ECO

SECTION A : ECONOMICS

Q.1 Akash earns Rs. 𝑚 per week. Let 𝑃𝑥 be the price per unit of food and 𝑃𝑦 be the
price per unit of any other good 𝑦. He can use food coupons to buy food at a
subsidized rate of (1 − 𝑠)𝑃𝑥 per unit, 𝑠 ∈ (0, 1), and this subsidy can be availed
only upto the 𝑥 ∗ amount of food. For any additional purchase beyond 𝑥 ∗ he has to
pay the full market price. If his weekly income is greater than 𝑥 ∗ (1 − 𝑠)𝑃𝑥 , then
the maximum amount of food that he can buy per week is

𝑚
(A) + 𝑥∗
𝑃𝑥

𝑚
(B) + 𝑠𝑥 ∗
𝑃𝑥

𝑚
(C) + 𝑥∗
𝑃𝑥 (1−𝑠)

𝑚
(D) + 𝑠𝑥 ∗
𝑃𝑥 (1−𝑠)

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Q.2 The utility function

𝑢(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑚𝑖𝑛 {𝑥 + 2𝑦 , 2𝑥 + 𝑦}; 𝑥 ≥ 0, 𝑦 ≥ 0

is to be maximized subject to the budget constraint

𝑥𝑃𝑥 + 𝑦𝑃𝑦 ≤ 100,

where 𝑃𝑥 and 𝑃𝑦 are the unit price of the goods 𝑥 and 𝑦 respectively. If the optimal
choice is (𝑥 ∗ = 5, 𝑦 ∗ = 6), then

(A) 𝑃𝑥 = 2𝑃𝑦

(B) 1
𝑃𝑥 = 𝑃
2 𝑦

(C) 𝑃𝑥 = 𝑃𝑦

(D) 1
𝑃𝑥 = 𝑃
3 𝑦

Q.3 The supply curve of a firm in a perfectly competitive market is given by its
marginal cost curve which is

(A) above its average total cost curve

(B) below its average total cost curve

(C) above the minimum of its average variable cost curve

(D) below the maximum of its average variable cost curve

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Q.4 Income elasticity of an inferior good is always

(A) between zero and unity

(B) above unity

(C) in the open interval (−1, 1)

(D) negative

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Q.5 In 2018, Indians consumed 40 billion kilogram of potato. The average price of
potato was Rs 20 per kilogram. A statistical report indicates that the price
elasticity of demand and supply for potato was -0.40 and 0.50 respectively. The
linear demand and supply functions for potato are:

(A) Demand function: 𝑃 = 70 − 1.25 𝑄

Supply function: 𝑃 = 𝑄 − 20

(B) Demand function: 𝑃 = 180 − 𝑄

Supply function: 𝑃 = 𝑄 − 20

(C) Demand function: 𝑃 = 70 − 1.25 𝑄

Supply function: 𝑃 = 𝑄 − 100

(D) Demand function: 𝑃 = 140 − 0.25 𝑄

Supply function: 𝑃 = 5𝑄 − 3

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Q.6 𝑆 and 𝑇 are two restaurants competing with each other for profit in a university
campus. The market demand for food in the campus is given by

140 − 𝑄, 𝑄 < 140

𝑃={
0, otherwise

where 𝑃 is the price of food per unit, 𝑄 is the market demand for food. 𝑄 = 𝑄𝑆 +
𝑄𝑇 where 𝑄𝑆 is the quantity supplied by restaurant 𝑆 and 𝑄𝑇 is the quantity
supplied by restaurant 𝑇. The marginal cost of food production is constant at Rs
20 per unit for both the restaurants who are choosing quantities to maximise
profit. The Cournot-Nash equilibrium quantity of production is

(A) 𝑄𝑆 = 40; 𝑄𝑇 = 40

(B) 𝑄𝑆 = 40; 𝑄𝑇 = 60

(C) 𝑄𝑆 = 60; 𝑄𝑇 = 40

(D) 𝑄𝑆 = 60; 𝑄𝑇 = 60

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Q.7 The First Fundamental Theorem of Welfare Economics states that

(A) in the absence of any externality, a competitive equilibrium is not Pareto efficient

(B) as long as preferences are convex, then every Pareto efficient allocation can be
supported as a competitive equilibrium

(C) as long as preferences are concave, then every Pareto efficient allocation can be
supported as a competitive equilibrium

(D) in the absence of any externality, a competitive equilibrium is Pareto efficient

Q.8 Consider the following two statements:

S1: Adverse selection refers to a situation where certain characteristics of a

product are not observable so that one side of the market has to guess the type or
quality of the product based on the behavior of the other side.

S2: Moral hazard refers to a situation where one side of the market cannot observe
the actions of the other side.

(A) S1 is TRUE but S2 is FALSE

(B) S1 is FALSE but S2 is TRUE

(C) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE

(D) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE

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Q.9 The necessary condition for a given amount of public good to be Pareto efficient
is that the sum of the marginal willingness to pay should be equal to the marginal
cost. Suppose 10 people live on a street and each of them is willing to pay Rs 2
for each extra unit of streetlight, regardless of the number of streetlights provided.
If the cost of providing 𝑥 streetlights is 𝐶(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 , 𝑥 ≥ 0; what is the Pareto
efficient number of streetlights?

(A) 10

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 20

Q.10 If two indifference curves, representing distinct levels of utility, intersect with
each other, then the preference relation violates the

(A) convexity assumption

(B) monotonicity assumption

(C) transitivity assumption

(D) continuity assumption

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Q.11 Which one of the following statements is NOT true for pre-independence India?

(A) The British government imposed a heavy customs duty on imports from India

(B) The British goods imported to India were duty free

(C) That the British capitalists were interested in establishing manufacturing

industries in India is evident from their engagement in jute, tea, coffee and indigo
plantation

(D) Capital goods from England were imported to develop Railways in India

Q.12 According to the Human Development Index for the year 2017, prepared by the
United Nations Development Programme, India belongs to the group of countries
with

(A) very high human development

(B) high human development

(C) medium human development

(D) low human development

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Q.13 The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in the year

(A) 1991

(B) 1969

(C) 1949

(D) 1947

Q.14 Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the economic planning
in India?

(A) It has transformed a capitalist economy into a socialist economy

(B) There is a presence of a large public sector along with free enterprises

(C) It has a regulatory system for industrial activity with an important role of market
mechanism

(D) It aims to achieve a substantial growth of productive capacity in the key sectors
through capital formation

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Q.15 The following table presents the employment shares in agriculture and
manufacturing sectors in India.

Sectors 1983 2011-12

Agriculture 68.6% 48.9%

Manufacturing 10.6%

The figure in the blank cell is

(A) 9.3%

(B) 12.8%

(C) 17.7%

(D) 21.9%

Q.16 The poverty rate in India is estimated using

(A) household consumption expenditure surveys by the National Sample Survey

Office

(B) income profile surveys by the National Sample Survey Office

(C) economic surveys by the Ministry of Finance

(D) employment and unemployment surveys by the National Sample Survey Office

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Q.17 Which one of the following can NOT be a cause for the economic crisis of 1991
in India?

(A) Fiscal deficit

(B) Current account deficit

(C) Capital account deficit

(D) Mounting inflationary pressure

Q.18 The Mahalanobis Model is associated with

(A) endogenous growth theory

(B) welfare economics

(C) derivative pricing

(D) Five year plan

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Q. 19 Which one of the following states had the highest Infant Mortality Rate in 2018?

(A) Gujarat

(B) West Bengal

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Bihar

Q. 20 The Tendulkar Methodology is associated with measuring

(A) inequality

(B) poverty

(C) inflation

(D) unemployment

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Q. 21 The following are the components of expenditure for a country.

Consumption 150
Investment 50
Government Purchases 50
Export 30
Import 50

If the GNP is 200, then the Net Factor Payments from Abroad is

(A) -20

(B) 20

(C) 30

(D) -30

Q. 22 If an Indian resident owns a luxury cottage in France, the rental income she earns
is part of

(A) France’s GNP

(B) India’s GDP

(C) France’s GDP and India’s GNP

(D) France’s GNP and India’s GDP

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Q. 23 Suppose the goods market equilibrium condition for a closed economy is

𝑌 = 𝐶(𝑌 − 𝑇) + 𝐼(𝑟) + 𝐺,

where 𝑌 = 𝐹(𝐾, 𝐿) is the output produced by using the factors of production 𝐾

and 𝐿, 𝑇 is the tax, 𝐼 is the investment, 𝑟 is the real interest rate and 𝐺 is the
government spending. If there is an exogenous increase in the salary of
government employees, while taxes and factors of production remain constant, the
equilibrium real interest rate will _________ and the equilibrium investment will
____________.

(A) increase; decrease

(B) decrease; increase

(C) increase; increase

(D) decrease; decrease

Q. 24 A central bank decides to increase money supply. For a given price level, the LM
curve is expected to

(A) shift up and to the left as the real money supply falls

(B) shift down and to the right as the real money supply rises

(C) shift up and to the left as the real money supply rises

(D) shift down and to the right as the real money supply falls

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Q. 25 The feature that distinguishes whether an analysis is classical or Keynesian is

(A) the slope of the aggregate demand curve

(B) the speed of price adjustment

(C) the assumption about the transmission mechanism of monetary policy

(D) the degree of monopoly power in the economy

Q. 26 𝑀𝑑
If the demand for money is = 1000 + 0.2𝑌 − 1000𝑟, where 𝑃 = 200,
𝑃

𝑌 = 2000, and 𝑟 = 0.1; the velocity of money is

(A) 20
13

(B) 13
20

(C) 20
7

(D) 7
20

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Q. 27 Suppose the aggregate output is 𝑌 = 𝐴𝐾 𝛼 𝐿𝛽 , where 𝐴 is the productivity

parameter and the sum of the elasticities of output with respect to 𝐾 and 𝐿 is one.
If 𝐾 and 𝐿 each grow by 7% and productivity grows by 3% in a year, the growth
in output is

(A) 14%

(B) 17%

(C) 10%

(D) 13%

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Q. 28 The IS-LM model for a closed economy is given below, where 𝐶 is the
consumption, 𝑡 is the income tax rate, 𝐼 is the investment, 𝑀𝑑 is the money
demand, 𝑃 is the price level, 𝑌 is the output and 𝑟 is the real interest rate.

𝐶 = 100 + (1 − 𝑡)𝑌

𝐼 = 300 − 0.1 𝑟

𝑀𝑑
= 500 + 0.3 𝑌 − 0.3 𝑟
𝑃

If the tax rate 𝑡 = 10% and the real money supply is 1000, the government
expenditure multiplier is

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

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Q. 29 Consider a Solow growth model without any technological progress. Assume that
the economy is initially in a steady state. Suppose that the savings rate of such an
economy increases. In the new steady state, the marginal product of capital is
_______________ and the output growth rate is ______________ than the old
steady state.

(A) the same; higher

(B) lower; higher

(C) higher; the same

(D) lower; the same

Q. 30 Consider a small open economy with floating exchange rate regime. Some recent
events have led people to believe that the worth of the currency of this country
will be less in the future. Under this belief, the interest rate in that country will
_____________, and its currency will _____________ in the present.

(A) increase; appreciate

(B) decrease; appreciate

(C) increase; depreciate

(D) decrease; depreciate

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Q. 31 Let 𝑋1 , 𝑋2 , … , 𝑋100 , 𝑋101 be a random sample from the 𝑁(𝜇, 1) distribution. Let
1
𝑋̅ = ∑100
𝑖=1 𝑋𝑖 be an estimator of 𝜇. The 95% confidence interval for 𝜇 is
100

𝑋̅ ± 0.196. Then, the probability that 𝑋101 lies in this interval is

(A) equal to 0.95

(B) less than 0.95

(C) greater than 0.95

(D) equal to 1

Q. 32 Let 𝑋1 , 𝑋2 , 𝑋3 , 𝑋4 be uncorrelated random variables, each distributed with mean 0

and variance 1. Consider the following two statements:

S1: Correlation of 𝑋1 + 𝑋2 and 𝑋2 + 𝑋3 is 0.5

S2: Correlation of 𝑋1 + 𝑋2 and 𝑋3 + 𝑋4 is 0

Then,

(A) S1 is TRUE but S2 is FALSE

(B) S1 is FALSE but S2 is TRUE

(C) both S1 and S2 are TRUE

(D) both S1 and S2 are FALSE

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Q. 33 Let 𝑋 and 𝑌 be two random variables with the joint probability density function

𝑥 + 𝑦, 0 < 𝑥 < 1, 0<𝑦<1

𝑓𝑋𝑌 (𝑥, 𝑦) = {
0, otherwise.

The probability 𝑃(𝑋 + 𝑌 < 1) is

1
(A) 2

1
(B) 4

1
(C) 3

2
(D) 3

Q. 34 In an examination, there are 10 multiple choice questions, each having 5 options

and only one option is correct. The 𝑘 𝑡ℎ question carries 𝑘 marks, where 𝑘 =
1, 2, … , 10. A student attempts all the questions making a random guess for each
of them. The expected marks of the student is

(A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 22

(D) 11

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Q. 35 Let 𝑝 be the proportion of people infected by a virus in the population. Let 𝑝̂ be

the sample proportion of people who tested positive in an independently drawn
random sample of size 𝑛. The minimum value of 𝑛, such that a 95% confidence
interval (the critical value is 1.96) for any value of 𝑝 is 𝑝̂ ± 0.049, is

(A) 400

(B) 1600

(C) 800

(D) 200

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Q. 36 Let the joint probability density function of two random variables 𝑋 and 𝑌 be

9𝑥 2 𝑦 2 , 0 < 𝑥 < 1, −𝑥 < 𝑦 < 𝑥

𝑓𝑋𝑌 (𝑥, 𝑦) = {
0, otherwise.

The marginal probability density function of 𝑌 is

(A) 𝑓 (𝑦) = {3𝑦 2 (1 − |𝑦|3 ), −1 < 𝑦 < 1

𝑌
0, otherwise

(B) 𝑓 (𝑦) = {6𝑦 2 (1 − 𝑦 3 ), 0<𝑦<1

𝑌
0, otherwise

(C) 𝑓 (𝑦) = {20𝑦 3 (1 − |𝑦|), −1 < 𝑦 < 1

𝑌
0, otherwise

(D) 3 2
𝑓𝑌 (𝑦) = {2 𝑦 , −1 < 𝑦 < 1
0, otherwise

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Q. 37 Let 𝑋 and 𝑌 be discrete random variables with joint probability mass function
𝑝(𝑥, 𝑦) given by the following table.

𝑌=0 𝑌=1 𝑌=2

𝑋 = 0 0.2 0.05 0.15

𝑋 = 1 0.15 0.25 0.20

Which one of the following is NOT true?

(A) 𝐸(𝑌) = 1

(B) 𝑉𝑎𝑟(𝑋) = 0.24

(C) 𝐸(𝑋) = 0.6

(D) 𝑉𝑎𝑟(𝑋) = 0.12

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Q. 38 𝜃 𝜃
Let 𝑋 ~ 𝐵𝑒𝑟𝑛𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑙𝑖 ( 3), where 𝑃𝑋 (𝑋 = 1) = 3. A random sample of five

observations of 𝑋 is {𝑋1 = 1, 𝑋2 = 0, 𝑋3 = 0, 𝑋4 = 1, 𝑋5 = 1}. Then the

Maximum Likelihood Estimate (MLE) of 𝜃 is

(A) 6
5

(B) 9
5

(C) 3
5

(D) 2
5

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Q. 39 If the null hypothesis 𝐻0 : 𝑝 = 0.9 is to be tested against the alternative

hypothesis 𝐻𝑎 : 𝑝 > 0.9, then the probability of Type I error is

(A) P(𝑝 < 0.9 | 𝐻𝑎 𝑖𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑢𝑒)

(B) P(𝑝 = 0.9 | 𝐻𝑎 𝑖𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑢𝑒)

(C) P(𝑝 < 0.9 | 𝐻0 𝑖𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑢𝑒)

(D) P(𝑝 > 0.9 | 𝐻0 𝑖𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑢𝑒)

Q. 40 In a city, the daily unit price of petrol (𝑋) and diesel (𝑌) follow the normal
distribution with 𝑋 ~ 𝑁(80, 0.04) and 𝑌 ~ 𝑁(80.1, 0.0225). If 𝑋 and 𝑌 are
independent random variables and Φ denotes the cumulative density function of
the standard normal distribution then the probability 𝑃(𝑌 > 𝑋) is

(A) Φ(0.4)

(B) Φ(0.6)

(C) Φ(−0.4)

(D) Φ(−0.6)

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SECTION B : MATHEMATICS

Q.41 Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑒 𝑥 , 𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 , and 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑙𝑛(𝑥) , 𝑥 > 0. Then

(A) both 𝑓 and 𝑔 are convex

(B) both 𝑓 and 𝑔 are concave

(C) 𝑓 is concave and 𝑔 is convex

(D) 𝑓 is convex and 𝑔 is concave

Q.42 Let 𝑀 and 𝑚 be respectively the maximum and minimum values of the function

𝑥−1
𝑓(𝑥) = , 𝑥 ∈ [−1 , 4 ] .
𝑥+2

If, for some 𝑘 ∈ 𝑅 , 𝑀 + 𝑘𝑚 = 0 , then 𝑘 equals

(A) 1
4

1
(B) −4

(C) 4

(D) − 4

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2𝑥
Q.43 lim (cos 𝑥)1⁄sin equals
𝑥→0

(A) √𝑒

(B) 1
√𝑒

(C) 1

1
(D) −2

Q.44 Let 𝑦(𝑥) be a solution of the differential equation

𝑑𝑦
(1 + 𝑥 2 ) + 2𝑥𝑦 = 4𝑥 2
𝑑𝑥

1
If 𝑦(1) = , then 𝑦(0) equals
6

(A) −1

(B) 1

(C) − 4

(D) 3
2

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Q.45 Consider the difference equation

4 𝑎𝑡 = 𝑎𝑡−1 + 3 , 𝑡 ≥ 2

If 𝑎1 = 0 , then

(A) 1 10
𝑎9 = 1 − (4)

(B) 1 10
𝑎10 = 1 − (4)

(C) 1 9
𝑎9 = (4)

(D) 1 9
𝑎10 = 1 − ( )
4

Q.46 1 −2 0
Let 𝑣1 = ( 2 ) , 𝑣2 = ( 2 ) , and 𝑣3 = ( 1 ) . Then
−2 1 1

(A) {𝑣1 , 𝑣2 , 𝑣3 } is an orthogonal set

(B) {𝑣1 , 𝑣2 , 𝑣3 } is a linearly dependent set

(C) {𝑣2 − 𝑣1 , 3𝑣3 + 𝑣1 } is an orthogonal set

𝜋
(D) the angle between 𝑣2 and 𝑣3 is 3

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Q.47 −1 1
Let 𝑀= [ ]. Then 𝑀4 equals
1 −1

(A) − 4𝑀

(B) 4𝑀

(C) − 8𝑀

(D) 16𝑀

Q.48 Which one of the following sets is NOT a convex set?

(A) {(𝑥 , 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 2 ∶ |𝑥| + |𝑦| ≤ 1 }

(B) {(𝑥 , 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 2 ∶ |𝑥| |𝑦| ≤ 1 }

(C) {(𝑥 , 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 2 ∶ max { |𝑥| , |𝑦| } ≤ 1 }

(D) {(𝑥 , 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 2 ∶ |𝑥| ≤ |𝑦| }

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Q.49 For 𝑥1 > 0 , 𝑥2 > 0, define the function

𝑓(𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ) = 𝑥1 𝑥2

Then 𝑓 is

(A) convex

(B) concave

(C) quasiconvex but not convex

(D) quasiconcave but not concave

Q.50 Let

𝜋 1 1
𝑥 2 |cos ( )| , − <𝑥< , 𝑥≠0
𝑓(𝑥) = { 𝑥 2 2
0, 𝑥=0

2
Let 𝑥0 = . Then
5

(A) 4
𝑓(𝑥0 ) =
25

(B) 𝑓 is not continuous at 𝑥0

(C) 𝑓 is continuous but not differentiable at 𝑥0

(D) 𝑓 is differentiable at 𝑥0

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Q.51 The objective function 𝑧 = 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 is to be minimized over the region

𝑆 = { (𝑥 , 𝑦) ∶ 𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 6 , 2𝑥 + 𝑦 ≥ 8 , 𝑥 ≥ 0 , 𝑦 ≥ 0 }.

If (𝑥 ∗ , 𝑦 ∗ ) is the optimal solution and 𝑧 ∗ is the optimal value of 𝑧, then

(A) 𝑥 ∗ = 4 , 𝑧 ∗ = 12

(B) 𝑥 ∗ = 2 , 𝑧 ∗ = 12

(C) 𝑥∗ = 0 , 𝑦∗ = 6

(D) 𝑦 ∗ = 4 , 𝑧 ∗ = 11

Q.52 Let (𝑃) be the linear programming problem

minimize − 2𝑥 + 𝑦

subject to 𝑥+𝑦 ≤4, 𝑥 ≥0

Let (𝑄) be its dual problem. Then

(A) both (𝑃) and (𝑄) are infeasible

(B) (𝑃) is infeasible and (𝑄) is feasible but unbounded

(C) (𝑃) is feasible but unbounded and (𝑄) is infeasible

(D) both (𝑃) and (𝑄) are feasible but unbounded

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Q.53 Let (𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 2 , and

1 𝑦≠0
𝑥𝑦 sin ( ) ,
𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = { 𝑦
0, 𝑦=0

Then, at the point (0 , 0), 𝑓 is

(A) not defined

(B) not continuous

(C) continuous but not differentiable

(D) differentiable

Q.54 Let 𝑘 ∈ 𝑅, and

𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑘𝑥𝑦 + 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 , (𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 2

If the level curve 𝑓(𝑥 , 𝑦) = 12 is passing through the point ( 2 , −3 ), then 𝑘

equals

(A) −4

(B) 4

(C) −6

(D) 6

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Q.55 For the differential equation

𝑑𝑦
= (𝑦 − 2) (𝑦 + 1)2 ,
𝑑𝑡

𝑦 = 2 is

(A) the only equilibirum solution

(B) a semi-stable equilibirum solution

(C) an asymptotically stable equilibirum solution

(D) an unstable equilibirum solution

1 1
Q.56 Let 𝑢𝑛 = and 𝑣𝑛 = , 𝑛 = 1, 2, 3, ⋯
√𝑛 𝑛2

Then the series

(A) ∑∞ ∞
𝑛=1 𝑢𝑛 is convergent and ∑𝑛=1 𝑣𝑛 is divergent

(B) ∑∞ ∞
𝑛=1 𝑢𝑛 is divergent and ∑𝑛=1 𝑣𝑛 is convergent

(C) both ∑∞ ∞
𝑛=1 𝑢𝑛 and ∑𝑛=1 𝑣𝑛 are convergent

(D) both ∑∞ ∞
𝑛=1 𝑢𝑛 and ∑𝑛=1 𝑣𝑛 are divergent

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Q.57 The local maximum value of the function

𝑓(𝑥 , 𝑦) = 2𝑥𝑦 − 𝑥 3 − 𝑦 2 , (𝑥 , 𝑦) ∈ 𝑅 2

is

(A) 4
27

(B) 4
9

(C) 2
27

(D) 2
9

Q.58 𝛽 𝛿 2 5
Let 𝛽 , 𝛿 ∈ 𝑅, and 𝑀= [ ]. If 𝑀 [ ] = [ ] , then the
𝛿 𝛽−2 −1 4
determinant of the matrix 𝑀 is

(A) −1

(B) 7

(C) −13

(D) 1

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Q.59 The optimal value of the nonlinear programming problem

minimize 𝑓(𝑥 , 𝑦) = 𝑥 − 2𝑦

subject to 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 10 ,

is

(A) −2√10

(B) −3 √5

(C) − 5 √2

(D) −7

Q.60 Let 〈𝑎𝑛 〉 and 〈𝑏𝑛 〉 be two real sequences. Which one of the following is true?

(A) If 〈𝑎𝑛 〉 converges and 〈𝑏𝑛 〉 diverges to infinity, then 〈𝑎𝑛 + 𝑏𝑛 〉 converges

(B) If 〈𝑎𝑛 〉 converges to zero and 〈𝑏𝑛 〉 is bounded, then 〈𝑎𝑛 𝑏𝑛 〉 converges

(C) If both 〈𝑎𝑛 〉 and 〈𝑏𝑛 〉 diverge, then 〈𝑎𝑛 + 𝑏𝑛 〉 diverges

(D) If 〈𝑎𝑛 〉 converges and 〈𝑏𝑛 〉 is bounded, then 〈𝑎𝑛 𝑏𝑛 〉 converges

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SECTION C : GENERAL ANALYTICAL

Q.61 A bank is offering a 1 year fixed deposit (FD) paying 5.2% interest per annum,
compounded quarterly. The annual inflation rate is 6%. If Rs. 1000 is invested in
this FD, then the inflation adjusted value of investment at the end of one year
results in an approximate

(A) gain of Rs. 7

(B) loss of Rs. 7

(C) gain of Rs. 8

(D) loss of Rs. 8

Q.62 The area 𝐴𝑡 (in hectare) affected by locust attack is growing as per

𝐴𝑡 = 100 × 20.5𝑡 ,

where 𝑡 is the time in hours. How long (in hours) will it take for the affected area
to be exactly equal to 1600 hectare?

(A) 2

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 10

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Q.63 The two-wheel bicycles and three-wheel rickshaws are eco-friendly means of
commute. If the total number of such vehicles in a campus is 56 and their wheel
count is 125, then the number of rickshaws in the campus is

(A) 13

(B) 43

(C) 42

(D) 12

Q.64 Consider the following three statements:

S1: Some goats are horses.

S2: Some horses are asses.

S3: Some goats are asses.

If S1 and S2 are true, then

(A) S3 is necessarily true

(B) S3 is necessarily false

(C) S3 can be logically inferred from S1 and S2

(D) S3 cannot be logically inferred from S1 and S2

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Q.65 Five friends P, Q, R, S and T went to watch a movie. They have contiguous seats
from the central aisle. Q has had a fight with R and doesn’t want to sit near him. P
wants to discuss about the fight with either Q or R. S just wants to watch the
movie in peace by sitting maximally away from both the aisle and chattering
friends. Which one of the following is their seating arrangement?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.66 Two trains started at 8 AM from the same station and travelled at the average
speed of 40 km/h and 60 km/h in opposite directions. If the trains run non-stop, at
12 noon of the same day the distance (in km) between the two trains will be

(A) 240

(B) 160

(C) 400

(D) 300

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Q.67 The following graph shows the number of female and male employees for a
company for the years 2010 to 2019.

On the basis of the graph, which one of the following statements is true regarding
the ratio of female to male employees?

(A) The ratio is the lowest in 2014

(B) The ratio has decreased from 2011 to 2012

(C) The ratio has decreased from 2017 to 2018

(D) The number of years for which the ratio exceeds 1 is the same as the number of
years for which the ratio is less than 1

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Q.68 P, Q, R, S, T sat in a circle around a campfire. Two of them are girls. While R has
no girls on either side, P is flanked by girls on both sides. T and Q, sitting next to
each other, are brother and sister. If T is a boy, S is

(A) a boy with Q sitting next to him

(B) a boy with T sitting next to him

(C) a girl with R sitting next to her

(D) a girl with P sitting next to her

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Q.69 A 90 cm long wire is cut into two pieces in the ratio 7 : 8. If the larger piece is
bent to form a square, then the area (in cm2) of the square is

(A) 169

(B) 156.25

(C) 144

(D) 110.25

Q.70 When a student walks at a uniform speed of 7 km/h from his home H to reach for
class in room R, she is late by 15 minutes. The next day, she walks at a uniform
speed of 8 km/h from H to R to reach class on time. The distance (in km) between
H and R is

(A) 15

(B) 14

(C) 12

(D) 10

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Q.71 The price of a product P is 𝑥% less than the price of Q and 10% less than the price
of R. If the price of R is 5% more than the price of Q, then 𝑥 equals

(A) 5.5

(B) 5

(C) 6.5

(D) 11

Q.72 P and Q together require 60 days to finish a certain work. They worked together
for 36 days and then Q left the work. P finished the remaining work in another 40
days. Had P been doing the work entirely by himself then the number of days he
would have required to finish the work is

(A) 76

(B) 80

(C) 100

(D) 108

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Q.73 P, Q, R, S and T are roommates in a dormitory. The room has two windows, two
ceiling fans and one door. Every morning P watches birds through the open
window next to him. This bothers Q because he hates the direct sunbeams
streaming in through that window early in the morning. However, he is unwilling
to give up on the bed directly under a fan. T has the best of both worlds because
his bed is below a fan as well as adjacent to a window. Which of the following
figures represent the correct layout?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.74 P is a brother of Q and Q is a sister of R. Only two of them are married. Their
mother S, went on a pilgrimage with her grandson J right after all her daughters
got married.

(Assume S has only three children and J has married parents)

Which one of the following statements is possible?

(A) If R is a married woman then J is a son of P

(B) If R is a married woman then J is a son of Q

(C) If R is a married man then J is a son of Q

(D) If R is a married man then J is a son of P

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Q.75 P, Q, R and S are four athletes. Three of them are discussing the number of gold
medals won by S. P believes S has at least 3 gold medals. Q indicates that S won
at least one gold and according to R, S has less than 3 gold medals. Given that
only one of them is correct, the number of gold medals won by S is

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 0

Q.76 In the year 2015, the number of male employees in a company is 100 and the
number of female employees is 120. The number of male employees grows by
10% between 2015 and 2016 and the number of female employees grows by 20%
during the same period. Which of the following statements is FALSE for the year
2016?

(A) The total number of employees is 254

(B) The share of female employees is higher than 50%

(C) The growth of total employees is 30 %

(D) There are 34 more female employees than the male employees.

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Q.77 In the given figure, the letters P, Q, R, S, T, U, V correspond to numbers from 1 to

7, but not in that order. The sum of numbers along each straight line is 10.

Given R = 3 and Q = 4, which one of the following statements is true?

(A) U ≥ 5

(B) P > S

(C) V < U

(D) P < S

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Q.78 The following table shows the populations of four countries R, S, T and U for the
years 2001 and 2011.

Country 2001 2011

R 130 190
S 150 230
T 80 120
U 90 130

The average annual growth rate between 2001 and 2011 is highest for

(A) R

(B) S

(C) T

(D) U

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Q.79 If the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of the sequence 93, 90, 87, 84, … is zero, then (𝑛 − 20)𝑡ℎ term of
the sequence is

(A) 66

(B) 63

(C) 60

(D) 57

Q.80 The following table shows the populations and literacy rates (as percentage of
literates in total population) of all the four states X, Y, Z and W of a country.

Province Population (in Literacy rate

thousands) (%)
X 100 60
Y 200 50
Z 300 70
W 400 80

The literacy rate (%) of the country is

(A) 65

(B) 69

(C) 71

(D) 75

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SECTION D : ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Q.81 People are concerned about ______ in unemployment during the pandemic.

Choose the appropriate phrase to fill in the blank.

(A) the rise

(B) the raise

(C) a rise

(D) a raise

Q.82 The climbers reached the summit ____________________.

Choose the appropriate phrase to complete the sentence.

(A) for twelve hours

(B) by twelve hours

(C) since twelve hours

(D) in twelve hours

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Q.83 Do : Deed Say : _____

Analogically relate the word-pairs to fill in the blank.

(A) said

(B) sight

(C) speech

(D) spoken

Q.84 The police found that the suspect had plastered the walls of his room with photos
of the victim.

Replace the word plastered in the given sentence without changing the meaning.

(A) painted

(B) pasted

(C) covered

(D) concealed

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Q.85 The rebel members within the party seek to ______ the government.

Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank.

(A) dispel

(B) dislodge

(C) disloyal

(D) dismember

Q.86 An international team of astronomers from the United States, Australia and New
Zealand ____ detected the ____ explosion seen in the universe from a black hole
in a distant galaxy cluster hundreds of millions of light years away.

Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

(A) has; bigger

(B) has; biggest

(C) have; bigger

(D) have; biggest

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Q.87 The Minotaur was a mythical beast, half man and half bull. It is believed that this
beast lived in the Labyrinth built by King Minos on the Greek island of Crete, and
devoured the prisoners who were sent to the Labyrinth.

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

(A) King Minos built a Labyrinth

(B) The Minotaur lived in the Labyrinth

(C) The Minotaur devoured the prisoners in the Labyrinth

(D) The Minotaur worked for King Minos

Q.88 The _____ budget, presented by the finance minister, is one of the most awaited
government ______ every year.

Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

(A) annual; documents

(B) annually; document

(C) annual; document

(D) annually; documents

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Q.89 Reliable information is key to proper decision making. However, the exponential
increase in the volume and variety of information that is accessed by individuals
in everyday life, is making it difficult for them to differentiate between truth and
falsity. This in turn can lead to impaired judgments and unresolved priorities.

Which one of the following statements is FALSE with respect to the given text?

(A) Individuals need to make decisions

(B) Individuals need to differentiate between truth and falsity

(C) Individuals need access to information

(D) Individuals need to block their access to information

Q.90 They have _____ a new extension to the old building.

Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank.

(A) build

(B) built

(C) builted

(D) builded

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Q.91 In India, higher education does not come under the purview of the Right to
Education Act which guarantees free and compulsory education. Nevertheless, it
has been publicly funded and economically accessible to the citizens of the
country. However, over time this welfare-state oriented perspective has changed.

Choose the appropriate words to replace the underlined words.

(A) Since; So

(B) Since; But

(C) Yet; So

(D) Yet; But

Q.92 Sugarcane needs constant irrigation while ___________________

Choose the appropriate phrase to complete the sentence.

(A) it will grow

(B) it grows

(C) it grew

(D) its growth

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Q.93 do : undo ___________

Analogically relate the word-pairs to fill in the blanks.

(A) rest : unrest

(B) ripe : unripe

(C) seat : unseat

(D) read : unread

Q.94 The economist worked overtime to make _______________.

Choose the appropriate phrase to complete the sentence.

(A) calculations of unemployment in India

(B) explanations of unemployment in India

(C) determinations about unemployment in India

(D) predictions about unemployment in India

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Q.95 Despite wearing ear-plugs I could still ________ him snoring next to me.

Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank.

(A) hear

(B) listen

(C) hear to

(D) listen to

Q.96 free : freedom simple : _____

Analogically relate the word-pairs to fill in the blank.

(A) simplicity

(B) simplify

(C) simpleness

(D) simpleton

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Q.97 His painting won the contest. It depicted ___________________

Choose the appropriate phrase to complete the sentence.

(A) an emaciated old man on an old battered cycle

(B) an old emaciated man on an old battered cycle

(C) an emaciated old man on a battered old cycle

(D) an old emaciated man on a battered old cycle

Q.98 While the declining wildlife in India is ______ even to a lay observer, it is
disturbing when this observation is further ______ by a scientific study where
more than 15,000 birdwatchers have contributed over 10 million observations.

Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blanks.

(A) evident; confirmed

(B) probable; confirmed

(C) evident; refuted

(D) probable; refuted

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Q.99 The male verditer flycatcher has a distinctive blue colour that distinguishes it
from other flycatchers.

(A flycatcher is a small bird)

What does the word distinctive mean in the given sentence?

(A) separate

(B) visible

(C) different

(D) unique

Q.100 Two workers punched each other in a factory. Subsequently, their supervisor
issued _________.

Choose the appropriate phrase to complete the sentence.

(A) notice to the concerned employees

(B) notices to the concerned employees

(C) notice to the employees concerned

(D) notices to the employees concerned

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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