Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

I B PS PO-X I PRELI M S M T- 99
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-9): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.

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Millions of people in the United States are affected by eating disorders. More
than 90% of those afflicted are adolescents or young adult women. Although all
eating disorders share some common manifestations, anorexia nervosa, bulimia
nervosa, and binge eating each have distinctive symptoms and risks. People who
intentionally starve themselves (even while experiencing severe hunger pains)
suffer from anorexia nervosa. The disorder, which usually begins around the
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time of puberty, involves extreme weight loss to at least 15% below the individual’s
normal body weight. Many people with the disorder look emaciated but are
convinced they are overweight. In patients with anorexia nervosa, starvation can

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damage vital organs such as the heart and brain. To protect itself, the body shifts
into slow gear: Menstrual periods stop, blood pressure rates drop, and thyroid
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function slows. Excessive thirst and frequent urination may occur. Dehydration
contributes to constipation, and reduced body fat leads to lowered body temperature
and the inability to withstand cold. Mild anemia, swollen joints, reduced muscle
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mass, and light-headedness also commonly occur in anorexia nervosa. Anorexia

nervosa sufferers can exhibit sudden angry outbursts or become socially with-
drawn. One in ten cases of anorexia nervosa leads to death from starvation,
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cardiac arrest, other medical complications, or suicide. Clinical depression and
anxiety place many individuals with eating disorders at risk for suicidal behavior.
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People with bulimia nervosa consume large amounts of food and then rid their
bodies of the excess calories by vomiting, abusing laxatives or diuretics, taking
enemas, or exercising obsessively. Some use a combination of all these forms of
purging. Individuals with bulimia who use drugs to stimulate vomiting, bowel
movements, or urination may be in considerable danger, as this practice increases
the risk of heart failure. Dieting heavily between episodes of binging and purging
is common. Because many individuals with bulimia binge and purge in secret and
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maintain normal or above normal body weight, they can often successfully hide
their problem for years. But bulimia nervosa patients—even those of normal
weight— can severely damage their bodies by frequent binge eating and purging. In
rare instances, binge eating causes the stomach to rupture; purging may result
in heart failure due to loss of vital minerals such as potassium. Vomiting can
cause the esophagus to become inflamed and glands near the cheeks to become
swollen. As in anorexia nervosa, bulimia may lead to irregular menstrual periods.
Psycho- logical effects include compulsive stealing as well as possible indications
of obsessive-compulsive disorder, an illness characterized by repetitive thoughts
and behaviors. Obsessive-compulsive disorder can also accompany anorexia
nervosa. As with anorexia nervosa, bulimia typically begins during adolescence.
Eventually, half of those with anorexia nervosa will develop bulimia. The condition
occurs most often in women but is also found in men.
Binge-eating disorder is found in about 2% of the general population. As

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

many as one third of this group are men. It also affects older women, though with
less frequency. Recent research shows that binge-eating disorder occurs in about
30% of people participating in medically supervised weight-control programs. This
disorder differs from bulimia because its sufferers do not purge. Individuals with
binge-eating disorder feel that they lose control of themselves when eating. They
eat large quantities of food and do not stop until they are uncomfortably full. Most
sufferers are overweight or obese and have a history of weight fluctuations. As a
result, they are prone to the serious medical problems associated with obesity,
such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and diabetes. Obese individuals
also have a higher risk for gallbladder disease, heart disease, and some types of
cancer. Usually they have more difficulty losing weight and keeping it off than do

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people with other serious weight problems. Like anorexic and bulimic sufferers
who exhibit psychological problems, individuals with binge-eating disorder have
high rates of simultaneously occurring psychiatric illnesses, especially depression.
1. Fatalities occur in what percent of people with anorexia nervosa?
1) 2% 2) 10% 3) 15% 4) 30% 5) none
2.
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Which of the following consequences do all the eating disorders mentioned in the
passage have in common?
1) heart ailments 2) stomach rupture 3) swollen joints

3.
4) diabetes

E 5) none
According to the passage, people with binge- eating disorder are prone to all of
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the following except….
1) Loss of control. 2) Depression. 3) Low blood pressure.
4) High cholesterol. 5) none
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4. Which of the following is NOT a statement about people with eating disorders?
1) People with anorexia nervosa commonly have a blood-related deficiency.
2) People with anorexia nervosa perceive themselves as overweight.
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3) The female population is the primary group affected by eating disorders.
4) Fifty percent of people with bulimia have had anorexia nervosa.
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5) none
5. People who have an eating disorder but never- theless appear to be of normal
weight are most likely to have
1) obsessive-compulsive disorder. 2) bulimia nervosa.
3) binge-eating disorder. 4) anorexia nervosa. 5) none
6. Glandular functions of eating-disorder patients slow down as a result of
1) lowering body temperatures.
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2) excessive thirst and urination.
3) protective measures taken by the body.
4) the loss of essential minerals. 5) none
7. The inability to eliminate body waste is related to
1) dehydration. 2) an inflamed esophagus.
3) the abuse of laxatives. 4) weight-control programs. 5) none
8. According to the passage, which of the following is true of bulimia patients?
1) They may demonstrate unpredictable social behavior.
2) They often engage in compulsive exercise.
3) They are less susceptible to dehydration than other anorexia patients.
4) They frequently experience stomach ruptures. 5) None
9. Which of the following represent up to two- thirds of the binge-eating disorder
population?
1) older males 2) older females 3) younger males
4) younger females 5) none
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

Directions (10-11): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence.
10. COLUMN I
A. The Austrians let themselves be tricked
B. As she was crossing the anteroom she saw through the
C. There was a loud bang as the front door 

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COLUMN II
D. slammed with Cynthia’s violent departure.
E. at the crossing of the Vienna bridge
F. window a carriage with lanterns, standing at the entrance.
1) C-D & B-F 2) A-D ONLY 3) C-F,B-E & A-D 4) A-D & B-E 5) None of these
11. COLUMN I
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A. He pushed the hat back on his head and
B. He pushed his chair away from the table and
C. She wrapped her hand around the doorknob and
COLUMN II

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D. crossed to the family room doorway.
E. gazed up at her with troubled eyes.
d
F. turned it from steel into a rag and pushed the door open.
1) A-E & C-F 2) C-E ONLY 3) A-D, B-E & C-F
4) A-F,B-D & C-E 5) None of these
Directions (12-15): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
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(1), (2), (3) and (4) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there is
any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
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12. (1) Madan hesitated in accepting the post as he / (2) did not thought that the
salary / (3) was enough for a man / (4) with a family of eight. / (5) No error
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13. (1) My teacher used to check that we were / (2) on the right track and if any
mistake occurred, / (3) he would help us to analyze / (4) and resolve the issues.
/ (5) No error
14. (1) He always said success was something to be celebrated, / (2) but he also
believed that failure is something /(3) that you must concentrate all / (4) your
energies on resolving. / (5) No error
15. (1) The centre accepted the report of a judicial commission / (2) that indicated
former chief minister / (3) and six of his ministerial colleagues against corruption,
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/ (4) favouritism, nepotism and administrative impropriety. / (5) No error
Directions (16-18): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold.
If two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
16. When he pulled (A), he returned (B) a chair from the wall nearer her and tugging
(C) one cloth in water, dipped (D) her arm away from her.
1) DABC 2) ACBD 3) BADC 4) ACDB 5) BACD
17. Frederick found cottage (A) clothing for his guests and in turn, they each
bedchamber (B) to the one retired (C) of the suitable (D) to wash and change.
1) DABC 2) BCAD 3) ACBD 4) ABDC 5) DCBA
18. Bethlen accepted the title but resumed (A) to be crowned, and war was refused
(B), till the defeat (C) of the Czechs at the battle of the White Hill gave (D) a new
turn to affairs.
1) BACD 2) BADC 3) DABC 4) ACBD 5) BCAD

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

Directions (19-20): In the following questions, a word is given along with its
usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the
given word is contextually and grammatically correct.
19. Recite
I. My father can still recite the poems he learned off by heart at school.
II. He was a man of few words except when he mounted the stage to recite his
poetry.
III.At an early age he developed a remarkable memory and could recite long
passages from the scriptures by heart.
1) only I 2) only II 3) I & II 4) I & III 5) I, II & III
20. Shriek

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I. The vehicles pulled over when they heard the shriek of the police siren.
II. The monkeys in the tropical forest shriek noisily when they are approached by
humans.
III.It does not shriek our political leaders to berate one another for failure in the
field of economy.
1) only I
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2) only II 3) I & III 4) I & II 5) I, II & III
Directions (21-23): The sentence has two blanks which indicate something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully.
21.

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There is ______________international appeal for ending the bloodshed, but the
junta seems ____________ .
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1) growing, unperturbed 2) amplifying, tranquil
3) augmenting, collected 4) enlarging, placid 5) germinating, composed
22. The violence and the __________ crisis seem to have triggered a stronger
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____________ from several capitals, including New Delhi.

1) lengthened, antiphon 2) protracted, counter
3) lengthy, rejoinder 4) tedious, riposte 5) prolonged ,response
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23. Reframing of the global __________ in terms of sustainable development for countries
with per capita ____________ below the global average, in line with the Paris
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Agreement.
1) distress, radiation 2) trouble, shedding
3) involve, utterance 4) concern, emissions 5) interest, venting
Directions (24-25): In each question, there is a statement followed by three
starters which are denoted by (A), (B) and (C). Each starter is a group of first few
words of the sentence which on proper completion, is supposed to convey the
same meaning of the original statement. Find out which one or more starters can
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form grammatically correct sentence(s) to convey the same meaning of the original
statement.
24. Centre has been pressurised by the educationists to revisit NEP. NEP deals with
the education.
A. Educationists have pressurised………
B. NEP which deals with……….
C. Revisiting NEP……………
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A, B 5) None
25. Telangana government has made Fasttag mandatory from March 1. The step has
been taken to provide a hassle free, citizen centric and secure way to make
payment of tolls.
A. Fasttag has been made…….
B. To provide a hassle free…….
C. Mandatory from March 1………
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) B,C 5) A, B

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

Directions (26-30): In the following question, a set of six sequences is given.

Which when properly sequenced, from a coherent paragraph. Arrange the
sentences in the numbering order (such as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6) which is equal to
alphabetical order (such as A, B, C, D, E and F) and answer the questions that
follow.
A. The entire focus of the world and the media was rightly on West Bengal.
B. TheBharatiya Janata Party (BJP) was trounced in West Bengal, Tamil Nadu,
and Kerala but it registered wins in Assam and Puducherry.
C. Enforcing its own ‘Hindutva’ ideology which is antithetical to the oceanic all-
embracing core Hindu philosophy, pursuing a brand of jingoistic narrow nationalism
that considered anyone who disagreed as anti-national, exhibiting utter disregard
for academic and press freedoms and a contempt for science while wallowing in

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the glories of our past accomplishments in mythology,
D. It increased its seat tally in West Bengal but seen in the blazing light of Ms.
Banerjee’s crushing victory, any claim by the BJP to accomplishments are invisible
and immaterial.
E. diminishing the autonomy of institutions and investigating agencies and using
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them to intimidate critics and political opponents, and resorting to crude moral
policing that coerced people to adhere to its ideology are the factors that led to
the gross vulgarisation and degradation of the polity and society which was also
scarred by violence and vigilante justice.

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F. Many feared that a win for the BJP here would have emboldened the party
leadership to pursue more vigorously its bulldozing methods of majoritarian politics,
d
which was becoming increasingly divisive along ideological and communal lines.
26. Which of the following sentence follows sentence C after rearrangement?
1) B 2) F 3) D 4) A 5) E
27. Which is correct position of sentence F in the final arrangement?
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1) 1st 2) 4th 3) 2nd 4) 5th 5) 6th

28. Which of the following will be 2nd sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) D 4) F 5) B
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29. Which is the correct position of sentence A in the final arrangement?
1) 1st 2) 4th 3) 3rd 4) 5th 5) 6th
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30. Which of the following will be 5th sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) D 3) E 4) C 5) B
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (31-35): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The table given below shows the total number of books in 5 languages sold by a
retailer in 2018 and the table given below shows Percentage increase in sale of
each type of books in 2019 as compared to last year.
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The total number of books in 5 languages Percentage increase in sale of
sold by a retailer in 2018= 9000 each type of books in 2019 as
Science, compared to last year
English,
18%
24%
English 10
Telugu 15
Maths, Hindi 5
20%
Telugu, Maths 20
22% Science 45
Hindi,
16%
31. What is the total number of Telugu books sold by the retailer in 2019?
1) 1980 2) 2277 3) 2377 4) 177 5) 1777
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

32. Total number of Telugu books sold by the retailer in 2019 is how much percent
less than total number of English books sold by the retailer in 2019?
1 2 1 1 2
1) 3 2) 4 3) 4 4) 5 5) 5
3 3 6 3 3
33. What is the difference between number of English books and number of Science
books sold by the retailer in 2019?
1) 27 2) 37 3) 29 4) 26 5) 36
34. What is the average number of each type (language) of books sold by the retailer
in 2019? ( approximately )
1) 2314 2) 2415 3) 2135 4) 2515 5) 2155
35. What is the ratio of number of English books sold in 2018 to number of mathematics

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books sold in 2019?
1) 1:2 2) 1:3 3) 3:1 4) 1:1 5) 2:1
Directions (36-40): The table given below shows the number of various toys in
four different shops in a city.
Total number of toys = animal toys + vehicle toys + Other
Shops Ani mal toys Vehicle toys other
ha A 295 1125 3105

B 180 820 2200

C 210 1240 2150

E D 175 925 1900

d
36. Find ratio of number of animal toys and vehicle toys together in shop A to the
number of Vehicle toys in shop C?
1) 71 : 61 2) 62 :71 3) 71 : 62 4) 28 : 71 5) 71 : 28
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37. Total number of toys in shop B is what percent more or less than total number of
toys in shop C?
1 1 1 2 1
1) 12 % 2) 11 % 3) 15 % 4) 16 % 5) 17 %
2 9 2 3 2
C
38. Ratio of Educational toys, Dolls and Construction toys in shop A and C is 6 : 5 : 4
and 20 : 15 : 8 respectively. Find difference between total number of Educational
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toys and total number of Vehicle toys in these two shops (Other toys in these two
shops consists of Educational toys, Dolls and Construction toys only) ?
1) 108 2) 115 3) 123 4) 136 5)143
39. Total number of animal toys in Shop C and D together is what percent of total toys
in these two shops?
5 1 1 2 1
1) 5 % 2) 5 % 3) 5 % 4) 6 % 5) %
6 6 2 3 2
C
40. What is the average of total number of toys in all shops? ( round figure )
1) 3581 2) 3571 3)3681 4)3671 5) 3471
Directions (41-45): Below problem contains a question and two statements giving
certain data. You have to select the correct answer from (1) to (5) depending on
the sufficiency of the data given in the statements to answer the question. Mark
your answer.
41. What is the area of the Circle?
I:  Perimeter of the circle is 44 cms.
II: Diameter of the circle is 28 cms
1) If statement (I) alone is sufficient.
2) If statement (II) alone is sufficient.
3) If both (I) and (II) together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.
4) Either of the statements (I) or (II) is sufficient.
5) If statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient.
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

42. What is the rate of interest?

I: Simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.12500 in two years is less than
Simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.15000 for the same period by Rs.500 
II: Simple interest accrued in 10 years is equal to the principal.
1) If statement (I) alone is sufficient.
2) If statement (II) alone is sufficient.
3) If both (I) and (II) together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.
4) Either of the statements (I) or (II) is sufficient.
5) If statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient.
43. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns?

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I: Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 5
II: Number of trees in each column is an even number
1) If statement (I) alone is sufficient.
2) If statement (II) alone is sufficient.
3) If both (I) and (II) together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.
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4) Either of the statements (I) or (II) is sufficient.
5) If statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient.
44. Who is the tallest among the three people?

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I:  The average height of three persons is 165 cms.
II: The shortest person is 155 cms
d
1) If statement (I) alone is sufficient. 2) If statement (II) alone is sufficient.
3) If both (I) and (II) together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.
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4) Either of the statements (I) or (II) is sufficient.

5) If statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient.
45. a, b, c are integers and  a/(b-c) = 3. What is the value of (b-c)/b?
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I: a/b = 3/7.
II: a and b have no common factor greater than 1.
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1) If statement (I) alone is sufficient.

2) If statement (II) alone is sufficient.
3) If both (I) and (II) together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.
4) Either of the statements (I) or (II) is sufficient.
5) If statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient.
46. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 76 years. The product of their ages
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is 1248. Find the present age of father?
1) 34 2) 42 3) 44 4) 52 5) 24
47. Ashok spends 30% of his monthly income on house rent, 40% of his monthly
income on buying food and groceries, 10% of his monthly income on medicines
and the remaining amount of Rs.6250 he saves. What is Ashok’s monthly income?
1) 21250 2) 32500 3) 25000 4) 30000 5) 31250
48. A train crosses 600 m long platform in 60 seconds and train crosses a pole in 40
seconds then in how much time will it cross 60% of the length of the platform?
1) 64sec 2) 52sec 3) 48sec 4) 35sec 5) 72sec
49. The sum of the radius and height of a cylinder is 12 m. The total surface area of
the cylinder is 528 m2. What is the volume of the cylinder? (In m3)
1) 770 2) 880 3) 680 4) 760 5) 540
50. Wheat worth Rs.64 per kg and Rs. 65 per kg are mixed with third variety in ratio
1 : 1 : 3. If the mixture is worth Rs. 69 per kg find the price of third variety per kg?
1) 72 2) 68 3) 69 4) 70 5) 71
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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

Directions (51-55): What approximate value will come in place of question mark?
(You are not expected to calculate exact value)
51. ? + 27.65 = (375.39 + 72.01) ÷ 49.78 + (18.78 × 2.75)
1) 1225 2) 1444 3) 1681 4) 961 5) 2025

4
?
52. 24.98 x +6.02 x 8.9 = 64
624.8
1) 27 2) 8 3) 64 4) 16 5) 4
4.78
53. ? +135.8 = 7.67 of 319.89

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1) 4356 2) 4752 3) 4976 4) 5832 5) 3244
54. 40.08% of 49.89% of 60.09% of 1198.82 = ?+53
1) 25 2) 19 3) 36 4) 31 5) 52
55. 4.05 x 5.16 + 12.08 + 7.09 x 3.89 = ?
1) 75 2) 78 3) 80 4) 51 5) 60
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Direction (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
The given data is regarding the clerk and officer in three different BANKS
ABC, XYZ and PQR.
ABC:

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Number of clerk employees is twice the number of clerk employees in XYZ. Number
d
of officer employees is 400 less than total number of employees (Clerk + officer) in
PQR.
XYZ:
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Number of officer employees is 280 and respective ratio between number of clerk
and officer 5:7
PQR:
Number of clerk employees is equal to the total number of employees in XYZ.
C
Number of officer employees is 25% less than number of clerk in the same company.
56. Total number of clerk in XYZ and PQR?
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1) 680 2) 720 3) 460 4) 820 5) 660

57. Total number of clerk in PQR what percent is more than total number of officer in
that Bank?
1) 33.33 2) 30 3) 66.66 4) 75 5)45
58. If 30% of Clerk employees in the Bank XYZ are females and 40% of officers
employees in PQR are males, then what is the total number of male Clerk
employees in XYZ and female Officer Employees in PQR?
1) 425 2) 210 3) 356 4) 344 5) 315
C
59. Total number of clerks in XYZ and PQR together is __________ times of the total
number of officers in PQR and ABC?
1) 0.26 2) 1.25 3) 1.8 4) 1.25 5) 0.85
60. Find the total number of employees in ABC (Both clerk + officer together)?
1) 840 2) 620 3) 720 4) 820 5) 560
Direction (61-65): In the following question two equations are given. You have to
solve these equations and determine relation between those two equations.
61. I: (x – 5)(x – 6) = 0 II: y2 - 15y + 56=0
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x = y (or) No relation
62. I: 21x2 + 43x + 20=0 II: 7y2 + 19y + 10=0
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x = y (or) No relation
63. I: x3 = 6859 II: (y – 19)2 = 0
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x = y (or) No relation

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

64. I: 35x2 + 48 = 82x II: 28y2 + 24= 53y

1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x = y (or) No relation
65. I: 15x2 + 8 = 22x II: 20y2 + 21= 43y
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x  y 5) x = y (or) No relation
REASONING
Direction: (66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven persons are living on different floors of seven storey building. Ground
floor is numbered as 1 and top floor is numbered as 7. Also, they belong to different

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cities. There are four floors in between P and R, who is from Hyderabad. S lives
on an odd numbered floor just above V, who doesn’t live on 2nd floor. The one who
belongs to Bangalore lives just above Q. One who is from Chennai lives on an odd
numbered floor. P does not live on ground floor. Q does not belong to Delhi. One
who is from Delhi lives on an odd numbered floor just above the one who is from
Kolkata. P is not from Kolkata and Mumbai. T lives one of the floors above U. Not
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more than one floor in between the one who belongs to Bangalore and the one
who belongs to Delhi. The one who belongs to Pune lives on an even numbered
floor above S. P does not belong to Bangalore.
66. Who amongst the following belongs to Pune?

3) S

E
1) Who lives immediate below T
4) Who lives immediate above R
2) Q
5) U
d
67. How many persons live in between T and Q?
1) Zero 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
68. R lives in which of the following floor?
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1) 3rd 2) 7th 3) 2nd 4) 1st 5) 4th

69. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
1) V lives on 6th floor. 2) S lives immediate above U.
3) U belongs to Kolkata. 4) Q belongs to Mumbai. 5) All are true.
C
70. Who amongst the following person lives on 3rd floor?
1) R 2) The one who lives immediate below S
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3) Who belongs to Bangalore 4) Who is immediately above P 5) V

Direction : (71-75) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven people bought seven different things consecutively one after the other
on the same day. No person other than the given people bought a thing.Only two
people bought different things in between Raghu and Uma. More than three persons
bought before Uma. Rani bought before Bhavani but not immediately.Bhagi bought
on one of the occasions before Raghu. Only three people bought between Yash
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and the person who bought immediately after Rani. Raju bought a thing one of
the occasions after Bhagi but before Bhavani. More than one person bought
between Bhavani and Raju.
71. As per the arrangement, as many people bought before Raghu is same as bought
after?
1) Raju 2) Rani 3) Uma 4) Bhavani 5) Yash
72. Who amongst the following bought first?
1) Yash 2) Bhagi 3) Raghu 4) Raju 5) Uma
73. How many persons bought in between Rani and Bhavani?
1) Two 2) One 3) Three 4) Four 5) No one
74. Four of the following are alike with respect to the arrangement, which one of the
following is different?
1) Yash, Bhagi 2) Yash, Raghu 3) Raghu, Raju
4) Rani, Raju 5) Bhavani, Bhagi
75. Who amongst the following immediately after Rani?
1) Uma 2) Bhavani 3) Rani 4) Raghu 5) Bhagi

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

Direction: (76-77) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
In a certain code language -
‘min nih bin gin’ means ‘buses are always late’.
‘gin nid cin nih’ means ‘drivers are always punished’.
76. What is the code for ‘always’?
1) bin 2) cin 3) gin 4) nih 5) Either 3 or 4
77. If ‘bin cin niv nir’ means ‘drivers stopped all buses’. Then ‘ bin cin’ could be written
as?
1) stopped buses 2) Stopped all 3) all buses
4) drivers buses 5) drivers all
78. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ASSISTANT’, each of

r’s
which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them
in the English Alphabetical series? (both forward and backward direction)
1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Two 5) None
79. Five persons A, B, C, D and E got five different ranks 1 to 5. Only two persons got
better rank than D. A got higher rank than E but lower rank than C, who doesn’t
get first rank. Who got least rank?
1) A 2) C
ha 3) E 4) D 5) B
Direction: (80-82) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
There are eight members in a family – P, Q, R, S, E, F, G and H. P is

E
Grandmother of G who is the cousin of H. P is married to Q. Q has one son and
one daughter. R who is the son of P is married to E. F is the wife of S. H is the son
d
of S and nephew of R. E has one son.
80. How is P related to H?
1) Grandfather 2) Mother 3) Father 4) Aunt 5) Grandmother
81. How G is related to S?
ee

1) Niece 2) Nephew 3) Aunt 4) Uncle 5) Son

82. Who is son-in-law for Q?
1) H 2) R 3) E 4) S 5) F
Direction :(83-87)Study the following information carefully and answer the
C
questions given below.
There are eight boxes contain different shampoo viz, Pantene, Kesh Kanti,
Sr

Himalaya, Sunsilk, TRESemme, Vatika, Dove and L’Oreal are placed from top to
bottom but not necessarily in the same order. The boxes are in different colours
viz, Red, Black, Yellow, Orange, White, Blue, Pink and Green, but not necessarily
in the same order. Boxes are made up of different materials among Steel, Plastic,
Wood and Silver. Exactly two boxes are made of same material. Consider the
position of box kept at top as 1st and bottom as 8th position.
The box which contains L’Oreal shampoo is kept immediately below the box
which is in Orange colour. Yellow coloured box is exactly placed between the box
C
which contains Vatika shampoo and Blue coloured box. The box which contains
TRESemme is made up of Plastic, which is kept one place above Pantene and both
are in the top 4 positions when boxes are arranged from top to bottom. The Steel
box kept at the top and its colour is either Red or Pink. The Orange coloured Box
is kept immediately below the Wooden box. The Orange color box is made up of
Plastic. The box which contains Sunsilk does not made up of Silver. The box which
contains Kesh Kanti is kept somewhere between the boxes which are contain
L’Oreal and Dove. The box which contains Dove is placed below Kesh Kanti. The
two Silver boxes are kept one above another. The box which contains Dove is not
in Red colour. The box which contains Sunsilk is kept one place below the box
which contains L’Oreal. The box which contains Vatika is in White colour and
made up of wood. The Black coloured box is made up of Wood. The box which
contains Kesh Kanti is neither in Red nor in Green colour. The Green coloured
box placed at even numbered place but is not at the bottom.
83. Which of the following shampoo is in the Black coloured box?
1) Dove 2) Kesh Kanti 3) Himalaya 4) Sunsilk 5) Vatika

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

84. Which of the following statement is correct?

1) Kesh Kanti is at 5th position and is the Black colour.
2) Dove is at 8th position and is made up of Steel.
3) L’Oreal is at 6th Position. 4) Dove is in Black coloured Box. 5) None
85. How many boxes are kept between the one which is in Orange colour and the one
which is at 7th position?
1) Three 2) One 3) Two 4) More than three 5) One
86. Which of the following combinations is correct?
1) Sunsilk – Wood- 7th position 2) Kesh Kanti – Pink – Silver
3) Dove – Blue – 8th
4) Sunsilk – Steel – Yellow 5) None is correct
87. The steel boxes are contained which of the following pairs of shampoos?

r’s
1) Himalaya – Sunsilk 2) Dove – Himalaya
3) L’Oreal – Sunsilk 4) Himalaya – L’Oreal 5) Vatika – L’Oreal
Direction: (88-89) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
One person walks from A distance of 24 km towards East to reach B and
turns to right side and walks of another 10 km towards C. He then turns to his
ha
right another 10 km towards D. He then turns to his left and walks another 8 km
towards E. After that, he turns to his right and walks 14 km and stops at F.
88. How far is he from his initial point and in which direction?
1) 18km North 2) 18km West 3) 18km East

89.
4) 18km South

E 5) 18km North-West
What is the distance between D and A?
d
1) 4 74 km 2) 2 47 km 3) 2 74 km 4) 294 km 5) 24km
Directions: (90-94) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
For the 12th standard students, the exam paper was distributed in six days
ee

of a week. The week started from Sunday to Saturday. One of the days in the
week was Holiday. The pass percentage of the class in each subject was different
from each other. The names of the subject are Geography, Civics, Biology, Sanskrit,
English and Chemistry.
C
Only three days are between the distributions of Sanskrit paper Chemistry
paper. Half of the persons where failed in Sanskrit while comparing to Civics. The
Sr

pass percentage in Geography was less than Civics, but greater than Chemistry.
English’s pass percentage was Twenty-one percentage less than Civics percentage.
Geography paper was distributed one of the days after Chemistry paper. All the
students in the class were passed in Civics. Only three papers where distributed
before the Subject which pass percentage has one more than English percentage.
Only two papers where distributed between Biology and Civics. Civics paper was
neither distribution on Friday nor on Tuesday. Tuesday was not a holiday. One
day gap between the distribution of Sanskrit and the subject which has pass
C
percentage of seventy nine. Biology pass percentage was fifteen more than
Sanskrit’s pass percentage. The paper with less pass percentage than Geography
was not distributed after Geography paper. Chemistry paper was not distributed
before Sanskrit paper. Civics paper will not be distributed after Holiday.
90. On which day does the paper of least pass percentage was distributed?
1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Tuesday 4) Sunday 5) Monday
91. What is the difference between Geography and Chemistry percentage?
1) 10 2) 20 3) 15 4) 11 5) Cannot be determined
92. Which day does Civics paper was distributed?
1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Tuesday 4) Monday 5) Sunday
93. which among the following subject has least pass percentage?
1) Civics 2) Sanskrit 3) Geography
4) Biology 5) Cannot be determined
94. What is the difference between number of students passed between Sanskrit and
Geography, if the total number of students where 100?
1) 20 2) 15 3) 10 4) 25 5) Cannot be determined

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO -X I PRELI MS MT -99

Direction (95-97): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
below questions.
Each step is resultant of a previous step.

r’s
95. What is the product of 3rd step digits?
1) 0 2) 60
ha 3) 42 4) 13 5) 48
96. If all digits of first step is doubled then what is the resultant?
1) 37 2) 74 3) 36 4) 72 5) 76
97. Find the output of this illustration?
1) 2 2) 3

E 3) 4 4) 5 5) 6
Direction: (98-100) In each of the questions below are given three statements
d
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
ee

the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

98. Statements: A few Bangles are Chains Only a few Rings are Chains
No Ring is Band
Conclusions: I. All Bands being Chains is a possibility.
II. No Bangle is Ring.
C
1) Only conclusion II follows 2) Only conclusion I follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Both conclusions I and II follow
Sr

5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

99. Statements: No Grape is Apple Only a few Apples are Sapotas
All Sapotas are Papayas
Conclusions: I. All Grapes are Sapotas.
II. All Grapes being Papayas is a possibility.
1) Either conclusion I or II follows 2) Both conclusions I and II follow
3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 4) Only conclusion II follows
5) Only conclusion I follows
C
100. Statements: Each Jar is Mug All Mugs are Glasses
Only a few Glasses are Tubs
Conclusions: I. All Jars are Glasses. II. Some Tubs are Mugs.
1) Only conclusion II follows 2) Only conclusion I follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Both conclusions I and II follow
5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

KEY
1.2 2.1 3.3 4.4 5.2 6.3 7.1 8.4 9.4 10.1 11.3 12.2 13.3
14.2 15.3 16.3 17.5 18.1 19.5 20.4 21.1 22.5 23.4 24.1 25.5 26.5
27.2 28.3 29.3 30.4 31.2 32.3 33.1 34.3 35.4 36.3 37.2 38.3 39.1
40.1 41.4 42.4 43.5 44.5 45.1 46.4 47.5 48.2 49.1 50.1 51.2 52.4
53.1 54.2 55.5 56.1 57.1 58.3 59.5 60.1 61.1 62.5 63.5 64.4 65.5
66.1 67.5 68.4 69.4 70.3 71.2 72.2 73.2 74.5 75.1 76.5 77.4 78.4
79.3 80.5 81.2 82.4 83.1 84.4 85.3 86.2 87.1 88.4 89.3 90.4 91.5
92.4 93.2 94.5 95.3 96.2 97.1 98.2 99.4 100.2

12