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Dr.

Marwah’s Test Series


WhatsApp Number: 8447982490, 9873835363, 9717143789 , MOCK - I
Winning is a habit for me
1. You are on a night shift and notice that in a a. Absent P waves
patient of atrial fibrillation, warfarin was b. T wave inversion
prescribed. The report of latest PT= 50 seconds. c. ST elevation
What is next best step for intern before senior d. Narrow QRS complex
doctor comes for morning rounds? 8. You are reviewing patient who is on Thiazides
a. Give protamine sulphate for last 3 months and determine that patient is
b. Give vitamin K1 intravenously having fluid volume deficit. Which of the
c. Order FFP and inform consultant following will the seen in the patient?
telephonically of the urgency a. Bounding pulse and increased heart rate
d. Withhold next dose of warfarin b. Decreased hematocrit and polyuria
2. Intern is caring for patient with Left c. Metabolic alkalosis
ventricular Failure and notices that patient has d. Metabolic acidosis
breathlessness and bilateral crepitations on 9. Hypokalemia will be seen in which of the
auscultation. What additional findings would be following case?
seen in this case? a. Sustained tissue damage due to burns
a. Flat neck and hand veins with decreased b. CKD patient on Chlorthalidone
urine output c. Ascites patient on spironolactone
b. Non pitting edema d. Documented History of Gout
c. Pulsus Alternans 10. Which patient is at risk of having sodium
d. Hepatomegaly value of 130 meq/L?
3. A patient underwent thyroid surgery a. Conn Syndrome
yesterday and you are posted in post-op care. b. Cushing syndrome
Which of the following may be seen in this c. Body builder and uses steroids
patient post operatively? d. CHF patient and is on Torsemide
a. Sluggish bowel sounds 11. Patient was admitted with heart failure and
b. Twitching Doctor prescribed Lasix with NTG drip. Which of
c. Troiser sign the following if present the intern should alert
d. Decreased Deep tendon reflexes the Senior resident?
4. Intern is caring for patient of Crohn disease a. Headache in patient
who is having calcium value of 8 mg/dl . Which of b. Muscle twitching
the following may be seen in ECG of this patient c. SBP < 90 mmHg
a. QT shortening d. Output chart showing urine output of 2ml /kg
b. QT prolongation 12. Intern is entering patient serum phosphate
c. ST elevation report in central computer terminal of ICU.
d. ST depression Value says 1.8 mg/dl. Which condition would
5. Which is correct about ECG finding of have contributed to this level?
Hyperkalemia? a. Malnutrition
a. Narrow QRS b. Kidney failure
b. Broad QRS c. Heart failure
c. Hyper-acute T waves d. Post chemotherapy
d. Prominent U waves 13. The last night shift notes document
6. Which patient will be having high risk of insensible fluid loss of 800 ml per day. This
developing sodium value of 155 meq/ L ? implies losses from?
a. Adult patient undergone Lap- a. Urine output
cholecystectomy, post Op Day 1 b. Chest-drain
b. Young female patient who abuses laxatives c. Wound seepage
c. Young male who suffered from 15% BSA d. Integumentary output
burns 14. Which patient would intern determine to be
d. Child on ORT with one pack ORS diluted in having fluid volume excess?
half litre of clean drinking water a. Suffering from Diabetic nephropathy
7. Intern is reviewing patient progress chart and b. On diuretics with tenting of skin
notes serum potassium is 2.5meq/L. Which of the c. Undergone GI resection and ileostomy
following can be present in ECG of the patient? d. Paralysis of gut and NG tube in Situ
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15. Patient was found unresponsive under a b. Respirations become shallow and
flyover by police and brought to your hospital. development of apneic episodes
ABG on admission shows pH= 7.15, pCO2= 60 c. Respiration is decreased in rate and depth
mm Hg and HCO3 = 22 meq/ L. Which is likely d. Respiration is abnormally deep and has fruity
possibility? odor in breath
a. Drug overdose 21. An asthma patient due to pollution from
b. COPD crackers after Diwali is having acute
c. Fluid overload exacerbation. Which abnormality would be
d. Internal bleeding present in patient?
16. pH = 7.46 , pC02= 30 mm Hg and HCO3 =20 a. Hypoxia with respiratory acidosis
meq/ L. Comment on the diagnosis? b. Hypercarbia with respiratory acidosis
a. Metabolic acidosis compensated c. Hypercarbia with respiratory alkalosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis compensated d. Hypoxia with respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis uncompensated 22. Intern is caring for patient with broken ribs
d. Respiratory alkalosis uncompensated in night duty and patient is crying in pain. Which
17. Intern is caring for a patient with NG tube in is correct?
situ attached to low suction. Which of the a. Patient is having respiratory acidosis and give
following disorder is this patient at risk for? IV opioids for pain after discussion with doctor
a. Metabolic acidosis b. Patient is having respiratory acidosis and IV
b. Metabolic alkalosis opioids are not to be given at all
c. Respiratory acidosis c. Patient is having Metabolic alkalosis due to
d. Respiratory alkalosis broken bones
18. When should intern consider taking ABG d. Patient is having Metabolic acidosis due to
sample of Patient ? toxicity of pain killers
a. Positive modified Allen test, take sample from 23. You are medical officer posted in police
same hand recruitment. You have made a guy unfit for
b. Negative modified Allen’s test, take sample recruitment due to pes planus. Which is correct
from same hand about this condition?
c. Positive modified Allen test and take sample a. Occurs due to Collapse of medial longitudinal
from opposite hand arch
d. In emergency can be taken irrespective of b. Occurs due to Collapse of lateral longitudinal
test result arch
Ans: a c. Occurs due to Collapse of anterior transverse
19. Which structure is marked in the image arch
shown? d. Occurs due to Collapse of subtalar joint
24. Most rapid and sensitive test for
Cryptococcus is?
a. India Ink stain
b. Mucicarmine stain
c. Sabouraud’s agar
d. Latex agglutination test
25. A term appropriate for gestational age
neonate was born to primigravida in labor room
of your hospital. You have noticed this swelling
in the baby and found it to be cystic in nature
a. Trochlea with transillumination test positive. You would
b. Capitulum inform the mother that her child is born with
c. Coronoid fossa which of the following defect?
d. Spiral groove
20. Head injury case is admitted now. Which
finding will be found in this patient?
a. Respirations are increased in rate and depth

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c. DIC and life threatening bleeding
d. Sepsis
31. Which of the following is a test for
carbohydrate malabsorption?
a. D- Galactose absorption test
b. Fecal fat estimation
c. Breath Hydrogen test
d. Urine aminoaciduria
32. Which is the best investigation for diagnosis
of this child with inability to do running or sport
related activity. Blood work of the patient is
a. Branchial cyst normal.
b. Cystic hygroma
c. Encephalocele
d. Lipoma
26. A 35-year-old lady on off and on pain killers
for last 10 years presents with pain in PIP, MCP,
wrist joint. She is RA factor positive and has
haemoglobin of 10gm%. Which is correct about
her anemia?
a. Low iron with high ferritin and low TIBC
b. High iron with low ferritin and low TIBC
c. Low iron with low ferritin and low TIBC
d. High iron with high ferritin and low TIBC
27. The image shows transmigration of
leucocytes through endothelial gaps. Which of a. CT PNS
the following is the site for diapedesis? b. MRI PNS
c. Nasal endoscopy
d. Hb Electrophoresis
33. Oroantral fistula develops due to?
a. Poor dental Extraction of lower first molar
b. Ringertz tumor
c. Poor dental Extraction of upper first molar
d. Facial trauma involving maxilla
a. CD31 34. You are doing thoracocentesis at site shown
b. PECAM-1 in the image. Layers pierced in correct
c. Capillaries sequence from outside to inside are?
d. Post capillary venules
28. Which acts as super-antigen?
a. Alpha toxin of Clostridium perfringens
b. Heat labile toxin of ETEC
c. Vero-cytotoxin of EHEC
d. TSST of S. aureus
29. HIV virus leads to?
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Hodgkin’s disease
c. Multiple Penile ulcers
d. Whitlow a. Skin and superficial fascia – Serratus anterior
30. An old man has been diagnosed as suffering muscle—intercostal muscles—parietal pleura
from CLL. His son is asking you about leading b. Skin and superficial fascia – Rhomboideus
cause of death in this cancer. You answer is? major—intercostal muscles—parietal pleura
a. Spread to CNS c. Skin and superficial fascia – Serratus anterior
b. Spread to lungs and hemoptysis muscle—intercostal muscles—visceral pleura

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d. Skin and superficial fascia – Rhomboideus penalty kick he experienced severe pain in the
major—intercostal muscles—visceral pleura hand and could not continue the game. His X ray
35. Internal jugular vein begins from? is shown below. Which is correct about
a. Transverse sinus treatment?
b. Junction of retromandibular with posterior
auricular
c. Junction of subclavian with brachiocephalic
vein
d. Sigmoid sinus
36. First antibody to detect recent infection
developing with Dane particle is?
a. HbsAg a. Splint with joint in flexion
b. Anti-HbsAg b. Splint with joint in extension
c. Anti-HbcAg IgM c. Arthroscopic removal of chipped bone
d. Anti- HbeAg IgM fragment
37. Loud P2 is heard in? d. K- wire for chipped bone segment
a. Pulmonic stenosis 42. Which of the following is shown below?
b. Subpulmonic stenosis
c. Pulmonary artery hypertension
d. Pulmonic peripheral stenosis
38. A 10-year-old boy presents with history of
recurrent falls with difficulty in ambulation.
Elder brother has same history. What is the
clinical diagnosis?

a. Austin Moore prosthesis


b. Thompson prosthesis
c. Jewett nail
d. Dynamic hip screw
43. Identify the structure marked in the given
image?

a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy


b. Charcot Marie tooth disease
c. Congenital Myopathy
d. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
39. 60-year male with low back pain and
sclerotic lesions in vertebra is seen with?
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Carcinoma prostate a. Caudate nucleus
c. Ca breast b. Thalamus
d. TB vertebra c. Lentiform nucleus
40. Alcohol wipes act by? d. Internal capsule
a. Destroying spores 44. A guy got hit in the testis in a street fight and
b. Denaturation of bacterial proteins underwent surgery for torsion of testis. Which is
c. Generation of free radicals correct about the specimen shown?
d. Inhibition of apoptosis
41. Your friend is goal keeper in friendly football
match with another university. While handling a

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c. High gastrin levels
d. Normocytic anemia
48. Which of the following congenital heart
disease will present with recurrent pneumonia
episodes in first year of life?
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Tricuspid atresia
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Truncus arteriosus
49. A newborn child was found in dustbin by
a. Red infarct sanitary workers. The police have brought the
b. White infarct child to your hospital. On general physical
c. Liquefactive necrosis examination you notice the following
d. Currant jelly clots malformation in genitals of the baby. Which of
45. In which of the following conditions will be the following defects is present here?
these RBC inclusions seen?

a. Ectopia vesicae
b. Bubonocele
c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d. Bell-clapper testis
a. Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency 50. Sydenham chorea is seen in
b. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase a. Rheumatic fever
deficiency b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Sideroblastic anemia c. Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Falciparum malaria d. Seronegative Arthritis
46. Von reckling hausen disease occurs due to 51. A 25-year-old primigravida at 24 weeks of
defect on chromosome____ gestation has been found to have abnormal GTT.
Which of the following defect will not be seen in
the baby?
a. Congenital defects
b. Low blood sugar
c. Hairy pinna
d. Low serum calcium
52. The shown condition is an ADR of which anti-
CA agent?

a. 13
b. 14
c. 15
d. 17
47. Type A gastritis leads to development of?
a. Hyperchlorhydria
b. Microcytic anemia
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a. Capecitabine
b. Methotrexate a. Dynein
c. 6-Mercaptopurine b. Kinesin
d. A and B both c. Myosin
53. Drug of choice for recurrence of GH d. Actin
producing adenoma? 57. SGLT-2 is inhibited by?
a. Pegvisomant a. Phlorhizin
b. Cabergoline b. Canagliflozin
c. Ganirelix c. Amiloride
d. Leuprolide d. Rotenone
Ans: a 58. Which muscle contracts to reduce the lumen
54. A soldier posted at Siachen glacier report to of trachea to increase air flow rate during
unit medical command with feeling numb in the coughing?
toes and fingertips. He is also experiencing a. Omohyoid
breathing difficulty. Sp02 is 90%. What is type of b. Trachealis
hypoxia leading to this presentation? c. Thyroarytenoid
a. Hypoxic hypoxia d. Digastric muscle
b. Hypobaric hypoxia 59. Adenohypophysis is formed from?
c. Anemic hypoxia a. Neuroectoderm
d. Stagnant hypoxia b. Surface ectoderm
55. Which is correct about the marking in the c. Neural crest
pulse tracing shown below d. Endoderm
60. Cyamella is a sesamoid bone seen in?
a. Tendon of popliteus
b. Tendon of Flexor Carpi ulnaris
c. Tendon of quadriceps femoris
d. Tendon of flexor hallicus Brevis
61. Which of the following is not a feature of
klumpke paralysis?
a. Claw hand
a. C wave due to bulge of tricuspid valve b. Intrinsic hand weakness
b. C wave due to bulge of mitral valve c. Horner syndrome
c. Anacrotic notch d. Ape Thumb
d. Dicrotic notch 62. Which of the following bacteria has a darting
56. Which of the following is not a component of motility?
the process shown in the image? a. Giardia
b. Gardnerella
c. Listeria
d. Fusobacterium
63. Bacillary angiomatosis is caused by?
a. Bartonella Quintana
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b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Bartonella Henselae
d. Fransicella Tularensis
64. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide is
produced by?
a. I-cells of Intestine
b. F-cells of pancreas
c. L-cells of terminal ileum
d. K cells of proximal duodenum
65. Which hormone receptor has 4 subunits and a. Idiosyncratic reaction
linked to tyrosine kinase activity? b. Potentiation
a. Insulin c. Summation
b. Growth Hormone d. Super-agonist effect
c. ACTH 69. Which is microsomal enzyme inducer?
d. Calcitonin a. Isoniazid
66. Correct about therapeutic index? b. Indinavir
c. Alcohol Binge drinking
d. Corticosteroids
70. Which of the following is not an antibody
mediated hypersensitivity reaction except?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
71. Call Exner bodies are seen in?
a. Granulosa Theca cell tumour
b. Sertoli Leydig tumour
c. Teratoma
d. Brenner tumour
72. Reason for death in G6PD patients?
a. Anemia
a. Measure of drug efficacy and calculated by b. Low oxy-hemoglobin
LD50/ED50 c. Acute Renal failure
b. Measure of drug efficacy and calculated by d. Sequestration Crisis
ED50/LD50 73. CD59 absence is a feature of?
c. Measure of drug safety and calculated by a. Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
LD50/ED50 b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
d. Measure of drug safety and calculated by c. MALToma
ED50/LD50 d. APUDOMA
67. 25-year-old girl develops mood swings and 74. A 35-year-old lady at your PHC developed
feels tearful for few days before her menses PPH. You are the medical officer on duty and
apart from abdominal pain. What drug is best have started 2 units of blood transfusion. After 2
suited for management? hours you notice that is having breathlessness
a. OCP and her vital chart shows pulse rate of 110/min
b. SSRI and BP= 150/90 mm Hg. Chest auscultation
c. TCA shows basal crepitations. You have stopped
d. BZD blood transfusion and sent it to blood bank for
68. Drug A produces 10 mm Hg fall in SBP. Drug blood grouping and cross matching. Which of
B produces 10 mm Hg fall in SBP. When both are the following will explain the manifestations of
combined the effect is magnified 2X. This is this patient?
called as? a. Ig G activated Complement mediated
destruction of RBC

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b. Ig M activated Complement medicated
destruction of RBC
c. Transfusion related acute lung injury due to
cytokines
d. Transfusion related circulatory overload
75. The image shows transmigration of
leucocytes through endothelial gaps. Which of
the following is the site for diapedesis?

a. Loeffler serum slope


b. Potassium tellurite agar
c. Wilson blair medium
d. BYCE medium
80. A 50-year-old man with presents with
chronic constipation and streaking of blood
along with stools for last 3 days. He has no
weight loss or fever and Per rectal examination
a. CD31 could not be done due to extreme pain. Which of
b. PECAM-1 the following is most likely cause?
c. Capillaries a. Diverticulitis
d. Post capillary venules b. Ulcerative colitis
76. Which is earliest neurological finding in Potts c. Anal fissure
spine? d. Colorectal cancer
a. Reduction of disc space 81. A 40-year-old Alcoholic patient is brought in
b. Destruction of anterior part of vertebral body with abdominal distention and difficulty in lying
c. Destruction of pedicles of vertebra in prone position. He will be having which of the
d. Brisk deep tendon reflexes following derangement?
77. Which of the following is the most common
subtype of injury seen by Salter and Harris
Classification?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
78. Levinthal Cole Lillie bodies are found in
which of the following infection?
a. Chlamydiae Pneumoniae
b. Chylamydiae Psittaci
c. Legionella pneumophilia
d. Actinomyces
79. Rapid diagnosis of Corynebacterium
diptheriae is done with?

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
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d. Respiratory alkalosis d. Adenocarcinoma
82. A left handed doctor is securing advanced 90. Young male presents with repeated episodes
airway in a crashing patient in ER. Which of the of vomiting and crampy abdominal pain. On Per
following is correct about securing the airway? abdominal examination no rebound tenderness
a. Hold laryngoscope in left hand and introduce is elicited and bowel sounds are absent. What is
the blade along right side of patient mouth the radiological diagnosis of the case?
b. Hold laryngoscope in right hand and
introduce the blade along left side of patient
mouth
c. Hold laryngoscope in left hand and introduce
the blade along left side of patient mouth
d. Hold laryngoscope in right hand and
introduce the blade along right side of patient
mouth
83. A patient of MDR TB is complaining of
hearing problems. Which of the following is
correct about the condition of this patient?
a. Damage to inner hair cells by Kanamycin a. Proximal Small bowel obstruction
b. Damage to outer hair cells by moxifloxacin b. Distal small bowel obstruction
c. Damage to inner hair cells by moxifloxacin c. Large bowel obstruction
d. Damage to outer hair cells by Kanamycin d. Colon cut off sign
84. Pronator Teres muscle originates from? 91. Which is the marked structure in CT
a. Medial condyle abdomen shown below?
b. Lateral condyle
c. Medial epicondyle
d. Lateral epicondyle
85. Which tarsal bone has no muscular
attachment?
a. Calcaneum
b. Navicular
c. Cuboid
d. Talus
86. Otogenic brain abscess involves which lobe?
a. Frontal
b. Temporal
c. Occipital
d. Parietal
87. Furuncle of external canal of ear is treated
with? a. Caudate lobe of liver
a. IV antibiotics for 6 weeks b. Psoas abscess
b. Icthyammol glycerine packs c. Mucocele gall bladder
c. Ear syringing d. Adrenal gland
d. Medicated antibiotic impregnated ear wicks 92. Which structure separates the two lateral
88. Which is the most common tumor of ventricles of brain
pituitary?
a. Non-functioning adenoma
b. Prolactinoma
c. ACTH producing adenoma
d. Oncocytoma
89. Most common bronchogenic carcinoma is?
a. Small cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Mixed cell carcinoma
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by snake and having respiratory difficulty. His
son took photo of snake with mobile phone.
Which drug should be given to patient after
consent of CMO in-charge?

a. Succinylcholine
b. Neostigmine
a. Corpus callosum c. Atracurium
b. Fornix d. Adrenaline
c. Vein of galen 99. The following image shows funny current of
d. Caudate nucleus pacemaker potential of heart. Which of the
93. Subepithelial deposits and spikes on following ions movement is responsible for this
electron microscopy is a feature of? current?
a. PSGN
b. MGN
c. MPGN
d. Ig A nephropathy
94. Napkin ring configuration growth is seen in?
a. Left sided colonic growth
b. Right sided colonic growth
c. Splenic flexure
d. All of the above
95. Which of the following neural tube defects
does not show any neurological deficit? a. Sodium
a. Anencephaly b. Potassium
b. Myelomeningocele c. Calcium
c. Meningocele d. Both sodium and potassium
d. Cranioraschisis 100. Which ion plays a role in the process shown
96. Which of the following conditions leads to below?
development of Kernicterus?
a. Criggler najar syndrome
b. Gilbert syndrome
c. Down Syndrome
d. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
97. Cevimeline is a newly derived agent which
acts on:
a. Alpha 1 receptor
b. Beta 1 receptor
c. Beta 2 receptor
d. M3 receptor
98. 45-year-old farmer is brought to district
hospital in evening by his son after being bitten
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c. Eyelid
d. Urethra
105. Obelion is located at ?
a. Lamboid with parietomastoid suture
b. Greater wing of sphenoid with lesser wing of
sphenoid
c. On the Saggital suture between the parietal
emissary foramina
d. Elevation between superciliary arches
106. Which is not correct about Endotracheal
tube?

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
101. Correct about the marking X is?

a. Non cuffed tubes can be used in children


b. Curvature of 12-16 cm
c. Can be visualized on Chest X ray
d. Angle of bevel is 60 degrees
107. Ludwig angina was diagnosed by ENT
consultant in a patient presenting with putrid
halitosis and brawny induration and swelling of
floor of mouth. Which is correct about the
condition?
a. Caused by streptococcus pyogenes due
infection of mandibular dentition
b. Caused by anerobic streptococci due to
infection of maxillary dentition
c. Caused by Anaerobes due infection of
mandibular dentition
a. Activin d. Caused by anaerobes due to infection of
b. Inhibin A maxillary dentition
c. Inhibin B 108. A footballer died while playing. The
d. Follistatin specimen of his heart is shown. Which of the
102. Largest family of hormone receptors is? following is correct about this condition?
a. Tyrosine kinase
b. Jaunus kinases (JAK)
c. Serine kinase recpetors
d. GPCR
103. Wolfian duct forms?
a. Ductus Deferens
b. Ductus Arteriosus
c. Appendix of testis
d. Cowper Glands
104. Tyson’s gland is seen at?
a. Prepuce
b. Vermilion border
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a. Structural heart disease and check family is the most likely diagnosis?
members for atherosclerosis
b. Screening in close relatives for risk of
arrythmias
c. Evaluate for Rheumatic etiology
d. Valvular heart disease
109. False about pheochromocytoma?
a. Propranolol is used first line for hypertension
control
b. Surgery is treatment of choice
c. Urinary catecholamines are diagnostic test a. Fracture patella
d. Present with Nausea, vomiting along with b. Tibia fracture
hypertension c. Osseus metaplasia
110. Maltese cross appearance on peripheral d. Myositis ossifications
smear is seen with which of the following 114. A 70-year-old man is having low back ache
infections? not responding to pain killers. X ray spine shows
a. Cryptococcosis lytic lesions in lumbosacral spine with normal
b. Toxoplasmosis SAP values. The peripheral smear is shown
c. Babesia below. Which of the following tests will help in
d. N. Meningitidis confirmation of diagnosis?
111. Which organism meets Koch’s postulates?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoea
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Mycobacterium leprae
d. Mycobacterium avium inter-cellulare
112. Identify the fracture shown in given
radiograph

a. Serum electrophoresis
b. Prostate specific antigen
c. Bone biopsy
d. Urine dipstick for proteins
115. A 70-year-old man suffered from severe
chest pain and ECG shows ST elevation. The
patient died in the emergency room before
thrombolysis could be started. Postmortem
a. Monteggia fracture heart specimen is shown. What is the leading
b. Galeazzi fracture cause of death?
c. Clay Shoveler fracture
d. Jefferson fracture
113. A patient presents with 4 months history of
fall, with swelling and pain around the knee. The
following x ray is obtained from the patient, what

a. Cardiac rupture
b. Cardiac tamponade
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c. Arrythmia
d. Congestive heart failure
116. Which of the following is correct about
Mycosis? a. ϒ -carboxylation of glycine residues to clotting
a. Fungal toxins leading to liver failure factor 2,7, 9 and 10
b. Fungal toxins leading to hepatocellular b. ϒ -carboxylation of glutathione residues to
cancer clotting factor 2,7, 9 and 10
c. Fungal infection leading to dermal c. ϒ-carboxylation of aspartic acid residues
involvement and systemic illness clotting factor 2,7,9 and 10
d. Fungal spores leading to malignancy of lymph d. ϒ-carboxylation of glutamic acid residues to
nodes clotting factor 2,7, 9 and 10
117. 2-year-old child with weight of 10 kg is 121. Foveolar cells of stomach produce
having loose watery stools since last night. a. Acid
When the child is brought to ER he is obtunded b. Pepsin
and not taking feeds. He has not passed urine c. Trypsin
since last night and skin pinch over the d. Mucus
abdomen takes 5 seconds to come back. You 122. Major lymphatic drainage of areola of
have decided to start IV line in the child. Which breast is?
is correct about the initial correction to be given a. Axillary
to this child? b. Internal mammary
a. 22G cannula, Ringer lactate 300 ml IV over 1 c. Infraclavicular
hour d. Sappey’s Plexus
b. 24G cannula, Ringer lactate 300 ml IV over 1 123. Most mobile part of heart is?
hour a. Crista terminalis
c. 22G cannula, Ringer lactate 1000 ml IV over 6 b. Apex
hours c. Right auricle
d. 24G cannula, Ringer lactate 1000 ml IV over 6 d. Left atrial appendage
hour 124. Smallest diameter of colon is?
118. Which of the following is the preferred a. Ascending Colon
vasopressor in pregnancy? b. Descending colon
a. Hydralazine c. Caecum
b. Magnesium sulphate d. Sigmoid Colon
c. Labetalol 125. Most common type of capillaries is?
d. Ephedrine a. Continuous
119. Drug with concentration dependent killing b. Fenestrated
and prolonged post antibiotic effect is? c. Sinusoidal
a. Beta lactams d. Glomus
b. Vancomycin 126. Gastric inhibitory peptide is produced by?
c. Fluroquinolones a. G cells
d. Aminoglycosides b. I cells
120. Which is correct about the vitamin shown c. S cells
below? d. K cells
127. A 4.5 kg large for date baby born to
diabetic mother is having seizures. What will be
the best course of action for management of this
child?

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a. Ischemic stroke
b. Hemorrhagic stroke
c. Lacunar stroke
d. All of the above
135. Outermost covering of blastocyst is called
as?
a. Tunica albuginea
b. Acrosome
c. Corona radiata
a. Start breast feeding d. Zona pellucida
b. Give glucagon injection subcutaneously 136. Diagnosis?
c. Secure IV line and give 10 percent dextrose
d. Give insulin injection subcutaneously
128. Exchange transfusion is done for which of
the following conditions in a neonate?
a. Pathological jaundice
b. Hypoglycaemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Thalassemia
129. A 20-year-old boys says that he is very thin
and has been losing weight. He has bulky foul -
smelling greasy stools after every meal. Small
intestinal mucosal biopsy shows Periodic acid
Schiff’ reagent positive intracellular bacteria
a. Swan neck deformity
visualized in lamina propria. What is the
b. Trigger finger
diagnosis?
c. Mallet finger
a. Peptic ulcer disease
d. Boutonniere finger
b. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
137. What is usual presentation of SSPE?
c. Whipple disease
a. Myoclonic jerks
d. Celiac sprue
b. GTCS
130. Predominant T cell is?
c. Meningismus
a. CD4+
d. Pleomorphic rash on extremities and trunk
b. CD8+
138. During pre-operative work up of a patient
c. NK cells
undergoing thyroid cancer surgery the
d. Plasma cell
anesthesia resident has measured a
131. Cyst of E. Histiolytica is?
thyromental distance of >6.5 cm. Which of the
a. Mononucleate
following is correct?
b. Binucleate
a. This indicates routine ease of intubation
c. Trinucleate
b. This indicates difficult intubation
d. Quadrinucleate
c. Indicates retrosternal goiter
132. In which shock is CVP increased?
d. Indicates spread of thyroid malignancy to soft
a. Septic
tissues
b. Cardiogenic
139. Which is not correct about accidental intra
c. Distributive
arterial thiopentone injection?
d. Hypovolemic
a. Remove the needle and use another site for IV
133. Best test for detection of brucellosis in milk
access
is?
b. Keep the needle in place and irrigate with
a. Castaneda method
saline
b. Standard tube agglutination test
c. Anticoagulation with heparin
c. PLET medium
d. Use phenoxybenzamine
d. Whey agglutination test
140. Hand knee gait is seen due to?
134. Atrial fibrillation leads to development of
a. Instability of hip joint
which type of stroke?
b. Instability of knee joint
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c. Instability of ankle joint 147. Superior laryngeal nerve is derived from
d. Instability of elbow joint _________ brachial arch?
141. Which structure is marked in MRI head a. 1
image shown above? b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
148. Fossa Ovalis is a remnant of ___________?
a. Septum Primum
b. Septum Secondum
c. Sinus Venosus
d. Bulbus Cordis
149. Swine flu is subtype of which of the
following?
a. Influenza A
b. Influenza B
c. Influenza C
d. None of these
150. What is the source of bleeding in blunt eye
injury?
a. Circulus iridis major
b. Retinal artery
a. Hippocampus
c. Ophthalmic artery
b. Pineal gland
d. Spiral arteries
c. Splenium
d. Internal capsule
142. Person opens eye to pain, with
inappropriate word and motor response shows
abnormal flexion, find GCS score?
a. E2 V3 M4
b. E2 V3 M3
c. E2 V2 M4
d. E2 V2 M3
143. Which of the following is quantitative
marker of hepatitis B virus replication?
a. HB e Ag
b. Hb s Ag
c. HBV DNA polymerase
d. Hb X Ag
144. Gene for HLA is located on?
a. 6p
b. 6q
c. 9p
d. 9q
145. Not a cause of papillary necrosis?
a. Obstructive uropathy
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Chronic alcoholism
146. Bird fancier’s lung is caused by?
a. Psittacosis
b. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
c. A.B.P.A
d. Mucoviscidosis

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