Nta Ugc-Net Law: 5 Previous Year Papers With Answer Key

5 Previous Year Papers with Answer Key
(July 2018 to June 2020)
NTA UGC-NET Law
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General Paper-I (July 2018)
General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude

Previous Year Solved Paper (July 2018)
Time : 1 hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carries two (2)
marks. All questions are compulsory.
The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption
of rice in country P for the five year from 2012 to 2016. Answer questions 1 – 5 based on
the data contained in the table.
Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice

Production Exports Per Capita Consumption
Year
(in million kg) (in million kg) (in kg)
2012 186.5 114 36.25
2013 202 114 35.2
2014 238 130 38.7
2015 221 116 40.5
2016 215 88 42
Where, per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg)  (Population in million) and
consumption (in million kg) = Production – Exports.
1. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012–2016 ?
(1) 102.1 (2) 108
(3) 100.1 (4) 104
2. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million) ?
(1) 2.72 (2) 2.79
(3) 2.85 (4) 2.64
3. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year :
(1) 2013 (2) 2014
(3) 2015 (4) 2012
4. The percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in
which year ?
(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2013
5. In which year, the population of country was the highest ?

(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2013
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6. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and
going down to the largest unit :
(a) Kilobyte (b) Byte
(c) Megabyte (d) Terabyte
(e) Gigabyte (f) Bit
Give your answer from the following code :
(1) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c) (2) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(3) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e) (4) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
7. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India ?

(1) Untreated sewage (2) Agriculture run-off
(3) Thermal power plants (4) Unregulated small scale industry
8. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when
he receives the message ?
To… ram@test.com
Cc… raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
Bcc… swami@test.com; rama@test.com
(1) ram@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
(2) ram@test.com; rama@test.com
(3) ram@test.com; rama@test.com; raj@test.com; ravi@test.com
(4) ram@test.com
9. Assertion (A) : Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.

Reason (R) : The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
10. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph.D programme in :
(1) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs
(2) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities
(3) IITs and IISc
(4) State and Central Universities
11. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, identify the correct sequence
of energy sources - Thermal Power Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear
Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind energy, biomass and
small hydropower projects.
(1) TPP > LHP > RE > NE (2) LHP > TPP > RE > NE
(3) LHP > TPP > NE > RE (4) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

12. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting ?
(a) It is a separate budget addressing the specific needs of women.
(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.
(c) It is an accounting exercise.
(d) It is another budgeting innovation.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
13. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power than previous
Laptop models.
Which of the following technologies has been used to accomplish this ?
(1) Faster Random Access Memory (2) Blu Ray Drive
(3) Solid State Hard Drive (4) Universal Serial Bus Mouse
14. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :

(a) the Central Information Commissioner
(b) the Central Vigilance Commissioner
(c) the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission
(d) the Chairperson of National Commission for Women
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
15. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end ?
(1) Landslides (2) Hurricanes
(3) Droughts (4) Earthquakes
16. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an eco friendly resource for use in :
(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient (b) wasteland development
(c) dam and water holding structures (d) brick industry
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
17. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India ?
(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants
(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules
(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens
(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

18. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after :
(a) The United States of America (b) Australia
(c) China (d) United Kingdom (U.K.)
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
19. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE ?
P : Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
Q : Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory.
R : Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory
(1) Q only (2) P and Q only
(3) P and R only (4) P only
20. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE ?
P : ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical Technology.
Q : Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone
and computer networks through a common cabling system.
(1) Q only (2) P and Q
(3) Neither P nor Q (4) P only
21. In the two sets given below Set-I indicates methods of teaching while Set-II provides the “basic
requirements for success/ effectiveness. Match the two sets and indicate your answer “by choosing
from the code :
Set-I Set-II
(Method of Teaching) (Basic Requirements
for Success/Effectiveness)
(a) Lecturing (i) Small step presentation with feedback
provided
(b) Discussion in groups (ii) Production of large number of ideas
(c) Brainstorming (iii) Content delivery in a lucid language
(d) Programmed Instructional (iv) Use of teaching-aids
procedure.
(v) Theme based interaction among participants
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

22. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively
greater ?
(1) Presenting a seminar paper
(2) Participation in research conference
(3) Participation in a workshop
(4) Preparing research summary
23. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching ?
Indicate your answer by selecting from the code.
(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.
(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.
(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.
(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.
(e) A teacher is a senior person.
(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (e) (2) (a), (c) and (f)
(3) (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
24. There are two sets given below. Set - I specifies the types of research, while Set - II indicates
their characteristics. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set-I Set-II
(Research types) (Characteristics)
(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of
an intervention
(b) Applied research (ii) Developing an effective explanation through
theory building.
(c) Action research (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of
interventions
(d) Evaluative research (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in
various situations
(v) Enriching technological resources
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
25. The problem of 'research ethics' is concerned with which aspect of research activities ?
(1) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative techniques
(2) Defining the population of research
(3) Evidence based research reporting
(4) Following the prescribed format of a thesis
26. Which of the following sequences of research steps is nearer to scientific method ?
(1) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition,
Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the suggested solution and Testing the
hypothesis in action.
(2) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing
a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.
(3) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a
sample, Collecting data and arriving at generalizations and Conclusions.
(4) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving
the problem situation, Location of the difficulty and testing the solutions.
27. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy ?
(1) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan (2) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect
(3) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect (4) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act
28. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching ?
(1) Educational status of the parents of the learner
(2) Peer groups of the learner
(3) Family size from which the learner comes
(4) Prior experience of the learner
29. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ' formative
evaluation'. Indicate your answer by choosing from the code :
(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.
(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.
(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.
(d) The teacher clarifies the doubts of students in the class itself.
(e) The overall performance of a students is reported to parents at every three months
interval.
(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (e)
(3) (b), (d) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
30. Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R) : All learning results from teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the following code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 31 to 35 :

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological
imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic dimensions : the people, the overall economy and the
strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’ dimension,
time, an offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to
continually shifting targets. We believe that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing
with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the people, the
economy in the global context and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the
heart of human history. Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment
in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually upgrade human skills. Without a
pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years
to come. The direct linkages of technology to the nation's strategic strengths are becoming more
and more clear, especially since 1990s. India's own strength in a number of core areas still puts
it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a
developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to
continually upgrade them through its own creative strengths. For people-oriented actions as well,
whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and
health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The
absence of greater technological impetus could lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious
natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis hurt
the poorest most. The technological imperatives to lift our people to a new life, and to a life they
are entitled to is important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade
and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on the strength of turnkey projects designed and built
abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how. Even
while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core
technological strengths within our industry are vital for envisioning a developed India.
31. Envisioning a developed India requires :
(1) Dependence upon projects designed abroad
(2) Focus on short-term projects
(3) Development of core technological strengths
(4) Aspiration to become a major economic player
32. Absence of technology would lead to :

(a) Less pollution
(b) Wastage of precious natural resources
(c) Low value addition
(d) Hurting the poorest most
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
33. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

(1) Importing plant machinery
(2) Sidelining environmental issues
(3) Lifting our people to å life of dignity
(4) Unbridled technological growth
34. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension ?
(a) Aspirations of people (b) Modern day dynamism
(c) Economy in the global context (d) Strategic interests
Codes :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
35. More productive employment demands :

(1) Limiting competitive market place (2) Geo-political considerations
(3) Large industries (4) Pervasive use of technology
36. Introducing Rakesh to her husband a women said, "His brother's father is the only son of my
grandfather". The woman is related to Rakesh as :
(1) Mother (2) Sister
(3) Daughter (4) Aunt
37. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication
process ?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.
(b) Communication is a learnt ability.
(c) Communication is not a universal panacea
(d) Communication cannot break-down
(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.
(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.
Codes :
(1) (b), (d), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (d), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
38. Assertion (A) : The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be
critical to establish interactions later.
Reason (R) : More control over the communication process means more control over what the
students are learning.
Codes :
39. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning ?

(1) Unchangeability in nature (2) Harmony in nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Law of identity

40. The next term in the series

ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ____,
is :
(1) ZCA (2) ZKW
(3) KZU (4) ZKU
41. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1 :
2. The numbers are :
(1) 20, 50 (2) 28, 70
(3) 32, 80 (4) 16, 40
42. If the proposition 'domestic animals are hardly ferocious' is taken to be false, which of the
following proposition/ propositions can be claimed to be certainly true ? Select the correct code :
Propositions :
(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.
(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.
(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.
(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.
Codes :
(1) (a) only (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) only (4) (a) and (b)
43. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R) : Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication
process.
Codes :
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method ?
(1) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.
(2) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical
syllogism.
(3) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.
(4) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.
45. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way
as a concave mirror collects all the rays that strike upon it into one point.
What type of reasoning is entailed in the above statement ?
(1) Psychological (2) Analogical
(3) Deductive (4) Mathematical

46. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom

communication is the basis of :
(1) selective affiliation to peer groups
(2) selective attention
(3) selective morality.
(4) selective expectation of performance
47. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

(1) HLZEOOQ (2) ZELHOQO
(3) LQOOFZH (4) LOQOZEH
48. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R) : A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students' responses are
purposive.
Select the correct code for your answer :
49. The next term in the series

–1, 5, 15, 29, _____,
is :
(1) 47 (2) 59
(3) 63 (4) 36
50. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code
that states validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises :
(1) Most of the dancers are physically fit.
(2) Most of the singers are dancers.
Conclusions :
(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.
(b) Most of the dancers are singers.
(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.
(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.
Codes :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (d) and (a) (4) (a) and (b)

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 2 4 1 3 2 1 1 4 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 1

Law Paper-II (PSP-2018 July)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper - 2018 July
Time : 2 hours Paper-II Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions, each question carries two (2) marks.
Attempt all the questions.
1. Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution
of India ?
(1) Legislation (2) Customs
(3) Usage having no force of law (4) Ordinance
2. Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term ‘martial law' ?
(1) Article 33 (2) Article 34
3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being a member of
either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the Government.
Reason (R) : If 'pecuniary gain' is receivable in connection with the office. Then it shall not
become an office of profit, irrespective of whether such gains are actually promised or not.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
4. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? Give answer by using the code
given below :
(a) The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of single non-transferable vote.
(b) The President may resign, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of
India.
(c) No resolution to remove the Vice-President of India from his office, shall be moves unless
at least thirty days notice has been given to him.
(d) Vice-President shall, not with standing the expiration of his term, continue to hold office
until his successor enters upon his office.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect (2) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(3) Only (a) and (b) are incorrect (4) Only (a) is incorrect

5. Match List-I (name of the case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by using the
code below :
List-I List-II
(a) K.M. Nanawati Vs. State of (i) Right to life
Bombay
(b) Ram Prasad Vs. State of U.P. (ii) Power to pardon
(c) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India (iii) Fundamental Duties
(d) Dr. P. Nalla Thampy Terah (iv) Disqualification of members
v. Union of India
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
6. Which of the following case is not related to “Theory of basic structure” under Article 368 of the
Constitution ?
(1) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
(2) Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
(3) L Chandra Kurnar Vs. Union of India
(4) T.K Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu
7. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by the
President under Article of the constitution ?
(1) It shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless approved by both Houses
of Parliament.
(2) Salary and allowances of persons serving in connection with affairs of state may be
reduced.
(3) It may be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation by President
(4) Salary and allowances of the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts may be reduced.
8. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ? Give correct answer by using the
code given below :
(a) An ordinary Bill can only originate in council of states
(b) A Bill pending in House of people shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House
(c) A Bill pending in the council of state which has not been passed by the House of people
shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the people
(d) A Bill pending in the House of people shall not lapse by reason of the dissolution of the
House.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are correct (4) (b) and (d) are correct

9. In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?
(1) Consent of two states
(2) Implementing international agreements
(3) Emergency is in operation
(4) In the Public interest if so declared by council of states
10. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by using the
code below :
List-I List-II
(a) Union of India Vs. (i) Power to do complete justice
Sankalchand Seth
(b) Leila David Vs. (ii) Foreign Precedent
State of Maharashtra
(c) B.S.E.S. Ltd. Vs. (iii) Power to punish for contempt
Fenner India Ltd.
(d) Darsan Gupta Vs. (iv) Appointment/Transfer of Judges
Radhika Gupta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
11. Which of the following case is not related to the Parliamentary privileges ?
(1) M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha
(2) State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India
(3) Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan Mukherjee
(4) State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder
12. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ? Answer by using code given below:
(a) It shall the duty of every citizen to respect the country and abide by the constitution.
(b) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and
administer educational institutions of their choice.
(c) The state shall in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and
prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.
(d) No law here after enacted by the legislature of Jammu and Kashmir shall void on the
ground that it is inconsistent with any rights conferred on other citizens of India by any
provision of part - Ill of the Constitution.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

13. Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between ‘expositorial’ jurisprudence (What the
law is) and ‘Censorial’ jurisprudence (What the law ought to be) ?
(1) John Austin (2) Hans Kelsen
(3) Jeremy Bentham (4) H.L.A. Hart
14. ‘Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable
contents.’ This observation specifically relates to :
(1) Dabin (2) Stammler
(3) Finnis (4) Acquinas
15. According to Professor Hart the meaning of the term ‘Positivism’ includes :
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Moral judgments cannot be established or defended by rational argument, evidence or
proof.
(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought to be.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
16. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(Theory) (Jurist)
(a) Theory of social solidarity (i) Ehrlich
(b) Theory of categorical Imperative (ii) Duguit
(c) Imperative Theory of Law (iii) John Austin
(d) Theory of Living Law (iv) Immanuel Kant
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
(a) The Growth of the Law (i) Gray
(b) Foundations of Jurisprudence (ii) R. Dworkin
(c) The Nature and Sources of Law (iii) Cardozo
(d) Taking Rights Seriously (iv) Jerome Hall

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
18. Which one of the following are the two main theories of legal right ?
(1) Interest Theory and Fiction Theory
(2) Realist Theory and Will Theory
(3) Bracket Theory and Interest Theory
(4) Interest Theory and Will Theory
19. Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality ?

(1) Fiction Theory (2) Realistic Theory
(3) Purpose Theory (4) Functional Theory
20. Match List-II and give the Jural correlatives by using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Claim (i) No claim
(b) Liberty (ii) Disability
(c) Power (iii) Duty
(d) Immunity (iv) Liability
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
21. “X”, a servant, finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to “Y”, the owner of
the shop, who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of :
(1) “X”, because he was the finder
(2) “Y”, because he was the owner of the shop.
(3) “y”, because in him there was corpus and animus.
(4) “X”, because he kept it in the almirah.’
22. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Laws are valid only if they are just.
Reason (R) : The aim of law is to secure justice.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation (A).
23. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
Assertion (A) : Judges must follow authoritative precedents.
Reason (R) : Authoritative precedents derive their authority from basic postulates of the legal
system itself.
Codes :
24. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

(a) Hobbes, Austin and Pufendorf subscribe to the view that law “Properly so called” in
command of the sovereign and enforced by a superior political authority and hence deny
legal character of International law.
(b) Oppenheim has remarked that International law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence.
(c) Holland subscribes to the view that International law is really law.
(d) Starke has expressed the view that International law is a “Weak law”.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a) and (d) both are correct
(3) (a), (b), (c) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all correct
25. “Triepel” and “Anzilloti” are the exponents of which of the following theory of Relationship between
International law and Municipal law ?
(1) Monism (2) Dualism
(3) Specific Adoption Theory (4) Delegation Theory
26. Which one of the following is one of the Chief Exponents of ‘Constitutive Theory’ of Recognition?
(1) Pit corbett (2) Kelson
(3) Hegel (4) Hall
27. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

(a) In accordance with the provisions of Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, the Security
Council is one of the Principal organs of the United Nations.
(b) The First Security Council came into being on 12th January, 1946.
(c) At Dumbarton proposals, it was finally decided to establish such as an organ in the form
of the Security Council
(d) Ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the General Assembly
for 5 years.
Codes :
(1) Only (c) is not correct
(2) (c) and (d) are not correct
(3) (a), (b), (c) are not correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct

List-I (Provisions) List-II (Articles of statute of court
of International Justice)
(a) Law applied by the International (i) Article 41
Court of Justice
(b) Binding force of the decision (ii) Article 62
of International Court of Justice
(c) Interim Measures or Relief (iii) Article 38
(d) International court’s power to (iv) Article 59
allow a state to intervene, in
case to which it is not a party
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
List-I List-II
(a) Cession (i) Acquisition of Nationality
(b) Reprisal (ii) Loss of Nationality
(c) Good offices (iii) Pacific means of settlement of International
Disputes
(d) Substitution (iv) Coercive means of settlement of International
Disputes
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
30. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both and give the correct answer by using the code given
below :
Assertion (A) : Article 10 of the U.N. charter confers upon the General Assembly very wide
deliberative functions except in respect of those matters which are being considered by the
Security Council.
Reason (R) : The Resolutions or declarations of the General Assembly are not binding upon the
states. They are merely recommendations.
Codes :
(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.


(a) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the statute of the
International court of justice.
(b) The International court of justice consists of 25 judges. Which are elected by the General
Assembly.
(c) The judges of the International court of justice are elected for a term of 5 years.
(d) All the decisions of the International court of justice are on the basis of the majority of
judges.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are only correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
32. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given
below :
Assertion (A) : When a state behaves in discourteous manner with another state. International
law confers right upon the state affected to resort to ‘retorsion’ which means retaliation.
Reason (R) : If the International disputes are not resolved through ‘peaceful’, means then the
states resort to compulsive or coercive means.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
33. The ‘U.N. Commission on Human Rights’ was established in 1946 by :

(1) General Assembly (2) Security Council
(3) Economic and Social Council (4) International Court of Justice
34. Under Hindu law, the persons descended from a common ancestor but by different wives, are
known as :
(1) Full blood Relations (2) Half Blood Relations
(3) Uterine Blood Relations (4) No Blood Relations
List-I List-II
(a) Agnate (i) What was heard
(b) Shruti (ii) Related wholly through males
(c) Cognate (iii) What has been remembered
(d) Smriti (iv) Related not wholly through males
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

36. If the condition laid down under section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is violated, such
marriage under the Act is :
(1) Void but not punishable (2) Valid and not punishable
(3) Void and Punishable (4) Valid but Punishable
37. Under sec. 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act 1939, the following grounds of divorce
are available to a wife :
(a) Where abouts of the have not been known for a period of four years.
(b) Four years imprisonment of the husband.
(c) Husband has treated her with cruelty.
(d) The husband has neglected her or has failed to pay her maintenance for a period of two
years.
Codes :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (d), (c) and (a)
(3) (d), (c), (b) and (a) (4) (a), (d), (b) and (c)
38. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : No person except the father or mother or guardian of a Hindu child has the
capacity to give such child in adoption.
Reason (R) : No re-adoption may take place under the Hindu Adoptions and maintenance Act.
1956.
Codes :
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is false (2) (A) is false but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
39. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and give
correct answer by using the code given below :
List-I : (Section) List-II : (Provision)
(a) Sec. 18 (i) Maintenance of dependants
(b) Sec. 19 (ii) Amount of maintenance
(c) Sec. 22 (iii) Maintenance of wife
(d) Sec. 23 (iv) Maintenance of widowed daughter-in law
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
40. “Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should be made
compulsorily registrable in their respective states where the marriage is solemnized”. This was
ruled by the supreme court in which of the following case :
(1) Sarla Mudgil v/s Union of India (2) Gurupad v/s Hirabai
(3) Shastri v/s Muldass (4) Seema v/s Ashwani Kumar
41. Give the correct answer with the help of code given below :
A 'Muta' marriage is :
(a) A temporary marriage (b) Recognized under sunni law
(c) Recognized under shia law (d) A marriage for a fixed period
Codes :
(1) (d), (b), (a) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
42. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and give correct answer with
the help of code given below :
List-I : (Section) List-II : (Provision)
(a) Section 14 (i) Alternative Relief in divorce proceedings
(b) Section 13-A (ii) Restitution of conjugal Rights
(c) Section 9 (iii) Judicial separation
(d) Section 10 (iv) No petition for divorce within one year of
marriage
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Assertion (A) : A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance
is complete as against the proposer. But not afterwards.
Reason (R) : Section 5 of the Indian contract Act 1872, deals with the revocation of proposals
and acceptances.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A).
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

Consideration is :
(a) a price for any promise.
(b) only a moral obligation.
(c) a motive for any promise.
(d) something of value in the eye of law.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (c) are correct (2) (a) and (d) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (c) and (d) are correct

45. Consider the following statements and give correct answer with the help of code below :
The case of Mohori Bibee Vs Dharmodas Ghose :
(a) has laid down that a minor's contract becomes valid when he attains majority.
(b) is the decision of the Supreme Court of India regarding minor’s contract.
(c) is the decision of Privy Council regarding voidness of minor’s contract.
(d) has laid down that contract without consideration is void.
Codes :
(1) (c) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (b) are incorrect.
(2) (a) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (d) are incorrect.
(3) (c) is correct, but (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect.
(4) (b) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (c) are incorrect.
46. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given
below :
Assertion (A) : Acceptance is to offer what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder.
Reason (R) : Acceptance cannot be separated from offer.
Codes :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
47. The defence of 'non est factum' is available to the contracting party who has committed mistake
as to the :
(1) Identity of the other contracting party
(2) Nature of contract
(3) Quality of the subject matter of the contract
(4) Quality of the promise made by the other party
48. Under the Indian Contract Act 1872 Which one of the following does not fall in the meaning of
fraud :
(1) Active concealment of a fact.
(2) Suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true.
(3) Positive assertion of unwarranted statements.
(4) A promise made without any intention of performing it.
49. Special damages will be awarded in case of a breach of contract :

(1) Only when the contracting parties express the same specifically as the terms of the
contract.
(2) Always in the special circumstances leading to the formation of the contract.
(3) Only when the court of law thinks fit in the special circumstances of the case.
(4) Only when the special circumstances causing loss of profit resulting from the breach of
contract were brought to the notice of the party committing breach at the time of formation
of the contract.
code given below :
(a) Tort is a civil wrong for which remedy is a common law action.
(b) Tort is exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust.
(c) Tort is an infringement of a right in rem of a private individual.
(d) Tort is violation of a legal duty owed to people generally for maintenance of law and order.
Codes :
(1) Only (b) and (d) are correct (2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (a) and (c) are correct (4) Only (a) and (d) are correct
51. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (name of defense) and give the correct answer by using
the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Samira Kohli Vs Prabha (i) Plaintiff a wrong-doer
Manchanda
(b) Sodan Singh Vs New Delhi (ii) Leave and Licence
Municipal Committee
(c) Bird Vs Holbrook (iii) Act of God
(d) Kallulal Vs Hemchand (iv) Necessity
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
52. Which of the following is correctly matched in relation to the defences of tort of defamation ?
(1) Fair comment - An expression of statement of fact rather than
expression of opinion
(2) Absolute privilege - Statements made by the members of either
House of parliament in the House or outside
the House
(3) Justification by truth - It is enough if the statement is substantially
true and may not be mathematically accurate
(4) Consent - Plaintiff has not consented to the publication
of defamatory words by the defendant
53. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Remoteness of Damage” ?

(1) Scott Vs Shepherd
(2) In re an Arbitration between Polemis and Furness, Withy and Co.
(3) Sirros Vs. Moore
(4) Overseas Tankship Ltd. Vs Morts Dock and Engineering Co.

54. Which of the following tort is not related to nuisance based on ‘Physical discomfort’ or interference
with another’s health and safety ?
(1) Obstruction of light (2) Injury to property
(3) Noise pollution (4) Pollution of water and air
55. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (capacity to sue) and give the correct answer by using
the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) State of Saurashtra Vs Memon (i) No right to Sue as an un-incorporarted
Haji Ismail association
(b) Delhi Transport Corporation Vs (ii) Municipal law does not apply
Kumari Lalita
(c) Brown Vs Lewis (iii) Suit against corporation
(d) Campbell Vs Paddington (iv) Suit by minor
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
56. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Negligence means a conduct which creates a risk of causing damage, rather
than a state of mind.
Reason (R) : It is safe to start a bus before passengers completely get into it.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(4) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
57. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to Consumer Courts ?

(1) National Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum to
another in the same State.
(2) State Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum to
another in the same State.
(3) National Commission can not have circuit benches except the permanent bench at New
Delhi.
(4) State Commission can not have circuit benches but can have two State Commissions.
58. Point out the correct statement :

(1) Crime is necessarily an immoral act.
(2) Crime is necessarily and anti-social act.
(3) Crime is necessarily an anti-communal act.
(4) Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act.

59. Four accused with common intention to kill, shot one B in the bona fide belief that B was A. In
this case :
(1) None of them is liable for the offence of murder.
(2) All accused are guilty of causing death.
(3) Section 34 of Indian Penal Code does not apply.
(4) All accused are guilty of causing death without invoking Section 34.
60. Under Section 65 of Indian Penal code, 1860, sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
shall be limited to :
(1) One-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(2) One-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(3) One-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(4) One-fifth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
61. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, promoting entry between
different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language etc, and doing
acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony is dealt with ?
(1) Section 153 (2) Section 153-A
(3) Section 153-AA (4) Section 153-B
62. A instigates B to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation stabs D. D recovers from the wound.
Here A is guilty of :
(1) Instigating B to commit murder
(2) Instigating B to commit attempt to murder
(3) Instigating B to commit grievous hurt
(4) No offence
63. Under which of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an assault or criminal
force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable ?
(1) Section 356 (2) Section 378
64. “X” gives grave and sudden provocation to “Y”. "Y” on this provocation. Fires a pistol at “X” neither
intending nor knowing himself to likely to kill “Z”, who is near him, but out of sight. “Y” kills “Z”.
Here “Y” has committed :
(1) Death by negligence
(2) Murder
(3) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(4) No offence
List-I List-II
(a) Dishonest taking of property (i) Criminal breach of Trust
(b) Dishonestly inducing any person (ii) Extortion
to deliver property
(c) Entrustment of property (iii) Criminal Misappropriation
(d) Conversion of property (iv) Theft
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by
reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the exact nature of the act.
Reason (R) : Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence.
Codes :
List-I List-II
(a) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor (i) Mens rea
(b) State of Maharashtra Vs. (ii) Intoxication
M.H. George
(c) Director of Public Prosecutions (iii) Common Intention
Vs. Beard
(d) R.V. Dudley Vs. Stephens (iv) Necessity
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
List-I List-II
(Provision for) (Sections of I.P.C.)
(a) Punishment for causing death or (i) Section 376-D
resulting in persistent vegetative
state of victim
(b) Sexual intercourse by husband (ii) Section 376-B
upon his wife during separation
(c) Sexual intercourse by a person (iii) Section 376-A
in authority
(d) Gang rape (iv) Section 376-C

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
69. Give the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) The workman has a right to approach the Labour court directly without waiting for the
conciliation proceedings and government reference.
(b) The appropriate government in respect of Corporations and Public Sector undertakings
owned or controlled by the central government will be the central government.
(c) Every industry employing 20 or more workmen is under legal obligation to Constitute and
have a Grievances Redressal Committee.
(d) The award passed by the Labour Court can be transmitted to a Civil Court for the effective
enforcement of the award.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct. (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.
70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given
below :
Assertion (A) : The strike or lockout as the weapon has to be used sparingly for redressal of
urgent and pressing grievances when no means are available or when available means have
failed to resolve it.
Reason (R) : The employment that workmen get and the profit the employer earns are both
generated by utilisation of the resources of the society in one form or other and they are to act
as Trustees of the said resources.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) A strike could be legal or illegal (i) Award
and illegal strike could be
justified one
(b) Right of the Workmen to approach (ii) Bharat Singh Vs Management of New Delhi
the Labour Court directly within a Tuberculosis Centre
period of three years
(c) Right of the workmen to payment (iii) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
of full wages pending proceedings
in the High Courts
(d) An interim or a final determination (iv) Section 2-A (2) Industrial Dispute
of any Industrial Dispute (Amendment) Act 2010
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
72. “Although the Judicial interpretation given to the expression” Industry” by Supreme Court in
Bangalore Water Supply Case was intended to settle the test to determine its scope, judicial
trends point out that it has done more damage than good, not merely to organisations but also
to employees by curtailment of employment opportunities”, The above trend is reflected through
one of the following case :
(1) Corporation of city of Nagpur Vs Employees
(2) State of Bombay Vs Hospital Mazdoor Sabha
(3) Coir Board Ernakulam, Cochin and another Vs Indira Devi P.S. and other
(4) Madras Gymkhana Club Employees Union Vs Gymkhana Club
73. Answer the following using the code given below :

The condition precedent to the order of Reference under section 10(1) of the Industrial Disputes
Act is the satisfactions of the appropriate government to the following :
(a) Existence of Industrial Dispute
(b) Apprehension of Industrial Dispute
Codes :
(1) Both (a) and (b) correct. (2) (a) alone is correct.
(3) (b) alone is correct. (4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.
74. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given
below :
Assertion (A) : (a) The unrecognised union has right to meet and discuss with the employer the
grievances of Individual workman with the employer and
Reason (R) : This is a statutory recognition of a unrecognised Union.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
75. Answer the following using the code given below :

The following are the pre-condition for acquiring jurisdiction by the National Tribunal Under the
Industrial Disputes Act :
(a) Industrial Dispute must involve question of National importance in the opinion of the Central
Government
OR
(b) Industrial Dispute must involve question of State importance in the opinion of the State
Government
OR
(c) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than one
State and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes
OR
(d) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than five
States and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (d) are correct. (2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (b) and (d) are correct. (4) (d) alone is correct.
76. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using code below :
Assertion (A) : Administrative law is a branch of public law in contradiction to Private law.
Reason (R) : Administrative law primarily deals with the relationship of individuals intense.
Codes :
(3) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect (R) is correct.
77. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (principle of natural justice) and give correct answer by
using the code below :
List-I List-II
(a) Hira Nath Mishra Vs Rajindra (i) Right to notice or requirement of notice
Medical College
(b) Union of India Vs Mohd. Ramzan (ii) No evidence should be taken at back or the
Khan other party
(c) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India (iii) Report of the enquiry to be shown to the other
party
(d) Union of India Vs Narendra Singh (iv) Reasoned decision or speaking order
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
78. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (name of writ) and give correct answer by using code
given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Sunil Batra Vs Delhi Administration (i) Quo Warranto
(b) U.N.R. Rao Vs Indira Gandhi (ii) Habeas Corpus
(c) Gujarat State Financial Corporation (iii) Certiorari
Vs Lotus Hotels
(d) Nalini Ranjan Vs Annada Shankar (iv) Mandamus
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
79. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India ruled that when the selection process
consists of only a veva-voce test without any written examination no limit need be imposed on
prescribing marks for the interview.
(1) A.K. Roy Vs Union of India
(2) A.P. State Financial Corporation Vs C.M. Ashok Raju
(3) Sambhu Nath Sarkar Vs State of W.B.
(4) P. Lakhanpal Vs Union of India
code given below :
(a) Absolute discretion is a ruthless master.
(b) Where reasonable conduct of government official is expected, the criterion of
reasonableness is subjective and not objective
(c) Every action of the executive government must be informed with excuse and should be
arbitrary.
(d) Exercise of discretion is an inseparable part of sound administration.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct. (2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (b) and (d) are correct. (4) Only (a) and (d) are correct.
81. Which of the following Acts shall be amended as per Section 58 of the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act,
2013 ? Give correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) Commission of Inquiry Act
(b) Central Vigilance Commission Act
(c) Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Central Bureau of Investigation Act
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct. (2) (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a) and (d) are correct. (4) (b) and (c) are correct.
82. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Montreal protocol is related to Hazardous Waste.
(2) The Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle are essential features of the
principles of sustainable development.
(3) The Stockholm Declaration of 1972 has been described as the Magna Carta of our
environment.
(4) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes
in the territory of another.
83. “The State is the trustee of all natural resources which are by nature meant for public use and
enjoyment and that Indian legal system includes the Public Trust Doctrine as a part of its
jurisprudence”
The Supreme Court of India has observed the above in one of the following case :
(1) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad Vs Union of India
(2) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs Union of India.
(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India
(4) Shri Sachidananda Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
84. Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using the code given below :
List-II List-II
(a) No state has a right to use or (i) Basel Convention
permit the use of its territory so
as to cause injury by fumes in
the territory of another
(b) The Economic Benefit must (ii) Trial Smelter Case
substantially exceed its
Environmental Cost
(c) The present generation has no (iii) Environment Impact Assessment
right to deplete all the existing
forest and leave nothing for the
next and future generation
(d) Transboundary Movements of (iv) Inter Generational Equity
Hazardous Wastesand their
Disposal
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
below :
Assertion (A) : It is the duty of the state to devise and implement a coherent and co-ordinated
programme to meet its obligation of Sustainable Development.
Reason (R) : Adherence to the principle of Sustainable Development is now a Constitutional
requirement.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

86. Which of the following do not come under the powers and functions of the Central Board is
provided Under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 ?
(1) Planning and execution of National programme for prevention, control and abatement of
Air Pollution.
(2) Co-ordinating activities of State Boards and resolving disputes among them.
(3) Fixing standards of Quality of Air.
(4) Making recommendations to the State government for removal of State Board which is
defaulter in discharging its duties under the Act.
87. In which one of the following case the Supreme Court of India held that right to access to drinking
water is fundamental to life and it is the duty of the State under Act 21 to provide clean drinking
water to its citizens ?
(1) Vellore Citizens Welfare forum Vs Union of India
(2) A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs M.V. Nayadu
(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India
(4) Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board Vs Shri C. Kenchappa
below :
Assertion (A) : The provisions concerning Human Rights run throughout the U.N. Charter ‘like
a golden thread”.
Reason (R) : Much of the credit for this goes to the determined lobbying by non-governmental
organisations at San Francisco Conference.
Codes :

Under its terms of reference, the UN Commission on Human Rights was directed to prepare
recommendations and reports on :
(a) An International Bill on Human Rights.
(b) International Conventions or declarations on civil liberties : the status of woman, freedom
of information and similar other matters.
(c) The protection of Minorities.
(d) The prevention of discrimination on the basis of race, sex, language or religion and other
matters concerning Human Rights.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct.
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

List-I List-II
(a) Human Rights Council (i) 1993
(b) The Universal Declaration of (ii) 2006
Human Rights
(c) The International Covenant on (iii) 1948
Civil and Political Rights
(d) World Conference on Human (iv) 1966
Rights, Vienna
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
91. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

(a) The position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights was created by the Economics
and Social Council.
(b) The High Commissioner was to be appointed by the Secretary. General subject to approval
by the General Assembly.
(c) The term of office of High Commissioner was five years.
(d) The High Commissioner’s principal location would be in New York.
Codes :
(1) Only (d) is not correct.
(2) (a), (c) and (d) all are not correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct.
92. Which of the following statement/statements are correct ?

(a) The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission shall be who has been the
Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
(b) The Chairperson and the other Members of National Human Rights Commission are
appointed by the President of India after consultation with Prime Minister.
(C) Chairperson and other Members of National Human Rights Commission are eligible for re
appointment.
(d) The Chairperson and the other Member of the Commission can be removed on the
Recommendation of the Law Minister of India.
Codes :
(1) Only (a) is correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Sections of the Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993)
(a) Constitution of National Human (i) Section 10
Rights Commission
(b) Constitution of State Human (ii) Section 12
Rights Commission
(c) Functions of the National Human (iii) Section 3
Rights Commission
(d) Procedure of the Commission (iv) Section 21
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Under the Partnership Act, a minor who has been admitted to partnership when attains majority
should adhere to the following :
(1) Issue a public notice that he has elected to become or that he has elected not to become
a partner
(2) Option must be exercised within 2 months on attaining majority
(3) When the minor opted to become a partner his rights and liabilities as a minor continues
upto the date on which he become a partner
(4) When the minor opted not to become a partner his rights and liabilities shall continues
upto the date on which he gives a public notice.
95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Mutual Rights and Liabilities (i) Section 34 of Partnership Act
of Partners
(b) Dissolution of Partnership (ii) Section 13 of Partnership Act
(c) Retirement of a Partner (iii) Section 39 of Partnership Act
(d) Insolvency of a Partner (iv) Section 32 of Partnership Act
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

96. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given
below :
Assertion (A) : The surety has no right to restrain execution against him until the creditor
exhausted all his remedies against the Principal Debtor.
Reason (R) : The Liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the Principal Debtor, unless
it is otherwise provided by contract.
Codes :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Under the Sale of Goods Act. to make the buyer liable for neglecting or refusing delivery of goods
the following conditions must be fulfilled :
(1) The seller was ready and willing to deliver the goods.
(2) The seller requested the buyer to take delivery.
(3) The seller informed the buyer to ignore the delay and take delivery.
(4) The buyer did not within a reasonable time after such request take delivery of the goods.
98. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code given below :
Assertion (A) : Under the Company Law, though any outsider is presumed to be aware of the
documents which are publicly accessible, but not the internal proceedings of which he can not
reasonably aware of, because those are not accessible to the public.
Reason (R) : The Doctrine of indoor management evolved as a partial exception to the Doctrine
of Constructive Notice and the rule was laid down in Royal British Bank Vs Turquand.
Codes :

Any mis-statement made in the Prospectus would attract the liability of the following persons
under the Companies Act :
(1) Every person who is a director of the company at the time of the issue of the prospectus.
(2) Every person who has authorised himself to be named and is named in the prospectus
either as director or as having agreed to become a director either immediately or after an
interval of time.
(3) Every person who is a promotor of the company.
(4) An expert, whose consent has not been endorsed to the registration and liable in respect
of every content in the prospectus.

100. Which one of the following is not the essential requirement to fulfil an instrument intended to be
a Promissory Note ?
(1) The instrument must contain a promise to pay.
(2) A mere acknowledgment of indebtedness is sufficient.
(3) The sum of money to be paid must be certain.
(4) Promise to pay must be unconditional.
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 4 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4 4 3 2 4 3 2 4 4 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 4 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 2 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 3 3 2 1 4 2 2 2 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
2 1 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 1
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 3 1 1 2 3 4 3 2 4
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 1 1 3 1 4 2 1 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 1 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 2

General Paper-1 (Dec. 2018)

Previous Year Solved Paper (Dec. 2018)
1. Which of the following specify the factors affecting teaching. For your answer select from the
code given below :
(a) Availability of teaching aids and their use
(b) School-community linkages
(c) Interest of parents in the school programmes
(d) Subject-knowledge of the teacher
(e) Frequency of organizing co-curricular activities
(f) Verbal and non-verbal communication skills of the teacher
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (b), (c) and (e) (4) (a), (d) and (f)
2. In which of the modalities of teaching-learning arrangements there is more scope for critical and
creative interchange ?
(1) Dialogic presentations involving teachers, students and the content
(2) Instructional presentations involving scope for information processing
(3) Conditioning to promote sensitivity
(4) Training session
3. The issue of research ethics is pertinent at which of the following stages, of research?
(1) Defining the population, sampling procedures and techniques
(2) Deciding the quantitative or qualitative tracks or both for pursuing the research problem
(3) Data collection, data analysis and reporting of research findings/results
(4) Identification, definition and delimitation of research problem
4. Which of the following implies the correct sequence in an action research paradigm ?
(1) Plan, act, observe and reflect (2) Observe, reflect, plan and act
(3) Act, reflect, plan and observe (4) Reflect, act, observe and plan
5. In which of the following, target related specifications will be considered necessary ?

(1) Symposium (2) Conferences
(3) Workshops (4) Seminars

6. In the two sets given below, Set-I embodies the list of research types while Set-II provides their
nature and characteristics. Match the two sets and give your answer from the code which
follows :
Set-I (Research types) Set-II (Nature and characteristics)
(a) Experimental research (i) Generalizations follow rather than precede the
observations in due course
(b) Exports facts research (ii) Emphasizing the access to reality by sharing the
perspectives of people
(c) Participant observation (iii) Getting at causal facts by retrospective analysis
based research
(d) Grounded theory approach (iv) Describing the status and conditions as obtainable
based research
(v) Controlling the extraneous variables and observing
the effect of independent variable manipulated by the
researcher on dependent variable
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
7. In which of the following research methods the emphasis is laid on naturalistic settings and
meaning-giving processes ?
(1) Ex post facto method (2) Descriptive survey method
(3) Experimental method (4) Case study method
8. In the two sets given below, Set-I embodies the domain of ‘teaching competencies’ while Set-II
provides the specific competencies which make a teacher effective. Match the two sets and
select appropriate code.
Set-I (Domain of teaching competencies) Set-II (Specific competencies)
(a) Personality and attitude related (i) Dynamism and flexibility
competencies
(b) Behavioural competencies (ii) Subject and general knowledge
(c) Substantive competencies (iii) Good physique and appearance
(d) Style related competencies (iv) Self efficacy and locus of control
(v) Teaching and managing
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v)
(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)

9. Which of the following are considered as key behaviours of effective teaching as evident from
researches ?
(a) Structuring through comments made for organizing what is to come.
(b) Asking process or content based questions.
(c) Lesson clarity implying the extent, to which teacher’s presentation is clear to the class.
(c) Using student ideas and contributions while the teacher is presenting the subject.
(e) Instructional variety involving teacher’s variability and flexibility during presentation.
(f) Student success rate implying the rate at which students understand and correctly complete
the exercises.
Code :
(1) (c), (e) and (f) (2) (a), (c) and (f)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
10. Below are given the characteristic features of formative and summative assessment procedures
used in various teaching-learning contexts.
(a) It is used for judging learning standard.
(b) It is used for improvement of capacity and quality.
(c) Its use is extended to performance appraisal of teachers, students and institutions.
(d) It is used during instruction.
(e) Assessment is formal and post instructional in nature.
(f) It is based on participation of both teacher and student.
Which of the given codes relate to formative procedures ?
Code :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (d) and (f)
(3) (a), (c) and (e) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Direction (11-15) : Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers.
It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason, for a
person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own self-interest.
As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well beyond the single-
minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our willingness to do things
that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like ‘humanity, justice, generosity and
public spirit’, may even be very productive for society, as Smith noted. There tends to be,
however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that people may have good reasons even
to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The argument runs : if you are consciously not
pursuing what you think are your goals, then clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many
authors have taken the view that the claim that one can have reason not to be confined to the
pursuit of one's goals is ‘nonsensical’ since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents
cannot pursue other people’s goals without making their own. The point here is that in denying
that rationality demands that you must act single-mindedly according to your own goals. You do
not necessarily dedicate yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards
following decent rules of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the
unique dominance of single-minded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly mysterious

about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of what we rightly -
and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance. What we can say about
your choice ? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not averse to helping your
neighbour-or anyone else-pursue his or her well-being. But it so happens that you do not think
that your neighbour’s well-being is, in fact, best advanced by his wasting time on playing a silly
game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of well-being.
11. The moral derived from the passage is
(1) Assist your neighbours to engage in any activity of their choice
(2) Not to think of our neighbour
(3) Pro-active move to support others
(4) Force people to take on the other people’s goals as their own
12. What can stand in the way of single-minded pursuit of one’s goals ?
(1) Giving priority to our own goals
(2) Respect for sensible rules of conduct
(3) Compulsion to consider the goals of others
(4) Pursuit of paradoxical parameters
13. The observation of Adam Smith in going beyond self-serving interest is :

(1) Motivations like justice and public spirit
(2) Having one’s own goals
(3) Willingness to do different things
(4) Issues contrary to reasons
14. According to the passage, decent rules of behaviour are needed :

(1) Due to dominance of our own goals
(2) For being fair to others
(3) Because of self-imposed restraints
(4) To be rational
15. In the view of many authors, not pursuing one’s own goal is .
(1) Natural (2) Altruistic
(3) Nonsensical (4) Rational
16. If 7, 13, 2, 14, 6 is to flame, then 3, 13, 16, 2, 21 is to :

(1) Blown (2) Bloat
(3) Voice (4) Blade
1 1
17. If R + = 1 and S + = 1, then R × S × T = _________ .
S T
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) –2 (4) –1

18. Internal cues of non-verbal behaviour in the classroom help diagnose

(1) Mass beliefs (2) Inter-personal dynamics
(3) Student movement (4) Spatial proximation
1
19. Before death a man left the following instructions for his fortune : half to his wife; of what was
7
2
of what was left to his daughter; the man’s pet dog got the remaining
left to his son; 20000.
3
How much money did the man leave behind altogether ?
(1) 100000 (2) 40000
(3) 140000 (4) 70000
20. In the sequence of numbers 1, 2, 6, 33, 49, 174, 210, x, ..., the term x is :
(1) 444 (2) 259
(3) 510 (4) 553
21. ‘Every law is an evil, for every law is an infraction of liberty’. The above is :
(1) A justification of beliefs (2) An explanation of facts
(3) A proposition of facts (4) An argument
22. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to
the woman ?
(1) Son (2) Grandson
(3) Uncle (4) Cousin
23. Given below are two premises (i) and (ii). Four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly
or together).
Premises :
(i) Some prisoners are dacoits.
(ii) Some dacoits are murderers.
Conclusions :
(a) Some prisoners are murderers.
(b) All prisoners are murderers.
(c) Some dacoits are prisoners.
(d) Some murderers are dacoits.
Select the code that states the validly drawn conclusions :
(1) Only (a) and (d) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (b) and (d) (4) Only (c) and (d)
24. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premises necessarily, the argument is
called.
(1) Inductive argument (2) Deductive argument
(3) Analogical argument (4) Circular argument

25. In pre-learning preparation, an important stage of communication is :

(1) Iconisation of encoder
(2) Information acquisition and its processing
(3) Ignoring semantic noise
(4) Conditional feedback
26. Among the following propositions (a, b, c and d) two are related in such a way that both of them
together cannot be false although they may both be true. Select the code that states those two
propositions.
(a) All students are intelligent. (b) Some students are intelligent.
(c) No students are intelligent. (d) Some students are not intelligent.
Code :
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (b) and (c)
27. Communication variables involved in a model of performance are :

(a) Encoding (b) Decoding
(c) Passive resistance (d) Channelisation
(e) Indifference
Select the correct option from the code given below :
(1) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
28. Given below are an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Consider them and select the correct code
given below :
Assertion (A) : Honesty is a great virtue.
Reason (R) : Honesty does not harm anybody.
Code :
(1) (R) is true and (A) is false.
29. To communicate effectively with students, teachers should use :

(a) Affinity-seeking strategies (b) Immediacy behaviours
(c) Humour (d) Collaborative filters
Choose most appropriate code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (a), (c) and (d)

30. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication behaviours imply making the contents relevant.
Reason (R) : It is none of the functions of teachers to make students organise information “for
effective interaction.
Code :
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true.
Direction (31-35) : The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties
of a University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are males and
remaining are females.
Based on the table, answer the questions that follow :
Percentage of Students Facultywise

Name of The Faculty Percentage (%) of Students
Science 17%
Education 30%
Engineering 8%
Performing Arts 26%
Social Sciences 19%
31. The difference in the number of students enrolled in the faculty of Science as compared to the
number of students enrolled in the faculty of Engineering, is :
(1) 960 (2) 1180
(3) 1080 (4) 2040
32. The number of male students exceeding female students is :

(1) 480 (2) 1400
(3) 800 (4) 1680
33. Supposing, the number available in the faculty of Engineering doubles keeping the total number
in the University to be the same by reducing the student numbers in faculty of Performing Arts
and faculty of Education equally, the number of students available in the faculty of Education will
be :
(1) 2680 (2) 3120
(3) 2960 (4) 3125
34. If half of the students from the faculty of Education and all of the students from the faculty of
Social Sciences are females, then the number of female students in the three remaining faculties
altogether will be :
(1) 840 (2) 960
(3) 1240 (4) 1680
35. Approximately, how many female students are there in the faculty of Performing Arts if the
proportion of males and females is the same for this faculty as for the whole University ?
(1) 1498 (2) 610
(3) 2560 (4) 2678
36. In the following two sets, Set-I mentions an apex level institution in India while Set-Il indicates their
formal concerns. Match the two sets and give your answer from the code.
Set-I (Apex level Institution) Set-Il (Formal concerns)
(a) University Grants Commission (i) Adjudication of legal matters in education
(b) All India Council of (ii) Coordination, recognition and quality issues
Technical Education related to teacher education institutions
(c) National Council of (iii) Coordination and quality maintenance in
Teacher Education institutions of higher education
(d) National Assessment and (iv) Recognition and quality issues in technical
Accreditation Council institutions
(v) Evaluation of quality and determining grade
of excellence
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
37. In the institutions of higher education in India which of the following has the formal authority to
approve the courses and programmes of studies ?
(1) The University Court / Senate (2) Academic Council
(3) Board of Studies (4) Departmental Council
38. Which one of the following pairs least matches in respect of computers ?
(1) Megabyte : (1024) × (1024) × (8) Bits
(2) www : World Wide Web
(3) PDF : Portable Document Format
(4) HTTPS : Hypertext Transfer Protocol Standard
39. Read the following spreadsheet (MS-EXCEL) :
A B C
1 10 16
2 20
3 8
4 12
5 0
The equation in cell B2 is A2 + $ B $ 1.

The equation is then copied and pasted to cells B3, B4 and B5. What should be the value in B3 ?
(1) 56 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 44

40. Which of the following methods would be most appropriate in reducing acid rain and acid deposition
problems ?
(1) Adding lime to the acidic lakes
(2) Promotion of acid-resistant crops
(3) Increasing the height of smokestacks
(4) Reducing the use of fossil fuels
41. Computer data files that are included with an email message are often referred to as :
(1) Cookies (2) Spam mails
(3) Carbon copy (4) Attachments
42. Human populations have historically settled in flood plains due to which of the following reasons ?
(a) Flood plains are close to rivers for transportation.
(b) The soils in the flood plains are usually fertile.
(c) The terrain in flood plains is found as flat.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only
43. Assertion (A) : Mapping of landslide prone areas and construction of houses, felling of trees and
grazing in landslide prone areas should be prohibited.
Reason (R) : Afforestation in the vulnerable areas is an effective way of durable landslides
control.
Choose the correct code :
(3) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
44. The two major processes involved in the carbon cycle are :
(1) Photosynthesis and respiration (2) Deposition and erosion
(3) Evaporation and transpiration (4) Fixation and denitrification
45. Which piece of the computer hardware is known as the “brain” of the computer and is responsible
for processing instructions ?
(1) RAM (2) Motherboard
(3) ROM (4) CPU

46. Below are given two sets- Set-I provides stages of value development while Set-Il indicates their
critical features from the point of view of value education. Match the two sets and choose your
answer from the code :
Set-I (Stages of value Set-Il (Critical features in terms
development) of value education)
(a) Value collection (i) Providing opportunity for imitation
(b) Value assessment (ii) Characterization through integration of values
(c) Value clarification (iii) Providing hints for inner evaluation
(d) Value consolidation (iv) Exposure to other values
(v) Discussions and debates
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (v)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
47. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the greenhouse effect in earth’s
atmosphere ?
(1) Cosmic radiation from the space is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
(2) Infrared radiation from earth's surface is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
(3) Gamma radiation from the sun is absorbed at ground level by dust particles in the
atmosphere.
(4) Ultraviolet radiation from the sun is absorbed by Ozone layer in the stratosphere.
48. For pursuing a Ph.D. programme through our University system, what has become a mandatory
provision now ?
(1) Guidance from a supervisor outside the University
(2) Compulsory attendance for three years
(3) Course work
(4) Enrolment for Ph.D.
49. Which option would complete the following sentences about digital communication system by
using the words - short/long, low/high ?
Bluetooth is a ____________ range wireless technology. It is used to connect devices together
for data transfer. Bluetooth is a ____________ cost means of data transfer.
(1) long, low (2) long, high
(3) short, low (4) short, high

50. To improve access and quality in higher education, the Knowledge Commission recommendations
include which of the following ?
(a) Use of ICT for production of knowledge
(b) Closure of non-performing Universities in the country
(c) Establishment of a network of institutions of higher learning
(d) Increase in the enrollment of students in the institutions of higher learning
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (b), (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) only (4) (a), (c), (d) only
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
4 1 3 1 3 1 4 4 1 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 2 4 1 2 2 4 3 4
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 1 2 1 4 3 2 3 3 4

Law Paper-II (PSP-2018 Dec)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper - 2018 Dec.
1. In accordance with which of the following Articles of U.N. Charter, the affirmative vote of nine
(9) member of the Security–Council (including the permanent members) is necessary for all
important matters ?
2. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes
given below.
List-I List-II
(a) Trail Smelter’s Case (i) Reducing transboundary movement of
hazardous waste
(b) Basel Convention (ii) Climate change
(c) Earth Summit (iii) Preventing pollution and environmental
damage between Nations
(d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) United Nations Conference on Environment
and Development
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the Codes given below.
Assertion (A) : The Government could not control pollution, in spite of the Continuous
Environmental Monitoring System (CEMS) introduced in 2014.
Reason (R) : Environment related data, especially on the performance of polluters, has always
been both limited in scope and invisible to the public.
Codes :
(3) (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
Assertion (A) : To be the power of law in custom, it is necessary to have its duration.
Reason (R) : Custom denotes the shared consciousness of the people.
Codes :
5. Consider the following statements and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(i) Positive law is made by the sovereign, and positive morality not by it.
(ii) Positive law is made by the sovereign, and positive morality by God.
(iii) Positive law is made by the sovereign, and positive morality by the consent of the people.
Codes :
(1) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (2) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(3) Only (i) and (iii) are correct (4) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
6. The Code of Criminal procedure which contains some general provisions to cover ordinary
situations came to be regarded as an instrument to combat pollution in 1980s and was utilised
in one of the following cases :
(1) A.P. State Pollution Control Board vs Prof M.V. Naidu
(2) Charan Lal Sahu vs Union of India
(3) Municipal Council Ratlam vs Vardichand
(4) Subhash Kumar vs State of Bihar
7. According to which theory, only human beings can have interests and rights and that a corporation
is only a legal device or formula which will enable every complex jural relations to be understood
more easily ?
(1) Purpose theory (2) Bracket theory
(3) Realist theory (4) Fiction theory
8. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, sapinda relationship with reference to any person extends
as far as
(1) The fifth generation (exclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the third
(exclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.
(2) The third generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the fifth
(inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.
(3) The fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the third
(inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.
(4) The third generation (exclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and the fifth
(exclusive) in the line of ascent through the father.

9. Bonn Convention is associated with :

(1) International Whaling Convention
(2) Convention on Nature and Natural Resources
(3) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
(4) Convention on Migratory Species
Assertion (A) : A ‘negotiable instrument’ means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque
payable either to order to bearer.
Reason (R) : Because it is said so under Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
Codes :
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
11. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct from the codes given
below.
List-I List-II
(Section of Indian Contract (Definition)
Act 1872)
(a) Section 2(f) (i) Proposal
(b) Section 2(e) (ii) Promisor and Promisee
(c) Section 2(a) (iii) Reciprocal Promises
(d) Section 2(c) (iv) Agreement
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
12. Where an individual is a common partner in two firms

(1) No action can be brought by one firm against the other upon any transaction between
them so long as that individual continues to be a common partner.
(2) An action can be brought by one firm against the other upon any transaction between
them even though that individual continues to be a common partner.
(3) An action can be brought by one firm against other firm upon any transaction between
them but the common partner shall not be arrayed as a defendant.
(4) An action can be brought by one firm against other firm upon any transaction between
them but the common partner shall be excluded from participating in the proceedings.

13. Which of the following is not a statement from the Hart’s theory ?
(1) The union of the primary and secondary rules constitutes the core of a legal system
(2) A ‘legal rule’ can be defined as one which prescribes a Codes of conduct, which is done
with the feeling that such conduct is obligatory.
(3) Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules.
(4) The law is a normative and not a natural science.
14. The latin maxim ‘nemo dat quod non habet’ means:
(1) An innocent occupier of goods can pass a proper title.
(2) No man can pass a better title than he has.
(3) An innocent and bonafide purchaser gets a proper title as of a true owner.
(4) A finder of goods can pass a proper title.
15. ‘Non est factum’ means, a document executed

(1) Under coercion (2) Under undue influence
(3) Outside India (4) In ignorance
16. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that placing ordinance before legislature
is mandatory; Re-promulgation of ordinances is fraud on the Constitution ?
(1) Maru Ram vs Union of India
(2) Krishna Kumar Singh vs State of Bihar
(3) K.M. Nanavati vs State of Bombay
(4) R.K. Garg vs Union of India
17. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the
codes given below.
List-I List-II
(a) Smriti (i) What was heard
(b) Mitakshara (ii) Jimutavahana
(c) Shruti (iii) Vijnaneshwara
(d) Dayabhaga (iv) What has been remembered
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

18. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the
codes given below.
List-I List-II
(Year of Adoption) (U.N. Declaration)
(a) 1971 (i) Declaration on the Right to Development
(b) 1975 (ii) Vienna Declaration on Human Rights
(c) 1986 (iii) Declaration on the Rights of Mentally
Retarded persons
(d) 1993 (iv) Declaration on the use of scientific and
technological progress in the interest of
peace and for the benefit of mankind
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Assertion (A) : The employer need not commit a series of unfair transactions before he could
be held guilty of unfair labour practice.
Reason (R) : The purpose of Industrial Disputes Act is to prevent industrial strife – in other words
to prevent anything from happening which could lead to industrial disputes and not merely to
punish it after it has practised.
Codes :
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
20. Under which of the following Articles of the United Nations, the General Assembly may establish
such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its function ?
21. Which one of the following is wrong ?

(1) The union which represents the largest number of workmen working in the undertaking
must acquire the status.
(2) The employer has to give an opportunity and preference to retrenched workmen for re-
employment.
(3) A settlement outside the conciliation proceedings would bind the parties to the agreement
and a settlement under section 18(3) of the Industrial Disputes Act as a result of conciliation
would bind all the workers.
(4) An employer must have committed a series of unfair transactions before he could be held
guilty of unfair labour practice.
Assertion (A) : Austinian theory of law does not properly explain constitutional law, customary
law and judicial precedents.
Reason (R) : Constitutional law, customary law and judicial precedents do not share the same
pedigree as statutory law.
Codes :
23. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer under the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 by using the codes given below.
List-I List-II
(Section) (Provision)
(a) Section 5(i) (i) Ceremonies of marriage
(b) Section 11 (ii) Monogamy
(c) Section 7 (iii) Marriageable age
(d) Section 5(iii) (iv) Void Marriages
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
24. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to principles of natural justice ?
(i) Principles of natural justice have enriched law and constitutions the world over.
(ii) Uniform cut and dried formula can be laid down to determine real likelihood bias Each
case can’t be determined on the basis of its facts.
(iii) Reasons for its decision by any authority substitutes subjectivity with objectivity.
(iv) If in a given case, only prior hearing would achieve the object of the exercise of power
it must be dispensed with and subsequently post-decisional hearing can be provided as
a substitute.
Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i) and (iii) are correct (2) (i) and (ii) are correct
(3) (iii) and (iv) are correct (4) (ii) and (iv) are correct

25. Match the items of List-I (name of case) with the items of List-II (offence) and choose the correct
answer from the codes given below.
List-I List-II
(Name of case) (Offence)
(a) Vishwanath vs State of U.P. (i) Kidnapping
(b) State of Punjab vs Major Singh (ii) Private defence
(c) S. Varadarajan vs State of Madras (iii) Modesty of women
(d) Amar Singh vs State of Rajasthan (iv) Dowry death
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
given below.
List-I List-II
(Provision) (Article)
(a) Composition of the Economic (i) Article 75 of the U.N. Charter
and Social Council
(b) Composition of Trusteeship (ii) Article 6 of the U.N. Charter
Council
(c) Expulsion of a member from the (iii) Article 5 of the U.N. Charter
United Nations
(d) Suspension of members of the (iv) Article 61 of the U.N. Charter
United Nations
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
27. A ‘distinguished jurist’ can be appointed as a Judge of

(1) A High Court (2) The International Court
(3) The Supreme Court (4) A District Court

Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the President of
India.
Reason (R) : The President of India can dismiss the Ministers at his discretion.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Assertion (A) : In the Asylum case, the International Court of Justice observed that the rule
invoked should be “in accordance with a constant and uniform usage practised by the States in
question, and that this usage is the expression of a right appertaining to the State granting
asylum and a duty incumbent on the Territorial State.
Reason (R) : This follows from Article 38 of the Statute of the Court which refers to international
custom “as evidence of a general practice accepted as law”.
Codes :
30. Who among the following are within the jurisdiction in respect of inquiry under section 14 of the
Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 ?
(i) Any Group ‘A’ or Group ‘B’ Officers
(ii) Any Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ officials
(iii) Any Group ‘E’ or Group ‘F’ employees
(iv) Any Group ‘G’ or Group ‘H’ workers
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (2) Only (i) is correct
(3) (i) and (ii) are correct (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
31. To safeguard the interest of the shareholders through class action suits, an application may be
made to the Tribunal. Which one of the following is wrong ?
(1) To restrain the company from committing an act which is ultra vires the Articles or
Memorandum
(2) To restrain the Company and its Directors from acting on a resolution obtained by mis-
statement to the members or depositors
(3) To restrain the company from committing breach of any provision of the Company’s
Memorandum and Articles
(4) To restrain the Company from taking action to any resolution passed by members

Assertion (A) : ‘Act of God’ is a kind of evitable accident with the difference that it arises out
of the working of human forces.
Reason (R) : The occurrence need not be unique, nor need it be one that happens for the first
time; it is enough that it is extraordinary, and such as could not reasonably be anticipated.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(R). Read the statement and choose the correct answer using the Codes given below.
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it,
by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the exact nature of the act.
Reason (R) : Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
34. Match the items of List-I with the Items of List-II under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 and choose
the correct answer from the Codes given below.
List-I List-II
(Section) (Provision)
(a) Section 15 (i) Implied conditions as to quality or fitness
(b) Section 27 (ii) Sale by description
(c) Section 16 (iii) Condition and Warranty
(d) Section 12 (iv) Sale by person not the owner
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
35. A, a police officer, tortures B to induce him to point out where certain stolen property is deposited.
Here A is guilty of an offence under
(1) Section 331, I.P.C. (2) Section 332, I.P.C.
(3) Section 333, I.P.C. (4) Section 330, I.P.C.

36. Who is the propounder of ‘Pigeon Hole’ theory ?

(1) Fraser (2) Winfield
(3) Pollock (4) Salmond
37. An application to the Tribunal by an employer seeking permission to discharge or dismiss a

workman during pendency of the proceedings in respect of an Industrial Dispute :
(1) Is maintainable if found that all the proper steps have been taken and bonafide conclusion
has been reached in respect of misconduct of the workmen.
(2) Is maintainable even if bonafide conclusion has not been reached in respect of certain
workmen.
(3) Is maintainable even it prima facie case is not made out.
(4) Is not maintainable in all cases.
38. Which of the following is/are exception(s) to the rule of strict liability recognized by Rylands vs
Fletcher ?
(i) Defendant’s default (ii) Act of God
(iii) Consent of the third party (iv) Statutory authority
Codes :
(1) (i) and (iii) are correct (2) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(3) (i) and (ii) are correct (4) (ii) and (iv) are correct
39. Match the items of List-I (name of case) with the items of List-II (related topic) and choose the
correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I List-II
(Name of case) (Related topic)
(a) Jones vs Boyce (i) Remoteness of damages
(b) Scott vs Shepherd (ii) Medical negligence
(c) A.H. Khodwa vs State of (iii) Nervous shock
Maharashtra
(d) Victorian Railway Commissioner (iv) Doctrine of alternative danger
vs. Coultas
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
40. Which theory of punishment is based on the humanistic principle that even if an offender
commits a crime, he does not cease to be a human being ?
(1) Deterrent theory (2) Reformative theory
(3) Retributive theory (4) Preventive theory

41. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(i) The preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the
Constitution.
(ii) The word ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble aims to eliminate inequality in political and religious
matters.
(iii) The solemn resolution in the Preamble of the Constitution of India is made in the name
of the people of India.
(iv) The Preamble of the Constitution of India is solemnly resolved to secure to its people
Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct. (2) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(3) Only (i) and (ii) are correct. (4) Only (i) and (iii) are correct.
42. Which one of the following jurists used the two expressions ‘formal’ and ‘material’ in defining
the term Jurisprudence ?
(1) Hans Kelsen (2) T.E. Holland
(3) Jeremy Bentham (4) Dennis Lloyd
43. A, a public officer, is authorised by a warrant from court of Justice to apprehend Z. B, knowing
that fact and also that C is not Z, wilfully represents to A, that C is Z, and thereby intentionally
causes A to apprehend C. In this case B abets the apprehension of C by
(1) Conspiracy only (2) Instigation only
(3) Aiding and instigation (4) Aiding only
44. “The application of the Industrial Disputes Act to organisations which were, quite possibly, not
intended to be so covered, might have done more damage than good, not merely to the
organisations but also to employees, thus the decision in Bangalore water supply case requires
to be re-examined.”
In which one of the following cases the above has been observed ?
(1) State of Haryana vs Piara Singh
(2) M.P. Electricity Board vs Jagdish Chandra Sharma
(3) Hombe Gowda Educational Trust vs State of Karnataka
(4) Coir Board, Ernakulam, Cochin vs Indira Devi P.S. and others
45. Who amongst the following groups of jurists are the chief exponents of the ‘Declaratory Theory’
of Recognition ?
(1) Fenwick, Kelsen, Fuller and G. Schwarzenberger
(2) Hart, Austin and Bentham
(3) Hall, Brierley, Fisher and Pitt Corbett
(4) Hegel, Anzilotti and Oppenheim
46. A master asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at less than the market price. This contract
can be avoided by the servant on the ground of
(1) Coercion (2) Undue influence
(3) Misrepresentation (4) Fraud

47. Which one of the following is not the function of the Central (Pollution Control) Board under the
Water Act, 1974 ?
(1) To advise the Central Government on any matter concerning the prevention and control
of water pollution.
(2) To co-ordinate the activities of the State Boards and resolve disputes among them.
(3) To provide technical assistance and guidance to the state Boards, carry out and sponsor
investigations and research relating to problems of water pollution and prevention, control
or abatement of water pollution.
(4) To advise the State Government on any matter concerning the prevention, control or
abatement of water pollution.
48. The strike or lock-out shall not be deemed to be illegal

(1) If the strike or lock-out was in contravention of this Act only at its commencement.
(2) If the strike or lock-out has commenced before and continued even after the prohibition
under Section 10(3) of the Act.
(3) If the strike or lock-out has commenced after the reference of disputes to the authorities
under the Act.
(4) If the continuance of strike or lock-out has not been prohibited by the order made under
section 10 – A (4 – A) of the Act.
49. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(i) When the court declares certain provisions of the Act as invalid and affects the validity
of that Act, this principle is known as Doctrine of Severability.
(ii) It is the perspective character of Article 13(1) which gives rise to the Doctrine of Eclipse.
(iii) The American doctrine of waiver of Fundamental Rights is part of the Indian constitution.
(iv) The doctrine of perspective overruling was not applied in I.C. Golakhnath vs State of
Punjab.
Codes :
(1) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. (2) Only (iv) is correct.
(3) Only (ii) is correct. (4) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(i) A minor fraudulently misrepresenting his age is not estopped from denying the truth of
his statement.
(ii) A minor fraudulently misrepresenting his age is estopped from denying the truth of his
statement.
(iii) Estoppel does not operate to render a statute ineffective and so minor’s agreement is
always void.
Codes :
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

given below
List-I List-II
(a) Privilege (i) Gives content to the claim of a person
(b) Duty (ii) Freedom from claim of another
(c) Power (iii) Have no correlative claim according to Austin
(d) Absolute Duty (iv) Ability of a person to change legal relations
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
52. Marriage during ‘Iddat’ under Sunni law is :

(1) Irregular (2) Valid
(3) Void (4) Voidable

(i) An Industrial Dispute can arise when a demand is made by the workman and denied by
the employer.
(ii) Industrial Dispute is a dispute between employers and employers or between employers
and workmen or between workmen and workmen.
(iii) Employer’s failure to fulfil his verbal assurances is an Industrial Dispute.
(iv) Industrial Dispute will subsist in spite of closure of industry.
Codes :
(1) (ii) and (iv) are correct (2) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(3) (i) and (iv) are correct (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
54. Which constitutional amendment accorded primacy to the Directive Principles of State policy over
Fundamental Rights ?
(1) 42nd Amendment (2) 24th Amendment
(3) 44th Amendment (4) 25th Amendment
55. ‘A’ enters into the house or ‘B’ with the intension to commit theft. ‘B’ along with other members
of his family surround and attack ‘A’ with wooden sticks. ‘A’ finding his life in danger fires with
pistol causing death to ‘B’.
Here ‘A’ committed :
(1) No offence, as he acted in self-defence
(2) Theft
(3) Murder

56. To give constitutional sanction to democracy at the grassroot level through Panchayat and
Municipalities, 73rd and 74th Amendments were made in 1992. Which one of the following
subjects related to Environment is not found in the Twelfth Schedule ?
(1) Animal husbandry, Dairying and Poultry
(2) Urban Planning including town planning
(3) Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste
(4) Regulation of land use and construction of buildings
57. Mention the correct chronological sequence of the following Advisory opinions given by the
Supreme Court of India under Article 143 of the Constitution of India.
(i) In re Keshava Singh case (ii) In re Berubari case
(iii) In re Delhi Laws Act case (iv) In re the Sea Customs Act
Codes :
(1) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (2) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(3) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (4) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
58. Which of the following is/are the chief exponent of the ‘Theory of Consent’ regarding the basis
of international law?
(1) Jellinck, Fenwick (2) J.L. Brierly, Kelsen
(3) Anzilotti, Triepel, Oppenheim (4) Grotius, Vattel, Pufendorf
given below.
List-I List-II
(a) Social justice is not based on (i) J.K. Iron and Steel Company Ltd. vs Iron and
contractual relations and is not Steel Mazdoor Union
to be enforced on the principle
of contract of service
(b) Decision of the Tribunal must be (ii) Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh
based on established principles vs. Appollo Mills Ltd
and not import any notion of so
called justice or compulsion to
safeguard the interest of workmen
(c) The very important philosophy that (iii) State of Bihar vs Kameshwar
the concept of industrial peace is
positive and postulates the
existence of the understanding,
cooperation and sense of
partnership between employers
and employees
(d) The Supreme Court emphatically (iv) Standard Vacuum Refining Company
propounded the very idea of vs Its Workmen
social justice in the form of
general interest of the community
in its historical judgement
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
60. When a partnership firm is constituted for a fixed period and after the expiration of that term,
the firm continues to carry on business, without new agreement, then
(1) The partnership becomes illegal
(2) The Partnership stands dissolved on the date of expiry of the term and no partnership
can be said to in existence
(3) The partnership stands extended till the new agreement is made
(4) The partnership becomes partnership at will
given below.
List-I List-II
(Sections in the Protection of (Content in the Protection of Human
Human Rights Act 1993) Rights Act 1993)
(a) Section 37 (i) Constitution of Special investigation
teams
(b) Section 38 (ii) Power of Central Government to make
rules
(c) Section 39 (iii) Protection of action taken in good faith
(d) Section 40 (iv) Members and officers to be public
servants
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
62. Arrange the following Supreme Court Decisions on the justification torts in chronological order
by using the Codes given below :
(i) Vinod Kumar Shantilal Gosalia vs Ganagadhar Narsingdas
(ii) Sodan Singh vs New Delhi Municipal Committee
(iii) Anwar Hussain vs Ajay Kumar
(iv) Nizam’s Institute of Medical Sciences vs Prasanth S. Dhananka
Codes :
(1) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (2) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(3) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iv), (i). (iii)

63. ‘A’, a woman knowing that his husband ‘B’ has recently committed dacoity, harbours him with the
intention of screening him from punishment. In this case ‘A’ is:
(1) guilty for harbouring only
(2) not guilty
(3) guilty from harbouring as well as screening
(4) guilty for screening only
64. An agreement made by mistake is

(1) Voidable (2) Void
(3) Immoral (4) Illegal

(i) Lawless vs Ireland was the first case decided by the European Court of Human Rights
(ii) Ireland vs United Kingdom is related to Article 3 of European Convention of Human
Rights which deals with freedom from torture and inhuman or degrading treatment.
(iii) The U.N. Commission in Human Rights was replaced by Human Rights Committee in
March 2006 by the General Assembly.
(iv) The Commission on the Status of Women is a functional commission of the Economic
and Social Council (ECOSOC) established in 1948.
(1) Only (i) and (iii) are correct. (2) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(3) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct. (4) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.
66. In which of the following cases, the supreme Court held that any Member of Parliament, Member
of Legislative Assembly or Member or Legislative Council who is convicted of a crime and given
a minimum of two years imprisonment loses membership of the House with immediate effect ?
(1) Lily Thomas vs Union of India
(2) Ramakrishna Hedge vs State of Karnataka
(3) M.S.M. Sharma vs Sri Krishna Sinha
(4) Haridwari Lal vs Ch. Bhajan Lal
67. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to ‘administrative control’ of forums
and commission under Section 24 – B of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ?
(i) National Commission shall have administrative control over all State Commissions.
(ii) National Commission shall call for the periodical return of ‘pendency of cases’ before
the State Commissions.
(iii) State Commission shall have administrative control over all district forums.
(iv) State Commission can issue instructions to district forums to furnish English
translation of judgement written in any language.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (iv) are correct (2) (i) and (iii) are correct
(3) (ii) and (iv) are correct (4) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct

Assertion (A) : Judicial review of administrative actions under Articles 32 and 226 is part of the
basic structure of Indian Constitution.
Reason (R) : It was held to be so by the Supreme Court in L. Chandra Kumar vs Union of India.
Codes :

(i) The Chairperson and Members the State Human Rights Commission shall be appointed
by the President under his hand and seal.
(ii) The Chairperson or a Member of a State Human Rights Commission may, by notice in
writing under his hand addressed to the Governor, resign his office.
(iii) The President of India may, by order, remove from office the Chairperson or any Member
as the case may be, if adjudged an insolvent.
(iv) On ceasing to hold office, a Chairperson shall be eligible for further employment under
the Government of India.
Codes :
(1) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (2) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(3) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct (4) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
70. The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all the courts within the territory of India,
but the Supreme Court is not bound by its own decisions, was decided by the Supreme Court
itself in :
(1) Keshavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
(2) Madhav Rao Scindia vs Union of India
(3) Indira Nehru Gandhi vs Raj Narain
(4) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. vs State of Bihar
Assertion (A) : Proclamation of emergency can be issued by the President of India if there is
an imminent danger of war or external aggression or internal disturbance and armed rebellion.
Reason (R) : The President of India can suspend the enforcement of some fundamental rights
during the period emergency.
Codes :

72. Consider the following statements :

Under Article 36(2) of the Statute of International Court, the State party to the statute may confer
‘compulsory jurisdiction’ upon the International Court of Justice in respect of the following matter(s):
(i) Interpretation of a Treaty
(ii) Any question of national law
(iii) The existence of any fact which, if established, would constitute a breach of international
obligations
(iv) The nature and the extent of the separation to be made for the breach of a domestic
obligation
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) Only (i)
73. In which case the Supreme Court held that the State should enact the Uniform Civil Codes for
people of India ?
(1) Chetan Dass vs Kamala Devi
(2) Saroj Rani vs Sudarshan Kumar
(3) Ashok Hurra vs Rupa
(4) John Vallamattom vs Union of India
Assertion (A) : The Communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge
of the person to whom it is made.
Reason (R) : Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with the issue of completeness
of communication.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A).
(2) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
75. Islamic law in India provides for :

(1) Monogamy (2) Controlled polyandry
(3) Controlled polygamy (4) Unlimited polygamy
76. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the Codes
given below.
List - I List-II
(a) Ex turpi causa non oritur (i) Immediate cause
(b) De minimis non curat lex (ii) From an immoral cause no action arises
(c) Causa causans (iii) From day to day
(d) De die in diem (iv) Law does not concern itself with trifles
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
77. Which of the following is correctly matched in relation to ‘period of limitation’ to file a complaint or
an appeal before the Consumer Forum/Commission under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 ?
(1) Appeal from State Commission to National Commission – 60 days
(2) Appeal from National Commission to the Supreme Court – 90 days
(3) Complaint – one year
(4) Appeal from District forum to State Commission – 30 days
78. Hadley vs Baxendale is a leading case on :

(1) Anticipatory breach (2) Remoteness of damages
(3) Breach of implied term (4) Minor’s agreement

(i) Harvinder Kaur vs Harmander Singh Choudhary the Supreme Court rejected the plea that
personal law was discriminatory towards gender equality in India. It also observed that
introduction of constitutional law into the personal laws was appropriate.
(ii) Selvi vs State of Karnataka deals with Rights of transgender.
(iii) Shreya Singhal vs Union of India deals with Right to freedom of speech and expression.
(iv) Sarla Mudgal and others vs Union of India deals with the Rights of converted Christian
women.
Codes :
(1) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct. (2) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct
(3) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct. (4) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
80. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the growth of Administrative law in
India ?
(i) In the pre-constitutional period, a system of administrative legislation and adjudication
existed.
(ii) The philosophy of welfare State was made the creed of the Indian constitution.
(iii) In the new economic order, State is withdrawing from business, yet its functions as
facilitator and regulator are increasing. It will increase the significance of administrative
law.
(iv) All administrative matters are dealt by the Administrative Courts and their decisions are
final and not subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court and High Court.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (2) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(3) (i) and (ii) are correct (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
81. “The right of private defence of body commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of
danger to the body arises and continues as long as such apprehension continues.” This observation
was made by the Supreme Court in :
(1) Deo Narain vs State of U.P. (2) Ranga Billa vs Union of India
(3) State of Punjab vs Nanak Chand (4) Ram Swaroop vs State of U.P.
Assertion (A) : In the matters of absolute privilege, no action lies for the defamatory statement
even though the statement is false or has been made maliciously.
Reason (R) : Whether a statement is defamatory or not depends upon how the right thinking
members of the society are likely to take it.
Codes :
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
given below.
List-I List-II
(Theory) (Jurist)
(a) Normative order (i) Rudolf Stammler
(b) Theory of Justice (ii) Ihering
(c) Natural law with variable content (iii) Kelsen
(d) Social Utilitarianism (iv) Rawls
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

given below.
List-I List-II
(Article in UDHR) (Content in UDHR)
(a) Article 9 (i) Everyone has the right to own property alone
as well as in association with others. No one
shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.
(b) Article 13 (ii) No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest,
detention or exile.
(c) Article 15 (iii) Everyone has the right to freedom of
movement and residence within the borders
of each state. Everyone has the right to leave
any country, including his own and return to
his country.
(d) Article 17 (iv) Everyone has the right to nationality. No one
shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality
and denied the right to change his nationality.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Assertion (A) : The Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum’, states the court will have jurisdiction in a
matter in which it does not otherwise have jurisdiction where a respondent consents to the
jurisdiction subsequent to the commencement of proceedings against it.
Reason (R) : The Operation of the ‘Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum’ has been envisaged under
the Charter of the U.N. and also Statute of the International court of Justice.
Codes :
Assertion (A) : A person imports into India from a foreign country or from the State of Jammu
and Kashmir, a girl with the intention of forcing her to illicit intercourse with another person, shall
be punished with ten years imprisonment.
Reason (R) : It is so provided under Section 366 – B of the Indian Panel Codes.
Codes :
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false
87. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

(i) European convention on Extradition was adopted at Paris on 13th December, 1964.
(ii) The practice of non-extradition for political crimes began with the French Revolution of
1789.
(iii) On 16th June, 1987, the Foreign Secretaries of South Asia Regional countries entered into
an agreement on extradition.
(iv) Factor vs Laubenheimer is a leading case on non-extradition of political crimes.
Codes :
(1) Only (ii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
given below.
List-I List-II
(Recognition given) (Dates of Recognition)
(a) India recognized China (i) 1st April, 1975
(b) India recognised Spain (ii) 6th December, 1971
(c) India recognised Cambodia (iii) 30th December, 1949
(d) India recognised Bangladesh (iv) 2nd May, 1956
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
89. Match the items of List-I (name of case) with the items of List-II (ground of judicial review) and
choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
List-I List-II
(Name of case) (Ground of judicial review)
(a) Union of India vs Hindustan (i) Extraneous consideration
Development Corporation
(b) Institute of Law, Chandigarh (ii) Legitimate expectations
vs Neeraj Sharma
(c) Council of Civil Services (iii) Public accountability
Union vs Minister for the
Civil Service
(d) Centre for PIL vs Union of (iv) Proportionality
India
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
given below.
List-I List-II
(a) K.L.N.V. Veeranjaneyulu vs (i) Women’s right to Love and Reject
Union of India and others
(b) Abhiram Singh vs C.D. (ii) Every author has a fundamental right
Commachen (Dead) by LRS to speak out ideas freely and express
and others thoughts adequately
(c) Pawan Kumar vs State H.P. (iii) States are not empowered to create
office of Parliamentary Secretary
(d) Bimolangshu Roy (Dead) (iv) Seeking vote in the name of religion,
through LRS vs State of caste is corrupt practice
Assam and others
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
given below.
List-I List-II
(Provision for) (Section of I.P.C.)
(a) General explanation of ‘life’ (i) Section 45
(b) Act of judge when acting judicially (ii) Section 52
(c) Act of child under seven years (iii) Section 77
of age
(d) Explanation of ‘Good Faith’ (iv) Section 82
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(R). Read the Statements and choose the correct answer using the Codes given below.
Assertion (A) : A child adopted under the Hindu Adopted and Maintenance Act, 1956 shall be
deemed to be the child of his or her father or mother for all purpose with effect from the date
of adoption.
Reason (R) : A validly adopted child may renounce his or her status as such after attaining the
age of 21 year and return to his/her family of birth.
Codes :
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is correct and (R) is true explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
given below.
List-I List-II
(Book) (Author)
(a) Elements of Jurisprudence (i) B.N. Cardozo
(b) The Nature of Judicial Process (ii) H.L.A. Hart
(c) Dilemmas of Law in the Welfare (iii) T.A. Holland
State
(d) The Concept of Law (iv) L.M. Friedman
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
94. The Doctrine of Indoor Management was first laid down in the case of :
(1) Howard vs Patent Ivory Company
(2) Morris vs Kanssen
(3) Royal British Bank vs Turquand
(4) Ruben vs Great Fingal Consolidated
95. Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have jurisdiction ?
(i) Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.
(ii) Crime committed by a foreigner in India.
(iii) Crime committed by a person on an Indian Ship.
Codes :
(1) Only (ii) and (iii) (2) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (i) and (ii) (4) Only (i) and (iii)

96. The National Human Rights Commission was establish in India on :

(1) 22nd November 1993 (2) 2nd October 1993
(3) 25th November 1993 (4) 2nd December 1993
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
List-I List-II
(a) M. Nagaraj vs Union of India (i) Case on National Security
(b) Indira Sawhney vs Union of (ii) To provide reservations in promotions
India for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes
(c) Mohini Jain vs State of (iii) Application of creamy layer to O.B.C.
Karnataka quota
(d) A.K. Roy vs Union of India (iv) On capitation fees
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
98. Mark the correct statement :

(1) Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the husband can claim maintenance.
(2) Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, father-in-law is personally liable
to pay maintenance to the widowed daughter-in-law
(3) Unchaste wife can live separate and claim maintenance under the Hindu Adoptions and
Maintenance Act. 1956.
(4) The term ‘maintenance’ under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 does not
include marriage expenses of unmarried daughter.
99. Which of the following powers is not vested with Lokpal under Chapter-VII of the Act, 2013 ?
(1) Powers of attachment of assets
(2) Powers of search and seizure
(3) Powers to utilise services of officers of Central or State Government
(4) Powers of criminal court in certain cases
100. Who among the following defined crime as “an act committed or omitted in violation of a public
law either forbidding or commanding it” ?
(1) Kenny (2) Blackstone
(3) Russel (4) J.F. Stephen

Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 2 4 2 2 1 2 2 4 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 1 4 2 1 2 1 1 1 1
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4 2 1 2 4 4 1 4 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 2 2 4 3 1 4 4 3 1
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
4 1 2 1 3 1 1 3 3 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 4
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
2 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 1 1
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 4 1 2 4 4 4 3 4 1
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
3 1 3 3 2 2 3 1 4 2

General Paper-1 (June 2019)

Previous Year Solved Paper (June 2019)
marks. Attempt all the questions.
1. During research, while recording observations if an observer rates an individual based on the
rating given in another aspect of the interaction, this is termed as the
(1) Evaluation effect (2) Error of central tendency
(3) Halo effect (4) Categorical effect
2. Inclusive education implies

(1) Ensuring learning outcome of every child to be the same
(2) Including the disabled in the main stream
(3) Provides compulsory education for children below 14 years
(4) Ensuring that no child is left behind in education
3. The study of 'why does stressful living result in heart attack' ? Can be classified as
(1) Descriptive research (2) Explanatory research
(3) Correlational research (4) Feasibility research
4. Listening is important for a teacher to

(1) address the requirement of the learner
(2) gain knowledge
(3) keep the learner in good humour
(4) evaluate the learner for the progress made
5. Reflective Practice implies use of one's

(1) Cognition (2) Metacognition
(3) Metacognition on cognition (4) Reinforcement of learning
6. Mailed questionnaire, observation, interview and collective questionnaire are instances of

(1) Secondary sources (2) Personal sources
(3) Primary sources (4) Tertiary sources
7. Peer group interaction in a classroom helps in

(1) Concept understanding
(2) Realization of One's misunderstanding
(3) Rapport Building
(4) Questioning

8. When the learning outcomes of students are ensured with employment of less resources and
effort on the part of a teacher and more initiative for self-learning is evident, which of the
following expression will describe the teacher most appropriately ?
(1) Teacher is successful (2) Teacher is effective
(3) Teacher is intelligent (4) Teacher is practical
9. A hypothesis should be conceptually

(1) convoluted, complex and generic (2) complex, tough and general
(3) simple, clear and specific (4) obscure, complicated and simple
10. The formulation of a research problem can be compared to

(1) Laying the foundation of a building
(2) Building the walls of a home
(3) Polishing the doors of a building
(4) Constructing the ceiling of a house
Direction (Q. 11 to 15)

A business will usually go through a clear set of stages that will make up its organisational life
cycle. These stages include introduction, early growth, continuous growth, maturity and decline.
The first stage, the introduction stage, is the start-up phase where a business decides what its
core strengths and capabilities are and starts selling its product or service. At this early stage,
the founder or founders will be a part of every aspect of the daily process of the business. The
main goal at this stage is to take off to a good start and make a place in the market.
The next stage, the early growth phase, aims at increased sales and more development. The
focus at this stage remains on the original product or service but the effort is to increase the
market share and venture into related products or services. The main goal is to move the founder
to a more managerial role so more time is spent on managing and building the business. At this
stage, documents and policies need to be developed so any member of the organisation can see
the business any time.
The third stage, the continuous growth stage, requires a systematic structure and more formal
relationships among its participants. At this stage, the resource requirements of the business
need careful handling. The focus is on the expansion of the business keeping in mind its core
strength and capability. A formal organisational structure and a clear delegation plan are important
at this stage.
At the fourth stage of maturity, a business often slows down as the level of innovative energy
may have become weak and the formal structures may have become obstacles. A lot of care
is required to prevent decline.
11. The slowing down of a business can happen if,
(1) there is a decline in the market share
(2) the level of innovative energy weakens
(3) the managerial roles are not clear
(4) the level of investment declines
12. The resource requirements of a business need careful handling at which stage ?
(1) Fourth (2) First
(3) Third (4) Second
13. Venturing into related products and services does not mean that a business will
(1) ignore the original product
(2) move the founder to a more managerial role
(3) delegate more responsibilities
(4) ignore the related products and services
14. When will a business create its place in the market ?

(1) At maturity (2) At introduction
(3) At early growth (4) At late growth
15. The founder of a business does not move to a more managerial role at which stage ?
(1) Early growth stage (2) Maturity stage
(3) Decline stage (4) Start up stage
16. Which of the following signifies non-verbal communication in an essential way ?

(1) Instructions written on a question paper
(2) Learner attending an online class
(3) The dress code followed by an individual
(4) Yoga instructor teaching yoga poses to the pupils
17. If RED is coded as 6720, then how would GREEN be coded ?

(1) 16717209 (2) 1677209
(3) 9207716 (4) 1677199
18. No Musicians are Japanese

All Barbers are Musicians
No barbers are Japanese
Identify the Middle Term in the above syllogism
(1) Subject in the first premise and predicate in the second premise
(2) Predicate in the first premise and subject in the second premise
(3) Predicate in the both premises
(4) Subject in both the premises
19. Which of the following is a characteristic of modern mass media ?

(1) Capital intensive (2) Labour intensive
(3) Sustainable (4) Developmental
20. Which of the following is a stage of intrapersonal communication ?

(1) Phatic stage (2) Intimate stage
(3) Personal stage (4) Transcendental communication

21. A man travelled from the village to the railway station at the rate of 20 kmph and walked back
at the rate of 5 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hours, find the distance of the railway station
from the village.
(1) 10 km (2) 15 km
(3) 20 km (4) 40 km
22. Among the five friends, Vineet is taller than Monika, but not as tall as Ram. Jacob is taller than
Dalip but shorter than Monika. Who is the tallest in their group ?
(1) Ram (2) Monika
(3) Vineet (4) Jacob
23. Inductive argument proceeds from

(1) Universal to Particular (2) Particular to Universal
(3) Universal to Universal (4) Particular to Particular
24. Semantic barrier of communication is implied when the

(1) signal is lost before reaching the receiver
(2) message transmitted by the source is unclear
(3) receiver's attention is diverted
(4) receiver does not understand the meaning of the message
25. A trader mixes three varieties of refined oil costing Rs.100, Rs.40 and Rs.60 per litre in the ratio
2 : 4 : 3 in terms of litre, and sells the mixture at Rs.66 per litre. What percentage of profit does
he make ?
(1) 12% (2) 10%
(3) 9% (4) 8%
26. If the average of five numbers is – 20 and the sum of three of the numbers is 32, then what
is the average of the other two numbers ?
(1) – 66 (2) – 33
(3) – 34 (4) – 132
27. Consider the example given below :

Devadatta is growing fat.
He does not eat food during the day.
Therefore, He must be eating food during the night, other things being equal.
Identify the logic involved in the example provided above by choosing the correct answer from
options given below :
(1) Arthapatti (2) Anupalabdi
(3) Anumana (4) Sabda

yx
28. If 0.75 x = 0.02 y, then the value of   is
yx
73 75
(1) (2)
75 77
73 730
(3) (4)
77 75
29. Consider the argument provided below :

"Sound is permanent because it is a product like the jar".
Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian logic from the options
given below.
(1) Fallacy of contradictory reason (2) Fallacy of wrong assertion
(3) Fallacy of irrelevant reason (4) Fallacy of trivial reason
30. Assertion (A) : Communication presupposes a shared, symbolic environment, a social relationship
even among nonparticipants.
Reason (R) : It leads to social interaction, which in combination with other factors contributes
to a sense of community.
Choose the correct option given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Direction (Q. 31 to 35) : Consider the following table that shows the production of fertilizers by a
company (in 10000 tonnes) during the year 2011 to 2018.
Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table :
Year : 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

Production of Fertilizers : 35 50 70 55 75 60 85 90
31. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 2013 to 2014 ?
(1) 20.4% (2) 21.4%
(3) 22.6% (4) 24.2%
32. What was the approximate percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2018 compared to
that in 2011 ?
(1) 157% (2) 165%
(3) 177% (4) 182%
33. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production
of the given years ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

34. The average production of 2012 and 2013 was exactly equal to the average production of which
of the following pairs of years ?
(1) 2011 and 2012 (2) 2011 and 2017
(3) 2012 and 2014 (4) 2015 and 2016
35. In which year, the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous year was
maximum ?
(1) 2012 (2) 2013
(3) 2015 (4) 2018
36. Permafrost is defining characteristic of which biome ?

(1) Taiga (2) Tundra
(3) Grassland (4) Desert
37. The report of which of the following Education Commissions carries the sub-title Education for
National Development' ?
(1) Radhakrishnan Commission
(2) Mudaliar Commission
(3) Calcutta University Education Commission
(4) Kothari Commission
38. In Audio and Video compression, the term RGB means

(1) Red, Grey, Blue (2) Red, Green, Blue
(3) Red, Green, Black (4) Red, Grey, Black
39. The mangroves exist in

(1) Fresh water system (2) Temperate areas
(3) Semi-arid areas (4) Saline waters
40. Which of the following statements best explains the concept of sustainable development ?
(1) Use of natural resources minimally
(2) Use of natural resources for our benefit
(3) Use of natural resources judiciously so that they are available for future generations
(4) Preserve our natural resources for our future generation
41. Chemical oxygen demand in eutrophic water is

(1) Low (2) High
(3) Medium (4) Extremely low
42. Match the following :

List-I List-II
(a) First Generation (i) Transistor
(b) Second Generation (ii) VLSI microprocessor
(c) Third Generation (iii) Vacuum tube
(d) Fourth Generation (iv) Integrated circuit
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
43. Which of the following is not a/an web browser ?

(1) Internet Explorer (2) Mozilla Firefox
(3) Google chrome (4) Yahoo
44. One Tera Byte (TB) of memory is equal to

(1) 1024 KB (2) 1024 × 1024 KB
(3) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 KB (4) 1024 × 1024 × 1024 Bytes
45. The expansion of SANKALP is,

(1) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition of Language Programme
(2) Skills Acquisition and Karatae Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
(3) Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
(4) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition for Livelihood Promotion
46. In which year the modern Indian University got established ?

(1) 1957 (2) 1857
(3) 1947 (4) 1964
47. A/An _________ is a computer program that spreads by inserting copies of itself into other
executable code or documents.
(1) Operating System (2) Computer Virus
(3) Firewall (4) Anti-virus
48. In which era given below, higher education in India got a set back ?
(1) British Era (2) Buddhist Era
(3) Mughal Era (4) Post-Independence Era
49. The target set by Indian government for generating power from wind energy by the year 2022
is
(1) 60 GW (2) 50 GW
(3) 40 GW (4) 15 GW
50. Which pollutant is the major source of marine pollution ?

(1) Agricultural run-off (2) Oil spill
(3) Industrial waste water (4) Sewage

ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 2 4 2 1 1 3 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 2 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 or 4

Law Paper-II (PSP-2019 June)
Law
Previous Year Solved Paper - 2019 June
1. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(a) Fighting by two or more persons (i) Abetment
in public place
(b) Intentional aiding in commission (ii) Sedition
of an offence
(c) Violence is caused by five or (iii) Affray
more persons
(d) Offence committed against state (iv) Riot
by words, signs or visible
representation
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
2. Which of the following Articles provides coverage for the intervention in domestic jurisdiction for
the enforcement of human right ?
(1) Article 2(5) of UN Charter (2) Article 2(6) of UN Charter
(3) Article 2(7) of UN Charter (4) Article 2(8) of UN Charter
3. An accident is 'one out of ordinary course of things, somethings so unusual as not to be looked
for by a person of ordinary prudence', is said to be
(1) Negligence (2) Inevitable Accident
(3) Act of God (4) Damnum sine injuria
4. Judicial Review of an administrative action means

(1) review by the Parliament
(2) review by the Government
(3) review by the Legislative Assembly
(4) review by the Judiciary

5. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with solitary confinement ?

(1) Section 73 of IPC (2) Section 72 of IPC
(3) Section 71 of IPC (4) Section 70 of IPC
6. Which of the following is not a constituent of Tort ?

(1) Wrongful act (2) Damage
(3) Remedy (4) Mens rea
7. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India strike down Section 303 IPC as
unconstitutional ?
(1) Machhi Singh Vs. State of Punjab (2) Bachan Singh Vs. State Punjab
(3) Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab (4) Mithu Kaur Vs. State of Punjab

(a) WTO was established as a result of the culmination of Uruguay Round of GATT
(b) The new World Trade Organisation (WTO) came into effect on Jan 1, 1995.
(c) At the time of establishment WTO had 88 members.
(d) The 7th Ministerial Conference of WTO was held in Marrakesh (Morocco) from 30 November
to December 2, 2008
(1) Only (a) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
9. 'A Statutory Board conducting examinations is not a service provider and does not offer services
to candidates while conducting an examination' was held by the Supreme Court in
(1) Buddhist Mission Dental College and Hospital Vs. Bhupesh Khurana (2009)
(2) Bihar School Examination Board Vs. Suresh Prasad Sinha (2009)
(3) Madan Kumar Singh Vs. District Magistrate, Sultanpur (2009)
(4) UT Chandigarh Administration Vs. Amarjeet Singh (2009)
10. The absolute grounds for refusal of registration is contained under which section of the Trade
Mark Act,1999 ?
11. Holback Hotel Ltd. Vs. Scarborough Borough Council is a leading case on
(1) negligence (2) nuisance
(3) trespass (4) defamation
12. In which of the following case, it was held that if a person is not a citizen of any state, he will
be called 'stateless' ?
(1) Nottebohm's Case (2) Whicker Vs. Hume
(3) Winans Vs. A. G. (4) Stoeck Vs. The Public Trustee

13. Whoever counterfeits, or knowingly performs, any part of the process of counterfeiting Indian coin
under section 232 by Indian Penal Code shall be punished with
(1) imprisonment which may extend to ten years and fine
(2) imprisonment which may extend to seven years and fine
(3) imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine
(4) imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine

List-I List-II
(a) Date and year of establishment (i) 27 May, 1981
of United Nations
(b) The first Security Council came (ii) 1 Jan, 1992
into being
(c) Paris Declaration on Sanctions (iii) 12 Jan, 1946
against South Africa
(d) Mr. Boutros Boutras Ghali took (iv) 24 Oct. 1945
over as Secretary General of the
UN
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
15. Which of the following is correct ?

(1) Administrative Law is a branch of Public Law and is only a part of Constitutional Law. It
cannot control the Constitutional Law.
(2) Administrative Law is a branch of Private Law.
(3) Administrative Law is independent to the Constitutional Law.
(4) Administrative Law is neither the branch of Public Law nor of private Law but a part of
Constitutional Law.
16. Which of the following statement/statements is/are NOT correct ?

(a) The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of 'Armed Rebellion' was inserted
by the Constitutional (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
(b) President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (l) Article 352 unless the decision
of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated
to him in writing
(c) A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed by special
majority
(d) A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until
the emergency ceases.
Select the correct answers by using the codes given below
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (d) both
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
17. How many core principle are laid down in United Nations Declaration of Permanent Sovereignty
over Natural Resources ?
(1) Five core principles (2) Six core principles
(3) Seven core principles (4) Eight core principles
18. Regulation of Access to Biological Diversity is described under which one of the following chapters
of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 ?
(1) Chapter I (2) Chapter II
(3) Chapter III (4) Chapter IV
19. Sedition means

(1) Expressing disapprobation of the measure of the government with a view to obtain their
alteration.
(2) Advocacy of boycott of foreign goods as a means of helping Indian industries
(3) Exciting or attempting to excite hatred towards the government through a writing which
remains with the author unpublished
(4) Bringing or attempting to bring the government into hatred through words, signs or visible
representation.
20. The NGT Act, 2010 contains how many schedules ?

(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
21. 'Uninsured vehicles are also within the scope of Section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act' was held
in
(1) LIC of India Vs. Raj Kumari Mittal (1988)
(2) Kamal Kusha Vs. Kripal Singh (1988)
(3) Permanand Thakur Vs. Commissioner, Coal Mines (1988)
(4) New India Assurance Co. Ltd. Vs. Nakul Gurung (2010)
22. Which of the following are the chief exponents of the 'Theory of Consent' regarding basis of
International Law ?
(1) Anzilotti, Triepel, Oppenheim (2) Starke, Smith, Brierly
(3) Fawett, Jellinck, Pollock (4) Kelson, Hart Edward Collins
23. X with the Intention to steal ornaments opened Y s box and found it empty. Which of the following
statements is correct ?
(1) X is not liable for attempt to commit theft as the box being empty, commission of theft was
impossible.
(2) X is not liable for attempt to commit theft as he did not do the penultimate act towards
commission of theft.
(3) X is not guilty of attempt to commit theft as the ornaments were not in the box.
(4) X is guilty of attempt to commit theft as he had an intention to commit theft and did an
act toward its commission.

24. In which of the cases did Supreme Court hold that a relationship in the nature of marriage under
the Domestic Violence Act, 2005 must also fulfill some basic criteria, merely spending weekends
together or one night would not make it a domestic relationship ?
(1) Payal Katara Vs. Supt. Nari Niketan and other
(2) D. Velusamy Vs. D. Patchaiammal
(3) Bharati Matha and others Vs. R. Vijaya Ranganathan and others
(4) S. Khushboo Vs. Kanniammal and others

List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Relevant Supreme Court Cases)
(a) Appointment of judges of (i) In Re : Vinay Chander Mishra
Supreme Court
(b) Jurisdiction of Supreme Court (ii) S C Advocates-on-Record Association Vs.
as Court of Record Union of India
(c) Original jurisdiction of Supreme (iii) A. R. Antulay Vs. R. S. Nayak
Court
(d) Power of Supreme Court to (iv) State of Karnataka Vs Union of India
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
26. 'Right to Environment' discourse includes

(a) Right to Health (b) Right to Sanitation
(c) Right to Clean Technology (d) Right to Free Speech
Select the correct answer from the code given below
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are true
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are true
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are true
(4) (a) and (b) are true whereas (c) and (d) are false
27. In which year the Commission on Status of Women was established by Economic and Social
Council ?
(1) 1946 (2) 1947
(3) 1948 (4) 1949
28. Which of the following actions can be taken when an issue is made under the provisions of
Section 42 of the Companies Act, 2013 ?
(1) An advertisement can be issued in a local newspaper having city coverage
(2) The money payable towards subscription can be received in cash
(3) The share can be allotted within sixty days of the date of offer
(4) The offer can be made to a maximum of fifty people

29. Which of the following is NOT correct ?

(1) Judicial review tends to elevate the judiciary to the rank of super legislature
(2) The scope of judicial review is limited as it emphasises on the 'procedure established by
law' rather than 'due procedure of law'
(3) Judicial review is indispensable to a federal system of government
(4) Judicial review does not include judicial competence to review executive enforcement of
legislative enactments
30. Two persons are said to be related to each other by what relation when they are descended from
a common ancestress but by different husbands ?
(1) Full blood (2) Half blood
(3) Uterine blood (4) Agnate
below :
Assertion (A) : Article 38 of the statute of International Court of Justice lists International
Conventions, whether general or particular, establishing rules expressly recognised by the contesting
states as the first source of International Law.
Reason (R) : In modern period, International Treaties are the most important source of International
Law.
Select the correct answer :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
32. 'A citizen has a fundamental right to use the best means of imparting and receiving information
and as such to have an access to telecasting for the purpose' is the observation of the Supreme
Court in
(1) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India Cricket Association of Bengal
(1995)
(2) Prabhu Dutt Vs. Union of India (1982)
(3) Dinesh Trivedi Vs. Union of India (1977)
(4) Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust Vs. Union of India (2014)
33. Who among the following has defined jurisprudence as 'the knowledge of things divine and
human, the science of right and wrong ?'
(1) Blackstone (2) Hobbes
(3) Salmond (4) Ulpian
34. 'Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste management' is inserted to the Schedule
of the Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendments ?
(1) 42nd Constitutional Amendment (2) 44th Constitutional Amendment
(3) 73rd Constitutional Amendment (4) 74th Constitutional Amendment

35. In which section of the Partnership Act it is laid down that there can be a partnership in a single
or particular business venture ?
36. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the cardinal principle, 'Actus non facit reum
nisi mens sit rea' ?
(1) Mens rea is an essential element of a crime and there cannot be a crime without mens
rea.
(2) Criminal liability under Indian law always implies mens rea.
(3) To constitute a crime there must be actus reus and mens rea
(4) Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime
37. Which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with the
'rights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties' ?
38. Every offence punishable under Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is
(1) compoundable (2) non-compoundable
(3) cognizable (4) Both (2) and (3) above
39. The principle 'Restitution stops where repayment begins' can be applied against
(1) an alien enemy only (2) minors only
(3) lunatics and idiots only (4) an incapable person
40. The remedies for the violation of Sections 3 and 4 of the Competition Act have been laid down
under
(3) Section 42A (4) Section 43A
41. Which of the following is an essential condition in Marz-ul-Maut

(1) A malady which makes it impossible for the patient to move
(2) It must be continued for more than a year
(3) There must be apprehension of death
(4) A malady which causes problem with heart
42. Which of the following activities cannot be considered as relating to social responsibility under
Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 ?
(1) Amount spent on activities which only benefit the employees of the company
(2) Amount spent to benefit people who are not economically backward
(3) Amount spent on activities which only benefit the consumers of the organisation
(4) Amount spent on activities which only benefit the suppliers of the organisation
43. Under which of the following section of Code of Civil Procedure (1908) did Indian courts recognise
or derecognise the foreign decree of divorce ?
44. Assertion (A) : International Humanitarian Law (IHL) is the law that regulates the conduct of war
(jus in bello). It is that branch of International Law which seeks, to limit the efforts of Armed
Conflicts by protecting persons who are not participating in hostilities and by restricting and
regulating the means and methods of warfare available to combatants.
Reason (R) : International Humanitarian Law (IHL) is inspired by considerations of humanity and
the mitigation of human sufferings
Select the answer from the code given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
45. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with corporate social responsibility ?
46. Human rights are defined in which of the following sections of the Protection of Human Rights
Act, 1993 ?
(1) Section 2(a) (2) Section 2(b)
(3) Section 2(c) (4) Section 2(d)
47. The Preamble to Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
lays down
(a) public policy objectives of national system
(b) special needs of the least developed countries
(c) resolving IP disputes through multilateral procedures
(d) establishing mutually supportive relationship between WTO and WIPO
Which of following is/are true ?
(1) Only (a) is true (2) Only (a) and (b) are true
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are true (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are true
48. 'Test of control' deals with

(1) master and servant relationship (2) measures of damages
(3) course of employment (4) implied authority
49. Which of the following Articles of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 deals with civil and
political rights ?
(1) Articles 1 and 2 (2) Articles 3 to 21
(3) Articles 22 to 27 (4) Articles 28 to 30

50. "The law of every modern state shows as at a thousand points the influence of both the accepted
social morality and wider moral ideals. These influences enter into law either abruptly and avowedly
through legislation, or silently and piecemeal through the judicial process."
Who said this ?
(1) Bentham (2) Gray
(3) Hart (4) Karkunov
51. Which of the following statement/statements is/are NOT conect ?

(a) According to Article 16 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 'Everyone has a
right to seek and enjoy in other countries asylum from prosecution.'
(b) In 1967, United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted by the
General Assembly.
(c) The Convention on the Status of Refugees, 1951 entered into force on April 24, 1956.
(d) In the Asylum Case (Colombia V. Peru) the International Court of Justice explained the
distinction between territorial asylum and diplomatic asylum.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
52. "Dower may be regarded as consideration for connubial intercourse by way of analogy to the
contract for sale."
The above observation has been made is which of the following cases ?
(1) Abdul kadir vs. Salima (2) Zobair Ahmed Vs. Jainandan Prasad
(3) Rahana Khattun Vs. Iqtidar-uddin (4) Hamidunissa Bibi Vs. Zaheer Sheik
53. The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court

(1) when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return promise
(2) when the promisor performs his promise
(3) when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the pleaded
(4) always at the discretion of the court
54. "Nobody can be above the institution which he is supposed to serve. He is merely the creature
of the institution, he can exist only if the institution exists. To protect the individual as mighter than
the Constitution would be grave injustice." In which of the following cases the Supreme Court,
through Chief Justice Sikri has observed this ?
(1) S. S. Dhannoa Vs. Union of India
(2) T. N. Seshan Vs. Union of India
(3) In Presidential Reference, 2000.
(4) A. C. Jose Vs. Sivan Pillai
55. Which of the following is a leading case on trespass ab initio ?

(1) Goldsmith Vs. Sperrings Ltd. (2) Dumbbell Vs Roberts
(3) Bird Vs. Jones (4) Six carpenters' case

56. 'A legal person is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality',
is the statement of :
(1) Blackstone (2) Salmond
(3) Holland (4) Bentham

(a) 'Hegel' is one of the chief exponents of the 'Constitutive Theory' of recognition.
(b) Civil Air Transport Incorporated Co. Vs. Central Air Transport Corporation is a leading case
on the retrospective effect of recognition.
(c) De jure recognition is not final and can be withdrawn.
(d) In Luther Vs. Sagor it was held that there is distinction between de facto and de jure
recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognised authority.
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
58. The Sapinda relationship on the line of ascent under the Hindu Law extends
(1) three degree through the father and two degree through the mother
(2) four degree through the father and three degree through the mother
(3) five degree through the father and three degree through the mother
(4) seven degree through the father and five degree through the mother
59. Which Article of the UN Charter puts the promotion of respect for human rights on the same level
as the maintenance of international peace and security as a purpose of the UN ?
60. In India, 'the machinery of government is essentially British and the whole collection of British
Constitutional Conventions has apparently been incorporated as conventions' is the observation
of
(1) A. V. Dicey (2) Sir Ivor Jennings
(3) S. A. de smith (4) Wade and Phillips
61. The prohibition of registration of geographical indication under the GIG Act, 1999 contains as
many as
(1) four grounds (2) five grounds
(3) six grounds (4) seven grounds
62. X, with the intention to cause miscarriage administered a drug to a pregnant lady, Y. The child
in the womb died. X is guilty of
(1) murder
(2) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(3) no offence
(4) causing miscarriage
63. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that 'the audi alteram partem rule, in
essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial
bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question ?'
(1) U. P. Warehousing Corporation Vs. Vijay Narain
(2) Delhi Transport Corporation Vs. DTC Majdoor Union
(3) A. K Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
(4) Gullapalli Nageswara Rao Vs. APSRTC

List-I List-II
(a) Bentham (i) Historical School
(b) Puchta (ii) Sociological School
(c) Herbert Spencer (iii) Analytical School
(d) Gray (iv) The Realist School
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(a) If the other House does not pass an Ordinary Bill and more than six months have passed,
the President may summon a Joint Session of both the Houses
(b) At the Joint Session of two Houses, new amendment can be proposed in the Bill with the
permission of the Presiding Officer (Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
(c) The Lower House has exclusive power over Money Bills
(d) Money and Financial Bills can be only introduced in the Lok Sabha and with prior
recommendations of the President.
(1) Only (a) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
66. In which one of the following cases it has been held that section 9 of Civil Procedure Code, 1973,
which enables a civil court to try all suits of civil nature, impliedly confers jurisdiction to apply the
law of torts as principles of justice, equity and good conscience ?
(1) Union Carbide Corporation Vs. Union of India
(2) Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation Vs. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai
(3) Rohtas Industries Ltd. Vs. Rohtas Industries Staff Union
(4) Waghela Rajsanji Vs. Shekh Masludin
67. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that 'the state shall endeavour to secure for the
citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India ?'
(1) Article 25 of the Constitution (2) Article 37 of the Constitution
(3) Article 44 of the Constitution (4) Article 45 of the Constitution
68. The institution of ombudsman was firstly initiated in the year 1809 by :
(1) France (2) U. S. A.
(3) U. K. (4) Sweden
69. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court said that Governor cannot exercise his power
of suspension of the sentence under Article 213 of the Constitution of India, for the period when
the Supreme Court is seized of the case. The order of the Governor could only operate until the
matter became subjudice in the Supreme Court and it becomes so on the filing of the petition
for special leave to appeal ?
(1) Satpal Dang Vs. State of Punjab
(2) D. C. Wadhwa Vs. State of Bihar
(3) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Bombay
(4) A. K. Roy Vs. Union of India
70. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) committed to provide

(a) Universal access to affordable, reliable and modern energy services
(b) Improving the share of renewable energy
(c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2030
(d) Protection of ocean and wetland
Select the correct answer using the options given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are true (2) (a), (c) and (d) are true
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are true (4) (a), (b) and (d) are true
71. The Doctrine of Separation of Powers in its strict and technical sense is applied in
(1) India (2) U. K.
(3) U. S. A. (4) France
72. The accused at the time of committing the act because of unsoundness of mind is incapable of
knowing
(a) the nature of the act
(b) that the act is wrong or contrary to law
(c) that the act is unethical and wrong
(d) that the act is morally wrong but not contrary to law
To claim the benefit of Sec. 84 of IPC which of the above needs to be proved ?
Give the correct answer
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
73. "If one's artistic expressions are synonymous with one's personality, than they are deserving of
protection just as much as the physical person."
The above observation is true about which theory of intellectual property ?
(1) Moral desert theory (2) Personality theory
(3) Utilitarian theory (4) Libertian theory

74. Which of the following is incorrect regarding meaning of 'Merchantable quality of goods' ?
(1) the goods are free from patent defects
(2) the goods are free from latent defects
(3) the goods can be used for the purpose for which they are bought
(4) that the goods are marketable at their full value
75. Chandra Vs. Suresh AIR 1971 Delhi 208 deals with
(1) maintenance (2) custody of children
(3) Hindu undivided family (4) decree of judicial separation

List-I List-II
(a) A right which although, (i) Proprietary Right
recognised by law, is not
enforceable
(b) A person's right in relation to (ii) Personal Right
his property
(c) A person's right relation to (iii) Imperfect Right
status and that arising out of
contract
(d) A right which does not create (iv) Contingent Right
an immediate interest
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
77. A wife has an implied authority of the husband to buy articles of household necessity
(1) If the wife is living with her husband not in a domestic establishment of their own
(2) If the wife is living separately
(3) If the wife is living with her husband not in a domestic establishment
(4) If the wife is provided a reasonable allowance by the husband for the purchase of household
needs
78. 'Cyber security' according to the IT Act, 2000 means

(1) a device and collection of devices, including input and output support devices and excluding
calculations which are not programmable and capable of being used
(2) any electronic, magnetic, optical or other high speed data processing device or system
which performs logical, arithmetic and memory functions by manipulation of electronic,
magnetic or optical impulse
(3) protecting information, equipment, devices, computer, computer resource, communication
device and information stored therein from unauthorised access, use, disclosure, disruption,
modification or destruction
(4) affixing with its grammatical variations and cognate expressions means adoption of any
methodology or procedure by a person for the purpose of authenticating an electronic
record
79. Macleods Pharmaceuticals Ltd. Vs. Tidal Laboratories Pvt. Ltd. (2011) is a case on which subject
of intellectual properly rights ?
(1) Patent (2) Trademark
(3) Design (4) Geographical indications
80. Which one of the following is NOT a principle which is the very foundation of International
Humanitarian Law and which must guide emergency humanitarian actions in armed conflicts ?
(1) Principle of Humanity (2) Principle of Impartiality
(3) Principle of Neutrality (4) Principle of Self-determination
81. Which one of the following is NOT an essential of parliamentary form of government ?
(1) The presence of a nominal executive head of the state who acts exclusively on the advice
of cabinet
(2) The cabinet, which is the real executive, consists of leaders of a party, who have the
support of the majority in the legislature
(3) The responsibility of the cabinet is collective
(4) The President appoints ministers and assigns to them their offices.
82. 'We have to evolve new principles and lay down new norms which will adequately deal with new
problem which arise in a highly industrialised society' was laid down in
(1) Common Cause Vs. Union of India
(2) M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
(3) Invercargill City Council Vs. Hamlin
(4) Union of India Vs. Sat Pal Dharam Vir
83. The liability has been defined as 'the bond of necessity that exists between the wrongdoer and
the remedy of the wrong' by
(1) Austin (2) Bentham
(3) Salmond (4) Holland
84. Super Cassettes Industries Ltd. Vs. Myspace Inc. 2011 is a leading case on the Copyright Act,
1957 dealing with which section of the Act ?
85. Possession through an agent or servant is an example of :

(1) corporeal possession (2) incorporeal possession
(3) mediate possession (4) immediate possession
86. The Constitution of India incorporates the 'Rule of Law' in :


below :
Assertion (A) : Under the Indian Constitution, an Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of
Parliament by required majority shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent and
thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended
Reason (R) : The President is bound to give his assent to the Bill.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right
88. The cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal Rule, 2000 has been passed under which section of the
IT Act, 2000 ?
below :
Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers is the hub of the parliamentary form of government.
Reason (R) : The Council of Ministers (Cabinet) is constituted from the majority party.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is right
90. Who among the following stated that 'postmodernism is a notoriously ambiguous concept ?
(1) Lloyd (2) Toynbee
(3) Somervell (4) Bentham
91. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution have been extended to Jammu and
Kashmir state by Presidential Order ?
(a) Provisions relating to freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, services and citizenship.
(b) Provisions relating to Elections.
(c) Provision relating to Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India.
(d) Power of High Courts to issue writs for "Any other purpose."
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
(1) Only (a) (2) (c) and (d) both
(3) (a) and (b) both (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

92. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court said that 'Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles' aim at the same goal of bringing about a social revolution and establishment of a
Welfare State and they can be interpreted and applied together and they are supplementary and
complementary to each other ?
(1) Maneka Gandhi Vs, Union of India
(2) Re Kerala Education Bill
(3) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
(4) Kesvananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
93. UN Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by

(1) General Assembly (2) Security Council
(3) Secretary General (4) Human Rights Council
94. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that 'the federalism is India, is not
a matter of administrative convenience, but one of principle' ?
(1) S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India (1994)
(2) Raja Ram Pal Vs. Hon'ble Speaker, Lok Sabha (2007)
(3) Madras Bar Association Vs. Union of India (2014)
(4) State of West Bengal Vs. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal
(2010)
95. Bayer Corporation Vs. Union of India, 2011 case is dealing on which subject matters ?
(1) Evergreening of patent (2) Grant and sealing of patent
(3) Working of patenting process (4) Surrender and revocation of patent
96. A servant collected money from the debtor of his master as authorised by him. The servant
retained the money because it was due to him as wages. He commits
(1) criminal breach of trust (2) theft
(3) no offence (4) criminal misappropriation
97. The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer

(1) when it is posted to him
(2) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(3) when the letter containing acceptance is received by the proposer.
(4) when it is put in the course of transmission, so as to be out of the acceptor's power
98. Which of the following is not the School of Muslim Law ?

(1) Hanafi (2) Maliki
(3) Hanabali (4) Zaida

99. "Decision making process of those authorities besides being transparent must result in a reasoned
conclusion which is reflective of a due application of mind to the diverse concerns arising from
a project such as the present." This has been observed regarding Environment Impact Assessment
Law in which of the following cases ?
(1) Utkarsh Mandal Vs. Union of India
(2) Deepak Kumar Vs. State of Haryana
(3) Gram Panchayat Navlakh Umbre Vs. Union of India
(4) Tehri Bandh Virodhi Sangharsh Samiti Vs. State of UP

(a) The operation of the doctrine of forum prorogation has not been envisaged under the UN
Charter or the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
(b) The doctrine of Forum Prorogatum may not operate where the court already has jurisdiction
ratione personae.
(c) The Doctrine of the Forum Prorogatum affords an informal way for a state to express
consent to the jurisdiction of the court.
(d) The principle underlying doctrine of forum prorogatum was enunciated by the Permanent
Court of International Justice in the Island of Palm is Case (1928).
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 3 2 4 1 4 4 3 2 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 4 1 4 1 2 4 2 4 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 4 2 1 1 1 4 4 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
1 1 4 4 1 3 3 1 2 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
3 * 1 1 3 4 4 1 2 3
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 1 * * 4 2 3 3 1 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
4 4 2 1 3 1 3 4 3 1
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
3 2 2 * 4 2 1 3 2 4
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 2 3 4 3 1 1 4 2 1
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
3 4 3 1 3 1 4 4 3 2


Previous Year Solved Paper (Dec. 2019)
1. Which of the following will help overcome communication barriers?

(1) Focused listening (2) Neglecting semantic noise
(3) Top-down command structure (4) Use of clichéd idioms
2. A circle has the same area as that of a square of diagonal of length 11.0 cm. What is the
diameter of the circle?
(1) 8.7 cm (2) 17.4 cm
(3) 7.8 cm (4) 15.6 cm
3. Effective educational communication is

(1) Non-reciprocal (2) Repetitive
(3) Continuous (4) Coercive
4. A shopkeeper sells a refrigerators for Rs. 22,000.00 and makes a profit of 10%. If he desires
to make a profit of 18%, what should be his selling price?
(1) Rs. 23, 600 (2) Rs. 39,600
(3) Rs. 36,000 (4) Rs. 24600
5. Determine the term ‘X' in the following series

2, 9, 20, 35, 54, 77, ‘X’
(1) 104 (2) 102
(3) 89 (4) 110
6. A student obtains overall 78% marks in his examination consisting of Physics, Chemistry,
Mathematics, Computer Science and General English. Marks obtained in each subject and the
maximum marks are indicated in the following table
Physics Chemistry Mathematics
Computer General
Science English
Subject 200 Max Marks 100 Max Marks 200 Max Marks 200 Max Marks 100 Max Marks
Marks 155 80 165 140 X
Obtained
The marks (X) obtained by the student in General English would be
(1) 68 (2) 74
(3) 84 (4) 90

7. Successful educational communication is dependent upon the skills of

(a) Understanding the negative characteristics of the audience
(b) Verbal communication and body language
(c) Estimating time for audience impact
(d) Analyzing the audience needs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
8. A college teacher presents a research paper in a seminar. The research paper cites references
which are pretty old. This situation will be described as the case of
(1) Technical lapse
(2) Ethical lapse
(3) Academic ignorance
(4) Inability of updating research source
9. Consider the following with reference to the Indian School of Logic

(a) It is related to form of the argument only
(b) It is related to the content of the argument only
(c) It is related to perceptual knowledge alone
(d) It is related to presenting analogies alone
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Both (c) and (d)
10. The converse of "All cats are mammals" is

(1) Some mammals are not cats (2) No mammals are cats
(3) Some mammals are cats (4) All mammals are cats
11. At the stage of data analysis, in which quantitative techniques have been used by a researcher,
the evidence warrants the rejection of Null Hypothesis (H0). Which of the following decisions of
the researcher will be deemed appropriate?
(1) Rejecting the (H0) and also the substantive research hypothesis
(2) Rejecting the (H0) and accepting the substantive research hypothesis
(3) Rejecting the (H0) without taking any decision on the substantive research hypothesis
(4) Accepting the (H0) and rejecting the substantive research hypothesis
12. Which of the following is not a necessary step when you present an argument based on
inference before the others according to the Classical Indian School of Logic?
(1) Nigamana (2) Upamana
(3) Upanaya (4) Udaharana
13. Which of the following theories can be applied to classroom communication?

(1) Theory of Social Constructivism (2) Audience Marginalization Theory
(3) Ritualistic Theory (4) Theory of Hegemony
14. Which of the following factors have been labelled as 'social competence' in influencing learning?
(a) Socio-economic status
(b) Motivation
(c) Intelligence - general and specific
(d) Emotional well-being
(e) Inability to translate thoughts into action
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
15. The main purpose of using ICT for classroom teaching is to

(1) Make the classroom instructions interesting
(2) Divert students' attention in the class
(3) Keep students engaged in the class
(4) Optimize learning outcomes of teaching
16. Which of the following will be considered key teaching behaviour belonging to the category of
effectiveness?
(a) Making ideas clear to learners who may be at different level of understanding
(b) Showing enthusiasm and animation through variation in eye contact, voice and gestures
(c) Using student ideas by acknowledging and summarizing
(d) Probing through general questions and shifting a discussion to some higher thought level
(e) Using meaningful verbal praise to get and keep students actively participating in the
learning process
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (e) only
(3) (b,), (c) and (d) only (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
17. In the statement "No dogs are reptiles", which terms are distributed?
(1) Only subject term (2) Only predicate term
(3) Both subject and predicate terms (4) Neither subject nor predicate term
18. "Mr X lives in a slum and is unemployed. Therefore, Mr X deserves to be a minister."

Which kind of fallacy is committed in this argument?
(1) Fallacy of Composition (2) Ad misericordium
(3) Fallacy of Division (4) Fallacy of Accident
19. If data has been recorded using technical media, which among the following is a necessary step
on the way to its interpretation?
(1) Transcription (2) Structural Equation Modelling
(3) Sequential Analysis (4) Sampling

20. The two cities P and Q are 360 km apart from each other. A car goes from P to Q with a speed
of 40 km/hr and returns to P with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?
(1) 45 km/hr (2) 48 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr (4) 55 km/hr
21. Identify the sequence which correctly indicates the order for ensuring teaching-learning activities
in a constructivist approach
(1) Explore, Explain, Engage, Extend and Evaluate
(2) Evaluate, Extend, Engage, Explain and Explore
(3) Explain, Engage, Explore, Evaluate and Extend
(4) Engage, Explore, Explain, Evaluate and Extend
22. In an intervention based action research process, which of the following is the usually recommended
sequence?
(1) Plan, Act, Observe and Reflect (2) Observe, Plan, Act and Reflect
(3) Reflect. Plan, Act and Observe (4) Observe, Act, Reflect and Plan
23. Match Set I with Set II
Set I Set II
(Research Tools) (Measurement Scale)
(a) Questionnaire and Interview (i) Ratio scale of measurement
(b) Intelligence and Aptitude Tests (ii) Ordinal Scale of measurement
(c) Attitude and Value Tests (iii) Interval Scale of measurement
(d) Speed and Frequency Tests (iv) Nominal Scale of measurement
(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
24. The compositional skills and creativity in presentation of students can be most effectively evaluated
by which of the following tests?
(1) Objective type tests (2) Essay type tests
(3) Short answer tests (4) Projective type tests
25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Pedagogy and social interaction are two major result-oriented activities of a
teacher
Reason (R) : Communication has a limited role in both these activities
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option from those given below
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow (26 to 30)
The table shows the percentage (%) profit earned by the Company A income of Company B and
expenditure of Company B during the years, 2013 - 18 as well as formula to compute percentage
(%) profit.
Year wise Financial Details (in Rs. Lakhs)
Year % Profit of A Income of B Expenditure of B

(in Rs Lakhs) (in Rs Lakhs)
2013 40% 48.6 36
2014 25% 35 25
2015 60% 62.4 48
2016 40% 77 44
2017 10% 80 50
2018 20% 72 45
(Income–Expenditure)
where Profit (%) =  100
(Expenditure)
26. If the income of the Company A in the year 2014 happened to be Rs 32.5 Lakhs, then what was
the sum of the net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of Company A and Company B in 2014?
(1) Rs 128 Lakhs (2) Rs 13.2 Lakhs
(3) Rs 15 Lakhs (4) Rs 16.5 Lakhs
27. If the income of Company A in the year 2018 was Rs 90 Lakhs, then the net profit (in Rs Lakhs)
of Company B in 2018 is what percent more than the net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of Company A?
(1) 30% (2) 60%
(3) 75% (4) 80%
28. The percent profit of Company B was maximum in the year ?

(1) 2014 (2) 2015
(3) 2016 (4) 2017
29. What is the difference between percent (%) profit of Company A and Company B in the year
2013 ?
(1) 5% (2) 7%
(3) 12% (4) 15%
30. If the expenditure of Company A in year 2017 was Rs 45 Lakhs, then the net profit (in Rs Lakhs)
of Company A is what percent of net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of Company B in the same year?
(1) 15% (2) 25%
(3) 40% (4) 75%
31. Select the option that contains exclusively the text file formats
(1) JPEG, MP3, RTF (2) CSV, RTF, TXT
(3) GIF, JPEG, MP3 (4) CSV, MP3, PDF

32. Identify the correct group of diseases caused by polluted water

(1) Cholera, Acute Diarrhoea, Typhoid and Polio
(2) Cholera, Typhoid, Enteritis and Tuberculosis
(3) Typhoid, Enteritis and Tuberculosis
(4) Cholera, Acute Diarrhoea, Typhoid and Tuberculosis
33. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) A Local Area Network (LAN) is usually located on one brand of computer
(b) The acronym 'ISP' stands for Internet Standard Provider
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
34. Suppose the concentration of Carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas responsible for climate change,
is 400 ppm. What is its concentration in air in percentage terms?
(1) 0.04% (2) 0.4%
(3) 0.004% (4) 4.0%
35. The National Skills Qualifications Framework is based on which of the following?
(1) Competency (2) Technology
(3) Economic development (4) Evaluation
36. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The clock speed of CPUs has not increased significantly in recent years
Reason (R): Software now being used is faster and therefore processors do not have to be faster
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option from those given below
37. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) The clock speed of a CPU is measured in hertz (Hz)
(b) Bluetooth technology consumes more power than Wi-Fi technology.
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
38. As per provisions of Paris Agreement, the Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (lNDCs)
are to be reviewed every
(1) 15 years (2) 10 years
(3) 5 years (4) 3 years

39. Which among the following is the statutory function of the UGC?
(1) To appoint teaching faculty in universities
(2) To control the conduct of examination in universities
(3) To determine and maintain the standards of teaching and research in universities
(4) To develop curriculum for university courses
40. Match List I with List II
List I List II
(Software) (Description)
(a) Web browser (i) Prepare written documents
(b) Word processor (ii) Create and edit web pages
(c) Spreadsheed (iii) Connect to websites and display web pages
(d) Web authoring (iv) Analyze and summarize numerical data
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
41. Hazardous solid waste from Industrial urban sources. Which sequence of the following salvage
sequences is of increasing desirability in sequence?
(1) Disorganized Dumping < Landfill < Incineration < Reuse
(2) Compost Composting < Landfill < Reuse < Incineration
(3) Landfill < Compost Manure < Reuse < Incineration
(4) Incineration < Compost Composting < Reuse < Landfill
42. Who among the following scholars carried back scriptures from Nalanda University and wrote
about architecture and learning of this university?
(1) Kim Huang (Korea) (2) Jin Tan Vang (Korea)
(3) Xuan Zang (China) (4) Junha Meng (China)
43. Identify the correct sequence of biomass fuels in terms of their energy content per unit mass
(1) Dung (Dry) > Coconut Shells > Unsorted Domestic Refuse
(2) Unsorted Domestic Refuse > Coconut Shells > Dung (Dry)
(3) Wood (Dry) > Coconut Shells > Unsorted Domestic Refuse
(4) Coconut Shells > Dung (Dry) > Unsorted Domestic Refuse
44. Which among the following is a Massive Open Online Course platform created by the Ministry
of Human Resource Development, Government of India?
(1) PRATHAM (2) SWAYAM
(3) FUTURELEARN (4) OPEN LEARN

45. Which among the following recommended the establishment of State Council for Higher Education
in each state?
(1) Report of the Estimates Committee (1965 - 66)
(2) Review Committee on UGC (1977), Ministry of Education
(3) National Policy on Education (1986)
(4) Report of the UGC Committee (1990)
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (46 to 50)
The motives for direct investments abroad are generally the same as earning higher returns,
possibly resulting from higher growth rates abroad, more favorable tax treatment or greater
availability of infrastructure and diversifing risks. Indeed, it has been found that firms with a
strong international orientation, either through exports or through foreign production and/or sales
facilities, are more profitable, and have a much smaller variability in profits than purely domestic
firms. Although these reasons are sufficient to explain international investments they leave one
basic question unanswered with regard to direct foreign investments. That is, they cannot explain
why the residents of a nation do not borrow from other nations and themselves make real
investments in their own nation rather than accept direct investments from abroad. After all, the
residents of a nation can be expected to be more familiar with local conditions, and thus to be
at a competitive advantage with respect to foreign investors. There are several explanations for
this. The most important is that many large corporations, usually in monopolistic and oligopolistic
markets, often have some unique production knowledge or managerial skill that could easily and
profitably be utilized abroad and over which the corporation wants to retain direct control. In such
a situation, the firm will make direct investments abroad. This involves horizontal integration or
the production abroad of a differentiated product that is also produced at home. This helps serve
the foreign market better by adapting to local conditions than through exports.
46. The passage focuses on the aspects mainly related to
(1) Indirect control over investments
(2) International orientation of investment
(3) Sales facilities
(4) Risks involved in integration of production
47. The possible reasons for direct foreign investment can be

(a) Higher returns
(b) getter tax regimes
(c) Availability of infrastructure
(d) Risk mitigation
(e) Financial support from local investors
(1) (a), (d) and (e) only (2) (b), (c) and d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (d), (e) and f) only
48. Purely domestic firms are affected by

(1) Law interest rates (2) Small variability of profits
(3) Larger variability of profits (4) Export controls

49. What advantage do large corporations have in oligopolistic markets?

(1) Direct control over profitability
(2) Large production of undifferentiated products
(3) Localization of managerial skills
(4) Eliminating barriers to higher profits
50. In the case of direct foreign investments, what factor remains unaddressed?
(1) Acceptance of foreign investment
(2) Non-acceptance of foreign investment
(3) Absence of competitive edge
(4) Role of monopolistic corporations
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 1 3 1 1 3 4 4 3 3
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 1 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
4 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
2 1 4 1 1 3 1 3 3 2
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
1 3 4 2 3 2 3 3 1 2

Law
Previous Year Solved Paper - 2019 Dec.
1. The Maxim 'Damnum Sine injuria' means :

(1) Infringement of Legal right with damage or loss
(2) Damage or loss without infringement of legal right
(3) Where there is a right, there is a remedy
(4) Infringement of an absolute right without damage or loss
2. Given below are two statements — one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Subject to rules of Jus cogens local customary law can supplement or derogate
from general custom
Reasons (R) : International law does not recognise the concept of local custom
In the light of the above two statements choose the correct option
(2) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true
3. A malignant act likely to spread infection or disease dangerous to life and making atmosphere
noxious to health are punishable offences for environment protection. But the punishment are
meagre to meet objectives. Under which of the following law such meagre punishment is given
(1) Environment Protection Act 1986
(2) Indian Penal Code
(3) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981
(4) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974
4. Mention the following decisions in a chronological order on Extradition :

(a) Mubarak Ali Ahmed V State of Bombay
(b) Hans Muller of Nurremberg V Suptt. Presidency Jail Calcutta and Others
(c) Ram Babu Saxena V State
(d) State of Madras V C.G. Menon
Choose the correct option :
(1) (d), (c), (a), (b) (2) (c), (d), (b), (a)
(3) (b), (a), (d), (c) (4) (d), (c), (b), (a)

5. Arrange the provisions of Trade mark Act 1999 in chronological order (section wise)
(a) classification of goods and services
(b) regulation in case of honest concurrent use etc
(c) limitation as to colour
(d) absolute grounds for refusal of registration
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(3) (a), (d), (c), (b) (4) (b), (c), (d), (a)
6. Which sections of Hindu Marriage Act 1955 deal with matrimonial remedy of divorce?
(a) Section 13 (b) Section 13 (1-A)
(c) Section 17 (d) Section 13-B
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
7. A valid contract can be entered in to between parties under Indian Contract Act. Which of the
following gives legal recognition to such contract.
(a) Section 10-A of Information Technology Act
(b) Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 1(4) of Information Technology Act
(d) Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
8. 'The International Court of Justice is indeed a sine qua non for the establishment of Rule of Law
in Inter state relations" is said by :
(1) Judge Shigeru Oda (2) Judge Nagendra Singh
(3) Justice Dalveer Bhandari (4) Justice R.S. Pathak
9. Which of the following Section of the Patent Act, 1970 provides for the subject matters that are
not invention under the Act?
10. Which of the following is not a valid defence in tort?

(1) Private Defence (2) Volenti non fit injuria
(3) Vis major (4) Ex dolo malo non Oritur actio

11. Which of the following statements are correct as per Article 111 of agreements establishing
WTO? The main functions of the WTO are :
(a) To administer and promote agreements on individual and multinational agreements :
(b) To administer the rules and procedures governing the settlement of disputes ;
(c) To administer the Trade Policy Review Mechanism (TPRM)
(d) To Coordinate IMF, TBRD and World Bank on regional economic policies :
Choose the correct option
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
12. Match List I and List Il

List I List II
(Section of Hindu Marriage Act 1955) (Provision)
(a) Section 5 (i) (i) Ceremonies of Hindu Marriage
(b) Section 7 (ii) Marriageable age
(c) Section 8 (iii) Monogamy
(d) Section 5 (iv) Registration of Marriage
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
13. Which of the following could be considered to be advantages of Legislation over Precedent?
(a) Abrogative capability (b) Fore knowledge
(c) Prospective application (d) Systematic arrangement
Choose the correction option:
(1) (a), (b), (d) only (2) (a), (b), (c) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) only
14. Constitution of India requires the State to adopt the Protectionist Policy and Improvinistic Policy.
Which one of the following Article declares the above
(1) Article 51 A(g) (2) Article 38
(3) Article 48 A (4) Article 37
15. Match the following cases decided by the Supreme court with the subject given therein :
List I List II
(a) Hussainara Khatom v (i) Ban on smoking in public places
State of Bihar
(b) Murli S. Deora v (ii) Protection against inhuman treatment in
Union of India jail
(c) Lakshmi Kant Pandey v (iii) Speedy Trial
Union of India
(d) Sunil Batra v (iv) Child welfare
Delhi Administration


(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
16. "The provisions of the Constitution are not mathematical formulas having their essence in their
form; they are organic living institutions transplanted from English soil. Their significance is vital
not formal; it is to be gathered not simply by taking the words and a dictionary, but by considering
their origin and the line of their growth".
The above observation is made by :
(1) Schwartz (2) Holmes, C.J.
(3) S.A. de Smith (4) Lord Russel
17. The Supreme Court or the High Court in exercise of the power of Judicial Review can declare
a law passed by the Parliament or State Legislature as invalid on the grounds that
(a) It is not within the competence of the Legislature which passed the law
(b) It is in contravention of the fundamental rights stipulated in Part III of the Constitution or
any other provision of the constitution
(c) The Legislature did not apply its mind or it was prompted by some improper motive or it
was arbitrary or unreasonable
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) all (a), (b) and (c)
18. Which of the following is the composition of the International Bill of Human Rights?
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(b) International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights
(c) The International Covenant of Economic. Social and Cultural Rights
(d) The Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Choose the most appropriate option :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
19. Mention the following cases in a chronological order on Election Commission :

(a) Kuldip Nayar V Union of India
(b) T.N Seshan V Union of India
(c) People's union for Civil Liberties V Union of India
(d) S.S. Dhanoa V Union of India
(1) (b), (c), (d), (a) (2) (c), (d), (b), (a)
(3) (a), (d), (b), (c) (4) (d), (b), (a), (c)

20. Which of the following factors are responsible for judicial activism in India
(a) Denial of court access to the poor, downtrodden and underprivileged sections of the
society who do not have sufficient means to approach the court
(b) Maladministration, misuse of public and rampant corruption
(c) Increasing social problems as environmental pollution, child labour, smoking in public
places, pitiable conditions of prisoners and exploitation of women etc.
(d) Gross violation of Human Rights
(1) only (a), (b) and (c) (2) only (b), (c) and (d)
(3) only (a), (c) and (d) (4) all (a), (b), (c) and (d)
21. Which of the following statement/statements are correct?

(a) Convention of Nationality was adopted in 1928
(b) Convention of Nationality of married women was adopted in 1957
(c) Convention on the Reduction of statelessness was adopted in 1961
(d) Convention on the Nationality of newborn child was adopted in 1938
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
22. Match the theories of Jurisprudence with the Jurists associated with it
(a) Spirit of people (i) Savigny
(b) Social Solidarity (ii) Duguit
(c) Dictates of Reasoning (iii) Thomas Acquinas
(d) Social Control (iv) Ihering
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
23. Which one of the following Jurists asserts that Law and morality are complementary and
supplementary to each other'?
(1) John Austin (2) Hans Kelson
(3) H.L.A Hart (4) Devlin
24. Right to Education Act seeks to provide free and compulsory education to all children between
6 and 14 years. But a modification in Child labour Act formalises employment of children between
0 and 14 years in the family enterprises. Therefore which of the following ILO Conventions is
violated?
(a) Convention 138 (b) Convention 182
(c) Convention 126 (d) Convention 141
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

25. To constitute the offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship under Section 361 of Indian Penal
Code the age of the minor should be
(a) Under eighteen years if male (b) Under sixteen years if male
(c) Under eighteen years if female (d) Under sixteen years if female
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
26. According to Art, 233 of the Constitution of India. appointment of a District Judge shall be made
by:
(1) Collegium of the State High Court concerned
(2) The Governor of the State concerned in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(3) The Governor of the State in Consultation with the High Court exercising Jurisdiction in
relation to such State.
(4) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising Jurisdiction
in relation to the State concerned
27. Frustation of contract implies :

(1) Legal impediment to materialize the contract
(2) Commercial hardship
(3) Financial constraint to materialise the contract
(4) Physical impossibility due to disappereance of the subject matter of contract or object has
failed to materialise
28. "The Law of nations is that collection of usages which civilized states have agreed to observe
in their dealings with one another". This definition of International law is given by Lord Coleridge”–
in :
(1) Queen V. Keyh
(2) West Rand Central Gold Mining Ltd Co. V. King
(3) S.S. Lotus Case
(4) A.M. Luther Co. V. Sugar and Co.
29. Given below are two statements — one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Special provisions in Insurance law are required as to compensation in case of
hit and run motor accidents
Reasons (R) : Section 161 of the Motor Vehicles — Act, 1988, makes special provisions for
payment of compensation in respect of the death of, or grevious hurt to, persons resulting from
hit and run motor accidents.
In the light of the above two statements choose the correct option
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

30. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Article 353 of Constitution of India deals with effect of Proclamation of Emergency
(b) Article 354 of Constitution of India deals with income generating power of the Governor
during Emergency
(c) Article 355 of the Constitution of India deals with duty of Union to protect states against
External aggression and armed rebellion
(d) Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with imposition of Emergency during Local
disturbance by militant or terrorists
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
31. Which one of the following is not a 'Primary Source' of Muslim Law?
(1) Qiyas (2) Qur'an
(3) Takhleed (4) Sunnat
32. Following are good defences to an action in tort :

(a) Act of God (b) volenti non fit injuria
(c) private defence (d) trustee do son tort
Choose the correct option:
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (d), (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
33. Consider the following statements and point out which statements are related to Positivism
(a) Laws are command
(b) Analysis of legal concept is distinct from Sociological and Historical analysis
(c) Decisions can be deducted logically with recourse to morality
(d) The 'Law as it is' has to be kept separate from 'Law ought to be'
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (d) only
34. Which of the following statement/statements are true?

(1) In Nicaragua V. U.S.A; the World Court by majority has taken the view that the sources
of International Law are hierarchical
(2) In Nicaragua V. U.S.A; the World Court has taken unanimously the view that the sources
of International Law are not hierarchical
(3) In Nicaragua V. U.S.A; the World Court by majority has taken the view that the sources
of International Law are not hierarchical but are necessarily complimentary and interrelated
(4) In Nicaragua V. U.S.A; the World Court has taken unanimously the view that the sources
of International Law are not hierarchical but are necessarily complimentary and inter-
related.

35. Preamble of the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 (NGT Act) does not mention about
(1) Johannesburg Conference
(2) Rio Conference
(3) Article 21 of the Constitution of India
(4) The Stockholm Conference
36. "In the British Constitution there is no such thing as the absolute separation of Legislative —
Executive and Judicial powers. In practice it is inevitable that they overlap. In the Constitution of
France and U.S.A., attempts to keep the organs of the government rigidly apart have been made
but have proved unsuccessful". This position of doctrine of separation of powers has been
summed-up by :
(1) Prof. Ullman (2) Prof. K.T. Shah
(3) Wade and Phillips (4) Donoghmore Committee
37. To constitute the offence of Affray under Section 159 of the Indian Penal code there must be -
(a) Only one person
(b) Two or more persons
(c) Fighting in Public place to disturb public peace
(d) Fighting in private place
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
38. Who among the following said that there is in essence, no difference between the legal personality
of a company and that of an individual ?
(1) Maitland (2) Dicey
(3) Gierke (4) Kelsen

(a) Chapter VI of the UN Charter deals with the pacific settlement of disputes
(b) The purpose of United Nation Organisation is World Peace
(c) The Security Council comprises of 14 members
(d) The non permanent member are elected by the General Assembly for a period of three
years.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
40. Under the Companies Act 2013,which of the following company is required to constitute a Corporate
social Responsibility Committee?
(a) company having networth of Rs. 500 crore or more
(b) company having turnover of Rs. 1000 crore or more
(c) company having net profit of 5 crore or more
(d) company having net profit of 2 crore or more during any financial year
(1) (a), (b), (c), and (d) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
41. Various legislations relating to Human Rights in India are given below. Arrange them in chronological
order since 1955
(1) (a) Bonded Labour system (Abolition) Act
(b) Protection of Civil Right Act
(c) Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act
(d) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
(2) (a) Protection of Civil Rights Act
(b) Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act
(c) Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act
(d) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation Act)
(3) (a) Child labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
(b) Bonded Labour system (Abolition) Act
(c) Protection of Civil Rights Act
(d) Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act
(4) (a) Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act
(b) Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act
(c) Protection of Civil Right Act
(d) Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation) Act
42. Choose the correct section of the Competition Act. 2002 Which provides that 'No enterprise shall
abuse its dominant position' :
43. The word 'Tort' has been derived from the Latin Word :
(1) Tortus (2) Tortum
(3) Torrent (4) Torture
44. In which of the following cases it was held that "there is no distinction between defacto and dejure
recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the international acts of the recognised authority"?
(1) Luther V, sagar
(2) U.S. V. Pink
(3) Russian Socialist Federated Soviet Public V. Cirbaria
(4) Guarantee Trust Co. of New York V. U.S.
45. "Human dignity is the Quintessence of Human Rights" This has been stated by
(1) Justice V.R. Krishna lyer (2) Justice JS Verma
(3) Justice Kuldeep Singh (4) Justice Ranganath Mishra
46. The expression "Minority" is a relative term and is referred to, to represent the linguistic or
religious sections or groups forming less than of the total population of the State, stated by the
Supreme Court in the following case.
(1) T.M.A Pai Foundation V. State of Karnatka
(2) P.A. Inamdar V. State of Maharastra
(3) Islamic Academy of Eduction V. State of Karnatka
(4) Usha Mehta V. State of Maharastra
47. Match the following

List I List II
(a) Exemplary damages (i) MC Mehta V Kamalnath
(b) Evaluation of cleanliness of (ii) Sterilite Industries
various fuels
(c) Public Trust Doctrine (iii) Intergenerational equity
(d) Right of each generation to (iv) Bhurelal Committee
benefit from the past generation
and to preserve such heritage
for future
Choose correct option from those given below :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
48. Professor Dicey gave following three meanmgs of Rule of law

(a) Absence of Arbitrary power or supremacy of the law
(b) Equality before law
(c) The constitution is the result of the ordinary law of land
Out of the above aspects which of the following apply to Indian system
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) all (a), (b), and (c)
49. Read the following statement in the light of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956:
(a) Section 7 deals with capacity of a male Hindu to take in adoption
(b) Section 13 deals with valid adoption not to be cancelled
(c) Section 12 deals with effect of adoption
(d) Section 15 deals with right of adoptive parents to dispose off their properties
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
50. Match the following provisions with the Section under Consumer Protection Act 1986 :
(a) Jurisdiction of the District forum (i) Section 17 B
(b) Composition of State Commission (ii) Section 20
(c) Composition of National (iii) Section 16
Commission
(d) Circuit benches of State (iv) Section 11
Commission
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

51. Under Muslim Law, marriage with a woman, whose husband is alive, is :
(1) Valid (2) Sahih
(3) Void (4) Irregular
52. Given below are two statements — One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Every Hindu is bound to maintain his or her legitimate or illegitimate minor Hindu
children
Reasons (R) : Under section 20(2) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 a legitimate
or illegitimate minor child may claim maintenance from his or her father or mother.
In the light of the above two statements choose the correct option :
53. In which of the following cases our Supreme Court held that so far as the guarantee of equal
protection in Article 14 is concerned, any State action — Executive, Legislative or Judicial, which
contravenes Article 14 is void?
(1) Amir Abbas Vs State of M. B. (2) Naresh Mirajkar Vs State of Bihar
(3) Budhan vs State of Bihar (4) Himmatlal vs State of M.P.
54. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has specifically said that 'federal
structure' is the basic feature of the Constitution?
(1) AK Gopalan V. State of Madras
(2) S.R. Bommai V. Union of India
(3) Govind V. State of Madhya Pradesh
(4) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India
55. Arrange the following enactments in chronological order enacted to provide social justice :
(a) Equal Remuneration Act
(b) Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act
(c) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
(d) Maternity Benefit Act
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(3) (b), (d), (c), (a) (4) (d), (c), (b), (a)
56. 'A' in India, instigates 'B' a foreigner in Goa, to commit a murder in Goa. 'A' is guilty of :
(2) Committing the offence of murder
(3) Criminal conspiracy
(4) Abetting the murder

57. Salmond enumerates five characteristics of legal rights. Four such characteristics are
(a) Subject of right (b) Object of right
(c) Content of right (d) Title of right
The fifth characteristic is :
(1) Property in respect of which right is claimed
(2) Act or omission required by the right
(3) The legal reason for the existence of the right
(4) The subject of the corresponding duty
58. Match the following sections of Indian Penal Code with provision given there under :
(a) Section 80 (i) Act done by person justified or by mistake
of fact believing himself justified by law
(b) Section 82 (ii) Act of a child above seven and under
twelve of immature understanding
(c) Section 83 (iii) Act of child under seven years of age
(d) Section 79 (iv) Accident in doing a lawful act
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
59. Which of the following statements is NOT correct in regard to distinction between Civil and
Criminal liability?
(1) Civil liability arises when a wrong is against a private individual but Criminal liability arises
in case of offence which is a wrong against the society
(2) Civil liability entails punishment whereas criminal liability results into damages
(3) The procedure for determining Civil and Criminal liability is different
(4) In Civil liability, it is the act and not the intention which is taken into consideration whereas
in case of Criminal liability, mens rea is the determining factor
60. Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Whoever attempts to commit robbery shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment
for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be liable for fine.
Reasons : Section 393 for Indian Penal Code provides for rigorous imprisonment which may
extends to seven years and fine for the offence of attempt to commit robbery.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

61. Arrange the provisions of Hindu Succession Act 1956 in chronological order (Section wise)
(a) Presumption in case of simultaneous death
(b) Failure of heirs
(c) Act not to apply to certain properties
(d) Full blood preferred to half blood
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(3) (c), (d), (a), (b) (4) (d), (a), (c), (b)
62. Which of the following provision was inserted by Act 22 of 2018 in Indian Penal Code?
(1) Punishment for causing death or resulting persistent vegetative state of victim
(2) Punishment for rape on women under Twelve Years of age
(3) Sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife during separation
(4) Sexual intercourse by a person in authority
63. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the Constitution itself and not in 'We the People of India'. This
idea was expressed in one of the following cases by the Supreme Court of India.
(1) Kesavananda Bharti V. State of Kerala
(2) Golaknath V. State of Punjab
(3) State of West Bengal V. Union of India
(4) Sajjah Singh V. State of Rajasthan
64. Section 49 of the Information Technology Act deals with the provision relating to:
(1) Establishment of Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(2) Qualification for appointment as Chairperson and member of Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(3) Composition of Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(4) Distribution of business among benches
65. Arrange the following judgements on Torts in Chronological order :

(a) Ashby v/s White (2) MC Mehta vis Union of India
(c) Reyland Vs Fletcher (d) Donoghue vis Stevenson
(1) (b), (d), (c), (a) (2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(3) (a), (c), (b), (d) (4) (d), (b), (a), (c)
66. The Supreme Court in regard to Section 34 of Indian Penal Code observed that the existence of
a common intention among the participants in a crime is the essential element for application of
this section. It is not necessary that the act of the several persons charged with commission of
an offence jointly must be the same or identically similar. In which of the following case the above
observation was made by the Supreme Court?
(1) Ashok Kumar V. State of Punjab
(2) Shankar Narayan Bhadolkar V. State of Maharashtra
(3) Gurubachan Singh V. State of Punjab
(4) S.C. Bahri V. State of Bihar

67. Article 371-F, special provisions with respect to the state of Sikkim was inserted by :
(1) The Constitution (Thirty Second Amendment) Act
(2) The Constitution (Thirty Third Amendment) Act
(3) The Constitution (Thirty Fifth Amendment) Act
(4) The Constitution (Thirty Sixth Amendment) Act

List I List II
(a) United States of America v Italy (i) Legality of use of force
(b) El Salvador v Honduras (ii) Case concerning Electronica Sicula S.pA
(ELSI)
(c) Spain v Canada (iii) Land, Island and maritime dispute case
(d) Yugoslavia v U.S. (iv) Fisheries Jurisdiction
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(a) The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government
of India and one or more States
(b) The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between Government
of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on other side
(c) The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between Government
of India and any individual on one side and State one or more on the other side
(d) The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute in India
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
70. The provision under Copyright Act is given as under :

(a) Section 52 B deals with provision relating to accounts and audit
(b) Section 53 A deals with resale share rights in original copies
(c) Section 52 deals with importation of infringing copies
(d) Section 53 deals with certain acts not to be infringement of copyright
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
71. To constitute the offence of theft under Indian Penal code, there must be
(a) taking away of the movable property
(b) without the consent of the person
(c) taking away of the immovable property
(d) with the consent of person
Choose the correct option:
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
72. The essential characteristics of Federation in USA are

(a) Supremacy of the Constitution
(b) Distribution of powers amongst the various organs of the federation and of regional units
of the federation by the provision of constitution
(c) Judicial review or enforcement of that supreme constitution as law
(d) The Rule of Law
(1) only (a), (b) and (c) (2) only (a), (b) and (d)
(3) only (b), (c) and (d) (4) all (a), (b), (c) and (d)
73. Match the following sections of the Copyright Act 1957 with provisions given there under :
(a) Section 2 (0) (i) Performer Right
(b) Section 38 (ii) Meaning of Literary work
(c) Section 37 (iii) Meaning of sound recording
(d) Section 2 (XX) (iv) Broadcast reproduction right
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
74. Which of the following is not correct under Muslim Law

(1) In a gift Transaction delivery of posses is necessary, in a Will it is not required
(2) Doctrine of Mushaa is also applicable in case of disposition by Will
(3) Right of Donor to a gift is unrestricted but right of making a bequest is limited in two ways
(4) After completion, a gift cannot be revoked unless by a formal decree of a court, a will may
be revoked at any time after making of it
75. The concept of Universalism is based on

(a) Natural Theory (b) Theory of Rationalism
(c) Theory of Positivism (d) Theory of Cultural Relativism
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
76. Which one of the following can not be treated as delivery under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
(1) Doing anything which has the effect of putting goods in possession of legal representatives
of seller
(2) Doing anything which has the effect of parting goods in possession of any person authorised
by the buyer
(3) Doing anything which has the effect of putting goods in possession of the buyer
(4) Doing anything which the parties agree to be treated as delivery

77. Section 3(1) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 deals with the provision relating to
(1) Refusal of registration
(2) Application for registration
(3) Appointment of Registrar of Trade Marks
(4) Correction and amendment in the application
78. Match the following

(a) Fisher V Bell (i) Privity of contract
(b) Harvey V Facey (ii) Minor contract is void
(c) Mohiri Bibi V Dharodas Ghosh (iii) Invitation to treat
(d) Dunlop Tyre V Selfridge & Co. (iv) Quotation of prices
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
79. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The liability of the surety is co-executive and it can not go beyond the terms of
guarantee
Reasons (R) : The rights and liabilities of a surety and borrower are different and distinct and
everything depends upon its terms of guarantee
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
80. Which of the following is not correct under Section 8 of Hindu Succession Act 1956? The property
of a Hindu male dying intestate shall devolve
(1) Firstly upon class I heirs of the deceased
(2) Secondly upon class II heirs of the deceased
(3) Thirdly upon Agnates of all deceased
(4) Fourthly upon the government

List I List II
(a) Art 153 (i) Appointment of Governor
(b) Art 154 (ii) Governor of States
(c) Art 155 (iii) Term of office of Governor
(d) Art 156 (iv) Executive power of state
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

82. Section 9 of the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act 1999 provides
for
(1) Prohibition of Registration of Certain geographical indications
(2) Registration of Homonymous geographical indications
(3) Geographical Indication Registry and Office thereof
(4) Register of Geographical Indications
83. Some of the notification under Environment Protection Act 1986 is listed below: Choose the
correct option year wise :
(1) Notification on:
(a) Coastal Regulation Zone
(b) Environmental Auditing
(c) Environmental Impact Assessment
(d) Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash
(a) Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash
(b) Coastal Regulation Zone
(c) Environmental Auditing
(d) Environmental Impact Assessment
(3) Notification on
(a) Coastal Regulation Zone
(b) Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash
(d) Environmental Impact Assessment
(a) Environmental Impact Assessment
(b) Coastal Regulation Zone
(d) Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash
84. 'Whoever by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise,
brings or attempts to bring in hatred or contempt or excites or attempts to excite disaffection
towards, the government established by law in India; amounts to the offence of :
(1) Defamation (2) Sedition
(3) Criminal Conspiracy (4) Assault
85. Which one of the following is not within the scope of Implied Authority of a partner?
(1) The act done for carrying on the business of the kind carried on by the firm
(2) The act should be done in the usual way of business of the firm
(3) The act of acquiring immovable property on behalf of the firm
(4) The act must be done in the firm name or in any other manner expressing or implying an
intention to bind the firm

86. Which of the following is/are true about Bill of Exchange?

(a) A Bill of Exchange, requires in its inception two parties
(b) A Bill of Exchange or draft is a written order by the drawer or drawee to pay money to the
payee
(c) Bill of Exchange are primarily used in the International trade and are written orders by one
person to his Bank to pay the bearer a specific sum on a specific date
(d) Definition of Bill of Exchange is mentioned in the section 6 of the Negotiable Instrument
Act
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
87. Arrange the following judgements of the Supreme Court on the issue of constitutionality of death
penalty in chronological order :
(a) Rajendra Prasad V State of UP (b) Machhi Singh V State of Rajasthan
(c) Jagmohan Singh V State of UP (d) Bachan Singh V State of Punjab
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (c), (b), (a), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a) (4) (c), (a), (d), (b)
88. Ownership can be

(a) Legal and vested ownership (b) Legal and equitable ownership
(c) Absolute and limited ownership (d) Trust and beneficial ownership
Choose the correct option
(1) (a), (b), (c), and (d) all (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
89. Starting from the earliest, arrange the following countries in chronological order where the Office
of Ombudsman was created
(a) Sweden (b) United Kingdom
(c) New Zealand (d) Finland
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (d), (c), (b)
(3) (a), (c), (b), (d) (4) (a), (b), (d), (c)
90. In which of the following situations, the Quasi Contract Doctrine is not applied?
(1) In disputes regarding payment for goods delivered or services rendered with a formal
contract
(2) Wmere no contract but fictional agreement arise
(3) Where there is an unjust enrichment without a formal contract
(4) Where there is a liability to pay gratuitous act

Question No. : 91 & 95 Comprehension

The Preamble of the Constitution is an integral part of the Constitution. Democratic form of
government, federal structure, unity and integrity of the nation, secularism, socialism, social
justice and judicial review are basic features of the Constitution.
The Union of India shall protect the State Government and as corollary under Article 356 it is
enjoined that the government of every state should be carried on in accordance with the provisions
of the constitution. On receipt of a report from the Governor or other wise the President (Council
of Ministers) on being satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of a State can
not be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution is empowered to issue
Proclamation under Article 356 (1) and impose president’s rule in the state in a manner laid down
in sub-clause (a) to (c) of Article 356 (1) of the constitution.
The exercise of the power under Article 356 is an extraordinary one and needs to be used
sparingly when the situation contemplated by Article 356 warrants to maintain democratic form
of government and to prevent paralysing of the political process. Single or individual act or acts
of violation of the constitution for good, bad or in different administration does not necessarily
constitute failure of constitutional machinery or characterises that a situation has arisen in which
the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
constitution. The exercise of power under Article 356 should under no circumstances be for a
political gain to the party in power in the Union government. It should be used sparingly and with
circumspection that the government of the State functions with responsibility in accordance with
the provisions of the constitution.
Rule of law has been chosen as an instrument of social adjustment and resolution of conflicting
social problems to integrate diverse sections of the society professing multi religious faiths,
creed, caste or region fostering among them fraternity, transcending social, religious, linguistic or
regional barriers. Citizen is either by birth or by domicile and not as a member of religion, caste,
sect, region or language Secuarlism has both positive and negative constants.
91. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution imposes an obligation on the Union to
ensure that the Government of the State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
constitution?
92. In the light of the above, answer the following :

In which of the following cases, the supreme court held that the Preamble is the part of the
Constitution
(1) Buckingham and Carantic Co. Ltd V. Venkiah
(2) Keshvanand Bharti Case
(3) Golaknath V. State of Punjab
(4) In re Berubari case
93. On which grounds of the following a restriction can be imposed on freedom of religion under
article 25(1) of the constitution?
(1) Public order, decency and morality
(2) In the interest of general public
(3) Public order, moralilty and health
(4) In the interest of general public and for the protection of the interest of Scheduled

94. 'Rule of law' has been recognized by the constitution of India under
95. Article 356 (I) (b) provides that

(1) Any proclamation under Article 356 (1) may be revoked by a subsequent proclamation
(2) Every proclamation under Article 356 (1) shall be laid before each House of Parliament
(3) A Proclamation under Article 356 (I) shall cease to operate on the expiration of six months
from the date of issue of proclamation
(4) The President may by proclamation under-Article 356 (1) declare that the powers of the
legislature of the state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament
Question No. : 96 & 100 Comprehension

Broadly speaking, legal theory involves a study of the characteristic features essential to law and
common to legal systems and analysis of the basic elements of law which made it law and
distinguish it from other forms of rules and standards, from systems which cannot be described
as legal systems and from other social phenomena. In fact, it is not possible to reach our
dogmatic answer to the question ‘what is law’ or provide exclusive answers to many questions
which are asked about its essential nature. The nature of legal theory lies in a study of the right
which other theories may shed on distinctive attributes of law by an examination of the relative
merits and demerits of the principal — expositions of the subject. In the same strain legal theory
is linked at one end with philosophy and at the other end, with political theory. Sometimes, the
starting point is philosophy and political ideology plays a secondary part .... sometimes the theory
of knowledge and political ideology are welded into one coherent system, of course, it is true that
some legal philosophies have been philosophizers first and foremost and juristic because they
felt the need to express their political thought in legal form .... In short, before the nineteenth
century legal theory was essentially a by-product of philosophy, religion, ethics or politics. The
new era of legal philosophy arises mainly from the confrontation of professional lawyers in his
legal work, with problems of social justice. The modern jurists legal theory, no less than scholastic
philosopher is based on ultimate beliefs whose inspiration comes from outside the law itself.
96. In the right of above, answer the following,

As the science of law or philosophy of law emerged, which of the following approach came into
existence?
(1) Analytical positivist approach (2) Socio-legal approach
(3) Historical approach (4) Realist approach
97. Law must remain free from social sciences, metaphysical, ethical and moral elements. This was
propounded by
(1) Austin (2) Pound
(3) Kelson (4) Salmond
98. Who defined jurisprudence as a formal science of positive law’?

(1) Austin (2) H.LA Hart
(3) Salmond (4) Holland

99. Law is always in a state of continual change. This is the basic tenet of
(1) Realist jurisprudence (2) Socialogical jurisprudence
(3) Philosophical jurisprudence (4) Analytical jurisprudence
100. Who, among the following jurists, says "legal theory is linked at one end with philosophy and, at
other end, with political theory"?
(1) John D. Finch (2) Friedman
(3) Wayne Morrison (4) Jeremy Bentham
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 4
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 4
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 1 3 1 3 3 7 1 2 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 4 2 3 1 4 2 4 1 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 4
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 3 3 2 3 4 4 3 2 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
3 2 1 3 2 1 4 1 1 4
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
2 1 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 4
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 1 1 2 3 3 4 2 2 4
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
2 4 3 1 4 2 3 3 1 2

General Paper-I (PSP-2020 June)

Time : 1 hour Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carries two (2) marks. Attempt
all the questions.
Direction : The table below embodies data on the number of candidates who appeared for an interview
(I) and got admission (A) in five engineering disciplines during the year 2014 to 2019. In accordance
with the table, answer the questions 1-5:
Year wise Number of Candidates in Different Engineering Disciplines
Engineering Chemical Civil Aerospace Petroleum Electrical
Discipline
I A I A I A I A I A
Year
2014 1274 1090 2108 2068 1180 1140 960 935 1216 1194
2015 1165 1065 2050 1980 1260 1180 1004 985 1132 1120
2016 1108 1024 1860 1815 1132 1040 870 855 1260 1246
2017 1230 1180 1996 1948 1060 980 1094 1070 1191 1170
2018 1492 1372 2530 2500 1465 1425 1160 1040 1242 1222
2019 982 930 3488 3448 1640 1590 1020 1010 1362 1342
1. The ratio of number of candidates who appeared in an interview for admission to Petroleum
Engineering discipline in the year 2014 compared to the number of candidates who got admission
in Electrical Engineering discipline in the year 2015, is :
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 6 : 7
(3) 7 : 6 (4) 5 : 3
2. What is the percentage of the total number of candidates admitted to the total number of
candidates interviewed for all the years in Chemical Engineering discipline ?
(1) 8.1% (2) 91.68%
(3) 8.8% (4) 91.86%
3. What is the difference between the total number of candidates who appeared for an interview
over the six years in Aerospace and Electrical Engineering disciplines ?
(1) 334 (2) 61
(3) 66 (4) 344
4. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the number of candidates admitted in Civil

Engineering discipline from the year 2015 to 2016 ?
(1) 9.09% (2) 8.43%
(3) 8.33% (4) 9.19%

5. What is the average number of candidates who appeared for an interview in the year 2016 for
admission to all the five engineering disciplines ?
(1) 1216 (2) 1314
(3) 1316 (4) 1246
6. Cognitive dissonance in classroom communication is the result of

(1) Filtering of message (2) Student interest
(3) Student based interaction (4) Chaotic conditions
7. Which of the following are indicators of external accountability for an institution of higher learning?
(a) Provision for professional development of teachers.
(b) Utilization pattern of library and technical resources.
(c) Relevance of courses to the societal needs.
(d) Performance of students in public examinations.
(e) Employment pattern of pass-out students.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) only (2) (b), (c), (d) only
(3) (c), (d), (e) only (4) (d), (e), (a) only
8. Which statutory body of a University has the power to accord formal approval to the programmes
and courses of studies ?
(1) Senate (2) Syndicate
(3) Academic Council (4) Board of Studies
9. A shopkeeper sells an item at a discount of 40% on the item’s listed price of Rs. 1500.00. He still
makes a profit of 20% on the original cost of the item. What is the original cost of the item ?
(1) Rs. 500 (2) Rs. 750
(3) Rs. 600 (4) Rs. 1080
10. Match List I with List II :

List I List II
(Computer Terms) (Description)
(a) Operating System (OS) (i) A service that runs on the internet.
(b) WWW (ii) Software that helps an OS to control a piece
of hardware.
(c) Device Driver (iii) Software that controls peripherals and
allocates memory and processor time.
(d) IP (iv) Defines network addresses and is used for
routing packets.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

11. Which of the following have been identified as key behaviours contributing to effective teaching?
(a) Lesson clarity
(b) Instructional variety
(c) Using student ideas and contribution
(d) Engagement in learning process
(e) Structuring
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
12. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Chance or accidental errors in research will cause obtained results to depart from
the true value as often in one direction or in another.
Statement Il : Systematic error causes obtained results in research to vary in a particular
direction and is far more likely to catch the researcher by surprise than is chance error.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct
13. Identify the features of Aristotelian syllogism from the following :

(a) It is deductive-inductive and formal material
(b) It is only deductive and formal
(c) The major and minor terms stand apart in the premises
(d) It is verbalistic
(e) Verbal form is not the essence of inference
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (c) and (e) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (d) and (e) only
14. Contamination of aquatic environment by Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) can originate from
(a) Sewage effluent (b) Waste incinerators
(c) Toxic dumps (d) Thermal power plants
(e) Transport sector
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (c), (e) only (2) (a), (b), (d), (e) only
(3) (b), (c), (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) only
15. A student scores 55, 60, 65 and 70 respectively in English, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics,
If the credits assigned to English, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics are 2, 3, 3 and 4
respectively then what would be the average marks of the student ?
(1) 62.50 (2) 63.75
(3) 64.25 (4) 64.75

16. A clock takes 5 seconds to strike 5 times at 5 O’clock. How long will it take to strike 9 times at
9 O’clock ?
(1) 9 seconds (2) 10 seconds
(3) 12 seconds (4) 8 seconds
17. If the intensity of a given noise increases two-fold, the noise level in decibels (dB) increases by
(1) ~ 2dB (2) ~ 3dB
(3) ~ 6dB (4) ~ 10dB
18. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Data must be authentic before it can be of any value in a historical research,
yet proof of authenticity does not establish' its value, it must also be accurate.
Reason (R) : External criticism is, therefore, referred to as lower criticism of the data.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
19. Formulation of long term - low emission development strategies by each country was suggested
under
(1) Paris Agreement (2) Montreal Protocol
(3) International solar alliance (4) Kyoto Protocol

Statement I : In order to be effective, teaching and testing must go together.
Statement II : Feedback does not form an essential component of formative assessment.
below :
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
21. Which of the following types of institutions come under the ambit of National Board of Accreditation
(NBA) ?
(1) Teacher education institutions (2) Technical institutions
(3) Agriculture institutions (4) Medical institutions

22. From the following identify those which illustrate the fallacy of the unproved middle ?
(a) Ashrayasiddha (b) Swarupasiddha
(c) Vyapyatvasiddha (d) Viruddha
(e) Badhita
(3) (a), (d) and (e) only (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
23. List I mentions various methods of research while List II offers their description. Match List I with
List II :
List I List-II
(a) Experimental method (i) A detailed description of the way people
believe and act in a particular society.
(b) Ex-post facto method (ii) Studies designed to obtain information
concerning the current status of phenomena
(c) Descriptive survey method (iii) Studying the effect of manipulating
independent variable on dependent variable
under appropriate control imposed.
(d) Ethnographic method (iv) Conducting a probe into causal factors on
the basis of evidences manifest now
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
24. Match List I with List II :

List I List II
(Examples of Communication) (Types of Communication)
(a) Sending e-mail (i) Semiotics
(b) Verbal instruction (ii) Transactional
(c) Exchange of information between (iii) Formal
two groups of people
(d) Traffic signals (iv) Informal
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
25. The average of 70 numbers is 32. If each number is increased by 3, then the new average will
become
(1) 31 (2) 33
(3) 35 (4) 37


Statement I : 'SWAYAM' an initiative of the Government of India, aims at providing affordable
and quality education to the citizens.
Statement Il : 'SWAYAM' aims at promoting the education and health of adolescent girls.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement Il are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
27. When a particular 'statistics' in a research situation is evidently declared to be significant, which
of the following decisions will be considered tenable?
(a) Null hypothesis is rejected
(b) Alternative hypothesis is accepted
(c) Null hypothesis is accepted
(d) Alternative hypothesis is rejected
(e) Null hypothesis along with the alternate hypothesis are accepted.
(1) (b), and (c) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (d) and (e) only (4) (a) and (b) only
28. Ayurveda, which deals with indigenous system of medicine, could be traced to :
(1) Rigveda (2) Yajurveda
(3) Samaveda (4) Atharvaveda

Statement I : Emissions of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide are inherently very low from
diesel vehicles.
Statement Il : Diesel driven vehicles are inherently more fuel efficient compared to petrol driven
vehicles.
below :
30. In which of the following, the direction of influence is mainly one way :
(1) Counselling (2) Guiding
(3) Teaching (4) Learning
31. In terms of Indian logic, “This hill has smoke which is invariably associated with fire”, is called :
(1) Pratigya or proposition
(2) Universal concomitance together with an example
(3) Upanaya-the application of the universal concomitance to the present case
(4) Conclusion or Nigamana drawn from the preceding proposition
32. Given below are two statements

Statement I : Upamiti is defined as knowledge of the relation between a word and its denotation.
Statement Il : Verbal testimony is the statement of a trustworthy person and consists in
understanding its meaning.
below :
33. Which of the following ‘need strengths’ in Maslow’s hierarchy are related to higher order learning?
(a) Physiological needs (b) Safety needs
(c) Social needs (d) Needs for self actualization
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (d) and (e) only
34. Which of the following sources of energy on combustion produces maximum carbon dioxide per
unit of energy output or heat content?
(1) Coal (sub-bituminous) (2) Natural gas
(3) Diesel fuel and heating oil (4) Gasoline (without ethanol)
35. Identify the correct sequence of the media production process.

(a) Content Preparation (b) Planning
(c) Production (d) Transmission
(e) Feedback analysis
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) (2) (b), (c), (d), (a), (e)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (e), (a) (4) (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)
36. The communication process is active and interactive at a very high level in which of the following
level of teaching ?
(1) Reflective level (2) Understanding level
(3) Memory level (4) Autonomous development level
37. Given below are two statements

Statement I : Aggressive and inflammatory statements by the teacher make the classroom
communication academically effective.
Statement Il : Choice of appropriate words lends credence to classroom communication processes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options guven below:
(2) Both Statement I and Statement Il are Incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is Incorrect

38. When the middle term is both positively and negatively related to the major term, the inference
is called.
(1) Based on uniformity of co-existence
(2) Kevalanavayi
(3) Kevala vyatireki
(4) Anavaya vyatireki
39. Which of the following features best describe an independent variable in research?
(a) It is the cause in the cause-effect relationship.
(b) It is the effect in the cause-effect relationship.
(c) It is the condition or characteristic which is manipulated in an experimental study.
(d) It is the variable which is placed under control.
(e) It is a kind of response variable.
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (d) and (e) only
40. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Random Access Memory (RAM) is volatile and stores data/programs currently
in use.
Reason (R) : RAM is a storage medium that retains its contents even after the supply of
electricity has been turned off.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
41. A person in a car drives along a straight road from point A to point B at a speed of 60 km/hour
for 15 minutes and then from point B to point C at a speed of 90 km/hour for 10 minutes. The
average speed of his travel from point A to C is
(1) 75 km/hr (2) 72 km/hr
(3) 68 km/hr (4) 78 km/hr
42. Which of the following statements is true in respect of computers?

(1) Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by CPU.
(2) Software is loaded into RAM from secondary storage and is then executed by CPU.
(3) Software is loaded into RAM from secondary storage and is then executed by motherboard.
(4) Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by motherboard.

43. Which of the following are objectives of a performance appraisal system?

(a) To help an employee in finding out his/her own strengths and weaknesses.
(b) To help in creating desirable organizational ethos.
(c) To help in identifying people for the purpose of motivating and training them for new roles.
(d) To help in distinguishing the non-performers from performers.
(e) To enable learners to understand the weakness in the system.
(1) (a), (b), (c) only (2) (b), (c), (d) only
(3) (c), (d), (e) only (4) (e), (d), (a) only
44. Which of the following can be the major communication barriers to online teaching ?
(a) Technology (b) Legalities
(c) Student community (d) Culture
(e) Gender
(1) (a), (b), (c) only (2) (a), (d), (e) only
(3) (b), (c), (d) only (4) (c), (d), (e) only
45. Consider the following incomplete sentence :

Wi-Fi is short for Wireless Fidelity and it is a set of _____ for using short range to allow
computing _____to connect to a LAN or to the Internet.
Complete the above sentence by choosing the correct words in order from the following list :
(a) Standards (b) Waves
(c) Devices
(1) (c), (b), (a) (2) (c), (a), (b)
(3) (a), (c), (b) (4) (a), (b), (c)
Direction : Read the passage carefully and answer questions.

The true role of our energy is to gain personal power and operate from it at all times. Today, in many
situations, people loose their personal power in relationships between boss-subordinate, client-customer,
colleague-colleague, teacher-student, husband-wife, parent-child, Friend-Friend, etc. Often in these
relationships someone plays the role of the oppressor while the other plays the role off the oppressed,
But this is a great weakness in the relationship and it undermines people's capacity to be their authentic
sieves and accomplish what they want in their lives. We need personal power to hold our self-esteem
and go forward to succeed in our pursuits. Human relationships often deteriorate through these power
struggles and ultimately both, whether they are playing the role of an oppressor or the oppressed, lose
their personal power. Personal power can be seen as the result of an interplay between masculine and
feminine forms of power. Both these forms of power can co-exist in both men and women. Both
femimne and the masculine forms of power need to be honoured and expressed for a beautiful presence
and creation in the world. We have to gain a deeper understanding the characteristics of masculine and
feminine forms of power.
46. Relationships of different types of power among people will lead to
(1) Social diversity (2) Hierarchical structure
(3) Balance of power in society (4) Subjugation of the weak and meek
.
47. The power relations in a society tend to

(1) Hurt self accomplishments by people
(2) Improve the people’s abilities
(3) Increase self-esteem
(4) Have more oppressors than the oppressed
48. Loss of personal power in the society is attributed to

(1) Rigid human relations (2) Aggressiveness of the opressors
(3) Weakness of the oppressed (4) Power struggle in society
49. Interplay of forms of power is

(1) The essence of success in our pursuits
(2) Distinctly gender-based
(3) Nothing but assertion of power
(4) Needed for the creation of world
50. The passage focuses on the idea of

(1) Importance of power struggle
(2) Different forms and structures of power
(3) The need for power division in the society
(4) Harnessing personal power in the interest of co-existence
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2 4 1 3 4 4 3 3 2 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
1 1 3 4 2 1 2 1 1 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 1 4 1 3 3 4 4 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
3 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 3 3
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
2 2 1 2 4 2 1 4 2 4

Law
1. In which of the following cases, the rule, that “there is no distinction between ‘de facto’ and ‘de
jure’ recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognised authority”
was not applied?
(1) Bank of Ethiopia v. National Bank of Egypt
(2) Luther v. Sagor
(3) Bank of China v. Wells Fargo Bank & Union Trust
(4) The Arantzazu Mendi case
2. Any agreement in respect of production, supply, distribution, storage, acquisition, or control of

goods or provision of service which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect
on competition in India is void. These agreements include
(a) Tie in arrangement (b) Exclusive supply agreement
(c) Exclusive distribution agreement (d) Refusal to deal
(e) Resale price maintenance
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c), (d), (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) - All
3. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: According to Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, the International Court of Justice
is one of the principal organs of the United Nations
Reason R: The International Court of Justice consists of 15 judges who are elected by the
Security Council
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

4. The provisions given under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution are as follows:
(a) All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this
Constitution will be void to the extent of the inconsistency.
(b) ‘Laws in force’ includes all laws passed or made by the legislature or other competent
authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this constitution and not
previously repeated.
(c) The state shall not make any law which takes or abridges right conferred by Part III and
any law made in the contravention shall be void.
(d) ‘Law' does not include any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom
or usage etc.
(e) Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368
(1) (b) and (d) only (2) (d) and (e) only
(3) (a) and (e) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
5. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of ‘absolute duties’?
(a) Duties owed to persons indefinitely (b) Self - regarding duties
(c) Duties owed to the sovereign (d) Duties owed to parents
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all
6. By which amendment of Information Technology Act, 2000 the third and fourth schedules were
omitted?
(a) Act 10 of 2009 (b) Act 55 of 2009
(c) Act 66 of 2009 (d) Act 09 of 2009
(3) (c) only (4) (d) only
7. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Provision) (Article of the statute of the International
Court of Justice)
(a) Law applied by the International (i) Article 36
Court of Justice.
(b) Courts power to allow a state to (ii) Article 38
intervene in a case to which it is
not a party
(c) Jurisdiction of the International (iii) Article 41
Court of Justice
(d) Interim Measures or relief by the (iv) Article 62
International Court of Justice


(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
8. Arrange the initiatives on climate change in chronological order:

(a) Durban conference on climate change
(b) Montreal Protocol on climate change
(c) Vienna convention on climate change
(d) Copenhagen Summit on climate change
(e) Kyoto Protocol on climate change
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) (2) (b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
(3) (a), (d), (c), (b), (e) (4) (c), (b), (e), (d), (a)
9. What is a whistleblower?
(1) A person who signals illegal or unethical practice to a prescribed body
(2) Usually a disgruntled ex-employee
(3) A subversive person spying on a company
(4) An investigative journalist
10. Watch List-I with List-II under

List-I List-II
Provision Section under Muslim Woman Protection
of Rights on Marriage Act, 2019
(a) Punishment for pronouncing talaq (i) Section 3
(b) Offences to be cognizable, (ii) Section 7
compoundable etc.
(c) Custody of minor children (iii) Section 4
(d) Talaq to be void and illegal (iv) Section 6
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
11. Which of the following are correct?

(a) The Doctrine of Priority of Consideration is applicable in India.
(b) The Doctrine of Priority of Consideration is not applicable in India.
(c) The Rule of Priority of Contract is applicable in India.
(d) The Rule of Priority of Contract is not applicable in India.
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) only


List-I List-II
(a) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India (i) Protection against Inhuman treatment in Jail
(b) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration (ii) Protection of Ecology and Environmental
Pollution
(c) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of (iii) Ban on smoking in public places
Bihar
(d) Rural Litigation and Entitlement (iv) Speedy trial is an integral part of the
Kendra v. State of U.P fundamental right under Article 21 of the
Indian constitution
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
13. The maxim “Salus Populi Suprema Lex” means

(1) Welfare of people is supreme law
(2) Increasing population is the supreme cause of concern
(3) No man is above law
(4) Whatever the public collectively say, is the law
14. The provision regarding the offences against the Public Tranquility are as follows :
(a) Whoever, being aware of facts which render any assembly, an unlawful assembly,
intentionally joins that assembly, or continues in it, is said to be a member of unlawful
assembly.
(b) When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they
are said to ‘Commit an affray’.
(c) Whoever is a member of an unlawful assembly, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to one year.
(d) Whoever commits an affray, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to one hundred
rupees, or with both.
(e) Whoever is guilty of rioting shall be punished with fine only.
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a) and (c) only
15. Arrange the provisions of Indian Penal Code in chronological order, section-wise :
(a) House-trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for life
(b) House-trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with death
(c) Lurking house-trespass or house-breaking in order to commit an offence punishable with
imprisonment
(d) House-trespass in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment
(e) Lurking house-trespass or house-breaking by night in order to commit an offence punishable
with imprisonment


(1) (e), (a), (c), (b), (d) (2) (d), (a), (e), (c), (b)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) (4) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
16. Under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,1986, a divorced woman shall
be entitled to :
(a) A reasonable and fair provision and maintenance to be made and paid to her within the
‘iddat’ period by her former husband.
(b) Maintenance of children by her former husband for a period of three years.
(c) Get maintenance from her relatives even after her remarriage.
(d) All the properties given to her at any time only by her husband.
(e) An amount equal to the sum of ‘Mahr’ or dower agreed to be paid to her at the time of
marriage or at anytime thereafter according to Muslim Law.
(1) (a) and (e) only (2) (a), (b), and (e) only
(3) (b), (c) and (e) only (4) (a) and (b) only
17. The responsibilities of Economic and Social Council regarding improvement and protection of
human rights is laid down under which Article of U.N Charter?
(a) Article 62(2) (b) Article 68
(c) Article 76(c) (d) Article 96
Reason R
Assertion A : Whoever assaults or uses criminal force an any person, in attempting to commit
theft on any property which that person is then wearing or carrying, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with
both
Reason R : Section 356 of Indian Penal Code provides for the punishment of imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both if a person
assaults or uses criminal force on any person in attempting to commit theft or any property which
that person is then wearing or carrying.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
19. A bigamous Hindu marriage is

(1) Void but not punishable (2) Void and punishable
(3) Voidable (4) Valid

20. Which of the following is NOT a feature of ‘Mitakshara Coparcenary’?

(1) Unabstructed heritage
(2) Obstructed heritage
(3) Unpredictable and fluctuating interest
(4) Community of interest and unity of possesion
21. In which of the following cases, the ‘minimal creativity test’ was laid down?
(a) Eastern Book Company v. D.B. Modak
(b) R.G. Anand v. Delux Films
(c) Amar Nath Sehgal v. Union of India
(d) University of London Press v. University Tutorial Press
22. The quantum of punishments given under Indian Penal Code are:
(a) Whoever commits extortion shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to three years or with fine or with both.
(b) Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished for a term which may extend
to seven years.
(c) Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
two years or with fine or with both.
(d) Whoever makes any preparation for committing dacoity shall be punished with fine only.
(e) If at the time of attempting to commit robbery or dacoity the offender is armed with deadly
weapons, shall be punished for two years
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (d) and (e) only (4) (a) and (c) only
23. Arrange in chronological order the publication of the books on Jurisprudence

(a) Province of Jurisprudence Determined by Austin
(b) Concept of Law by H.LA. Hart
(c) The Province and Function of Law by Julius Stone
(d) Nature of Judicial Process by Benjamin N.Cardozo
(e) Anatomy of Law by Lon L Fuller
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) (2) (b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
(3) (a), (d), (c), (b), (e) (4) (c), (b), (e), (d), (a)

24. Give the chronological order (year wise) of these cases decided by the courts -
(a) West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd. V.R.
(b) Portugal v. India
(c) Burkina Faso v. Mali
(d) Mavrommiatis Palestine Concessions case
(e) Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) case
(1) (a), (c), (d), (b), (e) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
(3) (a), (e), (b), (c), (d) (4) (a), (e), (b), (d), (c)
25. Which of the following statements are NOT correct ?

(a) In the Hague Conference of 1930, a convention on the conflict of Nationality law was
signed and adopted
(b) Nottebohm case is related to “statelessness”
(c) On 7th November 1967, the General Assembly of the U.N adopted the declaration on
elimination of discrimination against women.
(d) The Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness, 1961 came into force on December
13, 1965.
(e) The Convention on the Status of Stateless Persons was adopted on 6th June 1960.
Codes :
(1) (a), (c), (e) only (2) (b), (d), (e) only
(3) (b), (c), (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) only
26. Under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, the term ‘Equal Protection of the Laws’ has been taken
from the:
(1) American Constitution (2) British Constitution
(3) Australian Constitution (4) Canadian Constituion
27. Rules relating to ‘Sapinda Relationship’ are based on the principle of

(1) Endegamy (2) Polyandry
(3) Polygyny (4) Exogamy
28. Chronologically arrange the following Judgements of the Supreme Court of India on Uniform Civil
Code:
(a) Daniel Latifi v/s Union of India (b) B. John Vallamattom v/s Union of India
(c) Sarla Mudgal v/s Union of India (d) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v/s Shah Bano Begum
(1) (c), (b), (d), (a) (2) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(3) (d), (c), (a), (b) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
29. “An offer cannot be accepted unless it was brought to the knowledge of the person to whom it
is made”. This was laid down in the case of
(1) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (2) Balfour v. Balfour
(3) Mcgregor v. Mcgregor (4) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

30. The provision regarding ‘legislation for giving effect to international agreements’ is given in the
Indian Constitution under
31. Under Section 361 of Indian Penal Code the “kidnapping from lawful guardianship” is:
(a) When someone takes or entices any minor without the consent of the guardian
(b) When someone takes or entices any person of unsound mind, out of the keeping of lawful
guardian without the consent of the guardian
(c) When someone entices or takes away any minor under 16 years of age if male and 18
years of age if female without consent of the guardian
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only
32. Section 376 DB of Indian Penal Code provides for the

(1) Punishment for gang rape of a woman under sixteen years of age
(2) Punishment of rape of woman under twelve years of age
(3) Punishment for gang rape of a woman under twelve years of age
(4) Punishment for causing death or resulting in a persistent vegetative state of the victim

List-I List-II
(Terms) (Section of Companies Act, 2013)
(a) Abridged Prospectus (i) Section 31
(b) Deemed Prospectus (ii) Section 32
(c) Shelf Prospectus (iii) Section 2 (1)
(d) Red herring Prospectus (iv) Section 25
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
34. Which of the following are the exceptions of the ‘specific enforcement rule’ of the Theory of
Remedial Liability?
(a) Imperfect duties
(b) Duties that are impossible for specific performance
(c) Duties which are inexpedient to enforce specifically
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) all

35. Watch List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Provision under Indian Penal Code Section
(a) An act done in good faith for benefit of a (i) Section 423
person without consent.
(b) Dishonest or fraudulent execution of the (ii) Section 381
deed of transfer containing false
statement of consideration
(c) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use (iii) Section 92
of acid
(d) Theft by clerk or servant of property in (iv) Section 326 A
possession of master.
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
36. The Commission on Sustainable Development was established in which year?

(1) 1972 (2) 1982
(3) 1992 (4) 2002
37. The provision relating to ‘solid waste management’ is contained under which Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Schedule VII (b) Schedule IX
(c) Schedule XI (d) Schedule XII
38. The provision relating to ‘drinking water’ is contained under which Schedule of the Constitution
of India, 1950?
(a) Schedule VII (b) Schedule IX
(c) Schedule XI (d) Schedule XII
39. A person may be liable in respect of wrongful acts or omission of others in which of the following
ways
(a) As having ratified and authorised the particular act
(b) As standing towards the other person in a relation entailing responsibility for wrongs done
by that person
(c) As having abetted the tortious acts committed by others
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c)
40. Arrange the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 in chronological order (section wise)
(a) Partnership at will
(b) Mode of determining the existence of the partnership
(c) Property of a firm
(d) Duties of a partner
(1) (b), (a), (d), (c) (2) (c), (b), (a), (d)
(3) (a), (c), (b), (d) (4) (d), (a), (b), (c)
41. Under Section 5 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, a contract for the sale of goods can be made :
(a) By writing and must be registered.
(b) By word of mouth.
(c) By partly in writing and partly word of mouth.
(d) By writing or partly in writing and partly by word of mouth.
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (b) and (d) only
42. Arrange the theories of intellectual property in order of prominence and influence
(a) Personality theory (b) Social Planning theory
(c) Labour Theory (d) Utilitarian Theory
(1) (a), (d), (c), (b) (2) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(3) (c), (b), (d), (a) (4) (d), (c), (a), (b)
43. Which one of the following is the mandatory minimum requirement for a functional federation?
(1) States should be represented in the Upper House of the National Legislature.
(2) Judicial Review
(3) Distribution of legislative and administrative powers between the two sets of Governments
- National and State, so as to ensure the independence of the Government within their
respective spheres.
(4) Distribution of legislative and administrative powers between the two sets of Governments
- National and State, so as to ensure the independent but coordinated exercise of powers
of the Government.
44. Article 72 of the Indian Constitution makes a provision for :

(1) Discharge of the President's functions in other contingencies.
(2) Power of President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences
in certain cases.
(3) Extent of executive power of the Union
(4) Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President

45. ‘A’ an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest ‘Y’, and after due enquiry,
believing ‘Z’ to be ‘Y’, arrests ‘Z’. ‘A’ has committed:
(1) An offence of wrongful confinement
(2) An offence of wrongful restraint
(3) An offence of criminal trespass
(4) No offence
46. When two motorists coming from opposite directions in their cars collide with each other and in
the process, they injure seriously a person who was standing on the roadside, the two motorists
are :
(1) Independent tortfeasors (2) Participate in contributory negligence
(3) Two negligent persons (4) Joint tortfeasors
47. When the biological resources are accessed for commercial utilization or the bio-survey and bio-
utilization leads to commercial utilization, the applicant shall have the option to pay the benefit-
sharing ranging from :
(1) 0.1 to 0.2 (2) 0.1 to 0.3
(3) 0.1 to 0.4 (4) 0.1 to 0.5
48. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive Hindu father or mother by whom the
adoption is made must not have a Hindu son, son's son or son's son's son (whether by legitimate
blood relationship or by adoption) living at the time of adoption.
Reason R : Section 11 (i) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which deals with
the right of adoptive parents ‘under other conditions for a valid adoption’ imposes this restriction.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
49. National Commission of Minorities was established under which of the following provisions?
(1) Article 328 of the Constitution.
(2) Article 328A of the Constitution
(3) Section 3 of National Commission of Minorities Act, 1992
(4) Article 280 of the Constitution of India
50. Arrange in chronological order, the cases relating to U.S. Constitutional Amendments:
(a) Plessy v. Ferguson (b) Hawke v. Smith
(c) Laser v. Garnett (d) U.S. v. Sprague
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (d), (a) (4) (d), (b), (c), (a)

51. “A tort is a civil wrong for which, the remedy is an action for damages and which is not exclusively
breach of contract or breach of trust or breach of merely equitable obligation”. The above definition
was given by :
(1) Salmond (2) Winfield
(3) Fraser (4) Clerk and Lindsell
52. The provision relating to ‘legal recognition of electronic signatures’ is contained under which
section of Information Technology Act, 2000?
(1) Section 3 (2) Section 3-A
53. A company can convert into Limited Liability Partnership :

(a) By complying to requirements of the third schedule of Limited Liability Partnership Act,
2008
(b) It can convert if there is no security interest in its assets subsisting at the time of application,
(c) Partners of Limited Liability Partnership are the erstwhile shareholders of the company
and no one else,
(d) All the assets, interests, rights and privileges of the company are transferred to the firm.
(3) (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c), (d)-All
54. In which case, in respect of natural justice, Lord Denning said that “With a good man in the
saddle, the unruly
horse can be kept under control. It can jump over obstacles. It can leap fences put up by fictions
and come down on the other side of justice.”?
(1) Enderby Town Football Club Ltd. v. Football Association Ltd.
(2) Canara Bank v. Debasis Das
(3) R.V. Hendon Rural District Council
(4) American Cyanamide Co. v. Federal Trade Commission
55. In the Presidential form of government:

(a) The chief executive is relatively free from sectional and party disputes.
(b) The chief executive is free to choose his team of ministers from the best talent available.
(c) The term of the chief executive is not fixed.
(d) It discourages the disease of defections.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) - All
56. The provision regarding ‘selling minors for purposes of prostitution etc’ is given in Indian Penal
code under :
(3) Section 370 A (4) Section 371
57. The legally binding limit to carbon emission was laid down in
(1) Kyoto Protocol on Global Warming, 1997
(2) Copenhagen Summit on Climate Change, 2009
(3) Durban Conference on Climate Change, 2009
(4) Lima Conference on Climate Change
58. The real relation of Jurisprudence to Law depends not upon what law is treated, but how Law is
treated, ' is said by:
(1) Gierke (2) Gray
(3) Rawls (4) Duguit

List-I List-II
Provision Section under National Green
Tribunal Act, 2010
(a) Hazardous Substance (i) Section 2 (a)
(b) Environment (ii) Section 2 (e)
(c) Handling (iii) Section 2 (f)
(d) Accident (iv) Section 2 (c)
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
60. In which case, the Supreme Court held that pardoning powers of the President under Article 72
and Governors under Article 161 is subject to the judicial review?
(1) Satya Narain Sharma v. State of Rajasthan
(2) Vineet Narain v. Union of India
(3) Epuru Sudhakar v. State of Andhra Pradesh
(4) Chhotey Lal v, State of U.P
Reason R
Assertion A: The Parliament has the power to make the laws for whole or any part of the territory
of India and law made by the Parliament would be applicable beyond the territory of India also
Reason R: Article 245 Clause (1) of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make
the laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India and Article 245 Clause (2) says that no
law made by Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it would have extra-
territorial operation.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.


List-I List-II
Provision under the Article
Constitution of India
(a) Special provisions with respect to (i) Article 371-F
the state of Manipur
(b) Special provisions with respect to (ii) Article 371 -G
the state of Karnataka
(c) Special provisions with respect to (iii) Article 377 -C
the state of Sikkim
(d) Special provisions with respect to (iv) Article 371 -J
the state of Mizoram
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(a) The Dunkel Draft Text or Dunkel Package, or the Dunkel Draft Act embodying the results
of Uruguay Round of Multilateral Trade Negotiation, was released on 20 December 1995.
(b) The new World Trade Organisation (WTO) which came into effect on 1st January 1995,
replaced the General Agreement on Tariff and Trade (GATT).
(c) The functions of WTO are mentioned in Article III of the Agreement establishing WTO.
(d) The Sixth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held in Hongkong (China) from 13th to 18th
December 2008.
(1) (b), (c) only (2) (a), (c), (d) only
(3) (a), (b), (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
64. Arrange chronologically the following cases decided by the Supreme Court year wise:
(a) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation.
(b) Francis Coralie v. Union Territory of Delhi
(c) Satwant Singh v. Assistant Passport officer
(d) Kharak Singh v. the State of U.P
(e) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
(1) (c), (d), (a), (e), (b) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
(3) (b), (d), (a), (e), (c) (4) (d), (c), (b), (a), (e)
65. Which of the following chapters of the United Nations Charter deals with pacific settlement of
disputes?
(1) Chapter VI (2) Chapter VII
(3) Chapter III (4) Chapter II

66. By which amendment, the third and fourth schedules of the IT Act were omitted?
(1) Act 10 of 2009 (2) Act 55 of 2002
(3) Act 66 of 2009 (4) Act 09 of 2009

List-I List-II
Jurisdiction Section under Consumer
Protection Act, 1986
(a) Jurisdiction of District forum (i) Section 11
(b) Jurisdiction of State commission (ii) Section 21
(c) Jurisdiction of National Commission (iii) Section 22 A
(d) Power to set aside ex parte orders (iv) Section 17
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
68. The main purpose of ‘Corporation Sole’ is to:

(1) Make the property easily inheritable.
(2) Make the property easily transferable.
(3) Maintain continuity of an office.
(4) Protect the property of state.
69. Section 102 of the Indian Penal code deals with the provision relating to :
(1) When the right of private defence of property extends to causing death.
(2) Right of private defence against deadly assault when there is a risk of harm to an innocent
person.
(3) Commencement and continuance of a right of private defence of the body.
(4) When the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death.
70. In a parliamentary form of government, the British convention of ‘Ministerial Responsibility’ has
been explicitly codified in the Indian Constitution under :
(1) Article 74 (1) (2) Article 74 (2)
(3) Article 75 (2) (4) Article 75 (3)
71. Frustration of a contract occurs in two conditions. Firstly, where the contract has become physically
impossible and secondly, where the object has failed, The above was laid down in the case of
(1) Krell vs Henry (2) Paradine vs Jane
(3) Taylor vs Caldwell (4) Komal Rani vs Chandram

72. Under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution, the right to minorities are guaranteed as under
(a) The right is guaranteed to the religious minorities only.
(b) The right is guaranteed for linguistic and religious minorities.
(c) Right is given only to administer the educational institution
(d) Right is given to minorities to establish and administer the educational institution.
(e) The state is prohibited from making discrimination in the matter of grant of aid to any
educational institution on the ground that it is managed by a religious minority or linguistic minority
(1) (a) and (e) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b), (d) and (e) only (4) (c) and (e) only
73. Read the statements about ‘rule of law’:

(a) Rule of law is an important and fundamental pillar of a liberal and substantive democracy.
(b) The rule of law is not merely public order, the rule of law is social justice based on public
order
(c) The substantive ‘rule of law’ is the rule of proper law which balances the needs of the
society and the individual.
(d) Substantive and liberal democracy is based solely on formal democracy.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) - All
74. “The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract”.
The statement has been made by :
(1) Savigny (2) Puchta
(3) Maine (4) Burke
75. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble does form part of the Constitution?
(1) Re Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves
(2) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(3) Keshava Nand Bharti v. State of Kerala
(4) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
76. Which of the following is NOT a condition precedent for a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoptions
and Maintenance Act, 1956?
(a) Adopter must have the capacity and right to take in adoption.
(b) The child must be eligible for adoption
(c) The giver must have the capacity and right to give in adoption
(d) Datta - homam is mandatory
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (a) and (c) only

77. “Threatening to commit certain acts forbidden by Indian Penal Code” to induce a person to enter
into a contract is associated with :
(1) Undue influence (2) Coercion
(3) Criminal intimidation (4) Threat
78. Where does vicarious liability generally arise from?

(a) A contract of service
(b) A contract for service
(c) A contract of service as well as a contract for service
(d) A wrongful act of servant
(1) (a) and (d) only (2) (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) all (4) (b) only
79. Which of the following provisions of the Statute of International Court of Justice lists “General
Principles of Law Recognized by Civilised States” as the third source of International law?
(1) Article 38 (a) (2) Para (1) (c) of Article 38
(3) Article 38 (b) (4) Para (3) (c) of Article 38
80. A party who suffers loss as a result of a breach of contract can in the usual course claim
(1) Ordinary damages (2) Special damages
(3) Exemplary damages (4) Penal damages
81. Which one of the following is not an ‘Ancient Source’ of Hindu Law?
(1) Smriti (2) Precedents
(3) Digests (4) Shruti
82. Which of the following conditions are essential for a custom to be valid?
(a) The custom had to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity
(b) The custom must have been enjoyed ‘as a right’
(c) The custom need not be consistent with other customs in the same area
(d) The custom must be certain and precise
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a),(b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all

Reason R
Assertion A : Once a performer consents to the incorporation of his performance in a cinematograph
film by a written agreement, he/she will not object to the enjoyment of the performers’ right by the
producer in the same film.
Reason R : The performer is entitled to royalties in case the producer of the film makes use of
the performance for commercial use.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
84. According to whom is it ‘Law of Tort and not Law of Torts?

(1) Winfield (2) Pollock
(3) Fraser (4) Salmond
85. The words ‘International Law’ were used for the first time by which one of the following eminent
Jurists?
(1) Oppenheim (2) W. Friedmann
(3) Austin (4) Jermy Bentham

List-I List-II
(a) Definition of Permanent Lok (i) Section 22 - B
Adalat
(b) Establishment of Permanent (ii) Section 22 - C
Lok Adalat
(c) Cognizance by Permanent Lok (iii) Section 22 - E
Adalat
(d) Award of Permanent Lok Adalat (iv) Section 22 - A
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
87. Arrange the following in chronological order (section wise) as stated in the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988
(a) Procedure and Power of Claims Tribunal
(b) Award of Claim Tribunal
(c) Claim Tribunals
(d) Application for Compensation
(1) (c), (d), (b), (a) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (a), (d) (4) (c), (d), (a), (b)

88. The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission shall be

(1) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(2) Chief Justice of a High Court
(3) Judge of the Supreme Court
(4) Chairpersons of National Commission of Women

List-I List-II
Provisions Sections of Copyright Act, 1957
(a) Performer (i) Section 2 (q)
(b) Performer's right (ii) Section 38 B
(c) Performance (iii) Section 38
(d) Moral Rights of Performer (iv) Section 2 (qq)
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
90. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between law and morality among
non- positive legal theorists?
(1) Law is always in advance of moral ideas
(2) Morality is generally in advance of the law
(3) The law is inextricably bound up with morals
(4) There is no relationship between law and morality
Comprehension
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
The right to live with dignity has been recognized as a human right on the international front and by the
number of precedents of this Court and therefore, the Constitutional courts must strive to protect the
dignity of every individual, for, without the right to dignity, every other right would be rendered meaningless.
Dignity is an inseparable facet of every individual that invites reciprocative respect from others to every
aspect of an individual which he/she perceives as an essential attribute of his/her individuality, be it an
orientation or an optional expression of choice. The Constitution has ladened the judiciary with the very
important duty to protect and ensure the right of every individual including the right to express and choose
without any impediments so as to enable an individual to fully realize his/her fundamental right to live with
dignity.
Sexual orientation is one of the many biological phenomena which is natural and inherent in an individual
and is controlled by neurological and biological factors. The science of sexuality has theorized that an
individual exerts little or no control over who he/she gets attracted to. Any discrimination on the basis of
one’s sexual orientation would entail a violation of the fundamental right of freedom of expression.
91. The consensual sexual act of an adult is criminalised under which of the following legislations?
(1) Indian Penal Code
(2) POCSO
(3) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013

92. The fundamental right of the freedom of expression is contained in the following articles of the
Indian Constitution
(1) Article 19 (4) (a) (2) Article 19 (1) (f)
(3) Article 18 (1) (4) Article 21
93. Discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is violative of which of the following fundamental
rights?
(1) Article 21 only (2) Article 14, 15 only
(3) Article 15, 19 only (4) Articles 14, 15, 19, 27
94. The above paragraph reflects the judgement in case of

(1) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of Indian
(2) Machi Singh v. State of Punjab
(3) Sate of UP v. Ram Swaroop
(4) Chairman Railway Board v. Chandrima Das
95. Which one of the following judges were part of the judgement referred to in the paragraph ?
(1) J. Deepak Mishra (2) J.R.F. Nariman
(3) Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud (4) J. Indu Malhotra
Comprehension
Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow :
The state of Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand have not cooperated with the central government to constitute
a Ganga Management Board. The Uttarakhand High Court in the exercise of its ‘parens patriae’ jurisdiction,
ordered conversation of Ganga and Yamuna rivers as juristic/legal persons/living entities, having the
status of a legal person. The rivers Ganga and Yamuna are thus legal persons with corresponding rights
of a living person. The director NAMAMI Ganga, the Chief Secretary and Advocate General of Uttarakhand
states were declared as persons in ‘loco parentis’.
The division bench of Uttarakhand High Court sharply berated the state terming their non-cooperation as
the ‘sign of non-governance’. The deterioration of Ganga and Yamuna is a classic case of ‘desperate
times, desperate measures’, the court granted the juristic entity at par with Hindu idol. The Uttarakhand
High Court in another case reiterated the constitution of the Ganga Management Board has become all
the more necessary for the purpose of irrigation, water supply, hydropower generation, and navigation.
96. ‘The division bench of Uttarakhand High Court sharply berated...non-governance’ was observed
in which of the following cases?
(1) Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action v. Union of India
(2) Rural Litigation & Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttarakhand
(3) Divya Pharmacy v. Union of India
(4) Lalit Miglani v. State of Uttarakhand
97. ‘The Uttarakhand High Court in another case reiterated 'the constitution...navigation’ as quoted in
the paragraph, refers to which one of the following cases?
(1) Mohd. Salim v. State of Uttarakhand
(2) Yogendra Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax
(3) Ram Jankijee v. State of Bihar
(4) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath

98. The term ‘Parens Patriae’ refers to

(1) Common Suit
(2) Descent from parent
(3) Parent of his / her own country / state
(4) Barred by res Judicata
99. The term ‘loco parentis' refers to :

(1) In equal fault (2) In place of parent
(3) Hizanat period (4) Indigent suit
100. Hindu Idol is a juristic entity capable of holding property, was laid down in
(1) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd v. State of Bihar
(2) Yogendra Nath Naskar v. Commissioner of Income tax.
(3) K.M. Basheer v. Lona Chakola
(4) Nanak Chand v. State of U.P
Answer Key
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 3 1 1 1 2 4 1 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
* 3 1 3 4 1 2 1 2 2
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 4 3 * 2 1 4 3 1 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
4 3 1 4 2 3 4 3 4 1
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 4 3 2 4 1 4 1 3 1
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1 4 4 1 2 1 1 2 3 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1 4 1 4 1 1 1 3 3 4
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
1 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 2 1
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 3 2 1 4 4 1 1,3 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
1 1 4 1 1 4 1 3 2 2

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5 Previous Year Papers with Answer Key

(July 2018 to June 2020)

NTA UGC-NET Law

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General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude

Time : 1 hours Paper-I Maximum Marks : 100

Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice

5. In which year, the population of country was the highest ?

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7. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India ?

9. Assertion (A) : Indoor air pollution is a serious health hazard.

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14. Leader of the Opposition is a member of committees which select :

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30. Assertion (A) : All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

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Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 31 to 35 :

32. Absence of technology would lead to :

33. The advantage of technological inputs would result in :

35. More productive employment demands :

39. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning ?

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40. The next term in the series

43. Assertion (A) : To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

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46. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom

47. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be :

48. Assertion (A) : Classroom communication is a transactional process.

49. The next term in the series

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19. Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality ?

24. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

27. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

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31. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

33. The ‘U.N. Commission on Human Rights’ was established in 1946 by :

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44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

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49. Special damages will be awarded in case of a breach of contract :

53. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Remoteness of Damage” ?

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57. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to Consumer Courts ?

58. Point out the correct statement :

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73. Answer the following using the code given below :

75. Answer the following using the code given below :

82. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

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