinite
(a) 200° (b) 220° (c) 230° (d) 240°
Circles 461
6. In the figure shown, O is the centre of the circle and T
ÐAOC = 80°, what is the value of ÐMAO?
B

B A P
C O
M
(a) 16 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 4 5 cm (d) 18 cm

A 12. The length of AC in the figure shown, is

(a) 10° (b) 20° D
(c) 30° (d) None of these

7. In a circle of radius 4 cm with centre at O, AB and CD 6

are two diameters perpendicular to each other. The O
length of chord BD is P
B A
(a) 4 cm (b) 4 2 cm 8 3

(c) 4 3 cm (d) None of these

C
8. In the figure shown, AD is the diameter of the circle, (a) 4 (b) 5
then ÐCBD is (c) 6 (d) Cannot be determined
B C
13. An equilateral DABC is inscribed in a circle with
140°
centre O, then ÐBOC is equal to
A D A
O

O
(a) 45° (b) 50° (c) 55° (d) 60°

9. In the figure shown, ÐADC = 150°, what is the value of B C

ÐCDB ?
D C (a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 120°
150°
14. In the figure shown, O is the centre of the circle,
A B ÐABO = 25° and ÐACO = 30°. Then, ÐBOC is equal to
O
A

(a) 40° (b) 45°

(c) 60° (d) None of these
O
10. Find the value of y + x in the figure shown. B C

A
1°
(a) 85° (b) 125° (c) 110° (d) 27
y 2
B
x 15. In the figure shown, O is the centre of the circle. If
D
O ÐOBC = 37° and ÐBAC = x°, what is the value of x?
A
C

(a) 110° (b) 120° (c) 130° (d) 140° O

11. In the figure shown, PT and PAB are the tangent and
B C
the secant drawn to a circle. If PT = 12 cm and
PB = 8 cm, then AB is equal to
(a) 53° (b) 74° (c) 111° (d) 148°
462 Study Package for NTSE

16. Find the value of ÐPQR, if it is known that PQRS is a 19. In the figure shown, the diameters AB and MN
parallelogram. intersect each other at 50°. Find the value of ÐMPB.
P A Q P

85°
M B
O
S B R 50°
(a) 80° (b) 85° (c) 90° (d) 95° A N
(a) 65°
17. Find the distance between two parallel chords AB
(b) 115°
and CD of lengths 32 units and 24 units, respectively, (c) 125°
which arc drawn in a circle of diameter 40 units. (d) None of the above
(a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 18 (d) 24
20. In the figure shown, if AB is the diameter of the circle,
18. In the figure shown, OC ^ AB , where O is the centre find the value of x.
of the circle. If the chord AB is 12 units long and PC is C
2 units, what is the value of the radius of the circle?
40°

A B
O
P x
A B D E
(a) 40°
C (b) 50°
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 60°
(c) 16 (d) 15 (d) 70°

High Skill Questions

1. If O is the centre of the circle and PA and PB are radius in terms of r? Given that the centres of all
tangents, what is the value of ÐAPB? 3 circles lie in the line with the centre of the bigger
A circle.
C

P C 120°
O

A B
B
O
(a) 40° (b) 60° (c) 80° (d) 100°

2. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle, BOA is 1

(a) r/4 (b) r/3 (c) 2 r/3 (d) r
its diameter and the tangent at the point P meets BA 2
extended at T. If ÐPBO = 30 °, then ÐPTA is equal to
4. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle, PQL and
P PRM are the tangents at the points Q and R
respectively and S is a point on the circle such that
B
30°
T ÐSQL = 50° and ÐSRM = 60°. Then, ÐQSR is equal
O A to
L
(a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 15° (d) 45° S 50° Q

3. In the figure shown, circle having centre O has radius O

r cm. Two identical circles with diameter AO and OB 60°
are drawn inside the circle. If a third circle centred at M R P
C is drawn, smaller that the other two, what is its (a) 40° (b) 50° (c) 60° (d) 70°
Circles 463
5. In the figure shown, find the value of ÐDEC. 10. If TA is a tangent to the circle at B, what is the value
A of x + y + z?
B T P
40°
E 20° P
x y
C B
D z O

(a) 100° (b) 120° (c) 80° (d) 60° 28°

6. If AB is the diameter of the circle, what is the value of A Q

ÐBED?
C (a) 56° (b) 112°
(c) 28° (d) 65°

11. If two circles of radius r intersect each other in a way

A B
20° E that their centres lie on the circumference of the other,
the length of their common chords will be
50°
(a) 2 r (b) 3/2 r
D (c) 3 r (d) 2/3 r
(a) 20° (b) 40° (c) 60° (d) 80°
12. If O is the centre of the circle as well as the incentre of
7. If O represents centre of the circle and PQ = PO = QR, ÐXYZ, then ÐYXZ is equal to
then find the value of x. X
P

x
O
Q O
Y Z

R
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(a) 20° (b) 25° (c) 90° (d) 120°
(c) 35° (d) Cannot be determined
13. In the figure shown, two identical circles of radius
8. In the figure shown, A and B are the centres of two
12 cm each are drawn with centres C and C ¢ with AB
circles. If P and Q are the points of intersection of the
and BD being their respective tangents at A and D. If
circles , what is the value of ÐPAQ + ÐPBQ?
BE is their common tangent and AB ^ BD, the length
P of BD is equal to

A B
A C E

Q
C'
(a) 120° (b) 60°
(c) 240° (d) None of these
B D
9. If a chord AB of a circle C1 of radius ( 3 + 1) cm
(a) 12 ( 2 - 1)
touches a circle C2 of radius ( 3 - 1) cm, then the
(b) 12 ( 2 + 1)
length of AB is (c) 12 2
(a) 8 3 cm (b) 4 4 3 cm (c) 4 3 cm (d) 2 4 3 cm (d) 24
464 Study Package for NTSE

14. In the figure shown, D and E are mid-points of lines 16. A circle placed against a right angled triangle centred
AB and AC, respectively and ÐABC = 100°. From C, a at O is the 14 cm radius. What is the radius of the
tangent CF is drawn such that ÐBCF is an acute smaller circle placed in the remaining gap?
AD AE
angle. DC bisects ÐACB and = . If the
AB AC
measure of ÐBCF is 30°, how much is ÐEDC?
O
A

D
E
(a) 7 ( 2 + 1) (b) 14 ( 2 - 1) (c) 7 ( 2 - 1)2 (d) 14 ( 2 - 1)2
B
17. Three identical circles of radius r cm each are placed
C inside an equilateral triangle. Find the length of the
(a) 25° (b) 30° side of the equilateral triangle in terms of r.
(c) 40° (d) None of these

15. P and Q are two points on a circle with centre at O. R is

a point on the minor arc of the circle between the
points P and Q. The tangents to the circle from the
point S are drawn which touch the circle at P and Q. If
ÐPSQ = 20°, then ÐPRQ is equal to
(a) 200° (b) 160°
(c) 100° (d) 80° (a) 2r (b) 3r (c) 2 r ( 2 + 1) (d) 2 r ( 3 + 1)

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (c) The number of tangents that can be drawn through a point on 6. (a) We know that, BA ^ CM B
the circle is one.
So, ÐCMB = ÐAMO = 90°
2. (a) The number of circles passing through all the vertices of a (vertically opposite angles)
given triangle is one.
Now, in DMAO C O
M 80°
3. (d) There are infinitely many circles passing through a given pair ÐOMA + ÐMAO + ÐAOM = 180°
of points.
\ ÐMAO = 180° - (90° + 80° )
4. (a) A line perpendicular to the given line, passing through the A
= 10°
given points is the required locus.
7. (b) DBOD is a right angled triangle as ÐBOD = 90°
5. (d) Let us take T, a point in the circumference and join RT and TP.
Now, RTPQ is a cyclic quadrilateral, so ÐRTP + ÐRQP = 180° So, DO = BO = 4 (radii)
T A

90°
4 O
O D C

x° 4
R P
60°
B
Q and in DBDO, BD2 = DO 2 + BO 2
Þ ÐRTP = 180° - 60° = 120° [Q by Pythagoras theorem]
So, x = 2 (120° ) = 240° Þ 2
BD = 4 + 4 2

(angle by an arc at the centre of the circle is twice the angle = 4 2 cm

made by the same arc at any other point on the circle.)
Circles 465
8. (b) As AD is the diameter, ÐABD = 90° 13. (d) We know that, ABC is an equilateral triangle.
(angle in a semi-circle is 90°) A

B C
50°
140° O

A D B C
O

So, ÐBAC = 60° [Q equilateral triangle has angles of 60°]

Hence, ÐBOC = 120° [Q by angle at the centre theorem]
So, ÐCBD = 140° - 90° = 50° 14. (c) We know, ÐABO = 25° and ÐOAC = 25°
9. (c) We know, ÐADB = 90° (as angle in a semi-circle is 90°) (Q OA = OB, so opposite angles are also A
equal)
D C
Similarly, ÐACO = 30° = ÐOAC
150° Thus, ÐBAC = ÐBAO + ÐOAC O
= 25° + 30° = 55°
A B Hence, ÐBOC = 2 (ÐBAC ) B C
O
= 2 (55° ) = 110°
15. (a) Given, Ð OBC = Ð OCB = 37° (Q OB = OC = radii)
Þ Ð BOC = 180° - (37° + 37° ) = 106°
Now, ÐCDB = 150° - 90° = 60° A

10. (b) Given, OA = OD = Radii

So, ÐOAD = ÐODA = y A
O
In DAOD, y + y + 60° = 180° y B
37°
Þ 2 y = 120° 60° x B C
O
\ y = 60° D
Also, y = x = 60° So, ÐBAC = x = 1/2 (ÐBOC ) = 1/ 2 (106° ) = 53°
(Q angle in the same arc) C
16. (b) We know, ÐABS = ÐQAB = 85° (alternate angles)
\ x + y = 60° + 60° = 120°
ÐAPS + ÐABS = 180°
11. (b) We know that, PT 2 = PA ´ PB (cyclic quadrilateral has opposite angles supplementary)
(relation between PT tangent and secant PAB) P A Q
Þ ÐAPS = 180° - 85° = 95°
T Now, ÐAPS + ÐPQR = 180° 85°
(as adjacent angles of a
parallelogram are supplementary)
B A P We get, ÐPQR = 85° S B R
17. (a) Given, AB = 32 and OM ^ AB
2 144 AB
12 = PA ´ 8 Þ PA = = 18 Þ AM = MB = = 16
8 2
Thus, AB = PB - PA = 18 - 8 = 10 cm Also, OB = Radius = 20
O
12. (b) Since, DC and AB are secant lines. In DBMO,
We know, A B
M
OM = OB2 - BM 2 = 202 - 162 16
DP ´ PC = BP ´ PA [Q by theorem] D N C
Þ 6 ´ PC = 8 ´ 3 D = 12 [Q by Pythagoras theorem]
Þ PC = 4 Now, in DONC
Also, DC ^ AB 6 NC = 12 , OC = 20 Þ ON = OC 2 - NC 2
In DAPC, AC = 2
AP + PC 2 O
B P
A = 202 - 12 2 = 16
[Q by Pythagoras theorem] 8 3
Thus, the distance between the chords
= 32 + 42
= 25 = 5 C i.e., MN = ON - OM = 16 - 12 = 4
466 Study Package for NTSE

18. (b) Given, OP ^ AB, we get AP = PB = 6 D As, MPBQ is a cyclic quadrilateral, we get
In DOPB, we have PB = 6, OB = r ÐMPB + ÐMQB = 180°
and OP = r - 2 Þ ÐMPB = 180° - 65° = 125°
So, OB2 = OP 2 + PB2 O 20. (b) Let us join AC.
[Q by Pythagoras theorem] As AB is the diameter.
Þ r 2 = 62 + (r - 2 )2 A B
P
C
Þ 36 + 4 - 4 r = 0
\ r = 10 units C
40°
50°
19. (c) Given, ÐMOA = 50° A B
50°
Þ ÐMOB = 180° - 50° = 130° [Q linear angles]
P x
D E
M B
\ ÐACD = 50°
50° ÐACD = ÐABD = 50°
O (angle in the same arc)
\ AB || DE
A N
\ ÐABD = ÐBDE
Q
= 50° (alternate angles)
1 130°
So, ÐMQB = ÐMOB = = 65°
2 2

High Skill Questions

1. (b) Quadrilateral AQBC is cyclic. 3. (b) We know that, radius of the biggest circle = r cm = BO
A
So, radius of circle with centre O¢ and C
O¢¢ is r/2.
P Q
Let the radius of the smallest circle = r ¢
C 120°
O
Now, in DO C O¢ ¢, A B
O' O''
OC = r - r ¢ O
B and OO ¢ ¢ = r /2
So, ÐACB + ÐAQB = 180° and CO ¢ ¢ = r ¢ + r/2
Þ ÐAQB = 180° - 120° = 60° Q CO ^ OO ¢ ¢
So, ÐAOB = 2 (60° ) = 120° We get, (CO ¢ ¢ )2 = (CO )2 + (OO ¢ ¢ )2
Now, in quadrilateral PAOB,
(by Pythagoras theorem)
ÐAPB + ÐPAO + ÐPBO + ÐAOB = 360°
Þ 120° + 90° + 90° + Ð APB = 360° i.e., (r ¢ + r/ 2 ) = (r - r ¢ ) + (r/ 2 )2
2 2

Þ ÐAPB = 60°
(using OA ^ PA and OB ^ PB )
2. (b) Join OP. Now, ÐBPA = 90°
In DPBA, ÐBPA + ÐPBA + ÐBAP = 180°
Þ 90° + 30° + ÐBAP = 180°
\ ÐBAP = 60°
But Ð BAT is a straight angle.
Þ ÐBAP + ÐPAT = 180°
Þ 60° + ÐPAT = 180°
Þ ÐPAT = 120°
Now, OA = OP Þ ÐOPA = ÐOAP = 60°
Þ ÐOPT = 90°
Þ ÐOPA + ÐAPT = 90° Þ 60° + ÐAPT = 90°
\ ÐAPT = 30°
In DPAT, we have
ÐPAT + ÐAPT + ÐPTA = 180°
\ ÐPTA = 30°
[angle in semi-circle]
4. (d) Since, PQL is a tangent and OQ is a radius, so ÐOQL = 90°
r2 r2
Þ r¢ 2 + + rr ¢ = r 2 + r ¢ 2 - 2 rr ¢ +
4 4
Þ r r¢ = r2 - 2 r r¢
Þ 3r ¢ = r
r
\ r¢ =
3
Þ ÐOQS = (90° - 50° ) = 40°
Now, OQ = OS
Þ ÐOSQ = ÐOQS = 40°
Similarly, ÐORS = (90° - 60° ) = 30°
and OR = OS
Þ ÐOSR = ÐORS = 30°
Þ ÐQSR = ÐOSQ + ÐOSR
= (40° + 30° )
= 70°
Circles 467
5. (c) ÐACD = Exterior angle of DAPC = ÐCAP + ÐAPC AM 2 = OA 2 - OM 2 [Q by Pythagoras theorem]
= 40° + 20° = 60° = ( 3 + 1)2 - ( 3 - 1)2
A = (3 + 1 + 2 3 ) - (3 + 1 - 2 3 )
B Þ AM 2 = 4 3 Þ AM = 2 4 3
40°
E 20° P \ AB = 2 AM = 44 3
[Q perpendicular from centre to the chord bisects the chord]
C
D 10. (a) Given, x = ÐPQB = 28° (angle in alternate segment)
Also, ÐACD = ÐABE = 60° (angle in the same arc) Also, OB ^ TB
Now, in DABE, We get, ÐPBO = 90° - x = 90° - 28° = 62°
ÐBAE + ÐABE + ÐAEB = 180° Q OB = OP [Q radius of circle]
Þ 40° + 60° + ÐAEB = 180° We get, ÐOBP = ÐOPB = 62°
Thus, ÐAEB = ÐDEC = 80° (vertically opposite angles) Now, in DBPQ,
6. (c) Since, AB is the diameter. ÐADB = 90° T P
C
x y
B
E z O
A B
20° 28°
50°
A Q
D Ð BPQ + Ð PBQ + Ð PQB = 180°
Þ ÐADE = 90° - 50° = 40° Þ (62° + y) + (62° + z) + x = 180°
So, ÐBED = 20° + 40° = 60° (exterior angle of DAED)
\ x + y + z = 180° - 124° = 56°
7. (d) We have, PQ = PO = QR = Radii
11. (c) We know that,
Using PQ = QR, we get ÐQPR = ÐQRP = x
AP = PB = AB (radii)
P
Q DAPB is an equilateral triangle P
\ PD = Altitude of the equilateral triangle
x
3 3
= (Side of triangle) = ´r A B
2 2 D
Q O
3
Similarly, QD = r
2 Q
Thus, PQ = Common chord = PD + DQ = 3r
R
1
Also, but as no angle as given, we cannot determine the value of x. 12. (b) We know that, ÐYOZ = 90° + ÐYXZ ...(i)
2
8. (c) Let the radii of both the circles be r cm each. We know, (using O as the incentre)
PA = PB = AB = Radii of the circle. So, DPAB is an equilateral X
triangle. Similarly, ABQ is also an equilateral triangle.
P
So, ÐPAQ = 60° + 60° = 120° = ÐPBQ
O
Thus, A B
ÐPAQ + Ð PBQ = 120° + 120° = 240°
Y Z
9. (b) Let the chord AB of circle C1 touches
Q
the circle C 2 at point M. But as O is the centre of the circle.
A We know, ÐYOZ = 2 ÐYXZ ...(ii)
Ö3+1
C1 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
1
M O 90° + ÐYXZ = 2 ÐYXZ
Ö3-1 C 2
2 1
Þ 90° = 2 Ð YXZ - Ð YXZ
2
B
Þ 180° = 3 ÐYXZ
Then, OA = 3 + 1and OM = 3 -1
Þ ÐYXZ = 60°
Now, in right angled DOAM,
468 Study Package for NTSE

13. (b) We know, AC = HP = BG = 12 cm 1 1

\ ÐPTQ = ÐPOQ = ´ 160° = 80°
2 2
and C ¢ D = PG = HB = 12 cm
Now, PTQR is a cyclic quadrilateral.
Let AH = x = GD (Q AB = BD = BE)
\ ÐPRQ = 180° - ÐPTQ
= 180° - 80° = 100°

A C E 16. (d) OA = BA = r = 14 Þ OB = OA 2 + AB2 = r 2 = 14 2

Let the radius of the smaller circle = r cm = CE = CD = BD
P C'
H

B G D
O
Now, in DCPC¢,
E
CP = PC ¢ = x C
= x2 + x2 B A
D
2 2
Þ CC ¢ = x + x = x 2
So, BD = CD = r
(by Pythagoras theorem) Þ BC = r 2, CE = r
x 2 = 24 cm Þ x = 12 2 Now, BO = r 2 + r + 14 = 14 2
Thus, AB = AH + HB = 12 2 + 12 Þ r ( 2 + 1) = 14 ( 2 - 1)
= 12( 2 + 1) = BD 14 ( 2 - 1) 2 -1
\ r= ´
14. (a) ÐBCF = ÐBAC = 30° (angle in alternate segment) ( 2 + 1) ( 2 - 1)
A
ÐACB = 180° - (30° + 100° ) = 50° = 14 ( 2 - 1)2
Þ ÐDCB = 25°
17. (d) Radius of each circle = r
AD AE
Also, = D
30°
We want to know the length of AB i.e., side of equilateral triangle
AB AC E
AD AE in terms of r .
i.e., = A
DB EC B 100°
Þ DE || BC 30°
So, ÐEDC = ÐDCB = 25° C 2r
F O
15. (c) Join P and Q with an another point,
say T, on the major arc. O'
Also, join PO and QO. B C
S In DAOD, we know OD ^ AD (radius on tangent)
and Ð DAO = 30° (equilateral triangle)
20°
Þ Ð AOD = ÐODA - ÐDAO
R = 90°-30° = 60°
P Q As we know, in triangle having angles 90° , 60° and 30° have
opposite sides 2 a, a 3 and a, respectively.
O Q OD = Radius = r
Þ AD = r 3 (opposite to 60°)
T Now, OO ' = r + r = 2 r
In quadrilateral POQS, Similarly, in DBO'E , we get
ÐPSQ = 20° EB = r 3
ÐOPS = ÐOQS = 90° Thus, AB = AD + DE + EB
[Q radius is perpendicular to tangent] = r 3 + 2 r + r 3 = 2 r ( 3 + 1)
\ ÐPOQ = 360° - (90° + 90° + 20° ) = 160°
Coordinate Geometry 469

Chapter

12
Coordinate Geometry
Cartesian System
The system used to describe the position of a point in a
plane is called cartesian system.
In cartesian system, there are two perpendicular lines
and a point is located by refering them. The horizontal
line XX ¢ is called X-axis and vertical line YY ¢ is called
Y-axis.
Y ●
O
X' X negative along the negative direction of the Y-axis).
Y'
The point where these lines intersect each other is
called origin and is denoted by ‘ O’. OX and OY are
called positive directions while OX ¢ and OY' are
called negative directions.
These axes divide the plane into four parts.
These four parts are called the quadrants (one to fourth
part) numbered I, II, III and IV anti-clockwise from OX.
So, the plane consists of these axes and these quadrants
is called the cartesian plane or the coordinate plane or
the xy-plane. These axes are called the coordinate axes.
Y by the negative X-axis and the positive Y-axis.
Quadrant II Quadrant I
X' X Y-axis.
Quadrant III Quadrant IV
Y'
The coordinates of a point are written by using the
following conventions
● The x-coordinate of a point is its perpendicular
distance from the Y-axis measured along the X-axis
(positive along the positive direction of the X-axis and
negative along the negative direction of the X-axis).
The x-coordinate is also called the abscissa. The
coordinates of a point on the X-axis are of the form
( x, 0).
The y-coordinate of a point is its perpendicular
distance from the X-axis measured along the Y-axis
(positive along the positive direction of the Y-axis and
The y-coordinate is also called the ordinate. The
coordinates of a point on the Y-axis are of the form (0,
y).
● In stating the coordinates of a point in the coordinate
plane, the x-coordinate comes first and then the
y-coordinate. We place the coordinates in brackets.
Sign Conventions of Coordinates in
Various Quadrants
● If a point is in the Ist quadrant, then the point will be
in the form ( + , + ), since the Ist quadrant is enclosed by
the positive X-axis and the positive Y-axis.
● If a point is in the IInd quadrant, then the point will be
in the form (–, + ), since the IInd quadrant is enclosed
● If a point is in the IIIrd quadrant, then the point will
be in the form (–, –), since the IIIrd quadrant is
enclosed by the negative X-axis and the negative
● If a point is in the IVth quadrant, then the point will
be in the form ( + , –), since the IVth quadrant is
enclosed by the positive X-axis and the negative Y-axis
(see figure).
470 Study Package for NTSE

Y Example 1 A point C divides the line AB, where A(1, 3) and

4 B(2, 7), in the ratio of 3 : 4. The coordinates of C are
II 3 I
æ5 ö æ3 ö æ 10 33 ö
(–, +) 2 (+, +) (a) ç , 5÷ (b) (–2, –9) (c) ç , 5÷ (d) ç , ÷
è3 ø è5 ø è7 7ø
1
X' X Solution (d) Given, m 1 = 3, m 2 = 4 , x1 = 1, x2 = 2, y 1 = 3
–4 –3–2–1 O 1 2 3 4
–1 and y 2 = 7
–2 æ m x + m 2 x1 m 1 y 2 + m 2 y 1 ö
III
–3
IV \ Coordinates of C = ç 1 2 , ÷
(–, –) (+, –) è m1 + m2 m1 + m2 ø
–4
Y' 3 ´ 2 + 4 ´ 1 3 ´ 7 + 4 ´ 3 ö æ 10 33 ö
= æç , ÷ =ç , ÷
The coordinates of origin O are (0, 0) because it has è 3+4 3+4 ø è7 7 ø
zero distance from both the axes, so its abscissa and
ordinate both are zero. Area of a Triangle
The area of the triangle formed by the points ( x1 , y1 ),
Distance Formula
( x2 , y2 ) and ( x 3 , y 3 ) is the numerical value of the
The distance between the points P ( x1 , y1 ) and Q ( x2 , y2 ) expression
is 1
= |[ x1 ( y2 - y 3 ) + x2 ( y 3 - y1 ) + x 3 ( y1 - y2 )]|.
PQ = ( x2 – x1 ) 2 + ( y2 – y1 ) 2 2
Since, distance is always non-negative, we take only ● Area of the triangle cannot be zero. If it comes out to be
the positive square root. zero, the points are collinear.

î The coordinate of the centroid of a triangle having vertices

Section Formula
(x1 , y1), (x2 , y2 ) and (x3 , y3 ) is
● The coordinates of the point P( x, y) which divides the æ x1 + x2 + x3 y1 + y2 + y3 ö
line segment joining the points A ( x1, y1 ) and B ( x2, y2 ) ç , ÷
è 3 3 ø
internally in the ratio m1 : m2 are
æ m1 x2 + m2 x1 m1 y2 + m2 y1 ö Example 2 Find the area of DABC, whose vertices are
ç , ÷
è m1 + m2 m1 + m2 ø A (8, –4), B(3, 6) and C(–2, 4).
● The coordinates of the point P( x, y) which divides the (a) 30 sq units (b) 40 sq units
line segment joining the points A ( x1, y1 ) and B ( x2, y2 ) (c) 50 sq units (d) 60 sq units
externally in the ratio m1 : m2 are Solution (a) Here, A (8, –4), then x1 = 8 , y 1 = -4
æ m1 x2 – m2 x1 m1 y2 – m2 y1 ö B (3, 6), then x2 = 3 , y 2 = 6
ç , ÷
è m1 – m2 m1 – m2 ø C (–2, 4), then x3 = –2, y 3 = 4
1
î The mid-point of a line segment divides the line segment in the \ Area of DABC = {x1 ( y 2 - y 3 ) + x2 ( y 3 - y 1 ) + x3 ( y 1 - y 2 ) }
ratio 1 : 1. Therefore, the coordinates of the mid-point P of the 2
join of the points A(x1, y1) and B (x 2 , y 2 ) is 1
= {8( 6 - 4 ) + 3(4 - ( -4 )) + ( -2)( -4 - 6 ) }
æ 1´ x1 + 1´ x 2 1´ y1 + 1´ y 2 ö 2
ç , ÷ 1
è 1+ 1 1+ 1 ø = [16 + 24 + 20 ]
2
æ x1 + x2 y1 + y2 ö 1
=ç , ÷ = ´ 60 = 30 sq units
è 2 2 ø 2
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. The point of intersection of the lines x = 2 and y = 5 is 13. The coordinates of the point which divide the line
(a) (2, 5) (b) (5, 2 ) segment joining A(2, 1) and B (3, 5) internally in 2 : 3
(c) (2.5, 2.5) (d) None of these ratio, is
(b) æç , ö÷
12 13
(a) (6, 13)
2. A point which is 3 units away from the X-axis and è 5 5ø
6 units away from the Y-axis can be (c) (12, 13) (d) (6, 6.5)
(a) (3, 6) (b) (–3 , 6)
(c) (–3 , 3) (d) Both (a) and (b) 14. Which of the following is the coordinate of point C
that divides the line PQ with P(–1, 2) and Q(– 2 , – 1)
3. If a > 0 and b < 0, the point (a, – b) lies in which of the externally in 3 : 2 ratio?
following quadrants? (a) (4, 7) (b) (– 4, 7 ) (c) (– 4, – 7 ) (d) (4, – 7 )
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
15. A point Y (7, 17) divides the line segment joining the
4. If x < 0, 0 > y, which of the following point is in the points X (3, 5) and Z (1, – 1) externally in which of the
IIIrd quadrant?
following ratio?
(a) (– x, y) (b) ( x, y)
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 1
(c) (– x,– y) (d) ( x,– y)
(c) 2 : 3 (d) None of these
5. A line drawn perpendicular to X-axis is always
16. What is the area of the triangle formed by joining the
(a) perpendicular to Y-axis
points (0, 0), (2, 4) and (2, 0)?
(b) parallel to Y-axis
(a) 2 sq units (b) 4 sq units (c) 6 sq units (d) 8 sq units
(c) intersects Y-axis but not perpendicular
(d) Cannot form a relation 17. Which of the following is the distance between point
6. The distance of the point (4, 5) to the point (6, 9) is ( x, y) and the origin?
(a) 5 (b) 20 (a) ( x – y) 2 + ( x + y) 2 (b) ( x – 1)2 + ( y – 1)2
(c) 2 5 (d) None of these (c) x 2 + y2 (d) None of these
7. If the distance of the points (2, – 3) and (– 8, – 11) are 18. The coordinate of the centroid of a DABC formed by
equal from the point ( k, – 7). Then, what is the value points A( x1, y1), B ( x2 , y2 ) and C ( x3, y3), is
of k? x1 + x2 + x3 y1 + y2 + y3 ö
(a) 7 (b) – 7 (c) – 3 (d) 3 (a) æç , ÷
è 2 2 ø
+ + + +
(b) æç 1 3ö
8. For what value of m the points (– 3, – 5), (– 5, – 6) and x x2 x y
3, 1 y2 y
÷
( m, – 4) are collinear? è 3 3 ø
(a) 1 (b) 2 æ x1 x 2 x3 y1 y2 y3 ö
(c) ç , ÷
(c) –1 (d) None of these è 3 3 ø
(d) None of the above
9. If the end points of the diameter of a circle are (3, 4)
and (9, 8). Then, the coordinates of its centre will be 19. If the circle having end points of the diameter as
(a) (6, 12 ) (b) (6, 6) (c) (3, 6) (d) (12, 6) (3, – 4) and ( a, b) has its centre at (5, – 1), the value of
10. For what value of ‘ n’ the area of the triangle formed ( a, b) is
with points (1, n), (3, 5) and ( - 1, 2) will be 5 sq units? (a) ( 2, 7 ) (b) ( 7, 2 )
(a) 1 (b) – 1 (c) ( 2, 2 ) (d) None of these
(c) 2 (d) None of these
20. The point nearest to the origin among the points
11. The points (1, 7), (3, 3) and (7, – 5) form a given, is
(a) straight line (b) right triangle (a) (3, 4) (b) (– 1, - 1)
(c) isosceles triangle (d) scalene triangle (c) (0, 3) (d) (4, 0)

12. The area of the triangle formed by the points 21. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are
( k – 1, k + 1) ( k + 3, k – 3) and ( k + 1, k + 2) is A (0, 3), O (0, 0) and B (5, 0). The length of its diagonal is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 5 (b) 3
(c) 3 k (d) None of these (c) 34 (d) 4
472 Study Package for NTSE

22. The distance between the points A (0, 6 ) and B(0, – 2) 24. The distance between the points (0, 5) and (– 5, 0) is
is (a) 5 (b) 5 2
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 2 (c) 2 5 (d) 10

23. The distance of the point P (– 6, 8) from the origin is 25. The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the X-axis is
(a) 8 (b) 2 7 (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 10 (d) 6 (c) 1 (d) 5

High Skill Questions

1. The distance between the points (2, k) and (– 4, 1) is 10. Which of the following points will be collinear with
2 10 units, then the value of k is (0, 1) and (– 2, 5)?
(a) – 1 (b) 1 (a) (2, - 3) (b) (3, 0) (c) (4, 5) (d) (2, 3)
(c) – 3 (d) None of these
11. If the coordinates of the vertices of a DPQR are P (3, 1),
2. If the end points of the diameter of a circle are ( 4, 6) Q (4, 5) and R (13, 9). Then, which of the following will
and (8, 4). Then, the radius of the circle is be the coordinates of the point S, if RS is a median from R
(a) 2 5 units (b) 5 units to PQ?
(c) 10 units (d) 2 20 units (a) (17, 7) (b) (17, 14) (c) (17/2, 7) (d) None of these

3. If the 3 consecutive vertices of a square are 12. For what value of p, the points (1, 1), (2, 3) and (p, 2)
(–1, 4), (– 3, 0) and (1, – 2). Then, which of the will form an isosceles right angled triangle?
following can be its fourth vertex? (a) 0 (b) – 4 (c) 4 (d) 2
(a) (3, 2 ) (b) ( 2, 3 )
(c) (– 3, 2 ) (d) (1, 2 )
13. The mid-point of the diagonal BD of a rhombus is
(3, 4). If the coordinate of point B is (1, 5), the
4. A triangle formed by the points A(2, 5), B (3, 8) and coordinate of point D will be
C ( x, y). If the centroid of the triangle is (3, 5), what is (a) (5, 3) (b) (3, 5)
the coordinate of point C? (c) (5, 1) (d) (3, 1)
(a) (2, 4) (b) (– 4, – 2 )
(c) (4, 2 ) (d) None of these
14. If the area of the equilateral DOAB shown in figure is
9 3 sq units, then what are the coordinates of point A?
5. A point on X-axis which is equidistance from the
A
points (3, 4) and (2, 5) is
(a) (2, 0) (b) (– 2, 0)
(c) (4, 0) (d) None of these
O C B
6. The coordinates of the mid-point of the sides of a
triangle are (3, 6), (4, 5) and (2, 1), then area of the (a) (3, 3 )
triangle is (b) (3, 3 / 2 )
(a) 3 sq units (b) 4 sq units (c) (3, 3 3 )
(c) 8 sq units (d) 12 sq units (d) (2, 3 )
7. Which of the following is the ratio in which the line 15. The quadrilateral formed by joining the points (3, 4),
segment joining the points (3, 7) and (2, 4) is divided (5, 6), (2, 8) and (0, 6) is a
by the X-axis? (a) parallelogram (b) rhombus
(a) 4 : 7 externally (b) 4 : 7 internally (c) square (d) rectangle
(c) 7 : 4 externally (d) None of these
16. The coordinates of the orthocentre of an equilateral
8. The triangle formed by joining the vertices (3, 2) triangle formed by the vertices A ( a1, b1), B ( a2 , b2 )
(5, – 3) and (– 5, 4) will be a and C ( a3, b3) is
a1 – a2 + a3 b1 – b2 + b3 ö
(a) æç
(a) acute triangle (b) obtuse triangle
, ÷
(c) right angled triangle (d) isosceles triangle è 2 2 ø
æ a1 + a2 + a3 b1 + b2 + b3 ö
9. If 3 consecutive vertices of a parallelogram are (5, 6), (b) ç , ÷
è 3 3 ø
(2, 8) and (0, 6). Then, which of the following can be the
fourth vertex? (c) çæ 2 a1a2 a3 2 b1b2 b3 ö
, ÷
è 3 3 ø
(a) (2, 5) (b) (4, 3) (c) (1, 2) (d) (3, 4)
(d) None of the above
Coordinate Geometry 473
17. If the mid-points of the sides of a triangle are (1, 5), A (1, 5)
(2, 6) and (3, 2). Then, the coordinates of the centroid of
the triangle is
(a) æç2, ö÷
13
(b) (3, 6)
è 3ø
O (2, 3)
(c) (6.5, 3) (d) (3.5, 6)

18. If A (3, 4), B( 4, 2) and C (–1, 2) are the vertices of the B D C

mid-points of the sides DE, DF and EF, respectively.
æ3 5ö
The coordinate of the vertex D will be (a) ç ÷ (b) 3 5 (c) 3 / 2 (d) None of these
(a) (6, 2 ) (b) (3, 4/3) è 2 ø
(c) (6, 4/3) (d) None of these 20. For what value of k, the vertices (2, 1), (3, 3) and (5, k)
19. If O is the centroid of the DABC, then what is the form an equilateral triangle?
length of median AD? (a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 3/4 (d) No such value exist

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) The point of intersection of x = 2 and y = 5 is (2, 5) 6. (c) Distance between (4, 5) and (6, 9) = ( x1 - x2 )2 + ( y1 - y2 )2
y=5 (2, 5)
= (6 – 4)2 + (9 – 5)2 = 2 2 + 42 = 4 + 16 = 2 5

7. (c) We know that, A(2,– 3), B(– 8,– 11) and C (k,– 7 )
O
X-axis AC = BC
x=2 Þ (k – 2 )2 + (–7 + 3)2 = (k + 8)2 + (–7 + 11)2
Y-axis i.e., k 2 – 4 k + 4 + 16 = k 2 + 16 k + 64 + 16
Þ 20 k = – 60
2. (d) (3, 6) and (– 3, 6) both.
\ k=–3
(– 3, 6) (3, 6) 8. (c) Points are collinear, if the area of the triangle formed by them
is zero.
So, for points (– 3,– 5),(– 5,– 6) and (m,– 4), the area of triangle is
X-axis to be zero.
–3 3 1
| x1 ( y2 - y3 ) + x2 ( y3 - y1 ) + x3 ( y1 - y2 )| = 0
2
Y-axis
1
i.e., |– 3 (– 6 + 4) – 5 (– 4 + 5) + m (– 5 + 6)| = 0
2
3. (a) If a > 0 and b < 0 in the point (a,– b) x-coordinate is +ve and i.e., |6 – 5 + m|= 0 Þ m = –1
y-coordinate is -ve, so it is in the Ist quadrant.
9. (b) Centre of a circle is a mid-point of the end points of its
diameter.
4. (c) Given, x < 0 and y < 0, so the point (- x,– y) is in the third
quadrant.
5. (b) A line perpendicular to X-axis is always parallel to Y-axis. (3, 4) (9, 8)

X-axis
x + x2 y1 + y2 ö
So, the coordinates of centre = æç 1 , ÷
è 2 2 ø
Y-axis 3 + 9 4 + 8ö
= æç , ÷ = (6, 6)
è 2 2 ø
474 Study Package for NTSE

10. (a) Area of triangle formed with points (1, n) (3, 5) and (–1, 2 ) is 15. (c) Let the point Y (7, 17 ) divides X (3, 5) and Z (1, – 1) externally in
1 m : n ratio, we get
|1 (5 – 2 ) + 3 (2 – n) – 1 (n – 5)|= 5
2 æ m ´ 1 – n ´ 3 , m ´ (–1) – n(5)ö = (7,17 )
ç ÷
1 è m– n m– n ø
[QArea of triangle = | x1( y2 - y3 ) + x2 ( y3 - y1 ) + x3 ( y1 - y2 )|]
2 On comparing x and y coordinates, we get
i.e., |3 + 6 – 3 n – n + 5|= 10 m– 3 n – m– 5 n
Þ = 7 and = 17
Þ |– 4 n + 14|= 10 Þ – 4 n + 14 = 10 m– n m– n
Þ 4n = 4 Þ m – 3 n = 7m – 7n
\ n=1 and – m – 5 n = 17 m – 17 n
Þ 6 m = 4n
11. (a) The points are A (1, 7 ), B(3, 3) and C(7,– 5).
i.e., m : n = 2 / 3 and 18 m = 12 n
AB = (3 – 1)2 + (3 – 7 )2 [Q Distance = ( x2 - x1 )2 + ( y2 - y1 )2 ] \ m : n = 2/3
= 2 2 + 42 = 20 = 2 5 Thus, m : n = 2 : 3

BC = ( 7 – 3)2 + (- 5 – 3)2 = 42 + 82 16. (b) Area of triangle

1
= | x1 ( y2 - y3 ) + x2 ( y3 - y1 ) + x3 ( y1 - y2 )|
= 16 + 64 = 80 = 4 5 2
and CA = ( 7 – 1)2 + (– 5 – 7 )2 1
= |0(4 – 0) + 2 (0 – 0) + 2(0 – 4)|
2
= 6 2 + 12 2 = 36 + 144 = 180 = 6 5 1
= ´ 8 = 4 sq units
As, AB + BC = CA, the points are collinear. So, the given points 2
form a straight line. 17. (c) Distance of a point ( x, y) from the origin is
12. (d) The points are (k – 1, k + 1), (k + 3, k – 3) and (k + 1, k + 2 ).
( x – 0)2 + ( y – 0)2 = x 2 + y2
1
So, area of triangle = | x1 ( y2 - y3 ) + x2 ( y3 - y1 ) + x3 ( y1 - y2 )|
x + x2 + x3 y1 + y2 + y3 ö
2 18. (b) Centroid of a triangle = æç 1 , ÷
1 è 3 3 ø
= |(k – 1)[(k – 3) – (k + 2 )] + (k + 3)
x + x2 y1 + y2 ö
19. (b) We know that, centre of circle = æç 1
2
, ÷
[( k + 2 ) - (k + 1)] + (k + 1) [(k + 1) – (k – 3)]| è 2 2 ø
1 æ 3 + a – 4 + bö
= |(k – 1)(–5) + (k + 3)(1) + (k + 1)(4)| =ç , ÷ = (5, – 1)
2 è 2 2 ø
1
= |– 5 k + 5 + k + 3 + 4 k + 4|
2
1
= ´ 12 = 6 sq units
2 (3, – 4) (a, b)
(5, –1)
13. (b) The coordinate of point which divides the line segment
joining A(2,1) and B(3, 5) internally in 2 : 3 ratio, is
2 3
On comparing x and y coordinates, we get
A (2, 1) P (x, y) B (3, 5) 3+ a – 4+ b
Þ = 5 and = -1
2 ´ 3 + 3 ´ 2 2 ´ 5 + 3 ´ 1ö 2 2
Coordinates of P( x, y) = æç , ÷ Þ 3 + a = 10 and -4 + b = -2
è 2+3 2+3 ø
æ \ a = 7 and b = 2
m x + m2 x1 m1 y2 + m2 y1 ö
çQ Section formula = 1 2 , ÷ Hence, the value of (a, b) is (7, 2).
è m1 + m2 m1 + m2 ø
20. (b) The distance of a point ( x, y) from the origin is x2 + y2 .
= æç , ö÷
12 13
è 5 5ø So, A (3, 4) = 32 + 42 = 5 unit
14. (c) The required coordinate B(–1,– 1) = 12 + 12 = 2
– 3 ´ 2 - (–1) ´ 2 3 (–1) – 2(2 )ö
= æç , ÷ = 1.414 unit
è 3–2 3–2 ø
C(0, 3) = 02 + 32
æ m x – m2 x1 m1 y2 – m2 y1 ö = 3 unit
çQ Section formula = 1 2 , ÷
è m1 – m2 m1 – m2 ø D,(4, 0) = 42 + 02 = 4 unit
= (– 4,– 7 ) Thus, point (–1,– 1) is the nearest to the origin.
Coordinate Geometry 475
21. (c) We know that, the adjacent of rectangle having angle 90°. 23. (c) Distance between the point P(– 6, 8) and origin O(0, 0)
Y
= ( x2 - x1 )2 + ( y2 - y1 )2
C (5, 3)
A = (0 + 6)2 + (0 – 8)2 = 36 + 64 = 100 = 10
(0, 3)
3 24. (b) Distance between the points (0, 5) and (–5, 0)
= ( x2 - x1 )2 + ( y2 - y1 )2
X' X
O 5 B (5, 0)
(0, 0) = (–5 – 0)2 + (0 – 5)2

Y' = 25 + 25 = 2 ´ 25 = 5 2
Use Pythagoras theorem in DOAB, 25. (b) The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the X-axis = Ordinate of
( AB)2 = (OB)2 + (OA)2 point P = 3
2 2
= (5) + (3) = 25 + 9 = 34 Y

\ AB = 34 P (2, 3)
Y
Which is the required length of diagonal of rectangle.
22. (b) Distance between the points A(0, 6) and B(0,– 2 ) 3 unit
2 2
= ( x2 - x1 ) + ( y2 - y1 ) X
2 2 2 2
= (0 – 0) + (–2 – 6) = (0) + (–8) = 0 + 64 = 8

High Skill Questions

x + x2 + x3 y1 + y2 + y3 ö
1. (a) Let the points be A (2, k ) and B (– 4,1.) 4. (c) Centroid of triangle = æç 1 , ÷
è 3 3 ø
We know that, AB = 2 10
æ 2 + 3+ x 5+ 8+ yö
Þ 2 10 = (4 + 2 )2 + (k – 1)2 (3, 5) = ç , ÷
è 3 3 ø
[Q Distance = ( x2 - x1 )2 + ( y2 - y1 )2 ] On comparing coordinates of x and y, we get
2 5+ x 13 + y
i.e., 40 = 36 + k – 2 k + 1 [Qsquaring both sides] Þ = 3 and =5
3 3
Þ k2 – 2 k – 3 = 0
i.e., x = 4 and y = 2
Þ (k – 3)(k + 1) = 0 Thus, ( x, y) = (4, 2 )
\ k = 3 or k = - 1
5. (b) Let the point on X-axis be P ( x, 0) which is equidistance from
2. (b) Diameter of the circle = Distance between (4, 6) and (8, 4) A(3, 4) and B(2, 5). i.e., PA = PB
= ( x2 - x1 )2 + ( y2 - y1 )2 = (8 - 4)2 + (4 - 6)2 Þ ( x – 3)2 + (4 – 0)2 = ( x – 2 )2 + (5 – 0)2
= 42 + 2 2 = 16 + 4 = 2 5 Þ x – 6 x + 9 + 16 = x2 - 4 x + 4 + 25 Þ 2 x = – 4 Þ x = –2
2

So, radius of the circle = æQ Radius = diameter ö Thus, point = (– 2, 0)

5 units ç ÷
è 2 ø
6. (d) Since, D, E and F are the mid-points of the sides of DABC.
3. (a) Let the points are A(- 1, 4), B(- 3, 0), C(1, - 2 ) and D( x, y). Area of DDEF = 1 / 4 area of DABC
x + x2 y1 + y2 ö æ –1 + 1 4 – 2 ö
The mid-point of AC = æç 1
A
, ÷= ç , ÷ = (0,1)
è 2 2 ø è 2 2 ø
A (–1, 4) B (– 3, 0)
(3, 6) D F (2, 1)

B E (4, 5) C
D (x, y) C (1, – 2)
So, area of DABC = 4 (area of DDEF)
Mid-point of BD = æç
x – 3 y – 0ö
, ÷ 1
\ Area of D DEF = | x1 ( y2 - y3 ) + x2 ( y3 - y1 ) + x3 ( y1 - y2 )|
è 2 2 ø
2
x– 3
Þ =0 1
= | 3 (5 - 1) + 4 (1 - 6) + 2 (6 - 5)|
2 2
y
Þ x = 3 and =1 Þ y=2 1 1
= | 12 - 20 + 2 | = ´ 6 = 3 sq units
2 2 2
Thus, ( x, y) = (3, 2 )
Thus, area of DABC = 4 ´ 3 = 12 sq units
476 Study Package for NTSE

7. (c) We have, A(3,7 ) and B(2, 4), let the point on X-axis be ( x, 0). 12. (c) The coordinates of the triangle are A(1, 1), B(2, 3), C ( p, 2 )
Also, let the division ratio of A and B by X-axis be m : n, we get AB = (2 - 1)2 + (3 - 1)2 = 12 + 2 2 = 5,
æ 2 m + 3 n , 4 m + 7 n ö = ( x, 0)
ç ÷ [Qby section formula] BC = ( p - 2 )2 + (2 - 3)2 = ( p – 2 )2 + 12
è m+ n m+ n ø
4 m + 7n and CA = ( p – 1)2 + (2 - 1)2 = ( p – 1)2 + 12
Here, =0
m+ n Let A B = BC
Þ 4m + 7 n = 0 Þ 5 = ( p - 2 )2 + 1
Þ 4m = - 7 n
Þ 5 = p2 – 4 p + 4 + 1
Þ m : n = –7 / 4
Þ p 2 – 4p = 0 Þ p = 0 or 4
i.e., It divides the points A and B in 7 : 4 ratio externally.
Taking p = 0, we get AB = 5, BC = 5 and CA = 2 which is
8. (c) We have , A (3,2 ), B (5,– 3) and C(– 5, 4)
not right triangle side combination, if we take p = 4, we get
AB = (5 – 3)2 + (–3 – 2 )2 AB= 5, BC = 5 and CA = 10. As, CA 2 = AB 2 + BC 2 and
= 2 2 + 52 = 29 AB = BC
For p = 4 the triangle is an isosceles right angled triangle.
BC = (–5 – 5)2 + (4 + 3)2 = 100 + 49 = 149
13. (a) Let the coordinates of point D be ( x, y). We know O is the
and CA = (- 5 - 3)2 + (4 - 2 )2 = 64 + 4 = 68 mid-point of diagonal BD.
2
BC > AB + CA2 2
So, (3, 4) = æç
1+ x 5 + yö é æ x1 + x2 y1 + y2 ö ù
è 2
,
2 ø
÷ êQ mid -point = çè 2 , 2 ÷ø ú
So, DABC is an right angled triangle. ë û
B (1, 5)
9. (d) Let the fourth vertex be ( x, y). Then,
A (5, 6) B (2, 8)

A C
O
(3, 4)
D (x, y) C (0, 6)
D (x, y)
The mid-point of diagonal AC = Mid-point of diagonal BD 1+ x 5+ y
Þ = 3 and =4
æ 5 + 0, 6 + 6ö = æ x + 2 , y + 8ö 2 2
i.e., ç ÷ ç ÷
è 2 2 ø è 2 2 ø Þ 1 + x = 6 and 5 + y = 8 Þ x = 5, y = 3
é æ x1 + x2 y1 + y2 ö ù Thus, D = (5, 3)
êQ mid -point = çè 2 , 2 ÷ø ú
ë û 3
14. (c) Area of equilateral triangle = (side) 2 = 9 3
Þ x + 2 = 5 and y + 8 = 12 4
\ x = 3 and y = 4
A
10. (a) From option (a), let point P (2, – 3) will be collinear with A (0, 1)
and B(-2, 5). Then,
1
x1( y2 - y3 ) + x2 ( y3 - y1 ) + x3 ( y1 - y2 ) = 0
2
O C B (6, 0)
1
Þ 0(5 + 3) + (-2 )(-3 - 1) + (2 )(1 - 5) = 0
2 3
1 1 Þ (side) 2 = 9 3
Þ 0´ 8+ 8- 8 = 0Þ 0+ 8- 8 = 0 Þ0 = 0 4
2 2 Þ (side) 2 = 36
11. (d) Coordinate of point S, as RS is a median = Mid-point of PQ Þ side = 36 Þ side = 6
x + x2 y1 + y2 ö æ 4 + 3 5 + 1ö æ 7 ö
= æç 1 , ÷= ç , ÷ = ç , 3÷ 3
è 2 2 ø è 2 2 ø è2 ø Length of altitude AC = (Side)
2
P (3, 1) 3
= ´6= 3 3
2
= y-coordinate of point A
S
C is the mid-point of OB.
x + x2 y1 + y2 ö æ 6 + 0 0 + 0 ö
\ Coordinate point ofC = æç 1 , ÷=ç , ÷ = (3, 0)
Q (4, 5) R (13, 9)
è 2 2 ø è 2 2 ø
So, the coordinate of point A = (3, 3 3 )
Coordinate Geometry 477
15. (a) AB = 2 2 + 2 2 = 8 [Q by distance formula] Similarly, æ x2 + x3 , y2 + y3 ö = (–1, 2 )
ç ÷
è 2 2 ø
DC = 2 2 + 2 2 = 8
Þ x2 + x3 = – 2, y2 + y3 = 4 ...(ii)
2 2
AD = 3 + 2 = 13 and x1 + x3 = 8, y1 + y3 = 4 ...(iii)
BC = 32 + 2 2 = 13
A (3, 4) B (5, 6) On adding Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
x1 + x2 + x3 = 4 and y1 + y2 + y3 = 16 / 3
Using Eq. (ii) and above, we get
x1 = 4 – (–2 ) = 6 and y1 = 16 / 3 – 4 = 4 / 3
Thus, D( x1, y1 ) = (6, 4/ 3)
D (0, 6) C (2, 8) 19. (a) We know, AO = ( x2 - x1 )2 + ( y2 - y1 )2 = 12 + 2 2 = 5
The mid-point of diagonal, A (1, 5)
x + x2 y1 + y2 ö æ 3 + 2 4 +
AC = æç 1
8ö æ 5 ö
, ÷=ç , ÷ = ç , 6÷
è 2 2 ø è 2 2 ø è2 ø
= Mid-point of diagonal BD
But as AC = 12 + 42 = 17 O (2, 3)
¹ BD = 52 + 02 = 5
It is not a rectangle. B D C
Thus, ABCD is a parallelogram. 2
Þ AO = AD = 2 / 3 ´ AD
16. (b) In an equilateral triangle, orthocentre, incentre, centroid and 3
circumcentre all are at the same point and the point is (Q centroid divides medians in 2:1 ratio)
a + a2 + a3 b1 + b2 + b3 ö
= æç 1 , ÷ \ AD = 3 5 /2
è 3 3 ø
20. (d) Let the points be A (2, 1), B(3, 3) and C (5, k ).
17. (a) Coordinate of the centroid is same even when calculated with
the mid-point coordinates, so centroid \ AB = 12 + 2 2 = 5 [QDistance= ( x1 - x2 )2 + ( y1 - y2 )2
a + a2 + a3 b1 + b2 + b3 ö
= æç 1 , ÷ BC = 2 2 + (k – 3)2 = k 2 – 6 k + 13
è 3 3 ø
1 + 3 + 2 5 + 6 + 2 ö æ 13 ö and CA = 32 + (k – 1)2 = 10 + k 2 – 2 k
= æç , ÷ = ç2, ÷
è 3 3 ø è 3ø We should have AB = BC = CA for triangle to be equilateral.
x1 + x2 y1 + y2 ö Taking AB = BC, we get
18. (c) We know, æç , ÷ = (3, 4) Þ k 2 – 6 k + 13 = 5
è 2 2 ø
D (x1, y1) Þ k2 – 6 k + 8 = 0
Þ k 2 - 2 k - 4k + 8 = 0
Þ k(k - 2 ) - 4(k - 2 ) = 0 Þ (k - 2 )(k - 4) = 0
A (3, 4) B (4, 2) \ k = 4, 2
On taking BC = CA, we get
Þ k 2 – 2 k + 10 = k 2 – 6 k + 13 Þ 4 k = 3
E (x2, y2) C F (x 3 , y 3 ) \ k = 3/ 4
(–1, 2)
Since, there is no common value of k possible. The triangle
Þ x1 + x2 = 6, y1 + y2 = 8 ...(i) cannot be equilateral.
478 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

13
Area and Perimeter

Area Example 1 The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is

Total space inside the boundary of a plane figure is 45 cm. Find its area.
called the area of that particular figure. 215 3 205 2
(a) sq cm (b) sq cm
In another words, the area of a plane figure is a 2 3
measure associated with the part of plane enclosed in 115 225 3
(c) sq cm (d) sq cm
the figure. Area is measured in square unit. 3 4
Solution (d) Given that, perimeter = 45 cm
Perimeter or 3 a = 45 (Q a = side)
It is the length of border around any enclosed plane. ∴ a=
45
= 15 cm
Therefore, sum of the sides of a plane figure is the 3
perimeter of that particular figure. Unit of perimeter 3 2 3
∴ Area = a = × 15 2
is same as the unit of sides of a given figure. 4 4
225 3
= sq cm
Types of Triangles 4

Isosceles Triangle
Triangle
It has any two sides and two angles equal and altitude
A figure enclosed by three sides is known as a triangle. bisects the base.
A triangle has three angles with total sum of 180° and
Let a = Each of two equal sides and b = Third side, then
sum of its any two sides is more than the third side.
b
Equilateral Triangle l Area = 4a 2 − b 2
4
It has all three sides equal and each angle is of 60°. b 2 1
l Height = a 2 −   = 4 a2 − b2
A  2 2

a l Perimeter = a + a + b = 2 a + b
a
h A

B a C
a a
3 3 2
l Area = (Side)2 = a h
4 4
3 3
l Height = (Side) = a B C
2 2 b/ 2 b/ 2
b
l Perimeter = 3 (Side) = 3 a
Area and Perimeter 479
Example 2 The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm 1
Solution (a) Area of triangle = × Base × Height
while its equal sides together measure 18 cm. Find the 2
third side and each of the equal sides. 1
= × 6 × 8 = 24 sq cm
(a) 14 cm, 9 cm (b) 12 cm, 8 cm 2
(c) 18 cm, 6 cm (d) None of these
Quadrilaterals
Solution (a) Let the third side be x cm.
According to the question, x + 18 = 32
A figure enclosed by four sides is called a
quadrilateral. A quadrilateral has four angles and sum
∴ x = 32 − 18 = 14 cm
of these angles is equal to 360°.
18
Each equal side = = 9 cm
2 Parallelogram
Scalene Triangle It is a quadrilateral with opposite sides parallel and
equal. Let a and b be the sides of the parallelogram
It has three unequal sides.
and h be the height, then
Let a, b and c be the sides of the l Area = Base × Height = b × h l Perimeter = 2 ( a + b)
A
triangle, then
A b B
l Area = s ( s − a ) ( s − b) ( s − c )
a+ b+ c a c
Where, s = a h a
2
B C
l Perimeter = a + b + c b
D b C
Example 3 Find the area of a triangle whose sides are
26 cm, 28 cm and 30 cm. Example 5 The base of a parallelogram is twice its
(a) 336 sq cm (b) 106 sq cm height. If the area of the parallelogram is 144 sq cm, find
(c) 416 sq cm (d) 307 sq cm
its height.
Solution (a) Given that, a = 26 cm, b = 28 cm and c = 30 cm (a) 3 2 cm (b) 6 2 cm (c) 2 2 cm (d) 3 3
a + b + c 26 + 28 + 30 84
∴ s= = = = 42 cm Solution (b) As we know,
2 2 2
Area of parallelogram = Base × Height
∴ (s − a ) = 42 − 26 = 16 cm
According to the question, A B
(s − b) = 42 − 28 = 14 cm
2a × a = 144
(s − c) = 42 − 30 = 12 cm (a = Height, 2a = Base)
∴ Area = s (s − a ) (s − b) (s − c) 144 a
2
⇒ a = = 72
= 42 × 16 × 14 × 12 2
= (14 × 3 ) × 16 × 14 × (4 × 3 ) ∴ a = 72 = 6 2 cm D 2a C

= (14 × 4 × 2 × 3 ) = 336 sq cm Rhombus

Right Angled Triangle It is a parallelogram with all four sides equal. The
opposite angles in a rhombus are equal but they are
It is a triangle whose one angle is equal to 90°.
not equal to 90°.
Let p = Perpendicular, b = Base
A Let a = Side, d1 , d2 = diagonals, then
and h = Hypotenuse, then A B
a
1
l Area = × Perpendicular × Base d2
2 h
p a a
1
= × p× b
2 d1
B C
l Perimeter = p + b + h b D a C
Note Here, h 2 = p2 + b2 , which is known as 1
l Area = × d1 × d 2
Pythagoras theorem. 2
1 2 2 2 2
Example 4 The base and height of a right angular l Side (a) = d1 + d2 ⇒ 4a2 = d1 + d2
triangle are 6 cm and 8 cm respectively. What is its area? 2
(a) 24 sq cm (b) 26 sq cm l Perimeter = 4a
(c) 25 sq cm (d) 30 sq cm
480 Study Package for NTSE

Example 6 Find the area of a rhombus one side of which Solution (a) Given, area = 289 sq m
measures 10 cm and one diagonal 12 cm. ⇒ a 2 = 289 (a = side)
(a) 66 sq cm (b) 84 sq cm
∴ a= 289 = 17 cm
(c) 72 sq cm (d) 96 sq cm
∴ Perimeter = 4 a = 4 × 17 = 68 m
Solution (d) Given that, a = 10 cm, d 1 = 12 cm
Trapezium
According to the formula,
4 a 2 = d 21 + d 22 (d 1 and d 2 are diagonals and a is the side)
It is a quadrilateral, where only one pair of opposite
sides is parallel. Let a and b be the parallel sides and
⇒ 4 × 10 2 = 122 + d 22 ⇒ d 22 = 256 h be the height or perpendicular distance between a
∴ d2 =
256 = 16 cm and b, then
1 1
∴ Required area = × d 1 × d 2 Area = ( a + b) × h
2 2
A a B
1
= × 12 × 16 = 12 × 8 = 96 sq cm
2

Rectangle h

It is a parallelogram whose opposite sides are equal

and each angle is equal to 90°. D b C
Let l = Length, b = Breadth and h = Height, then
A l B Example 9 If the two parallel sides of a trapezium are
6 cm and 10 cm, respectively and distance between them
is 4 cm, find its area.
b d b
(a) 32 sq cm (b) 24 sq cm
l
(c) 26 sq cm (d) None of these
D C
Solution (a) Given that, a = 6 cm, b = 10 cm, h = 4 cm
l Area = Length × Breadth = l × b
According to the formula,
l Perimeter = 2 ( l + b) 1 1
Area = (a + b) × h = ( 6 + 10 ) × 4 = 32 sq cm
l Diagonal (d) = l2 + b2 2 2

Regular Polygon
Example 7 The perimeter of a rectangle is 50 cm. If its A polygon is a figure bounded by three or more
length is 15 cm, what will be its breadth? straight lines. If all sides and all the interior angles of
(a) 15 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 25 cm a polygon are equal, then it is called regular polygon.
Solution (b) According to the question, A polygon is called pentagon, hexagon, heptagon,
2 ( l + b) = 50 (l = length, b =breadth) octagon, nonagon and decagon according as it contains
⇒ l + b = 25 ⇒15 + b = 25 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 sides, respectively.
∴ b = 25 − 15 = 10 cm Let a = Each side of a regular polygon, then
3
Square l Area of regular pentagon = 5a 2
4
It is a parallelogram in which all the 3
sides are equal and perpendicular to A a B l Area of regular hexagon = 6a 2
4
each other i.e., each angle is equal to
l Area of regular octagon = 2a2 ( 2 + 1)
90°. a a n ( n − 1) n (n − 3 )
Number of diagonals =  − n  or 
d
Let a = Side, d = Diagonal, then l 
2 2
 2   2 
l Area = (Side) = a D a C
l Perimeter = 4 × Side = 4a Example 10 Find the area of a regular hexagon whose
perimeter is 18 cm (in sq cm).
l Diagonal (d) = a 2
12 27
Example 8 A square field has its area equal to 289 sq m. (a) (b) 9 3
5
Find its perimeter.
27 3 27 3
(a) 68 m (b) 72 m (c) (d)
2 4
(c) 70 m (d) None of these
Area and Perimeter 481
Solution (c) Given, Perimeter of regular hexagon = 6a Circular Ring
18 = 6 a Let R = Radius of bigger ring O
∴ a = 3 cm r = Radius of smaller ring r
R
Now, Area of regular hexagon Then,
2 2
l Area = π ( R − r )
3 3
= 6 a2 = 6 × (3)2 × l Difference in circumference of both the rings
4 4
3 27 3 = (2πR − 2πr )
=3×9× = sq cm
2 2 Example 12 The radius of a circular garden is 21 m. If a
path way of width 7m runs all around and inside the
Circle garden, then find its area.
It is a plane figure enclosed by a curved line on, which (a) 770 m2 (b) 700 m2
every point is equally distant from a fixed point
(c) 707 m2 (d) 777 m2
(centre) inside the curve.
Let radius = r and arc (AB) = l, then O
Solution (a) Required area of path
l Area = πr 2 r θ r = π(21)2 − π(21 − 7)2 [Q area of circle = π (radius)2]
l Circumference (perimeter) = 2 πr A B = π (21)2 − π(14)2
Diameter = 2 r l
= π [(21 + 14) (21 − 14)] [Q a2 − b2 = (a + b) (a − b)]
l
πr θ
l Length of the arc (l) = 22
180° = π [35 × 7 ] = × 35 × 7
7
πr 2θ 1
l Area of sector AOB = = lr = 770 m2
360° 2
l Area of a square inscribed in a circle of radius r is equal to Example 13 A wheel makes 2000 revolutions in covering
2r2 . a distance of 88 km. Find the radius of wheel.
l The area of the largest triangle inscribed in a (a) 6 m (b) 3 m
semi-circle of radius r is equal to r2 .
(c) 7 m (d) 4 m
l If area of a square is a sq unit, then the area of the circle
4a Sol. (c) Distance covered in 1 revolution
formed by the same perimeter is given by sq unit.
π 88 × 1000
= = 44 m
2000
Example 11 The radius of a circle is 2 cm. Find its According to the question, 2 πr = 44
diameter. 22
(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 10 cm ⇒ 2× × r = 44
7
Solution (a) We know that, Diameter = 2r (r = radius) ∴ r = 44 ×
7
=7m
44
= 2 × 2 = 4 cm

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. The diagonals of two squares are in the ratio of 3 : 2. 4. The side of a square is 5 cm which is 13 cm less than
Find the ratio of their areas. the diameter of a circle. What is the approximate
(a) 9 : 4 (b) 9 : 2 (c) 9 : 5 (d) 9 : 7 area of the circle?
2. If area of a regular pentagon is 125 3 sq cm, how (a) 245 sq cm (b) 235 sq cm
long is its each side? (c) 265 sq cm (d) 255 sq cm
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 25 cm 5. Find the area of a square inscribed in a circle of
radius 4 cm.
3. Find the number of diagonals of a regular polygon
having 12 sides. (a) 32 sq cm (b) 18 sq cm
(a) 56 (b) 54 (c) 60 (d) 40 (c) 64 sq cm (d) 25 sq cm
482 Study Package for NTSE

6. The area of a rectangle is 4 times the area of a 1 1 1

10. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of : : and
square. The area of the square is 729 sq cm and the 3 4 5
length of the rectangle is 81 cm. What is the its perimeter is 94 cm. Find the length of the smallest
difference between the side of the square and the side of the triangle.
breadth of the rectangle? (a) 18 cm (b) 22.5 cm
(a) 18 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 27 cm
(b) 27 cm 11. Find the area of a triangle whose sides measure
(c) 24 cm 14 cm, 48 cm and 50 cm.
(d) 9 cm (a) 672 cm2 (b) 336 cm2
2
7. In the given figure, OP = PQ = 14 cm and semi-circles (c) 350 cm (d) 700 cm2
are drawn on OP, PQ and OQ as diameters. Then, the 12. ABC is an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle. If
perimeter of the shaded area is the side of the triangle is 3 cm, what is the area of the
circle?
(a) 9 π / 3 cm2 (b) 3π cm2
(c) 3 3 π cm2 (d) 9 π / 4 cm2
O Q
P 13. D, E and F are mid-points of AB, AC and BC
respectively of triangle ABC. Find the area of the
(a) 88 cm (b) 176 cm quadrilateral DEFB, if the area of triangle ABC is 36
(c) 264 cm (d) 352 cm
sq cm.
(a) 12 sq cm (b) 18 sq cm
8. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 36 cm. If one
(c) 24 sq cm (d) 9 sq cm
of the equal sides is 13 cm, find the area of the
triangle. 14. If the perimeter of a rhombus is 52 cm and one of its
(a) 60 cm2 (b) 30 cm2 diagonals is 10 cm, then find its area (in sq cm).
(c) 30 2 cm 2
(d) 36 cm 2 (a) 154 (b) 168 (c) 120 (d) 175

9. If sides of a square are increased by 5%, by what 15. A trapezium has a height of 12 cm. Its longer and
per cent, its area will be increased? shorter parallel sides are 21 cm and 3 cm
respectively. Find its area (in sq cm).
(a) 4.44 (b) 19.26 (c) 10.25 (d) 16.16
(a) 72 (b) 108 (c) 216 (d) 144

High Skill Questions

1. The base of a parallelogram is thrice of its height. If 4. The largest triangle is inscribed in a semi-circle of
the area of the parallelogram is 2187 sq cm. Find its radius 4 cm. Find the area inside the semi-circle,
height. which is not occupied by the triangle?
(a) 27 cm (b) 35 cm (c) 29 cm (d) 26 cm (a) 8 ( π − 2) sq cm (b) 7 ( π − 1) sq cm
2. Find the area of the shaded portion in the figure (c) 8 ( π − 1)2 sq cm (d) 6 ( π − 2 ) sq cm
given below 5. The length of a rectangle is twice its breadth. If the
length is decreased by half of the 10 cm and the
4m breadth is increased by half of the 10 cm, the area of
4m the rectangle is increased by 5 sq cm more than
10 m 70 sq cm. Find the length of the rectangle.
(a) 30 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 21 cm (d) 45 cm
6. A rectangular lawn 80 m × 60 m has two roads each
30 m 10 m wide running in the middle of it, one parallel to
(a) 160 sq m (b) 144 sq m
the length and the other parallel to the breadth. Find
the cost of gravelling them at ` 20 per sq m.
(c) 169 sq m (d) 100 sq m
(a) ` 35000 (b) ` 39000 (c) ` 26000 (d) ` 41000
3. If area of a square is 64 sq cm, then find the area of
the circle formed by the same perimeter. 7. A 7 m wide road runs outside around a circular park
215 216 whose circumference is 176 m. Find the area of the
(a) sq cm (b) sq cm road.
π π
256 318 (a) 1386 sq m (b) 1472 sq m
(c) sq cm (d) sq cm
π π (c) 1512 sq m (d) 1760 sq m
Area and Perimeter 483
8. The perimeters of two squares are 68 cm and 60 cm. 15. The sides of a triangle are 25 m, 39 m and 56 m,
Find the perimeter of the third square whose area is respectively. Find the perpendicular from the
equal to the difference of the areas of these two opposite angle on the greatest sides.
squares. (a) 45 m (b) 90 m (c) 15 m (d) 30 m
(a) 64 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 32 cm (d) 8 cm 16. The length of the floor of a rectangular hall is 10 m
9. One diagonal of a rhombus is 60% of the other more than its breadth. If 34 carpets of size 6 m × 4 m
diagonal. Then, area of the rhombus is how many are required to cover the floor of the hall, then find
times the square of the length of the larger diagonal? the length and breadth of the hall.
1 2 6 3 (a) 34 m, 19 m (b) 34 m, 24 m
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 7 10 (c) 19 m, 16 m (d) 14 m, 19 m
10. The hand of a clock are 10 cm and 7 cm, respectively. 17. The difference between two parallel sides of a
Find the difference between the distance travelled by trapezium is 8 cm. The perpendicular distance
their extremities in 3 days 5 h. between them is 38 cm. If the area of the trapezium is
(a) 4457.67 cm (b) 4557.67 cm 950 cm2, then find the length of the parallel sides.
(c) 4657.67 cm (d) 4575.67 cm (a) 29 cm, 21 cm
11. The area of a sector is 80 m 2. The radius of the circle (b) 30 cm, 21 cm
is 16 m. Find the angle of the sector. (c) 21 cm, 26 cm
(a) 34° (b) 34.8° (c) 35° (d) 35.8° (d) 21 cm, 80 cm
12. The radius of a circle is 75 cm. A zone of that circle 18. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle
has one of its parallel chords coinciding with the of 60° at the centre. Find the area of the minor and
diameter and the other equal to the radius. Find the major segment made by this arc.
area of that zone. (a) 48.1 cm 2, 1345.6 cm 2
2 2 2 2
(a) 8528 cm (b) 8328 cm (c) 8218 cm (d) 8238 cm (b) 14.6 cm 2, 1465.9cm 2
13. A took 15 s to cross a rectangular field diagonally (c) 16.1 cm 2, 1245.6 cm 2
walking at the rate of 52 m/min and B took the same (d) 40.1 cm 2, 1345.9 cm 2
time to cross the same field along its sides walking at 19. There is a garden of 140 m × 120 m and a gravel
the rate of 68 m/min. Find the area of the field. path is to be made of an equal width all around it, so
(a) 45 sq m (b) 90 sq m (c) 60 sq m (d) 30 sq m as to take up just one-fourth of the garden. What
14. Two sides of a triangle are 85 m and 154 m and the must be the breadth of the path?
perimeter is 324 m. Find the area of the triangle. (a) 8.65 m (b) 90 m
(a) 7216 m 2 (b) 1431 m 2 (c) 1350 m 2 (d) 2772 m 2 (c) 60 m (d) 121.3 m

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) Given, ratio = 3 : 2 3. (b) Given, number of sides,
Let the diagonals of two squares be 3x and 2 x. n = 12
1 Then, number of diagonals
( 3 x) 2
Then, ratio of their areas = 2 n(n − 3) 12(12 − 3)
= =
1
(2 x) 2 2 2
2 = 6 × 9 = 54
1
[Q Area of square = (diagonal) 2] 4. (d) Given, side of square = 5 cm
2
and diameter of circle = 13 + 5 = 18 cm
9
= =9:4 Diameter 18
4 ∴ Radius = = = 9 cm
2 2
2. (a) Let the side of the pentagon = a cm 22 22 × 81
Area of the circle = π r 2 = × (9)2 =
Given, area of regular pentagon = 125 3 sq cm 7 7
3 4 1782
⇒ 5a 2 = 125 3 ⇒ a 2 = 125 × = 100 =
4 5 7
∴ a = 100 = 10 cm = 254.57 ≈ 255 sq cm (approx.)
484 Study Package for NTSE

5. (a) Since, square is inscribed in a circle. 11. (b) Let a = 14 cm, b = 48 cm, c = 50 cm
∴ Diagonal of square = Diameter of circle = 2 × 4 = 8 cm This is a right angled triangle as
1
Now, area of square = × (Diagonal) 2 a2 + b 2 = c 2
2
1 64 ⇒ (14)2 + (48)2 = (50)2
= × (8)2 = = 32 sq cm
2 2 ⇒ 196 + 2304 = 2500
6. (d) Given, area of the square = 729 sq cm ⇒ 2500 = 2500
1 1
⇒ (Side) 2 = 729 ∴ Area = × Base × Height = × 14 × 48 = 336cm2
2 2
⇒ Side = 729 = 27 cm
12. (b) Given, A
Now, area of rectangle = 4 × 729
Side of triangle = 3 = r 3
⇒ 81 × Breadth = 4 × 729 [Q length = 81 cm] 3
⇒ r= 3 3
4 × 729 3
∴Breadth = = 4 × 9 = 36 cm r
O
81 ∴Area of circle = πr 2
Hence, required difference = 36 − 27 = 9 cm B C
9 3
= π× = 3 π cm2
7. (a) Given, figure has three semi-circles of radius 7 cm, 7 cm and 3
14 cm.
13. (b) As D, E and F are mid-points, areas of triangles ADE, EFC,
∴ Required perimeter = πr1 + πr2 + πr3
DEF and DFB are all equal and each is 1/4th of the triangle
22
= π [7 + 7 + 14 ] = × 28 = 88 cm ABC.
7
Area of quadrilateral DEFB
8. (a) Given,
A
Q h = 132 − 152
[Q by Pythagoras theorem]
D E
= 12 cm 13 13
1 h
Hence, Area = × base × height
2 B C
F
1
= × 12 × 10 = 60 cm2 5 1
2
10 =2 × (Area of ∆ABC)
4
9. (c) Let the original side of square = a
1
= × (36) = 18 sq cm
Then, the original area of square = (a)2 2
Now, after increment the new side of square, 14. Given, A
(100 + 5) 21 Q Perimeter = 52 cm = 4 (side)
=a× = a
100 20 ∴ Side = 13 cm 13 cm
2
441a2 Diagonal 1 = 10 cm
Again, new area = 
21a 
 = E
 20  400 = AD (say) B C

∴Required increment in percentage ∴ AE = 5 cm

441a2 In ∆ AEC
− a2
441 − 400 41 EC = AC 2 − AE 2
= 400 × 100 = × 100 = = 10.25%
a2 400 4 D
1 1 1
10. (c) Given, ratio = : : [Q by Pythagoras theorem]
3 4 5
60 60 60 = 132 − 52 = 12 cm
= : : [LCM of 3, 4, 5 =60]
3 4 5 ∴ Area of ABCD = 4 × Area of ∆AEC
1
= 20 : 15 : 12 = 4 × ( AE ) (EC )
2
Let lengths of the sides be 20 x, 15 x and 12 x. 1
= 4 × × 5 × 12 = 120 sq cm
Then, perimeter = a + b + c [where a, b, c are sides] 2
1
= 20 x + 15 x + 12 x = 94(given) 15. (d) We know that, Area of a trapezium =
2
⇒ 47 x = 94 (Height) (sum of the lengths of the parallel sides)
94 ∴Required area (in sq cm)
∴ x= =2
47 1
= (12 ) (21 + 3)
Hence, length of the smallest side = 12 x 2
= 12 × 2 = 24 cm = 144cm2
Area and Perimeter 485

High Skill Questions

1. (a) Let the height of parallelogram = a cm 5. (b) Given, length of rectangle,
then, base of parallelogram = 3a cm l = 2 × Breadth of rectangle (b)
Given, area of parallelogram = 2187 sq cm i .e., l = 2 b
⇒ a × 3 a = 2187 Decrease in length = Half of the 10 cm
1
⇒ a2 =
2187
= 729 = × 10 = 5 cm
3 2
∴ a = 729 = 27 cm Increase in breadth = Half of the 10 cm
1
Hence, height of the parallelogram is 27 cm. = × 10 = 5 cm
2
2. (b) Given, Increase in the area = (70 + 5) = 75 sq cm
4m
According to the question,
4m (l − 5) (b + 5) = lb + 75
10 m
⇒ (2 b − 5) (b + 5) = 2 b 2 + 75 [Q l = 2 b ]
2 2
⇒ 2 b + 10b − 5b − 25 = 2 b + 75
30 m ⇒ 5b = 75 + 25
100
Area of shaded portion, length wise ∴ b= = 20cm
5
= 30 × 4 [Q area of rectangle = length × breadth]
Hence, length of the rectangle
= 120 m 2 l = 2 × 20 = 40 cm
Area of shaded portion, breadth wise = 10 × 4 = 40 m2 6. (c) Area to be gravelled
Area of intersecting part = 4 × 4 = 16 m2 = x ( l + b − x)
[Q area of square = (side) ] 2 = 10 (80 + 60 − 10)
= 10 × 130 = 1300 sq m
Hence, total area of the shaded region
= 120 + 40 − 16 = 144 m2
10 m
A B
3. (c) Area of square = 64 sq cm
⇒ (Side) 2 = 64 ⇒ Side = 64 = 8 cm
10 m 10 m
Now, perimeter of square = 4 × 8 = 32 cm
According to the question,
Perimeter of circle = Perimeter of square D C
10 m
⇒ 2 πr = 32
32 16 ∴Cost of gravelling = ` (1300 × 20) = ` 26000
∴ r= = cm
2× π π 7. (a) Let r cm and R cm be the radii of park and road, respectively.
2 Given,
Hence, required area of circle = πr 2 = π   =
16 256
sq cm Circumference of the park = 176 m
 π π
176 × 7
4. (a) Given, radius of circle, ⇒ 2 π r = 176 ⇒ r = = 28 m
2 × 22
OA = OB = OC = 4 cm
∴ R = 28 + 7 = 35 m
πr 2 π(4)2
∴ Area of semi-circle = = = 8π sq cm
2 2 7m
B
R
r
4
O
A C
Now, area of the road = πR 2 − πr 2 = π [(35) 2 − (28) 2 ]
8 cm
1
∴Area of ∆ABC = × Base × Height =
22
[(35 + 28) (35 − 28)]
2 7
1
= × 8 × 4 = 16sq cm =
22
× 63 × 7
2 7
Now, required area (shaded region)
[Q a 2 − b 2 = (a + b ) (a − b )]
= 8 π − 16 = 8 ( π − 2 ) sq cm
= 1386 sq m
486 Study Package for NTSE

8. (c) Given, perimeter of first square = 68 cm 11. (d) Given, radius, OA = OB = 16 m

⇒ 4 × Side = 68 Let angle of the sector = θ
68
∴ Side, (a1) = = 17 cm (According to the question),
4
and perimeter of second square = 60 cm
60 B
∴ Side, (a 2 ) = = 15 cm O
16m
4 θ
According to the question,
Area of third square = (17 ) 2 − (15) 2
A
= (17 + 15) (17 − 15)
[Q a2 − b 2 = (a + b )(a − b )] πr 2θ
Area of sector = 80 ⇒ = 80
360°
= 32 × 2 = 64 sq cm
80 × 360° 80 × 360° × 7
Also, area of third square = (Side) 2 ⇒ θ= =
22 7 × (16)2 22 × 16 × 16
⇒ (Side) 2 = 64
∴ θ = 35.8°
∴ Side = 64 = 8 cm
12. (b) Given, radius of circle,
Hence, perimeter of third square
OA = OB = OC = OD = 75 cm
= 4 × 8 = 32 cm
Length of chord coinciding with diameter,
9. (d) Let the longer diagonal = x cm, CD = 75 × 2 = 150 cm
then other diagonal = 60% of first diagonal x
60 3x Minor
= × x= cm A B segment
100 5 60°
1
Now, area of rhombus = × product of diagonal C
O
D
2
1 3x
= × x×
2 5
3 and other chord AB = Radius = 75 cm
= × x2
10 Since, ∆OAB is an equilateral triangle
3 (each side =75 cm)
= × (square of longer diagonal)
10 So, angle of the sector, θ = 60°
3 3 3 2
Hence, area of rhombus is times the square of longer Area of ∆ AOB = (75) 2 [Q Area of triangle = ( a) ]
10 4 4
diagonal. 1732
. × 5625 9742.5
= = = 2435.6 sq cm
10. (b) Total time = 3 days 5 h = 77 h 4 4
Radius of minute hand, R = 10 cm πr 2θ
Area of the sector AOBX =
Radius of hour hand, r = 7 cm 360°
22 × (75)2 × 60° 22 × 5625
= =
Minute
circle 7 × 360° 7×6
10 = 2946.42 sq cm
∴Area of minor segment ABX
7 Hour
circle
= 2946.42 − 2435.6 = 510.82 sq cm
Hence, required area ABDC = Area of semi-circle − Area of
1 22
Total distance travelled by the extremity of hour hand minor segment = × × (75) 2 − 510.82
2 7
= Circumference × Number of revolution
77 = 8839.28 − 510.82 ≈ 8328 sq cm
= 2 πr ×
12 13. (c) Distance travelled by A in 15 s
[Q hour hand completes one revolution in 12 h] 15
= 52 × = 13 m l
C
22 77 60 D
=2 × ×7 × = 282.33 cm
7 12 ∴Diagonal of the field = 13 m
b
Total distance travelled by extremity of minute hand ⇒ l 2 + b 2 = (13) 2
= Circumference × Number of revolution = 2 πR × 77
⇒ l 2 + b 2 = 169 ...(i) A B
[Q minute hand completes one revolution in 1 h]
22 Distance travelled by B in 15 s
=2 × × 10 × 77 = 4840 cm
7 15
= 68 × ⇒ l + b = 17 m ...(ii)
Hence, required difference = 4840 − 282.33 = 4557.67 cm 60
Area and Perimeter 487
On squaring both sides, we get 17. (a) Let the two parallel sides of trapezium be a cm and b cm.
(l + b ) 2 = (17 ) 2 Given, a − b = 8 ...(i)
⇒ l 2
+ b 2
+ 2 lb = 289 Perpendicular distance, h = 38 cm
Area = 950 cm 2 b
⇒ 169 + 2 lb = 289 [from Eq. (i)]
1
289 − 169 ⇒ (a + b ) h = 950
⇒ lb = = 60 2
2 38 cm
950 × 2
Hence, area of the field = 60 sq cm ⇒ a+ b= = 50
38
14. (d) Let the sides of the triangle be a m, b m and c m .
∴ a + b = 50 ...(ii) a
Then, a = 85 m and b = 154 m
On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Given, perimeter = a + b + c = 324
2 a = 58
⇒ 85 + 154 + c = 324 58
∴ a= = 29 cm
⇒ c = 324 − 239 2
⇒ c = 85 m On putting the value of a in Eq. (i), we get b = 29 − 8 = 21cm
Thus, given triangle is an isosceles triangle Hence, required lengths parallel sides are 29 cm and 21 cm.
b 18. (d) Given, radius of circle = 21cm
∴ Area = 4a 2 − b 2
4
An arc AXB subtends an angle of 60° at O.
154
= 4(85) 2 − (154) 2 Since, OA = OB = 21 cm (radius)
4
154 154 ∴ ∠ OAB = ∠ OBA = 60° = ∠ AOB
= × 5184 = × 72 Hence, ∆ABO is an equilateral triangle.
4 4
3 3 2
∴ Area = 2772 m2 Area of ∆ABO = × (21) 2 [Q Area of triangle = ( a) ]
4 4
15. (c) Given, sides of the triangle, 441 3 763.812
= = [Q 3 = 1732. ]
a = 39 m , b = 56 m and c = 25 m 4 4
Let h = perpendicular from ∠ B on greatest side. = 190.95 cm 2
Y
B
a+ b+c πr 2θ
Now, s = Area of sector AOB = O
2 360°
39 + 56 + 25 2
22 × (21) × 60° 21 21
= = 60 m 25 h 39 = = 231 cm 2 60°
2 7 × 360° A B
∴Area of triangle Now, area of minor segment AXB X
= s ( s − a) ( s − b ) ( s − c ) A D 56 C = Area of sector AOBX – Area of ∆ABO
1
⇒ × Base × Height = 231 − 190.95 = 401 . cm 2
2
22
= 60(60 − 39) (60 − 56) (60 − 25) Area of circle = πr 2 = × 21 × 21 = 1386 cm 2
1 7
⇒ × 56 × h Hence, area of major segment
2
= Area of circle − Area of minor segment
= 60 × 21 × 4 × 35 = 1386 − 401 . = 1345.9 cm 2
420 × 2
∴ h= = 15 m 19. (a) Given, length of the garden = 140 m
56
Hence, length of the perpendicular is 15 m. and breadth of the garden = 120 m
16. (b) Let the breadth of the hall = b m, ∴ Area of the garden = (140 × 120) m2
then length of the hall, l = (b + 10 ) m 1
Since, path covers th area of the garden, that means path is
Area of the hall = Length × Breadth 4
1
= b(b + 10) ...(i) inside the garden and area of path = × 140 × 120
4
Area of one carpet = (6 × 4) m 2
= 4200 cm2
Q 34 carpets are required to cover the floor. According to the formula,
∴ Area of floor of hall = 34 × area of one carpet Area of pathway = 2 x (l + b − 2 x)
= 34 × 6 × 4 ⇒ 2 x(140 + 120 − 2 x) = 4200
Now, b (b + 10 ) = 34 × 6 × 4 ⇒ x(260 − 2 x) = 2100
= 34 × 24 ⇒ x 2 − 130 x + 1050 = 0
∴ b = 24 m ∴ x = 8.65, 1213. [Q by Sridharacharya rule]
and l = 24 + 10 Since, 121.3 > 120, so it is not possible.
= 34 m Hence, required breadth of the path is 8.65 m.
488 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

14
Volume and Surface Area

Solid Figures Cube

The objects which occupy space (i.e., they have three A box whose length, breadth and height all are equal,
dimensions) are called solids. The solid figures can be is called a cube.
derived from the plane figures.
e.g., In figure (i), we have a paper cut in the form as
shown. It is a plane figure but when we fold the paper
along the dotted lines, a box can be made as shown in
figure (ii).
● Edge of cube = Length = Breadth = Height
● Volume of a cube = (side)3
A B ● Total surface area of a cube = 6 × (side)2
A ● Covered surface area of cube = 4a 2
B
● Diagonal of a cube = 3 × side
D C Example 1 Find the surface area and the length of the
diagonal of the cube. If the volume of a cube is 2197 cu cm, are
D C (a) 1012 sq cm and 21.516 cm
(i) (ii) (b) 1024 sq cm and 24.516 cm
(c) 1014 sq cm and 22.516 cm
As the box in figure (ii) occupies some part of the (d) None of the above
space, it has more than two dimensions and therefore,
Solution (c) Volume of cube = (side) 3 = 2197 cu cm
it fulfils the criteria of being a solid figure.
∴ Side of cube = 13 cm
Volume ∴ Surface area of a cube = 6 (side) 2 = 6 (13) 2 = 1014 sq cm
The measure of part of space occupied by a solid is and length of the diagonal of the cube = 3 × side
called its volume. = 3 × 13
Surface Area = 22.516 cm

The sum of the areas of the plane figures making up Cuboid

the boundary of a solid figure is called its surface area.
A cuboid has six rectangular plane surfaces called
e.g., The area of paper in figure (i) is the surface area
faces. A cuboid has 8 corners called the vertices.
of box.
Volume and Surface Area 489
Example 3 The volume of a cylinder is 448 π cm3 and height
7 cm. Then, its lateral surface area and total surface area are
(a) 349 cm 2 and 753.286 cm 2
(b) 352 cm 2 and 754.286 cm 2
● Volume of cuboid = l × b × h (c) 353 cm 2 and 755.286 cm 2
(d) None of the above
where, l = length, b = breadth and h = height
Solution (b) Volume of the cylinder = 448 π cm 3
● Whole surface of cuboid = 2 ( lb + bh + lh )
Height of the cylinder = 7 cm
● Diagonal of the cuboid = l2 + b2 + h 2
Let radius be r, then πr2 h = 448 π
● Covered surface area of cuboid = 2 ( l + b) h 448 π 448
∴ r2 = = = 64 ⇒ r = 8 cm
Example 2 The areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are hπ 7
x , y and z. If its volume is V , then which is true? ∴ Lateral surface area of the cylinder
(a) V = x 3y 2z2 (b) V 2 = xyz = 2πrh = 2 ×
22
× 8 × 7 = 352 cm 2
x 2y 7
(c) V = 3 xyz (d) V =
z Total surface area of the cylinder = 2πr ( h + r)
22
Solution (b) Let the dimensions be l, b and h. = 2× × 8 (7 + 8 )
7
Then, volume of cuboid, V = lbh
22 5280
Also, x = lb, y = bh, z = hl = 2× × 8 × 15 = = 754.286 cm 2
7 7
∴ V = lbh
⇒ V 2 = l 2 b2 h 2 [Q on squaring both sides] Hollow Cylinder
The volume of material in a hollow r
π
= ( lb) ( bh) ( hl)
cylinder is the difference between
∴ V = xyz
2
the volume of a cylinder having the
external dimensions and the h
Right Circular Cylinder volume of a cylinder having the
A right circular cylinder is a solid generated by the internal dimensions.
revolution of a rectangle about one of its sides which R
remains fixed. A cylinder shown in figure (i) is Let R and r be the external and
described by revolving the rectangle ABCD about the internal radii of the hollow cylinder and h be its height.
side BC. The examples of right circular cylinder are ● Volume of material = π ( R2 − r 2 ) h
many such as water pipes, powder box, laboratory ● Total surface area = 2 π ( R + r ) ( h + R − r )
beakers etc. ● Curved surface area = 2 π Rh + 2 π rh = 2 π ( R + r ) h
B ● Total outer surface area = 2πrh + πR2 + π ( R2 − r 2 )
A
Where, R = External radius of base,
r = Internal radius of base,
and h = Height
h
Example 4 A hollow cylindrical tube, open at both ends is
made of iron 1 cm thick. The volume of iron used in making the
tube, if the external diameter is 12 cm and the length of tube is
D C 70 cm is
(i)
(a) 2420 cm 3 (b) 2520 cm 3
● Volume of the cylinder = (Area of base) × Height (c) 2720 cm 3 (d) 2900 cm 3
= πr 2h cu units
where, r is the radius of the base and h is the height of Solution (a) Here, external radius ( R ) = 6 cm
the cylinder. Internal radius ( r) = 6 − 1 = 5 cm and height ( h) = 70 cm
● Curved surface area = Circumference of the base ∴ Volume of iron used = External volume − Internal volume
× Height = 2πrh sq units
= πR 2 h − πr2 h
● Total surface area = Curved surface area + Area of two 22
circular ends = 2πrh + 2πr 2 = 2πr ( h + r ) = πh ( R 2 − r2 ) = × 70 × (36 − 25)
7
Where, r = Radius of base and h = Height
= 220 × 11 = 2420 cm 3
490 Study Package for NTSE

Right Circular Cone ● Lateral surface area of frustum of right circular cone
A right circular cone is a solid
A = πl ( R + r ) sq units
generated by the revolution of a where, slant height, l2 = h 2 + ( R − r )2
right angled triangle about one ● Total surface area of frustum of right circular cone
of its sides containing the right l = Area of base + Area of top + Lateral surface area
angle as axis. In the adjoining h = π [ R2 + r 2 + l ( R + r )]
figure a cone of height ‘h’ and ● Total surface Area of bucket = π [( R + r ) l + r 2 ]
radius ‘r’ is generated by (Q it is open at the bigger end)
revolving the right ∆AOB along B C
AO.
r O Example 6 The radii of the ends of a bucket of height 24 cm
are 15 cm and 5 cm. Then, its capacity is
The slant height of the cone is
(a) 8000 cm 3 (b) 8100 cm 3
l = AC = r2 + h2 (c) 8171.43 cm 3 (d) 8200.43 cm 3
1 2
● Volume of cone = πr h cu units Solution (c) Capacity of bucket
3
= Volume of frustum of a cone
● Curved surface area of cone = πrl sq units
πh 2 5 cm
● Total surface area of a cone = πr ( l + r ) sq units = ( R + r2 + Rr)
3
Where, r = Radius of base, 22 24
h = Height and l = Slant height = × [(15) 2 + 52 + 15 × 5] 24 cm
7 3
22
Example 5 The radius and the height of a right circular = × 8 (225 + 25 + 75)
7 15 cm
cone are in the ratio 5 : 12. If its volume is 314 m 3 , the slant
176
height and the radius are = (325)
7
(a) 12, 5 m (b) 13, 4 m (c) 1, 4 m (d) 13, 5 m
= 8171.43 cm 3
Solution (d) Let radius of cone = 5x
and the height of the cone = 12x Sphere
1 2
∴ Volume of cone = 314 = πr h A sphere is a solid generated by the revolution of a
3
semi-circle about its diameter. A sphere is the locus of
1
⇒ × 3.14 × (5 x) 2 × (12 x) = 314 x3 [here, π = 3.14] a point which moves in space such that its distance
3
from a fixed point in space remains constant. The fixed
⇒ 314 = 314 x3 ⇒ x3 = 1 ⇒ x = 1
point is called the centre of sphere and the constant
∴ Radius = 5 m and height = 12 m distance is called the radius of sphere.
∴ Slant height = r2 + h 2 = 25 + 144 = 169 = 13 m Here, ‘O’ is centre and r is radius. All radii are equal.
A
∴ Radius = 5 m and slant height = 13 m
r
Frustum of a Cone
If a cone is cut by a plane parallel to the base of the r
cone, then the portion between the plane and base is O
called the frustum of the cone.
Let R and r be the radii of base and top of the frustum
of a cone. Let h be the height, then
B
r ● The section of a sphere cut by any plane is a circle. If the
cutting plane passes through the centre of the sphere,
the section is called a great circle.
4
● Volume of sphere = πr 3 cu units
3
R ● Surface area of sphere = 4πr 2 sq units
Volume of frustum of right circular cone 4
Volume of a hollow sphere = π ( R3 − r 3 ) cu units
●
●
πh 2 2 3 3
= ( R + r + Rr ) cm where, r = inner radius and R = outer radius
3
Volume and Surface Area 491
Example 7 If the volume of a metal sphere is 38808 cm 3 . Example 9 The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a
Then, its radius and its surface area are sphere, which will fit inside the sphere is
(a) 7 cm and 616 cm 2 (b) 21 cm and 5544 cm 2 (a) 3 π : 2
2
(c) 14 cm and 2464 cm (d) None of these (b) 2 : 3 π
Solution (b) Volume of the metal sphere = 38808 cm 3 (c) 3 : 2 π
4 3 (d) None of the above
But volume of sphere = πr
3 Solution (b) We know that,
4 3
∴ πr = 38808 Diagonal of cube = Diameter of sphere
3 2
i.e., a 3 = 2r ⇒ a = r
3 7 3
⇒ r3 = 38808 × × = 9261 ⇒ r = ( 9261) 1 / 3 = 21 cm
4 22 Volume of cube
∴ Require volume ratio =
∴ Surface area of the sphere = 4 πr2 Volume of sphere
22
=4 × × 21 × 21 = 5544 cm 2
7

Hemisphere
A plane passing through the centre cuts the sphere in
two equal parts each called a hemisphere.
r
(Side) 3 ( 2 / 3 r) 3
= =
4 3 4 / 3 π r3
πr
3
8 ×3
= = 2: 3 π
4 ×3 3 π
2 3
● Volume of hemisphere = πr cu units Example 10 A tent is cylindrical upto a height 3 m and
3
conical above. If the diameter of the base is 105 m and the slant
● Curved surface area of hemisphere = 2 πr 2 sq units height of the conical part is 53 m, total canvas used in making
● Total surface area = 2πr 2 + πr 2 = 3 πr 2 sq units for tent is
Example 8 The volume of two hemisphere are in the ratio (a) 9375 m 2
8 : 27. What is the ratio of their radii? (b) 8753 m 2
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 (c) 7550 m 2
Solution (a) Let volumes be V1 and V2 . (d) 2000 m 2
∴ V1 : V2 = 8 : 27 Solution (a) Total canvas = Curved surface area of the
2 3 2 3 figure
⇒ πr1 : πr2 = 8 : 27
3 3
⇒ r13 : r23 = 8 : 27 ⇒ r1 : r2 = 8 : 3 27 ⇒ r1 : r2 = 2 : 3
3 53 m

Surface Area and Volume of Combination

of Solids
In our day-to-day life we come across some complex
solid figures, e.g., a circus tent consisting of a
105 m
cylindrical base surmounted by a conical roof, a toy in
= 2π rh + π rl
the form of cone mounted on a hemisphere etc. All of
105 × 53 
= π  2 ×
105
these are combination of two or more basic solids. In × 3 + 
 2 2 
this topic, we will learn how to find the surface areas
22 105
and volumes of combination of two or more similar or = × [6 + 53 ] = 11 × 15 × 59 = 9375 m 2
7 2
different solid figures.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. The curved surface area of a cone of height equals to 8. What is the length of the longest rod which can be
4 times of radius and the radius equals to 6 cm, is placed in a cube of total surface area of 1176 cm 3?
3 (a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm (c) 7 3 cm (d) 14 3cm
(a) 188.5 cm2 (b) 180.6 cm2
(c) 184.8 cm2 (d) None of these 9. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal
bases and have the same height the ratio of their
2. A sphere has the same volume as a cylinder whose
volumes is
height is 3 times the radius of its cross section. Then,
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 3 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 : 3
the ratio of their radii is
2
(a) 3 / 4 (b) (9 / 4)1/ 3 (c) (d) (4 / 9)1/ 3 10. If two cubes of sides 9 cm each are joined end by end,
3
then the surface area of the cuboid will be
3. A cone of radius 5 cm is filled with milk. If the milk is (a) 180 cm2 (b) 810 cm2 (c) 800 cm2 (d) 820 cm2
poured into a cylinder of radius 10cm, the height of
11. A solid is in the form of a cylinder surrounded by a
milk rises by 2 cm. Height of the cone is
cone. The heights of the cone and the cylinder are 6 cm
(a) 20 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 26 cm
and 12 cm respectively. If the radius of the cone is 7cm,
4. A sphere of diameter 6 cm is dropped in a right its volume will be
circular cylinder vessel partly filled with water. The (a) 2156 cm3 (b) 2100 cm3
radius of cylinder is 9 cm. If the sphere is completely (c) 2560 cm3 (d) None of these
submerged in water, the level of water rises by
(a) 0.44 cm (b) 0.64 cm 12. Find the volume of the largest right circular cylinder
(c) 1 cm (d) None of these which can be cut from a cube of side 7 cm.
(a) 260.5 cm3 (b) 269.5 cm3
5. A cone of height 12 cm and radius 14 cm is to be (c) 272.5 cm3 (d) None of these
divided into two parts by cutting through the
mid-point of vertical axis. Then, the volume of conical 13. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere
part is which will fit inside the cube is
(a) 616 cm3 (b) 692 cm3 (a) 9 : π (b) 2 : π
(c) 308 cm3 (d) 346 cm3 (c) 3 : π (d) 6 : π

6. A toy is in the form of a right circular cone mounted 14. If S1 and S2 are the total surface area of a sphere and
on a hemisphere. If the radius of hemisphere is 3.5 cm the curved surface area of the circumscribed cylinder,
and the total height of the toy is 9.5 cm. The volume of then S1 : S2 is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
toy is
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 3
(a) 164 cm 3 (b) 166.83 cm 3

(c) 169 cm3 (d) 172.88 cm3 15. A conical cap is filled with ice-cream. The ice-cream
forms a hemispherical shape on its top. The radius of
7. A vessel is 5 cm long and its base is triangular having the hemisphere is equal to the height of the cone. If
sides 2 cm, 3 cm and 4 cm, the curved surface area of the height of the hemispherical part is 7cm, the
vessel is volume of the ice-cream is
(a) 40 cm2 (b) 45 cm2 (a) 8701 cm3 (b) 1078 cm3
(c) 46 cm2 (d) 48 cm2 (c) 1087 cm3 (d) None of these

High Skill Questions

1. A cone is within the cylinder and cylinder is within a 2. A tent is cylindrical upto a 3 m height and conical
cube touch, by all vertical faces with same base and above. If the diameter of the base is 105 m and the
height, then the ratio of their volume will be slant height of the conical part is 53 m, total canvas
(a) 14 : 11 : 13 used in making the tent is
(b) 42 : 33 : 11 (a) 9007 m3 (b) 9875 m3
(c) 56 : 36 : 22 (c) 9573 m3
(d) None of the above (d) 9735 m3
Volume and Surface Area 493
3. A vessel is in the form of right circular cylinder (a) 132 π cm3 (b) 168 π cm3
mounted an a hemisphere. If the radius of (c) 100 π cm3 (d) 135 π cm3
hemisphere is 7 cm and the total height of vessel is 7. In the figure shown, if AD= 5, DG = 2 and GH= 4.
13cm. The surface area of vessel is
(a) 762 cm 2 (b) 768 cm 2 What is the shortest distance between E and C?
(c) 726 cm2 (d) 780 cm2 A B
4. A storage tank consists of circular cylinder with a
hemisphere adjoing at either end. If the diameter of D C
the cylinder be 1.4 m and its lenght be 8 m, the cost of
painting it on the outside at the rate of ` 10 per m2 E F
will be
(a) ` 413.6 (b) ` 41.36
(c) ` 4136 (d) ` 4140 G H
(a) 49 (b) 5 + 18
5. A cylinder is of height 31 cm and base radius 7 cm. A
(c) 65 (d) None of these
hemisphere of radius equal to base radius of cylinder
is cut off from one end and a cone of maximum height 8. The number of coins of base are 38.5 cm2 and
from remaining part is also cut off. The curved thickness 5 mm required to make a cylinder of
surface area of the remaining part is volume 462 cm3 are
(a) 506 cm2 (b) 508 cm2 (a) 12 (b) 18
(c) 510 cm2 (d) 512 cm2 (c) 20 (d) 24

6. The top and bottom radii of a frustum of a cone are 9. How many cubes each of edge 6 cm can be cut from a
6 cm and 3 cm, respectively. Its height is 8 cm. There cuboid of 42 cm × 36 cm × 24 cm ?
is a conical cavity of height 3cm and radius 6cm at the (a) 124 (b) 142
bottom. The amount of material in the solid is (c) 168 (d) 186

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) Curved surface area of cone = π rl where, H– h = Rise in water level
h = 4 / 3× 6 = 8 4 / 3 π × 27 4 27
We know that, ∴ H− h= = × = 0.44 cm
π × 81 3 81
r = 6, l = h2 + r 2 = 82 + 62 = 10
2
22 1  r h
∴ π rl = × 6 × 10 = 188.5 cm2 5. (c) Volume of conical part = π 
7 3 2 2
2. (b) Given, r

Volume (sphere) = Volume (cylinder)

4 3
⇒ π r = π R2h
3
4 3 r3 9 h
⇒ π r = πR 2 × 3R ⇒ = r/2
3 R3 4
r 39 h/2
∴ = = (9 / 4)1/ 3
R 4
3. (c) According to the question, 1 22
= × × 7 × 7 × 6 = 308 cm3
Volume (cone) = Volume/cylinder 3 7
1 2 6. (b) Volume of toy = Volume of cone + Volume of hemisphere
∴ π r h= π R2H
3 1 2 2 1 2
= π r h + π r 3 = π (3.5)2 × 6 + π (3.5)3 = 166.83 cm3
1 3 3 3 3
i.e., π (5)2 h= π (10)2 × 2 ⇒ h = 24 cm
3
7. (b) Perimeter of base (triangle) = Sum of all sides
4. (a) Volume of sphere = Change of volume in cylinder = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9 cm
4
⇒ π (3)3 = π (9)2 (H − h) Curved surface area = Perimeter of base × Height
3
= 9 × 5 = 45 cm2
494 Study Package for NTSE

8. (d) 6 (Side)2 = Total surface area 12. (b) The largest circular cylinder will have height and diameter both
i.e., 6 x = 1176
2
[Qside of cube = x (let)] same as the side of the cube.

⇒ x =14 ∴ Required volume = π r 2 h = π(7 / 2 )2 × 7 = 269.5 cm3

Thus, length of rod = x2 + x2 + x2 = 14 3 cm Vc x3 V

13. (d) = ⇒ c =6/ π
Vs 4 / 3 π x 3 / 8 Vs
9. (a) Let R be the radius of each figure.
∴ Height of hemisphere = R ∴ Vc : Vs = 6 : π
So, height of each figure = R S1 4π r2 4 πr 2 1
14. (b) = = =
∴ Ratio of volumes =  π R 2 × R  : π R 3 :( π R 2 × R )
1 2 S 2 2 π r(2 r ) 4 πr 2 1
3  3
∴ S1 : S 2 = 1 : 1
= 1: 2 : 3
15. (b) Since, the radius of the hemisphere part = Height of the cone
10. (b) We will have l = 18, b = 9 and h= 9
Radius of the part = Height of the part = Height of the cone
∴ Surface area = 2(lb + bh + hl )
= 2 (18 × 9 + 9 × 9 + 9 × 18 ) = 810 cm2 = 7 cm

11. (a) Volume = Volume of cylinder + Volume of cone ∴Volume of the ice-cream
= Volume of cone + Volume of hemisphere
= π × 7 2 × 12 + 1 / 3 π (7 )2 × 6
1 2
= πr 2 h + πr 3
= 49 π(14) = 49   (14)
22
3 3
7  1 2 22
= π(7 )2 × 7 + π(7 )3 = × (7 )3 = 1078 cm3
= 2156 cm3 3 3 7

High Skill Questions

1. (b) Given, radius and height of cone, cylinder and cube = r = 2 πrh − [ π rl + 2 πr 2 ]
= 2 × × 7 × 31 −  × 7 × 7 2 + (31− 7 )2 + 2 × × 7 2 
Then, volume of cube : volume of cylinder : volume of cone 22 22 22
7  7 7 
r2 1 r2
= V1 : V2 : V 3 = r 3 : π × r : π × r = 506 cm2
4 3 4
3
r 1 r 3
22 1 1 22 1 6. (a) We extend the frustum to form of the cone. Now, using
= r3 : π : π = 1 : × : × ×
4 3 4 7 4 3 7 4 similarty of triangle we get height of the smaller cone as 8 cm and
the height of the bigger cone as 16 cm.
= 84 : 66 : 22 = 42 : 33:11
2. (d) Total canvas = Curved surface area of figure
2 × 105 105 × 53 
= 2 π rh + π rl = π  × 3+ 
 2 2 
3
diameter 105
[Q radius = = m]
2 2
= 9735 m3 6
3. (c) Surface area of vessel
Thus, the required volume
= Surface area of cylinder + Surface area of hemisphere 1
= π(16 × 62 − 3 × 62 − 8 × 32 ) =132 π cm3
= 2 π r 2 + 2 π rh + π r 2 = 3 π r 2 + 2 π rh 3
3 × 22 2 22
= × 7 + 2 × × 7 × 6 = 22 (21 + 612 ) =726 cm2 7. (d) Thus, minimum length of EC
7 7
= (5)2 + (2 )2 + (4)2 = 25 + 4 + 16 = 45
4. (a) Cost of painting A B
= 10 × Curved surface area of tank 5
C
= 10 × [Curved surface area of cylinder + Curved D
surface area of hemisphere] 2 E F
= 10 × (2 π rh + π r 2 + 2 π r 2 )
G
= 10 [(2 π )(07
. ) 8 + π (07
. )2 + 2 π (07
. )2 ] 4 H
5
[Q radius =
diameter 14
=
.
=.07 m] 8. (d) Let the number of coins be k. 38.5 ×
× k = 462 ⇒ k =24
2 2 10
= ` 413.6 Volume of cuboid l × b × h
9. (c) Number of cubes = =
Volume of cube (a)3
5. (a) Curved surface area of the remaining solid
42 36 24
= Curved surface area of [cylinder − (cone + sphere)] = × × = 168
6 6 6
Trigonometry 495

Chapter

15
Trigonometry
P
Trigonometry is a branch of Mathematics in which we ( ) sin A =
H
study right angled triangles and relationship between
their sides and angles using trigonometric ratios. Using Pythagoras theorem,
H 2 = P2 + B2 ⇒ B = H 2 − P2 = 52 − 42 = 3
Trigonometric Ratios ∴
P 4
tan A = =
B 3
The ratios between different sides of a right angled
triangle with respect to its acute angles are called 24
Example 2 If sinθ = , then find the value of
trigonometric ratios. 25
cosec θ + cotθ.
Trigonometric ratios for right angled ∆ABC with respect
(a) 3/4 (b) 4/3 (c) 5/3 (d) 4/5
to angle A are given below
24 P
C ( ) sin θ = =
25 H
(called perpendicular, P)
Side opposite to ∠A

A
Using Pythagoras theorem, B = 7
) °
(H 9 0
se to

H 25
cosec θ = =
nu te

θ
te osi

P 24
po pp

H=5
Hy e o

B 7
and cot θ = = . B
d
Si

P 24
25 7
Thus, cosec θ + cot θ = + 90°
24 24
A Side adjacent B B C
32 4 P=4
to ∠A (called base, B) = =
24 3
BC P AB B
sin A = = , cos A = =
AC H AC H Trigonometric Table of Some Specific Angles
BC P AC H
tan A = = , cosec A = = 0° 30° 45° 60° 90°
AB B BC P
1
AC H AB B sin θ 0 1/ 2 3 /2 1
sec A = = , cot A = = 2
AB B BC P 3
cos θ 1 1/ 2 1/ 2 0
By Pythagoras theorem, H 2 = B2 + P2 2
1
4 tan θ 0 1 3 Not defined
Example 1 In a ∆ABC right angled at B, if sin A = , then find 3
5 cot θ Not defined 3 1 1/ 3 0
the value of tan A. sec θ 1 2/ 3 2 2 Not defined
(a) 4/3 (b) 3/4 cosec θ Not defined 2 2 2/ 3 1
(c) 5/3 (d) 4/5
496 Study Package NTSE

Sign of Trigonometric Ratios in Quadrants ( ) We know that, sin(90° − θ) = cosθ

and sec (90° − θ) = cosecθ
The two axes divide the plane into four sections is called
3 sin 32° sec 42° 3 sin (90° − 58° ) sec (90° − 48° )
‘quadrants’. ∴ − = −
cos 58° cosec 48° cos 58° cosec 48°
Quadrants
π 3 cos 58° cosec 48°
= − = 3 −1= 2
2
= 90° cos 58° cosec 48°
Quadrant II Quadrant I
sin/cosec All positive Example 4 Find the value of
positive sin35°⋅ cos 46°⋅ tan 45 ⋅ sec 55° ⋅ cosec 44°.
π = 180° 0° or 360° (a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 1
Quadrant III Quadrant IV ( ) We know that,
tan/cot positive cos/sec positive sec (90 ° − θ) = cosec θ and cosec (90 ° − θ) = sec θ
3π ∴ sin 35° × cos 46° × 1 × sec(90° − 35° ) cosec (90° − 46° )
(Q tan 45° = 1)
= 270°
2
Tabel for Complementary and Supplementary Angle = sin 35° × cos 46° × 1 × cosec 35° × sec 46°
of Trigonometric Ratios 1 1
= sin 35° × cos 46° × ×
sin 35° cos 46°
Terms/Angle 90° − θ 90° + θ 180° − θ 180°+ θ  1 1 
A = Angle  using sec θ = , cosec θ = 
 cos θ sin θ 
sin A cos A cos A sin A −sin A =1×1=1
cos A sin A − sin A − cos A − cos A
tan A cot A − cot A − tan A tan A Example 5 What is the value of
cosec A sec A sec A cosec A − cosec A (cos2 30 ° − sin2 45 ° + 2 tan2 30 ° + 1) ?
sec A cosec A − cosec A − sec A − sec A (a) 23/12 (b) 12/23 (c) 15/17 (d) 17/15
cot A tan A − tan A − cot A cot A ( ) By trigonometry table, we get
cos 30° − sin 2 45° + 2 tan 2 30° + 1
2

Trigonometric Identities 2
 3  1 
2
 1 
2

sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 =  −  + 2  +1
 2  3
l

 2 
l
sec2 θ − tan2 θ = 1 for 0 ° ≤ A < 90 °
3 1 2 9 − 6 + 8 + 12 23
l
cosec2 θ − cot2 θ = 1 for 0 ° < A ≤ 90 ° = − + + 1= =
4 2 3 12 12

Formulae to Remember Maximum and Minimum Value of the

sin θ Trigonometrical Functions
l
tan θ =
cos θ Function Minimum Maximum
l
cos 2 θ = cos2 θ − sin2 θ = 2 cos2 θ − 1 = 1 − 2 sin2 θ
sin θ −1 1
1 − tan2 θ
l
sin 2θ = 2 sin θ cos θ = cos θ −1 1
1 + tan2 θ |sin θ| 0 1
l
sin( A ± B) = sin A cos B ± cos A sin B |cos θ | 0 1
l
cos ( A ± B) = cos A cos B m sin A sin B |sin θ | 1 —
tan A ± tan B
l
tan( A ± B) = |cosec θ| 1 —
1 m tan A tan B
a sin θ ± b cos θ − a2 + b 2 a2 + b 2
2 tan A
l
tan 2 A = a sin θ ± b cos θ + c
1 − tan2 A − a2 + b 2 + c − a2 + b 2 + c
l
sin 3 θ = 3 sin θ − 4 sin3 θ
Example 6 Find the minimum value of 3 cos θ − 4 sin θ.
l
cos 3 θ = 4 cos3 θ − 3 cos θ
3 tan θ − tan3 θ (a) – 4 (b) – 3 (c) – 5 (d) 0
tan3 θ =
( ) We know that, the minimum value of a cos θ − b sin θ
l

1 − 3 tan 2 θ
is − a2 + b2 .
3 sin 32 ° sec 42 °
Example 3 Find the value of − .
cos 58 ° cosec 48 ° ∴ Minimum value of 3 cos θ − 4 sin θ

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 =− 32 + 42 = − 9 + 16 = − 5

 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
a a sin θ − b cos θ a2 − b2
1. If cotθ = , then the value of is 11. If cosec θ = , then cot2 θ is equal to
b a sin θ + b cos θ a2 + b2
a2 − b 2 a−b − 4 a2 b 2 4 a2 b 2
(a) (b) (a) (b)
a2 + b 2 a+ b (a + b )
2 2 2
(a + b 2 )2
2

(c) 0 (d) 1 2 ab
(c) (d) None of these
2. The value of tan 1° tan 2° … tan 89° is ( a2 + b 2 )
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) − 1 (d) None of these
12. If a cos θ + b sin θ = m and b cos θ − a sin θ = n, then
what will be the value of a2 + b2 ?
3. 2 (sin 45° − cos 60° ) + (tan 30° × cot 45° ) is equal
4 3 2 2
(a) m2 + n2 (b) m2 − n2
to
48 − 19 (c) mn (d) m + n
(a) (b)
19 48 13. The value of
7
(c) 1 (d) sin 64 ° cosec 47 ° tan 25° × tan 65°
12 × + is
cos 26° sec 43 ° tan2 30°
sin A − 2 sin 3 A
4. is equal to (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2
2 cos 3 A − cos A
(b) tan A − cot A x sin 45° × cos 30° 3 sin 45° + 2 cos2 30°
2 2 2
(a) cot A 14. If = , then
(c) tan A (d) cos A 4 cos2 60° sin2 90° + 2 cos2 45°
what is the value of x?
5. (1 + cot θ − cosec θ) (1 + t an θ + sec θ) is equal to (a) 0 (b) 1
(a) 1 (b) − 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) 2 (d) None of these
15. If 180° < θ < 270°, then the value of cos θ − sin θ is
6. sin(60° + θ) + sin(60° − θ) is equal to (a) sin θ − cos θ
(a) 0 (b) 3cosθ (b) sin θ + cos θ
(c) 3 (d)
3 (c) cos θ − sin θ
2 (d) cos 2θ
cos 42° + sin 42° 3
7. is equal to 16. If cos θ = , then the value of sin θ is
cos 42° − sin 42° 5
2 4
(a) s ec 84° + tan 84° (a) (b)
5 5
(b) s ec 84° − tan 84° 2
(c) − sec 84° − tan 84° (c) (d) Cannot be determined
3
(d) − s ec 84° + tan 84°
2
2 17. sin4 45° + sec2 45° − 2 tan2 60° is equal to
8. If cos( A − B) = and tan A tan B = 3, then 3
5 23 1 23 1
1 (a) (b) (c) − (d) −
(a) sin A sin B = 4 (b) cos A cos B = 6 2 6 2
10
(c) cos( A + B) =
3
(d) sin A cos B = 1 18. If tan2 θ = cos2 φ − sin2 φ, then which of the following
5 is true?
1
9. cos ( − θ) is equal to (a) cos 2 φ cos 2 θ = (b) cos 2 θcos 2 φ = 2
2
(a) cosθ (b) − cosθ
(c) cos 2 θ cos 2 φ = 1 (d) None of these
(c) cos2θ (d) None of these
5 19. sin 12° × cos 78 ° + sin 78 ° × cos 12° is equal to
10. If θ is acute and tan θ = , then the value of
12 (a) 1 (b) 0
cos θ + sin θ is (c) 2 (d) None of these
12 18
(a) (b) 20. If a right ∆ABC right angled at C and cos A = sin B,
13 5
17 then which of the following is true?
(c) (d) None of these (a) A = B (b) A > B (c) A < B (d) A = − B
13
498 Study Package NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. If cos (90° − θ) = ( 2 − 1) sin (90° − θ), then what is the 8. If sec 5 A = cosec ( A + 30° ), where 5A is an acute
value of cot θ ? angle, then find the value of A.
(a) 2 (b) 2 +1 (c) 2 −1 (d) 3 (a) 10° (b) 15°
1 (c) 5° (d) 30°
2. Find the value of (cos2 30° − sin2 45° )
3 9. If θ = 30°, then the value of
2
+ 2 (sin 60° − cos 45° ) + tan2 60°.
4 4
cosec 2 θ ⋅ cot θ − sin 2 θ ⋅ sec 2 θ is
3 (a) 0 (b) 1
65 4 24 26
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) 2 − 3 (d) None of these
24 3 65 54
1 1
3. If cos θ − sin θ = 2 sin θ, then what is the value of 10. If cos θ = − and cotθ = − , then the value of sin θ is
2 3
cos θ + sin θ ? 1 − 3
θ cosec θ (a) (b)
(a) 2 cos (b) 3 2
2 2
(c) sin θ (d) cos θ −1 3
(c) (d)
3 2
4. What is the value of 1 − cos2 α − cos4 α, if
7π
sin α + sin2 α = 1 ? 11. sec is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 1 3
(c) 2 (d) None of these 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 0 (d) 2
m 2
5. If cotθ = , then what is the value of
n 12. What is the relation between x and y, if
m cos θ − n sin θ cot θ + cosec θ = x and cosecθ − cot θ = − y ?
?
m cos θ + n sin θ (a) xy = 0 (b) xy = 1
(c) xy2 = 1 (d) xy = − 1
m + n
2 2
m −n2 2
m+ n m− n
(a) (b) (c) (d)
m2 − n2 m2 + n2 m− n m+ n 13. If 2 cos2 α − 1 = 0 and α lies in III quadrant, then the
5π  3π value of sin α × tan α is
6. The value of sin   − cos   is 1 1
 4  4 (a) − 1 (b) − (c) (d) None of these
2 2
(a) 0 (b) 1 cos 2 A − 1 sin 2 A 1
(c) 2 (d) None of these 14. + × is equal to
sin A cos 2 A + 1 sec A
7. If tan ( A + B) = 3 and cos A = 1, then ∠B is (a) 2 sin2 A (b) cos A
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60° (c) sin2 A (d) None of these

Hints and Solutions

Elementary Level Questions
a 3. (d) 2 (sin4 45° − cos 3 60° ) + (tan2 30° × cot 2 45° )
1. (c) If cot θ =
b
a sin θ − b cos θ a − b cot θ  1  4  1  3   1  2 2
∴ = [Qon dividing by cos θ] = 2   −  +   × (1) 
a sin θ + b cos θ a + b cot θ   2  2  
 3  

2 − 1 1
= 2  −  +  ×  = 2 × 
a 1 1 1 1
a−b× +
= b = a−a =0  4 8   3 1  8  3
a a+ a
a+ b× 1 1 7
b = + =
4 3 12
2. (b) tan1° tan2 ° tan 3° ... tan 89° sin A − 2 sin3 A sin A (1 − 2 sin2 A)
4. (c) =
= tan (90° − 89° ) tan (90° − 88° )... tan (90° − 46° ) 2 cos A − cos A
3
cos A (2 cos 2 A − 1)
× tan 45° × tan 46° × ......... × tan 89° (using identity, 1 − 2 sin2 A = 2 cos 2 A − 1 = cos 2 A)
= cot 89° cot 88° ....... cot 46° × tan 45° × tan 46° × ... × tan 89° sin A × cos 2 A
=
Now, using cot θ × tan θ = 1and tan 45° = 1, we get cos A × cos 2 A
tan 1° tan 2 ° ... tan 89° = 1 = tan A
Trigonometry 499
5. (c) (1 + cot θ − cosec θ)(1 + tan θ + sec θ) 5
10. (c) tan θ = ⇒ P = 5, B = 12
12
 cos θ 1   sin θ 1 
= 1 + −  1 + +  By Pythagoras theorem,
 sin θ sin θ   cos θ cos θ 
⇒ H= P 2 + B2 = (5)2 + (12 )2
 sin θ + cos θ − 1  cos θ + sin θ + 1
=   = 25 + 144 = 169 = 13
 sin θ  cos θ 
B 12 P 5
1 cosθ = = and sinθ = =
= (sin θ + cos θ − 1) × (cos θ + sin θ + 1) H 13 H 13
sin θ cos θ 12 5 17
Now, cos θ + sinθ = + =
(sin θ + cos θ)2 − (1)1 13 13 13
= [Q(a + b )(a − b ) = a2 − b 2 ]
sin θ cos θ
a2 − b 2
sin2 θ + cos 2 θ + 2 sin θ cos θ − 1 11. (a) cosec θ = ,
= a2 + b 2
sin θ cos θ
[Q(a + b )2 = a2 + 2 ab + b 2 ] Q cosec 2θ − 1 = cot 2 θ (identity)
2
2 sin θ cos θ  a2 − b 2   a2 − b 2 
= =2 [Qsin2 θ + cos 2 θ = 1] ⇒  2  − 1 = cot 2 θ
sin θ cos θ 2 Qgiven, cosec θ = 2 
a + b   a + b2 
6. (b) sin (60° + θ) + sin (60° − θ) a4 + b 4 − 2 a2 b 2 − ( a4 + b 4 + 2 a2 b 2 )
⇒ = cot 2 θ
[using sin ( A ± B) = sin A cos B ± sin B cos A] (a2 + b 2 )2

= sin 60° × cos θ + cos 60° × sin θ + sin 60° × cos θ − 4a2 b 2
i .e., = cot 2 θ
− sin θ cos 60° (a2 + b 2 )2
 3 
= 2 (sin 60° × cos θ) = 2  × cos θ = 3 cos θ 12. (a) acos θ + b sinθ = m …(i)
 2 
and b cos θ − asinθ = n …(ii)
cos 42 ° + sin 42 ° cos 42 ° + sin 42 ° cos 42 ° + sin 42 °
7. (a) = × On squaring and adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
cos 42 ° − sin 42 ° cos 42 ° − sin 42° cos 42 ° + sin 42 °
(acos θ + b sinθ)2 + (b cos θ − asinθ)2 = m2 + n2
cos 2 42 ° + sin2 42 ° + 2 cos 42 ° × sin 42 °
=
cos 2 42 ° − sin2 42 ° i .e., a2 cos 2 θ + b 2 sin2 θ + 2 ab sin θ cos θ
[Q(a + b )(a − b ) = a − b ] 2 2
+ b 2 cos 2 θ + a2 sin2 θ − 2 ab sin θ cos θ = m2 + n2
1 + sin 84°
= = sec 84° + tan 84° (a2 + b 2 ) cos 2 θ + (a2 + b 2 ) sin2 θ = m2 + n2
cos 84°
⇒ (a2 + b 2 )(cos 2 θ + sin2 θ) = m2 + n2
(using sin2 θ + cos 2 θ = 1, 2 cos θ sin θ = sin 2θ
i .e., a2 + b 2 = m2 + n2 [Qcos 2 θ + sin2 θ = 1]
and cos 2 θ − sin2 θ = cos 2θ)
sin 64° cosec 47 ° tan 25° × tan 65°
2 13. (c) × +
8. (b) cos ( A − B) = and tan A tan B = 3 cos 26° sec 43° tan2 30°
5
2 sin (90° − 26° ) cosec (90° − 43° )
⇒ cos A cos B + sin A sin B = = ×
5 cos 26° sec 43°
[Qcos( A − B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B] tan (90° − 65° ) × tan 65°
+ 2
2 1  1 
⇒1 + tan A tan B = ×  
5 cos A cos B  3
[Qon dividing by cos A cos B] cos 26° sec 43°
= × + 3 cot 65° × tan 65°
2 cos 26° sec 43°
⇒ 1+ 3 =
5 × cos A cos B Qcot θ = 1 
= 1+ 3 = 4
1  tanθ 
∴ cos A ⋅ cos B =
10 x sin2 45° × cos 2 30° 3 sin2 45° + 2 cos 2 30°
14. (d) =
9. (a) cosθ is an even function, so cos(− θ) = cos θ 4 cos 60°
2
sin2 90° + 2 cos 2 45°
2
whereas sinθ and tanθ are odd functions as  1 
2
 3
sin(− θ) = − sinθ x×  ×  x×
1 3
×
 2  2  2 4 ⇒ 3x × 1 = 3x
and tan (− θ) = − tanθ LHS = =
2 1 8 8
4 ×   4×
1
[A function f( x) is said to be even, if f (− x) = f ( x) and said to be 2 4
odd, if f(− x) = − f( x)]
500 Study Package NTSE

2
 1 
2
 3 18. (a) tan2 θ = cos 2 φ − sin2 φ (given)
3×  +2×  1
3× +2 ×
3 3 3
+
 2  2  2 4 =2 2 = 3 On adding 1 to both sides, we get
RHS = =
 1 
2 1 2 2
(1)2 + 2 ×  1+ 2 × tan2 θ + 1 = cos 2 φ − sin2 φ + 1
 2
 2
⇒ sec 2θ = (cos 2 φ − sin2 φ + cos 2 φ + sin2 φ)
3x 3
Now, LHS = RHS, gives = ∴ x=4
8 2 [Qsin2 θ + cos 2 θ = 1]

15. (a) 180° < θ < 270° i .e., third quadrant where sinθ and cosθ both = 2 cos 2 φ
are negative. 1 Qsec θ = 1 
∴ cos 2 φ × cos 2 θ =
cos θ − sinθ = − cos θ − (− sinθ) = sinθ − cos θ 2  cos θ 
3 B 19. (a) sin 12 ° × cos 78° + sin 78° × cos 12 °
16. (b) Given, cos θ = =
5 H
= sin 12 ° × cos (90° − 12 ° ) + sin (90° − 12 ° ) × cos 12 °
Now, by Pythagoras theorem,
= sin 12 ° × sin 12 ° + cos 12 ° × cos 12 °
P= H2 − B2 = (5)2 − (3)2 = 25 − 9 = 16 = 4
= sin2 12 ° + cos 2 12 °
P 4
Hence, sinθ = = =1
H 5
2 20. (a) As ∆ABC is right angled at C and ∠A = ∠B
17. (c) sin4 45° + sec 2 45° − 2 tan2 60°
3 ⇒ ∠A = ∠B = 45 ° A
4
2  1 
= ×  + ( 2 ) − 2 × ( 3)
2 2
So, sin 45° = cos 45° is the only possibility for
3  2
sin A = cos B
2 1
= × + 2 −2 × 3 or cos A = sin B
C B
3 4
1 23 Thus, A = B is true.
= −4=−
6 6

High Skill Questions

1. (b) cos(90° − θ) = ( 2 − 1) sin(90° − θ) 4. (a) Given, sin α + sin2 α = 1 …(i)
i .e., sin θ = ( 2 − 1) × cos θ i .e., 1 − sin2 α = sin α ⇒sin α = cos 2 α
cos θ 1 2 +1 2 +1 ⇒ cos 4 α = sin2 α [Qon squaring both sides]
⇒ = × = = 2 +1
sinθ 2 −1 2 + 1 ( 2 )2 − (1)2 So, 1− cos α − cos 4 α = 1 − sinα − sin2 α
2

which is equal to zero. [using Eq. (i)]

∴ cot θ = 2 + 1
m
1 2
2. (a) (cos 30° − sin2 45° ) + 2(sin4 60° − cos 4 45° ) + tan2 60°
2 5. (b) Given, cotθ =
3 3 n
m cos θ − n sin θ m cot θ − n
=
1  3   1    3  4  1  4  2
2 2 Now, [Qon dividing by sinθ]
=   −  + 2   −   + × ( 3)
2 m cos θ + n sin θ m cot θ + n
3  2   2   2   2  3 m
    m× −n
= n [Qput the value of cotθ]
1  3 1  9 − 1 + 2 × 3
=  −  + 2  m×
m
+ n
3 4 2  16 4  3
n
=
1  1  + 2  5  + 2 = 1 + 5 + 2 = 2 + 15 + 48 = 65 m2 − n2
    = 2
3  4  16  12 8 24 24 m + n2
3. (b) cos θ − sinθ = 2 sinθ 5π π π
= sin  π +  = − sin = − sin 45° = −
1
6. (a)Q sin
4  4 4 2
On squaring both sides, we get
3π π π
= cos  π −  = − cos = − cos 45° = −
cos 2 θ + sin2 θ − 2 sin θ cos θ = 2 sin2 θ 1
and cos
4  4 4 2
⇒ 1 = 2 sin2 θ + 2 sin θ cos θ
5π   3π  =  − 1  −  − 1  = 0
∴ sin   − cos      
⇒ 2 sin θ (cos θ + sin θ) = 1  4   4   2  2
1
cos θ + sinθ = 7. (d) tan( A + B) = 3 ⇒ tan( A + B) = tan 60° ⇒ A + B = 60°
2 sinθ
cosec θ Q 1 = cosec θ and cos A = 1⇒cos A = cos 0° ⇒ A = 0°
∴ cos θ + sin θ =
2  sinθ  Thus, B = 60°
Trigonometry 501
8. (a) Given, sec 5 A = cosec ( A + 30° ) 13. (b) We have, 2 cos 2 α − 1 = 0
1
⇒ sec 5 A = sec [90°−( A + 30° )] [Qsec (90°− θ) = cosecθ] cosα = −
2
⇒ sec 5 A = sec (60°− A)
As α is in III quadrant.
⇒ 5 A = 60° − A [Qon comparing]
Here, B = − 1, H = 2 , P = − 1
⇒ 6 A = 60°
P −1
∴ A = 10° sin α = =
H 2
9. (c) Given, θ = 30° P
and tan α = = 1
Then, cosec 2 θ ⋅ cot θ − sin 2 θ ⋅ sec 2 θ B
−1 −1
= cosec 60°⋅cot 30° − sin 60° ⋅ sec 60° So, sin α × tan α = × 1=
2 2
2 3 3 2
= × − × =2 − 3 cos 2 A − 1 sin 2 A Q 1 = cos θ
14. (d) + × cos A
3 1 2 1
sin A cos 2 A + 1  sec θ 
1 1
10. (d) cos θ = − and cot θ = −
2 3 cos 2 2 A − 1 2 sin A cos A
= + × cos A [Qsin2θ = 2 sinθcos θ]
Since, cos θ and cot θ both are negative θ is in the II quadrant. sin A cos 2 A + 1
⇒ sin θ ≥ 0 cos 2 2 A − 1 + 2 sin2 A cos 2 A
=
Here, P = 3, B = − 1 and H = 2 sin A(cos 2 A + 1)
P 3
So, sin θ = = (2 cos 2 A − 1)2 − 1 + 2 sin2 A cos 2 A
H 2 = [Qcos 2θ = 2 cos 2 θ − 1]
sin A(cos 2 A + 1)
7π π π
11. (d) sec = sec  2 π +  = sec = sec 60°
3  3 3 4 cos 4 A + 1 − 4 cos 2 A − 1 + 2 sin2 A cos 2 A
=
=
1
=
1
=2 sin A (cos 2 A + 1)
cos 60° 1 / 2
4 cos 4 A − 4 cos 2 A + 2 sin2 A cos 2 A
=
12. (d) cotθ + cosec θ = x and cosec θ − cot θ = − y sin A (cos 2 A − sin2 A + sin2 A + cos 2 A)
i .e., cotθ − cosec θ = y
2 cos 2 A (2 cos 2 A + sin2 A) − 4cos 2 A
cos θ 1 1 + cos θ =
i .e., + = = x sin A (2 cos 2 A)
sinθ sinθ sinθ
cos θ 1 cos θ − 1 2 cos 2 A(2 cos 2 A + sin2 A − 2 )
and − = = y =
sinθ sinθ sinθ 2 sin A cos 2 A
1 + cos θ 1 − cos θ  2 (cos 2 A − 1) + sin2 A
∴ x× y= × −   =
sinθ  sinθ  sin A
 1 − cos 2 θ  sin2 θ − 2 sin2 A + sin2 A −sin2 A
= −  
 = − = −1 = = = − sin A
 sin θ  sin2 θ
2
sin A sin A

⇒ xy = − 1
502 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

16
Height and Distance

One of the important application of trigonometry is in P B P

Review sin q = , cos q = , tan q = ,
finding the height and distance of the point which are H H B
not directly measurable. This is done with the help of H H B
trigonometric ratios. cosec q = , sec q = , cot q =
P B P
● Line of sight A line of sight is drawn from the eye of
an observer to the point, where the object viewed by the

H
Perpendicular

yp
observer.

ot
en
=P
C'

us
A

e
β

=
H
θ
90°
t
gh
Si

Base = B
of
ne
Li

α
Example 1 From a point on the ground, Mohan observed
the angle of elevation of the 10th floor of a building to be 30°. If
C B
Mohan was 60 3 ft away from the bottom of the building, what
● Angle of elevation The angle of elevation of the was the height of the building?
point viewed is the angle formed by the line of sight (a) 60 ft (b) 30 ft (c) 25 ft (d) 35 ft
with the horizontal when the point being viewed is Solution (a) Let AB be the height of
above the horizontal level. the building upto 10th floor and C A
● Angle of depression When the line of sight is be the position of Mohan.
below the horizontal level, then the angle so formed by AB P
We know that, = = tan q
the line of sight with the horizontal is called the angle of BC B
depression. Here, q = 30°
90°
30°
B C
Now, Ð ACB = a is the angle of elevation of point A Þ
AB
= tan 30° =
1 60√3
when observed from point C. 60 3 3
and Ð C ¢AC = b is the angle of depression of point C \ AB =
60 3
= 60 ft = height of the building
when observed from point A. 3
Since, AC ¢ || BC, ÐC ¢AC = ÐACB Example 2 From a hot air balloon, a boy ‘ q ’ found the
i.e., a =b (alternate angles) angle of depression of a point on the ground to be 45°. If the
i.e., Angle of elevation = Angle of depression boy is 90 ft above the ground in a vertical line, at how need
As AB is perpendicular to BC, we apply trigonometric distance is he away from the point horizontally?
ratios to calculate the lengths of the missing sides. (a) 60 ft (b) 30 ft (c) 90 ft (d) 120 ft
Height and Distance 503
Solution (c) Let B be the position of the hot air balloon and 20 3 20 ( 3 + 1) 3
i.e., h= =
P be the point on the ground observed by the boy from the 3 -1 2
balloon, we know BA = 90 ft = distance of the balloon from = 10 ( 3 + 1) 3 m
the ground.
B Thus, the height of the hill = 10 ( 3 + 3 ) m
45°
Example 4 A ladder which rests against a vertical wall makes
30° angle with the ground. If the ladder is 20 ft long, what is
90 ft
the height of the wall?
90° (a) 10 2 m (b) 10 m (c) 5 2 m (d) 10 3 m
45°
A P Solution (b) Let PR be the ladder which is 20 ft long and PQ
is
We need to calculate the distance of the balloon from the
point of observation in horizontal line i.e., AP. P
BA P
In DBAP, = = tan q = tan 45° 20 ft
AP B h
90
i.e., = 1 Þ AP = 90 ft 90°
AP 30°
Q R
Thus, horizontal distance of the boy on balloon from a point
on the ground is 90 ft. \ PQ = h (let)
Example 3 An observer in a boat found the angle of elevation PR = 20 ft
of the top of the hill to be 60°. As he moved 20 m away from the In right angled triangle PQR.
hill, the angle of elevation changed to 45°. What is the height of
PQ
the hill? sin 30° =
PR
(a) 10 ( 3 + 3 ) m (b) 10 3 m
1 h
= Þ h = 10 m
(c) 10 m (d) None of these 2 20
Solution (a) Let AB be the height of the hill and D be the
Hence, the height of wall is 10 m.
lateral position of the boat, whereas C is the position after it
has travelled 20 m away from the hill. î Note Angle of elevation º Angle of depression triangle with
Let the height of hill = AB = h m 90°, 45° and 45° angles have opposite sides a 2, a and a,
A respectively.
AB P
In DABD, = = tan q
BD B
45°
h
i.e., = tan 60° = 3 a√2
BD a
h
Þ BD = ...(i) 90°
3 60° 45° 45°
AB P B D C a
Now, in DABC, = = tan45°
BC B 20 m Triangle with angle 90°, 60° and 30° have opposite sides 2a,
h a 3 and a, respectively.
Þ =1
BD + 20
Þ h = BD + 20
h 60° 2a
Now, using Eq. (i), we get h = + 20 a
3
90°
Þ h ( 3 - 1) = 20 3 30°
a√3
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. A 15 m high pole has ‘x’ m long shadow on the ground. 8. From the mid-point of the line joining towers AB and
If the angle formed by the pole on the ground was 30°, CD the angle of elevation of the top of the towers is
what is the value of x? 30° and 60° respectively, then the ratio of the heights
(a) 15 m (b) 15 3 m of the towers AB and CD is
(c) 30 m (d) 15 2 m (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 2
2. A building makes an angle ‘q’ degree with the point on 9. A balloon tied with a 12 m long rope make 45° angle
ground has its height equal to its distance from the with the ground. Find the height of the balloon.
point on the ground. What is the value of q? (a) 6 m (b) 6 2 m (c) 6 3 m (d) 18 m
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) 45° (d) 120° 10. What will be the angle of elevation of sun at the
instant, when the length of the shadow of a building
3. A man standing on sea shore observe the angle of is 1 / 3 times its height?
elevation of the top of a tree to be 60°, if the person is (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
16 3 m away from the base of tree. What is the height
of the tree? 11. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of
(a) 16 m (b) 32 m the 7th and the 12th floors of a building are 30° and
(c) 48 m (d) None of these 45°, respectively. What is the height of the building
from the 7th floor to the 12th floor, if upto 7th floor
4. Shadow of a 18 m high tree is h m long. If the top of the building is 150 m height?
the tree makes 45° angle with the ground, then the (a) 150 m (b) 150 ( 2 + 1) m
value of h is (c) 150 ( 3 + 1) m (d) 150 ( 3 - 1) m

12. From a point 15 m from the base of a building, the

angle of elevation of the top of the building found to
be 45°, if after moving ‘x’ m further the angle of
elevation became 30°, then what is the value of x?
(a) 15 ( 3 + 1) (b) 15 ( 3 - 1)
h
(c) 15 2 + 15 (d) None of these
(a) 6 m (b) 18 2 m
(c) 18 m (d) 36 m 13. An eagle flying 100 m above the ground, makes an
angle of depression ‘ q ’ at a point on the ground. If the
5. A person standing 30 m away from the base of a cliff
shortest distance between the eagle and the point on
observes the angle of elevation of the top of the cliff to
the ground is 200 m, then the value of q is
be 60°. The height of the cliff is
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
(a) 15 m (b) 15 2 m
(c) 30 m (d) 30 3 m 14. From the top of a lighthouse, the angle of depression
6. A ladder leaning against a vertical wall is twice the of two opposite points were found to be q and 90° - q,
length of the wall. The angle made by the foot of the respectively. If the distance between the points is
ladder on the ground is 50 m, then the height of the lighthouse is
(a) 60° (b) 30° (a) 25 sin q (b) 50 cos q (c) 25 cos 2 q (d) 25 sin 2 q
(c) 45° (d) 90° 15. A flag which is at the top of 150 m high building has
7. If Mr Ram’s shadow at afternoon is 3 times his angles of depression of its top and bottom at a point
height, then the angle of elevation of the shadow at on the ground 60° and 30° respectively, what is the
the top of Mr Ram’s is height of the flag?
(a) 60° (b) 30° (a) 300 m (b) 500 m
(c) 45° (d) 90° (c) 300 3 m (d) None of these
Height and Distance
High Skill Questions
1. There are two poles of heights 15 3 m and 20 3 m,
respectively. If at one point on the ground, where both
the poles subtend angle of 60° each, then the gap
between the bases of two points is
(a) 15 (b) 15 3 (c) 35 (d) 45
2. A while walking towards a tower at a constant speed,
observed that the angle of elevation of the top of the
tower changed to 60° from 45°. How much more than
will he take to reach of the tower?
(a) 5 min (b) 5 ( 3 - 1) min
(c) 5 3 min (d) None of these
3. A ladder which rests against a virile wall make 60°
angle with the ground and its top is 6 3 ft above the
ground. The foot of the ladder is moved away from the
wall along the ground will its angle with the ground
becomes 45°. How much is the distance by which the
ladder to moved along the ground?
(a) 6 3 (b) 6 ( 2 + 1) (c) 6 ( 3 - 1) (d) 6 ( 2 - 1)
4. The angle of elevation of a bird flying above an
aeroplane, as observed front the aeroplane is 30°. At
the same time the angle of elevation of the aeroplane as
observed from a point on the ground and vertically
below the bird is 60°. If the shortest distance between
the bird and the aeroplane at that moment is 1500 m,
then the height of the aeroplane above the ground is
(a) 1000 m (b) 1200 m
(c) 4500 m (d) None of these
5. A building which is 30 m high was observed from a
point on the ground. Observer found the angle of
elevation of a point on the second floor of the building
which is 10 m above the ground same as the angle
subtended by the rest of the building above the point P.
If the height of the observer is to be ignored,
appoximate distance between the observer and the
foot of the building is (take 3 = 1732
. )
(a)17.32 m (b) 20 m
(c) 21.21 m (d) None of these
505
6. A cat saw a rat when it was exactly at the middle of
a vertical tower. At that moment the angle of
elevation as observed by the cat was 30°. The cat ran
a certain distance towards the tower to chase the
rat, which is to the top of the tower. If the cat, which
is now 20 m away from the foot of the tower, finds
the angle of elevation of the rat to be 60°, what
distance cat run?
(a) 10 m (b) 10 2 m
(c) 10 3 m (d) None of these
7. Two poles at points A and B stand on a horizontal
place. C and D are two points between them. The
angle of elevation of the top of the poles as observed
from point C are 30°, 60° and from point D are 60°
and 45°. If CD = 30 m, then AB is equal to
(a) 15 (4 + 3 ) (b) 15 ( 3 + 3)
(c) 15 (4 - 3 ) (d) None of these
8. A man who is 6 ft tall founds the angle of elevation of
the top of a tower to be 45°. If the angle of depression
at the foot of the tower as observed by the man is 30°,
what is the height of the tower?
(a) 6 3 (b) 6 ( 3 - 1)
(c) 6 ( 3 + 1) (d) 6 ( 2 + 1)
9. A man standing on a light house, observes the angle
of elevation of a boat coming towards the light house
to be 60° from 30° in 15 min. How much time will the
boat take to reach the foot of the light house?
(a) 10 min (b) 7.5 min
(c) 8 min (d) None of these
10. A 50 m high pole which is above a 250 m high
building observed by an observer standing at a
height of 300 m. If the top of building and the top of
the pole subtend equal angle i.e., q at the observer,
then the horizontal distance of the observer from the
pole is
(a) 25 6 m (b) 25 3 m
(c) 25 m (d) None of these
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (b) Let AB = 15 m = pole 6. (b) Let the angle made by the foot of the ladder on the ground
A be ‘q’ degree.
We know that, ladder = 2 ´ wall (using of the wall)
15 m i.e., AC = 2 AB A
In DABC,
90° AB
30° = sinq
B C AC
x
AB 1
In DABC, the angles are 90°, 60°, 30° opposite side are 2a, a 3 Þ = sinq =
and a, respectively. 2 AB 2
90° θ
Since, opposite to 30° is a = 15 m, opposite to 60°is x \ q = 30°
B C
= a 3 = 15 3 7. (a) Let PQ = Ram and QR be his shadow.
Thus, x = 15 3 m We know that, PQ = 3 QR
Let f be the angle of elevation of Mr Ram’s shadow.
2. (c) Given, AB = BC P
A

Height

90° θ
B C
90° θ
Q R
AB AB a
In DABC, = tanq Þ =1 Shadow
BC AB PQ
In DPQR, = tanf
Þ tanq = 1 Þ q = 45° QR
3. (c) Let AB = tree and M be the position of the man. A 3 QR
i .e., = tanf
In DABM, QR
AB Þ tanf = 3 Þ f = 60°
= tan60°
MB Hence, the angle of elevation = 60°
AB AB C
Þ = 3 8. (b) In DABE, tan30° =
16 3 BE
60° 90° A 30°
\ AB = 16 ´ 3 = 48 m M 1 AB BE
B = Þ AB =
16√3 3 BE 3 60°
4. (c) AB = tree = 18 m and shadow of the tree = h m CD
A In DECD, tan60° = Þ
ED 30° 60°
CD B E D
3= Þ CD = 3ED
ED
18 m
Q E is the mid-point of BD. So, BE = ED

45° \ Required ratio = AB : CD

90°
C B BE 1
= : 3 ED = : 3 = 1: 3
h 3 3
AB = h = 18 m 9. (b) Let AB be the height of the balloon.
Using 90° : 45° : 45° ratio, we get A
Thus, the shadow AB = h = 18 m
5. (d) Let the length of cliff = AB A
12 m
In D ABC,
AB
= tanq
BC 45° 90°
AB C
i .e., = tan 60° B
30 90° AB AB 1 12
60° In DABC, = sin 45° Þ = Þ AB =
AB = 30 3 m B C AC 12 2 2
Thus, length of cliff = 30 3 m 30 m =6 2 m
Height and Distance 507
Alternate Method 13. (a) Since, E be the position of the eagle, we know
Using 90°, 45° and 45° ratio, we get sides a 2, a and a, EB = 100 m and EC = 200 m
respectively. Side opposite to 90° = a 2 = 12 E = Eagle
Þ a=6 2
\ AB = a = 6 2 m
10. (c) Let AB = building and BC be its shadow and ‘q’ be the 200 m
100 m
angle of elevation.

A B C

EB
In D EBC, = sinq
θ 90° EC
C B 100 1
Þ = sinq Þ sin q = i .e., q = 30°
200 2
1
We know that, BC = AB 14. (d) Let AD be the light house of height h m.
3
AB We know that, BC = 50 m
Now, in DABC, = tan q
BC A
3BC
i.e., = tanq
BC
Þ 3 = tanq = 60° h
11. (d) Using 90°, 60° and 30°, we get in DDBC, 90°– θ
θ
a = 150, so BC = a 3 = 150 3 B C
A D
50 m

D In DABD,
a√3
BD
150 = cot q Þ BD = hcot q
45° AD
C 30°
B DC
a√3 In DADC, = cot (90° - q) = tan q Þ DC = h tanq
AD
Now, in DABC, using 90°, 45° and 45° triangle ratio, we get We know that, BD + DC = BC
BC = AB = 150 3, so the height of the building from the 7th to Þ h cot q + h tan q = 50
12th floor = AD = AB - DB = 150 3 - 150 = 150 ( 3 - 1) m
50 50 tan q 50 ´ sin q
Þ h= = = ´ cos 2 q
12. (b) In DABD, cot q + tan q sec 2 q cos q
A 50
= 50 cos qsin q = ´ 2 sin qcos q
2
(using, sin 2A = 2sin A cos A)
= 25 sin 2 q
45° 30°
B D C 15. (a) Let AB be the flag.
15 m xm A
BC
In DBCD, = tan q
AB AB CD
= tanq Þ = tan 45° = 1
BD 15
150 1
Þ AB = 15 m i.e., = tan 30° =
CD 3
AB
Now, in DABC, = tan q Þ CD = 150 3 B
BC
AC 60°
15 Now, in DACD, = tan 60° 150 m
Þ = tan 30° CD 30°
15 + x C
D
AC
1 i.e., = 3
i.e., 15 = (15 + x ) 150 3
3
Þ AC = 150 ´ 3 = 450
Þ x = 15 3 - 15 = 15 ( 3 - 1) Thus, AB = AC - BC = 450 - 150 = 300 m
508 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. (c) In DABC, side opposite to 60° = 20 3 m = AB, so side 4. (d) Let B be the position of bird and A be the aeroplane want
opposite to 30° = BC = 20. Similarly in DDEC, side opposite to the value of DC.
B
60° = 15 3 m = DE, so opposite to 30° = CE = 15 In DBDA,
1500
A DA 3
D Þ = cos 30° = 30°
BA 2 D A
60°
30

3
20√3 Þ DA = 1500 ´ = 750 3 m
°

15√3 2
DC
90°
60° 60°
Now, in DDAC, = tan60°
DA
B C E
\ DC = (750 3 ) 3 = 2250 m
By the ratio of 90°, 60° and 30° angles in triangle, PB C
5. (a) In DPBC, = tan a
BC = a = 20 and CE = a = 15 BC
Thus, gap between the poles = BE = BC + CE = 20 + 15 = 35 10
Þ = tan a ...(i)
2. (d) In DABD, BC
BD = a and AB = a 3 A
(using 90°, 60° and 30°, triangle angle, side ratio)
Now, in DABC, angles are 90° : 45° : A
20
45°, so AB = BC a 3
Thus, distance covered in 10 min
P
= DC = a 3 - a a√3
Distance a 3 - a 10 α
\ Speed of A = =
Time 10 60° 45° α
B D C B C
Thus, the time A will take to cover a
(BD = a) is AB
10 min Now, in DABC, = tan 2a
a√3 BC
a
30 2 tan a éQ tan 2 q = 2 tan q ù
Distance a 3 - a 10 3+1 i.e., = êë
= = ´ BC 1 - tan a 1 – tan2 q úû
Speed 10 3 -1 3+1
= 5 ( 3 + 1) min 2 æç
10 ö
÷
3. (d) Let AC = DE = Length of ladder è BC ø
= [Q from Eq.
100
AB 1-
In DABC, = sin60° (BC )2
AC
(i)]
6 3 3 20 ´ BC
Þ = Þ
30
=
AC 2 BC BC 2 - 100
Þ AC = 2 ´ BC = 12 = Ladder = ED
Þ 30 BC 2 - 3000 = 20 BC 2 Þ BC 2 = 300
[by using 90°, 60° and 30° triangle ratio]
BC \ BC = 10 3 = 10 (1732
. ) = 17. 32 m
and = cos 60°
AC 6. (a) Let C be the last position of cat and A be the position of rat.
Þ
BC 1
= We want to know the value of DC = distance ran by cat
12 2 A
12
Þ BC = =6 a
2 A
°
30

Now, in DEDB, E
BD E
Þ = cos 45° 60°
ED a
1 6 √3
Þ BD = 12 ´ =6 2 30° 60° 90°
2 B
D C
Thus, CD = Distance by which ladder 90° 60°
20m
In DEBD, if EB = a (let), DB = a 3
45°
moved along the ground D
B C
= BD - BC = (6 2 - 6) 6 (using 90°, 60° , 30° triangle ratio)
= 6 ( 2 - 1) m Now, in DACB, AB = 2 a
Height and Distance 509
As, E to the mid-point = side opposite to 60° AB
Now, in DABC, = tan45° = 1
2a BC
So, side opposite to 30° = BC =
3 Þ AB = BC = 6 3 ft
2a Thus, height of the tower = AD
20 =
3 = AB + BD
\ a = 10 3 =6 3+ 6
So, DC = BD - BC = 10 3 ´ 3 – 20 = 30 - 20 = 10 m = 6 ( 3 + 1) ft
7. (a) In DAEC, AC = x, AE = x 3 9. (b) In DLMO,
(using 90°, 60° and 30° triangle side ratio) MO = x
E F LM
\ tan60° =
MO
LM
x√3 y√3 Þ 3= Þ LM = x 3
MO
60° 30° 45° 60° L
A C D B
x 30 y
x√3
x√3 90°
60° 30°
Now, in DEDA, if EA = x 3 = Side opposite to 45°
M O N
We have, AD = x 3 x
15 min
Thus, x 3 - x = 30
Now, in DLMN,
30 30 3+1
x= = ´
3 -1 3 -1 3+1 LM = x 3 = opposite to 30°
So, (x 3 ) ´ 3 = 3x = opposite to 60°
30 ´ ( 3 + 1)
= = 15 ( 3 + 1) Distance covered by the boat in 15 min
( 3 )2 - (1)2
= ON = MN - MO = 3x - x = 2 x
Similarly DB = y
Distance 2 x
Speed of the boat = =
In DFDC, FB = y 3 Speed 15
Now, in DFCB, Now, time taken by the boat to reach the foot of the light house
FB = y 3 = Side opposite 30° i.e., to cover MO = x distance
Distance x 15
\ CB = ( y 3 ) ´ 3 = 3 y = Side opposite to 60°. = = = = 7.5 min
Speed 2x 2
So, 3 y - y = 30 15
Þ y = 15 10. (d) As the angle subtended by the top of the building and the
Thus, AB = x + 30 + y = 15 ( 3 + 1) + 30 + 15 top of the pole is ‘q’ degree each, we get q = 45°
A B
= 60 + 15 3 = 15 ( 4 + 3 )
θ
CE 1 θ
8. (c) In DCED, = tan30° = 50
DE 3 90° 300
θ
6 1 C D
i.e., = Þ DE = 6 3 ft = BC
DE 3
250
A

E F
BD
Now, in DBCD , BD = 50 and = tan q = tan 45°
DC
90° 45° C
B Þ BD = DC = 50
Horizontal distance of observer from the pole = AB = CD = 50m
6 ft
30° 90°
D E
510 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

17
Statistics

Data It is not easy to answer the question looking at the

In our day-to-day life, we might come across choices written haphazardly. So, we arrange the data
information, such as in table using tally marks.
● Runs made by a batsman in the last 10 test matches. Table
● Number of wickets taken by a bowler in the last 10 Subject Tally marks Number of students
ODIs. Arts |||| || 7
● Marks scored by the students of your class in the
Mathematics |||| 5
Mathematics unit test.
Science |||| | 6
● Number of story books read by each of your friends etc.
English |||| 4
The information collected in all such cases is called
data. Data is usually collected in the context of a Total 22
situation that we want to study. A data is a collection
of numbers gathered to give some information. The number of tallies before each subject gives the
e.g., A teacher may like to know the average height of number of students who like that particular subject.
students in her class. To find this, she will write the This is known as the frequency of that subject.
heights of all the students in her class, organise the Frequency gives the number of times that a particular
data in a systematic manner and then interpret it entry occurs. The table made is known as frequency
accordingly. Sometimes, data is represented distribution table as it gives the number of times an
graphically to give a clear idea of what it represents. entry occurs.
From table, frequency of students who like English is 4
Organising Data and frequency of students who like Mathematics is 5.
Usually, data available to us is in an unorganised form
Frequency of students who like Arts is 7 and frequency
called raw data. To draw meaningful inferences, we of students who like Science is 6.
need to organise the data systematically.
Clearly, we can observe that Arts is the most liked
e.g., A group of students was asked about their subject and English is the least liked subject.
favourite subject.
The results were as listed below Grouping of Data
Arts, Mathematics, Science, English, Mathematics, The data regarding choice of subjects showed the
Arts, English, Mathematics, English, Arts, Science, occurrence of each of the entries several times. e.g., Arts
Arts, Science, Science, Mathematics, Arts, English, is liked by 7 students, Mathematics is liked by 5
Arts, Science, Mathematics, Science, Arts. students and so on. This information can be displayed
graphically using a pictograph or a bar graph.
Which are the most liked and the least liked subject? Sometimes, however, we have to deal with a large data.
Statistics 511
e.g., Consider the following marks (out of 50) obtained Directions (Ex. 1 and 2) The following bar-graph
in Mathematics by 60 students of Class III shows the number of students in a particular class of
21, 10, 30, 22, 33, 5, 37, 12, 25, 42, 15, 39, 26, 32, 18, school. Then, answer the following questions.
27, 28, 19, 29, 35, 31, 24, 36, 18, 20, 38, 22, 44, 16, 24, 80
10, 27, 39, 28, 49, 29, 32, 23, 31, 21, 34, 22, 23, 36, 24, 70 1 Unit length = 10 students

Number of students
36, 33, 47, 48, 50, 39, 20, 7, 16, 36, 45, 47, 30, 22, 17. 60 – – – – – – – – – –
If we make a frequency distribution table for each 50 – – – – – – – – – –
40 – – – – – –
observation, then the table would be too long, so for 30
convenience, we make groups of observations say, 20
0-10, 10-20 and so on and obtain a frequency 10
distribution of the number of observations falling in
each group. 2000 2001 2002 2003
Years
Thus, the frequency distribution table for the above
data can be as follows
Table Example 1 What is the number of students in the year
2003?
Groups Tally marks Frequency
(a) 70 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 40
0-10 || 2 Solution (b) By observing the given bar graph carefully, we
10-20 |||| |||| 10 can say that the total number of students in the year 2003
was 60.
20-30 |||| |||| |||| |||| | 21
Example 2 Is the number of students in the year 2002 twice
30-40 |||| |||| |||| |||| 19 that in the year 2000?
40-50 |||| || 7 (a) Yes
50-60 | 1 (b) No
(c) Can’t be detain
Total 60 (d) More information required

Data presented in this manner is said to be grouped and Solution (b) The number of students in the year 2002 = 50
the distribution obtained is called grouped frequency The number of students in the year 2000 = 30
distribution. Thus, the difference between number of students in both the
It helps us to draw meaningful inferences like years = 50 - 30 = 20
● Most of the students have scored between 20 and 30. Which is not twice figure of 30.
● Eight students have scored more than 40 marks out of Thus, the number of students in the year 2002 was not twice
50 and so on. that of in the year 2000.
● Each of the groups 0-10, 10-20, 20-30 etc., is called a
class interval (or briefly a class). Histogram
In the class interval 10-20, 10 is called the lower class Consider the grouped frequency distribution of the
limit and 20 is called the upper class limit. marks obtained by 60 students in Mathematics test.
Table
Data Representation Class interval Frequency
Raw data can be represented in a number of ways to
draw the inferences. Some of the forms of data 0-10 2
representation are bar-graph, pie-chart, etc. 10-20 10
20-30 21
Bar-Graph
Bars of uniform width can be drawn horizontally or 30-40 19
vertically with equal spacing between them and then 40-50 7
the length of each bar represents the given number. 50-60 1
Such method of representing data is called a bar
diagram or a bar graph. Total 60
512 Study Package for NTSE

22 21 Example 4 How many students watched TV for

20 19 less than 4 h?
18 (a) 30 (b) 28 (c) 22 (d) 34
Number of students

16 Solution (d) Number of students who watched TV for less

14 than 4 h
12
10 = 22 + 8 + 4 = 34
10
8
6
7
Frequency Polygon
4 The mid-points of upper sides of rectangles of a
2
2 1 histogram are joined to obtain a frequency polygon.
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
8
Marks of students
7
This data has been displayed graphically as in the D
above bar-graph. 6
C
Is this graph, in any way different from the bar graphs 5
which you have drawn in previous classes. Observe E
4
that, here we have represented the groups of B
observations (i.e. , class intervals) on the horizontal 3
axis. The height of the bars show the frequency of the F
2
class interval. To draw the histogram, generally we
don’t take any gap between the class intervals and the 1
bars, so here we have taken the given class intervals
0
as 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40, 40-50 and 50-60. A 0 20 40 60 80 100 G
The graphical representation of data in this manner is In above figure, ABCDEFG is a frequency polygon.
called a histogram.
Directions (Ex. 3 and 4) Study the given histogram Pie-Chart (Circle Graph)
carefully and answer the questions given below. Have you ever come across data represented in
The number of hours for which students of a particular circular form as shown below?
class watched television during holidays has been Time spent by a Age groups of people
child during a day in a town
shown through the given graph. 30
8h th
ou
50 thousand

32 s an
32 Sleep d
28 0-14 yr
4h Home 15-60 yr
Number of students

24 22 work
rs

School 60 yr
he

20
Play

and d
Ot

6h
16 above san
3h o u
12 3h th
8 8 20
8 (i) (ii)
6
4
4 These are called circle graphs. A circle graph shows
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 the relationship between a whole and its parts. Here,
Number of hours of TV watched per day the whole circle is divided into sectors. The size of each
sector is proportional to the activity or information it
Example 3 For how many hours did the maximum number represents.
of students watch TV?
Directions (Ex. 5-7) Study the given pie-chart
(a) (3-4) (b) (5-6) carefully and answer the question based on it.
(c) (4-5) (d) (6-7) Pie-chart shown below gives the expenditure (in
Solution (c) The maximum number of students watched percentage) on various items and savings of a family
TV for (4-5) h. during a month.
Statistics 513
House rent
10%
Education for
children 15%
Arithmetic Mean (AM)
Transport The most common representative value of a group of
5% data is the arithmetic mean or the mean. To
understand this in a better way, let us look at the
Food
Others
25% following example
20%
Two vessels contain 20 L and 60 L of milk,
respectively. What is the amount that each vessel
Savings Clothes would have, if both share the milk equally? When we
15% 10%
ask this question, we are seeking the arithmetic mean.
Example 5 On which item, the expenditure was maximum? In the above case, the average or the arithmetic mean
(a) Clothes (b) Food Total quantity of milk 20 + 60 80
(c) House rent (d) Others = = L= L = 40 L
Number of vessels 2 2
Solution (b) Expenditure is maximum on food.
Thus, each vessels would have 40 L of milk.
Example 6 Expenditure on which item is equal to the total The average or Arithmetic Mean (AM) or simply mean
savings of the family? is defined as follows
(a) House rent (b) Education for children Sum of all observations
Mean =
(c) Food (d) Others Number of observations
Solution (b) Expenditure on education for children is the Note Above method is only for find the mean of ungrouped data.
same (i.e., 15%) as the savings of the family. Example 9 A batsman scored the following number of runs
in six innings 36, 35, 50, 46, 60, 55.
Example 7 If the monthly savings of the family is ` 3000,
Calculate the mean runs scored by him in an inning.
what is the monthly expenditure on clothes?
(a) ` 1500 (b) ` 3000 (a) 46 (b) 47 (c) 50 (d) 60
(c) ` 2000 (d) ` 1800 Solution (b) Total runs = 36 + 35 + 50 + 46 + 60 + 55 = 282
Solution (c) 15% represents ` 3000. To find the mean, we find the sum of all the observations
3000 and divide it by the number of observations.
Therefore, 10% represents = ` ´ 10 282
15 Therefore, in this case, mean = = 47. Thus, the mean runs
6
= ` 2000 scored by batsman in an inning are 47.
Mean of Grouped Data
Range Sfi xi
Now, if given data is grouped data, then mean ( X ) =
The difference between the highest and the lowest Sfi
where, f1 , f2 , f3 , … are frequencies of observations and
observation gives us an idea of the spread of the
x1 , x2 , x3 , … are mean value of observations.
observations. This can be found by subtracting the
lowest observation from the highest observation. We Example 10 Given data shows marks of 32 students in an
call the result the range of the observation. examination. Mean of the marks will be
Example 8 Find the range of the following set of scores 25, Class interval 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
15, 23, 40, 27, 25, 23 and 42. Frequency 12 6 8 4 2
(a) 37 (b) 27
(a) 18.125 (b) 21.875 (c) 22.425 (d) 22.545
(c) 32 (d) 25
Solution (a)
Solution (b) Range = Highest observation
- Lowest observation Class interval Mean value ( x ) Frequency ( f ) f ´ x

= 42 - 15 = 27 0-10 5 12 60
10-20 15 6 90
Measures of Central Tendency 20-30 25 8 200
In many frequency distribution, the average value 30-40 35 4 140
generally lies in the central part of the distributions. 40-50 45 2 90
Such values are called measures of central tendency. Total Sf = 32 Sfx = 580
Following things are known as the measures of central Sfx 580
\ Mean ( X ) = = = 18.125
tendency. Sf 32
514 Study Package for NTSE

Median Mode
To find median of an individual series, arrange the Mode is that term of the frequency distribution whose
given numbers in ascending or descending order. If the frequency is maximum.
number of observations is Now, given data is grouped data, then
n + 1ö
(i) odd, the median is æç ÷ th term. Mode = l +
( f1 - f 0 )
´i
è 2 ø
(2 f1 - f 0 - f2 )
éænö æn ö ù
ê çè 2 ÷ø th term + çè 2 + 1÷ø th term ú Where, l = Lower limit of mode group
(ii) even, the median is ê ú.
2 f1 = Frequency of mode group
ê ú
êë úû f 0 = Frequency of proceding group of mode group
Now, if given data is grouped data, then f2 = Frequency of next group of mode group
æ n - Cö i = Difference of class interval
ç ÷
è ø
Median = l + 2 ´i Example 13 Following are the margins of victory in the
f
football matches of a league.
where, l = Lower limit of median group
1, 3, 2, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 5, 2, 2, 2, 4, 1, 2, 3, 1, 1, 2, 3, 2, 6, 4, 3,
n = Sum of frequencies 2, 1, 1, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 3, 2, 3, 2, 4, 2, 1, 2
f = Frequency of median group Find the mode of this data.
C = Cumulative frequency of preceding group of (a) 1 (b) 2
median group (c) 3 (d) 4
i = Difference of class interval Solution (b) Let us put the data in a tabular form
Example 11 Find the median of the numbers 24, 36, 46, Margins of victory Tally marks Number of matches
17, 18, 25, 35.
1 |||| |||| 9
(a) 23 (b) 24
(c) 25 (d) 26 2 |||| |||| |||| 14
Solution (c) Arranging the data in ascending order, we get 3 |||| || 7
17, 18, 24, 25, 35, 36, 46.
Median is the middle observation. Therefore, 25 is the 4 |||| 5
median. 5 ||| 3
Example 12 The median from given grouped data would be 6 || 2

Class interval Frequency Cumulative frequency Total 40

10-20 5 5 Looking at the table, we can quickly say that 2 is the ‘mode’,
20-30 7 12 since 2 has occured the highest number of times. Thus, most
30-40 6 18 of the matches have been won with a victory margin of 2
goals.
40-50 8 26
50-60 4 30 Example 14 The mode from given grouped data would be
(a) 30 (b) 35 Class interval 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
(c) 38 (d) 40
Frequency 5 7 6 8 4
Solution (b) Here, n = 30 = 15 < 18
2 2
(a) 42 (b) 43
So, median group is (30-40).
(c) 44 (d) 45
Here, l = 30, n = 30, f = 6, C = 12 and i = 10
Solution (b) Here, highest frequency is 8.
æ n - Cö æ 30 - 12ö
ç ÷ ç ÷ Hence, mode group is (40-50).
è2 ø è ø
\ Median = l + ´ i = 30 + 2 ´ 10
f 6 Here, l = 40, f0 = 6, f1 = 8, f2 = 4 and i = 10
(15 - 12) ´ 5 ( f1 - f0 )
= 30 + \ Mode = l + ´i
3 ( 2f1 - f0 - f2 )
3 ´5 ( 8 - 6)
= 30 + = 30 + 5 = 35 = 40 + ´ 10
3 ( 2 ´ 8 - 6 - 4)
Statistics 515
2 Example 15 If mode of a grouped data is 10 and mean is
= 40 + ´ 10
(16 - 10 ) 4, then median will be
2 ´ 10 (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
= 40 +
6
Solution (c) Here, Mode = 10, Mean = 4
10
= 40 + = 40 + 3.333 We know the formula,
3
= 43.333 » 43 Mode = 3 ´ Median - 2 ´ Mean
Þ 10 = 3 ´ Median - 2 ´ 4
Relation between Mean, Median and Mode
Þ 10 = 3 ´ Median - 8
There is a mathematical relation between mean,
median and mode. It is shown below Þ 3 ´ Median = 10 + 8 = 18
18
Þ Median = =6
Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean 3

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Study the given bar chart Directions (Q.Nos. 4-6) Observe the histogram and
carefully and answer the questions based on it. answer the questions given below.
Bar chart represents the production
(in lakh tonne) of wheat from 2005 to 2010. 7
7
140
Number of Girls of Class VII

130 6
130
120 5
120
110 4
110
100 4
100
3
90 3
80
80 2 2
70 65 2
60 1 1
1
50
40
30 0 125 130 135 140 145 150 155 160
20 Heights (in cm)
10
0
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Years
4. Which groups contain minimum girls?
(a) (130-135) and (155-160)
1. For which of the following year, wheat production is (b) (125-130) and (155-160)
maximum? (c) (125-130) and (135-140)
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 (d) (135-140) and (155-160)
(c) 2008 (d) 2010
5. Which group contain maximum girls?
2. For which of the following year, wheat production is (a) (140-145)
minimum?
(b) (135-140)
(a) 2005 (b) 2007
(c) (130-135)
(c) 2009 (d) 2008
(d) (145-150)
3. What is the mean production for all the years?
6. How many girls have a height of 145 cm and more?
(a) 100.83 lakh tonne (b) 110.5 lakh tonne
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 98.72 lakh tonne (d) None of the above (c) 5 (d) 2
516 Study Package for NTSE

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Study the given information 7. If 20 people liked classical music, how many young
carefully and answer the questions based on it. people were surveyed?
(a) 100 (b) 250 (c) 150 (d) 200
A survey was made to find the type of music that a certain
group of young people liked in a city. Following pie-chart 8. Which type of music is liked by the maximum number
shows the findings of this survey. of people?
(a) Light (b) Classical (c) Folk (d) Semi-classical
Semi-
classical 9. If total number of young people in that group is 1000,
20% Light then how many of them like folk music?
40% (a) 120 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 300
Classical
10% 10. The enrollments in a school during six consecutive
Folk years are as follows
30% 1555, 1670, 1750, 2013, 2540, 2820
Find the mean enrollment of the school for the period.
(a) 2058 (b) 1058 (c) 2032 (d) 1120

High Skill Questions

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Study the given information 7. The median and mean values of the marks obtained
carefully and answer the questions based on it. by the students of a class are 46.67 and 45.5,
respectively. Find out the mode of the marks.
The marks (out of 100) obtained by a group of students
(a) 60.00 (b) 58.58
in a science test are 85, 76, 90, 85, 39, 48, 56, 95, 81 and (c) 49.01 (d) 40
75.
8. If the mean and median are 25 and 28 respectively,
1. Find the highest and the lowest marks obtained by then find the value of the mode.
the students. (a) 35 (b) 34 (c) 36 (d) 134
(a) 48, 56 (b) 95, 39 (c) 56, 48 (d) 39, 95
9. Mean of median, mode and range of the data
2. Find the range of the marks obtained. 1, 2, 3, 3, 2, 5, 6, 2, 2, 1, 4, 6, 6, 5 is
(a) 52 (b) 51 (c) 56 (d) 48 (a) 7/3 (b) 10/3
3. Find the mean marks obtained by the group. (c) 11/3 (d) 5/3
(a) 73 (b) 71 (c) 57 (d) 74 10. The marks obtained by 30 students of Class X of a
Directions (Q. Nos. 4-6) Study the given information certain school in a Mathematics paper consisting of
carefully and answer the questions based on it. 100 marks are presented in table below
The rainfall (in mm) in a city on 7 days of a certain week was
recorded as follows. Class interval 10-25 25-40 40-55 55-70 70-85 85-100
Number of
Day Mon Tue Wed Thur Fri Sat Sun students 2 3 7 6 6 6
Rainfall (in mm) 0.0 12.2 2.1 0.0 20.5 5.5 1.0
Find the mean of the marks obtained by the students.
4. Find the range of the rainfall in the above data. (a) 62 (b) 60 (c) 63 (d) 65
(a) 10.5 (b) 12.5 11. An NGO working for welfare of cancer patients,
(c) 20.5 (d) 13.5 maintained its records as follows
5. Find the mean rainfall for the week. Age of patients (in years) 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80
(a) 5.9 (b) 5.0
Number of patients 35 315 120 50
(c) 5.5 (d) 4.5
6. For how many days the rainfall was less than the Find mode.
mean rainfall? (a) 31 (b) 31.79
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 1 (c) 32 (d) 32.5
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level
1. (c) Wheat production is maximum in the year 2008. 7. (d) Let the total number of people = x
2. (c) Wheat production is minimum in the year 2009. By given condition, 10% of x = 20
Sum of production 20 ´ 100
3. (a) Required mean production = Þ x= = 200
Sum of years 10
80 + 110 + 100 + 130 + 65 + 120 8. (a) Light music is liked by the maximum number of people 40%.
=
6 9. (d) The number of young people who like folk music = 30% of
605 30
= = 100.83 lakh tonne 1000 = ´ 1000 = 300
6 100
4. (b) Groups (125-130) and (155-160) contain minimum girls. 10. (a) Required mean
5. (a) The group (140-145) contain maximum girls. 1555 + 1670 + 1750 + 2013 + 2540 + 2820
=
6
6. (b) Number of girls having the height of 145 cm and more 12348
= = 2058
= 4+ 2 + 1= 7 6

High Skill Questions

1. (b) Highest marks = 95 10. (a) Let us make the following table for the given data.
and lowest marks = 39 Class interval Frequency (f ) x (Class marks) fx
2. (c) Range of marks = 95 - 39 = 56 10-25 2 10 + 25 35.0
= 17.5
Sum of marks 2
3. (a) Mean of marks = 25-40 3 25 + 40 97.5
Total students = 32.5
2
85 + 76 + 90 + 85 + 39 + 48 + 56 + 95 + 81 + 75 730 40 + 45
= = = 73 40-55 7 = 47.5 332.5
10 10 2
55-70 6 55 + 70 375.0
4. (c) Range = Highest rainfall - Lowest rainfall = 62.5
2
= 20. 5 - 0. 0 = 20. 5 70-85 6 70 + 85 465.0
= 77.5
5. (a) Mean rainfall 2
0.0 + 12.2 + 2.1 + 0.0 + 20.5 + 5.5 + 1.0 41.3 85-100 6 85 + 100 555.0
= = = 5.9 = 92.5
7 7 2

6. (b) Required number of days = 5 (Monday, Wednesday, Here, S f = 2 + 3 + 7 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 30

and S f x = 35.0 + 97 .5 + 332 .5 + 375.0 + 465.0 + 555.0 = 1860.0
Thursday, Saturday and Sunday)
On putting the values of S fx and S f in the formula,
7. (c) Median = 46.67 and Mean = 45.5
x = S fx , we get x = 1860.0 = 62
\ Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean Sf 30
= 3 ´ 46.67 - 2 ´ 45. 5 = 49.01 Hence, the mean marks obtained by the students are 62.
8. (b) Mode = 3 ´ Median - 2 ´ Mean 11. (b) Here, maximum frequency is 315 and the class corresponding
to this frequency is 20-40. So, the modal class is 20-40.
= 3 ´ 28 - 2 ´ 25 = 34
Age of patients (in years) 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80
9. (b) For median, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6
3+ 3 Number of patients 35 = f0 315 = f1 120 = f2 50
\ Median = =3
2 \ l = 20, f1 = 315, f0 = 35, f2 = 120 and i = 20
Mode = 2 [Q 2 occurs most frequently] æ f -f ö
Range = Maximum value – Minimum value Now, mode = l + ç 1 0 ÷ ´ i
è 2 f1 - f0 - f2 ø
= 6 - 1= 5
315 - 35
Sum of terms = 20 + æç ö ´ 20
÷
\ Required mean = è 2 ´ 315 - 35 - 120 ø
Number of terms 280
= 20 + ´ 20 = 20 + 1179
. = 3179.
2 + 5 + 3 10 475
= =
3 3 Hence, average age of maximum number of patients is 31.79.
518 Study Package for NTSE

Chapter

18
Permutations and
Combinations
Fundamental Principle of Permutations
Counting (FPC) A permutation is an arrangement in a definite order of
a number of distinct objects taken some or all at a time.
If there are m different ways of occurrence of an event
and n different ways of occurrence of another event, The number of permutations of n different objects
then total number of ways of occurrence of the event is taken r at a time, when 0 ≤ r ≤ n and the objects do not
m × n. repeat is n Pr or P ( n, r).
n!
Factorial Notation Where, n Pr = P ( n, r) = ,0≤ r≤ n
( n − r) !
The notation ‘n ! ’ represents the product of first n n− 1
Example 2 Find n, if P3 : nP4 = 1 : 9.
natural numbers.
i.e., n ! = 1 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 4 K ( n − 1) n (n! is read as factorial n.) (a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 5

n ! = n( n − 1) ! = n( n − 1)( n − 2) ! and so on. Solution (a) Given, n − 1 P3 : n P4 = 1 : 9

0! = 1 ( n − 1 )! n! ( n − 1 )! n ( n − 1 )!
l ∴ : = 1: 9 ⇒ : = 1: 9
n! ( n − 1 − 3 )! ( n − 4 )! ( n − 4 )! ( n − 4 )!
l = n( n − 1)( n − 2) K ( r + 1)
r! ( n − 1 )! ( n − 4 )! 1 1 1
⇒ × = ⇒ = ⇒n = 9
n! ( n − 4 )! n ( n − 1 )! 9 n 9
l = n( n − 1)( n − 2) K ( n − r + 1)
( n − r )!
l Factorial of negative integers and fractions are not Formulae and Facts Related to
defined. Permutation
Example 1 How many 3-digits even numbers can be l The number of permutations of n different objects taken
r at a time, where repetition is allowed is nr .
formed from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, if the digits can be
repeated? l The number of permutations of n objects, where p objects
n!
(a) 108 (b) 107 are of the same kind and rest are all different = .
p!
(c) 110 (d) None of these l The number of permutations of n objects, where p1
Solution (a) Even digits = 2, 4 , 6 objects are of one kind, p2 are of second kind, ..., pk are of
the kth kind and the rest, if any, are of different kind is
∴ Number of ways to fill the unit place = 3 n!
.
Number of ways to fill the ten place = 6 p1 ! p2 !K pk !
Number of ways to fill the hundred place = 6 Note l
When a particular object is always included is r ⋅n − 1 Pr − 1.
Hence, by FPC total number of ways = 3 × 6 × 6 = 108 l
When a particular object is never included is n −1
Pr .
Permutations and Combinations 519
Circular Permutations Formulae and Facts Related to Combination
If we arrange the objects along the circumference of a l The number of combinations of n different things taken r
curve, then permutations are known as circular at a time, where p particular thing never occur is n − pCr .
permutations. l The number of ways of selecting one or more than one in n
l The number of circular permutations of n distinct objects different objects is n C1 + nC2 + K + nCn = 2n − 1.
is ( n − 1)!. Here, anti-clockwise and clockwise order of Note l
n
C1 = n, n C n = 1 = nC 0
arrangements are considered as distinct permutations. l
n
C r = nC n − r for 0 ≤ r ≤ n.
l If anti-clockwise and clockwise order of arrangements l
If there are n persons in a room and they shake their hand
are not distinct. e.g., arrangement of beads is a necklace,
with others only once, then total number of shake hands
Arrangement of flowers in a garland etc., then number of
1 = nC 2.
circular permutations of n distinct items is ( n − 1)!.
2
Example 4 Find the number of 5 card combinations out of
Example 3 Three boys and three girls are to be seated a deck of 52 cards, if there is exactly one ace in each
around a round table, in a circle. Among them the boy X does combination.
not want any girl neighbour and the girl Y does not want any (a) 778315 (b) 778325
boy neighbour, then the number of such arrangements is
(c) 778320 (d) 778328
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 23 (d) None of these Solution (c) Number of ways selecting one ace from 4 aces
= 4C1
Solution (b) As shown in figure, 1, 2 and X are the three
boys and 3, 4 and Y are three girls. Boy X will have Number of ways selecting 4 cards out of 48 cards = 48
C4
neighbours as boys 1 and 2 and the girl Y will have Hence, by FPC, 5 cards out of 52 cards with exactly one ace
neighbours as girls 3 and 4.
48 × 47 × 46 × 45
X can be selected in 4 C1 × 48
C4 ways = 4 ×
24
1 2
 n n ( n − 1) ( n − 2) ( n − 3 ) 
Q C1 = n and n C4 =
3
 24 
4
48 × 47 × 46 × 45
Y = = 8 × 47 × 46 × 45
6
Number of ways in which 1 and 2 can be arranged
= 778320 ways
= 2 P2 = 2! = 2
Example 5 Four boys picked up 30 mangoes. In how many
Also, number of ways in which 3 and 4 can be arranged
ways can they divide them, if all mangoes be identical?
= 2 P2 = 2! = 2 33 33
(a) C4 (b) C2
Hence, required number of permutations = 2 × 2 = 4
(c) 5456 (d) None of these
Solution (c) Clearly, 30 mangoes can be distributed among
Combinations 4 boys such that each boy can receive any number of
Each of different selections made by taking some or all mangoes.
of a number objects, irrespective of their arrangements 33 !
Hence, total number of ways = 30 + 4 − 1C4 − 1 = 33C3 =
is called a combination. 3 ! 33 − 3 !
33 × 32 × 31 × 30 !
The number of all combinations of n distinct objects =
n! 3 × 2 × 1 × 30 !
taken r at a time given by n Cr = , 0 ≤ r ≤ n. 33 ⋅ 32 ⋅ 31
( n − r) ! r ! = = 5456
1⋅ 2⋅3
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. The number of ways in which 9 identical balls can be 7. The total number of 9-digit numbers which have all
placed in three identical boxes is different digits is
9! 9! (a) 10! (b) 9! (c) 9 × 9! (d) 10 × 10!
(a) 55 (b) (c) (d) 12
(3!)4 (3!)3
8. The number of words which can be formed out of the
2. The total number of selections of atmost n things with letters of the word ARTICLE, so that vowels occupy
10 points as vertices, n of them being collinear, is 110. the even place is
Then, n is (a) 1440 (b) 144 (c) 7! (d) 4
C 4 × 3C 3
(a) 13 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
9. Eight chairs are numbered 1 to 8. Two women and
3. In a polygon, the number of diagonals is 54. The 3 men wish to occupy one chair each. First the women
number of sides of the polygon is choose the chairs from amongst the chairs 1 to 4 and
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 13 then men select from the remaining chairs. Find the
4. The letters of the word MODESTY are written in all total number of possible arrangements.
possible orders and these words are written out as in (a) 1440 (b) 1450
a dictionary, then the rank of the word MODESTY is (c) 1460 (d) 1470
(a) 5040 (b) 720 (c) 1681 (d) 2520 10. In how many ways can a student choose a program
5. Given 5 flags of different colours, how many different of 5 courses, if 9 courses are available and 2
signals can be generated, if each signal requires the specific courses are compulsory for every student?
use of 2 flags, one below the other. (a) 34 (b) 36 (c) 35 (d) 37
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 23 11. In an examination of 9 papers a candidate has to pass
in more papers, then the number of paper in which he
6. From a committee of 8 persons, in how many ways can
fails in order to be successful. The number of ways in
we choose a chairman and a vice-chairman assuming
which he can be unsuccessful, is
one person cannot hold more than one position?
(a) 255 (b) 256 (c) 193 (d) 319
(a) 54 (b) 55 (c) 52 (d) 56

High Skill Questions

1. If the different permutations of all the letters of the 5. In how many ways can the letters of the word
word EXAMINATION are listed as in a dictionary, PERMUTATIONS be arranged, if the words start
how many words are there in this list before the first with P and end with S?
word starting with E? (a) 1814400 (b) 1814405 (c) 1824050 (d) 1824060
(a) 908300 ways (b) 907200 ways 6. The number of ways in which seven persons can be
(c) 907300 ways (d) None of these arranged at a round table, if two particular persons
2. In how many ways can one select a cricket team of may not sit together is
eleven from 17 players in which only 5 players can (a) 480 (b) 120 (c) 80 (d) 100
bowl, if each cricket team of 11 must include exactly 4 7. How many numbers lying between 10 and 1000 can
bowlers? be formed from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
(a) 3960 (b) 3961 (c) 3962 (d) 3963 (repetition of digits is allowed)?
3. In how many different ways can five boys and five (a) 1024 (b) 810 (c) 2346 (d) 820
girls form a circle such that the boys and girls set 8. Everybody in a room shakes hands with everybody
alternate? else. The total number of hand shakes is 66. The total
(a) 4! (b) 2880 number of persons in the room is
(c) 5! (d) 6! (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
4. In how many of the distinct permutations of the 9. A question paper is divided into two parts A and B
letters in the MISSISSIPPI do the four I’s not come and each part contains 5 questions. The number of
together? ways in which a candidate can answer 6 questions
(a) 35810 (b) 33810 selecting atleast two questions from each part is
(c) 33820 (d) 33840 (a) 80 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 3000
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (d ) ∴ Required number of ways = ( 3 C1 × 2C1 ×1 C1 ) × 2 7. (c) The total number of 9-digit numbers, having all digits
are different = 9 × 9 P8
= 3 × 2 × 1 × 2 = 12 9 × 9!
= = 9 × 9!
2. (c) Out of 10 points, let n points be collinear. Then, number 1!
of triangles are 10 C 3 − nC 3 = 110 (Q in first place we select anyone of nine numbers except
10 × 9 × 8 n(n − 1)(n − 2 ) zero. In rest of the eight places, we select any eight
∴ − = 110 numbers from remaining 9 numbers.)
3×2 3×2
⇒ 720 − 660 = n(n − 1)(n − 2 ) 8. (b) In a word ARTICLE, vowels are A, E, I and consonants
⇒ n(n − 1)(n − 2 ) = 60 are C, L, R, T.
⇒ n(n − 1)(n − 2 ) = 5 × 4 × 3 In a seven letter word, there are three even places in which
three vowels are placed in 3! way. In rest of the four
∴ n=5
places, four consonants are placed in 4! ways.
3. (b) Let number of sides of polygon is n. Since, number of ∴ Required number of ways = 3! × 4! = 6 × 24 = 144
sides of polygon is equal to number of vertices of polygon.
Q Number of diagonals of polygon = 54 9. (a ) Two women occupy the chair from 1 to 4 in 4 P2 ways
n(n − 1 ) and 3 men occupy the remaining chairs in 6 P3 ways.
∴ n
C 2 − n = 54 ⇒ − n = 54
2 4! 6!
∴ Required number of ways = 4 P2 × 6 P3 = ×
⇒ n − 3n = 108 ⇒ n − 3n − 108 = 0
2 2
4 − 2 ! 6 − 3!
⇒ n2 − 12 n + 9n − 108 = 0 ⇒ n(n − 12 ) + 9(n − 12 ) = 0 = 12 × 120 = 1440
⇒ (n + 9)(n − 12 ) = 0
10. (c) Total number of available courses = 9
∴ n = 12 (Q n cannot be negative.)
Out of these 5 courses have to be chosen. But it is given
4. (c) The number of words start with D = 6! = 720 that 2 courses are compulsory for every student i .e., you
The number of words start with E = 6! = 720 have to choose only 3 courses instead of 5, out of 7
The number of words start with MD = 5! = 120 instead of 9.
The number of words start with ME = 5! = 120 It can be done in 7C 3 ways
7! 7 ×6×5
Now, the first word start with MO is MODESTY. = = = 35 ways
Hence, rank of MODESTY = 720 + 720 + 120 + 120 = 1681 3! (7 − 3)! 6

5. (b) Number of ways choose the first flag = 5 11. (b) Q The candidate is unsuccessful, if he fails in 9 or 8 or 7
Number of ways to choose the second flag from the rest of or 6 or 5 papers.
four flags = 4 ∴ Numbers of ways to be unsuccessful
Hence, by FPC total number of ways = 5 × 4 = 20 = 9C 9 + 9C 8 + 9C 7 + 9C 6 + 9C 5
= 9C 0 + 9C1 + 9C 2 + 9C 3 + 9C 4
6. (d ) Out of 8 persons, one person can be chosen for 1
chairman in 8 ways. Now, a person cannot hold more than = ( 9 C 0 + 9C1 + ... + 9C 9 )
one position i .e., out of 7 persons, one person can be 2
1
chosen for vice-chairman in 7 ways. = (2 9 ) = 2 8 = 256
Hence, by FPC total number of ways = 8 × 7 = 56 2

High Skill Questions

1. (b) The letters of given word are A, A, E, I, I, M, N, N, O, T, X 2. (a) Cricket team
i .e., word starting with A are formed with the letters 2I’s,
2N’s, A, E, X, M, T, O (total 10 letters). Total 17 players
Hence, number of words formed by these letters
10!
= 5 Bowlers 12 Batsmen
2! 2!
We are to select 11 players including exactly 4 bowlers.
10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1
= Hence, 4 bowlers will be selected from 5 bowlers and
2 × 1× 2 × 1 remaining 7 players will be selected from 12 b
10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 atsmen.
=
4 Now, 4 bowlers out of 5 bowlers can be selected in 5 C 4
= 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 3 × 2 × 1 ways.
= 907200 ways 7 players out of 12 players can be selected in 12 C 7 ways.
522 Study Package for NTSE

Hence, by FPC, total number of ways selecting the eleven O — 1 time

players = 5C 4 × 12C 7 = 5C1 × 12C 5 (Q nC r = nC n − r ) N — 1 time
5 × 12 × 11 × 10 × 9 × 8 S — 1 time
= (i) Word start with P and end with S i .e.,
120
Q nC = n(n − 1) (n − 2 ) (n − 3) (n − 4) P S
 5
120  First and last position are already filled by
= 5 × 11 × 9 × 8 = 55 × 72 = 3960 ways P and S, respectively.
10!
Remaining 10 positions can be filled = ways
3. (b) After fixing up one boy on the table the remaining can 2!
be arranged in 4! ways but boys and girls are to sit 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 !
=
alternate. 2!
B1 = 720 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 = 720 × 2520 = 1814400

B5 6. (a) Q Remaining 5 can be seated in 4! ways.

B2 5
Now, on cross marked five places 2 person can sit in P2
ways.
P4
B4
B3 P3
There will be 5 places, between two boys, these five places P5
can be filled by 5 girls in 5! ways.
The required number of ways = 4! × 5! = 2880
P2
4. (b) The word MISSISSIPPI has 11 letters in which
P1
M → 1 time
I → 4 times 5!
So, number of arrangements = 4! × = 24 × 20 = 480 ways
S → 4 times 3!
P → 2 times 7. (b) Case I When number in two digits.
The number of permutations of the word MISSISSIPPI in Total number of ways = 9C1 × 9C1 = 9 × 9 = 81
which 4 I’s and 4 S’s are alike
11! Case II When number in three digits
= …(i)
4! 4! 2 ! Total number of ways = 9C1 × 9C1 × 9C1 = 9 × 9 × 9 = 729
If all the I’s are together, then it will be considered as one ∴ Total number of ways = 81 + 729 = 810
letter and remaining 7 letters and 1 I’s letter (including 4 I’s) 8. (b) Let total number of persons be n.
will be considered as 8 letters. So, the number of Since, total number of hand shakes = 66
8!
permutations is . n(n − 1)
4! 2 ! ∴ n
C 2 = 66 ⇒ = 66
2
Hence, total number of arrangements ⇒ n2 − n − 132 = 0
11! 8!
= − ⇒ n − 12 n + 11n − 132 = 0
2
4! 4! 2 ! 4! 2 !
⇒ n(n − 12 ) + 11(n − 12 ) = 0
11 × 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4! 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4! ⇒ (n − 12 )(n + 11) = 0
= −
4! × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 × 2 × 1 4! × 2 × 1 ∴ n = 12 (Q n cannot be negative.)
= 34650 − 840 = 33810
9. (c) The number of ways that the candidate may select
5. (a)The word PERMUTATIONS has (i) if 2 questions from A and 4 questions from B
P — 1 time = 5C 2 × 5C 4 = 50
E — 1 time (ii) 3 questions from A and 3 questions from B
R — 1 time = 5C 3 × 5C 3 = 100
M — 1 time (iii) 4 questions from A and 2 questions from B
U — 1 time = 5C 4 × 5C 2 = 50
T — 2 times
A — 1 time Hence, total number of ways = 50 + 100 + 50 = 200
I — 1 time
Probability 523

Chapter

19
Probability
Probability is nothing but chance of happening an Complement of an Event
event. Here, we shall study some definitions, formulae The complement of an event A is the set of all
and uses related to it. outcomes in the sample space that are not included in
the outcomes of event A. The complement of event A is
Definition represented by A (read as A bar).
The probability is defined as the chance of happening The probability of complement of an event can be found
or not happening of an event. by subtracting the given probability from 1.
Probability of happening of an event P ( A ) = 1 − P ( A)
Number of favourable outcomes Example 1 Probability of getting all head when three coins
= are rolled together is
Total number of outcomes
1 2 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Understanding of an Event 8 5 7 11
It is basically the state in which somebody tries to Solution (a) P (getting a head) = 1/ 2 or P (getting a tail)
know the all possibilities of an event. Some of the 1 1 1 1
examples are given below. Thus, P (HHH) = × × =
2 2 2 8
Tossing a coin When a coin is tossed, there are two
Example 2 From a pack of 52 cards, the probability of
possible outcomes i.e., Head (H) and Tail (T).
1 selecting an ace or a king is
So, we can say that the probability of getting H is or 1 2 3 4
2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
1 13 13 13 13
the probability of getting T is .
2 Solution (b) P (an ace or a king)
Throwing a die When a single die is thrown, there = P (an ace) + P (king) – P (ace and king)
are six possible outcomes : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. 4 4 8 2
= + −0= =
1 52 52 52 13
The probability of getting any one of these numbers is .
6 î As there is no card common between king and ace card, they are
mutually exclusive events.
Certain and Impossible Events
Example 3 A dice is rolled twice, what is the probability of
A certain event is certain to occur, i.e., S (sample getting a 2 on the first roll and a prime number of the second
space) is a certain event. Probability of certain event is roll?
1, i.e., P (S ) = 1, and 5 7
(a) (b)
An impossible event has no chance of occurring, i.e., φ 12 12
is the impossible event. Probability of impossible event 1 2
is 0, i. e., P ( φ) = 0. (c) (d)
12 9
524 Study Package for NTSE

Solution (c) The numbers which can appear when a dice 1

Example 5 Probability of A giving a false statement is ,
is rolled are 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 or 6. Thus, P (getting 2 on first 6
1 3 1 3
roll and a prime number on the second roll) = × = whereas probability for B giving a true statement is . If A and B
6 6 12 5
Example 4 A bag contains 4 blue, 3 green and 5 yellow both make a statement, what is the probability of both lying?
coloured balls, a ball is picked at random from the bag, what is 1 2 4 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
the probability that either yellow or green? 15 15 15 15
1 4 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) Solution (a) P (A giving false statement) = 1 and P (B giving
3 5 5 3 6
3 2
Solution (d) P (ball being either yellow or green) false statement) = 1 − =
5 5
(5 + 3 ) 8 2
= = = = 1 − P (selecting a blue ball) Thus, P (both A and B giving false statement)
12 12 3
1 2 1
4 1 2 = × =
= 1− = 1− = 6 5 15
12 3 3

Target Exercise
Elementary Level Questions
1. In a single throw of a dice, what is the probability of 10. The table below gives the feedback of 120 people
getting a prime number? about their likings of different brands of biscuits.
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/6
Britannia Parle-G Marie Gold Aviva Frontier
2. What is the probability of getting atleast one head 24 36 15 32 13
when two coins are tossed simultaneously?
1 1 3 2 If a candidate is selected at random, what is the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 4 3 probability that he likes Britannia?
3. If the probability of winning a game is 9/11, what is (a) 3/10 (b) 1/5 (c) 4/15 (d) 3/5
the probability of its losing? 11. In a factory 50 units are manufactured every day out
(a) 2/11 (b) 7/9 (c) 2/9 (d) 7/11 of which 10% get wasted. If a unit its selected at
random, what is the probability of it being a
4. In a bag containing 5 red, 4 black and 6 orange balls,
non-defective unit?
a ball is selected at random, what is the probability of (a) 1/10 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/2 (d) 9/10
getting a none red ball?
1 4 1 2 12. In a class of 80 students, 48 are boys and the rest of
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 15 5 3 the students are girls. If 10 students shift to the other
class room and a student is selected at random from
5. A card is selected at random from a pack of 52 cards,
the remaining class, what is the probability that a
what is the probability of selecting a red colour king?
1 1 1 4 girl is selected?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 11/35 (b) 27/70
2 26 13 13
(c) 11/40 (d) Cannot be determined
6. In a single throw of a dice, what is the probability of
13. Three coins when tossed 100 times, the frequency of
getting a number greater than 4?
tails was recorded as the table.
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/5
Number of tails Zero One Two Three
7. Probability that a number selected from 1, 2, 3, 4, ...,
35 is a prime number, is Frequency 22 36 24 18
(a) 13/35 (b) 12/35 (c) 9/35 (d) 11/35
If three coins are tossed again, what is the probability
8. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting atleast one head?
of getting one head is (a) 39/50 (b) 9/25 (c) 11/50 (d) 41/50
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/4 (d) 3/4
14. Out of the letters E, T and N, a three letter word is
9. What is the probability of selecting a consonant from formed at random using all the 3 letters. What is the
a set of 26 alphabets? probability that the word formed is TEN?
(a) 21/26 (b) 20/26 (c) 11/13 (d) 5/26 (a) 1/6 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3
Probability 525
High Skill Questions
1. In a biased dice the probability of getting an odd 9. There are 100 letters and 100 corresponding
number 2/3 times the probability of an even number. envelopes. If letters are put in the envelopes, what is
What is the probability of getting a 5 in that dice? the probability that exactly one letter will go in the
(a) 2/5 (b) 4/5 wrong envelope?
(c) 8/25 (d) None of these (a) 1/00 (b) 1/50
(c) 1/25 (d) None of these
2. If 5 coins are tossed together, what is the probability
of getting atleast two heads? 10. Mohan lies on 3 days out of the 7 days in a week,
(a) 1/32 (b) 3/16 whereas Ram lies on 4 days out of 6 days of a week. If
(c) 13/16 (d) 5/8 both of them were asked a question, what is the
3. When three dice are rolled together, what is the probability that both gave a true reply?
probability of getting atleast two 5? (a) 1/7 (b) 4/21
(c) 5/21 (d) 2/7
(a) 1/9 (b) 2/27
(c) 4/27 (d) None of these 11. 400 people polled for two candidates A and B in
4. Probability of trains A, B and C arriving on times is election, their response was
1/3, 2/5 and 2/3, respectively. What is the probability Candidate/Response Against Favour
that atmost one of the trains arrive on time?
A 220 180
(a) 7/15 (b) 22/45
B 150 250
(c) 23/45 (d) None of these

5. In a group of 8 students, what is the probability of If a person was selected at random from the people
each one of them having birthday on the different day who polled, what is the probability he is in favour of A
of week? but against B?
(a) 1 (b) 1/7 (a) 5/16 (b) 1/3
(c) 1/8 (d) None of these (c) 11/32 (d) 13/32

6. When two dice are rolled together, the probability of 12. From the set of numbers from 1 to 250, one number is
getting an even number on one dice and a multiple of selected at random. What is the probabilty that it is
3 on the other is either a multiple of 5 or a multiple of 4?
(a) 1/6 (b) 7/36 (a) 1/5 (b) 1/4
(c) 4/9 (d) 5/36 (c) 2/5 (d) 3/5

7. A medical test machine gives the correct report in 13. A coins is tossed 5 times. What is the probability of
3 out of 5 times. Three patients A, B and C got their getting number of heads more than the number of
checkup done on the same machine, what is the tails?
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/32
probability that majority of them got the correct
(c) 5/32 (d) 1/2
report?
(a) 9/25 (b) 8/25 14. A bag which has got 5 pairs yellow socks, 6 pairs of
(c) 1/5 (d) None of these blue socks and 4 pairs of black socks. If 2 socks are
8. Two persons A and B appear in an interview for two selected at random, what is the probability that it will
vacancies. If the probabilities of their selections are form a white pair?
1 1 (a) 1/45 (b) 1/90
and respectively, then the probability that none (c) 1/18 (d) None of these
4 6
of them is selected, is 15. An unbiased dice is rolled twice, what is the
5 5
(a) (b) probability of not getting a 2 in anyone of the two
8 12 rolls?
1 1
(c) (d) (a) 1/3 (b) 5/12
12 24
(c) 25/36 (d) 35/36
 Hints and Solutions
Elementary Level Questions
1. (a) Prime numbers in a dice = 2, 3 and 5 1 1 1
8. (a) P (getting one head) = P(HT ) + P(TH) = + =
4 4 2
Number of favourable outcomes
So, the P (prime number) =
Total number of outcomes 9. (a) Given, total alphabets = 26
3 1
= = Number of consonants = 21
6 2 Number of favourable outcomes
∴ Required probability =
2. (c) P (atleast one head) = 1 − P (no head) Total number of outcomes
= 21 / 26
= 1 −  1/2 ×  = 1 − =
1 1 3
 2 4 4 10. (b) P (person selected likes britannia)
3. (a) P (losing a game) = 1 − P (winning the game) Number of favourable outcomes
= = 24 / 120 = 1 / 5
= 1 − 9 / 11 = 2 / 11 Total number of outcomes

4. (d) P (non-red ball) = P (black or orange ball) = 1 − P (red ball) 11. (d) Number of defective units = 10% of 50 = 5

= 1 − 5 / 15 = 1 − 1 / 3 = 2 / 3 So, number of non-defective units = 50 − 5 = 45

Number of favourable outcomes
Thus, P (non-defective unit) =
5. (b) Number of red kings = 2 Total number of outcomes
So, P (red king) = 2 / 52 = 1 / 26 = 45 / 50 = 9 / 10
6. (b) Number greater than 4 are 5 and 6 . i.e., 2 numbers out of 6. î (Since, the number of defective units is 10%, the number of
So, P (getting more than 4 in a dice) non-defective units = 90% = its probability)
Number of favourable outcomes
= 12. (d) Since, we do not know the number of girls in class after
Total number of outcomes 10 students shifted, probability of selecting a girl from the
2 1 remaining class cannot be calculated.
= =
6 3
13. (d) P (atleast one head) = 1 − P (no head)
7. (d) Number of prime numbers in the first 35 natural numbers
= 1 − 18 / 100 = 82 / 100 = 41 / 50
= (2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31) = 11
14. (a) Total number of three letter words formed with three letters E,
∴ P(selecting a prime number)
Number of favourable outcomes T and N = 6 out of which TEN is one word, so P (TEN formed)
= = 11 / 35 = 1/ 6
Total number of outcomes

High Skill Questions

1. (d) Let the probability of an even number = 3x, where x is any 3. (b) Total number of possible outcomes when three dice are
positive real number, then the probability of an odd number rolled together
= 6 × 6 × 6 = 216
= 2 / 3 (3 x) = 2 x. Total probability = 3(3 x + 2 x) = 15 x (as there are
3 even and 3 odd numbers in dice). Thus, P (getting a 5) Number of favourable outcomes when atleast two 5 appears
= {( 5, 5, 1), (5, 5, 2 ), ..., (5, 5, 6), (5, 1, 5), (5, 2, 5,), (5, 3, 5),
= 2 x / 15 x = 2 / 15
(5, 4, 5), (5, 6, 5), (1, 5, 5), (2, 5, 5),(3, 5, 5), (4, 5, 5), (6, 5, 5)}
2. (c) P(atleast 2 heads) = 1 − P(less than two heads) = 16 outcomes
= 1 − [P (no head) + P (one head)] Thus, the required probability
= 1 − [(1 / 2 )5 + 5(1 / 2 5 )] =
Number of favourable outcomes
Total number of outcomes
= 1− 
1 5
+ = 16 / 216
 32 32 
6 = 2 / 27
= 1−
32 4. (b) P (atmost one train arrives on time)
32 − 6 26 =
1 2 1 1 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 1
× × + × × + × × + × ×
= =
32 32 3 5 3 3 5 3 3 5 3 3 5 3
22
= 13 / 16 =
45
Probability 527
5. (d) Days in a week are 7 and the number of students is 6. 11. (b) The letters which are same in the word Examination are aa, ii, nn.
So, it’s not possible to have their birthdays on different days on the So, the selecting a pair of letter which is same, we have a total of
week. So, probability is 0. 3 options out of where we can choose.
So, the probability (both letters being same)
6. (b) Total number of outcomes = 36 favourable outcomes
Number of favourable outcomes
= {(2, 2 ), (3, 2 ), (2, 6), (6,2 ), (4, 3), (3, 4), (6, 6)} = = 1/ 3
Total number of outcomes
Thus, P (even number on one and multiple of 3 on another)
Number of favourable outcomes 12. (c) Number of multiple of 5 = 50 and number of multiples of
= = 7 / 36
Total number of outcomes 4 = 62, number of numbers which are multiples of both as well
3 as 5 = multiples of 20 = 12
7. (a) P (test report to be correct) = = P(T ) Thus, P (selecting either a multiples of 5 or a multiples of 4)
5
3 2 50 62 12
and P (total report to be incorrect) = 1 − = = P(T ) = + −
5 5 250 250 250
100 2
For three prints A, B, C, majority to get the correct test report is = =
250 5
same as atleast 2 of them getting the correct report
3 3 2 3 3 3 13. (d) In 5 tossed of a coin, number of heads > of taills
= × × + × ×
5 5 5 5 5 5 10 cases 5 cases 1 case
= (HHHTT, HHHHT, HHHHH)
18 27 45 9
= + = = 5 5 5
Thus, P(heads > tails) = 10 ×   + 5   +  
125 125 125 25 1 1 1
2 2 2
8. (a) Required probability =  1 −   1 − 
1 1
1 1
 4  6 = (10 + 5 + 1) =
32 2
3 5 5
= × =
4 6 8 14. (b) We have 5 pairs of yellow socks, i.e., 10 yellow socks, 6 pairs
of blue socks ⇒ 12 blue socks and 4 pairs of black socks means
9. (d) Exactly 1 letter can never go in wrong envelope as the other black socks.
whose envelope is taken by the first letter will have no correct
P (selecting 2 socks and it form white pair) = 1 / 10 × 1 / 9 = 1 / 90
envelope left.
(we want 1 white socks from 10 white socks and next 1 more
So, P (exactly 1 letter going in wrong envelope) = 0 white socks from the remaining 9 white socks)
10. (b) P (Mohan lying) = P(M ) = 3/7 15. (c) P (getting a 2) = 1 / 6
and P(Mohan not lying) = P(M ) = 1 − 3 / 7 = 4 / 7 So, P (not getting a 2) = 1 − 1 / 6 = 5 / 6
P (Ram lying) = 4 / 6 = 2 / 3 = P(R ) Thus, P (not getting a 2 in 2 rolls of an unbiased dice)
and P (Ram not lying) = P(R ) = 1 − 2 / 3 = 1 / 3 Number of favourable outcomes
=
P (both giving true reply) = P(R ) × P(M ) Total number of outcomes
= 4 / 7 × 1 / 3 = 4 / 21 = 5 / 6 × 5 / 6 = 25 / 36

Chapter
1
Ancient India
Indus Valley Civilisation
(2500-1800 BC)
The Indus Valley Civilisation was an ancient
civilisation thriving along the Indus River in
Pakistan and North-Western India. Name of this
civilisation was the Harappan Civilisation, in
reference to its first excavated city of Harappa.
l RB Dayaram Sahni first discovered Harappa (on Ravi)
in 1921. RD Banerjee discovered Mohenjodaro or
‘Mound of the Dead’ (on Indus) in 1922.
l Sir John Marshal played a crucial role in excavacing
both these. Last site was found in IVC Dholavira and it
was founded by RS Bist in 1991.
l Harappan Civilisation forms part of the proto-history of
India and belongs to the Bronze Age. According to
radio-carbon dating, it spread from the year
2500-1750 BC.
l In this civilisation copper, bronze, silver, gold and tin
were known.
l Cotton was grown at Mehrgarh from about 7000 years
ago.
Geographical Extent
The Indus Valley Civilisation extended from
Baluchistan in Pakistan to Gujarat, with an upward
reach to Punjab from East of the river Jhelum to Ropar
on the upper Sutlej.
Major sites in Pakistan are Harappa (on Ravi in West
Punjab), Mohenjodaro (on Indus), Chanhu-Daro
(Sindh), etc. In India, major sites are Lothal, Rangpur
and Surkotda (Gujarat), Kalibangan (Rajasthan),
Banwali (Hissar) and Alamgirpur (Western UP).
Part-V : History
Town Planning
The streets of major cities such as Mohenjodaro and
Harappa were laid out in perfect grid patterns.
Roads were well cut, dividing the town into large
rectangular or square blocks. Lamp posts at intervals
indicate the existence of street lighting. Flanking the
streets, lanes and by-lanes were well-planned houses.
The towns were divided into two parts
l Upper part or Citadel and
l Lower part
In Mohenjodaro, a big public bath (Great Bath)
measuring 12 m by 7 m and 2.4 m deep has been found.
Economic Life
The Indus people grew wheat, barley, rai, peas,
sesamum, mustard, rice (in Lothal), cotton, dates, melon,
etc. They also domesticated animals on large scale.
l Weights and measures of accuracy existed in Harappan
culture (found at Lothal). Flint tool work, shell work,
bangle making, pottery making, etc were practised.
l The people were very fond of ornaments (of gold, silver,
ivory, copper, bronze, precious stones) and dressing up.
Ornaments were worn by both men and women.
l Potter’s wheel was in use. Their pottery was red or black
pottery. They played dice games.
l Their favourite pastime game was Gambling.
l Made pots with beautiful black design.
Religious Life
Main worship was the Mother Goddess. But the upper
classes preferred a god, nude with two horns, much
similar to Pashupati Shiva. Phallus (lingam) and Yoni
worship was also prevalent. Many trees (pipal), animals
Ancient India
(bull), birds (dove, pigeon) and stones were worshipped.
Unicorn was also worshipped. However, no temple has
been found, though idolatry was practised. At
Kalibangan and Lothal fire altars have been found.
The Vedic Age
Early Vedic Age
The Vedic Age began in India about 2000 BC with the
coming of the Aryans. General opinion regarding the
original home of Aryans were somewhere in the area
East of the Alps, in the region of the Caspian Sea and
the Southern Russian Steppes.
Coming of the Aryans to India
The earliest Aryan wave in India is represented by the
l
Rig Vedic people who appeared in the sub-continent
about 1500 BC.
l They came in conflict with the indigenous inhabitants
called the Dravidians mentioned as Dasas or Dasyus in
Rig Veda.
Vedic Literature
Vedic literature gives us an elaborate knowledge over
the subject of socio-economic life of Aryans.
Vedic literature has been classified into four parts
(i) Vedas (ii) Brahmana
(iii) Aranyakas (iv) Upanishads
(i) Vedas There are 4 vedas
Rigveda It is the oldest Veda composed about 3500
years ago. It includes more than 1000 hymns. The
tirta mandala contains the famous ‘Purushasukta’
which explains the origin of four varnas.
Yajurveda It is a ritual veda. It describes the ritual
for performing different sacrifices.
Samaveda It is a collection of melodic hymns.
Atharvaveda It describes the popular beliefs and
superstitions of the humble folk.
(ii) Brahmanas The Brahmanas explain the hymns of
the Vedas in an orthodox manner. They are written
in prose and are ritualistic in nature.
(iii) Aranyakas It means ‘‘the forest’ and these are called
forest books because they were written mainly for the
hermits and students living in the Jungles.
(iv) Upanishads It means to sit down near someone and
denotes a student sitting near his guru to learn.
Later Vedic Period
l The later Vedic Period extends from 1000 BC to 600 BC.
l Evidence of iron was found from Gandhar which shows
that iron was in use from 1000 BC.
529
l Sapta Sindhu region had declined, where Ganges valley
became important.
The Early Vedic Policy
l The Early Vedic Policy ‘Sabha’ and ‘Samiti’ continued to
hold the ground but their character changed.
l Women were no longer permitted to sit in the ‘Sabha’
and it was now dominated by nobles and the
Brahmanas.
Social Organisation
The Later Vedic society came to be divided into four
varnas called the Brahmanas, Rajanyas or Kshatriyas,
Vaishyas and Sudras.
Buddhism
Early Life of Buddha
Siddhartha, also known as Gautama (as well as
Sakyamuni or Tathagata), the founder of Buddhism,
was born in 563 BC on the Vaishakha Poornima Day at
Lumbini (near Kapilavastu) in Nepal.
l Buddha belonged to a small gana known as the Sakya
gana and was a Kshatriya.
l His father Suddhodana was the Saka ruler.
l His mother Mahamaya (of Kosala Dynasty) died after 7
days of his birth. So, he was brought up by his step
mother Gautami.
l At the age of 16, he was married with Yoshodhara. He
remained in marital life for 13 years and had a son
named Rahul.
Growth of Buddhism
Buddhism stands for three pillars
l The Buddha It’s Founder
l The Dhamma His Teachings
l The Sangha Order of Buddhist monks and nuns
The Dhamma
Buddha taught his disciple in Prakrit language. The
Dhamma as told by Buddha are
l The Four Noble Truths are
→ The truth of dukkha (suffering, anxiety,
dissatisfaction)
→ The truth of the origin of dukkha
→ The truth of the cessation of dukkha
→ The truth of the path leading to the cessation of
dukkha.
530
l The way to Nirvana (emancipation). In Buddhism or the
path that leads to cessation of suffering higher wisdom
and peace of mind is known as Noble Eight Fold path.
l The Noble Eight Fold path are
→ Right View (Samma-ditthi)
Intentional action (Kamma).
Admirable friendship (Kalyanamittata).
→ Right Resolve (Samma-Sankappo)
→ Right Speech (Samma-Vaca)
→ Right Action (Samma-Kammanto)
→ Right Livelihood (Samma-Ajivo)
→ Right Affort (Samma-Vayamo)
→ Right Mindfulness (Samma-Sati)
→ Right Concentration (Samma-Samadhi)
Buddhist Philosophy
The three characteristics of Buddhism are anitya
(transiency), dukka (sorrow) and anatma (soullessness).
The Sangha or Church Worshippers
Consists of monks (Bhikshus or Shramanas) and
Bhikshus acted as a torch bearer of the Dhamma.
Buddhist Literature
It is in Pali language. Buddhist scriptures in Pali are
commonly referred to as Tripitakas, i.e., ‘Three-fold
Basket’.
l Vinaya Pitaka Rules of discipline in Buddhist
monasteries.
l Sutta Pitaka Largest, contains collection of Buddha’s
sermons.
l Abhidhamma Pitaka Explanation of the philosophical
principles of the Buddhist religion.
Growth of Jainism
Jainism is one of the oldest religions in the world.
Jainism doesn’t have a single founder and the truth is
said to have been revealed at different times by a
Tirthankara (Prophets or Gurus). A Tirthankara is
considered omniscient, a role model, not a God. There
have been 24 Tirthankaras, all Kshatriyas. First
Tirthankar was Rishabhadev.
Study Package for NTSE
l There is no historical basis for the first 22 Tirthankaras.
l Only the last two Tirthankaras are historical
personalities.
l The 23rd Tirthankar Parshwanath was the son of king
Ashvasena of Banaras.
l The 24th and the last Tirthankar was Vardhman
Mahavira. He was born in 540 BC. His father was
Siddhartha and mother was Trishala.
Teachings of Mahavira
l The ultimate objective of Mahavira’s teaching was how
one can attain the total freedom from the cycle of birth,
life, pain, misery and death and achieve the permanent
blissful state of one’s self. This is also known as
liberation, nirvana, absolute freedom or Moksha.
l Universal brotherhood (non-belief in caste system). In
Jainism, three Ratnas (Triratnas) are given and they
are called the way to Nirvana. They are Right Faith,
Right Knowledge and Right Conduct.
Five Doctrines of Jainism
(i) Non-violence (Ahimsa) not to cause harm to any living beings.
(ii) Truthfulness (Satya) to speak the harmless truth only.
(iii) Non-stealing (Asteya) not to take anything not properly given.
(iv) Chastity (Brahmacharya) not to indulge in sensual pleasure.
(v) Non-possession/Non-attachment (Aparigraha) complete detachment
from people, places and material things.
Rise of Janpadas,
Mahajanapadas and Kingdoms
Mahajanapadas
The word ‘Janapadas’ literally means ‘the land, where
the jana settled down’. Some more important Janapadas
became Mahajanapadas.
There were 16 Mahajanapadas which were also
mentioned Anguttar Nikay (Bodh text) and dominant
during 600-321 BC. Out of these 16 Mahajanapadas,
Magadh was the most powerful and important one.
Ancient India 531
List of Mahajanapadas Dhananand
S.No. Mahajanapadas Capital He was the last ruler of Nand Dynasty. During his
reign, Alexander invaded India (in 326 BC). Nand
1. Kasi Varanasi
2. Kosala Sharaswati
Dynasty was followed by Mauryan Dynasty.
3. Malla Kushinagar
4. Chedi Shodivati The Mauryan Empire (322-185 BC)
5. Vatsa Kaushambi
6. Kuru Hastinapur, Indraprastha The Mauryan Empire (322-185 BC), was a geographically
7. Panchal Achicdhatra, Kampilya extensive and powerful political and military empire in
8. Matasya Viratnagar ancient India. Originating from the kingdom of Magadha
9. Shursena Mathura in the modern Bihar and Bengal, the empire had its
10. Ashmak Pathan (the only Mahajanapada in capital city at Patliputra (near modern Patna).
South India)
11. Avanti Mahishmati, Ujjain Chandragupta Maurya (322-297 BC)
12. Gandhar Taxila
13. Anga Champa
With the help of Chanakya (also known as Kautilya or
14. Magadha Rajgriha, Griviraj Vishnugupta), he overthrew the Nandas and
15. Vajji Varanshi established the rule of the Maurya Dynasty.
16. Kamboja Lumbini l Chandragupta built a vast empire, which included not
only good portions of Bihar and Bengal, but also
Western and North-Western India and the Deccan.
Rise of Magadha
l This account is given by Megasthenes (A Greek
It consists of modern district of Patna, Gaya, ambassador sent by Seleucus to the court of
Sahahabad. Magadha was ruled by Haryank Dynasty. Chandragupta Maurya) in his book ‘Indica’. We also get
the details from the Arthashastra of Kautilya.
Haryanka Dynasty (545-410 BC)
Bindusara (298-273 BC)
It was founded by Bimbisar. His capital was Rajgriha.
Chandragupta was succeeded by his son Bindusara in
He was the follower of Buddhism. He was followed by
297 BC. He is said to have conquered ‘the land between
his son Ajatshatru.
the two seas’ i. e., the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal. At
Ajatshatru the time of his death, almost the entire subcontinent
came under the Mauryan rule.
He murdered his father Bimbisar and became the ruler.
During his period, Ist Buddhist council was held. He Ashoka (269-232 BC)
was followed by his son Udaiyan.
Chandragupta’s grandson Ashokavardhan Maurya
Udaiyan is considered by contemporary historians to be perhaps
the greatest of Indian monarchs and perhaps the
He built city of Patliputra at the confluence of Sone and
world.
Ganga river.
As a young prince, Ashoka was a brilliant commander
The last Haryank Dynasty ruler was Nagdashak. He
who crushed revolts in Ujjain and Taxila. As a monarch,
was killed by Shishunag, thus Shishunag Dynasty he was ambitious and aggressive, re-asserting the
founded. Empire’s superiority in Southern and Western India.
But it was his conquest of Kalinga (261 BC) which
Shishunag Dynasty proved to be the turning point event of his life.
Kalashok After Kalinga war Ashoka converted to Buddhism.
Shishunag was succeeded by Kalashok. During his
region 2nd Buddhist council was held. Shishunag Post Mauryan Dynasties
Dynasty was followed by Nand Dynasty. (200 BC-AD 300)
Nand Dynasty
Shunga Dynasty
Mahapadmanand was the founder of Nand Dynasty, he
was also known as Sarv Kshtrantak. Pushyamitra Shunga was the founder of Shunga
Dynasty, Patanjali lived in his court.
532
Kanvas founded by Vasudeva and the four main rulers
were Vasudeva, Bhumimitra, Narayana and Susumar.
Satvahana Dynasty
Kanva Dynasty was followed Satvahana Dynasty,
founded by Simuka.
l Shaks were their contemporaries.
l Land grants to Brahmins was started by Satvahanas.
l Nagarjun Konda Stupa at Amravati (Andhra) was built
by them.
Post Mauryan Invaders
(200 BC-AD 300)
Indo-Greeks
The Greek ruler Demetrius-I invaded India but his son
Demetrius-II was able to establish Greek control over
Punjab, the whole of Sindh and Cutch.
The Shakas
The earliest Shaka ruler of India established Shaka
power in Gandhar.
Pahlavas They were Iranian people Gondophares was
the greatest ruler.
Indo—Greeks—Shakas—Pahalavas—Kushan
Kushan Dynasty
Founded Kujul Kadaphises. It belonged to Ychi tribe.
Kanishka
The greatest Kushan ruler. He was a Bodh follower of
Buddhism. He started Shak era in AD 78. He earned
more name and fame for his personal qualities than to
his association with Buddhism.
The Guptas and New Kingdoms
The time of the Gupta Empire is referred to as the
Golden Age of India in science, mathematics,
astronomy, religion and Indian philosophy.
Chandragupta I (AD 319-335)
He was the first important king of Gupta Dynasty. He
enhanced his power and prestige by marrying Kumara
Devi, the princess of the Lichchavi clan of Nepal.
He acquired for himself the title of Maharajadhiraj. He
started the Gupta era in AD 319-320.
Samudragupta (AD 335-375)
The Gupta kingdom was extended far and wide
enormously by Chandragupta’s son and successor
Study Package for NTSE
Samudragupta. His court poet Harisena wrote a
glowing account of the military exploits of his patron. In
a long inscription at the Prayag Prashasti pillar
(at Allahabad), the poet has enumerated the people and
countries that were conquered by Samudragupta.
l Samudragupta believed in the policy of war and conquest
of new lands. It is because of his bravery and generalship
that he is called the ‘Napoleon of India’ (by the historian
VA Smith).
l He performed Ashwamedha Yajna (horse sacrifice) to
delimit his territory.
l He assumed the title of Kaviraj.
l He was succeeded by his son Ramagupta, who was
captured by the saka Kshatrapas and was soon suceeded
by his brother Chandragupta II.
Chandragupta II (AD 380-413)
Chandragupta II, the Sun of Power (Vikramaditya),
ruled until 413. His daughter Prabhavatigupta was
married to Rudrasena II, the Vakataka king of Deccan.
Chandragupta II took the title of Vikramaditya by
defeating Rudrasimha III, a Kshatrap king of Ujjain. He
also assumed the title of Simhavikrama.
Chandragupta’s court was adorned by celebrated nine
gems (navratnas) including Kalidasa, Amarsimha,
Varahmihir and Dhanvantri.
Sangam Age (300 BC-AD 600)
The age of three kingdoms of South Cheras, Chol,
Pandyas is known as Sangam age.
Important
S.No. Kingdom Rule Capital
King
1. Cheras Kerala Mujris —
2. Pandyas South Tamil Nadu Madurai Nandeenfed-
dleyan
3. Cholas North Tamil Nadu Kaveripatnam Kanikala
Epics
Mahabharata
l It was written in Sanskrit by Ved Vyas. It describes
about war between Kaurvas and Pandavas of 950 BC in
Kurukshetra.
l Translation of ‘Mahabharata’ in Persian is called
‘Rajmnama’ done by Badayuni, in Telgu done by
Tikkanna.
Ramayana
It was written by Valmiki in Sanskrit. It gave
knowledge of the period from 500 BC-AD 4th century. It
has 2400 shlokas, also known as ‘Adikavya’.
Ancient India
Puranas
l Puranas are 18 in number. Its writer is Ugrvaisha. It is
written during Gupta Age in AD 4th century. Matasya
Puran is the oldest Puran.
Post Gupta Dynasties
Post Gupta Dynasties are
Pushyabhuti Dynasty Harsha
Vardhana (AD 606-647)
He belonged to the Pushyabhuti family and was the son
of Prabhakar Vardhan.
He originally belonged to Thaneshwar, but shifted to
Kannauj. Chinese pilgrim, Hieun Tsang (Prince of
Travellers) visited during his reign. He spent about eight
years (635-643) in the dominions of Harsha and earned
his friendship.
l He was defeated by Pulakesin II, the great Chalukya
king, on the banks of Narmada in AD 620.
l Harsha was a great patron of learning.
l He established a large monastery at Nalanda.
l Banabhatta, who adorned his court, wrote ‘Harshacharita’
and ‘Kadambari’. Harsha himself wrote three plays–
‘Priyadarshika’, ‘Ratnavali’ and ‘Nagananda’.
After the death of Harsha, in AD 647, the empire once
again broke up into petty states.
The Ganges
They are also called Chedagangas of Orissa. Their king
Narsimhadeva constructed the Sun Temple at Konark.
King Anantvarman Ganga built the famous Jagannath
temple at Puri. Kesaris, who used to rule Orissa before
Ganges built the Lingaraja temple at Bhubhaneshwar.
The Palas
In the middle of the 8th century, the Pala Dynasty came
into power. Their capital was Monghyr in Bengal. Its
founder was Gopala (AD 750) who was elected to the
throne as he had proved his valor and capability as a
533
leader. Then, came Dharmapala who won Kannauj,
founded Vikramsila University and revived
Nalanda University. Then, came Devapala who won
Orissa and Assam. He defeated Pratihara king Bhoja
and Rashtrakuta king Amoghvarsha. Then, came
Mahipala who was attacked and defeated by
Rajendra Chola. The Palas were replaced by Senas in
Bengal.
Kingdoms of South
l The Vakatakas The Vakatakas came to control parts
of the Deccan and Central India till the rise of the
Chalukyas. The founder of this Brahmin Dynasty was
Vindhyasakti. Most important king was Pravarsen I
who performed four Ashwamedha Yajna.
l Chalukyas of Vatapi (Badami) The founder of this
Dynasty was Pulakesin I. They established their
kingdom at Vatapi (modern Badami, Karnataka).
Pulakesin II was their most famous king, who was a
contemporary of Harsha. Hieun Tsang visited his
kingdom.
Much of the paintings and sculptures of the Ajanta and
Ellora caves were completed during the Chalukyan
reign.
l The Rashtrakutas The founder of this Dynasty was
Dantidurga. They were originally district officers
under Chalukyas of Badami. Their king, Krishna I
is remembered for constructing the famous rock-cut
Kailasha temple at Ellora. Their king,
Amoghvarsha, is compared to Vikramaditya in
giving patronage to men of letters. He wrote the first
Kannada poetry named Kaviraj Marg and
Prashnottar Mallika. He built the city of
Manyakheta as his capital.
l The Pallavas The founder of this dynasty was
Simhavishnu. They set up their capital at Kanchi
(South of Chennai). Narsimhavarman was their
greatest king. He founded the town of Mamalapuram
(Mahabali- puram) which he adorned with beautiful
rock-cut Raths or Seven Pagoras.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which was the first metal used by man? 15. Kautilya was the Prime Minister of which of the
(a) Copper (b) Silver following Indian rulers?
(c) Bronze (d) Brass (a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Chandragupta I
2. The Indus Valley Civilisation flourished during (c) Ashoka (d) Harsha Vardhana
(a) 5000-3500 BC (b) 3000-1500 BC 16. Sarnath’s Lion capital is attributed to
(c) 2500-1750 BC (d) 1500-500 BC (a) Kanishka (b) Harsha Vardhana
(c) Ashoka (d) Chandragupta
3. The Indus Valley Civilisation was discovered in
(a) 1902 (b) 1921 17. The external trade of the Sangam people was carried
(c) 1922 (d) 1932 on mainly with
(a) Romans (b) Arabs
4. The main characteristic of the Indus Valley (c) Chinese (d) South East Asian nations
Civilisation was
(a) town planning (b) drainage system 18. ‘Panchatantra’ was written by
(c) well laid out roads (d) pucca houses (a) Kalidasa (b) Vishnu Sharma
(c) Tulsidas (d) Banabhatta
5. The main occupation of the people of the Indus Valley
Civilisation was 19. Dhanvantari was
(a) agriculture (b) cattle rearing (a) a famous general of Chandragupta Maurya
(c) hunting (d) trade (b) a noted physician in the court of Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(c) a famous dramatist who lived during the time of Harsha
6. The Indus Valley people had trade relations with (d) a musician in the court of Ashoka
(a) Egypt (b) Greece 20. Who among the following is credited with the
(c) Ceylon (d) Mesopotamia
invention of Algebra?
7. The meaning of ‘Buddha’ is (a) Aryabhatta (b) Bhaskara
(a) anything beyond God (b) soul after death (c) Aapstamba (d) Medhatithi
(c) the enlightened one (d) the ultimate path for moksha 21. Kalidasa lived during the reign of
8. Jainism was divided into two sects known as (a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta Maurya
(a) Kapalika and Kalamukha (b) Mahayana and Hinayana (c) Ashoka (d) Chandragupta II
(c) Ajivika and Nyaya Vaisesika (d) Svetambara and Digambara 22. The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli was built by
9. Ashoka was much influenced by a Buddhist monk (a) Mauryas (b) Nandas (c) Khalijis (d) Guptas
called 23. The large Shiva Temple at Thanjavur was built by
(a) Upagupta (b) Vasubandhu (a) Rajendra Chola I
(c) Asvaghosha (d) Ambhi (b) Rajaraja Chola I
(c) Chandellas
10. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held by (d) Rashtrakutas
(a) Ashoka (b) Kanishka
(c) Chandragupta (d) Harsha Vardhana 24. Which of the following is the oldest Dynasty?
(a) Satvahanas (b) Pallavas (c) Chalukyas (d) Cheras
11. The last of the 24th Jain Tirthankaras was
(a) Parsvanath (b) Mahavira 25. The temple of Konark was built by Narsimhdeva of
(c) Rishabhadev (d) Arishtanemi the
12. Buddhism and Jainism both gave stress on (a) Hoysalas (b) Kakatiyas
(c) Gangas (d) Chalukayas
(a) worship of God (b) non-violence
(c) self-mortification (d) None of these 26. The Council of the ‘Nine Gems’ is associated with
13. Who among the following is considered as the first (a) Ballala Sena (b) Harsha Vardhana
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Devapala
national ruler of India?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Ashoka 27. Which one of the following Gupta rulers was related
(c) Chandragupta I (d) Kanishka to the Lichachavis on his mother's side?
14. Ashoka, the great, conquered Kalinga in the year (a) Srigupta (b) Chandragupta I
(a) 261 BC (b) 58 BC (c) AD 261 (d) AD 78 (c) Ghatotkachagupta (d) Samudragupta
Ancient India 535
28. The achievements of Samudragupta are described 39. The practice of image worship began among the
in the followers of Brahmanism with the emergence of
(a) Hathigumpha inscription (b) Allahabad pillar inscription (a) Shaivism (b) Ajivikas
(c) Girnar inscription (d) Sarnath inscription (c) Bhagavatism (d) Atharvaveda

29. The coins of which of the following reveal their love 40. Which of the following Gupta kings is famous for his
for music? courageous stand against the Hunas?
(a) Mauryas (b) Guptas (c) Chalukyas (b) Cholas (a) Chandragupta II (b) Kumaragupta
(c) Skandagupta (d) Buddhagupta
30. The Panchatantra was written during the
(a) Later Vedic period (b) Sultanate period 41. Which one amongst the following is the oldest
(c) Maurya period (d) Gupta period Dynasty?
31. The two colossal images of the Buddha at Bamiyan (a) Pallava Dynasty (b) Chola Dynasty
were works of (c) Maurya Dynasty (d) Gupta Dynasty
(a) the Maurya Art 42. Hieroglyphic script meant
(b) the Gupta Art (a) Sacred script (b) Religious script
(c) the Gandhara Art (c) Sumerian script (d) Iraqi script
(d) the early Mathura school of Art
43. Egyptians were highly skilled in the art of
32. The earliest extent (still standing) temples date from
(a) science (b) medicine
(a) the Vedic period (b) the Maurya period (c) surgery (d) astronomy
(c) the Gupta period (d) the Shunga period
44. Oracles foretold the
33. Most of the Ajanta paintings were done during the
(a) past (b) present
period of (c) future (d) death
(a) Harsha Vardhana (b) Late Guptas
(c) Mauryas (d) Kushanas 45. Copan of the Mayan civilisation was famous for a
(a) museum (b) library
34. Who among the following has been called the (c) observatory (d) hospitals
‘Napoleon of India’?
(a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta 46. Mayans worshipped the
(c) Ashoka (d) Harsha Vardhana (a) Maize goddess (b) Rain god
(c) Sun god (d) Wind god
35. Which of the following Gupta rulers was equally
great in the art of peace, wars and personal 47. The Aztec empire had a unique feature
accomplishment? (a) gardens (b) chinampas
(a) Chandragupta I (b) Chandragupta II (c) pools (d) stadiums
(c) Kumaragupta I (d) Skandagupta 48. The Aztecs were also known as
36. Raja Gotami-Putra Siri Satakshani was a ___ ruler. (a) Tenochtitlan (b) Toltecs
(c) Mexicans (d) Incas
(a) Satavahana (b) Pallava
(c) Chalukya (d) Kushan 49. The Inca civilisation was famous for an unique device
37. Amongst the following, who contributed the to remember called
(a) memory aid (b) quipu
Chalukya in Western India was that of the
(c) codices (d) tables
(a) Parthians (b) Indo-Greeks
(c) Kushanas (d) Guptas 50. Macchu Picchu was a fortress city in the
(a) Inca’s civilisation
38. During the Gupta period which of the following (b) Maya’s civilisation
places was not a seat of learning? (c) Aztec’s civilisation
(a) Vaishali (b) Mathura (c) Pataliputra (d) Kanchi (d) African civilisation

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following is the correct chronological 2. Arrange the following in chronological order
order? 1. Skandagupta 2. Rajendra Choladeva I
(a) Kushanas-Guptas-Sungas-Mauryas 3. Chandragupta I 4. Harsha Vardhana
(b) Mauryas-Sungas-Kushanas-Guptas (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) Guptas-Kushanas-Mauryas-Sungas
(d) Sungas-Mauryas-Guptas-Kushanas (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
536 Study Package for NTSE

3. Which one of the following ports handled the North 18. Which of the following groups of animals is depicted
Indian trade during the Gupta period? on the Pasupati seal from Mohenjodaro?
(a) Tamaralipti (b) Broach (a) Lion, Elephant, Buffalo and Bull
(c) Kalyan (d) Cambay (b) Tiger, Elephant, Rhinoceros and Buffalo
(c) Lion, Rhinoceros, Buffalo and Horse
4. The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called (d) Bull, Buffalo, Elephant and Rhinoceros
(a) rupayaka (b) karshapana
(c) dinara (d) pana 19. Which of the following Harappan sites has yielded
evidence of rice?
5. Which of the following Gupta rulers defeated the
(a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal
Huna ruler, Mihirakula?
(c) Harappa (d) Rakhigarhi
(a) Skandagupta (b) Buddhagupta
(c) Narasimhagupta (d) Yasodharman 20. The word Mesopotamia means the land
6. Who among the following literary figures of the Gupta (a) between two rivers (b) between two oceans
(c) between two mountains (d) between two islands
Age is given the title of ‘Indian Shakespeare’?
(a) Harisena (b) Kalidasa 21. In the courtyard of the Quwwatul Islam Mosque of
(c) Vishakhadatta (d) Bharavi Delhi stands the famous iron pillar in the memory
7. Carbon dating is of
(a) study of ancient culture (a) Ashoka (b) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(b) study of religion (c) Harsha (d) Anangapala
(c) study of age of some object 22. The first Huna invasion took place during the reign of
(d) study of floods
(a) Skandagupta (b) Samudragupta
8. Mohenjodaro is famous for (c) Kanishka (d) Kumaragupta
(a) ash mounds (b) fire altars 23. Zero was invented by
(c) great bath (d) None of these
(a) Aryabhatta (b) Varahmihir
9. Harappan used weights in multiples of (c) Bhaskar I (d) an unknown Indian
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16
24. The sacred books of the Jaina are called
10. The Indus Valley Civilisation was (a) Agama-Sidhanta (b) Angas
(a) rural civilisation (b) urban civilisation (c) Parvas (d) Upangas
(c) semi-urban civilisation (d) None of these
25. Who was the founder of Sishunaga dynasty?
11. Script of Indus Valley (a) Kalasoka (b) Udayin
(a) is written from left to right (b) has 98 letters (c) Sishunaga (d) None of these
(c) is pictograpic (d) None of these
26. Who wrote Milandapanho?
12. Ashtadhyayi of Panini is a work on (a) Buddhadutta (b) Nagasena
(a) Sanskrit grammar (b) Sanskrit literature (c) Buddhaghosha (d) Kautilya
(c) Sanskrit play (d) Early buddhist text
27. Jatakas are
13. Sumerians were first in developing of (a) poems (b) stories (c) speeches (d) a caste
(a) iron (b) writing (c) wheel (d) mettallurgy
28. Buddha allowed women to enter the Sangha to
14. Which place denotes that Harappa had connection accommodate the wishes of
with sea? (a) Maya (b) Amrapali
(a) Kalibangan (b) Lothal (c) Yasodhara (d) Gautami Prajapati
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Ropar
29. Which one of the following Buddhist texts contains
15. Which one of the following sites is famous for the rules of monastic life?
pre-historic paintings? (a) Abhidhamma Pitaka (b) Digha Nikaya
(a) Bagh (b) Ajanta (c) Vinaya Pitaka (d) Vibhasha Sastra
(c) Bhimbetka (d) Amrawati
30. In which of the following texts the rules of conduct for
16. The pyramid of Gizeh was built by the Buddhist orders are collected?
(a) Chepos (b) Tutankhamen (a) Vinaya Pitaka (b) Sutta Pitaka
(c) Rameses II (d) Thebes (c) Abhidhamma Pitaka (d) Anguttara Nikaya

17. The sphinx was carved out of 31. Buddhist literature is mainly written in language
(a) rocks (b) piece of stone (a) Prakrit (b) Pali
(c) minerals (d) gold (c) Sanskrit (d) All of these
Ancient India 537
32. Buddhism was totally against 42. Who was court physician of Kanishka?
(a) the caste system (b) the Vedas (a) Nagasena (b) Sushruta
(c) old rituals (d) supremacy of Brahmins (c) Charaka (d) Ashwaghosha
33. Nandas had their capital in 43. Patanjali, the great grammarian was a contemporary of
(a) Patliputra (b) Magadha (a) Chandragupta (b) Vasumitra
(c) Vaishali (d) Gaya (c) Pushyamitra (d) Samudragupta
34. Who of the following were the first Non-Kshatriya 44. Satvahana Dynasty was founded by
ruler? (a) Simuka (b) Satakarni (c) Hall (d) Pulumavi
(a) Mauryas (b) Shishunags
45. Who deciphered the Brahmi script on Ashokan
(c) Haryankas (d) Nandas
edicts?
35. Bimbisara, the ruler of Magadh belonged to (a) Metcalf (b) Wilson Jones
(a) Haryanka Dynasty (b) Shishunag Dynasty (c) James Princep (d) None of these
(c) Nanda Dynasty (d) Maurya Dynasty
46. Which of the following animals doesn’t appear on
36. Kharoshthi script was Sarnath pillar of Ashoka?
(a) an Indian development (a) Horse (b) Lion
(b) an impact of Persian invasion (c) Tiger (d) Bull
(c) developed independently
(d) None of the above 47. Who among the following mentioned that slavery was
absent in ancient India?
37. ‘Indica’ the book was written by (a) Herodotus (b) Plutarch
(a) Panini (b) Herodotus (c) Megasthenese (d) Plalemy
(c) Dimechus (d) Megasthenese
48. Who among the following rulers was the first to
38. Which script is mainly used in Ashokan edicts? construct the Sudarsana lake in Saurashtra?
(a) Sanskrit (b) Prakrit (c) Pali (d) Brahmi (a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Ashoka
39. Alaxender’s invasion India took place in (c) Rudradaman (d) Skandagupta
(a) 320 BC (b) 326 BC 49. Who among the following Indo-Greek rulers has been
(c) 336 BC (d) None of these mentioned in the Indian Buddhist literature?
(a) Demetrius (b) Menander
40. The rock edict of Ashoka were discovered in
(c) Strato (d) Antialcidas
(a) 13th century (b) 18th century
(c) 19th century (d) 20th century 50. After Mauryas who were the first ruler of
North-Western India?
41. ‘Arthashashtra’ written by Kautilya is a book on
(a) Bactrian Greek (b) Sakas
(a) economy (b) polity
(c) Satvahana (d) Prathiharas
(c) society (d) None of these

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)
 Chapter
2
Medieval India
The Cholas (AD 846-1279)
Chola Dynasty
Founder Vijayalaya, their capital was Tanjore. Cholas
were founder of Pallavas.
Raj Raj I It was a Chola king. He built Vrihideshwar
temple at Tajore devoted to God Vishnu. Chundmoney
Vihar was constructed at Nagpattnam by Shailandra
(king of SE) on his permission.
Rajendra I Raj Raj I was followed by his son Rajendra I.
He constructed a temple called Gangaikond Cholpuram
at the mouth of Ganga river.
The Rajputs
Rajputs rose to political importance in AD 9th and 10th
centuries. It is thought that they were of foreign origin
that came as conquerors and settled in West India.
Of all the Rajput clans, four clans – Pratihara or
Pariharas of South Rajasthan, Chauhans of East
Rajasthan, Chalukyas or Solankis of Kathiawar and
Parmaras or Pawars of Malwa – claimed descent from a
mythical figure that arose out of a sacrificial fire pit
near Mt Abu. So, they were called Agnikula or fire
family.
Two main clans of Rajputs are : Suryavansha (Sun
family) and Chandra Vansha (Moon family).
The Chauhans
Ruled over Shakambri (Modern Sambhar-Rajasthan).
Important king Prithviraj Chauhan. ‘Prithviraj Raso’
was composed by his court poet Chandbardai.
First Battle of Tarain (1191) Prithviraj Chauhan
defeated Muhammad Ghori.
Second Battle of Tarain (1192) Muhammad Ghori
defeated Prithviraj Chauhan.
Arab Conquest of Sind
Sind was then ruled by Dahir. Muhammad-bin-Qasim
(of Iraq) defeated Dahir in AD 712. This is considered to
be the first invasion of India by the Arabs.
Muhammad Ghori
The real founder of the Muslim Empire in India was
Shihab-ud-Din Muhammad Ghori or Muhammad of
Ghazni Dynasty.
l He was a ruler of a small kingdom in Afghanistan. But
he was interested in conquering Northern India and
adding it to his kingdom and not merely in getting gold
and jewellery like Mahmud. His first invasion was
directed against Multan in AD 1175, which was
successful. By 1182, Sindh was also captured. Punjab
was captured by AD 1186.
l Prithviraj Chauhan, who was the king of Delhi at that
time, received contingents from other Rajput kings and
defeated him in the First Battle of Tarain (1191). But
he defeated Prithviraj in the Second Battle of Tarain
in 1192. He defeated Jaichand (Gadwal Rule) in Battle
of Chhandawar was in 1194. He captured Delhi and
Ajmer and thus laid the foundation of Muslim Rule in
India.
l He died in AD 1206, leaving Qutab-ud-Din Aibak, his
slave the charge of the empire.
Delhi Sultanate (AD1206-1526)
Delhi Sultanate refers to the many Muslim Dynasties
that ruled in India from 1206 to 1526. Several Turkish
and Afghan dynasties ruled from Delhi
l Ilbari Dynasty (1206-1290)
l Khilji Dynasty (1290-1320)
l Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1413)
l Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451)
l Lodhi Dynasty (1451-1526)
Medieval India
Ilbari Dynasty Also called as Slave Dynasty. Iltutmish
was the real founder of Delhi Sultanate. He made Delhi
as his capital in place of Lohore. Illtutmish was
succeeded by his daughter Razia, the first and the last
Muslim ruler of Medieval India.
The Khilji’s Jalaluddin Khilji founded this dynasty. It is
greatest ruler was Alauddin Khilji. Under Ala-ud-din
Khilji, the Khiljis became known for having repeatedly
defended South Asia against the Mongel Envasions.
The Tughlaqs Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq is the founder of
this dynasty. Mohammadbin Tughlaq was the most
remarkable personality among the sultans of Delhi who
was known for his failed experiments.
The Sayyids Khizr Khan founded this dynasty and
ruled as a deputy of Timur’s son and successor,
Shah Rukh.
The Lodhis Bahlol Lodhi was the founder of this
dynasty. Sikandar Lodhi and Ibrahim Lodhi were two
famous ruler of this dynasty.
In 1526, the Delhi Sultanate was absorbed by the
emerging Mughal Empire.
The Mughals
Babur (1526-1530)
He was a descended of Timur on his father’s side and
Chengiz Khan on his mother’s side. His family belonged
to the Chaghtai section of the Turkish race and were
commonly known as Mughals. He originally ruled over
Ferghana (Afghanistan).
l Babur was invited to attack India by Daulat Khan Lodhi
(Subedar of Punjab), Alam Khan (uncle of Ibrahim
Lodhi) and Rana Sanga. He defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in
the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
l He then defeated Sangram Singh (Rana Sanga) of
Mewar in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527. This
weakened the Rajput confederacy and strengthened
Babur’s position. Babur took the title of ‘Ghazi’ after
that. He defeated another Rajput ruler, Medini Rai (of
Chanderi) in the Battle of Chanderi in 1528. Finally,
he defeated the Afghan chiefs (under Mahmud Lodhi
brother of Ibrahim Lodhi) in the Battle of Ghagra in
1529. He died in 1530.
l His memoir, the Tuzuk-i-Baburi in Turki language is a
classic of world literature. It shows his humane outlook
and sensitivity to the beauty of nature.
Humayun (1530-40 and 1555-56)
The throne inherited by Humayun was not a bed of
roses. Babur had practically got no time to consolidate
his position and authority. Before Babur could put the
539
whole country on a stable basis, he died. Humayun did a
blunder by dividing his empire among his three
brothers – Kamran, Hindal and Askari.
l Sher Shah Suri gradually gained power during his time.
Humayun was attacked by Sher Shah at Chausa
(Battle of Chausa) in 1539, but escaped. But in the
Battle of Kannauj (also called Battle of Bilgrama) in
1540, he was defeated by Sher Shah and had to flee. He
had to pass nearly 15 yr (1540-1555) in exile.
l Humayun had the chance to return in 1555. Sher Shah,
the victor of Kannauj, died in 1545. He was succeeded by
his son Islam Shah, who ruled upto 1553. He was
succeeded by Muhammad Adil Shah. He was very fond
of pleasures and left the affairs of his Government in the
hands of Hemu, his minister.
l His authority was challenged by Ibrahim Shah and
Sikandar Shah. There were a large number of bloody
battles among the various rivals. The net result of all
this was that the Suri Empire was broken up. Bairam
Khan, Humayun’s most faithful officer, helped
Humayun in this. Humayun died in 1556.
Akbar (1556-1605)
Jalaluddin Muhammad Akbar was the son of Humayun
and Hamida Banu Begam. He was born at Amarkot in
1542. Bairam Khan coronated him at Kalanaur when he
was 14 yr old.
l Bairam Khan represented him in the Second Battle of
Panipat in 1556 against Hemu Vikramaditya. Hemu,
the PM of Muhammad Shah Adil of Bengal, was defeated.
Hemu is considered the last Hindu king of Delhi.
l Between 1556 and 1560, Akbar ruled under Bairam
Khan’s regency. (Bairam Khan was assassinated at
Patan, Gujarat, on his way to Mecca by one of his old
Afghani enemies).
Important Aspects of Akbar’s Rule
l
Ralph Fitch (1585) was the first Englishman to visit Akbar’s
court.
l
Abolished jaziyah in 1564 and the tax on pilgrims. The use of
beef was also forbidden.
l
Regularly visited the shrine of Sheikh Muinuddin Chishti at
Ajmer.
l
Believed in Sulh-i-Kul or peace to all.
l
Built Ibadatkhana (Hall of prayers) at Fatehpur Sikri.
l
Formulated an order called Din-i-Ilahi or Tauhid-i-Ilahi in 1581.
Birbal, Abul Fazl and Faizi joined the order.
l
His Land Revenue System was known as Todar Mal Bandobast
or Zabti System.
l
Also introduced the Mansabdary System to organise the
nobility as well as the army. Mansabdar meant holder of a rank.
l Akbar conquered Malwa in 1561 defeating Baz
Bahadur. He was later made the Mansabdar to honour
his skill as a musician. Then, defeated Garh-Katanga
540
(ruled by Rani Durgawati) followed by Chittor and
Ranthambhore.
l Akbar followed a policy of reconciliation with the
Rajputs. Some of the Rajput princes entered into
matrimonial alliances with him. In 1562, he married the
eldest daughter of Raja Bharmal of Jaipur. In 1570, he
married princesses from Bikaner and Jaisalmer. Later in
1584, Prince Salim was married to the daughter of Raja
Bhagwan Das.
All these activities paved the way for friendship between
Rajputs and Mughals (except Mewar).
l Won Gujarat in 1572. It was in order to commemorate
his victory of Gujarat that Akbar got the Buland
Darwaza constructed at Fatehpur Sikri.
l Akbar defeated Mewar’s Rana Pratap Singh in the
Battle of Haldighati in 1576. Later, Raja Maan Singh
conquered Bihar, Bengal and Orissa for Akbar.
At his death in 1605, Akbar’s empire included Kashmir,
Sind, Kandhar and extended as far as the Godavary in
the Deccan.
Jahangir (1605-1627)
Akbar’s eldest son Salim assumed the title of
Nur-ud-din-Muhammad Jahangir and ascended the
throne. He mostly lived in Lahore which he adorned
with gardens and buildings. But soon, his eldest son
Khusro revolted, which was suppressed. The fifth Sikh
guru, Guru Arjun Dev, had helped Khusro. So, he was
executed after 5 days of torture.
l Jahangir’s greatest failure was the loss of Kandahar to
Persia in 1622.
l The most important event in Jahangir’s life was his
marriage to Mehr-un-Nisa, the widow of Sher Afghan, in
1611. The title of Nur Jahan was conferred on her. She
had great influence on Jahangir’s life.
l Jahangir had a chain of justice outside his palace in
Agra (called Zanzir-i-Adil). He also laid a number of
gardens, such as the Shalimar and Nishat gardens in
Kashmir.
Later Mughals/Fall of the Mughals
The empire lost power after Aurangzeb’s rule. His successors were weak and incapable rulers.
Some of the important name were Bahadur Shah → Jahandar Shah → Farrukh Siyar → Muhammad Shah → Ahmad Shah →
Alamgir II → Shah Alam II → Akbar II → Bahadur Shah II → Akbar II → Bahadur Shah II
Contemporary Provincial Kingdoms
Bahmani Kingdom
Hasan Gangu, who assumed the title of Abul Muzaffar Alauddin Bahman Shah with the approval of the nobility
(1347) founded Bahmani kingdom.
Study Package for NTSE
l Painting reached its zenith in India under Jahangir.
Special progress was made in portrait painting and
painting of animals. Use of ‘Halo’ or Divine Lights
started under Jahangir.
l Captain Hawkins (1608-11) and Sir Thomas Roe
(1615-1619) visited his court.
Shah Jahan (1627-1658)
Shah Jahan was an able general and administrator. His
Childhood name was Khuman. His policy of annexing
the Deccan was quite successful. He made his son,
Aurangzeb, the Viceroy of Deccan in 1636.
Last 8 years of Shahjahan’s life were very painful, as
there was a brutal war of succession among his four sons
– Dara, Shuja, Aurangzeb and Murad. Dara was his
favourite but Aurangzeb was the ablest. Ultimately,
Aurangzeb took control and he was made him prisoner
in the Agra Fort, being looked after by his daughter,
Jahan Ara, till his death in 1666.
Aurangzeb (1658-1707)
At the time of Shahjahan’s illness, Dara was in Delhi
and the other brothers were in different places – Shuja
in Bengal, Murad in Gujarat and Aurangzeb in Deccan.
Aurangzeb first defeated the Imperial army in the
Battle of Dharmatt and then defeated a force led by
Dara in the Battle of Samugarh. Thereafter, he entered
Agra and crowned himself with the title of ‘Alamgir’
(conqueror of the world).
l Under Aurangzeb, the Mughal Empire reached its
greatest extent. The Mughal conquests reached the
territorial climax during his reign, as Bijapur (1686) and
Golconda (1687) were annexed to the Mughal empire.
His reign can be broadly divided into two 25 yr periods:
first in the affairs of North India when the Maratha
power under Shivaji emerged and second marked by his
preoccupations about the affairs of Deccan.
Medieval India 541
Bahmani Kingdom
Kingdom Year Founder Dynasty
Berar 1484 Fataullah Imad Imad Shahi
Bijapur 1489 Yusuf Adil Khan Adil Shahi
Ahmadnagar 1490 Malik Ahmad Nizam Shahi
Golkonda 1512/1581 Quli Shah Qutab Shahi
Bidar 1526/1527 Amir Ali Barid Barid Shahi

Vijayanagar Empire
Vijayanagar Empire referred to as the kingdom of Bisnagar by the portuguese, was an empire based in South India,
in the Deccan, plateau region. It was established in 1336 by Harilara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangam
Dynasty.
Vijayanagar Dynasties
Dynasty Founder Period
Sangam Harihar and Bukka 1336-1485
Saluva Saluva Narasimha 1485-1505
Tuluv Vira Narasimha 1505-1570

Important Dynasties of Medieval India

Dynasty Period Founder Important Ruler
Later Chola 1070-1279 Koluthunga • Rajaraja Chola
Slave 1206-1290 Qutb-ud-din Aibak • IItutmish, Razia Sultan, Balban
Khilji 1290-1320 Jalal-ud-din-Khilji • Ala-ud-din Khilji Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
Tughlaq 1320-1414 Ghiyas-ud-din-Tughlaq • Muhammad-bin-Tughalq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Sayyid 1414-1450 Khizr Khan • Farid Khan
Lodi 1451-1526 Bahlol Lodi • Sikander Lodi, Ibrahim Lodi
Vijayanagar 1336-1565 Harihara and Bukka • Deva Raya-I, Deva Raya-II, Krishna Deva Raya
Bahmani 1347 Alauddin Hasan • Feroz Shah
Mughal 1526-1857 Babur • Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb
Sur 1540-1556 Sher Shah Suri • Salim Shah, Adil Shah

Sikhs l Guru Arjundev He completed the construction of

Sikhs were contemporary of Mughals.
l Guru Nanak He is the founder and first Guru of Sikhs.
He was born in Nankana Sahib Talwandi (Pak) Father –
Kulu Mehta, Mother – Trupta.
l Guru Angad He is second Sikh Guru. He was
contemporary of Humayun. He invented Gurumukhi
script.
l Guru Amardas He became Sikh Guru at the age of 72
following is the footsteps of his teacher. Sri Guru Angad
Dev Sahib.
l Guru Ramdas Akbar gave him land for establishment
of Amritsar.
Amritsar. He compelled Adi Granth. He was exacuted
on the order of Jahangir.
l Guru Hargobind He is called as saccha padshah. He
constructed Aakal Takht. He converted Sikhs into
fighter caste.
l Guru Har Rai He is the seventh of ten living Guru Ji of
the Sikhs who became Guru Ji on 8 March, 1644.
l Guru Harkrishan He is the eight of the eleven Sikh
Gurus. He became Guru Ji on 7 October, 1661.
l Guru Tegh Bahadur Is hanged on the order of
Aurangzeb.
l Guru Gobind Singh Last Sikh Guru, and founder of
Khalsa. After him, Banda Bahadur took the command of
Sikhs.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Prithviraj Chauhan belonged to the Rajput Dynasty of 14. Akbar defeated Rana Pratap in the battle of
(a) Chandellas (b) Gahadavalas Haldighati in the year
(c) Tomaras (d) Guhilots (a) 1570 (b) 1576
(c) 1588 (d) 1596
2. Who was the first and the last woman ruler of Delhi?
(a) Chand Bibi (b) Noor Jahan 15. Buland Darwaza is situated in
(c) Razia Sultan (d) Mumtaz Mahal (a) Delhi (b) Fatehpur Sikri
(c) Lucknow (d) Meerut
3. Which of the following generals of Alauddin Khilji
conquered Deccan a number of times? 16. The capital of the Mughal Empire was shifted from
(a) Ulugh Khan (b) Nusrat Khan Agra to Delhi by
(c) Malik Kafur (d) None of these (a) Jahangir (b) Aurangzeb
(c) Humayun (d) Shahjahan
4. Mughal Dynasty was to Bahadur Shah Zafar as
Lodhi Dynasty was to 17. The Chola empire reached its zenith under
(a) Bahlol Lodhi (b) Daulat Khan Lodhi (a) Parantaka I (b) Raj Raj
(c) Ibrahim Lodhi (d) Sikandar Lodhi (c) Rajendra Chola I (d) Rajendra Chola II

5. The Delhi sultanate virtually ended due to the 18. The titles of ‘Mummadi Chola’, ‘Cholamartanda’ and
invasion of ‘Raja Kesari Aromoli’ were assumed by which of the
(a) Chengiz Khan (b) Babur following Chola rulers?
(c) Nadir Shah (d) Timur (a) Rajendra I (b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajaraj I (d) Rajadhiraja
6. The city of Agra was founded in 1504 by
19. Which of the following is similar to the Taj Mahal in
(a) Rana Sanga (b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Firoz Tughlaq (d) Sikandar Lodhi
construction ?
(a) Akbar’s tomb (b) Jahangir’s tomb
7. Who amongst the following was the ruler of Chittor, (c) Humayun’s tomb (d) Bibi-ka-maqbara
when Alauddin Khilji attacked and conquered it in 20. The most famous musician at the court of Akbar was
AD 1303 ?
Tansen. His original name was
(a) Rana Sanga (b) Rana Kumbha
(a) Baz Bahadur (b) Makaranda Pande
(c) Rana Ratan Singh (d) Rana Hammir
(c) Lal Kalwant (d) Ramtanu Pande
8. The official language of the Delhi sultanate was 21. The mausoleum of Sher Shah is at
(a) Urdu (b) Arabic (a) Delhi (b) Sasaram
(c) Persian (d) Hindi (c) Agra (d) Lahore
9. Babur came to India originally from 22. Buland Darwaza, built by Akbar, is to commemorate
(a) Ferghana (b) Khiva
the victory of
(c) Khorasan (d) Seistan
(a) Orissa (b) Bengal
10. When Akbar was young, his guardian was (c) Delhi (d) Gujarat
(a) Hemu (b) Faizi 23. The tomb of Babur is at
(c) Abul Fazl (d) Bairam Khan (a) Lahore (b) Kabul
11. Sher Shah is well known for his administrative skill, (c) Sasaram (d) Sikandra
especially his 24. When did Vasco da Gama come to India?
(a) market control steps (b) land revenue system (a) 1492 (b) 1498 (c) 1398 (d) 1542
(c) mansabdari system (d) law and order
25. Sher Shah’s real name was
12. Sher Shah died while fighting in (a) Hemu (b) Faizi
(a) Chausa (b) Kalinga (c) Bahadur (d) Farid
(c) Kalinjar (d) None of these
26. Which Mughal emperor gave land for the construction
13. The coin rupia was first issued by of the Golden Temple at Amritsar?
(a) Sher Shah (b) Alauddin Khilji
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Akbar (d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
Medieval India 543
27. Sher Shah is credited for introducing for the first 34. Which of the following is wrongly matched with his
time the following measures except contemporary Mughal king?
(a) postal system (a) Rana Sanga — Babur
(b) spy system (b) Prithviraj Chauhan — Akbar
(c) currency system (c) Jujhar Singh — Shahjahan
(d) land revenue system based on scientific principles (d) Jaswant Singh — Aurangzeb

28. The ‘Jaziya’ was abolished by 35. Chand Bibi, who conceded Berar to Akbar, was the
(a) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (b) Babur ruler of
(c) Akbar (d) Sher Shah (a) Golconda (b) Bahmani
(c) Bijapur (d) Ahmednagar
29. Which of the following contemporary sources of the
Mughal period is especially useful for obtaining the 36. In the Mughal administration, military recruitment
information on the agrarian condition? was being looked after by
(a) Akbaranamah (b) Ain-i-Akbari (a) Diwan (b) Wazir (c) Bakshi (d) Kotwal
(c) Tariksh-i-Firishta (d) Tuzuk-i-Baburi
37. The king generally considered to be the greatest ruler
30. Who among the following Mughal rulers was of Kashmir in the 15th century was
ignorant of the art of reading and writing? (a) Yusuf Shah (b) Zain-ul-Abidin
(a) Babur (b) Humayun (c) Haider Shah (d) Shah Mirza
(c) Akbar (d) Jahangir
38. Who among the following was regarded as ‘Zinda pir’?
31. Revenue system during Akbar’s reign was in the (a) Babur (b) Akbar
hands of (c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb
(a) Bairam Khan (b) Man Singh
(c) Birbal (d) Todar Mal
39. Bernier visited India during the reign of
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
32. The East India Company was founded in London (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
during the reign of
40. The foreign traveller, who visited and described
(a) Jahangir (b) Akbar
Vijayanagar soon after its fall in the battle of
(c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
Talikota, was
33. Which of the following Rajput Dynasties did not (a) Abdur Razzak
surrender to Akbar? (b) Ceasar Frederick
(a) Parmar (b) Pratihara (c) Nicolo Conti
(c) Rathor (d) Sisodiya (d) Nuniz

High Skill Questions

1. The dynasty of Harihara and Bukka, the founders of 5. Which of the following pairs is not matching correct?
the Vijayanagar Empire is known as Sangam (a) Abolition of Jaziya — AD 1564
Dynasty, because (b) Abolition of the practice of enslavement of prisoners of
(a) Vijayanagar was situated on the confluence of two rivers war—AD 1562
(b) a mixture of races resided in Vijayanagar (c) Abolition of Sati—AD 1560
(c) the name of their father was Sangam (d) Abolition of pilgrim tax—AD 1563
(d) Sangam literature was produced during their rule
6. Tho noble who introduced important reforms in the
2. The battle of Tarain was fought between landrevenue administration of Mughals in deccan
(a) Prithviraj and Ghori (b) Jaichand and Ghori during the reign of Shahjahan was
(c) Prithviraj and Jaichand (d) Babur and Rana Sanga (a) Murshid Quli Khan (b) Asaf Khan
(c) Mahabat Khan (d) Khan-i-Zama
3. Sher Shah defeated Humayun in battle of
(a) Panipat (b) Chausa 7. When was India invaded by Nadir Shah?
(c) Agra (d) Karnal (a) AD 1779 (b) AD 1739
(c) AD 1749 (d) AD 1735
4. Mahzar of 1579 was drafted by
(a) Sheikh Mubarak 8. Which of the following was the court language during
(b) Sheikh Abdul Nabi the reign of Akbar?
(c) Abul Fazl (a) Hindi (b) Urdu
(d) Faizi (c) Persian (d) Arabic
544 Study Package for NTSE

9. Akbar was born at 24. Who translated Ramayana into Persian?

(a) Delhi (b) Lahore (a) Amir Khusrau (b) Malik Muhammad Jaisi
(c) Agra (d) Amarkot (c) Abdul Qadir Badayuni (d) Mulla Sheereen

10. With which Mughal general did Shivaji sign the 25. Who among the following was not involved in the
Treaty of Purandhar? tripartite struggle for the possession of the imperial
(a) Jaswant Singh (b) Jai Singh city of Kannauj?
(c) Shaista Khan (d) Diler Khan (a) The Cholas (b) The Rashtrakutas
(c) The Palas (d) The Gurjara Pratiharas
11. Which of the following commodities constituted the
main item of exports in Mughal India? 26. City of Vijayanagar was located on the river
(a) Opium and indigo (b) Cotton and silk fabrics (a) Krishna (b) Cauveri
(c) Bullion and horses (d) Sugar and salt petre (c) Tungabhadra (d) Pennar

12. Tax free villages granted to the learned brahmins in 27. Who among the following Sultans crushed
ancient India were known as Turkan-i-Chihalgani?
(a) Agrahara (b) Nagastora (a) Iltutmish (b) Balban
(c) Agrasseni (d) Bhukti (c) Alauddin Khalji (d) Mohammad Tughlaq

13. Who among the following rulers was known by the 28. In which of the following places Ibadatkhana was
title of ‘Andhra Bhoja’? constructed by Akbar?
(a) Devaraya II (b) Krishnadeva Raya (a) Agra (b) Sikandar
(c) Harihara (d) Vidyaranay (c) Delhi (d) Fatehpur Sikri

14. Who among the following foreign travellers visited 29. Arrange the following rulers of Delhi Sultanate in
India during AD 7th century? chronological order of their reign and choose the correct
(a) Alberni (b) Fa-Hien Answer
(c) Hieun-Tsang (d) Suleman 1. Qutubuddin Aibak 2. Balban
15. Ibn Batuta was traveller from 3. Illutmish 4. Nasiruddin
(a) Africa (b) Arab (c) Iran (d) Morocco (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
16. Jaipal belonged to
(a) the Chandela Dynasty (b) the Hindushahi Dynasty 30. The Mahzar of 1579, conferred on Akbar
(c) the Pratihara Dynasty (d) the Paramara Dynasty (a) infallibility degree
(b) supremacy over religion
17. Who was founder of Vijayanagar Empire? (c) right to choose one of the conflicting juristic opinions
(a) Krishnadev Rai (b) Harihar and Bukka (d) divine right of kingship
(c) Dev Rai II (d) Sadashiv
31. Who among the following Mughal emperors has the
18. Who of the Sultans transferred his capital to Delhi? largest number of Hindu nobles?
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Balban (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Gayasuddin Tughlaq (d) Iltutmish (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
19. Which language was used by the ruler Krishnadeva 32. The Sikh Guru who founded the city Taran Taran
Rai in his work ‘Amuktamalyada’? (a) Guru Ramdas (b) Guru Arjun
(a) Sanskrit (b) Tamil (c) Guru Gobind Singh (d) Guru Tegh Bahadur
(c) Telugu (d) Kannada
33. The famous Kohinoor diamond presented to
20. Timur invaded India and sacked Delhi during the Shahjahan by
reign of (a) Asad Khan (b) Mir Jumla
(a) Iltutmish (b) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq (c) Muhammad Amin (d) Sadulla Khan
(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud (d) Bahlol Lodhi
34. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought in the reign of
21. The city of Agra was founded by (a) Bajirao I (b) Bajirao II
(a) Sikandar Lodhi (b) Khizr Khan (c) Balaji Bajirao (d) Balaji Vishwanath
(c) Bahlol Lodhi (d) Firoz Tughlaq
35. The transformation of the Sikhs into a military,
22. ‘Hunuz Delhi Durasth’ (Delhi is yet far off ). Who has fighting community was begun by
said this? (a) Guru Hargovind (b) Guru Gobind Singh
(a) Ghazi Malik (b) Shaikh Salim Chisti (c) Guru Tegh Bahadur (d) Guru Arjun Dev
(c) Nizamuddin Aulia (d) Amir Khusrau
36. Who was the first emperor to permit the East India
23. Assignment of ‘Iqta’ in lieu of salary was stopped by Company to start trade in India?
(a) Iltutmish (b) Jalaluddin Khilji (a) Akbar (b) Jahangir
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Firoz Tughlaq (c) Shahjahan (d) Farrukh Siyar
Medieval India 545
37. The practice of ‘jaharokha darshan’ to the public was 39. Match the following
stopped by
Rulers Place of Tomb
(a) Jahangir
(b) Shahjahan A. Akbar 1. Sikandra
(c) Aurangzeb B. Shahjahan 2. Lahore
(d) None of the above C. Jahangir 3. Sasram
38. In which order did the following dynasties rule Delhi? D. Sher Shah 4. Agra

I. Salve II. Khilji Codes

III. Lodi IV. Saiyyad A B C D A B C D
V. Tughlaq (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 2 3 4
(a) I, II, V, IV, III
(b) I, II, III, IV, V 40. Who wrote ‘Humayun-nama’?
(c) II, III, IV, V, I (a) Gulbadan Begum (b) Abul Fazi
(d) IV, V, III, II, I (c) Nur Jahan (d) Todar Mal

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
 Chapter
3
Events and Process
The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
The idea of nationalism emerged as a force during the
nineteenth century, which brought about a tremendous
change in the political scenario of Europe. As a result,
nation-state emerged in place of the multi-national
dynastic empires of Europe.
l A nation is culmination of a long past of endeavours,
sacrifice and devotion. In a nation-state, not only its
rulers, but the majority of its citizens shared a common
identity which was gained by long struggle.
l In the mid-eighteenth century, Europe, there were no
‘nation-state’ as we know them today. Europe were
divided into kingdoms, Duchies and Cantons, whose
rulers had their autonomous territories.
l After the industrialisation in the second half of the 18th
century, new social classes came into being, viz., a
working class population and middle classes made of
industrialists, businessman and professionals.
l In early 19th century, ideas of national unity emerged.
The idea of nationalism is closely related with the
ideology of liberalism. The concept of liberalism emerged
after the French Revolution. ‘Liberalism’ stood for
freedom for the individual and equality of all before
the law.
The Age of Revolutions (1830-1848)
Liberalism and nationalism came to be increasingly
associated with revolution in many regions of Europe
like, Italian and German states, the provinces of the
Ottoman Empire, Ireland and Poland.
l The first upheaval took place in France in July, 1830.
l The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels,
which led to Belgium breaking away from the United
Kingdom of the Netherlands.
l In 1848, food shortage and wide spread unemployment
brought the population of Paris out on the road. Lonis
Philippe was forced to flee and the National Assembly
proclaimed France, a republic based on universal male
suffrage.
The Making of Germany
In Germany, nationalist feelings were wide spread
among middle class, who in 1848 tried to unite the
different regions of the German confederation into a
nation-state governed by elected Parliament. The
liberal initiative to nation-building was repressed by
the combined forces of the monarchy and the military,
supported by the large land owners of Prussia.
l The first step towards unification of Germany was
unconsciously taken by Prussia, when it established the
Zolverian or custom union of all German states except
Austria and Hanover.
l Prussia’s Chief Minister Otto Von Bismarck was the
architect of this process with the help of Prussian army
and bureaucracy.
l William I, the Prussian emperor, though deeply
conservative, believed in the national mission of Prussia
to unify Germany.
l Bismarck set the diplomatic stage for challenging
Austria as well as trying out his new enemy Denmark
over the question of the control of two Duchies of
Schleswig and Holstein. In 1864, Business fought a war
against Denmark and took control of Schleswig.
l Bismarck followed aggressive foreign policy, the ‘Blood
and Iron’ policy and relatively subdued domestic one,
playing with the nationalistic sentiments of the people of
Germany.
l Bismarck made Russia ‘neutral’ by helping her at the
time of polish insurrection. He also secured the
neutrality to France and Italy.
Events and Process
l In 1870, Prussia defeated France and occupied Alsace
and Lorraine.
l On 18 January, 1871 an assembly comprising the
princes of the German states, representatives of the
army, important Prussian ministers including the Chief
Minister Bismarck gathered in the Hall of Mirrors at
Versailles to proclaim the new German Empire headed
by Kaiser William I of Prussia.
The Unification of Italy
The unification of Italy owed much to the diplomacy of
Cavour, the Prime Minister of Piedmont from 1852 to
1860. The radicals, mostly republicans emphasised
more on the contribution of Mazzini and Garibaldi.
l The other factors of the unification of Italy are the
concept of nationalism, role of Napoleon’s war,
Revolutions of 1820, 1830 and 1848.
l Italy was politically divided into 11 states, though
economic independence was always present.
l The states of Tuscany, Modena, Parma and the Papal
joined hands with Sardinia
l By March, 1860 the entire central Italian states were
unanimously united with Piedmont.
l Rome became a part of Sardinia and in this way the final
unification of Italy, was also achieved in 1871.
Contribution of Mazzini and
Garibaldi
Mazzini
He was a dedicated republicanist. He is known for his
noble efforts to achieve the unification of Italy. He is
regarded as the spiritual force behind the unification
of Italy. He had formed a secret society called Young
Italy. On several occasions, he tried to organise the
movement in favour of unification. He inspired the
youths of not only Italy, but of the whole Europe to fight
for their motherland. But, he was basically an idealist
and was not ready to compromise with the reality. His
ideas had filled the minds of the people with such
sentiments that Cavour was able to achieve the
unification of Italy without much difficulty.
Garibaldi
He is perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom
fighters, who is knowns as ‘Physical Force’ or the ‘Sword
of Italy’. He met Mazzini in 1833 and joined the Young
Italy Movement for the unification of Italy. The uprising
in Piedmont (1834) was suppressed and Garibaldi had
to flee to South America.
547
In 1854, he supported Victor Emmanuel II in his efforts
to unify the Italian states. In 1860, his ‘Red Short’
troops defeated Austria to secure the independence of
Naples and Sicily, which later on joined Sardinia. In
1867, Garibaldi led an army of volunteers to Rome to
fight the last obstacle to the unification of Italy. In 1870,
during the war with Prussia, France withdrew its troops
from Rome and the Papal states were finally joined to
Italy. In this way, Garibaldi had a great contribution to
achieve the unification of Italy.
Colonialism and Imperialism
Colonialism as a system gives emphasis over the fact
that a colony exists for the benefit of the metropolitan
state. From fifteenth century onwards, the way for
colonisation was started with the geographical
discovery and commercial revolution.
l The colonialism continued upto the end of the 18th
century.
l In the beginning of the 19th century, the colonies of
Spain in Latin America got independence. In 1822,
Brazil became free from Portugal.
l America War of Independence gave a serious jolt to
colonialism because it proved that European powers
could not rely on the colony for their benefit for an
unlimited period.
l Some thinkers like Adam Smith, James Mill started to
criticise colonialism and mercantilism.
From 1870s onwards colonialism reappeared in altered from and it
came to be known as neo-colonialism and imperialism.
l In order to compensate the loss of the home market, the
capitalists are looking for the market abroad. This
phenomena explained imperialist expansion by
European powers.
l Colonialism was associated with commercial capitalism
but neo-colonialism and imperialism was associated
with industrial and financial capitalism.
The French Revolution
French Revolution 14 July, 1789, proved a landmark in
the world history. Thinker like Karl Marx tried to prove
that it was the economic decline and stagnation which
resulted into a revolution in France. Liberal thinkers
regarded it as a legitimate political protests against the
tyrannies.
Different Sections in French Society
l French society in the 18th century was divided into
privileged and non-privileged sections.
l There were three estates in the society, of which only the
members of the third estate paid taxes.
548
l The first and the second estate belonged to the
privileged section. The first estate consisted of the clergy
and the second estate comprised of the nobility. They
enjoyed certain privileges by birth. The most important
of these was exemption from paying taxes to the state.
l All members of the third estate had to pay taxes to the
state. These include a direct tax, called taille and
number of indirect taxes.
Emergence of Middle Class
The third estate consisted of the lower class and the
middle class. The middle class consisted of merchants,
capitalists, intellectuals and different professional
groups like, lawyers or administrative officials.
l The 18th century witnessed the emergence of this social
groups ‘middle class’.
l All of these were educated and believed that no group in
society should be privileged by birth.
l A person’s social position must depend on his merit.
These ideas of freedom and equal laws and opportunities
for all were put forward by thinkers like John Locke and
Jean Jacques Rousseau.
The Role of Philosophers
In French Revolution, the philosophers are supposed to
have played a significant role. They made an attack over
ancient regime. Philosopher like Voltaire, who was a
great exponent of individual freedom made severe
attack on autocratic nature of French monarchy,
stupidity of nobility and superstition of Church.
l In his Two Treatises of Government Locke refuted
the doctrine of the divine and absolute right of the
monarch.
l Rousseau proposed a form of government based on a
social contract between people and their
representatives.
l In The Spirit of Law, Montesquieu tried to establish
that in order to ensure individual freedom, the
separation of power among executive, legislative body
and the judiciary is essential. The ideas of these
philosophers spread among people through books and
newspapers.
Economic Crisis
The financial system of France reached up to the stage
of total collapse. The population of France rose from
about 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789.
Most workers were given a fixed wage by their owner.
But, their wage did not keep pace with rising prices of
the commodities. So, the gap between the poor and the
rich widened. To overcome the economic crisis, Monarch
Louis XVI had to increase taxes.
Study Package for NTSE
The Revolution Began
l On 5 May, 1789, Louis XVI called together an assembly
of the Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes.
l Voting was conducted in the past, according to the
principle that each state had one vote. But now,
members of the third estate demanded that voting now
be conducted by the assembly as a whole, where
each/member would have one vote. But, the King
rejected this proposal and the members of the third
estate boycotted the session.
l On 17 June, 1789, the third estate declared itself to be
National Assembly of France. The members of National
Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting a
Constitution.
l On July 14, the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed
the Bastile. Agitation spread from village to village.
l Peasants looted hoarded grain and burnt down
documents containing records of manorial dues. A large
number of nobles fled from their homes and migrated to
neighbouring countries.
France became a Constitutional Monarchy
l Monarch Louis XVI finally accepted that his powers
would from now on be checked by a Constitution.
l On 4 August, 1789, the assembly passed a decree
abolishing the feudal system of obligations and taxes.
l The clergy were forced to give up their privileges.
‘Tithes’ (tax from the peasants) were abolished and
lands owned by the church were confiscated.
l According to the Constitution of the National Assembly,
the power insteading of being concentrated in the hands
of one person were now separated and divided among
the legislature, executive and judiciary.
l The Constitution began with a declaration of the rights
of man and citizen. It was the duty of the state to protect
each citizen’s natural rights.
France Abolished Monarchy and became a
Republic
l Although, Louis XVI had accepted the Constitution, he
entered into secret negotiations with the King of
Prussia. France continued to threaten the old order in
Europe. Neighbouring countries planned to send troops.
Before this could happen, the National Assembly
declared war against Prussia and Austria.
l The National Assembly voted to imprison the royal
family. Elections were held.
l The newly elected assembly was called the Convention.
On 21 September, 1792 it abolished the monarchy and
declared France, a Republic.
l Louis XVI was sentenced to death by a court on the
charge of treason.
Events and Process
The Reign of Terror
l The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign
of Terror.
l Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and
punishment. All those ‘enemies’ of the republic were
arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary
tribunal.
l If the court found the concerned person guilty, he was
guillotined.
l Finally, Robespierre, himself was convicted by the court
and was guillotined.
Socialism and Russian Revolution
The ideas of Socialism
l By the mid-nineteenth century, socialist ideas spread
through Europe.
l Socialists were against private property and claimed
that it was the root of all social ills.
l The propertied class only concerned with their personal
gain and not with the welfare of those, who made the
property productive.
l Socialists suggested that instead of individual control,
property should be controlled collectively. Different
socialists had different visions regarding the future of
the society.
l Some thinkers, like Robert Owen believed in the idea of
cooperatives. He sought to build a cooperative
community called New Harmony in Indiana.
l Other socialists claimed that cooperatives could not be
built on a wide scale, only through individual initiative.
They demanded that Government should encourage
cooperatives and replace capitalist enterprises.
l These cooperatives were to be associations of people,
who produced goods together and divided the profits
according to the work done by each members.
The Rule of Tsar Nicholas II
l Tsar Nicholas II was an autocratic ruler. He believed in
the Divine Right of the King. So, there was no check on
his powers and rights.
l The privileged classes had got special rights while the
general public had no say in the government.
l Tsar Nicholas II ruled Russia and its empire.
l Russian empire included Finland, Latvia, Lithunia,
Estonia, parts of Poland, Ukraine, Belarus.
l It stretched also to the pacific and comprised of central
Asian states, Georgia Armenia and Azerbaijan.
l Tsar Nicholas II was an inefficient and weak ruler.
People became hostile to the Tsar and his corrupt
bureaucracy.
549
l His imperialist policy resulted into the vast expenses on
army, which thrusted on the common people. This made
the people against the Tsar and his inefficient
government.
l At his time, the main religions were Russian Orthodox
Christianity, Catholicism, Protesantism, Islam and
Buddhism.
The Views of Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels
Karl Marx wrote his principle in his famous book ‘Das Capital’. Marx said
that industrial society was ‘capitalist’. He was deadly against capitalism and
private property. Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories and the
profit of capitalists was produced by workers. The conditions of workers
could not improve as long as this profit was accumulated by the capitalists.
According to Marx, the whole society should have common control over
the means of production. All the units of production should be
nationalised.
Marx and Engels suggested that workers had to overthrow capitalism and
the rule of private property. This could be possible only through revolution
and by establishing the ‘Dictatorship of the Proletariat’. Marx believed that
to free themselves from the capitalist exploitation, workers had to
construct a radically socialist society, where all property was socially
controlled. This would be a Communist society.
l A Communist society was the natural society of the future, according
to Karl Marx.
l
The state will be withered away in Communist society.
l
The teachings of Karl Marx made a great contribution to the rise of
revolution in Russia.
Bloody Sunday and its Impact
In 1905, on one Sunday, the workers of Russia, led by
Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace of Tsar in
order to present a petition. But they were attacked by
police and the Cossacks. They were fired at
indiscriminately resulting in the death of more than 100
workers and about 300 wounded. This incident started a
series of events that became known as the 1905
revolution. The incident is known as ‘Blood Sunday’ in
Russian history.
The Revolution of 1905
There was the growing discontentment against the
existing system and the government in Russia. In 1904,
a war broke out between Russia and Japan. When
Russia lost this war with Japan in 1905, the popular
discontentment reached up to a boiling point.
After the incident of ‘Bloody Sunday’, the revolution
started throughout Russia. In this revolution, the
peasants took the larger participation. Even some
sections of the army and navy revolted. Initially,
government came under a pressure and introduced a
550
representative organisation Duma. But when forces of
revolution subsided, government once again suppressed
the Duma. The Revolution of 1905 proved a dress
rehearsal of the Revolution of 1917.
The First World War and the Russian
Empire
l In 1914, the First World War started between two
European alliances- Germany, Austria and Turkey (the
central powers) and France, Britain and Russia (later
Italy and Romania).
l Each country had a global empire. So, the war was
fought outside Europe as well as in Europe.
l Initially, the war was popular in Russia and the people
supported Tsar Nicholas II.
l Tsar Nicholas II decided to take the command of
Russian army into his own hand. So, he left his court and
went to the battle field.
l The activities of Tsarina Alexandra and her advisor
‘Rasputin’ contributed to the declining prestige of the
monarchy. Russia gained some success in the beginning
of the war, but Russia lost badly in Germany and
Austria between 1914 to 1916.
l It became difficult for the Russians to fight due to the
shortage of war material and food stuffs.
l The untrained farmers were sent to the battle field in large
numbers. There were over 7 million causalities by 1917.
l As they retreated, the Russian army destroyed crops
and building to prevent the enemy from being able to
live off the land.
l It led to over 3 million refugees in Russia. By 1916,
railway lines began to break down.
l Small workshops, producing essentials were shut down
due to shortage of labour.
February Revolution in 1917
l In February, 1917, there was acute shortage of food and
other commodities in Russia. Riots at bread shops were
common.
l There was a severe famine in the country. The prices
shot up.
l The workers of fifty factories went on strike.
l In many factories, women led the way to strikes on
23 February, 1917. This came to be called the
International Women’s Day.
l Lawlessness prevailed everywhere. Workers
demonstrated in the streets raising slogans about bread,
wages and democracy.
l On 27 February, 1917 the Police headquarters were
ransacked.
l The government tried to control the situation and called
out the cavalry, but the cavalry refused to fire on the
demonstrators.
Study Package for NTSE
l Soldiers and striking workers had gathered to form a
‘Soviet’ or ‘Council’ in the same building, where Duma
met. It was known as Petrograd Soviet.
l Nicholas II abdicated the throne on 15 March, 1917.
Soviet leaders and Duma leaders formed a Provisional
Government to run the country.
A Provisional Government was setup under the
l
leadership of Prime Minister Kerensky.
The Revolution of October, 1917
l The Bolshevik leader, Vladimir Lenin returned from his
exile to Russia in April, 1917.
l Lenin and the Bolsheviks had opposed the war, since
1914. He felt that it was time for Soviets to take over
power.
l Lenin gave ‘April Theses’, which suggested three
demands-the war be brought to a close, land be
transferred to the peasants and the banks be
nationalised.
l Lenin argued that the Bolshevik Party rename itself the
Communist Party to indicate its new radical aims.
l Trade unions grew in number. Soldiers’ committees
were formed in the army.
l The power of Provisional Government reduced and the
Bolshevik influence grew.
l Popular demonstrations staged by the Bolsheviks in
July, 1917 were sternly repressed.
l Lenin persuaded the Petrograd Soviet and the
Bolshevik Party to agree to a socialist seizure of power
on 16 October, 1917.
l Soviet appointed a Military Revolutionary Committee
under the leadership of Leon Trotskii to organise the
seizure.
l The uprising began on 24 October, 1917. Prime Minister
Kerensky had left the city to summon troops.
Important Changes After October
Revolution
l The Bolsheviks Party was renamed the Russian
Communist Party (Bolshevik).
l The Bolsheviks entered into a treaty with Germany at
Brest Litovsk and ended the war with Germany.
l The Bolsheviks became the only party to participate in
the elections to the all Russian Congress of Soviets.
l The secret police punished those, who criticised the
Bolsheviks.
l The Bolsheviks setup a government on the basis of the
principles of Karl Marx.
l All private property was confiscated.
l Land was given to the peasants. All loans were remitted.
l All the factories were nationalised and their
management was handed over to the workers.
l The property of the church was confiscated.
Events and Process
l All persons were required to render labour.
l The Bolsheviks created Soviet Union (USSR) from the
Russian empire in December, 1922.
Bolsheviks
Bolsheviks were the majority group of the workers of
Russia. Under the leadership of Vladimir Lenin, they
believed in the revolutionary methods for bringing
about changes in the society and the state.
After October Revolution, Russia became the one-party
state i.e, the Bolshevik Party, which was renamed as
the Russian Communist Party (Bolshevik). The
Bolsheviks were able to bring about the successful
revolution in Russia in 1917 and they changed the
whole structure of Russia and the Russian society.
Mensheviks
Mensheviks were the minority group of the workers of
Russia. They believed in parliamentary methods and
participation in elections. They thought that the party
should be open to all. They favoured parties as were
existing in France and Germany, which took part in
elections to the legislature of their countries.
Stalin and Collectivisation
Collectivism is a principle of living and working
together as a group, diametrically opposed to
individualism. In Russia, this idea was accepted in the
period of the early planned economy.
l Russia were facing an acute problem of grain supplies
during 1927-28.
l Peasants refused to sell their grain to government
buyers at the fixed rates.
l Stalin became the leader of the Soviet Communist
Party, after the death of Lenin in January, 1924.
l Stalin believed that rich peasants and traders in the
countryside were holding stocks in the hope of higher
prices. It created acute problem of grain supplies.
l Stalin introduced firm emergency measure.
Stalin introduced the ‘collectivisation’ of Soviet agriculture, which
brought the great majority of peasants into collective and state
firm.
l This policy of Stalin met with fierce resistance in the
countryside and is carried out with ruthless
determination and at terrible human and material cost.
l In 1928, party members toured the grain producing
areas, supervising enforced grain collections and raiding
‘Kulaks’ the name for well to do peasants.
l From 1929, the Communist Party forced all peasants to
cultivate in collective firms (Kolkhoz). The bulk of lands
551
and implements were transferred to the ownership of
collective firms.
l Peasants worked on the land and the profit of the
collective firm was shared among them.
l But, some enraged peasants resisted the authorities and
destroyed their livestock. Between 1929 to 1931, the
number of cattle fell by one-third.
l Those who opposed collectivisation were severely
punished. Many were deported and exiled.
l Stalin allowed some independent cultivation, but
treated these cultivators unsympathetically.
l Production did not increase immediately, inspite of
accepting the policy of collectivisation.
l The bad harvests of 1930-1933 led to one of the most
devastating famine in Soviet Russia when over 4 million
people died.
Influence of Russian Revolution in India
l By the mid-1920s, the Communist Party was formed in
India.
l Important Indian politicians and intellectuals took an
interest in the Soviet experiment and visited Russia.
l Many received education in the USSR’s Communist
University.
l Jawaharlal Nehru, Rabindranath Tagore visited Russia
and wrote about Soviet Socialism.
l There was much that was written in Hindi, Bengali,
Marathi, Malayalam, Tamil and Telegu about
communist ideology.
Nazism and the Rise of Hitler
Rise of Nazism
l The collapse of the Weimar Republic and the consequent
rise of Nazis was a complex historical phenomena into
which, some separate and many inter-related stand
were interwoven.
l Nazism was not one or two isolated acts. It was a system,
a structure of ideas about the world and politics.
l Some of the main factors behind the rise of Nazism were
viz. the shock of the great depression, the fear from
Bolsheviks, the dynamism of Hitler, the failure of
political parties to tackle Germany’s problem, the
humiliating Peace Treaty of Versailles etc.
l Germany was forced to sign the Peace Treaty of
Versailles after its defeat in the First World War.
Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its
population, 13% of its territories, 75% of its iron and 26%
of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
l The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its
power.
l The War Guilt Clause held Germany responsible for the
war and damages that the Allied Powers suffered. Thus,
Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting to
6 million.
552
The Great Economic Depression
l After the First World War, several countries of Europe
were hit by economic depressions. Many countries had
already suffered a lot due to the war.
l Demand of goods fell sharply after the war. Thus
farmers, traders, industrialists were hit due to steep fall
in demand. It rendered workers jobless. Even America
could not escape from this crisis. German investments
and industrial recovery were totally dependent on
short-term loans, largely from the USA.
l The wall street exchange (stock exchange of USA)
crashed in 1929 and the support from it, was withdrawn.
Fearing a fall in prices, people sold 13 million shares in
one day, which triggered off the great economic
depression.
l Over the next three years i.e., between 1929 to 1932, the
national income of USA fell by half. Agriculture was
affected factories shut down, exports fell, speculators
withdrew their money from the market. This recession
in the US economy were felt worldwise.
The Condition of Germany in the Year
1929-1932
The Economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in
German people. The middle classes, especially salaried
employees and pensioners suffered a lot, as the currency
lost its value. Small businessman, self employed and
retailers suffered as their business got ruined.
They were filled with the fear of proletarianisation, an
anxiety to become impoverished to the level of working
classes. Only the condition of organised workers were
slightly better, but unemployment began to lessen their
bargaining power.
The farmers were affected by the sharp fall in agricultural
prices. The economic crisis created large scale of
unemployment. There were 4400000 out of work at the
end of 1931, 5 million in September, 1932 and 6 million in
the winter of 1932-33. In 1932, the Nazis polled
13.7 million votes and obtained 230 seats, which was a
clear indication of their popularity. From then on Hitler’s
final assumption of power as Chancellor on 30 January,
1933 was the logical extension in the course of events.
The Rise of Hitler
l After the First World War, Germany was forced to sign a
humiliating Peace Treaty of Versailles. The German
defeat horrified Hitler and the Versailles Treaty made
him furious.
l In 1919, Hitler joined the German Worker’s Party and
renamed it the Nationalist Socialist German Worker’s
Party. This party came to be known as the Nazi Party.
l During the Great Depression, Nazism became a mass
movement.
Study Package for NTSE
l In 1932, Reichstag election, Nazi Party got 37% votes
and became the largest party.
l Hitler was a good orator. His passionate lectures about
motherland and promises moved people.
l Hitler promised to build a strong nation, undo the
injustice of the Versailles Treaty, restore the dignity of
the German people, make opportunity for the
unemployed people.
l Nazi propaganda projected Hitler as a saviour of
German people.
l On 30 January, 1933, Hitler became Chancellor, the
highest authority in the Cabinet of ministers.
l The Fire Decree of 28, February 28, 1933 indefinitely
suspended freedom of speech, press and assembly that
had been guaranteed by the Weimar Constitution.
l On 3 March, 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed.
This act established the dictatorship of Hitler.
l Except Nazi Party and its affiliates, all political parties
and trade unions were banned.
l The state established complete control over the
economy, media, army and judiciary.
Nature of Nazi Rule in Germany
Hitler’s regime is considered as the most barbaric
regime in world history. Hitler believed in the racial
purity and supremacy of the Aryan race of the Germans.
He wanted only a German society of ‘Pure and Healthy
Nordic Aryans’.
They were considered as ‘desirable’, other communities
were classified as ‘undesirable’. Jews, Gypsies and
Blacks living in Germany were considered as racial
inferior and were widely persecuted. A large number of
these people were killed in gas chambers by the use of
poisonous gas.
Hitler aimed at increasing the German empire and
acquiring all the colonies. Germany invaded Poland in
September, 1939 and it led a war with France and
England. Hitler attacked Soviet Russia in June, 1941.
But the Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and
humiliating defeat on Germany.
A large part of the urban population of the occupied
Europe were killed by the Nazis. Concentration camps
were setup by the Nazis in Poland, Austria, Holland,
France, Czechoslovakia etc., for mass killing.
Role of Youth in Nazi Germany
l Hitler believed that a strong Nazi society could be
established only by teaching children Nazi ideology.
l All schools in Germany were ‘cleansed’ and ‘purified’,
teachers who were Jews, ‘politically unreliable’ were
dismissed. Children were also segregated. ‘Undesirable
children’ - Jews, the physically handicapped, Gypsies
were thrown out of the schools.
Events and Process
l School textbooks were rewritten. Racial science was
introduced to justify Nazi ideas of race.
l Children were taught to be loyal, submissive, hate Jews
and worship Hitler.
l Even sports was introduced to nurture a spirit of
violence and aggression among children. Hitler thought
that boxing could make children iron hearted, strong
and masculine.
l Ten years old children had to enter Jungvolk. At 14, all
boys had to join the Nazi Youth organisation, ‘Hitler
Youth’. After a period of rigorous ideological and
physical training, they joined the labour service, at the
age of 18. Then, they had to serve in the armed forces
and enter one of the Nazi organisation.
l The Youth League of the Nazi was renamed ‘Hitler
Youth’. All other youth organisations were banned.
The Foreign Policy of Hitler
l The foreign policy of Hitler can be divided in three
stages.
l In the first stage (1933-36), the objective of the foreign
policy of Hitler was to break or contravene the
provisions of the Treaty of Versailles. He also tried to
convince the allied powers that he was not having any
bad intentions. In 1934, he concluded a no aggression
pact with Poland and in 1935, he became ready to limit
German Navy in relation to Britain.
l In the second stage (1936-38), the first target of
Germany was Austria. In 1934, a Nazi Party was formed
in Austria and in 1938 with the support from Nazi Party
of Austria.
l In 1939, the foreign policy of Hitler reached upto its
third stage. In September, 1939, Germany invaded
Poland and this started a war with France and England.
In September, 1940, a Tripartite Pact was signed
between Germany, Italy and Japan.
l Hitler attacked Soviet Union in June, 1941. It was a
historic blunder of Hitler. The Soviet Red Army defeated
Germany at Stalingrad. In the beginning, US remained
neutral in the Second World War.
l When Japan extended its support to Hitler and bombed
the US base at Pearl Harbour, the US entered the
Second World War.
l The Second World War ended in May, 1945 with Hitler’s
defeat and the US dropping of the atom bomb on
Hiroshima in Japan.
Role of Women in Nazi Society
l In Nazi Germany, young people, even children were
repeatedly told that women were radically different
from men. According to the Nazi ideology, the fight for
equal rights for men and women that had become a part
of democratic struggles was quite wrong and it would
destroy the society.
553
l While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and
hard-working and girls were told to become good
mothers and bring up pure-blooded Aryan children.
l Women had to maintain the purity of the race, look after
home and teach their children Nazi ideology.
l Hitler said that “In my state the mother is the most
important citizen”.
l Those mothers, who produced racially desirable
children were awarded, given favoured treatment in
hospitals, concessions in shops, theatres and even in
railways.
l Honours were given to encourage women to produce
many children. A bronze cross for four children, a silver
for six and a gold for eight or more were given to
women.
The Nationalist Movement in
Indo-China
Indo-China Region and French Domination
over it
Indo-China comprises of Vietnam, Laos and Cambodia.
People lived in these areas under the shadow of Chinese
empire. Like the English and the Dutch, the French
wanted to spread their colony in Asia.
After defeating China in 1860, France occupied
Vietnam and Cambodia. France again defeated China
in Franco-Chinese War (1883-85) and occupied Tonkin
and Annam. In 1887, France formed the Union of
China comprising all these colonies. Later France
occupied Thailand and Laos and established a strong
large empire in Asia.
Importance of Colonies
Like other colonial powers, the French thought that
colonies were necessary because
l Colonies were considered essential to supply natural
resources and other essential commodities.
l It was duty of the advanced European countries to
bring the benefits of civilisation to backward people.
l By increasing the agricultural production, colonial
power can export the products in the international
market. Vietnam exported two-thirds of its rice
production and by 1931, it had become the third largest
exporter of rice in the world.
Steps Taken by France to Exploit the
Natural Resources of Vietnam
Like all other colonial powers, France exploited the
natural resources of Vietnam in numerous ways.
554
l All available raw materials of Vietnam like rubber, rice
and coal were exported to France at a very low price.
l Infrastructure, like road, rail and waterways were
developed for trade, move military garrisons and control
the entire region.
l Rubber plantation in Vietnam was mostly owned by the
French elite. They exploited the local people in all
possible ways.
Paul Bernard’s View Regarding the
Economy of Vietnam
An eminent writer, Paul Bernard gave his own view
regarding the economy of Vietnam.
l The economy of Vietnam should be developed because
the colonial powers like France wanted to make profit
from its colonies.
l If the economy of the colonies were developed, then the
standard of living of the people would develop, as a
result demand of commodities will be increased which
means more profit for the colonial power.
l Several barriers to economic growth like high
population levels, low agricultural productivity and
extensive indebtedness among the peasants should be
removed.
l Land reforms and industrialisation were essential to
boost up the economy.
The Dilemma of Colonial Education in
Vietnam
l France believed that they were bringing modern
civilisation to the Vietnamese. Education was the most
important way to civilise the native.
l Education was a requisite for employment in the
colonial civil service and for other white-collar, high
status jobs.
l While introducing the modern education system in
Vietnam, the French authorities were themselves in a
dilemma.
l The colonial power needed an educated local labour
force. But, education might create problems. Educated
Vietnam might raise questions about the French
authority.
l French citizens living in Vietnam because afraid that
they might loose their jobs to the educated natives.
l To resolve this dilemma, the French authority
introduced a deliberate policy of failing students,
particularly in the final year of their education, so that
they could not get a better-paid jobs.
l In 1925, in a population of 17 million, there were less
than 400 who passed the examination.
Study Package for NTSE
The Incident of Saigon Native Girls School
An incident which happened in Saigon Native Girls
School in 1926, created much agitation among the
Vietnamese. A Vietnamese student sitting in one of the
front seats was asked to vacate it for her fellow French
student. But as the girl refused to do so, the principal
expelled her. When other angry students protested,
they too were expelled.
This incident led to a further spread of agitation and
protests among students. See the situation getting out
of control, the government ordered the school authority
to take the students back. The principal reluctantly
agreed, but warned the students in a very rude manner.
This incident made a mark on the nationalist feelings of
the Vietnamese.
The Ideas behind the Tonkin Free Schools
l The French colonisation was not only based on economic
exploitation, but it was also driven by the idea ‘to civilise
the native people’.
l Education is the most important means to civilise the
native.
l The French authority established many French school
in Vietnam.
l Of them, one is Tonkin Free School, which was
started in 1907 to provide Western education.
l In this school, Science, Hygiene and French language
were taught.
Plague and the ‘Rat Hunt Scheme’
l To create a modern Vietnam, the French authority
decided to rebuild a part of Hanoi with modern
architecture. But the beautiful part of Hanoi was struck
by bubonic plague.
l The French part of Hanoi had wide avenues and well
laid out sewer system.
l The other ‘native’ part of the city remained filthy, as a
result the refuse from the old city overflowed the whole
area during rains or floods.
l The large sewers of the modern part of the city became
the breeding grounds for the rats.
l There was a wide spread plague which threatened the
very lives of the French.
l In order to check this menance, the French authority
started the ‘Rat Hunt Scheme’ in 1902.
l The French hired Vietnamese workers and paid them
for each rat they caught.
l As many as 20000 rats were caught in a single day (30
May, 1902). Rat hunting became a profitable business
for the natives.
Events and Process
Religion of Vietnam
l The earliest established religions in Vietnam are
Mahayana Buddhism, Confucianism and Taoism. Other
minorities are Roman Catholicism, Cao Dai, Hoa Hao,
Hinduism, Islamism, Protestanism and Theravada
Buddhism etc.
l The majority of Vietnamese people claimed themselves
as non-religious, although they visit religious temples
several times every year.
l According to a 1999 census, most Vietnamese list
themselves as having no religious affiliation.
l A 2002 Pew Research Centre Report claimed that 24% of
the population of Vietnam believed religion as ‘very
important’.
l One of the most universal spiritual practices common to
Vietnamese is ancestor veneration, a practice shared
with Chinese and most Asian culture.
l All Vietnamese regardless of formal religious affiliation
have an altar in their home or business, where prayers
were offered to their ancestors. These practices are done
frequently during important traditional or religious
celebrations.
l Beliefs in ghosts and spirits is common.
Hoa Hao Movement
l Hoa Hao is a religious tradition based on Buddhism.
l It is founded in 1939 by Huynh Phu So.
l It spread in the fertile Mekong Delta area.
l It claimed approximately 2 million followers throughout
Vietnam.
l Aid to poor was favoured over Pagoda building as
expensive rituals.
l Religious and social ceremonies must be simple and
modest and are not to include offerings.
l Elaborate wedding or funeral customs were viewed as
waste of money, which would be better spent helping the
needy.
l Adherents are expected to attend communal services on
first and fifth of each lunar month and on other
Buddhist holidays.
l Huynh Phu So opposed the sale of child brides, gambling
and use of alcohol and opium.
l French authority tried to suppress the movement
inspired by Huynh Phu So.
l French authority declared him mad and put him in a
mental asylum.
l Doctor who had to prove him insane became his follower.
l In 1941, the French doctors declared he was sane.
l The French authority exiled him to Laos and sent many
of his followers to concentration camp.
555
The Difference between the Ideas of Phan
Boi Chau and Phan Chu Trinh
l Phan Boi Chau and Phan Chu Trinh were both
nationalist leaders, but they differed in their approach
to Vietnamese nationalism.
l Phan Boi Chau formed the ‘Revolutionary society’ with
Prince Cuong De as its head.
l But, Phan Chu Trinh was totally against monarchy and
preferred to establish a democratic republic.
l Phan Chu Trinh was influenced by the democratic ideals
of the West, thus he did not want a wholesale rejection of
Western civilisation.
Go East Movement
l ‘Go East Movement’ became popular in the first decade
of the 20th century.
l Some Vietnamese students went to Japan and looked for
Japanese help and appealed to the Japanese as fellow
Asians.
l Japan had improved itself and resisted colonisation by
the West.
l Vietnamese students established a branch of the
Restoration Society in Tokyo.
l Japan has proved its military capability by defeating
Russia in 1907.
l After 1908, many Vietnamese including Phan Boi Chau
were deported and forced to seek exile in China and
Thailand.
l Development in China also inspired Vietnamese
nationalists.
l In 1911, under the leadership of Sun Yat-Sen, a
Republic was setup in China by overthrowing the
monarchy.
l Inspired by these development Vietnamese students
established association for the restoration of
Vietnam.
The Communist Movement in Vietnam
Under the Leadership of Ho Chi Minh
l Inspired by the European communist parties Ho Chi
Minh established Vietnamese Communist Party (1930).
l Very little is known about the early life of Ho Chi Minh.
l He studied in French schools which produced great
leaders like Ngo Dinh Diem, Vo Nguyen Giap and Pham
Van Dong.
l He had chance to meet Russian leaders including Lenin.
l After spending about 30 yr abroad in America, Europe,
China and Thailand, Ho Chi Minh returned to Vietnam
in May 1941.
556
l When Japan occupied Vietnam in 1941, he resumed
contact with Indochinese Communist Party leaders
and helped to found a new communist dominated
independent movement popularly known as
‘Vietminh’ that fought the Japanese. In 1945, Japan
surrendered.
l Ho Chi Minh is the key figure in the foundation of the
Democratic Republic of Vietnam (1945).
l Ho Chi Minh became the President.
l The French were unwilling to grant independence to
their colonial subjects and in 1946 war broke out.
l After eight years battle Vietminh guerrillas defeated
French troops in the Battle of Dien Bien Phu in 1954.
l He officially stepped down from power in 1955 due to ill
health but remained the inspirational figure for
Vietnamese for a united communist Vietnam.
l Ho Chi Minh died on 3 September, 1969.
The Entry of the US into Vietnam War
l Vietnam War was occured in Vietnam, Laos and
Cambodia from 1 November, 1955 to the fall of Saigon on
30 April, 1975.
l This war was fought between North Vietnam, supported
by its communist allies and government of South
Vietnam, supported by United States, South Korea,
Australia, New Zealand, Thailand etc.
l American military advisor arrived in what was then
French Indonesia beginning in 1950.
l US combat units were deployed beginning in 1965.
l Operations spanned international borders with Laos,
Cambodia heavily bombed.
l American involvement in the war peaked in 1968.
Inspite of its advanced technology and good medical
supplies US casualities were high. About 47244 died in
battle and 303704 were wounded.
l The phase of struggle with US was brutal as it widely
used chemical weapons like Napalam, Agent Orange
and phosphorous bombs.
l US military involvement ended on 15 August, 1973 as a
result of the ‘Case-church Amendment’ passed by the
US Congress.
l The capture of Saigon by the Vietnam People’s Army in
April 1975, marked the end of the war.
l The North and South Vietnam were reunified in 1976.
l US regarded the spread of communism a great danger to
the other countries.
The Ho Chi Minh Trail
l The Vietnamese had to carry out a long struggle for
independence - first against France, then against Japan
and lastly against USA. In this long way of struggle,
they had to follow long routes and paths to avoid enemy
attack.
Study Package for NTSE
l This trail was an immense network of footpaths and
roads and was used to transport men and material from
the North to South Vietnam.
l The trail had support bases and hospitals.
l The Vietnamese porters, which were mostly women,
deserve all praise for their great sacrifice in carrying
25 kg weight on their backs or about 70 kg on their
bicycles.
l Most of the trail was outside Vietnam in neighbouring
countries like Laos and Cambodia with branch lines
extending into South Vietnam.
l US regularly bombed this trail trying to disrupt
supplies.
l If any line to trail was broken, it was repaired
immediately and the supply line maintained as ever.
The Role of Women in the Anti-Imperialist
Struggle in Vietnam
l The Vietnamese women showed great heroism and
patriotism in nationalist movement.
l They worked as porters and carried 25 kg of food or war
material on their back and 70 kg on their bicycles.
l Women whether young or old began to work and fight for
the country.
l Many women joined the movement, they nursed the
wounded, constructed underground room and tunnels to
save their army.
l Between 1965 and 1975, of the 17000 youth who worked
on the trail, 70 to 80% were women.
l One military historian suggested that there were
1.5 million in the regular army, the militia, the local
forces and professional teams.
Nationalism in India
Formation of Indian National
Congress (INC)
l Formed in 1885 by AO Hume, an Englishman and a
retired civil servant.
l Hume’s main purpose was probably to provide a ‘safety
valve’ to the growing discontent among the educated
Indians.
l Other important leaders during foundation were
Dadabhai Naoroji, Badruddin Tayabji, Anand Mohan
Bose, RC Dutt, Ferozshah Mehta, Gopal Krishna
Gokhale, G Subramaniyam Aiyyar, Dinshaw Vacha, Bal
Gangadhar Tilak, Mahadev Govind Ranade, Madan
Mohan Malaviya.
l First session of INC held in Bombay under WC
Bonnerjea in 1885 (72 delegates attended it).
l In the first two decades (1885-1905), quite moderate in
its approach and confided in British justice and
generosity.
Events and Process
l But the repressive measures of the British gave rise to
extremists within Congress like Bipin Chandra Pal, Bal
Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai (Lal, Bal, Pal),
along with Aurobindo Ghosh.
l Badruddin Tayabji was the first Muslim President of
INC in 1887 in Madras Session.
l George Yule was the first English President of 1888 INC
Session held at Allahabad.
l Annie Beasant was the first woman President of INC
preceded Calcutta Session in 1917.
l Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman President of
INC preceded Kanpur Session of 1925.
Partition of Bengal
l By Lord Curzon on 16 October, 1905, through a royal
proclamation, reducing the old province of Bengal in
size by creating East Bengal and Assam out of rest of
Bengal.
l The government said that it was done to stimulate
growth in Eastern region.
l Actually, the objective was to set up a communal gulf
between Hindus and Muslims.
l A mighty upsurge swept the country against the
partition. National movement found real expression in
the movement against the partition of Bengal in 1905.
Swadeshi Movement (1905)
l It had its origin in the anti-partition movement of
Bengal. The leaders of Bengal felt that mere
demonstrations, public meetings and resolutions were
not enough and something more concrete was needed
and the answer felt was Swadeshi and Boycott.
l An important aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was
emphasis placed on self-reliance.
l Lal, Bal, Pal and Aurobindo Ghosh played an important
role.
l INC took the Swadeshi call first at the Banaras Session,
1905 presided over by GK Gokhale.
l A resolution to boycott British goods was adopted on
7 August, 1905 at a meeting of INC at Calcutta.
l Bonfires of foreign goods were conducted at various
places.
Formation of Muslim League (1906)
l Setup in 1906 under the leadership of Aga Khan, Nawab
Salimullah of Dhaka and Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk.
l It was a loyalist, communal and conservative political
organisation which supported the partition of Bengal,
opposed the Swadeshi Movement, demanded special
safeguards of its community and a separate electorate
for Muslims.
557
Demand for Swaraj (1906)
In December, 1906 at Calcutta, the INC under
Dadabhai Naoroji adopted ‘Swaraj’ (Self Government)
as the goal of Indian people.
Surat Split (Session) of INC (1907)
l The INC split into two groups; the extremists and the
moderates, at the Surat Session in 1907. Extremists
were led by Bal, Pal, Lal while the moderates by GK
Gokhale.
l Controversy rose over the elected President, Ras Bihari
Ghosh, as extremists didn’t accept him. Extremists
wanted Lala Lajpat Rai to be chosen.
l The government after this launched a massive attack on
extremists by suppressing their newspapers and
arresting their leaders.
Minto-Morley Reforms (1909)
l It enlarge the legislative councils and at the same time
make him more representative and effective.
l Besides other constitutional measures, it envisaged a
separate electorate for Muslims.
l Aimed at dividing the nationalist ranks and at rallying
the moderates and the Muslims to the government’s side.
Ghadar Party (1913)
l Formed by Lala Hardayal, Taraknath Das and Sohan
Singh Bhakna.
l The name was taken from a weekly paper, Ghadar,
which had been started on November 1, 1913 to
commemorate the 1857 revolt.
l Headquarters was at San Francisco.
Home Rule Movement (1916)
l After Tilak’s return, having served sentence of six years
in Mondalay (in Burma), he tried securing the
readmission of himself and other extremists into the
INC. With the need being felt for popular pressure to
attain concessions, disillusionment with Minto-Morley
reforms and war-time miseries, Tilak and Annie
Beasant readied to assume leadership.
l Started by BG Tilak (April, 1916) at Poona and Annie
Beasant and S Subramania Iyer at Adyar, near Madras
(September, 1916).
l Tilak’s league was to work in Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Central Province and Berar and Annie Beasant’s in the
rest of India.
l Objective Self Government for India in the British
Empire.
l Tilak linked up the question of Swaraj with the demand
for the formation of linguistic states and education in
vernacular language. He gave the slogan, ‘‘Swaraj is my
birth right and I will have it.’’
558
Lucknow Pact (1916)
l It was happened following a war between Britain and
Turkey leading to anti-British feelings among Muslims.
l Both INC and Muslim League concluded this (Congress
accepted the separate electorate and both jointly
demanded for a representative government and
dominion status for the country).
August Declaration (1917)
l After the Lucknow Pact, a British policy was announced
which aimed at ‘increasing association of Indians in
every branch of the administration for progressive
realisation of responsible government in India as an
integral part of the British empire’. This came to be
called the August Declaration.
l Because of Hindu-Muslim unity exhibited in Lucknow
Pact.
l The Montague-Chelmsford reforms or the Act of 1919
was based on this declaration.
Emergence of Gandhiji and the Idea of
Satyagraha
Gandhiji arrived in India in 1915 at the age of 46 from
South Africa. Having led by Indians in that country in
non-voilent marches against racist restrictions, he was
already a respected leader known internationally. He
was popularised by his method of fighting called
Satyagraha based on truth and non-voilence.
Champaran Satyagraha
l It was the first movement led by Gandhiji in India in
Champaran district of Bihar.
l Here, indigo planters were oppressed to grow indigo on
at least 3/20 of their land part and sell it at price fixed by
European owners. This movement was fixed success of
Gandhiji in India.
Kheda Satyagraha
In 1917, crops failed in Kheda district of Gujarat but the
government refreshed to remit land revenue and
insisted on its full collection. Gandhiji supported the
peasants and advised them to withold payments of
revenue till their demand of its remission was met. It
was a success, government issued instructions that
revenue should be recovered only from those peasants
who could afford to pay. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
accompanied Gandhiji in this movement.
Ahmedabad Mill Strike
In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi intervened in a dispute
between workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad. He
advised the workers to go on strike and to demand a 35%
increase in wages. He undertook a fast unto death which
Study Package for NTSE
put pressure on mill owners and they agreed to increase
the wages.
Government of India Act, 1919 or
Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
Dyarchy system introduced in the provinces.
Subjects of administration were divided into two
categories
(i) Central (ii) Provincial.
l The Provincial Legislature was to consist of one house
only (Legislative Council).
l The number of Indians in the Governor-General’s
Executive Council was raised to three in a Council of
eight. The Indian members were entrusted with
departments such as law, education, labour, health and
industries.
l The centre was now to have a Bicameral Legislature
for the first time. It actually happened after 1935 Act.
l Communal representation extended to Sikhs,
Christians, Anglo-Indians etc.
Rowlatt Act (18 March,1919)
l It gave unbridled powers to the government to arrest
and imprison suspects without trial for two years
maximum. This law enabled the government to suspend
the right of Habeas Corpus, which had been the
foundation of civil liberties in Britain.
l Caused a wave of anger in all sections. As a protest,
Gandhiji formed a Satyagraha society to evoke mass
support. 6 April, 1919 was observed as ‘Satyagraha Day’
when people all over the country observed fast and
hartal. In the protest demonstration, Dr Satyapal and
Dr Kitchlew were arrested. It was the first country-wide
agitation by Gandhiji and marked the foundation of the
Non-cooperation Movement.
l During March and April 1919, the country witnessed a
remarkable political awakening in India. There were
hartals, processions and demonstrations everywhere.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April, 1919)
l People were agitated over the arrest of Dr Kitchlew and
Dr Satyapal on 10 April, 1919. They assembled in
Jallianwala Bagh in agitation.
l General O’ Dyer fired at people who assembled in the
Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar. As a result hundreds of men,
women and children were killed and thousands injured.
l Rabindranath Tagore returned his ‘Knighthood’ in
protest. Sir Shankaran Nair resigned from Viceroy’s
Executive Council after this.
l Hunter Commission was appointed to enquire into it.
l On 13 March, 1940, Sardar Udham Singh killed O’ Dyer
when the latter was addressing a meeting in Caxton
Hall, London.
Events and Process
Khilafat Movement (1920)
l Muslims were agitated by the treatment done with
Turkey by the British in the treaty that followed the
First World War.
l Two brothers, Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali started
this movement, along with Maulana Azad, Hakim Ajmal
Khan and Hasrat Mohani. It was jointly led by the
Khilafat leaders and the Congress.
l Gandhiji viewed the Khilafat agitation as a golden
opportunity for bringing the Hindus and Muslims
together.
l On August 31, 1920, the Khilafat Committee launched a
Non-cooperation Movement.
l Gandhiji now pressed the Congress to adopt a similar
plan of action. Although, it was initially opposed by CR
Das, but was later passed unopposed.
Non-cooperation Movement (1920)
l It was the first mass based political movement under
Gandhiji. In his famous book ‘Hind Swaraj’ (1909)
Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was
established in India with the cooperation of Indians and
had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians
refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse
within one year and Swaraj would come.
l Congress passed the resolution in its Calcutta Session in
September, 1920.
l The movement envisaged
(i) Surrender of titles and honorary offices.
(ii) Resignation from nominated offices and posts in the
local bodies.
(iii) Refusal to attend Government darbars and boycott of
British courts by the lawyers.
(iv) Refusal of general public to offer themselves for
military and other Government jobs and boycott of
foreign goods etc.
l CR Das and Motilal Nehru gave up their legal practice
and Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the Civil
Service.
l The Prince of Wales visited India during this period. But
he was greeted with empty streets and downed shutters
when he came (17 November, 1921).
Chauri-Chaura Incident (1922)
l The Congress Session at Allahabad in December 1921,
decided to launch a Civil Disobedience Movement.
Gandhiji was appointed its leader.
l But before it could be launched, a peaceful
demonstration in a bazar at Chauri-Chaura (Near
Gorakhpur) turned into a violent clash with people and
as a result 22 policemen died on 5 February, 1922.
l This compelled Gandhiji to withdraw the
Non-cooperation Movement on 12 February, 1922.
559
Swaraj Party (1923)
l Motilal Nehru, CR Das and NC Kelkar (called
Pro-changers) demanded that the nationalists should
end the boycott of the Legislative Councils, enter them
and expose them. But the no-changers like Rajendra
Prasad and Rajgopalachari adhered to the Gandhian
programme of boycott of legislatures. The pro-changers
formed the Swaraj Party on 1 January, 1923, contested
the elections and embarrassed the Government by
opposing its measures.
l In the 1923 elections, the Swarajists got a majority in
Bengal and Central Province.
l The two sections were reunited in 1930 after the Lahore
Session.
Simon Commission (1927)
l Constituted under John Simon, to review the political
situation in India and to introduce further reforms and
extension of parliamentary democracy.
l Indian leaders opposed the Commission, as there were
no Indians in it.
l Congress turned the boycott into the movement.
l Simon and his colleagues landed in Bombay on
3 February, 1928 and were greeted with hartals and
black-flag demonstrations.
l The government used brutal repression and police
attacks to break the popular opposition. At Lahore, Lala
Lajpat Rai was severely beaten in a lathi-charge. He
succumbed to his injuries on 17 November, 1928.
Revolutionary Activities
l The first political murder of a European was committed
in 1897 at Poona by the Chapekar brothers, Damodar and
Balkishan. Their target was Mr Rand, President of the
Plague Commission, but Lt Ayerst was accidentally shot.
l In 1907, Madam Bhikaiji Cama, a Parsi revolutionary
unfurled the flag of India at Stuttgart Congress (of
Second International).
l In 1908, Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki threw a
bomb on the carriage of Kingsford, the unpopular judge
of Muzaffarpur. Khudiram, Kanhaiyalal Dutt and
Satyendranath Bose were hanged (Alipur Case).
l In 1909, ML Dhingra shot dead Col William Curzon
Whyllie, the political advisor of ‘India Office’ in London.
l In 1912, Rasbihari Bose and Sachindra Nath Sanyal
threw a bomb at Lord Hardinge at Delhi. (Delhi
Conspiracy Case).
l In October, 1924, a meeting of revolutionaries from all
parts of India was called at Kanpur.
l The meeting was attended by old revolutionary leaders
like Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Jogesh Chandra
Chatterjee and Ram Prasad Bismil and some young
revolutionaries like Bhagat Singh, Shiv Verma,
560
Sukhdev, Bhagwati Charan Vohra and
Chandrashekhar Azad.
l They setup Hindustan Socialist Republic
Association/Army (HSRA). Their three objectives were
(i) To raise the consciousness of people against the
futility of Gandhian movement of non-violence.
(ii) To perform direct action and revolution to attain
complete independence.
(iii) To set up a republic of the United States of India on
the federal structure.
l They carried out a dacoity on the Kakori bound train on
the Saharanpur-Lucknow railway line on 9 August,
1925.
l Bhagat Singh, with his colleagues shot dead Saunders
(Assistant SP of Lahore, who ordered lathi-charge on
Lala Lajpat Rai) on 17 December, 1928.
l Then, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw a
bomb in the Central Assembly on 8 April, 1929. Thus,
Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were hanged on
23 March 23, 1931 at Lahore Jail (Lahore Conspiracy
Case) and their bodies cremated at Hussainiwala near
Ferozpur.
l In 1929, only Jatin Das died in Lahore jail after 63 days
fast to protest against horrible conditions in jail.
l Meerut Conspiracy Case started in 1929 and continued
for four years against 31 communists accused of
conspiracy against the British Sovereign. In this,
Muzaffar Ahmed received transportation for life.
l Surya Sen, a revolutionary of Bengal, formed the Indian
Republic Army in Bengal. In 1930, he masterminded the
raid on Chittagong armoury. He was hanged in 1933.
l In 1931, Chandrashekhar Azad shot himself at Alfred
Park in Allahabad.
Lahore Session (1929)
l On 19 December, 1929, under the Presidentship of JL
Nehru, the INC, at its Lahore Session, declared Poorna
Swaraj (Complete Independence) as its ultimate goal.
l On 3 December, 1929, the newly adopted tri-colour flag
was unfurled and 26 January, 1930 was fixed as the
First Independence Day, which was to be celebrated
every year.
Dandi March (1930) and Civil Disobedience
Movement
Dandi March
l Also called the Salt Satyagraha. Along with
78 followers, Gandhiji started his March from
Sabarmati Ashram on 12 March, 1930 for the small
village Dandi to break the salt law. He reached the sea
shore on 6 April, 1930.
l He picked a handful of salt and inaugurated the Civil
Disobedience Movement.
Study Package for NTSE
Civil Disobedience
l Thousands people in different parts of our country broke
like salt, the manufactured salt and demonstrated in
front of government salt factories.
l As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted
and liquor shops were picketed.
l Peasants refused to pay revenues, chaukidari taxes and
village officials resigned.
l Many places people lived in forests, violated forest laws
by collecting woods and grazing cattle in reserved areas.
l One of the important features of Civil Disobedience
Movement was the large scale participation of women.
Women participated in protest marches, manufactured
salt and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. In
urban areas they were from high caste families and in
rural areas they come from rich peasant households.
l The Salt Satyagraha sparked off other forms of defiance.
In the North-West, Frontier provinces. Khan Abdul
Ghaffar Khan, popularly known as the Frontier Gandhi,
organised the society of ‘Khudai Khidmadgars’
(sequants of God), also known as Red Shirts.
l When Abdul Ghaffar Khan was arrested in April 1930,
angry crowds demonstrated in the streets of Peshwar
facing police firing.
The Concept of ‘Harijan’
l
All social groups were not moved by the concept of ‘Swaraj’.
l
One such group was the ‘untouchables’ who from 1930’s onwards
began to call themselves as ‘Dalit’ or oppressed.
l
The congress ignored the ‘Dalit’ class, for fear of offending the
conservative upper class Hindus.
l
Gandhiji called untouchables Harijan or the children of God.
l
Gandhiji believed that Swaraj would not come for hundred years, if
untouchability was not eliminated.
l
Gandhiji organised Satyagraha for the ‘Harijans’ to secure their entry
into temples and access to public wells, tanks, roads and schools.
l
Gandhiji himself cleaned the toilets to dignify the work of bhangi (the
sweepers).
l
Gandhiji urged the upper class to change their mind set regarding the
untouchables.
l
Dalit leaders wanted a different political solutions to the problems of
the community.
l
They demanded reserved seats in educational institutions and a
separate electorate that would choose dalit members for legislative
councils.
First Round Table Conference (1930)
l It was the first conference arranged between the British
and Indians as equals. It was held on 12 November, 1930
in London to discuss Simon Commission.
l Boycotted by INC Muslim League, Hindu Mahasabha,
Liberals and some others were there.
l Postponed to 2 January, 1931, in the absence of any
major political party.
Events and Process
Gandhi-Irwin Pact
l Moderate statesman, Sapru, Jaikar and Srinivas
Shastri initiated efforts to break the ice between
Gandhiji and the government.
l The two (Government represented by Irwin) signed a
pact on 5 March, 1931.
l In this, the INC called off the Civil Disobedience
Movement and agreed to join the Second Round Table
Conference.
l The Government on its part released the political
prisoner and conceded the right to make salt for
consumption of villages along the coast.
l The Karachi Session of 1931 endorsed the Gandhi-Irwin
Pact. The Karachi Session is also memorable for its
resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National
Economic Programme.
Second Round Table Conference (1931)
l Gandhiji represented the INC and went to London to
meet British PM Ramsay Macdonald.
l In the conference, Gandhiji demanded immediate
establishment of a full responsible government at the
centre as well as in the provinces with complete control
over defence, external affairs and finance.
l However, the session was soon deadlocked on the
minorities issue and this time separate electorates was
demanded not only by Muslims but also by Depressed
Classes, Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians.
l MacDonald ended the session with an address which
announced the creation of two new Muslim majority
provinces, North-West Frontier Province and Sindh, set
up a committee on Franchise, finance and states and
held out the humiliating and the dangerous prospect of a
unilateral British Communal Award if the Indians
failed to agree among themselves.
l On Gandhiji’s arrival in Bombay, the Congress Working
Committee decided to resume the Civil Disobedience
Movement. In 1932, INC was declared an illegal
organisation and all its leaders were arrested. Gandhiji
was sent to Yeravada jail in Poona.
l The Civil Disobedience Movement was withdrawn in
1934, because after that Gandhiji decided to make
Harijan work the central plank of his new rural
constructive programme.
The Communal Award (16 August,1932)
l Announced by Ramsay McDonald. It showed Divide and
Rule Policy of the British.
l Envisaged representation of Muslims, Sikhs, Indian
Christians, Anglo-Indians, women and even Backward
Classes.
l Gandhiji, who was in Yeravada jail (Poona) at that time,
started a fast unto death against it.
561
Poona Pact (25 September, 1932)
l After the announcement of communal award and
subsequent fast of Gandhiji, mass meeting took place
almost everywhere.
l Political leaders like Madan Mohan Malaviya, Dr BR
Ambedkar and TSS Rajan became active.
l Eventually Poona Pact was reached and Gandhiji broke
his fast on the sixth day (25 September, 1932).
l In this, the idea of separate electorate for the depressed
classes was abandoned, but seats reserved to them in
the provincial legislature were increased.
l Thus, the Poona Pact agreed upon a joint electorate for
upper and lower castes.
l Harijan upliftment now became the principal concern of
Gandhiji. An All India Antiuntouchability League was
started in September 1932 and a weekly ‘Harijan’ in
January 1933. On 8 May, 1933, Gandhiji decided to
begin a 21 days fast for the purification of himself and
his associates for the Harijan cause.
l He started the Individual Civil Disobedience on
August 1, 1933.
Third Round Table Conference (1932)
Proved fruitless as most of the national leaders were in
prison. The discussions led to the passing of the
Government of India Act, 1935. Famous for its white
paper issue.
The Government of India Act (1935)
l Based on the Simon Commission report. It provided for
the establishment of All India Federation consisting
of the British provinces and the Princely States. The
joining of Princely States was voluntary and as a result,
the federation did not come into existence.
l Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre (e.g.,
Department of Foreign Affairs and Defence were
reserved for the Governor-General).
l The Federal Legislature (Central Legislature) was to
have two chambers (bicameral); the Council of State and
the Federal Assembly.
l Provincial autonomy replaced dyarchy in provinces
i.e., the distinction between reserved and transferred
subjects was abolished and full responsible government
was established, subject to certain safeguards. They
were granted separate legal identity.
l The Congress rejected the 1935 Act and demanded the
convening of a Constituent Assembly elected on the
basis of adult franchise to frame a Constitution for an
independent India. Jawaharlal Nehru described it as ‘we
are provided with a car, all breaks and no engine’.
l Yet, INC fought the election in 1937, when the
Constitution was introduced and formed ministries in
seven out of eleven provinces. Later, Congress formed
562
coalition governments in two others, only Bengal and
Punjab had non-Congress ministries. Punjab was under
the Unionist Party and Bengal under the Krishak Praja
Party-Muslim League coalition.
Demand for Pakistan
l In 1930, Iqbal suggested that the Frontier Province,
Baluchistan, Sindh and Kashmir be made the Muslims
state within the federation.
l Chaudhary Rehmat Ali gave the term Pakistan in 1933.
l Mohammad Ali Jinnah of Bombay gave it practicality.
l Muslim League first passed the proposal of separate
Pakistan in its Lahore Session in 1940 (called Jinnah’s
Two-Nation Theory). It was drafted by Sikandar
Hayat Khan, moved by Fazlul Haq and seconded by
Khaliquzzaman.
l In December, 1943, the Karachi Session of the Muslim
League adopted the slogan, ‘Divide and Quit’.
August Offer (8 August, 1940)
l It offered
(i) Dominion status in the unspecified future;
(ii) A post-war body to enact the Constitution;
(iii) To expand the Governor-General’s Executive Council
to give full weightage to minority opinion.
l Rejected by the INC because there was no suggestion of
the National Government and because the demand for
the dominion status was already discarded in favour of
Poorna Swaraj. It was accepted by the Muslim League.
The Cripps Mission (1942)
l In December 1941, Japan entered the World War II and
advanced towards Indian borders. By 7 March, 1942,
Rangoon fell and Japan occupied the entire South-East
Asia.
l The British Government with a view to get cooperation
from Indians sent Sir Stafford Cripps, leader of the House
of Commons to settle terms with the Indian leaders.
l He offered a draft which contained the following
proposals. Dominion status to be granted after the war.
The Revolt of 1942 and The Quit India Movement
l Also called the Vardha Proposal and Leaderless
Revolt.
l The resolution was passed on 8 August, 1942, at
Bombay. Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or die’.
l On August 9, the Congress was banned and its
important leaders were arrested. Gandhiji was kept at
the Aga Khan Palace, Pune.
l The trend of underground revolutionary activities also
started during the phase Jaya Prakash Narayan, Ram
Manohor Lohia and Aruna Asaf Ali started
consolidating underground networks. The most daring
Study Package for NTSE
act of the underground movement was the
establishment of Congress Radio with Usha Mehta as
its announcer.
l Parallel Governments were setup at various places. The
first one was in Ballia in Eastern UP under the
leadership of Chittu Pande. Others were in Satara,
Talcher, parts of Eastern UP and Bihar.
l The movement was however crushed.
Wavell Plan ( June-July 1945)
l This plan given by Lord Wavell.
l The plan was that the Viceroy’s Executive Council
should be so reconstituted that its members, except the
Governor-General and the Commander-in-Chief, were
to be Indians (from various parties). Simla
Conference was convened in this regard, but was
rejected by Jinnah.
The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)
The struggle for freedom entered a decisive phase in the
year 1945-46. The new Labour Party PM, Lord Attlee,
made a declaration on 15 March, 1946, that British
Cabinet Mission (comprising of Lord Pethick Lawrence
as Chairman, Sir Stafford Cripps and AV Alexander)
will visit India.
l The mission held talks with the Indian National
Congress and Muslim League to bring about acceptance
of their proposals.
l On May 16, 1946, the mission put forward its proposals.
l Rejected the demand for separate Pakistan and instead
a federal union consisting Princely States was
suggested.
l The union would deal into the following subjects;
Foreign affairs, Defence and Communication and would
have the powers to raise the finances required for the
above subjects.
l There were to be three groups of Provinces. Group A
with six Hindu majority provinces (Bombay, United
Province, Bihar, Central Province, Orissa, Madras);
Group B with three Muslim majority provinces (Sind,
NWFP, Punjab) and Group C (Assam and Bengal). After
the first general elections, a province could come out of
the group and after 10 years, a province could call for
reconsideration of the group or union constitution.
l Both Congress and Muslim League accepted it.
l The elections of the Constituent Assembly were held in
July 1946. The Congress got 209 of the total 273 seats.
Interim Government
Based on Cabinet Mission Plan, an Interim Government
consisting of Congress nominees was formed on
2 September, 1946. Jawalarlal Nehru was its
Vice-President and the Governor-General remained as
Events and Process
its President. Muslim League did not join it initially
but finally Wavell succeeded in having five members
of the League join the government on 26 October,
1946.
Jinnah’s Direct Action Resolution
l Jinnah was alarmed at the results of the elections
because the Muslim League was in danger of being
totally eclipsed in the Constituent Assembly.
l Therefore, Muslim League withdrew its acceptance
of the Cabinet Mission Plan on 29 July, 1946.
l It passed a ‘Direct Action’ resolution, which
condemned both the British Government and the
Congress (16 August, 1946).
l It resulted in heavy communal riots.
l Jinnah celebrated Pakistan Day on 27 March, 1947.
Formation of Constituent Assembly
The Constituent Assembly met on 9 December,
1946 and Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as its
President.
Mountbatten Plan
l On 3 June, 1947, Lord Mountbatten put forward his
plan which outlined the steps for the solution of
India’s political problems. The outlines of the Plan
were
(i) India to be divided into India and Pakistan.
(ii) Bengal and Punjab will be partitioned and a
referendum in NEFP and Sylhet district of Assam
would be held.
(iii) There would be a separate Constitutional
Assembly for Pakistan to frame its Constitution.
(iv) The Princely States would enjoy the liberty to join
either India or Pakistan or even remain
independent.
(v) 15 August, 1947 was the date fixed for handing
over power to India and Pakistan.
l The British Government passed the Indian
Independence Act of 1947 in July 1947, which
contained the major provisions put forward by the
Mountbatten Plan.
563
Partition and Independence
l All political parties accepted the Mountbatten Plan.
l Two Commissions were appointed by the British
Government with Sir Cyril Redcliffe as Chairman of both to
see through the partition and fix the international
boundaries of the two nations to be.
l At the time of independence, there were 562 small and big
Princely States in India.
l Sardar VallabhBhai Patel, the first Home Minister, used
iron hand in this regard. By 15 August, 1947, all the States,
with a few exceptions like Kashmir, Hyderabad and
Junagarh had signed the Instrument of Accession. Goa was
with the Portuguese and Pondicherry with the French.
The Sense of Collective Belongingness in
Nationalist Movement
Nationalist movement spreads when people belonging to
different regions and communities begin to develop a sense
of collective belongingness.
Undoubtedly this sense of collective belongingness
develops through the experience of united struggles. But
many cultural process also contribute to it as was seen in
India during its freedom movement.
l The identity of a nation is more often symbolised in a figure
or image. In the 20th century, the identity of India came to
be visually associated with the image of ‘Bharat Mata’.
l This image of ‘Bharat Mata’ was first created by Bankim
Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1870 when he wrote ‘Vande
Mataram’ for our motherland. Later this song included in
his Novel Anandmath and widely sung by the freedom
fighters.
l The image of Bharat Mata was first painted by
Rabindranath Tagore. Later the image acquired many
different forms as it was drawn by different artists.
l Indian folksongs and folktales sung by bards played an
important role for making the ideas of nationalism. These
gave true picture of traditional culture which was corrupted
by foreigners.
l In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore and in Madras Natesa
Sastri collected massive collection of folktales and songs
which led the movement for folk revival.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Who is the author of the book Two Treatises of 12. When did the Greek struggle for independence begin?
Government? (a) 1821 (b)1850 (c) 1870 (d) 1890
(a) John Locke (b) Jean Jacques Rousseau
13. Industrialisation began in England in
(c) Arthur Young (d) George Danton
(a) the first half of the 18th century
2. The ______ century witnessed the emergence of social (b) the second half of the 18th century
groups viz., the middle class. (c) the first half of the 19th century
(a) 19th (b) 18th (d) the second half of the 17th century
(c) 20th (d) 17th 14. Germany faced the crisis known as hyperinflation in
3. Who proposed the idea of social contract between the year of
people and their representatives? (a) 1950 (b) 1923 (c) 1914 (d) 1940
(a) Jean Paul Marat (b) Jean Jacques Rousseau 15. Which of the following factors are responsible for the
(c) CL Montesquieu (d) FMA Voltaire
rise of Hitler?
4. In his book, ‘The Spirit of Laws’, ______ proposed a (a) Crisis in economy (b) Crisis in polity
division of power within the Government between the (c) Crisis in society (d) All of these
legislative, the executive and the judiciary. 16. Adolf Hitler was born in _____ in Austria.
(a) Voltaire (b) Rousseau (a) 1871 (b) 1889 (c) 1875 (d) 1885
(c) Montesquieu (d) Descartes
17. In ______, the famous Enabling Act, was passed,
5. When did Louis XVI become the king of France?
which gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament
(a) 1774 (b) 1789
and rule by decree.
(c) 1777 (d) 1791
(a) 1931 (b) 1933 (c) 1940 (d) 1924
6. Which groups of French society would have gained
18. Ngo Dinh Diem, Vo Nguyen Giap, Pham Van Dong
from the Constitution of 1791?
and Ho Chi Minh were the famous leaders of
(a) Middle class (b) Richer section of society
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) None of these (a) Vietnam (b) China
(c) South Korea (d) North Korea
7. In 18th century, political clubs became an important
19. Who is the founder of Vietnamese Communist
rallying point for people who wished to discuss
(Vietnam Cong San Dang) party?
government policies and plan their own form of
(a) Pham Van Dong (b) Ngo Dinh Diem
action. Of them which club was most successful?
(c) Ho Chi Minh (d) None of these
(a) The Jacobins (b) The Marseillaise
(c) The Bolsheviks (d) None of these 20. Who was the first President of the Vietnam
Democratic Republic?
8. The National Anthem of France the Marseillaise was
(a) Ngo Dinh Diem (b) Henry Navarre
composed by
(c) Ho Chi Minh (d) None of these
(a) John Locke (b) Jean Paul Marat
(c) Roget de L’Isle (d) None of these 21. Subhash Chandra Bose escaped from India in
(a) 1940 (b) 1941
9. Name the socialist, who sought to build a cooperative
(c) 1942 (d) 1943
community called New Harmony in Indiana.
(a) Louis Blance (b) Robert Owen 22. Who organised Abhinav Bharat?
(c) Henry Mayhew (d) None of these (a) Damodar Chapekar
(b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
10. At the beginning of the 20th century, the vast (c) Rash Bihari Bose
majority of Russian were (d) Vasant Kumar
(a) workers (b) money lenders
(c) traders (d) agriculturists 23. Who among the following was hanged by the British
Government in the Kakori Conspiracy?
11. The Russian Social Democratic Workers party was (a) Bhagat Singh
founded in _______ by socialists. (b) Chandrashekhar Azad
(a) 1871 (b) 1914 (c) Ram Prasad Bismil
(c) 1898 (d) 1901 (d) Batukeshwar Dutt
Events and Process 565
24. Who among the following composed the famous 35. Who founded the Banaras Hindu University?
flagsong ‘Jhanda Uncha Rahe Hamara’? (a) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Maithili Sharan Gupta (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(b) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Makhan Lal Chaturvedi (d) None of the above
(d) Shyam Lal Gupta ‘Prasad’
36. The first woman President of the Indian National
25. When did JawaharLal Nehru become the President of Congress was
the Indian National Congress for the first time? (a) Kasturba Gandhi
(a) 1929 (b) 1927 (b) Annie Beasant
(c) 1921 (d) 1932 (c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
26. The leader of the peasants’ movement in Bihar in
1930’s was 37. The Quit India Movement started at
(a) CR Das (b) Swami Sahajanand (a) Delhi on 15 August, 1942
(c) Muzaffar Ahamad (d) Rajendra Prasad (b) Bombay on 8 August, 1942
(c) Lahore on 7 July, 1942
27. Who led the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928? (d) Wardha on 7 August, 1942
(a) Followers of Gandhiji
(b) Congress Socialist Party 38. Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated on
(c) Leftists (a) 26 January, 1948
(d) Kisan Sabha (b) 30 January, 1948
(c) 30 January, 1949
28. The strategy of ‘Divide and Rule’ was adopted by (d) 26 January, 1950
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Minto (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’ 39. Who initiated the greeting of ‘Jai Hind’?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
29. Delhi became the capital of India in (b) BG Tilak
(a) 1910 (b) 1911 (c) 1916 (d) 1923 (c) JawaharLal Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
30. Consider the following events
1. Swadeshi Movement 40. Of the following, whose ideas had influenced
2. Home Rule Movement Mahatma Gandhi’s thought?
3. Anti-Rowlatt Act Movement (a) Karl Marx (b) Hitler
4. Khilafat Movement (c) Tolstoy (d) Lenin
Their correct chronological order is 41. Which of the following statements regarding Quit
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 India Movement is correct?
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 2 4
(a) It was entirely a non-violent movement
31. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of (b) The upper middle class did not show interest in this
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre? movement
(c) The Muslims did not participate in this movement
(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Hardinge
(d) The movement paved the way for British seriously
(c) Lord Chelmsford (d) Lord Irwin
considering granting freedom to India
32. The first movement launched against the British in
42. The famous song ‘‘Raghupati Raghav Raja Ram’’ was
India was
sung during Dandi March by the renowned musician
(a) Khilafat Movement
(b) Swadeshi Movement (a) Mallikarjun Mansur
(c) Non-cooperation Movement (b) Krishna Rao Shankar Pandit
(c) Onkar Nath Thakur
(d) Quit India Movement
(d) Digambar Vishnu Paluskar
33. Who established Hindustan Socialist Republican
43. The capital of India was shifted to Delhi during the
Army?
time of
(a) SC Bose
(a) Minto
(b) Ras Bihari Bose
(b) Chelmsford
(c) Chandrashekhar Azad
(c) Curzon
(d) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(d) Hardinge
34. Who was called by the British rulers as ‘the leader of
44. Before Delhi, where was the capital of India during
Indian unrest’?
the British India?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) MK Gandhi (a) Lucknow (b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta (d) Patna
566 Study Package for NTSE

45. Whom did Mahatma Gandhi describe ‘as pure as 48. According to Nazi ideology, there was no equality
crystal, as brave as a lion and the most perfect man in between people, but only a
the political field’? (a) racial hierarchy
(a) BG Tilak (b) Motilal Nehru (b) economical hierarchy
(c) GK Gokhale (d) CR Das (c) political hierarchy
(d) None of the above
46. Which of the following revolutionary leaders
organised an attack on the armoury of Chittagong? 49. Nazis wanted only a society of pure and healthy
(a) Jatin Das ‘Nordic Aryans’. This means
(b) Chandra Shekhar Azad (a) Aryans who lived in North European countries
(c) CR Das (b) Aryans who had German or related origin
(d) Surya Sen (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of the above
47. ‘One people, one empire, and one leader’ is the famous
slogan of 50. Hitler becomes Chancellor of Germany on
(a) Mazzini (a) January, 1933
(b) Bismarck (b) March, 1930
(c) Adolf Hitler (c) January, 1935
(d) Lenin (d) February, 1938

High Skill Questions

1. Who was the leader of the Jacobin club? 9. Olympe de Gouges was one of the most important of
(a) Voltaire (b) Mantesquieu the politically active women in revolutionary
(c) Robespierre (d) Rousseau (a) France (b) Spain (c) Prussia (d) Italy
2. In which year all men of 21 years and above in France 10. Napoleon Bonaparte crowned himself ‘Emperor of
regardless of their wealth did get the right to vote? France’ in
(a) In 1791 (b) In 1789 (a) 1798 (b) 1791
(c) In 1792 (d) In 1795 (c) 1804 (d) 1811
3. On 21 September, 1792 the newly elected assembly
abolished the monarchy and declared France as a
11. In which year, Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated at
(a) republic (b) democracy Waterloo?
(c) sovereign state (d) socialist state (a) 1810 (b) 1815
(c) 1797 (d) 1812
4. What was the charge against Louis XVI by the court?
(a) Autocracy 12. What do you mean by Suffragette Movement?
(b) Treason (a) A movement to give women the right to vote
(c) Misusing state’s wealth (b) A movement to give men the right to vote
(d) None of the above (c) A movement to give both men and women the right to vote
(d) A movement to give women the right to participate in the
5. Which period in France was referred to as the reign of Government
Terror?
(a) 1793 to 1794 (b) 1789 to 1791 13. ______ were against private property and saw it as
(c) 1770 to 1774 (d) 1772 to 1795 the root of all social ills of the time.
(a) Liberals (b) Radicals
6. Who was the inventor of Guillotine? (c) Nationalists (d) Socialists
(a) Robespierre (b) Louis XVI
(c) Dr Guillotine (d) Dr Danton 14. _______ believed that to free themselves from
capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a
7. ‘‘Terror is nothing but justice, swift, severe and
radically socialist society, where all property was
inflexible; ______ and is used to meet the most urgent
needs of the fatherland’’. Who is the speaker? socially controlled.
(a) Rousseau (b) Desmoulins (a) Marx (b) Robert Owen
(c) Robespierre (d) Montesquieu (c) Locke (d) None of these

8. In which year, the women in France did win the Right 15. What does the term ‘Jadidists’ mean?
to Vote? (a) Socialist reformers within the Russian empire
(b) Muslim reformers within the Russian empire
(a) 1790 (b) 1871
(c) Nationalists within the Russian empire
(c) 1850 (d) 1946
(d) None of the above
Events and Process 567
16. At the time of the First World War, who was the Tsar 28. Synagogue is the place of worship for people of
in Russia? (a) Nazi faith (b) Jewish faith
(a) Nicholas IV (b) Nicholas II (c) Parsi faith (d) Buddhist faith
(c) Louis VI (d) Nicholas X
29. The first Indian to denounce the ‘Economic Drain
17. _______ is a political philosophy that stressed the Theory’ in the House of Commons of British.
importance of tradition, established institutions and (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
customs, and preferred gradual development to quick (c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (d) Shyamji Krishna Verma
change. 30. Match the following
(a) Liberalism (b) Conservatism
(c) Radicalism (d) None of these List I List II
18. In ______, representatives of the European powers, A. Lord Wellesley 1. Fort William College
Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria, who had B. Lord Cornwallis 2. Sanskrit College for Hindus
collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to C. Sir Thomas Munro 3. Ryotwari Systems in South
draw up a settlement for Europe and signed the India
D. Lord Minto 4. Indian Press Act, 1910
Treaty of Vienna.
(a) 1817 (b) 1815 Codes
(c) 1818 (d) 1820 A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
19. American Constitution came into force in (b) 2 3 4 1
(a) 1790 (b) 1789 (c) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1850 (d) 1950 (d) 3 4 2 1
20. Mazzini, Garibaldi and Cavour, all made their 31. Match the following
contribution in their own way in the unification of.
(a) Germany (b) Italy List I List II
(c) Russia (d) Britain
A. Brahmo Samaj 1. Swami Vivekanand
21. ‘April Thesis’ was given by the Bolshevik leader B. Ramkrishna Mission 2. Dayanand Saraswati
(a) Vladimir Lenin (b) A Shlyapnikov C. Arya Samaj 3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Plekhanov (d) None of these D. Satyshodhak Samaj 4. Jyotiba Phule

22. The _______ party was renamed as the Russian Codes

Communist Party. A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(a) Mensheviks (b) Bolsheviks
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) People’s (d) None of these
(c) 3 1 2 4
23. _______ was an Indian revolutionary and the founder (d) 1 2 3 4
of the Mexican Communist Party.
32. Match the following
(a) Rajani Palme Dutta (b) MN Roy
(c) PC Joshi (d) None of these Newspapers Editors
24. In Russia ‘Kulaks’ means A. Samachar Darpan 1. Ram Mohan Roy
(a) the name for well-to-do peasants B. Mirat-ul-Akhbar 2. BG Tilak
(b) the small sized peasant C. Kesari 3. Mahatma Gandhi
(c) the traders D. Young India 4. John Clark Marshman
(d) the factory workers
Codes
25. The deadly poison ‘Agent Orange’ was sprayed over A B C D
Vietnam to destroy forests and fields by ______ forces. (a) 2 1 4 3
(a) Japanese (b) French (c) German (d) US (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
26. US used _____, agent orange and phosphorous bombs (d) 4 1 2 3
to destroy villages and jungles of Vietnam.
33. Which Indian revolutionary helped Subhash
(a) Napalam (b) Hydrogen bomb
Chandra Bose in raising ‘Indian National Army’?
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) None of these
(a) Batukeshwar Dutt (b) Rash Bihari Bose
27. After the Versailles Treaty ______ lost its overseas (c) Ram Prasad Bismil (d) Surya Sen
colonies, population, territories, iron and coal 34. Which Act of the Government of India introduced the
reserves to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania. separated electorate for Muslims?
(a) Germany (b) Canada (a) 1909 (b) 1919
(c) Britain (d) None of these (c) 1935 (d) None of these
568 Study Package for NTSE

35. Who wrote ‘Poverty and Un-British rule in India’? 40. In which year the Muslim League was founded?
(a) RC Dutt (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) 1904 (b) 1906 (c) 1908 (d) 1911
(c) DR Gadgil (d) BN Ganguli
41. Integration of states was done by
36. Who was the President of the Indian National (a) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
Congress at the time of Indian Independence? (b) Sheikh Abdullah
(a) JB Kriplani (c) Maulana Azad
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) Motilal Nehru
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Rajendra Prasad 42. Who was the first English President of the Indian
37. Who was the Commander-in-Chief of INA before National Congress?
Subhash Chandra Bose? (a) AO Hume (b) CF Andrews
(a) Giani Pritam Singh (c) George Yule (d) Hamilton
(b) Capt Mohan Singh
43. When did Cripps Mission come to India?
(c) Major Fuzihara
(d) Capt Suraj Mal (a) 1939 (b) 1942
(c) 1945 (d) 1946
38. Who was not associated with the Ghadar Party?
(a) Lala Har Dayal 44. Who did not support the Non-cooperation Movement?
(b) Kartar Singh (a) Motilal Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Ganesh Vishnu Pingle (c) Saukat Ali (d) Annie Beasant
(d) Shyamji Krishna Verma
45. Which paper was published by early leaders of Indian
39. Which one of the following faced trial in Kakori Case? Congress in England?
(a) Asfaquallah Khan (b) Rajendra Lahiri (a) India (b) Indian
(c) Roshan Singh (d) All of these (c) Indian Opinion (d) The Leader

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c)
 Chapter
4
Livelihoods, Economics
and Societies
Forest Society and Colonialism
Forest Resources
Forests are renewable resources and contribute
substantially to economic development of a country.
They also play a major role in enhancing the quality of
environment.
l Forests provide us bamboo wood for fuel, grass, charcoal,
packaging, fruits, flowers, animals, birds and many
other things.
l Between 1700 to 1995, the period of industrialisation,
13.9 million sq km of forest or 9.3% of the world’s total
area was cleared for industrial use, cultivation, pastures
and fuel wood.
l Under colonial rule, deforestation became more
systematic and extensive.
Land to be Improved
In the colonial period, cultivation expanded rapidly. The
British encouraged the production of commercial crops
like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton. The demand for these
crops increased for the growing need of urban
population and raw materials for industries.
l The colonial powers thought that forests were
unproductive, so land should be brought under
cultivation, so that it could enhance the income of the
state. Between 1880 to 1920, cultivated area rose by
6.7 million hectares.
Decline in Forest Cover due to Railways
The spread of railways played an important role in the
decline of forests cover in India. Wood was used as fuel
to run locomotives and sleepers were required to hold
tracks together.
l Each mile of railway track required between 1760 to
2000, sleepers.
l By 1890, about 25500 km of track had been laid and in
1946, the length of the tracks had increased to over
765000 km.
l As the railway tracks spread through India, a large and
large number of trees were required.
Rise of Commercial Forestry
The British Government appointed German expert
Dietrich Brandis, the first Inspector General of Forests
in India. Brandis realised that a proper system had to be
introduce to manage forests and people had to be
trained in the science of conservation. Brandis set-up
the Indian Forest Service in 1864 and helped to
formulate the Indian Forest Act of 1865.
l The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at
Dehradun in 1906.
l The Forest Act of 1865, was amended twice, once in 1878
and then in 1927.
l The headquarters of Forest Survey of India is at
Dehradun and four regional offices are at Shimla,
Kolkata, Nagpur and Bengaluru.
Scientific Forestry
A system of cutting trees controlled by the forest department in which old
trees are cut and new ones are planted.
How the Lives of People are Affected by
the Forest Laws?
The Forest Act of 1878, divided forest into three
categories, viz reserved, protected and village forests.
570
The best forests were called ‘reserved forests’ from
where villagers could not take anything for their own
use. For house building or fuel, villagers could take
wood from only protected and village forests.
l Villagers wanted forests to satisfy different needs–fuel,
fodder, leaves. The Forest Act meant severe hardship for
them.
l It became quite difficult for them to meet their everyday
needs like, getting wood for their houses, collecting
fruits and roots, hunting and fishing, grazing their
cattle etc.
l To meet their needs, people were forced to steal woods.
l If they were caught, they were given harsh punishment
or sometimes were harassed by the police and forests
staff.
l Women, who collected fuel wood had to face much
harassment.
How did Forest Rules Affect Cultivation?
Shifting cultivation is a traditional agricultural practice
in many parts of Asia, Africa and South America. It was
one of the major impacts of European colonialism.
l In shifting cultivation, cultivators used to cut certain
parts of the forest in rotation, burn the trees and sow
seeds in the ashes, after the first monsoon rains.
l The British Government decided to ban shifting
cultivation.
l As a result, many communities dependent on shifting
cultivation were forced to displace from their own home.
l Some had to change their occupations, while some
revolted against the law.
The Effects of Colonial Management
in Bastar
Bastar is located in the Southern most part of
Chhattisgarh and the borders of Andhra Pradesh,
Orissa and Maharashtra. A number of different
communities live in Bastar, they are Maria and Muria
Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras, Halbas etc.
l In 1905, the British Government proposed to reserve
two-thirds of the forests in Bastar. The Colonial
government ordered to stop shifting cultivation, hunting
and collection of forest products.
l A large number of people were displaced without any
notice or compensation.
l Some villagers were allowed to stay on in the reserved
forests on the condition that they would work free for the
Government.
l The people of Bastar organised themselves and revolted
against the British.
l Markets were looted, the houses of officials and traders,
schools and police stations were burnt and robbed and
grains were redistributed.
Study Package for NTSE
l The British sent troops to suppress the rebellion and it
took three months for the British to regain control.
Forest Transformation in Java
Java is an island of Indonesia. It was mostly covered
with forests. The colonial power in Indonesia were the
Dutch, and they wanted timber from Java to build ship.
The Kalanga of Java were a Community of skilled forest
cutters and shifting cultivators.
l In the 18th century, Dutch tried to make the Kalangas
work under them.
l In 1770, the Kalangas revolted and attacked the Dutch
fort at Joana but the uprising was easily suppressed by
the Dutch.
l In the 19th century, the Dutch enacted Forest laws in
Java. According to this law, villager’s access to forests
were restricted. Wood could only be cut for making
houses and river boats.
l Villagers were punished for grazing cattle in the forests,
transporting wood without a permit, or travelling on
forest roads with horse carts or cattle.
l Around 1890, a widespread movement under the
leadership of Surontiko Samin developed. People
protected by lying down on their land when the Dutch
came to survey it, while others refused to pay taxes,
fines or perform labour.
Pastoralists in the Modern World
Pastoral Nomads and their Movements
Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir
l Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir are great
herders of goat and sheep. Many of them migrated to
this region in search of pastures for their animals.
l In winter, when the mountains were covered with snow,
they lived with their herds in the low hills of Siwalik
range. Here, the dry scrub forests provided pasture for
their herds.
l In summer, when the snow melted in the mountains and
mountainsides were lush green, they moved onto high
levels.
l The variety of sprouted grass provided rich nutritious
forage for their animal.
l By the end of September, they were on the move again
for their downward journey. They continued this
practice every year.
Gaddi Shepherds of Himachal Pradesh
l Gaddi Shepherds of Himachal Pradesh had a similar
cycle of seasonal movements like Gujjar Bakarwals of
Jammu and Kashmir.
l During winter, they grazed their flocks in scrub forests
of the low hills of Siwalik range.
Livelihoods, Economics and Societies
l By April, they moved North and spent the summer in
Lahul and Spiti. When the snow melted on the high
mountains, they moved on to higher mountain
meadows.
l By September, they began their return movement. On
the way they stopped once again in the villages of Lahul
and Spiti, where they reaped the summer harvest and
sowed their winter crop.
l They further descended to their winter base – the
Shiwalik hills. Next April, once again the began their
march with their cattle to the summer meadows. Every
year, they went through the similar cycle of seasonal
movement.
Other Pastoral Communities
l In Garhwal and Kumaon, the Gujjar cattle herders came
down to the dry forests of the bhabar in the winter and
went up to the high meadows the bugyals in summer.
l Many pastoral communities like Bhotiyas, Sherpas and
Kinnauris followed the cyclical movement between
summer and winter pastures.
l All of them had to adjust to seasonal changes and make
effective use of available pastures in different places.
Bhabar Dry forested area below the foothills of garhwal and kumaun.
Bugyal Vast meadows in the high mountains.
Pastoral Nomads in Plateaus,
Plains and Deserts of India
Dhangar Community of Maharashtra
Dhangars were an important pastoral community of
Maharashtra. They were mainly shepherds, blanket
weavers and buffalo herders. In the early twentieth
century, their population in this region was estimated
to be 467000. They stayed in central plateau of
Maharashtra during monsoon, which was a semi-arid
area with poor soil and low rainfall. Here they
cultivated only bajra.
l The thorny scrub of this plateau provided forage for
their cattle.
l In October, when they had reaped bajra crop, they
started their journey Westwards to Konkan, where
they and their flock was welcomed by the Konkan
peasants.
l The Dhangar flocks were fed on the stubble (or green
stalks left after the Kharif harvest) and in return their
flocks manured the fields.
Other Pastoral Communities
The Gollas, Kurumas and Kurubas were important
pastoral communities of the dry central plateau of
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
571
l It was the alteration of the monsoon and dry season that
defined the seasonal rhythms of their movement.
l They lived near the woods, cultivated small patches of
land, sold woven blankets and took care of their herds.
l In the summer, they moved to the coastal tracts and left
when the monsoon came.
The Life Style of Banjaras
The Banjaras were an important group of graziers,
which were found in the villages of Uttar Pradesh,
Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
l In search of good pasture land for their cattle, they
moved over long distances.
l In exchange for grain and fodder, they sold plough cattle
and other goods to villagers.
Pastoral Community in Desert
Raikas lived in the deserts of Rajasthan. Before 1947,
they used to migrate into Sindh and grazed their
animals on the banks of the Indus. But after partition,
when Sindh became a part of Pakistan, this activity was
restricted.
During the monsoon, the Raikas of Barmer, Jaisalmer,
Jodhpur and Bikaner stayed in their home villages,
where pasture was available. By October, when these
grazing grounds were exhausted, they moved out in
search of new pasture.
l They returned again in their home villages during the
next monsoon.
l In recent years, Raikas have been migrating to Haryana
instead of Sindh region.
l One group of Raikas, known as Maru (Desert) Raikas,
herded camel and another group reared sheep and goat.
Effects of Colonial Rule on
Pastoral Life
The Colonial government made different laws from time
to time, which severely affected the lives of the
pastoralists.
Effects of the Wasteland Rules
l The colonial power believed all grazing land as
‘Wasteland’ because these were unproductive.
l These lands did not produce revenue or agricultural
product.
l From the mid-nineteenth century, the Colonial
Government introduced Wasteland Rules, which were
enacted in various parts of our country.
l By implementing this rule, the government took over
uncultivated lands and gave these to selected
individuals.
572
l In most areas, the lands taken over by the government
were actually grazing lands used regularly by the
pastoralist communities.
l Thus, the expansion of cultivation created a lot of
problems for pastoralists.
Effects of the Forest Act
l The Forest Acts made by the British Government
changed the lives of pastoralists.
l In the reserved forests, no pastoral activity was allowed
and in the protected forests, their activity was strictly
restricted.
l In the protected forests, they needed a permit for entry.
l The permit specified the timing of their entry and
departure.
l If they overstayed there, they were liable to fines.
Effects of Criminal Tribes Act
In 1871, the British Government passed the Criminal
Tribes Act. By this Act, many communities of
craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as
Criminal Tribes.
l They were stated to be criminal by nature and birth.
l As a result of this Act, they were not allowed to move
without a permit.
l The village police also kept a strict watch on them.
Imposition of Grazing Tax and its Effect
In the mid-nineteenth century, Grazing Tax was
introduced by the British government in most pastoral
lands of India.
l In order to increase its income, the government imposed
tax even on animals.
l The pastoralists had to pay tax on every animal they
grazed in the pastures.
l They were issued passes, pay the tax and only then they
were allowed to enter a grazing tract.
Pastoralism in Africa
In Africa, over 22 million people depend on some form of
pastoral activity for their livelihood. The important
pastoral communities of Africa are Bedouins,
Berbers, Massai, Somali, Baran and Turkana.
Most of them lived in semi-arid grassland where rainfed
agriculture is difficult. They raise cattle, camels, goat,
sheep and donkeys. They sell milk, meat, animal skin
and wool. Some earn through trade and transport,
others combine pastoral activity with agriculture.
Changes in the Life of Massai Community
Before colonial rules, Massailand stretched over a vast
area from North Kenya to the steppes of Northern
Study Package for NTSE
Tanzania. The Massai cattle herders live primarily in
East Africa, 300000 in Southern Kenya and another
150000 in Tanzania.
After colonial rule, best grazing lands of Massai
community were taken for settlement and gradually
Massai were pushed into small area in South Kenya and
North Tanzania. The Massai community lost about 60%
of their land and were confined to an arid zone with
insufficient rainfall and poor pastures.
Peasants and Farmers
The Time of Open Fields and Commons in
England
The agriculture system in England changed
dramatically over the late 18th and early 19th century.
Before this time, a large part of England was open. The
land was not enclosed or partitioned by the landlords. At
the beginning of each year, people was allocated a
number of strips to cultivate. These strips were of
varying quality, not next to each other.
l Beyond these strips of land, there was also common
land.
l Everybody had access to the common land. Here they
grazed their cattle, collected berries and fruits for food
and fuel wood for fire.
l They also fished in the rivers and ponds and hunted
rabbit in common forests.
l For the poor, the common land was essential for survival
as it helped them to overcome bad times.
The Factors Led to the Enclosures
in England
After the mid-eighteenth century, the enclosure
movement swept through the countryside in England.
In the 16th century, the price of wool went up in the
world market. Rich farmers wanted to expand wool
production for profit. So, they began dividing and
enclosing common land to separate their property from
that of others.
From the mid-eighteenth century, the population of
Britain expanded rapidly. Between 1750 to 1900, it
multiplied over four times, mounting from 7 million in
1750 to 30 million in 1900. Thus, the need of different
food crops greatly increased, which forced the landlords
to enclose more lands for cultivation.
l Britain was industrialising at that time. More and more
people migrated to towns in search of jobs. As the urban
population increased, the market for foodgrains
expanded, which encouraged the land owners to enclose
more lands.
l During the last decade of the 18th century, France was
at war with England. Then, it became quite difficult for
Livelihoods, Economics and Societies
England to import foodgrains from Europe. Rich land
owners of England were encouraged to produce more
and more foodgrains by enclosing the common village
land.
l The greed of the land owners was as much responsible
for the extension of enclosures as the need of the hour.
As profits flowed in, the land owners pressurised the
Parliament to pass the Enclosure Acts.
The Conditions of the Poor after the
Enclosure Movement
Enclosures allowed only the landlords to make more
profit. But for the poor, life became hard. They could no
longer collect firewood, fruit and berries, or graze their
cattle or hunt small animals for meat.
l Enclosure happened on an extensive scale in the
Midlands and the countries around which led the poor
displaced from their own land. From the Midlands, they
moved to the Southern countries of England in search of
job. But nowhere, they could find secure jobs.
l Earlier the labourer lived with their landlords. They
helped their master and worked for them throughout
the year. But, as landowners tried to make more profits,
they cut the amount they had to spend on their labourer.
Thus, the labourers were employed only during harvest
time.
The Introduction of Threshing Machines
Enclosures allowed the richer landlords to expand the
land under their control, but it affected the poor
severely. The poor were not only starved but they
became jobless.
l Fearing a shortage of labour, the landlord began buying
threshing machines. They thought these machines
would help them to reduce their dependence on
labourers.
l A single threshing machine could do the work of more
than twenty labourers.
l Thus, the loss of their livelihood, forced the poor to
oppose the introduction of threshing machine.
l At that time farmers received threatening letters,
urging them to stop using these machines. Most of
these letters were signed in the name of Captain
Swing.
l The Captain Swing riots spread in the countryside at
that time.
Sod Pieces of Earth with grass.
l The Government took strong action. In 1976 prisoners
were tried, nine men were hanged, 505 transported, over
450 of them to Australia and 644 put behind bars.
573
The Impact of the Westward Expansion of
the Settlers in the USA
From 1775 to 1783, after the American War of
Independence and the formation of the United States of
America, the Americans began to move Westward.
l As a result, the American Indians had to be cleared from
the land. After 1800, the US Government took a policy of
driving the American Indian Westward, first beyond the
river Mississippi and then further West.
l To displace local tribe was not an easy task. Many wars
were waged in which Indians were massacred and many
of their villages burnt.
l The American Indians were forced to sign treatise and
move Westward.
l The settlers slowly and slowly kept on their march
towards the West. They settled on the Appalachian
plateau by the first decade of the 18th century and then
moved into the Mississippi valley between 1820 and
1850.
Wherever the settlers went, they slashed and burnt the
forests and cleared the land for cultivation. The settlers
cleared larger areas and started cultivation. They
ploughed the land and sowed corn and wheat. After
1860, the Great Plains across the river Mississippi
became a major wheat producing area of America.
The Conversion of the Countryside in the
USA from the Bread Basket to a Dust Bowl
In the early 20th century, wheat cultivation in USA had
expanded dramatically. Farmers slashed and burnt
forests indiscriminately, uprooted all vegetation, which
had deep roots in the Earth. Because of the cutting of
trees and grasses, there were no rains year after year
and the temperatures soared.
l The tractors had broken the soil into dust. The whole
region had become a dust bowl.
l In the 1930s, terrifying dust storms began to blow over
the Southern Plains.
l The wind blew with ferocious speed. Black blizzards
rolled in sometimes 7000 to 8000 ft high. It looked like
monstrous waves of muddy water.
l People were blinded and choked, cattle were suffocated
to death, sand covered fields and rivers and destroyed
the tractors and machines.
l The American dream of a land of plenty had turned into
a nightmare.
l In their greed for more profit, the Americans played
havoc with the natural ecology. They completely
destroyed the ecological balance of the land.
574
l After 1930, the Americans realised that they had to
maintain the ecological conditions of each region.
The Wheat Farmers of USA
From the late 19th century, there was a dramatic
expansion of wheat production in the USA. The urban
population increased and the export market became
bigger.
l The spread of railways made it easy to transport the
grain from the wheat growing regions to the Eastern
coast for export.
l During First World War, the world market boomed.
Russian supplies of wheat were cut off, thus USA had to
feed Europe.
l In 1910, about 45 million acres of land in the USA was
under wheat. After nine years, the area had expanded to
74 million acres, an increase of about 65%.
l In USA, a new class was emerged - ‘the wheat barons’
who controlled as much as 2000 to 3000 acres of land
individually.
The Great Agrarian Depression
During First World War and post-war years, the
production of agriculture expanded very rapidly. But
the boom of late 19th and early 20th century seemed to
have come to an end.
l By the 1920s, unsold stocks of grains piled up, storehouses
overflowed. Vast amount of foodgrains became fodder.
l Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed.
l All these factors created the Great Agrarian
Depression of the 1930s that ruined wheat farmers
everywhere.
The Indian Farmer and Opium Production
In the late 18th century, like East India Company was
buying tea and silk from China for sale in England. The
major question before the company was how to pay back
the cost of the tea brought from China.
l To solve this problem, the British merchants began
smuggling opium into China as the Chinese ruler was
not prepared to legally allow the trade of opium within
his country. They were aware of the dangers of opium
addiction.
l By the early 1820s, about 10000 crates were being
annually smuggled into China, after fifteen years it
became 35000 crates every year.
l By 1773, the East India Company in Bengal had
established a monopoly to trade in opium.
l By 1820s, the British Government found that the opium
production in their territory was declining but its
production outside British territories, i.e., princely
states in central India and Rajasthan was increasing.
Study Package for NTSE
The Making of a Global World
Silk Routes Link the World
The silk routes were regarded as the most important
route linking the distant parts of the world. Historians
have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea
which are linking Asia with Europe and Northern
Africa.
l These routes are known to have existed even before the
Christian Era and flourished till the 15th century.
l These ancient routes were called silk routes because
along these routes were mainly carried the silk cargoes
from China to different regions of Asia.
l Chinese pottery, Indian spices and textiles were also
carried by these routes.
l Along these routes, the Buddhist preachers, Christian
missionaries and later on Muslim preachers travelled.
l These routes proved to be a great source of trade and
cultural links between distant parts of the world.
Food Travels
Usually, traders and travellers introduced new crops to
the lands they travelled. It is a common belief that
‘noodles’ travelled West from China and became
‘spaghetti’.
l Common foods like potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize,
tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes etc were introduced
in Europe and Asia after Columbus discovered
America.
l These foods came from America’s original inhabitants-
American Indians.
l Europe’s poor began to eat better and live longer with
the introduction of potato.
The Global Transfer of Disease in the Pre-
modern Period Helped in the Colonisation
of America
The Spanish and Portuguese were the first Europeans
to conquer America in mid-sixteenth century.
The conquest was not only as a result of superior fire
power.
l It was the germs of disease like small pox which they
took with them.
l America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against
germs particularly of small pox.
l The germs of small pox brought by the Europeans to
America spread largely in America.
l This disease killed and decimated whole communities,
paving the way for colonisation.
Livelihoods, Economics and Societies
The Economical Change in 19th Century
l Economists identify three types of movement or flows for
economical changes in 19th century.
l The first is the flow of trade which referred largely to
trade in goods, specially cloth and wheat.
l The second is the flow of labour due to migration of
people in search of employment.
l The third is the movement of capital for short-term or
long-term investments over long distances.
The Meaning of ‘Corn Laws’
l Industrialisation and population growth had increased
the demand for foodgrains in Britain in late 18th
century.
l This situation pushed up foodgrains prices.
l Under pressure from landlord class, the government
restricted the import of corn. These laws were commonly
known as ‘Corn Laws’.
l After the introduction of ‘Corn Laws’ food prices became
very high.
l Unhappy with high food prices, industrialists, urban
dwellers forced the British Government to abolish the
Corn Laws.
l After the abolition of Corn Laws, food could be imported
into Britain more cheaply than it could be produced
within the country.
l British agriculture was unable to compete with imports.
The Impact of Technology on Food Availability
l Technology or new inventions like railways, steamships,
telegraph, refrigerated ship had a great impact on food
availability.
l Faster railways, lighter wagons and larger ships helped
to move food more cheaply and quickly from far away
farms in America, Australia or New Zealand to final
markets of Europe.
l The refrigerated ships greatly helped to transport the
perishable food items over long distance. Especially, it
greatly facilitated the shipment of frozen meat from
America to different European countries.
l Earlier time meat was considered as an expensive
luxury beyond the reach of the European poor. But as a
result of the refrigerated ship, meat became a daily diet
for the poor.
The Effects of Rinderpest in Africa
l Rinderpest was a fatal animal disease which arrived in
Africa in the late 1880s.
l This disease which came from British Asia along with
the Asian animals spread like forest fire in the whole
Africa and killed 90% of the cattle.
l The loss of cattle destroyed livelihood of many Africans.
l Planters, mine owners and colonial Government
successfully monopolisted the remained cattle resources.
575
l Completely impoverished African were forced into the
labour market. They had no option left.
l Under such devastation the European colonisers were
able to easily conquer and subdue Africa.
Indentured Labour Migration from India
l Indentured labour means a bonded labourer under
contract to work for an employer for a specific amount of
time.
l In the 19th century, hundred of thousands of Indian and
Chinese labourer went to work on plantations, in mines
and in different construction projects around the world.
l Most Indian indentured workers came from the
present-day regions of Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Central India and Tamil Nadu.
l In mid-nineteenth century these regions of India
experienced many social changes which forced the poor
to migrate in search of work.
Indian Trade and Colonialism
Fine cottons of India exported all over Europe. With the
industrialisation, British cotton manufacturers began
to expand and the industrialists pressurised the
governments to restrict cotton imports.
l The British Government introduced high tariffs on
import of cotton cloth.
l Indian textile industry faced stiff competition and
export of cotton began to decline.
l While exports of manufactures declined rapidly, export of
raw materials, like raw cotton, indigo increased very fast.
l Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China
and with the earned money Britain financed tea and
other imports from China.
l Over the 19th century, British manufactures flooded the
Indian market.
l Foodgrain and raw material exports from India to
Britain and the other countries of the world increased.
l The value of British exports to India was much higher
than the value of British imports from India.
l Britain had a ‘trade surplus’ with India.
The Death of Men of Working-Age in Europe
because of the World War
The First World War was the first modern industrial
war. For the first time modern weapons like machine
guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons etc., are used on
a massive scale.
l To fight the war, millions of soldiers had to be recruited
from around the world and most of them were men of
working age.
l During the war, 9 million people were dead and
20 million were injured.
l These deaths and injuries greatly affected the workforce
in Europe. As a result industries were adversely
affected.
576
The First World War Changed the Economic Life of
the People in Britain
The First World War changed the life of the people of
Britain in a number of ways. While Britain was
preoccupied with war, industries had developed in India
and Japan. After war, it was impossible for Britain to
recapture Indian market and compete with Japan
internationally.
l As a result of the war, most of cities, factories, fields and
trades of Britain were ruined.
l When war ended, production contracted and
unemployment increased in Britain. In 1921, one in
every five British workers was out of work.
l Britain had borrowed heavily from US to finance war
expenditure. At the end of the war, Britain was
burdened with huge external debts.
l As a result of the lack of financial resources, the British
Government had to impose heavy taxes on its people.
l The prices of almost all things greatly rose due to the
unavailability of daily use items.
The Great Depression
The Great Depression began around 1929 and lasted till
the mid 1930s. During this period, most of the countries
of the world experienced catastrophic declines in
production, employment, incomes and trades.
The First World War gave a boost to the agriculture
(abundance) and industry of USA. But after the war, there
was a glut in the market and it pushed down the prices of
industrial goods and agricultural product. As a result USA
was caught in a severe economic crisis. American
capitalists stopped all loans to the European countries.
The countries depended crucially on US loans now faced
an acute crises.
The Effects of the Second World War
l The Second World War broke out after two decades of
the First World War (1939-1945).
l It was fought between the Axis powers (Nazi, Germany,
Japan, Italy) and the Allies (Britain, France, Soviet
Union and USA).
l The world saw once again death and destruction on a
wider scale. At least 60 million people were killed and
million were injured.
l Vast parts of Europe and Asia were devastated and
destroyed.
l The war caused an immense amount of economic
devastation and social disruption.
l The USA and Soviet Union emerged as dominant super
power in the world.
l The rise of two world powers led to the race for
armaments in the world of war.
l Germany was weakened and was soon divided into two
parts of East Germany and West Germany.
l Japan and Italy, being defeated nations became weak.
Study Package for NTSE
Bretton Woods Institutions
Bretton Woods Conference established the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the
International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
(popularly known as the World Bank) to maintain
economic stability and full employment in the industrial
world.
l Both these institutions commenced financial operations
in 1947, which they are continuing upto this date.
l Decision making in these institutions is controlled by
the Western Industrial Powers.
l The US has an effective right of veto over key IMF and
World Bank decisions.
l Under this system, the national currencies followed the
fixed exchange rates and were pegged to the US dollars.
l This system ushered an era of unprecedented growth of
trade and incomes for the Western industrial nations
and Japan. There was also world wide spread of
technology and enterprise.
The Decision of MNCs to Relocate Production to
Asian Countries
l Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are large
companies that operate in several countries at the same
time. The first MNCs were established in the 1920s and
the worldwide spread of MNC was a notable feature of
the 1950s and 1960s.
l From the late 1970s, MNCs began to shift production
operations to low wage Asian countries.
l Such a decision increased the job opportunities in the
Asian countries.
l The coming of new MNCs gave the people the
opportunity to enjoy new varieties of things.
l These relocation of industry stimulated world trade and
capital flow.
l These MNCs helped the Asian countries to come out of
the former colonial powers which still held the main
controls of economic power of the new independent
countries.
l MNCs proved a great help to the true beginning of
globalisation.
The Age of Industrialisation
The Meaning of Proto-Industrialisation
Proto-industrialisation means large scale industrial
production for an international market even before the
emergence of factory system. Such production was not
based on factories. This phase of industrialisation
before the appearance of factories is referred to as
Proto-industrialisation by many historians. In the
17th and 18th centuries, the demand for goods began
growing.
Livelihoods, Economics and Societies
The Pace of Industrial Change
The Industrial Revolution took place in Europe in the
18th century. The most dynamic industries in Britain
were cotton and metals. Cotton was the leading sector in
the first phase of industrialisation. Then iron and steel
industry led the way.
l The new industries could not easily displace traditional
industries like domestic units.
l The pace of change in the traditional industries was not
set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries. Small
innovations led the growth in many non-mechanised
sectors.
l Technological changes occurred slowly. Industrialists
accepted the most powerful technology gradually.
Women Workers in Britain Attacked the Spinning
Jenny
Spinning Jenny was invented by James Hargreaves in
1764. This machine speeded up spinning process and
reduced labour demand.
l By the use of this machine, a single worker could make a
number of spindles and spin several threads at a time.
l It meant that as a result of this machine, many weavers
became unemployed.
l Spinning Jenny was introduced in the woolen industry.
l It was the fear of unemployment which made women
workers, who survived on hand spinning, began
attacking the new machines.
l This conflict continued for a long time.
The Port of Surat Declined by the End of the 18th
Century
Before the age of machines the port of Surat on the West
coast of India was the major port to handle the Indian
foreign trade with the West. It connected India to the
Gulf and Red Sea Ports. By the 1750s, export trade
controlled by Indian merchants was breaking down.
l Various European companies, especially the East India
Company gradually gained the monopoly rights to trade.
l They set up and patronised their own ports like Bombay
situated on the West coast of India.
l All this resulted in the decline of old ports like Surat.
l The exports from this port fell dramatically.
l In the last years of the 17th century, the gross value of
trade that passed through Surat was ` 16 million, by
1740s, it slumped to ` 3 million.
The East India Company Appointed Gomastha to
Supervise Weavers in India
After establishing political power, the East India
Company wanted to control the monopoly right to trade.
They appointed paid servant called gomastha to
577
supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the
quality of cloth.
l The East India Company tried to eliminate the existing
traders and brokers connected with the cloth trade and
establish more direct control over the weavers by
appointing gomasthas.
l This system prevented company weavers from dealing
with other buyers. Weavers who took loan from the
gomastha had to hand over the cloth to the gomastha.
They could not give it to any other trader.
l The new gomasthas were outsiders and their treatment
with the weavers was very harsh.
l The weavers lost the space to bargain for prices.
l The price they received was miserably low and the loans
they had accepted tied them to the company.
l Many weavers deserted their villages and set up their
looms elsewhere.
Manchester Comes to India
As cotton industries developed in England, the
industrialists pressurised the government to impose
import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester good
could sell in Britain without any competition from other
countries.
l At the same time, industrialists persuaded the East
India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian
market.
l In the early 19th century, the exports of British cotton
good increased largely.
l Cotton weavers in India faced two problems at the same
time. Their export market collapsed and the local market
shrank being captured with Manchester imports.
l By the 1850s, weaving industry of India began to decline.
l By the 1860s, Indian weavers faced a new problem. As
civil war broke out in America, cotton supplies from US
were cut off.
l Raw cotton exports from India increased and the price of
raw cotton shot up.
l Weavers in India were starved of supplies.
l Factories in India began production. Weaving industry
faced hard competition.
The Early Entrepreneurs of India
l In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore invested in shipping,
shipbuilding, mining, banking, plantations and
insurance.
l In Bombay, Parsis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee
Nusserwanjee Tata built huge industrial empires in
India, accumulated their wealth partly from exports to
China and partly from raw cotton shipments to England.
l Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman set up
the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917. He also
traded with China.
578
Industrial Production in India Increased During the
First World War
Before First World War (1917-1918), the industrial
growth in British India was quite slow. The war created
a dramatically new situation. Almost all the British
mills switched over to the production of war materials
for the British army.
l Manchester imports to India declined.
l Indian mills had a golden opportunity to supply for the
home market.
l As the war prolonged, the Indian industry was asked to
cater to the war needs of the British.
l Indian industry became busy in manufacturing jute
bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse
and mule saddles etc.
l Many new workers were employed and hours of work
were also extended.
l The First World War proved a blessing in disguise for
the Indian industry.
The Role of Advertisement in Expanding the
Markets for Products
In the late 19th century, the British manufacturers
used calenders to popularise their products, unlike
newspapers and magazines, calenders were used even
by people who could not read.
l Like the images of Gods, figures of important
personages, of emperors and nawabs were also used in
advertisements and calenders. when the products were
being used by kings, their quality could not be
questioned.
l Indian manufacturers used nationalist message of
Swadeshi for their products.
Work, Life and Liesure
Reasons behind the Expansion of
Population in London from the Middle of
the 18th Century
The population of London was about 675000 in 1750. It
multiplied four fold from 1 million in 1810 to four
million in 1880.
l According to Historian Gareth Stedman Jones, ‘‘19th
century London was a city of clerks and shopkeepers, of
small masters and skilled artisans, of a growing number
of semi-skilled and sweated out workers, of soldiers and
servants, of casual labourers, street sellers and beggars.
l Five major types of industries in London employed a
large number of people. These industries were clothing
and footwear, wood and furniture, metals and
engineering, printing and stationery and precision
Study Package for NTSE
products, such as surgical instruments, watches and
objects of precious metal.
l During the First World War the number of large
factories increased in London which attracted large
number of people to settle here.
The Changes in the Kind of Work
Available to Women in London between
the 19th and the 20th Century
l Women in the late 18th and early 19th centuries in
Britain were employed in large numbers in the factories
as they were available at cheaper rates than men.
l In the 19th century, due to technological developments,
women lost their industrial jobs and forced to work
within households.
l According to 1861 census, there were a quarter of a
million servants in London, of whom the vast majority
were women.
l A large number of women were engaged in tailoring,
washing, making matchboxes etc.
l In 20th century, there was change once again. At that
time, women got employment in wartime industries and
offices. Then they withdrew from domestic services.
Housing Problems of Poor in London in the
19th Century
After the industrial revolution, a large number of people
began to migrate in London. But, the factory or
workshop owners did not house the migrant workers.
Individual landowners put up cheap and unhealthy
tenements for the workers.
In 1887, a survey revealed that 1 million Londoners
were very poor and were expected to live only up to an
average age of 29 (compared to the average life
expectancy of 55 among the gentry and the middle
class). The condition of slums was very unhealthy.
Gradually, a large number of people began to recognise
the need for housing for the poor.
l The one-room houses occupied by the poor were a
serious threat to public health as they were
overcrowded, badly ventilated and lacked sanitation.
l Poor housing system could create fire hazards which
could engulf other areas in the fire disaster.
l After the Russian Revolution of 1917, there was a
widespread fear of social disorder. Poor section of society
could revolt against the social disparity.
Thus, worker’s mass housing schemes were
accepted by the British Government. A million of
houses, mostly single-family cottage were built by the
British State.
Livelihoods, Economics and Societies
Underground Railway System in London
The underground railway in the world opened on 10th
January, 1863 in London.
l The underground railway solved the transport problem
to a great extent.
l The London tube railway led to a massive displacement
of the London poor.
As a result the population in the city became more
dispersed. Now the people began to settle in
better-planned suburbs and travel to work.
l The expansion of transport network wore down social
distinctions and also created new ones.
Haussmanisation of Paris
In 1852, Louis Napaleon II crowned himself emperor.
After taking over he undertook the rebuilding of Paris
with vigour. The chief architect of the new Paris was Baron
Haussman who rebuilt Paris for continuous 17 years.
l He designed straight, broad avenues or boulevards and
open spaces transplanted full-grown trees.
l This new reconstruction displaced upto 350000 people
from the centre of Paris.
l Some said that the city of Paris had been monstrously
transformed.
l Some lamented the passing of an earlier way of life, and
the development of an upper-class culture.
l Some believed that Haussman had ‘killed the street’
and its life, to produce an empty, boring city, full of
similar-looking boulevards and facades.
579
l The new Paris city soon got converted into a civic pride
as the new capital became the toast of all Europe.
l Paris became the hub of many new architectures, social
and intellectual developments that were very
influential through the 20th century in many parts of
the world.
The Expansion of Bombay’s Population
in the Mid-nineteenth Century
Bombay is the biggest sea-port on the West coast of
India. Bombay became an important administrative
centre in Western India and by the end of the 19th
century it became a major industrial centre. When in
1819, Bombay became the capital of Bombay
Presidency, it attracted more and more people
towards it.
With the growth of trade in cotton and opium, a large
number of traders and bankers as well as artisans and
shopkeepers came to settle in Bombay.
l The establishment of textile mills also led to a fresh
surge in migration.
l By 1921, there were 85 cotton mills with about 146000
workers.
l Large numbers of people from the nearby district of
Ratnagiri to work in the Bombay mills.
l When Bombay became the hub of Indian films many
new people-artists, dramatists, playwriters, poets,
singers, script writers etc. came to settle here.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. When was the Indian Forest Service set-up? 6. How many tigers were killed between 1875-1925?
(a) 1864 (b) 1664 (c) 1564 (d) 1764 (a) 200000 (b) 150000 (c) 80000 (d) 160000
2. How much India’s landmass was under cultivation in 7. Which colonial power ruled Java?
1600? (a) The English (b) The Portuguese
(a) One-third (b) One-sixth (c) One-fourth (d) One-fifth (c) The Dutch (d) The French
3. Which Act was passed in 1865? 8. Where is Bastar located?
(a) Indian Forest Act (b) The Factory Act (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Bihar
(c) The Regulatory Act (d) The Land Acquisition Act (c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh
4. What do you mean by deforestation? 9. Which country occupied Indonesia during the Second
(a) Not planting new trees (b) Selling trees to traders World War?
(c) Disappearance of forests (d) None of the above (a) Japan (b) Germany (c) France (d) England
5. Where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute 10. Which one of the following is not a pastoral
setup in 1906? community?
(a) Bombay (b) Shimla (a) The Rajputs (b) The Sherpas
(c) Dehradun (d) Sunderban (c) The Kinnauris (d) The Bhotiyas
580 Study Package for NTSE
11. What are Dhars? 26. The American Indians settled on the Appalachian
(a) Deep valleys (b) Desert land plateau by the first decade of
(c) Fertile plains (d) High meadows (a) the 16th century (b) the 17th century
12. Which one of the following Acts was passed in 1871? (c) the 18th century (d) the 15th century
(a) Wasteland Rules (b) The Forest Act 27. How much land the wheat barons possess
(c) Grazing Tax (d) The Criminal Tribes Act individually?
13. In which areas, the Raikas lived? (a) Between 600 –1200 acres (b) Between 2000 –3000 acres
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Between 700 –1500 acres (d) Between 4000 –5000 acres
(c) Rajasthan (d) Punjab 28. Which country came to be known as the bread basket
14. Dhangars were an important pastoral community of of the world?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (a) India (b) Japan (c) France (d) USA
(c) Maharashtra (d) Bihar 29. Silk routes are known to have existed, since before
15. Massai tribe is one of the pastoral tribes of the Christian era and thrived almost till the
(a) Asia (b) America (c) Africa (d) Australia (a) 15th century (b) 16th century
(c) 17th century (d) 18th century
16. In which of the continent of the world, about half of
the population lives as pastoralists? 30. Who were the first Europeans to conquer America?
(a) Asia (b) Europe (a) The French (b) The Portuguese
(c) Africa (d) America (c) The Spanish (d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
17. In which part of India Gaddi Shepherd live? 31. What was the ‘Corn Laws’ passed by the British
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Jammu and Kashmir Government?
(c) Karnataka (d) Jharkhand (a) Restriction on the export of corn
(b) Restriction on the import of corn
18. Which one of the following is not a pastoral
(c) Import corn from other countries
community of Africa? (d) Import corn of good quality
(a) The Bedouins (b) The Massai
(c) The Dhangars (d) The Barbers 32. In the 19th century, nearly ______ million people
emigrated from Europe to America and Australia.
19. Which one of the following is the game reserve of
(a) 40 (b) 10 (c) 50 (d) 60
Tanzania?
(a) The Massai Mara Park (b) The Serengeti Park 33. What is Rinderpest?
(c) The Samburu National Park (d) None of these (a) A cattle disease in Britain (b) A cattle disease in Africa
(c) A cattle disease in Russia (d) A cattle disease in America
20. In which type of forests, no pastoral activity was
allowed? 34. When did the Great Depression begin?
(a) Reserved forests (b) Protected forests (a) 1925 (b) 1750 (c) 1850 (d) 1929
(c) Village forests (d) Wild forests 35. Which one of the country was not a part of the Allies
21. Why did the peasants protest against the threshing powers in the Second World War?
machines in the 19th century? (a) Britain (b) France
(a) These were too difficult to operate (c) Soviet Union (d) Japan
(b) These were not safe 36. Axis powers in the Second World War were Germany,
(c) These deprived the workers of their livelihood Japan and
(d) These were very expensive (a) China (b) Italy (c) Australia (d) Denmark
22. When was the land enclosed for food production in 37. ______ created the cotton mill.
England? (a) Richard Arkwright (b) James Watt
(a) In the 16th century (b) In the 17th century (c) Samuel Crompton (d) None of these
(c) In the 18th century (d) In the 19th century
38. Which port connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea
23. Who was Captain Swing? Ports?
(a) A mythic name to threaten the farmers
(a) Calcutta (b) Bombay (c) Hooghly (d) Surat
(b) A captain in the British army
(c) A leader of the factory workers 39. The first cotton mill in Bombay came up in ______
(d) A leader of the cultivators (a) 1754 (b) 1854 (c) 1870 (d) 1910
24. Name the crop which improved the fertility of the soil. 40. Who were the first Europeans to come to India?
(a) Wheat (b) Opium (a) The British (b) The French
(c) Turnip (d) Sugarcane (c) The Patuguese (d) The Spanish
25. After the American War of Independence, the white 41. Name the paid servant appointed by the British to
Americans began to move deal with the Indian weavers.
(a) Northward (b) Southward (a) Seth (b) Gomastha
(c) Westward (d) Eastward (c) Sepoy (d) Lambardar
Livelihoods, Economics and Societies 581
42. Handicrafts production expanded in the ______ 47. What was the expected life of poor workers in London
century due to some technological changes. in 1887, according to Charles Booth?
(a) 17th (b) 18th (c) 19th (d) 20th (a) 29 years (b) 39 years
(c) 49 years (d) 59 years
43. ______ was a colossal city with a population of about
675000 in mid-eighteenth century. 48. Between the two World Wars (1919-1939), who
(a) Paris (b) London (c) Moscow (d) Bombay accepted the responsibility of housing of the poor
44. Who built tenement for the migrant workers in class in England?
(a) The British state (b) The Industrialists
London?
(c) The Social groups (d) The Private landowners
(a) The British Government (b) The Nobles
(c) Individual landowners (d) The factory owners 49. Name one factor which changed the form of
45. The novel ‘Debganer Martye Aagaman’ was written urbanisation in the modern world.
(a) Capitalism (b) Industrialisation
by
(c) Secularism (d) Unemployment
(a) Premchand
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhaya 50. Who was the first Municipal Commissioner of
(c) Durgacharan Ray Bombay?
(d) Rabindranath Tagore (a) Arthus Crawford
46. The first underground railways in the world opened (b) James Simpson
in 1863 in (c) Kessowjee Naik
(a) London (b) Paris (c) Moscow (d) Berlin (d) Dinshaw Petit

High Skill Questions

1. Between 1700 to 1995, how much area of forest cover 7. A system of cutting trees controlled by the forest
in the world was cleared industrial uses cultivation, department in which old trees are cut and new ones
pastures and fuel wood? planted is known as
(a) 13.9 million sq km (b) 14 million sq km (a) modern forestry (b) planned forestry
(c) 20 million sq km (d) 25 million sq km (c) scientific forestry (d) None of these

2. How many sleepers were required for each mile of 8. Match the following
railway track?
List I List II
(a) 1700 to 2500 (b) 1760 to 2000
(Traditional Agricultural Practice) (Nome of the Country)
(c) 1000 to 2000 (d) 1360 to 2600
A. Lading 1. Sri Lanka
3. The ______ Forest Act divided forests into three B. Milpa 2. Africa
categories, reserved, protected and village forests. C. Chitemene 3. Central America
(a) 1868 (b) 1878 D. Chena 4. South-East Asia
(c) 1906 (d) 1865
Codes
4. Over 80000 tigers, 150000 leopards and 200000 A B C D
wolves were killed for reward in the period of (a) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1820-1920 (b) 1775-1875 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 1875-1925 (d) 1880-1980 (c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
5. Match the following
9. The Kalangs of ______ were a community of skilled
List I List II forest cutters and shifting cultivators.
A. Banjaras 1. Chhattisgarh (a) Sri Lanka (b) Bastar
B. Karava 2. Madras Presidency (c) Java (d) Sumatra
C. Santhals 3. Rajasthan
D. Gonds 4. Jharkhand 10. What are Bugyals?
(a) Vast meadows in the high mountains
Codes (b) Waste lands
A B C D A B C D (c) Natural pastures in the low mountains
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 4 1 (d) Deserts
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4
11. ______ is a dry forested area below the foothills of
6. Baigas are a forest community of ______ India. Garhwal and Kumaun.
(a) North (b) South (a) Bhabar (b) Kafila
(c) Central (d) South-West (c) Bugyal (d) None of these
582 Study Package for NTSE

12. Who are nomads? 25. In the early nineteenth century, ______ and ______
(a) Poor farmers in the valleys were two of the major commercial crops.
(b) Poor farmers in the mountains (a) indigo, opium (b) rice, wheat
(c) People who move from one area to another (c) jute, wheat (d) cotton, jute
(d) Thieves and dacoits
26. Which ruler did not allow the British traders to trade
13. In the deserts of Rajasthan lived the in opium with his country?
(a) Raikas (b) Kurumas (c) Kurubas (d) Gollas (a) Rulers of Afghanistan (b) Rulers of Saudi Arabia
14. The autumn crop, usually harvested between (c) Rulers of China (d) Rulers of Japan
September and October is known as 27. Who had introduced opium into China in the early
(a) Rabi (b) Kharif 16th century?
(c) Stubble (d) None of these (a) The Spanish (b) The Portuguese
15. By ______ the government began collecting taxes (c) The British (d) The Americans
directly from the pastoralists. 28. Who was the inventor of the first mechanical reaper
(a) 1880s (b) 1790s (c) 1920s (d) 1650s in USA?
(a) Cyrus Mc Cormick (b) James Watt
16. Which one of the following factors affect the seasonal
(c) John Kay (d) None of the above
movements of the Dhangars of Maharashtra?
(a) Cold and snow 29. Between 1750 and 1850, ______ million acres of land
(b) Alternate monsoon and dry seasons was enclosed in Britain.
(c) Climatic disturbance (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
(d) Drought and flood
30. By the early ______ century white Americans began
17. Even today, over ______ million Africans depend on to move Westward.
some form of pastoral activity for their livelihood. (a) 16th (b) 17th (c) 18th (d) 20th
(a) 40 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

18. Before colonial times Massailand stretched over a Direction (Q. No. 31) In the question given below are two
statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In the context
vast area from North Kenya to the steppes of
at the two statements which one of the following is correct?
Northern
(a) Brazil (b) Tanzania (c) Somalia (d) Ethopia 31. Assertion (A) The cultivators were unwilling to turn
19. Name the people who are still great herders of goats their fields over to poppy.
and sheep. Reason (R) The crop had to be grown on the best land
(a) The Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh where peasants usually produced pulses.
(b) The Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) The Bhotiyas Codes
(d) The Kinnauris (a) A is true but B is false (b) A is false but B is true
(c) B is the reason of A (d) B is not the reason of A
20. Why was the land enclosed in the 16th century?
(a) To build new factories 32. The countries known as the ‘central power’ in Europe
(b) To build new houses were
(c) To provide more area for sheep farming (a) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Ottoman-Turkey
(d) To stock foodgrains (b) Germany, Russia, France
(c) Russia, Germany, Britain
21. Why the enclosure of land was opposed by the poor (d) None of the above
people?
(a) It took away their job 33. Nearly 50 million people emigrated from Europe to
(b) It deprived them of their common lands America and ______ in the 19th century.
(c) It destroyed their homes and agricultural land (a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Australia (d) Oceania
(d) It formed them to migrate to urban areas
34. Who is the author of ‘Man of Destiny’ (1898)?
22. From the late ______ century, there was a dramatic (a) Charles Dickens (b) Thomas Hardy
expansion of wheat production in the USA. (c) George Bernard Shaw (d) William Shakespeare
(a) 16th (b) 17th (c) 18th (d) 19th
35. ______ stimulated new investments and
23. The Great Agrarian Depression of the ______ ruined improvements in transport.
wheat farmers everywhere. (a) Capitalism (b) Socialism
(a) 1930s (b) 1940s (c) 1920s (d) 1950s (c) Colonisation (d) Imperialism

24. What is meant by Black Blizzards? 36. Rinderpest disease killed ______ % of the cattle of
(a) High rising sea weaves (b) Terrifying dust storms Africa.
(c) Devastating earthquakes (d) Devastating floods (a) 50 (b) 70 (c) 80 (d) 90
Livelihoods, Economics and Societies 583
37. Upto the 18th century, which two countries among 42. ‘Chutney music’ is popular in
the following were the richest countries of the world? (a) Trinidad and Guyana (b) Peru
(a) India, China (b) China, Japan (c) New Zealand (d) Brazil
(c) Japan, Russia (d) Russia, France
43. Match the following
38. Great Britain had a ‘trade surplus’ with
List I List II
(a) India (b) China (c) Japan (d) Russia
A. Sicily 1. East Africa
39. Which were the two most dynamic industries in
B. Eritrea 2. Britain
Britain?
(a) Cotton and metal industries C. Surinam 3. Italy
(b) Silk and cotton industries D. Leeds 4. Caribbean Islands
(c) Electronic and metal industries
(d) None of the above Codes
A B C D A B C D
40. Who is the author of ‘Dombey and Son’ ? (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 2 1
(a) Charles Dickens (b) Leo Tolstoy (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
(c) Victor Hugs (d) Thomas Hardy
44. Match the following
41. Match the following
List I List II
List I List II
A. Aeroplane 1. James Watt
A. Dadasaheb Phalke 1. Actor
B. Spinny Jenny 2. Orville and Wilbur Wright
B. Saadat Hasan Manto 2. Music Director
C. Steam Engine 3. Graham Bell
C. Sachin Dev Burman 3. Film Director
D. Telephone 4. James Hargreaves
D. Prithvi Raj Kapoor 4. Writer

Codes Codes
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b)
 Chapter
5
Everyday Life, Culture
and Politics
The Story of Cricket
History is not just about the dramatic events in the
world. It is equally about the small things in our lives.
Everything around us has a history-the clothes we
wear, the food we eat, the music we hear, the medicines
we use, the literature we read, the games we play.
Since, we relate to them in our daily lives, their history
escapes us.
At one time, a century and half ago, cricket was an
English game. It had been invented in England and
became intricately linked to the culture of 19th century.
Victorian Society
The game was expected to represent all that the England
valued fair play, discipline and gentlemanliness.
l With the British, cricket spread to the colonies. There
again it was supposed to uphold the values of
Englishness.
l The colonial masters assumed that only they could play
the game as it ought to be played, in its spirit.
l The game of cricket thus got linked up closely with the
politics of colonialism and nationalism.
Development of Cricket as a Game in
England
Cricket grew out of the many stick and ball games played
in England 500 years ago, under a variety of different
rules. The word ‘Bat’ is an old English word that simply
means stick or club. By the 17th century, cricket had
evolved enough to be recognisable as a distinct game and
it was popular enough for its fans to be fined for playing it
on Sunday, instead of going to church.
l Till the middle of the 18th century, bats were roughly
the same shape as hockey sticks, curving outwards at
the bottom. There was a simple reason for this, the ball
was bowled underarm, along the ground and the curve
at the end of the bat gave the batsman the best chance of
making contact.
Laws of Cricket
l
The cricket gave itself rules and regulations so that it could be played
in a uniform and standardised way.
l
The first written ‘Laws of Cricket’ were drawn up in 1744. They stated,
the principles shall choose from amongst the gentleman present two
umpires who shall absolutely decide all disputes.
l
The stumps must be 22 inches high and the bail across them six inches.
The ball must be 5 and 6 ounces and two sets of stumps 22 yards apart.
There was no limit on the shape or size of the bat.
l
The world’s first cricket club was formed in Hambledon in the 1760s
and the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) was founded in 1787. In
1788, the MCC published its first revision of the laws and became the
guardian of cricket regulations.
l
The MCC revision of the laws brought in a series of changes that
occured in the second half of the 18th century. It became common to
pitch the ball through the air, rather than roll it along the ground.
l
The weight of the ball was limited to between 5 12 to 5 3 4 ounces and
width of the bat to four inches. In 1774, the first Leg-Before law was
published and three days had become the length of a major match.
Cricket and Victorian England
l The organisation of cricket in England reflected the
nature of English society. The rich who could afford to
play it for pleasure were called amateurs and the poor
who played it for living were called professionals.
l The social superiority of amateurs was built into the
customs of cricket. Amateurs were called gentlemen
while professionals had to be content with being
described as players. They even entered the ground from
different entrances.
Everyday Life, Culture and Politics
l Amateurs tended to be batsman, leaving the
energetic, hardworking aspects of the game, like fast
bowling to the professionals. That is partly why the
laws of the game always give the benefit of doubt to the
batsman.
l Cricket is a batman’s game because its rules were made
to favour ‘gentleman’. The social superiority of the
amateur was also the reason the captain of a cricket
team was traditionally a batsman.
l Its often said that the ‘Battle of Waterloo was won on the
fields of Eton’. This means that Britain’s Military success
was based on the values taught to school boys in its public
schools. Eton was the most famous of these schools.
l Till the last part of the 19th century, sports and vigorous exercise for
girls was not a part of their education.
l Dorothea Beale, principal of Cheltenham Ladies College from 1858 to
1906 began acquiring play grounds and allowing girls to play some of
the games earlier considered male preserves.
Cricket Race and Religion
Cricket in colonial India was organised on the principle
of race and religion. The first record of cricket being
played in India is ‘1721’, an account of recreational
cricket played by English sailors in Cambay. The first
Indian club, the Calcutta Cricket Club was established
in 1792.
l The origins of Indian cricket, that is cricket played by
Indians are to be found in Bombay and the first Indian
community to start playing the game was the small
community of Zoroastrians, the Parsis.
l The Oriental Club of Bombay established in 1848, Parsi
clubs were funded and sponsored by Parsi businessmen
like Tatas and Wadias.
l The establishment of the Parsi gymkhana became
precedent for other Indians who in turn established
clubs based on the idea of religious community.
l By 1890, Hindus and Muslims were busy gathering
funds and support for Hindu gymkhana and an Islam
gymkhana.
l The National Cricket Championship (later named the
Ranji Trophy) was established but not until
independence did it properly replace the Pentangular.
The Modern Transformation of the Game
Modern cricket is dominated by tests and one day
internationals, played between national teams. India
entered the world of test cricket in 1932, a decade and
half before it became an independent nation.
l The first test was played between England and
Australia, when Australia was still a white settler
colony, not even a self-governing dominion.
585
l Similarly, the small countries of the Caribbean that
together make up the West Indies team were British
Colonies till well after the Second World War.
l Decolonisation or the process through which different
parts of European empires became independent nations,
began with the independence of India in 1947 and
continued for the next half of century.
l Even after the independence of colonies, the
disappearance of the British empire, the regulation of
international cricket remained the business of the
Imperial Cricket Conference (ICC).
Commerce, Media and Cricket Today
The 1970s were the decade in which cricket was
transformed, it was notable for the exclusion of South
Africa from international cricket. In 1971, the first
one-day international was played between England and
Australia in Melbourne.
l Kerry Packer, an Australian television tycoon who saw
the money-making potential of cricket as a televised
sport signed up fifty one of the world’s leading cricketers
against the wishes of the National Cricket Boards and for
about two years staged unofficial tests and one-day
internationals under the name of World Series Cricket.
l Kerry Packer made cricket more attractive to television
audiences which endured and changed the nature of the
game.
Mahatma Gandhi and Colonial Sport
l
Mahatma Gandhi believed that sport was essential for creating a
balance between the body and mind. However, he often emphasised
that games like cricket and hockey were imported into India by the
British and were replacing traditional games.
l
Such games as cricket, hockey, football and tennis were for the
privileged.
l
They showed a colonial mindset and were a less effective education
than the simple exercise of those who worked on the land.
l Television channels made money by selling television
spots to companies and continuous television coverage
made cricketers celebrities, who made even larger sums
of money by making commercials for a wide range of
products, from tyres to colas, on television.
l Television coverage changed cricket, it expanded the
audience for the game by beaming cricket into small
towns and villages.
l The technology of satellite television and the worldwide
reach of multi-national television companies created a
global market for cricket. The game’s centre of gravity
shifted to South Asia. This shift was symbolised by
shifting of the ICC headquarters from London to
tax-free Dubai.
586
Hockey, India’s National Game
Modern Hockey evolved from traditional games once
current in Britain. Amongst its sporting ancestors,
hockey can count the Scottish game called Shinty, the
English and Welsh game called Bandy and Irish Hurling.
l Hockey, like many other modern games, was
introduced into India by the British army in colonial
times. The first hockey club in India was started in
Calcutta in 1885-86.
l India was represented in hockey competition of the
Olympic Games for the first time in 1928. In the finals,
India defeated Holland by three goals to nil.
l The brilliance and skill of players like great Dhyan
Chand bought India a string of Olympic Gold medals,
between 1928 and 1956.
l The two other Gold medals for India came in the 1964
Tokyo Olympics and the 1980 Moscow Olympics.
Clothing : A Social History
All societies observe certain rules, some of them quite
strict, about the way in which men, women and children
should dress or how different social classes and groups
should present themselves.
l These norms define the identity of people. They shape
notions of grace and beauty, ideas of modesty and
shame.
l As times change and societies are transformed, these
notions also alter. Modifications in clothing come to
reflect these changes.
l Before the age of democratic revolutions and
development of capitalist markets in 18th century
Europe, most people dressed according to their regional
codes and cost of materials that were available in their
region. Clothing styles were also strictly regulated by
class, gender or status in the social hierarchy.
l The colonisation of most of the world by Europe, after
the 18th century, the spread of democratic ideals and
the growth of an industrial society, completely changed
the ways in which people thought about dress and its
meaning and Western dress styles for men were adopted
worldwide.
Clothing and Notion of Beauty
The French Revolution had raised the question of
equality and ended aristocratic privileges, as well as the
laws that maintained these privileges. However,
differences between social strata remained. The notion
of what was beautiful or ugly, proper or improper,
decent or vulgar, differed.
l Style of clothing also emphasised differences between
men and women.
Study Package for NTSE
l From childhood, girls were tightly laced up and dressed
in stays. The effort was to restrict the growth of their
bodies, contain them within small moulds.
l When slightly older, girls had to wear tight fitting
corsets. Tightly laced, small-waisted women were
admired as attractive, elegant and graceful. Clothing,
thus played a part in creating the image of frail,
submissive Victorian women.
l Over the 19th century, ideas changed. As the suffarage
movement developed, many women’s began agitating
for democratic rights and compaigning for dress reform.
l Women’s magazines described how tight dress and
corsets caused deformities and illness among young
girls, such clothing restricted body growth and
hampered blood circulation.
Important Terms
l Stays Support as part of women’s dress to hold the body straight.
l Corset A closely fitting and stiff inner bodice, worn by women to
give shape and support to the figure.
Suffarage The right to vote. The suffragettes wanted the right for
l
women to vote.
l In America, a similar movement developed amongst the
white settlers on the East coast. Traditional feminine
clothes were criticised on a variety of grounds.
l Long skirts swept the grounds and collected filth and
dirt, which caused illness and were voluminous and
difficult to handle.
New Values
Many changes were made possible in Britain due to the
introduction of new materials and technologies.
Other changes came about because of the two World
Wars and the new working conditions for women.
New Materials
Before the 17th century, most ordinary women in
Britain possessed very few clothes made of flex, linen or
wool, which were difficult to clean.
During industrial revolution, Britain began the mass
manufacture of cotton textiles exported to many parts of
the world. Cotton clothes became more accessible to a
wider section of people in Europe.
The War
Many European women stopped wearing jewellery and
luxurious clothes. As upper class women mixed with
other classes, social barriers were eroded and women
began to dress in similar ways.
l During the World War women in Britain were
employed in ammunition factories. They wore a
working uniform, bright colours faded from sight and
only sober colours were worn as the war dragged on.
Everyday Life, Culture and Politics
Most important, women took to cutting their hair short
for convenience.
l By the 20th century, a plain and austere style came to
reflect seriousness and professionalism. Gymnastics
and games entered the school curriculum for women.
They had to wear clothes that did not hamper
movement. They needed clothes that were comfortable
and convenient.
Transformations in Colonial India
During the colonial period there were significant
changes in male and female clothing in India. On the
one hand this was a consequence of the influence of
Western dress and missionary activity and on the other
it was due to the effort by Indians to fashion clothing
styles that embodied an indigenous tradition and
culture.
Indians reacts to Western style clothing in three different
ways
l Especially men, began incorporating some elements of
Western style clothing in their dress. The wealthy
Parsis of Western India were among the first to adapt
Western-style clothing. Baggy trousers and phenta (or
hat) added to long collarless coats with boots and a
walking stick.
Western-style clothing was also especially attractive to
groups of Dalit converts to Christianity who now found
it liberating.
l There were others who were convinced that Western
culture would lead to a loss of traditional culture
identity.
l Some men resolved this dilemma by wearing Western
clothes without giving up their Indian ones. Many
Bengali bureaucrats began stocking Western style
clothes for work outside the home and changed into
more comfortable Indian clothes at home.
Caste Conflict and Dress Change
l Though there were no formal Sumptuary Laws as in
Europe, India had its own strict social codes of food and
dress.
l The caste system clearly defind what subordinate and
dominant caste Hindus should wear, eat etc., and these
codes had the force of law.
l The Shanars (also called Nadars) were a community of
toddy tappers who migrated to Southern Travancore to
work under Nair landlords.
l The Government of Travancore issued a proclamation in
1829 ordering Shanars women to abstain in future from
covering the upper parts of their body.
l The abolition of slavery in Travancore in 1855 led to
even more frustration among the upper castes who felt
they were losing control. In 1859 another Government
proclaimation permitted shanar women, whether
587
Christian or Hindu to wear a jacket or cover their upper
bodies, but not like the women of high caste.
British Rule and Dress Codes
l In different cultures, specific items of clothing often
convey contrary meanings. This frequently leads to
misunderstanding and conflict.
l Another such conflict related to the wearing of shoes.
Earlier British officials to follow Indian Etiquette and
remove their footwear in the courts of ruling kings or
chiefs.
l Lord Dalhouise, made it mandatory that Indians were
made to take off their shoes when entering any
government institution, only those who wore European
clothes were exempted from this rule.
l It took many years before shoes were permitted into the
courtroom.
The National Dress
l As nationalist feelings swept across India by the late
19th century, Indians began devising cultural symbols
that would express the unity of the nation.
l Artists looked for a national style of art. Poets wrote
national songs. Then, a debate began over the design of
the National Flag.
l Rabindranath Tagore, suggested that instead of
combining Indian and European dress, India’s national
dress should combine elements of Hindu and Muslim
dress. Thus, the Chapkan (A long buttoned coat) was
considered the most suitable dress for men.
l There were also attempts to develop a dress style that
would draw on the traditions of different regions.
l Jnanadanandini Devi, wife of Satyendranath Tagore
adopted the Parsi style of wearing the sari. However,
these attempts at devising a Pan-Indian style did not
fully succeed. Women of Gujarat, Kodagu, Kerala and
Asam continue to wear different types of sari.
The Swadeshi Movement
l The British first came to trade in Indian textiles that
were in great demand all over the world.
l The industrial revolution in Britain which mechanised
spinning and weaving and greatly increased the demand
for raw materials such as cotton and indigo, changed
India’s status in the world economy.
l Indian peasants forced to grow crops such as indigo and
cheap British manufacture easily replaced coarser
Indian one.
l Large number of Indian weavers and spinners were left
without work and important textile weaving centres
such as Murshidabad, Machilipatnam and Surat
declined as demand fell.
l In 1905, Lord Curzon decided to partition Bengal to
control the growing opposition to British rule.
588
l The Swadeshi Movement developed in reaction to this
measure.
l People were urged to boycott British goods of all kinds
and start their own industries for the manufacture of
goods such as match boxes and cigarettes.
l The use of khadi became the patriotic symbol.
l The change of dress appealed largely to the upper castes
and classes rather than to those who had to make do
with less and could not afford the new product.
l Despite its limitation, the experiment with swadeshi
gave Mahatma Gandhi important ideas about using
cloth as a symbolic weapon against British Rule.
Print Culture and the Modern
World
History
The earliest kind of print technology was developed in
China, Japan and Korea. In China, books were printed by
rubbing paper against the inked surface of woodblocks.
l The traditional Chinese Book Accordion Book was
folded and stitched at the side. Superbly skilled
craftsman could duplicate, with remarkable accuracy,
the beauty of calligraphy.
l By the 17th century, as urban culture bloomed in China,
the uses of print diversified. Print was no longer used
just by scholars, officials. Merchants used print in their
everyday life.
l Reading increasingly became a leisure activity. The new
readership preferred fictional, narratives, poetry,
auto-biographies and romantic plays. Shanghai became
the hub of the new print culture.
Print in Japan
l Buddhist Missionaries from China introduced
hand-printing technology in Japan around AD 768-770.
The oldest Japanese book printed in AD 868, is the
Buddhist. ‘Diamond sutra’ containing six sheets of text
and woodcut illustrations.
l Pictures were printed on textiles, playing cards, and
paper money.
l In medieval Japan, poets and prose writers were
regularly published and books were cheap and
abundant.
l Printing of visual material led to interesting publishing
practices. In the late 18th century, in the flourishing
urban circles at Edo (later to be known as Tokyo)
illustrated collections of paintings depicted an elegant
urban culture, involving artists and tea house
gatherings.
l Libraries and book shops were packed with hand printed
material of various types—books on women, musical
instruments, calculations, flower arrangements, cooking
and famous places.
Study Package for NTSE
Print in Europe
For centuries, silk and spices from China flowed into
Europe through the silk route. In the 11th century,
Chinese paper reached Europe via same route. In 1295,
Marco Polo, a great explorer, returned to Italy after
many years of exploration in China. He brought the
technology of woodblock printing back with him.
l Italians began producing books with woodblocks, luxury
editions were still handwritten on very expensive
vellum, meant for aristocratic circles.
l The Olive press provided the model for printing press
and moulds were used for casting the metal types for the
letters of the alphabet.
l By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system. The first book
he printed was Bible. About 180 copies were printed and
it took three years to produce them.
l In fact, printed books at first closely resembled the written
manuscripts in appearance and layout. The metal letters
imitated the ornamental handwritten styles.
l By 1550, printing presses were set up in most countries
of Europe. Printers from Germany travelled to other
countries, seeking work and helping start new presses.
l The shift from hand printing to mechanical printing led
to the print revolution.
Print Revolution and its Impact
Print revolution was not just a development, a new way
of producing books, it transformed the lives of people,
changing their relationship to information and
knowledge and with institutions and authorities, it
influenced population perceptions and opened up new
ways of looking at things.
A New Reading Public
l With the printing press, a new reading public emerged,
printing reduced the cost of books. Time and labour
required to produce each book came down. Books flooded
the market, reaching out to an ever-growing readership.
l Access to books created a new culture of reading. Earlier
reading was restricted to the elites, common people lived
in a world of oral culture.
l But the transition was not so simple, books could be read
only by the literate and the rate of literacy in most
European countries were very low till the 20th century.
l Printers began publishing popular ballads and folk tales
and such books profusely illustrated with pictures.
Print and Dissent
l Print and popular religious literature stimulated many
distinctive individual interpretations of faith even
among little-educated working people.
l In the 17th century, Menocchio, a miller in Italy, began
to read books that were available in his locality.
Everyday Life, Culture and Politics
l He reinterpreted the message of the Bible and
formulated a view of God and creation that enraged the
Roman Catholic church.
l When the Roman church began its inquisition to repress
heretical ideas. Menocchio was hauled up twice and
ultimately executed.
l Roman church, troubled by such effects of popular
readings and questionings of faith imposed severe
controls over publishers and booksellers and began to
maintain an index of prohibited books.
l Inquisition A former Roman Catholic court for identifying and
punishing heretics.
l Heretical Beliefs which do not follow the accepted teachings of the
church.
Reading-Changes Trends
In the 17th and 18th centuries literacy rate went up in
most parts of Europe. As literacy and schools spread in
European countries, there was a vital reading mania.
People wanted books to read and printers produced
books in ever increasing numbers.
New forms of popular literature appeared in print,
targeting new audiences. There were almanacs or ritual
calenders, along with ballads and folktales and penny
chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as
chapman and sold for a penny, so that even the poor
could buy them.
l In France, the Biliotheque ‘Blue’ which were low priced
books printed on poor quality paper and bound in cheap
blue covers.
l Newspapers and journals carried information about
wars and trade as well as news of developments in other
places.
l The ideas of scientists and philosophers now became
more accessible to the common people.
l The discoveries of ISAAC Newton, the writings of
thinkers such as Thomas Paine, Voltaire and Jean
Jacques Rousseau were also widely printed and read.
l Thus, there ideas about science, reason and nationality
found their way into popular literature.
l By the end of 18th century, there was a common
conviction that books were a means of spreading
progress and enlightenment.
l Louise-Sebastien Mercier, a novelist in 18th century
France declared ‘‘The printing press is the most
powerful engine of progress and public opinion is the
force that will sweep despotism away’’.
Despotism A system of government in which absolute
power is exercised by an individual, unregulated by legal
and constitutional checks.
589
Print : The French Revolution
l Many Historians have argued that print culture created
the conditions within which French Revolution occured.
l Print popularised the ideas of the enlightenment
thinkers collectively. Their writings produced a critical
evaluation on tradition, superstition and depotism.
They argued for the rule of reason rather than custom
and every thing be judged through the application of
reason and rationality.
l Print created a new culture of dialogue and debate. All
values, norms and institutions were re-evaluated.
l By the 1780s, there was an outpouring of literature that
mocked the royality and criticised their morality. In the
process, they raised questions about the existing social
order.
Print Culture made Changes in Society
l As primary education became compulsory from the late
19th century, children became an important category of
readers. Anything that was considered unsuitable for
children or would appear vulgar to the elites, was not
included in the published version.
l Women became important as readers as well as writers,
penny magazines were especially meant for women were
mannals teaching proper behaviour and house keeping.
l Some of the best known novelists were women Jane
Austen, the Bronte Sisters Anne, Emily and Charlotte
Bronle George Eliot (Mary Anne Evans). Their writings
became important in defining a new type of women –A
person with will, strength of personality, determination
and power to think.
l Libraries in England became instruments for educating
white collar workers, artisans and lower middle class
people.
l By mid-nineteenth century Richard M Hoe of New York
had perfected the power driven cylindrical press.
l Printers and publishers continuously developed new
strategies to sell their product. Periodicals serialised
important novels, which gave birth to a particular way
of writing novels.
India and the World of Print
India had a very rich and old tradition of handwritten
manuscripts in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian as well as in
various vernacular languages, copied on palm leaves or
on handmade paper. Manuscripts were highly
expensive and fragile. They had to handle carefully and
were not widely used in everyday life.
The printing press first came to Goa with the
Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century.
The Jesuit priests learnt Knokani and printed several
books. The Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book
in 1579 and in 1713, the first Malyalam book was
printed.
590
l In 1780, James Augustus Hickey began to edit the
Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that described itself
as a commercial paper open to all but influenced by
none.
l There were Indians too, who began to publish Indian
Newspapers. The first to appear was the weekly Bengal
Gazette, brought out by Gangadhar Bhattarcharya who
was close to Raja Rammohan Roy.
l The 19th century, was a time of intense controversies
between social and religious reformers and the Hindu
orthodoxy over matters like widow immolation,
monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatry.
l Raja Rammohan Roy published the Sambad Kaumudi
from 1821 and Hindu orthodoxy commissioned the
‘Samachar Chandrika’ to oppose his opinion.
l From 1822, two Persian newspapers were published,
‘Jam-I-Jahannama’ and ‘Shamsul Akhbar’. In the same
year a Gujarati newspaper, the ‘Bombay Samachar’
made its appearance.
l The Deoband seminary, founded in 1867, published
thousands of Fatwas telling Muslim readers how to
conduct themselves in their everyday life and explaining
the meanings of Islamic doctrines.
l The first printed edition of the Ramcharitmanas of
Tulsidas, a 16th century text, came out from Calcutta in
1810.
l Other new literary forms also entered the world of
reading lyrics, short stories, essays about social and
political matters.
l By the end of 19th century, a new visual culture was
taking shape. Painters like Raja Ravi Verma produced
images for mass circulation.
l By 1870s, caricatures and cartoons were being
published in journals and newspapers.
Novel, Society and History
The novel is modern form of literature. It is born from
print, a mechanical invention. Novels produced a
number of common interests among their scattered and
varied readers. As readers were drawn into the story
and identified with the lives of fictitious characters,
they could think about issues such as the relationship
between love and marriage, the proper conduct for men
and women and so on.
l The novel first took firm root in England and France.
Novels began to be written from the 17th century. But
they really flowered from the 18th century.
l New groups of lower-middle class people such as
shopkeepers and clerks, along with the traditional
aristocratic and gentlemanly classes in England and
France now formed the new readership for novels.
l In France, publishers found that they could make super
profits by hiring out novels by the hour.
Study Package for NTSE
l In 1836, a notable event took place when Charles
Dicken’s ‘Pickwik Papers’ was serialised in a magazine.
Magazines were attractive, since they were illustrated
and cheap.
l Serialisation allowed readers to relish the suspense.
The World of the Novel
l In the 19th century, the everyday life of people was the
central theme of novel writers.
l The growth of industry was accompanied by an economic
philosophy which celebrated the pursuit of profit and
undervalued the lives of workers.
l Deeply critical of these developments novelists such as
‘Charles Dickens’ wrote about the terrible effects of
industrialisation on people’s lives and characters in his
novel ‘Hard Times.’ In other novel too, Dickens focused
on the terrible conditions of urban life under industrial
capitalism. His ‘Oliver Twist’ (1838) is the tale of a poor
orphan who lived in a world of petty criminals and
beggars. Emile Zola’s ‘Germinal’ (1885) on the life of a
young miner in France explores in harsh detail the grim
conditions of miner’s lives.
l 19th century British Novelist ‘Thomas Hardy’ wrote
about traditional rural communities of England that
were fast vanishing. ‘Mayor of Caster Bridge (1886) is
about a successful grain merchant, who became the
mayor of the farming town of Caster Bridge.
l The novel uses the vernacular, the language that is
spoken by common people. By coming closer to the
different spoken languages of the people, the novel
produces the sense of a shared world between diverse
people in a nation.
l Like the nation, the novel brings together many cultures.
Novel : The New Women
The most exiciting element of the novel was the
involvement of women. 18th century saw women get more
leisure to read as well as write. Novels began to exploring
the world of women–their emotions and identities, their
experiences and problems. Many novels were about
domestic life. They drew upon their experience, wrote
about family life and earned public recognition.
l Amar Jiban written by Rashsundari Debi (published in
1876) was the first full-lenght autobiography published
in the Bengali language. In Maharashtra, Tarabai
Shimla and Pandit Rambai wrote about the miserable
lives of upper caste Hindu women.
l The Jane Austen’s ‘Pride and Prejudice’ gives us a
glimpse of the world of women in genteel rural society in
early 19th century Britain.
l But women novelists did not simply popularise the
domestic role of women. Often their novels dealt with
women who broke established norms of society before
adjusting to them.
l Charlotte Bronte’s ‘Jane Eyre’ Published in 1847.
Everyday Life, Culture and Politics
Novels for the Young
l Novels for young boys idealised a new type of man,
powerful, assertive, independent and daring. Most of
these novels were full of adventure set in places remote
from Europe.
l Novels like RL Stevenson’s ‘Treasure Island 1883’.
Rudyard Kipling's ‘Jungle Book’ (1894) became very
famous.
l Love stories written for adolescent girls also became
popular in this period. Especially in the USA notably
‘Ramona’ by Helen Hunt Jackson, ‘What Katy Did’ by
Sarah Chauncey Woolsey who wrote under the
pen-name Susan Coolidge.
Novels in Indian Context
The modern novel form developed in India in the
19th century as Indians became familiar with the
Western novel. The development of the vernaculars,
print and a reading public helped in the process.
l The earliest Indian novels were written in Bengali and
Marathi. The earliest novel in Marathi was Baba
Padmajis ‘Yamuna Paryatan (1857) followed by
Lakshman Moreshwar Halbe’s ‘Muktamala’ (1861).
l The delightful novel called ‘Indulekha’ published in
1889 was the first modern novel in Malayalam.
l Kandukuri Viresalingam began translating Oliver
Goldsmith’s ‘‘Vicar of Wake Field’’ into Telugu. He
abandoned this plan and instead wrote an original
Telugu novel called ‘Rajasekhara Caritamu’ in 1878.
Novels in Hindi
In the North, Bharatendu Harishchandra, the pioneer
of modern Hindi literature, encouraged many members
of his circle of poets and writers to recreate and
translate novels from other languages.
Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The word ‘Bat’ is an old English word that simply
means
(a) stick (b) club
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) roud
2. Till the middle of the 18th century bats was roughly
the same shape as hockey sticks, curving outwards at
the bottom because
(a) it is easier to play with curved bat
(b) the flat bat was not invented
(c) the ball was bowled underarm along the ground
(d) None of the above
591
l Srinivas Das’s novel published in 1882 was titled
‘Pariksha-Guru’ reflects the inner and outer world of
newly emerging middle classes.
l The writings of Devaki Nandan Khatri created a
novel-reading public in Hindi. His best-seller
‘Chandrakanta’ a romance with dazzling element of
fantasy is believed to have a contributing immensely in
popularising the Hindi language.
l It was with the writing of Premchand that the Hindi
novel achieved excellence. He began writing in Urdu
and then shifted to Hindi. Many critics think that his
novel ‘Sewasadan’ published in 1916, lifted the Hindi
novel from the realm of fantasy, moralising and simple
entertainment to a serious reflection on the lives of
ordinary people and social issues.
Novels in Bengal
In the 19th century, the early Bengali novels lived in
two worlds, many of them were based on past, their
character’s, events and love stories based on historical
events. Another group of novels depicted the inner
world of domestic life in contemporary settings.
l Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’s ‘Durgeshnandini’
(1865) is the first novel written in Bengali.
l In Bengal, many historical novels were about Marathas
and Rajputs. These novels produced a sense of a
Pan-India belonging. They imagined the nation to be full
of adventure, heroism, romance and sacrifice.
l Bhudeb Mukhopadhya’s ‘Anguriya Binimay’ was the
first historical novel written in Bengal.
l Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyas ‘Anandamath’ (1882),
Rabindranath Tagore’s ‘Gora’ (1910), Surat Chandra
Chattopadhyay’s ‘Pather Dabi’ (1926) are same of the
marker pieces in Bengal, which inspired the freedom
fighters.
3. The game of cricket was invented in
(a) England (b) Australia
(c) South-Eastern England (d) Caribbean
4. The length of the pitch for cricket game is specified
as
(a) 22 yards (b) 22 meters
(c) 24 yards (d) None of these
5. Initially the weight of the cricket ball was specific as
(a) 10 ounces (b) 5 ounces
(c) 6 ounces (d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
592 Study Package for NTSE

6. The person who absolutely decides all disputes in the 16. The game of cricket after becoming international
game of cricket known as game, spread to which of the following countries?
(a) refree (b) umpire (a) Only in countries that the British conquered and ruled
(c) coach (d) None of these (b) To the maximum countries of the world
(c) To the countries of Latin America
7. Which of the following was the world’s first cricket (d) None of the above
club?
(a) Hambledon Cricket Club (b) Marylebone Cricket Club 17. Despite the exclusiveness of white cricket elite in the
(c) Sydney Cricket Club (d) None of these West Indies, the cricket became hugely popular in the
Caribbean because
8. In 1788, the MCC published its first revision of the (a) they find it very easy to play
laws and became the guardian of cricket’s regulations, (b) Caribbeans saw in the game a chance for self-respect and
which of the following statements is/are true about international standing
changes introduced by MCC in the game of cricket? (c) they were trained and guided by the English players
(a) To pitch the ball through, the air rather than roll it along the (d) None of the above
ground 18. Name of the first black player who captained the
(b) Replacement of the curved bat with the straight one
West Indian Team?
(c) Reduced the influence of rough ground and brute force
(a) Garry Sobbers (b) Lawance Gibbs
(d) All of the above
(c) Frank Worrell (d) None of these
9. After the new cricket regulations published by MCC,
the weight of the cricket ball reduced to 19. Cricket in colonial India organised on the principle of
(a) equality (b) sportsmanship
(a) 5 ounces (b) 51/2 ounces
(c) 5 12 to 5 3 4 ounces (d) None of these (c) race and religion (d) None of these

10. Originally, the time-limit for cricket matches was 20. Which of the following communities was the first to
(a) three days start playing cricket in India?
(b) five days (a) Hindus (b) Muslims
(c) six days (c) Indian Christians (d) Zoroastrians, the Parsis
(d) no time limit as to bowl out a side twice
21. Which of the following was the first Indian Cricket
11. The rich who could afford to play cricket for pleasure Club?
were known as (a) Bombay Cricket Club (b) The Oriental Cricket Club
(a) amateurs (b) professionals (c) Calcutta Cricket Club (d) Gymkhana Cricket Club
(c) players (d) None of these
22. In India, the cricket tournament was initially called
12. The poor people who played the game of cricket for the quadrangular, because it was played by four
living were called teams. Which of the following was not a part of it?
(a) amateurs (b) professionals (a) Europeans (b) Parsis
(c) players (d) None of these (c) Muslims (d) Sikhs
13. Which of the following persons consider sports like 23. The tournament became pentangular with the
cricket and rugby as an organised way of teaching addition of fifth team. Which of the following was the
discipline, importance of hierarchy, the skills and fifth team?
leadership qualities that helped to build and run the (a) Hindus (b) Portgueese
British empire? (c) Sikhs (d) The ‘rest’
(a) Thomas Arnold (b) Andrew James 24. Popular and famous cricketer, Vijay Hazare, played
(c) B Mccrone (d) None of these for which of the following team?
14. Till the last of the 19th century sports and vigorous (a) Parsis (b) Hindus
exercise for girls was not a part of their education. (c) Muslims (d) The rest
Which of the following is the exponent of sports for 25. Which of following leaders of Indian National
girls in Britain? Movement condemned the Pentangular Tournament
(a) Dorothea Beale as communally divisive competition?
(b) Thomas Arnold (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (c) BG Tilak (d) Subash Chandra Bose
(d) None of the above
26. The famous Ranji Trophy was earlier known as
15. Which of the following games was usually played by (a) National Tournament
girls in Britain at the end of the 19th century? (b) National Cricket Championship
(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) National Cricket Tournament
(c) Croquet (d) None of these (d) None of the above
Everyday Life, Culture and Politics 593
27. The International Cricket Council, International 39. The earliest kind of print technology was first
Cricket Regulation Body, earlier known as developed in which of the following countries?
(a) Imperial Cricket Conference (a) China (b) Japan
(b) International Cricket Committee (c) Korea (d) None of these
(c) Imperial Cricket Committee
(d) None of the above 40. Books in China were printed by rubbing paper
against the inked surface of
28. Which of following is non-cricket playing country? (a) metal blocks (b) rubber blocks
(a) South Africa (b) Kenya (c) wood blocks (d) None of these
(c) Zimbabwe (d) None of these
41. In Japan, hand printing technology was introduced
29. Which of the following countries was excluded from by China’s
international cricket for policy of racial segregation? (a) merchants (b) sailors
(a) South Africa (b) West Indies (c) buddhist missionaries (d) None of these
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Zimbabwe
42. Printing of visual material led to interesting
30. The laws which control the behaviour of those publishing practices in the late 15th century. In the
considered social inferiors, preventing them from flourishing urban circles at Edo, later to be known as
wearing certain clothes, consuming certain food (a) Tokyo (b) Hiroshima
known as (c) Nagasaki (d) None of these
(a) Sumptuary laws (b) Hierarchical laws
43. The art of printing on paper brought to Europe by
(c) Aristocratic laws (d) None of these
(a) Gutenberg (b) Marco Polo
31. Which of the following sections of society could wear (c) Voltaire (d) None of these
clothes made of expensive materials like ermine, silk,
44. By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the printing system.
velvet and brocade?
The first book he printed was the
(a) Merchants (b) Middle class
(a) Bible (b) novel
(c) Royalty (d) Common people
(c) book on French Revolution (d) None of these
32. Which of following revolutions abolishes the
45. Which of the following countries is responsible for
Sumptuary Laws?
spreading the printing technology to other European
(a) French Revolution (b) American Revolution
countries?
(c) Russian Revolution (d) All of these
(a) Italy (b) Britain (c) Germany (d) France
33. The material which became more popular in Europe
for clothing, in contrast to the material used, in the 46. Which of the following is/are main content of print
17th century, after the Industrial revolution in Britain books in their early stage?
(a) Popular Ballads (b) Folk Tales
(a) silk (b) cotton (c) fur (d) linen
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) None of these
34. Which of the following factors transforms the clothing
47. A 16th century movement to reform the catholic
pattern in European countries in the 19th century?
church dominated by Rome known as Protestant
(a) Industrial revolution (b) War
Reformation. The movement is lead by
(c) Christianity (d) None of these
(a) Erasmus (b) Martin Luther
35. Which of the following communities in India were (c) Rousseau (d) Voltaire
among the first to adopt Western-style clothing in 48. The novel is a modern form of literature was the
their dress? result of
(a) Hindus (b) Parsis (c) Muslims (d) None of these (a) Print revolution
36. Which section of Indian Society wearing western (b) French revolution
clothes without giving up their Indian? (c) American War of Independence
(d) None of the above
(a) Political leaders (b) Bengali bureaucrats
(c) Educated Middle class (d) None of these 49. In which of following countries novel was first
flourished?
37. In Travancore women’s of which community were not
(a) England (b) France
allowed to wear a cloth across their upper bodies
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) None of these
(a) Shanars (b) Nair (c) Christian (d) None of these
50. Which of the following novel of Charles Dicken’s was
38. In traditional Indian clothing pattern, wearing of serialised in a magazine as magazines were
Turban symbolises attractive since they were illustrated and cheap?
(a) protection form the heat (b) respectability (a) Hard Times (b) Pickwick Papers
(c) fashion (d) ceremonial necessity (c) Oliver Twist (d) None of these
594 Study Package for NTSE

High Skills Questions

1. Many important changes occured during the 19th 7. Match the following
century. Which of the following is not a part of these
List I List II
changes?
(a) The rule about the no ball was introduced A. Adelaide 1. Delhi
(b) The exact circumference of the ball was specified B. Chepauk 2. Kolkata
(c) Boundaries were introduced, where previously all shots had C. Eden Garden 3. Chennai
to run D. Feroz Shah Kotla 4. Oval
(d) None of the above
Codes
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct A B C D A B C D
about the game of cricket? (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
(a) One of the peculiarities of test cricket is that a match can go
on for five days and still end in a draw 8. Match the following
(b) The laws simply lay down that the umpire shall agree with
both captains on the boundaries of the playing area List I List II
(c) The cricket remained a colonial game, limited to countries A. Eton 1. Self-governing areas under the
that had once been part of the British Empire control of British crown
(d) All of the above B. Hierarchy 2. First black West Indies captain
C. Frank Worrell 3. Organised by rank and status
3. The wood of ______ tree is used in making of bats.
D. Dominion 4. Famous Military School in England
(a) willow
(b) sandal Codes
(c) teak A B C D A B C D
(d) None of the above (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
4. Match the following
9. Match the following
List I List II
A. Quadrangular 1. Playes for the rest, the fifth team, List I List II
comprised of all communities A. Amateurs 1. Collected financial contribution for
B. Pentangular 2. Editor of newspaper the Bombay specific purpose
Chronicle B. Patronage 2. The poor who played for a living
C. Vijay Hazare 3. Tournament played by five teams C. Professionals 3. Agreement by wealthy supported to
D. S A Brelvi 4. Tournament played by four teams give financial support for a specific
cause
Codes D. Subscription 4. The rich people who could afford to
A B C D play for pleasure
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1 Codes
(c) 1 2 3 4 A B C D A B C D
(d) 2 1 3 4 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
5. The areas which are self-governing but under the
control of British crown known as 10. The Novel ‘Tom Brown’s Schooldays’, was written by
(a) Thomas Hughes (b) Thomas Arnold
(a) sovereign
(c) Frank Worrell (d) None of these
(b) independent
(c) dominion 11. Which of the following was the first dress reformer in
(d) None of the above Europe?
(a) Mrs Amella Bloomer (b) Mrs Stanton
6. ‘The cricket’s most important tool are all made of
(c) Mary Somerville (d) None of these
natural pre-industrial materials.’ In the light of this
statement which of the following statements is/are 12. Which of the following statements is/are true about
true? suffrage movement developed in Europe in the
(a) The bat is made of wood as are the stumps 19th century?
(b) The ball is made with leather, twine and cork (a) Women in Europe began agitating for democratic rights
(c) The material of bat changed slightly, over time (b) Suffrage movement also calls for dress reforms
(d) All of the above (c) The suffrage movement was headed by Mrs Stanton
(d) All of the above
Everyday Life, Culture and Politics 595
13. Match the following 17. Match the following
List I List II List I List II

A. Chapkan 1. First to adapt Western-style clothing A. Protestant 1. A system of Governance in which

Reformation absolute power is exercised by an
B. Khadi 2. A symbol of patriotism individual
C. Parsis 3. Those belonging to the Brahmo Samaj B. Inquisition 2. A former Roman Catholic court for
D. Brahmo 4. The most suited national dress for men identifying and punishing heretics
C. Heretical 3. Martin Luther king
Codes D. Despotism 4. Beliefs which do not follow the
A B C D accepted teachings of the church
(a) 4 2 1 3
Codes
(b) 4 3 1 2
A B C D A B C D
(c) 3 4 2 1 (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 2 3 4 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
14. Which of the following statements is/are true about 18. Match the following
clothing as special aspect of social and political life?
(a) All societies observe certain rules about the way in which List I List II
men, women and children should dress A. Ulama 1. First Gujarati Newspaper
(b) Social classes and groups follow certain norms which define B. Fatwa 2. Printing press first came to Goa
the identity of people C. Portuguese 3. Legal scholars of Islam and the
(c) Clothing shape our notions of grace and beauty Missionaries Sharia (a body of Islamic law)
(d) All of the above D. Bombay 4. A legal pronouncement on Islamic
Samachar law usually given by a Mufti (legal
15. Match the following scholar) to clarify issues on which
the law is uncertain
List I List II
A. Ermine 1. The right to vote Codes
A B C D A B C D
B. Blue, white and 2. Cotton cloth printed with designs (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
red colours and flowers
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 2 4
C. Suffrage 3. Sign of the patriotic citizen
D. Chintz 4. Type of fur, which only royalty
19. Which of the following statements is/are correct
could wear about the print/urban culture bloomed in China?
(a) Print was no longer used just by scholars, officials
Codes (b) Merchants used to print their everyday life as they collected
A B C D trade information
(a) 4 3 2 1 (c) The new readership preferred fictional Narratives, poetry,
(b) 4 3 1 2 autobiographies
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) All of the above
(d) 2 1 4 3
20. Which of the following statements is/are true about
16. Match the following the print revolution in the world?
List I List II (a) The first book Gutenberg printed was the Bible
(b) The time and labour required to produce each book came
A. Calligraphy 1. A term used to describe pocket size down and multiple copies could be produced with greater
books that are sold by travelling pedlars ease
B. Vellum 2. A historical account or folk tale in verse (c) Access to books created a new culture of reading
usually sung or recited (d) All of the above
C. Ballad 3. A parchment made from the skin of
animals 21. Which of the following statements is/are true about
the development of novel in India?
D. Chapbook 4. The art of beautiful and stylised writing
(a) The Indian Novelists wrote to develop a modern literature of
Codes the country that could produce a sense of national belonging
A B C D and cultural equality
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) Translation of novels into different languages helped to
(b) 4 3 1 2 spread the popularity of the novel
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) Novels helped in establishing a relationship with the past
(d) 2 1 4 3 (d) All of the above
596 Study Package for NTSE

22. Match the following 30. Who was country’s first test captain?
(a) CK Nayudu (b) Vijay Hazare
List I List II (c) Palwankar Baloo (d) None of these
A. Yamuna Paryatan 1. Rabindranath Tagore
31. Learie Constantine, famous cricketer, halls from
B. Muktamala 2. Prem Chand
which country?
C. Ghare Biare 3. Baba Padmanjiis (a) England (b) South Africa
D. Godan 4. Moreshwar Halbe (c) West Indies (d) Australia
Codes 32. Khadi or wearing of Khadi became a symbol of
A B C D A B C D (a) purity (b) self-reliance
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) patriotic duty (d) All of these
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 3 4
33. The partition of Bengal was done in 1905 by which of
23. Match the following following Viceroys?
List I List II (a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Harding (d) None of these
A. Epistolary 1. Charlotte Bronte
B. Germinal 2. The normal spoken form of a language 34. Which of the following is not an textile weaving
rather than formal literary form centre in colonial India?
C. Vernacular 3. Novel written in the form of series of letters (a) Murshidabad (b) Machilipatnam
D. Jane Eyre 4. Emile Zola (c) Surat (d) None of these
Codes 35. Rabindranath Tagore advocated for India’s dress
A B C D should be combination of which two elements?
(a) 3 1 2 4 (a) Simplicity, self-reliance
(b) 3 4 2 1 (b) Indian and European dress
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) Hindu and Muslim dress
(d) 2 1 3 4 (d) None of the above
24. Which of the following is/are features of the novel 36. As a national dress, which of the following was
written by Prem Chand? considered the most suitable dress for men?
(a) He depicted the poor condition of women in society (a) Turban (b) Chapkan
(b) Social issues like child marriage and dowry are woven into (c) Dhoti (d) None of these
the novel
(c) Opportunities provided by colonial authorities to upper 37. Which of the following factors played a part in creating
classes to govern themselves the image of frail, submissive victorian women?
(d) All of the above (a) Education (b) Clothing
(c) Right to vote (d) None of these
25. Which of the following factor serves as theme for
novel writing in Bangla in the 19th century? 38. Which of the following is/are part of the popular
(a) Stories based on historical events literature printed in the 18th century?
(b) The inner world of domestic life in contemporary society (a) Almanacs (b) Ballads and Folk Tales
(c) Romantic relationships between men and women (c) Chapbooks (d) All of these
(d) All of the above
39. Many historians have argued that print culture
26. The first one-day international match was played created the conditions, the application of reason and
between Australia-England in 1917 at
rationality, within which ______ revolution occurred.
(a) Lords (b) Sydney
(a) French (b) Industrial
(c) Melbourne (d) None of these
(c) American (d) None of these
27. Which of the following person is responsible for
40. The printing press first came to India in the
transforming cricket into marketable game?
mid-sixteenth century with
(a) Kerry Packer (b) David Richardson
(a) Chinese travellers
(c) Bill Gates (d) None of these
(b) Portuguese missionaries
28. The headquarter of ICC shifted from London to (c) British merchants
(a) Sri Lanka (b) South Africa (d) French merchants
(c) Dubai (d) None of these
41. The first English weekly magazine that described
29. India played their first test against England in the itself as ‘A commercial paper open to all, but
year influenced by none’ published in India was
(a) 1930 (b) 1931 (a) Bengal Gazette (b) National Herald
(c) 1932 (d) None of these (c) Kesari (d) None of these
Everyday Life, Culture and Politics 597
42. Which of the following act put censorship on Indian 44. Which of the following is known as the Pioneer of
press in the 19th century? Modern Hindi literature?
(a) Rawlatt act (a) Bharatendu Harishchandra (b) Devki Nandan Khatri
(b) Vernacular act (c) Prem Chand (d) None of these
(c) Citizen’s charter
45. The best seller Hindi Novel ‘Chandrakanta — A
(d) None of the above
romance with dazzling elements of fantasy, is written
43. The Deoband Seminary, founded in 1567, published by?
thousands of prouncement telling Muslims readers (a) Bharatendu Harishchandra
how to conduct themselves in their daily life and (b) Devaki Nandan Khatri
explaining the meanings of Islamic doctrines’ known as (c) Prem Chand
(a) Fatwas (b) Ulema (d) None of the above
(c) Shariat (d) None of these

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (d ) 2. (d ) 3. (a ) 4. (a ) 5. ( c) 6. (d ) 7. ( c) 8. ( c) 9. (d ) 10. (a )
11. (a ) 12. (d ) 13. (a ) 14. (d ) 15. (b) 16. (a ) 17. (a ) 18. (a ) 19. (d ) 20. (d )
21. (d ) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d ) 25. (d ) 26. ( c) 27. (a ) 28. ( c) 29. ( c) 30. (a )
31. ( c) 32. (d ) 33. (a ) 34. (d ) 35. ( c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (d ) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b)
 Part-VI : Geography
Chapter

1
India : Size and Location
Location l In the North and North-East, it shares land boundaries
with China, Nepal and Bhutan.
l Mainland of the Indian subcontinent comprises of India,
l In the East, it shares boundaries with Myanmar and
Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan.
Bangladesh.
l It extends between 8°4′ N and 37 °6′ N latitude and
l Our Southern neighbours across the sea consist of the two
between 68°7′ E and 97°25′ E longitude.
island nations i.e., Sri Lanka and Maldives.
l The Tropic of Cancer (23 1/2° N) passes almost through
l Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait.
the middle of India.
l Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie to the South-East of
the mainland while Lakshadweep Islands lie to its India : Political
Jammu
South-West. and
Kashmir

l Lakshadweep Islands lie in the Arabian Sea while Srinagar

Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in the Bay of Bengal.

Himachalh
jab

Prades
Pun

Shimla

Size C ha nd igarh
Dheradun
Uttarakhand
Haryana
l The landmass of India has an area of 3.28 million sq km Delhi N
E
ha l
nac esh
PA Aru Prad
and about 2.4% of the total geographical area of the
Sikkim
L g a r
Lucknow tan a
E
world. Rajasthan Jaipur
Gangtok BHUTAN
Asom Nagaland
Uttar Pradesh Dispur
Kohima
India is the seventh largest country in the world.
Bang

Patna
l Shillong
Bihar Manipur
lade

l India ranks second in the world in terms of population Gujarat

Meghalaya
Agartala Imphal
sh

after China. Gandhinagar

Bhopal
Jharkhand
Paschim Aizol
rh

Ranchi Bangal Mizoram

ga

l India measures 3214 km from North to South and Madhya Pradesh Kolkata Tripura
tis
at
hh

2933 km from East to West. Donah

C

Odisha Myanmar
Daman and Diu Silvas
Raipur Bhubaneshwar
l It has a land frontier of 15200 km and coastline of 7517 km. Maharashtra BAY
Mumbai
l 82°30′ E meridian helps in calculating the Indian OF
BENGAL
standard time which is 5 h 30 min ahead of Greenwich Hyderabad
Mean Time (GMT). Arabian Sea
Andhra
Yanam (Puducherry)
Panaji Pradesh
l From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is time lag of Goa Karnataka
two hours. Hence, time along the standard meridian of
India passing through Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) is Bengaluru
Andam

Chennai
taken as standard time for the whole country. Mahe Puducherry
an and Nicobar Isl

(Puducherry)
Ker

Tamil Nadu Karakal

India and Its Neighbours

a la

(Puducherry)

l India has 28 states and 8 union territories. Thiruvananthapuram

a nd

Sri Scale1 : 18,000,000

l In the North-West, it shares land boundaries with
s (I

Lanka Km 100 0 100 200 300 400Km

nd

Pakistan and Afghanistan.

i a)
India : Size and Location 599
Position and Extent of India and Its l Ranking of the countries of the world in terms of
area is as follows
Location
(i) Russia (ii) Canada (iii) USA
l India is located on one of the peninsulas of Southern (iv) China (v) Brazil (vi) Australia
Asia. The country extends from Kashmir in the North to (vii) India
Kanyakumari in the South.
l The Southernmost tip of the Republic of India-Indira
l The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal are situated on Point (on great Nicobar Island). This has now been
either side of peninsular India. submerged due to the Tsunami of December 2004.
l The importance of the location of India is that it is l The Kanyakumari is the Southernmost tip of the
located on the world’s major sea routes. mainland of the Indian subcontinent.
l The Indian Ocean is named after the name of our l Tropic of Cancer passes through the states of Gujarat,
country India. Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
Paschim Banga, Tripura and Mizoram.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The Southernmost tip of the Republic of India is 9. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time
(a) Kanyakumari (b) Tamil Nadu lag of
(c) Kerala (d) Indira Point (a) 5 h and 30 min (b) 2 h
(c) 5 h (d) 4 h
2. In terms of geographical area, India ranks
(a) 2nd (b) 5 th 10. India’s total area accounts for about
(c) 6 th (d) 7 th (a) 2.8% of total geographical area of world
(b) 2.5% of total geographical area of world
3. India extends between (c) 2.4% of total geographical area of world
(a) 8°4′ N to 37°6′ N latitude (d) 2.6% of total geographical area of world
(b) 37°6′ N to 42° 5′ N latitude
(c) 8°4′ N to 35°5′ N latitude 11. The easternmost longitude of India is
(d) None of the above (a) 97°25′ E (b) 77°6′ E
(c) 68°7′ E (d) 82° 32′ E
4. North to South extension of India is
(a) 2933 km (b) 3214 km 12. Which one of the following countries does not share
(c) 15200 km (d) 7517 km an international land boundary with India?
5. Which of the following oceans gets its name from the (a) Pakistan (b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan (d) Sri Lanka
name of any country?
(a) Pacific Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean 13. The mainland of India extends between
(c) Indian Ocean (d) None of these (a) 68° 7′ E longitude to 97°25′ E longitude
(b) 8° 4′ E longitude to 37°6′ E longitude
6. India comprises of (c) 65°7′ longitude to 97°25′ E longitude
(a) 25 states and 7 union territories (d) None of the above
(b) 28 states and 6 union territories
(c) 28 states and 7 union territories 14. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is the standard time of
(d) 25 states and 8 union territories which of the following countries?
7. Sri Lanka is separated from India by (a) Japan (b) USA
(c) Germany (d) England
(a) Palk Strait (b) Indian Ocean
(c) Hudson Bay (d) Bay of Bengal 15. Which of the following countries has the largest area
8. India shares international land boundaries with in the world?
(a) Canada (b) USA
(a) 5 countries (b) 6 countries
(c) Russia (d) China
(c) 7 countries (d) 8 countries
600 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. Match the following 3. Which among the following is false?
Country Rank in Terms of Area 1. India lies entirely in the Northern hemisphere.
A. Brazil 1. 4th
2. The southernmost point of Indian Union Indira Point
B. USA 2. 7th got submerged under the sea water in 2004 during
C. China 3. 5th Tsunami.
D. India 4. 3rd 3. 82°30′ E has been selected as the standard meridian of
India.
Codes
A B C D
4. India is the 8th largest country.
(a) 3 1 4 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
4. Mainland of the Indian subcontinent comprises of
(d) 3 2 4 1
(a) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal
2. Which among the following is/are correct for India? (b) India, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh
1. Landmass of India has an area of 3.28 million (c) Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, India, Pakistan
(d) Bhutan, Bangladesh, India, Nepal, Myanmar
sq km.
2. Palk Strait separates India from Bangladesh. 5. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Paschim Banga
3. North to South extension of India is 3214 km. and Sikkim have common frontiers with
4. India shares international boundaries with (a) China
7 countries. (b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4
(d) Myanmar
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b)
 Chapter
2
Physical Features of India
India is a large landmass formed during different
geological periods. Weathering, erosion and deposition
have also created and modified the earth’s landmass to
its present form.
Theory of Plate Tectonics
According to this theory, the crust (upper part) of the
earth has been formed out of seven major and some
minor plates.
The movement of the plates results in stress within the
plates and the continental rocks, leading to folding,
faulting and volcanic activity.
The plate movements are divided into three types
l Plates come towards each other and form convergent
boundary.
l Plates move away from each other and from divergent
boundary. In the event of two plates coming together
plates may either collide and crumble or one may slide
under the other.
l Sometimes plates also move horizontally each other and
form transform boundary.
Formation of Mountain Systems of West
Asia and Himalaya
The crust of the earth is divided into a number of pieces
because of the conventional currents.
This resulted in separation of Indo-Australian plate
from the Gondwana land towards North.
l Gondwana land includes the oldest landmass and the
peninsular part. Gondwana land included India,
Australia, South Africa, South America and Antarctica.
l The drift towards North resulted in collision of this plate
with the Eurasian plate.
l The collision of Indo-Australian plate with Eurasian
plate, the sedimentary rocks accumulated in the
geosyncline, known as Tethys were folded to form the
mountain systems of West Asia and Himalayas.
Formation of Northern Plains of India
l A large basin was formed because of Himalayan uplift
from the Tethys sea and peninsular plateau.
l In due course of time this depression gradually got filled
with deposition of sediments by the rivers flowing from
the mountains in the North and the peninsular plateau
in the South.
l These extensive alluvial deposits led to the formation of
the Northern plains of India.
Points to Remember
l
Geologically, the peninsular plateau constitutes one of the ancient
land masses on the earth’s surface and one of the most stable land
blocks.
l
The Himalayas and the Northern plains are the most recent land
forms.
l
From the viewpoint of geology, the Himalayan mountains form an
unstable zone.
l
The whole mountain system of Himalayas represents a very youthful
topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast flowing rivers.
l
The Northern plains are formed because of alluvial deposits.
Physiographic Divisions of India
The physical features of India can be divided into six
physiographic divisions.
1. The Himalayan Mountains
2. The Northern Plains
3. The Peninsular Plateau
602 Study Package for NTSE

4. The Indian Desert Some Highest Peaks of the Himalayas

5. The Coastal Plains S.No. Peak Country Height in Metres
6. The Islands
1. Mt Everest Nepal 8848
The Himalayan Mountains 2. Kanchenjunga India 8598
3. Makalu Nepal 8481
The Himalayas are geologically young and structurally
4. Dhaulagiri Nepal 8172
folded mountains. They are present in the Northern
borders of India. The mountain ranges run in a 5. Nanga Parbat India 8126
West-East direction from the Indus to the 6. Annapurna Nepal 8078
Brahmaputra. 7. Nanda Devi India 7817
l Himalayas form an arc and cover a distance of about 8. Kamet India 7756
2400 km. 9. Namcha Barwa India 7756
l Himalaya mountains’ width varies from 400 km in 10. Gurla Mandhata Nepal 7728
Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh.
l The altitudinal variations are greater in the Eastern Himachal or Lesser Himalayas
half than in the Western half. l Himachal or lesser Himalayas are lying to the South of
the great Himalayas, and their altitude varies between
Great (or) Inner Himalayas (or) the ‘Himadri’ 3700 and 4500 metres with average width of 50 km.
l The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in their l Pir Panjal range is the longest range in Himachal.
longitudinal extent. The Northernmost range is known l Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also
as the Great (or) Inner Himalayas or the ‘Himadri’. prominent ones.
l It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks with an l Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu valleys are also present in
average height of 6000 metres. these mountains.
l The folds of the Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature, l Himachal or lesser Himalayas are well known for their
composed of granite and perennially snowbound. hill stations.

Shiwaliks
India Shiwaliks are the outermost range of the Himalayas.
KA

RA Physical
G
R
KO
RA
M
They extend over a width of 10-50 km and have an
RA

us
E N
altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres.
G

E
d
In A
R.
m
Duns
T
elu n a b
Jh e China
R. . C h SH
R
vi IV
Ra AL
n

.
Duns are the longitudinal valleys lying between lesser
ista

R IK
j RA
tle H Tibet
Su NG
Pak

d us
R. E I
M R. Tsangpo Himalayas and Shiwaliks. Dehradun, Kotli Dun and
In NE A
R. R.
Ga
PAL L A Y A S
Patli Dun are some of well known Duns.
GE

R. n ga
Great Indian a
AN

Ya BHUTAN putr
ma
R.

m R. G
IR

Deserts ba
l un rah
Points to Remember
ha g
R. B
Ga
AL

m a h ar
ha a
AV

C a R. Kosi KHASI JAINTIA

da

R. tw
AR

Be
k

on RANGE
R.
R Bangladesh .S l
The part of the Himalayas lying between Sutlej and Indus has been
R. D TROPIC OF
MALWA PLATEAU
VCHHOTANAGPUR a mo
da r CANCER
traditionally known as Punjab Himalaya but it is also known regionally
i

E
DE
ah

YA RANG PLATEAU
A
as Kashmir and Himachal Himalayas.
M

H
VIND H
MA LS
R.

mada HI
L
GIR R. Nar
HILLS l
The part of the Himalayas lying between Sutlej and Kali rivers is known
H

R. T
R. Ma
AR

api Mayanmar
han ad
i as Kumaon Himalayas.
ISG

DECCAN
ATT

R. Goodavari
l
The Kali and Tista rivers demarcate the Nepal Himalayas.
CH

PLATEAU
The part of the Himalayas lying between Tista and Dihang rivers is
S

l
AT
GH

known as Assam Himalayas.

WE

R. Krishna
N
ER
S

R.
TER

ST

Pe
Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India)
EA

nn
T

eru
EL COAS
NG

Purvanchal or Eastern Hills

HA
TS

ND

NILGIRI
l Purvanchal mountains or Eastern hills bend sharply to
COROMA

HILLS
CAR

veri the South and spread along the Eastern boundary of

MAL

R.Cau
OM

India beyond the Dihang gorge.

ABA

ANNAMALAI
RA
R CO

LAKSHADWEEP
These hills run through the North-Eastern states and
HILL

l
AST

(INDIA)
S

Sri
Scale1 : 18,000,000
Kilometres 100 0 100 200 300 400 Kilometres
mostly composed of sandstones which are sedimentary rocks.
Lanka
l The Purvanchal comprises of the Patkai hills, Naga
hills, Manipur hills and Mizo hills.
Physical Features of India
The Northern Plain
l The Northern plain was formed by the interplay of the
three major river systems. They are the Indus, the
Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
l The Northern plain spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq km.
l It is about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad and is
also a densely populated physiographic division.
l The Western part of the Northern plain is called as the
Punjab plains. It was formed by the Indus and its
tributaries. This section of the plain is dominated by the
doabs. Doab is made up of two words ‘do’ meaning two
and ‘ab’ meaning water.
l The plain which extends between Ghaggar and Teesta
rivers is known as Ganga plain. The Ganga plain
spreads over the states of North India including
Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, partly
Jharkhand and Paschim Banga. In Asom lies the
Brahmaputra plain.
The Northern plains can be divided into four regions
based on the variations in relief features.
(i) Bhabar The rivers deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of
about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of
the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar.
(ii) Terai All the streams disappear in the bhabar belt.
South of the bhabar belt, the streams and rivers
re-emerge and create a wet, swampy and marshy
region known as Terai. Terai was a thickly forested
region full of wildlife.
(iii) Bhangar The largest part of the Northern plain is
formed of older alluvium. This lies above the flood
plains of the rivers and presents a terrace like feature.
This part is known as bhangar.
(iv) Khadar The newer, younger deposits of the flood
plains are called khadar. These lands are fertile and
ideal for intensive agriculture.
The Peninsular Plateau
The peninsular plateau was formed due to the breaking
and drifting of Gondwana land. The peninsular plateau
is made up of old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic
rocks.
The peninsular plateau consists of two broad
divisions.
1. Central Highlands Central Highlands lie to the North of
theNarmada river. They cover a major part of the Malwa
plateau.
l The Vindhya range is bounded by the central highlands
on the South and Aravalls on the North-West.
l The Westward extension gradually merges with the
sandy and rocky desert of Rajasthan.
l The cental highlands are wider in the West but
narrower in the East.
603
l The Eastward extensions of the plateau are locally
known as Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.
l The Chota Nagpur plateau marks the further Eastward
extension and is drained by the Damodar river.
2. The Deccan Plateau The Deccan Plateau is a triangular
landmass that lies to the South of the river Narmada.
l The Satpura ranges are on the North side of the plateau.
l Mahadev and Kaimur hills and the Maikal range form
its Eastern extensions.
l The Deccan plateau is separated by faults from the
Chota Nagpur plateau.
l In the North-East, the extension of Deccan plateau is
also known locally as Meghalaya plateau, Karbi-
Anglong plateau and North Cachar hills.
l The Garo, the Khasi and the Jaintia hills are the
prominent hills present from West to East.
The Western Ghats The Western Ghats are the
Western edges of the Deccan plateau. Western Ghats lie
parallel to the Western coast.
l The Western Ghats are continuous and can be crossed
through passes only. e.g., The Thal, Bhor the Pal Ghats
and Sankotra Gap.
l The Western Ghats average elevation is 900-1600
metres and they are higher than the Eastern Ghats.
l The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by forcing the
rain bearing moist winds to rise along the Western
slopes of the ghats.
l The height of the Western Ghats progressively increase
from North to South.
l Anai Mudi (2695 metres) and the Doda Betta (2637
metres) are the highest peaks in the Western Ghats.
The Eastern Ghats The Eastern Ghats are the
Eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau. Their average
elevation is 600 metres.
l The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular.
They are dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of
Bengal.
l The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi valley to
the Nilgiris in the South.
l Mahendragiri (1501 metres) located in Odisha & A.P.
border is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats.
l Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the
South-East of the Eastern Ghats.
The Indian Desert
The Indian desert lies towards the Western margins of
the Aravalli hills. This region receives very low rainfall
(below 150 mm per year).
l It has an arid climate with low vegetation cover.
l Luni is the only large river in this region.
604 Study Package for NTSE

l Barchans (crescent shaped dunes) cover larger areas
and become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan
boundary. e.g., in Jaisalmer a group of barchans are
present.
The Coastal Plains
The peninsular plateau consists of narrow coastal
strips. They are running along the Arabian Sea on the
West and the Bay of Bengal on the East.
l The Western coast is present between the Western
Ghats and the Arabian Sea. The Western Coast is a
narrow plain.
l The Western coast consists of three sections
(i) The Konkan coast (Mumbai-Goa) is the Northern part.
(ii) The Kannad plain is the central stretch.
(iii) The Malabar coast is Southern stretch.
l The Eastern coastal plains along the Bay of Bengal are
wide and level.
l In the Northern part, the plain is referred to as the
Northern Circar and the Southern part is known as the
Coromandel coast.
l Rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna
and the Kaveri have formed extensive deltas on the East
coast of India. Lake Chilka is an important feature along
the Eastern coast.
The Islands
Lakshadweep Islands
The Lakshadweep Islands group is lying close to the
Malabar coast of Kerala and they are composed of small
coral islands.
l Earlier Lakshadweep Islands were known as Laccadive,
Minicoy and Amindive.
l In 1973, these were renamed as Lakshadweep.
l The Island covers a small area of 32 sq km.
l Kavaratti is the administrative headquarters of
Lakshadweep.
l The Pitti Island, which is uninhabited, has a bird
sanctuary.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
They are a chain of islands located in the Bay of Bengal
extending from North to South.
They are divided into two broad categories
(i) The Andaman in the North
(ii) The Nicobar in the South
l These islands lie close to the equator and experience
equatorial climate. They have a thick forest cover.
l India’s only active volcano is found on Barren Island in
the Andaman group.
Corals
Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies.
They flourish in shallow, mud free and warm waters. They secrete calcium
carbonate. The coral secretion and their skeletons form coral deposits in the
form of reefs.
Reefs
There are three kinds of reefs. They are barrier reef, fringing reef and atolls.
The Great Barrier Reef of Australian is an example of barrier reef. Atolls are
circular or horse shoe shaped coral reefs.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The Himalayan mountain system belongs to which 4. The Himalayas are generally divided into three
one of the following? ranges which do not include
(a) Volcanic mountains (b) Block mountains (a) Shiwalik (b) Greater Himalaya
(c) Folded mountains (d) None of these (c) Karakoram (d) Lesser Himalaya

2. Shiwaliks are 5. The largest inhabited riverine island in the world is

(a) to the North of Himadri (a) Bhola Island (b) Great Braila Island
(b) foot hills of Himalayan ranges (c) Majuli (d) Manpura Island
(c) the plateaus between Pamir and Myanmar
(d) in Meghalaya 6. Luni river flows in
(a) Rajasthan
3. The highest peak of the Himalayas in India is in (b) Madhya Pradesh
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Kashmir (c) Gujarat
(c) Sikkim (d) Himachal Pradesh (d) Asom
Physical Features of India 605
7. Which among the following is the largest salt water 12. Which of the following is the administrative
lake in India? headquarter of Lakshadweep?
(a) Lake Superior (b) Lake Victoria (a) Kavaratti Island (b) Pitti Island
(c) Lake Chilka (d) None of these (c) Nicobar Island (d) None of these

8. Kangra and Kullu valleys are in 13. What does the term Doab mean?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra (a) Where the delta of river begins
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Himachal Pradesh (b) Where two or more rivers meet
(c) Land between two separate river systems
9. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is (d) Land between two tributaries of a river
(a) Anai Mudi (b) Mahendragiri
(c) Kanchenjunga (d) Khasi 14. The central highland and the Deccan plateau are two
broad divisions of
10. The other name of Great Himalayas is (a) the Western Ghats (b) the Eastern Ghats
(a) Himachal (b) Himadri
(c) Bundelkhands (d) The peninsular plateau
(c) Shiwalik (d) None of these
15. The central highland lies to the
11. Anai Mudi and Doda Betta are the highest peak of (a) South of Narmada river (b) East of Narmada river
(a) Greater Himalaya (b) Middle Himalaya (c) North of Narmada river (d) None of these
(c) Eastern Ghats (d) Western Ghats

High Skill Questions

1. The Purvanchal comprises of 5. Match the following
(a) Patkai hills, Naga hills, Manipur hills and Nilgiri hills
(b) Naga hills, Manipur hills, Anamalai hills, Mizo hills List I List II
(c) Patkai hills, Manipur hills, Naga hills, Mizo hills A. The Himalayas are formed of 1. Nilgiri Hills
(d) Mizo hills, Manipur hills, Cardamom hills, Anamalai hills parallel fold ranges of which the
oldest range is
2. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
B. The highest peak of South India is 2. Mt K2
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their Northern
region C. Junction point of Eastern Ghats 3. The Great
(b) Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and Western Ghats Himalayan Range
(c) Tapi river lies to the South of Satpura D. Highest mountain peak of India is 4. Anai Mudi
(d) Western Ghats cause orographic rainfall
Codes
3. Gondwana land included A B C D A B C D
(a) India, Australia, South Africa, South America (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(b) India, Australia, South America, South Africa, Antarctica (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
(c) Australia, India, Antarctica, South Africa, North America
(d) None of the above 6. Arrange the following Himalayan peaks in order as
they occur from West to East
4. Match the following 1. Kanchenjunga 2. Mt Everest
List I List II 3. Nanda Devi 4. Dhaulagiri
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1
A. An area consisting of marshy 1. Khadar
underground seepage 7. Match the following
B. The new alluvium soil is called 2. Bhangar Peaks Mountain Range
C. The old alluvium is termed as 3. Island A. Gurushikhar 1. Zanskar
D. Any area of land smaller than a continent 4. Terai B. Dhupgarh 2. Satpura
and entirely surrounded by water C. Doda Betta 3. Nilgiri
D. Nanga Parbat 4. Vindhya
Codes 5. Aravalli
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 Codes
(b) 4 1 2 3 A B C D A B C D
(c) 4 1 3 2 (a) 4 2 5 1 (b) 3 4 1 5
(d) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 5 2 1 (d) 5 2 3 1
606 Study Package for NTSE

8. India’s only active volcano is found on Barren Island in 10. Match the following lists
(a) Lakshadweep
List I List II
(b) Andaman and Nicobar group of islands
(c) Pitti Island A. Greater Himalaya 1. Himachal or lesser Himalaya
(d) Kavaratti island B. Middle Himalaya 2. Himadri or Inner Himalaya
C. Outer Himalaya 3. Shiwalik
9. The Western coastal strip, South of Goa is referred to
as Codes
(a) Coromandel (b) Kannad A B C A B C
(c) Konkan (d) Northern Circars (a) 2 1 3 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 (d) 3 1 2

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
 Chapter

3
Climate
(iv) Distance from the sea (continentality)
Climate (v) Ocean currents
(vi) Relief features
Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions l The amount of solar energy received varies according to
and variations over a large area for a long period of time the latitude because of the curvature of the earth e.g., air
(more than thirty years). temperature generally decreases from the equator
towards the poles.
Weather l When one goes from the surface of the earth to higher
altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and
Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an temperature decreases. e.g., the hills are cooler during
area at any point of time. summers.
l The elements of weather and climate are the same, that l The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the
is temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity latitude and altitude of the place. Thus, it influences the
and precipitation. temperature and rainfall pattern.
l On the basis of the generalised monthly atmospheric l Continentality means very hot during summers and
conditions, the year is divided into seasons such as very cold during winters. As the distance from the sea
winter, summer and rainy season. increases, the influence of the sea decreases and the
people experience extreme weather conditions.
Temperature and Precipitation l Ocean Currents along with onshore winds affect the
l In summer, the temperature touches 50° C in some parts climate of the coastal areas. e.g., any coastal area with
of the Rajasthan desert and 20° C in Pahalgam in warm (or) cold currents flowing past it will be warmed or
Jammu and Kashmir. cooled if the winds are onshore.
l In winter, the temperature at Drass in Jammu l Relief also determines the climate of a place. e.g., high
and Kashmir is around minus 45° C and 22° C in mountains act as barriers for cold (or) hot winds and
Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. may also cause precipitation if they are high and lie in
l The annual precipitation varies from over 400 cm in the path of rain-bearing winds.
Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh and Western
Rajasthan. Factors Affecting India’s Climate
Factors affecting India’s climate are as follows
Climatic Controls
There are six major controls of the climate of a place. Latitude
They are The area lying South of the Tropic of Cancer belongs to
(i) Latitude tropical climate area and the area lying North of the
(ii) Altitude Tropic of Cancer belongs to the sub-tropical climate
(iii) Pressure and winds area.
608
The Tropic of Cancer passes almost through the
middle of the country from the Rann of Kuchchh in
the West to Mizoram in the East and it passes
through several states. They are Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
Paschim Banga, Tripura and Mizoram.
Altitude
The Himalayas on the North side of India which have
an average height of about 6000 prevent the cold
winds from Central Asia entering the subcontinent,
i.e., the subcontinent experiences milder winters as
compared to Central Asia because of the Himalayas.
Pressure and Winds
The climate and weather condition in India are
governed by the following atmospheric conditions
l Pressure and surface winds
l Upper air circulation
l Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones
Pressure and Wind Conditions over India
In the winter season, high pressure area develops
North of the Himalayas and cold dry winds blow
from this region to the low-pressure areas over the
oceans to the South.
South-West Monsoon Winds
l In summer season, a low pressure area develops over
North-Western India.
l Air moves from the high-pressure area over the
Southern Indian Ocean in a South-Easterly
direction, crosses the equator and finally turns right
towards the low pressure areas over the Indian
sub-continent.
l These winds blow over warm oceans, gather
moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the
mainland of India.
Upper Air Circulation
The upper air circulation in Indian subcontinent is
dominated by a westerly flow. In important
componant of this flow is the Jetstream.
Jetstream
l The Jetstreams are located approximately over the
27°-30° North latitude and they are known as
subtropical westerly jetstreams.
l Over India, these Jetstreams blow South of the
Himalayas all through the year except in summer
season.
Study Package for NTSE
Coriolis Force Force caused by the earth’s rotation. The Coriolis force is
responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the Northern
hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern hemisphere.
Jetstream A narrow belt of high altitude (above 12000 m) westerly
wind in the troposphere.
Western Cyclonic Disturbances It is a weather phenomena which
occurs in winter months and is caused by the westerly flow from the
Mediterranean region.
l Western cyclonic disturbances are caused by the westerly
flow in North and North-Western part of India.
l In summer season, the subtropical westerly jetstream
moves North of the Himalayas, with the apparent
movement of the sun.
l An easterly jetstream called as the subtropical easterly
Jetstream blows over India during the summer months.
The Indian Monsoon
The climate of India is strongly influenced by monsoon
winds. The Arabs, which also came to India as traders,
named this seasonal reversal of the wind system ‘monsoon’.
The monsoons are experienced in the tropical area roughly
between 20° North and 20° South.
The mechanism of the monsoons depends on the following
factors
l The differential heating and cooling of land and water
creates low pressure on the land mass of India while the
seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
l The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
(ITCZ) in summer over the Ganga plain (this is the
equatorial trough normally positioned about 5° North of the
equator. It is also known as the monsoon trough during the
monsoon season).
l The presence of a high-pressure area East of Madagascar,
approximately at 20° South over the Indian Ocean. The
intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the
Indian Monsoon.
l The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer,
which results in strong vertical air currents and the
formation of low pressure over the plateau at about 9 km
above sea level.
l The movement of the westerly jetstream to the North of the
Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly
jetstream over the Indian peninsula during summer.
Southern Oscillation (SO)
The changes in the pressure conditions over the Southern
oceans also affect the monsoons. Normally when the
tropical Eastern South Pacific Ocean experiences high
pressure, the tropical eastern Indian Ocean experiences
low pressure. But in certain years, there is a reversal in the
pressure conditions and the Eastern Pacific has lower
Climate
pressure in comparison to the Eastern Indian Ocean.
This periodic change in pressure conditions is known as
the Southern Oscillation or SO.
ENSO (El Nino Southern Oscillations)
A feature connected with the SO is the El Nino
phenomenon in which a warm ocean current that flows
past the Peruvian coast, in place of the cold Peruvian
current, every 2 to 5 years.
The changes in pressure conditions are connected to El
Nino. Hence, the phenomenon is referred to as ENSO
(El Nino Southern Oscillations).
Intensity of the Monsoon
The difference in pressure over Tahiti (Pacific Ocean,
18° South/149° West) and Darwin in Northern Australia
(Indian Ocean, 12°30 South/131° East) is computed to
predict the intensity of the monsoons. If the pressure
difference is negative, it would mean below average and
late monsoons.
El-Nino This is a name given to the warm ocean
current along the coast of Peru. ‘El-Nino’ is a Spanish
word meaning ‘the child’ and refers to the baby Christ,
as this current starts flowing during Christmas.
La-Nino This is just opposite situation of EL-Nino. In
this situation a cooling of the surface water of the
eastern and central pacific ocean, occurring somewhat
less frequently then EL-Nino events but causing
similar, generally opposite disruptions to global
weather patterns. La-Nina conditions occur when the
pacific trade winds blow more strongly them usual,
pushing the sun-warmed surface water farther West
and increasing the upwelling of cold water in the
Eastern regions. Together with the atmospheric effects
of the related Southern oscillation, the cooler water
brings drought to Western South America and heavy
rains to Eastern Australia and Indonesia.
The Onset of the Monsoon and
Withdrawal
The monsoon winds are not steady winds but are
pulsating in nature. The monsoons will be affected by
different atmospheric conditions over the warm tropical
seas. The duration of the monsoon is between 100-120
days from early June to mid-September.
Burst of the Monsoon
Around the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall
increases suddenly and continues constantly for several
days. This is known as the ‘burst’ of the monsoon and
can be distinguished from the pre-monsoon showers.
609
Stages of the Monsoon
The monsoon arrives at the Southern tip of the Indian
peninsula generally by the first week of June.
Subsequently, it proceeds in two directions- the Arabian
Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.
l The Arabian Sea branch reaches Mumbai about ten
days later on approximately the 10th of June. Thus, it is
a fairly rapid advance.
l The Bay of Bengal branch also advances rapidly and
arrives in Asom in the first week of June. The lofty
mountains cause the monsoon winds to deflect towards
the West over the Ganga plains.
l By mid-June, the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon
arrives over Saurashtra-Kuchchh and the central part
of the country.
l The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal branches of the
monsoon merge over the North-Western part of the
Ganga plains.
l Delhi generally receives the monsoon showers from the
Bay of Bengal branch by the end of June (tentative date
is 29th of June). By the first week of July, Western Uttar
Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana and Eastern Rajasthan
experience the monsoon. By mid-July, the monsoon
reaches Himachal Pradesh and the rest of the country.
Retreating of the Monsoon
Withdrawal or the retreat of the monsoon is a more
gradual process. The withdrawal of the monsoon begins
in the North-Western states of India by early
September. By mid-October, it withdraws completely
from the Northern half of the peninsula.
The withdrawal from the Southern half of the peninsula
is fairly rapid. By early December, the monsoon has
withdrawn from the rest of the country.
The Seasons
There are four main seasons in India.
The Cold Weather Season (Winter)
The cold weather season begins from mid-November in
Northern India and stays till February. December and
January are the coldest months in the Northern part of
India.
l The temperature decreases from the South to the North.
The average temperature of Chennai, on the Eastern
coast, is between 24° - 25° C, while in the Northern
plains, it ranges between 10° - 15° C. Days are warm and
nights are cold.
l Frost is common in the North and the higher slopes of
the Himalayas experience snowfall.
610
l The North-East trade winds prevail over the country
during this season. They blow from land to sea and it is a
dry season for most parts of the country.
l Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast
from these winds, as here they blow from sea to land.
l A characteristic feature of the cold weather season over
the Northern plains is the inflow of cyclonic
disturbances from the West and the North-West.
The Hot Weather Season (Summer)
It is hot weather season in India from March to May. In
March, the highest temperature is about 38° C, recorded
on the Deccan plateau. In April, temperature in Gujarat
and Madhya Pradesh is around 42° C.
l In May, temperature of 45° C is common in the
North-Western parts of the country. In peninsular
India, temperature remain lower due to the moderating
influence of the oceans.
l The summer months experience rising temperature and
falling air pressure in the Northern part of the country.
Towards the end of May, an elongated low pressure area
develops in the region extending from the Thar Desert in
the North-West to Patna and Chhotanagpur plateau in
the East and South-East. Circulation of air begins to set
in around this trough.
l A striking feature of the hot weather season is the ‘loo’.
These are strong, gusty, hot, dry winds blowing
during the day over North and North-Western India.
Sometimes they even continue until late in the evening.
Advancing Monsoon ( The Rainy Season)
The low-pressure condition over the Northern plains
intensifies by early June. It attracts the trade winds of
the Southern hemisphere. These South-East trade
winds originate over the warm sub-tropical areas of the
Southern oceans. They cross the equator and blow in a
South Westerly direction, entering the Indian peninsula
as the South-West Monsoon.
As these winds blow over warm oceans, they bring
abundant moisture to the subcontinent. These winds are
strong and blow at an average velocity of 30 km per hour.
l Early in the season, the windward side of the Western
Ghats receives very heavy rainfall which is more than
250 cm.
Study Package for NTSE
l The Deccan plateau and parts of Madhya Pradesh also
receive some amount of rain inspite of lying in the rain
shadow area.
l For various reasons, the trough and its axis keep on
moving Northward or Southward, which determines the
spatial distribution of rainfall. When the axis of the
monsoon trough lies over the plains, rainfall is good in
these parts.
Retreating Monsoons
During October-November the monsoon trough or the
low-pressure trough over the Northern plains becomes
weaker. This is gradually replaced by a high-pressure
system.
The South-West Monsoon winds weaken and start
withdrawing gradually. By the beginning of October,
the monsoon withdraws from the Northern plains.
l The months of October-November form a period of
transition from the hot rainy season to dry winter
conditions.
l The deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri
are frequently struck by cyclones, which cause great
damage to life and property.
l Sometimes these cyclones arrive at the coasts of Odisha,
Paschim Banga and Bangladesh. The bulk of the rainfall
on the Coromandel coast is derived from depressions
and cyclones.
Distribution of Rainfall
Parts of the Western Coast and North-Eastern India
receive over 400 cm of rainfall annually. However, it is
less than 60 cm in Western Rajasthan and the adjoining
part of Gujarat, Haryana and Punjab. Rainfall is
equally low in the interior of the Deccan Plateau, and
East of the Sahyadris.
l The area of low precipitation is also around Leh in
Jammu and Kashmir. The rest of the country receives
moderate rainfall.
l The maximum rainfall of this season is received in the
North-Eastern part of the country. Mawsynram in the
Southern ranges of the Khasi Hills receives the highest
average rainfall in the world. Rainfall in the Ganga
valley decreases from East to West. Rajasthan and parts
of Gujarat get scanty rainfall.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word 8. The retreating monsoon withdraws from the
‘Mausim’ which means (a) West coast to the East coast
(a) climate (b) season (c) wind (d) stream (b) North to the South
(c) North-East India to the West coast
2. Which among the following is the wettest place on the (d) North-West India to Bengal
earth?
(a) Cherapunji (b) Mawsynram 9. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(c) Kerala (d) None of these A. Aandhi : Uttar Pradesh
B. Loo : North-West India
3. Which one of the following characterises the cold C. Kal Baisakhi : Paschim Banga
weather season in India? D. Mango shower : Odisha
(a) Warm days and warm nights
(b) Warm days and cold nights
10. Which among the following is not a factor affecting
(c) Cold days and cold nights India’s climate?
(d) Cold days and warm nights (a) Latitude (b) Altitude
(c) Pressure and winds (d) Snowfall
4. Which one of the following states receives the highest
rainfall during winter months? 11. Jetstreams blow South of the Himalayas all through
the year except in
(a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan (c) Meghalaya (d) Tamil Nadu
(a) winter (b) rainy season
5. Winter rains in North and North-West India are (c) summer (d) None of these
generally associalted with the phenomenon of 12. Pre-monsoon showers are also called cherry blossom
(a) retreating monsoon (b) temperate cyclone
in
(c) local thunderstorm (d) shift in jetstream movement
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
6. During the monsoon season rainfall decreases from (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
the Ganga delta to the Punjab plains. It is because 13. October heat is marked by
(a) monsoon current moves Westward along the Ganga plain
1. clean cloudless sky
and becomes drier
(b) the Western region are warmer than the Eastern region 2. high temperature
(c) hills do not form barriers for winds 3. high humidity
(d) the area is far away from the sea (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 1 (d) All of these
7. In May-June each year the monsoon winds approach
the Southern tip of India from 14. The driest place in India is
(a) monthly direction (a) Leh (b) Barmer (c) Jaisalmer (d) Bikaner
(b) North-Easterly direction 15. The climate of India is
(c) North-Westerly direction (a) tropical climate (b) subtropical climate
(d) South-Westerly direction (c) savanna type of climate (d) subtropical monsoon

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following are the main reasons for the (c) North-Western India receives heavy rainfall by retreating
origin of the South-West Monsoon in India? monsoon
1. Development of a low pressure in North-West (d) North-Eastern India receives heavy rainfall by North-East
monsoon
India.
2. Deflection of trade winds. 3. Arrange the following cities in decreasing order of
3. Arrival of cyclonic stream from the Pacific Ocean. the rainfall they receive from South-West monsoon in
4. Heating of the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. summer months
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 1. Allahabad 2. Kolkata
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 3. Delhi 4. Patna
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
(a) Eastern Ghats receive more rainfall than Western Ghats
(b) Aravalli mountains help heavy rainfall in the adjoining areas
612 Study Package for NTSE
4. Match the following lists 7. Which of the following is the main cause of heavy
rainfall in Tamil Nadu during winters?
List I List II
(a) Blowing of trade winds
A. Cold weather 1. June to September (b) Eastern Ghats provide a barrier for North-West monsoon
B. Hot weather 2. October to November winds
C. South-West monsoon 3. December to February (c) Nearness to equator
D. Retreating monsoon 4. March to May (d) Tropical cyclones which originate when the North-West
Monsoon winds cross Bay of Bengal
Codes
A B C D
8. Punjab and Haryana receive rainfall in winter from
(a) 3 4 1 2 (a) Westerly disturbances
(b) 4 3 2 1 (b) cyclones in Bay of Bengal
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) anticyclones
(d) 3 2 4 1 (d) None of the above

5. The extremes of temperature between summer and 9. The Western disturbances which cause rain in
winter are quite low in the Southern part of North-West India originate in
peninsular India mainly because (a) Black Sea
(b) Caspian Sea
(a) the adjoining oceans moderate the temperature
(c) Aral Sea
(b) the sky is generally cloudy
(d) Mediterranean Sea
(c) the sun’s rays are almost vertical throughout
(d) strong winds blow throughout the year 10. The pre-monsoon mango showers occur predomi-
6. Retreating monsoon causes rainfall during the nantly in
month of (a) Paschim Banga and Asom
(a) August and September (b) Goa and Maharashtra
(b) September and October (c) Malwa plateau
(c) October and November (d) Kerala
(d) November and December

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
 Chapter
4
Drainage
Drainage system is defined as the river system of an
area. e.g., Ganga River System etc.
On the basis of area drained, the river basins of India
have been classified into three categories
(i) Major River basins with catchment area of more than
20000 sq km and above.
(ii) Medium River basins having a catchment area
between 2000-20000 sq km.
(iii) Minor River basins with catchment area below 2000
sq km.
l India has 113 river basins, of which 14 major, 44
medium and 55 are minor river basins.
l The top 5 major river basins of India in descending
order of area are the Ganga (861404 sq km), the Indus
(321284 sq km) the Godavari (312812 sq km), the
Krishna (258848 sq km) and the Brahmaputra
(258008 sq km).
The Himalayan Rivers
The major Himalayan rivers are the Indus, the Ganga
and the Brahmaputra.
Himalayan River System is divided into three major river
systems
(i) The Indus River System
(ii) The Ganga River System
(iii) The Brahmaputra River System
The Indus (Sindhu) River System
The Indus is one of the most important drainage
systems of the subcontinent of India. It has a length of
2880 km, of which 709 km lies in India. The catchment
area of the Indus is about 1165000 sq km, out of which
about 321284 sq km is in India.
l Indus originates from the Bokhar Chu (glacier) in the
Tibetan region near Mansarovar lake. It is the Western
most river system in the sub-continent. It enters India in
the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir. In Jammu
and Kashmir, its Himalayan tributaries are Zaskar,
Dras, Gartang, Shyok, Shigar, Nubra, Gilgit etc.
l The Sutlej (Satudri), Beas (Vipasa), Jhelum (Vitasta),
Chenab (Asikni) and Ravi (Parushni or Iravati) are the
important tributaries of Indus which join together to
enter the Indus near Mithankot in Pakistan.
l The Indus make several deep gorges. The deepest of all
is at Gilgit, which is 5200 m in height above the level of
the water at its bed. Indus falls into Arabian Sea. In
Tibet, Indus is known as ‘Singi Khamban’ Or Lion's
Mouth.
l According to the Indus water treaty signed between
India and Pakistan in 1960, India can utilize only 20% of
the total discharge of Indus, Jhelum and Chenab.
The Ganga River System
The Ganga River System is the second major drainage
system of India. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near
Gaumukh (3900 m) in Uttarakhand, here, it is known as
the Bhagirathi. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the
Alaknanda, hereafter, it is known as Ganga.
l The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier
above Badrinath. It consists of the Dhauli and Vishnu
Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag. The
other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins
it at Karnaprayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga
meets it at Rudraprayag.
l It is 2525 km long of which 1450 km is in Uttarakhand
and UP, 445 km in Bihar and 520 km in Paschim Banga.
l The left bank tributaries of Ganga are: Ramganga,
Gomti, Kali or Sarda, Gandak, Kosi, Mahanadi.
l The right bank tributaries of Ganga are: Yamuna and
Son. Yamuna joins the Ganga at Allahabad.
l Hooghly is a distributory of Ganga flowing through
Kolkata.
614
l The Ganga river is an international river as it passes
through Bangladesh before merging into the Bay of
Bengal. Kosi is called as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’ while
Damodar is called as ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ as these cause
floods in these regions.
The Brahmaputra River System
The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet, East of Mansarovar
lake. It is one of the largest river of the world. It is
volume-wise largest river of India whereas lengthwise
Ganga river is the longest in India. It flows Eastwards
parallel to the Himalayas. On reaching Namcha Barwa,
it takes a ‘U’ turn and enters India in Arunachal
Pradesh through a gorge.
l Brahmaputra is known as Tsangpo in Tibet, Dihang or
Siang in Arunachal Pradesh, Brahmaputra in Asom and
Jamuna in Bangladesh.
l The right bank tributaries of Barahmaputra are:
Subansiri, Dhareli, Manas, Sankos, Tista and Raidak
etc.
l The left bank tributaries of Brahmaputra are: Dihang,
Lohit, Burhi Dihang, Dhansiri, Kalang and Kapili etc.
l Brahmaputra forms largest number of riverine island.
Majuli is the largest riverine island in the world.
The Peninsular Rivers
The Peninsular River System can be divided in two
groups
(i) East flowing rivers (or delta forming rivers)
(ii) West flowing rivers (or estuaries forming rivers)
East Flowing Rivers
(or Delta Forming Rivers)
East flowing rivers do not form estuaries and it fall into
the Bay of Bengal. Example of East flowing rivers are
the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri etc. All
these rivers form delta and fall into the Bay of Bengal.
Mahanadi (Length 885 km, Basin 141600 sq km)
It is the most important river of Odisha as well as that of
Chhattisgarh. It originates from Dandakaranya plateau
near Raipur. The important tributaries of Mahanadi are
Mand, Hasdeo, Seonath, Ong, Jonk, Tel. Its drainage
basin is shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and
Andhra Pradesh.
Godavari (Length 1465 km, Basin 312800 sq km)
It is the largest river of peninsular India. It originates
from Trimbak plateau near Nasik (Maharashtra). It is
also known as Dakshin Ganga. The important
Study Package for NTSE
tributaries of Godavari are: Manjra, Penganga,
Wardha, Wainganga, Indravati, Sabari Pranhita.
Krishna (Length 1290 km, Basin 259000 sq km)
The river Krishna has its origin near Mahabaleshwar in
the vertical faces of the Western Ghats. Its important
tributaries are Koyna, Ghataprabha, Malprabha,
Bhima, Tungbhadra, Musi and Muneru.
Kaveri (Length 765 km, Basin 87900 sq km)
The Kaveri is a sacred river like the Ganga. Hence, it is
called the Ganga of South India. It originates from Taal
Kaveri. Its important tributaries are: Herangi,
Hemavati, Lokpavni, Shimsa, Arkavati, Kabani,
Bhavani and Amravati. The river Kaveri makes the
second biggest waterfall in India known as
Sivasamudram.
West Flowing Rivers
(or Estuaries Forming Rivers)
West flowing rivers do not form delta and these fall into
the Arabian Sea. Example of West flowing rivers are:
Sabarmati, Mahi, Narmada, Tapi and Luni etc. All
these rivers form estuaries and fall into the Arabian
Sea.
Narmada (Length 1300 km, Drainage Basin 98800 sq km)
The river Narmada rises from the plateau of
Amarkantak of the Maikal Hills of Chhattisgarh.
Moving North-Eastwards, it passes through a complex
course near Jabalpur, through some impressive marbel
gorges, the most spectacular being Dhuandhar
waterfalls (10 m high) near Jabalpur. Its important
tributaries are: Hiran, Orsang, Barna, Kolar, Burhnar,
Tawa and Kundi etc.
Tapi (Length 700 km, Basin 66900 sq km)
The river Tapi rises in the Satpura ranges in the Betul
district of Madhya Pradesh. Its basin covers parts of
MP, Gujarat and Maharashtra. Its main tributaries are:
Purna, Betul, Patki, Ganjal, Dhatranj, Bokad and
Amravati.
Drainage System in India
On the basis of mode of origin, Indian rivers are divided
into two major groups
(i) The Himalayan Rivers
(ii) The Peninsular Rivers
Drainage 615
Difference between Himalayan Rivers and humanity. They also help in the prevention of sudden
Peninsular Rivers floods and droughts.

Himalayan Rivers Peninsular Rivers River Pollution

These rivers are perennial in These rivers are seasonal in nature The growing domestic, municipal, industrial and
nature i.e., the water flows and receive water only from rainfall. agricultural demand for water from rivers naturally
throughout the year.
These have large basins and These have small basins and
affects the quality of water.
catchment areas. catchment areas.
These rivers are much These rivers are much older, some of National River Conservation Plan (NRCP)
younger, excepting a few them are as old as the pre-cambrian l The activities of Ganga Action Plan (GAP) Phase-I, was initiated in 1985
antecedent (older than period. and was closed on 31st March, 2000.
Himalaya) rivers like; Indus, l The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) Phase-II, has been merged with the NRCP.
Sutlej, Ganga, Brahmaputra The expanded NRCP now covers 152 towns located along 27 interstate
etc. rivers in 16 states.
These rivers make only deltas. These rivers make deltas (Godavari, l A total of 215 schemes of pollution abatement have been sanctioned.
The Sunderban delta is the Krishna, Kaveri) and estuaries like; So far, 69 schemes have been completed under this action plan. A
largest delta in the world. Narmada and Tapi. million litres of sewage is targeted to be intercepted, diverted
In the plains, these make These make shallow meanders. and treated.
numerous sharp meanders
and ox-bow lakes.
Most of them originate from the Most of them originate from the Role of Rivers in the Economy
Himalayan glaciers. Western Ghats and plateau.
Rivers have been of fundamental importance
throughout the human history. Using rivers for
The Lakes irrigation, navigation, hydro-power generation is of
A lake is a natural depression filled with water. In this special significance-particularly to a country like India,
period of population explosion and scarcity of water, where agriculture is the major source of livelihood of the
lakes are an important source of water supply to majority of its pollution.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following river is known as Jamuna in 6. By which name does the Brahmaputra enter into
Bangladesh? India?
(a) Ganga (b) Brahmaputra (a) Dihang (b) Manas (c) Tsangpo (d) Dhansiri
(c) Narmada (d) Tapi
7. River Damodar is called ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ because it
2. Famous Dal Lake is in (a) gets flooded after causing havoc
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Punjab (b) causes maximum soil erosion
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Kashmir (c) forms numbers of dangerous waterfalls
3. Which of the following is the longest river in India? (d) is not a perennial river
(a) Ganga (b) Narmada 8. Shyok is tributary of
(c) Brahmaputra (d) Godavari (a) Brahmaputra (b) Indus
4. Which of the following river is known as India’s river (c) Chenab (d) Sutlej
of sorrow? 9. By what name is the Ganga known in Bangladesh?
(a) Hooghly (b) Damodar (a) Padma (b) Bhagirathi
(c) Ghaghara (d) Kosi (c) Rupnarayan (d) Nubra
5. In which state is Jog falls located? 10. Which of the following peninsular rivers is Westward
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka flowing?
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala (a) Mahanadi (b) Godavari (c) Tapi (d) Kaveri
616 Study Package for NTSE

11. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Narmada : Jabalpur (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
2. Godavari : Nasik
3. Mahanadi : Cuttack 14. According to which treaty, India only use 20% of total
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 water carried by Indus River System
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Indus Water Treaty of 1960
(b) India-Nepal Water Treaty of 1965
12. The Himalayan rivers are (c) India-China Water Treaty of 1960
(a) monsoon fed (b) seasonal (d) None of the above
(c) snow fed (d) ephemeral
15. Which of the following river is known as ‘Vridha
13. Which among these build a common delta? Ganga’?
1. Ganga 2. Brahmaputra (a) Godavari (b) Krishna
3. Godavari 4. Krishna (c) Mahanadi (d) Kaveri

High Skill Questions

1. The Bhakra Nangal Multipurpose Project is a joint Codes
verture of A B C D A B C D
(a) Punjab and Haryana (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(b) Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Himachal Pradesh
(d) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh 5. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
2. What is correct sequence of rivers - Godavari, Mahanadi,
Narmada and Tapi in descending order of their length? River City
(a) Godavari–Mahanadi–Narmada–Tapi (a) Gomti Lucknow
(b) Godavari–Narmada–Mahanadi–Tapi Saryu Ayodhya
(b)
(c) Narmada–Godavari–Tapi–Mananadi
(c) Alaknanda Badrinath
(d) Narmada–Tapi–Godavari–Mahanadi
(d) Narmada Satna
3. Which of the following is true with regard to
characteristics of the Himalayan rivers? 6. Which one of the following rivers flows between
I. Many of them have their sources in Inner Himalaya. Vindhayan and Satpura range?
II. They have a perennial flow. (a) Narmada (b) Son (c) Mahe (d) Netravati
III. They have a great capacity for erosion. 7. Which river termed as ‘Ganga of South’?
IV. They do not form gorges. (a) Narmada (b) Tapi (c) Kaveri (d) None of these
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) III and IV (d) II and IV
8. Wular lake of Kashmir is a/an
4. Match the following pairs (a) ox-bow lake
(b) lake formed by blocking of ice
River Origin (c) lake formed by terminol morainic dam
A. Indus 1. Uttarakhand (d) lake formed by deposition of silt
B. Ganga 2. Tibet
9. Most of the rivers flowing Westward from the
C. Godavari 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Narmada 4. Maharashtra
Western Ghats do not form delta because
(a) of the high gradient (b) they are too slow
5. Karnataka
(c) they are not perennial (d) there is no vegetation

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a)
 Chapter
5
Resources and
Development
Resources
Everything available in our environment which can be
used to satisfy our needs, provided it is technology
accessible, economically feasible and culturally
accepted can be termed as resource. The process of
transformation of things available in our environment
involves an inter-dependent relationship between
nature, technology and institutions. Resources are a
function of human activities. Human beings themselves
are essential components of resources. Resources can be
classified in the following ways
Resources
On the basis of origin Biotic and abiotic
On the basis of Renewable and non-renewable
exhaustibility
On the basis of ownership Individual, national and international
On the basis of status of Potential, developed, stock and
development reserves
Biotic Resources Obtained from biosphere and have
life such as human beings, flora and fauna. fisheries,
livestock etc.
Abiotic Resources All those things which are
composed of non-living things are called abiotic
resources, rocks and metals.
Renewable Resources Resources which can be
renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or
mechanical processes are known as renewable or
replenishable resources. Such as solar, wind, water,
forest and wildlife.
Non-renewable Resources These occur over a very
long geological time. Minerals and fossil fuels are
examples of such resources. These resources cannot be
recycled and get exhausted with their use.
Individual Resources These are owned privately by
individual. Land, plot, houses, other property etc., are
examples of resources ownership by individuals.
Community Owned Resources There are resources
which are accessible to all the members of the
community. Public parks, picnic spots etc., are de facto
accessible to all people living there.
National Resources Technically, all the resources,
belong to the nation. The country has legal powers to
acquire even private property for public good. All the
minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land within
12 nautical miles (19.2 km) from the coast termed as
territorial water and resources therein belong to the
nation.
International Resources There are international
institutions which regulate some resources. The oceanic
resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the exclusive
economic zone belong to open ocean and no individual
country can utilize these without the concurrence of
international institutions.
Potential Resources Resources which are found in a
region, but have not been utilized. The Western part of
India particularly Rajasthan and Gujarat have
enormous potential for the development of wind and
solar energy.
Developed Resources Resources which are surveyed
and their quality and quantity have been determined
for utilization. The development of resources depends
on technology and level of their feasibility.
618
Stock
Material in environment which have the potential to
satisfy human needs but human beings do not have the
appropriate technology to access them.
Reserves
These are the subset of the stock, which can be put into
use with the help of existing technical knowledge, but
their use has not been started. The water in the dams,
forests etc., is a reserve which can be used in the future.
Sustainable Development
Sustainable development means ‘development should take place
without damaging the environment’, and development in the present
should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.
Resource Planning in India
l Resource planning is a complex process which involves
(i) identification and inventory of resources across the
regions of the country.
(ii) evolving a planning structure endowed with
appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up
for implementing resource development plans.
(iii) matching the resource development plans with
overall national development plans.
l The availability of resources is a necessary condition for
the development of any region, but mere availability of
resources in the absence of corresponding changes in
technology and institutions may hinder development.
l There are many regions in our country that are rich in
resources, but these are included in economically
backward regions.
l In India, development in general and resource
development in particular does not only involve the
availability or resources, but also the technology, quality
of human resources and historical experience of the
people.
Land Resources
l Land is a natural resource of utmost importance. It
supports natural vegetation, wildlife, human life,
economic activities, transport and communication
system. India has land under a variety of relief features
namely; mountains, plateaus, plains and islands. About
43% of the land area is plain, which provides facilities
for agriculture and industry.
l
Fallow Land Land left without cultivation for one or less than one
agricultural year.
l
Net Sown Area Area sown more than once in an agricultural year.
Plus net sown area is known as Gross Cropped Area.
Study Package for NTSE
l Land resources are used for the following purposes
(i) Forests.
(ii) Land not available for cultivation- Barren and waste
land, for non-agricultural purposes - roads, factories
etc.
(iii) Other uncultivated land-permanent pastures and
grazing land.
Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992
In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for
the first International Earth Summit. The Summit was convened for
addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and
socio-economic development at the global level. The assembled leaders
signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity.
The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted
Agenda 21 for achieving sustainable development in the 21st century.
Agenda 21
It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nations
Conference on Environmement and Development (UNCED), which took
place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It aims at achieving global sustainable
development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty,
disease though global cooperation on common interests, mutual needs and
shared responsibilities. One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every
local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.
Land Degradation and Conservation
l Our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are
obtained from land.
l Human activities have not only brought about
degradation of land have also aggravated the pace of
natural forces to cause damage to land.
l Human activities such as deforestation, over grazing,
mining and quarrying to have contributed significantly
in land degradation.
l There are many ways to solve the problems of land
degradation. Afforestation and proper management of
grazing can help to some extent.
l Planting of shelter belts of plants, control on over
grazing, stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny
bushes are some of the methods to check land
degradation.
l Proper management of waste land, proper discharge and
disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after
treatment can reduce land and water degradation in
industrial and sub-urban areas.
Soil As a Resource
Soil is the most important renewable natural resource.
It is the medium of plant growth and supports different
types of living organisms on the earth. Thus, soil is a
living system. Relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate,
vegetation and other forms of life and time are
Resources and Development 619
important factors in the formation of soil. Various formation and erosion go on simultaneously and
factors of nature such as change in temperature, actions generally there is a balance between the two.
of running water, wind and glaciers, activities of l The balance is disturbed due to human activities like
decomposers etc contribute to the formation of soil. deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining
etc., while natural forces like; wind, glacier and water
Classification of Soils lead to soil erosion.
Alluvial Soil Black Soil l In such process the top soil is washed away which is
known as’ Sheet Erosion’.
Most widely spread and important It is also known as regur soil.
soil. l The soil conservation can be done by contour ploughing,
terrace cultivation, strip farming, shelter belts.
These have been deposited by the Climatic condition along with
Indus, the Ganga and the parent rock materials are Contour Ploughing Ploughing along the contour lines
Brahmaputra river systems. responsible for the formation. which decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
Also found in Eastern coastal plains, Soil is typical of the Deccan trap
deltas of Mahanadi, the Godavari, (basalt) region spread over
Terrace Cultivation Cut out on the slopes making
the Krishna amd the Kaveri rivers. North-West Deccan plateau and terraces (Conservation).
made of lava flows. Shelter Belts Planting lines of trees to create shelter.
To their age, alluvial soil can be Spread over Maharashtra,
classified as old (Bangar) and new Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Strip Cropping Strip of grass are left to grow between
alluvial (Khadar). Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. the crops which breaks up the force of the wind
Soil contains adequate proportion Rich in soil nutrients such as (Conservation).
of potash, phosphoric acid and calcium carbonate, potash,
lime. magnesium and lime. Water as Resource
Red and Yellow Soils Laterite Soil Three-fourth of the earth’s surface is covered with
Red soil develops on crystalline Found in areas of high water, but only a small proportion of it accounts for
igneous rocks. temperature and heavy rainfall. fresh water that can be put to use. The fresh water is
Areas of low rainfall in the Eastern Result of intense leaching due to mainly obtained from surface run off and ground water
and Southern parts of the Deccan heavy rain. that is continually being renewed and recharged
plateau. through the hydrological cycle ensuing that water is a
Red and Yellow soils found in parts Mainly found in Karnataka, re-newable resource.
of Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and
Western Ghats. Asom. l The abundance and renewability of water, it is difficult
to imagine that we may suffer from water scarcity. The
The soil develop reddish colour Suitable for plantation of tea and
movement we speak of water shortages, we immediately
due to diffusion of iron in crystalline coffee.
and metaphorphic rocks.
associate it with the region having low rain fall or those
that are drought prone.
Arid Soil Forest Soil l The availability of water resources varies over space and
Soils range from Red to Brown in Found in hilly and mountainous time, mainly due to the variations in seasonal and
colour. regions. annual precipitation, but water scarcity in most cases
Sandy in texture, and saline in They are loamy and silty in valley
caused by over-exploitation, excessive use and unequal
nature. sides, and coarse grained in the access to water among different social groups.
upper slopes. l The water scarcity may be an outcome of large and
Soil lacks humus and moisture. In the snow covered areas of growing population and consequent greater demands for
Himalayas, these soils water and unequal access to it.
experience denudation and are l The scarcity of water may be due to bad quality of water
acidic with low humus content.
which is polluted by domestic and industrial wastes,
The lower horizons of the soil are chemicals, pesticides and fertilizers used in agriculture,
occupied by Kankar because of thus making it hazardous for human use.
the increasing calcium content
downwards. After proper irrigation, Water Resource Management
these soils became cultivable as in
the case of Western Rajasthan. Archaeological and historical records show that from
ancient times, we have been constructing sophisticated
hydraulic structure like; dams, reservoirs or lakes,
Soil Erosion and Conservation embankments and canals for irrigation. Dams were
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent traditionally built to impound rivers and rainwater that
washing down is described as soil erosion. The soil could be used later to irrigate agricultural fields.
620
l Today, dams are built not just for irrigation, but for
electricity generation, water supply for domestic and
industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland
navigation and fish breeding.
l Multi-purpose projects and large dams have also been
the cause of many new social movements like; the
Narmada Bachao Andolan and Tehri Dam Andolan etc.
l Resistance to these projects has primarily been due to
the large scale displacement of local communities.
Rainwater Harvesting
In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic
structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of
water harvesting system.
l People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and
soil types and developed wide ranging techniques to
harvest rainwater, ground water, river water and flood
water in keeping with the ecological conditions and their
water needs.
l In hills and Mountaneous regions people built diversion
channels like ‘guls’ and ‘kuls’.
l Rooftop rainwater harvesting was commonly practised
to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan,
Shillong and Meghalaya.
l In Meghalaya, old system of tapping stream and spring
water by using Bamboo pipes known as bamboo drip
irrigation system.
l In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were
converted into rainfed storage structures that allowed
water to moister the soil like ‘Khadins’ in Jaisalmer.
Land Degradation in Different States
Mining Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
Overgrazing Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
Over Irrigation Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh.
Forest and Wildlife Resources
In India much of its forest and wildlife resources are
either owned or managed by the government through
the Forest Department.
These are classified under the following categories
Reserved Forests Reserved Forests are regarded as
the most valuable as far as the conservation of forest
and wildlife resources are concerned. More tha half of
the total forest land. Reserved forests are also referred
as permanent forest estates.
Protected Forests Almost one-third of the total forest
area is protected forest, as declared by the forest
department.
Study Package for NTSE
Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, constituting
75% of its total forest area. Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh,
Uttarakhand, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Paschim Banga and Maharashtra have
large percentages of reserved forests of its total forest area whereas Bihar,
Harayana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha and Rajasthan have a bulk of it
under protected forests. All North-Eastern states and parts of Gujarat have
a very high percentage of their forests as unclassed forests managed by local
communities.
Unclassed Forests There are other forests and
wastelands belonging to both government and private
individuals and communities.
Community and Conservation
l Conservation strategies are not new in our country.
Enactment of wildlife acts, formation of wildlife
centuries and national parks are such examples of forest
conservation.
l Certain societies revere a particular tree which they
have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and
Santhal of Chhota Nagpur region worship Mahua
(Bassia latifolia) and Kadamba (Anthocaphalus
cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar
worship the tamarind and Mango trees during
weedings.
l The famous Chipko Movement in the Himalayas has
not only successfully resisted deforestation in several
areas but has also shown that community afforestation
with indogenous species can be enormously successful.
l The Indian Wildlife Act (Protection) was implement in
1972.
Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources
Types of Vegetation
The major types of vegetation can be classified into
following
Tropical Evergreen Forests These forests are
restricted to heavy rainfall areas of Western Ghats and
Island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar,
upper parts of Asom and Tamil Nadu coast.
l There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves
and these forests appear green all the year round.
l Ebony, Mahogany, Rosewood, Rubber and Cinchona are
commercially important trees of these forests.
Tropical Deciduous Forests These are the most
widespread forests of India and also called the
Monsoon forests and spread over the region receiving
rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.
l Trees of this forest type shed their leaves in dry summer.
Resources and Development
l These forests exit mostly in the Eastern parts of the
North-Eastern states along the foothills of Himalayas,
Jharkhand, West Odisha and Chhattisgarh and on the
Eastern slopes of Western Ghats.
l Teak, Bamboos, Sal, Shisham, Sandalwood, Mulbury
are commercially important trees of these forests.
The Thorn Forests and Scrubs Region with less than
70 cm of rainfall, the natural vegetation consists of
thorny trees and bushes.
l This type of forests found in semi-arid areas of Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh.
l Acacias, Palms, Euphorbias and Cacti, are the main
plant species of these forests.
Montane Forests These forests found between a
height of 1000 and 2000 metres.
l Evergreen broad-leaf trees such as Oaks and Chestnuts
are trees of these forests.
Mangrove Forests The Mangrove tidal forests are
found in the areas of coasts influlenced by tides.
l The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the
Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
l In the Ganga-Brahamaputra delta ‘Sundari’ trees are
found, which provide durable hard timber.
l There are different categories of existing plants and
animal species.
Classification Based on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN).
We can classify existing plants and animals as
(i) Normal Species Species whose population levels
are considered to be normal for their survival such as
Cattle, Sal, Pine, Rodents etc.
(ii) Endangered Species These are species which are
in danger of extinction. The examples of such species
are black buck, Indian wild ass, Indian rhino, Lion
tailled Macaque etc.
(iii) Vulnerable Species These are species whose
population has declined to levels from where it is
likely to move into the Endangered category in the
near future. The examples of such species are Blue
Sheep, Asiatic Elephant, Gangetic Dolphin etc.
621
(iv) Rare Species Species with small population may
move into the endangered or vulnerable category, if
negative factors affecting them continue to operate.
Himalayan bear, wild Asiatic Buffalo, Desert Fox,
and Horn Bill etc are such examples.
(v) Endemic Species These are species which are only
found in some particular areas usually isolated by
Natural or Geographical barriers. Examples of such
species are: the Andaman Teal, Nicobar Pigeon,
Andaman wild Pig, Mithun in Andhra Pradesh.
(vi) Extinct Species These are species which are not
found after searches of known or likely areas where
they may occur. Asiatic Cheetah, Pink Head Duck
are examples of such species.
e.g., Asiatic Cheetah The world’s fastest land
Mammal is a unique and specialised member of the
cat family can move at the speed of 112 km/h declared
extinct in India.
Points to Remember
l A chemical compound called ‘Taxol’ is extracted from the bark,
needles, twings and roots of the tree named Taxus Wallachiane
(Himalayan Yew) used to treat cancers—The drug is now the biggest
selling anti-cancer drug in the world.
l
The species is under great threat due to over exploitation.
l
The Major threats to tiger population are such as poaching for trade,
shrinking habitat, growing human population etc.
l
‘Project tiger’ one of the well publicised wildlife compaigns in the
world was launched in 1973.
l
Beej Bachao Andolan and Navdanya programmes by formers and
citizens groups have shown that adequate levels of crop production
can be done without using synthetic chemicals.
Depletion of Forests and Wild Life
l
Expansion of railways, agriculture, commercial and scientific forestry.
l
Mining The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is the extened by
dolomile mining.
l
Wrong methods of farming especially due to ‘slash and burh’ practice
(shifting cultivation).
l
Large scale development projects e.g., Narmada Sagar Project in
Madhya Pradesh.
l
Habitat destruction, hunting, environmental polution are ether
factors.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which one of the following types of resources is iron 9. On the basis of ownership, which of the following
ore? resources is a part of it?
(a) Renewable (b) Flow (a) Individual (b) Community
(c) Biotic (d) Non-renewable (c) National and international (d) All of these

2. Under which of the following types of resource can 10. Materials in the environment which have the potential
tidal energy be put? to satisfy human needs, but human being do not have
(a) Replenishable (b) Abiotic the appropriate technology to access known as
(c) Human-made (d) Non-recyclable (a) reserve (b) stock
(c) potential (d) sustainability
3. Which one of the following is the main cause of land
degradation in Punjab? 11. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Overgrazing the exclusive economic zone is an example of
(c) Over irrigation (d) Deforestation (a) abiotic resources (b) national resources
(c) international resources (d) oceanic resources
4. In which of the following states is terrace cultivation
practised? 12. All the minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana land within the political boundaries and oceanic area
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand up to ....... nautical miles from the coast termed as
5. In which of the following states is black soil found? territorial water.
(a) 12 (b) 200 (c) 15 (d) 100
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat (d) Jharkhand 13. Which of the following factor is responsible for land
6. Which of the following does not make substance a degradation in India?
resource? (a) Mining (b) Quarrying
(c) Overgrazing (d) All of these
(a) Utility (b) Value
(c) Quantity (d) None of these 14. Mining caused land degradation in which of the
7. Which of the following is a human made resource? following states?
(a) Medicines to treat patient (b) Spring water (a) Jharkhand (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Tropical forests (d) None of these (c) Odisha (d) All of these

8. Biotic resources are 15. The soil which contains potash, phospheric acid and
(a) derived from living thing (b) made by human being lime is an example of
(c) derived from non-living (d) None of these (a) alluvail soil (b) black soil
(c) arid soil (d) laterite soil

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following statements is not an argumnt (b) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate
in favour of multi-purpose river projects? technology
(a) Multi-purpose projects bring water to those areas which (c) Matching the resource development plans with overall
suffer from water scarcity national development plans
(b) Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow helps to (d) None of the above
control floods
3. The National Forest Policy (1952) considered
(c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large scale displacements
and loss of livelihood
essential for maintenance of
(d) Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our industries (a) land resources
and our homes (b) natural vegetation
(c) ecological balance
2. Which of the following features is not a part of (d) forest resources
resource planning in India?
4. ‘Soil’ as resource is an example of
(a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions
(a) renewable (b) non-renewable
of the country
(c) biotic (d) abiotic
Resources and Development 623
5. Match the following lists 8. Match the following lists
List I List I List II
List II
(Activities Responsible A. Terrace Farming 1. Rows of tree plantation
(Effected States)
for Land Degrading) B. Strip Cropping 2. Top soil washed away
A. Mining 1. Maharashtra C. Shelter Belts 3. Western and Central
B. Deforestation 2. Jharkhand Himalyas
C. Overgrazing 3. Punjab D. Sheet Erosion 4. Grass are left to grow
D. 4. Madhya Pradesh between the crops
Overirrigation
Codes
Codes
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
9. Development should take place without damaging
6. Match the following lists
the environment and development in the present
List I List II should not compromise with the needs of the future
(Type of Soil) (Found in)
generations known as
A. Alluvial soil 1. Rajasthan (a) economic growth
B. Black soil 2. Karnataka (b) economic development
C. Laterite soil 3. Deccan plateau (c) sustainable development
D. Arid soil 4. Himalayan river system (d) resource development
Codes 10. Which of the following statements is/are true about
A B C D A B C D development of resources?
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) Sustainable existence of all forms of life is the basic requirement
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
for resource planning
7. Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the (b) Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable
flow of water down the slop is known as development
(a) agriculture (b) cultivation (c) Equitable distribution of resources has became essential for
(c) contour ploughing (d) None of these a sustained quality of life and global peace
(d) All of the above

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
 Chapter
6
Agriculture
In India, two-thirds of the population is engaged in
agricultural activities. Agriculture is a primary activity,
which produces most of the food that we consume.
Besides food grains, it also produces raw materials for
various industries.
Types of Farming
Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type. At
present, in different parts of India, the following farming
systems are practised
Primitive Subsistence Farming
Primitive subsistence agriculture is practised on small
patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe,
dao and digging sticks and family/community labour.
l This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural
fertility of the soil and suitability of other
environmental conditions to the crops grown.
l The practice of ‘slash and burn’ is used in this type of
farming.
l When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and
clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation.
l This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the
fertility of the soil through natural processes; land
productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the
farmers do not use fertilizers or other modern inputs. It
is known by different names in different parts of the
country.
l It is Jhumming in North-Eastern states like; Asom,
Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland, Pamlou in
Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and
in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Jhumming
The ‘slash and burn’ is an agricultural technique which involves cutting
and burning of forests or woodlands to create fields.
The ‘slash and burn’ practice is known as Milpa in Mexico and Central
America, Conuco in Venezuela, Roca in Brazil, Masole in Central Africa,
Ladang in Indonesia and Ray in Vietnam. In India, this primitive form of
cultivation is called Bewar or Dahiya in Madhya Pradesh, Podi or Penda
in Andhra Pradesh ‘Pama Dabi’ or ‘Koman’ in Brmga’ in Odisha, Kuniari
in Western Ghats, ‘Valre' or 'Waltre' in South-Eastern Rajasthan, ‘Khil’ in
the Himalayan belt, 'Kuruwa' in Jharkhand, and ‘Jhumming’ in the
North-Eastern regions.
Intensive Subsistence Farming
This type of farming is practised in areas of high
population pressure on land. It is labour intensive
farming, where high dose of biochemical inputs and
irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.
Commercial Farming
The main characteristic of this type of farming is the use
of higher dose of modern inputs, e.g., High Yielding
Variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers,
insecticides and pesticides in order to obtain higher
productivity.
l The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies
from one region to another. e.g., rice is a commercial crop
in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a
subsistence crop.
l Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this
type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
The plantation has an interface of agriculture and
industry.
Agriculture
l In India—tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana etc.,
are important plantation crops. Tea in Asom and North
Bengal, coffee in Karnataka are some of the important
plantation crops grown in these states.
Cropping Pattern
India has three cropping seasons — Rabi, Kharif and
Zaid.
Rabi Crops
l Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December
and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of
the important rabi crops are: wheat, barley, peas, gram
and mustard.
l States from the North and North-Western parts such as
Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and
Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important
for the production of wheat and other rabi crops.
l Availability of precipitation during winter months due
to the Western temperate cyclones and the success of the
green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar
Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan has also been an
important factor in the growth of the above mentioned
rabi crops.
Kharif Crops
l Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in
different parts of the country and these are harvested in
September-October.
l Important crops grown during this season are: paddy,
maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton,
jute, groundnut and soyabean.
l The most important rice-growing regions are: Asom,
Paschim Banga, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra,
particularly the Konkan coast along with Uttar Pradesh
and Bihar.
l Recently, paddy has also become an important crop of
Punjab and Haryana.
l In states like; Asom, Paschim Banga and Odisha, three
crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman
and Bora.
Zaid Crops
l In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a
short season during the summer months known as the
Zaid season.
l Some of the crops produced during zaid are:
watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and
fodder crops, sugarcane takes almost a year to grow.
Major Crops
A variety of food and non-food crops are grown in
different parts of the country depending upon the
625
variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices. Major
crops grown in India are: rice, wheat, millets, pulses, tea,
coffee, sugarcane, oil seeds, cotton and jute, etc.
Rice
l Rice is the staple food crop of a majority of the people
in India. Our country is the second largest producer of
rice in the world after China.
l It is a kharif crop which requires high temperature,
(above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall
above 100 cm. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with
the help of irrigation.
l Rice is grown in the plains of North and North-Eastern
India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
l Development of dense network of canal irrigation and
tubewells have made it possible to grow rice in areas of
less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana and Western
Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan.
Wheat
Wheat is the second most important cereal crop. It is the
main food crop, in North and North-Western parts of the
country.
l This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and the
bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50 to
75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the
growing season.
l There are two important wheat-growing zones in the
country - the Ganga-Sutlej plains in the North-West and
black soil region of the Deccan. The major
wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya
Pradesh.
Millets
Jowar, bajra and ragi are the important millets grown
in India. Though, these are known as coarse grains, they
have very high nutritional value. e.g., ragi is very rich in
iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage.
l Jowar is the third most important food crop with respect
to area and production. It is a rain-fed crop mostly grown
in the moist areas which hardly needs irrigation.
l Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar followed by
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
l Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil.
Rajasthan is the largest producer of bajra followed by
Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana.
l Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black,
sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. Karnataka is the
largest producer of ragi followed by Tamil Nadu. Apart
from these states, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh are also
important for the production of ragi.
626
Maize
Maize is a kharif crop which requires temperature
between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil.
It is a crop which is used both as food and fodder.
l In some states like; Bihar maize is grown in rabi season
also. Use of modern inputs such as HYV seeds,
fertilizers and irrigation have contributed to the
increasing production of maize.
l Major maize-producing states are Karnataka, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Pulses
India is the largest producer as well as the
consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major
source of protein in a vegetarian diet.
l Major pulses that are grown in India are tur (arhar),
urad, moong, masur, peas and gram. Pulses need less
moisture and survive even in dry conditions.
l All these crops except arhar help in restoring soil
fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these
are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.
l Major pulse-producing states in India are Madhya
Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and
Karnataka.
Food Crops other than Grains
Sugarcane
Sugarcane is a tropical as well as a subtropical crop. It
grows well in hot and humid climate with a temperature
of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75 cm
and 100 cm.
l It can be grown on a variety of soils and needs manual
labour from sowing to harvesting.
l India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only
after Brazil. It is the main source of sugar, gur (jaggary),
khandsari and molasses.
l The major sugarcane producing states are Uttar
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.
Oil Seeds
India is the largest producer of oil seeds in the world.
Different oil seeds are grown covering approximately
12% of the total cropped area of the country.
l Main oil seeds produced in India are groundnut,
mustard, coconut, sesame (til), soyabean, castor seeds,
cotton seeds, linseed and sunflower.
l Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of
the major oilseeds produced in the country.
l Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of groundnut
followed by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat and
Maharashtra.
Study Package for NTSE
l Linseed and mustard are rabi crops. Sesame is a kharif
crop in North, and rabi crop in South India. Castor seed
is grown both as rabi and kharif crops.
Tea
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. It
is also an important beverage crop in India.
l The tea plantation is owned by Indians. The tea plant
grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed
with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus
and organic matter.
l Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate
all through the year. Frequent showers evenly
distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of
tender leaves.
l Tea is a labour intensive industry. It requires abundant,
cheap and skilled labour. Tea is processed within the tea
garden to restore its freshness.
l Major tea producing states are Asom, hills of Darjeeling
and Jalpaiguri districts, Paschim Banga, Tamil Nadu
and Kerala.
l Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also
tea-producing states in the country. India is the leading
producer as well as exporter of tea in the world.
Coffee
India produces about 4% of the world’s coffee
production. Indian coffee is known in the world for its
good quality.
The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is
produced in the country. This variety is in great demand
all over the world. Initially its cultivation was
introduced on the Baba Budan Hills and even today its
cultivation is confined to the Nilgiri in Karnataka,
Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Horticulture Crops
India is the largest producer of fruits and vegetables in
the world. India is a producer of tropical as well as
temperate fruits.
l Mangoes of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar
Pradesh and Paschim Banga; oranges of Nagpur and
Cherrapunjee (Meghalaya); bananas of Kerala,
Mizoram, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
l Lichi and guava of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar;
pineapples of Meghalaya; grapes of Andhra Pradesh
and Maharashtra; apples, pears, apricots and walnuts of
Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh are in
great demand the world over.
l India produces about 13% of the world’s vegetables.
India is a prominent country to produce pea,
cauliflower, onion, cabbage, tomato, brinjal and potato
in the world.
Agriculture
Non-Food Crops
Rubber
l Rubber is an equatorial crop, but under special
conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical
areas. It requires moist and humid climate with rainfall
of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C.
l Rubber is an important industrial raw material. It is
mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and
Andaman and Niooobar Islands and Garo hills of
Meghalaya. India ranks 5th among the world’s natural
rubber producers.
Fibre Crops
Cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are the four major
fibre crops grown in India. The first three are derived
from the crops grown in the soil, the latter is obtained
from cocoons of the silkworms fed on green leaves
specially mulberry.
Cotton
l India is the third-largest producer of cotton in the world.
Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of
the Deccan plateau. lt requires high temperature, light
rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free days and bright
sunshine for its growth.
l It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
Major cotton-producing states are Maharashtra,
Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra
Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar
Pradesh.
Jute
l Jute is known as the golden fibre. Jute grows well on
well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils
are renewed every year. High temperature is required
during the time of growth.
l Paschim Banga, Bihar, Asom, Odisha and Meghalaya
are the major jute producing states. It is used in making
gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other
artefacts. Due to its high cost, it is losing market to
synthetic fibres and packing materials, particularly the
nylon.
Technological and Institutional
Reforms
‘Land reform’ was the main focus of our First Five Year
Plan. The right of inheritance had already lead to
627
fragmentation of land holdings necessitating
consolidation of holdings. The laws of land reforms were
enacted but the laws of implementation was lacking or
lukewarm.
l The Green Revolution (1970s) based on the use of
package technology and the White Revolution
(Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated
to improve the lot of Indian agriculture. But, this too led
to the concentration of development in few selected
areas. High yielding wheat was first introduced to India
in 1968 by Norman Borlaug. MS Swaminathan is known
as ‘Father of Green Revolution in India’.
l In the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive land
development programme was initiated, which included
both institutional and technical reforms.
l Provisions for crop insurance against drought, flood,
cyclone, fire and disease, establishment of Grameen
banks, cooperative societies and banks for providing
loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest
were some important steps in this direction.
l Kissan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance
Scheme (PAIS) are some other schemes introduced by
the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
l Moreover, special weather bulletins and agricultural
programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio
and television.
l The government also announces Minimum Support
Price (MSP), remunerative and procurement prices for
important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by
speculators and middlemen.
Bhoodan – Gramdan
Mahatma Gandhi declared Vinoba Bhave as his spiritual heir. He also
participated in Satyagraha as one of he foremost satyagrahis. He was one
of he votaries of Gandhi’s concept of gram swarajya. After Gandhiji’s
martyrdom, Vinoba Bhave undertook padyatra to spread Gandhiji’s
message covered almost the entire country. Once, when he was
delivering a lecture of Pochampalli in Andhra Pradesh, some poor landless
villagers demanded some land for their economic well-being. Vinoba
Bhave could not promise it to them immediately but assured them to
talk to the Government of India regarding provision of land for them, if
they undertook cooperative farming.
Suddenly, Shri Ram Chandra Reddy stood up and offered 80 acres of land
to be distributed among 80 landless villagers. This act was known as
‘Bhoodan’. Later he travelled and introduced his ideas widely all over India.
Some zamindars, owners of many villages offered to distribute some
villages among the landless. It was known as Gramdan. However, many
land-owners choose to provide some part of their land to the poor
farmers due to the fear of land ceiling act. This Bhoodan-Gramdan
movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as the Blood-less
Revolution.
628 Study Package for NTSE

Contribution of Agriculture to the National Economy : Employment and Output

India : Growth of GDP in Major Sector (in %)
2002-07
Sector 1980-90 1992-2001
(Tenth plan projected)
Agriculture 3.6 3.3 4.0
Industries 7.1 6.5 9.5
Services 6.7 8.2 9.1
GDP 5.6 6.4 8.0
Source : Tenth Five Year Plan. 2002-07

From the table, it is clear that though the GDP growth rate is increasing over the years, it is not generating
sufficient employment opportunities in the country. The growth rate in agriculture is decelerating which is an
alarming situation.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Agriculture activities falls under which of the (c) These crops are grown in large parts of India
following activities? (d) None of the above
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
7. Which of the following is not an crop of Kharif
(c) Tertiary (d) None of these
seasons?
2. Which of the following is an feature of primitive (a) Rice (b) Cotton (c) Soyabean (d) Mustard
subsistence farming?
8. The crop sown in between the rabi and kharif seasons
(a) Farming depends on monsoon
known as
(b) Natural fertility of the soil
(a) Jhoom farming (b) Horticulture
(c) Suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops
(c) Zaid (d) None of these
grown
(d) All of the above 9. Which of the following are the crops produced during
3. The system of agriculture in which farmer clear a ‘Zaid’ season?
patch of land and produce crops. When the soil (a) Watermelon (b) Muskmelon
(c) Cucumber (d) All of these
fertility decreases, farmer shift and clear a fresh
patch of land, known as 10. Which of the following countries is the largest producer
(a) Jhum farming (b) Alternate farming of rice in the world?
(c) Commercial farming (d) None of these (a) India (b) China
(c) Bangladesh (d) Brazil
4. Which of the following is the feature of commercial
farming 11. Which of the following is the important wheat
(a) Use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds growing zones in the country?
(b) use of chemical fertilizers, insecticides, and pesticides (a) Ganga-Sutlej plains
(c) The degree of commercialisation of agriculture varies from
(b) Black soil regions of Deccan
one region to another
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) All of the above
(d) None of the above
5. Which one of the following is not an plantation crop?
(a) Tea (b) Coffee
12. Rajasthan is the largest producer of which of the
(c) Rubber (d) Pulses
following crops?
(a) Bajra (b) Ragi (c) Maize (d) Millets
6. Which of the following statements is not true about
13. India is the largest producer as well as the consumer
rabi crops?
of
(a) Rabi crops are sown in July-August and harvested in
(a) pulses (b) millets
September-October
(c) ragi (d) maize
(b) Wheat, barley, gram, mustard are important rabi crops
Agriculture 629
14. Which of the following is the tropical as well as 15. Which of the following is the largest producer of oil
subtropical crop? seeds in the world?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Oil seeds (a) India (b) Brazil
(c) Tea (d) Coffee (c) USA (d) Bangladesh

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following is not an oil seed crop? 8. Match the following lists
(a) Groundnut List I List II
(b) Soyabean
(c) Sesame A. Sericulture 1. Breeding of fish
(d) None of the above B. Pisciculture 2. Rearing of silk worms
C. Viticulture 3. Growing of fruits, vegetables for
2. Rubber is an important industrial raw material commercial use
grown in which of the following states in India? D. Horticulture 4. Cultivation of grapes
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka (d) All of these Codes
A B C D A B C D
3. Which of the following is not an fibre crop? (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
(a) Cotton (b) Jute (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
(c) Hemp (d) None of these
9. Match the following lists
4. Which of the following crops is known as ‘Golden
List I List II
Fibre’?
(a) Jute (b) Silk A. Rubber 1. Karnataka
(c) Hemp (d) Cotton B. Jute 2. Paschim Banga
C. Tea 3. Kerala
5. Which of the following is the components of food D. Coffee 4. Asom
security system in India?
(a) Buffer stock Codes
(b) Public Distribution System A B C D A B C D
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
(d) None of the above
10. Match the following lists
6. Which of the following describes a system of
agriculture, where a single crop is grown on a large List I List II
area? A. Jhumming 1. Mandya Pradesh
(a) Shifting cultivation B. Bewar 2. Odisha
(b) Plantation agriculture C. Penda 3. North-Eastern States
(c) Horticulture D. Koman 4. Andhra Pradesh
(d) Intensive agriculture
Codes
7. Which of the following is a leguminious crop? A B C D A B C D
(a) Pulses (b) Jowar (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) Millets (d) Sesame (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
 Chapter
7
Manufacturing Industries
Production of goods in large quantities after processing
from raw materials to more valuable products is called
manufacturing. e.g., paper is manufactured from wood,
sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and
aluminium from bauxite.
People employed in the secondary activities
manufacture the primary materials into finished goods.
The workers employed in steel factories, car, breweries,
textile industries, bakeries etc, fall into this category.
The economic strength of a country is measured by the
development of manufacturing industries.
Importance of Manufacturing
Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of
development in general and economic development in
particular mainly because
l Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising
agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy,
they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on
agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary
and tertiary sectors.
l Industrial development is a pre-condition for
eradication of unemployment and poverty from our
country. This was the main philosophy behind public
sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It
was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by
establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
l Export of manufactured goods expands trade and
commerce, and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
Inter-dependence of Agriculture
and Industries
l Agriculture and industries are not exclusive of each
other.
They move hand in hand. For instance, the agro-
industries in India have given a major boost to
agriculture by raising its productivity.
l Industrial sector depends on the agriculture sector for
raw materials and sell their products such as irrigation
pumps, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and
PVC pipes, machines and tools etc., to the farmers.
l Thus, development and competitiveness of
manufacturing industry has not only assisted
agriculturists in increasing their production, but also
made the production processes very efficient.
Contribution of Industry to National
Economy
l The share of manufacturing sector has stagnated at 17%
of GDP out of a total of 27% for the industry which
includes 10% for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas
in the last two decades.
l The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last
decade has been around 7% per-annum. This is much
lower in comparison to some East Asian economies,
where it is 25 to 35%.
l The National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council
(NMCC) has been set up with the objective of increasing
competitiveness and growth in the manufacturing sector.
Manufacturing Industries
Industrialisation and Urbanisation
l Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand.
Cities provide markets and also provide services such as
banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and
financial advice etc., to the industry.
l Many industries tend to come together to make use of
the advantages offered by the urban centres known as
agglomeration economies. Gradually, a large industrial
agglomeration takes place.
l In the pre-independence period, most manufacturing
units were located in places from the point of view of
overseas trade such as Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, etc.
l Consequently, there emerged certain pockets of
industrially developed urban centres surrounded by a
huge agricultural rural hinterland.
Classification of Industries
Industries may be classified as follows
l There are two types of industries based on the source of
raw materials. They are
(i) Agro based industries
e.g., cotton, woollen, jute, silk textile, rubber and
sugar, tea, coffee, edible oil.
(ii) Mineral Based Industries
e.g., iron and steel, cement, aluminium, machine
tools, petrochemicals.
l According to main role played by the industries
(i) Basic or key industries which supply their products
or raw materials to manufacture other goods.
e.g., iron and steel and copper smelting, aluminium
smelting.
(ii) Consumer industries that produce goods for direct
use by consumers.
e.g., sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, fans
etc.
l On the basis of capital investment
A small scale industry is defined with reference to
the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a
unit. This limit has changed over a period of time. At
present, the maximum investment allowed is rupees
one crore. If investment is more than one crore on
any industry then it is known as a large scale
industry.
l On the basis of ownership of industries
(i) Public sector, owned and operated by government
agencies.
e.g., BHEL, SAIL etc.
(ii) Private sector industries owned and operated by
individuals or a group of individuals.
e.g., TISCO, Bajaj Auto Limited, Dabur Industries.
(iii) Joint sector industries which are jointly run by the
state and individuals or a group of individuals.
e.g., Oil India Limited (OIL) is jointly owned by
public and private sectors.
631
(iv) Co-operative sector industries are owned and
operated by the producers or suppliers of raw
materials, workers or both.
e.g., The co-operatives pool in the resources and
share the profits or losses proportionately such as
the sugar industry in Maharashtra, the coir industry
in Kerala.
l Based on the bulk and weight of raw material and
finished goods
(i) Heavy industries such as iron and steel.
(ii) Light industries that use light raw materials and
produce light goods such as electrical industries.
Agro Based Industries
Cotton, jute, silk, woollen textiles, sugar and edible oil,
etc are the industries based on agricultural raw
materials.
Textile Industry
l The textile industry occupies unique position in the
Indian Economy, because it contributes significantly to
industrial product 14%), employment generation (35
million persons directly the second largest after
agriculture) and foreign exchange earnings (about 24.6%).
l Textile industries contributes 4% towards GDP. It is the
only industry in the country, which is self-reliant and
complete in the value chain i.e., from raw material to the
highest value added products.
Cotton Textiles
There are nearly 1600 cotton and human made fibre
textile mills in the country. About 80% of these are in
the private sector and the rest in the public and
co-operative sectors. In the early years, the cotton
textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing
belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
l Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including
accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc had
contributed towards its localisation.
l This industry has close links with agriculture and
provides a living to farmers, cotton boll pluckers and
workers engaged in ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing,
designing, packaging, tailoring and sewing.
l The industry by creating demands supports many other
industries, such as, chemicals and dyes, mill stores,
packaging materials and engineering works.
l India has world class production in spinning, but
weaving supplies low quality of fabric as it cannot use
much of the high quality yarn produced in the country.
Weaving is done by handloom, powerloom and in mills.
l India exports yarn to Japan. Other importers of cotton
goods from India are USA, UK, Russia, France, East
European countries, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and
African countries.
632
l India has the second largest installed capacity of
spindles in the world, next to China, at around 34
million (2003-04).
l The trade of cotton yarn, accounting for one-fourth of the
total trade in the world. However, our trade in garments
is only 4% of the world’s total.
Jute Textiles
India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods
and stands at second place as an exporter after
Bangladesh.
l There are about 70 jute mills in India. Most of these are
located in Paschim Banga, mainly along the banks of the
Hooghli river, in a narrow belt (98 km long and 3 km
wide).
l The first jute mill was set up near Kolkata in 1859 at
Rishra.
Factors Responsible for their Location in the
Hooghli Basin
l Inexpensive water transport, and was supported by a
good network of railways, roadways and waterways to
facilitate movement of raw material to the mills.
l Abundant water for processing raw jute, cheap labour
from Paschim Banga and adjoining states of Bihar,
Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.
l Kolkata as a large urban centre provides banking,
insurance and port facilities for export of jute goods.
l The jute industry supports 2.61 lakh workers directly
and another 40 lakhs small and marginal farmers who
are engaged in cultivation of jute and mesta
Challenges for the jute Industries.
l Stiff competition in the international market from
synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like
Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand.
l The internal demand has been on the increase due to the
Government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.
l In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the
objective of increasing productivity, improving quality,
ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing
the yield per hectare.
l The main markets are USA, Canada, Russia, United
Arab Republic, UK and Australia. The growing global
concern for environment friendly, bio-degradable
materials, has once again opened the opportunity for
jute products.
Sugar Industry
l India stands second as a world producer of sugar, but
occupies the first place in the production of gur and
khandsari.
l Sixty per cent Mills are in Uttar Pradesh and
Bihar. There are over 460 sugar mills in the country
spread over Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra,
Study Package for NTSE
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat
along with Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh.
l Sugar industry is seasonal in nature. In recent years,
there is a tendency for the mills to shift and concentrate
in the Southern and Western states, especially in
Maharashtra. This is because the cane produced here
has a higher sucrose content.
l The cooler climate also ensures a longer crushing
season. Moreover, the co-operatives are more successful
in these states.
l Major challenges include the seasonal nature of the
industry, old and inefficient methods of production,
transport delay in reaching cane to factories and the
need to maximise the use of baggase.
Mineral Based Industries
Industries that use minerals and metals as raw
materials are called mineral based industries.
Iron and Steel Industry
The iron and steel industry is the basic industry. All
other industries such as heavy, medium and light,
depends on it for their machinery. Steel is needed to
manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction
material, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipment
and a variety of consumer goods.
l The total production of the steel in is 32.8 million fans.
India ranks ninth among the world crude steel
producers. India is the largest producer of sponge iron.
l Most of the public sector undertakings market their
steel through Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
while TISCO markets its produce by itself in the name of
Tata Steel.
l In the 1950s, China and India produced almost the
same quantity of steel. Today, China is the largest
producer of steel. China is also the world’s largest
consumer of steel.
l In 2004, India was the largest exporter of steel which
accounted for 2.25% of the global steel trade.
Challenges
Though, India is an important iron and steel producing
country in the world yet, we are not able to perform to
our full potential largely due to
l High costs and limited vailability of coking coal.
l Lower productivity of labour.
l Irregular supply of energy.
l Poor infrastructure.
India also import good quality steel from other
countries. However, the overall production of steel is
sufficient to meet our domestic demand.
Manufacturing Industries
Aluminium Smelting
Aluminium smelting is the second most important
metallurgical industry in India. It is light, resistant to
corrosion, a good conductor of heat, mallable and
becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals. It is
used to manufacture aircraft, utensils and wires. It has
gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc
and lead in a number of industries.
l There are 8 aluminium smelting plants in the country
located in Odisha (Nalco and Balco), Paschim Banga,
Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and
Tamil Nadu. In 2004, India produced over 600 million
tonnes of aluminium.
l Bauxite, the raw material used in the smelters is a very
bulky, dark reddish coloured rock.
Chemical Industries
The chemical industry in India is fast growing and
diversifying. It contributes approximately 3% of the
GDP. It is the third largest in Asia and occupies the
twelfth place in the world in term of its size. It comprises
both large and small scale manufacturing units. Rapid
growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic
sectors.
l Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid (used to
manufacture fertilizers, synthetic fibres, plastics,
adhesives, paints, dye stuffs), nitric acid, alkalies, soda
ash (used to make glass, soaps and detergents, paper)
and caustic soda. These industries are widely spread
over the country.
l Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are
used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers, synthetic
rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals.
l Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or
petrochemical plants.
Fertilizer Industry
The fertilizer industry is centred around the production
of nitrogenous fertilizers (mainly urea), phosphatic
fertilizers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and
complex fertilizers which have a combination of
nitrogen (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K).
l The potash is entirely imported as the country does not
have any reserves of commercially usable potash or
potassium compounds in any form.
India is the third largest producer of nitrogenous
l
fertilizers. There are 57 fertilizer units manufacturing
nitrogenous and complex nitrogenous fertilizers, 29 for
urea and 9 for producing ammonium sulphate as a
byproduct and 63 other small units produce single
superphosphate.
l At present, there are 10 public sector undertakings and
one in co-operative sector at Hazira in Gujarat under the
Fertilizer Corporation of India.
633
l Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and
Kerala contribute towards half the fertilizer production.
Cement Industry
The cement industry requires bulky and heavy raw
materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum.
Coal and electric power are needed apart from rail
transportation. The industry has strategically located
plants in Gujarat that have suitable access to the
market in the gulf countries.
The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in 1904.
After independence, the industry expanded. Decontrol
of price and distribution since 1989 and other policy
reforms led the cement industry to make rapid strides in
capacity, process, technology and production. India
produces a variety of cement. There are 128 large plants
and 332 mini cement plants in the country.
Automobile Industry
Automobiles provide vehicle for quick transport of good
services and passengers. At present, there are 15
manufacturers of passenger cars and multiutility
vehicles, 9 of commercial vehicles, 14 of the two and
three-wheelers. The industry is located around Delhi,
Gurgaon, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow,
Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur and Bengaluru.
Information Technology and Electronics
Industry
l Bengaluru has emerged as the electronic capital of
India. Other important centres for electronic goods are
Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata,
Lucknow and Coimbatore.
l A major impact of this industry has been on employment
generation. Upto 31 March, 2005 the IT industry
employed over one million persons.
l It is encouraging to know that 30% of the people
employed in this sector are women.
l This industry has been a major foreign exchange earner
in the last two or three years because of its fast growing
Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) sector.
Industrial Pollution and
Environmental Degradation
Industries are responsible for four types of pollution
(i) Air, (ii) Water
(iii) Land and (iv) Noise
The polluting industries also include thermal power
plants.
634
Air Pollution
Air Pollution is caused by the presence of high
proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide
and carbon monoxide.
l Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and
liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
l Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick
kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of
fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore
pollution norms.
l Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term
effects. e.g., the Bhopal Gas tragedy that occurred
have air pollution adversely affects human health,
animals, plants, buildings and the atmosphere as a
whole.
Water Pollution
Water Pollution is caused by organic and inorganic
industrial wastes and affluents discharged into rivers.
l The main industries in this regard are paper, pulp,
chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries,
tanneries and electroplating industries that let out
dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metal like lead
and mercury pesticides, fertilizers, synthetic chemicals
with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc into the water
bodies.
l Fly ash, phospo-gypsum and iron and steel slags are the
major solid wastes in India.
Thermal Pollution
Thermal Pollution of water occurs when hot water from
factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and
ponds before cooling.
l Dumping of wastes specially glass, harmful chemicals,
industrial effluents, packaging, salts and garbage
renders the soil useless. Rain water percolates to the soil
carrying the pollutants to the ground and the ground
water also gets contaminated.
Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Production of goods in large quantities after processing
from raw material to more valuable products is called
(a) manufacturing (b) processing
(c) production (d) None of these
2. Manufacturing activities are part of which of the
following sector?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary (d) None of the above
Study Package for NTSE
Noise Pollution
Noise Pollution not only results in irritation and anger,
it can also cause hearing impairment, increased heart
rate and blood pressure among other physiological
effects.
l Unwanted sound is an irritant and a source of stress.
Industrial and construction activities, machinery,
factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and
electric drills also make a lot of noise.
Control of Environmental
Degradation
l Reduction of Industrial Production
(i) minimising use water for processing by reusing and
recycling it in two or more successive stages.
(ii) harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements.
(iii) treating hot water and effluents before releasing
them in rivers and ponds.
l Treatment of industrial effluents can be done in three
phases.
l Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves
screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
l Secondary treatment by biological process.
l Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical
processes. This involves recycling of waste water.
(i) Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry
where there is a threat to ground water resources
also needs to be regulated legally.
(ii) Participate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting
smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic
precipitators fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial
separators.
(iii) Smoke can be reduced by using of or gas instead of
coal in factories.
Machinery and equipment can be used and generators
should be fitted with silencers.
3. Which of the following factors influenced the
industrial locations?
(a) Availability of raw material
(b) Labour and capital
(c) Power and market
(d) All of these
4. Which of the following is not an agro based industry?
(a) Silk (b) Tea
(c) Coffee (d) Sewing machines
Manufacturing Industries 635
5. The industries on the basis of ownership are 8. Which of the following countries has the largest
(a) public sector (b) private sector installed capacity of spindles in the world?
(c) co-operative sector (d) All of these (a) India (b) China
(c) Britain (d) USA
6. Basic or key industries means
(a) the industries based on agro-raw materials 9. India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute
(b) an industries where maximum investment allowed on the goods and stands at second place as an exporter after?
assets of a unit (a) Bangladesh
(c) An industry which supply their products or raw materials to (b) China
manufacture other goods (c) Myanmar
(d) None of the above (d) Japan
7. Arrange the following sectors according to their 10. Which of the following is not an mineral based
contribution to the annual GDP of Indian Economy. industry?
(descending order) (a) Iron and steel
(a) Agriculture, industry, tertiary sector (b) Aluminium
(b) Tertiary, industry, agriculture (c) Sugar
(c) Industry, tertiary, agriculture (d) Cement
(d) None of the above

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following is/are basic or key industries? 7. Noise pollution not only results in irritation and
(a) Iron or steel (b) Copper smelting anger, it can also cause
(c) Aluminium smelting (d) All of these (a) hearing impairment (b) increased heart rate
(c) blood pressure (d) All of the above
2. Most of the public sector undertakings market their
steel through 8. Iron ore, cooking coal and limestone are the chief raw
(a) individually materials of which industry?
(b) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) (a) Steel (b) Aluminium
(c) TISCO (c) Automobile (d) Fertilizer
(d) Steel Industries Corporation
9. The industry has been a major foreign exchange
3. Which of the following industries uses limestone as a earner in the last decade or so because of its fast
raw material?
growing?
(a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c) Sugar (d) Jute
(a) Technology
4. Which of the following industries uses bauxite as a (b) Foreign investment
raw material? (c) Business processes outsourcing
(a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c) Jute (d) Steel (d) None of the above

5. Which of the following industries manufactures 10. Which of the following statement is/are true about
telephones, computer etc. thermal pollution?
(a) Steel (b) Aluminium (a) It occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants
(c) Electronic (d) Information Technology is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling
(b) Wastes from nuclear power plants causes cancer birth
6. Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic defects and miscarriages
wastes and affluents discharged into the rivers. The (c) Dumping of wastes specially glass, harmful chemicals,
organic content involves industrial efficient renders the soil useless
(a) paper (b) pulp (d) All of the above
(c) textile and dyeing (d) All of these

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
 Chapter

8
Minerals and Energy
Resources
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is called a mineral. Minerals are formed
from a certain combination of elements depending on the physical and chemical conditions under which the
mineral forms. This, in turn, results in a wide variety of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lusture and density that a
particular mineral possesses. Geologists use these properties to classify minerals. Some of the minerals occur in
igneous and metamorphic rocks, in cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and
the larger ones are called lodes.
l Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc, lead, etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.
l In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds and layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition,
accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata.
l Another mode of formation involves the decomposition of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered
material containing ores. Bauxite is formed this way.
l Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. Gold, silver, tin and platinum
are most important among such minerals.
l Oean waters contain vast quantities of minerals. Common salt, magnesium and bromine are largely derived from ocean
waters.
l Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form. Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity and have a
characteristic lustre or shine.
l Ferrous minerals contain iron while non-ferrous minerals do not contain iron.

Classification of Minerals
Mineral are classified as

Minerals

Metallic Non-metallic

Mica, Salt, Potash,

Sulphur, Granite,
Ferrous Non-ferrous Precious Limestone, Marble,
Sandstone, and
Iron, ore, Nickel Copper, Lead, Gold, Silver Mineral Fuels
Manganese, Cobalt Tin, Bauxite Platinum
Minerals and Energy Resources
Ferrous Minerals
Iron Ore
— Iron ore is a basic mineral and the backbone of industrial
development.
— Odisha-Jharkhand belt hematite ore is found in Badampahar
mines in the Mayurbhanj and Keonjhar districts.
— Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt lies in Chhattisgarh
Maharashtra. Exported to South Korea and Japan.
— Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt in Karnataka.
Kudremukh mines located in the Western ghats of Karnataka.
— Maharashtra-Goa belt the state of Goa and Ratnagiri district of
Maharashtra exported through Marmagao Port.
Non-Ferrous Minerals
Copper
— Being malleable, ductile and a good conductor, copper is mainly
used in electrical cables, electronics and chemical industries.
— The Balaghat mines-Madhya Pradesh, The Singhbhum
-Jharkhand, Khetri mines- Rajasthan are famous mine of copper
in India.
Non-Metallic Minerals
Mica
l Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves.
It splits into thin plates easily.
l It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.
l Due to its di-electric strength, low power loss factor,
insulating properties and resistance to high voltage, it is
one of the most indispensable minerals used in electrical
and electronic industries.
l Its deposits are found in the northern edge of the
Chhotanagpur plateau. Koderma-Gaya- Hazaribagh
belt of Jharkhand is the leading producer of mica.
l In Rajasthan, the major mica producing area is around
Ajmer. Nellore mica belt of Andhra Pradesh is also an
important producer in the country.
Rock Minerals
l Limestone is found in association with rocks composed of
calcium carbonates or calcium and magnesium carbonates.
l It is found in sedimentary rocks of most geological
formations.
l Limestone is the basic raw material for the cement
industry and essential for smelting iron ore in the blast
furnace.
637
Manganese
— Mainly used in manufacturing of steel and ferro-manganese alloy.
— Also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, paints and
insecticides.
and — Odisha is the largest producer of managenese ore in India.
Aluminium
— It is from bauxite, a clay-like substance that alumina and later
alluminium is obtained.
— Combines the strength of a metal such as iron, with extreme
lightness and also with good conductivity and great malleability.
— Mainly found in Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau
region of Bilaspur-Katni.
— Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state in India i.e.,
Panchpatmali in Koraput district.
Conservation of Minerals
l The total volume of workable minerals deposits is an
insignificant fraction, about one percent, of the earth’s
crust.
l We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that
required millions of years to be created and concentrated.
l The geological processes of mineral formation are much
slower then the rates of their consumption. Mineral
resources are finite and non-renewable.
l Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs, as
mineral extraction is done from greater depths along
with decrease in quality.
l Improved technologies need to be constantly evolved to
allow refining of low grade ores at low costs.
l Recycling of metals, using scrap metals and other
subtitutes are steps in conserving our mineral resources
for the future.
Energy Resources
l Energy can be generated from fuel minerals like coal,
petroleum, natural gas, uranium and converted to
electricity.
l Energy resources can be classified into conventional and
non-conventional sources.
638
l Conventional sources of energy are those which have
been in common use for a long time. Firewood and fossil
fuels are the two main conventional energy sources.
These are non renewable.
l Non-conventional sources include solar, wind, tidal,
geothermal, biogas and atomic energy. These are
renewable sources of energy.
Coal
l In India, coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel.
l It has been formed due to the compression of plant
material over millions of years.
l Coal is found in a variety of forms depending on the
degree of compression, depth and time of burial.
l Lignite is low grade brown coal, which is soft with high
moisture content.
l Principle lignite reserves are found in Neyveli in Tamil
Nadu.
l Major sources of coal are in the Damodar valley and
nearby area, particularly Jharia, Raniganj and Bokaro.
Petroleum
l Petroleum or mineral oil is the next major energy source
in India after coal.
l Petroleum refineries act as a ‘Nodal Industry’ for
synthetic textiles, fertilizer and numerious chemical
industries.
l About 63% of India’s petroleum production is from
Bombay High oilfield in the Arabian Sea, 18% from
Gujarat and 16% from Asom.
l Ankaleshwar is a major oil field in Gujarat.
l Digboi is the oldest oil producing well in India. Digboi,
Naharkatiya and Moran-Hugrijan are the important oil
fields in Assam.
l Petroleum and its derivatives are called black gold, as
they are very valuable.
Natural Gas
l Natural gas is an important clean energy resource found
in association with or without petroleum. It is used as a
source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in
the petrochemical industry.
l Natural gas is considered an environment friendly fuel
because of low carbon dioxide emissions and is,
therefore, the fuel of the present and future.
l Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in
the Krishna- Godavari basin. Along the West coast the
reserves of the Bombay High and allied fields are
supplemented by finds in the Gulf of Cambay.
l Andaman and Nicobar Islands are important areas
having large reserves of natural gas.
l The 1700 km long Hazira- Vijaipur-Jagdishpur cross-
country gas pipeline links Bombay High and Bassein
with the fertilizer, power and industrial complexes in
western and northern India.
Study Package for NTSE
l Power and fertilizer industries are the key users of
natural gas.
Electricity
l Electricity is generated mainly by running water which
drives turbines and by burning other fuels such as coal,
petroleum and natural gas to drive turbines.
l Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley Corporation and the
Tehri hydel project are producing hydroelectric power.
Non-Conventional Sources of
Energy
l The increasing use of fossil fuels is leading to its
shortage. It is estimated that if the present rate of
consumption continues, the reserves of these fuels will
get exhausted. Moreover, their use also causes
environmental pollution.
l There is a need for using non-conventional sources such
as solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy and other
non-conventional sources which are renewable.
Solar Energy
l India is a tropical country. It has enormous possibilities
for tapping solar energy.
l Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into
electricity.The largest solar plant of India is located at
Madhopur, near Bhuj in Gujarat, where solar energy is
used to sterilize milk cans.
Wind Energy
l India now ranks as a ‘wind super power’ in the world.
The largest wind farm cluster is located in Tamil Nadu
in between Nagercoil and Madurai.
l Apart from these, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Gujarat,
Kerala, Maharashtra and Lakshadweep have important
wind farms.
l Nagarcoil and Jaisalmer are well known for effective use
of wind energy for generation of electricity.
Biogas
l Shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used to
produce biogas for domestic consumption in rural areas.
l Decomposition of organic matter yields biogas, which
has higher thermal efficiency in comparison to kerosene,
dung cake or charcoal.
Tidal Energy
l Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity.
l Flood gate dams are built across inlets. During high
tide, water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when
the gate is closed.
l In India, the Gulf of Kuchchh provides ideal conditions
for utilising tidal energy.
Minerals and Energy Resources 639
Geothermal Energy
l Geothermal energy refers to heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the earth.
l Geothermal energy exists because the earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth.
l Two experimental projects have been set up in India to harness geothermal energy. One is located in the Parvati valley
near Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh and the other is in the Puga valley, Ladakh.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following minerals is formed by 8. Which of the following practices will not conserve
decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of LPG in your kitchen?
weathered material? (a) Soaking the dal for sometime before cooking it
(a) Coal (b) Bauxite (b) Cooking food in a pressure cooker
(c) Gold (d) Zinc (c) Keeping the vegetable chopped before lighting the gas for
cooking
2. Koderma, in Jharkhand is the leading producer of (d) Cooking food in an open pan kept on low flame
which one of the following minerals?
9. Which of the following is not a metallic mineral?
(a) Bauxite (b) Mica
(a) Iron ore (b) Bauxite
(c) Iron (d) Copper
(c) Gold (d) Mica
3. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the
10. Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out,
stratas of which of the following rocks?
by the process known as
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(a) mining (b) shafts
(b) Igneous rocks
(c) drilling (d) quarrying
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) None of these 11. Which of the following is not an example of
4. Which one of the following is contained in monazite non-metallic mineral?
sand? (a) Limestone (b) Mica
(c) Silver (d) Gypsum
(a) Oil (b) Uranium
(c) Thorium (d) Coal 12. Which of the following countries has no known
material deposit in it?
5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of (a) South Africa (b) Brazil
minerals? (c) Ghana (d) Switzerland
(a) They are created by natural process
(b) They have a definite chemical composition 13. The resources made of remains of plants and animals
(c) They are inexhaustible which were buried under the earth for million of years
(d) Their distribution is uneven got converted by heat and pressure are known as
(a) petroleum (b) fossil fuel
6. Which one the following states is not a producer of (c) coal (d) None of these
mica?
(a) Jharkhand 14. Which of the following resources is also known as
(b) Rajasthan black gold?
(c) Karnataka (a) Coal (b) Fire wood
(d) Andhra Pradesh (c) Petroleum (d) None of these
7. Which of the following is a leading producer of copper 15. Which of the following is not a non-conventional
in the world? source of energy?
(a) Bolivia (b) Chile (a) Solar energy (b) Wind energy
(c) Ghana (d) Zimbabwe (c) Natural gas (d) Tidal energy
640 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following statements is/are true about 6. Match the following
minerals? List I (Mines) List II (Minerals)
(a) Minerals are homogenous, naturally occurring substances
A. Singhbhum 1. Copper
with a definable internal structure
B. Khetri 2. Bauxite
(b) Minerals are found in varied forms in nature, ranging from
C. Amarkantak Plateau 3. Iron-ore
the hardest diamond to the softest talc
D. Raniganj 4. Coal
(c) A mineral is formed from a certain combination of elements
depending upon the physical and chemical conditions Codes
under which the material forms A B C D A B C D
(d) All of the above (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
2. The group of sedimentary minerals including,
gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt are formed as a 7. Match the following
result of which process?
List I List II
(a) Decomposition
(b) Evaporation A. Nodal Industry 1. Electricity generation by burning
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ of coal
(d) None of the above B. Thermal Electricity 2. Thorium
C. Monazite Sands 3. Petroleum
3. Which of the following minerals are called ‘placer D. Geothermal Energy 4. Generation of electricity by using
deposits’ and are not corroded by water? the heat from the interior of the earth
(a) Gold (b) Silver
(c) Tin (d) All of these Codes
A B C D
4. Which of the following is the finest form of iron ore? (a) 3 1 2 4
(a) Magnetite (b) Hematite (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) None of these (c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 3 1 2
5. Match the following
8. Which of the following factors led to the
List I List II
popularisation and adoption of non-conventional
A. Nickel 1. Non-metallic sources of energy?
B. Copper 2. Energy resource (a) Rising prices of fossil fuels and their potential shortages,
C. Natural gas 3. Non-ferrous raising uncertainties about the security of energy supply in
D. Mica 4. Ferrous future
Codes (b) Increasing use of fossil fuels, causing serious
A B C D A B C D environmental problems
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) These resources are renewable
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3 (d) All of the above

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d)
 Chapter
9
Population
People are important to develop the economy and
society. The people make and use resources and are
themselves resources with varying quality. Human
beings are producers and consumers of earth’s
resources. The Census of India provides us with
information regarding the population of our country. A
census is an official enumeration of population done
periodically i.e., after a gap of ten years. The first
complete census was taken in the year 1881.
The Indian census is the most comprehensive source of
l
demographic, social and economic data.
l The population of India on 1st March, 2011 was
1,21,01,93,422. India added 181 million to its population
Since 2001, slightly lower than the current population of
Brazil. India, with 2.4% of the world’s surface area,
accounts for 17.5% of its population.
l Many religions have originated in the country and the
all major religions of foreign origin have flourished here.
India has the distinction of being the land from where
important religions.
Ever since its inception, the Census of India has been
collecting and publishing information about the
religious affiliations as expressed by the people of India.
In fact, population census has the rare distinction of
being the only instrument that collects the information.
On this diverse and important characteristic of the
Indian population.
Population Growth
Growth of population refers to the change in the number
of inhabitants of a country/territory during a specific
period of time, say during the last ten years. Such a
change can be expressed in two ways in terms of
absolute numbers and in terms of percentage change
per year.
l The absolute numbers added each year or decade is the
magnitude of increase. It is obtained by simply subtracting
the earlier population, from the later population.
l The rate or the pace of population increase is the other
important aspect. It is studied in per cent per annum.
e.g., a rate of increase of 2 % per annum means that in a
given year, there was an increase of two persons for
every 100 persons in the base population. This is
referred to as the annual growth rate.
Processes of Population-
Change/Growth
l There are three main processes of change of population:
birth rate, death rate and migration.
l The natural increase of population is the difference
between birth rate and death rate.
l Birth Rate is the number of live births per thousand
persons in a year.
l Death Rate is the number of deaths per thousand
persons in a year. The main cause of the rate of growth of
the Indian population has been the rapid decline in
death rates.
l Migration is the movement of people across regions and
territories. Migration can be internal or international.
Age Composition
l The age composition of a population refers to the
number of people in different age groups in a country.
l It is one of the most basic characteristics of a population.
l A person’s age influences what he needs, buys and his
capacity to perform.
The population of a nation is generally grouped into
three broad categories
642 Study Package for NTSE

(i) Children (Below 15 Years) They are economically Primary activities include agriculture, animal
unproductive and need to be provided with food, husbandry, forestry, fishing, mining etc.
clothing, education and medical care.
Secondary activities include construction, building
(ii) Working Age (15-59 Years) They are economically
productive and biologically reproductive. They and manufacturing industry.
comprise the working population. Tertiary activities include transportation, communication,
(iii) Aged (Above 59 Years) They can be economically banking, insurance, administration and services.
productive though they may have retired. They may
be voluntarily working but they are not available for
employment through recruitment.
National Population Policy
l The percentage of children and the aged affect the l Recognising that the planning of families would improve
dependency ratio because these groups are not individual health and welfare, the Government of India
producers. initiated the comprehensive family planning
programme in 1952.
Sex Ratio l The family welfare programme has sought to promote
l The Sex Ratio is the number of females per 1000 males responsible and planned parenthood on a voluntary basis.
in the population. The National Population Policy, 2000 is the culmination of
l This information is an important social indicator to years of planned efforts.
measure the extent of equality between males and l The National Population Policy, 2000 provides a policy
females in a society at a given time. framework for imparting free and compulsory school
education up to 14 years of age, reducing infant morality
Literacy Rates rate to below 30 per 1000 live births, universal
l Literacy is a very important quality of a population. immunization of children against all vaccine
Obviously, only an informed and educated citizen can preventable diseases, promoting delayed marriage for
make intelligent choices and undertake research and girls and family welfare a people-centred programme.
development.
Some Excerpts from the Census of India, 2011
l Low levels of literacy are a serious obstacle for economic
Population Total 1210193422
improvement.
Males 623724248
Females 586469174
Occupational Structure
Literacy Total 74.04 %
l The percentage of population that is economically active Males 82.14 %
is an important index of development. Females 65.46 %
l The distribution of the population according to different Density of Population per km 2 382
types of occupation is referred to as occupational structure. Sex Ratio per 1000 males 940 females
Child Sex Ratio per 1000 males 914 females
l Occupations are generally classified as primary,
(0-6 age group)
secondary and tertiary.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Migrations change the number, distribution and 3. The magnitude of population growth refers to
composition of the population in (a) total population of an area
(a) the area of departure (b) the area of arrival (b) the number of persons added each year
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) None of these (c) the rate at which the population increases
(d) the number of females per thousand males
2. A large proportion of children in a population is a
result of 4. According to the census, a literate person is one who
(a) high birth rate (a) can read and write his/her name
(b) high death rate (b) can read and write any language
(c) high life expectancy (c) is 7 years old or above and can read and write any language
(d) more married couples with understanding
(d) knows reading, writing along with arithmetic
Population 643
5. The number of females per 1000 males in the 8. Which of the following is/are factors affecting the
population is known as distribution of population?
(a) population ratio (b) sex-ratio (a) Topography (b) Climate
(c) gender ratio (d) None of these (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) Nither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
6. The difference between the birth rate and the death 9. In which of the following conditions will there will be
rate of a country is called an increase in population?
(a) population growth (b) growth rate (a) Death rate more, than birth rate
(c) natural growth rate (d) None of these (b) Death rate and birth rate same
7. Population density is the number of people living in a (c) Birth rate more than death rate
unit area of the earth’s surface. It is normally (d) None of the above
expressed as 10. The first complete census was held in India in the
(a) per square km (b) per 1000
year
(c) per square metre (d) None of these (a) 1881 (b) 1872 (c) 1891 (d) 1882

High Skill Questions

1. Census in India is held after a gap of 7. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) six years (b) eleven years (a) The proportion of people working in different activities varies
(c) ten years (d) at the will of the government in developed and developing countries.
(b) Developed countries have a high proportion of people in
2. The total population of an area at the beginning of a
secondary and tertiary activities.
given time period is known as
(c) Developing countries tend to have a higher proportion of their
(a) average population (b) base population workforce engaged in primary activities.
(c) annual population (d) None of the above (d) All of the above
3. The movement of people from one place to another 8. A large proportion of Indian population is engaged in
within the country is called which of the following activities of the primary
(a) immigration (b) migration
sector?
(c) internal migration (d) None of these
(a) Agriculture (b) Mining
4. The adolescent are the most important resource for (c) Animal husbandry (d) Quarrying
the future. Which of the following age groups
9. Match the following (as per 2001 census) lists
represents them?
(a) Generally below 15 years List I List II
(b) The age group of 10-19 years
(c) The age group of 7-19 years A. Maximum density of population 1. Uttar Pradesh
(d) None of the above B. Maximum sex ratio 2. Sikkim
5. The distribution of population according to different C. Maximum populated state 3. NCR Delhi
types of occupation is referred to as D. Least populated state 4. Kerala
(a) profession Codes
(b) economic activities A B C D A B C D
(c) occupational structure (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(d) None of the above (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 1 2
6. Which of the following activities will be included in 10. The population of India is what per cent of the world’s
primary activities? total population?
(a) Agriculture (b) Forestry (a) 21% (b) 17.5% (c) 21% (d) 18%
(c) Mining (d) All of these

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
 Chapter
10
Transport-Lifelines of
National Economy
The movement of goods and services from their supply
locations to necessitates the need of transport. The pace
of development of a country depends upon the
production of goods and services as well as their
movement over space. Therefore, efficient means of
transport are pre-requisites for fast development.
Movement of these goods and services can be over three
important domains of our earth. i.e., land, water and air.
Based on these, transport can also be classified into
land, water and air transport.
Roadways
India has one of the largest road networks in the world.
The growing importance of road transport vis-a-vis rail
transport is rooted in the following reasons
l Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of
railway lines.
l Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and
undulating topography.
l Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such
can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas.
l Road transport is economical in transportation of a
small number of persons and relatively smaller amount
of goods over short distances.
l It also provide door-to-door service.
l Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of
transport such as rails, air and sea.
l The North-South corridor linking Srinagar and
Kanyakumari and the East-West corridor connecting
Silchar and Porbandar are parts of this porject.
l The major objective of these super highways is to
reduce the time and distance between the mega cities of
India.
l These projects are being implemented by the National
Highway Authority of India (NHAI).
Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway
The government has launched a major road development project
linking Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai by six lane super highways.
National Highways
National Highways link the extreme parts of the
country. These are the primary road systems and are laid
and maintained by the Central Public Works
Department. The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called
National Highway No 1 Between Delhi and Amritsar.
State Highways
Roads linking a state capital with different district
headquarters are known as state highways. These are
constructed and maintained by the state Public Works
Department.
District Roads
These roads connect the district headquarters with
other places of the district and are maintained by Zila
Parishad.
Other Roads
Rural roads which link areas and villages with towns
are classified under this category.
Transport-Lifelines of National Economy 645
National Highways
Waterways
Development Project
Srinagar l India is one of the seafaring countries.
Legends
17
Jammu Golden Quadrilateral l Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They
North-South Corridor
Pakistan
17 Jalandhar East-West Corridor are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
National Highway Number

1
l These are a fuel-efficient and environment friendly
Delhi Sonipat
China
Tibet mode of transport.
Gurgaon Agra
Jaipur
8 Lucknow
Etawah 28
Gorakhpur Siliguri l The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia, the
Muzaffarpur
Kishangarh
Gwalior
3 Kanpur
57 31 37 30
Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri and the
Palanpur
76 Kota
75
25
Fatehpur
2 Varanasi Islampur
Guwahati 54 West coast canals in Kerala are declared as national
waterways.
Sikandara Purnea
Shivpuri Silchar
NA 14 Jhansi Panagarh
15 Chittorgarh 26
Samakhiali NA Udaipur Sagar
7 2
Ahmedabad Bypass Kolkata

Major Sea Ports

8B 6
Rajkot Vadodara Lakhnadon
Porbandar
60 Kharagpur
Surat Nagpur 5
Diu Island 8

Mumbai
Bhubaneshwar Kandla This is a tidal port in Kuchchh. It caters to the
Pune
7 5 convenient handling of exports and imports of granary
Satara Vishakhapatnam
Hyderabad
and industrial belt products stretching across the states
And a

Eluru
Arabian sea Belgaum
of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab,
5
man and Nicobar Is

Kurnool Vijayawada
4 Chilakaluripet

Sira
7
Nellore Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
L ak

Tumkur
sha

Chennai
Mumbai Mumbai is the biggest port in India with a
Bengaluru 4
d we

Hosur Poonamallee
46
land

Krishnagiri
ep

Ranipet Bay of Bengal

spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour.
Coimbatore Salem
Ind

N
(Ind

47
ia

Kochi 7
ia)

Madurai
7
Indian Kanyakumari
Railways
l Railways are the principal mode of transportation for
freight and passengers in India.
l Railways also make it possible to conduct multifarious
activities like business, sightseeing, pilgrimage along
with transportation of goods over longer distances.
l Railways in India bind the economic life of the country
as well as accelerate the development of industry and
agriculture.
l The distribution pattern of the railway network in the
country has been largely influenced by physiographic,
economic and administrative factors.
n National Highway No. 44 between Srinagar and Kanyakumari
is the longest higway in India.
n Delhi and Mumbai are connected by National Highway No. 8.
n National Highway No. 15 covers most of Rajasthan.
Pipeline
l Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the
transportation map of India.
l Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum
products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields
to refineries, fertilizer factories and big power plants.
l There are three important networks of pipeline
transportation in the country.
(i) From oilfields in Asom to Kanpur.
(ii) From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab.
(iii) From Hazira, Gujarat to Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh.
W E
S
Murmagao It is the premier iron ore exporting port of
Ocean Root to Scale the country. It is located in Goa.
Mangalore port located in Karnataka caters to export of
iron ore cencentrates from Kudremukh mines.
Kochi Kochi is a port located in Kerala at the entrance
of a lagoon with a natural harbour.
Tuticorin This is a port located in Tamil Nadu and has
a natural harbour with a rich hinterland.
Chennai One of the oldest artificial ports of the
country it ranks next to Mumbai in terms of volume of
trade and cargo.
Vishakhapatnam It is the deepest port in India.
Paradip It is located in Odisha and specialises in the
export of iron ore.
Kolkata It is an inland riverine port. The port serves a
very large and rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmputra
basin. Being a tidal port, It requires constant dredging
of the Hooghly.
Haldia It was developed as a subsidiary port in order to
release growing pressure on the Kolkata port.
Airways
l Air travel today is the fastest, most comfortable and
prestigious mode of transport.
l It can cover very different and difficult terrains like high
mountains, dreary deserts, dense forests and also long
oceanic stretches with great ease.
l Air travel has made access to remote areas easier.
646 Study Package for NTSE

Communication l As resources are space bound, no country can survive

l Ever since humans appeared on the earth, they have
used different means of communication.
l Long distance communication is far easier without
physical movement of the communicator or receiver.
l Personal communication and Mass Communication
include television, radio, press, films, etc.
l Mass communication provides entertainment and
creates awareness among people about various national
programmes and policies.
l India is the largest producer of feature films in the
world. The Central Board of Film Certification is the
authority to certify both Indian and foreign films.
International Trade
l The exchange of goods among people, states, and
countries is referred to as trade.
l The market is the place where such exchanges take
place. Trade between two countries is called internatio-
nal trade. It make place through sea, air and land
routes.
l The volume of international trade of a country is an
index to its economic prosperity. It is considered the
economic barometer for a country.
without international trade.
l Export and import are the components of international
trade.
l The difference between the export and import is known
as the balance of trade of a country.
l When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it
is called a favourable balance of trade. On the contrary,
if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, this
is termed as an unfavorable balance of trade.
Tourism As a Trade
l Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last
three decades.
l Tourism promotes national integration as well as
providing support to local handicrafts and cultural
pursuits.
l It also helps in the development of international
understanding about our culture and heritage.
l Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir and temple towns
of South India are important destinations of foreign
tourists in India.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which two of the following extreme locations of India 5. Which one of the following is the most important
are connected by the East-West corridor? modes to transport in India?
(a) Mumbai-Nagpur (b) Mumbai-Kolkata (a) Pipeline (b) Roadways
(c) Silchar-Porbandar (d) Nagpur-Siliguri (c) Railways (d) Airways
2. Which mode of transportation reduces 6. Which one of the following terms is used to describe
trans-shipment losses and delays? trade between two or more countries?
(a) Railways (b) Pipeline (a) Internal Trade (b) External Trade
(c) Roadways (d) Waterways (c) International Trade (d) Local Trade
3. Which of the following states is not connected with 7. The organisation of the Indian Government which
HVJ pipeline? undertakes construction and maintenance of roads in
(a) Madhya Pradesh the border areas of the country is
(b) Gujarat (a) Border Road Organisation
(c) Maharashtra (b) NHAI
(d) Uttar Pradesh (c) CPWD
(d) PWD
4. Which one of the following ports is the deepest
land-locked and well-protected port along the East 8. Which of the following is the largest public sector
undertaking in the country?
Coast?
(a) Roadways
(a) Chennai (b) Indian Railways
(b) Tuticorin (c) Shipping Corporation of India
(c) Paradwip (d) None of the above
(d) Vishakhapatnam
Transport-Lifelines of National Economy 647
9. The first train steamed off from Mumbai to Thane in 12. Which of the following is the premier iron ore
(a) 1853 (b) 1863 exporting port of the country?
(c) 1873 (d) 1885 (a) Murmagao (b) Mumbai (c) Kandla (d) Kochi
10. Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the 13. Which of the following is not a part of Mass
transportation map of India. This is used for Communication?
transportation of (a) Radio (b) Television
(a) crude oil (c) Newspaper (d) None of these
(b) petroleum products 14. Bulk imports of India as a group includes
(c) natural gas
(a) fertilizers (b) newsprint
(d) All of the above
(c) edible oil (d) All of these
11. The difference between the export and import of a
15. Which of the following commodities accounts for the
country is known as
largest import of India?
(a) trade value (b) bilateral trade
(a) Petroleum products (b) Edible oils
(c) balance of trade (d) trade defecit
(c) Precious stones (d) Inorganic chemicals

High Skill Questions

1. The growing importance of road transport vis-a-vis 3. Match the following lists
rail transport is rooted in which of the following
List I List II
statements?
(a) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway A. National Highway-7 1. Delhi-Amritsar
lines B. National Highway-1 2. Delhi-Mumbai
(b) It provides door-to-door service C. National Highway-8 3. Varanasi-Kanyakumari
(c) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes, and as such
D. National Highway-15 4. Covers most of Rajasthan
can traverse mountains
(d) All of the above
Codes
2. Match the following A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
List I List II (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
A. Vishakhapatnam 1. Inland riverine port 4. International trade is regulated and monitored by
B. Kolkata 2. Natural harbour (a) United Nations Organisations
(b) GATT
C. Tuticorin 3. Deepest landlocked port
(c) World Trade Organisation
D. Mumbai 4. Biggest in terms of trade (d) UNCTAD
and cargo
5. The roads which the district headquarters connects
Codes with the other places of the district are maintained by
A B C D (a) Central Government
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) State Government
(b) 3 1 4 2 (c) Zilla Parishad
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) Panchayats of Villages
(d) 1 2 4 3

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c)

Chapter
1
Framing of Indian Constitution
and its Basic Features
The Preamble
The ‘Preamble’ means the preface or introduction of the
Constitution.
The famous ‘objective Resolution’ of Nehru is base for
Preamble
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares its
aims, principles and ideals. It contains the philosophy
on which the entire Constitution has been built. It
also embodies the ideals and aspiration of people of
India.
l The Preamble declares that it is the people of India who
had enacted, adopted and given the Constitution to
themselves.
l The Constitution proclaiming India as Sovereign,
Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic, the latter
include Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
Preamble of India
We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a
SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC, REPUBLIC and to
secure to all its citizens.
l JUSTICE—social, economic and political;
l LIBERTY—of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
l EQUALITY—of status and of opportunity, and to promote among them all,
l FRATERNITY—assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and
integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly, on this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949,
do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.
Part-VII : Civics
l Sovereign It emphasises that there is no authority
outside India on which the country is in anyway
dependent. People have supreme right to make
decisions on internal as well as external matters.
l Socialist It means the achievements of socialist
pattern of society through democratic means.
Government should regulate the ownership of land and
industry to reduce socio-economic in equalities.
l Secular It means that state shall not discriminate
against the citizens in any way on the basis of religion.
There is no official religion and citizens have complete
freedom to follow any religion.
l Democratic It means that the rulers are elected by the
people only, have the authority to run the government.
The Constitution declares India as a Sovereign, Socialist,
Secular, Democratic, Republic.
l Republic The word republic means that there is no
hereditary ruler in India and the head of the institution is
directly or indirectly elected by the people.
l Justice Social inequalities have to be reduced and the
government should work for the welfare of all, especially
the disadvantaged section of society.
l Liberty Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and
worship. Liberty is an essential attribute of a free society.
l Equality All are equal before law. The government
ensure equal opportunities for all.
l Fraternity No one should treat a fellow citizen as
inferior. We must behave like a member of same family.
The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
amended the Preamble and added the word socialist,
secular and integrity to the Preamble.
Framing of Indian Constitution and its Basic Features
Indian Constitution and its Basic
Features
l It is the lengthiest Constitution in the world. It
originally contained 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.
l The Indian Constitution is partly rigid and partly
flexible.
l The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary system of
government.
l The Constitution makes India a secular state.
l The Indian Constitution combines the features of both
federal and unitary systems of government.
l The Constitution contains an elaborate list
Fundamental Rights and Duties.
l The Constitution outlines certain Directive Principles of
State Policy which the government has to keep in mind
while framing laws and formulating policies.
l The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature at
the centre consisting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
l The Constitution vests extraordinary powers in the
President dirung emergencies.
l It provides for an independent judiciary.
l The Constitution introduces Universal Adult Franchise.
It gives the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of
age without discrimination.
l The Constitution makes special provisions for minorities,
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Trribes, etc.
l The Constitution draws its authority from the people
and has been promulgated in the name of the people.
This is evident from the Preamble which states, ‘‘We the
people of India .... do hereby adopt, enact and give to
ourselves this Constitution’’.
The Constituent Assembly
l To form the Constitution an Assembly of elected
representatives termed as Constituent Assembly
formed. The Constituent Assembly was set up under
Cabinet Plan of 1946. The demand of Constituent
Assembly to draft the Constitution was raised in 1935.
But the British Government accepted it in 1940.
l Initially, there was a total number of 389 members in
the Constituent Assembly out of which 93 were
representatives from Indian States, 292, from British
India and rest from Chief Commissioners’ Provinces.
l The Mountbatten Plan of 3rd June, 1947, announced
the partition of the country, and a separate Constituent
Assembly for the State of Pakistan was proposed. Hence,
after partition of India members of Assembly decreased
to 299.
l First meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on 9th
December, 1946 and Sachidanand Sinha was elected as
Interim President. But on 11th December, 1946,
Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of
Constituent Assembly.
649
The Constituent Assembly formed 13 important
l
committees for framing the Constitution, amongst them
Drafting Committee was most important which
consisted of Chairman (Dr BR Ambedkar) with six other
members.
l The other important commitees were Union Power
Committee, Fundamental Rights and Minority Committe,
Provincial Constitution Committee, Union Constitution
Committee, Flag Committee, Steering Committee etc. All
these committees submitted their reports, which were
widely discussed by the Constituent Assembly.
l The draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting
Committee was submitted to the President of the
of Assembly on 21st February, 1948.
l Finally, on 26th November, 1949, the people of India
through the Constituent Assembly adopted, gave to
themselves the Constitution of India. On 24th
January, 1950, which was the last working day of the
Assembly finally Constitution were signed. The
Constitution came into full operation with effect from
26th January, 1950.
l Our Constitution is the lengthiest Constitution of the
world which comprises of originally 22 Parts, 395
Articles and 8 Schedules. Constitution Assembly took 2
Years 11 Month and 18 Days to frame the Constitution
of India. Our Constitution was constituted of different
provisions from different sources of the constitutions of
the world.
From the Constitution of USA we have taken
(i) Independence of Judiciary, Judicial Review, President
as the Executive Head and President as the Supreme
Commandar of the Armed Force.
(ii) Rule of Law and Law making Procedures, System of
Single Citizenship etc.
Irish Constitution was the source of Directive Principles,
Method of Presidential Elections and Nomination of
Members of Rajya Sabha by President.
Idea of federation with a strong centre taken from
Canadian Constitution. While emergency provision taken
from Germany. Concurrent List taken from Australia,
Fundamental Duties from Japanese Constitution. While
Constitutional Amendments from South Africa.
Features of the Constitution
l Adult Suffrage The uniform adult suffrage system has
been adopted in India. Under this, every men and
women who attain the age of 18 years or above shall
have the right to elect representative for the legislature.
l Single Citizenship It is true that our Constitution of
India provides dual polity i.e., centres and states but it
provides single citizenship for the whole India. There is
no state citizenship in India, on the other hand
American Constitution follows dual citizenship i.e.,
citizenship of America and a state citizenship.
650
l Parliamentary Form of Government Our Constitution
establishes Parliamentary form of government both at
the centre and the states. At the centre President is the
head of the Constitution and real executive power is
vested in Council of Ministers headed by Prime
Minister.
l Federation with Strong Centre It is one of the most
remarkable features of the Indian Constitution where
Constitution acquires a unitary character during the
time of emergency. This also shows that our
Constitution is rigid but at the demand of circumstances
it becomes flexible too.
Fundamental Rights and Duties in
the Indian Constitution
In India, like most other democracies in the world, some
rights are given in our Constitution.
l Some rights which are fundamental to our life are
given a special status and are termed as Fundamental
Rights.
l Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the
Constitution contain a long list of Fundamental Rights.
Our Constitution provides us six major Fundamental
Rights, these are
(i) Right to Equality
(ii) Right to Freedom
(iii) Right Against Exploitation
(iv) Right to Freedom of Religion
(v) Cultural and Educational Rights
(vi) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Right to Equality
(Articles 14-18), Article 14 guarantees to all people
equality before law or the equal protection of the laws
within the territory of India. Article 14 confers on all
individuals two types of right to equality viz, Equality
before law, Equal protection of law.
Right Against Discrimination
Article 15 directs that state shall not discriminate
against a citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste
sex or place of birth or any of them.
Equality of Opportunity
Article 16 deals with equality of opportunity in public
employment. It guarantees equality of opportunity to all
citizens in the matter of appointment to any office or of
any other employment under the state. No citizen can be
discriminated against any employment of office under
the state on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,
descent, place of birth on residence.
Study Package for NTSE
Abolition of Untouchability
Article 17 abolishes ‘Untouchability’ and forbids its
practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability
arising out of untouchability is to be an offence
punishable in the accordance with law.
Thus, on the grounds of untouchability no person can be
denied access to shops, public restaurant, hotels and
places of public entertainment or the use of wells, tanks,
bathing ghats, road and places of public resort
maintained wholly or partly out of State fund or
dedicated to the use of general public.
Abolition of Titles
Article 18 prohibits the state to confer titles on
anybody whether a non-citizen. Military and academic
distinctions are however, exempted.
Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
l Personal liberty is the most important of all the
Fundamental Rights.
l Article 19 of the Constitution provides six fundamental
freedom to the citizens of India i.e.,
(i) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(ii) Freedom of Assembly
(iii) Freedom to Form Association
(iv) Freedom of Movement
(v) Freedom of Resident and Settlement
(vi) Freedom of Profession, Occupation, Trade or Business.
Freedom of Speech and Expression
In our democracy Freedom of Speech and Expression is
very essential. It means the right to express one's own
belief or opinion freely by words of mouth, writing,
printing, pictures or any other mode. It includes the
expression of one’s ideas through any communicable
medium or visible representation such as banners, signs
etc. There may be one's own views or right to propagate
or publish the views of other people.
Freedom of speech and expression also includes the
freedom of press, as well. In our Constitution no where
the term press is used but it is implicit in the freedom of
speech and expression.
Freedom of Assembly
Freedom of Assembly includes right to hold meeting.
This right like other individual rights is not absolute
but restricted. The Assembly must be non-violent and it
does not give right to strike.
Freedom of Movement
It guarantees to citizen of India the right to move freely
throughout the territory of India.
Framing of Indian Constitution and its Basic Features
Freedom of Resident
The right to move freely throughout the territory of
India and right to reside and settle in any part of the
territory which shows the integrity and unity of India.
India is one integrated country and its citizens have the
freedom to move throughout the territory of India and to
reside and settle anywhere in India.
Freedom of Profession and Occupation
Constitution of India guarantees that all citizens have
the right to practise any procession or to carry on any
occupation or trade or business, besides this legislation
may impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the
interest of general public.
Right Against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
Article 23 Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
forced labour
l Traffic in human beings here means selling and buying
of human beings normally women and children for
immoral and other purposes.
l Our Constitution also prohibits practice of bonded labour
on ‘begar’ in any form where workers is forced to given
service to the master without fee or at nominal charges.
l When this practice takes place on a life-long basis, it is
called the practice of bonded labour.
l Prohibition of Employment of Children in Factories etc.
Article 24 Prohibits the employment of children below
14 years of age in hazardous jobs, such as railways and
ports, beedi making, fire crackers and matches, printing
and dyeing.
Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
Article 25 Freedom of Conscience, Profession, Practice
and Propagation of Religion— Every person has a right
to profess, practice and propagate the religion he or she
believes in. Propagate one’s religion does not mean that
any person put pressure to another to convert into his
religion by force, fraud, inducement or allurement.
l Anyone is free to accept any religion according to choice
it does not mean that he can do any thing whatever he
wants in the name of religion.
e.g., Sacrifice animal or human beings as offering to
supernatural forces or God.
Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs
Article 26 Religions have the following rights, viz.
(a) To establish or maintain institution for religious and
charitable purposes
(b) To manage its own affair in matters of religion
(c) To acquire movable and immovable property
(d) To administer such property in accordance to law
651
Freedom as to Payment of Taxes for promotion of
any particular religion
Article 27 Under this no person shall be compelled to pay
any tax for religious purposes. The government cannot
pressurise to pay any tax to the individual in respect of
particular religion and religious activity. Prohibition of
religious instruction in state aided institutions
Article 18 says that no religious instruction shall be
given in any educational institution. In educational
instuitutions managed by private bodies no person shall
be compelled to take part in any religious instruction or
to attend any religious worship.
Cultural and Educational Rights
(Articles 29-30)
Article 29 According to this Article protection of
interest of minorities, language, culture and religion of
minorities needs special protection otherwise, they may
get neglected under the majority of religion, culture and
language group.
Right of Minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions.
Article 30 According to this all minorities whether
based on religion or language shall have the right to
establish and adinister educational institution of their
own choice.
Institution run by government or receiving government
aid cannot deny any individual to get admission or the
ground on religion or language.
Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
This right guarantees the right to move the law court for
the enforcement of the rights. Both the Supreme Court
and the High Courts can issue writs of habeas corpus
madamus prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.
Suspension of Fundamental Rights
When the President makes a proclamation of emergency
under Article 352, the six freedoms guaranteed under
Article 19, are automatically suspended. The President
can suspend other Fundamental Rights through specific
orders. These orders must be approved by the
Parliament. But he can not suspend the freedoms under
Articles 20 and 21 under any circumstances.
Writs
For the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Right, the
Supreme Court can issue writs of the following nature.
652
1. Habeas Corpus Habeas corpus means ‘to have a
body’. By issuing such a writ the court requires that a
person who has been imprisoned, be brought before it
in order that the court may know on what ground he
has been confined and to set him free if there is no
lawful justification for the imprisonment.
2. Mandamus Mandamus means a command. It
commands the person to whom it is addressed, to
perform some public or quasi-public legal duty which
he has refused to perform.
3. Prohibition It is a kind of command from a superior
court to an inferior court forbidding it to do certain
things which in the opinion of the higher court, are in
excess of its jurisdiction.
4. Certiorari It is a kind of command which can be
issued to any judicial and quasi-judicial authority
quashing an order, which has already been passed
by it, but which in the opinion of the higher court, is
in excess of its jurisdiction.
5. Quo Warranto It gives the right to a court to enquire
into the legality of the claim which an individual
asserts to a public office and to oust him from that
office if it finds that his claim is not well-founded.
Study Package for NTSE
Some Important Terminology
l Amnesty International An international organisation of
volunteers who campaign for human rights. This
organisation brings out independent reports on the
violation of human rights all over the world.
l Apartheid The official policy of racial separation and ill
treatment of blacks followed by the government of South
Africa between 1948 and 1989.
l Claim Demand for legal or moral entitlements a person
makes on fellow citizens, society or the government.
l Covenant Promise made to individuals, groups or countries
to uphold a rule or principle. It is legally binding on the
signatories to the agreement or statement.
l Dalit A person who belongs to the castes which were
considered low and not touchable by others. Dalits are also
known by other names such as the scheduled castes,
depressed classes etc.
l Ethnic Group An ethnic group is a human population
whose members usually identify with each other on the
basis of a common ancestry. People of an ethnic group are
united by cultural practices, religious beliefs and historical

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Legally sanctified document which incorporates 6. Apart from BR Ambedkar (Chairman of Drafting
certain rules that the citizen and government have to Committee), how many other members were in
follow is/are called Drafting Committee?
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 5
(c) The Constitution (d) None of these
7. Constitution of India was adopted on
2. The Constituent Assembly was set up under (a) 26 January, 1950 (b) 15 August, 1947
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (c) 26 November, 1949 (d) 26 November, 1950
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
8. Who among the following was not a member of the
(c) Cripps Mission
Constituent Assembly?
(d) None of the above
(a) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (b) Raja Gopalachari
3. Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee of the (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Lord Mount Batten
Indian Constitution?
9. First meeting of Constituent Assembly was held in
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(a) 10th December, 1946 (b) 9th December, 1947
(c) C Raja Gopalachari (d) Dr BR Ambedkar
(c) 9th December, 1948 (d) 9th December, 1946
4. Who was elected as permanent President of the 10. Who was elected as interim President of the
Constituent Assembly?
Constituent Assembly?
(a) Sachidanand Sinha (b) BR Ambedkar (a) BR Ambedkar (b) BN Rao
(c) Pandit Nehru (d) Dr Rajendra Prasad (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr Sachidanand Sinha
5. How many committees were formed for framing of the 11. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting
Constitution? Committee of the Constitution?
(a) 11 (b) 10 (a) BN Rao (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) 13 (d) 14 (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) BR Ambedkar
Framing of Indian Constitution and its Basic Features 653
12. The demand of Constituent Assembly to Draft the 17. Who was the viceroy of India when India became
Constitution was first time raised in the year free?
(a) 1931 (b) 1932 (a) Lord Wavell
(c) 1933 (d) 1935 (b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Willington
13. Initially how many members were in Constituent
(d) Lord Mount Batten
Assembly?
(a) 380 (b) 385 (c) 389 (d) 292 18. After partition from Pakistan the member of
Constituent Assembly decreased from 389 to
14. Abolition of untouchability lies in which Article
(a) 384 (b) 292
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 18 (c) 380 (d) 299
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 14
19. Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from
15. Amongst all 389 member of Constituent Assembly
(a) Britain
how many member were representatives from Indian (b) USA
States? (c) UK
(a) 292 (b) 384 (d) Ireland
(c) 93 (d) None of these
20. How many Fundamental Rights exist in Indian
16. How many members were from Chief Commissioner Constitution?
provinces? (a) 5 (b) 7
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 6 (c) 6 (d) 8

High Skill Questions

1. Who among the following was not the member of 6. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India)
Drafting Committee? with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer
(a) N Gopal Swamy Ayyangar using the codes given below the lists (2004)
(b) Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer
(c) Mohammad Sadullah List I List II
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any
2. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is citizen on grounds only of religion, race,
granted by Five Articles. They are caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
(a) Article 16 to 20 B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person
(b) Article 15 to 19 equality before the law or the equal
(c) Article 14 to 18 protection of laws within the territory of India.
(d) Article 13 to 17
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its
3. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion practice in any form is forbidden.
etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all
Fundamental Right classifiable under (1995) citizens in matters relating to employment
(a) The Right of Freedom of Religion on appointment to any office under the
(b) The Right against Exploitation state.
(c) The Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) The Right to Equality Codes
A B C D
4. The Constitution of India recognises (a) 2 4 1 3
(a) only religious minorities (b) 3 1 4 2
(b) only linguistic minorities (c) 2 1 4 3
(c) religious and linguistic minorities (d) 3 4 1 2
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
7. The Cabinet Mission of India was headed by
5. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in (a) Stafford Cripps (b) A V Alexander
(a) the United Kingdom (c) Lord Pethick Lawrence (d) Hugh Gaits Kell
(b) Australia 8. Right to Constitutional remedies comes under
(c) the United States
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Legal Rights
(d) Canada (c) Constitutional Rights (d) Natural Rights
654 Study Package for NTSE
9. Which Article of Indian Constitution is called “the 16. The Indian Constitution is regarded as
heart and soul of the Constitution”? (a) Federal
(a) Article 18 (b) Article 22 (b) Unitary
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 14 (c) Parliamentary
(d) Federal in form and Unitary in Spirit
10. Right to freedom of religion includes Article
(a) Article 14 to 18 (b) Article 25 to 28 17. India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic on
(c) Article 24 to 28 (d) Article 30 to 32 (a) 15 August , 1947
(b) 30 January , 1948
11. Which Part of Indian Constitution is described as
(c) 26 January , 1950
Magna Carte of India? (d) 26 November, 1929
(a) Part I (b) Part II
(c) Part III (d) Part IV 18. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to
finally pass the Constitution?
12. Freedom of press implicit in which Article of the (a) About 6 months in 1949
Constitution? (b) Exactly 1 years since 26 November , 1948
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22 (c) About 2 years since 15 August , 1947
13. Abolition of titles lies in which Article of the (d) About 3 years since 9 December , 1946
Constitution? 19. The Constitution names our country as
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (a) Bharat
14. Protection in respect of conviction for offences lies in (b) India, i.e., Bharat
one of the Six Fundamental Rights, it is (c) Hindustan
(a) Right to Equality (d) Arya Yrata
(b) Right to Freedom 20. What is the single biggest source of Indian
(c) Right Against Exploitation Constitution?
(d) Cultural and Education Rights (a) Constitution of Britain
15. Fundamental Rights are taken from (b) Constitution of USA
(a) UK (b) US (c) Constitution of USSR
(c) Ireland (d) Japanese (d) Government of India Act 1935

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
 Chapter
2
Working of Institutions Organs
of Government
For smooth running of a country there is a need of
channel to run the country properly. Hence in our
democratic form, the whole country runs on three
different heads i.e., Legislative, Executive and
Judiciary. All three have own area of working under
which no one can interfere but having indirect control
over each other.
Union Executive
President
The union executive includes President, Vice President
and the Council of Ministers. The executive power vests
to the President according to the Constitution who shall
exercise his power directly or through officers
subordinate to him.
He is the Supreme Commander of armed forces. He is
the first citizen of India and occupies the first position
under the warrant of precedence. Warrant of
precedence means hierarchy of position occupied by
various dignitaries attending a state function.
All the executive actions are taken in his name and the
President is to exercise them on the advice of Council of
Ministers responsible to Parliament.
Election of President
The President of India is elected by indirect election.
He is elected by an electoral college in accordance with
the system of proportional representation by means of
a single transferable vote.
The electoral college includes all the elected members of
both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members
of Legislative Assemblies of states. The vote is cast by
secret ballot.
Qualifications of President
Being elected for the post of President some
qualifications are required
l He must be a citizen of India.
l He must have completed the age of 35 years.
l He must be qualified for election as a member of the
House of People i.e., Lok Sabha.
l He must not hold any office of profit under the
Government of India or government of any state.
Oath and Tenure
The oath of President is administered by Chief Justice
of Supreme Court. The President holds office for a term
of five years from the date on which he enters his office.
He is eligible for re-election. He may resign from his
office before the expiry of his term by writing to the Vice
President. The office of President can not remain vacant
for more than 6 month.
Impeachment
There is a special procedure for the removal of the
President. He can be removed by impeachment for
violation of the Constitution.
The power of impeachment is vested in Parliament. The
impeachment process can be initiated in any House of
Parliament. If one House supports the impeachment
with two-third majority then it moves to Second House.
656 Study Package for NTSE

Then the other House investigates the charges. If the Term and Office of Vice President
other House approveds the charges by two-third He is elected for a term of 5 years and continues until
majority again, the President is removed from his office. his successor comes.
Powers He may resign by addressing his resignation to the
President. He can be removed from his office by a
Power of President can be discussed under following
resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority
heads
of all the then members of the Council of the States and
l Administrative Power The President appoints Prime agreed by the House of People. The procedure for
Minister, Attorney General, Comptroller and Auditor
removal cannot be initiated in Lok Sabha.
General, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court
of the States, Governor of State, members of the Election The list of both Presidents and the Vice Presidents are
Commission.
The Presidents of India
l Military Power He has the power to declare war and
peace but under the control of Parliament. 1. Dr Rajendra Prasad January 26, 1950 to May 13, 1962
2. Dr S Radhakrishnan May 13, 1962 to May 13, 1967
l Legislative Power The President can dissolve the Lok
3. Dr Zakir Hussain May 13, 1967 to May 3, 1969
Sabha at the recommendation of Prime Minister he
nominates 12 Members of Rajya Sabha and may 4. Varahgiri Venkata May 3, 1969 to July 20, 1969
nominate two members of Anglo-Indian Community in Giri (acting)
Lok Sabha. Bill passed by the Parliament must receive 5. Justice M July 20, 1969 to August 24, 1969
President’s as approval before it becomes an Act. Hidayatullah (acting)
6. V V Giri August 24, 1969 to August 24,
l Emergency Power Article 352 (National Emergency)
1974
On the grounds of war, external aggression or armed
7. Dr Fakhruddin Ali August 24, 1974 to February 11,
rebellion, the President can proclaim emergency after
Ahmed 1979
receiving the written recommendation of the cabinet. He
8. BD Jatti February 11, 1977 to July 25, 1977
also recommends the financial emergency if he thinks
(acting)
that the financial stability of the country is threatened.
9. Neelam Sanjiva July 25, 1977 to July 25, 1982
î Fundamental Rights can be suspended during emergency Reddy
except Article 20 and 21. July 25, 1982 to July 25, 1987
10. Giani Zail Singh
11. R Venkataraman July 25, 1987 to July 25, 1992
Vice President 12. Dr Shankar Dayal July 25, 1992 to July 25, 1997
Sharma
According to Article 63 there shall be a Vice President
13. KR Narayanan July 25, 1997 to July 25, 2002
of India. He is the ex-offico chairman of Rajya Sabha. 14. APJ Abdul Kalam July 25, 2002 to July 25, 2007
He is elected jointly by the Houses of the Parliament. 15. Ms Pratibha July 25, 2007 to 13 July 2012
The procedures for his election consists of a secret Devisingh
ballot, proportional representation and single Patil
16. Pranab Mukherjee July 25, 2012- July 25, 2017
transferable vote. An absolute majority of the votes
polled is also required for the election of the Vice 17. Ram Nath Kovind July 25, 2017-till date
President.
Vice-President of India
Being a Vice President he is entitled to get the salary of
1. Dr S Radhakrishnan 1952-1966
` 125000 per month.
2. Dr Zakir Hussain 1962-1967
He acts as the President of India if the office of the 3. Varahagiri Venkata Giri 1967-1969
President falls vacant due to his resignation, death, 4. Gopal Swarup Pathak 1969-1974
impeachment, illness or absence from the country. The 5. BD Jatti 1974-1979
vice President holds the office till a new President is 6. Justice Mohammed Hidayatullah 1979-1984
elected. 7. R Venkataraman 1984-1987
8. Dr Shankar Dayal Sharma 1987-1992
Qualification of the Vice President
9. KR Narayanan 1992-1997
l He must be a citizen of India.
10. Krishan Kant 1997-2002
l Must have completed the age of 35. 11. Bhairon Singh Shekhawat 2002-2007
l Qualified to be elected as a member of Rajya Sabha and 12. Mohammad Hamid Ansari 2007-2017
not hold any office of profit.
13. Venkaiah Naidu 2017-till date
Working of Institutions Organs of Government
Council of Ministers
Council of Ministers comes into existence as soon as the
Prime Ministers sworn in. The Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the President and other Ministers shall be
appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime
Minister.
The Council of Ministers is a composite body which may
contain three categories of ministers viz., Cabinet
Ministers, Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers.
(i) Cabinet Ministers Prime Minister of India appoints
the Cabinet Ministers
They are assisted by minister of state and deputy
minister.
(ii) Ministers of State A minister of state may be
given independent charge of a ministry but he
generally assists a Cabinet Minister in running
the ministry. A Minister of State cannot attend the
meeting of cabinet on his own right but can attend
if invited.
(iii) Deputy Minister He is the junior member of the
Council of Minister. He always serves under Cabinet
Minister or a minister of state.
Prime Minister and Council of
Ministers
Constitution lays down that Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the President and other ministers shall be
appointed by the President on the advice of Prime
Minister. Prime Minister is basically amongst the
member of majority party.
(i) As the heads of the government, the Prime Minister
has wide rangin of powers. He chairs cabinet
meetings. He coordinates the work of different
departments. His decisions are final in case
disagreement arise between departments.
(ii) All ministers work under his leadership. The Prime
Minister distributes and redistributes work to the
ministers.
(iii) The Prime Minister has the power to dismiss
ministers. When the PM quits, the entire ministery
quits.
Legislature
Legislature refers to that branch of the government
which is concerned with enactment of laws. The
Constitution of India has provided a legislature largely
on the pattern of Britain. The legislature is known in
various political systems with different names.
The two Houses of Union Legislature in India are
known as Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. While the two
Houses of legislature in state are named as Legislative
Assembly and Legislative Council.
657
Parliament
Parliament consists of the President, Council of States
(Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha).
Functions of the Parliament
Most important function of Parliament is to make laws
for the benefit of the country. It makes laws on all
subjects of Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
(i) Union List Subject of national interest in which only
Union Government can make laws. It contains 99
subjects.
(ii) State List It contains the matter of local importance
on which only the State Government can make laws.
It contains 61 subjects.
(iii) Concurrent List Powers of the Parliament on which
both State and Union Government make laws.
It puts controls on financial matter over the executive. It
enjoys the powers of removing certain high officials from
their office e.g.,- Impeachment of President, removal of
Vice President, Judges of Supreme Court and High Court.
Lok Sabha or the Lower House
Lok Sabha is popular house of the Parliament as its
members are directly elected by the people. It consists of
not more than 552 members. According to Constitution
only 530 members are the representatives of the states
while 20 representatives belong to union territories and
not more than 2 member of the Anglo-Indian
community nominated by the President.
The normal tenure of Lok Sabha is 5 years but it may
dissolve earlier.
Qualifications for the Membership of Lok Sabha
l To be a citizen of India.
l Not less than 25 years of age.
l To be registered voter in any of the parliamentary
constituencies in India.
l Should not hold any office of profit.
Special Power of the Lok Sabha Lok Sabha enjoys
some special powers which are not available to Rajya
Sabha i.e.,
l Money bill and finance bill can be introduced in Lok
Sabha.
l Confidence and no confidence motion can be initiated
and passed only in Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha or Upper House of
Parliament
It consists of two classes of members i.e., nominated
members and representatives of the states and union
territories. It consists of not more than 250 members. At
present the total membership of Rajya Sabha is 245.
658
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to
dissolution. One-third of its members retire in every 2
years. Representatives of each state are elected by the
elected member of the legislative Assembly of the state
in accordance with the system of Proportional
representation by means of single transferable vote.
Speaker and Deputy Speaker
Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Both
the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the
members of Lok Sabha, (STET) amongst themselves. If
Speaker is absent the Deputy Speaker performs the
duties of the Speaker.
l The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker remain in office so
long as they are member of the House. The Speaker or
Deputy Speaker may resign his office by writing each
other.
l The Speaker enjoys some special powers i.e.,
(i) When joint sitting of the Parliament takes place it is
the Speaker who presides over a joint meeting.
(ii) Whether a bill is a money bill or not, is certified only
by the Speaker and his decision is final and binding.
(iii) If the Speaker is a member of any committee he is the
ex-offico chairman of such a committee.
Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
The Vice President of India is the Ex-offico Chairman of
Rajya Sabha. In his absence Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha presides over the Rajya Sabha. The Deputy
Chairman is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
among themselves.
Special Power of Rajya Sabha
It includes
l A resolution seeking the removal of the Vice President
can originate only in Rajya Sabha where the resolution
must be passed by a majority of all the members of Rajya
Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
l It can create one or more All India Services which is
supported by two-third members of Rajya Sabha.
l It can pass resolution as it is necessary or enpedient in
the natural interest that parliament should make a law
on a matter enumerated is state list.
Judiciary
The judiciary has always been recognised as one of the
essential organs of the government of any state. All the
courts at different levels in a country put together are
called judiciary. Indian judiciary consists of a Supreme
Court for the entire nation, High courts in the States,
district courts and the courts at local level. The decision of
Supreme Court is binding to all other courts of the country.
Study Package for NTSE
Supreme Court
The Supreme Court is the apex court of India. It includes
at present one chief justice and 33 other judges. The
senior most judge of Supreme Court is appointed as the
Chief Justice of India.
Chief Justice of Supreme Court is appointed by President
with the consultation of such Judges of Supreme Court
and High Court as he may think necessary. But in
appointing other judges the President shall consult the
Chief Justice of India.
No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as Judge
of the Supreme Court, nor any fixed period of office. Once
appointed, the Chief Justice and other Judges of the
Supreme Court hold office till they attain the age of 65
years. However, a Judge may resign his office by writing
to the President. He may also be removed from this office
by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour
or incapacity.
The Judge of the Supreme Court must be
l a citizen of India and
l either a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the
President, or has been a Judge of a High Court for 5
years, or has been an Advocate of High Court (or two or
more such courts in successions) for at least 10 years.
The High Court
At the State level, the highest court is the High Court.
The Parliament can establish a common High Court for
two or more States. At present, there are 25 High Courts
in the country. Among the Union Territories, only Delhi
has a High Court of its own.
l The High Court consists of Chief Justice and such other
Judges as the President of India may from time to time
appoint.
l A Judge of a High Court holds office until he attains the
age of 62 years. Every Judge—permanent, additional or
acting—may vacate his office earlier in any of the
following ways.
(i) by resignation in writing addressed to the President
(ii) by being appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court or
being transferred to any other High Court, by the
President.
(iii) by removal by the President on an address of both
Houses of Parliament, on the ground of proved
misbehaviour or incapacity.
The Judge of a High Court
l must be a citizen of India
l must have held a judicial office for at least 10 years in the
territory of India; or must have been an advocate of a
High Court or of two or more such courts in succession for
at least 10 years, or a distinguished jurist in the opinion
of the president.
Working of Institutions Organs of Government 659
Subordinate Courts
The organisation of subordinate courts throughout the country is generally uniform. There are two types of law
courts in every district—civil and criminal courts. They function under the superintendence and control of the High
Court of the State. The Court of the District Judge is the highest Civil Court in a district. Besides the District Court
there are Courts of sub judges, Munsiff Courts and Courts of small causes. In a district, criminal cases are heard by
the Court of Sessions Judge. Below the District and the Sessions Courts are the Courts of First Class Magistrate

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The eligible age to be appointed as the President of 8. Number of member nominated by President in Rajya
India is Sabha is
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (a) 10 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 12
(c) 35 years (d) 21 years
9. Which among the following is the apex court of India?
2. Oath of the President is administered by (a) High Court (b) Supreme Court
(a) Vice President (c) District Court (d) None of these
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker
10. Judges of Supreme Court is appointed by
(c) Judge of Supreme Court
(d) Chief Justice of India (a) The retired Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker
3. Who among the following is 13th President of India? (c) Vice President
(a) Pratibha Patil (d) President
(b) Sonia Gandhi
11. Judges of Supreme Court hold the office till the age of
(c) Man Mohan Singh
(d) Pranab Mukherjee (a) 62 (b) 65 (c) 60 (d) 64

4. How many members is presently in Rajya Sabha? 12. The Parliament of India consist of
(a) 545 (b) 238 (c) 345 (d) 245 (a) President (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha (d) Vice President
5. The term of Rajya Sabha member was fixed by the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) President (b) Parliament
(c) Cabinet (d) Constitution (a) a, b and c (b) b and c
(c) b, c and d (d) a, b, c and d
6. Speaker of Lok Sabha sends his resignation to
13. The members of the Rajya Sabha are
(a) Prime Minister (b) Deputy Speaker
(c) President (d) Parliament Secretariat (a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
7. Who presides over the joint meeting of Parliament? (c) elected directly as well as indirectly
(a) Prime Minister (b) Vice President (d) elected by the members of the Legislative Assemblies and
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker (d) None of these Legislative Council of States

High Skill Questions

1. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is (c) 2 and 12 (d) None of the above
(a) nominated by the chairman 3. A joint meeting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is
(b) elected by elected members of the Rajya Sabha presided by
(c) nominated by the President
(a) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) elected by the Rajya Sabha from amongst its members (b) President
2. How many members are nominated in Lok Sabha and (c) Vice President
Rajya Sabha respectively? (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) 2 and 10 (b) 12 and 2
660 Study Package for NTSE
4. The annual financial statement is caused to be laid before 10. Which among the following is not the
both Houses of Parliament by qualification to be elected as President of India?
(a) President (b) Speaker (a) Completed the age of 35 years
(c) Vice President (d) Finance Minister (b) Qualified for election as member of the house of people
5. Which House is better placed with regard to control over (c) Must be citizen of India
the executive? (d) Qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha 11. Match the following
(c) Both are equally placed
(d) It depends from which house the Prime Minister comes List I List II
6. A bill which certifies as money bill can be introduced in A. Presidents 1. Deputy Speaker
(a) Lok Sabha only
B. Lok Sabha Speaker 2. Vice President
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Both in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha one by one C. Vice President 3. Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) None of the above D. Deputy Speaker 4. President
7. Name the Upper House of the National Legislature of Codes
Great Britain A B C D A B C D
(a) The House of Commons (b) The House of Lords (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) The Rajya Sabha (d) The Senate (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
8. Who among the followings do not take part in election of 12. The lower house of the Indian Parliament is
President of India? called
(a) Nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and
Legislative Assemblies of states (a) The Lok Sabha
(b) Elected members of both House of Parliament (b) The Rajya Sabha
(c) Elected members of Legislative Assembly (c) The Legislative Council
(d) Both ‘b' and ‘c’ (d) The Legislative Assembly

9. President of India is elected by 13. New High Court is created on which following
(a) elected member of Lok Sabha only state
(b) elected member of Rajya Sabha only (a) Tripura (b) Goa
(c) elected member of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (c) Nagaland (d) Mizoram
(d) elected member of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a)
 Chapter
3
Democracy and Related
Phenomena
Democracy comes from Greek word Demokratic. In
Greek demos means people and krati means ‘Power’.
In the world scenario we have seen that different
countries of world struggle a lot to have a good
government like Chile, a ‘country in South America
where Salvador Allende (then President) over thrown
by military through conspiracy and violence. Thus,
military dictatorship was established in Chile. Later on
in 2006 election, Michelle Bachelet was elected as
President of Chile.
In 1980’ Poland was ruled by polish United worker’s
party, was one of the communist parties that ruled in
several countries of East Europe at that time. Later on
with verge of time in 1990, Presidential election takes
place and people choose Walese as the President of
Poland.
The government of Poland was supported and controlled
by the government of the Soviet Union.
Democracy and Diversity
Origin of Social Differences
Social differences are based on mostly on accident of
birth. Normally we don’t choose to belong to our
community, we belong to it simply because we were born
into it.
l All kinds of social differences are not based on accident
of birth but some are based on our choices like some
people are atheist i.e. they don’t believe in God, some
people choose more than one religion, some of us choose
different occupation of choice.
l Social division takes place when some social differences
overlaps with other differences. The difference between
the blacks and whites in USA becomes a social division
where blacks tends to be poor, homeless and
discriminated. As in our country dalits tend to be poor
and landless.
Social Decision into Politics
l Democracy involves competition among various political
parties. Their competition tends to divide any society.
Whenever democracy exists these divisions are reflected
in politics.
l Social divisions affect the system of voting in most of the
countries people from one community tend to prefer the
candidate of their own community to others party.
Factors Deciding the Outcome of Politics
and Social Division
l It depends upon how people perceive their identity. It is
difficult when people see their identities in singular and
exclusive terms. It is easier if people see that their
identities are multiple and are complementary with the
National identity.
l It depends upon how political leaders raise the demands
of any community. If demands of any community are
within the Constitutional Framework then it is easy to
accommodate but if it is not, these could not be
accommodated.
l It depends upon how the government reacts to demands
of different groups. If rulers are willing to share power
and accommodate the reasonable demands of minority
community, social divisions become less threatening for
the country but if they supress demand then it leads to
agitation.
662
There are three kinds of social differences that can take
the form of inequalities. These are
Social Differences Based on Gender
l While talking gender, it is not based on biology but on
social expectation. We often see that main responsibility
of woman is house-hold work and bringing up children.
This leads to sexual division of labour. While men do
work outside the home.
l These differences can be easily seen in politics,
participation in public affair etc. Women have minimal
envolvement and it leads to agitation for equal rights.
Feminist Movement
l More radical women’s movements aimed at equality in
personal and family life as well. These movements are
called feminist movement.
l In our country we follow patriarchal society hence,
women are still far behind men despite some
improvement. Woman face disadvantage, discrimination.
In India, only 65% women are literate while men
constitute nearly 82%. Parents prefer resources for their
boy’s education rather than spending equally on their
sons and daughters. Almost in all the areas women are
paid less than men even both do exactly some work.
l In India less then 10% of women elected in Lok Sabha
while in State Assemblies less than 5% hold the seats,
one way to solve this problem is to make it legally
binding to have a fair representation of women in the
elected bodies. There are 59 woman MPs in 15th
Loksasha.
l Ferminist a man or a woman who belives in equal right
and opportunities for women and men.
l In Panchayat Raj one third of seats in Panchayats
and Municipalities are now reserved for women
which led to the 10 lakh elected women
representatives in rural and urban bodies. A bill
which demand the reservation of at least one third of
seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies has been
pending before the Parliament.
Division Based on Religious Differences
l Religious diversity is widely spread in the world. Many
countries along with India, have followers of different
religions. The religions differences are often expressed
in the field of politics.
l Human right group always demands the special
safeguard to protect religious minorities who are victim
of communal riots in a country.
l Women’s movements emphasises to make better family
laws where women get equitable benefit.
All these instances involve a relationship between
religion and politics.
Study Package for NTSE
Communalism
l Communalism happens when beliefs of one religion are
presented as superior to those of other religions.
l It happens when the demands of one religions group are
formed in opposition to another and when state power is
used to establish domination of one particular religions
group over the rest.
l This manner of using religion in politics is known as
communal politics.
l Political mobilisation on religion lines is another form
at communnalism. This involves the use of sacred
symbols, religions leaders, emotional appeal and plain
fear in order to bring the followers of one religion
together in the political arena.
l Some times majority community controls the political
power in a country.
l Communalism takes its most ugly form in communal
violence, riots and massacre.
Secular State
There is no official religion for the Indian State. Unlike
the states of Buddhism in Sri Lanka that of Islam in
Pakistan while Christanity in England on constitution
does not give a special status to any religion.
Caste Inequalities
In most societies occupation are passed on from one
generation to another which led to hereditary
occupational division. Member of the same caste group
form a social community, married within the caste group.
l Caste system based on exclusion of and discrimination
against the out caste groups.
Castes and Caste System in modern India have under
gone great changes with
(i) Urbanisation
(ii) Occupational Mobility
(iii) Breaking down of Caste Hierarchy
Caste can also take various forms in politics like
(i) To win election parties choose candidate to keep in
mind the caste composition of electorate.
(ii) Political party tries to get support of specific caste by
gain their sentiment.
(iii) When parties choose candidates in elections, they
keep in mind the caste composition of the electorate.
Popular Struggles and Movements to
Establish Democracy
The expansion of democracy is not a smooth and
straight way. There are many countries of world who
struggle a lot to get the status of democratic country.
Amongst them some get full fledge status of Democratic
country, while some of them may be called as
Semi-democratic where government has formed but
controlling power is in the hand of king or queen.
Democracy and Related Phenomena
Movement for Democracy
in Nepal
Nepal witnessed a popular movement in April 2006, to
restoring democracy. Nepal had won democracy in 1990
although the king remain the head of the state the real
power was exercised by elected representatives.
In Nepal king Birendra, accepted the absolute monarchy
to Constitutional monarchy. King Birendra was killed in
2001 after the death of Birendra, King Gyanendra
dissolved the Parliament.
Later on in April 2006, movement started, where people
give their full support to all major political parties hence
lead to the formation of new government where Girija
Prasad Koirala elected as the new Prime Minister.
The struggle of Nepali people is a source of inspiration
to democrats all over the world.
Bolivia Water War
Bolivia is a poor country in Latin America. In Bolivia
Government give up its control of municipal water
supply multinational company Cochabamba the
company increased the price of water by four times.
By the effort of new alliance of labour, human rights, a
community leaders and through mass support, forced
the officials of MNC to flee the city and made
government concede to all the demands of protestors.
Again water supply was restored to the municipality of
old rates. This came to known as Bolivia’s War.
l Interest Group or Pressure Group Forming an
organisation and undertaking activities to promote their
interest on their view points are called as interest group
or pressure group.
Pressure group are organisation that attempt to
influence government policies. These organisation are
formed when people having common occupation,
interest, opinion come together to achieve common
objective.
l Sectional Interest Group and Public Interest
Group Interest group seek to promote the interest of a
particular section or group of society e.g., Trade Union,
professional (lawyer, doctor, teacher). They termed
sectional because they represent section of society.
l Promotional Group or Public Interest Group It is a
group of individuals who come together in order to
benefit people beyond their membership in the group.
They promotes issue of general public concern
e.g.,human rights, consumer right etc.
l Movement Group It is a group of people with a
particular set of aims. In India Narmada Bachao Andolan
is a good example of this kind. Medha Patekar is chief
663
leader of this Andolan. This movement started with
specific issue of people displaced by creation of the Sardar
Sarovar Dam on Narmada River.
Influence of Pressure Group and
Movements in Politics
They try to gain public support for their goals lead by
campaign, organising meeting. Filing petition they try to
influence India to giving more attention to their issues.
Pressure groups are organisation that attempt to
influence government policies.
In some instances, the pressure groups are either
formed or lead by the leaders of political parties or act as
extended arms political parties.
Some times political parties grow out of movements.
Outcome of Democracy is one of major aspect which
shall be point out carefully because if any country
wants democratic form of government then the mass
of the people shall be benefited by the different
policies of the government which led to the upliftment
of society.
In democracy people have sole right to choose their
representative and having indirectly control over it.
People of democratic country should be able to
participate in decision making that affects them all.
l If we compare democratic and non-democratic
government then in democratic form people have right
to examine the process of decision making which termed
as transparency which is often missing form non-
democratic government.
l With the change of time democracies may frustrate as
well as unsatisfy the demand of majority of its population.
It may seen that corruption prevail most of the major
segment of democracy, at the same time most of the
people think that non democracies are less corrupt.
l If we talk about the economic growth and development
in the perspective of outcome of democracy then it is
expected to produce good governments but not fair to
expect that they would also produce development.
l If we look between 1950 to 2000 then we will found that
democracies have slightly lower economic growth in
comparisons to all dictatorship country. Slow rate of
development may frustrate us but this alone cannot be
the reason to reject the democracy.
l Countries like South Africa and Brazil approx 60% of the
national income taken away by top 20% of people. While
other countries like Denmark and Hungary have better
record.
l Democracy stands much superior to any other form of
government in promoting diguity and freedom of the
individual.
 Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. The form of government in which representatives are 8. In Panchayati Raj seats reserved for women is
elected by people is called (a) 30% (b) One third
(a) Autocracy (b) Democracy (c) 33% (d) None of these
(c) Plutocracy (d) None of these
9. How much percent of seats demanded to be reserved
2. Which among the following became the first country in both Lok Sabha and State Assemblies in Women
in Africa to gain independence? Reservation bill?
(a) Ghana (b) Egypt (a) One third (b) Two third (c) One fourth (d) Only 15 %
(c) Zambia (d) Nigeria
10. Which among the following is not a cause behind the
3. Aung San Suu Kyi belongs to upgradation in caste system of India
(a) South Korea (b) North Korea (a) Urbanisation
(c) Myanmar (d) China (b) Occupational mobility
(c) Caste hierarchy
4. Which among the following is not a permanent
(d) None of the above
member of United Nation Security Council?
(a) Russia (b) UK (c) France (d) Germany 11. In India seats are reserved for women in
(a) Lok Sabha
5. How many numbers are there in the Security Council (b) State Legislative Assemblies
of the United Nation? (c) Cabinet
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20 (d) Panchayati Raj Bodies
6. 10 non-permanent member of Security Council 12. Shift of population from rural areas to urban areas
elected for the term of termed as
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 3 years (d) 2 years (a) occupational mobility (b) urbanisation
7. The term patriarchal society means (c) migration (d) caste hierarchy
(a) When women are the decision makers and hold positions of 13. When was universal adult franchise granted in India
power and prestige (a) 1952 (b) 1947 (c) 1950 (d) 1958
(b) When men are the decision makers and hold position and
power and prestige 14. Whom among the following is the present Secretary
(c) Society where both man and woman having equal status in General of United Nation Organisation?
decision making (a) Kofi Annan (b) Ban Ki Moon
(d) None of the above (c) Trygveli (d) Uthant

High Skill Questions

1. Match the following 2. Match the following
List I List II List I List II
A. Homogeneous 1. A woman or a man who believes in A. Veto 1. A condition under which the freedom of
Society equal rights and opportunities for expression is taken away citizens have to
women and men. take prior permission from censor
B. Migrant 2. Those laws that deals with family authorities of government for making
related matters such as marriage, speech or publishing news
adoption etc. B. Martial law 2. The right of a person, party or nation to
C. Family Laws 3. Anybody who shifts from one region stop a certain decision or law
or country to another region within a C. Communist 3. When a military authority takes control of
country or to another country. State the normal administration of justice.
D. Feminist 4. A society that has similar kinds of D. Censorship 4. A state governed by communist party
people especially where there are no without allowing other parties to compete
significant ethnic differences. for power.
Codes Codes
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
Democracy and Related Phenomena 665
3. Which of the following statements is/are true? Codes
A B C D
1. Promotes equality among peoples.
(a) 2 4 1 3
2. Improve the quality of decision making. (b) 2 1 4 3
3. Provide a method to resolve conflict. (c) 1 2 3 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (d) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 9. The green belt movement is related with which
4. Which of the following international organisation country?
maintaining peace and security among countries? (a) Zimbabwe
(a) Gerneral Assembly (b) International Monetary Fund (b) Kenya
(c) UN Security Council (d) None of these (c) Nigeria
(d) Sri Lanka
5. Democracy is a form of government in which
10. Match the following
1. rulers elected by the people take all the major
decision List I List II
2. election offer a choice and fair opportunity to the
people to change the current rulers A. Organisation that seek to 1. Movement
promote the enterest of a
3. the choice and opportunity is available to all the particular section or group
people on an equal basis
B. Organisation that mobilise 2. Public interest Group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below people with a view to win
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these political power
6. Which among the following countries has no official C. Organisation that seek to 3. Sectional interest Group
promote common interest
religion?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Pakistan (c) England (d) India D. Struggled launched for the 4. Political Parties
resolution of a social problem
7. In dealing with social division which one of the with or without an organisa-
following statements is not correct about democracy? tional structure
(a) Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity
Codes
(b) Democracy always leads to disintegration of society on the
A B C D
basis of social division
(a) 2 4 3 1
(c) Due to political competition in a democracy, social division get
(b) 3 4 1 2
reflected in politics
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) In a democracy it is possible for communities to voice their
(d) 3 4 2 1
grievances in a peaceful manner
11. Wangari Mathai is a famous
8. Match the following
(a) politician of Kenya
List I List II (b) leader of Kenya
(c) environmental and poltical activist of Kenya
A. Power shared among different 1. Community Government.
(d) None of the above
organs of government
B. Power shared among 2. Separation of Power 12. Who among was the leader of Chinese revolution?
governments of different (a) Huzintao
levels (b) Aung San Suu Kyi
C. Power shared by different 3. Coalition Government (c) Mao Tse-Tung
social groups (d) Zambegi
D. Power shared by two or more 4. Federal Government.
political parties

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c)
 Chapter
4
Electoral Process in India
and Political Parties
In a democracy it is not possible for people to govern
directly. If we talk about India on in perspective of India
because of its large size due to its geographical area and
due to its population size it is quite easy and beneficial,
if we work in a channel through elected people.
There are more than hundred countries in the world in
which election occurs to choose people's representative.
We also know that in most of the countries election
occurs but they are not democratic.
Election
Election is a process through which people can choose
their representative at regular interval and make a
change whenever it is required hence this mechanism is
called election.
Condition of a Democratic Election
(i) Everyone should be able to choose their candidate
and every one should have one vote and every vote
have equal value.
(ii) Political parties and candidates should be free to
contest elections and offer real choice to the voters.
(iii) Election must be held regularly at regular interval.
Election are all about political competition and it is good
to have political competition because this is the way
that we can select our future leaders. Regular electoral
competition good for both political parties and leaders.
They know that if they can raise issues that people want
to be raised, their popularity and chances of victory will
increase in the next elections but if they fail to satisfy
the voters with their work then they will not able to win
again.
Election in India
Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (Assembly) election are
held regularly after every five year. After the five years
the term of all the elected representatives comes
to an end. The Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha stands
‘dissolved’.
General Election
Elections are held in all constituencies at the same time,
either on the same day or within a few days. This called
a general election.
By Election
If any vacancy occurs due to death or resignation of a
member, then election is held only for one constituency
to fill the vacancy.
In India we follow area based system of representation
our country divided into different areas for purposes of
elections, are called electoral constituencies.
MP In Lok Sabha election if representative elected
from their Constituencies are called member of
Parliament or an MP.
MLA Each state is divided into a specific number of
Assembly constituencies. In this case the elected
representative is called the Member of Legislative
Assembly or MLA.
Nomination of Candidates
There is no any restriction on any one to contest an
election. Every one who wishes to contest an election
has to fill a nomination form and deposit some security.
Electoral Process in India and Political Parties
Recently Supreme Court of India declared that every
candidate has to make a legal declaration giving full
details of
(i) Any serious criminal cases pending against him
(ii) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and
his/her family
(iii) Education qualification of the candidate
This all information has to be made public which
provides opportunity to the voters to make their decision
on the basis of information provided by the candidate.
Election Campaign
In our country such compaigns take place for a two week
period between the announcement of the final list of
candidates and the date of polling. The candidates
contact their voters, through election meeting and
political parties mobilise their supporters to make
people aware of their coming plan.
During this election campaign according to our election
law no party or candidate can
(i) give bribe or threaten voters
(ii) appeal to vote in the name of caste or religion
Code of Conduct According to this no party can
(i) use any place of worship for election propaganda
(ii) use government vehicles, aircrafts etc
Ballot Paper It is a sheet of paper in which name of
candidate and his party name with symbol are listed but
now a day EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) are used to
record votes.
In our country election is conducted by an independent
and powerful body termed as Election Commission.
Election Commission
In our country elections are conducted by an
independent and very powerful Election commission. It
consist of one chief election commissioner and two other
election commissioner.
Term Appointment
Appointed by president of India but once appointed, he
is not answerable to the president or the government.
Powers
l Conduct election from announcement to declaration of
results.
l It implement code of conduct and punishes any
candidates or party who violates it.
l He can give certain guideline with regard to election and
every party or candidate has to follow it whether they
like it or not.
l On election duty government officers work under the
control of EC and not the government
667
Obstacles of Free Fair Election
l Because of having criminal background on criminal
connection, candidates put others out of the electoral race
and to secure a ticket from major parties.
l Smaller parties and independent candidates suffer a
huge disadvantage compared to bigger parties.
l Some families tend to dominate political parties, tickets
are distributed to relatives from these families.
Political Parties
A political party is a group of people wanting to hold and
maintain power within the government. Political parties
are one of the most visible institution in a democracy.
l It will advertise a common commitment by its leaders
and its membership to a set of political, social, economic
and cultural values that distinguish it from other
political parties.
l It includes three components.
(i) the leader (ii) the active members (iii) the followers
Functions
l They contest elections by putting up their selected
candidates. Candidates are either selected by member
and supporters of a party or top leaders chase
candidates for contesting election.
l Political parties offers different policies and programmers
and voters have the right to choose from them. They
reduce a vast multitude opinion into a few basic positions
which it supports. It is the ruling party that decides lines
and directions of ruling the government.
l Political parties form and run governments and political
executives from such party takes big policy decisions.
l They play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
l The losing political party plays the role of opposition to
the parties in power. They raise their voice on
government failures and wrong policies.
l Political parties provide access to government machinery
and welfare scheme implemented by governments.
Party System Existed in India
In a democracy any one can form political party hence in
India more than 750 parties are registered with the
election commission of India. But few amongst them
effectively in the race to win.
One Party System Countries where only one party is
allowed to control and run the government are called
one party system e.g., China, only communist party is
allowed to rule.
Two Party System It is a system where two major
political parties dominate voting in nearly all elections at
every level of government and as a result nearly all elected
offices are members of one of the two major parties.
e.g., UK and USA
668
l Multi Party System If is condition where more than
two political parties are in serious contention for power,
alone or in coalition. Thus in India we have multiparty
system.
l Alliance When several parties in a multi-party system
join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and
winning power it is called an alliance.
Types of Political Parties in India
India has a multi party system with predominance of
small regional parties. India have two kinds of political
parties
(i) National Party Party secures at least 6% of total
votes in Lok Sabha election or Assembly election in
four statar and winus at least four seats in Lok Sabha
termed as national party.
(ii) State Party Party secures at least 6% of total votes
in an election of the Legislative Assembly of state
and wins at least two seats is recognised as a state
party. Over the last three decade the number and
strength of these parties has expended.
Now-a-days no singal national party is able to secure
on its own a majority in Lok Sabha. Hence it led to
form alliances with state parties.
Some of the example of state parties in different
stater are as
Major Political Parties in India
(i) INC (Indian National Congress) One of the oldest
party of world founded in 1885. INC emerges as the
largest party in 2009 election and secure 206 seat in
15th Lok Sabha.
(ii) BJP (Bhartiya Janta Party) It is the second largest
party in terms of representation in Parliament by
securing 116 seat
l establish : in 1980
l BJP headed the national govt. along with NDA
from 1998 to 2004 while defeated by INC in 2004
election
Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Election held after every 5 years is termed as
(a) by election (b) general election
(c) electoral constituencies (d) None of these
2. Chief Election Commission of India appointed by
(a) Prime Minister (b) Vice President
(c) President (d) Lok Sabha Speaker
3. The Election Commission of India is a
(a) advisory body (b) non permanent body
(c) independent body
(d) permanent and an independent body
Study Package for NTSE
(iii) BSP (Bahujan Samaj Party) It is the IInd largest
party having 10 member in 16th Lok Sabha election.
l Establish by Kanshi Ram in 1984
l Succeeded by Mayawati in 2003, symbol is Elephant
(iv) CPIM (Communist Party of India Marxist) It
emerged out of a dicision within the communist party
of India.
l Establish in 1964
l It has strong presence in the States of Kerala, West
Bangal, and Tripura. As of 2011, CPI (M) is leading
the State government in Tripura.
l It followes the principles of Marxist philosophy.
(v) CPI (Communist Party of India)
l It believes in Marxism-Leninism and supports
socialism, secularism and democracy and opposes
imperialism and communalism.
l Founded in 1925
l It has significant presence in the States of Kerala,
West Bengal, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu.
(vi) NCP (National Congress Party)
l After Split in the Congress Party, it formed in 1999
by Sharad Pawar, PA Sangma and Tariq Anwar.
l Its significant presence in Maharashtra, Meghalaya,
Manipur and Assam.
(vii) AITC (All India Trinamool Congress)
l Its formed in 1998 by its founder Mamta Banerjee.
l Its most active in West Bengal.
l It is the fifth largest party in 16th Loksabha
Election.
(viii) NPP (National People’s Perty)
l It is founded by P.A. Sangma after his expulsion
from the NCP in July 2012.
l It is most concentrated in the state of Meghalya.
l It is the first political party from North-East State.
4. The salary and allowances of Chief Election
Commission and other commissioner of India is
changed upon
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of India
(c) According to desire of President
(d) Fixed by the Parliament
5. Chief Election Commissioner removed from his office
in same manner and on the grounds as judges of
(a) High Court (b) Supreme Court
(c) Civil Court (d) None of these
Electoral Process in India and Political Parties 669
6. Who among the following revise electoral rolls and 11. Code of conduct means
register of all eligible voters (a) A guidelines given to Chief Election Commission of India
(a) Prime Minister under which he has to work
(b) President (b) A set of norms and guidelines to be followed by political
(c) Vice President parties and contesting candidate during election time.
(d) Election Commission of India (c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
7. At the State level, the Election Commission is
assisted by 12. Which among the following is not a challenge to
(a) District Magistrate political parties in democratic country
(b) Chief Minister (a) Lack of internal democracy
(c) Governor
(b) Dynastic succession
(d) Chief Electoral Officer
(c) Money and muscle power
8. Chief electoral Officer is appointed by (d) None of these
(a) District Collector of respective district 13. Who among the following is the founder of Bahujan
(b) CM of respective state
Samaj Party?
(c) Chief Election Commission
(d) Chief Election Commission in consultation with state (a) Sonu Mahraj
government (b) Moti Lal Nehru
(c) BR Ambedkar
9. On which day voters day celebrated (d) Kanshi Ram
(a) 26 January
14. A signed document submitted to an officer where a
(b) 24 January
person makes a sworn statement regarding her
(c) 25 January
personal information is called
(d) 21 January
(a) Rigging (b) Affidavit
10. The term rigging means (c) Formal paper (d) None of these
(a) Fraud and malpractices indulged by a party on candidate to
increase its votes 15. Changing party allegiance from the party on which a
(b) It is a system through which any person having criminal person got elected to a different party called
cases can contest election (a) Defection
(c) Under this any political party without declaring its assets (b) Rigging
contest election (c) Affidavit
(d) None of the above (d) None of these

High Skill Questions

1. Match the following 2. Match the following
List I List II List I List II

A. A person who is strongly committed 1. Rigging A. INC 1. 1980

to a party, group of function B. BJP 2. 1984
B. Changing party allegiance from 2. Code of C. BSP (Bahujan Samajwadi Party) 3. 1885
the party on which a person Conduct D. CPI 4. 1925
got elected to a different party
C. Frand and Malpractices indulged 3. Defection Codes
by a party or candidate to increase A B C D
its votes (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 3 4 1
D. A set of norms and guidelines to be 4. Partisans
followed by political parties and 3. What makes an election democratic?
contesting candidates during (a) Every one should have one vote and every vote have
election time
equal value
Codes (b) Election must be held after every 5 years
A B C D (c) Candidate preferred by the people should get elected
(a) 4 3 1 2
(d) Free and fair election
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) 3 2 4 1 (a) a and b (b) a, b and c
(c) a and c (d) All of these
670 Study Package for NTSE

4. Which among the following is true 6. Which among the following statement is correct in
(a) Supreme Court made if mandatory to file an affidavit giving context of election commissioner of India?
details of property those who are contesting election (a) Election commissioner holds the office until he attain the
(b) The constitution do not restricts to MLA's and MP's from age of 65
changing parties in order to become minister or for cash
(b) He is appointed by chief justice of India
reward
(c) Salary and allowances charged upon Consolidated Fund of
(c) Both a and b
India.
(d) Only a
(d) Both a and c
5. Which among the following is condition of a
democratic election? 7. By election occurs when
(a) if any vacancy occurs due to foreign tour of leader/minister
(a) Politicle parties and candidates should be free to contest
election (b) if any vacancy occurs due to death or resignation
(b) Election must be held regularly at every few year (c) Both a and b
(c) Every one should be able to choose their candidate (d) Only b
(d) All of the above

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (a) (b) (d) (a) (a) (d) (d)
 Chapter
5
Power Sharing and
Federalism
Power Sharing
The idea of power sharing has emerged in opposition to
the notions of undivided political power. For a long time
it was believed that all power of government must
reside in one person or group of persons located at one
place.
Belgium and Sri Lanka
l Belgium is a small country in Europe. It has borders
with France, the Netherland, Germany and
Luxembourg.
l The ethnic composition of this small country is very
complex. 59% of countries population lives in Flemish
region and speaks Dutch language.
l Another 40% of people live in Wallonia region and speak
French and remaining 1% speak German.
l Capital city Brussels where 80% people speak French
and 20% are Dutch speaking.
l The minority French speaking community was
relatively rich and powerful which led to dissatisfaction
between Dutch speaking and French speaking because
Dutch get benefit of economic development much later.
Accommodation in Belgium
l To lessen the conflict between Dutch speaking and
French speaking the Belgium leader work out an
arrangement that would enable everyone to live
together within the same country.
l Constitution make an arrangement of equal
representation of both Dutch and French speaking in
Central Government. Thus, no single community can
make decision unilaterally.
l Many powers of the Central Government given to State
Government of two region hence State Governments are
not subordinate to the Central Government.
l Brussels has a separate government in which both
communities enjoy equal representation.
l Apart from the central and state government. There is a
third kind of Government i.e., community government
which is elected by people belonging to one language
community- Dutch, French and German—speaking.
î European Union Headquarters is in Brussels.
Accommodation in Sri Lanka
l Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few km off the
Southern coast of Tamil Nadu.
l It has a diverse population in which 74% speaks Sinhala
while 18% enjoy to speak Tamil.
l Among Tamils there are two-subgroup
(i) Sri Lankan Tamil Tamil natives of the country are
called Sri Lankan Tamil.
(ii) Indian Tamil Whose fore fathers came from India as
plantation workers during colonial period are called
Indian Tamil.
Most of the Sinhala speaking are Buddhist while
most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims.
l There are about 7% Christian who are both Tamil and
Sinhala.
l Due to vast majority, Sinhala speakers dominance over
government by virtue of their majority. Which, led to the
series of majoriterian measures to establish Sinhala
supremacy.
l In 1956, Sinhala adopted as official language, thus
disregarding Tamil.
l The Government policies which always focus on Sinhala
group get beneficial more than Tamil led to the increased
the feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils.
672
l As a result relations between Sinhala and Tamil
communities strained over time.
l The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles
for the recognition of Tamil as an official language,
equality of opportunities. In securing education and jobs
but their demands were repeatedly denied.
l In 1980, several political parties demanding Tamil Eelam
(State) in Northern and Eastern part of Sri Lanka.
l Distrust between two communities turns into
widesprede conflict which turned into a civil war. As a
result many people of both communities have been
killed and lost their livelihoods.
Benefits of Power Sharing
Power sharing is good because it reduce the possibility
of conflict between social groups.
It is good to ensure the stability of political order.
Forms of Power Sharing
In modern democracies power sharing take many forms
(i) Powered is shared among different organs of government,
such a legislature, executive, judiciary. Such a separation
ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited
power. Each organs check the others and this
arrangement is called a system of check and balances.
(ii) It can be shared among government at different levels
such a general government for the entire country is
usually called federal government and at the regional or
provincial level they are termed to different names in
India, we call it as State Government. Same principles
can be extended to levels of government lower than State
Government i.e. municipality and panchayat.
(iii) Power may be shared among different social groups such
as religious and linguistic groups. e.g., community
government in Belgium.
(iv) Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the
way political parties, pressure groups and movements
control or influence those in power.
Some countries provide constitutional and legal
arrangement for socially weaker section and women are
represented in the legislature and administration to
give space in government and administration to diverse
social group who otherwise would feel alienated from
government.
Fedralism
It is a system in which the power is divided between the
central authority and various constituent units of the
country. A federation consist two forms of government
i.e, one is government of entire country and other
governments of states that look after day-to-day
administering of their state or Province Both level of
government enjoy independent power.
Study Package for NTSE
In federal system the Central Government cannot order
the State Government to do something. State
Government has its own power which is not answerable
to the Central Government. Both these government are
separately answerable to the people.
Key Features of Federalism
Following are the key features of federalism
l There are two or more levels of Government.
l Different tiers of government govern the same citizens,
but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters.
The fundamental provision of Constitution can’t be
l
unilaterally changed by one level of government.
l If any disputes arises between different levels then court
has the power to interpret.
l The federal system safeguard as well as promote unity of
country.
l Sources of revenue for each level of government are
clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
There are two kinds of route through which federation
have been formed. The first route involves independent
states coming together to form a bigger unit e.g., USA,
Switzerland and Australia.
What makes India a Federal Country
The Constitution declared India as Union of States
although it didnot use the word federation, the Indian
Union based on the principles of federalism.
Constitution originally provided for a two tier system of
government i.e., Central Government and State
Government.
l Constitution provided them a separate jurisdiction to
Central Government, State Government and Panchayat.
l All states in India are not having not identical powers
like Jammu and Kashmir as it enjoy special status.
l There are some units of Indian Union which holds least
powers like Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Delhi are the
union territories. These do not enjoy power of state.
l On the provision of power sharing there is need of two
third majority passed by each house of Parliament then
it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of
the states.
l In case any dispute arises on division of powers High
Court and Supreme Court make a decision.
How Federalism Practiced
The real success of federalism in India can be attributed
to the nature of democratic polities in our country. It
ensured that the sprit of federalism respect for diversity
and desire for living together shared ideal in our
country. Some of the ways in that the sprit of federalism
which this happened
Power Sharing and Federalism
Linguistic State
Creation of linguistic states was the first and major test
for democratic politics in our country. Demand of state on
linguistic basis, made the country more united.
Language Policy
A Second test for Indian federation is language policy.
Our Constitution did not give status of national
language to any one language.
l Hindi was identified as official language But hindi is the
mother tongue of only about 40 % of indians.
l Apart from Hindi there are 22 language recognised as
scheduled languages by Constitution.
l According to the Constitution, the use of english for
official purposes was to stop in 1965. However, many
non-Hindi speaking states demanded that the use of
english continue.
Centre-State Relation
Restructuring the centre state-relation is one more way
in which federalism has been strengthened in practice.
l The Constitutional arrangements for sharing power
work in reality depends to a large extent on how the
ruling parties and leaders follow these arrangements.
l All this changed significantly after 1990.
l This was the era of the coalition Governments at the
center.
l This led to a new culture of power sharing and respect
for the autonomy of State Government.
673
Decentralisation in India
When power is taken from Central and State
government and given to local Government, it is called
decentralisation. A major step towards decentralisation
was taken in 1992. Under 73rd Amendment Act of 1992
Constitution give status to the Panchayati Raj
institution.
l Rural local government is popularly known as
Panchayati Raj
l Each village, or group of villages in some state has a
Gram Panchayat. In this, several ward members often
called Panch and President as Sarpanch.
l The Panchayat work under Gram Sabha.
l A few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form
Panchayat Samiti or block or mandal. The members of
Panchayat Samiti were elected by all Panchayat
members in that area.
l All the Panchayat Samities on mandals in a district
together constitute Zilla Parishad.
Municipality
l Similarly local government bodies exist for urban areas as well as it set
up in towns.
l
Municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by elected
bodies consisting of peoples’s representatives.
l
Municipal chairperson is the poltical head of the muncipality,
generally termed as Mayor.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Sinhala is an official language of 6. Rural local government is popularly known as
(a) Belgium (b) Pakistan (c) Nepal (d) Sri Lanka (a) municipality (b) panchayati Raj
(c) local Government (d) rural government
2. Headquarters of European Union is in
(a) New York (b) Sri Lanka 7. ‘Panch and Sarpanch’ is important part of
(c) Brussels (d) None of these (a) municipality (b) urban government
(c) rural government (d) panchayati raj
3. Violent conflict between opposing groups within a
country that becomes so intense that it appears like a 8. Which among the following states get special status
war called and having its own constitution
(a) World War (b) Regional War (a) Delhi (b) Chandigarh
(c) Civil War (d) State War (c) Shimla (d) Jammu and Kashmir
9. English for official purpose was stop in
4. Dutch speaking community belongs to
(a) 1948 (b) 1960 (c) 1965 (d) 1970
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Brussels
(c) Nepal (d) None of these 10. How many language officially incorporated in Indian
Constitution?
5. When power is taken away from Central and State
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 24
Government and given to local government, is called
(a) decentralisation (b) coalition 11. Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in
(c) centralisation (d) None of these (a) 1946 (b) 1947 (c) 1948 (d) 1949
674 Study Package for NTSE

High Skill Questions

1. Power sharing is desirable because 6. Consider the following statements
(a) it reduces the conflict between social groups 1. Panchayat works under the overall supervision of
(b) if ensure the stability of political order the Gram Sabha
(c) Only a
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
2. Gram Sabha meet atleast twice or thrice in a year
3. All the Panchayat Samiti or Mandals in a district
2. Community government is elected by together constitutes Zilla Parishad
(a) people belonging to one language community
4. Few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form
(b) people belonging to more than one language community
called Panchayat Samiti or Block Mandal
(c) there is no any community government in the world
(d) None of the above Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
3. In the context of Belgium which one of the following is
true? 7. Distinguishing feature of a federal Government is
(a) Number of Dutch and French speaking minister be equal in (a) national government gives some powers to the provincial
strength in Central Government government
(b) Many power of government given to state (b) power is distributed among the legislature, executive and
(c) In Brussels 80% people speak French judiciary
(d) All of the above (c) elected officials exercise supreme power in government
4. According to which Act Sinhala recognise as the only (d) government power is divided between different levels of
official language of Sri Lanka? government
(a) Act of 1948 8. Match the following
(b) Act of 1949
(c) Act of 1956 List I List II
(d) Act of 1950 A. State Government 1. Union List
5. Consider the following statements about power B. Central Government 2. State List
sharing arrangement in Belgium and Sri Lanka. C. Central and State Government 3. Concurrent List
1. Iin Belgium, the Dutch speaking majority people tried
Codes
to impose their domination on the minority French A B C A B C
speaking community (a) 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 3
2. In Sri Lanka the policy, of government generally (b) 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 3
benefit the dominance of Sinhala speaking majority 9. Match List I with List II and select correct answer
3. In Sri Lanka, Tamil demanded federal arrangement using the codes given below
of power sharing
List I List II
4. The transformation of Belgium from unitary
A. State 1. Prime Minister
government to a federal one prevented a possible
B. Union of India 2. Mayor
division of the country on linguistic line
C. Gram Panchayat 3. Governor
Which of the statements given above are correct?
D. Municipal Corporation 4. Sarpanch
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4 Codes
(c) 3 and 4 A B C D A B C D
(d) All of the above (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 3 1 4

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c)

High Skill Questions

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c)

Chapter
1
Agriculture and Allied
Activities
Farming-Base of Village Economy
Farming is the main activity in the rural areas and
villages. Whereas several other activities such as dairy,
transport, small scale manufacturing etc are carried out
on a limited scale. These production activities need
various types of resources-natural resources, man made
items, human effort, money etc.
Factors Required For Production
The aim of production is to produce the goods and
services than the people required. There are four
requirements for production of goods and services.
l The first requirement is Land and other natural
resources such as water, forests and minerals.
l The second requirement is Labour. i. e., the people who
do the work some production activities require highly
educated worker to perform the necessary task. Other
activities require workers who can do mannual work.
Each worker is providing the labour necessary for
production.
l The third requirement is Physical Capital, the variety
of inputs required at every stage during production. The
physical capital consists of fixed capital and working
capital.
(i) Fixed Capital Tools, machinery, and building are
termed as fixed capital as these can be used for many
years.
(ii) Working Capital Raw material and money in
hand termed as working capital. Some money is
always required during production to make
payments and buy other necessary items.
Part-VIII : Economics
l The fourth requirement is the knowledge and
enterprise to be able to put together land, labour and
physical capital and produce an output either to use for
themselves or to sell in the market. The fourth
requirement can be termed as Human Capital.
Role of Electricity and Green Revolution
The availability of electricity has transformed the
system of irrigation from drawing the water from wells
and irrigate small fields to electric-run tube wells which
irrigate much larger areas of land more effectively.
l The large use of electric-run tube wells facilitates the
farmers to adopt multiple cropping pattern and results
in increasing the production.
l Farmers of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh
were the first to try out the modern method green
revolution in India. In the field of wheat production.
l In many areas, the green revolution is responsible for
the loss of soil fertility due to increased use of chemical
fertilizers, reduction in the level of ground water and
cause many environmental hazards.
l Chemical fertilizers provide minerals which dissolve in
water and are immediately available to plants. But
these may not be retained in the soil for long.
Landless Labourers
l The main cause of the farmers poor economic conditions
is the fragmentation of land the division of one plot of
land among male members of the family. Cultivation of
such plots does not bring adequate income to the
farmer’s family which leads to the creation of landless
labourers in the large number.
676 Study Package for NTSE

l These landless labourers which in the fields of farmers
on the daily wages, work must regularly look for work.
Due to heavy competition for work among the labourers,
they agree to work on lower wages.
l The minimum floor level wages is ` 150 fixed by the
Government of India
Capital-Need and Mobilisation
l The modern farming methods require a great deal
of capital, now the farmer require more money than
before.
l Most of the small farmers have to borrow money to
arrange for the capital. They borrow from large farmers
or moneylenders or the traders who supply various
inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is
very high. They are put to great distress to repay the loan.
l In contrast to the small farmers, the medium and large
farmers have their own saving from farming. They are
thus able to arrange for the capital needed.
Non-Farm Activities
As agricultural is a seasonal work and for earning extra
money as well as earning throughout the year. People of
villages engaged in non farm activities such as diary,
transport, small scale manufacturing shops etc.
Dairy
Dairy is a common activity in many families of the
villages people feed their buffalos/cows on various kinds
of grass and the Jowar and Bajra that grows during the
rainy season. The milk is sold in the nearby market
place or to far away towns and cities.
Small Scale Manufacturing
Another from of non-farm activity is small scale
manufacturing which involves very simple production
methods and are done on a small scale keeping in view
of the needs of the people of village. They are carried out
mostly at home or in the fields with the help of family
labour rarely are labourer hired.
The Shopkeepers
The traders of village are shopkeeper who buy various
goods from wholesale markets in the cities and sell them
in the village. A wide range of items such as grossery -
Sugar, Tea, Oil, Rice, Wheat etc.
Transport A Fast Growing Sector
There are variety of vehicles on the road connecting
villages to cities e.g., ricksha, tonga, jeep, tractor and
people driving the traditional bullock cart are people in
the transport services. They carry people and goods
from one place to another and in return get paid for it.
The number of people involved in transport has grown
over the last several years.

Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. Which of the following is the main activity of the 5. Tools, machines, buildings can be used in production
people in village or rural areas? over many years. All of these are known as which
(a) Agricultural (b) Dairy capital ?
(c) Small manufacturing (d) None of these (a) Physical capital (b) Fixed capital
2. Apart from the agriculture the people of village (c) Working capital (d) None of these
engaged in which of the following activities 6. Raw materials and money in hand are form of which
economically? capital?
(a) Transport (b) Dairy (a) Fixed capital (b) Physical capital
(c) Small manufacturing (d) All of these (c) Working capital (d) None of these
3. Which of following resources required for production 7. The standard unit of measure in land is ?
activities in village or rural area? (a) Hectare (b) Bigha
(a) Natural resources (b) Money (c) Guintha (d) Square
(c) Human efforts (d) All of these 8. Which of the following is not an Kharif crop?
4. Which of the following is/are required for the (a) Rice
production of goods and services in the village? (b) Jowar
(a) Land (b) Labour (c) Bajra
(c) Physical capital (d) All of these (d) Wheat
Agriculture and ALlied Activities 677
9. Which of the following is not an Rabi Crop ? 10. Multiple cropping refers to?
(a) Wheat (a) To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the
(b) Barley year
(c) Rapeseed (b) To grow different crops on a piece of land at the same time
(c) To grow different crops on a different piece of land
(d) Potato
(d) None of the above

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following factor is most important in 7. The use of the chemical fertilizers or consumption of
production of goods and services and able to put chemical fertilizers is highest in which of the
together land, labour and capital? following states in the country
(a) Physical capital (b) Knowledge and enterprise (a) Punjab (b) Haryana
(c) Working capital (d) None of these (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
2. Which of the following is/are true about agricultural 8. The cost of cultivation is rising very fast. Which of the
activities and production in rural area of village ? following factors are responsible for it?
(a) Farmers are able to grow multiple crops due to well (a) The use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
developed system of irrigation (b) Increasing cost of electricity
(b) Electricity has transformed the system of irrigation (c) Rising price of agricultural implements
(c) Green revolution made it possible to produce far larger (d) All of the above
quantities of food grains from the same piece of land 9. Match the following
(d) All of the above are true
List I List II
3. Which of the following is the feature of green
revolution? A. Land 1. Knowledge and enterprise
(a) Use of high yielding varieties of seeds B. Fixed capital 2. Raw material and money in hand
C. Working capital 3. Tools, machinery, building
(b) Plenty of water for irrigation
D. Human capital 4. Natural resources such as water,
(c) Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
forests, minerals
(d) All of the above
Codes
4. Farmers adopt multiple cropping system as it?
A B C D A B C D
(a) Increase the income
(b) Keep the farmers employed throughout the year (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) It maintains the fertility of soil (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
(d) None of the above 10. Match the following
5. Second green revolution is related to the production
List I List II
of which crop?
(a) Wheat (b) Rice A. Green revolution 1. Dairy Products
(c) Oilseeds (d) Sugarcane B. Non-farm activity 2. Natural resources, money,
human effort
6. Which of the following is/are drawbacks of the green C. Production of goods 3. Dairy, transport, small
revolution? and services manufacture
(a) Loss of soil fertility due to increased use of chemical and D. White revolution 4. Have Seeds, chemical
fertilizers fertilizers and pesdicities
(b) Continuous use of ground water for tubewell irrigation has Codes
reduced the water level below the ground A B C D A B C D
(c) Chemical fertilizers and pesticides escapes from the soil
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
and pollute ground water, river and lakes
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
(d) All of the above

Answers
Elementary Level
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)

High Skill Questions

1. (b) (d) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (a) (a)
 Chapter
2
People as Resource
Anything that can be used to satisfy a need is a
resource. Water, electricity, a vegetable and textbook
have something in common. They have all been used by
you, so they have utility. A utility or usability is what
makes an object or substance a resource.
l Things became resources only when they have a value.
All resources have some value. Value means worth.
Some resources have economic value, some do not. Metal
may have an economic value, a beautiful landscape may
not. But both are important and satisfy human needs.
l Some resources can become economically valuable with
time. Your grandmother’s home remedies have no
commercial value today. But, if they are patented and
sold by a medical firm tomorrow, they could became
economically valuable.
l Time and technology are two important factors that can
change substances into resources.
l People can make the best use of nature to create more
resources when they have the knowledge, skill and the
technology to do so. That is why human beings are a
special resource. People are human resources.
l People as Resource is a way of referring to a
country’s working people in terms of their existing
productive skills and abilities. Education and health
help in making people a valuable resource. Improving
the quality of people’s skill so that, they are able to
create more resources is known as Human Resource
Development.
Economic Activities : Primary,
Secondary and Tertiary Sectors
The various economic activities performed by the people
have been classified into three main sectors
Primary Sector Includes production of raw material or
making direct use of nature resources.
Primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, animal
husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, mining and
quarrying.
Secondary Sector Includes producing processed and
manufactored goods.
Manufacturing is included in the secondary sector.
Tertiary Sector It includes producing services.
Trade, transport, communication, banking, education,
health, tourism, insurance etc are included in the
tertiary sector.
l Activities in these sectors result in the production of
goods and services. These activities add value to the
national income.
l These activities are called economic activities as they
involve remuneration to any one who performs, i.e.,
activity performed for pay or profit.
Quality of Population
l The quality of population depends upon the literacy
rate, health of a person indicated by life expectancy and
skill formation acquired by the people of the country.
l The quality of the population ultimately decides the
growth rate of the country. Illiterate and unhealthy
population are a liability for the economy. Literate and
healthy population are an asset for the country.
Education
Education in the initial years of life bears fruits in the
later years. It is an important input for the growth,
opens new horizons, and creates new aspirations and
values.
People as Resource
l It enhances national income, cultural richness and the
efficiency of governance.
l Literacy is not only a right, it is also needed if the
citizens are to perform their duties and enjoy their
rights properly.
l ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan’ is a significant step towards
providing elementary education to all children in the
age group of six to fourteen years by the Government. It
is a time-bound initiative of the central Government and
the community for achieving the goal of universalisation
of elementary education.
l Mid-Day Meal This scheme has been implemented to
encourage attendance and retention of children in
schools and improve their nutritional status.
Health
The health of a person helps him or her to realise his or
her potential and the ability to fight illness. An
unhealthy person becomes a liability for an
organisation or the nation.
Improvement in the health status of the population has
been the priority of the country. Over the last five
decades India has built up a vast health infrastructure
and has developed manifold power required at Primary,
Secondary and Tertiary sector in Government as well as
in the private sector.
Unemployment
Unemployment is said to exist when people who are
willing to work at the current wages cannot find jobs. In
India, we have unemployment in rural and urban areas.
The nature of unemployment differs in rural and urban
Target Exercise
Elementary Level
1. When investment is made in the form of education,
training and medical care on people this is known as
(a) fixed capital
(b) human capital
(c) working capital
(d) None of the above
2. People as a resource is a way of referring to a
country’s working people in terms of their existing
productive
(a) skills and abilities
(b) working capital
(c) national income
(d) None of the above
679
areas. In case of rural areas there is seasonal and
disguised unemployment. Urban areas have mostly
educated unemployment.
l Seasonal unemployment happens when people are
not able to find jobs during some months of the year.
People dependent upon agriculture usually face such
kind of unemployment.
l Disguised unemployment occurs when people appear
to be employed but are not fully employed. This usually
happens among family members engaged in agricultural
activity. The work requires the services of five people
but engages eight people. The contribution made by
three extra people does not add to the contribution made
by the five people. If three people are removed, the
productivity will not decline.
Effects of Unemployment
l Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower
resources. It also tends to increase economic overload.
l It effects the quality of life of people.
l It has detrimental impact on the overall growth of an
economy.
l It is an indicator of a depressed economy.
l Agriculture is the most labour absorbing sector of the
economy. There has been a decline in dependence of
population on agriculture partly because of disguised
unemployment. Some of the surplus labour in
agriculture has moved to either the secondary or the
tertiary sector.
l In the secondary sector, small scale manufacturing is
the most labour absorbing.
l In the tertiary sector various new services are now
appearing like biotechnology, information technology etc.
3. The total value of goods and services produced in one
year within the territory of a country is known as
(a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
(b) NNP
(c) Industrial Production
(d) None of the above
4. The population of a country without food, education
and health facilities will be an
(a) asset (b) liability
(c) non capital asset (d) None of these
5. Economic activities can be classified into
(a) primary (b) secondary
(c) tertiary (d) All of these
680 Study Package for NTSE

6. Which of the following is not a primary activity? 9. Activities involve remuneration to any one who
(a) Agriculture (b) Fishing (c) Mining (d) Tourism performs; activity performed for pay or profit is called
(a) market activity (b) national activity
7. Which of the following is not a tertiary activity?
(c) primary activity (d) None of these
(a) Banking (b) Education (c) Health (d) Forestry
10. Non-market activities are production for
8. Manufacturing is included in which activity?
(a) society (b) nation
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) self-consumption (d) None of these
(c) Tertiary (d) None of these

High Skill Questions

1. Which of the following is an example of how the input (b) An unhealthy person became a liability for the organisation/
of greater knowledge in the form of improved nation
production technologies can rapidly increase (c) Health is indispensable for realising one’s well being
productivity? (d) None of the above
(a) Green revolution (b) Multiple cropping system
(c) Landless labourers (d) None of these 8. If any work requires the services of five people but
engages eight people, the contribution made by the
2. Development in which sector is an example of how three extra people does not add to the contribution
the importance of human capital has come to acquire made by five people. If these three were removed, the
a higher position than that of material, plant and productivity of work will not decline. This is an
machinery? example of which kind of unemployment?
(a) Service Sector (b) Information Technology Sector
(a) Seasonal (b) Disguised
(c) Agriculture (d) None of these
(c) Urban employment (d) None of these
3. Human capital is in one way superior to other
9. Match the following
resources like land and physical capital because
(a) human resource can make use of land and capital List I List II
(b) land and capital are more useful
(c) they have easy access A. Market Activities 1. Tertiary service
(d) None of the above B. Manufacturing 2. Rural areas
C. Disguised Employment 3. Secondary activities
4. Primary, secondary and tertiary activities result in the D. Banking 4. Activity performed for pay or
production of goods and services which add value to profit
(a) national income (b) national wealth Codes
(c) national capital (d) None of these
A B C D A B C D
5. The household work done by women is an example of (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 1 3 2
which form of economic activity? (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
(a) Market activity (b) Non-market
10. Match the following
(c) Consumpti