Section I: Directions For Questions 1 To 5: The Following Questions Consist of Two Words Each That Have A Certain

Section I
Directions for questions 1 to 5: The following questions consist of two words each that have a certain
relationship with each other followed by alternatives. Select the alternative that has the same relationship
as depicted in the original pair of words.
1. Cavil : Quibble
(1) Abate : Increase (2) Docile : Obedient (3) Impassive : Responsive
(4) Perceive : Deceive (5) Signify : Justify
2. Textbook : Teacher
(1) Ruler : Sword (2) Syringe : Cleaner (3) Axe : Carpenter
(4) Tractor : Villager (5) Screwdriver : Electrician
3. Allay : Worsen
(1) Bolster :Reinforce (2) Lessen : Moderate (3) Weakness : Stupidity
(4) Versatile : Genius (5) Malign : Praise
4 Exult : Rejoice
(1) Mundane : Exciting (2) Complicate : Perplex (3) Assist : Suspend
(4) Rough : Frighten (5) Scare : Ghost
5. Miner: Quarry
(1) Cobbler : Awl (2) Sculptor : Atelier (3) Driver : Locomotive
(4) Fisherman : Trout (5) Seamstress : Scissors
Directions for questions 6 to 10: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form
a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
6. A. After dedicating most of 2009 to jump-starting financial markets through stimulus packages,
developed countries are now turning their attention to reforming the basic architecture of those
markets, especially the incentives for risk-taking.
B. However it has generated, as expected, a torrent of resistance from financial services firms,
including threats that they would mass-migrate to other countries.
C. The move could raise £550 million, which would be used to help reduce unemployment, according
to Chancellor Alistair Darling.
D. In a major step towards regulating systemic risks, the United Kingdom last week announced
a one-off 50 per cent “super-tax” on bankers’ discretionary bonuses exceeding £25,000.
(1) ABCD (2) BACD (3) ADCB (4) ADBC (5) BDCA
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7. A. The theory of popular Telangana sentiment, floated by unemployed politicians, has no relevance
- a fact demonstrated by the people’s verdict in the recent general election.
B. The Centre has made a serious mistake by not identifying the Maoist factor behind the Telangana
agitation.
C. The power vacuum created by Y.S. Rajasekhara Reddy’s death has emboldened them to use
the Telangana Rashtra Samithi and the student community to intensify their agitation.
D. It is an open secret that the ultras want to regain their erstwhile stronghold.
(1) BDAC (2) ABCD (3) DC AB (4) BDCA (5) ACDB
8. A. What is Spirituality? Something concerning with the intellect or what is often thought of as the
better or higher part of mind.
B. Or is it the moral aspect of life? Perhaps it may even mean a state of being incorporeal.
C. Whatever way one may define, it may be termed as an ideal that reckons all reality in essence
as spiritual.
D. Or simply stated spirituality is one’s character or quality that makes one transcend the barriers
of worldliness, caste, creed and sensuality; and realize one’s connection with the Truth.
(1) ACBD (2) ADCB (3) ABCD (4) ABDC (5) ACBD
9. A. Walt Whitman (1819-1892) was a working man, a traveler, a self-appointed nurse during the
American Civil War (1861-1865), and a poetic innovator.
B. America’s two greatest 19th-century poets could hardly have been more different in temperament
and style.
C. His magnum opus was Leaves of Grass, in which he uses a free-flowing verse and lines of
irregular length to depict the all-inclusiveness of American democracy.
D. Taking that motif one step further, the poet equates the vast range of American experience with
himself without being egotistical.
(1) BADC (2) BACD (3) ACDB (4) ADCB (5) CDBA
10. A. When under pressure, some people are more likely to drink heavily or smoke, as a way of
getting immediate chemical relief from stress.
B. The behavioral effects of an over-stressed lifestyle are easy to explain.
C. They may cut down on sleep, or may worry so much that they sleep badly.
D. Others may have so much work to do that they do not exercise or eat properly.
(1) ACDB (2) CDBA (3) BACD (4) DCAB (5) BADC
Directions for questions 11 to 15: There is a blank in each of the following sentences. From the words
given, choose the one that fills the blank most appropriately.
11. Last week Mr. Obama was in Oslo to pick up a Nobel peace prize, _______explaining that in the
real world away from Norwegian dreams he was a war president who had just escalated the US
presence in Afghanistan.
(1) emphatically (2) convincingly (3) apologetically
(4) conformingly (5) assiduously
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12. Managers are, in fact encouraging ________when they fail to enforce rules governing the time
allowed to subordinates for completion of their projects.
(1) procrastination (2) benevolence (3) conformity
(4) rectitude (5) resilience
13. Disappointingly, the director’s failure was a straight outcome of his______ we had least expected
that his focus would be so indistinct.
(1) obstinacy (2) egotism (3) vagueness
(4) insight (5) desperation
14. Although her boutique already has a significantly large and highly devoted following, Aneesha tries
to expand her ________by offering festive discounts.
(1) consumers (2) clientele (3) workers
(4) liability (5) investments
15. Cinematography as an art form often seeks the ______in its subjects, those qualities which the
words cannot express.
(1) mundane (2) esoteric (3) abstruse
(4) laconic (5) ineffable
Directions for questions 16 to 20: In each of the following sentences a part of the sentence is underlined
Choose the option which replaces the underlined part correctly.
16. The number of people visiting the trade fair this year have exceeded the estimated figure.
(1) are exceeding the estimated figure.
(2) have exceeded the estimated figure.
(3) has exceeded the estimated figure.
(4) is exceeding the estimated figure.
(5) has exceeded the estimation figure.
17. Neetu rattled off several numerical calculations which were beyond the reach of anybody.
(1) rattled away (2) rattled towards (3) rattled around
(4) rattled off (5) rattled by
18. Alia loves singing, dancing and to study daily.

(1) loves to sing, dance and studying daily.
(2) loves singing, dancing and studying daily.
(3) loves singing, dancing and to study daily.
(4) loves to sing, dancing and studying also daily.
(5) loves to sing, dance and study daily.
19. Suraj and his friends were knocking off several ideas before they arrived on the final topic for the
essay.
(1) knocking about
(2) knocking down
(3) knocking out
(4) knocking around
(5) knocking off

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20. Many a girl are rejected on the wedding day because of dowry issues.
(1) has been rejected
(2) are rejected
(3) have to face rejection
(4) have been rejected
(5) are being rejected
Directions for questions 21 to 32: The two passages given below are followed by a set of questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.
Passage – 1
Alexander Pope was born an only child to Alexander and Edith Pope in the Spring of 1688. The elder Pope,
a linen-draper and recent convert to Catholicism, soon moved his family from London to Binfield, Berkshire
in the face of repressive, anti-Catholic legislation from Parliament. Described by his biographer, John
Spence, as “a child of a particularly sweet temper,” and with a voice so melodious as to be nicknamed the
“Little Nightingale,” the child Pope bears little resemblance to the irascible and outspoken moralist of the
later poems. Though barred from attending public school or university because of his religion, Pope was
eager to achieve and hence, largely self-educated. He taught himself French, Italian, Latin, and Greek, and
read widely, discovering Homer at the precocious age of six.
At twelve, Pope composed his earliest extant work, Ode to Solitude; the same year saw the onset of the
debilitating bone deformity that plagued Pope until the end of his life. Originally attributed to the severity of
his studies, the illness is now commonly accepted as Pott’s disease, a form of tuberculosis affecting the
spine that stunted his growth—Pope’s height never exceeded four and a half feet—and rendered him
hunchbacked, asthmatic, frail, and prone to violent headaches. His physical appearance made him an
easy target for his many literary enemies in later years, who referred to the poet as a “hump-backed toad.”
Pope’s Pastorals, which he claimed to have written at sixteen, were published in Jacob Tonson’s Poetical
Miscellanies of 1710 and brought him swift recognition. An Essay on Criticism, published anonymously the
year after, established the heroic couplet as Pope’s principal measure. It included the famous line “a little
learning is a dangerous thing.” The poem was said to be a response to an ongoing debate on the question
of whether poetry should be natural, or written according to predetermined artificial rules inherited from the
classical past. It, attracted the attention of Jonathan Swift and John Gay, who became Pope’s lifelong
friends and collaborators. Together they formed the Scriblerus Club, a congregation of writers endeavoring
to satirize ignorance and poor taste through the invented figure of Martinus Scriblerus, who served as a
precursor to the dunces in Pope’s late masterpiece, the Dunciad.
1712 saw the first appearance of the The Rape of the Lock, Pope’s best-known work and the one that
secured his fame. Its mundane subject—the true account of a squabble between two prominent Catholic
families over the theft of a lock of hair—is transformed by Pope into a mock-heroic send-up of classical
epic poetry. It originated from a quarrel between two families with whom Pope was acquainted. The cause
was not very small − the 7th Lord Petre cut off a lock of Miss Arabella Fermor’s hair, and kept it as a trophy.
Although Pope did not admit it, the title of the work was most likely influenced by Alessandro Tassoni’s
mock-epic The Rape of the Bucket, from 1622.

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Turning from satire to scholarship, Pope in 1713 began work on his six-volume translation of Homer’s Iliad.
He arranged for the work to be available by subscription, with a single volume being released each year for
six years, a model that garnered Pope enough money to be able to live off his work alone, one of the few
English poets in history to have been able to do so.
In 1719, following the death of his father, Pope moved to an estate at Twickenham, where he lived for the
remainder of his life. Here he constructed his famous grotto. The celebrated grotto was, in fact, an imaginative
method of linking the riverside gardens with the gardens which lay on the other side of the road leading from
Twickenham to Teddington. Encouraged by the success of the Iliad, Pope went on to translate the Odyssey—
which he brought out under the same subscription model as the Iliad—and to compile a heavily-criticized
edition of Shakespeare, in which Pope “corrected” the Bard’s meter and made several alterations to the
text, while leaving corruptions in earlier editions intact.
In addition to his translation of the “Odyssey,” which he completed with Broome and Fenton in 1726, Pope
published “Elegy to the Memory of an Unfortunate Lady” and the “Epistle of Eloïsa to Abelard” in 1717.
Also, in 1725, he published an annotated edition of William Shakespeare.
Other works include: “Essay on Man” (1715),”Epistles” (1732- 34), four “Moral Essays,” and other epistles,
all of which explore the philosophy and metaphysics. Pope’s uprightness had everything to do with his
artistic merit. He wrote satire in the service of virtue – not simply self-defense.
21. As per passage, which of the following can be said true about Pott’s disease?
(1) The 18th-century English poet Alexander Pope died as a result of Pott’s disease.
(2) It is tuberculosis of spine and causes abnormal backward curvature of the same resulting in a
hunchback.
(3) It is an abnormal backward curvature of the spine and causes weight loss resulting in a hunchback.
(4) Individuals suffering from Pott’s disease typically experience back pain, night sweats, fever,
weight loss, and anorexia.
(5) It is a form of tuberculosis that affects all the bones of the person suffering from it.
22. As per passage, which of the following lists all the works by Alexander Pope?
(1) Ode to Solitude, Pope’s Pastorals, An Essay on Criticism, Dunciad, The Rape of the Lock,
translation of Iliad, translation of Odyssey, Elegy to the Memory of an Unfortunate Lady, Epistle
of Eloïsa to Abelard, Essay on Man, Epistles, and Moral Essays.
(2) Ode to Solitude, Poetical Miscellanies, An Essay on Criticism, Dunciad, The Rape of the Lock,
translation of Homers Iliad and the Odyssey, Elegy to the Memory of an Unfortunate Lady,
Epistle of Eloïsa to Abelard, Essay on Man, Epistles, and Moral Essays.
The Rape of the Bucket, translation of Iliad, translation of Odyssey, Elegy to the Memory of an
Unfortunate Lady, Epistle of Eloïsa to Abelard, Essay on Man, Epistles, and Moral Essays.
The Rape of the Bucket, translation of Iliad, translation of Odyssey, Elegy to the Memory of an
Unfortunate Lady, Essay on Man, Epistles, and Moral Essays.
(5) Ode to Solitude, Pope’s Pastorals, An Essay on Criticism, Dunciad, The Rape of the Bucket,
translation of Iliad, translation of Odyssey, Elegy to the Memory of an Unfortunate Lady, Epistle
of Eloïsa to Abelard, Essay on Man, Epistles, and Moral Essays.

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23. Which of the following can be assumed as a valid reason for Pope to write the poem - “The Rape of
the Lock” ?
(1) He wished to patch up a bitter public feud which had broken out between two well-known families.
(2) He wished to present a true account of a squabble between two prominent Catholic families over
the theft of a lock of hair.
(3) He wished to present a neat paradox: to persuade us that he’s an independent thinker and a
man of moral integrity.
(4) He wished to mock at the mundanity of a public feud which had broken out between two well-
known families.
(5) Cannot be determined from the passage.
24. According to the passage, “An Essay on Criticism” was:

(1) an attempt to identify and refine Pope’s own positions as a poet and critic.
(2) an essay which established the heroic couplet as Pope’s principal measure.
(3) an essay which included the famous line “a little learning is a dangerous thing.”
(4) a poem written in a type of rhyming verse called heroic couplets.
(5) an essay written in a type of rhyming verse called heroic couplets.
25. The word ‘grotto’ in the passage means:

(1) a secret place.
(2) recess of the mind.
(3) an artificial cave, esp as in landscaped gardens during the 18th century.
(4) a fanciful building.
(5) a fanciful place.
26. In the passage, which of the following is not a mentioned fact about Pope?
(1) Pope grew up as a Catholic at a time when many Catholics were barred from attending public
school or university.
(2) From the age of twelve, he suffered numerous health problems, such as Pott’s disease which
deformed his body and stunted his growth, leaving him with a severe hunchback.
(3) A precocious child, Pope began to study French, Italian, Latin, and Greek at the age of six.
(4) With Swift, John Gay and others, Pope took part in the Scriblerus Club, a literary society.
(5) Although he never married, he had many female friends to whom he wrote witty letters.
27. Pope’s late masterpiece is:

(1) Essay on Man
(2) The Dunciad
(3) Moral Essays
(4) Translation of Homer’s Iliad
(5) The Rape Of The Lock

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Passage – 2
Why are kids so outrageously bad at gratitude? While it is true that some children can respond by some
degree to diligent upbringing, and can on occasion manage something close to gratitude, most children
seem innately predisposed to a level of ingratitude that borders on the infuriating. Between the ages of
about four and twelve, children are near impossible to train to say thank you as though they mean it, when
given a gift. When they get into their teens, their gratitude to their parents usually manifests as seething
resentment, a desire to be socially disassociated from their parents, and a reminder to their parents that
they never asked to be born.
In the early years, before a child can speak, he is totally dependent on adults to care for him. He demands
food by crying, yelling and screaming, and he demands his every other need attended to by similar
methods. The usual reward for attending to these needs is that the screaming stops. Gratitude at this age
one would not expect to find. Later on, however, one might expect children to develop excellent skills at
gratitude, for several reasons.
Between the ages of four and ten (very roughly), a child is still largely dependent on adults to survive and
thrive. In these years, he will depend steadily less on his own parents, and will interact more and more with
people from other families. In these formative years, an ability to win people over will be a great asset. Gifts
from uncles and aunts may be forthcoming, and popularity amongst his peers could set him up well for
adulthood. In order to stay liked by the child’s parents, and in order to impress everyone with their generosity,
non-relatives might care for, gift, and teach a child. Cuteness seems to be important in children. Adults
have an innate weakness for it. It can be very difficult to remain angry with a cute child, and most children
are blessed with some degree of it.
My explanation for the ingratitude of children is not a cheery one. I suspect that children benefit most
consistently from a general policy of expecting gifts, demanding gifts, being self-centred, stubbornness,
and threatening to throw tantrums, and that an instinct for gratitude would conflict with this. That children
do benefit from “bad” behaviour is shown by the fact that they do behave badly. We know from our experience
of life, that parents do continue to feed and clothe ungrateful children, and to love them and come to their
aid even after the traumatic teenage years. The instincts of parents are strong enough to endure the bad
behaviour of children, and therefore adults have to endure, because children have evolved to exploit this
fact. The genes of parents are obsolete. The genes that matter are those of children. A child is a selfish
being, which has evolved to exploit the parental generation and milk it for all it can get.
Gratitude would of course often be useful to a child, but evolution plays the odds. If ingratitude nets a child
100 favours a week, and gratitude would net 20, while losing 40 of those gained by emotions incompatible
with gratitude, then the casualty is gratitude. If the costs are greater than the benefits, a trait will not evolve.
Children with an innate predisposition to be grateful will be out-competed by the ungrateful swines we see
in the world today.
If this were the whole truth, however, then we would expect never to see any glimmerings of gratitude in any
child. The world would be populated by ungrateful children who grew into ungrateful adults. Fortunately for
us, gratitude is something which is useful for an adult, and it is a skill which has to be learned. In adulthood,
we cannot expect other people to help us out all the time. Eventually our parents die, and we must fend for
ourselves, and strike deals with those around us. We have little respect for “spongers” – people who take
from others all the time and give nothing. As adults, we cannot get pieces of cake by threatening to hold our

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breath until we pass out. We must learn some gratitude. If the adult is to be any good at this useful skill,
it pays to get some practice in before it is needed all the time.
All people are not the same, and we would expect some people to start practising courtesy and gratitude
earlier than others. The most efficient way to be is probably to have an ability to learn gratitude quickly, but
to suppress the actual learning of gratitude until the moment when ingratitude stops being beneficial. We
might expect socially talented but ungrateful teenagers to learn gratitude double-quick soon after they
storm out of their parents’ cosy semi-detached house, and get a room in a shared flat in a dodgy part of
town. Interestingly enough, it seems that this is precisely what happens, but with one refinement: whereas
these young adults become skilled at being grateful to most of the people they meet, they retain an
ingratitude towards their parents. When dealing with someone who loves one unconditionally, it pays to
exploit this and to remain demanding. Most co-operation, most love, is conditional upon reasonable behaviour
in return.
If I am right, then I would predict that children who start showing gratitude later in life, might actually be
more socially talented than those who start practising this skill earlier. The ability to recognise when it is
time to get grateful, and the ability to master this new art quickly, is something that a person might be born
with. For those less perceptive, and less good at acting, starting younger might be advisable.
28. As per the passage, which of the following is untrue about ingratitude?
(1) Usually, one does not want children to develop ingratitude.
(2) Ingratitude and cuteness seem to contradict.
(3) Ingratitude and cuteness never contradict.
(4) Ingratitude is something which is useful for adults.
(5) Usually, ungrateful children exploit the fact that their parents have to endure their bad behaviour.
29. What practical advise does the author seem to suggest in the last two paragraphs?
(1) We should not confuse wants with needs.
(2) We should not confuse our instincts with our responsibilities.
(3) Part of the trick with gratitude is knowing when to be grateful, and knowing just how to express
it effectively.
(4) As parents when we begin to express gratitude daily, our kids will get to see its positive effect on
our lives. Thus, they will have the opportunity to emulate us.
(5) Part of the trick with gratitude is knowing when to be ungrateful, and knowing just how to
express it effectively.
30. Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph of the passage?
(1) Most children possess self-confidence that borders on arrogance.
(2) For most children the transition from childhood to teenage, is a surreal experience marked by
their pretentiousness.
(3) For most children the transition from childhood to teenage, is a tough training period marked by
their stubbornness.
(4) Most children possess ingratitude that borders on arrogance and they chose to reveal their
dissatisfaction through one or the other way.
(5) Most children stepping into their teenage, are inclined to ingratitude which is not only annoying
but also revealing of their deep indignation towards their parents.

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31. The tone of the author in the passage is:
(1) Sullen and Morose.
(2) Anxious and Brooding.
(3) Snooty and Outraged.
(4) Controversial and Disputatious.
(5) Cognizant and Conversational.
32. From the fourth paragraph, which of the following can be obtained as a conclusive cause for children’s
ingratitude?
(1) The more proven strategies of haughtiness and tactfulness in a child, get in the way of the
emotions (such as simplicity, affability, and diligence), which are conducive for gratitude.
(2) The more proven strategies of tactfulness and intractability in a child, get in the way of the
emotions (such as oneness and rationality), which are conducive for gratitude.
(3) The more proven strategies of self-centredness and an unreasonable perception that the world
will and ought to supply the child with an endless stream of goodies, get in the way of the
emotions (such as humbleness, consideration for others, and the actual feeling of gratitude
itself), which are conducive for gratitude.
(4) The more proven strategies of self-centredness and inflexibility in a child, would get in the way of
the emotions (such as cuteness and sincerity), which are conducive for gratitude.
(5) The more proven strategies of self-centredness and intractability in a child, would get in the way
of the emotions (such as cuteness, compassion, and sincerity), which are conducive for gratitude.

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Section II
33. Find the value in place of ‘?’ mark

1
14 ÷ of 15
3 7+8÷3
÷ =1
7 × (?) of 2 1 1
of 4 ÷
2 4
8 32 16 32 8
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
75 75 75 25 25
7 8
34. If 35 = 5.92 and 6 = 2.45 then the value of ÷ is approximately
5 3
(1) 0.725 (2) 0.675 (3) 0.555 (4) 0.875 (5) 1.015
35. 3136 ÷ 16 of 28 − 4 81 is equal to

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4
36. If ‘p’ is the remainder left when 27 × 31 × 35 is divided by 20 and ‘r’ is the remainder left when
17 × 21 × 25 is divided by 10, then what will be the remainder left when ‘p’ is divided by ‘r’?
(1) 7 (2) 0 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) 3
37. N is a two digit number. When 10 is added to twice of N we get P, another two digit number. The
digits of N are found to be same as P, only that they are reversed. How many such N are possible?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4
38. A vessel contained a mixture of liquid type A and B in the ratio 5 : 6. No other liquid type is present
in the vessel. If 110 ml of this mixture is taken out and then another 100 ml of A is added to the
vessel then the ratio (A : B) becomes 6 : 5. Find the initial volume of the mixture present in the
vessel.
(1) 600 ml (2) 610 ml (3) 660 ml (4) 550 ml (5) 650 ml
39. There is a wall which can be painted completely, when working alone, by A, B and C in 5, 10 and
15 days respectively. The wall is initially painted ‘white’ and on Day 1 both A and C together paint the
wall ‘black’. On Day 2, B painted the black part painted by A and C back to white (as much as he
could). The sequence repeated on the following days. How many days will it take to paint the wall
completely black for the first time?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11 (5) 12
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40. 10 men can finish a work in same number of days as required by 15 women. If a man can finish the
same job in 120 days then how much time will be taken to complete this job when 5 men and
5 women work together daily? Note: A day work means exactly 10 hrs.
(1) 14 days 4 hrs (2) 14 days 6 hrs (3) exactly 14 days
(4) exactly 15 days (5) 15 days 2 hrs
41. A square of area 81 cm2 was formed by bending a cable and If the cable is then, along the length,
cut into two equal parts and then one of the parts is again bended to form a circle then the radius of
this circle will be equal to -
(1) 4.42 cm (2) 6.66 cm (3) 2.86 cm (4) 1.08 cm (5) 3.28 cm
42. A cylindrical vessel was filled with water upto a height of 50 m. 14 identical spherical metal balls
each of radius 20 cm were dropped inside the cylinder. This lead to an increase in level of water by
2%. What is the diameter of the cylindrical vessel ?
(1) 0.448 m (2) 0.772 m (3) 0.664 m (4) 0.332 m (5) 0.996 m
43. 5 red, 4 yellow and 1 black balls need to be arranged in a row from left to right. In how many ways
can this be done such that no two same coloured balls are placed consecutively and there is
exactly 1 ball between any set of two consecutive red balls? Given: Balls of same color are identical.
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 120 (5) 24
44. The savings of Ramesh and Varun are in the ratio 3 : 2 while their expenditures are in the ratio 3 : 4
in the same order. Also the ratio of their incomes in the given order is 4 : 5. What is the ratio of saving
of Ramesh to his expenditure?
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 5 (5) None of these
45. The current ages of Romila and Ranjan are in the ratio 3 : 2. After 5 years, the ratio of their ages
becomes 2 : 1. What is the current age of Ranjan?
(1) 15 years (2) 10 years (3) 20 years (4) 11 years (5) 9 years
46. Hemant bought an article of Rs x and sold it to Rohan with a profit of 20%. Girish bought the same
article from Rohan at the same price and sold it to Ravi with a loss of 10%. If the purchasing price
of article by Ravi is 100, then what is the cost price of Hemant?
(1) Rs.92.59 (2) Rs.80.5 (3) Rs.70 (4) Rs.64 (5) Rs.101.5
47. In a particular transaction, the selling price of 9 articles gives a profit equivalent to the cost price of
3 articles. What is the profit percentage?
(1) 12% (2) 30% (3) 33.33% (4) 66.66% (5) 40%
48. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum at 10% p.a.
for two years is Rs.90. What is the value of this sum?
(1) Rs.1200 (2) Rs.6000 (3) Rs.6900 (4) Rs.8500 (5) Rs.9,000
49. What is the area of the circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm?
2 2
(1) 4π (2) 3π (3) π (4) π (5) 3π
3 3
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50. In a rectangle ABCD, two points P and Q are chosen on the side CD. Point P is joined to A and B to
form a triangle PAB and similarly triangle QAB is formed. What is the sum of area of triangle PAB
and area of triangle QAB if the area of the rectangle ABCD is 10 sq. cm?
(1) 8 sq. cm (2) 11.5 sq. cm (3) 12 sq. cm (4) 15 sq. cm (5) 10 sq. cm
51. Solve the following

{[2 – (3 × 4 (4 × 2 – 7 ÷14)) ÷5]}
(1) – 16 (2) 10 (3) 1 (4) 0 (5) 18
52. Simplify the following

[(1021 – 2734)(10212 + 1021 × 2734 + 27342)] ÷(1021)3 – (2734)3
(1) 1024 (2) 1 (3) 620 (4) 335 (5) 256
53. Solve the following

100 + 100 – (100 + 100) ÷ (100 ×100) – 1
9949 1111 1000
(1) 1000 (2) 10 (3) (4) (5)
50 3 3
54. A train traveling at 90 kmph crosses a platform in 40 seconds and a man standing on the platform
in 18 seconds. What is the length of the platform in meters?
(1) 540 m (2) 620 m (3) 550 m (4) 400 m (5) 320 m
55. In a group of 130 players numbered 1 to 130, all even numbered players choose Cricket, whose
numbers are divisible by 5 choose Football and those whose numbers are divisible by 7 choose
Hockey. How many choose none of the three sports?
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 50 (4) 45 (5) 15
56. In a kilometer race, Sudhir can give Randhir a start of 100 m or 15 seconds. How long does Sudhir
take to complete the race?
(1) 120 sec (2) 130 sec (3) 135 sec (4) 110 sec (5) 105 sec
Directions for questions 57 to 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each of the question consists of a question and two statements I and II.
Mark the answer as:
(1) if the question can be answered using statement I alone, but cannot be answered using statement
II alone.
(2) if the question can be answered using statement II alone, but cannot be answered using statement
I alone.
(3) if the question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using
any one statement alone.
(4) if the question can be answered using either statement I or statement II alone.
(5) if the question cannot be answered using both the statements together.
57. Is C > A?
I. A + B < C
II. AB > 0

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58. What is the area of the circle whose centre is C and which passes through P.
I. Area of the square drawn taking CP as the base is 16 sq. cm
II. The points C and P are equidistant from M and CM is = 4 cm
59. Six persons - A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table. If A is facing B then who is to
the immediate left of D?
I. E is facing F who is to the immediate left of A.
II. C is next to both A and E.
60. There are four friends Raja, Ram, Mohan and Roy. Among the four, who is the tallest friend?
I. Raja is taller than Ram but shorter than Mohan.
II. There are exactly two friends taller than Mohan.
61. A circle with centre O (see figure) has points A and B on its circumference. What is the measure of
angle AOB ?
O
B
I. Tangent AM drawn from external point M creates the ∠BAM = 30°.

II. P is point on the circle such that ∠APB = 150°.
Directions for questions 62 to 65: In each of the following questions, find the wrong term in the series.
62. 1, 3, 6, 13, 29, 63, 118

(1) 6 (2) 13 (3) 29 (4) 63 (5) 118
63. 1, 3, 4, 12, 55, 708, 39256

(1) 39256 (2) 708 (3) 55 (4) 12 (5) 4
64. 6, 12, 30, 56, 122

(1) 6 (2) 122 (3) 56 (4) 30 (5) 12
65. 1, 3, 2, 5, 9, 44, 396

(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 396 (4) 44 (5) 9

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The following table gives the information about 5 different products, A, B, C, D and E of XYZ limited for three
consecutive years. For each product the requirement (demand) and the supply is given in tonnes. Also the
selling price of each unit of the product is given for each year. A year is said to be productive when supply
of at least 3 products meet the requirement (or demand).
2003 2004 2005

Selling Selling Selling
Products Demand Supply Price Demand Supply Price Demand Supply Price
(Rs.) (Rs.) (Rs.)
A 1000 800 40 1300 1400 25 1000 1100 30
B 1300 1400 20 1200 1200 25 1000 1100 15
C 800 900 15 1000 1200 15 700 650 20
D 1050 800 5 900 800 7 900 950 9
E 650 800 10 600 550 11 700 700 9
Note: The selling price mentioned is for a unit of product. Also, demand and supply are in terms of number
of units of a product type.
66. Which year can be said to be productive for ABC limited?

(1) 2003 (2) 2004 (3) 2005
(4) 2003 & 2004 (5) 2003, 2004 & 2005
67. What is the ratio of absolute percentage change in combined demand of all products in the period
2003-04 to 2004-05?
(1) 84 : 25 (2) 25 : 84 (3) 76 : 33 (4) 33 : 76 (5) 11 : 13
68. ABC limited had invested Rs. 25 per unit (irrespective of the product) after analysing the demand for
the year 2003. What is the percentage profit/loss for 2003?
(1) 18.75% (2) 15.00% (3) 16.125% (4) 20.125% (5) 12.25%
69. What is the absolute difference in the total revenue of year 2004 and 2005?
(1) Rs. 18000 (2) Rs. 17700 (3) Rs. 17100 (4) Rs. 17300 (5) Rs. 17000
70. How many products had a continuous decrease (or increase) in the demand to supply ratio over the
period 2003 to 2005?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4

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A company XYZ makes five products A, B, C, D and E in South-Asia and European market. In South Asia,
the market share (in percentage) is maximum for A and least for C. In European market, the market share
of D is maximum and least for B. In both the markets, the market share of C is maximum and the market
share of A is least. Also given that the market share of E and D in European market volume-wise is 100000
and 250000 respectively. Assume that all the market shares mentioned are in terms of volumes of sales.
71. Which of the following cannot be the market share of B in European market?
(1) 1,10000 (2) 50,000 (3) 80,000 (4) 90,000 (5) 60,000
72. If the market share of A, B, C, D and E in south Asian market is 100000, 75,000, 15,000, 50,000 and
25,000 respectively, then what is the percentage of market share of C and E taken together?
(1) 21.5% (2) 15.09% (3) 19% (4) 17.02% (5) 20%
73. Which of the following is the correct order in terms of market share when South-Asian and European
market are taken together?
(1) C > B > D > E > A (2) C > B > E > D > A (3) C > E > D > B > A
(4) C > D > B > E > A (5) Cannot be determined
74. If the market share of B is 20,000 in European market, and market share of the five products in
European market was found to be in an A.P. then what is the size of market share of European
market volume-wise for the given products?
(1) 121,0000 (2) 520,000 (3) 750,000 (4) 910,000 (5) 900,000
75. If the total market share is 1250000,then what is the market share of E and D in terms of percentages?
(1) 30% (2) 20% (3) 15% (4) 12% (5) Cannot be determined
Below is the line chart showing the details of incomes of six persons per annum. All the incomes given are
in thousands.
Income per annum
700
Income (in thousand)
640
600
500
450
400
333
300
235
200 195
100 120
0
A B C D E F
Persons
76. If every person saves one-fifth of his income in a year, then who spends maximum amount?
(1) F (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) A

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77. If C spends one-third of his income, then what percentage of his income is saved?
(1) 33.3 % (2) 50 % (3) 70%
(4) 45% (5) 66.6%
78. What is the ratio of incomes of A, B, C, D, E and F?

(1) 127 : 47 : 66.6 : 39 : 24
(2) 128 : 47 : 66.6 : 39:24
(3) 128 : 47 : 66.6 : 39 : 25
(4) 128 : 47 : 66.5 : 39 : 24
(5) 128 : 47 : 66.6 : 38 : 24
79. The income of C and D makes what percent of total income of all the persons?
(1) 33.3% (2) 34.66% (3) 80%
(4) 45% (5) 66
80. What should be the increment in the income of F in terms of percentage to make it equal to the
income of A?
(1) 33.3% (2) 15% (3) 40%
(4) 45% (5) 55%

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Section III
The operator @, #, & and $ signifies -
1 1
A@B= –
A B
1
A$B =
(A − B)
1
A#B=
(A @ B)
(A + B)
A&B=
(A – B)
81. Which of the following is not correct

{1 @ 2 } 1
(1) = (2) {1 @ {2 $ 1}} = 0 (3) {1 $ 3} @ {1 $ 3 } = 0
{2 $ 1} 2
4
(4) {1 @ 2} $ {1 @ 3} = 6 (5) {2 $ {4 @ 1} =
11
82. Mark the option that gives numerically the highest absolute value.
(1) 2 # 6 (2) 3 @ 7 (3) 4 & 1 (4) 9 $ 2 (5) 10 @ 1
83. What is the numerical value of the expression

{1 @ {2 # {3 $ {4 & 5}}}}
25 27
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 10 (4) (5)
2 2
There are few persons in a family. A is the mother of D who has only one brother. B is the father of F who
is his only married child. The number of siblings of F is the same as the number of his sons. B is the
grandfather of D who is female. L is the uncle of M and they both are male. J is a female and is married.
These are the only members of this family.
84. What is the total number of members in the family and how many of them are male?
(1) 7 and 4 (2) 8 and 3 (3) 7 and 3 (4) 6 and 3 (5) 6 and 4
85. How is F related to M?

(1) Brother (2) Mother (3) Uncle (4) Father (5) None of these
86. Who is J married to?

(1) F (2) A (3) B (4) L (5) Cannot be determined

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Eight persons Anna, Binnu, Chintu, Doink, Elph, Fargo, Ginger and Hulk are sitting in a circle. Chintu is
facing Doink, Fargo is to the immediate left of Anna who is sitting next to Chintu. Binnu is facing Elph who
is not sitting next to Ginger. Ginger is sitting same number of seats away from Chintu and Doink.
87. Who is sitting to the left of Ginger?

(1) Hulk (2) Binnu (3) Fargo (4) Doink (5) Anna
88. How many person/s are sitting to the left of Chintu as well as to the right of Elph?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5
89. Who is sitting opposite to Anna?

(1) Binnu (2) Ginger (3) Chintu (4) Fargo (5) Hulk
Aman, Baman, Chaman, Daman went for shopping. Each of them bought exactly one item. The prices of
the four items hence bought were all of distinct cost and from Rs. 1000, Rs. 2000, Rs. 3000 and Rs. 4000.
The shops from which the items were bought were named A, B , C and D. Each person bought an item from
a different shop. Further information is given below :
1. No person bought an item which was named by the same alphabet as his name’s first alphabet.
2. D is not the costliest item and was not bought by Baman.
3. The item bought by Chaman was of least cost among the four.
4. Daman bought an item Rs. 3000 more costly than item A.
90. Who bought item D

(1) Aman (2) Baman (3) Chaman (4)Daman (5) Cannot be determined
91. Which item had a cost of Rs. 2000?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) Cannot be determined
92. Which of the following is definitely true?

(1) Aman bought item D which cost him Rs. 2000
(2) Baman bought item C which cost him Rs. 2000
(3) Chaman bought item B which cost him Rs. 1000
(4) Daman bought item D which cost him Rs. 4000
(5) Chaman bought item A which cost him Rs. 1000
93. Out of the four mentioned items, for how many can their actual cost be determined?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4

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Each of the question consists of a question and two statements I and II.
Mark the answer as:
(1) if the question can be answered using statement I alone, but cannot be answered using statement
II alone.
(2) if the question can be answered using statement II alone, but cannot be answered using statement
I alone.
(3) if the question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using
any one statement alone.
(4) if the question can be answered using either statement I or statement II alone.
(5) if the question cannot be answered using both the statements together.
94. What is age of Sita?

I. Sita is the eldest sister and her age is 5 more than Reema who is the youngest sister. Also
Reema’s age is an odd number.
II. Sita has three sisters and the average age of all the sisters is 20.
95. Who sits to the left of Chander?

I. In a row, Chander is the sitting to the right of Rahim and Anil is sitting to the left of Sonal, who
is sitting next to Chander.
II. There are only four persons sitting in the row and Chander is sitting at extreme end of the row.
Sonal is the only person sitting next to Chander.
96. Four friends Rahul, Shreye, Kunal and Rajinder have some number of coins, which are in A.P with
a common difference of 2. Does Shreye has more number of coins than Kunal?
I. Rajinder has the least number of coins. Kunal has more than the average of the number coins
held by each of the friends.
II. The number of coins with Rahul is more than what Shreye has.
97. Four persons A, B, C and D are sitting on sitting on four of the five seats numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Who is sitting on seat number 4?
I. B and C are sitting adjacent to each other and C sits on the seat numbered third highest.
II. D sits on the even numbered seat and adjacent to A.

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Directions for questions 98 to 102: Read the information given below and answer the questions that
follow.
In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be
worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows is to be answered. The
operations on numbers progress from left to right and after getting resultant of two numbers the similar
process is repeated with the next number in order to get the resultant out of the row.
Rules:
(i) If an even number is followed by another even number, then they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, then they are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the even number is to be subtracted from the odd
number.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by another odd number, then the first number is to be added to the
square of the second number.
(v) If an even number is followed by a composite odd number, then the even number is to be divided by
the odd number.
98. I. 44 3 3
II. 18 13 14
What is the product of the resultant of the two rows?
(1) 98208 (2) 140042 (3) 18002 (4) 100001 (5) 12044
99. I. 24 3 54
II. 108 12 14
What is the absolute difference of the resultant of the two rows?
(1) 90 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 5 (5) 10
100. I. 66 33 7
II. 18 14 14
What is the sum of the resultant of the two rows?
(1) 1002 (2) 66 (3) 60 (4) 5 (5) 1024
101. I. 21 23 55
II. 15 10 2
What is the sum of the square of the resultant of the two rows?
(1) 11113452 (2) 66 (3) 130 (4) 4567835 (5) 109
102. I. 100 32 33
II. 11 10 33
What is the sum of the resultant of the two rows?
(1) 16302 (2) 266 (3) 160 (4) 205 (5) 1094

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103. If WYZBD is coded as YABDF, then TVXZB will be coded as which of the following codes?
(1) VXZBD (2) VYZBD (3) VXZDF (4) VZBDY (5) None of these
104. If BDFHJ is coded as 12345, then NPRTV will be coded as which of the following codes?
(1) 7891112 (2) 98765 (3) 7891011 (4) 9893122 (5) 989112
105. If A2 + B2 is equivalent to 5, then E2 + G2 is equal to

(1) 69 (2) 64 (3) 54 (4) 74 (5) 60
Directions for questions 106 to 108: Select the conclusion/s that logically follows from the given statements.
106. Statements : All teachers are learned.

No learned is an idiot.
Some learned are erudite.
Conclusions : I. Some erudite are idiots.

II. No learned are teachers.
III. Some erudite may be teachers.
IV. No idiots are erudite.
(1) Only IV (2) Both I and II (3) Both I and IV

(4) Both III and IV (5) I, II and IV
107. Statements : Only animals have a tail.

All animals have whiskers.
No tails are brittle.
Conclusions : I. No whisker is a tale.

II. No whisker is brittle.
III. Some brittle are not whiskers.
IV. Some whiskers do not belong to animals.
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (3) Both II and III

(4) II, III and IV (5) None of the above.

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108. Statements : Many film-directors are cinematographers too.
All cinematographers are photographers.
Many photographers are stylists.
Conclusions : I . Some stylists may be film-directors.

II. No stylist is a film-director.
III. Some stylists are cinematographers.
IV. No cinematographer is a stylist.
(1) None of the options (2) I, II and IV (3) Only I

(4) Only III (5) Only IV
Directions for questions 109 and 110: In each of the questions, a set of statements are given. You have
to assume the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known
facts. From the options, choose the one in which the third statement logically follows from the first two
statements (not necessarily in the given order of statements).
109. A. Priyanka is a school teacher.

B. Only schoolteachers wear spectacles.
C. Priyanka wears spectacles.
D. Priyanka might not wear spectacles.
E. Spectacles provide aid in teaching.
F. Priyanka is an aided school-teacher.
(1) AEF (2) ABD (3) BEF

(4) ABC (5) BAC
110. A. Some MA English students are professionals.

B. Ujjwala is a professional.
C. Ujjwala is pursuing MA English.
D. Some professionals are writers.
E. Some writers might be MA students.
(1) ABC (2) BDE (3) ABE

(4) ADE (5) ECA

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Directions for questions 111 to 115: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The following is the eligibility criteria to be appointed as the Principal of St.Paul’s High school.
1. The candidate should not be less than 40 years of age.

2. The candidate should have scored atleast 70% marks in graduation and 76% marks in Post-graduation.
3. The candidate must have a minimum of 10 years of teaching experience in any high school.
4. The candidate must have cleared the “Educational Leadership Assessment Exam(ELAE)” held by
the High School Board.
However,
5. In the case of (2), if the candidate has scored more than 60% marks and less than 76% marks in
his/her Post-graduation but has worked as the “Academic Co-ordinator” in any high school for
atleast two years, then the case may be referred to the Director Of “The High School Board”.
6. In the case of (4), if the candidate has neither cleared nor appeared for the “Educational Leadership
Assessment Exam” but has 15 years of teaching experience in any high school, then the case may
be referred to the Chairman Of “The High School Board”.
Mark the answer as:

(1) if the candidate is selected.
(2) if the candidate is rejected.
(3) if the case has to be referred to the Director Of “The High School Board”.
(4) if the case has to be referred to the Chairman Of “The High School Board”.
(5) if data is inadequate.
111. Lalita is 45 years old with 73.5% marks in graduation and 62% marks in Post-Graduation. She has
been working in St.Stephen’s High school since 1990 as the Maths teacher. She has received 60%
marks in the ELAE conducted by “The High School Board”.
112. Monica is 42 years old with 70.2% marks in Graduation. She has worked in St.Xavier’s High school
for 11 years as a geography teacher and has received 61.77% marks in the ELAE held by “The High
School Board”.
113. Shruti is 44 years old with a teaching experience of 10.2 years in Columbus High School. Her
graduation marks was 71% and Post-graduation marks was 64%and her score in the ELAE held by
“The High School Board” was 67%. She is currently working as the Academic Co-ordinator Of Red
Angels High School since 2006.
114. Jatin is 40 years old with 70.3% marks in graduation and 82% marks in Post-graduation. He has
cleared “The High School Board ELAE” with 70.6% marks. He has been one of the renowned
english teachers of St.Joseph’s Girls’ High School since 1997.
115. Ritika is 41 years old with 78% marks in the ELAE conducted by “The High School Board”. She has
got 80% marks in graduation and 83% marks in her Post-graduation. She has been working as a
Maths teacher in St.Peter Primary School since 1998.

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Directions for questions 116 to 120: In the following questions, there is a statement followed by two
courses of action. Choose:
(1) if the first course of action logically follows.

(2) if the second course of action logically follows.
(3) if both first and second courses of action logically follow.
(4) if either of the two logically follows.
(5) if neither of the two logically follows.
116. Main Statement: University education in India is not considered highly productive because of
absence of continuous student evaluation.
Courses of Action:
I. The Planning Commission must introduce “semester system” in the universities which would
improve teachers’ focus and students’ awareness.
II. The value of university education cannot be declined in a student’s life.
117. Main Statement: The growing tendency towards deviant behaviour is on the rise among the children
of the urban areas because of excessive use of the internet and video games.
Courses of Action:
I. Rural children are definitely going to receive more quality education.
II. Parents in urban towns and cities should spend more time at home rather than at their places of
work.
118. Main Statement: The sudden death of an ailing patient many times leads to major violence in the
hospital by the patient’s relatives, sometimes even endangering the lives of the doctors who were
treating the dead patient.
Courses of Action:
I. Such reactionary behaviour is quite predictable because of the severe trauma that the dead
patient’s relatives undergo.
II. The government must pass a bill to protect medical and medical staff from violence especially
by the relatives of the dead patient.
119. Main Statement: Many people today are unable to focus on their fitness and join a gym because
of prolonged work schedule at office.
Courses of Action:
I. These people should try to do atleast 30 minutes brisk walking in a nearby neighbourhood or
park which would not be that time consuming.
II. The offices should consider reducing the working hours of employees so that they can join
gyms.
120. Main Statement: The rate of marital break-ups has been steadily on the rise since the last 5 years
because of equality of income and status between both the husband and the wife.
Courses of Action:
I. Both the spouses must learn to respect each other’s individuality and profession which would
bring about a proper balance in their marital life.
II. The demand to stay in joint families is forcing wives to apply for divorce.

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MCET - NMAT MOCK 1
Answers and Explanations
1 2 2 5 3 5 4 2 5 2 6 3 7 4 8 3 9 2 10 5
11 3 12 1 13 3 14 2 15 5 16 3 17 4 18 2 19 4 20 1
21 2 22 1 23 5 24 4 25 3 26 5 27 2 28 4 29 3 30 5
31 5 32 3 33 5 34 1 35 5 36 2 37 3 38 2 39 4 40 1
41 3 42 1 43 2 44 2 45 2 46 1 47 3 48 5 49 2 50 5
51 1 52 2 53 3 54 3 55 4 56 3 57 5 58 1 59 3 60 5
61 4 62 4 63 2 64 2 65 3 66 5 67 2 68 1 69 4 70 3
71 1 72 2 73 5 74 3 75 5 76 5 77 5 78 2 79 2 80 2
81 4 82 1 83 4 84 1 85 4 86 3 87 2 88 2 89 5 90 1
91 5 92 5 93 3 94 5 95 1 96 3 97 5 98 1 99 3 100 3
101 5 102 5 103 1 104 3 105 4 106 4 107 5 108 1 109 2 110 4
111 2 112 5 113 3 114 1 115 2 116 1 117 5 118 2 119 1 120 1
MY PERFORMANCE
Total Time Taken Total Correct Incorrect Net

Questions (Min) Attempts Attempts Attempts Score
Language Skills Sec I 32

Quantitative Skills, Data
Sec II 48
Analysis and Sufficiency
Intelligence and
Sec III 40
Logical Reasoning
TOTAL 120 120
MCT-1012/10
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1. 2 ‘Cavil’ and ‘Signify’ share a synonymous relationship 10. 5 B is the obvious opener. A elaborates on the comment
with each other. They both mean to disagree over made in B. D follows A as ‘some’ in A is aptly
something or to find fault with. Similarly, ‘docile’ and complemented by ‘others’ in D. DC form a mandatory
‘obedient’ are also synonyms of each other as they pair as ‘they’ in C refers to ‘others’ in D.
both refer to being easily managed or taught.
11. 3 The sentence talks of a positive event- Mr. Obama
2. 5 Just as a ‘textbook’ is used by the teacher for teaching, receiving the Nobel peace prize; however the sentence
a ‘screwdriver’ is used by the electrician for connecting has a tinge of irony as Obama openly accepts that he
wires and other electrical work. was a ‘war president’. The situation for Mr. Obama is
shameful and his acknowledgement on receiving the
3. 5 Just as ‘allay’ meaning to soothe or pacify is the peace prize and at the same time escalating US
opposite of ‘worsen’, ‘malign’ which means to defame presence in Afghanistan would have to be ‘apologetic’.
is the opposite of praise. Thus option (3) fits in best here.
4. 2 ‘Exult’ which means to express extreme joy is a 12. 1 The sentence talks of a negative habit brewing up
synonym of ‘rejoice’. Similarly, ‘Complicate’ which because of the failure of the managers to enforce
means to make intricate or involve is a synonym of rules. Only ‘procrastination’ fits the bill.
‘Perplex’.
13. 3 The clue to solving the riddle lies in the ‘indistinct focus’
5. 2 The given relationship is that of worker and workplace; of the director. ‘Vagueness’ comes the closest to
a ‘miner’ works in a ‘quarry’; similarly, a ‘sculptor’ works describing the ‘indistinct focus’.
in an ‘atelier’. Options (1) and (5) demonstrate a worker
and tool relationship. A ‘cobbler’ works with an ‘awl’; 14. 2 Only ‘clientele’ fits the bill as the sentence talks of
similarly a ‘seamstress’ works with ‘scissors’. Option Anita expanding her business.
(3) is vague as ‘driver’ may not necessary drive a
‘locomotive’; similarly a ‘fisherman’ may not always 15. 5 The clue to solving this question lies in the words
catch a ‘trout’. ‘qualities which the words cannot express’; ‘ineffable’
which means incapable of being expressed in words
6. 3 Statement A aptly introduces the subject. D continues fits the bill appropriately.
the idea as it talks of ‘a major step towards regulating
systematic risks’ which is related to ‘reforming the 16. 3 “The number” is considered as singular. Hence, “has
basic architecture of the financial markets’. C follows exceeded” is the correct usage. Option (5) is incorrect
D as it describes the benefits of the “super-tax” because we need the adjective form of the word
mentioned in D. CB form a mandatory pair as ‘it’ in B “estimate” here to modify the noun “figure”. Hence,
refers to “the move” in C. “estimation” cannot be used.
7. 4 B aptly introduces the subject- ‘the mistake made by 17. 4 The correct phrasal verb to be used here is “rattled
the Centre’. D carries the idea forward as it gives the off” which means to quote figures rapidly.
reason why ‘the Centre has made a serious mistake
by not identifying the Maoist factor’. DC form a 18. 2 There is an error of parallelism in the given sentence.
mandatory pair as ‘them’ and ‘their’ in C refer to the As per the rule of parallelism, the later part of the
‘ultras’ mentioned in D. A continues the discussion sentence needs to be modified as per the initial
further as it talks of the shallowness of the unemployed structure. Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.
politicians’ rhetoric vis-à-vis the people’s verdict.
19. 4 The correct phrasal verb to be used here is “knocking
8. 3 A introduces the topic by probing into the definition of around” which means to discuss casually about
spirituality. B continues with an alternative definition. something.
C summarizes the idea behind the definitions.
D rephrases the summary. 20. 1 Since the action has been recently completed, the
present perfect tense should be used. The phrase
9. 2 A starts the discussion by comparing the works of the “Many a” is also taken as singular. Hence, “has been”
two greatest 19th century poets. A continues the should be used instead of “have been”.
discussion further as it introduces the first of these
two great poets- Walt Whitman. C forms a mandatory 21. 2 Option (2) is correct and derivable from the second
pair with A as ‘His magnum opus’ in C refers to Walt paragraph of the passage. Option (1) cannot be
Whitman’s work. D carries forward the idea mentioned chosen as an answer as the passage does not inform
in C. us about how Alexander died. Option (3) is incorrect
in saying that Pott’s disease causes weight loss.
Options (4) and (5) may be true but cannot be
supported by the information given in the passage.

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22. 1 Option (1) is correct. that hinders growth of emotions like humbleness,
consideration for others, and the actual feeling of
23. 5 From the given information about “The Rape of the gratitude itself. The passage nowhere mentions
Lock”, it cannot be determined what was the reason oneness, friendliness, diligence and cuteness as
(or inspiration) behind writing it. emotions conductive for gratitude.
24. 4 Option (4) is correct and be evidenced from the third

1
paragraph of the passage. 14 ÷
of 15
3 7+8÷3
33. 5 LHS = ÷
25. 3 In the given context ‘grotto’ refers to a construction in 7 × (?) of2 1 1
of 4 ÷
the form of a cave, esp as in landscaped gardens 2 4
during the 18th century.
14 ÷ 5 15 ÷ 3
= ÷
26. 5 All except option (5) find a mention in the passage. 7 × (?) of 2 1 of 16
2
27. 2 Refer to the last line of the third paragraph.
 14   14 
28. 4 Refer to the lines of the sixth paragraph, “Fortunately  5   5 
=   5
÷ =   × 8 = 1 = RHS
for us, gratitude is something which is useful for an
7 × (?) of 2 8 7 × (?) of 2 5
adult, ...”. “In adulthood, we cannot expect other people
to help us out all the time.....As adults, we cannot get
14 × 8
pieces of cake by threatening to hold our breath until Hence, 7 × (?) of 2 =
we pass out. We must learn some gratitude...” All 25
expect option (4) are true and well-supported by the 16
passage. or (?) of 2 =
25
29. 3 Refer to the lines, “The most efficient way to be is 8
probably to have an ability to learn gratitude quickly, ⇒ '?' =
25
but to suppress the actual learning of gratitude until
the moment when ingratitude stops being beneficial.”
All the other options except option (3) are either vague 34. 1 7 8 7 3 35 3
or inappropriate. ÷ = × = ×
5 3 5 8 5 24
30. 5 Options (1) and (4) can be negated as ‘arrogance’ 3 35 3 × 5.92
which is mentioned in the fourth paragraph, has not = = = 0.725
been hinted in the first paragraph of the passage. 10 6 10 × 2.45
Option (2) is objectionable; ‘a surreal experience’ is
marked by strangeness and intense irrationality which 35. 5 3136 ÷ 16 of 28 − 4 81
has not been hinted in the first paragraph, moreover,
to say that these children are pretentious in their = 3136 ÷ 448 − 4 81
conduct would be incorrect as per passage. Option
(3) is also negated as it does not deal accurately with = 7 − 4 81 = 7 − 3 = 4
the drift of views expressed in the first passage.
Option (5) is evident in the third and last three lines of 36. 2 p = 7 × (– 9) × (– 5) ⇒ 7 × (45) ⇒ 7 × 5 ⇒ 35
the first paragraph of the passage. ⇒ 15
r = (– 3)(1)(– 5) ⇒ 15 ⇒ 5
31. 5 The author at various portion of the passage uses
p when divided by r will leave a remainder zero
conversational style and in a thoughtful and cognizant
way explains why and how children develop
Alternative solution:
ingratitude.
27 × 31 × 35 will have a unit digit of 5 and hence when
divided by 20 will leave either 15 or 5 as remainder.
32. 3 Read the lines, “children benefit most consistently from
So, p = 5 or 15
a general policy of expecting gifts, demanding gifts,
17 × 21 × 25 will have a unit digit of 5 and hence when
being self-centred, stubbornness, and threatening to
divided by 10 will leave 5 as remainder.
throw tantrums ....” Only option (3) voices a conclusive
So, r = 5
cause which can be well- supported by the information
Hence p must be divisible by r
given in the fourth paragraph. It is a child’s self-
centredness and unreasonable/obstinate attitude
caused by a perception that the world will and ought
to supply the him with an endless stream of goodies,

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37. 3 Let N be ‘ab’ such that ‘a’ is the digit at ten’s place
1
while ‘b’ is the digit at unit place. Amount of work done by a woman in a day =
So P must be ‘ba’. 180
Numerically, N = 10a + b and P = 10b + a Amount of work done by 5 men in a day
It is also given that -
5 1
2N +10 = P = =
or 20a + 2b +10 = 10b + a 120 24
or 19a + 10 = 8b Amount of work done by 5 women in a day
(19a + 10) 5 1
or b = = =
8 180 36
possible values of (a,b) which satisfies above = (2, 6) Total amount of work done in a day
or N = 26 is the only possible solution. 1 1 5
= + =
24 36 72
38. 2 Let the initial volume be 11V (in ml) such that individual
volume of A and B in the mixture becomes 5V and 6V Total number of days required by 5 men and 5 women
respectively. 72
If 110 ml of this mixture is taken out then the volume of to complete the job = = 14 days 4 hrs
5
A and B taken out must be 50 ml and 60 ml.
So volume of A and B in the mixture left will be
‘5V – 50’ ml and ‘6V – 60’ ml respectively. 41. 3 Area of square = 81 cm2
If 100 ml of A is added to this then the volume of A will Side of the square = 9 cm
become ‘5V + 50’ ml. Initial length of the cable = 36 cm
New ratio of A : B = (5V + 50) : (6V – 60) = 6 : 5 Length of half of the cable = 18 cm
Hence, 25V + 250 = 36V – 360 or 11V = 610 ml. This half is used to form a circle
Hence, circumference of the circle formed
39. 4 Area of wall painted black by A and C together on = 2πr = 18
 1   1)  4 63
Day 1 =   +   = Hence radius = = 2.86 cm approximately
 5   15  15 22
Area of wall painted back to white by B on Day 2
42. 1 Let r be the radius of spherical ball
1
= Let R be the radius of the vessel
10
Volume of sphere = 4πr 3
Area of wall painted black on Day 1 and Day 2
Volume of 16 balls = Increase in total volume of
4 1 25 1
= – = = 3
Vessel = 16 × 4π  20  = 1.408 m3
15 10 150 6
So after 8 days the wall would be painted  100 
4
Increase in height = 
 6  th black. 2 
   50 = 1m
 100 
So after 9 days it will be painted
Increase in volume = 2πR × Increase in height
4 4 84 = 1.408 m3
+ = part black
6 15 90 2R = diameter = 0.448 m
5 43. 2 When leftmost ball is red -

After 10 days it will be th painted black
6 R _ R _ R _R _R_
The next day A and C will come and paint the The black ball can occupy any of the five blank spaces
So number of ways = 5
 5 4 
remaining part black  as + > 10 
 6 15  When leftmost ball is not red -
_R_R_R_R_R
40. 1 A man takes 120 days to finish the job. The black ball can occupy any of the five blank spaces
Hence, 10 men will take 12 days to finish the job. So number of ways = 5
Also 15 women will take 12 days to finish the job.
Total ways = 10
1
Amount of work done by a man in a day =
120

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44. 2 Let the savings of Ramesh and Varun be 3x and 2x 49. 2 Let the circle with center O be inscribed in an equilateral
and the expenditures be 3y and 4y respectively. Now triangle ABC.
as per the conditions in the question, we have Now in triangle OBD where D is the midpoint of side
BC, we have
(3x + 3y) 4
= ... (i) OD = Radius = 3 tan30° = 3
(2x + 4y) 5
( 3)
Now dividing the numerator and denominator of L.H.S 2
Area of the required circle = π = 3π sq.cm
x
  +3
by y, we get 3  
y 4 50. 5 Area of rectangle = (AB)(BC)
=
  x   5 Area of triangle PAB
2   + 4 
  y   1
= Area of triangle QAB = (AB)(BC) since BC is the
2
x 1 height of both the triangles.
⇒ =
y 3 Hence sum of area of both the given triangles
Hence, the required ratio is 1:3. = 10 sq.cm
45. 2 Given that the current age of Romila and Ranjan are in 51. 1 {[2 – (3 × 4 (4 × 2 – 7 ÷ 14)) ÷ 5]}
the ratio 3 : 2. If the after 5 years, the ratio of their = {[2 – (3 × 4 (4 × 2 – 0.5)) ÷5]}
ages becomes 2 : 1, then we have the following = {[2 – (3 × 4 × 7.5) ÷ 5]}
equation to solve. = {[2 – 90 ÷ 5]}
= {[2 – 18]}
(3x + 5) 4 = – 16
=
(2x + 5) 3
which gives x = 5. 52. 2 Let a = 1021 and b = 2734.
Therefore, the current age of Ranjan will be 10 years. Now apply a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2)
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
53. 3 100 + 100 – (100 + 100) ÷ (100 × 100) – 1
46. 1 Rohan’s cost price = 1.2x. = 100 + 100 – (100 + 100) ÷ (100 × 100) – 1
Ravi’s purchase price = (1.2)(0.9)x = 200 – 200 ÷ 10000 – 1
Also the purchasing price of article by Ravi is
– 1 = 200 –   = (10000 – 51)
1 51
Rs. 100, so we can write = 200 –
(1.2)(0.9)x = 100
50  50  50
⇒ x = Rs.92.59 9949
=
50
47. 3 Let the selling price and cost price of each article be
‘S’ and ‘C’.
According to the question, the equation we have is as 54. 3 When the same train crosses a platform, the distance
follows covered by the train is equal to the length of the train
9S – 9C = 3C plus the length of the platform.
(S – C) 1 Now, length of the platform = (speed of train) × (extra

⇒ =
C 3 time taken to cross the platform)
The required profit percentage = 33.33%. Length of platform = 90 kmph × 22 seconds
Now, we get 90 kmph =   × 90 = 25 m/sec

5
48. 5 Let the sum be ‘P’. The simple interest at 10% per
 18 
annum for 2 years will be
Hence, length of the platform = 25 × 22 = 550 meters.
(P × 10 × 2)
Simple interest = ...(i)
100 55. 4 P is the set of those who opted for Cricket
2 130
 10  = = 65
Compound interest = P – P  1 + ...(ii)
100 
2

Q is the set of those who opted for Football
Since the difference between (ii) and (i) is 90, therefore
we have 130
= = 26
5
90
(0.21) P – (0.2) P = 90 ⇒ P = = 9000
0.01

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R is the set of those who opted for Hockey 59. 3 From Statement I:
The position of D and C cannot be decided
130
= = 18.
7 From Statement II:
Therefore, PUQUR = 65 + 26 + 18 – (13 + 9 + 3) + 1 Only the position of A and B can be decided.
= 85.
Combining the two statements:
Number of players who opted for none of the three The following arrangement can be concluded:
sports = 130 – 85 = 45.
A
Note:
P ∪ Q ∪ R = P + Q + R – (P ∪ Q + Q ∪ R + P ∪ R) C F
+ P ∩Q ∩R
56. 3 As per the conditions given in the question, it means

E D
that Randhir takes 15 seconds to run 100m.
Therefore, Randhir will take 150 seconds to run the
stretch of 1000 metres. B
As Sudhir gives Randhir a start of 15 seconds, Sudhir
obviously takes 15 seconds less than Randhir to So, we can conclude that B is sitting to the immediate
complete the race. Hence, Sudhir will take 135 seconds left of D.
to run the 1000 m.
60. 5 From Statement I:
57. 5 From Statement II: Either Mohan (who is taller than both Raja and Ram) or
Either both A and B are negative or both A and B are Roy (about whom no information is given) is the tallest
positive.
e.g A = 1 and B = 2 or A = – 1 and B = – 2 etc. From Statement II:
The statement alone is not sufficient to answer The tallest friend cannot be decided from statement II
as its gives partial information.
From Statement I:
C – B is greater than A. So nothing can be said on the Combining the two statements:
basis of this statement alone. The statements do not go along with each other and
hence cannot be combined.
Combining the two statements:
C will be definitely greater than A when A + B < C and
both A and B are positive.
But, C may not be greater than A when A + B < C and
both A and B are negative.
e.g. A = – 1 and B = – 2
AB = 2 > 0 O
A + B = – 3. A
So, both C = – 1.5 and C = 0 satisfies it.
Hence, the question cannot be answered using both

B M
the statements together.
58. 1 From Statement I: ∠MAB = 30°

Area of the square = CP2 = 16 cm2 ∠OAB = 90 – ∠BAM = 60°
So, CP = 4 cm
∠AOB = 180 – ∠OBA – ∠OAB = 180 – 2∠OAB = 60°
Ares of the circle = πr 2 = 16π cm2 So statement I is sufficient alone to answer.
Statement I is sufficient alone to answer.
From Statement II:
From Statement II: Given that ∠APB = 165°
the length of CP cannot be determined. Angle made in the major arc by AB = 180 – 150 = 30°
Angle made at the centre = 2 × 30 = 60°
So statement II is sufficient alone to answer.
So, the question can be answered using either
statement I or statement II alone

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62. 4 Analysing the common difference for the series- 70. 3 Only A and D saw a continuous decrease in the
1 3 6 13 29 63 demand-supply ratio
2 3 7 16 34 All other products did not show any continuous
1 4 9 18 decrease or increase.
Clearly the third series' common term is a perfect square
except the 4th term which should have been 16 instead Product 2003-04 2004-05
of 18. If we make it 16 then we'll get a series -
A Decrease Decrease
1 3 6 13 29 61 118
2 3 7 16 32 57 B Increase Decrease
1 4 9 16 25 C Decrease Increase
The 6th number must be 61. D Decrease Decrease
E Increase Decrease
63. 2 From the third term onwards -
3rd term = (1 + 1st term) × (2nd term – 1)
4th term = (1 + 2th term) × (3rd term – 1) 71. 1 Market share of E in European market = 100000
5th term = (1 + 3rd term) × (4th term – 1) It is given that the market share of B is the least in
6th term = (1 + 4th term) × (5th term – 1) and so on European market, therefore the market share of B
Correct sequence should have been 1, 3, 4, 12, 55, cannot be more than E.
702, 39256 Out of the given options, all values are acceptable
except 1,10000. Hence option (1) is the correct choice.
64. 2 The common term of the series is given as
Tn = (nth prime number)2 + (nth prime number) 72. 2 Sum of market share of C and E taken together
So the series must be = 40,000
22 + 2, 32 + 3, 52 + 5, 72 + 7, 112 + 11. Total market share in South Asian market = 265000
or 6, 12, 30, 56, 132..
40,000
Required percentage = = 15.09 %
65. 3 From the 3rd term onwards - 265000
3rd term = (1st term)(2nd term) – 1
4th term = (2nd term)(3rd term) – 1 and so on 73. 5 The only information we have is C has the maximum
Correct sequence should have been market share and A has the minimum when both the
1, 3, 2, 5, 9, 44, 395 markets are taken together. We are not sure about the
order among B, D and E.
66. 5 All three years are productive
Year 2003 – B, C and E met the demand 74. 3 Given that the minimum market share is for B and
Year 2004 – A, B and C met the demand maximum for D and also we know that the number of
Year 2005 – A, B, D and E met the demand products is 5.
Market size of European market will be the sum of the
67. 2 Total number of units (demand) in 2003 = 4800 market share of all the given five products.
Total number of units (demand) in 2004 = 5000 Hence, the market share
Total number of units (demand) in 2005 = 4300
Percentage change for 2003-04 = 4.167% (250,000 + 50,000)
= × 5 = 750000
Percentage change for 2004-05 = 14% (absolute value) 2
Ratio = 25 : 84
75. 5 Since we do not know the market share of E and D of
68. 1 Total number of units (demand) in 2003 = 4800 Asian market, we cannot find the their market share in
Total amount invested = 15 × 4800 = Rs. 72000 terms of percentages.
Total revenue made from selling in 2003 Hence option (5) is the correct choice.
= 800 × 40 + 1400 × 20 + 900 × 15 + 800 × 5 + 800 × 10
= Rs. 85500 76. 5 It can be visually seen that A will spend the maximum.
Percentage profit = 18.75% Hence, option (5) is the correct choice.
69. 4 Total revenue made from selling in 2004 77. 5 If C spends one-third of his income, then two-third of
= 1400 × 25 + 1200 × 25 + 1200 × 15 + 800 × 7 + 550 his income is saved, which is 66.6%.
× 11 = Rs. 94650 Hence option (5) is the correct choice.
Total revenue made from selling in 2005
= 1100 × 30 + 1100 × 15 + 650 × 20 + 950 × 9 + 700 78. 2 Incomes of A, B, C, D, E and F are 640000, 235000,
× 9 = Rs. 77350 333000, 195000 and 120000
Absolute difference = Rs.17300 Their ratio = 128 : 47 : 66.6 : 39 : 24

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79. 2 Total Income = 6,40,000 + 2,35,000 + 3,33,000 +
(4 + 5)
1,95,000 + 120,000 = Rs.15,23,000 83. 4 4&5= =–9
Income of C and D = Rs.5,28000 (4 – 5)
Required percentage So, {1 @ {2 # {3 $ {4 & 5}}}}
= {1 @ {2 # {3 $ – 9}}}
5,28000
= × 100 = 34.66%
15,23,000 1 1
3$–9= =
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice (3 + 9) 12
80. 2 The required increment in the percentage   1  

So, {1 @ {2 # {3 $ – 9}}} = 1 @ 2 # 
  12  
 190 
=   × 100 = 42.2%
 450  1 1 2
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice. 2# = =–
12 1  23
 2 – 12 
 
81. 4 Option 1:
1 
So, 1 @ {2 #
1 2
 = 1 @ –
{1 @ 2 }
= 2 =
1  12  23
{2 $ 1} 1 2
1 23 25
= + =
Option 2: 1 2 2
{1 @ {2 $ 1}} = 1 @ 1 = 0
For questions 84 to 86:
Option 3: Let (+) denote male and (-) denote female:
{1 $ 3} @ {1 $ 3} = {– 2} @ {– 2} = 0 Following diagram represents the family -
Option 4:
w ife
 1 2 B (+ ) J(–)
{1 @ 2} $ {1 @ 3} =   $   = – 6
2  3  son
hence this option does not give a correct equation Son
L (+) w ife
Option 5: F(+ ) A (– )
son
  3  4 d au gh te r
{2 $ {4 @ 1} = 2 $  – 4   = 11 M (+)
  
D (– )
1 1
82. 1 2#6= = =3 84. 1
(2 @ 6) 1 1
2 – 6
  85. 4
1 1 4 86. 3
3@7= – =
3 7 7
(4 + 1)
4&1=
(4 – 1)
1 1
9$2= =
(9 – 2) 7
1 1 9
10 @ 1 = – =–
10 1 10
the absolute value of the first expression is the
maximum among the five.

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For question 87 to 89: 94. 5 From Statement I:
The correct arrangement must be - We cannot conclude any thing about the age of Sita.
Therefore this statement is not sufficient to answer
the question.
G in ge r From Statement II:

We cannot answer the question. Therefore, this
H u lk B inn u statement is also not sufficient to answer the question.
Even combining both the statements:

We cannot find out the age of Sita.
D o in k C h in tu
we can infer that
Rahim Anil Sonal Chander
E lph A n na
Therefore Sonal sits to the left of Chander. Hence,
Fa rg o statement I is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement II:

87. 2 We cannot answer the question as Chander can be at
the first position or the last position.
88. 2
We cannot say that Shreye has more number of coins
89. 5
than Kunal. Therefore, statement I is not sufficient to
For questions 90 to 93: answer the question.
From Statement 4:
Daman must have bough the item of cost Rs. 4000 Even from Statement II:
Cost of item A must be Rs. 1000 We cannot say that Shreye has more number of coins
than Kunal.
From Statement 3:
Chaman must have bought item A (from the above conclusion) Combining both the statements:
we can say that Shreya has number of coins more
From Statement 2: than Rajinder only. Therefore, Shreye has coins less
Baman must have bought item C and hence Aman must have than Kunal
bought item D.
It cannot be decided between D and C which item’s cost was 97. 5 From Statement I:
C sits on the seat numbered 3 and D can sit on the
Rs. 2000 and which item’s cost was Rs. 3000.
seats numbered 2 or 4.Therefore, statement I is not
Correct arrangement will be: sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement II:

Name of the D can sit on 4 and A can sit on 5 or D can sit on 2 and
Aman Baman Chaman Daman A can sit on seat number 1.Therefore, we cannot say
person
who sits on seat number 4.Therefore, this statement
Item Cost (in
2000/3000 3000/2000 1000 4000 is not sufficient to answer the question.
Rs.)
Item Name D C A B Combining both the statements:
We can infer that either D or B sit on the seat number
4.
90. 1
Therefore, we cannot answer the question.
91. 5
Hence, option (5) is the correct choice
92. 5
93. 3

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98. 1 Resultant of Row I = 44 × 3 = 132, 132 × 3 = 396
Resultant of Row II = 18 × 13 = 234, 234 + 14 = 248 107. 5 W
The product of the resultant = 98208
Hence, option (1) is the correct choice. A
T
99. 3 Resultant of Row I = 24 × 3 = 72, 72 + 54 = 126 B2
Resultant of Row II = 108 + 12 = 120, 120 + 14 = 134
B1
The absolute difference of the resultant = 8
100. 3 Resultant of Row I = 66 ÷ 33 = 2, 2 × 7 = 14

Resultant of Row II = 18 + 14 = 32, 32 + 14 = 46 108. 1
The difference of the resultant = 60 S1
Hence, option (3) is the correct choice. FD C
P S2
101. 5 Resultant of Row I = 21 + 529 = 550, 550 ÷ 55 = 10
Resultant of Row II = 15 - 10 = 5, 5 – 2 = 3
The sum of the square of the resultant of the two
rows = 109. 109. 2
Spe cta cle 1
Hence, option (5) is the correct choice. P
ST
102. 5 Resultant of Row I = 100 + 32 = 132, 132 ÷ 33 = 4
Spe cta cle 1
Resultant of Row II = 11 - 10 = 1, 1 + 1089 = 1090
The sum of the resultant = 1094.
110. 4
103. 1 Every third letter in the position is chosen in coding of
the given word. ES P W1
So for TVXZB, the coding will be VXZBD. Hence,
option (1) is the correct choice
W2
104. 3 The position for B, D, F, H and J in the alphabetical
order are 2,4,6,8 and 10. Now these positions are
divided by 2, we get 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
111. 2 Lalita’s case has to be rejected because she has got
The position for N, P, R, T and V in the alphabetical
less than 76% marks in Post-graduation and does not
order are 14,16,18,20 and 22. These positions when
fulfil the basic criterion.
divided by 2, we get 7, 8, 9, 10, 11.
112. 5 The data given is inadequate because we dont know
whether Monica has cleared her Post-graduation and
105. 4 The positions for A and B in alphabetical order are
what was her percentage of marks in Post-graduation.
1 and 2 and 12 + 22 = 5. Same concept will be applied
to E2 + G2 which will be equal to 52 + 72 = 74.
113. 3 Shruti fulfils condition (5). So, her case has to be
referred to the Director Of “The High School Board”.
114. 1 Since Jatin fulfils all the basic criteria, he can be

106. 4
selected as the Principal of St. Paul’s High School.
E1
115. 2 Ritika’s case has to be rejected because she does not
T L I have teaching experience in a high school.
116. 1 Only the first course of action logically follows as it

provides a valid answer to the problem of productivity
E2
in university education. The second course of action
is more of an opinion rather than a concrete solution to
the given problem.

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117. 5 Neither of the course of action logically follow because
both discuss points that are not stated in the main
statement.
118. 2 The first course of action is invalid from the point of

view of the main statement given. Only the second
course of action follows.
119. 1 The first course of action is more viable because it

provides justifiable alternatives which can be
considered by people who cannot join gyms because
of time constraints. The second course of action is
very vague.
120. 1 Only the first course of action logically follows from

the main statement. The second course of action is
nowhere related to the main statement.

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Section I: Directions For Questions 1 To 5: The Following Questions Consist of Two Words Each That Have A Certain

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Section I: Directions For Questions 1 To 5: The Following Questions Consist of Two Words Each That Have A Certain

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Section  I

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 1

(1) BDAC (2) ABCD (3) DC AB (4) BDCA (5) ACDB

Page 2 MCET NMAT Mock - 1

18. Alia loves singing, dancing and to study daily.

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 3

Page 4 MCET NMAT Mock - 1

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 5

24. According to the passage, “An Essay on Criticism” was:

25. The word ‘grotto’ in the passage means:

27. Pope’s late masterpiece is:

Page 6 MCET NMAT Mock - 1

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 7

Page 8 MCET NMAT Mock - 1

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 9

33. Find the value in place of ‘?’ mark

35. 3136 ÷ 16 of 28 − 4 81 is equal to

Page 10 MCET NMAT MOCK - 1

NMAT MOCK - 1 MCET Page 11

51. Solve the following

52. Simplify the following

53. Solve the following

Page 12 MCET NMAT MOCK - 1

I. Tangent AM drawn from external point M creates the ∠BAM = 30°.

62. 1, 3, 6, 13, 29, 63, 118

63. 1, 3, 4, 12, 55, 708, 39256

64. 6, 12, 30, 56, 122

65. 1, 3, 2, 5, 9, 44, 396

NMAT MOCK - 1 MCET Page 13

2003 2004 2005

66. Which year can be said to be productive for ABC limited?

Page 14 MCET NMAT MOCK - 1

Income per annum

NMAT MOCK - 1 MCET Page 15

78. What is the ratio of incomes of A, B, C, D, E and F?

Page 16 MCET NMAT MOCK - 1

81. Which of the following is not correct

83. What is the numerical value of the expression

85. How is F related to M?

86. Who is J married to?

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 17

87. Who is sitting to the left of Ginger?

89. Who is sitting opposite to Anna?

90. Who bought item D

91. Which item had a cost of Rs. 2000?

92. Which of the following is definitely true?

Page 18 MCET NMAT Mock - 1

94. What is age of Sita?

95. Who sits to the left of Chander?

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 19

Page 20 MCET NMAT Mock - 1

105. If A2 + B2 is equivalent to 5, then E2 + G2 is equal to

106. Statements : All teachers are learned.

Conclusions : I. Some erudite are idiots.

(1) Only IV (2) Both I and II (3) Both I and IV

107. Statements : Only animals have a tail.

Conclusions : I. No whisker is a tale.

(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (3) Both II and III

NMAT Mock - 1 MCET Page 21

Conclusions : I . Some stylists may be film-directors.

(1) None of the options (2) I, II and IV (3) Only I

109. A. Priyanka is a school teacher.

Section I