Physics Aptitude MCQs (DICC)

APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 1)
1. The SI standard of time is based on:
A. the daily rotation of the earth
B. the frequency of light emitted by Kr86
C. the yearly revolution of the earth about the sun
D. none of these
2. A nanosecond is:
A. 109s B. 10−9s
C. 10−10s D. 10−10s
3. The SI standard of length is based on:
A. the distance from the north pole to the equator along a meridian
passing through Paris
B. wavelength of light emitted by Hg198
C. a precision meter stick in Paris
D. the speed of light
4. In 1866, the U. S. Congress defined the U. S. yard as exactly
3600/3937 international meter.
This was done primarily because:
A. length can be measured more accurately in meters than in yards
B. the meter is more stable than the yard
C. this definition relates the common U. S. length units to a more
widely used system
D. there are more wavelengths in a yard than in a meter
5. Which of the following is closest to a yard in length?
A. 0.01 m B. 0.1 m
C. 1m D. 100 m
E. 1000 m
6. There is no SI base unit for area because:
A. an area has no thickness; hence no physical standard can be
built
B. we live in a three (not a two) dimensional world
- C. it is impossible to express square feet in terms of meters
D. area can be expressed in terms of square meters
7. The SI base unit for mass is:
A. gram B. pound
C. kilogram D. ounce
8. A gram is:
A. 10−6kg B. 10−3kg
C. 1 kg D. 103kg
9. Which of the following weighs about a pound?
A. 0.05 kg B. 0.5 kg
C. 5 kg D. 50 kg
10. The number of significant figures in 0.00150 is:
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
11. 1 mi is equivalent to 1609 m so 55 mph is:
A. 15 m/s B. 25 m/s
C. 66 m/s D. 88 m/s
E. 1500 m/s
12. Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the
dimension L/T. Then Bhas the dimension:
A. T/M B. L2/TM
C. TM/L2 D. L2T/M
13. Suppose A = BnCm where A has dimensions LT, B has dimensions
L2T−1, and C has dimensions LT2
Then the exponents n and m have the values:
A. 2/3; 1/3 B. 2; 3
C. 4/5; −1/5 D. 1/5; 3/5
14. Error occurs due to negligence and inexperience of a person is:
A. Systematic Error B. Random Error
C. Personal Error D. None
15. Error in measurement may occur due to
A. Inexperience of a person B. The faulty apparatus
C Inappropriate method D. Due to all reasons in A, B and C
16. In any measurement the significant figures are
A. All accurately known and all doubtful digits
B. Only accurately known digits
C. Only doubtful digits
D. All accurately know digits and the first doubtful digit
17. 75.560 is round off as:
A 75.6 B 75.7
C 76.00 D None
18. Absolute uncertainties are added in followingoperations:
A Multiplication B Division
C Subtraction D None
19 An accurate measurement is one which has less
A Precision B Absolute uncertainty
C Fractional uncertainity D None
20 If = 10.5 ± 0.1 and = 26.8 ± 0.1,then = − is given as:
A 16.3 ± 0.1 B 16.3 ± 0.2
C 16.1 ± 0 D 16.3 ± 0
21 Smaller is the least count of the instrument, more isthe measurement:
A. Accurate B. Precise
C. Accurate and precise D. None of these
22. Which is a correct record for the diameter of wirewhen measured my a
screw gauge of least count 0.001cm:
A 2.3 cm B 2.31 cm
C 2.312 cm D 2.3124 cm
23. Which one of the following is not regarded as afundamental quantity in
Physics?
A Length B Mass
C Time D Weight
24. The dimensions of torque are:
A [ML-1L] B [ML-2L-1]
C [ML2L-2] D [MLT-1]
25. Dimensions for acceleration due to gravity is
A [MLT-2] B [M0LT-2]
C [MLT-1] D [ML2T-1]
26. As F= 6πɳrv , the dimension of coefficient ofviscosity is

A [ML-1T-1] B [ML-1T-2]
C [M-1T-2L-1] D [MLT-2]
27. [M0L0T-1] refers to quantity
A Velocity B Time period
C Frequency D Force
28. The dimension of the following pair is not the same
A work & energy B work and torque
C Momentum & impulse D Mass & moment of inertia
29. Unit of G is ?
A Nm2kg2 B N m2kg
C N m2kg-2 D None
30. The dimension of force is
A MLT-1 B MLT-2
C ML-1T D ML-1T2
31. ML-1T-2is the dimension of
A Force B Pressure
C Momentum D Energy
32. A light year is a unit for
A Time B Distance
C Velocity D Time period
33. The dimensional formula for the quantity light yearis:
A [M0T0L] B [ML-2]
C [ML0T] D [M0L0T0]
34. The dimensions of stain are
A [MLT2] B [ML-2T]
C [MoLoTo] D [M-1L-1T-1]
35. How many years in one second?
A 3.1 × 10 years B 3.1 × 10 years
C 3.1 × 10 years D 3.1 × 10 years
36. Which of the following is a derived quantity:
A Force B Mass
C Length D Time
37 Which of the following is SI base unit?
A gram B slug
C Newton D kilogram
38 Which one of the following is not a unit of length:
A Angstrom B Micron
C Radian D Light year
39 Which is not a base unit in SI units?
A Kilogram B Joule
C Ampere D Kelvin
40 An example of derived unit is
A Candela B Ampere
C Coulomb D Mole
41. Candela is the SI unit of
A Charge B Luminous intensity
C Power D Refractive index
42. An alternate unit to is
A Js B Ns
C Nm D N
43. The SI units of pressure in terms of base units are
A kg m-1s-2 B kg m-1s-3
C kg ms-2 D kg m2s-2
44. The SI unit of plane angle is
A Steradian B Radian
C Degree D Candela
45 Steradian is the angel which lies in:
A One dimension B Two dimensions
C Three dimensions D None
46. Zero to the right of non-zero digits are:
A Significant B Not significant
C May or may not be significant D None.
47. What is the number of significant figures in themeasurement recorded
as 8.70 × 10?
A 1 B 3
C 4 D 7
48 Zero is not significant only if it
A Lies to the left of a significant digit
B is between two digits
C is to the right of a significant digit
D is before the decimal point
49 The sum of the three numbers, 2.7543, 4.10 and 1.273, up to correct
decimal places is
A 8.1 B 8.13
C 8.1273 D 8.127
50. What is the number of significant figures in the measurement recorded
as 8.70 × 104kg ?
A 1 B 3
C 4 D 7
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 1)
Answer Key
1 D 11 B 21 B 31 B 41 B
2 B 12 A 22 C 32 B 42 B
3 D 13 D 23 D 33 A 43 A
4 C 14 C 24 C 34 C 44 B
5 C 15 D 25 B 35 C 45 C
6 B 16 A 26 A 36 A 46 A
7 C 17 A 27 C 37 D 47 B
8 B 18 C 28 C 38 C 48 A
9 D 19 C 29 C 39 B 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 2)
1. The vector which represents the direction of a normal drawn on a
specified surface is:
A.
B.
C. +
D.
2. Position vector of point in y-z plane is given by:
A. r= x +y +z
B. r= x +y
C. r= x +z
D. r= y +z
3. If the position of two airplanes at any instant is givenby two points A(
2,3,4) and B (5,6,7) from origin in km, then distance between position
of two airplanes will be:
A. 4.8km
B. 5km
C. 5.2km
D. 5.4km
4. The resultant magnitude of two forces 6N and 8N acting at right angle to
each other is
A. 10N
B. 2N
C. 14N
D. 8N
5. If the resultant of two vectors each of magnitude F is also of magnitude
F then the angle between them will be:
A. 30o
B. 600
C. 900
D. 1200
6. If = 2 - -2 then A magnitude is:

A. -1
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
7. If . = 0 then
A. Vectors are parallel
B. Vectors are antiparallel
C. Vectors are perpendicular
D. Vectors are equal
E.
8. The angle between + 3 -2 and - – is:
A. 00
B. 450
C. 900
D. 1800
9. The unit of torque is:
A. Nm
B. J
C. Nm-1
D. Both a and b
10. When second condition is satisfied then there is:
A. No angular acceleration
B. Angular acceleration
C. Translational acceleration
D. Rotational acceleration
UNDERSTANDING BASED MCQS
11. The dimensions of torque are:
A. [MLT-1]
B. [ML2T-1]
C. [MLT-2]
D. [ML2T-2]
12. Two vectors are =3 +2 – and

=-3 -2 + then
A. is parallel to
B. is negative vector of
C. has negative magnitude
D. is perpendicular to
13. Torque acting on a uniformly rotating body is:
A. Constant > zero
B. Zero
C. More in fast rotation
D. Less in slow rotation
14. Two forces of magnitude F1 and F2 acting at right angle to each other
have the resultant of the magnitude:
A. F1 + F2
B. F12 + F22
C.
D. 2F1 + 2F2
15. If = then which of the following is not correct?

A. . = .
B. =
C. =
D. A = B
16.A vector 1 is along x axis, if 1. 2 is zero then F2 is:

A. +
B. –( + )
C. 4 +
D. -4
17. In self cross product, the angle is:
A. 00
B. 450
C. 900
D. 1800
18.If . = 0 and x = then and are:

A. Parallel to each other
B. Perpendicular to each other
C. Both are null vectors
D. Either or is a null vector

19. If magnitude of scalar product and vector products are same, then the
angle between them is:
A. 300
B. 450
C. 600
D. 1800
20. The resultant of two equal forces is double of either of the force. The
angle between them is:
A. 00
B. 600
C. 900
D. 1200
21. If Ax = Ay then the angle vector A makes with x axis is:
A. 600
B. 900
C. 1800
D. 00
22. Which of the following is the unit of energy?
A. Kilowatt
B. Electron volt
C. Js-1
D. Watt
23. Which of the following pair has same dimensions?
A. Tension, surface tension
B. Moment of force, momentum
C. Impulse, momentum
D. Torque, momentum
24. If the line of action of force passes through the axis of rotation then the
torque is:
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. rFsinθ
25. The magnitude of .( x ) is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. 2
APPLICATION BASED MCQS
26. If =A , = A then x is:

A.
B. A2
C. A2
D. A2
27. The rain is vertically falling with a speed of 4ms-1 and the man is
moving due east with the speed of 3ms-1. With what speed, it appears
to be coming to man?
A. 5ms-1
B. 1ms-1
C. 7ms-1
D. 3ms-1
28. If and are unit vectors along + and - then the angle between
and is:
A. 600
B. 450
C. 900
D. 1200
29. If , and satisfy the relations . = 0 and . = 0 then vector is

parallel to:
A. .
B.
C.
D. x
30.If . = 0 then x =?
A. 0
B.
C. A
D. AB
31.If = 3 and = 4 , where A and B being sides of the
parallelogram, the area of the parallelogram is:
A. 12 units
B. 7 units
C.
D.
32. .( x ) + .( x ) =?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. -1
33. At what angle should be the two forces 2P and P act so that the
resultant force is P ?
A. 450
B. 600
C. 900
D. 1200
34. Given that 0.2 + 0.6 + a is a unit vector. What is the value of a?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.If + + and A2 + B2 = C2 then the angle between and is
A. 00
B. 300
C. 450
D. 900
36.A particle of mass 2kg moves under a force (4 + 6 +8 ). The after 4s
will be:
A. 16 -4 +20
B. 24 +16 +20
C. 16 +24 +32
D. 24 -20 +16
2 2
37. + =
A. A2
B. B2
C. A2B2
D. A2B2
E.
38.A clock has a minute hand 10cm long. The average velocity between
6:00 A.M to 6:30 A.M will be:
A. 2/3 cm/min
B. 3/2 cm/min
C. 5/3 cm/min
D. 2/5 cm/min
39. To get a resultant displacement of 10m, two displacement vectors, one
of magnitude 6m and another of 8mshould be combined:
A. At angle of 600
B. Perpendicular to each other
C. Parallel
D. Antiparallel
40. Two forces of 4N and 3N act upon a body, the resultant force can only
be:
A. Between 3N and 4N
B. More than 3N
C. Between 1N and 7N
D. Less than 3N
41.If = , then what is the angle between + and - ?

A. 900
B. 600
C. 300
D. 1800
42. The magnitude of vector product is √3 times their scalar product, the
angle between vectors is:
A. 900
B. 600
C. 300
D. 450
43. The vector + is a:

A. Null vector
B. Vector of magnitude
C. Vector of magnitude
D. Unit vector
44. If the component of vector along y axis is , the angle made by

vector with the horizontal is:
A. 300
B. 450
C. 37 0
D. 600
45.(2 - 2 ) x (2 +2 ) = ?
A. 4 - 5
B. -21
C. 0
D. 20
46.A door requires a minimum torque of 32.5Nm in order to open it. What
is the minimum distance of the handle from the hinge if the door is to
be pulled open with the force at the handle not greater than 50N?
A. 0.33m
B. 0.65m
C. 0.71m
D. 1.54m
47. The centre of gravity of the cylinder is:
A. Point of intersection of the medians
B. Central point of axis
C. Point of intersection of diagonals
D. Centre of parallelogram
48. Two ships X and Y are travelling in different directions at equal speeds.
The actual direction of motion of X is due north but to an observer on
Y, the apparent direction of motion of X is north-east. The actual
direction of motion of Y as observed from the shore will be:
A. East
B. West
C. South-east
D. South-west
49. Projection of vector =2 -8 + in the direction of vector =3 -4

- 12 is:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
50.A force F = 2 + 3 units, has its point of application moved from A(1,3)
to the point B(5,7), the work done is:
A. 12 units
B. 16 units
C. 20 units
D. 22 units
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 2)
1 B 11 D 21 B 31 A 41 A
2 D 12 B 22 B 32 B 42 B
3 C 13 B 23 C 33 A 43 D
4 A 14 C 24 C 34 C 44 D
5 D 15 A 25 B 35 D 45 D
6 C 16 A 26 C 36 C 46 B
7 C 17 A 27 A 37 D 47 B
8 C 18 D 28 C 38 A 48 B
9 A 19 B 29 D 39 B 49 A
10 A 20 A 30 D 40 C 50 C
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 3)
1. A body covering equal displacement in equal interval of time

possesses:
A Variable velocity B Uniform acceleration
C Uniform velocity D None of above
2. Instantaneous and average velocities become equal when body:
A Has zero acceleration B Has uniform velocity
C Has variable velocity D Moves in a circle
3. When velocity time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis then:
A Acceleration is const B Acceleration is variable
C Acceleration is zero D Velocity is zero
4. Slope of velocity time graph is:
A Acceleration B Distance
C Force D Momentum
5. The area between the velocity-time graph and the time axis is
numerically equal to:
A Velocity B Distance
C Time D Acceleration
6. If the slop of velocity-time graph gradually decreases, then the body is
said to be moving with:
A Positive acceleration B Negative acceleration
C Uniform velocity D Variable velocity
7. If the slop of velocity-time graph gradually increases, then the body is
said to be moving with:
A Positive acceleration B Negative acceleration
C Uniform velocity D Variable velocity
8. What is the shape of velocity time graph for constant acceleration?
A Straight line B Parabola
C Inclined curve D Declined curve
9. When the object is moving towards earth, the value of “g” is taken as:
A Positive B Negative
C Zero D None
10. Change in momentum is called:
A Force B Impulse
C Acceleration D Torque
11. The time rate of change of momentum is called:
A Force B Impulse
C Acceleration D Torque
12. The property of a body due to which it opposes its state of rest or
uniform motion is called:
A Momentum B Inertia
C Torque D Weight
13. Which law of motion is also called law of inertia?
A 1st law B 2nd law
C 3rd law D 4th law
14. Inertia of an object is quantitative measure of its:
A Volume B Density
C Mass D Temperature
15. Momentum depends upon.
A Force act on the body B Mass of the body
C Velocity of the body D Both mass and velocity of the body
16. An alternate unit to kgms-1 is:
A Js B Ns
C Nm D N
17. SI unit of impulse is:
A kgms-1 B Ns
C N D None of these
18. The dimension of acceleration is.
A LT−1 B L2L−2
C L2L2 D LT−2
19. The dimension of force is.
A MLT−2 B ML2T−2
C ML2T2 D ML−2T−2
20. Which of the following pair has samedirection always?
A Force, displacement B Force, velocity
C Force, acceleration D Force, momentum
21. A snooker ball moving with velocity vcollides head on with another
snooker ballof same mass at rest. If the collision iselastic, the velocity
of the second snookerball is:
A Zero B Infinity
C V D 2V
22. Taking off rocket can be explained by.
A 1stlaw of motion B 2ndlaw of motion
C Law of conservation of momentum
D Law of conservation of energy
23. The trajectory (or path) of a projectile is.
A Straight line B Parabola
C Hyperbola D Circle
24. A football player will throw a football atmaximum distance if the angle of
projectionis:
A 300 B 450
C 600 D 900
25. Range of a projectile on a horizontal plane issame for the following pair
of angles:
A 300and 600 B 200and 800
C 00and 450 D 100and 900
26. The total time of flight of projectile is givenby
A visinθ/g B 2visinθ/g
C visinθ/2g D 2visin2θ/g
27. horizontal range of the projectile is given by R = for what

value of θ range is maximum
A 00 B 300
C 450 D 900
28. The velocity of projectile at its maximum height is:
A visinθ B vicosθ
C maximum D zero
29. Motion of projectile is dimensional.
A One B Two
C Three D Four
30. A projectile is thrown upward with initialvelocity vi making an angle θ
with thehorizontal. The maximum horizontal rangeis given by:
A vi2/g B vi2/2g
C vi2sin2θ/g D vi2sin2θ/2g
31. During projectile motion, the horizontalcomponent of velocity:
A Changes with time B Becomes zero
C Remains constant D Increases with time
32. The range of projectile is same for angles ofprojection:
A 30° and 45° B 45° and 60°
C 50° and 45° D 30° and 60°
33. A car starts from Hither, goes 50 km in a straight line to Yon,
immediately turns around, and returns to Hither. The time for this
round trip is 2 hours. The magnitude of the average velocity of the car
for this round trip is:
A. 0 B. 50 km/hr
C. 100 km/hr D. 200 km/hr
34. A ball rolls up a slope. At the end of three seconds its velocity is 20
cm/s; at the end of eight seconds its velocity is 0. What is the average
acceleration from the third to the eighth second?
A. 2.5 cm/s2 B. 4.0 cm/s2
C. 5.0 cm/s2 D. 6.0 cm/s2
35. Of the following situations, which one is impossible?
A. A body having velocity east and acceleration east
B. A body having velocity east and acceleration west
C. A body having constant acceleration and variable velocity
D. A body having constant velocity and variable acceleration
36. A projectile is shot vertically upward with a given initial velocity. It
reaches a maximum heightof 100 m. If, on a second shot, the initial
velocity is doubled then the projectile will reach a maximum height of: A.
70.7 m B. 141.4 m
C. 200 m D. 400 m
37. Two balls slightly of different masses traveling in opposite direction
collide elastically and bounce back. Which of the following correctly
shows that relative speed of approach is equal to the relative speed of
separation? If U is the speed before collision and v is the speed after
collision
A. U1+U2=v1 +v2 B. U1-U2=v1-v2
C. U1+v1=v2+U2 D. v1+U1=U2-v2
38. What does not change when force is applied on a body
A. mass B. velocity
C. position D. acceleration
39. The angle of projection of projectile is 300 the ratio of R/H is
A. 4 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
40. A snooker ball moving with velocity v collides head in with another
snooker ball of same mass at rest. If the collision is elastic ,the velocity of the
second snooker ball is
A. zero B. infinity
C. V D. 2V
41. A body is traveling with a constant acceleration of 10 ms-2, if S1 is the
distance traveled in 1st second S2 is the distance traveled in 2nd
second, which of the following shows a correct relation between S1
and S2
A. S1=S2 B. S1=3S2
C. S2=3S1 D. none
42. A projectile is thrown so that it if travel a maximum range of 1000m.
How high will it rise
A. 500m B. 250m
C. 400m D. none
43. Bullet is fired by a gun, the gun moves backward with a
A. velocity equal to that of bullet
B. fraction of velocity of bullet
C. velocity greater than that of bullet
D. none of these
44. during the projectile motion, the vertical component of the velocity
A. change with time B. become zero
C. does not change but remain constant
D. increase with time
45. The acceleration of projectile along x-axis is
A. zero B. increase
C. decrease D. constant
46. An example of an inertial reference frame is:
A. any reference frame that is not accelerating
B. a frame attached to a particle on which there are no forces
C. any reference frame that is at rest
D. a reference frame attached to the center of the universe
47. An object moving at constant velocity in an inertial frame must:
A. have a net force on it
B. eventually stop due to gravity
C. not have any force of gravity on it
D. have zero net force on it
48. In SI units a force is numerically equal to the, when the force is applied
to it.
A. velocity of the standard kilogram
B. speed of the standard kilogram
C. velocity of any object
D. acceleration of the standard kilogram
49. When a certain force is applied to the standard kilogram its
acceleration is 5.0 m/s2. When the same force is applied to another
object its acceleration is one-fifth as much. The mass of the object is:
A. 0.2 kg B. 0.5 kg
C. 1.0 kg D. 5.0 kg
50. A car travels east at constant velocity. The net force on the car is:
A. east B. west
C. up D. zero
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 3)
Answer Key
1 C 11 A 21 C 31 C 41 C
2 B 12 D 22 C 32 D 42 B
3 C 13 A 23 B 33 A 43 B
4 A 14 C 24 B 34 B 44 A
5 B 15 D 25 A 35 D 45 A
6 B 16 B 26 A 36 D 46 B
7 A 17 B 27 C 37 B 47 D
8 A 18 D 28 B 38 A 48 D
9 A 19 A 29 B 39 A 49 D
10 B 20 C 30 A 40 C 50 D
. .
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No: 4)
1. Work done will be positive when angle is
A. Less than 900
B. Greater than 900
C. Equal to 900
D. Zero
2. Work done will be negative when angle is
A. Less than 900
B. Greater than 900
C. Equal to 900
D. Zero
3. Work done will be zero when angle is
A. Less than 900
B. Greater than 900
C. Equal to 900
D. Zero
4. Area under the curve of force-displacement graph is equal to
A. Displacement
B. Work
C. Power
D. Energy
5. Slope of work time graph is equal to
A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
C. Energy
D. Power
6. A field in which the work done in a moving a body along closed path is
zero is called
A. Electric field
B. Electric force
C. Frictional forces
D. Normal force
7. Which of the following types of force can do no work on the particle on
which it acts?
A. Elastic force
B. Frictional force
C. Centripetal force
D. Air resistance
8. If a body of mass 3 kg is raised vertically upward 2 m on the surface of
moon, then the work done will be
A. 6 J
B. 58.8 J
C. 9.6 J
D. 49 J
9. An elevator weighting 3.5 N is raised to a height of 1000 cm in the
absence of friction, the work done is
A. 35 J
B. 350 J
C. 3.5 J
D. 3500 J
10. The average power and instantaneous power become equal if
work is done at.
A. Any rate
B. At variable rate
C. At uniform rate
D. At high rate
11. The relation between horse power and watt is
A. 1hp = 546 watts
B. 1hp = 746 watts
C. 1hp = 1000 watts
D. 1hp = 946 watts
12. Work done on the body equals to the
A. Change in P.E always
B. Change in K.E always
C. Change in both K.E and P.E
D. Neither change in K.E nor change in its P.E
13. The food we eat in one day has about the same energy as
A. 3.33 liters of petrol
B. 2.33 liters of petrol
C. 1.33 liters of petrol
D. 0.33 liters of petrol
14. The average power of a man walking upstairs at an ordinary
speed is only about
A. 330 Watts
B. 33 Watts
C. 3.3 Watts
D. 0.33 Watts
15. A 70 kg athlete runs upstairs in 4 s. The vertical height of stairs is
4.5 m, calculate his power.
A. 0.0104 hp
B. 1.04 hp
C. 10.4 hp
D. 1.41 hp
16. The highest value of escape velocity in solar system is for planet.
A. Earth
B. Neptune
C. Jupiter
D. Moon
17. When the speed of a moving body is doubled, then.
A. Its K.E is doubled
B. Its acceleration is doubled
C. Its P.E is doubled
D. Its momentum is doubled
18. One megawatt hour is equal to.
A. 36x106 J
B. 36x1012 J
C. 36x109 J
D. 36x108 J
19. Which of the following is not conservative force.
A. Friction
B. Electric
C. Gravitational
D. Magnetic
20. Work has the dimension as that of same as that of
A. Torque
B. Angular momentum
C. Linear momentum
D. Power
21. The consumption of energy by a 60 watt bulb in 2 sec is.
A. 120 J
B. 60 J
C. 30 J
D. 0.02 J
22. The relation between the escape velocity Vesc and orbital speed
V0 is given by
A. Vesc = 1/2V0
B. Vesc = 2V0
C. Vesc = V0
D. Vesc = 2V0
23. The escape velocity from the earth surface in kms-1 is
A. 4.2 kms-1
B. 7.5 kms-1
C. 9.5 kms-1
D. 11 kms-1
24. The moon radius is 1600 km, then the escape velocity on the
moon is
A. 1600 ms-1
B. 50.6 ms-1
C. 71.6 ms-1
D. 2263 ms-1
25. What is the unit of efficiency
A. Watt
B. Joule
C. No unit
D. Nm
26. The efficiency of petrol heat engine
A. (25 – 30)%
B. (34 – 40)%
C. (34 – 46)%
D. (30 – 40)%
27. The efficiency of Hair drier is
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 100%
D. 85%
28. The efficiency of Electric generator is
A. (30 – 35)%
B. (70 – 98)%
C. (35 – 46)%
D. (50 – 92)%
29. When arrow is released from its bow, its energy is transformed
from
A. Heat energy to K.E
B. Elastic P.E to K.E
C. Chemical energy to elastic P.E
D. K.E to elastic P.E
30. A man lifts, vertically, a weight of 40 kg through 1m in 10s: while
a child lifts, vertically, a weight of 10 kg through a distance of 1m in 1s.
What will be correct inference?
A. Man does more than child
B. Child does more work than man
C. Both do the same amount of work
D. It is a foolish question.
31. A man carries a 1 kg suitcase 10 m horizontally across the
corridor and then goes up the stairs of total height 10 m. The work done
by the man is
A. 0 J
B. 4.9 J
C. 196 J
D. 98 J
32. A 100 kg car starting from rest runs down a 300 slope. If the total
length of the slope in 20 m, the speed of the car at the bottom, ignoring
friction, is
A. 14000 ms-1
B. 1.4 ms-1
C. 20 sin 300 ms-1
D. 14 ms-1
33. A 2 m tall man standing at the top of a 30 m tall tower raises a 1
kg mass 0.5 m above his head. The P.E of the raised mass may be
considered to be
A. 4.9 J
B. 24.5 J
C. 316.5 J
D. All of the above
34. A body is falling freely under gravity from point A to point B. The
energy of the body at the pint C is
A. Less than its energy at A
B. Equal to its energy at A
C. Greater than its energy at A
D. The energy become zero
35. The moon pulls the land up and down by as much as
A. 0.25 m
B. 0.30 m
C. 0.35 m
D. 0.40 m
36. Which of the following is non - renewable energy source
A. Solar energy
B. Energy from waves
C. Energy from oil
D. Geothermal energy
37. The center of the earth is approximately
A. 4000 0C
B. 4500 0C
C. 5000 0C
D. 5500 0C
38. Mangla Dam on the river Jehlum generates more the
A. 900000 kW
B. 9000 MW
C. 90000 MW
D. 900000000 kW
39. Nuclear energy provides for approximately of the world’s
electricity.
A. 14 %
B. 16 %
C. 18 %
D. 20 %
40. The hp required to pump up 2500 kg of water up 100 m in 5
minutes is
A. 25 hp
B. 15 hp
C. 5 hp
D. 10.9 hp
41. Water falls over a fall of 4.5m at a rate of 17.5 kg s-1 the power
generated is
A. 78.75 watts
B. 215.6 watts
C. 772 watts
D. 4.5 watts
42. For an ideal machine
A. Output is equal to input
B. Output is greater than input
C. Output is less than input
D. Output is zero
43. The original source of tidal energy is:
A. Moon
B. Earth
C. Sun
D. Sea
44. The tides raise the mater in the sea roughlyin a day:
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Four time
D. Eight times
45. The escape velocity form the earth surface in km s-1 is.
A. 4.2 km s-1
B. 7.5 km s-1
C. 9.5 km s-1
D. 11 km s-1
46. The SI unit of power is
A. J
B. Hp
C. kWh
D. Watt
47. The energy stored in the spring of a watch is
A. K.E
B. Electrical Energy
C. Elastic P.E
D. Solar Energy
48. Power is also defined as dot product of
A. Force and displacement
B. Force and mass
C. Force and velocity
D. Force and time
49. One kilowatt hour of work is equal to
A. 0.36 MJ
B. 3.6 MJ
C. 36 MJ
D. 360 MJ
50. The consumption of energy by 60 watt bulb in 2s is
A. 20 J
B. 120 J
C. 30 J
D. 0.02 J
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 4)
Answer Key
Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans
1 a 2 b 3 c 4 b 5 d
6 b 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 c
11 b 12 c 13 d 14 a 15 b
16 c 17 d 18 d 19 a 20 a
21 a 22 b 23 d 24 b 25 c
26 a 27 c 28 b 29 b 30 b
31 d 32 d 33 d 34 b 35 a
36 c 37 a 38 a 39 b 40 d
41 c 42 a 43 a 44 b 45 d
46 d 47 c 48 c 49 b 50 b
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 5)
1. What is the torque due to centripetal force about the axis of rotation
A. 1 B. Same Direction
C. Opposite Direction D. Zero
2. If the diameter of earth become twice its present value, but its mass
remains unchanged. What will be the effect on weight?
A.One half B. One fourth
C. Four times. D. Twice
3. If earth will stop rotating about its axis. What will be the effect on the
value of “g” at poles
A. It will decrease. B. It will increase
C. It will remain constant D. It will become zero
4. Which will be rotating for longer time on table , arrow egg or a boil egg
A. Both will rotate for same period of time
B. Boil egg will be rotating for longer period of time
C. Row egg will be rotating for longer period of time
D. Both have same moment of inertia
5. When a space craft is going from the Earth to Moon. What will be the
effect on weight of space craft
A. Its weight will start decrease.
B. Its weight will start increase
C. There will be no effect on weight
D. It will become zero
6. A fly wheel gains a speed of 500 rev per min. Its angular velocity is
A. 1.666 π rad s-1. B. 106.66 π rad s-1
C. 16.666 π rad s-1 D. 1000 π rad s-1
7. If a rotating fan is switched off, then its angular velocity and angular
acceleration is
A. Parallel. B. Anti Parallel
C. Perpendicular. D. Constant
8. For the given radius and angle which formula will use to calculate the
speed for the safety turn of vehicle?
A. tanθ = v2gr B. tanθ = rv2/g
C. tanθ = v2/gr D. tanθ = v2/gr2
9. Five seconds after an electric fan is turned on, the fan rotates at
200rev/min. Its average angular acceleration is
A. 1.33 π rad s-2 B. 1.66 π rad s-2
C. 13.5 π rad s-2 D. 1.99π rad s-2
10. Moment of inertia of the rectangular plate is
A. I=1/2 Ml B. I=1/2 M (a2 + b2)
C. I= 1/2MR D. I=1/12 M (a2 + b2)
11. Rate of change of momentum is
A. Force B. Torque
C.Linear momentum D. Inertia
12. A body of moment of inertia 0.59kgm-2 about a fix axis rotate with
constant angular velocity 100rad/s. What will be the torque to sustain
this position
A. 5900 Nm B. 169Nm
C. 0.0059 Nm D. 0 Nm
13. If we increase the moment of inertia of a body. What will be the
effect on angular velocity?
A. Will become e smaller B. Will become larger
C. Remains constant D. No effect
14. The velocity of a disc roll down along the inclined plane of height
10m.
A. 12.56m/s B. 111.43 m/s
C. 11.43 m/s D. 21.83 m/s
15. Work done by the centripetal is
A. Fd B. Fdcosθ
C.Fdcosθ D. 0
16. When a body covers angular displacement in clock wise direction
called
A. Uniform acceleration
B. Positive acceleration
C. Constantacceleration
D. Negative acceleration
17. A disc and a hoop start moving down from the top of an inclined
plane at the same time. Which will be moving faster?
A. Hoop
B. Disc
C. Same speed
D. Initially different same at the end
18. A string of 1m long is used to whirl a 200g stone in a horizontal
circle speed of 4m/s. The tension in the string is
A. 3.2N B. 2.3N
C. 80N D. 0.0125N
19. A hoop rolls with constant velocity and without sliding along level
ground. Its rotational kinetic energy is
A. Half its translational kinetic energy
B. Twice its translational kinetic energy
C. Four times its translational kinetic energy
D. The same as the translational kinetic energy
20. Which one is correct direction of torque?
A. B.
C. D.
21. Which of the following waves are preferred in communication

system?
A. Sound waves B. Light waves
C. Micro waves D. Transverse waves
22. A solid sphere rolling on the surface has total kinetic energy
A. 1/2mv2 B. 7/5 mv2
C.7/10 mv2 D. 3/10 mv2
23. If a particle is moving in xy-plane. The angular momentum is

directed along
A. X-axis B. Z-axis
C.Y-axis D. Have no direction
24. In an accelerated Frame of reference the weight of body depends upon
A. Acceleration of frame of reference
B. Velocity of the frame of reference
C. Acceleration of body
D. Velocity of the body
25. When the lift is moving upward with an acceleration ” g ”.Weight is
A.B. C. D.
26. When the lift is moving downward with an acceleration” g ”. Weight is
A.B. C.D.
27. When lift is stopped weight is
A.B.C.D.
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 5)
Answer Key
1. D. (Zero)
2. B. (One fourth)
3. C. (It will remain constant)
4. C. (Row egg will be rotating for longer period of time)
5. (Its weight will start decrease)
6. 16.666 π rad s-1
7. Anti Parallel
8. tanθ = v2/gr
9. 1.33 π rad s-2
10. I=1/12 M (a2 + b2)
11. Torque
0 Nm
12. will become e smaller
13. 11.43 m/s
14. 0
15. Negative acceleration
16. B. Disc
17. 3.2N
18. The same as the translational kinetic energy
19. B.
20. Micro waves

21. C. 7/10 mv2
22. B. Z-axis
23. Acceleration of frame of reference
24. C.
25. D.
26. B.
0
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 7)
1. The S.I units of spring constant are:

A. M-1
B. Nm-1
C. Nm-2
D. Nm2
2. If F = 0.08 N and x = 4 cm then k =:
A. 6 Nm-1
B. 4 Nm-1
C. 8 Nm-1
D. 2 Nm-1
3. One complete round trip of a vibrating body is called
A. Time period
B. Frequency
C. Vibration
D. Amplitude
4. The time required to complete one vibration is called
a)Time period
b) Frequency
c) Time period
Velocity
5. The force which opposes the applied force producing the displacement in
the spring is called
A. Restoring force
B. Periodic force
C. Centripetal force
D. Resistive force
6. The number of vibrations completed by a body in one second is called
A. Time period
B. Frequency
C. Total vibrations
D. Displacement
7. Simple harmonic motion is a type of:
A. Rotational motion
B. Circular motion
C. Musical arrangement
D. Vibratory motion
8. In SHM, the restoring force is directly proportional to
A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
C. Displacement
D. Time period
9. The expression for instantaneous displacement of particle executing SHM

is:
A. a = −w2x
B. x = c0 sinw
C. F = kx
D. All of above
10. Acceleration of a projection on the diameter for a particle moving along a
circle is:
A. w2x
B. wx2
C. –w2x
D. –wx2
11. In equation of SHM, a= −w2 x, the negative sign indicates the direction
of motion of particle
A. Away from mean position
B. Perpendicular to mean position
C. Towards mean position
D. None of above
12. If f is the frequency of a body executing SHM, its angular frequency w is:
A.
B. 4𝜋𝜋𝑓𝑓
3𝜋𝜋𝑓𝑓
C.
2𝜋𝜋𝑓𝑓
D. None of these
13. The distance of vibrating body at any instant from its equilibrium position
is called
A. Displacement
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Time period
14. SI unit of frequency is:
A. Radian
B. 𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠−1
C. Hertz
D. Meter
15. The product of time period and frequency is:
A. Zero
B. 1
C.
D. None of these
16. The phase angle of the body performing SHM indicates:
A. Only direction of motion
B. Only magnitude of displacement
C. Both magnitude of displacement and direction of motion
D. None of these
17. In SHM, the velocity of the particle is maximum at:
A. Mean position
B. Extreme position
C. In between mean and extreme position
D. None
18. Angular velocity of vibrating body attached with horizontal mass spring
system is given by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
19. For a body executing S.H.M, its
A. Momentum remains constant
B. Potential energy remains constant
C. Kinetic energy remains constant
D. Total energy remains constant
20. If the displacement of a body executing S.H.M is plotted against time,
then the curve is known
A. Frequency of S.H.M
B. Period of S.H.M
C. Wave form
D. None of them
21. The waveform of simple harmonic motion is:
A. Sine wave
B. Square wave
C. Pulsed wave
D. None of these
22. Frequency of the second pendulum is:
A. 2.5 Hz
B. 0.5 Hz
C. 1.5 Hz
D. 2 Hz
23. The time period of a second pendulum is-
A. 4 seconds
B. 3 seconds
C. 2 seconds
D. 6 seconds
24. The length of second pendulum is.
A. 100 cm
B. 99 cm
C. 99.2 cm
D. 98 cm
25. The restoring force acting on simple pendulum is given by.
26. Which expression is correct for the time period of a simple pendulum:
A.
B.
C.
D.
27. An object undergoes S.H.M has maximum speed when its displacement
from the mean position is
A. Maximum speed
B. Zero
C. Half of the maximum value
D. One third of the maximum value
28. An object undergoes S.H.M has maximum acceleration when its
displacement form the mean position is
A. Maximum
B. Zero
C. Half of the maximum value
D. One third of the maximum value
29. In simple harmonic motion:
A. P.E remains constant
B. K.E remain constant
C. Total energy remain constant
D. Total momentum remain constant
30. The motion of simple pendulum is SHM only if:
A. Amplitude is large
B. Mass is small
C. Amplitude is small
D. Length is small
31. In S.H.M, the velocity of a particle is maximum at:
A. Mean position
B. Extreme position
C. Middle between mean and extreme position on the right side
D. Middle between mean and extreme position on the left side
32. The displacement of SHM is written as X = X o sinωt, If displacement is
written by X = Xo cosωt then phase constant will be equal to:
A. 0o
B. 45 o
C. 90 o
D. 180 o
33. The angle θ = wt which specifies the displacement as well as direction of
motion of the point executing SHM is known as:
A. Critical angle
B. Phase angle
C. Plane angle
D. Solid angle
34. Phase of SHM describes.
A. Displacement only
B. Direction of motion only
C. Both displacement and direction of motion
D. Neither displacement nor direction of motion
35. Natural frequency of simple pendulum depends upon:
A. Its mass
B. Its length
C. Square of its length
D. Square root of its length
36. The process in which energy is dissipated in oscillating system is called:
A. Resonance
B. Damping
C. Forced oscillation
D. None of these
37. In damped harmonic oscillation, which one deceases?
A. Amplitude of vibration
B. Energy of vibration
C. Both amplitude and energy
D. Neither amplitude nor energy
38. A physical system undergoing forced vibrations is known as
A. Driven harmonic oscillator
B. Resonance
C. Simple harmonic oscillator
D. None of above
39. When θ is small, sin θ is approximately equal to
a)2 θ
b) Zero
c) θ
d)
40. At mean position, during SHM:
A. P.E is maximum and K.E is minimum
B. P.E is minimum and K.E is maximum
C. Both K.E and P.E are maximum
D. Both K.E and P.E are minimum
41. When the bob of simple pendulum is at extreme position, it has
A. K.E
B. P.E
C. Both P.E and K.E
D. None
42. Tuning of radio set is an example of
A. Mechanical resonance
B. Musical resonance
C. Electrical resonance
D. Free vibration
43. The frequency of waves produced in microwaves oven is:
A. 1435 MHz
B. 2450 MHz
C. 1860 MHz
44. 2850 MHz Sharpness of resonance is.
A. Directly proportional to damping force
B. Inversely proportional to damping force
C. Equal to square of damping force
D. None of these
45. Which one does not work according to resonance?
A. T.V
B. Radio
C. Microwave oven
D. Bulb
46. The oscillations in which amplitude decreased steadily with time are
called:
A. Natural oscillations
B. Free oscillation
C. Damped oscillations
D. Forced oscillations
47. Distance covered during one vibration of an oscillating body in term of
amplitude A is:
A.
B.
C. 𝐴𝐴
2𝐴𝐴
4𝐴𝐴 D.
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 4)
Answer Key
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.

1 b 17 a 33 b
2 d 18 c 34 c
3 c 19 d 35 d
4 a 20 c 36 b
5 a 21 a 37 c
6 b 22 b 38 a
7 d 23 c 39 c
8 c 24 c 40 b
9 b 25 b 41 b
10 c 26 c 42 c
11 c 27 b 43 b
12 c 28 a 44 b
13 a 29 c 45 d
14 c 30 c 46 c
15 b 31 a 47 d
16 c 32 c
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No: 8)
1. Waves transmit from one place to another.

A. Energy
B. Mass
C. Both
D. None
2. The waves that require a material medium for their propagation are called
A. Matter waves
B. Electromagnetic waves
C. Carrier waves
D. Mechanical waves
3. The example of mechanical waves is:
A. Water and air waves
B. Radio waves
C. Infrared waves
D. Ultra violet waves
4. Sound waves cannot travel through:
A. Air
B. Water
C. Material medium
D. Vacuum
5. Sound waves do not travel in vacuum because
A. They are transverse waves
B. They are stationary waves
C. They require material medium for propagation
D. They do not have enough energy
6. The velocity of sound in vacuum is:
A. 332m/s
B. 333m/s
C. 280m/s
D. 0m/s
7. The speed of sound in air at is 333m/s. The speed at will be:
A.
B.
C.
D. None of these
8. According to Laplace correction sound travel in air under the conditions of
A. Adiabatic
B. Isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. Isochoric
9. Laplace expression for speed of sound in a gases is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
10. If the pressure of the gas is doubled, then the speed of sound:
A. Also doubled
B. Becomes half
C. Not affected
D. Increases four times
11. The speed of sound in air at is approximately equal to:
12. Increase in velocity of sound in air for rise in temperature is:
13. The speed of sound is greater in solids than in gases due to high value of:
A.Density
B.Pressure
C. Elasticity
D. Temperature
14. The wave speed of a wave in terms of its wavelength and period is:
A. v = ëT
B.v = ëT2
C. v = ë/ T
D. v = T /ë
15. The distance between any two consecutive crests or troughs is called
A. Frequency
B. Period
C. Wave length
D. Phase difference
16. In a transverse wave the distance between a crest and a trough is equal to:
A. ë/2
B. ë/4
C. ë
D. 2ë
17. When two identical waves moves in the same direction, they give rise to:
A. Standing waves
B. Interference
C. Beats
D. None of these
18. When path difference is an integral multiple of wavelengths, the effect is
called:
A. Coherency
B. Destructive interference
C. Constructive interference
D. Phase lag
19. Periodic alteration of sound between maximum and minimum loudness are
called
A. Interference
B. Resonance
C. Doppler effect
D. Beats
20. Beats can be heard when the difference of frequency is not more than:
A. 8
B. 4
C. 10
D. 6
21. Beats are formed when two notes of frequencies 𝑓𝑓1 and 𝑓𝑓2 (𝑓𝑓1 >𝑓𝑓2) are
sounded together. The beat frequency will be:
A. 𝑓𝑓1 + 𝑓𝑓2
B. 𝑓𝑓1 − 𝑓𝑓2
C.
D.
22. The number of beats produced per second is equal to
A. The sum of the frequencies of two tuning forks
B. The difference of the frequencies of two tuning forks
C. The ratio of the frequencies of two tuning forks
D. The frequency of either of the two tuning forks
23. When a wave is reflected on going from a rarer to a denser medium, then
at the boundary the reflected wave will undergo a phase change of:
A. 0o
B. 90o
C. -90o
D. 180o
24. When a transverse wave is reflected on going from a denser to a rarer
medium, then at the boundary the reflected wave undergoes a phase change
of:
a)0°
b) 90°
c) −90°
d) 180°
25. When a transverse wave is reflected on going from a denser medium to a
rare medium, then:
A. There is 180° phase shift
B. There is no change in phase
C. A crest is converted into trough
D. A trough is converted into crest
26. Phase difference of 180° is equivalent to a path difference of:

A. ë
B. ë/2
C. ë/4
D. ë/8
27. Two waves of equal frequency travelling in opposite direction produce:
A. Interference
B. Stationary waves
C. Beats
D. Doppler Effect
28. Two wave trains of the same amplitude and frequency travelling in opposite
directions along the same path in the same medium produce:
A. Resonance
B. Beats
C. Standing waves
D. Musical notes
29. Which property of wave motion distinguish a travelling wave from a
stationary wave:
A. Amplitude
B. frequency of vibration
C. propagation of energy
D. direction of vibration
30. If a string vibrates in n loops, the wavelength of stationary waves will be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
31. Stationary waves are generated on a string of length “l”, its fundamental
frequency is given by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
32. The fixed ends of a vibrating string are
A. antinodes
B. nodes
C. overtones
D. neither nodes nor anti-nodes
33. At the open end of an organ pipe:
A. Nodes are formed
B. Antinodes are formed
C. Either nodes or antinodes may form
D. Neither nodes nor antinodes may form
34. A set of frequencies, which is multiple of fundamental frequency is called:
A. Beat frequency
B. Harmonics
C. Doppler frequencies
D. Nodal frequencies
35. The points of maximum displacement on a stationary wave is called
A. Anti-node
B. Node
C. Trough
D. Crest
36. In vibrating cord the points where the amplitude is zero, are called.
A. Antinodes
B. Nodes
C. Troughs
D. Crests
37. A distance between two consecutive nodes is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
36. Radar system is an application of:
A. Interference
B. Beats
C. Stationary waves
D. Doppler effect
37. Stars moving towards the earth show:
A. Blue shift
B. Red shift
C. No shift
D. Longer wavelength
38. Which of the following does not have any effect on the speed of sound in
gases?
A. Temperature
B. Density
C. Pressure
D. None of these
38. In a stationary wave, the particle velocity at the node is:
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Constant
39. Doppler Effect applies to
A. Sound wave only
B. Light wave only
C. Both sound and light wave
D. Neither sound nor light wave
40. When the source of sound moves away from a stationary listener, then
occurs:
A. An apparent increase in frequency
B. An apparent decrease in frequency
C. An apparent decrease in wavelength
D. An apparent change in frequency
41. A simple pendulum has a bob of mass „m‟ and its frequency is „f‟. If we
replaced the bob with a heavier one, say of „2m‟, then what will be its new
frequency?
A. 1/4f
B. 1/2f
C. f
D. 2f
42. The distance between a node and antinode is
A. 𝜆𝜆
B.
𝜆𝜆/2 C.
𝜆𝜆/4
𝜆𝜆/8 D.
43. The distance between two consecutive antinodes is:
A.
B.
C. 𝜆𝜆
D.
44. In open organ pipe
A. Only even harmonics are present
B. Only odd harmonic are present
C. Both even and odd harmonics are present
D. Selected harmonics are present
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 4)
Answer Key
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.

1 a 17 b 33 b
2 d 18 c 34 b
3 a 19 d 35 a
4 d 20 c 36 b
5 c 21 b 37 b
6 d 22 b 38 d
7 b 23 d 39 a
8 a 24 a 40 c
9 c 25 b 41 c
10 c 26 b 42 c
11 e 27 b 43 b
12 a 28 c 44 c
13 c 29 c 45 c
14 c 30 a 46 a
15 c 31 b 47 c
16 a 32 b
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 9)
1. Light is a form of electromagnetic waves

A. High frequency B. Low frequency
C. Moderate frequency D. None of these
2. Which of the following phenomenon shows the particle nature of light
A. Polarization B. Interference
C. Compton effect D. Diffraction
3. Which of the following condition is INCORRECT for the interference of
light
A. A.The light waves must come from two coherent sources
B. The path difference of waves from two sources must be large
C. The principle of linear superposition should be applicable
D. The light waves must be perfectly monochromatic
4. The tip of a needle does not give a sharp image due to
A. Polarization B. Diffraction
C. Refraction D. Interference
5. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation between the slits is
halved and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled.
The fringe width is
A. Halved B. Doubled
C. Unchanged D. Quadrupled
6. Phase change 2π=
A. ʎ B. 2ʎ
C. ʎ/2 D. 3ʎ
7. Grating spectrometer is used to calculate
A. Frequency B. Number of dark fringes
C. Wavelength D. Deviation angle
8. Which of the following phenomenon justifies the transverse nature of
light
A.Interference B. Polarization
C. Diffraction D. All of them
9. When light is reflected from the glass it undergoes
polarization
A. Full B. No
C. Partial D. Quadruple
10. Light ray traveling form rarer to denser medium suffers a phase change
of:
A. 0o B. 90o
C. 180o D. 60o
11. The condition for constructive interference of two coherent beams is
that the path difference should be
A. Integral multiple of λ/2 B. Integral multiple of λ
C. Odd Integral multiple of λ/2 D. Even integral multiple of λ
12. Optically active crystals rotate the
A. Polarization plane B. Vibrating plane
C. Diffraction plane D. Interferenceplane
13. A source of monochromatic is viewed throughdiffracting grating
Which of the following causes the angle θ to increase?

A. Decreasing the distance between adjacent slit on the grating
B. Decreasing the wavelength of monochromatic light
C. Increasing the distance of eye from grating
D. Increasing the number of slits of the grating
14. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light. If the red light
is replaced with blue light then
A. Diffraction pattern remains unchanged
B. Diffraction bands becomes narrower
C. Diffraction bands becomes broader
D. Bands disappears
15. In a Young’s double slit experiment the center of a bright fringe occurs
wherever waves from the slits differ in phase by multiple of
A. 3/4π B. π
C. 2π D. π/2
16. In interference pattern
A. Bright fringes are wider than dark fringes
B. Dark fringes are wider than bright fringes
C. Both dark and bright fringes are of equal width
D. Central fringes are dimmer than the outer fringes
17. In set up shown in the figure, the two slits S1 and S2 are equidistance
from the slit S. The central fringe at O is then
A.Always bright B. Always dark

C. Depending on the position of S D. Neither dark not bright
18. In the young slit arrangement shown in the figure, a pattern of equally
spaced, parallel fringes appear on a screen placed at S
Which quantity, if increase would cause the separation of fringes to
increase?
A. x B. y
C. d D. l
19. In double slit experiment, if one of the two slit is covered then
A. No interference fringes are observed
B. No diffraction fringes are observed
C. No fringes are observed
D. Interference pattern not disturbed
20. Diagram shows
A. Polarization by Diffraction B. Polarization by reflection

C. Polarization by refraction D. Polarization by Interference
21. The distance between different interference fringes is
A. Variable B. Same
C. Different D. Double
22. In case of interference fringes
A. Energy is destroyed at dark fringes
B. Energy is created at bright fringes
C. Energy is transferred from dark to bright fringes
D. Energy is not transferred from dark to bright fringes
23. In Young double slit experiment using white light
A. Coloured fringes will be obtained
B. No fringes will be observed
C. Alternative bright and dark fringes will be seen
D. Double width fringes will be observed
24. Two monochromatic radiations X and Y are incident normally on the
diffraction grating. The third order intensity maximum for X coincides
with the fourth order intensity maximum for Y. What is the ratio
A. 2/3 B. 3/2
C. 3/4 D.4/3
25. Light from the sun reaches the Earth in
A. Spherical wave fronts B. Plane wave fronts
C. Rays D. Wave vector
26. As plane wave front propagate its radius
A. Remains infinity B. Decreases
C. Increases D. First increase then decrease
27. The vivid iridescence of peacock feather is due to
A. Interference B. Refraction
C. Reflection D. Diffraction
28. We can get more order of spectra using diffraction grating
A. By increasing the value of grating element ‘d’
B. By decreasing the value of wavelength of the light used
C. Angle should be 90o
D. All of above
29. Find the polarizing angle of a glass of refractive index 1.55.
A. ip= 60o B. ip= 57o
C. ip= 49o D. ip=53o
30. X-ray of wavelength 6nm are incident on a crystal for which the lattice
spacing is 10nm. Calculate the angle at which the first Bragg diffraction
is observed.
A. 17o B. 19o
C. 13o D. 11o
31. Path difference of two reflected rays
is
A. d sin θ = mʎ B. d sin θ = 2mʎ
C. d = mʎ/ sin θ D. 2d sin θ = mʎ

APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 9)
Answer Key
1. B. Low frequency
2. C. Compton effect
3. B. The path difference of waves from two sources must be large
4. B. Diffraction
5. D. Quadrupled
6. A. ʎ
7. C. Wavelength
8. B. Polarization
9. C. Partial
10. C. 180o
11. B. Integral multiple of λ
12. A. Polarization plane
13. A. Decreasing the distance between adjacent slit on the grating
14. B. Diffraction bands becomes narrower
15. C. 2π
16. C. Both dark and bright fringes are of equal width
17. A .Always bright
18. D. l
19. A. No interference fringes are observed
20. B. Polarization by reflection
21. B. Same
22. C. Energy is transferred from dark to bright fringes
23. B. No fringes will be observed
24. D. 4/3
25. B. Plane wave fronts
26. C. Increases
27. A. Interference
28. D. All of above
29. B. ip= 57o
30. A. 17o
31. D. 2d sin θ = mʎ
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No: 10)
1. Cp for oxygen gas is:
A. R
B. R
C. R
D. R
2. “Pressure everywhere inside the vessel will be the same provided
the gas is of uniform density” is the statement of:
A.Newton
B.Boyle
C.Charles
D.Pascal
3. When two objects are rubbed together, their internal energies:
A.decreases
B.increases
C.remains constant
D.becomes zero
4. The internal energy is independent of paths, similar to:
A.Kinetic energy
B.Potential energy
C.Gravitational potential energy
D.Elastic potential energy
5. A diatomic gas molecule has:
A.Translational energy
B.Rotational energy
C.Both a and b
D.Either a or b
6. For isothermal process, first law of thermodynamics can be
written as:
A.Q = ΔU
B.Q = -W
C.Q = W
D.Q = ΔU + W
7. If one mole of an ideal gas is heated at constant volume then:
A.ΔU = CVΔT
B.Q = CPΔT
C.W = CVΔT
D.QP = CVΔT
8. Sadi Carnot engine used:
A. Isothermal process
B. Adiabatic process
C.Either a or b
D.Both a and b
9. Which of the following is the state variable:
A.pressure
B.volume
C.entropy
D. all of the above
10. By addition of heat to system, the disorder of the system:
A.Remains constant
B.increases
C.decreases
D.becomes zero
11. A sealed thermos bottle full of hot coffee is shaken is an
example of:
A.Adiabatic process
B.Isothermal process
C.Isobaric process
D.Isochoric process
12. The relation between CP and CV is:
A.CP = CV
B.CP> CV
C.CP< CV
D.CPCV = 1
13. Internal energy of an isolated system:
A.Keeps on changing
B.Remains constant
C.increases
D.decreases
14. Heating of wheel on applying brakes is due to the relation:
A.P
B.W Q
C.P T
D.V T
15. When the temperature difference between the source and sink
increases, the efficiency of heat engine will:
A.increase
B.decrease
C.not be effected
D.may increase or decrease
16. Which of the following is the best container for gas during adiabatic
process?
D.W ood vessel
B.Thermos flask
C.Copper vessel
D.Glass vessel
17. Compared to burn due to water at 1000C, a burn due to steam at
1000C is:
A.More dangerous
B.Less dangerous
C.Equally dangerous
D.Not dangerous
18. The internal energy of monoatomic ideal gas is:
A.Only kinetic energy
B.Only potential energy
C.Partly kinetic and partly potential energy
D.either kinetic or potential energy
19. The value of for ga s is 1.66 the n X is :
A.Ne
B.O3
C.N 2
D.H 2
20. Food can be cooked in pressure cooker because:
A.No heat is lost
B.High steam pressure raises the boiling point of liquid
C.It is made of steel
D.All of the above
21. If water changes into ice, its entropy:
A.decreases
B.remains constant
C.increases
D.becomes zero
22. In which process internal energy of the system remains same,
even work is done?
A.isothermal
B.isobaric
C.adiabatic
D.isochoric
23. Work done in isochoric process is:
A.constant
B.variable
C.zero
D.depends on condition
24. Which of the following property is same for all gases at particular
temperature:
A.Momentum
B.Mass
C.velocity
D.<K.E>
25. In isobaric process remains constant.
A.volume
B.pressure
C.temperature
D.entropy
26. For monoatomic gas Cp is:
A.7/2R
B.5/2R
C.3/2R
D.9/2R
27. If the temperature of the sink is absolute zero, the efficiency of
heat engine will be:
A.100%
B.50%
C.0
D.infinite
28. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its sink
temperature is at 270C. the temperature of the source is:
A.3000C
B.3270C
C.3730C
D.4000C
29. The pressure of the gas kept in an isothermal process container
is 200KPa. If half of the gas is removed from it, the pressure will
be:
A.800kPa
B.400kPa
C.600kPa
D.700kPa
30. The temperature at which rms speed of gas molecules becomes
double than its value at 00C is:
A.7600C
B.2730C
C.8190C
D.2240C
31. When temperature of the source and sink of a heat engine
becomes equal, the entropy change will be:
A.zero
B.minimum
C.maximum
D.negative
32. Reading on Fahrenheit scale will be double as compared to
centigrade scale, when temperature on centigrade is:
A.4600C
B.2800C
C.3000C
D.1600C
33. A heat engine takes heat at 4270C and exhausts into low
temperature reservoir at 770C, then its efficiency will be:
A.75%
B.50%
C.100%
D.25%
34. For a gas Cv = 3/2R then is :
A.3/5
B.5/3
C.4/15
D.15/4
35. At constant temperature, if pressure is halved than its volume
becomes:
A.constant
B.halved
C.four times
D.doubled
36. Temperature of the gas is increased from 270C to 1270C. the
ratio of its mean kinetic energy will be:
A.10/9
B.9/16
C.4/3
D.3/4
37. Two gases having same pressure P and volume V are mixed at
temperature T. If the mixture is at temperature T and occupies
the same volume V then pressure of the mixture would be:
A.P
B.2P
C.P/2
D.3P
38. The rms speed of molecule of a gas at 300K is 490ms-1, then its
corresponding value at 600K is:
A.693ms-1
B.650ms-1
C.980ms-1
D.1000ms-1
39. The average translational kinetic energy of molecules in a gas
at temperature 270C is:
A. 6.21 x 10-21J
B. 6.21 x 10-22J
C. 6.21 x 10-20J
D. 6.21 x 10-19J
40. A gas is enclosed in a container fitted with a piston of cross
sectional area 0.10m2. the pressure of the gas is maintained at
800Nm-2 and the piston moves up 4cm. the change in internal
energy when 42J heat is added to system is:
A.9.8J
B.10J
C.10.2J
D.11J
41. The rms value of the molecules of an ideal gas at S.T.P is v. The
gas is heated at constant volume and the pressure becomes
double. The final rms velocity is:
A.v
B.2v
C.√2v
D.4v
42. The temperature at which kinetic energy of a gas molecule is
doubled. Its value at 270C is:
A.5400C
B.3270C
C.3000C
D.1080C
43. Four molecules have speed of 2kms-1, 3kms-1, 4kms-1 and 5kms-
1
. The rms speed these molecules have in kms-1 is:
A.√54/4
B.3.5
C.√54/2
D.3√3
44. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands
from V1 to V2 in three ways. For an isothermal process the work
done is W 1, W 2 for isobaric and W3 for adiabatic then:
A.W 2>W 1>W 3
B.W 2>W 3>W 1
C.W 1>W 2>W 3
D.W 1>W 3>W 2
45. During an adiabatic expansion the increase in volume is
associated with:
A.Decrease in pressure and decrease in temperature
B.Increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
C.Increase in pressure and increase in temperature
D.Decrease in pressure and increase in temperature
46. A gas containing N number of molecules of a gas having mass
of each molecule m is in a cubic container having length of each
side a. the density of a gas contained in a cube is:
A.N/a2
B.Nm/a2
C.N/ma2
D.Na2/m
47. The relation between pressure P and energy E of a gas is:
A.P
B.W E
C.P 2E
D.V
48. A heat engine operating according to second law of
thermodynamics rejects one fourth of the heat taken from high
temperature reservoir. The percentage efficiency of heat engine
is:
A.25%
B.50%
C.75%
D.100%
49. A refrigerator has a coefficient of performance 8. If the
temperature in the freezer is -230C, the temperature at which it
rejects heat is:
A.6.20C
B.8.20C
C.10.20C
D.110C
50. Change in entropy of 30g of water at 00C as it is changed to ice
at 00C (Hf = 336000Jkg-1) is:
A.36.92 JK-1
B.36.92 kJK-1
C.36.92 MJK-1
D.36.92 mJK-1
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No: 10)
Answer Key
1 B 11 A 21 C 31 C 41 C
2 D 12 B 22 A 32 D 42 B
3 B 13 B 23 C 33 B 43 C
4 C 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 A
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 D 45 A
6 C 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 B
7 A 17 A 27 A 37 B 47 A
8 D 18 A 28 B 38 A 48 C
9 D 19 A 29 D 39 A 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 C 40 B 50 A
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-II (Ch No:- 11)
1. If the distance between two charges is doubled, the electric force
between them will become:
A. Half
B. Twice
C. four times
D. One forth
2. The value of relative permittivity for various dielectrics is always:
A.Greater than 1
B.Less than 1
C.Equal to 1
D.Zero
3. When a dielectric is placed between the charges, the force
between the charges as compared to vacuum will be:
A.Increased
B.Decreased
C.Constant
D.Infinite
4. A charge at rest creates around itself:
A.Electric field
B.Magnetic field
C.Gravitational field
D.Both a and b
5. The electric intensity at infinite distance from the point charge is:
A.Zero
B.Infinite
C.1N/C
D.F/r2
6. Test charge is always a unit:
A.Negative charge
B.Positive charge
C.Either of these
D.Infinite charge
7. The electric flux through any surface depends upon:
A.Area of the surface
B.Direction of surface relative to field
C.Intensity of electric field
D.All of the above
8. Earth’s potential is considered as:
A.Negative
B.Positive
C.Zero
D.Infinite
9. The product of resistance and capacitance is:
A.Velocity
B.Force
C.Acceleration
D.Time
10. Sharks can detect the potential difference of the order of:
A.nV
B.
C.mV
D.pV
11. Flux passing through an area will be positive, when angle

between and will be:
A.Greater than 90o
B.Less than 90o
C.Equal to 90o
D.Equal to180o
12. SI unit of electric flux is:
A.N2m2C-1
B.N2mC-1
C.Nm2C-2
D.Nm2C-1
13. The electrostatic force as compared to gravitational force is:
A. Very strong
B. Very weak
C.Approximately zero
D.Almost equal
14. If a dielectric is placed between the plates of the capacitor, its
capacitance:
A.Decreases
B.Increases
C.Remains constant
D.Becomes zero
15. If F a nd 4 F ca pa citors a re conne cte d in pa ra lle l, the
resultant capacitance is:
A.6
B.8
C.1.3
D.0.5
16. Two equal and opposite charges separated by a small distance are said to
constitute:
A.An electric field
B.A magnetic field
C.A dipole
D.Monopole
17. Due to polarization of dielectric the electric intensity of a
capacitor:
A.Increases
B.Decreases
C.Remains constant
D.Becomes zero
18. 1 V/m = :
A.1J/m
B.1C/m
C.1N/C
D.1C/N
19. If time constant in RC circuit is small, the capacitor is charged or
discharged:
A.Slowly
B.Rapidly
C.At constant rate
D.Very slowly
20. Inside a hollow spherical conductor, the potential:
A. Varies inversely as square of the distance from the centre
B. Is constant
C.Varies directly as the distance from the centre
D.Varies universally as the distance from the centre
21. Two charges are placed at a certain distance, if the magnitude
of each charge is doubled the force will become:
A. 1/4th of its original value
B. 1/8th of its original value
C.16 times of its original value
D.4 times of its original value
22. A closed surface contains two equal and opposite charges. The
net electric flux from the surface will be:
A.negative
B.positive
C.zero
D.infinite
23. Two metallic spheres A and B of radii 2m and 4m respectively
carry the same charge. If the spheres are connected by a copper
wire then:
A.Charge will flow from A to B
B.Charge will flow from B to A
C.Equal number of charges will flow from both sides
D.No flow of charge will occur
24. Two opposite charges of magnitude q are separated by distance
of 3d. What is the electric potential at a point midway between
them:
A.Zero
B.3kq/r
C.Kq/r
D.Kq/3d
25. A point charge q is lying at the centre of a cube. The flux
emerging out of the cube will be:
A.6ql2/ o
B.q/ o
C.q/6l2 o
D.zero

26. Two positive charges of 1uC and 5uC exert force on one
another. The ratio of the forces acting on them will be:
A.1:2
B.1:5
C.1:1
D.5:1
27. When a charge q is moved once around a circle of radius R with
charge Q at the centre of the circle, work done is:
A.zero
B.kQq/R
C.kQq/R2
D.Qq/R
28. Three charges each equal to q are placed at the corners of
equilateral triangle. If force between any two charges is F then
which of the following is the net force on the triangle?
A.2F
B.√2F
C.F/2
D.Zero
29. A capacitor of capacitance C has charge Q and stored energy is
W. if the charge is increased to 2Q the energy will become:
A.4W
B.2W
C.W/2
D.W/4
30. The graph between F and d of two point charges is always a:
A.Straight line
B.Constant decay
C.Parabola
D.Exponential decay
31. A parallel plate capacitor is first charged and then a dielectric
slab is introduced between the plates. Which of the following
quantity remains unchanged:
A.Energy
B.Charge
C.Potential
D.Capacitance
32. A parallel plate capacitor with oil between the plates ( r = 2) has
a capacitance C. if oil is removed then capacitance becomes:
A.C
B.C/√2
C.C/2
D.√2C
33. Two positive point charges q1 =16uC and q2 =4uC are
separated by 3m distance. The spot on the line where electric
field is zero will be at:
A. 1m from q2
B. 1m from q1
C.2m from q2
D.3m from q1
34. The electric field strength required to hold suspended a particle
of mass 1mg and 1uC charge between two plates 10cm apart is:
A.9.8Vm
B.98Vm-1
C.9.8Vm-1
D.98Vm
35. Which of the following is the equivalent capacitance for
capacitors of capacitances 2uF each between points A and B:
A.0.67uF
B.4uF
C.16uF
D.6uF
36. Work done in moving a unit positive charge through a distance
of X metre on an equipotential surface is:
A.X Joules
B.X2 Joules
C.zero
D.1/X Joules
37. A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube. Which of the
following is electric flux through its one face?
A.q/ o
B.q/4 o
C.q/6 o
D.q/16 o
38. If a metal plate is placed between two point charges then

electrostatic force between them:
A.Remains constant
B.Increases
C.Decreases
D.Becomes zero
39. Time constant for the following figure is:
A. 4t
B. t
C. 2t
D. t/2
40. If C is capacitance of each capacitor then which of the following
is the capacitance between X and Y?
A.C
B.2C
C.3C
D.4C
41. A particle of charge q and mass m travels through a potential
difference V from rest. Which of the following is the final
momentum of the particle?
A.mv/Q
B.2Q√mv
C.√2Qv/m
D.√2Qmv
42. Two copper spheres of same radii, one hollow and other solid
are charged to the same potential then:
A.Both will hold same charge
B.Solid will hold more charge
C.Hollow will hold more charge
D.Hollow cannot be charged
43. Electric field and electric potential inside hollow charged
conducting sphere are respectively:
A.0, kq/r
B.Kq/r2, 0
C.0, kq/r2
D.Kq/r2, kq/r
44. A particle carrying a charge 3e falls through a potential
difference of 5V. the energy in Joules will be:
A.0.24 x 10-18 J
B.2.4 x 10-18 J
C.24 x 10-18 J
D.240 x 10-18 J
45. A 6uF capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 120V and
then connected to an uncharged 4uF capacitor. The potential
difference across capacitor will be:
A.61.2V
B.72V
C.18.8V
D.0V
46. Two positive point charges of 1.5nC and 1.3nC are placed 12cm
apart. The work done in bringing the two charges 4cm closer will
be:
A.7.31 nJ
B.73.1 uJ
C.7.31 mJ
D.73.1 nJ
47. Electric field at a distance of 30cm from 3uC point charge is:
A.3 x 105 NC
B.3 x 10-5 NC
C.3 x 105 NC-1
D.3 x 10-5 NC-1
48. Force of attraction between two point charges placed at a
distance d in a medium is F. The distance at which force
between them becomes F/3 is:
A.√3d
B.1/√3d
C.3d
D.1/3d
49. The ratio of electrostatic force to gravitational force between
proton and electron in hydrogen atom is:
A.2.25 x 1017
B.2.25 x 1022
C.2.25 x 1039
D.2.25 x 1043
50. Dimensional formula for permittivity of free space is:
A.[M2L2TA-1]
B.[ML2T-1A-1]
C.[ML-3TA2]
D.[M-1L-3T4A2]
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-II (Ch No:- 4)
Answer Key
1 D 11 B 21 D 31 B 41 D
2 A 12 D 22 C 32 C 42 A
3 B 13 A 23 D 33 A 43 A
4 A 14 B 24 A 34 C 44 B
5 A 15 A 25 B 35 D 45 B
6 B 16 C 26 C 36 C 46 D
7 D 17 B 27 A 37 C 47 C
8 C 18 C 28 D 38 D 48 A
9 D 19 B 29 A 39 B 49 C
10 A 20 B 30 D 40 A 50 D
APSACS
PET (Physics)
1. In gases charge carriers are:
A. Electrons
B. Ions
C. Electrons and ions
D. Proton
2. The speed of randomly moving electron depends upon:
A.Pressure
B.Temperature
C.Volume
D.entropy
3. The device which converts heat into electrical energy is:
A.Solar cell
B.Battery
C.Cell
D.Thermocouple
4. For an open circuit, the current flowing through the circuit will be:
A.Infinite
B.Finite
C.Maximum
D.Zero
5. The maximum power output is delivered to load resistance R,
when internal resistance of source is:
A.r=R
B.r=0
C.r=∞
D.r=R/2
6. Slide wire bridge is a practical form of:
A.Galvanometer
B.Voltmeter
C.Wheatstone bridge
D.Potentiometer
7. Power dissipated in resistor can be calculated by:
A.P=VI
B.P=I2R
C.P=V2/R
D.All of the above
8. SI unit of temperature coefficient of resistance is:
A.Ωm
B.K-1
C.K
D.ΩK
9. The resistance of conductor at absolute zero (0K) is:
A.Zero
B.Infinite
C.Positive
D.Negative
10. The resistivity of wire depends on its:
A.Length
B.Area
C.Shape
D.Material

11. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glow brighter than the other.
Which one of the following has larger resistance?
A.Brighter bulb
B.Dim bulb
C.Both have same resistance
D.Brightness does not depend on resistance
12. The resistance of the wire is 1Ω. Which of the following is new
resistance if length of the wire is doubled?
A.2Ω
B.4Ω
C.0.5Ω
D.0.25Ω
13. For an open circuit:
A.E=Vt
B.E>Vt
C.E<Vt
D.E=V t +Ir
14. Resistance of semiconductor:
A.Increases with increase in temperature
B.Remains constant
C.Decreases with increase in temperature
D.Varies from material to material
15. The electron in the presence of electric field:
A.Drifts along the direction of field
B.May drift in any direction
C.Does not move
D.Drift opposite to direction of field
16. Heat produced by passage of current through a circuit is given
by:
A.H=I2Rt
B.H=V2t/R
C.H=VIt
D.All of the above
17. Temperature coefficient of resistance of thermistor is:
A.Always negative
B.Always positive
C.Changes from positive to negative and vice versa
D.May be positive or negative
18. At ordinary temperature, an increase in temperature increases
the conductivity of:
A.Semiconductor
B.Conductor
C.Insulator
D.Alloy
19. The specific resistance of wire:
A. Varies with its mass
B. Varies with its length
C.Is independent of length, mass and area of cross section
D.Varies with its area of cross section
20. Powers of two bulbs are 50W and 100W, which are connected in
series. Then 50W bulb will:
A.Glow dim
B.Glow brighter
C.Glow less than 100W bulb
D.Not glow
21. Ampere hour is a unit of:
A.Current
B.Time
C.Quality of charge
D.Power
22. If temperature of metallic conductor is increased, the product of
resistivity and conductivity would:
A.Increase
B.Decrease
C.Change depending upon material
D.Remains constant
23. Dimensions of heat energy are:
A.[MLT-2]
B.[ML2T-2]
C.[MLT]
D.[LT-3]
24. Manganin wire is preferred for making standard resistance
because :
A.Temperature coefficient is positive
B.Temperature coefficient is negative
C.Resistance does not change with temperature
D.Resistance changes with temperature
25. Resistance of dry human being is:
A.0Ω
B.10Ω
C.100Ω
D.10000Ω

26. Given three equal resistors, how many different combinations
can be made:
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
27. Three resistors of resistances R, each are combined in various
ways. Which of the following cannot be obtained:
A.3R
B.2R/4
C.R/3
D.2R/3
28. Three resistances of 3Ω each are connected in such a way that
net resistance is 2Ω then:
A.All three be in series
B.All three be in parallel
C.Two connected in parallel and one in series
D.Two connected in series an done in parallel
29. Three bulbs of powers 25W, 40W and 60W. Which of them has
lowest resistance?
A. 5W bulb
B. 0W bulb
C.60W bulb
D.All have same resistances
30. Potential drop across the terminals of an external resistor of
resistance R=r (internal resistance), where E is the emf of the
battery, will be:
A.E/2
B.E/4
C.2E
D.4E
31. The resistance of wire is R. It is cut into four equal parts and
bundled together in parallel. The equivalent resistance will be:
A.4R
B.R/4
C.R/16
D.R
32. A wire of resistance R is stretched four times its length
uniformly. Its new resistance will be:
A.16R
B.4R
C.R/4
D.R/16
33. A carbon resistance reads red-red-black. What is its resistance?
A.2.2Ω
B.20Ω
C.22Ω
D.220Ω
34. If the resistivity of potentiometer wire be a nd a re a of cros s
section be A. If is the curre nt through the pote ntiome te r wire
then what will be the potential gradient along the wire?
A.l
B. /A
C.l/
D. A
35. A platinum wire has resistance of 10Ω at 0oC and 20Ω at 273oC.
The value of temperature coefficient of resistance of platinum is:
A.3.66 x 103K-1
B.6.33 x 10-3K-1
C.6.33 x 103K-1
D.3.66 x 10-3K-1
36. The potential difference between terminals of a battery in open
circuit is 2.2V. When it is connected across a resistance of 5Ω,
the potential falls to 1.8V. The internal resistance of the battery
is:
A.0.2Ω
B.0.36Ω
C.1.8Ω
D.1.11Ω
37. Total current through the following circuit is:
A.0.5A
B.1A
C.2A
D.0A
38. A heating coil has resistance of 20Ω. It is designed to operate on
220V. the electrical energy in Joules supplied to the heater in
10s is:
A.24.2KJ
B.24.2J
C.2.42KJ
D.2.42J
39. A copper wire A has 2m length and copper wire B has 4m
length. Which wire has greater resistivity:
a)Wire A
b) Wire B
c) Both have same resistivity
d) Either A or B wire
40. Two resistors whose values are in ratio 2:1 are connected in
parallel with one cell. The ratio of power dissipated is:
A.2:1
B.4:1
C.1:2
D.1:1
41. The current flowing from X to Y will be:
A.0A
B.2A
C.4A
D.6A
42. Three resistors of 3Ω resistance each are connected in parallel
and potential difference is 50V. the potential drop across each
resistor is:
A.10V
B.50V
C.75V
D.Infinite
43. Three 2Ω resistors are connected to form a triangle. The
resistance between any two corners is:
A.4/3Ω
B.4x3Ω
C.4Ω
D.3/4Ω
44. The current in 5x105Ω resistor having potential difference of
5x102V is:
A.10-3A
B.103A
C.10-7A
D.107A
45. Heat generated by 40W bulb in 1 hour is:
A.4800J
B.14400J
C.144000J
D.1440J
46. Number of electrons flowing in 1s through a filament of 120V
and 60W bulb are:
A.3.125x1018A
B.3.125mA
C.3.125x1018
D.3.125uA
47. A wire of resistance R is stretched till its length is increased n
times of its original length. Its new resistance will be:
A.nR
B.R/n
C.R/n2
D.n2R
48. Two wires when connected in series have equivalent resistance
of 18Ω and when connected in parallel has equivalent resistance
of 4Ω. Their resistances are:
A. 12Ω, 12Ω
B. 12Ω,
6Ω C.6Ω,
6Ω D.12Ω,
3Ω
49. The high voltage in a TV receiver is 17kV. The maximum
allowable current is 150uA. The least permissible value of load
resistance is:
A.1.13kΩ
B.113Ω
C.113MΩ
D.113kΩ
50. 1x107 electrons pass through a wire in 1us. The current will be:
A.1.6uA
B.2.6uA
C.4uA
D.5.2uA
APSACS
PET (Physics)
Answer Key
1 C 11 B 21 C 31 C 41 D
2 B 12 A 22 D 32 A 42 B
3 D 13 A 23 B 33 C 43 A
4 D 14 C 24 C 34 B 44 A
5 A 15 D 25 D 35 D 45 C
6 C 16 D 26 B 36 D 46 C
7 A 17 B 27 B 37 B 47 D
8 B 18 A 28 D 38 A 48 B
9 A 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 C
10 D 20 B 30 A 40 C 50 A
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-II (Ch No: 13)
1. A current carrying wire is surrounded by:

A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Both a and b
D. Gravitational field
2. A current carrying conductor experiences maximum magnetic
force in a uniform magnetic field when it is placed:
A.At an angle of 600 to the field
B.Perpendicular to the field
C.Parallel to the field
D.Antiparallel to the field
3. Two parallel straight wires carrying currents in opposite direction:
A.Repel each other
B.Attract each other
C.Have no effect on each other
D.They cancel out their individual magnetic fields
4. If the current passing through the wire in a magnetic field is
halved, the magnetic field would become
A.half
B.twice
C.four times
D.six times
5. 1T = _:
A.Wbm2
B.Wbm-2
C.Wbm-1
D.Wbm
6. A charge projected in the direction of the field experiences:
A.Maximum force
B.Finite force
C.No force
D.Infinite force
7. Galvanometer can be made sensitive if c/BAN is:
A.Made large
B.Made small
C.constant
D.zero
8. Dimension of flux density is :
A.[MT-2A]
B.[ML2T-2A-1]
C.[MT-2A-2]
D.[MT-2A-1]
9. The force experienced by charged particle is zero, when it is
projected at:
A.00
B.450
C.900
D.1800
10. The magnetic effect near the current carrying conductor was
discovered by:
A.Coulomb
B.Bohr
C.Faraday
D.Hans Oersted
11. When charged particle enters in magnetic field, right angle to its
motion, then magnitude of its velocity will be:
A.changed
B.unchanged
C.zero
D.half of its original value
12. In a lightning strike, there is a rapid movement of negative
charges from a cloud to the earth. In what direction is the
lightning strike deflected by earth’s magnetic field:
A.East
B.South-east
C.West
D.South-west
13. Which of the following satisfies the relation between radius of
curvature of charged particle and momentum?
A.r P
B.r 1/P
C.r qP
D.r 1/qP
14. Which of the following describes frequency of revolution of
charged particle in a magnetic field?
A.f = 2 2m B
B.f = qmB/2
C.f = 2
D.f = qB/2
15. Kinetic energy of a charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic
field is:
A.Infinite
B.Constant
C.Zero
D.Unpredictable
16. has dimensions of:

A.Acceleration
B.Momentum
C.Velocity
D.Kinetic energy
17. A strong magnetic field is provided to a stationary electron, then
electron will:
A.Move in the direction of field
B.Move opposite to the field
C.Start spinning
D.Remain stationary
18. A charged particle enters at 300 to the magnetic field, its path
becomes:
A.Helical
B.Circular
C.Elliptical
D.Straight line
19. Weber ampere per metre is equal to:
A.Joule
B.Newton
C.Watt
D.Henry
20. A current flows in a conductor from east to west. The direction
of the magnetic field at a point above the conductor is towards:
A.East
B.West
C.North
D.South
21. If the current is passed in a spring, it:
A.Gets compressed
B.Gets expanded
C.Oscillates
D.Remains unchanged
22. For an accurate measurement of current through a circuit, the
ammeter resistance should be:
A.Large compared to circuit resistance
B.Very small compared to circuit resistance
C.Neither too small nor too large
D.infinite
23. Which material is preferred as a core for electromagnet?
A.Copper
B.Zinc
C.Iron
D.Steel
24. Magnetic field due to current carrying straight wire varies as:
A.1/r2
B.r2
C.1/r
D.R
25. When a charged particle moves through a magnetic field, it
suffers a change in:
A.Direction
B.Speed
C.Energy
D.No change
26. A beam of alpha particles and proton of same velocity u enters
uniform magnetic field at right angle. The ratio of the radii will be:
A.2:1
B.1:2
C.3:1
D.1:3
27. Dimensional formula for permeability of free space is:
A.[MLTA-2]
B.[ML2T-2A-1]
C.[MLT-2A-2]
D.[ML2A-1]
28. The kinetic energy of proton is E moving in a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to it. If magnetic field is increased to 4B
keeping the radius constant, the energy will now be::
A.4E
B.1/4E
C.16E
D.1/16E
29. An electron is moving in a circle of radius r in a uniform
magnetic field B. suddenly the field is reduced to B/2, the radius
now becomes:
A.r/2
B.r/4
C.2r
D.4r
30. A straight conductor carrying a current I, splits into a circular
loop of radius r. the magnetic field at the centre of the circle is:
A. o I/2r
B. I/2
C. I/
D.zero
31. An electron and proton enter a magnetic field with same velocity.
Which of the following is the ratio of their acceleration:
A.
B.
C.
D.
32. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field in a
circle. The radius of the circular path is R. if the energy of the
particle is doubled then the radius will be:
A.R/√2
B.R/2
C.√2R
D.2R
33. If the number of turns of a solenoid becomes half then the
magnetic field will be:
A.B/2
B.2B
C.B
D.Zero
34. The radius of an orbit of an electron moving at a rate of
2 x 107ms-1 in a uniform magnetic field of 1.20 x 10-3T is:
A.9.43 m
B.9.43 mm
C.9.43 cm
D.9.43 dm
35. A power line 10m high carries a current of 200A, the magnetic
field of the wire at the ground is:
A.4T
B.4mT
C.4
D.4MT
36. The unit of magnetic flux per unit area is:
A.Weber
B.Tesla
C.Wb/m2
D.Both b and c
37. If the magnetic field points upward and current through a
conductor is to your left, the force experienced by the conductor
will be towards:
A.To your right
B.To your left
C.Towards you
D.Away from you
38. A current carrying loop as viewed from above carries current in
counterclockwise sense. The direction of magnetic field inside
the loop:
A.Circles the loop in clockwise direction
B.Circles the loop in anticlockwise direction
C.Points straight up
D.Points straight down
39. Current I is flowing in a circular coil of radius r, then the
magnetic induction at the centre is B. if the current is doubled
then the magnetic induction will be:
a)zero
b) 2B
c) B
d) 4B
40. The magnetic field in a certain region is given by = (40 - 18 )

Wbm-2. How much flux passes through a 5cm2 area loop in this
region if the loop lies flat in the x-y plane?
A.90 x 10-4Wb
B.9 x 10-4Wb
C.0.9 x 10-4Wb
D.90 x 10-3Wb
41. If the length of the solenoid is doubled then the magnetic field
becomes:
A.B
B.2B
C.B/2
D.4B
42. The plane of coil of galvanometer makes an angle of with
radial magnetic field:
A.1800
B.900
C.450
D.00
43. The couple c for unit twist of the suspension wire can be
decreased by:
A.Decreasing its length
B. Increasing its length
C.Decreasing its diameter
D.Both a and c
44. A wire (carrying current of 2A and has a length of 10cm) placed
between poles of a magnet is kept at an angle of 300 to the
uniform magnetic field, the force acting on it will be:
A.0.6N
B.0.06N
C.6N
D.60N
45. A long straight wire carries a current of 1A, the magnitude of
magnetic field at a distance of 1m is:
A.2 x 10-7T
B.2 x 10-9T
C.2 x 10-11T
D.0T
46. Two long parallel wires 6cm apart carry current of 8A and 2A,
the magnitude of magnetic field midway between them is:
A.4 x 10-1T
B.4 x 10-3T
C.4 x 10-5T
D.4 x 10-7T
47. If magnetic field is doubled then e/m ratio becomes:
A.e/m
B.2e/m
C.e/2m
D.e/4m
48. A galvanometer has resistance of 100 a nd give s full s ca le
deflection on 1mA current. Shunt resistance to make ammeter
should be:
A.0.001
B.0.01
C.0.1
D.1
49. The unit of permeability of free space is:
A.Tm/A
B.Tm2/A
C.Tm/A2
D.m/TA
50. What current should pass through the solenoid that is 0.5m long
with 10,000 turns of copper wire so that it will have a magnetic
field of 0.4T?:
A.16A
B.12.8A
C.8.9A
D.4.2A
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-II (Ch No: 13)
Answer Key
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 A 41 C
2 B 12 C 22 B 32 C 42 D
3 A 13 A 23 C 33 A 43 B
4 A 14 D 24 C 34 C 44 B
5 B 15 B 25 A 35 C 45 A
6 C 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 B 17 D 27 C 37 D 47 D
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 D 48 B
9 A 19 B 29 C 39 B 49 A
10 D 20 C 30 D 40 A 50 A
APSACS
PET (Physics)
1. The emf induced due to motion of a conductor across a magnetic field

is called :
A. Back emf
B. Induced emf
C. Motional emf
D. Constant emf
2. If velocity of the conductor across a magnetic field is zero, then its
motional emf will be :
A. -vBL
B. -v/BL
C. -BL/v
D. zero
3. Lenz’s law deals with the:
A. Direction of induced emf
B. Direction of induced current
C. Magnitude of emf
D. Both direction and magnitude of emf
4. If the current in primary coil I changed by varying the resistance of the
rheostat, the magnetic flux in the surrounding is:
A. zero
B. constant
C. changed
D. both a and b
5. 1Henry = :
A. Vas-1
B. NmA-1
C. VsA-1
D. V-1sA
6. If the coil is wound on an iron core, the flux through it will:
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remains constant
D. be zero
7. SI unit of self-inductance is:
A. Tesla
B. Volt
C. Ampere
D. Henry
8. In an alternating current, inductor behaves like:
A. capacitor
B. thermistor
C. resistor
D. conductor
9. the fluctuation of the output of generator can be reduced by:
A. using commutator
B. using slip rings
C. using many coils
D. using many resistors
10. When motor is just started, the back emf is almost:
A. low
B. high
C. zero
D. constant
11. If back emf in a motor decreases, then it will draw:
A. More current
B. Small current
C. No current
D. Infinite current
12. A transformer is used to change:
A. Voltage of DC
B. Voltage of AC
C. Electrical energy
D. The magnetic field
13. Wearing a metal bracelet in a region of strong magnetic field can be
hazardous due to:
A. Large resistance
B. Charging of metal bracelet
C. Large inductance
D. Induced current
14. Inductance coils are made of thick copper wire because they:
A. Have small resistance
B. Have small area
C. Have large resistance
D. Are very cheap
15. Energy loss in copper wire of primary and secondary coil due to heat is
called:
A. Copper loss
B. Metal loss
C. Magnetic loss
D. Hysteresis loss
16. Choke coil in DC cannot be used because:
A. Frequency is infinite
B. Inductance is zero
C. Inductance is infinite
D. Frequency is zero
17. Dimensional formula of mutual inductance is:
A. [MLTA-1]
B. [ML2T-2A2]
C. [ML2T-2A]
D. [M2LT2A]
18. Which of the following quantity decreases in a step up transformer?
A. current
B. voltage
C. frequency
D. power
19. energy density of an inductor is:
A. Directly proportional to magnetic field
B. Directly proportional to square of magnetic field
C. Inversely proportional to magnetic field
D. Inversely proportional to square ofmagnetic field
20. Weber per second is equal to:
A. Joule
B. Coulomb
C. Volt
D. Tesla
21. When the load on a generator is increased the mechanical energy
required by generator:
A. Will increase
B. Will decrease
C. Will remain same
D. All are possible
22. The hysteresis loss is maximum for :
A. steel
B. iron
C. zinc
D. both a and b
23. Tesla is the unit for measuring:
A. Magnetic intensity
B. Magnetic induction
C. Magnetic moment
D. Electric potential
24. If a step up transformer were 100% efficient, the primary and
secondary windings would have the same:
A. Current
B. Power
C. Number of turns
D. Voltage
25. The AC and DC have the same:
A. Effect in charging a capacitor
B. Effect in charging a battery
C. Effect while passing through an inductor
D. Heating effect while passing through a resistor

26. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel. The equivalent
inductance will be:
A. L1 + L2 = Leq
B. 1/L1 + 1/L2 = 1/Leq
C. L 1 L 2/L 1 = 1/L eq
D. L 1 L 2/L 2 = 1/L eq
27. Power dissipation in case of motional emf is:
A. B2L2v2/R
B. B2L2/v2R
C. B2/L2v2R
D. R/B2L2v2
28. If number of turns per unit length of inductor coil is doubled then self-
inductance becomes:
A. Double
B. Half
C. Four times
D. Triple
29. When the number of turns of the solenoid is doubled without any
change in its length, itself inductance will:
A. Increase two times
B. Increase four times
C. Remains same
D. Decrease two times
30. The angular speed of rotation of the coil of AC generator is doubled.
Then induced emf will be:
A. half
B. same
C. twice
D. four times
31. In electromagnetic induction, the induced emf is independent of:
A. Change of magnetic flux
B. time
C. number of turns of coil
D. resistance of coil
32. Tape recorder records sound in the form of:
A. Electrical energy
B. Magnetic field on the tape
C. Variable resistance on the tape
D. Sound waves hold on tape
33. If L and R represent inductance and resistance respectively, then the
dimensions of L/R will be:
A. [M0L0T-1]
B. [M0L0T-2]
C. [M0L0T]
D. [M0L0T2]
34. L, C, R represents inductance, capacitance and resistance
respectively. Which of the following have the dimensions of frequency:
A. 1/RC
B. RL/C
C. R/LC
D. C/L
35. A magnet is pushed horizontally towards a coil of insulated wire,
inducing an emf in the coil. In which direction does the coil try to move?
A. Downwards
B. Upwards
C. Away from the magnet
D. Towards the magnet
36. If input power and output power of an electric motor are 540W and
382W respectively then which of the following is its efficiency?
A. 100%
B. 91%
C. 71%
D. 50%
37. The turn ratio of a transformer is 10. It means that:
A. Is = 10Ip
B. Ns = Np/10
C. Ns = 10Np
D. Vs = Vp/10
38. The turn ratio of step up transformer is 4:1. If current of 4A is passing
through the primary coil. Then current in secondary coil will be:
A. 0.25A
B. 1A
C. 2A
D. 8A
39. The self-inductance of a coil is 5H. The current changes from 1A to 2A
in 5s through the coil. Which of the following is the magnetic energy
stored in the coil?
A. 100V
B. 10V
C. 1V
D. 0.1V
40. A current of 2A flowing through a coil of 100 turns give rise to a
magnetic flux of 5 x 10-5Wb per turn. Which of the following is the
magnetic energy stored in the coil?
A. 5J
B. 0.5J
C. 0.05J
D. 0.005J
41. A transformer is used to light a 140W, 24V bulb from a 240V A.C
mains. The current in the main cable is 0.7A. which of the following is
the efficiency of transformer?
A. 93%
B. 83.3%
C. 63%
D. 36%
42. The core of dynamo is laminated because:
A. Magnetic field increases
B. Magnetic saturation level in core increases
C. Loss of energy in core due to eddy currents decreases
D. Residual magnetism in core decreases
43. The number of turns in a coil is increased from 10 to 100. Its self-
inductance becomes:
A. 1/10 times
B. 10 times
C. 25 times
D. 100 times
44. If current flowing through a coil is doubled then magnetic energy stored
in the coil:
A. Remain same
B. Increases two times
C. Increases four times
D. Increases eight times
45. Heating a magnet
A. Weaken it
B. Strengthen it
C. Will have no effect
D. Reverse itspoles
46. A solenoid is 15cm long and has 150 turns, what is the strength of
magnetic field inside it, when 2.5A current passes through it:
A. 3.14 x 10-3T
B. 3.14 x 10-2T
C. 1.31 x 10-4T
D. 1.14 x 10-3T
47. Which of the following forces will not do any work on moving electron?
A. Electric force
B. Gravitational force
C. Magnetic force
D. All of the above
48. A rectangular coil placed in the magnetic field experiences maximum
torque when:
A. Its plane is parallel to the field
B. Its plane is perpendicular to the field
C. Normal to its plane is parallel to the field
D. Normal to its plane is perpendicular to the field
49. Speed of the motor can be controlled by changing through it:
A. voltage
B. current
C. resistance
D. direction of north pole
50. it can be deduced that a piece of metal is already a magnet if
A. copper wire is attracted to it
B. both ends of a compass needle are attracted to it
C. a magnet is attracted to it
D. one end of a compass needle is repelled by it
APSACS
PET (Physics)
Answer Key
1 C 11 A 21 B 31 D 41 B
2 D 12 B 22 A 32 B 42 C
3 B 13 D 23 A 33 C 43 D
4 C 14 A 24 C 34 A 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 D 35 C 45 B
6 A 16 D 26 B 36 C 46 A
7 A 17 B 27 A 37 C 47 A
8 C 18 A 28 C 38 B 48 D
9 C 19 B 29 B 39 C 49 C
10 C 20 C 30 C 40 D 50 D
APSACS
PET (Physics)
1. The time taken by an A.C frequency 50Hz to completeone cycle

A. 0.5Sec B. 0.2 Sec
C. 0.02 Sec D. 0.002Sec
2. The peak value of A.C is 2√2. Which if the following will be its apparent
value
A. zero B. √2/2 A
C. 2/√2 A D. 2A
3. The effective value of A.C in a circuit is 10A. Which of the following will
be its peak value
A. 14.14A B. 7.07A
C. 5A D. 0.707A
4. An electric bulb is designed to operate at 12V DC. It is connected to AC
and gives same brightness then peak AC value of voltage is
A. 12V B. 12√2V
C. 18V D. 24√2V
5. The reactance of a capacitor at 50Hz is 10Ω. Which of the following g
will be its reactance at 100Hz?
A. 20Ω B. 10Ω
C. 5Ω D. 1Ω
6. In receiving circuit of radio, the resonant circuit are used as
A. oscillator B. reflector
C. rejecter circuit D. selector circuit
7. In choke coli, the reactance X L and resistance R are such that
A. XL =R B. XL=α
C. XL>R D. XL<R
8. The power factor of an A.C circuit having resistance R and inductor L
connected in series an A.C source of angular frequency ω
A. R2+ω2 B. R / √R2+ω2
C. R√R2+ω2 D. R/√R2
9. Which of the following is the value of L if voltmeter in the circuit reads
100V
A. 0.01H B. 0.2H
C. 0.1H D. 0.02H
10. If an iron rod is introduced in inductor then
A. bulb gets dimmer B. bulb gets brighter

C. becomes off D. brightness remains same
11. If a dielectric of relative permittivity Ɛr is introduced in the capacitor then

A. brightness of bulb decrease
B. brightness of bulb increase
C. brightness of bulb remain same
D. trun off
12. In LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same
resonant frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to
A. 2L B. 4L
C. L/2 D. L/4
13. Which one of the following represents the variation of capacitive
reactance Xc with the frequency f of the voltage source?
A. B.
C. D.
14. In the circuit shown in the figure, neglecting source resistance, the
voltmeter and ammeter reading will respectivelybe
A. 0V, 8A B. 150V, 8A
C. 150V, 3A D. 0V, 3A
15. In the equation of AC I=IO sin ωt, the current amplitude and frequency
be
A. IO, ω B. I r.m.s, ω
C. IO, ω / 2π D. IO/2, ω / 2π
16. The sharpness of resonance RLC series resonant circuit, as the
resistance of the circuit is increased
A. changes from infinity to zero
B. changes from zero to infinity
C. goes on increasing
D. goes on decreasing
17. The value of R/Z is equal to
A. sin θ B. cos θ
C. tan θ D. cot θ
18. The rate of heat production in a resistor due to alternating current of
root mean square value 10A is as e as that due to direct current
A. 10√2A B. 10A
C. 10/√2A D. 5A
19. A resistor R and capacitor C are connected in series across an AC
source of root mean square voltage 5V. If root mean square voltage
across C is 3V then which of the following is root mean square voltage
across R ?
A. 2V B. 3V
C. 4V D. 5V
20. An electric bulb 220V is connected to 220V, 5Hz AC source then the
bulb
A. does not glow B. glows intermittently
C. glows continuously D. fuses
21. The reactance of a capacitor at 50Hz is 5Ω. If the frequency is
increased to 100Hz, the new reactance is
A. 5Ω B. 10Ω
C. 2.5Ω D. 125Ω
22. The power factor for LC oscillations is
A. 0 B. 1/2
C. 1/4 D. 1
23. A circuit has a resistance of 12Ω and impedance of 15Ω. The power
factor of the circuit will be
A. 0.4 B. 0.8
C. 0.125 D. 1.25
24. The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel to
A. BxE B. E
C. ExB D. B
25. A choke coil is coil having
A. low inductance and high resistance
B. low inductance and low resistance
C. high inductance and high resistance
D. high inductance and low resistance
26. L/R has the unit equal to
A. velocity B. acceleration
C. time D. current
27. At very high frequency of AC capacitor behaves as
A. insulator B. semiconductor
C. crystal D. conductor
28. If frequency of AC source in RLC series circuit is increased how does
the current in circuit change?
A. B.
C. D.
29. RLC series circuit is also referred as
A. accepter B. reflector
C. rejecter D. oscillator
APSACS
PET (Physics)
Answer Key
1. C. 0.02 Sec
2. D. 2A
3. A. 14.14A
4. B. 12√2V
5. C. 5Ω
6. D. selector circuit
7. C. XL> R
8. B. R / √R2+ω2
9. A. 0.01H
10. B. bulb gets brighter
11. B. brightness of bulb increase
12. D. L/4
13. C.
14. A. 0V, 8A
15. C. IO, ω / 2π
16. D. goes on decreasing
17. B. cos θ
18. B. 10A
19. A. 2V
20. B. glows intermittently
21. B. 10Ω
22. A. 0
23. B. 0.8
24. C. ExB
25. D. high inductance and low resistance
26. C. time
27. D. conductor
28. D
29. A. accepter
APSACS
PET (Physics)
1. Train can be made to float on strong superconducting magnets. It can
attain an incredible speed of
A. 581 kph
B. 361 kph
C. 481 kph
D. 661 kph
2. Solids having regular a arrangement of molecules through its structure
is called:
A. Amorphous Solids
B. Polymeric Solids
C. Glassy Solids
D. Crystalline Solids
3. Which type of solids have definite melting point:
A. Crystalline Solids
B. Amorphous Solids
C. Polymeric Solids
D. Glassy Solids
4. Which of the following is an example crystalline solids:
A. Plastic
B. Zirconia
C. Glass
D. Nylon
5. The arrangement of atoms, ions or molecules in crystalline solids can
be studied by:
A. Radio Waves
B. Infrared Waves
C. X-rays
D. Ultraviolet Rays
6. Formation of large molecule by joining small molecules is
A. Fusion
B. Polymerization
C. Crystallization
D. Subtraction
7. Example of crystalline solids are also
A. Metals
B. Ionic compounds
C. Ceramics
D. All of them
8. The crystal structure of NaCl is:
A. Triclinic
B. Monoclinic
C. Cubic
D. Tetragonal
9. Amorphous solids are also called:
A. Polymeric Solids
B. Glassy Solids
C. Crystalline Solids
D. Brittle Solids
10. Which of the following is polymeric solid:
A. Glass
B. Iron
C. Steel
D. Nylon
11. The solids that are intermediate between order and disorder are called
A. Polymeric Solids
B. Glassy Solids
C. Crystalline Solids
D. Ductile Solids
12. How many crystal systems are there on the basis of geometric
arrangement of the atoms:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
13. The temperature below at which materials lose its resistivity is called
Temperature
A. Super
B. Kelvin
C. Critical
D. Curie
14. The critical temperature for mercury is:
A. 7.2 K
B. 4.2 K
C. 1.18 K
D. 3.7 K
15. The critical temperature of Lead is:
A. 7.2 K
B. 4.2 K
C. 1.18 K
D. 3.7 K
16. The temperature 77 K is the
A. Melting point of Nitrogen
B. Boiling Point of Nitrogen
C. Melting point of Helium
D. Boiling Point of Helium
17. The practical use of superconductors is:
A. Fast computer chips
B. Magnetic Resonance Levitation Trains
C. Power but small electric motors
D. All of these
18. The magnetism produced by electrons within an atom is due to
A. Spin motion
B. Orbital motion
C. Spin & orbital motion
D. None
19. The field of long bar magnet is like a current carrying
A. Solenoid
B. Toroid
C. Loop
D. None
20. Substances in which resultant magnetic moment is zero are called
A. Ferromagnetic
B. Paramagnetic
C. Diamagnetic
D. Conductor
21. The examples of diamagnetic are
A. Water
B. Copper
C. Antimony
D. All of them
22. The substances in which atoms cooperate with each other in such a
way so as to exhibit strongmagnetic field are called:
A. Diamagnetic
B. Paramagnetic
C. Ferromagnetic
D. Insulators
23. Domains contain atoms:
A. 103 to 106
B. 106 to 109
C. 109 to 1012
D. 1012 to 1016
24. Curie temperature for iron is:
A. 0 0C
B. 570 0C
C. 750 0C
D. 1025 0C
25. Above curie temperature iron is:
A. Diamagnetic
B. Paramagnetic
C. Ferromagnetic
D. Superconductor
26. Magnetization lags behind magnetizing current, this phenomenon is
known as:
A. Diamagnetism
B. Coercively
C. Susceptibility
D. Hysterisis
27. A current which demagnetize the material completely is called
A. Applied current
B. Coercive current
C. Maximum current
D. None of these
28. The energy need to magnetize and demagnetize the specimen during
the each cycle ofmagnetizing current is
A. Value of current
B. Value of demagnetizing current
C. Value of magnetic flux density
D. Area of the loop
29. Best hard magnetic materials is made up of:
A. Alnico V
B. Iron
C. Nickel
D. Cobalt
30. A force of 500N is applied to one end of a cylindrical rod of diameter 50
cm. What is the tensile stress?
A. 2.5x104 Nm-2
B. 2.5x105 Nm-2
C. 2.5x106 Nm-2
D. 2.5x107 Nm-2
31. The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily the nature of
A. Electrical insulators alone
B. Electrical conductors alone
C. Electrical semiconductors alone
D. All of the above
32. Which one has the greatest energy gap
A. Semi-conductors
B. Conductors
C. Insulators
D. Metals
33. A well-known example of an intrinsic semi-conductor is:
A. Germanium
B. Phosphorous
C. Aluminum
D. Cobalt
34. Holes can exist in:
A. Super conductors
B. Conductors
C. Semi-conductors
D. Insulators
35. Germanium is:
A. semi-conductor
B. conductor
C. insulator
D. none of these
36. The substances having negative temperature coefficient of resistance
are:
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Semi-Conductor
D. None Of These
37. Good conductors have conductivities of the order of:
A. 10-7 (ohm – meter)-1
B. 107 (ohm – meter)-1
C. 102 (ohm – meter)-1
D. 10-2 (ohm – meter)-1
38. At piece of Ge or Si is a perfect:
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Semi-Conductor
D. Paramagnetic
39. A vacant or partially filled band is called
A. Conduction band
B. Valence band
C. Forbidden band
D. Empty band
40. A completely filled or partially filled band is called
A. Conduction band
B. Valence band
C. Forbidden band
D. Core band
41. A substance having empty conduction band is called:
A. Semi-conductor
B. Conductor
C. Insulator
D. None of these
42. Pentavalent impurities are called
A. Donor impurities
B. Acceptor impurities
C. Both donor and acceptor
D. None of these
43. Minority carriers in N-type materials are
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Holes
44. What type of impurity is to be added to the semi-condutor material to
provide holes:
A. Monovalent
B. Trivalent
C. Tetravalent
D. Pentavalent
45. Holes can exists in
A. Conductors
B. Insulators
C. Semi-conductors
D. All of the above
46. In a semiconductors, the charge carriers are
A. Holes only
B. Electrons only
C. Both Electrons and Holes
D. Zero
47. The net charge on N-type material is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Both a & b
D. Zero
48. Total current in semiconductor is:
A. Electronic Current
B. Current due to Hole
C. Both a & b
D. Current due to electron
49. Amorphous silica is one of the best materials for converting
into electricity.
A. Sunlight
B. Heat
C. Sound
D. Water
50. Amorphous solid rubber is not used in making
A. Tyres
B. Rim
C. Shoes
D. Soles
APSACS
PET (Physics)
Answer Key
Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans Q.no. Ans
1 a 2 d 3 a 4 b 5 c
6 b 7 d 8 c 9 b 10 d
11 a 12 d 13 c 14 b 15 a
16 d 17 b 18 c 19 a 20 c
21 d 22 c 23 d 24 c 25 b
26 d 27 b 28 d 29 a 30 b
31 d 32 c 33 a 34 c 35 a
36 c 37 b 38 b 39 a 40 b
41 c 42 a 43 d 44 c 45 c
46 c 47 d 48 c 49 a 50 b
APSACS
PET (Physics)
1. A basic postulate of Einstein’s theory of relativity is:
A. moving clocks run more slowly than when they are at rest
B. moving rods are shorter than when they are at rest
C. light has both wave and particle properties
D. the laws of physics must be the same for observers moving with
uniform velocity relativeto each other
2. A consequence of Einstein’s theory of relativity is:
A. moving clocks run more slowly than when they are at rest
B. moving rods are longer than when they are at rest
D. the laws of physics must appear the same to all observers
moving with uniform velocityrelative to each other
3. A consequence of Einstein’s theory of relativity is:
A. moving clocks run faster than when they are at rest
B. moving rods are shorter than when they are at rest
D. the laws of physics must appear the same to all observers
moving with uniform elocityrelative to each other
4. According to the theory of relativity:
A moving clocks run fast
B. energy is not conserved in high speed collisions
C. the speed of light must be measured relative to the ether
D. none of the above are true
5. Two events occur simultaneously at separated points on the y axis of
reference frame S.
According to an observer moving in the positive x direction:
A. the event with the greater y coordinate occurs first
B. the event with the greater y coordinate occurs last
C. either event might occur first, depending on the observer’s speed
D. the events are simultaneous
6. The proper time between two events is measured by clocks at rest in a
reference frame in which the two events:
A. occur at the same time
B. occur at the same coordinates
C. are separated by the distance a light signal can travel during the
time interval
D. occur in Boston
7. Spaceship A, traveling past us at 0.7c, sends a message capsule to
spaceship B, which is in frontof A and is traveling in the same direction
as A at 0.8c relative to us. The capsule travels at0.95c relative to us. A
clock that measures the proper time between the sending and receiving
of the capsule travels:
A in the same direction as the spaceships at 0.7c relative to us
B. in the opposite direction from the spaceships at 0.7c relative to us
C. in the same direction as the spaceships at 0.8c relative to us
D. in the same direction as the spaceships at 0.95c relative to us
8. As we watch, a spaceship passes us in time ∆t. The crew of the
spaceship measures the passagetime and finds it to be ∆t . Which of
the following statements is true?
A. ∆t is the proper time for the passage and it is smaller than ∆t
B. ∆t is the proper time for the passage and it is greater than ∆t
C. ∆t is the proper time for the passage and it is smaller than ∆t
D. ∆t is the proper time for the passage and it is greater than ∆t
9. Two independent events occur 100 m apart with an intervening time
interval of 0.42 µs. The proper time in µs between the events is:
A. 0 B. 0.16
C. 0.26 D. 0.42
10. A measurement of the length of an object that is moving relative to the
laboratory consists of noting the coordinates of the front and back:
A. at different times according to clocks at rest in the laboratory
B. at the same time according to clocks that move with the object
C. at the same time according to clocks at rest in the laboratory
D. at the same time according to clocks at rest with respect to the
fixed stars
11. A meter stick moves sideways at 0.95c. According to measurements
taken in the laboratory, its length is:
A. 0 B. 0.31 m
C. 3.2 m D. 1.0 m
12. A rocket ship of rest length 100 m is moving at speed 0.8c past a timing
device that records the time interval between the passage of the front
and back ends of the ship. This time interval is:
A. 0.20 µs B. 0.25 µs
C. 0.33 µs D. 0.52 µs
13. A certain automobile is 6 m long if at rest. If it is measured to be 4/5 as
long, its speed is:
A. 0.1c B. 0.3c
C. 0.6c D. 0.8c
14. As a rocket ship moves by at 0.95c a mark is made on a stationary axis
at the front end of therocket and 9 × 10−8s later a mark is made on the
axis at the back end. The marks are foundto be 100 m apart. The rest
length of the rocket is:
A. 31 m B. 78 m
C. 100 m D. 240 m
15. Light from some stars shows an apparent change in frequency because
of:
A. interference B. refraction by layers of air
C. different D. relative motion
16. The units of the Planck constant h are those of:
A. energy B. power
C. momentum D. angular momentum
17. If h is the Planck constant, then h̄ is:
A. 2πh B. 2h
C. h/2 D. h/2π
18. The quantization of energy, E = nhf, is not important for an ordinary
pendulum because:
A. the formula applies only to mass-spring oscillators
B. the allowed energy levels are too closely spaced
C. the allowed energy levels are too widely spaced
D. the formula applies only to atoms
19. The frequency of light beam A is twice that of light beam B. The ratio
EA/EB of photon energies is:
A. ½ B. 1/4
C. 1 D. 2
20. The wavelength of light beam B is twice the wavelength of light beam
B. The energy of aphoton in beam A is:
A. half the energy of a photon in beam B
B. one-fourth the energy of a photon in beam B
C. equal to the energy of a photon in beam B
D. twice the energy of a photon in beam B
21. A photon in light beam A has twice the energy of a photon in light beam
B. The ratio PA/PBof their momenta is:
A. ½ B. 1/4
C. 1 D. 2
22. A sodium surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 300nm. The
work function for sodium is 2.46 eV then the cutoff wavelength for
sodium is
A. 3.94 x 10-19J B. 3.94 x 10-18J
C. 3.94 x 10-17J D. 3.94 x 1019J
23. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has photons with the
greatest energy?
A. blue light B. yellow light
C. x rays D. radio waves
24. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has photons with the
greatest momentum?
A. blue light B. yellow light
C. x rays D. radio waves
25. Rank following electromagnetic radiations according to the energies of
their photons, from leastto greatest.
1. blue light 2. yellow light
3. x rays 4. radio waves
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 4, 2, 1, 3
C. 4, 1, 2, 3 D. 3, 2, 1, 4
26. In a photoelectric effect experiment the stopping potential is:
A. the energy required to remove an electron from the sample
B. the kinetic energy of the most energetic electron ejected
C. the potential energy of the most energetic electron ejected
D. the electric potential that causes the electron current to vanish
27. In a photoelectric effect experiment at a frequency above cut off, the
stopping potential isproportional to:
A. the energy of the least energetic electron before it is ejected
B. the energy of the least energetic electron after it is ejected
C. the energy of the most energetic electron before it is ejected
D. the energy of the most energetic electron after it is ejected
28. In a photoelectric effect experiment at a frequency above cut off, the
number of electrons ejectedis proportional to:
A. their kinetic energy
B. their potential energy
C. the frequency of the incident light
D. the number of photons that hit the sample
29. Separate Compton effect experiments are carried out using visible light
and x rays. The scattered radiation is observed at the same scattering
angle. For these experiments:
A. the X- rays have the greater shift in wavelength and the greater
change in photon energy
B. the two radiations have the same shift in wavelength and the X
rays have the greater change in photon energy
C. the two radiations have the same shift in wavelength and the
visible light has the greaterchange in photon energy
D. the two radiations have the same shift in wavelength and the
same change in photon energy
30. In Compton scattering from stationary particles the maximum change in
wavelength can bemade smaller by using:
A. higher frequency radiation
B. lower frequency radiation
C. more massive particles
D. less massive particles
31. In Compton scattering from stationary electrons the largest change in
wavelength occurs when the photon is scattered through:
A. 00 B. 22.50
C. 900 D. 1800
32. In Compton scattering from stationary electrons the frequency of the
emitted light is independent of:
A. the frequency of the incident light
B. the speed of the electron
C. the scattering angle
D. none of the above
33. The work function for a certain sample is 2.3 eV. The stopping
potential for electrons ejectedfrom the sample by 7.0 × 1014Hz
electromagnetic radiation is:
A. 0 B. 0.60 V
C. 2.3 V D. 2.9 V
34. The stopping potential for electrons ejected by 6.8×1014Hz
electromagnetic radiation incidentona certain sample is 1.8 V. The
kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons ejected andthe work
function of the sample, respectively, are:
A. 1.8 eV, 2.8 eV B. 1.8 eV, 1.0 eV
C. 1.8 eV, 4.6 eV D. 2.8 eV, 1.0 eV
35. In Compton scattering from stationary electrons the largest change in
wavelength that can
occur is:
A. 2.43 × 10−15m B. 2.43 × 10−12m
C. 2.43 × 10−9m
D. dependent on the frequency of the incident light
36. Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 5.7×10−12m is incident
on stationary electrons.Radiation that has a wavelength of 6.57 ×
10−12m is detected at a scattering angle of:
A. 100 B. 1210
C. 400 D. 500
37. Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 3.5 × 10−12m is
scattered from stationaryelectrons and photons that have been
scattered through 500 are detected. An electron fromwhich one of
thesephotons was scattered receives an energy of:
A. 0 B. 1.1 × 10−14J
C. 1.9 × 10−14J D. 2.3 × 10−14J
38. Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 3.5 × 10−12m is
scattered from stationaryelectrons and photons that have been
scattered through 500are detected. After a scatteringevent the
magnitude of the electron’s momentum is:
A. 0 B. 1.5 × 10−22kg · m/s
C. 2.0 × 10−22kg · m/s D. 2.2 × 10−22kg · m/s
39. A free electron has a momentum of 5.0 × 10−24kg · m/s. The
wavelength of its wave functionis:
A. 1.3 × 10−8m B. 1.3 × 10−10m
C. 2.1 × 10−11m D. 2.1 × 10−13m
40. The frequency and wavelength of the matter wave associated with a
10-eV free electron are:
A. 1.5 × 1034Hz, 3.9 × 10−10m
B. 1.5 × 1034Hz, 1.3 × 10−34m
C. 2.4 × 1015Hz, 1.2 × 10−9m
D. 2.4 × 1015Hz, 3.9 × 10−10m
41. The uncertainty in position of an electron in a certain state is 5 ×
10−10m. The uncertainty in its momentum might be
A. 5.0 × 10−24kg · m/s B. 4.0 × 10−24kg · m/s
C. 3.0 × 10−24kg · m/s D. all of the above
42. Pair production occur only when energy of photon is at least equal to
A. 1.02 keV B. 1.02 eV
C. 1.02 MeV D. 1.02 GeV
43. A particle of mass 5.0mg moves with the speed of 8.0 m/s. its De-
broglie wavelength is
A. 1.66 10-29m B. 1.66 10-29 km
C. 1.66 10-32m D. 1.66 1029m
44. J. J. Thompson’s measurement of e/m for electrons provides evidence
of the:
A. wave nature of matter B. particle nature of matter
C. wave nature of radiation D. particle nature of radiation
45. Evidence for the wave nature of matter is:
A. electron diffraction experiments of Davisson and Germer
B. Thompson’s measurement of e/m
C. Young’s double slit experiment
D. the Compton effect
46. If the kinetic energy of a non-relativistic free electron doubles, the
frequency of its wave function changes by the factor:
A. B.
C. 2 D.
47. The magnitude of the momentum of a particle can never exceed:
A. mc, where m is its mass
B. E/c, where E is its total energy
C. K/c, where K is its kinetic energy
D. none of the above, but there is an upper limit
48. An electron (m = 9.11 × 10−31kg) has a momentum of 4.0 × 10−22kg ·
m/s. Its kinetic energyis:
A. 6.3 × 10−14J B. 8.2 × 10−14J
C. 1.2 × 10−13J D. 1.5 × 10−13J
49. A certain particle has a kinetic energy of 3.2×10−10J and a momentum
of 1.7×10−18kg·m/s.Its mass is:
A. 9.11 × 10−31kg B. 2.7 × 10−27kg
C. 4.5 × 10−27kg D. 6.3 × 10−27kg
50. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is thrown in air with the speed 0.9c. Its mass in air
is
A. 1.15 kg B. 2.25 kg
C, 1.15 g D. 1 .0 kg
APSACS
PET (Physics)
HSSC-I (Ch No:- 18)
Answer Key
1 D 2 A 3 B 4 D 5 D
6 B 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 C
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 D
16 D 17 D 18 B 19 D 20 A
21 D 22 A 23 D 24 C 25 B
26 D 27 D 28 D 29 B 30 C
31 D 32 D 33 B 34 B 35 B
36 D 37 B 38 B 39 B 40 D
41 D 42 C 43 A 44 B 45 A
46 C 47 B 48 A 49 B 50 A
APSACS
PET (Physics)
1. If electron revolving around a nucleus come to rest then

A. The electron will remain in its shell
B. The electron will fall into the nucleus
C. The electron will move at right angle
D. There will be no effect of electrostatics force
2. The intensity of X-rays depends upon
A. number of electrons striking the target
B. not on filament temperature
C. penetrating power
D. by adjusting the anode potential
3. How many electronic orbits are there in a hydrogen atom?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 5 D. Infinity
4. What is the speed of electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom?
A. 3.7 x 106ms-1 B. 2.7 x 108ms-
C. 2..18 x 106ms-1 D. 2.18 x 102ms-1
5. Gases begin to conduct electricity at low pressure
A. At low pressure games turn into plasma
B. Colliding electron can acquire higher kinetic energy
C. Atom break up into electron and proton at low pressure
D. The electron can move freely at low pressure
6. The ratio of the longest to shortest wavelengths in Brackett series of
hydrogen spectrum is
A. 25/9 B. 14/9
C. 9/5 D. 44/33
7. Which of the following is the ratio of K.E to the P.E of the electron in
any Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom?
A. -2 B. 1/2
C. -1/2 D. 2
8. Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because
A. Its energy levels are too close to each other
B. Its energy levels are too far apart
C. It has very small mass
D. It has single electron
9. X-Raya which can penetrate through longer distance in a substance
are called
A. soft X-rays B. hardX-rays
C. continuous X-rays D. scattered X-rays
10. The difference between soft and hard X-rays is of
A. velocity B. Polarization
C. Intensity D. Frequency
11. When X-rays gets reflected after striking a proton then its frequency
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains constant D. Cannot be predicted
12. X-rays are absorbed maximum by
A. Steel B. Copper
C. Lead D. Wood
13. Which of the following is the energy required (in ev) for ionizing an
excited hydrogen atom?
A. 13.6ev B. More than13.6ev
C. 10.2 D. 3.4ev or less than it
14. If an atom exists in the excited state, n=4, the maximum number of
transitions will be
A. One B. Three
C. Five D. Six
15. What is the energy of photon of wavelength 400nm?
A. 3.10 ev B. 6.14 ev
C. 4 ev D. 6 ev
16. The difference in the angular momentum of two electrons in two
successive orbit of hydrogen atom is
A. h/π B. h/2π
C. h/2 D. (n-1) h /2π
17. Ground state energy of the 4th orbit in a hydrogen atom is
A. -13.6 ev B. -3.4ev
C. -0.85ev D. -1.15 evev
18. In an electronic transition, atom CANNOT emit
A. ɣ-rays B. Infrared radiation

C. Visible light D. Ultraviolet rays
19. The penetrating power of X-rays depend on their
A. Applied voltage B. Filament current
C. Source D. All of above
20. Radiation emitted from TV picture tube is
A. Infrared B. ɣ-rays
C. FarInfrared D. X-rays
21. The velocity of laser light is
A. Less than ordinary light
B. More than ordinary light
C. Equal to ordinary light
D. Different for different colours or frequency
22. Which diagram is correct for energy radiation due to jumping of
electron?
A. B.
C. D.
23. Standing wave pattern for an electron wave in a stable orbit of
hydrogen is
A. B.
C. D.
24. Atoms of hydrogen Gas can be excited by passing electric current

through it when the gas is filled into the discharge tube at a pressure
which is
A. Less than atmospheric pressure
B. Much greater atmospheric pressure
C. Greater than atmospheric pressure
D. Much less than atmospheric pressure
25. During the transition of electron of hydrogen atom from higher orbit to
third orbit, photon of
A. Paschen series is emitted B. Lymenseries is emitted
C. Balmerseries is emitted D. Brackett series is emitted
26. X-rays tube used for production of X-rays contains
A. Air at pressure of 76 mm of Hg
B. Air at pressure of 10 mm of Hg
C. Air at pressure of 76 cm of Hg
D. No air at all
27. By CAT scan, we can detect the density difference of the order of
A. 1% B. 20%
C. 10%% D. 30%
28. The shortest wavelength photon emitted in the Lymen series of
hydrogen is
A. 93 nm B. 96 nm
C. 91nm D. 99 nm
29. The wavelength of second line of Paschem series
A. 13811.43 nm B. 1281.43 nm
C. 1444.84 nm D. 1875 nm
30. Hologram is
A. One dimensional image B. Three dimensional image
C. Two dimensional image D. Four dimensional image
31. If E1 is the lower and E2 is the higher energy state spontaneous
emission is
A. B.
C. D.
32. If E1 is the lower and E2 is the higher energy state stimulated emission
is
A. B.
C. D.
33. Intensity wavelength curve shows
A. Continuous X-rays curve B. Scattered X-rays curve

C. Diffracted X-rays curve D. Characteristics X-rays curve
34. The minimum wavelength produced when electrons are accelerated

through a potential difference of 100000 V, for an X-ray tube
A. 2.24x10-11m B. 1.34x10-11m
C. 1.44x10-11m D. 1.24x10-11m
APSACS
PET (Physics)
Answer Key
1. B. The electron will fall into the nucleus
2. A. number of electrons striking the target
3. D. Infinity
4. C. 2..18 x 106ms-1
5. B. Colliding electron can acquire higher kinetic energy
6. A. 25/9
7. C. -1/2
8. A. Its energy levels are too close to each other
9. B. hard X-rays
10. D. Frequency
11. B. Decreases
12. C. Lead
13. D. 3.4ev or less than it
14. D. Six
15. A. 3.10 ev
16. B. h /2π
17. A. -13.6 ev
18. A. ɣ-rays
19. A. Applied voltage
20. D. X-rays
21. C. Equal to ordinary light
22. A.
23. B.
24. D. Much less than atmospheric pressure

25. A. Paschen series is emitted
26. D. No air at all
27. A. 1%
28. C. 91 nm
29. B. 1281.43 nm
30. B. Three dimensional image
31. B.
32. C
33 A. Continuous X-rays curve

34 D. 1.24x10-11m
APSACS
PET (Physics)
1. Which of the following is the average binding energy of a nucleon

inside atomic nucleus?
A. 8J B. 8ev
C. 8Mev D. 8erg
2. For atomic nuclei, the binding energy per nucleon
A. Increases continuously with increase in mass number
B. Decreases continuously with increase in mass number
C. Remains constant with increase in mass number
D. First increase then decrease with increase in mass number
3. Which of the following rays can pass through 20cm thickness of steel?
A. ɣ-rays B. α-rays
C. β-rays D. Ultraviolet rays
4. ɣ,β and α-rays emitted by radioactive substance are passed through a

region at right angle to their path. The energy gained will be
A. Maximum for ɣ-rays B. Maximum for β -rays

C. Maximum for α-rays D. Zero for all of them
5. One – eighth of the initial mass of a certain radioactive isotope remain
undecayed after one hour. Which of the following is the
A. 20min B. 8min
C. 30min D. 45min
6. One – Fourth of the initial mass of a certain radioactive isotope remain
undecayed after one hour. Which of the following is the
A. 20min B. 8min
C. 30min D. 45min
7. The particle having mass equal or greater than protons are
A. Electrons B. Mesons
C. Baryons D. Neutron
8. The mass defect of hydrogen is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 0
9. Why Geiger counter is not suitable for fast counting?
A. It has short dead time B. It has long dead time
C. Small size D. Due to its large size
10. The half-life of free neutron is
A. 13min B. 3min
C. 15min D. 40min
11. What happened to neutron to proton ratio during Beta decay?
A. The ratio of neutron to proton will increase
B. The ratio of neutron to proton will decrease
C. The ratio of neutron to proton willremain constant
D. The ratio of neutron to proton will increase two times
12. The particle have infinite life time
A. Neutron B. Beta particle
C. Electron D. Electron
13. Why are neutrons considered as ideal particles for nuclear fission?
A. They have strong force of attraction
B. They have strong force of repulsion
C. They do not have any coulomb force of attraction
D. They are the massive part of nucleus and have charge
14. Which of the following is the percentage of the original quantity of a
radioactive material left after four half-lives approximately
A. 2% B. 6%
C. 3% D. 9%
15. Which of the following is the percentage of the original quantity of a
radioactive material left after five half-lives approximately
A. 2% B. 6%
C. 3% D. 9%
16. Mean life of a radioactive substance is reciprocal of
A. Decay constant B. Half life
C. Total life D. Wavelength
17. Nuclear forces are
A. Long range B. Charge dependent
C. Spin dependent D. Equal in strength
18. The pair of isobars is
1
A. 1H and 1H2 B. 1H
2
and 1H3
12
C. 6C and 6C13 D. 15P
30
and 14P
30
19. Good nuclear fuel is

A. Neptunium-239 B. Thorium-239
C. Plutonium-236 D. Uranium-236
20. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
A. Atoms are ionized at high temperature
B. Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion
C. Molecules break upat high temperature
D. Nuclei break upat high temperature
21. What was the fissionable material used in the atomic bomb dropped at
Nagasaki (Japan) in the year1945?
A. Uranium B. Thorium
C. Neptunium D. Plutonium
22. Which of the following particle is unstable?
A. Proton B. Neutron
C. Photon D. Electron
23. The ionization energy of an atom compared to the binding energy of a
nucleus is
A. Less B. More
C. Equal D. Constant
24. In mass spectrograph m1and m2are ions
A. m1 = m2 B. m2 is lightest ion
C. m1 is heavyion D. m1 is lightest ion
25. In mass spectrograph diagram
A. Magnetic field is outwards

B. Magnetic field is inwards
C. Electric field is outwards
D. Electric field is inwards
26. In binding energy curve highlighted part is region of
A. Very unstable nuclides B. Less stable nuclides
C. Very stable nuclides D. Moderate stable nuclides
27. Three types of radiations
A. 1β, 2α, 3ɣ B. 1ɣ, 2α, 3β
C. 1β, 2ɣ, 3α D. 1α, 2β, 3ɣ

28. In the given diagram incident Ray is
A. Alpha radiation B. Beta radiation
C. Gamma radiation D. all three radiation
29. The given diagram shows
A. Avalanche of proton which produces current pulse

B. Avalanche of electron which produces current pulse
C. Avalanche of neutron which produces current pulse
D. Avalanche of photon which produces current pulse
30. In solid state detector semiconductor is useD.
A. Silicon B. Diamond
C. Germanium D. GaN
31. If “u” is up quark and “d” is down quark then figure shows
A. Neutron B. Proton
C. Electron D. Lepton
32. If “u” is up quark and “d” is down quark then figure shows
A. Neutron B. Proton
C. Electron D. Lepton
33. The given illustration is
A. Proton B. Anti-Proton
C. Neutron D. Anti-Neutron
A. Neutron B. Meson
C. Baryons D. Proton
A. Neutron B. Meson
C. Baryons D. Proton
APSACS
PET (Physics)
Answer Key
1. C. 8Mev
2. D. first increase then decrease with increase in mass number
3. A. ɣ-rays
4. D. zero for all of them
5. A. 20min
6. C. 30min
7. C. baryons
8. D. 0
9. B. it has long dead time
10. A. 13min
11. B. the ratio of neutron to proton will decrease
12. D. electron
13. C. They do not have any coulomb force of attraction
14. B. 6%
15. C. 3%
16. A. decay constant
17. C. spin dependent
30 30
18. D. 15P and 14P
19. C. Plutonium-236
20. B. kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion
21. D. Plutonium
22. B. Neutron
23. A. less
24. B. m2 is lightest ion
25. A. magnetic field is outwards
26. C. very stable nuclides
27. D. 1α, 2β, 3ɣ

28. C. Gamma radiation
29. B. Avalanche of electron which produces current pulse
30. A. Silicon
31. A. Neutron
32. B. Proton
33. B. Anti-Proton
34. C. Baryons
35. B. Meson

Physics Aptitude MCQs (DICC)

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APSACS

26. As F= 6πɳrv , the dimension of coefficient ofviscosity is

6. If = 2 - -2 then A magnitude is:

12. Two vectors are =3 +2 – and

15. If = then which of the following is not correct?

16.A vector 1 is along x axis, if 1. 2 is zero then F2 is:

18.If . = 0 and x = then and are:

D. Either or is a null vector

26. If =A , = A then x is:

29. If , and satisfy the relations . = 0 and . = 0 then vector is

41.If = , then what is the angle between + and - ?

43. The vector + is a:

44. If the component of vector along y axis is , the angle made by

49. Projection of vector =2 -8 + in the direction of vector =3 -4

1. A body covering equal displacement in equal interval of time

27. horizontal range of the projectile is given by R = for what

21. Which of the following waves are preferred in communication

23. If a particle is moving in xy-plane. The angular momentum is

20. Micro waves

1. The S.I units of spring constant are:

9. The expression for instantaneous displacement of particle executing SHM

Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.

1. Waves transmit from one place to another.

12. Increase in velocity of sound in air for rise in temperature is:

26. Phase difference of 180° is equivalent to a path difference of:

Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.

1. Light is a form of electromagnetic waves

Which of the following causes the angle θ to increase?

A.Always bright B. Always dark

A. Polarization by Diffraction B. Polarization by reflection

A. d sin θ = mʎ B. d sin θ = 2mʎ

C. d = mʎ/ sin θ D. 2d sin θ = mʎ

1. Cp for oxygen gas is:

11. Flux passing through an area will be positive, when angle

APPLICATION BASED MCQS

38. If a metal plate is placed between two point charges then

UNDERSTANDING BASED MCQS

APPLICATION BASED MCQS

1. A current carrying wire is surrounded by:

16. has dimensions of:

40. The magnetic field in a certain region is given by = (40 - 18 )

1. The emf induced due to motion of a conductor across a magnetic field

APPLICATION BASED MCQS

1. The time taken by an A.C frequency 50Hz to completeone cycle

A. bulb gets dimmer B. bulb gets brighter

11. If a dielectric of relative permittivity Ɛr is introduced in the capacitor then

1. If electron revolving around a nucleus come to rest then

A. ɣ-rays B. Infrared radiation

24. Atoms of hydrogen Gas can be excited by passing electric current

A. Continuous X-rays curve B. Scattered X-rays curve

34. The minimum wavelength produced when electrons are accelerated

24. D. Much less than atmospheric pressure

33 A. Continuous X-rays curve

1. Which of the following is the average binding energy of a nucleon

4. ɣ,β and α-rays emitted by radioactive substance are passed through a

A. Maximum for ɣ-rays B. Maximum for β -rays

19. Good nuclear fuel is

A. Magnetic field is outwards

A. 1β, 2α, 3ɣ B. 1ɣ, 2α, 3β

C. 1β, 2ɣ, 3α D. 1α, 2β, 3ɣ

A. Avalanche of proton which produces current pulse

27. D. 1α, 2β, 3ɣ

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