FIITJEE – (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - 1 QP Code: TEST - 5

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
BATCHES – All 212 3 batches ( X & A – lot)

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-06) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) Part-A (07-12) – Contains seven (06) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(ii) Part-B (01-06) contains Six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Moment of inertia of solid hemisphere of mass ‘M’ radius ‘R’ about an axis touching the
curved surface and parallel to the base (circular and flat surface)
7 2 13 13
(A) MR 2 (B) MR 2 (C) MR2 (D) MR2
5 5 20 10

1. C

2. The radius of a planet is R1 and a satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius R2. The
time period of revolution of satellite is T. Acceleration due to the gravitation of the planet at
its surface will be
42R3 R32 42R13 R13
(A) 2 22 (B) (C) (D)
T R1 4 2 T 2R12 T 2R22 4 2 T 2R 22

2. A

3. Three particles A, B and C are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of
side d at t = 0, each of the particles moves with constant speed u. A always has its velocity
along AB, B along BC and C along CA. Angular velocity of the line AB, at the time t,
 2d 
 0  t  3u 
 
u u 3 2u
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2d − 3ut 2d − 3ut d 3 − 3 3 ut

3. B

4. Two moving particles P and Q are 10 m apart at a certain

instant. The velocity of P is 8 m/s making an angle of 30° 6 m/sec
with the line joining P and that of Q is 6 m/s making an angle 30°
30° with PQ as shown in the figure. Then angular velocity of P 30° Q
P with respect to Q is
(A) 0 rad/s (B) 0.1 rad/s 8 m/sec
(C) 0.4 rad/s (D) 0.7 rad/s

4. D

5. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc and a circular ring of the same mass and
radius about a tangential axis parallel to the their planes is
(A) 6 : 5 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 5 : 6 (D) 5 : 6

5. D

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 3

6. A block with a square base measuring a × a and height h h

is placed on an inclined plane. The coefficient of friction
is . The inclination ‘’ of the plane is gradually
increased. The block will a
a
(A) topple before sliding if   . 
h
a
(B) topple before sliding if   .
h
(C) it can never topple.
(D) it can never slide.

6. A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. The magnitude of gravitational field at distance r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform
sphere of radius R and mass M are I1 and I2 respectively. Then
I1 r1 I1 r22
(A) if r1 R and r2 R (B) if r1 R and r2 R
I2 r2 I2 r12
I1 r1 I1 r12
(C) if r1 R and r2 R (D) if r1 R and r2 R
I2 r2 I2 r22

7. AB

8. Two objects of masses m and 4m are at rest at an infinite separation. They move towards
each other under mutual gravitational force of attraction. If G is the universal gravitational
constant. Then at separation r
(A) the total energy of the two objects is zero.
1
 10Gm  2
(B) their relative velocity of approach is   in magnitude.
 r 
4Gm2
(C) the total kinetic energy of the objects is .
r
(D) net angular momentum of both the particles is zero about any point.

8. ACD

9. If the sum of all forces acting on a body is zero, then

(A) the body must be in equilibrium. (B) the body may be in equilibrium.
(C) the body must be in partial equilibrium. (D) the body may be in partial equilibrium.

9. BC

10. The moment of inertia of a thin equilateral triangular A 3

plate ABC, of uniform thickness about an axis passing
2
through centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane
(A) I1 + I2
(B) I3 + I4 4
(C) I1 + I4
1
(D) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4  B
C
2
1

10. ABCD
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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 4

11. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making on angle  with horizontal. The
magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the
particle is at its maximum height ‘H’ is proportional to
(A) V3/2 (B) V3
3/2
(C) H (D) H3

11. BC

12. Particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v0 making an angel of 45° with horizontal.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection at its
maximum height is (where h = maximum height)
(A) Zero (B) mv3 / 2 g
(C) mv 02 / 4 2 g (D) m 2gh3

12. D

PART – B
(Numerical based)

1. A spacecraft is moving in a circular orbit around the Earth (Radius 6400 Km), at a height
of 300 km from the surface. To place the spacecraft in an elliptical orbit, the mechanical
energy of the spacecraft− Earth system is increased by 10.0%. If the spacecraft-earth
system had initial energy (−E0) and the total mechanical energy of the system after firing
the rocket will be –xE0, then find the value of x

1. 0.9

2. Consider a planet of radius r having density . A tunnel is dug

 kg/m3
inside it at a distance r/2 from it’s centre as shown in figure. An
object of mass m is left in the tunnel at the surface at t = 0, if the
r/2
magnitude of velocity of object at the centre of the tunnel is r
, then find the value of n.

2. 3.14
Range: 3.13 to 3.15

3. APB B
As situation shown in figure, the value of . Net r/2
CPB
P
gravitational field at point P is along the PC. r →
Uniform rod

g
C
2r

A
g = gravitational field at point P
due to rod

3. 2

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 5

4. Many particles are revolving around a fixed

sun, in circular orbits of different radius (R)
and different time period (T). To estimate the
mass of the sun, the orbital radius (R) and Log(R meter)

time period (T) of planets were noted. Then

log10T v/s log10R curve was plotted.
Sun
The curve was found to be approximately
straight line (as shown in figure) having y
intercept = 6.0 (neglect the gravitational 6.0
Log(T sec)
interaction among the planets
20
[Take G =  10−11 in MKS, 2 = 10]
3
Find the value of slope of the line

4. 0.67
Range: 0.66 to 0.68

5. Two particles, each of mass M and speed v, move as M v

shown. They simultaneously strike the ends of a uniform
rod of mass M and length d which is pivoted at its center.
M
The particles stick to the ends of the rod.
d
Find the ratio of total initial kinetic energy of the two Pivot
particles with the total loss in kinetic energy in the v M
collision of the two particles with the rod?

5. 7

axis
6. A square plate of mass M and edge L is shown in figure.
15°
The moment of inertia of the plate about the axis in the
plane of plate passing through one of its vertex making
11ML2 L
an angle 15° from horizontal is then value of ‘N’
4N
is
L

6. 6

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 6

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A ( g) ⎯⎯

→B ( g) + C ( g)
The rate constant of above reaction is 2  10–2 mol L–1 s–1, when the reaction starts with
0.4 mol L–1 concentration of the reactant. How much seconds is needed for 75%
completion of the reaction?
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 15 (D) 40

1. C

2. The half-life of a first order reaction is 2 minutes. What fraction of the reactant is left
unreacted after 8 minutes?
3 1
(A) (B)
4 4
1 1
(C) (D)
16 8
2. C

3. 2AB ( g) + B2 ( g) ⎯⎯
→ 2 AB2 ( g)
The rate of above elementary reaction is 4  10–2 mol L–1s–1 when the initial concentrations
of AB and B2 are 0.4 and 0.2 mol L–1 respectively. What will be the rate in mol L–1s–1 unit of
reaction if it starts with 0.2 M concentration of each of AB and B2 respectively.
(A) 10-4 (B) 10–2
(C) 10 -1
(D) 10–3
3. B
th
1
4. In a chemical reaction of the reactant molecules cross the energy barrier at 1200 K.
10
What is the activation energy of the reaction in kJ unit?
(A) 22.9 (B) 28.2
(C) 21.8 (D) 29.5
4. A
5. Under which of the following conditions, the rate constant of a first order reaction will have
the maximum value?
A = Frequency factor
Ea = Activation energy
T = Temperature
ET = Threshold energy of the reaction
(A) A = 0 and T = 0 (B) Ea =  and T = 0
(C) Ea = 0 and T =  (D) A = 0 and ET = 

5. C
6. The half-life of a first order reaction is x hour when the reaction starts with 0.8 M of if
reactant at 400 K. What will be the half-life if we take 0.2 M of reactant at 600 K.
(A) greater than x (B) equal to x
(C) lower than x (D) unpredictable
6. C

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 7

(Multi Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. CH4 ( g) + 2O2 ( g) ⎯⎯ → CO2 ( g) + 2H2O ( g)

The rate of above reaction is equal to
(A) the rate of consumption of CH4
1
(B) of the rate of decrease in concentration of O2
2
(C) the rate of formation of CO2
1
(D) of the rate of formation of H2O
2

7. ABCD

8. The rate equation of the following reaction is given as:

2 X ( g) + Y ( g) + 3 Z ( g) ⎯⎯
→Products
0.5 2
Rate = k[X][Y] [Z]
Choose correct statements from the following.
(A) the order of reaction with respect to X is 1
(B) the order of reaction with respect to. Y is 0.5
(C) the order of reaction with respect to Z is 2
(D) the overall order of the reaction is 3.5

8. ABCD

9. The energy profile of the following reaction is given below:

2X ( g) ⎯⎯
→ Y ( g)
Energy

Y(g)
X(g)

Progress of reaction
The correct statement(s) regarding the reaction is/are
(A) it is an endothermic reaction
(B) a reaction intermediate is formed
(C) two transition states are formed
(D) the reactant and the product have the same amount of energy

9. ABC

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 8

10. Which of the following graph(s) is/are correct for a zero order reaction?

(A) Rate (B) Half life

(t1/2 )

Conc. of reactant Initial conc. of reactant

(C) Rate (D) Rate

Constant
(k)
Temperature Rate constant(k)

10. ABD

11. The variation of log t1/2 and log[A]0 of a reaction is given below:

o
45
log t1/2

log [A]0

Choose correct statement(s) regarding the reaction

(A) The rate of reaction increases with time
(B) The unit of rate constant is mol L–1s–1
(C) The half-life depends on rate constant
(D) The rate of reaction decreases with progress of reaction

11. BC

12. H2O2 + H+ + I− ⎯⎯ →I2 + H2O

On investigation of the above reaction, the following results were obtained.
Initial conc. of reactant in M
Initial rate of formation of I2 in mol dm–3 s–1
[H2O2] [I–] [H+]
0.01 0.01 0.30 2  10–6
0.03 0.01 0.30 6  10–6
0.03 0.02 0.10 1.2  10–5
0.03 0.02 0.20 1.2  10–5
Choose the correct statement(s)
(A) The rate equation for the reaction is Rate = k[H2O2][I–].
(B) The reaction is zero order with respect to acid.
(C) The reaction is termolecular.
(D) The rate constant is 2  10–1 mol–2 dm6 s–1.

12. AB

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 9

PART – B
(Numerical based)

1. 2X ( g) + 4Y ( g) ⎯⎯→ 5Z ( g)
In above reaction, the concentration of Y decreases from 2 M to 0.4 M in two sec. What
will be the rate of overall reaction in mol L–1s–1 unit?

1. 0.2

2. P ( g) ⎯⎯→ Q ( g) + R ( g)
Above first order reaction starts with taking ‘P’ gas in a container. The pressure of P in the
container is 400 mm of Hg at certain temperature. The total pressure of the reaction
mixture after 20 min is found to be 600 mm of Hg. What is the half-life of P(g) in minute
unit?

2. 20

3. For the reaction A ( g) ⎯⎯→B ( g) .

Threshold energy of a reaction = 80 kJ.
Activation energy of forward reaction = 60 kJ
Enthalpy change of the reaction is = 10 kJ
What is the average energy of the product in kJ unit?

3. 30

4. The t½ of a chemical reaction containing one reactant(R) is expressed as

t1/2 = K R 0
2

Where K is a constant, not necessarily rate constant. What is the order of the reaction?

4. -1

5. The rate constant of a chemical reaction is 2  102 s–1. The frequency factor is
105 s–1 mol–1. What will be the activation energy of the reaction in Kcal unit at 1200 K?
[log 2 = 0.3]

5. 14.92 (Range 14.8 to 15)

6. A ( g) ⎯⎯→Product
The half-life of a second order reaction is 40 min when the reaction starts with 0.8 M
concentration of A(g). What will be the half-life in minute unit if the reaction starts with 0.4
M of reactant?

6. 80

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 10

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The roots of the equation zn = (z +1)n

(a) are vertices of a regular polygon (b) lie on a circle
(c) are collinear (d) lie on a ellipse

1. C


2. If 0  arg(z)  , then least value of 2 2z − 4i is
4
(A) 6 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 2

2. C

3. Total number of complex number ‘z’ satisfying z = 3,Re ( z ) = 3 / 2 and z + 1 − i = 2,

is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) none of these

3. D

4. The sum of integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5 is

(A) 2550 (B) 1050
(C) 3050 (D) none of these

4. C

5. Suppose a, b, c are in A. P. and a , b , c  1 . If x = 1 + a + a2 + ...... to ;

y = 1 + b + b + ........ to  and z = 1 + c + c + ........to  then x, y, z are in:
2 2

(A) A.P. (B) G.P.

(C) H.P. (D) none

5. C

6. If A, G and H are respectively the A.M., G.M. and H.M. of three positive numbers a, b and
c, then the equation whose roots are a, b and c is given by:
(A) x3 − 3Ax2 + 3G3 x − G3 (B) x 3 − 3Ax 2 + 3 ( G3 / H) x − G3 = 0
(C) x 3 + 3Ax 2 + 3 ( G3 / H) x − G3 = 0 (D) x 3 − 3Ax 2 − 3 ( G3 / H) x + G3 = 0

6. B

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 11

(Multi Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. The sides of a right triangle from a G.P. The tangent of the smallest angle is
5 +1 5 −1
(A) (B)
2 2
2 2
(C) (D)
5 +1 5 −1

7. BC

1 1 1
8. If , , are in A.P. and a, b, – 2c are in G.P. where a, b, c are non – zero, then
a b c
(A) a3 + b3 + c 3 = 3abc (B) −2a, b, − 2c are in A.P.
(C) −2a, b, − 2c are in G.P. (D) a2 ,b2 ,4c2 are in G.P.

8. ABD

9. If b1,b2 ,b3 (bi  0) are three successive terms of a G.P. with common ratio, r the value of r
for which the inequality b3  4b2 − 3b1 holds is given by
(A) r  3 (B) 0  r  1
(C) r = 3.5 (D) r = 5.2

9. ABCD

z +1
10. If is a purely imaginary number (where i = −1 ), then z lies on a
z+i
(A) straight line (B) circle
1
(C) circle with radius = (D) circle passing through the origin
2

10. BCD

11. If z + x + iy, where i = −1 , then the equation

( 2z − i) = m represents a circle, then m
( z + i)
can be
1
(A) (B) 1
2
(C) 2 (
(D)  3, 2 3 )
11. AD

12. If  is a complex constant, such that z2 + z +  = 0 has a real root, then
(A)  +  = 1 (B)  +  = 0
(C)  +  = −1 (D) the absolute value of real root is 1

12. ACD

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 12

PART – B
(Numerical based)


1. Let z − 4 = Re ( z ) . If greatest arg(z) = then k equal to ____________
k

1. 4

2. If z is a non-real root of 7
− 1 , then z86 + z175 +Z289 +5 is ____________.

2. 4

−
3. If ,  are two different complex numbers such that  = 1, then equals
1 − 
______________

3. 1

a b c
4. If a, b and c are positive real numbers then + + is greater than or equal to
b c a

4. 3

1 + 3 + 5 + ...... + upto n terms 20 1 1

5. If = and N = log10 x + log10 x 2 + log10 x 4
4 + 7 + 10 + ........upto n terms 7log10 x
1
+ log10 x 8 + ..... + , then x is equal to 10k , where k is equal to

5. 5

If S = 12 + 32 + 52 + ...... + ( 99 ) , then the value of the sum 22 + 42 + 62 + ...... + (100 ) is

2 2
6.
equal to S + N, where N is equal to

6. 5050

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IT−2023−(Common Test-5)-(PCM) 13

ANSWERS
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A

PART – B

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A

PART – B

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A

PART – B

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