Đề Kiểm Tra Đt Lần 4 - Key

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SỞ GD & ĐT HÀ NAM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 10

TRƯỜNG THPT Môn: TIẾNG ANH


Năm học 2020 – 2021
( Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút)

SECTION A. LISTENING (20 points)


Part I: You will hear a conversation between Peter and Jim talking about some details for
the shared accommodation.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10
points)
PLAN FOR SHARING ACCOMODATION
Example: Answer:
The discussion topic lease for next year

The total rent: Peter £110 & Jim £ (1)………………………….. 

Car parking: in the (2) …………………………..

A place to buy things: (3) …………………………..because Jim works


there

The fees they should share: (4) ………………………….. fees

The appliances needed: - The landlord will provide the microwave.


- The (5) …………………………...is needed in the
kitchen.
- Peter will bring some dining room and living room
furniture
- Jim will buy a (6) …………………………..at the
store

Location of the telephone: in the (7) …………………………..

Move-in date: (8) …………………………..

Watching the game together: (9) …………………………..

What Jim needs to do before the take (10) ………….. in the morning


move-in:

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Part I: You will hear a conversation between Peter and Jim talking about some details for
the shared accommodation.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10
points)
1 point for each correct answer

1. 80 6. toaster
2. garage 7. kitchen
3.supermarket 8. 1st June/ June 1st
4. petrol 9. Friday evening/ night
5. heater/ space heater 10. exam

Part II: You'll have an HR representative of “Earn and Learn” giving some information
about her company (10 points)
Questions 11-12
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
11. The program is made for travelers to make:   …………………………
12. The program operates in cooperation with:   …………………………

Questions 13-16
What is the internship stipulation of each country below?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to
questions 13-16.
Internship Stipulation
A. home stay
B. no summer program
C. minimum time requirement
D. formal report required
E. specific time period
F. agriculture
Country
13. USA : E. specific time period (restrict schedule)
14. Australia: C. minimum time requirement…………. (8 months)
15. South Africa: F. agriculture (.farming/ manual labour)
16. India:   A. home stay (The host family for you to stay)

Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
17. What should you do to get the Global Traveling Certificate?

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A. Record activity every day.
B. Formal report.
C.Talk the experience with the assessor.
18. You can apply for the certificate
A. only after you come back.
B. while on the trip.
C. before you leave.
19. When should you pay the final installment?
A. The day before you leave.
B. One month before you return.
C. Before you can get your plane ticket.
20. Before your application, you need
A. to take a health check.
B. to attend the workshop.
C. to meet people with whom you will work.
Part II: You'll have an HR representative of “Earn and Learn” giving some information
about her company (10 points)
1 point for each correct answer

11. Money 12. School 13. E 14. C 15. F


16. A 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. A

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)


Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
(5 points)
1. A. soul B. boulder C. foul D. shoulder
2. A. storage B. encourage C. shortage D. garage
3. A. usual B. division C. gasoline D. confusion
4. A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D. warned
5. D. horses /s/ B. chooses /z/ C. houses /z / D. rises /z/
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5
points)
1. A. committee B. expensive C. guarantee D. successful
2. A. diversity B. amphibians C. ecotourist D. courageous
3. A. vigorous B. infamous C. numerous D. notorious
4. A. categorize B. characterize C. socialize D. memorialize
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5. A. arithmetic B. chronology C. presidential D. communicate
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (70 points)


Part I. Choose the best answer which best completes each sentence. (20 points)
1. It turned out that we______ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. may have B. should have C. mustn’t have D. needn’t have
2. She was a ____ of nerves before her exam.
A. bag B. pocket C. box D. series
- A bag of nerves: Someone who is very nervous, anxious, or uneasy.
3. Is business getting better? – Yes. Things have started to ______ recently.
A. look over B. look out C. look up D. look on
- look up: get better (situation)
4. There was an impressive ____ for the meeting, over 100, in fact.
A. shortcut B. appearance C. turnout D. arrival
- turn out: the number of people who vote in an elec.
5. The ring is only made of plastic, so it is quite ______.
A. valuable B. invaluable C. priceless D. valueless
6. Mrs. Smith demanded that the heater ____ immediately. Her apartment was freezing.
A. repaired B. be repaired C. repair D. to repair
7. He manages to visit his parents ______ Saturday.
A. another every B. every other C. every the other D. other every
Every other & every second có nghĩa xen kẽ, khoảng cách được sử dụng để làm một việc mà
diễn ra tuần cách tuần, ngày cách ngày được lặp đi lặp lại
8. ____, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel B. As he might feel tired
C. Tired as it was D. He felt very tired though
- tired as he might be
- although he might be tired
- Despite his tiredness
- However tired he might be
- No matter how tired he might be
9. I think these DVDs might have fallen off the back of ______.
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A. a horse B. a car C. a lorry D. a cow
- fall off the back of a lorry: used humorously to say that something was
probably stolen
10. ____ are unpleasant, but it will be nice when we get into a new house.
A. Removals B. Movements C. Removements D. Moves
- refusal/ removal/ arrival/ approval/ disapproval
11. James had, _____, saved the manuscripts of his first novel from the burning house.
A. lastly B. at last C. lately D. at least
12. On no account _______ personal phone calls from the office.
- If something must on no account/not on any account be done, it must not be done at
any time or for any reason:
Under no circumstances: used to emphasize that something must definitely not happen
- Never
A. must employees make B. employees mustn’t make
C. mustn’t employees make D. employees must make
13. I often have to ____ my brains to remember things I’ve learnt recently.
A. split B. force C. sink D. crack
- Crack one’s brain: Vắt óc
14. The case was dismissed on the _____ that there was insufficient evidence.
A. grounds B. foundations C. reasons D. excuses
- on the ground that: For the reason that: Với lý do là 
15. ____ what he says, observe what he does.
A. Contrary B. In contrast C. Although D. Never mind
- Never mind: do not care
16. _____ becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are B. are giant pandas
C. Giant pandas are D. Giant pandas’
- Nominal that clause
17. Who ____ the news to Mina?
A. dropped B. broke C. heard D. brought
- drop the news: đánh rơi tin: tiết lộ: reveal
18. We took ____ of the fine weather and spent the day on the beach.
A. chance B. advantage C. occasion D. effect
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- take advantage of = make use of: tận dụng
19. I had to get up early; ____, I’d have missed the train.
A. otherwise B. yet C. but D. if not
- otherwise/ or/ or else: Nếu không thì
20. He was a very ____ man; one day he would be happy, the next miserable.
A. uncontrollable B. uneven C. temperamental D. dispirited
 A temperamental person is someone whose mood often changes very suddenly: tính khí bất
thường 
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part II. Give the correct word form in each gap to complete the following passage. (10 points)
1.I have no excuses. My actions were _______. EXPLAIN
2.He suffered from constant ________. SLEEP
3. She is training to be a _______. BEAUTY
4. I’ve never known such a __________ person. QUARREL
5. This statue __________ the soldiers who died in the war. MEMORY
6. Are all those _____ they put in food really necessary? ADD
7. The mother of the child hurried _____ to her neighborhood drug store. BREATH
8. It is said that the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic ___________.
FOREST
9. Katy went on a ______ course last year to learn how to make curries . COOK
10. He finally rebelled against his strict ___________. BRING

Your answers:
1. inexplicable 6. additives
2. sleeplessness 7. breathlessly: Hết cả hơi
3. beautician 8. deforestation >< forestation
4. quarrelsome 9. cookery
5. commemorates: tưởng nhớ 10. upbringing

Part III. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Write them down and correct them in
the space provided. (10 points)
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Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than
that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variation of viewpoints have
all concluded that there is a great deal more storing in our minds than has been generally
supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their brains
electrically, he can elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams
and another minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in details.
Although the physical basis for memory is not yet understood, one theory is how the fantastic
capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of
interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references with
the same information support recall. In other word, improved performance is the result of
strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
Your answers
Errors Corrected answers
1. variation variety
2. storing stored
3. neurosurgery neurosurgeon
4. can could
5. another other
6. details detail
7. how that
8. cell cells
9. with to
10. word words

Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. It is essential that each bike (lock) ____________ carefully indoors.
2. John didn’t mention (involve) _____________ in the robbery, but knew he was..
3. - I found that everything I said on the phone had been reported to the police.
- Your phone (tap) ______________________.
4. When I see my sister again, she (finish) ________________ all her exams.
5. Tom is pleased (admit) _____________ to the college.
6. He ( always - enter) __________ the room without knocking first.
7. The surface of the table looks as if it (hit) _________ with something hard.
8. Hardly our teacher (enter)________the classroom when it started to rain.
9. My uncle would rather that I ( not leave) _________ yesterday.
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10. It seems strange to be standing here, ( look) _______ out at Sydney Harbor.
Your answers:
1. be locked 6. is always entering
2. being involved 7. has been hit
3. must have been tapped 8. had ….entered
4. will have finished 9. hadn’t left
5. to be admitted 10. looking

Part V. Complete each of the sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below. Make any
changes if necessary. (20 points)
break down get by splash out cut off brush up
cut out for hand in set up think ahead take up
1. Last year, they __set up___ a business which has been very successful.
2. I eventually decided to __take up____ golf.
3. She can’t __get by___ on 100 dollars a week.
4. The village was _cut off_____ by deep snow.
5. I need to ____brush up___ on irregular English verbs.
6. When I heard what had happened to the animals, I ___broke down__ and cried.
7. He is not ___cut out for_____ teaching.
8. I’m planning on __hand in__ my notice as soon as this project is finished.
9. He has ___splashed out___on presents for his nephews .
10. We must ___think ahead___ and decide where we are going for our holidays this year.
Your answers:
1. set up; establish/ found 6. broke down: be shocked/ be
disappoint
2. take up: start a hobby 7. cut out for; be suitable for
3. get by: manage to live on a tight budget 8. handing in: submit
4. cut off: be disconneted 9. splashed out: spend a lot of money
5. brush up: revise 10. think ahead: think in advance

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (50 POINTS)


Part I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (10 points)
Local rail travel is now much more (1) _____, thanks to the (2)_____ by Anglia Railways
of the Anglia Plus range of tickets.
With an Anglia Plus ticket you can enjoy (3) ____ rail travel within Norfolk and Suffolk
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for an unbeatable price. (4)_____, Anglia Plus offers you free travel on buses from Ipswich
station to the town centre or any (5) _____ within the town served directly by Ipswich Buses.
For days (6) ______ with the family, visiting friends or relatives, even for (7) ____ to
work, Anglia Plus is just the ticket, providing you with the exceptional standard of Anglia
service and comfort at a reduced cost. Its flexibility offers you all sorts of (8)____ for
discovering more of this (9) _____ region.
There are three types of Anglia Plus ticket available. The One Day Pass and the Three
Day Pass are ideal for travelling around the region during your leisure time, whilst the Seven
Day Pass is an excellent low-cost option for daily commuters which also (10) ____ you to travel
on other routes after work or at weekends.
1. A. expensive B. affordable (reasonable) C. costly D. priceless
2. A. beginning B. introduction C. encouragement D. courage
3. A. applicable B. exterior C. worthless D. unlimited
4. A. In addition B. In contrast C. However D. Therefore
5. A. destination B. information C. application D. situation
6. A. outing (picnic) B. out C. work D. in
7. A. communicating B. commuting C. consuming D. conducting
8. A. limits B. needs C. options D. changes
9. A. unsightly B. ruined C. terrifying D. unspoiled/ untouched/ uncovered
10. A. allows B. admits C. lets D. enjoys
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (20 points)
It was once believed that being overweight was healthy, but nowadays few people subscribe
to this viewpoint. While many people are fighting the battle to reduce weight, studies are being
conducted concerning the appetite and how it is controlled by both emotional and biochemical
factors. Some of the conclusions of these studies may give insights into how to deal with weight
problems. For example, when several hundred people were asked about their eating habits in
times of stress, 44 percent said they reacted to stressful situations by eating. Further
investigations with both humans and animals indicated that it is not food which relieves tension
but rather the act of chewing.(3)

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A test in which subjects were blindfolded showed that obese people have a keener sense of
taste and crave more flavorful food than non-obese people (4). When deprived (loại bỏ/ tước
đoạt) of the variety and intensity of tastes, obese people are not satisfied and consequently eat
more to fulfill this need. Blood samples taken from people after they were shown a picture of
food revealed that overweight people reacted with an increase in blood insulin, a chemical
associated with appetite. This did not happen to average-weight people. (5)
In another experiment, results showed that certain people have a specific, biologically
induced hunger for carbohydrates. Eating carbohydrates raise the level of serotonin, a
neurotransmitter in the brain. Enough serotonin produces a sense of satiation, and hunger for
carbohydrates subsides.(6, 7)
Exercise has been recommended as an important part of a weight-loss program. However, it
has been found that mild exercise, such as using the stairs instead of the elevator, is better in the
long run than taking on a strenuous program, such as jogging, which many people find difficult
to continue over long periods of time and which also increases appetite.
(Adapted from Cambridge Preparation for the TOEFL Test by Jolene Gear)

1. “Subscribe to” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.


A. disagree with B. agree with C. object to D. like
2. The word” crave” in bold in paragraph 2, can best be replaced with __________.
A. devour B. absorb C. season D. desire
3. It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. overweight people are tense
B. thin people don’t eat when under stress
C. weight watchers should chew on something inedible when tense
D. 56 percent of the population isn’t overweight
4. It can be inferred from the passage that __________.
A. thin people don’t enjoy food
B. a variety of foods and strong flavors satisfy heavy people
C. overweight people have an abnormal sense of taste
D. deprivation of food makes people fat
5. According to the passage, insulin __________.
A. increases in the bloodstream when people eat large amounts of food

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B. can be used to lessen the appetite
C. causes a chemical reaction when food is seen
D. levels don’t change in average-weight people who see food
6. It can be inferred that for certain people __________.
A. eating carbohydrates eliminates hunger
B. carbohydrates biologically induce hunger
C. carbohydrates don’t satisfy a hungry person
D. carbohydrates subside when serotonin is produced
7. What can be said about serotonin?
A. It is a chemical that increases the appetite
B. Only certain people produce it in their brains
C. It tells the brain when a person is full
D. It neurotransmits carbohydrates to the brain
8. The word ‘mild’ in the last paragraph can best be replaced with __________.
A. important B. hard C. heavy D. light
9. In order to lose weight, it would be a good idea for heavy people to __________.
A. jog 3 miles daily and chew on carrot sticks
B. walk up stairs and look at pictures of food
C. eat plenty of chewy carbohydrates
D. avoid stressful situations and eat spicy foods
10. Which one of the following exercises might be best for an overweight person to engage in
daily?
A. 10-mile bicycle rides B. cross- country skiing
C. a long swim D. an evening walk
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part III. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. (20 points)
FOOD FOR THOUGHT
A. THERE are not enough classrooms at the Msekeni primary school, so half the lessons
take place in the shade of yellow-blossomed acacia trees. Given this shortage, it might
seem odd that one of the school‘s purpose-built classrooms has been emptied of pupils
and turned into a storeroom for sacks of grain. But it makes sense. Food matters more
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than shelter. (Surprising use of school premises (buildings)

B. Msekeni is in one of the poorer parts of Malawi, a landlocked southern African country
of exceptional beauty and great poverty. No war lays waste Malawi, nor is the land
unusually crowded or infertile, but Malawians still have trouble finding enough to eat.
Half of the children under five are underfed to the point of stunting. Hunger blights most
aspects of Malawian life, so the country is as good a place as any to investigate how
nutrition affects development, and vice versa. None of the usual reasons
C. The headmaster at Msekeni, Bernard Kumanda, has strong views on the subject. He
thinks food is a priceless teaching aid. Since 1999, his pupils have received free school
lunches. Donors such as the World Food Programme (WFP) provide the food: those
sacks of grain (mostly mixed maize and soyabean flour, enriched with vitamin A) in that
converted classroom. Local volunteers do the cooking – turning the dry ingredients into a
bland but nutritious slop, and spooning it out on to plastic plates. The children line up in
large crowds, cheerfully singing a song called ―We are getting porridge. How food
program is operated
D. When the school‘s feeding programme was introduced, enrolment at Msekeni doubled.
Some of the new pupils had switched from nearby schools that did not give out free
porridge, but most were children whose families had previously kept them at home to
work. These families were so poor that the long-term benefits of education seemed
unattractive when set against the short-term gain of sending children out to gather
firewood or help in the fields. One plate of porridge a day completely altered the
calculation. A child fed at school will not howl so plaintively for food at home. Girls,
who are more likely than boys to be kept out of school, are given extra snacks to take
home. (How food program affects school attendance)

E. When a school takes in a horde of extra students from the poorest homes, you would
expect standards to drop. Anywhere in the world, poor kids tend to perform worse than
their better-off classmates. When the influx of new pupils is not accompanied by any
increase in the number of teachers, as was the case at Msekeni, you would expect
standards to fall even further. But they have not. Pass rates at Msekeni improved
dramatically, from 30% to 85%. Although this was an exceptional example, the
nationwide results of school feeding programmes were still pretty good. On average,
after a Malawian school started handing out free food it attracted 38% more girls and
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24% more boys. The pass rate for boys stayed about the same, while for girls it improved
by 9.5%. (Surprising academics outcome)
F. Better nutrition makes for brighter children. Most immediately, well-fed children find it
easier to concentrate. It is hard to focus the mind on long division when your stomach is
screaming for food. Mr. Kumanda says that it used to be easy to spot the kids who were
really undernourished. ―They were the ones who stared into space and didn‘t respond
when you asked them questions,‖ he says. More crucially, though, more and better food
helps brains grow and develop. Like any other organ in the body, the brain needs
nutrition and exercise. But if it is starved of the necessary calories, proteins and
micronutrients, it is stunted (còi cọc), perhaps not as severely as a muscle would be, but
stunted nonetheless. That is why feeding children at schools works so well. And the fact
that the effect of feeding was more pronounced on girls than on boys gives a clue to who
eats first in rural Malawian households. It isn‘t the girls. (Why better food helps
students‘ learning)
G. On a global scale, the good news is that people are eating better than ever before. Homo
sapiens has grown 50% bigger since the industrial revolution. Three centuries ago,
chronic malnutrition was more or less universal. Now, it is extremely rare in rich
countries. In developing countries, where most people live, plates and rice bowls are also
fuller than ever before. The proportion of children under five in the developing world
who are malnourished to the point of stunting fell from 39% in 1990 to 30% in 2000,
says the World Health Organization (WHO). In other places, the battle against hunger is
steadily being won. Better nutrition is making people cleverer and
more energetic, which will help them grow more prosperous. And when they eventually
join the ranks of the well off, they can start fretting about growing too fat.
Adapted from “IELTS Reading Recent Actual Tests Vol 2”
Task 1: Choose the appropriate heading for each paragraph of the text above from the list
below.
List of Headings
i. Why better food helps students‘ learning
ii. A song for getting porridge
iii. Surprising use of school premises (buildings)
iv. Global perspective
v. Surprising academics outcome
vi. How food program is operated

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vii. How food program affects school attendance
viii. None of the usual reasons

1. Paragraph A: ………………
2. Paragraph B: ………………
3. Paragraph C: ………………
4. Paragraph D: ………………
5. Paragraph E: ………………
6. Paragraph F:……………….
Task 2: Complete the summary of the text below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.
In Kumanda’s school, (7) ____________ are given to girls after the end of the school
day. Many children from poor families were sent to collect (8) ___________ in the fields. The
pass rate at Msekeni has risen to (9) ___________ with the help of the feeding programme.
Since the industrial revolution, the size of the modern human has grown by (10) ___________.
1. iii 2. viii 3. vi 4. vii 5. v 6. i

7. extra snacks 8. firewood


9. 85% 10. 50%

SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)


Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (10 points)
1.”I think that you’ve drawn up some excellent plans. I must congratulate you.”
 “I must congratulate ………………………………………………………………..
2. She never seems to succeed, even though she works hard.
 However……………………………………………………………………………..
3. I never thought that I would win the prize.
 It never…………………………………………………………………………..
4. Public opinion was so strong that the Prime Minister had to resign.
 Such was…………………………………………………………………………..
5. The heavy rain made it impossible for us to have our picnic.
 Had…………………………………………………………………………………..
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1. Having P2: Danh động từ hoàn thành (đã xảy ra)
2. hard as she tried
although she tried hard
However hard she tried
No matter how hard she tried
3. So nice a day/ such a nice day
4. Had it not been for +N
Had + S + P2
Part 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given
one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. (10 points)
1. I’m afraid our problem are only just the beginning (ICEBERGE)
 I’m afraid………………………………………………………………………....
2. Someone paid five thousands pounds for the painting (WENT)
 The painting…………………………………………………………………….…
3. We feel uncomfortable in his house. (FISH)
 We feel ……………………………………………………………………………..
4. Your attitude will have to be changed if you want to succeed. (LEAF )
 You …………………………………………………………………..
5. The fact that he will never race again is something he cannot accept.( TERMS)
 He cannot……………………………………………………………………..
SECTION E. WRITING (50 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (2x5=10 points)
1. “I must congratulate you on (your) having drawn up some excellent plans”
2. However hard she works, she never seems to succeed.
3. It never crossed my mind that I would win the prize.
4.Such was the strength of public opinion that the Prime Minister had to resign.
5. Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic.
Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.

Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given
one. Using the given word at the end of the sentence. Do not change the word. (2x5=10 points)
1. I’m afraid our problems are just the tip of the iceberg.
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2. The painting went for five thousands pounds.
3. We feel like a fish out of water in the house.
4. You will have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed.
5. He cannot come to terms with the fact that he will never race again.
- the tip of the iceberg: to only know a very small part of the problem to not havethe full scope of an issue to
underestimate .
- go for: worth (đáng giá)
- A fish out of the water: feel uncomfortable and strange in a specific situation
- turn over the new leaf: change the behavior
- come to terms with: have to accept st unpleasant

Part 3. (30 points)


Write a paragraph of 180- 200 words about the benefits of sharing household chores
among family members.
……………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
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--THE END--
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Total : 200 points

SECTION A- LISTENING (20 points)

Part I: You will hear a conversation between Peter and Jim talking about some details for
the shared accommodation.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10
points)
1 point for each correct answer

1. 80 6. toaster
2. garage 7. kitchen
3.supermarket 8. 1st June/ June 1st
4. petrol 9. Friday evening/ night
5. heater 10. exam

Part II: You'll have an HR representative of “Earn and Learn” giving some information
about her company (10 points)
1 point for each correct answer

11. Money 12. School 13. E 14. C 15. F


16. A 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. A

SECTION B – PHONETICS (10 points)


Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
(1x5=5 points)
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A

Part 2. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (1x5=5
points)
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1. C 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C

SECTION C – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (70 points)


Part I. Choose the best answer to finish each of the following questions by choosing the
letter A, B, C, or D. Write your answer on the numbered blanks given below.(1x20 = 20
points)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. C

Part II. Give the correct form of the words to finish the sentences bellow. Write your
answer on the numbered blanks given below.(1x10=10 points)
Your answers:
1. inexplicable 6. additives
2. sleeplessness 7. breathlessly
3. beautician 8. deforestation
4. quarrelsome 9. cookery
5. commemorates 10. upbringing

Part III. Each sentence below contains an error. Write it down and give the correct answer
(1x10=10 points)
Your answers
Errors Corrected answers
1. variation variety
2. storing stored
3. neurosurgery neurosurgeon
4. can could
5. another other
6. details detail
7. how that
8. cell cells
9. with to
10. word words

Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (1x10=10 points)

Your answers:

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1. be locked 6. is always entering
2. being involved 7. has been hit
3. must have been tapped 8. had ….entered
4. will have finished 9. hadn’t left
5. to be admitted 10. looking

Part V. Complete each of the sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below. Make any
changes if necessary. (2x10=20 points)
Your answers:
1. set up 6. broke down
2. take up 7. cut out for
3. get by 8. handing in
4. cut off 9. splashed out
5. brush up 10. think ahead

SECTION D – READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)


Part I. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (1x10=10
points)

11.B 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.A 16.B 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.A

Part II. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (2x10=20
points)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. D

Part III. Read the following article and do the tasks that follow. (2x10=20 ps)
1. iii 2. viii 3. vi 4. vii 5. v 6. i

7. extra snacks 8. firewood


9. 85% 10. 50%

SECTION E. WRITING (50 points)


Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (2x5=10 points)
1. “I must congratulate you on (your) having drawn up some excellent plans”
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2. However hard she works, she never seems to succeed.
3. It never crossed my mind that I would win the prize.
4.Such was the strength of public opinion that the Prime Minister had to resign.
5. Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic.
Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.

Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given
one. Using the given word at the end of the sentence. Do not change the word. (2x5=10 points)
1. I’m afraid our problems are just the tip of the iceberg.
2. The painting went for five thousands pounds.
3. We feel like a fish out of water in the house.
4. You will have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed.
5. He cannot come to terms with the fact that he will never race again.

Part III. Writing a paragraph (30 points)


Write a paragraph of 180- 200 words about the benefits of sharing household chores
among family members.
1. Form: a paragraph (5 points)
+ Easy to read
+ Coherent
+ the length of the paragraph: not too short/too long ( ± 20 words)
2. Content: (15 points)
+ Successful fulfillment of the task
3. Language: (10 points)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (3 points)
+ Suitable connectors (3point)
+ Correct grammar (3 points)
+ Punctuating/Spelling (1 points)

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