MATH 403: Homework Chapter 15 Proof Solutions

1. Suppose φ is a 1-1 ring homomorphism from Z ⊕ Z to itself. What are the possibilities for
φ(1, 0)? Justify.
Proof: Let φ(1, 0) = (a, b). We know (1, 0)(1, 0) = (1, 0) and so φ(1, 0)φ(1, 0) = φ(1, 0), in
other words (a, b)(a, b) = (a, b). From this we know that (a2 , b2 ) = (a, b) and so a2 = a and
b2 = b. Since a2 = a we have a = 0 or a = 1 and the same for b. Thus so far there are four
possibilities for (a, b): (0, 0), (1, 0), (0, 1) and (1, 1).
• If φ(1, 0) = (0, 0) then φ(2, 0) = φ(1, 0) + φ(1, 0) = (0, 0) and so φ is not 1-1. We can
throw this out.
• If φ(1, 0) = (1, 1) then look at φ(0, 1). Let φ(0, 1) = (a, b) then (0, 0) = φ(0, 0) =
φ(1, 0)φ(0, 1) = (1, 1)(a, b) = (a, b) so φ(0, 1) = (0, 0) and a similar argument as the
previous part eliminates this possibility.
• We can have φ(1, 0) = (1, 0) using the 1-1 homomorphism φ(x, y) = (x, y)
• We can have φ(1, 0) = (0, 1) using the 1-1 homomorphism φ(x, y) = (y, x).
2. Find rings R and S, an ideal A of R and a ring homomorphism φ : R → S such that φ(A)
is not an ideal. You must prove that A is an ideal, that φ is a ring homomorphism and that
φ(A) is not an ideal.
Proof: Define φ : Z → Q by φ(x) = x. Since φ(x + y) = x + y = φ(x) + φ(y) and φ(xy) = xy =
φ(x)φ(y) we have a ring homomorphism. Then 2Z is an ideal of Z since x, y ∈ 2Z (so x = 2α
and y = 2β) and r ∈ Z has x − y = 2α − 2β = 2(α − β) ∈ 2Z and rx = r(2α) = 2rα ∈ 2Z.
However φ(2Z) = 2Z ⊂ Q is not an ideal of Q since for example 2 ∈ 2Z and 21 ∈ Q but
1
2 (2) = 1 6∈ Q.

3. (b) Show that φ : Z5 → Z30 given by φ(x) = 6x is a ring homomorphism.

Proof: We wish to show φ(x + y) = φ(x) + φ(y). Let x + y = 5q + r then observe
φ(x + y) = φ(r) = 6r = 6(x + y − 5q) = 6x + 6y − 30q = 6x + 6y = φ(x) + φ(y)
We wish to show φ(xy) = φ(x)φ(y). Let xy = 5q + r then observe
φ(xy) = φ(r) = 6r = 6(xy − 5q) = 6xy − 30q = 36xy = φ(x)φ(y)

4. Prove that C 6≈ R as rings.

Proof: Assume φ : C → R is an isomorphism. Take z ∈ C such that φ(z) = −2 ∈ R. Then √ we
know there is some w ∈ C with w2 = z and then φ(w)2 = φ(w2 ) = φ(z) = −2 so φ(w) = −2,
impossible in R.
√ 

5. Prove that Z −2 ≈ Z [x] / x2 + 2 as rings.
√ 
 √

Proof: Define φ : Z −2 → Z [x] / x2 + 2 by φ(a + b −2) = a + bx + x2 + 2 . Then


• φ is onto since every element in the quotient ring has the form a + bx + x2 + 2 and
√
φ(a + b −2) does the job.
√ √
2 
2 
• φ is 1-1 since if φ(a + b −2)

2 = φ(c
 + d −2) then a + bx + x + 2 = c + dx + x + 2
and so (a − c) + (b − d)x ∈ x + 2 and since the only polynomial in the ideal with degree
less than 2 is the 0-polynomial we must have a = c and b = d.
• φ preserves addition since
√ √ √
φ(a + b −2 + c + d −2) = φ((a + c) + (b + d) −2)
= (a + c) + (b + d)x + x2 + 2



= a + bx + x2 + 2 + c + dx + x2 + 2



√ √
= φ(a + b −2) + φ(c + d −2)
 • φ preserves multiplication since
√ √ √
φ((a + b −2)(c + d −2)) = φ((ac − 2bd) + (ad + bc) −2)
= (ac − 2bd) + (ad + bc)x + x2 + 2



= ac + (ad + bc)x + bdx2 + x2 + 2



= a + bx + x2 + 2 c + dx + x2 + 2





√ √
= φ(a + b −2)φ(c + d −2)

6. Show that a homomorphism from a field onto a ring with more than one element must be an
isomorphism.
Proof: Assume φ : F → R is a homomorphism which is onto and R has more than one
element. By the First Isomorphism Theorem we know F/Ker φ ≈ R. In a field F the only
ideals are {0} and F itself thus Ker φ is one of these. If Ker φ = {F } then the FIT gives
F/F ≈ R or {0} ≈ R, impossible since R has more than one element. Thus Ker φ = {0} and
the FIT gives F/{0} ≈ R given by x + {0} 7→ φ(x) being an isomorphism. Thus φ is.