Pmi Ca0 001

s@lm@n
PMI
Exam CA0-001
Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification
Version: 6.11
[ Total Questions: 525 ]

PMI CA0-001 : Valid Questions
Topic break down
Topic No. of Questions

Topic 1: Volume A 325
Topic 2: Volume B 100
Topic 3: Volume C 100
100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 2

Topic 1, Volume A
Question No : 1 - (Topic 1)
Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?
A. Define Scope and Define Activities

B. Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources
C. Create WBS and Define Activities
D. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration
Answer: C
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among
schedule activities?
A. Schedule development
B. Activity sequencing
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
Answer: B
Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?
A. Templates, forms and standards

B. Change requests
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Project assumptions
Answer: C
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints
Answer: A
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
A. Project boundaries
B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives
Answer: A
What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. More work was completed than planned

B. Less work was completed than planned
C. Cost overrun for completed work has occurred
D. Cost underrun for completed work has occurred
Answer: A
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment

C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Answer: A
Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?
A. Actions, decision points, and process drivers

B. Activities, decision points, and the order of processing
C. Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing
D. Actions, decision points, and activities
Answer: B
The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project?
A. Procurement management plan

B. Project management plan
C. Project scope document
D. Project charter
Answer: D
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact
on project objectives?
A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer

Answer: D
Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the
question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.
What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 24
D. 25
Answer: D
Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Communications
C. Develop Project Team
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid

Answer: C
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: B
Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a
considerable period of years?
A. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF)

B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)
C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF)
D. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
Answer: B
What is one of the objectives of project risk management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.

B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can
be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
Answer: C

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
A. 1.33
B. 2.00
C. 0.75
D. 0.5
Answer: A
In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the
contract work and receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance
objectives as set forth in the contract?
A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee
C. Firm-fixed-price
D. Fixed-price-incentive-fee
Answer: B
An Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used for which of the following?
A. Identifying causes of risks

B. Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks
C. Developing a resource plan
D. Developing schedule
Answer: A

The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring & Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting
relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart

B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
Answer: C
When does risk monitoring and control occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
Answer: C
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk
category?

A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
Answer: B
Who authorizes a project?
A. Sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Project team
D. Buyer
Answer: A
What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or
acquired?
A. Procurement management plan

B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: D
The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost
performance index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project?
A. Behind schedule and over budget

B. Behind schedule and under budget

C. Ahead of schedule and under budget
D. Ahead of schedule and over budget
Answer: B
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication

channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
Answer: B
What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment
in preventing nonconformance to requirements?
A. Cost of quality
B. Measure of design
C. Statistical control
D. Systematic analysis
Answer: A
Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project?
A. Requirements, influence, and functional department

B. Interest, requirements, and functional role
C. Requirements, expectations, and influence
D. Interest, expectations, and influence

Answer: D
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
Answer: D
Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?
A. Sponsor
B. Portfolio manager
C. Program manager
D. Project manager
Answer: C
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may
require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix

B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
Answer: C

Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life
cycle?
A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Scope management plan
C. Project charter
D. Work breakdown structure
Answer: A
Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in
the project management plan are part of which process?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Risk
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: A
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
Answer: A
Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?
A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Plan Communications
D. Collect Requirements
Answer: B
What is Project Portfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as
planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.
C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective
management and meet strategic business objectives.
Answer: D
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual
completion.
B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and
increasing the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule
delay.
D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is
available.
Answer: B
Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement
Management?
A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select
sellers
B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule
control
C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select
sellers
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers
Answer: A
Which is the total float for the activity G?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: C
Which is a true statement regarding project governance?
A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.

B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.
C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.
D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project
phase.
Answer: A

What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project
closure?
A. Customer acceptance
B. Statement of work
C. Product report
D. User manual
Answer: A
Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?
A. Project and Product

B. Staffing and Budget
C. Stakeholder and Customer
D. Business and Technical
Answer: A
Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved preventive action
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
Answer: B
Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will

pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?
A. Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)

B. Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)
C. Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)
D. Time and material contracts (T&M)
Answer: A
Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally
manage approved changes and baselines within a project?
A. Project management information system

B. Configuration management system
C. Change control board
D. Project management plan
Answer: B
Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited
resources?
A. Human resource planning

B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: C
What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work
can be reliably estimated and managed?

A. Work product
B. Work package
C. Project deliverable
D. Scope baseline
Answer: B
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the
defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing
this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process.

B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.
Answer: A
Which project management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement
requirements and that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract?
A. Plan Procurements
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Administer Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements
Answer: C
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project
management knowledge area?

A. Time management
B. Cost management
C. Scope management
D. Human resources management
Answer: A
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by

type?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)
Answer: B
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures.

B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources.
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses.
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive
proposal.
Answer: D
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan


C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
Answer: B
When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most
effectively?
A. Push
B. Interactive
C. Parallel
D. Pull
Answer: D
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a

timely manner?
A. Contract management
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Information distribution
Answer: D
Explanation: The project management term or phrase that is used for the purposes of
representing the project management process that focuses on taking the facts and
happenings in regards to a particular project and disseminating this information to all of the
relevant parties, with a particular focus on providing information to those who have a
financial stake in the ultimate outcomes of the project. These methods of information
dissemination can come in means including regularly scheduled conferences and or
meetings, regularly scheduled conference calls in which some or all members of the project
team participate, informal written communications such as periodic updates via email and
of other short form, less formal means of communications, as well as formal reports that
may or may not have been requisite to the completion of the project. Information
distribution is essential to assuring that the financial stakeholders are fully aware of the

progress throughout as it helps to assure no surprises arise at the time that deliverables
are expected to be final.
This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th.
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated
WBS and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
Answer: D
Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?
A. EV/PV
B. PV/EV
C. EV-PV
D. PV-EV
Answer: C
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?
A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: A
Which of the following is the definition of a project?
A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product

B. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
D. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
Answer: B
Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using
PERT?
CO = $7,000
CM = $10,500
CP = $11,000
A. $ 4,750
B. $ 9,500
C. $10,000
D. $11,500
Answer: C
Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not
explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications?

A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base
C. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors
D. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors
Answer: C
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Cost Control
B. Cost Budgeting
C. Cost Estimating
D. Cost Planning
Answer: B
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis
or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning

D. Risk response planning
Answer: A
Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board?
A. Describes how changes are managed.

B. Approves or rejects change requests.
C. Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change.
D. Describes how changes are documented.
Answer: B
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote
Answer: B
What is the definition of project plan execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities.

B. Performing the activities included in the plan.
C. Developing and maintaining the plan.
D. Execution of deliverables.
Answer: B

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?
A. Approved corrective actions

B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
Answer: A
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
Answer: A
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but
different technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
Answer: D
Which document is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the

project?
A. Project charter
B. Contract
C. Business case
D. Project statement of work
Answer: D
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Requested changes
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Approved change requests
Answer: D
Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the
project?
A. Expected monetary value analysis

B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B
In the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely estimate for an activity to complete
is 100 days, the optimistic estimate is 60 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 200 days,
what is the expected duration in which the activity will be completed?

A. 90 days
B. 100 days
C. 110 days
D. 660 days
Answer: C
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?
A. Critical path
B. Rolling Wave
C. PDM
D. Parametric
Answer: D
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified
price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
Answer: C
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D. The product is needed in 250 days.
Answer: D
A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product
according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month.
Which tool or technique is used in this case?
A. Expert judgment
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Variance analysis
Answer: D
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewart-Deming
D. Delphi
Answer: C
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or
expected performance?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting

Answer: D
Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Top-down estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: C
If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is
$1500, what would be the cost performance index (CPI)?
A. 0.66
B. 0.8
C. 1.25
D. 1.5
Answer: C
Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement?
A. Executive management
B. Project members
C. Project manager
D. Contract administrator
Answer: A

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
A. Cost Control
B. Quality Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Cost Budgeting
Answer: A
Which of the following is a strategy for positive risks?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Mitigate
Answer: C
Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time
Management process?
A. Activity Sequencing
B. Activity Resource Estimating
C. Schedule Development
D. Schedule Control
Answer: C

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Team performance assessment

B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
Answer: D
ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved
stakeholder issues. Team member morale is low.
Who is primarily responsible for the project being at risk?
A. Team members who have low morale

B. Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project
C. Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations
D. Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations
Answer: C
What do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional and project managers

B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
Answer: A
What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers become more involved.
Answer: A
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system
interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Answer: B
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan
Procurements Process?
A. Risk assessment analysis

B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
Answer: B
Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the
question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the total float on path BEG?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Contract administration
B. Direction and management of project execution
C. Create WBS
D. Qualitative risk analysis
Answer: A
The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the
following processes?
A. Plan Quality

B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Perform Quality Control
Answer: B
Which knowledge area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and
appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of
project information?
A. Project Integration Management

B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management
Answer: B
Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?
A. Project risk management

B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
Answer: D
Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders' needs and
expectations?
A. Project charter

C. Project statement of work
D. Project scope statement
Answer: A
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
Answer: D
On what is project baseline development established?
A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule
Answer: B
Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the
project was undertaken to achieve?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer: C
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?
A. Project Quality Plan

B. Project Schedule Network
C. Project Management Software
D. Project Scope Management Plan
Answer: D
Information distribution involves making needed information available to project

stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?
A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
Answer: C
Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all
processes needed to meet its requirements?
A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Quality Planning
Answer: C

The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the
following processes?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Direct and Manage Project Execution
Answer: A
Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Project Management Software
C. Vendor Bid Analysis
D. Reserve Analysis
Answer: A
What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best
case scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165?
A. $115
B. $138
C. $140
D. $165
Answer: C

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same.
D. Has no bearing.
Answer: B
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:
A. probability distribution.
B. decision tree diagram.
C. sensitivity analysis.
D. modeling and simulation.
Answer: B
What information does the stakeholder register contain?
A. Communication model
B. Identification information
C. Communication method
D. Identification plan
Answer: B
As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a
forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following
methods?

A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
Answer: B
What are the components of the "triple constraint"?
A. Scope, time, requirements

B. Resources, time, cost
C. Scope, management, cost
D. Scope, time, cost
Answer: D
Explanation: The Project Management Triangle (called also Triple Constraint) is a model
of the constraints of project management. It is often used to illustrate that project
management success is measured by the project team's ability to manage the project, so
that the expected results are produced while managing time and cost.
Like any human undertaking, projects need to be performed and delivered under certain
constraints. Traditionally, these constraints have been listed as "scope," "time," and "cost".
These are also referred to as the "Project Management Triangle," (also known as the "Iron
Triangle") where each side represents a constraint. One side of the triangle cannot be
changed without affecting the others. A further refinement of the constraints separates
product "quality" or "performance" from scope, and turns quality into a fourth constraint.
How is the process of collecting requirements defined?
A. Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives
B. Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives
C. Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives
D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives

Answer: B
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact
how the project's scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets

B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
Answer: A
Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communication management plan
C. Requested changes
D. Communication requirement plan
Answer: C
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
Answer: C

What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration,
budget, size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for
estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Three-point estimates
Answer: B
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
Answer: C
The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?
A. Plan Quality
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Identify Stakeholders
Answer: C

EAC (estimate at complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus
an ETC (estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula
for calculating EAC?
A. EAC = AC + [(BAC-EV) / (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI)]

B. EAC = BAC - AC
C. EAC = 1 - CPI
D. EAC = EV + [1 - (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) / BAC]
Answer: A
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would
normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
Answer: B
Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?
A. Project management plan

B. Report performance
C. Communications requirements analysis
D. Communication methods
Answer: D
The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of

the following processes?
A. Develop Project Charter

B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Answer: C
Which is the duration of the project?
A. 63
B. 65
C. 66
D. 70

Answer: D
The risk register contains which of the following?
A. Identified risks and potential responses

B. Identified risks and updates to scope baseline
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk related contract decisions
Answer: A
Explanation: A Risk Register is a Risk Management tool commonly used in Project
Management and organizational risk assessments. It acts as a central repository for all
risks identified by the project or organization and, for each risk, includes information such
as risk probability, impact, counter-measures, risk owner and so on. It can sometimes be
referred to as a Risk Log
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified

B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
Answer: C
In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for
the activities?

A. Finish-to-start
B. Applying leads and lags
C. Activity-on-node
D. Dependency determination
Answer: A
Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which
process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control

B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: D
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency
purposes?
A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis
Answer: D
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet
requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition

B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Answer: C
A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?
A. Methodology
B. Standards
C. Constraints
D. Interdependencies
Answer: C
The Project Integration Management knowledge area includes which of the following set of
processes?
A. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Perform Integrated
Change Control
B. Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase
C. Develop Project Charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Costs
D. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Develop Project Management Plan
Answer: A
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule
without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B. The critical path will have positive total float.

C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.
Answer: A
Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
EV = $500
PV= $750
AC= $1000
BAC= $1200
A. 0.67
B. 1.50
C. 0.75
D. 0.50
Answer: A
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description

B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
Answer: A
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
Answer: C
Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and the project's
critical path schedule activities with activity date information?
A. Schedule table
B. Schedule network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Milestone chart
Answer: B
Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable
performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control Charts
C. Pareto Chart
D. Histogram
Answer: B
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources

C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
Answer: B
Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and
techniques of what process?
A. Perform Quality Control

C. Quality Planning
D. Performance Reporting
Answer: A
Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?
A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Verify Scope
Answer: D
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path
method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A. Applying calendars
B. Resource Leveling
C. Resource Planning
D. Resource Conflict Management

Answer: B
Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved
change requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?
A. Quality checklists
B. Quality metrics
C. Quality audits
D. Process analysis
Answer: C
What are assigned risk ratings based upon?
A. Root cause analysis

B. Assessed probability and impact
C. Expert judgment
D. Risk Identification
Answer: B
During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed
project scope?
A. Quality control
B. Scope verification
C. Scope control
D. Close project
Answer: B

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project document updates

C. Scope baseline
D. Product analysis
Answer: A
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?
A. Performance Measure
B. Baseline Schedule
C. Schedule Comparison
D. Variance Analysis
Answer: D
Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirement documentation
B. Organizational process assets
C. Requirements management plan
D. Stakeholder register
Answer: D
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
Answer: A
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a:
A. guide to project management processes, tools and techniques.

B. methodology for managing projects.
C. guide for project, portfolio and program management.
D. standard for project, portfolio and program management.
Answer: A
Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?
A. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - D
B. Begin - A - B - C - D - E - End
C. Begin - A - B - D - E - End A - C - D
D. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - C
Answer: A

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix

B. Work breakdown structure update
C. Project network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
Answer: C
An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:
A. Organizational Structure
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Organizational Matrix
D. Organizational Breakdown Structures
Answer: B
What process determines which risks might affect the project?

B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis
Answer: B

Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?
A. EV-AC
B. AC-EV
C. AC+EV
D. AC/EV
Answer: A
Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the
communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Performance measurements
D. Change requests
Answer: C
In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together,
develop trust, and adjust to the work habits and behavior?
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Answer: A
Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success.
Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager supported by the project manager
D. Project management office
Answer: B
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive
risk to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
Answer: C
Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the
project CV?
A. -$8,000
B. -$2,000
C. $2,000
D. $8,000
Answer: B
Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?
A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for Opportunities

C. Decision Tree Analysis
D. Risk Data Quality Assessment
Answer: C
The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a
new risk has been identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur.
This is an example of which type of risk response strategy?
A. Mitigate
B. Accept
C. Avoid
D. Transfer
Answer: B
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively,
what are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase

B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
Answer: C
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

B. Marketplace conditions and company structure

C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions
Answer: A
The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?
A. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities

B. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable
components
C. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units
D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed
Answer: B
Which of the following will be required to perform simula-tion for schedule risk analysis?
A. Activity list and activity attributes

B. Schedule network diagram and duration estimates
C. Schedule data and activity resource requirements
D. Milestone list and resource breakdown structure
Answer: B
The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the
risks, the team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate
another risk.
This new risk is which of the following types of risk?
A. Secondary

B. Primary
C. Residual
D. Tertiary
Answer: A
A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under
which category does this cost fall?
A. Appraisal
B. Internal failure
C. External failure
D. Prevention
Answer: D
Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations
process?
A. Issue log
B. Change register
C. Stakeholder register
D. Interpersonal skills
Answer: D
In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full
authority on a project?
A. Functional
B. Strong matrix

C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D
Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?
A. Push
B. Decode
C. Pull
D. Duration
Answer: B
Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:
A. funding limit reconciliation

B. scope baseline
C. activity cost estimates.
D. cost baseline.
Answer: D
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of
the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis

Answer: B
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
A. Develop preliminary project scope statement.

B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Develop project charter.
D. Create WBS.
Answer: B
If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned
Value (EV)?
A. $0.2
B. $5
C. $44
D. $66
Answer: D
Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Closing
Answer: B

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:
A. Always be applied uniformly

B. Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. Be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. Be applied based on ISO guidelines.
Answer: C
Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be
delivered either one after the other or at the same time.
Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product
when product requirements are subject to rapid change?
A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other

B. Overlapping the delivery phases
C. Delivering the products iteratively
D. Delivering all of the product at the same time
Answer: C
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Answer: B

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is
planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
Answer: B
A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?
A. Plan contracting
B. Request seller responses
C. Select sellers
D. Plan purchase and acquisition
Answer: C
What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?
A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlapping

B. Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping
C. Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative
D. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
Answer: B

Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited
resources into account?
A. Network reserve analysis

B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method
Answer: B
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and
identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure

B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
Answer: A
What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to

accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

B. Work Performance Information
C. Work Package
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Answer: D

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Project Management Methodology
C. Project Management Information
D. Project Selection Methods
Answer: A
Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as a tool and technique?
A. Quantitative risk analysis

B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Perform quality assurance
D. Perform quality control
Answer: A
Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project
initiation through project closure?
A. Resource leveling
B. Parametric measuring
C. Pareto chart
D. Earned value
Answer: D
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and

subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business
objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent
organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team
members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost,
and quality of the work packages.
Answer: A
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date
and late start date?
A. Critical path method

B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
Answer: A
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
Answer: B
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost
of changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanations: Stakeholders and changes versus time in the Project Life
Cycle
There are lots of common features regarding project life cycles:
• Most stages of the project follow one after the other and in many cases could be
described in technical way.
• Expenditures and personnel engaged in the task are quite cheap at the beginning of the
project, rise in the middle phase and fall significantly in the final stage. The Picture below
shows exactly the described model.
• At the beginning of the project - in initial stage the risk of failure and not to meet your
goals is very high. When this crucial period is over the project comes into an intermediate
phase where the situation is more stable and predictable.
• Stakeholders have a big influence for the project's product in many technical aspects,
costs etc. at the beginning of its life cycle. However their impact become lower within
duration of the project and cost of changes and other corrections - which are low in initial
phase rise considerably as the project continues. The Picture below demonstrates clearly
this situation.

In our opinion lots of project life cycles have many similar characteristics but few of them
are the same. For example some projects can consist of five stages, others with ten or
more? Depend on complexity and duration of the project. One institution's hardware testing
can have one individual testing stage whereas another organization can have more phases
for this task like: general and detailed testing, error correction, compatibility with different
computers etc. Separate life cycles can also cover these subprojects for instance: one
team of engineers can analysis and look for any defects of the product and the other team
can simultaneously check compatibility with other devices.
In conclusion we recommend you to deal with every project separately and especially at big
and complex enterprises treat every phase as subproject with an individual life cycle.
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project

budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager

C. Program manager
D. Project management office
Answer: B
In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08,
and 12. For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1.
For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:
A. is under control.
B. is out of control.
C. has an increasing trend.
D. has a decreasing trend.
Answer: B
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service or
other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
A. Develop project management plan

B. Develop project charter
C. Develop preliminary project scope statement
D. Scope planning
Answer: B
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance

C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
Answer: A
Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities?
A. Decomposition
B. Project management software
C. Applying lead and lags
D. Expert judgment
Answer: C
Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Requirements documentation
C. Prototypes
D. Organizational process assets
Answer: A
When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?
A. Clear role definition

B. Negotiation
C. Risk response planning
D. Team member replacement
Answer: A

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
Answer: D
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start.

B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
Answer: B
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?
BAC = $100,000
PV = $50,000
AC = $80,000
EV = $40,000
A. 1.00
B. 0.40

C. 0.50
D. 0.80
Answer: D
Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what
Project Time Management process?
A. Schedule Control
B. Activity Definition
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Resource Estimating
Answer: D
Explanation:
Activity Resource Estimate Assumptions and Breakdown StructuresIn the Estimate Activity
Resources process, the key output is activity resource requirements. These requirements
describe the types and quantities of resources needed for each project activity.Once you
know what resources you need, you can begin to estimate the time each activity will take to
complete. In this way, the activity resource requirements list generated by the Estimate
Activity Resources process become inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process.
Activity resource requirements listThe activity resource requirements list identifies, for
tracking purposes, the activity's code in the work breakdown structure, as well as its name.
Vital to generating the project schedule, it details the resources that you've estimated you
need to complete the activity, and addresses.
Resource description – The Resource description column lists each type of resource that is
required for the activity. This includes human resources, materials, and facilities.
Number required – The Number required column identifies the quantity required of each
resource. This value can be specified in any measurement unit, such as hours, days, or
physical number of units required.
Resource assumptions – Resource assumptions are important factors to consider when
devising the project schedule. Any relevant assumptions about the resource can be
included, for example resource availability, skills, or quality.
Resource availability – The Resource availability column specifies when each resource can
be used. This is vital information for putting together the project schedule.
Resource dependencies – The Resource dependencies column identifies factors that may

affect the availability of resources. It's important to identify dependencies when devising the
project schedule because any change in an activity that has a dependency can affect the
project timeline.The final row of the activity resource requirements list identifies the total
resources needed for the activity. The resource totals are important in project scheduling
as a base from which to calculate the duration of the activity.
Resource Assumptions - It's important to record resource assumptions, as they can help
during different stages of a project. Select each project stage to find out how resource
assumptions can help.
Monitoring – Recorded assumptions can affect performance monitoring. For example, if a
particular task seems to be taking too long, looking at the assumptions can help you
identify the problem.
Controlling – Recorded assumptions can also help you control performance. Having used
the assumptions to identify a problem, you can now make performance adjustments so that
the project can run more efficiently.
Closing – Recorded assumptions can provide insights during post-project assessments at
the closing stage. For example, if you had made incorrect assumptions about staff
capabilities, looking at the assumptions helps you understand what went wrong. This can
then be recorded in the lessons learned file for the project.Failure to record assumptions
can also have an impact during the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Resource breakdown structuresAlong with the activity resource requirements list, there's
one more main output of the Estimate Activity Resources process – the resource
breakdown structure.The resource breakdown structure provides a hierarchical diagram of
the resources required for a project. This structure is visually simple, showing resource
information at a glance breaks resources into categories and resource types helps you to
organize a project schedule and report on resource utilization information.
Although they look similar, a resource breakdown structure is not the same as a work
breakdown structure.
A work breakdown structure, or WBS, decomposes a project into manageable units of
work. Elements in a WBS include project phases, tasks, sub-tasks, and work packages.
These represent all the activities in a project.
Project document updatesThe Estimate Activity Resources process concludes with project
document updates – the final output of the process. Initially, various project documents are
used as inputs for the process. Now that resource estimation is complete, new information
may have come to light. For this reason, you may need to update documents so they
reflect the latest project information.
In the process of estimating resource requirements and creating the resource breakdown
structure, it's often necessary to add or delete schedule activities that appear in the activity
list.The activity changes have a subsequent effect on activity attributes and resource
calendars. Because project activities have changed, you need to document those changes
by updating the descriptions of activities and the availability of relevant resources.

The first output of the Estimate Activity Resources process is an activity resource
requirements list. It's important to record any assumptions you've made about resources in
this list, for use in monitoring and controlling project work, and in post-project assessments.
A second output of the process is the resource breakdown structure. This is a hierarchical
diagram that shows the resources required for the project in a visually simple way. It
groups resources by category, and can be used for organizing and reporting on resources.
The final output of the process is updates to relevant project documents, such as the
activity list, activity attributes, and resource calendars.
In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Monitor and control project work
Answer: B
Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?
A. Product analysis
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Inspection
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Answer: C
Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

A. To identify quality requirements of the project
B. To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them
C. To assess performance and recommend necessary changes
D. To ensure quality standards are used
Answer: C
A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
Answer: B
What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
Answer: D
Explanation: Performance Reporting is the process for "collecting and distributing
performance information" like "status reporting, progress measurement, and forecasting"
(comp. PMBOK3, p. 221): On the base of the collected performance information
concerning scope, schedule, cost and quality this process generates the reports which are
distributed to the stakeholders (comp. PMBOK3, p. 231). Basicly one can determine four
types of reports:
• Forcast reports for describing future trends

• Progess reports for describing trends from past to presence
• Status reports for describing actual status
• Variance reports for describing differences between the planned baseline and the real

data
Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was

assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.
Resource B's role is that of a:
A. Project manager
B. Portfolio manager
C. Work breakdown manager
D. Program manager
Answer: D
Plurality is a type of which of the following?
A. Group creativity techniques

B. Group decision making techniques
C. Facilitated workshops
D. Prototypes
Answer: B
Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle?
A. Pareto chart
B. Cause and effect diagrams
C. Control charts

D. Flowcharting
Answer: A
What is a cost of nonconformance?
A. Rework
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Testing
Answer: A
A business case is an input to which of the following processes?
B. Define Scope
C. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Project Management Plan
Answer: C
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control Chart
C. Flowchart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished
today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has
been completed.
What is the cost variance?
A. -$700
B. -$200
C. +$200
D. +$500
Answer: B
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
Answer: C
Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
A. Monitoring & Controlling

B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Answer: B

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Control Chart
C. Run Chart
D. Pareto Chart
Answer: D
The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?
A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Develop Schedule
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Determine Budget
Answer: C
What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?

A. Under budget and ahead of schedule

B. Over budget and behind schedule
C. Over budget and ahead of schedule
D. Under budget and behind schedule
Answer: B
Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?
A. Delphi technique
B. Unanimity
C. Observation
D. Presentation technique
Answer: A
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
A. Risk monitoring and controlling

B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
Answer: C
Which process group can be performed outside the project's scope of control?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Answer: D
Which of the following is a Process Group?
A. Scoping
B. Budgeting
C. Closing
D. Quality
Answer: C
Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the
project and ensuring its success?
A. Stakeholder management
B. Monitoring and controlling
C. Project governance
D. Project management methodology

Answer: C
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and
perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy

B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Answer: C
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
Answer: C
Explanation: Selection MethodsThere are various project selection methods practiced by
the modern business organizations. These methods have different features and
characteristics. Therefore, each selection method is best for different organizations.
Although there are many differences between these project selection methods, usually the
underlying concepts and principles are the same.
Following is an illustration of two of such methods (Benefit Measurement and Constrained
Optimization methods).

As the value of one project would need to be compared against the other projects, you
could use the benefit measurement methods. This could include various techniques, of
which the following are the most common.
• You and your team could come up with certain criteria that you want your ideal project
objectives to meet. You could then give each project scores based on how they rate in
each of these criteria, and then choose the project with the highest score.
• When it comes to the Discounted Cash flow method, the future value of a project is
ascertained by considering the present value and the interest earned on the money. The
higher the present value of the project, the better it would be for your organization.
• The rate of return received from the money is what is known as the IRR. Here again, you
need to be looking for a high rate of return from the project.
The mathematical approach is commonly used for larger projects. The constrained
optimization methods require several calculations in order to decide on whether or not a
project should be rejected.
Cost-benefit analysis is used by several organizations to assist them to make their

selections. Going by this method, you would have to consider all the positive aspects of the
project, which is the benefits, and then deduct the negative aspects (or the costs) from the
benefits. Based on the results you receive for different projects, you could choose which
option would be the most viable and financially rewarding.
These benefits and costs need to be carefully considered and quantified in order to arrive
at a proper conclusion. Questions that you may want to consider asking are in the selection

process are:
1. Would this decision help me to increase organizational value in the long run?
2. How long will the equipment last for?
3. Would I be able to cut down on costs as I go along?
In addition to these methods, you could also consider Choosing based on opportunity cost -
When choosing any project, you would need to keep in mind the profits that you would
make if you do decide to go ahead with the project.
Profit optimization is therefore the ultimate goal. You need to consider the difference
between the profits of the project you are primarily interested in, and the next best
alternative.
Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process?
A. Alternative analysis
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Resource breakdown structure
Answer: C
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.
Answer: B

Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?
A. End-to-end
B. Finish-to-end
C. Start-to-end
D. Start-to-start
Answer: D
During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include?
A. Activity name, dependencies, assumptions

B. Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name
C. Activity ID, assumptions, constraints
D. Activity name, WBS ID, activity description
Answer: B
Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other
variables to calculate estimates?
A. Analogous estimating
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: C
When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?

A. At the start of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. During execution
D. Stakeholders have constant influence
Answer: A
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
Answer: A
Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement
rather than areas of difference?
A. Withdrawing/Avoiding
B. Forcing
C. Collaborating
D. Smoothing/Accommodating
Answer: D
Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the
following conflict management techniques?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromising

C. Avoiding
D. Forcing
Answer: A
Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning

B. Dependency determination
C. Schedule network template
D. Applying leads and lags
Answer: A
Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following
processes?
A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Sequence Activities
Answer: B
Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be
employed and who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager

B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager

Answer: C
Explanation: The project management processes are presented as discrete elements with
well- defined interfaces. However, in practice they overlap and interact in ways that are not
completely detailed here. Most experienced project management practitioners recognize
there is more than one way to manage a project. The specifics for a project are defined as
objectives that must be accomplished based on complexity, risk, size, time frame, project
team’s experience, access to resources, amount of historical information, the organization’s
project management maturity, and industry and application area. The required Process
Groups and their constituent processes are guides to apply appropriate project
management knowledge and skills during the project. In addition, the application of the
project management processes to a project is iterative and many processes are repeated
and revised during the project. The project manager and the project team are responsible
for determining what processes from the Process Groups will be employed, by whom, and
the degree of rigor that will be applied to the execution of those processes to achieve the
desired project objective.
What is the status of a project if the Cost Performance Index is 1.25 and the Schedule
Performance Index is 0.75?
A. Under budget and behind schedule

B. Over budget and ahead of schedule
C. Under budget and ahead of schedule
D. Over budget and behind schedule
Answer: A
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Answer: A
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
Answer: A
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units
behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
Answer: B
Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.

B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
Answer: A

Final product transition is an output of which process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Close Project or Phase
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
Answer: B
A contract change control system defines which of the following?
A. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied

B. Process by which the procurement can be modified
C. Process by which the procurement can be obtained
D. Process by which the procurement can be disposed
Answer: B
What is the first step in preparing the risk register?

B. Quantitative risk analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: D

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At
the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected:
Actual cost = $50,000
Plan cost = $45,000
Earned value = $40,000
What is the cost performance index?
A. 0.80
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25
Answer: A
What is risk tolerance?
A. Ability to manage risks

B. Willingness to accept varying degrees of risks
C. Ability to mitigate risks
D. Willingness to develop a risk management plan
Answer: B
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?
A. Changing project specifications continuously

B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Answer: D

A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?
A. Project manager is appointed

B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
Answer: C
Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract

B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Answer: B
The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. contract type.
B. sponsors.
C. project manager.
D. stakeholders.
Answer: A

In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional costs above
the price ceiling becomes the responsibility of the performing organization?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP)

B. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)
C. Cost-Reimbursable Contracts
D. Time and Materials Contracts (T&M)
Answer: B
Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location
to enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following?
A. Team training
B. Co-location
C. Team location
D. Organization training
Answer: B
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
Answer: C
Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?

A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Procurement Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
Answer: D
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
Answer: B
Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work-

days. What should be your concern?
A. There is a cost under run.

B. There is a cost overrun.
C. May not meet deadline.
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.
Answer: B
The resource calendars document is an output of which process?
A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Schedule

D. Develop Project Team
Answer: B
Which of the following is defined by a project's life cycle and varies by application area?
A. Product
B. Product-oriented processes
C. Project management process groups
D. Project-oriented processes
Answer: B
During what process is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Answer: C
Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
A. Work performance information

B. Project management information system (PMIS)
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Scheduled network analysis
Answer: D

What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number

B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
Answer: C
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project
objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
D. Interviewing
Answer: D
Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule?
A. What-if scenario analysis

B. Benchmarking
C. Variance analysis
D. SWOT analysis
Answer: A
What is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-Location
Answer: D
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. Cost right at the estimated value

B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
Answer: B
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the
priority of identified risks?
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
Answer: B
When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is
being used?
A. Time series method

B. Casual method

C. Econometric method
D. Judgmental method
Answer: D
What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?
A. Functional requirement
B. Status report
C. Customer need
D. Defect repair
Answer: D
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery
of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects
Answer: D
A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across
all of the management process groups to formally complete the project?
A. Closing
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning

Answer: A
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of

the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
Answer: C
Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?
A. Identify Risks
B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer: A
Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity
duration?
A. Three-point estimating
B. Organizational process asset
C. Analogous estimating
D. Reserve analysis
Answer: C

In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and
independent variables?
A. Fishbone diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: D
Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?
A. Collaborating
B. Issue log
C. Leadership
D. Motivation
Answer: A
In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the
project and their formal roles and responsibilities?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing
Answer: A

What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis
Answer: B
Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The
project team is in which of the following stages of team development?
A. Storming
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Performing
Answer: A
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence
specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis

B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
Answer: B
Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate
generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project

information?
A. Project Risk Management

B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Answer: C
Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Customer or sponsor
Answer: D
Which of the following is an input to identify risk?

B. Scope management plan
C. Communication management plan
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A
How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 9

C. 10
D. 12
Answer: A
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Group decision making techniques

B. Project management information system
C. Alternative identification
D. Communication requirement analysis
Answer: A
Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational

process asset updates are all outputs of which process?
A. Risk response planning

B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Performance reporting
D. Manage stakeholders
Answer: C
How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 12

Answer: C
What is included in a control chart?
A. Baseline
B. Planned value
C. Upper specification limit
D. Expenditure
Answer: C
A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following
is a method that can be used to reach a group decision?
A. Expert judgment
B. Majority
C. SWOT analysis
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B
Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?
A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure

B. Activity list and Arrow Diagram
C. Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets
D. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Activity definition refers to the process of parsing a project into a number of individual tasks

which must be completed before the deliverables can be considered completed. Activity
definitions rely on a number of specific input processes. These include enterprise
environmental factors, organizational process assets, the project scope statement, the
work breakdown structure, the WBS dictionary, the project management plan (which
consists of the project scope management plan and the schedule management plan).
Through use of these inputs, the activities that will need to ultimately be completed in order
to compete all of the project objectives can be readily defined, and the activity definition
can be further accomplished through the utilization of a number of tools and techniques
including decomposition, templates, rolling wave planning, expert judgment, and planning
components. The four ultimate outputs of the activity definition process are the activity list,
the resulting activity attributes, all requested changes, and any milestones.
This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th.
Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking
Answer: A
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team
members?

B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility matrix
Answer: D

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule
activities or work packages?
A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting
C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting
Answer: D
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for
estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Answer: A
What should a project manager do with low-priority risks?
A. Ignore low-priority risks

B. Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks
C. Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks
D. Increase the contingency reserve
Answer: B

A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?
A. Weak matrix
B. Functional
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: A
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if
performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
Answer: D
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and
procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
Answer: C
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

A. Schedule Analysis
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis
D. Cost-Benefit Analysis
Answer: D
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Answer: C
What is an output of Control Scope?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Work performance measurements
C. Requirements documentation
D. Work performance information
Answer: B
There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the
sponsor. How many communication channels are there?
A. 21
B. 28
C. 36

D. 42
Answer: C
Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: B
In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through
issues smoothly and effectively?
A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Answer: D
Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?
A. Repetitive
B. Unique
C. No outcome
D. Permanent
Answer: B

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Scope Management
B. Time Management
C. Communications Management
D. Quality Management
Answer: D
Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned
practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis
by which to measure performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
Answer: C
How is quality control performed?
A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to
satisfy them.
B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and
determining corrective actions as needed.
C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality
assurance processes.
D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to
ensure conformance to quality standards.

Answer: B
In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource

availability?
A. Functional
B. Weak
C. Balanced
D. Strong
Answer: D
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?
A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
Answer: C
Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance?
A. Profitability and impact matrix

B. Expert judgment
C. Benchmarking
D. Risk categorization
Answer: C

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:
A. process groups.
B. phase gates.
C. knowledge areas.
D. project phases.
Answer: A
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the
project work is known as what?
A. Project management information system

B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Work Performance Information
Part of the executed project management plan includes the routine collection of work
performance information. The information gathered is important, and is useful as input data
for quality control measures and programs. It is also useful when audits, quality reviews,
and process analyses are conducted. This is especially true of work performance
information collected which includes technical performance measures, project deliverables
status, required corrective actions, and performance reports. Pertinent work performance
Information is essential to the project management plan and includes, but is not limited to:
• Status information on schedule progress.

• Whether deliverables have been completed, or not.
• Start and finish status of schedule activities.
• Quality standards expectation results.
• Authorized costs vs. costs incurred to date.
• Estimated completion time for scheduled activities in progress.

• Percentage of physical completion of in-progress schedule activities.
• Experience based knowledge acquired, documented, and posted to knowledge base.
• Details of resource utilization.
Gathering and analysis of work performance information is essential to the project

management plan and should be considered a priority. Work performance information
contributes to the efficient use of resources, identifies potential trouble spots and problems,
and serves as an effective project management tool. This term is defined in the 3rd and the
4th edition of the PMBOK.
What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost

estimate techniques?
A. Uses contingency reserves

B. Less costly and time consuming
C. Can be applied to segments of work
D. More accurate
Answer: B
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest
A. Final phase of the project

B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Answer: B

Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational
process assets are all outputs of which project management process?
A. Risk response planning

B. Manage stakeholders
C. Scope definition
D. Performance reporting
Answer: B
You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the
plan is effective and current?
A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.

B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
Answer: A
Explanation: The document control plan is an outline or guide on how physical or virtual
documents will be managed throughout the life of the project. It provides a road map for
tracking documents and for adding, archiving, and removing new documentation from the
process.
How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
Answer: C

Which of the following is a technique for Identify Risks?
A. Risk categorization
B. SWOT analysis
C. Risk register categorization
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
Answer: B
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Variance Analysis
C. Reserve Analysis
D. Stakeholder Analysis
Answer: B
When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?
A. When the project is initiated.

B. As an output of the scope verification process.
C. When the project is closing.
D. In the contract closure process.
Answer: B
Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement

Management Process?

B. Conduct Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Answer: D
Topic 2, Volume B
A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement

B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan.
During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered
another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project
team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.
A. Alternative identification
B. "'s^ assessment
C. Alternative selection
D. Product analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Alternative identification is a planning process to find alternatives to completing the project

scope.
Which one of the following is not an output of contract closure?
A. close contracts
B. Lessons learned documentation
C. Deliverable acceptance
D. Scope statement
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are output of contract closure: Close contracts,Contract file,Lessons learned

documentation and Deliverable acceptance.
Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBS template
C. sow acceptance
D. Rework
Answer: A
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?

A. Quality baseline
B. Quality management plan
C. Process improvement plan
D. QA checklist
Answer: A
Explanation:
The quality baseline documents the quality objectives for the project.
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee

B. F'xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. "'s^ 's nc* 'elated to price
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not
well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is
well defined
PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ______ relationship.
A. Buyer or seller
B. Vendor or seller
C. Purchasing
D. Sellino-
Answer: A
Explanation:

PMI discusses procurement focusing on the buyer or seller relationship
Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?
A. Rough order of magnitude

B. Budget estimate
C. WBS estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: A
Explanation:
The rough order of magnitude is the least accurate approach, as it may vary from -25
percent to +75 percent.
___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products,

services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.
A. Procurement Management
B. Planning Management
C. Scope Management
D. Control Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Procurement Management is groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the

products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: B
Explanation:
In PMBOK, the seller is External to the project team.
Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are
recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor
C. Team Lead
D. Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Function of the project manager is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are
recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.
Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?
A. Project Manager
B. Sponsor

C. Team Lead
D. Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Manager has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders.
Create Procurement document is done in _______.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create Procurement document is done in Plan Procurements process.
Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?
A. Acceptance
B. shaie
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acceptance is when no change to the project is made for a risk. A contingency can be set
aside to offset the impact of the risk.

From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?
A. The customer
B. The qualify director
C. Project management office
D. Project manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
need to gain this formal acceptance at project closure from the customer and sponsor.
Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?
A. Project justification
B. Project product
C. Project manager authority
D. Project objective
Answer: C
Explanation:
The project charter provides the project manager with authority.
Project success can be achieved only if:

A. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.
B. The project sponsor leads the initiatives.
C. The project manager is an expert in managing resources.
D. Team members like project manager.
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is no project for the sake of spending money. There is a clear link between the
project deliverables and the business strategy.
The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project

B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
D. Formally authorize the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope
initiation is: Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the
Execution and Control phase?
A. Information management
B. Maintain scope statement
C. Maintain Charter
D. Maintain Closing document
Answer: A

Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control
phases of the project is the management of information.
Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?
A. Updating risk register

B. Determining risk roles and responsibilities
C. Identifying risk categories
D. Developing a risk management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Updating the risk register first happens in Identify Risks phase. Determining risk roles and
responsibilities, Identifying risk categories and developing a risk management plan are part
of Plan Risk Management.
What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?
A. Project task
B. w°rl< package
C. sow
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
A work package is the lowest level of a work breakdown structure.

Which of the following are input of close project process?

B. Contract documentation
C. Deliverables
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are inputs of close project process.
In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?
A. During the initiation stage

B. During the planning stage
C. After approval of budget
D. After the project is proven feasible
Answer: A
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions Project

manager is assigned to a project During the initiation stage.
Which of the following statement is true about project charter?
A. Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders

B. Announces who is the project engineer
C. Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end

D. Announces who is the project sponsor
Answer: A
Explanation:
project charter: The project charter formally authorizes the project, assigns the project
manager, and gives a high-level definition of the projects and its deliverables.
You are project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsibility?
A. Quality in the organization

B. Acquiring HR resources for the project team
C. Overall responsibility for risk on the project
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Senior management is responsible for quality in the organization
If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule

B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Answer: A
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule
performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.

Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.
A. True, real, or certain

B. True, real, or uncertain
C. Real
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
PMBOK describes assumptions as "factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to
be true, real, or certain."
The project baseline is _______.
A. Original plans plus the approved changes

B. Important in the project initiation phase
C. Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
D. Original plans and the approved major changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project baseline: original plans plus the approved changes.
Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?

A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a
project total.
B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of
the current project.
C. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.
D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the
costs to arrive at a project total. It is more accurate.
You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two
project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, for help
resolving the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional
manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree
on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Strong Matrix
Answer: B
Explanation:
Balanced matrix: Power is shared between both Functional and Project Manager. In this
case you include the functional manager in the meeting therefore it is Balanced matrix
organization.
If a project with a CPI of 1.2, what you tell?

A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated
B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.
C. The project is falling behind.
D. The project is running ahead of schedule.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less
then estimated; so doing good. Option A is BEST fit for this CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/
Actual cost
Who gives project acceptance?
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Project Manager
D. Team Lead
Answer: B
Explanation:
Customer gives project acceptance. Customer may be person or organization.
A. The project is consuming more resources than anticipated.

Answer: A
Explanation:

If your cost performance index is above 1.0, it indicates that you have costs that are less
then estimated. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual cost)
Which is not part of Project Plan?
A. Project Scope Management Plan

B. Schedule Management Plan
C. Cost Management Plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: D
Explanation:
All are part of Project Plan except project charter.
Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks
in a project?
A. RACI mAl,x
B. sow
C. Staffing management plan D)0 CPI
Answer: A
Explanation:
The RACI matrix lists responsibilities of all resources. The staffing management plan only
lists types of resources and timing.

Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)
D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA)

diagramming method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as
activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method
Administrative closure is the process that ________.
A. Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project

B. Collects user acceptance of the project product or service
C. Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative closure: Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project
Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?
A. Project manager
B. QA manager

C. Project planner
D. Team lead
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project manager has the responsibility for Plan Quality.
The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of
the following best describes product description?
A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the
project customer
B. The product description defines the contracted work
C. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the
project customer
Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?
A. Requirements document created in collect requirements process

B. Project files from previous projects
C. Project Charter
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:

Define Scope - Inputs Requirements document created in collect requirements process,
Project Charter and Organizational Process Assets (Project files from previous projects,
lesson learned)
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.
A. Work Breakdown Structure

B. sow
C. Project Charter
D. Project Scope Statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the WBS.
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You
have assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him
or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Pi'ojectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional
Answer: B
Explanation:
Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full
authority to assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project.
Strong Matrix: The project manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff.
Project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with

Functional Manager. Functional: In this organization Project Manager has least power and
all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales
engineer.
Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the
__________.
A. Initiation Process
B. Project closer Process
C. Estimation Process
D. Closing process
Answer: A
Explanation:
Collect Requirements process starts in "Project Planning Phase" and uses the outputs of
the Initiation Process.
Project scope is _____________.
A. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service

B. The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions
C. Part °ftne project charter
D. Part of sow
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project scope : The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions.

Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive
Answer: B
Explanation:
smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?
A. Direct ar|d Indirect

B. Tactical and Strategic
C. Management and Project
D. 0n|y Tactical
Answer: A
Explanation:
Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. When doing this analysis, it
should include both direct and indirect costs so that the final decision is based on
comparisons that are equal.

Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take
steps to prevent further occurrence?
A. Root cause analysis

B. Quality audits
C. Project audits
D. Risk audits
Answer: A
Explanation:
Root cause analysis: A technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take
steps to prevent further occurrence.
The work breakdown structure is ________.
A. Used to break down the project into manageable pieces

B. Set and does not change throughout the project
C. Needed as part of the project charter
D. [Needed as part of the project scope statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements

which organizes and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to
minor details.
You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means
that your project __________.

A. Has ended before its stated objective
B. 's st'" cunning but missing resources
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated
objectives.
You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000
and is expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule.
What is the BAC?
A. $-00,000
B. $200,00
C. $50,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
The BAC is the budget at completion (Total budgeted cost), which is $200,000.
Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?
A. The project manager

B. The project sponsor
C. The Team lead
D. The nianagement
Answer: B

Explanation:
The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter.
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and
is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of
the equipment is $2,000. Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be
written off each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. Zero
Answer: A
Explanation:
The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price
of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600
Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

B. Contract documentation
C. Deliverables
D. WBS
Answer: D
Explanation:
WBS is NOT inputs of close project process.

ISO Stands for __________.
A. International Organization for Standardization

B. International Standardized Organization
C. 'n Standardized Organization
D. Indiana Standardized Organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO Stands for International Organization for Standardization.
Acceptance of the product should be ________.
A. Formal
B. Consistent
C. Personal
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
The acceptance should be formal.
Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively
determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?

B. Funding limit reconciliation
C. Reserves analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Parametric Estimating: Estimating the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively
determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate.
Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. QA manager
D. Validation engineer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project manager is ultimately responsible for the project quality.
Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?
A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Foimal
D. Coercive
Answer: B
Explanation:

smoothing is a conflict resolution technique, the rest are forms of leadership power.
Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the written statement
of project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables
You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you
tell when you are done?
A. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to
reliably estimate required resources and duration.
B. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to
keep the WBS balanced.
C. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in
one DAY.
D. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in
one WEEK.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably
estimate required resources and duration.

The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples
of ________.
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality rules
D. CMM
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Ishikawa diagram, the control charts, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are
examples of basic tools of quality control.
You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM
failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?
A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding

B. Confront the person immediately
C. Ignore the rumours
D. ^ass the rumours along
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding.

Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project team
C. Project manager
D. Senior Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project sponsor must have the authority to select and fund the project.
Administrative Closure should occur ___________.
A. At the end of each phase of the project

B. At the end of the whole project
C. At the end of 50% of the project
D. At the end of 100% of the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
Administrative Closure should occur at the end of each phase, not only at the end of the
overall project
A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.
A. Project archives
B. Index
C. sow
D. Project History

Answer: A
Explanation:
A complete set of indexed project records for archiving by the appropriate parties.
What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are
increased from 5 to 10?
A. 35
B. 5
C. 15
D. 75
Answer: A
Explanation:
Delta = n*(n-1)/2 - n1*(n1-1)/2 where n = individuals and n1 = new individuals 10-45 = 35

No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual
Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking costs of resources?

B. P'sk breakdown structure
C. Organizational breakdown structure
D. Resource breakdown structure
Answer: A
Explanation:
The resource breakdown structure organizes all resources in a hierarchical structure,

allowing for cost tracking also.

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.
A. Assign the project manager to the project

B. Formally describe the project
C. Produce the project charter
D. Formally authorize the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
Output of project initiation is formally authorizing the project. Output of project scope
initiation is: Project charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions.
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are
participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual. In this case 5*(5-1)/2 = 10

Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood
A. Project Manager
B. Sender
C. Project coordinator
D. Sponsor
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receipt and message is
understood, and the receiver needs to ensure that the sender received the
acknowledgement.
You are project manager of a project and as part of the team acquisition process; you hire
a new employee and assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow's hierarchy of
needs, what needs level he most likely is at?
A. Social need
B. Physical need
C. Safety and security
D. Security
Answer: A
Explanation:
as new to project he is most likely looking for acceptance and friendship. This comes under
Social need.
participating?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.
A. Written down
B. Understandable
C. Not understandable
D. No need to write
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assumptions that are not written down are the most dangerous.
A Risk Register is a part of the ________.
A. Project Scope Statement

B. Project Management plan
C. Project Scheduling plan
D. Project Charter
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Risk Register is detailed part of the project management plan.

Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. The project charter

B. Project scope statement
C. The P'oject contract
D. Project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project.
You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original
scope, what you do with the old original scope?
A. Save the old versions

B. No need to save old version
C. Scrap the old version
D. Old version is not required
Answer: A
Explanation:
All the version you should keep in version control system.
_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.

A. ISO
B. CAPM
C. PMI
D. iscn
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.
What are the inputs for Initiation process?
A. Product description and Strategic plan

B. Selection criteria
C. Historical information
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Inputs for Initiation process : Product description Strategic plan Selection criteria Historical
information
Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of ____________.
A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project

B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A
Explanation:

Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need. Cost benefit
analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of
benefits measurement methods when selecting a project. Best Option is A.
Most change requests are a result of _______.
A. Value added change (enhancements)

B. Schedule constraints
C. Regulatory constraints
D. Improvement to the project scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most change requests (CRs) are a result of Value added change (enhancements).
Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?
A. Project Manager
B. Team Leader
C. Sponsor
D. Project Team
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Manager is responsible for the creation of the final project plan.

The end of the project comes after which of the following?
A. Project charter
B. Final deliverable
C. Schedule
D. QA activities are done
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project will close after final deliverable.
You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP
(Request for proposal) is done in _______.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RFP (Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process.
You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to
team members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the
chance to earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory
A. Hierarchy of needs
B. Expectancy theory
C. Achievement theory

D. Al1 of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy

theory
If a project with a SPI of 0.8, what you tell?
A. The project is running ahead of the schedule

B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule
performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.
A requirement document is an input of __________ process?
B. Define Scope
C. Integrated Change Control
Answer: B
Explanation:
A requirement document request is an input to Define Scope

Project Quality Management includes:
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Prevention over inspection
C. Continuous improvement
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Project Quality Management includes : Customer satisfaction, Prevention over inspection,

Continuous improvement, Management responsibility
__________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future
using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their
starting dates.
A. Rolling wave planning

B. Progressive elaboration
C. Milestone detail planning
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near
future using the most current information and revisiting future activities when they near their
starting dates.

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual
estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are
you using?
D. Analogous estimating
Answer: B
Explanation:
costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous
estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar
project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating:
Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g.,
price per square meter).
A contract cannot contain _____________.
A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A contract can contain other options available.

______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
A. Control Scope system

B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be
changed.
Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being
applied?
A. Control Scope
B. Manage project team
C. Quality control
D. Manage Scope statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scope, schedule, and Control Costs can all result in corrective action, but not preventive
action.
The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.
A. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project

B. Announce project risks
C. Not consider risks affecting the company

D. Announce project deliverables
Answer: A
Explanation:
The risk management process group serves as the road map used to reduce its impact on
the project.
_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.
A. Project plan
B. sow
C. WBS
D. Strategic planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project plan is the road map for the execution of the project.
Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?
A. Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the
organizational goals
B. Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the
organizational goals
C. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:

Strategic planning determines which projects will be choose or sponsor in order to achieve
the organizational goals. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get
chosen and funded.
Which of the following are parts of project scope management?
A. Verify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect
Requirements Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope
You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject
one vendor because it doesn't have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of
which selection tool?
A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment
Answer: B
Explanation:
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the
project.

What is a corrective action?
A. An action that brings future project events Into alignment with the project plan
B. An action to correct something in the project
C. An action to prevent something in the project
D. Corrective action is not related to project
Answer: A
Explanation:
Corrective action: An action that brings future project events into alignment with the project
plan
Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.
A. Has become part of the business processes

B. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
inclusion mode: Has become part of the business processes. A contract cannot contain
_____________.

At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A. The beginning of the project

B. ^ust before the end of the project
C. QA Phase
D. Execution phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning or a project.
Topic 3, Volume C
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities,
activity resources estimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes. Which process
have you left out?
A. Control Schedule
B. Create WBS
C. Sequence Activities
D. Operations
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PMBOK places Sequence Activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity
Resources.
To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks , you must do :
A. An analysis of the critical path

B. A forwards pass
C. A backwards pass
D. a and g
Answer: C
When should a project manager be assigned to a project?
A. As early in the project as feasible.

B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.
C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?
A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are .
Which process group is for detailed resource assignments and responsibilities?
A. Human resources management plan

B. Project charter
C. Aplan
D. Project management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Develop Human Resource Plan: Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project
roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
In which phase you define the final deliverable?
A. Closing
B. Execution
C. Planning
D. Initiation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project will close after final deliverable. Final deliverables are defined in the closing phase.
Market conditions are a part of ________.
A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Project management concerns
C. Organizational process assets
D. Cost factor
Answer: A
Explanation:

Market conditions will influence all factors of procurement.
The planning processes are:
A. Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development. Define

Activities
B. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk management
C. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk control
D. Define Scope, Team development, Control Schedule, Budget control, Contract
administration
Answer: A
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more
manageable components to __________.
A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates

B. Define a baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more
manageable components to: Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates.
Define a baseline for performance measurement and control. Facilitate clear responsibility
assignments.

A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be
_____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statistically independent
Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?
A. Project Charter
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Pis'* Management Plan
D. Activity Cost Estimates
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Charter is NOT input of Identify Risks.
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. PBS
B. Project Scope statement
C. WBS Template
D. Constraints

Answer: B
Explanation:
Output of Define Scope is Project Scope statement.
At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?
A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Execution stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders
have maximum influence at Initial stage.
Which is the most risky phase of a project?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Execution
D. Control
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Planning phase is the phase with the least risk attached. The Execution phase of the
project is when you are using your resources at their highest level .

Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. The project charter

B. Project scope statement
C. The P'oject contract
D. Project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter is the formal document for authorizes a project.
Which of the following best describes project scope?
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and
functions
B. The description of the project deliverables
C. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the
project and to assign resources to the tasks
D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
project scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified
features and functions.
You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be
changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

A. Bad practice
B. Unprofessional practice
C. Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
It is both bad and unprofessional to knowingly offer an estimate that is incorrect
A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:
A. Identification
B. Solicitation
C. Quantification
D. Response Development
Answer: B
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6
days, what is the PERT weighted average?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 6.3
D. 6.1
Answer: A
Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:

A. Contract change control system
B. Contract negotiation
C. Payment system
D. Performance rating
Answer: B
Explanation:
Contract negotiation is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration.
Which describes how cost variances will be managed?
A. Cost management plan

B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate
D. Chart of accounts
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed.
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Answer: A

Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations
Answer: A
You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are
working from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than
$12 million. Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This
is an example of which of the following?
A. Internationalization
B. Budget constraint
C. Management constraint
D. Quality constraint
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of a budget constraint. The budget must not exceed $12 million.
_________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee

B. F'xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. None
Answer: B

Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not
well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is
well defined.
You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all
of the costs involved with an upcoming project. Rather, this CAPM is constructing a WBS
that does not include all the tasks necessary to get the project done. What you should do?
A. Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the
project
B. Confront the other project manager immediately
C. Mail t0 PMI headquarters
D. Ignore it
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can talk to the CAPM about the WBS changes. If he or she refuses to change the
WBS, you have a responsibility to go to stakeholders and voice your concerns.
A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities
Answer: A

__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modelling
D. Bottom up estimating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical

model to predict costs (e.g., price per square foot).
The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.
A. Contract
B. Responsibilities
C. WBS
D. Identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
The buyer and seller are bound by the contract.
When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to
predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?

D. Analogous estimating
Answer: A
Explanation:
costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous
estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar
project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating:
Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g.,
price per square meter).
What are the outputs of Initiation process?
A. Project charter and PM assigned

B. Constraints
C. Assumptions
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
output of Initiation process : Project charter PM assigned Constraints Assumptions
Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the
characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.
A. Progressive elaboration
B. Stake holder's review

C. p'an project life cycle
D. Fast backing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The process of determining the characteristics and features of the product of the project is
called Progressive elaboration. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed
fashion.
An example of a project is:
A. Billing customers
B. Managing an organization
C. Constructing a building
D. Providing technical support
Answer: C
Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Control Schedule
D. Project controls
Answer: B
A project plan is:

A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the
authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.
Answer: A
A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

Answer: A
Explanation:
A cost performance index of 1 or greater suggests that project in delivering more with less
money; so doing well. Option A is BEST fit for this. CPI = EV/AC (Earned value/ Actual
cost)
Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?
A. Executive Communication
B. Risk Management
C. Quality Management
D. Scope Statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Executive Communication may be a part of your communication process but not in project
plan.

What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles,

responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
Which is not included in Performance improvements :
A. Improvements in amount of overtime worked

B. Improvements in individual skills
C. Improvements in team behaviours
D. Improvements in team capabilities
Answer: A
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBStemplate
C. SOW acceptance

D. Rework
Answer: A
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contractor team
in a fourth country. What tool would optimize communication?
A. Extranet-based electronic document repository

B. Manual filing system
C. War loom
D. Verbal
Answer: A
Explanation:
An electronic document repository allows all team members access to the documents,
regardless of location.
Another term for top down estimating is:.
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
Answer: A

You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have
done project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be
accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of
which of the following?
A. Risk
B. Assumption
C. Constraint
D. Budget
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of an assumption because estimates provided will be accurate if the

rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). A and C are incorrect because the
scenario did not describe a risk or constraint.
Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known
as ________.
A. Verify Scope
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Measurement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Verify Scope is the process of formally accepting the deliverable of a project or phase. A is
incorrect because EVM measures project performance. C is incorrect because quality
control is concerned with the correctness of the work, not the acceptance of the work. QA
is incorrect because this described the quality program for the organization as a whole.

The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project.

B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect
Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing
phase. There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style
you follow for best outcome?
A. Supporting
B. Delegating
C. Coaching
D. Directing
Answer: C
Explanation:

Situational leadership style is coaching. Coaching is best fit for this situation.
Lessons learned session should be held at what point in a project?
A. At the project conclusion

B. At key milestones
C. When risk events occur
D. When sponsor want
Answer: B
Explanation:
Although lessons learned should be held at project conclusion, they should be held
throughout the project any time.
If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase
as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?
A. Historical information
B. WBS
C. Business plans
D. RBS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Historical information is the best input of the choices available. B is incorrect since the
WBS has not been created at this point of the project. C is incorrect since business plans
are not a likely input to the initiation process

Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.
A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses
Expert Judgment . It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early
phases of the project.
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect
Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?
A. Create WBS
B. Vei*<fy Scope
C. Value analysis
D. Control Scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
A Change Control Board should be _______?
A. flexible

B. Include the project manager
C. appropriate authority
D. al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics.
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope
Process?
A. Product analysis
B. Expert Judgment
C. Alternative Identification
D. All of the above
Answer: D
A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:
A. Develop Project Management Plan process

B. Control Costs process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Estimate Costs process
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a
cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process.

Information should be communicated to __________.
A. Everyone in the communication plan

B. Everyone on the team
C. Sponsor
D. Team 'eacl
Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control
phases of the project is the management of information. All Information should be
communicated to everyone in the communication plan.
How many communication channels exist in a team of 10 members?
A. 45
B. 10
C. 30
D. 20
Answer: A
Explanation:
formula (N)(N - 1)/2 where N = no of people. Therefore calculation is (10*9)/2.
Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are
examples of:

A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
B. Integral parts of the SOW
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Project selection methods
Answer: A
Explanation:
Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business need.
Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?
A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Answer: A

A Trend Analysis is best described as:
A. Examining project performance over time

B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time
Answer: A
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and
is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of
the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can
be written off each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. $100
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item,
minus the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is
(5000-2000)/5 = $600.
Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project
execution process?
A. Monitor implementation of approved changes

B. Validate deliverables

C. Staff, train, and manage the project team
D. Manage cisks and implement risk responses
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the direct and manage project execution process, approved changes are implemented
but monitoring of those changes is part of monitoring OR controlling project work.
Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?
B. Develop the project charter
C. Develop the project statement of work
D. Develop project closing document
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Collect Requirements process occurs during project planning. Other options occur
during project initiation. Option D is associated with project closing. Collect Requirements is
the best option.
What is the purpose of the WBS?
A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.

B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common
framework.
C. To show the organizational structure of a program.
D. all of the above
Answer: B

Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product
or service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
Conformance to specifications document is one description of _________.
A. Quality
B. Scope
C. Integration
D. Procurement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you
start the project.
Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.

A. Transfer
B. Acceptances
C. Mitigation
D. Contingency
Answer: A
Explanation:
Purchasing insurance means transfer the risk to third party.
An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists
between two activities is called:
A. A milestone
B. A hammock
C. A dummy activity
D. a and c
Answer: C
The primary output of the project closing process ____________.
A. To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing

B. Lessons learned
C. To get customer and sponsor approval
D. Milestone list
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary output of the project closing process is to formalize and distribute all the
information pertaining to the closing of the project.

Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.
A. Beginning
B. Closing
C. Controlling
D. Executing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Stakeholder influence is greatest at the beginning of the project
You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. The
contract must have ________.
A. Offer and consideration

B. Start date and acceptance of start date
C. Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
D. Signatures of all stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
A contract must have Offer and consideration. Not all contracts demand signatures and
notary public involvement. Contract may specify a start date, but the Acceptance of the
start date is not needed for all contracts.
In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:
A. Functional

B. Weak matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Dedicated project team
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dedicated project team
Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?
A. Earn Value Analysis

B. Scope Baseline
C. P'sk Register
D. Human Resource Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Earned value analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource
consumption versus planned
The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called
___________.
A. Project time management

B. Control Schedule
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:

Control Schedule: The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project
schedule.
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely
affect project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
Answer: D
Explanation:
Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.
Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (finish-to-
start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?

B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) supports finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-

to-start, and start-to-finish dependencies.

Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and
budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is
on schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST
Variance percentage in this case?
A. -50%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 20%
Answer: A
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively.
The mean is _____.
A. 30.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
Answer: A
Explanation:
mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. fishbone diagram
D. network diagram

Answer: C
A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the
scope management plan prepared?
A. Initiation
C. Define Scope
D. Verify Scope
Answer: A
You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This
means that your project __________.
A. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

B. Will be closed due to lack of resources
C. Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business
Answer: C
Explanation:
A project that ends in integration mode is the type of project where its resources are being
assigned to other areas.
Project scope is:
A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and

functions.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. a and b
Answer: A
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the
project nears completion.
B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the
project.
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the
end of the project.
D. a and b
Answer: A
Which of the following is not part of project scope management?
A. Verify Scope
C. Create WBS
Answer: D
Explanation:
e are following processes which are part of Project Scope Management. Collect
Requirements Define Scope Create WBS Verify Scope Control Scope

Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the
Develop Human Resource Plan process:
A. Risk Management activities

B. Activity Resource requirements
C. Budget Control activities
D. Quality Assurance activities
Answer: B
In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Outside
D. Assigned
Answer: A
Explanation:
In PMBOK, the buyer is Internal to the project team.
Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?

B. Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is also referred to as activity-on-arrow (AOA)

diagramming method. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as
activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method
You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed
within one year. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Schedule
B. Assumption
C. Constraint
D. Planning process
Answer: C
Explanation:
A project that must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints. A is

incorrect since the condition does not offer a schedule. B is incorrect because the condition
is not an assumption. D is also incorrect because this is not a planning process.
Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project
budget?
A. Management Contingency Reserve

B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
Answer: A
Explanation:
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion
is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of
project cost baseline.

A Project Scope Management includes :
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Report Performance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project scope management includes: Initiation, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Verify
Scope and Control Scope
A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and
mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A. Hierarchal
B. Authoritarian
C. Charismatic
D. Associative
Answer: C
A Resource Leveling is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations

C. Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: A
A change requests can occur due to:
A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.

B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above
Answer: D
The project management plan:
A. Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated
B. Steps needed to complete a project task
C. Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project
D. Includes project charter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Project Management Plan: The project management plan provides the overall plan for
executing, monitoring, and controlling, closing the project.
When the version control numbers should change?

A. Any change occurs
B. Major changes are made
C. Any change related to scope only
D. Only if minor changes are made
Answer: A
Explanation: If any change occur, the version control numbers should change.
Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
Answer: A
Explanation:
Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project
schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a
viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical
analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management
software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish

Answer: B
A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.
A. Project plan
B. Process
C. Schedule
D. Flowchart
Answer: B
What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?
A. CPF
B. CPFF
C. CPIF
D. Al1 of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Three common types of cost-reimbursable contracts are CPF, CPFF, and CPIF Cost-Plus-
Fee (CPF), Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) and Cost-Plus-Incentive-Fee (CPIF).
participating?
A. 45
B. 12

C. 10
D. 5
Answer: A
Explanation:

Pmi Ca0 001

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Pmi Ca0 001

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Pmi Ca0 001

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

s@lm@n

[ Total Questions: 525 ]

Topic No. of Questions

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 2

Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?

A. Define Scope and Define Activities

Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

A. Templates, forms and standards

A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. More work was completed than planned

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 4

Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?

A. Actions, decision points, and process drivers

A. Procurement management plan

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 5

Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 6

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF)

What is one of the objectives of project risk management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 7

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

An Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used for which of the following?

A. Identifying causes of risks

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 8

A. Role dependencies chart

When does risk monitoring and control occur?

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 9

Who authorizes a project?

A. Procurement management plan

A. Behind schedule and over budget

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 10

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication

A. Requirements, influence, and functional department

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 11

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?

A. Probability and impact matrix

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 12

A. Requirements traceability matrix

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

A. Develop Project Management Plan

What is Project Portfolio Management?

A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Which is the total float for the activity G?

Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.

100% Valid Questions - Guaranteed Success 15

A. Project and Product

Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?