Q1. In the context of disputed territory of Kalapani, consider the following statements.

1. River Mahakali flows through Kalapani, a disputed territory between India and Nepal.
2. Rive Mahakali is a tributary of Ganga.
3. Treaty of Sagauli was signed between India and Nepal which designated Mahakali as
the western border of Nepal.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Kalapani is a 35 square kilometer area, which is claimed by both India and Nepal. River
Mahakali, earlier known as River Kali, flows through Kalapani, which is situated on the eastern
bank of the river.

Mahakali is a tributary of Ghaghra, which is further a tributary of Ganges.

In 1816, the East India Company and Nepal signed the Treaty of Sagauli (NOT INDIA) to mark
out Nepal’s western border. The treaty defined river Mahakali as the western border of
Nepal. River Mahakali has several tributaries, all of which merge at Kalapani. India claims that
the river begins in Kalapani as this is where all its tributaries merge.

Also remember that Mahakali Treaty was signed in 1996 by India and Nepal for integrated
development of Mahakali River.

Q2. Consider the following statements.

 1. Trademark Act 1999 empowers the Central Government for making hallmarking of
gold jewellery and artefacts.
2. Hallmarking of Gold and other precious metals falls under Ministry of Consumer
Affairs.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Union Minister for Consumer Affairs announced that Notification for mandatory
Hallmarking of Gold Jewellery & Artefacts across the nation will be issued on 15th January
2020 giving one-year time period for implementation.

The Minister said that hallmarking will benefit the poor people in villages and small towns
who are not able to make out the purity of gold they have been buying.

The BIS (Bureau of Indian standards) Act 2016 has enabling provisions under Section 14 &
Section 16 for making hallmarking of gold jewellery and artefacts mandatory by the Central
Government. This will make it compulsory for all the jewellers selling gold jewellery and
artefacts to register with BIS and sell only hallmarked Gold jewellery and artefacts.
Also learn few things about Bureau of Indian Standard Act, 2016.

This Act functions under Ministry of Consumer Affairs.

Check here who is the ex-officio President of Bureau:

Link: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=195199

Q3. With respect to Landslides, consider the following statements.

1. India’s Landslides prone areas are concentrated only in North and North- Western
India.
2. 1st International Conference on “Landslides Risk Reduction and Resilience 2019” was
inaugurated by National Institute of Disaster management, a statutory body under
Ministry of Home Affairs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b
Explanation:

The National Centre of Disaster Management (NCDM), constituted under an Act of

Parliament in 1995; was re-designated to give the present name of National Institute of
Disaster Management (NIDM) by the Disaster Management Act 2005 passed by President of
India on 9 January 2006. It is a statutory body.
Both as a national Centre and then as the national Institute, NIDM has performed a crucial
role in bringing disaster risk reduction to the forefront of the national agenda. The Institute
believes that disaster risk reduction is possible only through promotion of a "Culture of
Prevention" involving all stakeholders.

NIDM provides Capacity Building support to various National and State level agencies in the
field of Disaster Management & Disaster Risk Reduction. The Institute's vision is to create a
Disaster Resilient India by building the capacity at all levels for disaster prevention and
preparedness.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1594071

Q4. In the context of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union
territories) Act, 2019, consider the following statements.

1. The Bill amends the First Schedule of Indian Constitution to merge the territories of
the two UTs.
2. After the merger now, total no. of Union Territories in India has become 8.
3. The Act seeks to amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to allocate two
Lok Sabha seats to the merged UT.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Its RPA, 1950, not 1951.

Key features of the Act include:

a. The First Schedule to the Constitution specifies the territories that come under
various states and UTs. The Bill amends the First Schedule to merge the territories of
the two UTs: (a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and (b) Daman and Diu. The merged
territory will form the UT of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
b. Article 240(1) of the Constitution allows the President to make regulations for certain
UTs, including the UTs of Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu. The Bill
amends the Article to replace these two UTs with the merged UT.
c. Representation in Lok Sabha: The First Schedule to the Representation of the People
Act, 1950 (NOT 1951) provides one seat in Lok Sabha to each of the two UTs. The Bill
seeks to amend the Schedule to allocate two Lok Sabha seats to the merged UT.
d. Jurisdiction of High Court: The Bill provides that the jurisdiction of the High Court of
Bombay will continue to extend to the merged UT.
After merger, there are 8 UTs now.

Andaman and Nicobar, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu and Dadar and Nagar Haveli, Delhi,
Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Lakshadweep, Puducherry

Q5. Recently, Researchers have found an aquatic environment on the Earth with complete
absence of any form of life. According to the researchers, the study helps in understanding
the limits of habitability and presents evidence that there are places even on Earth's surface
which are sterile though they contain liquid water. This unique, terrestrial hydrothermal
system aquatic environment was found at:

a. Dead Sea
b. Dallol geothermal field in Ethiopia
c. Atlantic Ocean
d. Western Siberia

Solution: b

Explanation:

Very unique thing found. This becomes important. And news appeared in All India Radio.
Q6. In the context of India, consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha.

1. Government of India Act, 1919 provided that the Indian Legislature shall consist of
two chambers, namely the Council of State and the House of Assembly.
2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the first Vice-President of India and the first Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha.
3. One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha shall retire on the expiration of every year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

In India, a Second Chamber was envisaged for the first time under the Montague Chelmsford
Reforms proposals. The Government of India Act, 1919 accordingly, provided that the Indian
Legislature shall consist of the Governor-General and the two chambers, namely the Council
of State and the House of Assembly.
Third statement is incorrect.

Q7. Which of the following were the demands of Moderates to British Government in Indian
freedom struggle?

1. The Moderates asked for self-government and increase in membership and powers of
Legislative Councils.
2. Reduction in land revenue and protection of peasants against unjust demands of the
zamindars
3. They demanded the introduction of the system of direct elections and an increase in
the number of members and powers of the Legislative Council
4. Abolition of the salt tax and the duty on sugar.

Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c
Explanation:

The Moderates didn’t ask for Self-Government.

You will read the entire four images given below. After reading you can solve these questions
confidently.
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding Dhrupad, one of the vocals associated with
Hindustani Music.

1. Dhrupad style largely consists of huge number of females.

2. Dhrupad reached its zenith under the court of Emperor Akbar.
3. Brij bhasha is largely used in the Dhrupad style.

Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

Apart from your basic learning from Ancient part, just keep learning whatever comes in the
way. Dhrupad came on your way today. So, learn Dhrupad.
Dhrupad style of singing is traditionally performed by men with a tanpura and pakhawaj
(musical instruments). The lyrics sung in Dhrupad are in a medieval form of Hindi and
typically heroic in theme or in praise of a particular deity.

It is one of the oldest forms of Hindustani classical music.

Dhrupad consolidated its position as a classical form of music in the 13th century and it
reached its zenith in the court of Emperor Akbar.

He employed and patronized musical masters like BabaGopal Das, Swami Haridas and
Tansen, who was considered to be one of the Navratans or nine gems of the Mughal court.
Link: https://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/7570/9/09_chapter%205.pdf

Q9. With reference to the coalbed methane (CBM), consider the following statements:

1. Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH), Ministry of Coal, nominated as Nodal

agency for promoting CBM in India.
2. The Damodar Koel valley and Son valley are prospective areas for CBM development.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither r 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Four important things here:

a. What is CBD?
b. Any policy regarding CBD in policy?
c. Ministry as implementing agency
d. CBD zones in India
In 1997 Government of India made Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas as the administrative
Ministry for CBM and Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) nominated as Nodal
agency for promoting CBM in India.

The Gondwana sediments of eastern India host the bulk of India’s coal reserves and all the
current CBM producing blocks. The vast majority of the best prospective areas for CBM
development are in eastern India, situated in Damodar Koel valley and Son valley.
In order to harness CBM potential in the country, the Government of India formulated CBM
policy in 1997 wherein CBM being Natural Gas is explored and exploited.

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation (DICGC).

1. It is a statutory body wholly under subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India.

2. Foreign banks functioning in India and regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC.
3. Insurance limit for each depositor in a bank is capped at Rs.1 lakh, including both
principal and interest amounts.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:

The Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21,
1961. After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the President on
December 7, 1961 and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on January 1, 1962.
All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area
banks and regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC. At present all co-operative banks
are covered by the DICGC.

Q11. Consider the following statements.

1. Per capita energy consumption of electricity has consistently increased for last three
years (2017-2018)
2. In India, the highest per capita consumption is in Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Per capita consumption has been consistently increasing from 2005-06.

In India, the highest per capita consumption in 2018-19 is in Dadra and Nagar Haveli, at
15,179 kWh (VERY DIFFICULT TO BEAT THIS NUMBER, SO REMEMBER THIS ONLY). The Union
Territory is followed by the states of Gujarat (2,378), Goa (2,274), Haryana (2,082) and
Punjab (2,046). The state with the lowest per capita consumption of electricity is Bihar, at
311 kWh, followed by the Northeastern states of Assam (341), Nagaland (356), Manipur
(371) and Tripura (514).

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/telling-numbers-indians-use-1181-kwh-
electricity-per-capita-wide-gap-among-states-6135082/

Q12. With reference to the ‘review petition’, consider the following statements:

1. Supreme Court has the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
2. A review petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order
3. It is necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it.
Which of the above provisions is/are mentioned in Indian Constitution?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Article 137 of the Constitution gives Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments
or orders. The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not
“minor mistakes of inconsequential import”. In a 2013 ruling, the Supreme Court itself laid
down three grounds for seeking a review of a verdict it has delivered —

a. the discovery of new and important matter or evidence which was not within the
knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him;
b. mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; or
c. any other sufficient reason which means a reason that is analogous to the other two
grounds.

The next two are not the part of Indian Constitution.

Second statement.
As per 1996 rules framed by the Supreme Court, a review petition must be filed within 30
days of the date of judgment or order. This statement is correct but not part of Indian
Constitution. So, statement 2 is wrong.

Third statement:
It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per
the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can
seek a review. However, the court does not entertain every review petition filed. It exercises
its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the
review. Third statement is neither correct not part of Constitution

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/supreme-court-babri-masjid-ram-temple-
review-petition-6135075/

Q13. In the context of Conference of Governors in India, consider the following statements.
 1. The concept of Conference of Governors was introduced in 2014 to frame the
responsibilities of Governors in the development of State.
2. Conference of Governors is an annual event presided by Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

If you have read newspaper, you know very well, 50 such Conference happened in 2019. So,
there is no chance that the concept started in 2014.

The Conference of Governors has a tradition almost as old as Independence. The first
Conference of Governors was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan in 1949 which was presided over by
Shri C. Rajagopalachari, Governor General of India. Since then, 50 such Conferences have
been organized in Rashtrapati Bhavan.

It is presided by President, NOT PRIME MINISTER.

Not more than this is required. Go through the link given below.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1593298

Q14. Consider the following statements.

1. India is the leader in the global ship recycling industry, with a share of over 30% of the
market.
2. Currently, India has no law regulate the Recycling of Ships in India.
3. Recently, India acceded to Tokyo International Convention for Safe and
Environmentally Sound Recycling of Ships.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a

Explanation:

When you have three statements, and one such statement contains number or facts, it has
high probability question can be solved easily with other two options. Here statement one has
number (30 percent), so it can be solved if you know other two statements, IF YOU KNOW
OTHER TWO.

The Bill (below) restricts the use of hazardous material on ships and regulates the recycling of
ships. India has formulated law to regulate recycling of ships.

Second, it is Hong Kong Convention, NOT TOKYO.

Please read the bill from the link given below. It will take time, but final preparation will be
good.

Link: https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/recycling-ships-bill-2019

Q15. The Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was recently passed in
Parliament to bring changes in the composition of Trust which manages National Memorial.
As per the new Amendment Act, who is the chairperson of the Trust?
 a. Governor of Punjab
b. Chief Minister of Punjab
c. President of the Indian National Congress
d. Prime Minister

Solution: d

Explanation:

This type of Bill we neglect, and worst part is UPSC knows this well. Can play with you. Only
two points in the Act. Just see below.

The Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial (Amendment) Bill, 2019 amends the Jallianwala Bagh
National Memorial Act, 1951. The Act provides for the erection of a National Memorial in
memory of those killed or wounded on April 13, 1919, in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar. In
addition, it creates a Trust to manage the National Memorial.

Q16. Consider the following Pairs.

Organizations Founders

1. Swatantra party C. Rajagopalachari

2. Republican Party of India BR Ambedkar

 3. Home Rule League in Bombay Annie Besant
Presidency

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

The Swatantra Party was an Indian classical liberal political party, that existed from 1959 to
1974. It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in reaction to what he felt was the Jawaharlal
Nehru-dominated Indian National Congress's increasingly socialist and statist outlook.

The Republican Party of India (RPI), often called the Republican Party or simply Republican) is
a political party in India. It has its roots in the Scheduled Castes Federation led by B. R.
Ambedkar.
 Organizations Founders

1. Swatantra party C Rajagopalachari

2. Republican Party of India. BR Ambedkar

3. Home Rule League in Bombay Tilak

Presidency

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding Sri Adi Shankaracharya.

1. Adi Shankaracharya established Mathas to promote the Vedic religion under the
supervision of his disciples
2. Doctrine of Kevaladvaitavada (Absolute Monism) or Vivartavada (Unreal appearance)
was given by Adi Shankaracharya.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:
Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/govardhan-math-not-in-odisha-
government-purview/article29993764.ece

Q18. Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEA Fund) was see in news recently. It was
established by:

a. NITI Aayog
b. Ministry of Human Resource Department
c. Ministry of Finance
d. RBI

Solution: d

Explanation:

Just know basic about Fund.

RBI released guidelines on the criteria for registering institutions ‘on tap’ for grant of financial
assistance from the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEA Fund). Section 26A in the
Banking Regulation Act, 1949 empowers the RBI to establish Depositor Education and
Awareness Fund (DEA Fund).
Link: https://www.business-standard.com/article/news-cm/rbi-releases-guidelines-on-
criteria-for-on-tap-for-grant-of-financial-assistance-119111500847_1.html

Q19. With reference to the Asia-Pacific Rural and Agricultural Credit Association (APRACA),
consider the following statements:

1. It is an ASEAN organization on rural and agricultural finance that helps promote

welfare of the rural poor in the Asia-Pacific region.
2. India is a member of this group.

Select the correct code.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation:

NO ROLE OF ASEAN HERE.

Link: https://www.apraca.org/birth-of-apraca/

Q20. Integrated check post (ICP) in India is managed by:

a. Ministry of Defence
b. Borders Road Organizations (BRO)
c. National Highways Authority of India
d. Land Ports Authority of India

Solution: d

Explanation:
The Land Ports Authority of India or LPAI is a statutory body (created through the Land Ports
Authority of India Act, 2010) working under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of
India is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing border infrastructure
in India.