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查经 5: 4th July 2021: o "None is righteous, no, not one
查经 5: 4th July 2021: o "None is righteous, no, not one
查经 5: 4th July 2021: o "None is righteous, no, not one
青年团契
查经 5: 4th July 2021
Romans 3:9-26
Introduction
In the last study, we covered Rom 2:17-29; 3:1-9. Paul has been arguing that Jews will
be assessed by God in the judgment on the same basis as Gentiles. Neither the possession of
the Mosaic law nor circumcision can exempt them from this judgment. And in the end, the real
“Jew” is not the one who has been circumcised externally, but the one whose heart has been
circumcised by God.
All this does not mean that the Jews are without any privilege, but their privilege was one
of responsibility, not “immunity from judgment.” God would still be faithful towards His
covenantal promises to the Jews, but not simply in terms of His promises for blessing and
salvation, but also His covenantal promises of judgment for unfaithfulness.
In vv.9-20, Paul moves towards a summary and application of the teaching he has been
developing since 1:18 on the sinfulness of man. It is a concluding accusation against all
peoples.
Part I: vv.9-20
All are under the Power of Sin
1) In v.9, Paul concludes that all, both Jews are Greeks are “under sin.” What might this
mean? (O/I)
This mean that Jews and greeks are the same. No party will have an advantage. All are
treated the same.
2) Refer to vv.10-12: which words do you observe are repeated? What then do you think
is Paul’s main point? (O/I)
No one. His m
In vv.10-18, Paul uses a string of Old Testament quotations to describe all humanity as being
under the power of sin. The following structure can be observed from within the seemingly
random quotes:
3) From vv.10-18, what can we observe about the nature or characteristics of sin?
Support your answer with relevant verses from the text. (O/I)
4) Refer to vv.19-20, what is the rightful role/effect of the Mosaic law? (O/I)
5) Paul writes of how all humanity are under the power of sin. How have you experienced
this in your own life? (A)
Romans 1:18–3:20, while important in its own right, is nevertheless preliminary to the
main point that Paul wants to establish: the availability of God’s righteousness to all who
respond in faith. This “good news,” announced in 1:17, is now finally elaborated from 3:21
onwards. The essential points are packed into 3:21–26, a passage that Martin Luther called “the
chief point, and the very central place of the Epistle...”
With reference to v.21, Martyn Lloyd Jones exclaimed that “there are no more wonderful
words in the whole of Scripture than just these two words ‘But now.’” These two words mark the
shift in Paul’s focus from the old era of sin’s domination to the new era of salvation. Rom 1:18-
3:20 has sketched the spiritual state of those who belong to the old era: justly condemned,
helpless in the power of sin, powerless to escape God’s wrath. “But now” God has intervened to
inaugurate a new era, and all who respond in faith will be transferred into it from the old era.
6) In v.21, Paul writes of how “the righteousness of God” has been manifested/revealed.
What does he mean by “righteousness of God”? (I)
In v. 21-22, the righteousness of God has been manifested “apart from the law.” The law
here refers to the Mosaic covenant (Old Covenant) - that temporary administration set up
between God and His people to regulate their lives and reveal their sin until the promise in
Christ. But now a new “righteousness/salvation of God” has come, apart from this old system.
Yet at the same time, “the law and prophets bear witness to it.”
7) How did “the law and the prophets bear witness to” God’s new way of
righteousness/salvation? [Can you list out specific Old Testament passages to illustrate
your answers?] (I)
8) Refer to v.22: How can anyone obtain the “righteousness of God”? (O)
9) From vv.22b-25, Paul explains WHY the righteousness of God comes only through
faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. In essence, all men “fall short of the glory of
God” and “are justified by God’s grace as a gift.” What do you understand by the phrases
in italics? (i.e.How would you explain these phrases?) (I)
Because all of us without exception are sinners, we can only be “justified by God’s grace
as a gift” i.e. we can only be declared/made righteous by the unmerited goodness of God. It is a
present given to us by God, a gift that we do not deserve. And because justification can only
be by grace on God’s part, we can only have it through FAITH on our part (rather than
performance/works).1
10) Referring to vv.24-25, we are deemed/made righteous as a free gift by God through
the redemption in Christ Jesus, “whom God put forward as a propitiation by His blood”
to be received by faith. What do you think “propitiation” means? (I)
1
This explains the link between v.22 and vv.23-25. The salvation/righteousness of God comes
through faith in Jesus (v.22), because sinners can only be saved/made/declared righteous by grace on
God’s part (vv.23-25)
2
The Greco-Roman use of redemption language suggests that the word has a further important
nuance: the liberation or deliverance involved comes through payment of a price. In Paul’s day,
“redemption” often referred to a transaction whereby prisoners of war, condemned criminals, and
(especially) slaves were able to purchase their freedom.
11) Referring to vv.25b-26: Why was it necessary for God to put Christ forward as a
propitiation? (O/I)
12) “But now” in Romans 3:21 signals a new era from the era of sin and death. For all
who believe, salvation and deliverance from sin is now available through faith in Jesus
Christ. Imagine you lived in a world prior to the coming of Jesus and did not know of
God’s promised salvation, how do you think life would be different for you? (A)
Prayer: Spend time expressing thanks to God for the free gift of salvation in Jesus Christ