Main Pattern Major Test-1 (Mmt-1) Date: Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

® P1A-19
DATE
26-12-2019
MAIN PATTERN MAJOR TEST-1 (MMT-1)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2020
CODE
1
REVISION PLAN-1 | COURSE : VIJETA(JP), ANOOP(EP)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Question paper has three (03) parts: Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
 Each part has a total twenty five (25) questions divided into two (02) sections (Section-1 and Section-2).
 Total number of questions in Question paper are Seventy Five (75) and Maximum Marks are Three Hundred only (300).
Type of Questions and Marking Schemes
SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks : 80)

 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
 Marking scheme :
 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20)
 This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with two digit integer
and decimal upto one digit.
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places truncate/round-off the value to ONE decimal placed.
 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : ………………………………………………… ROLL NO. :………………..………………………..
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number
and shall abide by them of the candidate.
------------------------- -------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
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INSTRUCTIONS FOR OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET (ORS)
 Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

 The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
 Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.
 Write your name, roll number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided for this
purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble under each
digit of your roll number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

 Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.
 Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
 Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.
 The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :
 There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.
 The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkened bubbles
are evaluated.
 Zero marks ‘0’ If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
FOR INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :

 For example, if answer ‘SINGLE DIGIT’ integer type below :
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
 For example, if answer ‘DOUBLEDIGIT’ integer type below :

0 0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
6 6
7 7
8 8
9 9
FOR DECIMAL TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :
COLUMN
1 2 . 3 4
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9
 If answer is 3.7, then fill 3 in either 1st or 2nd column and 7 in 3rd or 4th column.
 If answer is 3.07 then fill 3 in 1st or 2nd column ‘0’ in 3rd column and 7 in 4th column.
 If answer is, 23 then fill 2 & 3 in 1st and 2nd column respectively, while you can either leave column 3 & 4 or fill ‘0’ in either
of them.
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PART – A 2. From a point A, a cannon performs two shots
with different velocities. In the first shot, the

SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 80) cannon aims to a point C in the top of a tower
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions. and reaches its base B after a time t1. In the
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) second shot, the shot angle is doubled and
and (4) ONLY ONE of these four option is point C in the top of the tower is reached after
correct a time t2. If the acceleration due to gravity be
 Marking scheme : g, determine the distance AB between the
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is cannon and the tower's base.
chosen. C
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is
chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

A
B
2 2
g 2 t1  t 2
1. Assume that maximum mass m 1 of a boulder (1) t1
2 2
2 t 2 – t1
swept along by a river, depends on the speed
V of the river, the acceleration due to gravity g,

2 2
g 2 t 2 – t1
and the density d of the boulder. Calculate the (2) t1
2 2
2 t 2  t1
percentage change in maximum mass of the
boulder that can be swept by the river, when
speed of the river increases by 1%. 2 2

g 2 t 2  t1
(3) t2
2 2
(1) 2 2 t 2 – t1
(2) 4
(3) 6 2 2
g t 2 – t1
(4) t 1t 2
(4) 1 2 2
t 2  t1
2
Space for Rough Work
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PJPMMT1261219C1-1
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3. Three objects A, B and C are kept in a straight 5. In a two dimensional steady flow the velocity
line on a frictionless horizontal surface. They of fluid particle at (x, y) is given by


have masses m, 2m and m respectively. The V = (u0 + bx) î – by ˆj , u0 and b are positive
constants. Shape of streamlines for x > 0 is

object A moves towards B with a speed 9 m/s
given by
and makes an elastic collision with it.
y y
Thereafter, B makes perfectly inelastic
(1) x (2) x
collision with C. All motion occur along same
straight line. The final speed of the object C is: y y
m 2m m (3) x (4) x
A B C
(1) 2m/s (2) 6m/s
(3) 4m/s (4) 3m/s
6. A soap bubble is blown at the end of a

4. A uniform solid cylinder is placed at t = 0 on a
capillary tube of radius a and length L. When
rough inclined plane gently with initial angular
the other end is left open, the bubble begins to
speed 0 and center of mass initially at rest. If deflate. Surface tension of soap solution is T.
coefficient of friction between inclined plane If the coefficient of viscosity of gas inside
and cylinder is  = 2 tan  then time when bubble be  then the rate
 dR 
  of decrement
 dt 
center of cylinder will be at momentarily at rest
of radius (R) of the bubble is
once again is : 4
a T
(1) 3
8  LR
4
a T
(2) 3
8  LR
4
a T
 0R  0R (3) 3
(1) (2) 16  L R
g sin  2 g sin 
4
a T
3  0R
(4)
2  0R 16  LR
3
(3) (4)
g sin  10 g sin 
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PJPMMT1261219C1-2
7. Two identical rods, one of steel, the other of 9. A uniform spherical planet is rotating about its
copper, are stretched in two ways axis. The speed of a point on its equator is v
I : by an equal amount of length and the effective acceleration due to gravity

II : by equal of force and rotation on the equator is one third its
On which operation more work is expended if value at the poles. The escape velocity for a
Young's modulus of steel be more than that of
particle at the pole of the planet is
copper ?
(1) v
(1) Equal for steel & copper in case-I
(2) 2 v
(2) Greater for steel than copper in case-I
(3) Equal for steel & copper in case-II (3) 3 v
(4) Greater for steel than copper in case-II (5 2 – 1) v

(4)
3
8. Choose the correct alternative from the following
(Assume  to be the angular frequency of the

10. n-moles of He gas undergoes a process
external force in forced vibration and 0 to be the
PV2 = constant. Initially the pressure and the
natural angular frequency of the oscillating system)
volumes were P1 and V1 and at the end of
(1) the total energy of the vibrating system is
process rms speed of gas molecule is double
constant
compared to its initial rms speed. Then find
(2) ratio of average potential energy to the average
heat supplied to the gas during the process.
2
 0
kinetic energy of the vibrating system is 2

(1) 3 P1V1
(3) ratio of average potential energy to the average

2
(2) 2.5 P1V1
kinetic energy of the vibrating system is 2
 0
(4) ratio of average potential energy to the average (3) 1.5 P1V1
0
kinetic energy of the vibrating system is
 (4) 2 P1V1
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PJPMMT1261219C1-3
11. AB is a semi infinite wire, O is a given point at 12. Circuit is in steady state, now suddenly a
distance d from A as shown in figure. P is any dielectric slab is inserted inside any one of the
point on wire and  is angle between OP and capacitors such that capacitance of that
AO. Charge per unit length on wire is given by capacitor becomes 4 times. Current through
   0 cos  where  0
is a positive constant. resistor just after the insertion is.
Electric field at point O (in usual co-ordinate
system) is –
(1) zero (2) very large current
3 2
(3) (4)
5R 5R
13. The value of apparent angles of dip at two
places measured in two mutually perpendicular
0 î  0 ˆj planes are 30° and 45°. The true angle of dip at

(1)
8 0 d 16   0 d
the place is :
 1
(1) tan–1  
0 0
(2) î  ˆj  2 
16   0 d 8  0 d
 1 
(2) tan–1 



 2 
0 î  0 ˆj
(3) s
16  0 d 8  0 d  4 
(3) tan–1  
 3 
 2 
0 î  0 ˆj
(4) tan–1  
(4)  3 
4  0 d 4  0 d
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PJPMMT1261219C1-4
14. A conducting rod which is hinged at center of a 15. In the circuit shown below, if the power
consumed by the 5 resistor is 10W. Then
conducting loop of radius 'a' which is fixed in a
power factor of circuit will be
horizontal plane. Another end of rod is sliding on
5 L 10
conducting loop as shown in figure. A resistor R
is connected between center and boundary of

~
v = 50 cost
loop. When rod is rotated with angular speed 
in vertical uniform magnetic field (B) then current

(1) 0.2
i at given instant when PCQ is right angle (2) 0.6
(Consider neglible resistance of rod and loop) (3) 0.4
(4) 0.8
16. A plane mirror is initially lying in y–z plane and

can rotate about z-axis as shown in figure. A
point object is fixed at (–  , 0 ) and mirror
rotates by 30° in clockwise direction then

distance travelled by image is
1 2
Ba
(1) 2
R
1 2
Ba
(2) 8
R
(1) 
3 2
Ba 
(3) 8 (2)
R 6

(3)
2
1 2
Ba
4 
(4) (4)
R 3
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PJPMMT1261219C1-5
17. An object is placed in front of a converging 19. The isotope 40K can decay to either 40Ca or
lens at a distance equal to twice the focal 40Ar, assume both decays have a half-life of
length f1 of the lens. On the other side of the
lens is a concave mirror of focal length f 2 1.26 × 109y. The ratio of the Ca produced to
separated from the lens by a distance 2(f 1+f2).
the Ar produced is 8.54/1 = 8.54. The sample
Light from the object passes rightward through
originally had only 40K. It now has equal
the lens, reflects from the mirror, passes
leftward through the lens, and forms a final 40K 40Ar,
amounts of and that is, the ratio of K
image of the object. What is the overall
magnification of the object ? to Ar is 1/1 = 1. How old is the sample?
f1
f2 (Take n(0.095) = –2.35)
(1) 4.28 × 109 years

O
(2) 2.14 × 109 years
2f1 2(f1+f2)
(3) 4.28 × 108 years
(1) 0.5 (4) 2.14 × 1010 years
(2) 1
(3) –0.5
(4) –1 20. Figure given below shows that transfer
characteristics of a CE transistor. Which of the

18. A neutron moving with kinetic energy k collides
following statements is false ?
head on with He+ atom which is initially at rest,
V0
and in ground state. If neutron rebounds back
with one fourth of its kinetic energy after
collision then minimum value of k so that two
photons can be obtained in collision is 0 0.6V 2V Vi
(1) At Vi = 0.4 V, transistor is in active state

approximately
(2) At Vi =1 V, it can be used as an amplifier
(1) 65 eV
(3) At Vi = 0.5 V, it can be used as a switch
(2) 258 eV
turned off
(3) 165 eV
(4) At Vi = 2.5 V, it can be used as a switch
(4) 60 eV
turned on
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PJPMMT1261219C1-6
22. Figure I shows two isotropic sources of light
(S1 and S2) that emit in phase at wavelength
 This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The 400 nm and at the same amplitude. A
answer to each question is NUMERICAL detection point P is shown on an x axis that

extends through source S1. The phase
VALUE with two digit integer and decimal upto
difference  between the light arriving at point
one digit. P from the two sources is to be measured as P
is moved along the x-axis from x = 0 out to
 If the numerical value has more than two
x = +The results up to x0 = 10 × 10–7 m are
decimal places truncate/round-off the value given in fig-II. On the way out to +, what is
to ONE decimal placed. the greatest value of x (in m) at which the
light arriving at P from S1 is exactly out of
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is
phase with the light arriving at P from S2?
6
chosen. y
(rad)
P 4
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases S1 x
S2 2
(I)
0 x(10–7m) x0
2h (II)
21. A small segment of length "a = " is cut
3
23. Figure represents a Carnot engine that works

along Z axis from a infinite sheet having
between temperatures T1 = 400 K and
surface current density J. The magnetic field at T2 = 150 K and drives a Carnot refrigerator
that works between temperatures T3 = 325 K
P (exactly above the midpoint of the cut) is
Q 
 0J
and T4 = 225 K. What is the ratio 10  3


?
(– î ) . The value of n is  Q1 
n
T1 T3
Y P
Q3
h
X Q1
a
W
Q4
Q2
T4
T2
Refrigerator
Engine
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PJPMMT1261219C1-7
24. Figure shows a communication system. The
output power is 10mW when input signal is
of 1.01 mW, then  is [Gain in dB = 10 log10
(P0/Pi)]
Input Loss 2dB km –1 Output

5.0 km
Amplifier gain = 10dB Amplifier gain = 20dB
25. In an experiment to determine the resistance
of a galvanometer by half deflection method,
the circuit shown is used. In one set of
readings, if R = 10 and S = 4 , then the
resistance of the galvanometer is (after
rounding off)
E K1
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PJPMMT1261219C1-8
PART – B 27. What is the molar solubility of Mn(OH)2 in a
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, buffer solution containing equal concentration

N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27,
of NH4 and NH3. Given that –
Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr
= 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,
KSP MnOH  4.5  1014 , Kb NH  1.8  105 .
As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, 2 3
Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
(1) 1.38 × 10–3 (2) 1.38 × 10–4
(3) 2.38 × 10–4 (4) 3.2 × 10–4
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and
(4) ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
28. The ratio of the average molecular kinetic
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option energy of UF6 to that of H2, both at 300 K, is :
is chosen. (atomic weights of U = 238u, F = 19u)

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 7 : 2
chosen (i.e. the question is
unanswered). (3) 176 : 1 (4) 2 : 7
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

29. A certain volume of hydroxyl amine (NH2OH)
solution was boiled with an excess of FeCl3

26. Select the incorrect statement :
solution to cause the reduction of Fe3+ ions
(1) Radial function [R(r)] part of  depends
according to the reaction :
only on principal quantum number 'n'.
Fe3+ + NH2OH  Fe2+ + N2O + H+ + H2O
(2) Angular function [Y (, )] part of  is
The resulting solution was estimated for
independent of 'n'.
Fe2+ ions with 0.5 M K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic
(3) 2 gives the probability density of finding
medium. If the volume of K2Cr2O7 solution and
electron at a particular point in space.
NH2OH solution used are found to be equal,
(4) Radial distribution function (4r2R2) gives what is the strength in g/L of NH2OH solution ?
the probability of the electron being (1) 49.5 g/L (2) 36.5 g/L
present at a distance r from the nucleus. (3) 24.0 g/L (4) 55.5 g/L
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30. Which of the following have an incorrect order 34. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1. If your
of ionization energy : automobile radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how
(1) Pb(IE) > Sn(IE)
may grams of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must
(2) Na+ (IE) > Mg+(IE)
(3) LI+(IE) < O+(IE) you add to get the freezing point of the
(4) Be+(IE) < C+(IE) solution lowered to –2.8ºC ?
(1) 72 g
31. LiH reacts with Al2Cl6 and B2H6 respectively.
(2) 93 g
Products formed are :
(3) 39 g
(1) AlH3 and LiB2H7
(2) AlH3 and LiBH4 (4) 27 g
(3) LiAlH4 and LiBH4

(4) LiAlH4 and LiBH3 35. Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH3 and X. Which of
the following is X?
32. In which of the following pairs, the two species
are isostructural ? (1) HClO4
(1) SF4 and XeF4 (2) HClO3

(2) SO32– and NO3–
(3) HClO
(3) BF3 and NF3
(4) HClO2
(4) BrO3– and XeO3
33. The correct statement in the following is- 36. Spin only magnetic moment of Gd3+ ion
(1) The ionic crystal of AgBr has Schottky
(Z= 64) is :
defect
(2) The coordination number of Na+ ion in (1) 3.62 BM
NaCl is 4 (2) 9.72 BM
(3) In ionic compounds havings Frenkel
(3) 7.93 BM
r
defect, the ratio  is high
r (4) 10.60 BM
(4) The unit cell having crystal parameters,

a  b  c,  = = 90° ,  = 120° is
hexagonal
CJPMMT1261219C1-10
37. Which of the following compounds may not be 40. Which product is NOT possible when mixture
obtained by the hydrolysis of xenon
of acetaldehyde and acetone heated in basic
hexafluoride ?
medium ?
(1) XeOF4 (2) XeO2F2
(3) XeO3 (4) XeO4 (1) CH3–CH=CH–CH=O
38. Which of the following statement is incorrect (2) CH3–CH=C–CH=O
about the extractive metallurgy of copper ? CH3
(1) Matte chiefly consists of iron sulphide O

and some ferrous oxide. (3) CH3–CH=CH–C–CH3
(2) The impurity of iron sulphide is removed
(4) CH3–C=CH–CH=O
as fusible slag, FeSiO3 during roasting.
CH3
(3) The copper pyrite is concentrated by froth
floatation process.
(4) Copper is obtained by self reduction in 41. Which is the correct code for following name
bessemer converter.
reactions?
39. Among the following reactions, which forms (a) Etard reaction NaO
(i) CH3–CH=O
salicylic acid (after acidification) ?
Cl
OH Na
(b) Finkelstein reaction (ii) CH3–CH–CH=O acetone
(i) + CHCl3 + NaOH 
CrO2Cl2
(c) Haloform reaction (iii) Ph–CH3
OH CS2,
(ii) + CCl4 + NaOH  NH2–NH2

(d) Wolff Kishner reaction (iv) Ph–CH=O
KOH
OH (1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv

(iii) + CO2 + NaOH 
(2) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv
COOH (3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(iv) + NaOH  (4) a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii
 (1) (i), (ii) (2) (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii) , (iii) (4) (i), (iv)
CJPMMT1261219C1-11
42. D-glucose and D-fructose can be differentiate 45. Which of the following phenols is most soluble
by : in aqueous sodium bicarbonate ?
(1) Fehling's solution (2) Tollen's reagent (1) 2,4-dihydroxyacetophenone
(3) Ph – NH – NH2 (4) Br2/H2O (2) p-cyanophenol
(3) 3,4-dicyanophenol
43. By which process carboxylic acid can be (4) 2,4,6-tricyanophenol
prepare :
(1) Reaction of a CH3MgBr with dry ice (CO2) SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20)
followed by acid hydrolysis.  This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The
(2) Oxidation of Ethanol by pyridinium chloro answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE
chromate (PCC). with two digit integer and decimal upto one digit.
(3) Oxidation of isopropanol by K2Cr2O7, H+.  If the numerical value has more than two decimal
(4) Reaction of benzaldehyde with Fehling places truncate/round-off the value to ONE
solution. decimal placed.
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option
is chosen.
44. The reaction of cyclohexane epoxide with
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
NaN3 in aqueous dioxane would give
OH OH
(1) (2)
46. Sum of denticity of following ligands are
N3 N3
Glycinate ion, Oxalate ion, o-phenathroline,
OH OH
diethylenetriamine, ethylenediamine,
(3) (4)
NH2 OH triphenylphosphine.
CJPMMT1261219C1-12
47. 6 moles of an ideal gas compressed
isothermally and reversibly from a volume of
10 litre to a volume of 1 litres at 27ºC. What is
the work done ?
(Take R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
48. The e.m.f. of a cell corresponding to the
reaction
Zn + 2H+ (aq)  Zn2+ (0.1M) + H2(g) (1 atm)
is 0.169 volt at 25ºC. Calculate the pH of the
solution at the hydrogen electrode.
EoZn2 / Zn = – 0.76 volt and EHo  / H = 0

2
49. What is the molecular mass of end product in
the following sequence of reactions ?
O
3   
Ca(OH) NH NH

 2   
2 
2
H2O KOH
CH2–OH
HIO4 (1) PhMgBr
50. (P) (Q)
CH2 – OH (2) H/H2O
(1) PCC
(R)
(2) CH3MgBr
(3) H
Report your answer as Molecular Mass of R

10
CJPMMT1261219C1-13
53. The equation of the common tangent to the
PART – C
circle (x – 3)2 + y2 = 9 and the parabola
 This section contains TWENTY (20) questions. y2 = 4x above the x-axis is
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and
(4) ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
(1) 3 y = 3x + 1
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option
is chosen. (2) 3 y = –(x + 3)
chosen (i.e. the question is (3) 3y=x+3
unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (4) 3 y = (3x + 1)
51. The complex z satisfies

2z  10  10i  5 3  5 ,then the least principal
54. Let f(x) = |x – 1| then
argument of z is
5  (1) f(x2) = (f(x))2
(1)
6
11 (2) f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)
(2)
12
3  (3) f(|x|) = |f(x)|
(3)
4
(4) f(x) +f(y)  f(x + y –1)  x,y  R
2 
(4)
3
52. Let a, b, c be real if ax2 + bx + c = 0 has two

55. The value of
real roots  and  where  < – 1 and  > 1
the which of the following relation is correct
 2   4   8   16 
16cos   .cos   cos   .cos   is
c b  15   15   15   15 
(1) 1 +   0
a a
c b (1) 1
(2) 1 +  0
a a
(2) 2
c b
(3) 1 +  1
a a (3) 22
c b
(4) 1 –  0 (4) 23
a a
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MJPMMT1261219C1-14
56. If (, ) is a point on the circle whose center is 59. If the function f(x) = x3 + ax2 + a2x + 2sin2x is
on the x-axis and which touch the line x + y = 0 strictly increasing  x  R, then a is
at (2, – 2) then the greatest value of  is (1)   3, 3 

 
(1) 4 – 2
(2)   5, 5 
 
(2) 6
(3)   2, 2 
(3) 4 + 2 2  
(4) 4 + 2 
(4) R  – 3, 3 
5 8 11 14 1  cos3 x
57. If S = + + + 60. lim is equal to
x 0 x sin x cos x
12.22.3 22.3 2.4 3 2.4 2.5 4 2.5 2.6
+ ........ upto terms. Then 4S is (1) 2/5
(1) 1 (2) 3/5
(2) 2 (3) 3/2
(3) 3 (4) 3/4
(4) 4
/2 1
x tan–1 x
61. If I1 =  0
sin x
dx and I2 = 
0
x
dx, then
58. f(x) is polynomial of degree 5 with leading
I1
coefficient is 1, f(4) = 0 if the curve y = |f(x)| the value of is
I2
and y = f(|x|) are same then f(5) is
(1) 1
(1) 405
(2) 2
(2) 205
1
(3)
(3) 305 2
(4) 504 (4) 3
MJPMMT1261219C1-15
x 2

 1 dx 1
65. If  is parameter then the locus of the point of
62. Let k(x) =  3
x3  3x  6
and k(-1) =
3
2 intersection of the lines xsin+(1–cos)y= asin
then the value of k(-2) is and xsin – (1 + cos) y + asin = 0 is
(1) 2 (1) x2 – y2 = a2
(2) 3 (2) x2 + y2 = a2
(3) 4 (3) y2 = ax
(4) 6 (4) x2 = ay
63. How many words can be formed by using 2 66. Number of solutions of the trigonometric
consonant and 2 vowels from the word. equation
‘TOMORROW’.     
cos2  (cos x  sin x )  – tan2  x  tan2 x  =1
 2   4 
(1) 6
(2) 72 in (–2, 2] is
(3) 78 (1) 4
(4) 80 (2) 2
(3) 8
64. The distance of the point (1, 2, 3) from the (4) 0
plane x + y – z = 5 measured along the
straight line x = y = z is: 67. The negation of ~ sv(~ r  s) is equivalent to
(1) 5 3 (1) s  ~ r
(2) 10 3 (2) s  (r  ~ s)
(3) s  (r  s)
(3) 3 10
(4) s  r
(4) 3 5
MJPMMT1261219C1-16
x2 – 1 SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20)
68. If f(x) = for every real number x then
x2  1  This section contains FIVE (05) questions. The
the minimum value of f(x) answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE
with two digit integer and decimal upto one digit.
(1) does not exist because f is unbounded  If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places truncate/round-off the value to ONE
(2) is not attained even though f is bounded
decimal placed.
(3) is 1  Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option
is chosen.
(4) is –1
 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
71. The mean deviation of an ungrouped data is

80 if each observation is decreased by 5%.
Then the new mean deviation is -
 1 0 0
69. If A = 0 1 1 ; 6A–1 = A2 + cA + d then
72. If the distance from origin to the normal to the
0 – 2 4
curve y = e2x + x2 at the point x = 0 is k then
(c, d) is – the value of (5k)2 is -
(1) (–6, 11) 73. A three digit number, which is multiple of 11, is
chosen at random. Probability that the number
(2) (–11, 6)
k
so chosen is also a multiple of 9 is . Then
(3) (11, 6) 27
find the value of 10k.
(4) (6, 11)
74. Equation of curve passing through (1, 1) and

satisfying differential equation
70. The area enclosed between the curve y = ax2
dy
x  y(xex  n y) is x ny  ex (x  ) + C.
and x = ay2(a > 0) is 1 sq unit then value of a is dx
Then  is equal to
1
(1)
3
75. In a PQR, S and T are points an QR and PR
1 respectively, such that QS = 3SR and
(2)
2 PT = 4TR. Let M be the point of intersection of
QM p
(3) 1 PS and QT and = where p and q are
MT q
1 coprime, then p + q is equal to
(4)
3
MJPMMT1261219C1-17

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Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Type of Questions and Marking Schemes

SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks : 80)

 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened

 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 20)

and decimal upto one digit.

 Full Marks : +4 If the corresponding to the answer is darkened

 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : ………………………………………………… ROLL NO. :………………..………………………..

Resonance Eduventures Limited

 Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

FOR INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS OMR LOOKS LIKE :

 For example, if answer ‘DOUBLEDIGIT’ integer type below :

Resonance Eduventures Limited

with different velocities. In the first shot, the

chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).

 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

V of the river, the acceleration due to gravity g,

boulder that can be swept by the river, when

speed of the river increases by 1%. 2 2

Space for Rough Work

line on a frictionless horizontal surface. They of fluid particle at (x, y) is given by

constants. Shape of streamlines for x > 0 is

straight line. The final speed of the object C is: y y

(3) 4m/s (4) 3m/s

6. A soap bubble is blown at the end of a

Space for Rough Work

I : by an equal amount of length and the effective acceleration due to gravity

(3) Equal for steel & copper in case-II (3) 3 v

(4) Greater for steel than copper in case-II (5 2 – 1) v

8. Choose the correct alternative from the following

(Assume  to be the angular frequency of the

Space for Rough Work

Electric field at point O (in usual co-ordinate

(1) zero (2) very large current

13. The value of apparent angles of dip at two

places measured in two mutually perpendicular

0 ˆi  0 ˆj planes are 30° and 45°. The true angle of dip at

Space for Rough Work

is connected between center and boundary of

loop. When rod is rotated with angular speed 

in vertical uniform magnetic field (B) then current

16. A plane mirror is initially lying in y–z plane and

rotates by 30° in clockwise direction then

Space for Rough Work

(1) 4.28 × 109 years

characteristics of a CE transistor. Which of the

with one fourth of its kinetic energy after

collision then minimum value of k so that two

photons can be obtained in collision is 0 0.6V 2V Vi

(1) At Vi = 0.4 V, transistor is in active state

Space for Rough Work

answer to each question is NUMERICAL detection point P is shown on an x axis that

23. Figure represents a Carnot engine that works

Space for Rough Work

output power is 10mW when input signal is

of 1.01 mW, then  is [Gain in dB = 10 log10

Input Loss 2dB km –1 Output

Amplifier gain = 10dB Amplifier gain = 20dB

25. In an experiment to determine the resistance