ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF

Full Length Test (FLT)–6

GS Paper-I: (TS21E1046)

1. Answer: (b) charges on transactions done through

Explanation: RuPay and BHIM-UPI payments to push
The IBC Code was introduced to digital payments.
consolidate all the existing laws related to
Insolvency and Bankruptcy in India and to 3. Answer: (b)
simplify the process of insolvency Explanation:
resolution. Deals with all aspects of Envisages universal access to banking
insolvency and bankruptcy of all kinds of facilities with at least one basic banking
companies, Limited Liability Partnership account for every household (not
(LLP), Partnerships, and Individuals; individuals), financial literacy, access to
however, it does not deal with insolvency of credit, insurance and pension.
banks.
It comes under the Department of Financial
Adjudicating Authorities: National Services, Ministry of Finance. Benefits
Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT) for under PMJDY: Basic Savings bank Account
companies; and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (BSBA) without any minimum balance
(DRT) for individuals. requirement + RuPay Card+ Accident
Committee of Creditors (CoC) may either Insurance Cover of Rs 1 Lakh + Life
decide to restructure the debtor‘s debt by Insurance Cover of Rs 30,000 (applicable to
preparing a resolution plan or liquidate the only those who opened accounts between
debtor‘s assets. However, such a decision 15th Aug 2014 and 31st Jan 2015) +
must be approved by at least 66% of the Overdraft Facility.
votes. The Government has decided to extend
(Earlier Threshold- 75%). Insolvency and PMJDY program from ―every household‖ to
Bankruptcy Board to regulate insolvency ―every adult‖, with following modification:
professionals, insolvency professional • Existing Overdraft (OD) limit of Rs.
agencies and information utilities set up 5,000 revised to Rs. 10,000.
under the Code.
• Age limit for availing OD facility revised
from 18-60 years to 18-65 years.
2. Answer: (a) • The accidental insurance cover raised
Explanation: from existing Rs.1 lakh to Rs. 2 lakhs to
MDR is a fee charged paid by the new PMJDY accounts opened after
merchants to the bank for accepting 2018.
payments from customers through
credit/debit cards/QR Code in their 4. Answer: (d)
establishments.
Explanation:
Expressed in percentage of transaction
The headline inflation simply refers to the
value. This charge is in turn distributed
inflation in the CPI (or WPI) covering all the
among three stakeholders – customer's
categories of goods and services.
bank, merchant's bank, and payment
On the other hand, the core inflation
system operator (Visa, Mastercard, NPCI -
excludes the volatile categories such as
RuPay or BharatQR). Government's
food and fuel in order to measure the
Initiative: In December 2019, the
Government decided to waive off MDR increase in the prices of goods and services.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 1
 Hence, a drastic fall in the food and fuel
prices can bring down the headline
inflation by a large extent. However, the
core inflation may remain unaffected.
Presently, the RBI is targeting the CPI
headline rate of inflation (and not Core
Inflation)
5. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Cobweb phenomenon is related to the
future course of action based on past
events. Explains large scale fluctuations in
the prices of Pulses in Indian Market. If
prices were higher in the previous year,
more number of farmers would sow pulses
in the current year leading to its over-
production and subsequent decline in the
prices. The lower prices in the
Current year disincentivise the farmers
from growing crop in the next cropping
season leading to underproduction and
subsequent increase in the prices.
6. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Unlike the Supreme Court, there is no
minimum number of judges for the High
Court. The President, from time to time will
fix the number of judges in each High
Court.
A judge of a High Court normally holds
office until he attains the age of 62 years.
He can vacate the seat by resigning, by
being appointed a judge of the Supreme
Court or by being transferred to any other
High Court by the President. A judge can
be removed by the President on grounds of
misbehaviour or incapacity in the same
manner in which a judge of the Supreme
Court is removed.
The original jurisdiction of a High Court
includes enforcement of Fundamental
Rights, settlement of disputes relating to
the election to Union and State legislatures
and jurisdiction over revenue matters. Its
appellant jurisdiction extends to both civil
and criminal matters.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
7. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Constitution has not explicitly
defined or described Governor‟s
discretionary powers and provides no
guidelines for deciding as to which
matters may fall under this category
and in effect the final judge of the
matter is the Governor himself under
Article 163(2).
 However, going by the various
provisions of the Constitution, one can
decipher several categories of actions
which the Governor ―may‖ take in his
discretion:
o Under Article 200, Governor can
reserve any Bill for the
consideration of the President
which in the opinion of Governor
derogates from the powers of High
Court as to endanger the position
which that Court is by this
Constitution designed to fill.
o To reserve any other Bill as he
deems fit.
o To appoint the Chief Minister of
State under Article 164(1).
o To dismiss the ministry as the Chief
Minister and other Ministers shall
hold office during the pleasure of the
Governor under Article 164(1).
o Governor‘s report under Article356
in case of failure of Constitutional
machinery in States.
o Governor‘s responsibility for certain
regions such as the Tribal Areas in
Assam and responsibilities placed
on the Governor under Article 371A
(Nagaland), 371C (Manipur), 371H
(Arunachal Pradesh).
8. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 There are certain other rights contained
in other parts of the Constitution.
These rights are known as
constitutional rights or legal rights or
nonfundamental rights. They are:
2
 o No tax shall be levied or collected
except by authority of law (Article
265).
o No person shall be deprived of his
property save by authority of law
(Article 300-A).
o Trade, commerce and intercourse
throughout the territory of India
shall be free (Article 301).
o The elections to the Lok Sabha
and the State Legislative
Assembly shall be on the basis of
adult suffrage (Article 326)
 Even though the above rights are also
equally justiciable, they are different
from the Fundamental Rights. In case of
violation of a Fundamental Right, the
aggrieved person can directly move the
Supreme Court for its enforcement
under Article 32, which is in itself a
fundamental right. But, in case of
violation of the above rights, the
aggrieved person cannot avail this
constitutional remedy. He can move the
10. Answer: (a)
High Court by an ordinary suit or under
Article 226 (writ jurisdiction of high
court).
9. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Article 74 and Article 75 of the Indian
Constitution deal with the Council of
Ministers. Where article 74 mentions
that the council will be headed by the
Prime Minister of India and will aid and
advise the President, article 75
mentions the following things:
o They are appointed by the President
on the advice of Prime Minister.
o They along with the Prime
Minister of India form 15% of the
total strength of the lower house
i.e. Lok Sabha. (The number
cannot exceed 15%).
o 91st Amendment Act provided for
the disqualification of the minister
when he stands disqualified as a
Member of Parliament.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
o A Minister ceased to exist as one if
he is not a member of either house
of Parliament for six consecutive
months.
o Parliament decides the salary and
allowances of the council of
ministers.
 The principle of collective responsibility
finds a place in Art. 75(3) where it is
stated that the Council of Ministers
(CoM) shall be collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha.
 In other words, this provision means
that a Ministry which loses confidence
in the Lok Sabha is obliged to resign.
 The advice given by CoM is binding
on the President and this provision
was introduced by the 42nd
Amendment Act 1976.
 The acts also mentioned that the advice
given by the council cannot be inquired
into by any court.
Explanation:
The Vice President of India, officially the
Vice President of the Republic of India, is
the second-highest constitutional office in
India after the President. Article 63 of
Indian Constitution states that "There shall
be a Vice President of India." The Vice
President acts as President in the absence
of the president due to death, resignation,
impeachment, or other situations.
The Vice President of India is also ex officio
Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. When a
bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha, the vice
president decides whether it is a financial
bill or not. If he is of the opinion, a bill
introduced in the Rajya Sabha is a money
bill, he would refer the case to the Speaker
of the Lok Sabha for deciding it.
The Vice President holds office for five
years. The Vice President can be re-elected
any number of times. However, the office
may be terminated earlier by death,
resignation or removal. The Constitution
does not provide a mechanism of
succession to the office of Vice President in
3
 the event of an extraordinary vacancy,
apart from a re-election. However, the
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can
perform the Vice President's duties as the
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in such an
event.
However, when the President dies in office
and Vice President takes over as President,
he can continue serving as the President
for a maximum of 6 months within which a
new President shall be elected.
11. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Fundamental Duties of citizens
were added to the Constitution by
the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon
the recommendations of the Swaran
Singh Committee. They are mentioned
in the Article 51A, Part IVA of the
Indian Constitution.
 It was on the Soviet model that
fundamental duties were added. They
non-justiciable in nature.
 They were originally ten in number; the
Fundamental Duties were increased to
eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002.
 Fundamental Duties are categorized
into two – Moral Duty & Civic Duty.
o Moral Duty: cherishing noble ideals
of freedom struggle
o Civic Duty: respecting the
Constitution, National Flag and
National Anthem.
 They essentially contain just a
codification of tasks integral to the
Indian way of life.
 The Fundamental Duties are confined
to Indian citizens only and do not
extend to foreigners unlike a few
Fundamental Rights.
Text of Article 51-A
PART IVA-FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
51A. Fundamental duties
It shall be the duty of every citizen of
India –
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
 to abide by the Constitution and respect
its ideals and institutions, the National
Flag and the National Anthem;
 to cherish and follow the noble ideals
which inspired our national struggle for
freedom;
 to uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India;
 to defend the country and render
national service when called upon to do
so;
 to promote harmony and the spirit of
common brotherhood amongst all the
people of India transcending religious,
linguistic and regional or sectional
diversities; to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of women;
 to value and preserve the rich
heritage of our composite culture;
 to protect and improve the natural
environment including forests, lakes,
rivers and wild life, and to have
compassion for living creatures;
 to develop the scientific temper,
humanism and the spirit of inquiry and
reform;
 to safeguard public property and to
abjure violence;
 to strive towards excellence in all
spheres of individual and collective
activity so that the nation constantly
rises to higher levels of endeavor and
achievement;
 who is a parent or guardian to provide
opportunities for education to his child
or, as the case may be, ward between
the age of six and fourteen years.
12. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
(APEC) is a regional economic forum
established in 1989 to leverage the growing
interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.
APEC's 21 members aim to create greater
prosperity for the people of the region by
promoting balanced, inclusive, sustainable,
4
 innovative and secure growth and by
accelerating regional economic integration.
APEC's 21 member economies are
Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada;
Chile; People's Republic of China; Hong
Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic of
Korea; Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand;
Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines;
The Russian Federation; Singapore;
Chinese Taipei; Thailand; United States of
America; Viet Nam.
Note: APEC Science Prize for Innovation,
Research and Education (or known as
ASPIRE) – The prize features influential
work by young scientists from among the
21 APEC member economies.
13. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
National Critical Information Infrastructure
Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is an
organisation of the Government of India
created under the Information Technology
Act, 2000 (amended 2008), based in New
Delhi. It is designated as the National
Nodal Agency in respect of Critical
Information Infrastructure Protection.
It is a unit of National Technical Research
Organisation (NTRO).
Note: NTRO is the technical intelligence
wing of government and reports to the
Prime Minister‘s Office (PMO) and the
National Security Advisor (NSA). It is listed
under the Intelligence Organisations
(Restriction of Rights) Act, 1985.
14. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The initiative ―Faith for Rights (F4R)‖ was
launched by the United Nations High
Commissioner for Human Rights (UN
OHCHR) in 2017 with an expert workshop
in Beirut and addresses stakeholders in the
field of religion or belief. Faith for Rights, a
UN-led movement which campaigns against
incitement to national, racial or religious
hatred, and exposes legislative patterns,
judicial practices and government policies
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
that undercut peaceful coexistence of
different faiths.
The 18 Commitments included in the
―Beirut Declaration‖ are formulated to take
concrete action regarding the three core
responsibilities of religious leaders
articulated in the 2012 ―Rabat Plan of
Action‖ regarding racial or religious hatred
that constitutes incitement to
discrimination, hostility or violence. The
three core responsibilities are:
 Refraining from using messages of
intolerance that may incite violence,
hostility or discrimination
 Speaking out firmly and promptly
against in tolerance, discriminatory
stereotyping
 Instances of hate speech
15. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Under the Electricity Act 2003 ("EA
2003") and the National Tariff Policy 2006,
Renewable purchase obligation (RPO), is a
mechanism by which the obligated entities
are obliged to purchase certain percentage
of electricity from Renewable Energy
sources, as a percentage of the total
consumption of electricity.
RPOs are categorized as Solar and Non
Solar RPO.
With the objective to achieve the target of
175 GW of renewable energy by 2022,
including solar energy capacity of 100 GW,
Ministry of Power (MoP) have notified the
target RPO trajectory up to year 2022.
The RPO targets specified for solar and
non-solar power are to be adhered and met
uniformly by the Obligated Entities of all
the States and Union Territories. Obligated
Entities (which includes Discoms, Open
Access Consumers and Captive power
producers) are obligated to purchase a
minimum share of their electricity from
renewable energy sources as per RPO
targets.
Note: To address the mismatch between
availability of RE resources in state and the
5
 requirement of obligated entities to meet
RPO, a market based instrument called
Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) was
introduced to promote renewable energy
and facilitate compliance of RPO.
One REC is equivalent to 1MWh. RECs are
further categorized as Solar and Non-Solar
RECs. Solar RECs are issued to eligible
entities who generates electricity based on
Solar as RE sources and Non Solar RECs
are issued to eligible entities who generates
electricity based on RE sources other than
Non-Solar.
16. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) help
facilitate the purchase of goods and
services, including financial services,
remittances and fund transfers to family
and friends against the value stored on
such instruments.
These instruments are generally pre-loaded
cards and, in some cases, have a pre-
defined purpose of payment.
Some of the examples of PPIs include
Paytm and GPay (semi-closed system PPIs),
gift cards (closed system PPIs) and debit or
credit cards (open system PPIs).
The most commonly used PPIs are debit
and credit cards.
17. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
While investigating and examining all
matters relating to the safeguard provided
for women under the Constitution and
other law the Commission shall have all the
powers of a civil court.
The Commission shall consist of:
1. A Chairperson, committed to the cause
of women, to be nominated by the
Central Government.
2. five Members to be nominated by the
Central Government from amongst
persons of ability, integrity and
standing who have had experience in
law or legislation, trade unionism,
management of an industry potential of
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
women, women's voluntary
organisations (including women
activist), administration, economic
development, health, education or social
welfare;
Provided that at least one Member each
shall be from amongst persons
belonging to the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes respectively;
3. a Member-Secretary to be nominated by
the Central Government who shall be: -
(i) an expert in the field of management,
organisational structure or sociological
movement, or
(ii) an officer who is a member of a civil
service of the Union or of an all-India
service or holds a civil post under the
Union with appropriate experience
Note:
o The First Commission was constituted
in1992.
o The Chairperson and every Member
shall hold office for such period, not
exceeding three years, as may be
specified by the Central Government in
this behalf.
18. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Emperor Penguin (Aptenodytes forsteri)
IUCN Status: Near Threatened
Antarctica has a 600,000-strong emperor
penguin colony. With the distinct golden
patch on their heads, these penguins are
the largest of the species, growing up to 1.2
metre tall.
The emperor penguin is a species that
needs a special environment to breed and
enhance its numbers.
The birds need sea ice during the time that
they incubate their eggs and while they
raise their chicks. They also need stable
sea ice after they complete breeding during
the time when they undertake their annual
moult, a period during which they cannot
enter the water as their feathers are no
longer water-proof.
Shifting sea ice makes it difficult for the
emperors to breed. As the males huddle
6
 together to keep the eggs warm in winter
darkness and freezing temperatures, the
females waddle up to 100 km to catch fish.
Too little ice means waves could break up
colonies in spring, and too much ice means
the females will have to travel farther.
The emperor penguin has a long breeding
cycle, initiating breeding in the Austral
winter to complete the rearing of its single
chick within a year; it is the only warm-
blooded Antarctic species that breeds
during the winter and as such is uniquely
adapted. Its closest relative, the king
penguin, has an extended breeding cycle,
taking more than a year to raise its single
chick.
Emperor penguins depend upon stable fast
ice throughout their breeding period.
19. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Once the virus enters the human cell, it
releases its genetic material, which is then
copied using the body‘s existing
mechanism. At every stage of infection,
various human proteins, virus proteins,
and their interactions come into play. At
the replication stage, the key viral protein,
called RdRp, becomes the engine of the
virus. Remdesivir acts by directly attacking
RdRp. With Remdesivir replacing the
‗feeding‘ material it needs, the virus fails to
replicate further.
Remdesivir was the first drug approved by
the USFDA for treating the SARS-CoV-2
virus. It was claimed to be effective in the
severe and critical stages of COVID-19.
But, it was also understood to be
‗hepatotoxic‘, damaging to the liver cells.
Practically speaking, viral replication ends
in the first 1-7 days, complications that
occur in critical and severe COVID-19 post
7-8 days are due to an inflammatory
response (SIRS). So this drug ideally should
be used in the early stages, between the
second and tenth day when viral replication
is happening.
It should not be used on patients who are
asymptomatic, mildly symptomatic or who
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
are severely ill and have suffered multi-
organ dysfunction.
20. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• The great famine of 1876-78 affected
Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh and
the Punjab and about five million people
perished in a single year.
• In 1880, Lord Lytton appointed a
commission under Richard Strachey to
formulate general principles and
suggest particular measures of
preventive or protective character.
• The Commission recommended to
adjust wages from time to time to
provide sufficient food for a labourer's
support.
• Secondly, it should be the duty of the
state to provide gratuitous relief to the
poor and listed the category of persons
entitled to receive it.
21. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The spread of the ideas of Marx and
socialism resulted in rise of a left wing
in the Congress represented by Nehru
and Subhash Chandra Bose.
 The Communist Party of India was
formed in 1920 in Tashkent
(Uzbekistan) by M N Roy.
 The Congress Socialist Party was
formally started in 1934 with a
constitution and a specific programme.
 The Congress members successfully
opposed the enactment of the Public
Safety Bill (1928)-a bill directed
against the Communists in India thus
showing their support.
22. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The home rule leagues were based on Irish
Home Rule Leagues which represented a
new trend of aggressive politics. Its
pioneers were Tilak and Annie Besant.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak‘s Home Rule League:
7
 • He wanted to reform administration but
not overthrow the government.
• He set up his league in April 1916 in
Belgaum.
• He also linked up the question of
Swaraj with the demand for the
formation of linguistic states and
education in the vernacular.
• Members of Gokhale‟s Servants of
India Society, were not permitted to
become members of the League but
were encouraged to add their weight to
the demand for Home Rule by
undertaking lecture tours and
publishing pamphlets.
23. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Financial market that fills the demand-
supply gap in medium and long-term funds
with maturity period more than 1 year is
capital markets.
• Initial Public Offers (IPOs): Process by
which a company issues shares for the
first time to raise money. The
subsequent issuance of shares by the
company is referred to as Follow-on
Public Offer (FPO).
• Offer for Sale (OFS): Enables
promoters of a company to sell their
shares; No new issuance of shares.
• Rights Issue: Only the existing
shareholders of the company would
have the right to buy the shares. Private
Placement: Raise capital from certain
selected investors only.
• Blue-Chip Companies: Large and well-
recognised companies with a long
history of sound financial performance.
24. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
National Investment Fund is set up to
channelize the proceeds from disinvestment
of Central Public Sector Enterprises. It is a
permanent fund as it is classified under
Public Accounts of India.
PURPOSE
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
• Recapitalization of public sector banks
and public sector insurance companies.
• Investment in RRBs / IIFCL / NABARD
/ Exim Bank
• Equity infusion in various Metro
projects
25. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Angel Tax is calculated when the Start-
ups receive funding which is higher than
its "fair Market Value".
However, it becomes extremely difficult for
the tax authorities to ascertain the "Fair
Market value" of the start-up companies.
It has assumed significance in recent days
as several start-ups and angel investors
have raised concerns over notices received
from income tax authorities over the
payment of "Angel Tax". This has adversely
affected the start-up ecosystem in India
which nurtures innovation and
entrepreneurship.
Recent Announcement: The government
has withdrawn the Angel Tax on the
entities registered with the Department of
Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT),
Ministry of Commerce.
26. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Indian Official Secrets Act (Act No XIX
of 1923) was extended to all matters of
secrecy and confidentiality in governance in
the country.
It broadly deals with two aspects – spying
or espionage, covered under Section 3, and
disclosure of other secret information of the
government, under Section 5. Secret
information can be any official code,
password, sketch, plan, model, article,
note, document, or information. Under
Section 5, both the person communicating
the information and the person receiving
the information can be punished.
The RTI Act provides for its primacy vis-a-
vis provisions of other laws, including OSA.
This gives the RTI Act an overriding effect,
8
 notwithstanding anything inconsistent with
the provisions of OSA.
27. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
It was sent by Britain‘s then prime minister
Clement Atlee in February 1946 to find out
ways for a negotiated, peaceful transfer
of power to India.
Cabinet mission rejected the demand for
a full-fledged Pakistan.
The Muslim League Council proclaimed
16th August 1946 as „Direct Action Day‟
in order to accentuate their demand of a
separate Muslim homeland after the
British left the Indian subcontinent. Their
main aim was to attain a different country
with a Muslim majority.
28. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 All Demands for Grants voted upon
and Charged Expenditure is
introduced in the Lok Sabha as
Appropriation Bill.
 The Bill gives legal authority to the
government to appropriate expenditure
from CFI.
 No money can be withdrawn from the
CFI except under an Appropriation
Act passed by the Parliament.
 Appropriation Bill is a money bill that
allows the government to withdraw
funds from the Consolidated Fund of
India to meet its expenses during the
course of a financial year.
 As per article 114 of the Constitution,
the government can withdraw money
from the Consolidated Fund only after
receiving approval from Parliament.
 To put it simply, the Finance Bill
contains provisions on financing the
expenditure of the government, and
Appropriation Bill specifies the
quantum and purpose for withdrawing
money.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
29. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Annual Financial Statement is a
document presented to Parliament
every financial year as part of the
Budget process, as required under
Article 112 of the Constitution of
India.
 The President shall in respect of
every financial year cause to be laid
before both the Houses of Parliament
a statement of the estimated receipts
and expenditure of the Government
of India for that year, in this Part
referred to as the ―annual financial
statement‖.
 The documents consist of receipts and
expenditures of the government in the
current year, previous year and the
Budget year in three separate parts –
Consolidated Fund of India,
Contingency Fund of India, and
Public Account of India. The
government presents a statement of
receipts and expenditures for these
accounts every year to Parliament.
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Council of Ministers remains in
office as long as it enjoys the
confidence of Lok Sabha according to
Article 75(3) of the Indian
Constitution. No confidence motion
is not mentioned in the Constitution.
 A motion of ―No Confidence Motion‖
against the Government can be
introduced only in the Lok Sabha under
rule 198.
 The moment, it expresses a lack of
confidence in the Council of Ministers,
the government is constitutionally
bound to resign whether or not the
Prime Minister recommends a
dissolution of the House.
 In order to ascertain this confidence,
the rules provide for moving a motion to
this effect which is called No Confidence
motion.
9
  A motion of no-confidence once • Financial literacy and financial
admitted has to be taken up within ten Inclusion.
days of the leave being granted. Capital market is regulated by the Security
 Notice of no-confidence motion can also and Exchange Board of India.
be withdrawn by members concerned by
sending letters of withdrawal signed by 33. Answer: (b)
all the signatories to the notice before Explanation:
the item is taken up in the House.
 Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian
 Rajya Sabha is not empowered to woman President of INC. The first
entertain a motion of no-confidence woman President was Annie Besant.
because the government is
 In the Haripura session, National
collectively responsible under the
Planning Committee was set-up under
Constitution only to the directly
J. L. Nehru. (The session was presided
elected Lok Sabha.
by S.C Bose).
 In Karachi session, Resolution on
31. Answer: (d)
Fundamental rights and the National
Explanation: Economic Program was passed.
Important facts regarding Lord
Lansdowne –
34. Answer: (d)
• Under hi m the second Factory Act of
Explanation:
1891 was passed.
 Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
• He categorized the Civil Services into
disapproved orthodox Hindu beliefs.
imperial, provincial and subordinate.
In fact, he even dismissed cow worship
• The Indian Council Act of 1892 as superstitious.
(introduced elections which was indirect)
 He founded the Free India Society and
was passed under him.
“Abhinav Bharat Society”.
• Appointment of the Durand
 He was also involved in the Swadeshi
Commission to define the line between
movement and later joined Tilak‟s
British India and Afghanistan (1893)
Swaraj Party.
was also under Lansdowne.
 Provided legal defence to Madan Lal
Dhingra, who was accused in a murder
32. Answer: (d)
case of a British Indian army officer
Explanation: named Sir William Hutt Curzon Wyllie.
Functions of RBI:
• Formulates, implements, and monitors 35. Answer: (b)
the monetary policy.
Explanation:
• Objective: Maintaining price stability
 It was founded in 1920 with Lala
while keeping in mind the objective of
Lajpat Rai as its first president &
growth. Prescribes broad parameters of
Dewan Cham Lal as the Secretary.
banking operations within which the
The INC session at Gaya in 1922
country's banking and financial system
welcomed the formation of AITUC.
functions.
 The All-India Trade Union Congress
o Regulation and supervision of non-
(AITUC) is the oldest trade union
banking financial companies.
federation in India.
o Protecting depositors' interest.
 It was formed under INC, but it has
• Manages the Foreign Exchange
been associated with the Communist
Management Act, 1999.
Party of India since 1945.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 10
  AITUC is a founder member of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It
World Federation of Trade Unions. operates under Ministry of Health &
Family Welfare.
36. Answer: (b) It frames regulations to lay down and
Explanation: enforce various Standards and guidelines
in relation to articles of food.
S.N. AMENDMENTS AMENDED
It shall consist of a Chairperson and 22
PROVISIONS OF
members out of which one-third shall be
THE
women. The Chairperson shall be
CONSTITUTION
appointed by the Central Government from
1. 92nd Added Bodo, amongst the persons of eminence in the
Amendment Dogri, Maithili field of food science or from administration.
Act, 2003 and Santhali The Chairperson and the members other
languages in the than ex officio Members shall hold office
8th Schedule. for a term of three years from date of
2. 102nd Constitutional appointment and shall be eligible for re-
Amendment Status to National appointment for a further period of
Act, 2018 Commission for three years. However, Chairperson shall
Backward Classes not hold office as such after he has
attained the age of sixty-five years.
3. 52th Provided for
Amendment disqualification of
Act, 1985 members of 39. Answer: (a)
Parliament and Explanation:
state legislatures The Legal services authority Act lays down
on the ground of a framework for Lok Adalats. Every State
defection and Authority or District Authority or Supreme
added a new Court Legal Services Committee or every
Tenth Schedule High Court Legal Services Committee or
containing the Taluk Legal Services Committee may
details in this organise Lok Adalats.
regard Every Lok Adalat organised for an area
shall consist of such number of serving
37. Answer: (a) or retired judicial officers and other
Explanation: members as may be prescribed by any of
the respective Authorities.
1. Schedule Salaries and Emoluments
It shall have no jurisdiction in respect of
–II of dignitaries holding
any case or matter relating to an offence
constitutional office:
not compoundable under any law.
2. Schedule Forms of Oath or All the proceedings before a Lok Adalat
- III Affirmation shall be deemed to be judicial proceedings.
3. Schedule Administration of Tribal Every award of the Lok Adalat shall be
- VI Areas in the states of deemed to be a decree of a civil court or an
Assam, Mizoram, Tripura, order of any other court and where a
Meghalaya. compromise or settlement has been arrived
at. Every award made by a Lok Adalat
shall be final and binding on all the
38. Answer: (b)
parties to the dispute, and no appeal
Explanation:
shall lie to any court against the award.
Food Safety and Standard Authority of
India (FSSAI) has been established under

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 11
40. Answer: (b) 1. There should be a Special Officer for
Explanation: Linguistic Minorities. He is to be
 The Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab at appointed by the President of India.
that time was Michael O‘ Dwyer. Lord 2. It would be the duty of the Special
Chelmsford was India‘s Viceroy. Officer to investigate all matters relating
 The government set up the Hunter to the safeguards provided for linguistic
Commission to inquire into the minorities under the Constitution.
massacre. Although the commission 3. He would report to the President upon
condemned the act by Dyer, it did not those matters at such intervals as the
impose any disciplinary action against President may direct. The President
him. (Raleigh Commission- To study the should place all such reports before
Universities and introduce reforms.) each House of Parliament and send to
the governments of the states
 In protest against the massacre and the
concerned.
British failure to give due justice to the
victims, Rabindranath Tagore gave up It must be noted here that the
his knighthood and Gandhiji Constitution does not specify the
relinquished his title „Kaiser-e-hind‟ qualifications, tenure, salaries and
bestowed on him by the British for his allowances, service conditions and
services during the Boer War in South procedure for removal of the Special
Africa Officer for Linguistic Minorities. At the
Central level, the Commissioner falls
under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
41. Answer: (d)
Hence, he submits the annual reports or
Explanation: other reports to the President through
 Took place in 1921 in Kerala, also the Union Minority Affairs Minister.
known as Moplah uprising.
 Led by - Variyamkunnath 43. Answer: (a)
Kunjahammed Haji. Explanation:
 It was an armed revolt staged by the
MEMBERS OF UPSC
Mappila Muslims of Kerala in 1921.
Appointment by The President
 It resulted into agitation against the
the
Hindu landlords.
Term of office - A a term of 6 years from
42. Answer: (a) member shall date of joining or till
hold office for they attain 65 years of
Explanation:
age
Originally, the Constitution of India did
not make any provision with respect to Resignation By writing under his
the Special Officer for Linguistic hand addressed
Minorities. Later, the States to the President
Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) Removal By order of the
made a recommendation in this regard. President on grounds
Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional of misbehaviour and
Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new after an enquiry by
Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Supreme Court. Can
Constitution. be removed also on
This article contains the following the grounds of:
provisions: Insolvency, outside
employment and
infirmity of mind and

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 12
 body
Suspension By the President
The Chairman of UPSC shall be ineligible
for further employment either under the
Government of India or under the
Government of a State.
A member other than the Chairman of
UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as
the Chairman of UPSC, or as the Chairman
of a State Public Service Commission – but
shall not be eligible for any other
employment either under the Government
of India or under the Government of a
State.
44. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Centre for Water Resources
Development and Management (CWRDM)
and the institutes from The Netherlands
has come up with a new project, ‗Water 4
Change‘, which will be piloted in a phased
manner in Kozhikode city, stimulating
long-term research and field-level action on
urban water management systems.
The project is meant to spur research
and field-level action on urban water
management systems. The major objective
of Water for Change project is to provide an
integrative, fit for purpose and context
sensitive design framework for liveable fast-
growing secondary cities in India.
It will cover three selected cities
Kozhikode in Kerala, Bhuj in Gujarat and
Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh in the first
phase and Shimla in the second phase.
It will be jointly funded by Department
of Science and Technology and
Netherlands Organization for Scientific
Research under India Netherlands
Bilateral programme.
45. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Famous maritime chokepoints around the
world are:
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
1. The Malacca strait – The
main shipping channel between
the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.
2. The Strait of Hormuz – strait between
the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of
Oman.
3. The Suez Canal – linking the
Mediterranean and the Red Sea
4. The Panama Canal – linking the
Atlantic with the Pacific Ocean
5. The Strait of Bosporus – linking the
Mediterranean Sea to the Black Sea
6. The three Danish Straits – linking the
Baltic Sea with the North Sea.
7. The Strait of Bab el-Mandeb –
a strait between Yemen on the Arabian
Peninsula, and Djibouti and Eritrea in
the Horn of Africa. It connects the Red
Sea to the Gulf of Aden.
46. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
RBI can print notes of different
denominations from Rs 2 to up to Rs
10,000.
Currency notes denomination is decided by
the Central government of India.
All the Bank notes are legal tenders. All
banknotes issued by RBI are backed by
assets such as gold, Government Securities
and Foreign Currency Assets, as defined in
Section 33 of RBI Act, 1934.
The Banks accept deposits (including time
deposits) and lend loans and hence this in
a way is also the sources of Money supply.
47. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
China intends to undertake gigantic water
diversion projects which include building a
dam on the Great Bend of Yarlung, where
the river curves into the Assamese plains of
India. China has completed the Zangmu
Dam and three more dams at Dagu,
Jiacha and Jeixu are at present under
construction.
The Yarlung Tsangpo enters India after
passing the Great Bend, through
13
 Arunachal Pradesh as Siang/Dihang, then
onto Assam as Brahmaputra, and finally to
Bangladesh as Jamuna.
48. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Siachen glacier is at the height of
around 20,000 feet in Karakoram Range.
It is known as the highest militarised
zone in world. It is the longest glacier in
the Karakoram and second-longest in
the world's non-polar areas.
The Siachen Glacier lies immediately south
of the great drainage divide that separates
the Eurasian Plate from the Indian
subcontinent in the
extensively glaciated portion of the
Karakoram sometimes called the "Third
Pole".
It has been a bone of contention between
India and Pakistan. Indian Army has
gained strategic control of glacier in 1984
following ‗Operation Meghdoot‘. Prior to
1984 neither India nor Pakistan had any
permanent presence in the area.
49. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The 5G cyber security Toolbox was
released by the European Commission
(EC) with EU Member States. At the time
of release, the EC noted that European 5G
suppliers are likely to comply with its
directives. The Toolbox provides definitions
and measurements on how to avoid the use
of "high-risk" suppliers in the network.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
50. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Chinese parliament has passed new
National Security law which, greatly
expands Beijing‘s power in Hong Kong, and
has been criticised by the United States as
―draconian‖.
The 1898 Convention for the Extension of
Hong Kong Territory, leased the New
Territories to Britain for 99 years. Under
the terms of the treaty, China would regain
control of Hong Kong in 1997.
As the 99-year treaty was to expire in 1997,
both Britain and China signed a joint
declaration on the future of Hong Kong in
1984.
Under the joint declaration, an innovative
―one country, two systems‖ was devised,
under which Hong Kong reverted to
Chinese sovereignty while retaining its
political and economic system.
The political process in Hong Kong is
guided as per the province‘s Basic Law,
which says that: The socialist system and
policies shall not be practiced in the Hong
Kong Special Administrative Region, and
the previous capitalist system and way of
life shall remain unchanged for 50 years.
The Chief Executive (CE) is the highest
representative leader in Hong Kong and he
shall be selected by election or through
consultations held locally and be appointed
by the Central People's Government.
51. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution
was added by Constitution (Sixty-ninth
Amendment) Act, 1991. It says that
Union Territory of Delhi shall be called
the National Capital Territory of Delhi
and the Administrator thereof appointed
under Article 239 shall be designated as
the Lieutenant Governor. There shall be a
Legislative Assembly for the National
Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
The strength of the assembly is fixed at 70
members, directly elected by the people.
The elections are conducted by the election
14
 commission of India. The assembly can
make laws on all the matters of the
State List and the Concurrent List
except the three matters of the State
List, that is, public order, police and
land. But, the laws of Parliament prevail
over those made by the Assembly.
The strength of the council of ministers is
fixed at ten per cent of the total strength of
the assembly, that is, seven–one chief
minister and six other ministers.
The chief minister is appointed by the
President (not by the Lieutenant governor).
The other ministers are appointed by the
president on the advice of the chief
minister. The ministers hold office during
the pleasure of the president. The council
of ministers is collectively responsible to
the assembly.
The council of ministers headed by the
chief minister aid and advise the
Lieutenant governor in the exercise of his
functions except in so far as he is required
to act in his discretion. In the case of
difference of opinion between the
Lieutenant governor and his ministers, the
Lieutenant governor is to refer the matter
to the president for decision and act
accordingly.
52. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Interstate River Water Disputes Act,
1956 (IRWD Act) is an Act of the
Parliament of India enacted under
Article 262 of Constitution of India to
resolve the water disputes that would arise
in the use, control and distribution of an
interstate river or river valley. Article 262 of
the Indian Constitution provides a role for
the Central government in adjudicating
conflicts surrounding inter-state rivers that
arise among the state/regional
governments. Whenever the riparian states
are not able to reach amicable agreements
on their own in sharing of an interstate
river waters, the Act provides dispute
resolution process in the form of Tribunal.
When the tribunal final verdict is issued,
based on the deliberations on the draft
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
verdict accepted by the central
government and notified in the official
gazette, the verdict becomes law and
binding on the states for
implementation.
Neither the Supreme Court nor any
other Court shall have or exercise
jurisdiction in respect of any water
dispute which may be referred to a
Tribunal under The Inter-State River
Water Disputes Act, 1956.
53. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
State Legal Services Authority also called
State Authority shall consist of:
• Chief Justice of the High Court who
shall be the Patron-in-Chief
• Serving or Retired Judge of the High
Court, to be nominated by the
Governor, in consultation with the
Chief Justice of the High Court, who
shall be the Executive Chairman; and
• Such number of other members to be
nominated by the respective State
Government in consultation with the
Chief Justice of the concerned High
Court.
The State Government in consultation with
the Chief Justice of the High Court, appoint
a person belonging to the State Higher
Judicial Service, not lower in rank than
that of a District Judge, as the Member
Secretary of the State Authority, to exercise
such powers and perform such duties
under the Executive Chairman of the State
Authority.
Functions:
• State Authority shall implement the
policy and directions of the Central
Authority.
• Give legal service to persons belonging
to the weaker section of the society.
• Conduct Lok Adalats including Lok
Adalats for High Court cases.
• Undertake preventive and strategic legal
aid programmes.
15
54. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Part IX of the Indian Constitution deals
with the Panchayats whereas Part XIA
deals with the Municipalities.
Panchayat means an institution of self-
government constituted for rural areas. All
the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by
persons chosen by direct election from
territorial constituencies in the Panchayat
area.
The part relating to Panchayat shall not
apply to Scheduled areas and Tribal
areas as referred to in Article 244.
– States of Nagaland, Meghalaya and
Mizoram
– Hill areas in the State of Manipur for
which District Councils exist.
State Election Commission is a
constitutional body created under 73rd
CAA (Article 243K). It has entrusted with
the powers to direct and control
preparation of Electoral rolls and conduct
of elections to Panchayats and
Municipalities.
Municipality Constitution shall be
constituted in every State
• Nagar Panchayat (for transitional area
from rural to urban)
• Municipal Council (for smaller urban
area)
• Municipal Corporation (for larger urban
area)
All the seats in a Municipality shall be
filled by persons chosen by direct
election from the territorial
constituencies in the Municipal area.
55. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Alluvial soils are by far the largest and
the most important soil group of India.
Covering about 45.6 per cent of the total
land area of the country. Alluvium are finer
particles of rock materials carried in
suspension and later deposited by the river
in its bed and bank. The soils which is
composed of alluvium is called alluvial soil.
Being one of the most important and fertile
soils of India they support growth of wide
variety of crops such as Rice, wheat,
sugarcane, cotton, jute, potato and
vegetables, but they are deficient in
nitrogen, phosphorous and Humus.
Geologically, the alluvium of the Great
plain of India is divided into Khadar (new
alluvial soil) and bhangar soils (old alluvial
soil).
56. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The following major types of vegetation may
be identified in our country (i) Tropical
Evergreen Forests (ii) Tropical Deciduous
Forests (iii) Tropical Thorn Forests and
Scrubs (iv) Montane Forests (v) Mangrove
Forests –
1. Tropical Evergreen Forests: These
forests are restricted to heavy rainfall.
Since the region is warm and wet
throughout the year, it has a luxuriant
vegetation of all kinds – trees, shrubs,
and creepers giving it a multilayered
structure. Some of the commercially
important trees of this forest are
ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber
and cinchon.
2. Tropical Deciduous Forests- On the
basis of the availability of water, these
forests are further divided into moist
and dry deciduous. The former is found
in areas receiving rainfall between 200
and 100 cm. Teak is the most dominant
species of this forest. Bamboos, sal,
shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum,
arjun, mulberry are other
commercially important species.
The dry deciduous forests are found in
areas having rainfall between 100 cm
and 70 cm. There are open stretches
in which Teak, Sal, Peepal, Neem
grow.
3. The Thorn Forests and Scrubs- In
regions with less than 70 cm of rainfall,
the natural vegetation consists of
thorny trees and bushes. Acacias,
palms, euphorbias and cacti are the
main plant species.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 16
 4. Montane Forests- In mountainous
areas, the decrease in temperature with
increasing altitude leads to the
corresponding change in natural
vegetation. The wet temperate types of
forests are found between a height of
1000 and 2000 metres. Evergreen
broad-leaf trees such as oaks and
chestnuts predominate. Between 1500
and 3000 metres, temperate forests
containing coniferous trees like pine,
deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar,
are found. These forests cover mostly
the southern slopes of the Himalayas,
places having high altitude in southern
and north-east India.
5. Mangrove Forests- The mangrove tidal
forests are found in the areas of coasts
influenced by tides. In the Ganga
Brahamaputra delta, Sundari trees are
found, which provide durable hard
timber. Palm, Coconut, Keora, Agar,
also grow in some parts of the delta.
57. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Recently, India presented its 2nd VNR to
the High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) on
sustainable development.
High Level Political Forum is the highest
international platform for review and
follows up of the SDGs under the auspices
of UN Economic and Social Council.
Reviews are voluntary and countries led
and are aimed at facilitating sharing of
experiences, including success, challenges
and lessons learned.
The VNR also presented Indian model of
SDG localisation, strategies of integrating
businesses with the implementation of
SDGs, and ways to strengthen the means
of implementation.
58. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
They are debt instruments issued by an
entity for raising funds from investors the
proceeds of which are used for financing
'green' projects. They are an effective tool to
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
raise capital for renewable energy projects
while meeting environmental targets of the
investors and climate targets of the
Government of India.
• SEBI in 2017 issued guidelines on
green bonds including listing of green
bonds on Indian stock exchange.
• Launch of green indices such as S&P
BSE CARBONEX (in 2012), MSCI ESG
India (in 2013), and S&P BSE 100 ESG
Index (in 2017) allows passive and retail
investors to invest in ‗green‘ companies.
• 8 ESG mutual funds have been
launched in India.
59. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Essential Commodities (Amendment)
Act, 2020 –
1. Remove agricultural commodities from
list of essential commodities.
2. This will pave way for end of an era of
frequent imposition of stock-holding
limits except under extraordinary
circumstances.
3. Remove fears in private investors from
excessive regulatory interference in
their business operations.
4. Legislation will help drive up investment
in cold storages and modernization of
food supply chain.
5. Will lead to harnessing of economies of
scale and increased private
participation in the sector.
60. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Bio Rock Technology – Steel structures
(to which coral fragments are fixed) are
lowered onto the sea bed  low voltage,
safe electrical currents are passed to the
structure using a power source  dissolved
minerals crystallize on steel structures
 resulting in production of calcium
carbonate (CaCO3) or white
limestone structures.
17
  Their composition is similar to that of
natural coral reefs and tropical sand
beaches.
 Strength is similar to concrete.
 It is the only marine construction that
grows, gets stronger with age and is
self-repairing.
How biorock helps in Coral Reef
Restoration?
 Corals adhere to CaCO3 structures
and grow at rapid pace as they need
not spend their energy in building their
own calcium carbonate skeletons.
 The technology also helps corals to
counter the threats posed by global
warming.
Other Applications of Biorock
technology:
 Marine Construction
 Protection
 Beach Erosion
 Adaptation to sea level rise
 Oyster Reef restoration
 Sea Grass Restoration
 Salt Marsh Restoration
 Fisheries Restoration
 Sustainable Aquaculture
61. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Basel Convention on the control of
transboundary movements of hazardous
wastes and their disposal: The
Convention was adopted in 1989. The
overarching objective of the Basel
Convention is to protect human health
and the environment against the adverse
effects of hazardous wastes. Its scope of
application covers a wide range of wastes
defined as ―hazardous wastes‖ based on
their origin and/or composition and their
characteristics, as well as two types of
wastes defined as ―other wastes‖ -
household waste and incinerator ash.
Objectives of the Convention: The
Convention covers hazardous wastes that
are explosive, flammable, poisonous,
infectious, corrosive, toxic, or eco-toxic.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
With respect to environmentally sound
management (ESM) of hazardous waste, the
Convention aims towards restricting
transboundary movements of hazardous
wastes except where it is perceived to be in
accordance with the principle of ESM.
The convention does not cover radioactive
waste and is ambiguous about waste that
is destined for recycling rather than
disposal.
India and the convention: India ratified
the Basel convention in 1992. India has
been taking measures for the effective
management of hazardous wastes and
thereby meeting the obligations of the Basel
Convention.
The Hazardous and Other Wastes
(Management & Transboundary
Movement) Rules, 2016 was notified to
ensure the safe handling, processing,
treatment, storage, collection,
transportation, collection, and disposal of
hazardous waste.
62. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Living Planet Report 2020 calls for urgent
action to reverse the trend by 2030.
Global populations of mammals, birds,
amphibians, reptiles and fish have seen an
average two-third decline in less than half a
century, due in large part to the very same
environmental destruction which is
contributing to the emergence of zoonotic
diseases such as Covid-19, according to the
WWF‘s Living Planet Report 2020.
The Living Planet Index (LPI) shows that
factors believed to increase the planet‘s
vulnerability to pandemics, including land-
use change and the use and trade of
wildlife, were also behind the 68 per cent
average decline in the global vertebrate
species‘ populations between 1970 and
2016.
63. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
As the threats to protected areas continue
to rise, so has the desire to collaborate and
18
 face these issues. This has resulted in the
establishment of the Asia Protected Areas
Partnership (APAP), which has been
designed as a key platform to help
governments and other stakeholders
collaborate for more effective management
of protected areas in the region.
The partnership was initiated in 2013 at
the first-ever Asia Parks Congress held in
Japan, and formally launched the following
year at the IUCN World Parks Congress in
Australia.
It is chaired by IUCN, International Union
for Conservation of Nature, and co-chaired
by an APAP member organisation on a
rotational basis.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) of India, is the
current co-chair.
APAP‘s work focuses on three areas:
knowledge sharing and capacity building,
transboundary and regional cooperation,
and awareness raising and advocacy.
Several activities, which will be further
defined by the Partnership‘s members, are
envisioned under each focus area:
Knowledge sharing and capacity
building: Convene the regional protected
area community to share best practices
and inspiring solutions, for example,
through the organisation of experience
sharing workshops on priority themes, the
holding of the Asia Parks Congress at
regular intervals, and the facilitation of site
visits to observe best practice on the
ground.
Organise specific capacity development and
training opportunities, in partnership with
protected area agencies in other parts of
the world, the World Commission on
Protected Areas (WCPA), academic and
training institutions, and other
organisations. There is a wide array of
potential topics that could be covered,
including: application of the IUCN
Protected Area Management Categories and
Governance Types; adaptation to climate
change; tourism management; effective
patrolling; prevention and management of
human-wildlife conflict; participatory
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
management approaches and benefit
sharing; landscape scale approaches and
systems planning; prevention and
management of invasive alien species; and
protected areas and disaster risk reduction.
Promote access to protected area
information and guidelines, for example, by
translating the IUCN WCPA Best Practice
Guidelines into Asian languages.
64. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord
Dalhousie as a new policy of annexation.
Under this policy, princely states were
annexed for not having legal heir or sons.
Satara, Jhansi, Nagpur, Sambalpur et.al
were annexed under this policy. Finally, in
1856, the Company also took over Awadh.
This time the British had an added
argument – they said they were ―obliged by
duty‖ to take over Awadh in order to free
the people from the ―misgovernment‖ of
the Nawab.
Warren Hastings, the first Governor-
General, introduced several administrative
reforms, notably in the sphere of justice.
From 1772 a new system of justice was
established.
Each district was to have two courts – a
criminal court (faujdari adalat) and a civil
court (diwani adalat). Maulvis and Hindu
pandits interpreted Indian laws for the
European district collectors who presided
over civil courts. The criminal courts were
still under a Qazi and a mufti but under
the supervision of the collectors.
65. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Tipu Sultan (ruled from 1782 to 1799).
Mysore controlled the profitable trade of the
Malabar Coast where the Company
purchased pepper and cardamom.
In 1785, Tipu Sultan stopped the export of
sandalwood, pepper, and cardamom
through the ports of his kingdom, and
disallowed local merchants from trading
with the Company. He also established a
19
 However, they were made to
acknowledge the British Queen as their
Sovereign Paramount. Thus the Indian
rulers were to hold their kingdoms as
subordinates of the British Crown.
3. It was decided that the proportion of
Indian soldiers in the army would be
reduced and the number of European
soldiers would be increased. It was also
decided that instead of recruiting
soldiers from Awadh, Bihar, central
India and south India, more soldiers
would be recruited from among the
Gurkhas, Sikhs and Pathans.
4. The land and property of Muslims was
confiscated on a large scale and they
were treated with suspicion and
hostility. The British believed that they
were responsible for the rebellion in a
big way.
5. The British decided to respect the
customary religious and social practices
of the people in India.
6. Policies were made to protect landlords
and zamindars and give them security
of rights over their lands.
Thus a new phase of history began after
1857.
74. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Aurang – A Persian term for a warehouse –
a place where goods are collected before
being sold; also refers to a workshop.
Munshi – A person who can read, write and
teach Persian.
Jamdani is a fine muslin on which
decorative motifs are woven on the loom,
typically in grey and white. Often a mixture
of cotton and gold thread was used, as in
the cloth in this picture. The most
important centres of jamdani weaving were
Dacca in Bengal and Lucknow in the
United Provinces.
75. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The sword of Tipu sultan had an incredibly
hard and sharp edge that could easily rip
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
through the opponent‘s armour. This
quality of the sword came from a special
type of high carbon steel called Wootz
which was produced all over south India.
Wootz steel when made into swords
produced a very sharp edge with a flowing
water pattern. This pattern came from very
small carbon crystals embedded in the
iron.
What is wootz steel?
Wootz steel is a crucible steel characterized
by a pattern of bands and high carbon
content. These bands are formed by sheets
of microscopic carbides within a tempered
martensite or pearlite matrix in higher
carbon steel, or by ferrite and pearlite
banding in lower carbon steels. It was a
pioneering steel alloy invented in Southern
India (Tamil Nadu) in the mid-1st
millennium BC and exported globally.
76. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East
India Company in London sent an
educational despatch to the Governor-
General in India. Issued by Charles Wood,
the President of the Board of Control of the
Company, it has come to be known as
Wood‘s Despatch.
European learning, it said, would enable
Indians to recognise the advantages that
flow from the expansion of trade and
commerce, and make them see the
importance of developing the resources of
the country.
Wood‘s Despatch also argued that
European learning would improve the
moral character of Indians. It would make
them truthful and honest, and thus supply
the Company with civil servants who could
be trusted and depended upon.
Following the 1854 Despatch, several
measures were introduced by the British.
Education departments of the government
were set up to extend control over all
matters regarding education.
22
77. Answer: (c) • Setting of up of new Health Emergency
Explanation: Operations Centres and Mobile
In a speech delivered on January 15, 1908 Hospitals.
in Bombay, Aurobindo Ghose stated that • Setting up of a new national institution
the goal of national education was to for One Health, a regional research
awaken the spirit of nationality among the platform for WHO South East Asia
students. This required a contemplation of Region, 9 Biosafety laboratories and
the heroic deeds of our ancestors. The National Institutes for Virology.
education should be imparted in the
vernacular so as to reach the largest 79. Answer: (b)
number of people. Aurobindo Ghose Explanation:
emphasised that although the students
The Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation
should remain connected to their own
of India Limited (DFCCIL) is a wholly owned
roots, they should also take the fullest
subsidiary (a special purpose vehicle) of
advantage of modern scientific discoveries
Indian Railways with the responsibility to
and Western experiments in popular
undertake planning, development, and
governments. Moreover, the students
mobilisation of financial resources and
should also learn some useful crafts so that
construction, maintenance, and operation
they could be able to find some moderately
of the "Dedicated Freight Corridors" (DFC).
remunerative employment after leaving
First 2 DFCs, Western Dedicated Freight
their schools.
Corridor (WDFC), from Uttar Pradesh to
Ghosh was a prominent leader who Mumbai and Eastern Dedicated Freight
participated in the Anti-Bengal movement Corridor (EDFC), Ludhiana in Punjab to
and supported the Swaraj and Swadeshi Dankuni in West Bengal, which will
ideology. decongest railway network by moving 70%
of India's goods train to these two
78. Answer: (c) corridors, are both on track for completion
Explanation: by June 2022.
Changes Introduced in The National
Health Mission –
• Support to rural and urban Health and
Wellness Centres
• Setting up of Integrated Public Health
Labs in all districts and block public
health units in 11 States
• Establishing critical care hospital
blocks in 602 districts.
• Strengthening of National Center for
Disease Control (NCDC) and its regional
branches and metropolitan health
surveillance units
• Expansion of integrated health 80. Answer: (c)
information portal Explanation:
• Operationalising of 17 new Public World Rule of Law Index –
Health Units and strengthening of 33 • Published by World Justice Project
existing Public Health Units at Points of • Rankings are based on experiences and
Entry, that is at Airports, Seaports and perceptions of the general public and
Land Crossings in-country legal practitioners and
experts worldwide.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 23
 • 128 countries are ranked in the index 82. Answer: (d)
based on 8 factors: Explanation:
I. Constraints on Governments Power Extinction Rebellion is a decentralised,
II. Absence of Corruption international and politically non-partisan
III. Open Government movement using non-violent direct action
and civil disobedience to persuade
IV. Fundamental Rights
governments to act justly on the Climate
V. Order and Security and Ecological Emergency.
VI. Regulatory Enforcement Extinction Rebellion is a global movement
VII. Civil Justice that uses non-violent civil disobedience in
VIII. Criminal Justice an attempt to halt mass extinction and
In the 2020 version of Index, India ranks minimise the risk of social collapse.
45 out of 128 countries. According to the In 2018, British activists assembled on
Index, India is relatively good at complying Parliament Square in London to announce
with processes, but lag in regulatory a Declaration of Rebellion against the UK
effectiveness. Government. The next few weeks were a
whirlwind. Six thousand rebels converged
on London to peacefully block five major
81. Answer: (c) bridges across the Thames. Trees were
Explanation: planted in the middle of Parliament Square,
Ayushman Bharat Programme – and hole was dug there to bury a coffin
Objective: to achieve the vision of representing our future. Rebels super-glued
Universal Health Coverage. themselves to the gates of Buckingham
Palace as they read a letter to the Queen.
Two components
The call to rebel swiftly became global, with
Health and Wellness Centre –
groups popping up the following week in
 Envisioned by National Health Policy, Europe, the US, and soon after the world
2017. Under this, 1.5 lakh centres will over. Leaderless and truly global, each new
be set and provide comprehensive group makes the movement stronger,
health care, including for non- bringing in new perspectives, wisdom,
communicable diseases and maternal expertise, energy and inspiration.
and child health services.
 Also provide free essential drugs and 83. Answer: (b)
diagnostic services. Explanation:
 Contributions through CSR and Red Snow in Antarctica – It is a
philanthropic institutions in adopting phenomenon caused by Chlamydomonas
these centres are also envisaged. Nivalis, a species of green algae containing
Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana a secondary red carotenoid pigment
(PMJAY) – (astaxanthin) in addition to chlorophyll.
 to reduce out of pocket hospitalization Unlike most species of fresh-water algae, it
expenses by providing health insurance is cryophilic (cold-loving) and thrives in
freezing water
coverage upto Rs.5 lakh/family/year for
secondary and tertiary care This alga species, Chlamydomonas Nivalis,
hospitalization. exists in snow in the polar and glacial
regions, and carries a red pigment to keep
 integrates two ongoing centrally
itself warm.
sponsored schemes Rashtriya Swasthya
What watermelon snow signals?
Bima Yojana (RSBY) and Senior Citizen
The more the algae packed together, the
Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS).
redder the snow. And the darker the tinge,

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 24
 the more the heat absorbed by the snow.
Subsequently, the ice melts faster.
While the melt is good for the microbes that
need the liquid water to survive and thrive,
it‘s bad for glaciers that are already melting
from a myriad of other causes.
These algae change the snow‘s albedo –
which refers to the amount of light or
radiation the snow surface is able to reflect
back. Changes in albedo lead to more
melting. In the melting of snow in the
Arctic, the key drivers have been snow and
ice albedo, according to a 2016 study in the
journal Nature.
84. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Government of India set up Bureau of
Energy Efficiency (BEE) in 2002 under the
provisions of the Energy Conservation Act,
2001.
The mission of the Bureau of Energy
Efficiency is to assist in developing policies
and strategies with a thrust on self-
regulation and market principles, within
the overall framework of the Energy
Conservation Act, 2001 with the primary
objective of reducing energy intensity of the
Indian economy.
Role of BEE: BEE co-ordinates with
designated consumers, designated agencies
and other organizations and recognize,
identify and utilize the existing resources
and infrastructure, in performing the
functions assigned to it under the Energy
Conservation Act. The Energy Conservation
Act provides for regulatory and promotional
functions.
Power and functions of Bureau –
1. The Bureau shall, effectively co-ordinate
with designated consumers, designated
agencies and other agencies, recognise
and utilize the existing resources and
infrastructure, in performing the
functions assigned to it by or under this
Act.
2. The Bureau may perform such
functions and exercise such powers as
may be assigned to it by or under this
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
Act and in particular, such functions
and powers include the function and
power to recommend to the Central
Government the norms for processes
and energy consumption standards
required to be notified under the act.
Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is
a market based compliance mechanism to
accelerate improvements in energy
efficiency in energy intensive industries.
The energy savings achieved by notified
industries is converted into tradable
instruments called Energy Saving
Certificates (ESCerts). The ESCerts after
issuance by Bureau of Energy Efficiency
are traded at Power Exchanges.
85. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Some of the major sources of Internal Debt
to the government are:
Treasury Bills: Instruments to raise short-
term loans
Dated Securities: Used for raising long term
loans
Ways and means advances (WMA):
Borrowings from the RBI to meet immediate
cash requirements which can arise due to
temporary mismatches in receipts and
expenditure.
Sovereign Gold Bonds: Government
securities denominated in terms of Gold.
Bank Recapitalization Bonds: Bonds issued
by the Government to raise loans for
undertaking recapitalization of Public
Sector Banks (PSBs) Securities issued
against NSSF: The money collected under
various small savings schemes such as
Post office.
86. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
USA is the largest trading partner of India
with total trade of $92 billion dollar. This is
followed by China at $ 81 billion.
With USA, India holds surplus of $23
billion and with China a deficit of $48
billion.
25
 Bhutan is the nation whose 95% of the  Provision of right of Residence with
trade in dependent on India. parents and immediate family members.
 Provision for formulation of welfare
87. Answer: (d) schemes and programmes for
Explanation: education, social security and health of
Transgender Persons.
Different monetary policy stances of the RBI
 Provision for National Council for
Accommodative Neutral Stance Calibrated
Stance Tightening Transgender Persons to advice, monitor
and evaluate measures for the
Accommodative Neutral stance Calibrated
stance means means the RBI Tightening protection of their rights.
RBI may reduce would have die stance means  Provision for medical care facility
the policy rates flexibility to either the RBI would including sex reassignment surgery and
to increase the increase or either keep hormonal therapy
money supply decrease the the rates
in the economy. policy rates by constant or
taking into increase the 89. Answer: (d)
account the rates. Explanation:
macroeconomic
conditions. The RBI enthused the markets with a new
programme – Government Securities
Under this Under this stance, Under this
stance, policy key policy rates stance, key
Acquisition Programme (G-SAP) – through
rates normally would move in policy rates which it will purchase government
decrease. either direction. either remain securities worth Rs 1 lakh crore in the first
unchanged or quarter of FY22. The RBI also announced
increase. that it will continue with a variable rate
Decrease in
reverse repo to suck excess liquidity. The
policy rates is
ruled out
plan is to enable a stable and orderly
evolution of the yield curve amidst
Usually, this Usually, this Usually, this
policy is policy is adopted policy is
comfortable liquidity conditions.
adopted when when the inflation adopted when In the backdrop of the government‘s
there is rate is stable. there are elevated borrowing for this year, which the
slowdown in the concerns of RBI has to ensure goes through without
economy, higher rate of causing disruption, G-SAP aims to provide
inflation,
more comfort to the bond market. At the
same time, since liquidity is already in a
88. Answer: (b) large surplus, RBI will continue with
Explanation: variable rate reverse repos at the short end.
The Transgender Persons (Protection of Mainly the government will benefit with G-
Rights) Act, 2019, has been enacted by SAP. Since the government has a massive
2020 in order to provide for protection of borrowing programme scheduled for FY22.
rights of transgender persons and their The RBI‘s endeavor is to keep the yield
welfare. down to lower the borrowing cost of the
Government.
The Act has following provisions:
 Non-discrimination against a
Transgender Person in educational 90. Answer: (d)
institutions, employment, healthcare Explanation:
services etc. Recently, Chak-Hao, the black rice of
 Recognition of identity of Transgender Manipur and the Gorakhpur terracotta
Persons and to confer upon them right have bagged the Geogrphical Indication (GI)
to self-perceived gender identity. tag.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 26
 Chak-Hao has also been used by 93. Answer: (a)
traditional medical practitioners as part of Explanation:
traditional medicine. Under Article 136 the Supreme Court is
Iconic products from Tamil Nadu – the authorised to grant in its discretion special
Dindigul lock and Kandangi sari – were leave to appeal from any judgement in any
also granted the Geographical Indication. matter passed by any court or tribunal in
the country (except military tribunal and
court martial). This provision contains the
91. Answer: (a) four aspects as under:
Explanation: (i) It is a discretionary power and
The topic of electoral reforms has been hence, cannot be claimed as a
taken up by numerous government matter of right.
committees in the recent past, including (ii) It can be granted in any judgement
but not limited to: whether final or interlocutory.
 Dinesh Goswami Committee on (iii) It may be related to any matter—
constitutional, civil, criminal, income
Electoral Reforms
tax, labour, revenue, advocates, etc.
 Vohra Committee Report
(iv) It can be granted against any court
 Indrajit Gupta Committee on State or tribunal and not necessarily
Funding of Elections against a high court (of course,
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had constituted except a military court).
an ―Expert Committee to Review the Extant Thus, the scope of this provision is very
Economic Capital Framework of the wide and it vests the Supreme Court with a
RBI‖ under the Chairmanship of Dr. Bimal plenary jurisdiction to hear appeals.
Jalan. On the exercise of this power, the Supreme
Court itself held that ‗being an exceptional
and overriding power, it has to be exercised
92. Answer: (b) sparingly and with caution and only in
Explanation: special extraordinary situations. Beyond
S.N. Desert Region that it is not possible to fetter the exercise
of this power by any set formula or rule‘.
1. Mojave Desert United States
2. Dasht-e Kavir Iran 94. Answer: (d)
3. Gobi Desert China and Explanation:
Mongolia The Kachin Hills are a heavily forested
group of highlands in the extreme north
4. Atacama Chile and Peru
eastern area of the Kachin
Desert
State of Myanmar. It consists of a series of
5. Thar Desert India and ranges running mostly in a N/S direction,
Pakistan including the Kumon Bum subrange of
which the highest peak is Bumhpa Bum,
6. Taklamakan China
one of the ultra-prominent
Desert
peaks of Southeast Asia.
7. Patagonian Argentina and
Desert Chile 95. Answer: (b)
8. Kalahari Botswana, Explanation:
Desert Namibia, South During a brief swing by Venus, NASA‘s
Africa Parker Solar Probe detected a natural radio
signal that revealed the spacecraft had

RAUSIAS-TS21E1046 27
 flown through the planet‘s upper
atmosphere. This was the first direct
measurement of the Venusian atmosphere
in nearly 30 years.
Parker Solar Probe is a part of NASA‟s
“Living with a Star” programme that
explores different aspects of the Sun-
Earth system. It is the first-ever mission
to "touch" the Sun.
It will assess the structure and dynamics of
the Sun's coronal plasma and magnetic
field, the energy flow that heats the solar
corona and impels the solar wind, and the
mechanisms that accelerate energetic
particles.
In order to unlock the mysteries of the
sun‘s atmosphere, Parker Solar Probe will
use Venus‘ gravity during seven flybys over
nearly seven years to gradually bring its
orbit closer to the sun.
96. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian
states including: Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and
Mizoram.
97. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The tradition and fascination for painting
started by Humayun was carried forward
by his illustrious son Akbar. The earliest
of his projects is the continuation of his
father‟s artistic legacy of Hamza Nama,
an illustrated account of the heroic
deeds of Hamza, the uncle of Prophet
Muhammad. In Hamza Nama painting,
Spies Attack the City of Kaymar (1567–82),
the space is sharply cut and divided so as
to facilitate visual reading of the narrative.
Akbar personally engaged with the artists,
and supervised and evaluated the artworks.
The Mughal painting under Akbar‟s
patronage depicted a variety of subjects,
including, detailed political conquests,
seminal court scenes, secular texts,
portraits of important men along with
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
Hindu mythologies, and Persian and
Islamic themes. Akbar‘s fascination for
Indian scriptures and regard for India
made him one of the most popular
emperors of the country.
In most of the paintings, produced from the
time that the Europeans were in contact
with the court of Akbar, it can be seen an
increasing preference for a category of
naturalism adapted to compliment the
growing diversity in medieval India.
Madonna and Child (1580) done in
opaque watercolour on paper is an
important early work of the Mughal
School of Painting in this context.
Madonna is an extraordinary theme, which
brings the Byzantine art, the European
classical and its Renaissance to the Mughal
atelier, where it is translated and
transformed into an entirely different visual
experience.
98. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Climate Budget Tagging (CBT) is a tool for
monitoring and tracking of climate-related
expenditures in the national budget
system. It provides comprehensive data on
climate-relevant spending, enabling
government to make informed decisions
and prioritize climate investments.
CBT enables public scrutiny on government
and donors‘ spending on tackling climate
change issues strengthening accountability
and transparency.
On the basis of technical assistance to
several countries in Asia-Pacific, UNDP has
prepared a guidance note and publication
that discusses of the main approaches and
challenges to coding and classifying public
expenditure with a climate change lens.
99. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is a four-
star general, just like the other chiefs, and
his pay and perquisites remain unchanged.
The CDS is also a key player in the nuclear
strategic forces. However, the CDS ―will not
28
 exercise any military command, including
over the three service chiefs.‖
The CDS is a four-star general, just like the
other chiefs, and his pay and perquisites
remain unchanged.
The CDS will oversee promotions, postings
and foreign assignments. Over the longer
haul, the CDS will also be responsible for
integrating the three forces at an
operational level for ―optimal utilisation of
resources.‖
100. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
REDD is the abbreviation for ―reducing
emissions from deforestation and forest
degradation‖, followed by REDD+, with the
―plus‖ referring to ―the role of conservation,
sustainable management of forests and
enhancement of forest carbon stocks in
developing countries‖.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1046
REDD+ is a proposed policy mechanism for
a post Kyoto 2012 Climate Change
Agreement.
It is a voluntary climate mitigation path
developed by Parties to the United Nations
Framework for Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC).
REDD+ is seen as complement to land use,
land use change and forestry projects that
also targets developing nations for
reductions in greenhouse gas emissions.
At its most basic level, it can be perceived
as a payment for ecosystems services
scheme.
It provides developing nations an economic
alternative to the more destructive use of
forest lands thereby providing developing
nations and their people a financial
incentive to keep their forests intact.
29