081-05-01 General

1. Which of the following is the reason for putting the horizontal stabili\ser on
top of the fin, known as a T-tail?
A – to improve ground clearance during take-off and landing on a
contaminated runway
B – to decrease the tendency for super stall
C – to improve the aerodynamic efficiency of the vertical tail
D – to improve the wing efficiency

Ans: C

2. During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler

function induces a spoiler deflection:
A – on the downgoing wing only
B – upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing
C – on the upgroing wing only
D – downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing

Ans: D

3. The flaperon is a control that operates simultaneously as:

A- flaps and ailerons
B- elevators and ailerons
C- flaps and speed brakes
D- flaps and elevators

Ans: A

4. The type of flap which extends rearward from the trailing edge of the wing as
it is lowered is called:
A – a zap flap
B – a fowler flap
C – a split flap
D – a Krueger flap

Ans: B

5. When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated?

A – Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value
B – Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value
C – Landing gear retracted
D – Landing gear extended

Ans: A

6. Manoeuvreability is best at:

A – aft CG position
 B – forward CG position
C – high flap settings
D – low speed;

Ans: A

7. What is the advantage of a variable incidence tailplane over a fixed

incidence tailplane with elevator and trim tab?
A – Linkages and mechanism less complicated
B – Increased flight stability and less weight
C – Less trim drag and maximum elevator authority retained
D – Elevator movement is restricted at high speed

Ans: C

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be
limiting
11. The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection
A – 1 is incorrect, 11 is incorrect
B – 1 is correct, 11 is correct
C – 1 is correct, 11 is incorrect
D – 1 is incorrect, 11 is correct

Ans: A

8. The range of control surface movements is limited by:

A – leaving control cables a little stack
B – tensioning control cables correctly
C – defined limits is the operations manual
D – providing control stops

Ans: D

9. Over tensioned cables is a flying control system could result in:

A – no appreciable difference
B – insufficient friction in the system
C – excessive friction in the system
D – restricted movement of control surfaces

Ans: C

10. The axes of an aircraft by definition must all pass through the:
A – flight desk
B – aircraft datum
C – centre of pressure
D – centre of gravity
 Ans: D

11. The normal axis of an aircraft is:

A – the axis passing from nose to tail of the aircraft
B – an axis through the CP, perpendicular to the longitudinal axis
C – an axis through the CG, perpendicular to the longitudinal axis
D – the axis which is a straight line passing through the CG which is parallel
to a line passing through the wing tips

Ans: C

12. A cable operated control system has external locks

A – when fitted to the control surface, they will prevent movement of the
control column if the controls are not fitted with servo tabs
B – they will not prevent movement of the control column
C – they will not be necessary because controls are irreversible and cannot be
moved by the wind
D – will prevent movement of a servo tab

Ans: A

13. The aerodynamic force on a control surface:

A – increases as speed increases
B – depends only on the control angle and is independent of speed
C – depends only on the air density
D – decreases as speed increases

Ans: A

14. Control surface flutter:

A – a rapid oscillation of the control surface in flight
B – buffeting of the controls, caused by separation of the airflow over the
control surface
C – the tendency of the control surface to move onto its stops due to
overbalance
D – movement of the control, due to gusts, when the aircraft is on the ground

Ans: A

15. Power assisted flying controls:

A – give no feel
B – are irreversible
C – give no manual reversion
D – give some feel

Ans: D
 081-05-05 Interaction in different planes
(yaw/roll)
1. An aircraft’s tendency to dutch roll may be reduced by:
A – reducing the size of the fin
B – giving the wings an angle of anhedral
C – sweeping the wings
D – giving the aircraft longitudinal dihedral

Ans: B

2. When an aircraft is rolled to port, adverse yaw will be reduced by:

A – the leading edge of the down going aileron protruding into the airflow
B – Frise ailerons producing increased profile leading edge drag on both
surfaces
C – a Frise aileron being effective on the port wing
D – the down going aileron producing a greater angle of deflection than the
upgoing aileron

Ans: C

3. Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?

A – Rolling and yawing
B – Pitching and yawing
C – Pitching and rolling
D – Pitching and adverse yaw

Ans: A

4. When a jet aircraft enters a turn or straightens-up from a turn, what device
ensures correct response?
A – Dorsal fin
B – Yaw damper
C – Aileron – rudder coupling
D – Vortex generators

Ans: C

5. If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes:

A – a roll to the right
B – a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing
C – an increase in lift on the left wing
D – a roll to the left

Ans: D

6. What are the secondary effects of rudder and aileron respectively:

 A – yaw and roll
B – roll and yaw
C – pitch and roll
D – yaw and pitch

Ans: B

7. When the rudder is moved to the right, the force acting on the fin:
A – gives a yawing moment but no rolling moment
B – gives a rolling moment to the left
C – gives a rolling moment to the right
D – gives a nose-up pitching moment because the force is applied above the
CG

Ans: C

8. If an aircraft yaws to port, the secondary effect will be:

A – roll right
B – roll left
C – pitch up
D – pitch down

Ans: B

Mass balance
1. The location of mass balance weights is:
A – on the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinge
B – on the hinge line if the control surface does not have an inset hinge
C – always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balance
D – in front of the hinge line

Ans: D

2. Mass balance to reduce control flutter is not required on:

A – aircraft with a fully powered irreversible control system with no manual
emergency system
B – aircraft with a fully powered irreversible control system
C – aircraft limited to speeds below 200kt
D – aircraft with short rigid wings

Ans: A

3. When a large modern aircraft employs a variable incidence tailplane, trim

changes are made by:
A – adjusting the trim tab on the trailing edge of the elevator
B – changing the angle of the entire tailplane
 C – varying the spring bias trimming system
D – adjusting the Q feel unit

Ans: B

4. If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient sticl force per g, this problem can be

resolved by installing:
A – a spring which pulls the stick backwards
B – a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick forwards
C – a spring which pushes the stick forwards
D – a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick backwards

Ans: B

5. Mass-balancing of control surfaces is used to:

A – increase the stick force stability
B – limit the stick forces
C – ensure that the control surfaces are in the mid-position during taxiing
D – prevent flutter of control surfaces

Ans: D

6. Which statement is correct?

l. On fully hydraulic powered flight controls there is no need for mass
balancing
ll. On fully hydraulic powered flight controls there is no need for trim tabs
A – 1 is incorrect, ll is correct
B – l is incorrect, ll is incorrect
C – l is correct, ll is correct
D – l is correct, ll is incorrect

Ans: A

7. The effect of a mass balance weight is to:

A – move the control surface CG forward onto the control hinge
B – increase the mass of the control surface without moving its CG
C – move the control surface G rearwards
D – make the mass balance weight coincident with the control hinge

Ans: A

8. If mass balance is used to reduce flutter, it should be attached to a control

surface:
A – on the hinge
B – behind the hinge
C – above the hinge
D – in front of the hinge
 Ans: D
Pitch control
1. Which of the following devices is used to counter adverse yaw on rolling into
or out of a turn?
A – Differential ailerons
B – A yaw damper
C – A dorsal fin
D – Vortex generators

Ans: A

2. An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when

only the elevator jams during flight?
A – The pitch control forces double
B – Pitch control has been lost
C – The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab
D – Pitch control reverses direction

Ans: D

3. The centre of gravity moving aft will:

A – increase the elevator up effectiveness
B – decrease the elevator up effectiveness
C – not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness
D – increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing
Location

Ans: A

4. In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position

of the centre of gravity could be limited by the:
A – elevator capability, elevator control forces
B – engine thrust, engine location
C – trim system, trim tab surface
D – wing surface, stabiliser surface

Ans: A

5. When the control column is moved forward and to the right:

A – the elevator goes down, the starboard aileron moves down and the port
aileron moves up
B – the elevator goes up, the starboard aileron moves up and the port aileron
moves down
C – the elevator goes down, the starboard aileron moves up and the port
aileron moves down
D – the elevator goes up, the starboard aileron moves down and the port
 aileron moves up

Ans: C

6. An aircraft is approaching to land with its CG at the forward limit. It will be

___ to flare and VREF will be ___ than normal.
A – difficult; higher
B – easy; lower
C – easy; higher
D – difficult; lower

Ans: A

7. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a
manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
A – larger
B – smaller
C – unchanged
D – dependent on trim position

Ans: A

8. An aircraft is fitted with an elevator with a servo tab mechanism in the

pitch control system. If the elevator becomes jammed, what is the effect
on pitch control?
A – The servo tab will become a negative trim tab
B – Some pitch control will be retained, working in the reverse sense
C – The servo tab will become an anti-balance tab
D – Pitch control will be lost

Ans: B

9. What is the effect on the aeroplane’s static longitudinal stability of a shift of

the centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control
deflection for a certain pitch up or down?
A – The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control
deflection is larger
B – The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control
deflection is smaller
C – The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control
deflection is larger
D – The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control
deflection is smaller

Ans: D

10. Rotation about the lateral axis is called:

 A – yawing
B – slipping
C – pitching
D – rolling

Ans: C

11. A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly increased
from an equilibrium condition, because the thrust line is below the:
A – CG
B – drag line of action
C – neutral point
D – centre of pressure

Ans: A

12. The air loads on the horizontal tailplane )tail load) of an aeroplane in straight
and level cruise flight:
A – will in principle be zero on transport aeroplanes without an electronic
flight control system (Fly-by-Wire) due to the trim system
B – are generally directed upwards and will increase when cg is moved
forward
C – are generally directed downwards and will become less negative when th
cg moves aft
D – are generally directed downwards and will always become less negative
a linear fashion with increasing airspeed

Ans: C

13. The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the:

A – chord line and the horizontal plane
B – longitudinal axis and the chord line
C – longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane
D – speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis

Ans: C

14. With the CG on the aft limit the control forces required to pitch the aircraft
would be:
A – less than with a forward CG
B – more than with a forward CG
C – the same as with a forward CG

Ans: A

15. If an increase in power tends to make the nose of an aeroplane rise, this is
the result of the:
 A – line of thrust being below the CG
B – centre of lift being ahead of the CG
C – centre of lift and CG being collocated
D – line of thrust being above the CG

Ans: A

16. On an aircraft with an all-moving tail plane, backward movement of the

control wheel in flight causes:
A – an increase in tail plane incidence and nose up pitch
B – an upward movement of the trimming tab and nose up pitch
C – an increase in tail plane incidence and nose down pitch
D – a decrease in tail plane incidence and nose up pitch

Ans: D

17. If an aircraft has a down-load on the tail plane, as the elevator is lowered:
A – the down-load is increased
B – the down-load is decreased
C – the down-load remains the same unless the tail plane incidence is
changed
D – the negative camber is increased

Ans: B

18. For an aircraft with a manually operated elevator:

A – the neutral point will be forward of the CG
B – the neutral point will be aft of the CG
C – the neutral point will be coincident with the CG
D – there will be a neutral point but no static margin

Ans: B

19. The elevators control the aircraft around:

A – the lateral axis
B – the longitudinal axis
C – the normal axis
D – the horizontal stabiliser

Ans: A

20. Force on the tail and its effect on Vs due to CG movement:

A – if rearward gives a reduced down force on the tail/Vs will be higher
B – if forward gives a reduced down force on the tail/Vs will be higher
C – if rearward gives a reduced down force on the tail/Vs will be reduced
D – if rearward gives an increased down force on the tail/Vs will be reduced
 Ans: C

21. What is the advantage of a variable incidence tail plane over a fixed
incidence tail plane with elevator and trim tab?
A – more powerful trim
B – increased flight stability
C – less weight
D – linkages and mechanisms less complicated

Ans: A

22. If the horizontal stabiliser gets stuck in the cruise position what action should
you take on landing?
A – land at slower speed
B – land at faster speed with less flap
C – move pax forward
D – use the mach trim system;

Ans: B

23. When is the greatest up elevator angle required for landing?

A – flaps extended with a forward CG
B – flaps extended and an aft CG
C – flaps up with a forward CG
D – flaps up with an aft CG

Ans: A

24. With forward CG movement the elevator deflection required for a

manoeuvre with load factor greater than one will:
A – increase
B – decrease
C – remain constant

Ans: A
Trimming
1. Power assisted flying control systems have trim controls primarily in order to:
A – allow the pilot to maintain control in case of hydraulic failure
B – relieve stresses on the trim tab
C – relieve stresses on the hydraulic actuators
D – bring the control forces to zero in steady flight

Ans: D

2. Which of the following is an advantage of engines mounted on the rear

fuselage over those mounted in wing pods?
 A – Wings can have a lighter form of construction
B – The wing is less likely to suffer from flutter
C – Easier maintenance access
D – Longitudinal trim is less affected by changes in thrust

Ans: D

3. One advantage of a movable-stabiliser system compared with a fixed

stabiliser system is that:
A – the systems complexity is reduced
B – the structure weighs less
C – it leads to greater stability in flight
D – it is a more powerful means of trimming

Ans: D

4. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabiliser jammed
in the cruise flight position?
A – If possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the
cabin
B – Choose a lower landing speed than normal
C – Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flapsetting
for landing
D – Use the Mach trimmer until after landing

Ans: C

5. In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted
with an adjustable stabiliser instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is
because:
A – the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all
B – effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes
C – mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems
D – trim tab deflection increases Mcrit

Ans: B

6. Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off

at the maximum allowable forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS
(Trimming Horizontal Stabiliser) has been positioned at the maximum
allowable AND (Aeroplane Nose Down) position.
A – The rotation will require extra stick force
B – If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off
warning system will be activated
C – Early nose wheel raising will take place
D – Nothing special will happen
 Ans: A

7. The reason for having a trim system on powered assisted flying controls is:
A – enables the pilot to maintain control in case of hydraulic failure
B – relieve stresses on the trim tab
C – relieve stresses on the hydraulic actuators
D – enables the stick force to be reduced to zero

Ans: D

8. Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of graviy
and adjustable stabiliser position?
A – A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower
than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane
B – Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with centre of gravit
location, the need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position
only
C – A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher
than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane
D – At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted
maximum Nose Down to obtain maximum elevator authority at take off
rotation

Ans: A

9. What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal

stabiliser of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim?
A – The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the
position of the centre of gravity
B – The elevator deflection (compared to the stabiliser position) is always
zero
C – At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the
elevator is deflected downward
D – The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have
sufficient remaining flare capability

Ans: A

10. If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents:
A – nose-left
B – neutral
C – nose-up
D – nose-down

Ans: D
11. How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming
for speed increase?
A – The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change
B – The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
C – The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable
horizontal stabiliser
D – Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflecte
trim tab

Ans: D

12. How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used
during a speed decrease?
A – The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards
deflected trim tab
B – The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards
deflected trim tab
C – The elevator is deflcted further downwards by means of a trimmable
horizontal stabiliser
D – Nothing changes in the exterior view

Ans: B

13. An aircraft is equipped with an all flying tailplane which has combined
antibalance and trimming tab. The top of the trim wheel is moved forward.
Which of the following statements is most correct?
A – The tab moves up, so that less effort is required when the pilot attempt
move the control column to the rear
B – The tab moves up, so that more effect is required when the pilot attempt
to move the control clumn to the rear
C – The tab moves down, so that less effort is required when the pilot
attempts to move the control column to the rear
D – The tab moves down, so that more effort is required when the pilot
attempts to move the control column to the rear

Ans: B

14. In straight and level flight, as speed is reduced:

A – the elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further
upwards
B – both elevator and trim tab are deflected further upwards
C – the elevator and trim tab do not move
D – the elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further
Downwards

Ans: D
15. Which statement in respect of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct?
A – Because take-off speeds do not vary with centre of gravity location, the
need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only
B – An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be
lower than for one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition
C – An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be
higher than for one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition
D – At the forward C.G. limit, stabiliser trim is adjusted fully nose down to
obtain maximum elevator authority at rotation during take-off

Ans: B

16. In the unlikely event of an aircraft becoming airborne with the elevator
control lock engaged, operation of an elevator trim tab control in the
normal direction to counteract a nose up tendency would:
A – have no effect
B – result in a reduction of the nose up tendency
C – result in an increase in the nose down pitching moment
D – result in an increase of the nose up tendency

Ans: D

17. 23445. When checking the range of movement of an elevator trim tab as part
of the pre-flight check, movement of the trim wheel or trim switches will
move the:
A – tab and control column
B – elevator
C – tab
D – tab, elevator and control column

Ans: C

18. If the control column is pushed forward, a trim tab on the elevator:
A – will move up relative to the elevator
B – will move down relative to the elevator
C – will only move relative to the elevator at high speed
D – will not move relative to the elevator unless the trim wheel is moved

Ans: D

19. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable
trim tab move when the control surface is moved?
A – same direction
B – opposite direction
C – in the same direction at high speeds to increase the stick force, but in the
opposite direction at low speed
D – remains fixed for all positions
 Ans: D

20. In order to zero the load if a rearward force on the control column is required
to maintain level flight:
A – the elevator trim tab must be moved up
B – the elevator trim tab must be moved down
C- the incidence of a trimming tail plane must be increased
D – the elevator will be required to remain neutral

Ans: B

21. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tail plane, the tail plane
incidence changes:
A – if the control column is moved
B – if the trim wheel is turned
C – automatically if the elevator moves
D – by re-setting it on the ground

Ans: B

22. On a variable incidence tail plane with elevators fitted at the trailing edge,
longitudinal trimming will be done by adjusting the:
A – elevators with the control wheel
B – elevators with the trim wheel
C – tail plane incidence with the control wheel
D – tail plane incidence with the trim wheel

Ans: D

23. If the elevator trim wheel is moved fully back, what will happen to the control
range?
A – no effect on range
B – increase elevator range
C – decrease elevator range;

Ans: A

24. If the elevator trim tab has been moved fully to the aircraft nose up position,
the available aircraft nose up pitch authority will be:
A – increased
B – reduced
C – not affected
D – reversed

Ans: B
25. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to correct a tendency to
fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab on the left aileron will move:
A – up and this causes theleft aileron to move down, and the right one to
mov up
B – up and this causes the left aileron to move down, but the right aileron will
remain neutral
C – down and this causes the left aileron to move up and the right aileron to
move down
D – down and this causes the left aileron to move up and the right aileron to
move up

Ans: A

26. To counteract a right wing low tendency, a fixed tab on the port aileron
would:
A – be moved up causing the left aileron to come up
B – be moved up causing the right aileron to come down
C – be moved down causing the left aileron to go down
D – be moved down causing the left aileron to come up

Ans: D

27. Down movement of the elevator trimming tab will:

A – make the aircraft nose heavy
B – overcome a tendency to fly nose heavy
C – overcome a tendency to fly tail heavy
D – make the aircraft pitch nose down

Ans: B

28. An aircraft keeps yawing to the left, you would trim it by:
A – moving the fixed trimming tab on the rudder over to the left
B – moving the adjustable trim tab to the right
C – adjusting the rudder bar to keep theleft rudder pedal forward
D – adjusting the aileron trim tab wheel to the right

Ans: A

29. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly tail heavy with hands off, the top of
the elevator trimming wheel mounted on a shaft running laterally would be
rotated:
A – forward/trim tab down/elevator up
B – rearward/trim tab up/elevator up
C – rearward/trim tab down/elevator down
D – forward/trim tab up/elevator down

Ans: D
30. An aeroplane has a CG on the forward limit and full nose down trim. How
will this affect stick forces at take-off?
A – increase stick forces
B – decrease stick forces
C – set off an alarm
D – nose wheel will lift off early

Ans: A

31. If the trim tab is moved up, what is the cockpit indication?
A – neutral
B – nose up
C – nose down

Ans: C

32. What position must the stabiliser be in during take-off with a nose heavy
aircraft, compared to a “balanced” aircraft?
A – more nose u trim/decreased stabiliser incidence
B – more nose down trim/decreased stabiliser incidence
C – less nose up trim/increased stabiliser incidence
D – less nose down trim/increased stabiliser incidence

Ans: A

33. On an aircraft with a trimming horizontal stabiliser, what is the elevator

position relative to the stabiliser when the aircraft is in the trimmed
condition?
A – downwards
B – upwards
C – always neutral to the stabiliser
D – always down relative to the stabiliser

Ans: C

34. Why does a transport aircraft with powered controls use a horizontal
stabiliser trim?
A – pilot input is not subject to aerodynamic control forces
B – trim tabs are not effective enough
C – overly complex mechanism
D – trim tabs would increase Mcrit

Ans: B

35. When the trim tab on the elevator is deflected down the cockpit indication of
trim is:
A – nose up
 B – nose down
C – nose left
D – nose right

Ans: A

36. To adjust for a deceleration, the trim tab on an elevator:

A – moves up, making the elevator move down
B – moves down, making the elevator move up
C – moves down, adjusting the variable incidence tail plane
D – moves up, making the variable incidence tail plane increase incidence;

Ans: B

37. On take-off, with the CG at the forward limit, the aeroplane is trimmed fully
nose down. What is the effect?
A – less stick force is required to rotate
B – more stick force is required to rotate
C – the stick force required to rotate is not affected
D – the aeroplane is longitudinally neutrally statically stable

Ans: B

Cockpit and cabin windows

1. On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:
A – Vinyl coating
B – Electric heating
C – Anti-icing fluid
D – Rain repellent system

Ans: B

2. The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:
A – the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain
protection
B – wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view
through the cockpit windows
C – rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the
rainfall is very heavy
D – the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain
Protection

Ans: C

3. What is the effect of heating flight deck windows?

A – to demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function
correctly
B – to protect the windows against bird strike
 C – to protect the windows against ice formation
D – to protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation

Ans: D

4. An electrically heated windscreen is manufactured from:

A – A glass and polycarbonate laminate
B – Triple glass sheets with the grain laid at 45o to each other
C – A perspex and polycarbonate laminate with gold heating element
D – A boron aluminide and glass laminate

Ans: A

Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually

comprise:
A – Of only the position of the selector switch
B – A green system „ON‟ information light and an amber system failure light
C – Green or blue lights which cycle on/off with the function of the heating
elements
D – Amber lights when the system is functioning with a red warning should
the windscreen enter an overheat condition

Ans: B

5. The inner surface of a heated windscreen is of:

A – Soft polycarbonate
B – Triplex
C – Glass
D – Hard Perspex

Ans: A

6. On large transport aircraft how is rain protection provided?

A – de mist
B – anti icing/de icing
C – water repellent, only applied when wet
D – windscreen wipers, effective even with heavy rain

Ans: C

7. What do you do if you encounter rain along your route of flight?

A – Anti-ice helps
B – Wipers are sufficient even in heavy rain
C – Alcohol in the anti-ice fluid helps
D – Use rain repellent with the wipers in heavy rain

Ans: D

021-01-03 Wing
8. In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical
loads which produce a bending moment:
A – highest at the wing root
B – equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span
C – equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi-span
D – lowest at the wing root

Ans: A

9. On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up
the vertical bending moments Mx are:
A – the skin
B – the ribs
C – the webs
D – the spars

Ans: D

10. In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads
that produce a bending moment which is:
A – equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi-span
B – equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span
C – highest at the wing root
D – lowest at the wing root

Ans: C

11. The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing,
is subjected to a bending moment due to thrust and drag. The loading on the
front spar of the torsion box from the wing root to the wing tip is:
A – compression
B – tension, then in compression
C – tension
D – compression, then in tension

Ans: D

12. A wing structure consists primarily of:

A – A front and rear main spar
B – A front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers
C – Ribs and stringers only
D – Ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction

Ans: B

13. The two deformation modes that cause wing flutter are:
A – torsion and shearing
B – torsion and bending
C – bending and elongation
D – shearing and elongation
 Ans: B

14. Which part of a wing, other than stressed skin construction, takes upward
loads?
A – ribs
B – skin
C – spars
D – webs

Ans: C

15. How can in-flight wing loading be reduced?

A – aileron down float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as
possible
B – having inboard mounted engines and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips
for as long as possible
C – having inboard mounted engines and reducing the fuel at the wing tips as
soon as possible
D – aileron up float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as
Possible

Ans: D

16. The “torsion box” of a modern aircraft wing structure consists of:
A – Spars, skin, frames and stringers
B – Spars, skin, frames and ribs
C – Spars, skin, longerons and ribs
D – Spars, skin, stringers and ribs

Ans: D

17. How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?

A – By using aileron „up-float‟ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full
for as long as possible
B – By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron „down-float‟
C – By using aileron „up-float‟ and using the fuel in the wings last
D – By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first

Ans: C

SYSTEMS, POWERPLANT & ELECTRICS

AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS - AEROPLANES
Fuselage
The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:
A – withstand the shear stresses
B – assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses
C – provide sound the thermal isolation
D – integrate the strains due to pressurisation to which the skin is subjected
and convert them into a tensile stress
 Ans: B

1. DURALUMIN alloys:
1) have an aluminium-copper base
2) have an aluminium-magnesium base
3) ae easy to weld
4) are difficult to weld
5) have a good thermal conductivity
6) have a poor air corrosion resistance
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 1, 4, 5
B – 2, 4, 5
C – 1, 3, 6
D – 2, 3, 6

Ans: A

For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts:

1) The mounting principle is parallel mounting
2) No routine check is necessary
3) The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle
4) Certain components may not be accessible
5) The principle is the redundancy of components
6) The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other
system components
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 5, 6
C – 1, 3, 4
D – 2, 5, 6

Ans: B

2. Of a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up
the vertical bending moments Mx are
A – spars
B – ribs
C – skin
D – webs

Ans: A

3. Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently
transmit the:
1) normal bending stresses
2) tangent bending stresses
3) torsional moment
4) shear stresses
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 1, 2, 4
 B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3

Ans: D

4. The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot
simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that:
A – the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too
much time
B – these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights
C – in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which
stresses the aeroplane‟s structure in an unacceptable way
D – the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined
load spectrum

Ans: D

5. „Fail safe construction‟ is:

A – A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if
a part of the structure fails
B – A type of construction for small aircraft only
C – A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight
D – A simple and cheap type of construction

Ans: A

6. Strain is defined as the:

A – Ultimate load
B – Yield point
C – Deformation due to stress
D – Expansion due to temperature rise

Ans: C

7. A framework of truss type fuselage is used in:

A – Heavy wide bodied subsonic turbo-fan aircraft
B – Supersonic aircraft
C – Medium range commuter type turbo-props
D – Light training aircraft mainly

Ans: D

8. Significant torsion effects in a wing during flight can be caused by:

A – aileron deflection
B – wing dihedral
C – propwash
D – wing tip vortices

Ans: A
9. The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to:
1) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals
2) ensure zero voltage difference between aircraft components
3) isolate all components electrically
4) keep all parts of the aircraft at the same potential
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 2, 4
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 3

Ans: A

10. The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:

A – carry the loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile stress
B – withstand shear stresses
C – provide sound and thermal isolation
D – assist the skin withstand longitudinal compressive loads

Ans: D

11. How can you tell when bonding is incorrect?

A – corrosion at skin joints
B – CB trips
C – static on the radio
D – VOR interference

Ans: A

12. In the context of airframe load path philosophies a fail safe component is:
A – a component that has two operating conditions, safe and unsafe, and is
designed so that following a failure it is in the safe condition
B – a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed so that,
following its failure, the remaining structure can withstand reasonable
loads without failure until the damage is detected
C – a component that has a design fatigue life such that the probability of
failure in that life is assessed as remote
D – a component that does not affect the structural strength of the aircraft

Ans: B

13. With reference to stringers they:

A – integrate the strains due to pressurisation to which the skin is subjected
and convert them into a tensile stress
B – provide sound and thermal insulation
C – perform no structural role
D – withstand the shear stresses

Ans: A
14. Define the term “fatigue”
A – a one off loading that breaks the material
B – provide sound and thermal insulation
C – perform no structural role
D – withstand the shear stresses

Ans: C

15. Which of the following statements concerning the stresses “torsion” and
“tension” is correct?
A – tension is caused by twisting and torsion resists a force pulling it apart
B – torsion is caused by twisting and tension resists a force pulling it apart
C – torsion is caused by two layers sliding apart and tension resists a force
pulling it apart
D – torsion is caused by twisting and tension is a crushing force

Ans: B

16. The function of stringers in the construction of the fuselage is:

A – To withstand shear stress
B – To provide an attachment for insulation
C – To provide support for the skin and to absorb some of the pressurisation
strain as tensile loading
D – To provide an alternate load path in the event of the failure of a frame

Ans: C

17. In a non-stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:
A – skin
B – spars
C – stringers
D – ribs

Ans: B

In a stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by:
A – ribs and stringers
B – stringers and spars
C – spars and skin
D – spars and stringers

Ans: B

Landing gear
1. Shimmy occurs on the nose wheel landing gear during taxiing when:
1) the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground
2) the wheels no longer respond to the pilot‟s actions.
This effect is overcome by means of:
3) the torque link
 4) an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 4
D – 1, 3

Ans: D

2. The operating principle of an anti-skid system. The brake pressure will be:
A – Decreased on the faster turning wheels
B – Increased on the faster turning wheels
C – Decreased on the slower turning wheels
D – Increased on the slower turning wheels

Ans: C

3. “Nose wheel shimmy” may be described as:

A – aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear
B – the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to
landing
C – the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes
effect
D – a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the
Ground

Ans: D

4. The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:

A – to supply a limited amount of brake energy in the event of failure of the
hydraulic system normally supplying the brakes
B – to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system
C – to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti-skid system to prevent
wheel blocking
D – to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking

Ans: A

5. Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the
following characteristics:
1) high heating
2) valve fragility
3) lower risk of bursting
4) better adjustment to wheels
The combination containing all the correct statements is:
A – 3, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 2, 4
D – 1, 2, 3, 4
 Ans: A

6. A tubeless tyre has:

1) a built-in-air tube
2) no built-in-air tube
3) a crossed side casing
4) a radial side casing
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 1, 3
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 4

Ans: D

The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data
is:
1) idle wheel speed (measured)
2) braked wheel speed (measured)
3) brake temperature (measured)
4) desired idle wheel train slipping rate
5) tyre pressure
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 2, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C – 1, 2, 4
D – 1, 3

Ans: C

7. The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear
is:
A – located-down and its door is locked
B – in the required position
C – locked-down
D – not in the required position

Ans: C

8. On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is
derived from:
A – the brake actuators
B – the master cylinders
C – pressure to the rudder pedals
D – the aeroplane‟s hydraulic system

Ans: D

On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

A – will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway
 B – its tread will deteriorate faster
C – will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed
D – will wear at the shoulders

Ans: D

9. In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:

A – a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system
during high intensity braking
B – a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations
of the automatic braking system
C – designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in
order to prevent wheel blocking
D – an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a
hydraulic failure

Ans: D

10. In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
A – Pneumatically driven
B – Mechanically driven
C – Hydraulically driven
D – Electrically driven

Ans: C

11. The function of a fusible plug is to:

A – protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature
B – protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature
C – function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
D – protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system

Ans: B

12. When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
A – 0.1
B–1
C – zero
D – 0.5

Ans: C

13. On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due
for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
A – a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve
B – a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature
(thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre
C – the “Emergency Burst” function of the anti-skid system which adapts
braking to the tyre temperature
D – water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre
 Temperature

Ans: B

14. A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:

A – lock the landing gear
B – absorb the spring tension
C – control the wheels
D – avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut

Ans: D

15. Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be
extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure?
A – Pneumatically
B – Electrically
C – Mechanically
D – By hydraulic accumulators

Ans: C

16. Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when:

A – during crosswind landings
B – during pushback
C – making tight turns when taxiing
D – after take-off

Ans: C

17. In which of the following areas would an overheat/fire warning be provided.

A – Fuel tank
B – Cabin
C – Tyres
D – Wheel/Undercarriage bay

Ans: D

18. Auto brakes are disengaged:

A – when the ground spoilers are retracted
B – when the speed falls below 20 kts
C – on the landing roll when the auto pilot is disengaged
D – by the pilot

Ans: D

19. The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a
bogie gear is:
A – Braking with an inoperative anti-skid system
B – Taxiing with a small turning radius
C – Touch down with crosswind
 D – Gear down selection

Ans: B

Tyre “creep” may b described as the:

A – circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange
B – the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature
C – the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature
D – gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear

Ans: A

20. Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic
system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:
A – 1000 psi
B – 500 psi
C – 2000 psi
D – 1500 psi

Ans: D

21. A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to:

A – make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more
than 20o
B – create the wheel pitch on bogie gears
C – transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the
rotational movement of the nose wheel
D – prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber

Ans: D

22. Which is (are) damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on
larger aircraft?
A – Nitrogen and a viscous fluid
B – Nitrogen
C – Oxygen
D – Springs

Ans: A

23. The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:
A – the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping
function
B – the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring
function
C – the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies
the damping function
D – the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen
supplies the heat-dissipation function
 Ans: B

24. The Abs (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing:
A – by pilot action
B – automatically
C – at a certain low speed
D – the system is always armed

Ans: A

25. Landing gear torque links are used to:

A – prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod
B – take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected
C – prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut
D – maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off

Ans: C

26. The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:
A – prevent the brakes from overheating
B – release air from the tyre in case of overheating
C – prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres
D – release air from the tyre in case of overpressure

Ans: B

27. The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

A – Drum type brake
B – Multiple disk brake
C – Single disk brake
D – Belt brake

Ans: B

28. If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can
be:
A – Never repaired
B – Repaired once
C – Repaired several times
D – Used on the nose wheel only

Ans: C

29. In some aircraft there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being
inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of:
A – Awarning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight on Wheels)
sensor system
B – An aural warning horn
C – A latch located in the landing gear lever
D – A bolt
 Ans: C

30. Thermal plugs are installed in:

A – cabin windows
B – cargo compartments
C – wheel rims
D – fire warning systems

Ans: C

31. A tubeless tyre is a tyre:

1) which requires solid or branched wheels
2) whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
3) whose mounting rim must be flawless
4) which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tyre removing
device
5) which does not burst in the event of a tyre puncture
6) which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tyre
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 1, 5, 6
B – 3, 4, 5
C – 1, 2, 5
D – 2, 3, 6

Ans: A

32. A main landing gear is said to be LOCKED DOWN when:

A – the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel
B – the corresponding indicator lamp is amber
C – the strut is locked by an over-centre mechanism
D – it is in the down position

Ans: C

33. (Refer to figure 021-10)

Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:
A – 1 – cantilever; 2 – dual wheels; 3 – half fork; 4 – fork
B – 1 – half fork; 2 – single trace; 3 – cantilever; 4 – dual wheels
C – 1 – cantilever; 2 – fork; 3 – half fork; 4 – dual wheels
D – 1 – half fork; 2 – fork; 3 – cantilever; 4 – tandem

Ans: C

In a HP brake hydraulic system:

A – The aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by
operation of a dual brake control valve
B – A NRV is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to
that of the brake operating pressure
C – A PRV is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft
 hydraulic system fails
D – A separate handbrake system is always fitted together with its own
accumulator and its own system components

Ans: D

34. A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies:

A – At least one wheel is in the travelling or unlocked condition
B – All wheels are up and locked
C – All wheels are down and locked
D – The landing has been selected down using the emergency extension
System

Ans: A

35. Over centre mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to:
A – Lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions
B – Lock the landing gear in the up position only
C – Ensure that the nose wheel does not exceed the maximum steering arc
D – Ensure the nose wheel is positioned fore and aft prior to retraction

Ans: A

36. The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts
is:
A – Oil
B – Nitrogen
C – Oxygen
D – Springs

Ans: A

The function of a scissor (torsion link) in a landing gear is to:

A – prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the landing gear shock absorber
B – create the wheel pitch on bogie gears
C – transfer the rudder pedal deflection into nose wheel steering commands
D – make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more
than 20o

Ans: A

37. The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft
is on the ground by:
A – A pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector
B – A guard on the selector switch which cannot be moved until the aircraft is
airborne
C – Any attempt to select the landing gear up will result in a flashing warning
light and a loud horn
D – The electrical control system being routed through the weight on wheels
Switch
 Ans: D

38. The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they:
A – release air from the tyre in the event of over pressure due to over inflation
B – prevent the brakes from over heating
C – prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres
D – prevent tyre burst

Ans: D

The systems used for emergency extension of landing systems may comprise:
1) Compressed CO2
2) Compressed nitrogen
3) Compressed oxygen
4) Auxiliary hydraulic system
5) Freefall
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A – 1, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 5
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 2, 4, 5

Ans: D

39. To avoid the risk of tyre burse from over heating there is:
A – a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve
B – a thermal plug that deflates the tyre at a specific temperature
C – the “Emergency Burst” function of the anti-skid system that adapts
braking to the tyre temperature
D – water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre
Temperature

Ans: B

VLE is the maximum:

A – speed authorised in flight
B – speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
C – speed with flaps extended in a given position
D – flight speed with landing gear down

Ans: D

40. VLO is the maximum:

A – speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
B – flight speed with landing gear down
C – speed with flaps extended in a given position
D – cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution

Ans: A
41. In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1600 psi. An
electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of
3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section
of the accumulator, reads:
A – 1200 psi
B – 1600 psi
C – 3000 psi
D – 4200 psi

Ans: C

42. An undercarriage leg is locked when:

A – amber light is on
B – it is down
C – mechanically locked by an over-centre mechanism
D – actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel

Ans: C

An under inflated tyre on a dry runway:

A – increases wear on the crown
B – increases wear on the shoulder
C – decreases viscous aquaplaning speed
D – will cause the tyre temperature to reduce

Ans: B

43. What is the purpose of the torque links in a landing gear leg?
A – to prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut
B – to prevent shimmy
C – to prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod
D – to position the wheels in the correct altitude prior to landing

Ans: A

44. A new tyre with wear on the tread and parallel grooves:
A – can be repaired once only
B – can be repaired several times
C – can never be repaired
D – is fit for use only on a nose wheel

Ans: B

45. What brakes are used on modern transport aircraft?

A – single disc brakes
B – drum brakes
C – multi disc brakes
D – none of the above
 Ans: C

When does the torsion link in the landing gear suffer the most strain?
A – landing
B – cross wind landing
C – take off
D – taxiing

Ans: B

46. An anti-skid system will:

A – reduce brake pressure to slower turning wheels
B – reduce brake pressure to faster turning wheels
C – increase brake pressure to faster turning wheels
D – increase brake pressure to slower turning wheels

Ans: A

47. The pressure for the braking system of a modern aircraft originates from:
A – bottled gas
B – engine bleeds
C – an accumulator
D – the main hydraulic system

Ans: D

48. Green lights indicate the landing gear is:

A – locked down
B – locked down and door locked
C – unlocked but the doors are open
D – up

Ans: A

What are the two main types of landing gear used on modern aircraft?
A – Telescopic and articulated
B – Sprung leg and lever suspension
C – Telescopic and sprung leg
D – Liquid spring and articulated

Ans: C

49. In some aircraft there is protection device to avoid gear retraction on ground.
It consists of:
A – an aural warning horn
B – a warning light activated by weight on the wheels
C – a bolt
D – a latch on the landing gear lever

Ans: D
50. On an aircraft landing gear, an under inflated tyre:
A – will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed
B – will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on a dry runway
C – will wear at the shoulders
D – will suffer rapid tread wear

Ans: C

51. In landing gear, movement is damped by:

A – Nitrogen
B – Oxygen
C – Springs
D – Nitrogen & liquid

Ans: D

Shimmy is:
A – Felt when lowering the landing gear in the air
B – Movement of wheel when gear extended
C – Oscillation of wheels prior to landing
D – Sinusoidal and possibly damaging movement of the nose wheel on the
Ground

Ans: D

52. Where are thermal plugs fitted?

A – wheel rim
B – cargo bay
C – fuel tank
D – oil tank

Ans: A

53. What does three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected
down?
A – the gear is down
B – the gear is down and locked
C – the gear and doors are down and locked
D – the gear is travelling between up and down

Ans: B