Pediatric Diagnosis and Procedures

PEDIATRIC DIAGNOSIS AND PROCEDURES
1. The part of the history that describes the condition of the child from the last
to the present admission is the:
A. Past medical history
B. Family history
C. Interval history
D. Hospitalization history
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo) pp. 186 –
187
 MPL 1
2. Which of the following parts of the pediatric history is NOT included in the
personal history?
A. Birth history
B. Family history
C. Feeding history
D. Immunization history
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo) pp. 186
 MPL 1
3. The doctor can improve his communication with the informant / patient by:
A. Asking open-ended questions
B. Asking questions answerable by yes or no
C. Expressing support to the parents
D. Making eye to eye contact
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
4. The head circumference should be ROUTINELY measured up to what age?

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
5. In taking the blood pressure, the inflatable bladder should cover at least
_____ of the upper arm length.
A. 1 / 4
B. 1 / 3
C. 2 / 3
D. 2 / 4
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics (Nelson) pp. 1592
 MPL 0.5
GENETICS
6. In autosomal dominant inheritance, the abnormal trait is found in one parent

and in:
A. 25% of the daughters and 75% of the sons
B. 25% of the sons and 75% of the daughters
C. 50% of the sons and 50% of the daughters
D. All the daughters
 Answer C
 Type Comprehension
 MPL 0.5
7. CHELSEA, 3 hours old, was noted to have the following features at birth:
hypotonia, poor moro reflex, hyperflexibility of joints, excess nuchal folds,
flat facial profile, upslanting palpebral fissures, low set ears and transverse
palmar creases. She most probably has:
A. Edward Syndrome
B. Down Syndrome
C. Patau Syndrome
D. Cri-Du-Chat Syndrome
 Answer B
 Type Analysis
 MPL 1
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
8. What is the expected height of a 5-year old boy?

A. 100 cm
B. 105 cm
C. 110 cm
D. 115 cm
 Answer A
 MPL 0.5
9. CRIS, 8 months old, can do the following skills, EXCEPT:

A. Sit briefly
B. Transfer objects
C. Pull up
D. Hold head
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
10. Which aspect of behavior is most closely related to intelligence?

A. Adaptive behavior
B. Language development
C. Fine motor skills
D. Personal and social behavior
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
11. What is the first visible sign of puberty in boys?

A. Growth of pubic hair
B. Enlargement of the penis
C. Testicular enlargement
D. Appearance of axillary hairs
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo) pp.
100
 MPL 0.5
12. The breast buds of CECILLE appeared when she was 10 years old and had
her menarche at 16. Her sexual maturity is best described as:
A. Normal
B. Precocious
C. Delayed
D. Undetermined
 Answer C
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics (Nelson) pp. 54 – 55
 MPL 0.5
NEWBORN
13. CONRAD grimaced and cried vigorously at birth. He had a HR = 140 / min,
moved actively and was completely pink. He weighed 2.7 kg. What is his
APGAR score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
 Answer C
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics (Nelson) pp. 528.
 MPL 1
14. The following physical examination findings are likely to be seen in a

premature newborn, EXCEPT:
A. Very thin skin and visible veins
B. Creases over the entire sole
C. Rare scrotal rugae
D. Slightly curved pinna with slow recoil
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
15. Which of the following parameters assesses the physical maturity of

newborns?
A. Posture
B. Arm recoil
C. Genitalia
D. Scarf sign
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
16. The following physical examination findings do not have clinical
significances, EXCEPT:
A. Ear tag
B. Mongolian spot
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Globular abdomen
 Answer C
 Type Recall
– 250
 MPL 1
17. The routine delivery room care of the newborn does NOT include:
A. Wrapping the infant in a clean dry blanket
B. Giving 1 mg of vitamin K intramuscularly
C. Administering erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
D. Getting the blood type
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
NUTRITION
18. The baby usually obtains about 95% of the milk from the breast in the first:
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 7 minutes
D. 9 minutes
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
19. A normal infant with a normal healthy mother may breast-feed up to:
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 30 months
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
20. Compared to mature milk, maternal colostrum has more of the following
substances, EXCEPT:
A. Proteins
B. Vitamins
C. Sugar
D. Salt
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.25
21. When milk formula alternates or replaces breastfeeding, the type of feeding
is called:
A. Mixed feeding
B. Complementary feeding
C. Supplementary feeding
D. Weaning
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
22. Which of the following statements is TRUE of weaning?

A. The introduction of solid foods is usually done at about 6 – 9 months of
age.
B. It is wise to start with the least antigenic types of food.
C. Carbohydrate-rich foods should be introduced later.
D. Diarrhea is rarely seen during the weaning period.
 Answer B
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PREVENTIVE PEDIATRICS
23. Immunization of infants with the anti-measles vaccine constitutes which level
of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quarternary
 Answer A
 MPL 1
24. Which of the following events is expected after BCG vaccination in a normal
newborn?
A. Appearance of a wheal
B. Induration after 2 – 3 days
C. Pustule formation after 5 – 7 days
D. Scarring after 2 – 3 weeks
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
25. CARLO, 10 months old, can receive the following vaccines, EXCEPT:
A. 3 doses of DPT and OPV
B. 3 doses of Hepatitis B
C. 1 dose of measles
D. 1 dose of MMR
 Answer D
30
 MPL 1
26. Which of the following vaccines has almost 100% efficacy?

A. Measles
B. OPV
C. Hepatitis B
D. DPT
 Answer D
 Type Recall
30
 MPL 0.33
27. Which of the following diseases has a preparation for passive immunization?
A. Tetanus
B. Hepatitis A
C. Mumps
D. Rabies
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
28. What drug can be given as prophylaxis for children who had been exposed
to adults with meningococcemia?
A. Rifampicin
B. Penicillin
C. Erythromycin
D. Chloramphenicol
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.25
THERAPEUTICS
29. In developing countries, the WHO recommends the use of with a sodium
concentration of _____ mmol / L.
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
30. Which of the following features characterize the hypertonic type of

dehydration?
A. Cold and dry skin
B. Clammy or moist lips
C. Very low temperature
D. Hyperirritable when aroused
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
31. The following drugs are contraindicated during breastfeeding, EXCEPT:

A. Alcohol
B. Amoxycillin
C. Anti-thyroid agents
D. Cimetidine
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
ALLERGY
32. CAROL, 8 years old, consulted at the OPD because of sneezing, profuse
rhinorrhea and nasal congestion. On examination, he had pale and boggy
nasal edema with watery nasal discharge. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Acute nasopharyngitis
B. Nasal foreign body
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Measles prodrome
 Answer C
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.5
33. What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?

A. Hydrocortisone
B. Epinephrine
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Atropine
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
34. What is the most common presentation of adverse reaction to food during
the first year of life?
A. Rashes after intake of soy-based foods
B. Drowsiness after eating cured meat
C. Urticarial rashes after eating cereals
D. Watery and blood-streaked stools after drinking cow’s milk
 Answer D
 MPL 0.5
35. Which of the following features is characteristic of atopic dermatitis?

A. Typical distribution of rashes according to age group
B. Different ages of onset of manifestations
C. Typical morphology of distribution
D. Erythematous urticarial rashes of different sizes
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.33
36. CATHY, 6 years old, is a known asthmatic. She has monthly daytime
symptoms and nighttime symptoms every other month. Her FEV 1 was 90%
of the predicted. What is the severity of her asthma?
A. Intermittent
B. Mild persistent
C. Moderate persistent
D. Severe persistent
 Answer A
 Type Analysis
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo) p. 394
 MPL 0.5
37. Which of the following factors is NOT a significant trigger of asthma during
late childhood?
A. Viral respiratory infections
B. Foods
C. Exercise
D. Household inhalants
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
BURNS AND INJURIES
38. What is the most common cause of death from physical abuse?
A. Intra-abdominal injuries
B. Burns
C. Intentional head trauma
D. Poisoning
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
39. The use of helmets, seat belts and knee / elbow pads are interventions that:
A. Prevent the occurrence of injury-producing events
B. Reduces the likelihood of injury by modifying the transfer of energy to
the victim
C. Limit the impact of injuries on the victims
D. Protect the most sensitive parts of body
 Answer B
– 1409
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CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES
40. The Tetralogy of Fallot includes the following anomalies, EXCEPT:

A. Pulmonary stenosis
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Dextroposition of the aorta
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
41. CARLITO, 10 years old, was seen at the ER because of respiratory distress.
On examination, his PMI was displaced to the left. He had an apical systolic
thrill and a grade 4 / 6 holosystolic murmur at the apex. He most probably
has an insufficient _____ valve.
A. Aortic
B. Mitral
C. Pulmonic
D. Tricuspid
 Answer A
 Type Analysis
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics (Nelson) pp. 1570 – 1571.
 MPL 0.5
42. What is the characteristic chest x-ray finding in patients with transposition of
the great arteries?
A. Snowman’s sign
B. Couer en sabot
C. Egg-on-side
D. E sign
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISEASES
43. Which of the following features is NOT a major manifestation in the modified
Jones Criteria?
A. Carditis
B. Arthritis
C. Chorea
D. Arthralgia
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo)
pp. 988
 MPL 1
44. The clinical and laboratory criteria for the diagnosis of SLE does NOT
include:
A. Photosensitivity
B. Oral ulcers
C. Pleural effusion
D. Reticulocytosis
 Answer C
 Type Recall
pp. 994
 MPL 0.5
45. CYNTHIA, 4 years old, consulted at the OPD because of fever of 7 days. On
examination, she had bilateral conjunctival injection, diffuse oropharyngeal
erythema, induration of the hands and feet, erythema of the palms and soles
and non-purulent cervical lymphadenopathies. She most probably has:
A. Kawasaki Disease
B. Polyarteritis Nodosa
C. Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
D. Henoch-Schonlein Syndrome
 Answer A
 Type Analysis
pp.1001
 MPL 0.5
DERMATOLOGY
46. Which of the following skin disorders is a nutritional disorder?

A. Acne vulgaris
B. Albinism
C. Lichen planus
D. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
 Answer D
 Type Recall
pp.1001
 MPL 0.5
DEVELOPMENTAL AND BEHAVIORAL DISORDERS
47. A child is NOT considered to have primary functional enuresis before the
age of:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
 Answer C
 Type Recall
pp.1106
 MPL 0.5
48. CLARENCE, 5 years old, was brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. On
examination, he was noted to have poor eye contact, little symbolic play,
limited joint attention or orienting to one’s name, and reliance on nonverbal
communication with delay in the use of words. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Autistic Disorder
B. Childhood Schizophrenia
C. Attention Deficit / Hyperactivity Disorder
D. Conduct Disorder
 Answer A
 Type Analysis
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics (Nelson) pp.93
 MPL 0.33
49. Which of the following features is NOT a common presentation of mental

retardation?
A. Motor delay
B. Language delay
C. Poor problem solving skills
D. Aggressive behavior
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
ENDOCRINOLOGY AND METABOLISM
50. Which of the following features is a clue to the presence of an inborn error of
metabolism in neonates?
A. Hypotonia
B. Failure to thrive
C. Mental retardation
D. Gait abnormalities
 Answer A
 MPL 1
51. The characteristic sweet odor resembling burnt sugar of MSUD can be
detected in the _____ of affected patients, EXCEPT:
A. Cerumen
B. Hair
C. Urine
D. Blood
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
52. CJ, 1 month old, was brought to the clinic for a check-up. He had prolonged
jaundice, constipation, abdominal distention, lethargy, poor feeding and is
usually hypothermic. What condition should be suspected?
A. Neonatal hypocalcemia
B. Congenital hypothyroidism
C. Werdnig-Hoffman disease
D. Muscular dystrophy
 Answer B
 Type Analysis
pp. 1198
 MPL 0.25
ENVIRONMENTAL PEDIATRICS AND POISONING
53. The classic triad of isoniazid toxicity includes the following features,
EXCEPT:
A. Generalized seizures
B. Coma
C. Jaundice
D. Metabolic acidosis
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.33
54. CRYSTAL, 7 years old, was brought to the ER because of a tingling

sensation and numbness around the mouth, progressing to the extremities
and whole body. On examination, she had generalized weakness and went
into respiratory failure. What is the most probable culprit?
A. Paralytic shellfish poisoning
B. Organophosphate poisoning
C. Lead poisoning
D. Cyanide poisoning
 Answer A
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.5
GASTROENTEROLOGY
55. What is the most common cause of diarrhea in the Philippines?

A. Shigella
B. E. coli
C. E. histolytica
D. Rotavirus
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
56. Which of the following conditions usually presents with non-bilious vomiting?
A. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
B. Volvulus
C. Malrotation of the intestines
D. Intussusception
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
57. CARLITOS, 1 day old, had bilious vomiting and was jaundiced. His
abdomen was not distended but he had occasional visible peristaltic waves.
The plain abdominal x-ray showed the ‘double-bubble’ sign. Where is the
most probable site of obstruction?
A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Colon
 Answer C
 MPL 0.5
58. CECILLE, 11 years old, Tanner stage 2, consulted at the ER because of

epigastric pain associated with fever, nausea and vomiting. She passed two
mucoid stools. On examination, she was limping and had generalized
muscle guarding. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Mesenteric adenitis
 Answer C
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.5
59. Which of the following conditions does NOT present with GI bleeding?
A. Meckel’s diverticulum
B. Inflammatory bowel disease
C. Intussusception
D. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
 Answer D
 MPL 0.5
HEMATOLOGY
60. CARL, 2 years old, was brought to the ER because of on and off fever and
easy bruisability of 1 month duration. On examination, he had pale palms,
generalized lymphadenopathies and hepatomegaly. He most probably has:
A. Connective tissue disease
B. Chronic infection
C. Blood malignancy
D. Nutritional anemia
 Answer C
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.33
61. What is the hallmark of hemophilia?

A. Hematomas after injection
B. Bleeding during circumcision
C. Presence of hamarthroses
D. Spontaneous hematuria
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
62. What is the most common form of childhood leukemia?

A. CML
B. AML
C. ALL
D. CLL
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
63. A 10kg-child with iron deficiency anemia should receive how many mg of
elemental iron?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
 Answer C
 MPL 0.5
IMMUNOLOGY
64. Which of the following clinical features is NOT associated with

immunodeficiency?
A. Chronic and / or recurrent infections
B. Recurrent abscesses, skin rashes, eczema, candidiasis
C. Enlarged heart
D. Tetany
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
65. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction utilizes complements?

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
 Answer A
 MPL 0.25
66. CHASTE, 9 months old, was brought to the clinic because of recurrent
pneumonia. Primary immunodeficiency was considered. She had low Ig G, a
negative Schick test, reduced B cell activity and a normal lymph node
biopsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Bruton’s disease
B. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia in infancy
C. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
D. Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome
 Answer B
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.25
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
67. What is the first clinical manifestation of tetanus neonatorum?

A. Low-grade fever
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Recurrent spasms
D. Difficulty in sucking
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
68. CESAR, 5 years old, was admitted because of high-grade fever and
conjunctivitis. On examination, he had calf pain and jaundice. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Leptospirosis
B. Hepatitis
C. Measles
D. Typhoid fever
 Answer A
 Type Analysis
 MPL 1
69. The classical features of the congenital rubella syndrome does NOT include:
A. Mental retardation
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Cataract
D. Congenital heart disease
 Answer B
 Type Recall
– 532
 MPL 1
70. CHELO, 5 years old, was brought to the ER because of high grade fever of
6 days duration. On examination, she had a positive tourniquet test,
epistaxis and BO of 80 / 60. She was diagnosed with Dengue Fever and is
most probably in grade:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
 Answer C
 MPL 1
71. Which of the following features is characteristic of varicella?

A. Centripetal distribution of rashes
B. Occurrence at the same time of lesions in different stages
C. Hard, shotty and deep lesions
D. Severe constitutional symptoms
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
72. What is the first rabies specific symptom?

A. Hydrophobia
B. Pain at the site of bite
C. Aerophobia
D. Profuse drooling of saliva
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
73. CHYLE, 9 years old, returned two weeks ago from Cagayan Valley and is
now in coma. On examination, he was highly febrile and had a palpable
spleen. His liver was not enlarged. He was hypoglycemic and had a normal
CSF analysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Pneumococcal meningitis
B. Falciparum malaria
C. Dengue hemorrhagic fever
D. Typhoid fever
 Answer B
 Type Analysis
 MPL 1
74. What is the most useful tool in diagnosing the cause of fever of unknown
origin?
A. History and physical examination
B. Diagnostic imaging
C. CBC
D. Blood culture
 Answer A
 MPL 1
NEONATOLOGY
75. What is the most common cause of bacterial atypical pneumonia in

neonates?
A. Group B Streptococcus
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Hemophilus influenzae
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo0 p. 670
 MPL 0.5
76. CYRIL, 2 weeks old, was brought to the clinic because of jaundice. He was
born full term, NSD, in a clinic assisted by a physician. Breastfeeding was
tolerated and he was discharged after 24 hours. What is the most probable
cause of his jaundice?
A. Physiologic jaundice
B. Neonatal hepatitis
C. Breast milk jaundice
D. Kernicterus
 Answer C
 Type Analysis
– 273.
 MPL 0.5
77. Which of the following statements is TRUE of necrotizing enterocolitis?

A. It is primarily a disease of infants aged 6 – 12 months.
B. Breastfeeding is not protective.
C. Bloody stools are seen in most patients.
D. It usually presents with abdominal distention and gastric retention.
 Answer D
 MPL 0.5
78. What is the earliest and most consistent finding in mild hemolytic disease of
the newborn?
A. Pallor
B. Jaundice
C. Tachycardia
D. Hematemesis
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
79. A 32-year old mother delivered a full term boy with APGAR scores of 9 and
10. The membranes were ruptured six hours prior to delivery. The mother is
HBs Ag positive. What is the most appropriate intervention for the infant?
A. Screen the infant for HBs Ag
B. Isolate the infant
C. Administer Hepatitis B immunoglobulin and HBV
D. Withhold feedings
 Answer C
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.5
NEPHROLOGY
80. Which type of glomerular disorders has normal serum C3 levels?

A. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
B. Lupus nephritis
C. Membranoproliferative nephritis
D. Anaphylactoid purpura nephritis
 Answer D
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
81. What is the cause of anemia in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A. High grade fever
B. Hematuria
C. Hemodilution
D. Decreased production of RBC
 Answer C
 MPL 0.5
82. CELSO, 3 years old, consulted at the ER because of abdominal pain and
generalized edema. His was afebrile with BP of 90 / 60 and CR of 85 / min.
He had 4+ proteinuria and elevated serum cholesterol and triglyceride
levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Goodpasture Disease
B. Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
 Answer B
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.5
83. What is the most common manifestation of UTI in infants?

A. Fever
B. Dysuria
C. Frequency
D. Incontinence
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
NEUROLOGY
84. A lumbar puncture is indicated in a child who:

A. Has encephalitis with signs of increased intra-cranial pressure
B. Presents with headache associated with left-sided hemiparesis, facial
asymmetry and ptosis
C. Is febrile with generalized seizures and nuchal rigidity
D. Has fever, seizures, purpuric rashes and hematoma at all puncture sites
 Answer C
 MPL 1
85. The CSF analysis showing an opening pressure of 300 mm H20, WBC 296
(segmenters 10%, lymphocytes 90%), CHONS 2 g / L and CSF sugar / RBS
20% is suggestive of:
A. Acute meningococcal meningitis
B. TB meningitis
C. Japanese B encephalitis
D. Benign febrile convulsion
 Answer B
 MPL 0.33
86. The following features characterize benign febrile seizures, EXCEPT:

A. Occurs between 6 months and 2 years of age
B. No evidence of intra-cranial infection
C. Seen early in the course of the illness
D. Usually presents with generalized tonic-clonic seizures
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo0 p. 1039
 MPL 1
87. CHARLES, 15 years old, was admitted because of recurrent headache,

progressive neck pain and bladder dysfunction for 7 months. On
examination, he had nuchal rigidity and spasticity of the lower extremities.
The most appropriate diagnostic tool is:
A. Skull x-ray
B. Lumbar puncture
C. MRI of the head
D. CT scan of the head
 Answer C
 Type Analysis
 MPL 0.5
NUTRITIONAL DISORDERS
88. Increased susceptibility to infections, poor wound healing, osteoporosis and

fractures are seen in:
A. Zinc deficiency
B. Vitamin B6 deficiency
C. Copper deficiency
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
 Answer A
 Type Recall
pp. 133
 MPL 0.5
89. The diagnostic signs of kwashiorkor includes the following features,
EXCEPT:
A. Edema
B. Hair changes
C. Muscle wasting
D. Psychomotor changes
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child
Health (Del Mundo) pp. 168 – 169.
 MPL 0.5
90. Which of the following factors is NOT related to the development of obesity
in children?
A. Age at onset
B. Excessive food intake
C. Genetic constitution
D. Insufficient exercise
 Answer A
 Type Recall
pp.172
 MPL 1
91. CHOLO, 2 months old, presented with craniotabes, caput quadratum, soft
borders of the anterior fontanel and rachitic rosary. Which of the following
vitamins is most probably deficient?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
 Answer D
 Type Recall
pp.172
 MPL 0.5
92. Hypercalcemia, metastatic calcifications and hypertension are seen in:

A. Hypervitaminosis A
B. Hypervitaminosis D
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Vitamin K deficiency
 Answer D
 Type Recall
pp.135
 MPL 0.5
ONCOLOGY
93. Which of the following tumors has the best over-all survival rate?
A. Wilm’s tumor
B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Hepatoblastoma
D. Neuroblastoma
 Answer A
 Type Recall
 MPL 0.5
94. What is the classic appearance of osteosarcoma in radiographs?

A. Punched out lytic lesions
B. Sunburst appearance
C. Onion skinning
D. Ground glass lesion
 Answer B
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
95. What is the most common benign tumor in infancy?

A. Osteochondroma
B. Infantile fibromatosis
C. Hemangioma
D. Thymoma
 Answer C
 Type Recall
 MPL 1
RESPIRATORY DISEASES
96. CRIS, 9 months old, was brought to the ER because of respiratory distress.
He had productive cough and fever of 3 days. On examination, his RR was
55 BPM. He had chest retractions, wheezes on both lung fields and
occasional fine rales on both lung bases. What is the drug of choice?
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Terbutaline sulfate
C. Ampicillin
D. None of the above
 Answer D
 Type Analysis
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics (Nelson) pp. 1392.
 MPL 0.5
97. Which of the following PE findings would suggest pleural effusion?

A. Increased tactile fremitus
B. Absence of breath sounds
C. Hyperresonance on percussion
D. Lagging of contra-lateral side
 Answer B
– 683.
 MPL 1
98. CHRISTOPHER, 2 years old, consulted at the OPD because of difficulty of

breathing. Six days PTC, he had productive cough and high-grade fever. He
was given dextromethorphan but the cough persisted. On the day of
consultation, he was noted to be breathing fast. On examination, his RR was
50 BPM. He had alar flaring, intercostal retractions and rales on both lung
fields. Based on the ARI protocol, what is the drug of choice?
A. Cotrimoxazole
B. Penicillin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Erythromycin
 Answer B
 Type Analysis
– 671.
 MPL 0.5
99. CIARA, 2 years old, was brought to the OPD for a check up. She was
apparently well until 2 months PTC when she had been exposed to a
tuberculous uncle. She had no subjective complaints. She had palpable,
painless cervical lymph nodes. The rest of the physical examination findings
were unremarkable. Her PPD reaction was 8 mm. She has a BCG scar.
What is the best management option?
A. Start her on H
B. Start her on H and R
C. Start her on H, R and Z
D. Defer treatment until completion of all laboratory examinations
 Answer A
 Type Analysis
– 521.
 MPL 0.33
100. Using the DOTS, what is the duration of treatment of a child with no history
of exposure, PPD 15 mm induration, chronic cough and hilar lymph nodes
on chest x-ray?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 1 year
 Answer B
 Type Analysis
 Reference Textbook of Pediatrics and Child Health (Del Mundo) pp. 524.
MPL 0.5

Pediatric Diagnosis and Procedures

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Pediatric Diagnosis and Procedures

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PEDIATRIC DIAGNOSIS AND PROCEDURES

4. The head circumference should be ROUTINELY measured up to what age?

6. In autosomal dominant inheritance, the abnormal trait is found in one parent

GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

8. What is the expected height of a 5-year old boy?

9. CRIS, 8 months old, can do the following skills, EXCEPT:

10. Which aspect of behavior is most closely related to intelligence?

11. What is the first visible sign of puberty in boys?

14. The following physical examination findings are likely to be seen in a

15. Which of the following parameters assesses the physical maturity of

22. Which of the following statements is TRUE of weaning?

26. Which of the following vaccines has almost 100% efficacy?

30. Which of the following features characterize the hypertonic type of

31. The following drugs are contraindicated during breastfeeding, EXCEPT:

33. What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?

35. Which of the following features is characteristic of atopic dermatitis?

BURNS AND INJURIES

40. The Tetralogy of Fallot includes the following anomalies, EXCEPT:

CONNECTIVE TISSUE DISEASES

46. Which of the following skin disorders is a nutritional disorder?

DEVELOPMENTAL AND BEHAVIORAL DISORDERS

49. Which of the following features is NOT a common presentation of mental

ENDOCRINOLOGY AND METABOLISM

ENVIRONMENTAL PEDIATRICS AND POISONING

54. CRYSTAL, 7 years old, was brought to the ER because of a tingling

55. What is the most common cause of diarrhea in the Philippines?

58. CECILLE, 11 years old, Tanner stage 2, consulted at the ER because of

61. What is the hallmark of hemophilia?

62. What is the most common form of childhood leukemia?

64. Which of the following clinical features is NOT associated with

65. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction utilizes complements?

67. What is the first clinical manifestation of tetanus neonatorum?

71. Which of the following features is characteristic of varicella?

72. What is the first rabies specific symptom?

75. What is the most common cause of bacterial atypical pneumonia in

77. Which of the following statements is TRUE of necrotizing enterocolitis?

80. Which type of glomerular disorders has normal serum C3 levels?

81. What is the cause of anemia in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

83. What is the most common manifestation of UTI in infants?

84. A lumbar puncture is indicated in a child who:

86. The following features characterize benign febrile seizures, EXCEPT:

87. CHARLES, 15 years old, was admitted because of recurrent headache,

88. Increased susceptibility to infections, poor wound healing, osteoporosis and

92. Hypercalcemia, metastatic calcifications and hypertension are seen in:

94. What is the classic appearance of osteosarcoma in radiographs?

95. What is the most common benign tumor in infancy?

97. Which of the following PE findings would suggest pleural effusion?

98. CHRISTOPHER, 2 years old, consulted at the OPD because of difficulty of

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