Cy8151 Engineering Chemistry MCQ

Department of Science and Humanities MCQ for Regulations 2017
2. Select the incorrect statement from the

following option.
CY8151 - a) Water which does not form lather with
soap and forms white scum is called hard
Engineering water
b) Hard water contains dissolved calcium and
Chemistry magnesium salts in it
c) In hard water, cleansing quality of soap is
depressed
Multiple Choice d) Due to the presence of dissolved hardness-
producing salts, the boiling point of water is
Questions (MCQ) depressed
Answer: d
Reg. 2017 Explanation: Due to the presence of

dissolved hardness-producing salts, the
boiling point of water is elevated. Elevation
in boiling point is one of the most important
colligative property. All the other options are
correct.
UNIT I WATER AND ITS 3. Select the incorrect statement from the
TREATMENT following option.
a) Permanent hardness is due to dissolved
chlorides and sulphates of calcium and
TOPIC 1.1 HARDNESS OF magnesium
WATER - TYPES - EXPRESSION b) It can be removed by mere boiling of water
OF HARDNESS c) It is also known as non-alkaline hardness
d) The difference between the total hardness
1. Hardness of water is due to the presence of and the alkaline hardness gives the non-
salts of ____________ alkaline hardness
a) Potassium
b) Chlorine Answer: b
c) Magnesium Explanation: Unlike temporary hardness,
d) Boron permanent hardness is not destroyed on
boiling. Varoius methods are adopted for the
Answer: c removal of permanent hardness like zeolites,
Explanation: Hardness of water is due to the lime-soda process etc. All the other options
presence of salts of calcium and magnesium. are correct.
Hard drinking water may have moderate
health benefits, but can pose serious problems 4. Alkaline hardness is due to the presence of
in industrial settings, where water hardness is bicarbonate, carbonate and hydroxides of the
monitored to avoid costly breakdowns in hardness-producing metal ions.
boilers, cooling towers, and other equipment a) True
that handles water. b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkaline hardness is due to the
1
presence of bicarbonate, carbonate and a) 60

hydroxides of the hardness-producing metal b) 47.5
ions. This is also called carbonate hardness. It c) 82
is temporary and can be removed easily by d) 68
boiling.
Answer: a
5. Select the incorrect statement from the Explanation: The molar mass of MgSO4 is
following option. 120 and its n-factor is 2. So, chemical
a) The taste of hard water is better than soft equivalent = Molar mass/ n-factor = 60.
water
b) The dissolved calcium in hard water can 8. Which of the following is not a unit of
help to produce strong teeth hardness?
c) Hard water coats the lead piping with a a) Parts per million
layer of insoluble calcium carbonate which b) Degree centigrade
prevents poisonous lead dissolving in water c) Degree clarke
d) Boiler feed water should also be hard in d) Degree French
nature
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: Degree centigrade is not a unit
Explanation: Boiler feed water should be of hardness. Degree centigrade is the unit of
free from hardness otherwise explosion may temperature. The unit for hardness is ppm
occur. All the other options are correct. The (parts per million), degree clarke and degree
taste of hard water is better than soft water french. All these three units are inter-related.
and dissolved calcium in hard water can help
to produce strong teeth. Hard water coats the 9. 1 degree Clarke = 1 part of CaCO3 per
lead piping with a layer of insoluble calcium _____________ parts of water.
carbonate which prevents poisonous lead a) 10,000
dissolving in water. b) 30,000
c) 50,000
6. Hardness of water is conventionally d) 70,000
expressed in terms of equivalent amount of
____________ Answer: d
a) H2CO3 Explanation: 1 degree Clarke = 1 part of
b) MgCO3 CaCO3 per 70,000 parts of water. It is
c) CaCO3 calculated mathematically.
d) Na2 CO3
10. 1 ppm = ____________
Answer: c a) 0.07 0Fr
Explanation: Hardness of water is b) 0.70Fr
conventionally expressed in terms of c) 0.10Fr
equivalent amount of CaCO3. The total water d) 0.010Fr
hardness is the sum of the molar
concentrations of Ca2+ and Mg2+, in mol/L or Answer: c
mmol/L units. Explanation: 1 ppm = 0.10Fr. It is calculated
mathematically.
7. The chemical equivalent of MgSO4 salt is
____________
2
11. How many grams of MgCO3 dissolved c) Acidic soap

per litre gives 84 ppm hardness? d) Alcoholic soap
a) 70.56 mg/L
b) 48.23 mg/L Answer: d
c) 81.49mg/L Explanation: Total hardness of water can be
d) 66.12 mg/L determined by titrating the fixed volume of
water against the standard alcoholic soap
Answer: a solution.
Explanation: 70.56 mg/L of MgCO3
3. The end point of the titration in the soap
dissolved per litre gives 84 ppm hardness. titration method is ___________
a) Formation of lather
12. EDTA method for hardness determination
b) Formation of salts
is a less accurate and inconvenient procedure.
c) Formation of carbonates
a) True
d) Formation of bicarbonates
b) False
Answer: a
Answer: b
Explanation: The end point of the titration in
Explanation: EDTA method for hardness
the soap titration method is at the formation
determination is a more accurate, convenient
of lather that stands for about two minutes.
and rapid procedure. Ethylene
diaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), is an amino
4. The sodium soap will precipitate all the
poly-carboxylic acid and a colorless, water-
hardness causing ions into their respective
soluble solid.
__________
a) Carbonates
TOPIC 1.2 ESTIMATION OF b) Bicarbonates
HARDNESS OF WATER BY c) Stereates
d) Chlorides
EDTA
Answer: c
1. Estimation of hardness can be determined Explanation: The sodium soap will
by ________ types. precipitate all the hardness causing ions into
a) 2 their respective stereates in the beginning of
b) 3 the soap titration method.
c) 4
d) 5 5. The water which form lather directly with
the soap is called __________
Answer: a a) Hard water
Explanation: Estimation of hardness can be b) Soft water
determined by two types. They are Soap c) Partially hard water
titration method and EDTA method. d) Very hard water
2. Total hardness of water can be determined Answer: b

by titrating the fixed volume of water against Explanation: The water which forms lather
the standard ___________ solution. directly with the soap is called soft water. The
a) Soap water which forms precipitates when reacted
b) Alkaline soap with soap is called as the hard water.
3
6. EDTA method is also called as _________ complex and dye are different. EDTA extracts
a) Complexometric titration the metal ions from the metal ion dye to form
b) Complex titration stable complex.
c) Complement titration
d) Complexion titration 10. The change in colour is sharper at the PH
of ________
Answer: a a) 5
Explanation: EDTA method is also called as b) 10
the complexometric titration. In EDTA c) 15
method is ethylene diamine tetra acetate is the d) 20
compound used to remove the hardness.
Answer: b
7. The indicator used in the EDTA method is Explanation: The change in the colour of the
___________ ions is sharper at the PH of the 10 than that of
a) Benzene the other ranges of the PH.
b) Phenopthalene
c) Ethylene diamine 11. At PH=10, the metal dye complex has the
d) Erichrome black T colour ________
a) Wine red
Answer: d b) Blue
Explanation: The indicator used in the EDTA c) Green
method is erichrome black T. The hardness d) Pink
causing ions like Ca++ and Mg++ forms the
unstable complexes with reacting the Answer: a
erichrome black T. Explanation: At the PH=10, the metal dye
complex ion has the colour is wine red but the
8. EDTA has the ability to form _________ dye itself has the blue colour at the PH of 10.
with metal ions.
a) Stable complexes 12. To prepare EDTA solution _________
b) Unstable complexes grams of EDTA is dissolved in the one litre of
c) Salts water.
d) Acids a) 1
b) 2
Answer: a c) 3
Explanation: EDTA has more affinity to d) 4
form stable complexes by reacting with metal
ions. The EDTA forms the stable EDTA Answer: d
complexes. Explanation: To prepare EDTA solution, four
grams of the EDTA is dissolved in the one
9. The colour of dye metal complex and dye litre of the water. This is the standard EDTA
are ___________ solution used to determine the hardness of
a) Same water.
b) Different
c) Same in only some cases 13. _________ drops of indicator is used in
d) Cannot be known the EDTA method.
a) 1 to 2 drops
Answer: b b) 2 to 3 drops
Explanation: The colour of dye metal
4
c) 2 to 4 drops 1. Water is mainly used in boilers for the

d) 5 to 8 drops generation of ________________
a) Power
Answer: a b) Electricity
Explanation: 1 to 2 drops of the indicator is c) Steam
used in the EDTA method. 0.5gms of the dye d) Current
is dissolved into the 100ml of alcohol and the
indicator of two to three drops is added. Answer: c
Explanation: Water is mainly used in boilers
14. The buffer used in the EDTA solution for the generation of steam. This steam is
must have the PH of ___________ further used in the power plants for the
a) 20 generation of electricity.
b) 15
c) 10 2. Which of the following should not be a
d) 5 composition of boiler-feed water?
a) Hardness should be below 0.2ppm
Answer: c b) Its caustic alkalinity should lie between
Explanation: The buffer used in the EDTA 0.15 to 0.45 ppm
solution must have the PH of 10. Freshly c) Its soda alkalinity should be 0.45-1 ppm
prepared solutions are more affective to have d) Its caustic alkalinity should be 1.5-2 ppm
the accurate results.
Answer: d
15. The standard hard water is prepared such Explanation: Its caustic alkalinity should be
that each ml must contain ________ mg of 0.15-0.45 ppm. All the other options are
CaCO3. correct. Hardness should be below 0.2ppm,
a) 1 caustic alkalinity should lie between 0.15 to
b) 2 0.45 ppm and soda alkalinity should be 0.45-
c) 3 1 ppm.
d) 4
3. Which of the following is not a result of
Answer: a the excess of impurity in boiler-feed?
Explanation: The 1g of pure CaCO3 is a) Scale and sludge formation
dissolved in the minimum amount of b) Decomposition
concentrated HCL diluted to 1ltr of distilled c) Corrosion, priming and foaming
water such that it contains 1mg of CaCO3. d) Caustic embrittlement
Answer: b
TOPIC 1.3 BOILER TROUBLES Explanation: Excess of impurities in boiler-
(SCALE AND SLUDGE) - feed results in scale and sludge formation,
corrosion, priming, foaming and caustic
TREATMENT OF BOILER FEED embrittlement. It does not contribute to the
WATER - INTERNAL decomposition process.
TREATMENT (PHOSPHATE,
COLLOIDAL, SODIUM 4. If the precipitate formed is soft, loose and
slimy, these are __________ and if the
ALUMINATE AND CALGON precipitate is hard and adhering on the inner
CONDITIONING). EXTERNAL wall, it is called _____________
TREATMENT a) Sludges, scale
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b) Scale, sludges c) Corrosion

c) Sludges, rodent d) Caustic embrittlement
d) Scale, rodent
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The propulsion of water into
Explanation: If the precipitate formed is soft, steam drum by extremely rapid, almost
loose and slimy, these are sludges and if the explosive boiling of water at the heating
precipitate is hard and adhering on the inner surface is called priming. Priming is
wall, it is called scale. A rodent is a small necessary as it removes all the air voids from
furry mammal whose teeth never stop the passage of water.
growing.
8. The phenomenon during which the boiler
5. Which of the following option is incorrect material becomes brittle due to accumulation
about the sludges? of caustic substances is known as
a) Sludges are soft, loose and slimy ___________
precipitate a) Foaming
b) They are non-adherent deposits and can be b) Priming
easily removed c) Corrosion
c) Formed generally at heated portions of the d) Caustic embrittlement
boiler
d) Can be removed by blow down operation Answer: d
Explanation: The phenomenon during which
Answer: c the boiler material becomes brittle due to
Explanation: Sludges are formed generally at accumulation of caustic substances is known
colder portions of the boiler. All the other as caustic embrittlement. This can be
options are correct. Sludges are soft, loose prevented by using sodium phosphate instead
and slimy precipitate, non-adherent deposits of sodium carbonate as softening reagents.
and can be easily removed by blow down
operation. 9. Foaming is caused by the formation of
___________
6. The scales decrease the efficiency of boiler a) Acids
and chances of explosions are also there. b) Alcohols
a) True c) Oils and alkalis
b) False d) Ketones
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The scales decrease the Explanation: Foaming is caused by the
efficiency of boiler and chances of explosions formation of oils and alkalis. Oils and Alkalis
are also there. Scale is the precipitate that is becomes sticky and greasy on the surface and
hard and adhering on the inner wall. hence results in foaming.
7. The propulsion of water into steam drum 10. Corrosion is the decay or disintegration of
by extremely rapid, almost explosive boiling boiler body material either due to chemical or
of water at the heating surface is called electrochemical reaction with environment.
___________ a) True
a) Foaming b) False
b) Priming
6
Answer: a is a very effective method to reduce the

Explanation: Corrosion is the decay or hardness of the water.
disintegration of boiler body material either
due to chemical or electrochemical reaction 4. The total __________ are removed
with environment. It converts a refined metal completely in the ion exchange process.
to a more stable form, such as its oxide, a) Dissolved gases
hydroxide, or sulphide. b) Dissolved solids
c) Dissolved solvents
d) Dissolved other impurities
TOPIC 1.4 ION EXCHANGE
PROCESS Answer: b
Explanation: The total dissolved solids are
1. Ion exchange process is also called as removed completely in the ion exchange
___________ process. In lime soda process, the total
a) Permutit’s process dissolved solids are reduced only.
b) Demineralization
c) Zeolite process 5. In ion exchange process, the iron and
d) Lime soda process manganese ions are removed from the water.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Ion exchange process is also
called as the demineralization. The zeolite Answer: a
process is otherwise called as the ion Explanation: In ion exchange process, not
exchange process. only iron and manganese ions are removed
from the water but also all the cations are
2. The operational cost of the ion exchange removed.
process is __________
a) High 6. Water softened during __________ method
b) Low will be ideal in boilers.
c) Very high a) Zeolite method
d) Very low b) Lime soda method
c) Demineralisation method
Answer: b d) Permutit’s process
Explanation: The capital cost of the ion
exchange process is very high. The Answer: b
operational cost of the ion exchange process Explanation: Water softened during the
is about low. demineralisation method is completely free
from all the impurities and flaws. So, the
3. The hardness in the ion exchange process water after the softening by this method will
is reduced to ___________ be ideal for boilers.
a) 0-1ppm
b) 0-2ppm 7. Ion exchange process is the clean process
c) 0-3ppm because it has ___________
d) 0-4ppm a) Sludge formation
b) No sludge formation
Answer: b c) Little sludge is formed
Explanation: The hardness of the ion d) Other precipitates are formed
exchange process is reduced to 0 to 2ppm. It
7
Answer: b a) More
Explanation: In ion exchange process, there b) Less
is no formation of sludge. So, it is called as c) Very less
the clean process. d) Very high
8. The regeneration of acids and alkalis in ion Answer: a

exchange process is __________ Explanation: The initial equipment in the ion
a) Cheaper exchange process is more. Continuous supply
b) Costlier of softened water can be made available by
c) Time taking providing storage facilities.
d) Hard process
12. The residual hardness after the treatment
Answer: b of water is about __________
Explanation: The one of the disadvantages of a) 1 ppm
the ion exchange process is the regeneration b) Less than 1ppm
of the acids and alkalis in ion exchange c) 2 ppm
process is costlier. d) Less than 2pmm
9. In ion exchange process, the cation Answer: d

exchange resin is generated by passing Explanation: The residual hardness after the
____________ treatment of the water is about less than
a) Acids 2ppm. So, they are suitable for the high
b) Dilute acids pressure boilers.
c) Alkalis
d) Dilute alkalis 13. The continuous supply of soft water can
be provided by having ____________
Answer: b a) Storage facilities
Explanation: In ion exchange process, the b) Required amount of ppm
cation exchange resin is generated by passing c) High pressure boilers
the dilute acids. The anion exchange resin is d) 1ppm
generated by passing alkali.
Answer: a
10. In the case of the zeolites, ion exchange Explanation: The continuous supply of soft
process do not function properly because of water can be provided by having storage
the __________ facilities and also two columns of each resin.
a) Turbidity
b) Suspended matter 14. The cost of the resins used in the ion
c) Turbidity and suspended matter exchange process is _________
d) Neither turbidity nor suspended matter a) High
b) Low
Answer: c c) Moderate
Explanation: In case of zeolites, ion d) Depends on water
exchange process do not function properly
because of the turbidity and suspended matter Answer: a
as they send to cover the surface of the resin. Explanation: The cost of the resins used in
the ion exchange process is high and the
11. The initial equipment in the ion exchange regeneration of the resins in also a costly
process is ___________ process.
8
15. The mineral free water is not used in Answer: c

__________ Explanation: Zeolites are complex
a) Pharmaceuticals compound of Aluminium, silica and soda. It
b) Cosmetics has the property of removing calcium and
c) Explosives magnesium from water and substituting
d) Drinking sodium in their place.
Answer: d 4. The color of the artificial zeolite permutit

Explanation: In drinking water some is ____________
M
minerals must be present. In pharmaceuticals, a) Grey
cosmetics, explosives and in other b) Yellow
O
manufacturing processes, the mineral free c) Green
water is used. d) White
C
Answer: d
T.
TOPIC 1.5 ZEOLITE PROCESS Explanation: The artificial zeolite permutit
has a large and lustrous grain. They are white
1. In which process of water softening, ion in color and has an appearance of coarse
O
exchange phenomenon takes place? sand.
a) Lime soda process
b) Zeolite process
c) Boiling
d) Demineralization process
SP
5. Natural zeolite is mainly processed from
____________
a) White sand
G
b) Green sand
Answer: b c) Grey sand
LO
Explanation: In the zeolite process, calcium d) Red sand

and magnesium are removed from hard water
by ion exchange phenomenon. Answer: b
Explanation: The natural zeolite is mainly
.B
2. In which process of water softening, the processed from Green sand, which is also
chemicals are added to remove hardness from called as Glauconite. It has lesser exchange
17
water? value than artificial zeolite.

a) Lime soda process
b) Zeolite process 6. The color of the natural zeolite is
____________
-R
c) Boiling
d) Demineralization process a) Green
b) Grey
SE
Answer: a c) Black
Explanation: In the Lime soda process, lime d) Blue
and soda are added to remove temporary and
permanent hardness from water. Answer: a
C
Explanation: The color of the natural zeolite

3. Zeolites are complex compound of is green as it is processed from Glauconite
____________ which is green in color. It has an exchange
a) Aluminium and lime value of 6500-9000gm of hardness per m3 of
b) Silica and soda zeolite.
c) Aluminium, silica and soda
d) Lime and soda
9
7. The chemical formula of Permutit is the zeolite particles

____________ d) Zero hardness can be occurred
a) SiOAl2O3Na2O
b) SiO2Al2O3Na2O Answer: c
Explanation: The zeolite process is
c) SiO2Al2O3NaO unsuitable for highly turbid water where
d) SiO3Al2O3Na2O suspended impurities get deposited around
the zeolite particles.
Answer: b
Explanation: The chemical formula of 11. The zeolite process is unsuitable for water
Permutit is SiO2Al2O3Na2O. The increase in containing iron and manganese.
the value of SiO2 increases its resistance to a) True
b) False
aggressive attacks.
Answer: a
8. Permutit has an exchange value of
Explanation: Iron and manganese bearing
________ grams of hardness per m3 of water deposit hydroxides on the surface of
zeolite. zeolite or react with zeolite to substitute iron
a) 10,000 and manganese for sodium, which is an
b) 20,000-30,000 irreversible reaction. This makes the zeolite
c) 35,000-40,000 process unsuitable.
d) 40,000-50,000
Answer: c TOPIC 1.6 DESALINATION OF

Explanation: Permutit has an exchange value BRACKISH WATER
of 35,000-40,000 grams of hardness per m3 of
zeolite. They absorb moisture from the 1. The example of brackish water is
atmosphere and should be kept in a dry place. ___________
a) Ground water
9. The thickness of the layers of filter sand of b) Rain water
zeolite softener is ____________ c) Sea water
a) 20cm d) Underground water
b) 30cm
c) 40cm Answer: c
d) 100cm Explanation: The example of brackish water
is sea water. Ground water, underground
Answer: d water and rain water are not brackish water.
Explanation: The thickness of the layers of Sea water is also saline in nature and not fit
filter sand of zeolite softener lies in the range for domestic purpose.
of 75 to 150cm and their functioning is
similar to the rapid sand filter. 2. Which of the following technique is not
used for the desalination of brackish water?
10. Which of the following is a disadvantage a) Electrolysis
of the zeolite process? b) Electrodialysis
a) No sludge is formed c) Reverse osmosis
b) The process is almost automatic d) Distillation
c) Suspended impurities get deposited around
10
Answer: a 6. In electrodialysis cell, the pressure is about

Explanation: Electrolysis technique is not ___________
used for the desalination of brackish water. a) 2 kg/m2
Electrodialysis, reverse osmosis and b) 3 kg/m2
distillation are the few techniques used for
desalination of brackish water. c) 5-6 kg/m2
d) 10 kg/m2
3. Salt cannot be separated from brackish
water by freezing. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: Electrodialysis is an electrically
b) False driven separation conducted at very low
pressure-driven of about 5-6 kg/m2.
Answer: b
Explanation: Salt can be separated from 7. Electrodialysis is an electrically driven
brackish water by freezing. separation conducted at a very low pressure-
driven, size-exclusion filtering process.
4. Electrodialysis is based on the fact that the a) True
ions present in saline water migrate towards b) False
their respective electrodes under the influence
of applied ___________ Answer: a
a) Current Explanation: Electrodialysis is an electrically
b) Resistance driven separation conducted at a very low
c) Conductance pressure-driven, size-exclusion filtering
d) EMF process. Electrodialysis is used to transport
salt ions from one solution through ion-
Answer: d exchange membranes to another solution
Explanation: Electrodialysis is based on the under the influence of an applied electric
fact that the ions present in saline water potential difference.
migrate towards their respective electrodes
under the influence of applied emf. The 8. The ion-exchange membrane are
potential difference generated between the electrically conductive and are not permeable
elctrodes is the main cause of flow of to ___________ flow, even under pressure.
electrons. a) Electron
b) Oil
5. The cation selective membrane is c) Fluorine
embedded with functional groups of d) Water
___________
a) Positive charge Answer: d
b) Negative charge Explanation: The ion-exchange membrane
c) Both positive as well as negative charge are electrically conductive and impermeable
d) Neutral to water flow, even under pressure. Electrons
can easily flow through these membranes.
Answer: b
Explanation: The cation selective membrane 9. Select the incorrect statement from the
is embedded with functional groups of following option.
negative charge as it attracts only positive a) Electrodialysis reversal (EDR) was
charges towards them. introduced in the commercial sector to
improve electrodialysis process
11
b) The EDR process and conventional ED Answer: d

unit operates on the same principle, except at Explanation: The osmotic pressure of sea
intervals of several times an hour water is 2.45 Mpa. The concentration of salt
c) The reversal feature is useful in breaking in sea water is 32000-35000 mg/l. The
up films, scales and other deposits applied pressure on the RO equipment is 5.6-
d) Electrodialysis process is not economical 6.
as per capital cost
3. Membrane permeation rate increases
Answer: d proportionally to effective pressure.
Explanation: Electrodialysis process is a) True
economical as per capital cost and operational b) False
expenses are concerned. All the other options
are correct. Answer: a
Explanation: Although membrane
10. Which one of the following is not a cation permeation rate increases proportionally to
exchanger? effective pressure, the highest recommended
a) Amberlite applied pressure of commercial membranes
b) Triolite presently available is 7.0 Mpa.
c) Dowex
d) Duolite 4. RO membranes are made of _______
a) Plastic
Answer: b b) Cotton
Explanation: Triolite is not a cation c) Silk
exchanger. Amberlite, dowex and duolite are d) Polymer
some of the examples of the cation exchanger.
Answer: d
Explanation: The highest recommended
TOPIC 1.7 REVERSE OSMOSIS. applied pressure of commercial membranes
presently available is 7.0 Mpa; beyond which
1. The ________ the salt rejection, the better compaction will start to occur due to the fact
the system is performing. that RO membranes are made of polymers.
a) Higher
b) Lower 5. Concentrated seawater which is called
c) Moderate _________
d) Poor a) Permeate
b) Brine
Answer: a c) RO water
Explanation: The higher the salt rejection, d) Salt water
the better the system is performing. A low
salt rejection can mean that the membranes Answer: b
require cleaning or replacement. Explanation: When fresh water is separated
from seawater, concentrated seawater which
2. What is the osmotic pressure for sea water? is called brine and is retained on the surface
a) 1.5 Mpa of the RO membrane.
b) 1.8 Mpa
c) 2.3 Mpa 6. The osmotic pressure of the brine increases
d) 2.45 Mpa proportionally to the salt concentration.
12
a) True upper limit is 40°C. RO systems operate at

b) False 25°C usually.
Answer: a 10. What is the design temperature of RO

Explanation: The salt concentration and the systems?
osmotic pressure of the brine are related a) 20˚C
proportionally, i.e., the osmotic pressure of b) 25˚C
the brine increases as the salt concentration c) 30˚C
increases. d) 35˚C
M
7. The upper limit of brine concentration is Answer: b
O
______ times the normal sea water. Explanation: RO systems are usually
a) 1.5 designed to operate at 25°C and water flux
C
b) 2 falls by 20–25 percent when water
c) 2.5 temperature is lowered by 10°C.
T.
d) 3
11. What is the operating pH for RO systems?
Answer: c a) 2-3
O
Explanation: The upper limit of the brine b) 4-6
concentration is usually fixed. The upper c) 5-7
limit is normally 1.6-2.5 times that of the
normal seawater.
SP
d) 8-9
Answer: c
G
8. The water flux of RO membranes ______ Explanation: The pH of seawater is 8–8.5 in
as water viscosity lowers. general. The pH is reduced to 5-7 in order to
LO
a) Increases reduce scaling on the surface and chemical

b) Decreases deterioration of the RO membrane.
c) Alters
d) Fluctuates 12. Calculate the number of membranes
.B
required for the following data:

Answer: a Flow: 535 m3/h.
17
Explanation: When the water viscosity is

Area: 400 m2
lowered, the water flux of RO membranes
Flux considered: 12 lmh
increases and the water viscosity is lowered
a) 112
by an increase in temperature. Thus, the
-R
b) 115
higher the temperature better is the flux.
c) 117
d) 120
SE
9. What is the maximum acceptable limit of

temperature for RO?
Answer: a
a) 20˚C
Explanation: Number of membranes is
b) 30˚C
C
calculated based on the flow and area. Flux is

c) 40˚C
generally fixed based on the TDS present in
d) 50˚C
the raw water. Number of membranes = Flow
Answer: c x 1000/flux/area. A number of membranes =
Explanation: In order to reduce the effects of 535/400/12=112.
temperature to a minimum, the acceptable
13. Calculate the recovery for the following
data:
13
Product Flow: 535 m3/h. a) 30-40 LMH

Feed flow : 635 m3/h. b) 40-50 LMH
Flux considered: 12 lmh c) 20-30 LMH
d) 12-18 LMH
a) 80%
b) 85% Answer: c
c) 90% Explanation: The flux increases with
d) 75% increase in pressure. It also increases with
increase in temperature. In case of bore well
Answer: b
water, the flux considered is 20-30 LMH.
Explanation: Recovery= Feed flow/Permeate
flow. In this case recovery is 85%. This is 17. What is the flux considered while
arrived by 535/635*100=85%. designing a reverse osmosis system for
14. What is the thumb rule to consider for treating surface water?
osmotic pressure? a) 15-22 LMH
b) 22-30 LMH
a) 1 psi for every 86 ppm of Na
c) 12-15 LMH
b) 2 psi for every 86ppm of Na
d) 30-35 LMH
c) 1 psi for every 43 ppm of Na
d) 2 psi for every 43 ppm of Na
Answer: a
Explanation: The flux to be considered
Answer: a
depends on the nature of the water to be
Explanation: The tendency of a pure solution
treated. The flux is used to determine the
constituting low solute concentration to flow
number of membranes required for the
into solution constituting higher solute
treatment system. In the case of treating
concentration is known as osmosis. When
surface water by a conventional method the
pressure greater than osmotic pressure is
flux to be considered is 15-22 LMH.
applied then reverse osmosis takes place. The
thumb rule for the consideration of osmotic
18. What is the flux considered while
pressure is 1 psi for every 86 ppm of Na.
designing a reverse osmosis system for
treating surface water with UF system?
a) 15-20 LMH
designing a reverse osmosis system for
treating RO permeate? b) 20-30 LMH
a) 30-40 LMH c) 12-15 LMH
d) 30-35 LMH
b) 12-18 LMH
c) 20-25 LMH Answer: b
d) 25-30 LMH
Explanation: The flux to treat surface water
Answer: a by a conventional method and to treat by UF
Explanation: Flux is the amount of water differs. Conventional method includes Dual
flowing through a particular area. This is media filters. In case the surface water is
treated by conventional, the flux considered
dependent both on the nature of water and the
should be around 20-30 LMH.
membrane surface area. The flux considered
for RO permeate is 30-40 LMH. 19. How is Net driving pressure
mathematically expressed?
designing a reverse osmosis system for a) Net driving pressure = Pf – 0.5 * DP – Pp -
treating bore well water? Posmavg
14
b) Net driving pressure = 0.5 * DP –Pp – such cannot hold more water. Sponges with
Posmavg more tiny holes can absorb more water than
c) Net driving pressure = Pf – 0.5 * DP – Pp the sponges with less tiny holes and thus
leads to the absorption process.
d) Net driving pressure = Pf * DP – Pp -
Posmavg 2. What do you mean by the term “Sorption”?
a) Attachment
Answer: a b) Detachment
Explanation: Net driving pressure = Pf – 0.5 c) Diffusion
* DP – Pp -Posmavg. The net driving pressure d) Thermal Expansion
is the pressure required to adequately sustain Answer: a
osmotic pressure. Here Pf is the feed pressure. Explanation: Sorption is a physical and
DP is the pressure drop and Pp is the chemical process by which one substance
Permeate pressure. becomes attached to another. The reverse of
sorption is desorption.
3. The desorption curve is higher than the

adsorption curve.
UNIT II SURFACE a) True
b) False
CHEMISTRY AND
CATALYSIS Answer: a
Explanation: Theoretically, desorption curve
is higher than adsorption curve in low
TOPIC 2.1 ADSORPTION: pressure area if the material is mesoporous
TYPES OF ADSORPTION, (2-50nm). If the material is microporous
ADSORPTION OF SOLUTE (<2nm), both curves should be matched
together.
FROM SOLUTIONS,
ADSORPTION ISOTHERMS, 4. Which of the following isotherm is
FREUNDLICH'S ADSORPTION applicable to physical adsorption?
ISOTHERM, LANGMUIR'S a) Langmuir
b) BET
ADSORPTION ISOTHERM c) Freundlich
d) Kisluik
1. Which of the following is not an
adsorbent? Answer: c
a) Carbon Explanation: The Freundlich isotherm was
b) Polymers and resins the first isotherm model proposed for sorption
c) Clay processes. It can be applied for non ideal
d) Dry sponge sorption on heterogeneous surfaces, as well
as, multilayer sorption. A variation in the
Answer: d slope between 0 and 1 is associated with a
Explanation: A sponge will absorb or take in chemisorption process, which is more
water from another area and put it inside of heterogeneous as the value gets closer to 0.
itself. A dry sponge can hold more water than Due to the lack in fundamental
a wet sponge is closer to saturation and as thermodynamic basis, since there is no
15
approach to Henry’s law at vanishing q = Kd C(1/n)

concentrations, this represents a limitation of
this isotherm model. q = (0.025) (0.04)(1/0.5)
q = 0.040.
5. Which type of isotherm is given from the
figure, Choose from the following options? 7. Which of the following statements
regarding the physical adsorption of a gas on
surface of solid is not correct?
a) On increasing temperature, adsorption
increases continuously
b) Enthalpy changes are negative
c) Adsorption is specific
d) It is reversible in nature
Answer: a
Explanation: Physisorption is exothermic in
nature. Therefore according to le chateliars
principle, it occurs readily at low temperature
and decreases with increase in temperature.
a) Type 1 Adsorption isotherm Bond between adsorbent i.e. surface and
b) Type 2 Adsorption isotherm adsorbate like gases are weak so when
c) Type 3 Adsorption isotherm temperature is increasing the bond get break
d) Type 4 Adsorption isotherm easily and adsorption of adsorbate get stop so
rate will decrease on increasing temperature.
Answer: a
Explanation: The above graph depicts 8. Which of the following is not characteristic
Monolayer adsorption. This graph can be of chemisorption?
easily explained using Langmuir Adsorption a) It is irreversible
Isotherm. Examples of Type-I adsorption are b) It is specific
Adsorption of Nitrogen (N2) or Hydrogen (H) c) It is multilayer phenomenon
on charcoal at temperature near to -1800C. d) Heat of adsorption is about 400kj
6. Calculate the adsorption of a dye on Answer: c

activated carbon at 25°C, where k = 0.025, n Explanation: Chemisorption involves
= 0.5 and C = 0.04. formation of chemical bonds between
Based on the Freundlich isotherm. adsorbate and adsorbent molecules. Once the
a) 0.050 valency is satisfied, the adsorbent molecules
b) 0.030 can’t form bond with more adsorbate
c) 0.040 molecules. Thus only one layer is formed.
d) 0.060
9. For an adsorbant-adsorbate system obeying
Answer: c the Langmuir adsorption isotherm, b = 0.48
Explanation: Given data bar-1 and p = 0.16 bar-1. At what pressure
n = 0.5 will 50% of the surface be covered?
Kd = 0.025 a) 0.05 bar
C = 0.04 b) 0.07 bar
Substitute the values in the corresponding c) 0.08 bar
equation d) 0.04 bar
16
Answer: b a) Proportional
Explanation: Given data b) Anti proportional
b = 0.48 bar-1 c) Independent
d) None of the mentioned
p = 0.16 bar-1
Substitute in the corresponding equation Answer: a
Explanation: In Langmuir’s model of
adsorption of a gas on a solid surface the
mass of gas striking a given area of surface is
proportional to the pressure of the gas.
2. Physical adsorption increase with

_________ in temperature.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
10. Adsorption of methane follows the c) Neither increase nor decrease
Langmuir adsorption isotherm at 90K. If p = d) None of the mentioned
1.896cm3g-1bar-1 and b = 0.146bar-1.
Calculate the value of θ. Answer: b
a) 0.116 bar Explanation: Physical adsorption increase
b) 0.514 bar with decrease in temperature.
c) 0.214 bar
d) 0.216 bar 3. The physical process that occurs when gas
or liquid molecules are brought into contact
Answer: d with a solid surface and condense on the
Explanation: Given data surface
p = 1.896cm3g-1 bar-1 a) Absorption
b = 0.146 bar-1 b) Adsorption
Substitute in the corresponding equation c) Both Adsorption and Absorption
Answer: b
Explanation: Adsorption is the physical
process that occurs when gas or liquid
molecules are brought into contact with a
solid surface and condense on the surface.
4. Adsorbent is a solid surface on which gas

or liquid molecules condense to form a film.
The above given statement is
a) Correct
TOPIC 2.2 ADSORPTION OF b) Incorrect
GASES ON SOLIDS c) Partially correct
1. In Langmuir’s model of adsorption of a gas
on a solid surface the mass of gas striking a Answer: a
given area of surface is ______________to Explanation: Adsorbent is a solid surface on
the pressure of the gas.
17
which gas or liquid molecules condense to c) N2

form a film. d) CO2
5. Adsorption when interaction between the Answer: a
solid and the condensed molecules is
Explanation: NH3 is easily liquefiable and
relatively strong as contrasted with physical
highly water soluble gas.
adsorption.
a) Absorption 9. Langmuir isotherm Mathematical relation
b) Adsorption for ___________ that takes place at
c) Chemisorption equilibrium.
d) None of the mentioned a) Absorption
b) Adsorption
Answer: b c) Both Adsorption and Absorption
Explanation: “Chemisorption is the d) None of the mentioned
adsorption when interaction between the solid
and the condensed molecules is relatively Answer: b
strong as contrasted with physical adsorption. Explanation: Langmuir isotherm
Mathematical relation for adsorption that
6. The gas molecules are held on solid surface
takes place at equilibrium.
by _________ in physical adsorption.
a) Chemical forces 10. Adsorption process must be
b) Gravitational forces a) Endoethrgic
c) Electrostatic forces b) Endothermic
d) Vander Waal’s forces c) Exothermic
d) None
Answer: d
Explanation: Chemisorption is the adsorption Answer: c
when interaction between the solid and the Explanation: Adsorption process is an
condensed molecules is relatively strong as Exothermic process.
contrasted with physical adsorption.
7. The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid TOPIC 2.3 KINETICS OF

depend on SURFACE REACTIONS
a) Nature of gas
b) Pressure of gas
1. For reaction system given below, volume is
c) Temperature of the system
suddenly reduced to half of its value by
d) All of the mentioned
increasing the pressure on it. If the reaction is
Answer: d of first order with respect to O2 and second
Explanation: The extent of adsorption of a order with respect to NO, what will be the
gas on a solid depend on all three nature of change in the rate of reaction?
gas, pressure of gas and temperature of the 2NO(g) + O2(g) + 2NO2(g)
system. a) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value
b) diminish to one-eight of its initial value
8. Which of the following gases is adsorbed c) increase to eight times of its initial value
by charcoal? d) increase to four times of its initial value
a) NH3
b) H2
18
Answer: c a) 1
10
Explanation: b) 1
c) 8
d) 16
Answer: d
Explanation:
organic-chemistry-questions-answers-reactio
q3
2. The rate law for a reaction between the

substances A and B is given by rate = K[A]n
[B]m. On doubling the concentration of A
and halving the concentration of B. What will
be the ratio of the new rate of the earlier rate
of the reaction?
a) ( )m+n
1
b) m+n
c) n-m
d) 2n-m 4. On which factor the rate constant of a
reaction does not depend upon?
Answer: d
a) temperature
Explanation:
b) activation energy
c) catalyst
d) concentration of reactants and products
Answer: d
Explanation: The rate constant of reaction
does not depend on concentration of reactant
& product (only on nature of reactant &
product).
5. The rate of reaction, A + B Products, is

given by the equation, r = k[A][B]. If B is
3. Rate = If the volume of reaction vessel is taken in excess, what would be the order of
suddenly reduced to th of initial value. How
1
4
reaction?
new rate will be affected? a) 2
19
b) 1 b) Its half-life is inversely proportional to its

c) zero initial concentration
d) unpredictable c) Time to complete 75% reaction is twice of
half-life
Answer: b d) T50 = 1/(ka⋅A0)
Explanation: A + B → Products
H = k[A][B] [if B is taken in large excess Answer: c
then according to pseudo first order reaction. Explanation:
B is taken as constant]. So, order = 1.
M
6. In a reaction, 2A2 + B2 → 2A2B, when the
O
reactant A will disappear?
a) half the rate that B will decrease
C
b) the same rate that B will decrease
c) double the rate that A2B will form
T.
d) twice the rate that B will decrease
but t75 = 3 * t50
O
Answer: d
Explanation: So, option Time to complete 75% reaction is
twice of half-life is wrong statement for n =
SP
2.
9. The rate of decomposition of a substance

G
increases concentration of substance at same
temperature. Find out order of reaction.
LO
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
.B
So, the reactant A will disappear when A is

twice the rate that B will decrease. Answer: b
17
Explanation: Rate = k [A]α

7. The rate of reaction that does not involve
gases, is not dependent on _____________ R1 = k[A]n
a) pressure R2 = k [1.5 A]n = 2.25 R1
-R
b) temperature k(1.5A)n = 2.25*k*[A]n

c) concentration
d) catalyst (1.5)n * [A]n = 2.25*[A]n
SE
n log (1.5) = log (2.25)

Answer: a n = 2.
Explanation: The rate of reaction that does
C
not involve gases does not depend on 10. If a reaction is nth order the half-life
pressure. period ________ of the initial concentration
of the reactants.
8. Which is not true for a second order a) is independent
reduction? b) varies inversely as (n-1)th power
a) It can have rate constant 1 x 10-2 L mol-1 s- c) varies inversely as nth power
1
d) varies directly as (n-1)th power
20
Answer: b molecularity greater than three are not

Explanation: For nth order; known. There is no such reaction which has
the molecularity greater than three.
So, varies inversely as (n – 4. Which of the following statement is

incorrect about the molecularity of a reaction?
1)th power.
a) It is a theoretical concept
b) Each step of a multi-step reaction has a
TOPIC 2.4 UNIMOLECULAR unique molecularity
REACTIONS c) It is equal to the total number of reactants
taking part in elementary step
d) It can be zero, fractional or integer
1. Molecularity of a reaction is equal to the
total number of _____________ Answer: d
a) Products formed in the elementary step Explanation: Molecularity is always a whole
b) Reactants taking part in elementary step number. It can be neither zero nor fractional.
c) Reactants and products in the elementary All the other options are correct.
step
d) Reactants and products in the final step 5. Which of the following factor does not
effect the rate of reaction?
Answer: b a) Concentration of the reactant
Explanation: Molecularity of a reaction is b) Temperature
equal to the total number of reactants taking c) Pressure
part in an elementary step. It is defined as the d) Effect of catalyst
number of molecules or ions that participate
in the rate determining step. Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction rate does not
2. The molecularity of a multi-step reaction depend upon the pressure. It only depends
does not make any sense. upon the concentration of the reactant,
a) True temperature and effect of catalyst.
b) False
6. The effective collisions between the
Answer: a reactant molecules at higher temperatures
Explanation: The molecularity of a multi- ___________
step reaction does not make any sense. The a) Increase
molecularity of each step is different. And b) Decrease
molecularity of one step can only be c) Remains same
determined at a time. d) First increase then decrease
3. The elementary processes with Answer: a
molecularity greater than ________ are not Explanation: The effective collisions
known. between the reactant molecules at higher
a) 1 temperatures increase. At higher temperature
b) 2 randomness increases and molecules moves
c) 3 with a faster velocity which results in more
d) 0 collision between the reactants.
Answer: c
Explanation: The elementary processes with
21
7. Concentration of the reactants is b) Catalyst is used to decrease the rate of

__________ proportional to the number of reaction by altering chemically during the
collisions and _________ proportional to the course of reaction
reaction rate. c) Catalyst is used to increase the rate of
a) Directly, inversely reaction and remains unaltered chemically
b) Directly, directly during the course of reaction
c) Inversely, directly d) Catalyst is used to decrease the rate of
d) Inversely, inversely reaction and remains altered chemically
during the course of reaction
Answer: b
Explanation: Concentration of the reactants Answer: c
is directly proportional to the number of Explanation: Catalyst is used to increase the
collisions and also directly proportional to the rate of reaction and remains unaltered
reaction rate. The more the collision, more chemically during the course of the reaction.
will be the reaction rate and hence more will With a catalyst, reactions occur faster and
be the concentration of reactants. require less activation energy. Because
catalysts are not consumed in the catalyzed
8. The reaction rate is greatly influenced by reaction, they can continue to catalyze the
___________ reaction of further quantities of reactant.
a) Nature of bond in the reactant molecules
b) Strength of bond in the reactant molecules
c) Both nature and strength of the reactant TOPIC 2.5 LANGMUIR
molecules APPLICATIONS OF
d) It does not depend on either nature or ADSORPTION ON POLLUTION
strength of the reactant molecules ABATEMENT
Answer: c
Explanation: The reaction rate is greatly 1. Which of the following is not an
influenced by both nature and strength of the adsorbent?
reactant molecules. Reactants are the major a) Carbon
factor that affects the rate of the reaction. b) Polymers and resins
c) Clay
9. The reactions register an increase in rates d) Dry sponge
in the presence of radiations of specific
wavelengths. Answer: d
a) True Explanation: A sponge will absorb or take in
b) False water from another area and put it inside of
itself. A dry sponge can hold more water than
Answer: a a wet sponge is closer to saturation and as
Explanation: The reactions register an such cannot hold more water. Sponges with
increase in rates in the presence of radiations more tiny holes can absorb more water than
of specific wavelengths. the sponges with less tiny holes and thus
leads to the absorption process.
10. Select the correct option from the
following option. 2. What do you mean by the term “Sorption”?
a) Catalyst is used to increase the rate of a) Attachment
reaction by altering chemically during the b) Detachment
course of reaction
22
c) Diffusion
d) Thermal Expansion
Answer: a
Explanation: Sorption is a physical and
chemical process by which one substance
becomes attached to another. The reverse of
sorption is desorption.
3. The desorption curve is higher than the

adsorption curve.
a) True
b) False
a) Type 1 Adsorption isotherm
Answer: a b) Type 2 Adsorption isotherm
Explanation: Theoretically, desorption curve c) Type 3 Adsorption isotherm
is higher than adsorption curve in low d) Type 4 Adsorption isotherm
pressure area if the material is mesoporous
(2-50nm). If the material is microporous Answer: a
(<2nm), both curves should be matched Explanation: The above graph depicts
together. Monolayer adsorption. This graph can be
easily explained using Langmuir Adsorption
4. Which of the following isotherm is Isotherm. Examples of Type-I adsorption are
applicable to physical adsorption? Adsorption of Nitrogen (N2) or Hydrogen (H)
a) Langmuir on charcoal at temperature near to -1800C.
b) BET
c) Freundlich 6. Calculate the adsorption of a dye on
d) Kisluik activated carbon at 25°C, where k = 0.025, n
= 0.5 and C = 0.04.
Answer: c Based on the Freundlich isotherm.
Explanation: The Freundlich isotherm was a) 0.050
the first isotherm model proposed for sorption b) 0.030
processes. It can be applied for non ideal c) 0.040
sorption on heterogeneous surfaces, as well d) 0.060
as, multilayer sorption. A variation in the
slope between 0 and 1 is associated with a Answer: c
chemisorption process, which is more Explanation: Given data
heterogeneous as the value gets closer to 0. n = 0.5
Due to the lack in fundamental Kd = 0.025
thermodynamic basis, since there is no C = 0.04
approach to Henry’s law at vanishing Substitute the values in the corresponding
concentrations, this represents a limitation of equation
this isotherm model. q = Kd C(1/n)
5. Which type of isotherm is given from the q = (0.025) (0.04)(1/0.5)
figure, Choose from the following options? q = 0.040.
23
7. Which of the following statements p = 0.16 bar-1

regarding the physical adsorption of a gas on Substitute in the corresponding equation
surface of solid is not correct?
a) On increasing temperature, adsorption
increases continuously
b) Enthalpy changes are negative
c) Adsorption is specific
d) It is reversible in nature
M
Answer: a
Explanation: Physisorption is exothermic in
O
nature. Therefore according to le chateliars 10. Adsorption of methane follows the
principle, it occurs readily at low temperature Langmuir adsorption isotherm at 90K. If p =
C
and decreases with increase in temperature.
1.896cm3g-1bar-1 and b = 0.146bar-1.
Bond between adsorbent i.e. surface and
T.
adsorbate like gases are weak so when Calculate the value of θ.
a) 0.116 bar
temperature is increasing the bond get break
b) 0.514 bar
O
easily and adsorption of adsorbate get stop so
c) 0.214 bar
rate will decrease on increasing temperature.
d) 0.216 bar
8. Which of the following is not characteristic
of chemisorption?
a) It is irreversible
SP
Answer: d
Explanation: Given data
G
b) It is specific p = 1.896cm3g-1 bar-1
c) It is multilayer phenomenon b = 0.146 bar-1
LO
d) Heat of adsorption is about 400kj Substitute in the corresponding equation
Answer: c
.B
Explanation: Chemisorption involves

formation of chemical bonds between
adsorbate and adsorbent molecules. Once the
17
valency is satisfied, the adsorbent molecules

can’t form bond with more adsorbate
molecules. Thus only one layer is formed.
-R
9. For an adsorbant-adsorbate system obeying

the Langmuir adsorption isotherm, b = 0.48
SE
bar-1 and p = 0.16 bar-1. At what pressure TOPIC 2.6 CATALYSIS:

will 50% of the surface be covered? CATALYST - TYPES OF
a) 0.05 bar CATALYSIS - AUTOCATALYSIS,
C
b) 0.07 bar
c) 0.08 bar
CATALYTIC POISONING, ACID
d) 0.04 bar BASE CATALYSIS -
APPLICATIONS (CATALYTIC
Answer: b CONVERTOR)
Explanation: Given data
b = 0.48 bar-1
24
1. Which of the following is not a c) Bromine

characteristic of a catalyst? d) Helium
a) It participates in the reaction
b) It enhances the equilibrium rate Answer: b
c) It activates equilibrium Explanation: The use of a promoter is to
d) It initialises the reaction increase the rate of equilibrium. We know
that nitrogen has promoting properties in the
Answer: a case of nitrate molecules. Thus the can act as
Explanation: The main purpose of using a good promoters in reaction.
catalyst is only to increase the rate of
achieving the equilibrium state in case of 5. Which of the following is used as a catalyst
slow reaction. Other than that it will not for the following reaction?
initiate or involve in the reaction. 2SO2 + O2 ⟶ 2SO3
a) Chlorine
2. Which of the following will decrease the b) Nitrous oxide
rate of reaction? c) Sulphur di oxide
a) Catalytic poison d) Potassium chloride
b) Positive catalyst
c) Negative catalyst Answer: b
d) Catalytic promoters Explanation: Since sulphur and nitrogen
components have the same equilibrium
Answer: a valencies, we can see that one will promote
Explanation: Catalytic poisons are the once the other and vice versa. Thus nitrogen
which are used to slow down the reaction molecule is the best for sulphur molecules.
inorder to avoid explosion when the
temperature or pressure increase the critical 6. Which of the following is used as a catalyst
value. Hence catalytic poisons are used such for the following reaction?
as aluminium oxide. N2 + 3H2 ⟶ 2NH3
a) Zinc
3. Which of the following is a catalytic
b) Chlorine
poison?
c) Platinum
a) Potassium nitrate
d) Water
b) Aluminium nitrate
c) Aluminium oxide Answer: c
d) Chlorine Explanation: Since nitrogen and noble
metals components have the same
Answer: c equilibrium valencies, we can see that one
Explanation: Aluminium oxide is known for will promote the other and vice versa. Thus
its sophisticated properties and is mainly used nitrogen molecule is the best for platinum
in the process of corrosion preventing it
molecules.
absorbs moisture and has high retentivity and
hence is used as a catalytic poison. 7. Which of the following is used as a catalyst
for the following reaction?
4. Which of the following is used as a H2O2 ⟶ 2H2O + O2
catalytic promoter?
a) Chlorine a) Chlorine
b) Nitrate b) Bromine
c) Platinum
d) Noble solutions
25
Answer: c the formula s*c/12. So here we have

Explanation: Since oxygen and noble metals 12*10/12=10.
components have same equilibrium valencies,
we can see that one will promote the other
and vice versa. Thus oxygen molecule is the
TOPIC 2.7 CATALYTIC
best for platinum molecules. PROMOTERS
8. Which of the following is used as a 1. Some vectors carry a mutant form of

catalytic poison for the same reaction: promoter known as lacUV5 promoter. It
SO2 + O2 ⟶ 2SO3 carries ______ in the promoter region and
a) Platinum _____ the efficiency.
b) Bromine a) point mutations, decreases
c) Magnesium b) point mutations, increases
d) Silver c) frameshift mutations, increases
d) frameshift mutations, increases
Answer: a
Explanation: Though nitrogen is used as a Answer: b
promoter, we can see that platinum reduces Explanation: In some vectors, lacUV5
its activity and hence decreases the rate of promoter is present. It is a mutant form and
reaction of equilibrium in the above reaction. carries point mutations which increase the
efficiency.
9. Where is the intermediate theory used?
a) Heterogeneous components 2. Lambda PL promoter is used in which
b) Homogeneous components vectors?
c) Miscible components a) Cloning vectors
d) Immiscible components b) Expression vectors
c) Both cloning and expression vectors
Answer: a d) Bacteriophage Mu
Explanation: Intermediate theory is the
process in which an intermediate product is Answer: b
formed and hence it is suitable for Explanation: Lambda PL promoters are the
homogeneous components and not for promoters for the left region in bacteriophage
heterogeneous components. lambda. It is widely used in expression
vectors.
10. Calculate the amount of intermediate
components formed from the given data. 3. The promoter can be controlled by a
S=12 repressor which is temperature sensitive.
T=10 a) True
C=12 b) False
a) 1
b) 0 Answer: a
c) 2 Explanation: The promoter is activated at a
d) 10 temperature higher than 30 degrees because at
this temperature repressor is inactivated.
Answer: d
Explanation: we know that the amount of 4. Choose the correct statement for rifampcin.
intermediate components formed is given by a) It inactivates both E. coli polymerase and
T7 polymerase
26
b) It activates both E. coli polymerase and T7 Answer: b

polymerase Explanation: It is a hybrid promoter made by
c) It inhibits T7 polymerase but doesn’t 35 regions of trp promoter and 10 regions of
inhibits E. coli polymerase the lacUV5 promoter.
d) It inhibits E. coli polymerase but doesn’t
inhibits T7 polymerase 8. The tac promoter includes the lac operator
and is regulated by a repressor.
Answer: d a) True
Explanation: Rifampcin is added in order to b) False
reduce the transcription of other genes. It
inhibits the E. coli RNA polymerase but Answer: a
doesn’t inhibit the T7 polymerase. Explanation: The tac promoter includes the
lac operator and is regulated by the repressor.
5. The ______ operon encodes proteins The repressor is to be supplied by the host.
involved in arabinose metabolism.
a) araBCD 9. Expression of T7 promoter- lac operator
b) araABD hybrid requires ___________
c) araBAD a) T7 RNA polymerase
d) araDBA b) An inducer such as IPTG
c) Both T7 RNA polymerase and inducer
Answer: c such as IPTG
Explanation: The araBAD operon encodes d) T7 DNA polymerase
proteins involved in arabinose metabolism. It
is controlled by AraC transcriptional Answer: c
regulator. Explanation: Expression of T7 promoter- lac
operator hybrid requires both T7 RNA
6. tac promoter is an example of which type polymerase and inducer such as IPTG. If
of promoter? inducer is absent levels of expression are very
a) hybrid promoter low.
b) fusion promoter
c) lacZ promoter 10. When lacUV5 control system is used,
d) araBAD promoter addition of IPTG _______ the expression of
_________
Answer: a a) activates, T7 RNA polymerase
Explanation: Hybrid promoters are those b) inactivates, T7 RNA polymerase
promoters which are produced by two c) activates, T7 DNA polymerase
promoters from different sources. Tac d) inactivates, T7 DNA polymerase
promoter is a hybrid promoter produced from
trp promoter and lacUV5 promoter. Answer: a
Explanation: When a lacUV5 control system
7. The tac promoter is made by _____ region is used, the addition of IPTG activates the
of trp promoter and _____ region of the expression of T7 RNA polymerase. Thus
lacUV5 promoter. transcription of sequences under the control
a) 10, 35 of T7 promoter is controlled.
b) 35, 10
c) 10, 10
d) 35, 35
TOPIC 2.8 NZYME CATALYSIS
27
1. A __________is a biocatalyst that Answer: a

increases the rate of the reaction without Explanation: Removal of cofactor from a
being changed. conjugated enzymes forms apoenzyme which
a) Aluminum oxide is a protein component. A cofactor is a non-
b) Silicon dioxide protein group while a complete conjugated
c) Enzyme enzyme is known as a holoenzyme.
d) Hydrogen peroxide
5. Name the coenzyme of riboflavin (B2)?
Answer: c a) NAD or NADP
Explanation: Among these options, an b) FAD and FMN
enzyme is an only option which is a c) Coenzyme A
biocatalyst that catalyzes the chemical d) Thiamine pyrophosphate
reaction without being changed while all
other options are of the catalyst which Answer: b
increases or decrease the rate of reaction Explanation: Riboflavin is a part of vitamin
based on their concentration. B complex, its coenzyme form is a FAD
(Flavin adenine dinucleotide) which involves
2. Enzyme increases the rate of reaction by a redox reaction. NAD is a coenzyme form of
lowering the activation energy. nicotinic acid, and thiamine pyrophosphate is
a) True a coenzyme of thiamine.
b) False
6. Which of this vitamin is associated with
Answer: a the coenzyme Biocytin?
Explanation: Activation energy is the a) Nicotinic acid
difference in free energy between the b) Thiamine
reactants and transition state. To complete a c) Biotin
reaction, enzyme lowers the activation energy d) Pyridoxine
and crosses the transition state.
Answer: c
3. What is the nature of an enzyme? Explanation: Biocytin is a coenzyme of
a) Vitamin biotin which involves in carboxylation
b) Lipid reaction while thiamine takes part in
c) Carbohydrate decarboxylation reaction.
d) Protein
7. Name the enzyme secreted by pancreas?
Answer: d a) Pepsin
Explanation: All enzymes are protein except b) Chymotrypsin
Catalytic RNA molecule. The native protein c) Trypsin
conformation of an enzyme defines its d) Alcohol dehydrogenase
catalytic activity. Once the enzyme is
denatured, its catalytic activity is also lost. Answer: c
Explanation: Trypsin is a proteolytic
4. What is an apoenzyme? enzyme, secreted by the pancreas. It is one of
a) It is a protein portion of an enzyme the three digestive proteinases along with
b) It is a non-protein group pepsin and chymotrypsin which breaks down
c) It is a complete, biologically active dietary protein molecules into simpler forms.
conjugated enzyme
d) It is a prosthetic group
28
8. Name the enzyme which catalyzes the Answer: a

oxidation-reduction reaction? Explanation: Lyase is the class of enzymes
a) Transaminase which does not involve hydrolysis or
b) Glutamine synthetase oxidation to break the bond. It catalyzes the
c) Phosphofructokinase breaking of C-C, C-O, C-N, C-S bonds by the
d) Oxidoreductase process of elimination and results in the
formation of a double bond.
Answer: d
Explanation: Oxidoreductase is a class of
enzyme which catalyze the oxidation- TOPIC 2.9 MICHAELIS -
reduction reaction. Some of the MENTEN EQUATION.
oxidoreductase enzymes are oxidases,
dehydrogenases, peroxidases etc. 1. Which of the following is true about
Michaelis-Menten kinetics?
9. What is the function of phosphorylase? a) Km, the Michaelis constant, is defined as
a) Transfer inorganic phosphate
that concentration of substrate at which
b) Transfer a carboxylate group
enzyme is working at maximum velocity
c) Use H2O2 as the electron acceptor
b) It describes single substrate enzymes
d) Transfer amino group c) Km, the Michaelis constant is defined as
Answer: a the dissociation constant of the enzyme-
Explanation: Phosphorylase is a transferase substrate complex
enzyme which involves a transfer of d) It assumes covalent binding occurs
inorganic phosphate to a substrate while between enzyme and substrate
transcarboxylase transfer a carboxylate group
Answer: b
and transaminase transfer amino group from
Explanation: Km is defined as the
amino acid to the keto acid.
concentration of substrate at which enzyme is
10. Mark the CORRECT function of enzyme, working at half of maximum velocity. It is
Peptidase? also a measure of the affinity that the enzyme
a) Cleave phosphodiester bond has for its substrate. Michaelis-Menten
b) Cleave amino bonds kinetics assumes non-covalent binding
c) Remove phosphate from a substrate between enzyme and substrate.
d) Removal of H2O
2. When the velocity of enzyme activity is
Answer: b plotted against substrate concentration, which
Explanation: Hydrolases are the enzymes of the following is obtained?
which cleave the bond by adding water. a) Hyperbolic curve
Peptidases belong to hydrolase class and it is b) Parabola
used to cleave amide bonds of proteins. c) Straight line with positive slope
d) Straight line with negative slope
11. Which of the following reaction is
catalyzed by Lyase? Answer: a
a) Breaking of bonds Explanation: At low substrate concentration,
b) Formation of bonds the rate of a reaction is determined by the rate
c) Intramolecular rearrangement of bonds of formation of an enzyme-substrate complex.
d) Transfer of group from one molecule to
another
29
3. Which of the following is the correct Line c) They increase the measured Vmax
weaver-Burk equation? d) Apparent Km also increases
a) 1
=
V0
+
Km
Vmax[S]
1
Vmax
b) 1
=
Km
+
1
Answer: b
Vmax V0
Explanation: They bind non-covalently at a
V0[S]
c) V 0
=
Vmax[S]
Km+[S] site distinct from the substrate active site.

d) V max =
V0[S]
They decrease the measured Vmax and also
Km+[S]
apparent Km.
Answer: a
Explanation: 6. The rate determining step of Michaelis-
Line weaver-Burk equation: Menten kinetics is __________
1
=
Km
+
1 a) The complex dissociation step to produce
products
V0 Vmax[S] Vmax
Vmax[S]
Michaelis-Menten equation: V 0 =
Km+[S] b) The complex formation step
c) The product formation step
4. Which of the following statements is true d) None of the mentioned
about competitive inhibitors?
a) It is a common type of irreversible Answer: a
inhibition Explanation: The breakdown of ES complex
b) In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, is the rate determining step of Michaelis
the Michaelis-Menten equation becomes Menten kinetics.
Vmax[S]
V0 =
αK m+[S]
7. The molecule which acts directly on an
c) The apparent Km decreases in the presence enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is
of inhibitor by a factor α __________
d) The maximum velocity for the reaction a) Repressor
decreases in the presence of a competitive b) Inhibitor
inhibitor c) Modulator
d) Regulator
Answer: b
Explanation: Competitive inhibition is a Answer: b
common type of reversible inhibition. Explanation: An inhibitor is a substance that
The apparent Km increases in the presence of interferes with the substrate-active site
inhibitor by a factor α. binding and slows down the catalytic rate.
The maximum velocity for the reaction
remains same in the presence of a competitive 8. Which of the following is an example for
inhibitor. irreversible inhibitor?
a) Disulfiram
5. Which of the following statements is true b) Oseltamivir
about uncompetitive inhibitors? c) Protease inhibitors
a) They bind covalently at a site distinct from d) DIPF
the substrate active site
b) In the presence of a uncompetitive Answer: d
inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten equation Explanation: Disulfiram, Oseltamivir and
becomes protease inhibitors are reversible inhibitors.
Vmax[S]
V0 =
Km+ α [S]
′
9. Which of the following is an example of
reversible inhibitor?
30
a) DIPF
b) Penicillin
UNIT III ALLOYS AND
c) Iodoacetamide PHASE RULE
d) Protease inhibitors
Answer: d TOPIC 3.1 ALLOYS:

Explanation: DIPF, Penicillin and INTRODUCTION- DEFINITION-
Iodoacetamide are irreversible inhibitors. PROPERTIES OF ALLOYS-
SIGNIFICANCE OF ALLOYING,
10. Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in
mixed inhibition? FUNCTIONS AND EFFECT OF
a) At active site ALLOYING ELEMENTS
b) Allosteric site
c) Does not bind on enzyme 1. What kind of steel requires definite
d) Binds on substrate amounts of other alloying elements?
a) Carbon steel
Answer: b b) Alloying steel
Explanation: The inhibitor binds at a place c) Stainless steel
different from active site allosterically. d) Tool steel
11. The catalytic efficiency of two distinct Answer: b
enzymes can be compared based on which of Explanation: Alloy steels are those steels
the following factor? which require a specific amount of the
a) Km elements making up its composition. Alloy
b) Product formation steels consist of manganese, silicon, and
c) Size of the enzymes copper as primary elements whose quantities
d) pH of optimum value are equal to or more than 1.65%, 0.60%, and
0.60% respectively.
Answer: a
Explanation: Km is the substrate 2. Which of these is not a function of alloy
concentration. Increased substrate steels?
concentration increases the rate of reaction. a) Increases strength
b) Improves ductility
12. What is the general mechanism of an c) Reduces cost
enzyme? d) Improves machinability
a) It acts by reducing the activation energy
b) It acts by increasing the activation energy Answer: c
c) It acts by decreasing the pH Explanation: Alloy steels are used to
d) It acts by increasing the pH improve properties such as strength, hardness,
ductility, grain structure, and machinability,
Answer: a among others. This, however, results in
Explanation: For the reaction to occur at a increased costs due to multiple elements
faster rate, activation energy should be less. involved in the process.
3. Steels containing up to 3% to 4% of one or

more alloying elements are known as
________
a) Low alloy steels
31
b) HSLA steels c) Tool and die steels

c) High alloy steels d) Stainless steels
d) Stainless steels
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: High alloy steels are composed
Explanation: Low alloy steels consist of 3% of more than 5% of alloying elements. They
to 4% of alloying elements making up its have different microstructure and heat
composition. They have similar treatments than those of plain carbon steels.
microstructure and heat treatments as plain Tool and die, and stainless steels are the types
carbon steels. HSLA and AISI steels are the of high alloy steels.
types of low alloy steels.
7. Which of the following groups of alloying
4. What does AISI steel stand for? elements stabilize austenite?
a) American-Indian Steel Institute a) Ni, Mn, Cu, and Co
b) American-Indian Society of Iron b) Cr, W, Mo, V, and Si
c) American Iron and Steel Institute c) Cr, W, Ti, Mo, Nb, V, and Mn
d) Alloys, Iron and Steel Institute d) Co, Al, and Ni
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: American Iron and Steel Explanation: The alloying elements such as
Institute (AISI) is an association, established Ni, Mn, Cu, and Co have a tendency to
in America, which produces steel. AISI steels alleviate austenite, whereas Cr, W, Mo, V, and
are used in machine construction. They are Si tend to stabilize ferrites. Alloying elements
otherwise known as construction steels or such as Cr, W, Ti, Mo, Nb, V, and Mn tend to
structural steels. form carbides. Other elements like Co, Al,
and Ni help to weaken carbides and thereby
5. Which of these is not an application of form graphite.
HSLA steels?
a) Bridges 8. Which family of steels are referred to as
b) Automobiles and trains chromoly?
c) Building columns a) 40xx
d) Leaf and coil springs b) 41xx
c) 43xx
Answer: d d) 44xx
Explanation: HSLA steels are known as
high-strength-low-alloy steels. These high Answer: b
strength steels are primarily used as structural Explanation: The family of 41xx steel is
materials or construction alloys. They are usually called as chromoly or chrome-moly
used to reduce weight on bridges, due to its primary alloying elements,
automobiles, pressure vessels, building chromium and molybdenum. Steels such as
columns, etc. 4130 and 4140 are generally used for bicycle
frames, and as parts of firearms, flywheels
6. Steels containing more than 5% of one or etc.
more alloying elements are known as
________ 9. What is the common name of COR-TEN
a) HSLA steels steel?
b) High alloy steels a) Weathering steel
b) Control-rolled steel
32
c) Pearlite-reduced steel a) Molybdenum

d) Microalloyed steel b) Carbon
c) Nickel
Answer: a d) Vanadium
Explanation: Weathering steels are otherwise
also known as COR-TEN or corten steels. Answer: c
These steels produce a corrosion resistance, Explanation: Nickel is added to stainless
which makes them ideal for eliminating the steels with a 3.5% to 22% composition to
need to paint. All choices¸ including corten form austenitic structure. This results in the
steels are classifications of HSLA steels. highest corrosion resistance among all
stainless steels. They also possess high
10. Alloy steels containing 0.05% to 0.15% of strength and ductility.
alloying elements are called _______
a) Weathering steel 3. Stainless steels with little carbon and no
b) Stainless steel nickel are called ________
c) Tool and die steel a) Ferritic stainless steel
d) Microalloyed steel b) Austenitic stainless steel
c) Martensitic stainless steel
Answer: d d) Duplex stainless steel
Explanation: Microalloyed steels contain
alloying elements in small quantities (0.05% Answer: a
to 0.15%). These elements include niobium, Explanation: Ferritic stainless steels are
vanadium, titanium, molybdenum, rare earth steels containing 12.5% to 17% of chromium.
metals, among others. They are used to refine They are nickel¬-free and contain very little
the microstructure of the grain or for carbon making up its composition. They are,
precipitate hardening process. therefore, better resistant to corrosion than
martensitic stainless steels.
TOPIC 3.2 NICHROME AND 4. Stainless steels with high strength, but low
STAINLESS STEEL (18/8) corrosion resistance are known as _______
a) Austenitic stainless steel
1. Which is the primary element used for b) Ferritic stainless steel
making stainless steel alloy? c) Martensitic stainless steel
a) Chromium d) Duplex stainless steel
b) Zirconium
c) Vanadium Answer: c
d) Indium Explanation: Martensitic stainless steels are
made of 12-14% chromium, along with
Answer: a molybdenum, nickel, and carbon. This makes
Explanation: Stainless steels contain iron and the steels hard and brittle, but poorly resistant
a minimum of 10.5% of chromium. This to corrosion. Martensitic stainless steels are
gives it great resistance to corrosion. used in making Swiss army knives.
Therefore, stainless steels are often known as
corrosion-resistant steels or chromium- 5. Which of the following are applications of
bearing steels. Ferritic stainless steels?
a) Aircraft engine parts, heat exchangers
2. Addition of _______ gives stainless steels b) Milk, kettles
an austenitic structure.
33
c) Oil burner parts, furnace elements Answer: d

d) Pumps and valve parts Explanation: The steel grade ‘L’ refers to
special purpose steel containing low alloy. It
Answer: c consists of elements such as carbon,
Explanation: Ferritic stainless steels have the chromium, manganese, and a few others. The
ability to be welded, forged, rolled, and L2 and L6 are the most commonly used steels
machined. They are used for making oil under this category.
burner parts and furnace elements. Austenitic
stainless steel is used to make engine parts, 9. The low-carbon, high-alloyed steels which
M
milk cans; Pumps and valve parts are possess high strength and toughness are
applications of martensitic stainless steels. known as _______
O
a) Carbon steels
6. Which of the following is not a type of oil- b) Alloy steels
C
hardening steel? c) Maraging steels
a) O1 d) Stainless steels
T.
b) O2
c) O6 Answer: c
d) O9 Explanation: Maraging steels are those high
O
strength steels which have tensile strengths up
Answer: d to 1900 MPa. They are composed of 18% Ni,
Explanation: Oil hardening steels are a group
of cold working tool steels. This group
consists of O1 (0.9% C, 1% Mn, 0.5% Cr),
SP
7% Co, and less than 0.05% C.
10. What do TRIP steels stand for?

G
O2 type (0.9% C, 1.5% Mn, 0.3% Si), O6 a) Transformation Induced Porosity
type (1.65% C, 1% Si, 0.25% Mo, and an O7 b) Transformation Induced Plasticity
LO
type. c) Transformation Induced Pearlite

d) Transformation Induced Property
7. Mushet steel belongs to which group of
tool steels? Answer: b
.B
a) Oil-hardening steels Explanation: TRIP steels are those steels

b) Air-hardening steels containing high strength and ductility. They
17
c) High-speed steels are mainly used for automotive industry

d) Hot-working steels needs. The expanded form of TRIP is
Transformation Induced Plasticity. It contains
Answer: b
-R
an austenite microstructure.
Explanation: Mushet steel was the first air-
hardening tool steel. It belongs to the Cold- 11. What is the maximum allowable
SE
working family of tool steels. It was temperature at which High-Speed Steels

developed by Robert Mushet. retain good cutting ability?
a) 100oC
8. What property does the AISI-SAE tool
b) 200oC
C
steel grade ‘L’ possess?

a) Cold-working c) 350oC
b) Hot-working d) 540oC
c) Plastic mild
d) Special Purpose Answer: d
Explanation: High-speed steels have the
ability to remove and cut metal at a much
34
higher rate than carbon steels. They have a accounting for this could be, the internal
good cutting ability even at a temperature as strains within BCC iron due to the excess
high as 540oC. Above this temperature, they carbon presence and due to the plastic
soften and lose their cutting edge. deformation of parent FCC iron (austenite)
surrounding the martensitic plate. Rate of
12. Ultra high-speed steels are made of which cooling and the amount of carbon percentage
of the following elements? in steel are directly proportional to the
a) Tungsten and molybdenum amount of hardness achieved in martensitic
b) Chromium and molybdenum transformation.
c) Vanadium and cobalt
d) Molybdenum and cobalt 2. Iron possesses BCC crystal structure up to
(in degree centigrade)?
Answer: c a) 1539
Explanation: Ultra high-speed steels have b) 768
greater tool lives and greater cutting c) 910
efficiency. This is due to the addition of d) 1410
vanadium (up to 4%) and cobalt (5% to 12%)
along with carbon, chromium, and tungsten. Answer: b
Explanation: Pure iron possess either BCC or
13. What is the microstructure of Hadfield’s FCC crystal structure as its temperature is
steel? increased from room temperature to its
a) Austenite melting point. At room temperature to 910oC,
b) Ferrite it is having BCC, between 910oC and 1410oC
c) Martensite it is having face centered cubic, and from
d) Cementite
1410oC to its melting point (1539oC) it
Answer: a returns to its BCC crystal structure.
Explanation: Hadfield’s manganese steels
3. Iron possesses BCC crystal structure above
(Mangalloy) possess great strength and
(in degree centigrade)?
toughness. Its austenite structure is obtained
a) 1539
by heating it. This also results in high wear
b) 768
resistance, which finds its applications in
bulldozers, crushers, etc. c) 910
d) 1410
TOPIC 3.3 HEAT TREATMENT Answer: d

OF STEEL. Explanation: From 1410oC to its melting
point (1539oC) iron is having BCC crystal
1. Which of the following is the hardest structure.
constituent of steel?
a) Ledeburite 4. Iron possesses FCC crystal structure above
b) Austenite (in degree centigrade)?
c) Bainite a) 1539
d) Martensite b) 768
c) 910
Answer: d d) 1410
Explanation: Martensite is the hardest
constituent of steel. The primary reasons
35
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Between 910oC and 1410oC Explanation: In normalizing, steel is heat
iron is having face centered cubic crystal treated above its critical temperature,
structure. solutionised, and then allowed to cool for a
long time by keeping it in air. In steel, it
5. Which of the following form of iron is forms fine pearlite, which imparts strength to
magnetic in nature? steel.
a) α
b) δ 9. Mild steel can be converted into high
c) γ carbons steel by which of the following heat
d) λ treatment process?
a) Annealing
Answer: a b) Normalizing
Explanation: The alpha form of iron is c) Case hardening
magnetic and stable at all temperatures below d) Nitriding
910oC.
Answer: c
6. For steel, which one of the following Explanation: Case hardening, also referred as
properties can be enhanced upon annealing? carburizing increases carbon content of steel,
a) Hardness thus, imparting hardness to steel.
b) Toughness
10. Upon annealing, eutectoid steel converts
c) Ductility
to which of the following?
d) Resilience
a) Perlite
Answer: c b) Cementite
Explanation: A furnace cooling technique, c) Austenite
annealing will enhance the ductility of steel, d) Martensite
due to the formation of coarse pearlite.
Answer: a
7. In Annealing, cooling is done in which of Explanation: Eutectoid steels upon annealing
the following medium? produces pearlite (coarse pearlite). Pearlite is
a) Air an alternate lamellae of ferrite and cementite.
b) Water
c) Oil TOPIC 3.4 PHASE RULE:
d) Furnace INTRODUCTION, DEFINITION
Answer: d OF TERMS WITH EXAMPLES,
Explanation: In annealing, after ONE COMPONENT SYSTEM.
solutionising, material is used to furnace cool,
means furnace is switched off and the steel 1. What is Gibbs phase rule for general
sample inside is let cool down. system?
a) P = C – 1 – F
8. In normalizing, cooling is done in which of b) P = C + 1 – F
the following medium? c) P + F = C – 2
a) Air d) P + F = C + 2
b) Water
c) Oil Answer: d
d) Furnace Explanation: The number of degrees of
36
freedom, F (no. of independently variable Answer: a

factors), number of components, C, and Explanation: F = C + 1 – P
number of phases in equilibrium, P. F = 3 – P (C = 2)
.:F = 2.
2. What is Gibbs phase rule for metallurgical
system? 6. What is degree of freedom when two
a) F = C – 1 – P phases co – exist?
b) F = C + 1 – P a) 2
c) P + F = C – 2 b) 3
d) P + F = C + 2 c) 0
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: For metallurgical system Answer: d
pressure has no appreciable effect on phase Explanation: F = C + 1 – P
equilibrium and hence, F = C – P + 1. F = 3 – P (C = 2)
F = 3 – 2 = 1.
3. In a single – component condensed system,
if degree of freedom is zero, maximum 7. What is degree of freedom when three
number of phases that can co – exist phases co – exist?
_________ a) 2
a) 2 b) 3
b) 3 c) 0
c) 0 d) 1
d) 1
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: F = C + 1 – P
Explanation: Given F = 0 F = 3 – P (C = 2)
Then p = c + 1, c = 1 F = 3 – 3 = 0.
.: P = 2.
8. For single component system when degree
4. The degree of freedom at a triple point in of freedom is 1(one) then number of phases
the unary diagram for water is ________ _______
a) 2 a) 2
b) 3 b) 3
c) 0 c) 0
d) 1 d) 1
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: For three phase system degree Explanation: F = C + 1 – P
of freedom is 0. F = 2 – P (C = 1)
→ p = 2 – F = 2 – 1 = 1.
5. What is degree of freedom for single –
phase fields on the phase diagram? 9. When α, L and β phase fields touch the
a) 2 isotherm line what are the respective phase
b) 3 compositions?
c) 0
d) 1
37
Answer: c
Explanation: One use of the Gibbs phase rule
is in analyzing for non – equilibrium
conditions by analyzing with above method
we come to know (under these
Circumstances, three phases will exist only at
a single temperature).
TOPIC 3.5 REDUCED PHASE

RULE
1. What does Gibb’s phase rule state?

a) P+F=C-1
b) P+F=C+1
a) 8.0 wt%, 71.9 wt%, 91.2 wt% of Ag c) P+F=C-2
b) 8.0 wt%, 91.2 wt%, 71.9 wt% of Ag d) P+F=C+2
c) 71.9 wt%, 91.2 wt%, 8.0 wt% of Ag
d) 91.2 wt%, 8.0 wt%, 71.9 wt% of Ag Answer: d
Explanation: The above phase rule is a
Answer: a formula that gives the condition for finding
Explanation: For binary systems, when three the number of phases in a system. This phase
phases are present, there will be F = 0, so rule can be applied to both condensed as well
composition is fixed. as normal systems.
10. For binary alloy consisting of three phases 2. What is the point at which all the three
of non – equilibrium one, What will be the phases of a system exist?
temperature of these phases? a) Triple point
b) Sublimation point
c) Vapor point
d) Eutectic point
Answer: a
Explanation: Since at the triple point, the
degree of freedom is zero (that is invariant
reaction takes place at that point), therefore
according to phase rule, F=C-P+2.
Substituting the known values, we get P=3
(all states).
3. For water system, the number of phases at

the triple point is _____________
a) 0
b) 1
a) Different c) 2
b) Constant d) 3
c) Same
d) Two of them will be with one temperature
38
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Since at the triple point, the Explanation: A homogeneous mixture is one
degree of freedom is zero, while applying the which is miscible completely with one
formula F=C-P+2, we get the number of another. In any saturated solution, when the
phases as three because C=1, F=0 (since amount of solute reaches more than a critical
water system forms only single component). point, then the solution becomes
heterogeneous.
4. Liquid phase exists for all compositions
above _________ region. 7. Select the odd statement with respect to a
a) Eutectic region phase reaction.
b) Equilibrium region a) Saturated solution
c) Isometric region b) Equilibrium solution
d) Sublimation region c) Concentric solution
d) Amorphous solution
Answer: c
Explanation: In a phase region above the Answer: a
eutectic point, both the solid and liquid Explanation: A terminal solution, an
phases exist together where the region is bi intermediate solution, an equilibrium solution
variant and this region is called isometric and concentric solutions, are the ones which
region. Here the region has 2 degrees of take part in a phase reaction. On the other
freedom. hand, a saturated solution is involved in the
Lever system.
5. Select the wrong statements from the
following statements with respect to a phase 8. Which of the following is the formula for
diagram. condense phase rule?
a) Gives information about concentration a) F=C-P+2
b) Gives information about solubility b) F=C-P+1
c) Gives information on melting and boiling c) F=C+P-2
points d) F=C+P-1
d) Gives information on relative
concentration Answer: b
Explanation: In a condensed phase rule
Answer: d system, the phases are represented in three
Explanation: A phase diagram gives dimension which is not suitable for graphic
information only on the concentration of purposes and hence the pressure is considered
species, their solubility rate, degree of to be zero (this is helpful in drawing 2D
freedom and other physical properties. It does images). Hence the formula reduces to F=C-
not explain about transformation rates and P+2.
relative concentration (relative
concentration=total concentration/equilibrium 9. Calculate the eutectic concentration given
concentration). the following data.
Pressure= 1atm
6. Select a non-homogeneous system from the Temperature: 1oC
following. a) 0
a) Salt solution b) 2
b) Sugar solution c) 1
c) Glucose in water d) 3
d) Saturated solution of NaCl
39
Answer: c of the oxysalts?

Explanation: According to Weiss law (which a) Thermoelectric analysis
suits only for phase components), b) Wagner analysis
concentration at equilibrium is C=T/P. c) Stockbarger analysis
therefore in this case, C=1/1=1. This law is d) Thermal analysis
also called as Gibbs relativity law.
Answer: d
10. Under what condition, will we get a stable Explanation: Measurement of change in
phase diagram? weight of the oxysalts and hydrates can be
a) Solid + Liquid achieved by thermal analysis as they
b) Solid + Vapor decompose on heating, In which we measure
c) Liquid + vapor the physical and chemical properties of the
d) Liquid + Solid materials. Wide range of materials can be
studied.
Answer: a
Explanation: According to equilibrium 3. What are the two main techniques for
mixture ration, an appropriate ratio of 1:10 thermal analysis?
parts of solid and liquid along with an a) FTG AND DGG
aqueous solution will give a stable phase b) MSP AND FCT
product. c) TGA AND DTA
d) TSA AND DGF
TOPIC 3.6 THERMAL ANALYSIS Answer: c
AND COOLING CURVES Explanation: The two main thermal analysis
techniques are thermogravimetric analysis
1. Thermal analysis is defined as known as TGA which measures the change in
___________ weight with temperature and Differential
a) Measurement of concentration of materials thermal analysis known as DTA which
as a function of temperature detects changes in heat content.
b) Measurement of solubility of materials as a
function of temperature 4. Dilatometry is also known as by which of
c) Measurement of physical properties as a the following names?
function of temperature a) TGA
d) Measurement of line positions of crystals b) DTA
as a function of temperature c) DSC
d) TMA
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal analysis is defined as Answer: d
the measurement of physical and chemical Explanation: A fourth thermal analysis
properties of materials as a function of technique is Dilatometry in which the change
temperature. In practice, however the term in linear dimension of a sample as a function
thermal analysis is used to cover certain of temperature is recorded. Recently it has
specific properties only. These are enthalpy, acquired a new name, thermomechanical
heat capacity, mass and coefficient thermal analysis (TMA).
expansion.
5. Which of the following statements given
2. Which of the following method can be below is false?
used for the measurement of change in weight a) TGA, DTA and DSC are measured using
40
same instrument 8. Under conditions of ______________

b) TGA and DTA can be carried out heating, decomposition usually take place in
simultaneously. thermogravimetry. Fill up the suitable option
c) TGA, DTA and DSC are measured using from the choices given below.
different instruments. a) First order
d) TMA is a recent name of Dilatometry. b) Second order
c) Third order
Answer: c d) Dynamic
Explanation: With modern automatic thermal
analysis equipment it I possible to do TGA, Answer: d
DTA and DSC using the same instrument, Explanation: In thermogravimetric analysis
with some models, TGA and DTA may be (TGA), decomposition usually take place
carried out simultaneously. However, the under dynamic heating conditions over a
thermal analysis equipment is necessarily range of temperature Ti to Tf and a second
rather complicated and expensive in order constant weight plateau is then observed
that a wide variety of thermal events and above Tf, which corresponds to the weight of
properties may be studied.
the residue Wf.
6. In thermogravimetric analysis, the result
obtained appear as a __________ 9. The Ti and Tf temperature depends on
a) Continuous chart which of the following factor?
b) Continuous parabola a) Cooling rate
c) Continuous circular positions b) Mechanical property of the material
d) Discontinuous chart c) Thermal expansion coefficient
d) Atmosphere above the sample
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermogravimetric is a Answer: d
technique for measuring the change in weight Explanation: Initial and final temperature Ti,
of a substance as a function of temperature or Tf depends on variables such as heating rate,
time, the result usually appears a continuous the nature of the solid (e.g. its particle size)
chart record, a schematic, typical, single step and the atmosphere above the sample. The
decomposition reaction. effect of the atmosphere can be dramatic.
7. What is the range of the rate in ◦Cmin-1 10. What is the temperature required for the
required during the heating process in TGA? decomposition of CaCO3 in degree Celsius?
a) 1-20 a) 200
b) 25-50 b) 500
c) 100-200 c) 900
d) 150-1000 d) 1200
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: In the process of TGA Explanation: The decomposition in the
thermogravimetric technique, the sample thermogravimetric analysis of CaCO3 is
usually a few milligrams in weight, is heated
at a constant rate, typically in the range of 1- completed in vacuum at ~500◦C but in CO2 at
one atmosphere pressure, decomposition does
20 ◦Cmin-1 and a constant weight Wi, until it
not even commence until above 900◦C. Ti, Tf
begins to decompose at temperature Ti.
pertain to the particular experimental
41
conditions, therefore and do not necessarily 3. With reference to a two component system,
represent equilibrium decomposition an isobar indicates _______
temperatures. a) A region where the temperature remains
constant
b) An area below phase end products remains
TOPIC 3.7 TWO COMPONENT c) An area above which only the liquid vapors
SYSTEMS , LEAD-SILVER remains
SYSTEM d) A region where the composition lies in
equilibrium
1. What is the definition of a lower critical
temperature? Answer: d
a) The minimum temperature at which Explanation: An isobar is a line that
equilibrium is achieved indicates a region where the composition
b) The lowest temperature at which two remains constant and in the equilibrium state.
components will attain vapor state In a two component solid-liquid system, it is
c) The lowest temperature at which two drawn vertically covering a wide range of
components sublimates temperatures.
d) The lowest temperature at which two
4. Which of the following statements is not
components form a mixture
true for a system that has reached the eutectic
Answer: a temperature?
Explanation: The lower critical solution a) The system is a open system
temperature is the lowest temperature at b) The system is a miscible fluid
which two components are insoluble and c) Components lie in liquid state
attains equilibrium. Conversely, the upper d) A region between sublimation and eutectic
critical solution temperature is the highest curve lies stable
temperature at which two components are
Answer: a
soluble as single phase.
Explanation: The eutectic temperature is
2. With reference to a two component system, achieved by heating a liquid in the point
a vapor line indicates ________ where the density of the liquid state is equal
a) A region where the temperature and to the density of the vapor state. Here, the
pressure remains stable interface between the liquid and vapor
b) A region where the solubility remains vanishes resulting in a miscible fluid. This
constant can only occur in a closed system (otherwise
c) An area below which components do not the vapor would escape into the
mingle surroundings).
d) An area above which both the components
5. What does the term “ metastable” indicate?
mingle to form a single mixture
a) A place where the composition of the
Answer: a system remains constant
Explanation: A vapor line is another name b) A place where the pressure remains
for an isotherm. It represents constant constant with low value
temperature and constant pressure relation at c) An area below which a vapor- liquid
which the equilibrium is obtained. A vapor mixture is obtained
line helps in finding out equilibrium d) A region where the temperature remains
concentrations. constant
42
Answer: d container and under non-equilibrium

Explanation: A metastable is a line that conditions, the vapors are let out through the
indicates a place where the temperature walls of the container hence the container
remains constant. In a two component system wall has no role to play in the reaction.
it is drawn horizontally covering a wide range
of compositions. 9. Where does the particle growth occur?
a) Movement of grains
6. Which of the following statements are b) Movement of equilibrium liquid
correct about the equilibrium point on a two c) Equilibrium mixture
component system? d) Non equilibrium mixture
a) All the compounds are liquid
b) The boiling point of the mixture is less Answer: a
than the boiling points of the individual Explanation: During diffusion process in the
compounds transformation of solid to vapor state, the
c) The degree of freedom is 0 molecules move from regions of higher
d) Invariant reaction takes place concentration to regions of lower
concentrations and hence growth takes place
Answer: b n a controlled way.
Explanation: The Eutectic point on a phase
diagram is a point at which the mixture boils 10. Overall transformation rate changes with
at a temperature lower than that of the pure temperature as follows under what condition?
substances. The substance attains equilibrium a) Decreases
state. b) Increases then decreases
c) Follows a linear path
7. During metastable state, the size of the d) Increases with temperature
particle_________
a) Increases Answer: b
b) Decreases Explanation: According to the phase graph,
c) Won’t change at the solidus region, the temperature is high.
d) Not related As the melting point increases, the
temperature decreases and vice versa
Answer: a (applicable to all component systems).
Explanation: Since for a system to be in
equilibrium condition, its size automatically
increases by Mond’s effect which is why the
particle’s size increases during metastable
state due to changes in molecular size. UNIT IV FUELS AND
8. Which of the following is not responsible
COMBUSTION
for phase deposition?
a) Container wall TOPIC 4.1 FUELS:
b) Grain size INTRODUCTION -
c) Stacking effect
d) Disjoints CLASSIFICATION OF FUELS
Answer: a 1. Which type of fuel is lignite?

Explanation: Under equilibrium conditions, a) Secondary fuel
the molecules adhere to the center of the b) Primary fuel
43
c) Liquid fuel 5. Which type of coal give more amount of

d) Gaseous fuel heat after combustion?
a) Anthracite
Answer: b b) Peat
Explanation: Lignite is a primary fuel as it c) Lignite
can be extracted from nature without any sort d) Bituminous
of transformation process. Lignite is soft
brown coal. It is considered as the lowest Answer: a
rank of coal. Explanation: The coal is formed along this
process
2. Acetylene and synthesis gas are examples Peat → Lignite → Bituminous → Anthracite
of __________ Since anthracite is the purest form of the coal,
a) Primary gaseous fuels it gives the highest amount of heat after
b) Gaseous fuels combustion.
c) Secondary gaseous fuels
d) Liquid fuels 6. Which fuel is best suitable for blast furnace
process?
Answer: c a) Diesel
Explanation: Since both Acetylene and b) Hydrogen Gas
synthesis gas are formed by certain process c) Coal
and both are gaseous in nature, therefore they d) Coke
are secondary gaseous fuels. Acetylene can
be formed by the hydrolysis of calcium Answer: d
carbide. Explanation: Coke is best suitable for blast
furnace process as it also acts as a reducing
3. Alcohol is a primary fuel. agent in smelting iron ore. The specific heat
a) True of coke is 0.85 kJ/kg K.
b) False
7. Which fuel causes least pollution?
Answer: b a) Diesel
Explanation: Alcohol are formed by direct b) Coal
hydration of alkenes, that is why this is a false c) LPG (Liquid Petroleum Gas)
statement. Formation of ethanol by the d) Hydrogen gas
hydration of ethylene.
C2H4 + H2O → C2H5OH Answer: d
Explanation: Pollution is mainly caused by
4. Which of the fuel does have highest the presence of CO2 in air. Since after
specific energy? combustion of H2 it only gives water vapour
a) Diesel which is less polluting.
b) Coal
c) Kerosene 8. Which of the gas is not a constituent of
d) Nitromethane biogas?
a) Methane
Answer: a b) Hydrogen
Explanation: Specific energy is the amount c) CO2
of energy liberated after combustion, as
among these diesel liberated the highest d) SO2 (Sulphur di-oxide)
amount of energy which is 48 MJ/kg.
44
Answer: d to which the compactness increase, thus

Explanation: Since biogas is formed by the increasing its toughness, hardness and
domestic waste of home and industries, it brittleness.
does not contain the gases like SO2, NO2 etc.
It does contain the hydrogen sulphide. 2. On what factors does the specific gravity of
coal depends?
9. Which fuel can be produced from the a) Its calorific value and ash content
carbohydrate content of algae? b) Its ignition temperature and calorific value
a) Butanol c) Type of coal and ash content
b) Hydrogen gas d) Type of coal and calorific value
c) Coal
d) LPG (Liquid Petroleum Gas) Answer: c
Explanation: Specific gravity is the ratio of
Answer: a the density/mass of a substance to the
Explanation: The carbohydrate part of algae density/mass of reference substance. The total
is fermented due to which Butanol is ash content represents its mass and
produced. By this process, bio-ethanol can The type of coal is required for its density.
also be produced.
3. Which of the coal have the best heating
10. Which of the following fuel cannot be values in terms of volatile matter?
used in producing nuclear energy? a) Containing 20% volatile matter
a) Plutonium b) Containing 60% volatile matter
b) Uranium c) Containing 30% volatile matter
c) Tritium d) Containing 50% volatile matter
d) Deuterium
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Coals containing high volatile
Explanation: Since deuterium contains two matter produces long and smoky flame due to
electrons in its shell, it becomes difficult to which its heating value decreases. Semi-
break into a fully filled octet, due to which it bituminous coal has the highest heating value
cannot be used as a fuel in nuclear energy. due to less volatiles content.
4. Which type of coals have the highest

TOPIC 4.2 COAL grindability index?
a) Steam coals
1. How does the texture of coal changes with b) Gas coals
its maturity? c) House coals
a) Becomes hard, less brittle and moderately d) Pulverised coals
tough
b) Becomes hard, more brittle and more tough Answer: d
c) Becomes hard, more brittle and less tough Explanation: Grindability is the ease with
d) No change which a coal can be grounded. The
grindability index of pulverised coal is about
Answer: b 100. This is because of the volatile matter
Explanation: The texture of coal tends to the present in the coal, the higher the volatile
layer present on the coal and its maturity is matter of coal, the more will be its
from lignite to anthracite. The number of grindability index.
layers from lignite to anthracite increases due
45
5. How does the friability of the coal is c) House coals

tested? d) Pulverised coals
a) Drop shatter test
b) Thermal cracking Answer: a
c) Knocking Explanation: Steam coals are volatile
d) Proximate analysis lignitous coals which are used in steam
raising. These coals produce long smoky
Answer: a flames. Gas coals are strongly caking in
Explanation: Friability is the tendency of the nature.
coal to break into pieces. The more the
friability, the less will be the quality of coal. 9. Phosphorous and sulphur content in the
Splint and cannel coal are less friable. coal tend to make a metal brittle.
Knocking is the unusual sound produced by a) True
an engine. b) False
6. Which property of coal is tested in Answer: a

Audibert Arnu test? Explanation: A coal should not contain high
a) Bulk density phosphorous and sulphur content because
b) Colour coal have a role in number of metallurgical
c) Caking and coking operation due to which it affects the
d) Texture properties of metal and makes it brittle.
Answer: c 10. Which of the following is not a

Explanation: This method uses a dilatometer characteristic of coal?
to find out the swelling properties of coal. a) Weathering
Caking is the ability to form a coherent cake b) Slaking index
when the coal is carbonised. If there is c) Moisture content
residue formed during carbonisation, then the d) Bulk density
coals formed are called coking coals.
Answer: c
7. On which property of coal does the design Explanation: Moisture content represents the
of bunkers for the storage of coal depends? total vapours present inside the coal. Moisture
a) Specific gravity develops from the outside atmospheric
b) Bulk density conditions due to which it is not a
c) Grindability characteristic of coal.
d) Friability
Answer: b
TOPIC 4.3 ANALYSIS OF COAL
Explanation: Bunkers/coal bins are the (PROXIMATE AND ULTIMATE).
containers in which the coal can be CARBONIZATION
transported. Bulk density is weight of soil
present in coal. According to the bulk density 1. In analysis of coal, determination of
the design of containers are generated. _______ is done by Kjeldahl method.
a) Volatile matter
8. Which type of coals are non-caking in b) Nitrogen
nature? c) Ash
a) Steam coals d) Oxygen
b) Gas coals
46
Answer: b b) high
Explanation: In ultimate analysis of coal, c) 100
Nitrogen is determined by Kjeldahl method. d) 0
The method involves 3 steps which are
digestion, distillation and titration. In Answer: a
digestion, sample is digested in boiling Explanation: Good quality of coal should
concentrated sulphuric acid in presence of have less % of oxygen because increase in
catalyst and ammonium sulphate is obtained. 1% oxygen content decreases calorific value
In distillation, excess NaOH solution is added approximately by 1.7%. Ideal fuel should
and ammonia is obtained. In titration, have high calorific value and hence, less
ammonia is determined by volumetric acid %oxygen.
solution. The result can be expressed in terms
of %N. 5. Percentage of ash by analysis of coal is
given by _____
2. In determination of carbon and hydrogen a) (weight of residue/weight of sample) × 100
by ultimate analysis, increase in weight of b) (weight of sample – weight of residue) ×
calcium chloride bulb represents ______ 100
a) weight of water formed c) (weight of sample – weight of
b) weight of carbon dioxide formed residue)/weight of sample × 100
c) carbon d) (weight of residue – weight of sample) ×
d) hydrogen 100
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The gaseous products of Explanation: Ash is weight of residue
combustion are passed through two bulbs. obtained after complete combustion of 1 g of
One containing weighed amount of coal at 700‐750°C. Ash in % is given by, %A
anhydrous Calcium chloride which absorbs = (weight of residue/weight of sample) × 100.
water other containing weighed amount of
potassium hydroxide which absorbs carbon 6. In coal, Sulphur is usually present in the
dioxide. extent of __________
a) 0.5-3%
3. Hydrogen available for combustion is b) 90-95%
lesser than the actual one. c) 70-75%
a) true d) 80-85%
b) false
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Sulphur is generally present in
Explanation: Oxygen is present in combined the extent of 0.5 to 3% and is usually derived
form with hydrgen in the coal. It is very from ores like gypsum, iron pyrites, etc. High
difficult to break hydrogen-oxygen bond and percentage of sulphur in coal is undesirable to
hence, that combined form of hydrogen is not be used for making coke in the iron industry
available for combustion. Thus, free since it affects the quality and properties of
hydrogen available for combustion is lesser steel.
than the actual one.
7. In ultimate analysis, %hydrogen is given
4. Good quality of coal should have _____ % by __________
of oxygen. a) (Increase in weight of CaCl2 tube×2×100 /
a) low weight of coal sample taken×18)
47
b) (Increase in weight of KOH tube×2×100 / %Ash= (weight of ash formed/weight of dry

weight of coal sample taken×18) coal taken) × 100.
c) (Increase in weight of CaCl2 tube×4×100 /
weight of coal sample taken×18) 10. In proximate analysis of coal, %fixed
d) (Increase in weight of KOH tube×4×100 / carbon = __________
weight of coal sample taken×18) a) 100 – % (ash + volatile matter + moisture)
b) 100 – % (ash + moisture)
Answer: a c) 100 – % (ash + moisture) + %volatile
matter
M
Explanation: %hydrogen= (weight of
hydrogen/weight of coal sample taken) × 100 d) 100 – % (moisture + volatile matter)
In ultimate analysis of coal,
O
%H = (Increase in weight of CaCl2 Answer: a
Explanation: In proximate analysis of coal,
tube×2×100 / weight of coal sample
C
firstly percentage of ash, volatile matter and
taken×18). moisture is found out. Percentage of fixed
T.
carbon can be found out by subtracting the
8. In ultimate analysis, %carbon is given by
above percentages from 100 since coal
__________
consists of ash, moisture, volatile matter and
O
a) (Increase in weight of KOH tube×12×100 /
fixed carbon.
weight of coal sample taken×44)
b) (Increase in weight of KOH tube×2×100 /
weight of coal sample taken×18)
c) (Increase in weight of CaCl2 tube×12×100
SP
TOPIC 4.4 PETROLEUM
G
/ weight of coal sample taken×44) 1. What is the primary component of crude
d) (Increase in weight of CaCl2 tube×2×100 / oil?
LO
weight of coal sample taken×18) a) Sulfur

b) Carbon
Answer: a c) Hydrogen
Explanation: %C = (weight of carbon/weight
.B
d) Nitrogen
of coal sample taken) ×100
In the ultimate analysis of coal, Answer: b
17
%C = (Increase in weight of KOH Explanation: Crude oil is greenish brown and

tube×12×100 / weight of coal sample viscous oil found on the earth’s surface. It is
taken×44). primarily composed of hydrocarbons (79.5-
-R
87.1%) followed by hydrogen (11.5-14.8%),

9. __________ is the weight of residue sulfur (0.1-3.5%), and nitrogen and oxygen
obtained after burning a weighed amount of (0.1-0.5%).
SE
dry coal.
a) Ash 2. How is crude oil separated?
b) Volatile matter a) Crystallization
c) Moisture b) Fractional distillation
C
d) Carbon c) Decantation
d) Sublimation
Answer: a
Explanation: Ash is an unwanted matter and Answer: b
non-combustible which is the residue left Explanation: Crude oil is usually suspended
after all combustible substances are burnt off. on a layer of brine with a deposit of gas over
it. This form is usually not preferred for any
48
useful applications. The crude oil is therefore a) Lubricating oil

separated by fractional distillation and b) Grease
converted into desired products. c) Asphalt
d) Petroleum jelly
3. What type of gas is LPG?
a) Gasoline Answer: c
b) Kerosene Explanation: Lubricating oils and grease are
c) Uncondensed primarily used as lubricating agents, while
d) Heavy oil petroleum jelly is used for lubrication as well
M
as in cosmetics and medicines. Asphalt is a
Answer: c residue type product used for waterproofing
O
Explanation: Crude oil separated by of roofs and to make roads.
fractional distillation is made into a number
C
of products such as uncondensed gas. This 7. What is the function of petroleum coke?
gas is used for domestic and industrial a) Lubrication
T.
applications by the name liquefied petroleum b) In candles
gas (LPG). c) As fuel
d) As solvent
O
4. What is the boiling temperature of petrol?
a) 40-120oC Answer: c
b) 120-180oC
c) 180-250oC
SP
Explanation: Petroleum coke is a carbon-rich
group of products used as fuel. Petcoke is one
such type of the product, which is derived
G
d) 250-320oC from cracking process. Raw coke is referred
to as green coke.
LO
Answer: b
Explanation: Petrol, otherwise known as 8. Carbon black and hydrogen can be
gasoline, is commonly used as motor fuel. It manufactured using ________
may also be used as a solvent and in dry a) Natural gas
.B
cleaning applications. Petrol has a boiling b) Coal gas

temperature range of 120-180oC. c) Oil gas
17
d) Water gas
5. Which fuel/oil is used for obtaining
gasoline? Answer: a
Explanation: Natural gas is obtained from
-R
a) Kerosene
b) Diesel wells in oil-rich regions. It acts as a domestic
c) Heavy fuel and is also used to manufacture carbon
SE
d) Naphtha black and hydrogen. Carbon black is used as

a filler for rubber, whereas hydrogen is used
Answer: c in ammonia synthesis.
Explanation: Heavy oil is a crude oil product
C
used for acquiring gasoline by cracking 9. Coal gas is attained from to a process
process. It has a boiling temperature range of carried out at ________
250-320oC. This gasoline, in turn, is used for a) 300oC
motor fuel. b) 700oC
6. Which of the following is not used as a c) 900oC
lubricant? d) 1300oC
49
Answer: d coal and coke alternatively. This is

Explanation: Coal gas is produced by heating maintained at about 900-1000oC in a steel
the coal at 1300oC when there is a lack of air. vessel reactor. This gas is used a source of
It is usually done in coke ovens or gas hydrogen and fuel gas, as well as an
making retorts. This gas is colorless and is illuminating gas.
lighter than air.
13. How is biogas prepared?
10. Oil gas is obtaining by the cracking of a) Decantation
________ b) Filtration
a) Kerosene oil c) Fermentation
b) Diesel oil d) Sublimation
c) Heavy oil
d) Gasoline Answer: c
Explanation: Biogas is a cheap and
Answer: a convenient fuel used for cooking and for
Explanation: Creating oil gas is a permanent lighting. It is prepared by the anaerobic
process. This is done by breaking of complex fermentation of cattle dung.
hydrocarbons of kerosene into simpler forms.
This process is known as cracking. Oil finds
its application as a laboratory gas.
TOPIC 4.5 MANUFACTURE OF
SYNTHETIC PETROL
11. Which of these gases is used for heating (BERGIUS PROCESS)
open-hearth furnaces?
a) Oil gas 1. Which type of coal is used in Bergius
b) Producer gas process?
c) Biogas a) Anthracite coal
d) Water gas b) Steam coal
c) Pulverised coal
Answer: b
d) Gas coal
Explanation: Producer gas is known as a
combination of combustible gases, carbon Answer: d
monoxide, and hydrogen. This gas finds its Explanation: Bergius process is used to
application in the heating of open-hearth produce synthetic gasoline form low ash
furnaces, muffle furnaces, and retorts used in pulverised coal. This coal is finely divided
the production of coke. Also, it can be used as into powder and is converted into a paste.
a reducing means in metallurgical practices.
2. Which substance is mixed with the
12. A process of production of water gas is pulverised coal in the Bergius process?
carried out at ________ a) Sulphuric acid
a) 140-200oC b) Heavy oil and catalyst
b) 200-400oC c) Heavy oil
c) 650-750oC d) Catalyst
d) 900-1000oC Answer: b
Explanation: The paste of pulverised coal is
Answer: d
mixed with a heavy oil and a catalyst. Nickel
Explanation: Water gas is formed by
oleate is used as a catalyst in this process.
allowing steam and air to flow through hot
This mixture is then sent to a converter.
50
3. At what temperature does the Bergius c) Olefins

process is carried out? d) Aromatic compounds
a) 200-300 0C
Answer: d
b) 700-800 0C
Explanation: The gasoline obtained from the
c) 350-500 0C Bergius process is rich in aromatic and
d) 0-150 0C branched-chain hydrocarbons. Tetraethyl lead
is an anti-knocking agent which is used for
Answer: c increasing the octane number.
Explanation: The temperature of converter is
set to about 350-500 0C and a pressure of 7. What happens to the middle oil fraction in
about 200-250 atmospheres where the paste the Bergius process?
of coal meets hydrogen. The Fischer-Tropsch a) The oil is converted into olefins
b) The oil is converter into paraffin
process is carried out at 200-300 0C.
c) The oil is converted into gasoline
4. Which product is obtained from the d) The oil is converted into hydrocarbons
converter in the Bergius process?
Answer: c
a) Hydrocarbons
Explanation: The middle oil fraction is
b) Olefins
subjected to hydrogen in the presence of a
c) Fuel oil
catalyst to produce gasoline. Same process is
d) Gasoline
carried out in the top fraction of the reactor.
Answer: a The heavy oil fraction is recycled to make a
Explanation: The combination of hydrogen paste with a fresh batch of coal powder.
with the carbon framework of the coal yields
various hydrocarbons from wax to gases. The 8. Which undesirable compound is present in
gasoline?
high molecular weight hydrocarbons are
a) Sulphur compounds
decomposed further at the high temperature
b) Phosphorous compounds
prevailing in the converter giving lower
c) Chloride compounds
hydrocarbons.
d) Magnesium compounds
5. Same catalyst is used for production of oil
Answer: a
in the Bergius process as used in the
production of hydrocarbons. Explanation: The gasoline obtained by any
a) True process contains some sulphur compounds
b) False and unsaturated hydrocarbons, which get
oxidized and polymerised to gums and
Answer: b sludge’s. Hence it has to be refined by
Explanation: For production of gasoline, oils chemical processes.
produced in the first stage of the process are
subjected to further hydrogenation in the 9. How much percentile of sulphuric acid is
presence of different catalyst. Nickel oleate is treated with gasoline for the removal of its
not used for this process. impurities?
a) 99 %
6. Which compounds are rich in gasoline b) 60 %
obtained from the Bergius process? c) 80 %
a) Tetraethyl lead d) 40 %
b) Ethanol
51
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The impure gasoline is treated Explanation: n-heptane is a straight chain
with cold 80 % sulphuric acid. This does not hydrocarbon which knocks readily and hence
react with paraffin, naphthenes and aromatic its octane number is zero. Presence of straight
compounds. It reacts with unsaturated chain hydrocarbon in gasoline reduces its rate
hydrocarbons to produce alcohols and ethers. of combustion.
10. Removal of gaseous impurities like 3. Which of the following compound is

methane, ethane, propane and butane from considered for calculating the cetane number?
gasoline is called as a) α-methyl naphthalene
_____________________ b) n-hexane
a) Stabilization of gasoline c) iso-octane
b) Sweetening of gasoline d) cetane molecule
c) Doping of gasoline
d) Blending of gasoline Answer: d
Explanation: Cetane, C16H34, is a saturated
Answer: a hydrocarbon that has a very short ignition lag
Explanation: The stabilization of gasoline is as compared to any commercial diesel fuel.
achieved by passing the impure gasoline into Its cetane number is 100. Cetane number is
a fractionating tower having 49 plates. The the percentile of cetane in a mixture of cetane
lower plates are heated by steam, while the and α-methyl naphthalene.
gasoline is introduced near the upper plates.
4. What should be the cetane number of
TOPIC 4.6 KNOCKING - middle speed diesel engine?
a) At least 35
OCTANE NUMBER - CETANE b) At least 25
NUMBER c) At least 65
d) At least 45
1. Which of the following compound is
considered for calculating the octane number? Answer: a
a) n-heptane Explanation: The cetane number of high
b) n-hexane speed diesel engine should be at least 45, that
c) iso-octane of middle speed diesel engine should be at
d) iso-butane least 35 and that of low speed diesel engine
should be at least 25.
Answer: c
Explanation: The octane number of a fuel is 5. The knocking characteristic of gasoline
numerically taken as the percentage of iso- fuel are expressed in terms of cetane number.
octane in a mixture of iso-octane and n- a) True
heptane. The octane number of iso-octane is b) False
100 and of n-heptane is 0.
Answer: b
2. Which of the following compound readily Explanation: The knocking characteristics of
goes under the process of knocking? diesel fuel are expressed in terms of cetane
a) 2-ethly butane number and that of gasoline fuel is expressed
b) n-heptane in terms of octane number. The molecule with
c) benzene the highest octane number has a least cetane
d) toluene number.
52
6. Which of the following substance is used 9. Which of the following exhaust gas
to decrease knocking in diesel fuel? produces least harmless components after its
a) Tetra ethyl lead combustion?
b) Benzene a) Carbon monoxide
c) Sodium hydroxide b) Ethyne
d) Acetone peroxide c) NOx
d) N2
Answer: d
Explanation: The knocking in diesel fuel can Answer: d
be reduced by adding substances like ethyl Explanation: Gases produced by the
nitrite, ethyl nitrate, isoamyl nitrate etc. This
compression ignition engines are said to be
process also increases the cetane number of
exhaust gases. This engines operate with air-
diesel fuel.
fuel ratios of 14:1 on load and 70:1 on idling.
7. Which of the following is used to reduce
10. Which of the following has the highest
the surface tension in diesel fuel?
cetane number?
a) Chemical additives
a) n-heptane
b) Inhibitors
b) n-hexane
c) Poly hydrocarbon
c) n-pentane
d) Dopes
d) n-butane
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: Chemical additives are used to
Explanation: n-heptane has maximum
reduce surface tension thus promoting the branched atom due to which it has the highest
formation of finer spray. Inhibitors are used to
cetane number of all. This fuel is good for
delay or prevent gum formation. Poly
diesel engines.
hydrocarbons are used to preserve the fluid
properties.
TOPIC 4.7 DIESEL OIL
8. By which process does the knocking starts
in diesel engine? 1. For best results of efficient combustion,
a) Due to sudden spontaneous combustion of high speed diesel engines need an
last portion of fuel approximate cetane number of
b) Due to delay in spontaneous combustion of a) 100
last portion of fuel b) 10
c) Due to the rise in temperature of diesel c) 50
engine d) 5
d) Due to the parts of diesel engine
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: Due to the presence of
impurities in diesel, its spontaneous 2. Calorific value of diesel oil is of the order
combustion of the last portion of fuel takes of
some time. Due to this their produces an a) 3000 kcal/kg
uneven sound in the engine which is called b) 5000 kcal/kg
knocking. c) 7500 kcal/kg
d) 10000 kcal/kg
53
Answer: d 8. Choose the correct statement, detonation

Explanation: None. can be controlled by
a) varying compression ratio
3. Carbon residue in diesel oil should not be b) using lean mixture
more than c) retarding the spark timing
a) 1% d) reducing the r.p.m
b) 0.5%
c) 0.1% Answer: c
d) 0.01% Explanation: Detonation can be controlled
by retarding the spark timing.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 9. The efficiency of I.C. engines normally is
of the order of
4. The most popular firing order in case of a) 15-20%
four cylinder in-line I.C. engine is b) 20-25%
a) 1-2-3-4 c) 25-30%
b) 1-3-2-4 d) 30-35%
c) 1-4-2-3
d) 1-3-4-2 Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 10. The firing order of a six stroke I.C. engine
is
5. The compression ratio of motor cars is a) 1-3-6-5-2-4
a) 5 b) 1-4-2-5-6-3
b) 7 c) 1-6-2-5-4-3
c) 10 d) 1-5-3-4-2-6
d) 13
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: The firing order of a six stroke
Explanation: None. I.C. engine is 1-5-3-4-2-6 and firing order in
case of four cylinder in-line I.C. engine is 1-
6. The specific gravity of diesel oil is 3-4-2.
a) 1
b) 0.7 11. Sulphur content in diesel engine oil
c) 0.85 should not be more than
d) 0.5 a) 10%
b) 5%
Answer: c c) 1%
Explanation: None. d) 0.1%
7. Freezing temperature of petrol is about Answer: c
a) 0.65 Explanation: None.
b) 0.75
c) 0.85 12. The ash content in diesel oil should be not
d) 0.95 be more than
a) 1%
Answer: b b) 5%
Explanation: None.
54
c) 0.1% b) Oil gas

d) 0.01% c) Refinery gas
d) Liquefied petroleum gas
Answer: d
Explanation: The ash content in diesel oil Answer: d
should be not be more than 0.01% while Explanation: Primary gaseous fuel are those,
sulphur content in diesel engine oil should not which are already present in nature and
be more than 1%. secondary gaseous fuels are those which are
obtained from primary gaseous fuels. Natural
gas is also a primary gaseous fuel.
TOPIC 4.8 NATURAL GAS
4. Which of the following compound is
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage present in natural gas?
of gaseous fuel? a) Urea
a) Gaseous fuels are very difficult to operate b) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Gaseous fuels are highly inflammable c) Methane
c) Gaseous fuels cannot be ignited instantly d) Sulphonic acid
d) They produce lot of smoke on combustion
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: Natural gas is mainly
Explanation: The particles in gaseous fuels composed of methane and small quantities of
are separated from each other, due to which ethane and other hydrocarbons. Urea consists
their combustion becomes very easy. This of nitrogen due to which it is not present in
increases the inflammability of the gaseous natural gas.
fuel. Special care should be taken to avoid
fire hazards. 5. Which type of natural gas is called wet
natural gas?
2. Which of the following is a major a) Containing lower hydrocarbon with more
advantage of gaseous fuel over liquid and ethane
solid fuel? b) Containing higher hydrocarbon with more
a) Gaseous coal does not form ash ethane
b) Gaseous coal can be manufactured at a c) Containing lower hydrocarbon with more
central place methane
c) Oxidising and reducing atmospheres can be d) Containing higher hydrocarbon with more
easily maintained methane
d) They are economic than solid and liquid
fuels Answer: d
Explanation: If higher hydrocarbons are
Answer: a present along with methane, then the natural
Explanation: Ash content is present in the gas is called “Rich” or “Wet” natural gas. It is
fuel itself. Due to the presence of ash content also called “Marsh gas” because it majorly
in solid and liquid fuels, its rate of contains methane.
combustion decreases. Also, a lot of smoke is
generated due to the presence of ash content. 6. From which of the following natural gas is
majorly obtained?
3. Which of the following is a primary a) From oil fields
gaseous fuel? b) From coal fields
a) Water gas
55
c) From seas gas. At the maximum 15 % of H2S in found

d) From sun in natural gas till now.
Answer: a 10. Which of the following process is used to
Explanation: Most of the natural gas used as recover vapours of liquid hydrocarbons in wet
fuel is derived from oil fields. However, natural gas?
sometimes, the gas is evaporated from the oil a) Evaporation
and diffused through rocks, is trapped by b) Distillation
impervious dome shaped structure.
M
c) Cracking
d) Adsorption
7. Which of the following natural gas has the
O
highest ignition temperature? Answer: d
a) Natural gas obtained from oil fields Explanation: The vapours of liquid
C
b) Natural gas obtained from coal fields hydrocarbons can be recovered by
c) Natural gas obtained from rocks condensation, absorption in oil and by
T.
d) Natural gas obtained from sea adsorption on charcoal, silica or alumina gel.
The liquid so recovered is called casinghead
Answer: c
O
gasoline.
Explanation: The natural gas produced from
rocks by the diffusion of oil constituents a gas
field that may be under high pressure. Due to
this high pressure, the flow potential of gas
increase, which produces static electricity and
SP
TOPIC 4.9 COMPRESSED
NATURAL GAS (CNG)
G
increases the ignition temperature which is 1. Gaseous fuel is most suited for IC engine
hazardous for us.
LO
since physical delay is almost

a) zero
8. How much percentile of propane is present
b) more
in natural gas?
c) less
a) 5.5 %
.B
d) none of the mentioned

b) 3.7 %
c) 1.8 % Answer: a
17
d) 0.5 % Explanation: As compared to other fuels

there is almost no delay in gaseous fuel and
Answer: b
for this purpose it is preferred the most.
Explanation: At an average 88.5 % of
-R
methane is present in natural gas. 5.5 % of 2. Advantage of hydrogen as an IC engine

ethane, 3.7 % of propane and 1.8 % of butane fuel
SE
are present in natural gas. The higher a) high volumetric efficiency

hydrocarbons are present at about 0.5 %. b) low fuel cost
c) no HC and CO emissions
9. H2S is not present in natural gas.
C

a) True
b) False Answer: c
Explanation: The main advantage of
Answer: b hydrogen as an IC engine fuel is that there is
Explanation: H2S is present in small quantity no HC and CO emissions.
in natural gas. If it is present in an appreciable
amount, then it is called as “Sour” natural
56
3. Disadvantage of hydrogen as a fuel in IC Answer: b

engine is Explanation: None.
a) storage is safe
b) low NOx 8. The energy content of air hydrogen mixture
c) detonating tendency is _________ than liquid hydrocarbon fuels.
d) easy handling a) lower
b) higher
Answer: c c) negligible
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
4. Major constituent of natural gas is Answer: a

a) ethane Explanation: None.
b) methane
c) butane TOPIC 4.10 LIQUEFIED
d) propane
PETROLEUM GASES (LPG)
Answer: b
Explanation: Only methane is the major 1. At normal ambient temperature and
constituent of natural gas. atmospheric pressure, in which form LPG is
obtained?
5. Octane of natural gas is a) Solid
a) 60-80 b) Gaseous
b) 80-100 c) Liquid
c) >100 d) Solid-liquid
d) <60
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: LPG is a certain mixture of
Explanation: The octane number of natural light hydrocarbons derived from petroleum.
gas is always > 100. At normal temperature and pressure it is in
gaseous state and later on it is condensed to
6. Major disadvantage of LPG as fuel in the liquid state by the application of moderate
automobiles is pressure.
a) reduction in life of engine
b) less power compared to gasoline 2. Under which compound name does the
c) all of the mentioned liquid petroleum gas (LPG) are sold?
d) none of the mentioned a) Urea
b) Ethylene
Answer: c c) Benzoyl peroxide
Explanation: None. d) Butane
7. Hydrogen gas has ______________ self- Answer: d
ignition temperature. Explanation: Propane and butane are present
a) very low in the largest amounts in LPG. Small
b) very high quantities of ethane, pentane, ethylene and
c) no pentene are also present. Under trade names it
d) none of the mentioned is represented as HP, Bharat gas and Indian
gas in India.
57
3. By which process only saturated c) Colder region

hydrocarbons are obtained in LPG? d) Terrestrial region
a) Straight distillation
b) Thermal Cracking Answer: c
c) Hydrocracking Explanation: LPG containing propane is
d) Reforming found in the colder region due to less
temperature and pressure conditions. These
Answer: a are found towards the north pole of the earth.
Explanation: The LPG obtained from heavier
hydrocarbons by straight distillation process 7. Liquid petroleum gas (LPG) is corrosive to
only contains saturated hydrocarbons, where steel.
as the LPG obtained from Thermal cracking a) True
or hydrocracking contains both saturated and b) False
unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Answer: b
4. Which type of LPG is mostly produced in Explanation: The sulphur and phosphorous
Indian refineries? content in LPG are very low due to which
a) Grade A these are non-corrosive to steel. This type of
b) Grade B fuel is used in industries having large steel
c) Grade C supplies.
d) Grade D
8. What happens when LPG is inhaled in
Answer: b large concentrations?
Explanation: According to the Bureau of a) It kills a person
Indian Standards, grade B contains a mixture b) It increases a person’s eye sight
of butane and propane. This type of LPG are c) It does not have any effect on person’s
supplied for domestic uses. health
d) It causes a little anaesthesia
5. According to the Bureau of Indian
Standards which type of LPG only contains Answer: d
butane in them? Explanation: Butane and propane are present
a) Grade A in large amount are LPG. If inhaled in large
b) Grade B quantities, it becomes anaesthetic which can
c) Grade C cause a person to fall after some time.
d) Grade D
9. What is the odour of Liquid Petroleum Gas
Answer: a (LPG)?
Explanation: Grade A consist predominantly a) It is odourless
of butanes, butylene or mixture of butanes b) Fruity smell
and butylene’s. This type of LPG are most c) Undesirable odour
suitable for use due to their moderate rate of d) Alcoholic smell
combustion.
Answer: a
6. In which regions does the LPG containing Explanation: LPG does not have a
propane are found? characteristic odour. Highly odorous
a) Hotter region compounds such as ethyl and propyl
b) Monsoon region merchants are deliberately mixed so as to
58
help in the detection of any accidental 3. Ethyl alcohol reduces the _________
leakage. a) oxygen emissions
b) efficiency
10. In which type of industries LPG is used as c) polluting emissions
a fuel? d) nitrogen emissions
a) Steel industries
b) Plastic Industries Answer: c
c) In the production of olefins Explanation: Ethyl alcohol contains nascent
d) In the production of coal gas oxygen atoms that reduce the pollutants like
CO and other hydro carbons.
Answer: c
Explanation: LPG is used as a feedstock for 4. Power alcohol is _______ than petrol.
the manufacturing of olefins by the process of a) bad product
pyrolysis. It is also used as a domestic fuel for b) less efficient
internal combustion engines. c) costlier
d) cheaper
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning
Series – Engineering Chemistry. Answer: d
Explanation: Power alcohol is cheaper than
petrol. It is the main advantage of the power
TOPIC 4.11 POWER ALCOHOL alcohols made them to be fuels.
AND BIODIESEL.
COMBUSTION OF FUELS: 5. Main disadvantage of the power alcohol is
INTRODUCTION _______
a) starting troubles
b) more cost
1. Power alcohols contains ________ c) increases foreign currency
a) 50-60% of petrol d) increases octane number of petrol
b) 70-80% of petrol
c) 50-60% of ethanol Answer: a
d) 70-80% of ethanol Explanation: The main disadvantages of the
power alcohols are starting troubles due to the
Answer: b high surface tension and atomization.
Explanation: When ethyl alcohol is used in
internal combustion engines then it is called 6. What is the colour of the bio diesel?
as power. So, it contains 70-80% of petrol and a) orange
20-25% of ethanol. b) light yellow
c) dark orange
2. Alcohol can absorb __________ d) light brown
a) traces of water
b) traces of impurities Answer: b
c) traces of dust Explanation: The bio diesel is light yellow in
d) traces of carbon colour. Most of the power alcohols are yellow
in colour as they are hydrocarbons.
Answer: a
Explanation: Alcohol has the power to 7. The natural gas along with the petroleum is
absorb the traces of water present in petrol as called __________
it dissolves in water. a) water gas
59
b) oil gas a) 281-621kg/cm2

c) wet gas b) 482-591kg/cm2
d) heavy oil
c) 200-248kg/cm2
Answer: c d) 800-828kg/cm2
Explanation: The natural gas along with the
petroleum is called as wet gas and water gas Answer: c
is the mixture of the CO and water. Explanation: CNG is very light weight gas.
So, the storage of the gas is little difficult. So,
8. The calorific value of the natural gas is? it is stored at a pressure of 200-248kg/cm2.
a) 1200-1400kcal/m3
b) 500-800kcal/m3 12. Boiling point of LPG is ___________
a) 546k
c) 800-900Kcal/m3 b) 373k
d) 12000-14000kcal/m3 c) above room temperature
d) below room temperature
Answer: d
Explanation: 12000-14000kcal/m3 is the Answer: d
calorific value of the natural gas which is Explanation: LPG has the property of fast
very high value and produces a lot of heat. ignition and it needs very less amount of
energy to burn that is the heat supplied is very
9. Natural gas contains ___________ low about the temperature less than that if
a) methane=70-90% room temperature.
b) benzene=40-30%
c) hydrogen=50% 13. CNG has high auto-ignition temperature
d) methane=80-40% of _______
a) 813k
Answer: a b) 993k
Explanation: The composition of natural gas c) 1163k
is: methane=70-90%; benzene=5-10%; d) 1273k
CO+Carbon dioxide=remainder.
Answer: a
10. The calorific value of LPG is Explanation: CNG also have high auto
_____________ ignition energy and has a calorific value of
a) 34800kcal/m3 900 kJ/mole. Its auto ignition temperature is
b) 84000kcal/m3 about 813k.
c) 278000kcal/m3
d) 29000kcal/m3 TOPIC 4.12 CALORIFIC VALUE
Answer: c 1. Which of the following statements is

Explanation: The calorific value of the LPG correct?
is more than that of the natural gas. It is about a) 1k.Cal=2B.Th.U
278000kcal/m3. So, it is more efficient than b) 1B.Th.U=252Cal
the natural gas. c) 1k.Cal=100Cal
d) 1k.Cal=4C.H.U
11. CNG is stored at a pressure of
___________
60
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: 1B.Th.U=252Cal is the correct Explanation: The products in finding NCV
one. 1k.Cal=2B.Th.U is wrong because are allowed to escape as the hot gases has no
1k.Cal=3.968B.Th.U=2.2 C.H.U. So chance of condensation. Cooled in HCV.
1k.Cal=4C.H.U is also wrong. Kilo means
1000. So, 1k.Cal=1000Cal. 5. The Bomb calorimeter is used to determine
the calorific value of _________
2. To calculate HCV of the fuel, the products a) solids and liquid fuels
of combustion are cooled down to b) solid and gaseous fuels
__________ c) liquid fuels that can be easily vaporized
a) 600F d) solid fuels only
b) 700F
c) 400F Answer: a
d) 200F Explanation: In Bomb calorimeter, we can
find the calorific value of both solid and gas
Answer: a fuels. In Boy’s calorimeter we can fin
Explanation: The products of combustion are calorific value for gaseous and easily
cooled down to 600F or 150C that is room vaporized liquid fuels.
temperature. The hydrogen gas gets converted
into steam. 6. The calorific value of LPG is generally
_______ than that of coal.
3. When the coal is completely burnt in air, a) higher
then the maximum temperature reached is b) lower
called _________ c) half
a) calorific value of coal d) very lesser
b) gross calorific value
c) calorific intensity of coal Answer: a
d) net calorific value Explanation: Generally, the calorific values
of liquid fuels are more than that of solid
Answer: c fuels. They produce more heat than liquid.
Explanation: Calorific value of coal is So, the calorific value of LPG is more than
defined as the amount of heat liberated during that of coal.
combustion of fuel completely. Gross
calorific value or HCV means the total heat 7. If there is more oxygen content in fuel,
liberated after combustion of fuel and then the calorific value of the fuel is
products must be cooled. Net calorific value _________
is the total heat liberated after combustion of a) high
fuel and products are allowed to escape. So, b) low
the maximum temperature reached is calorific c) moderate
intensity of coal. d) very high
4. To calculate the net calorific value, the Answer: b

products are _________ Explanation: The oxygen content in fuel will
a) cooled reduce its ability to burn and so that it cannot
b) allowed to escape produce more amount of heat. So, the
c) heated calorific value will be low.
d) collected
61
8. Which of the following fuel gas will have a) 288 K

the highest calorific value? b) 315 K
a) Water gas c) 390 K
b) Bio gas d) 350 K
c) Producer gas
d) Natural gas Answer: a
Explanation: At 288 K the products are
Answer: d cooled down, so as to get exact gross calorific
Explanation: Natural gas produces a high value. It can be cooled down till room
amount of heat when compared to the other temperature.
three gases. Water gas and producer gas are
synthetic fuels and natural gas natural fuel. 4. What happens to the hydrogen present in
fuel for calculating gross calorific value?
a) It combines with carbon to form methane
TOPIC 4.13 HIGHER AND b) It combines with chlorine to form
LOWER CALORIFIC VALUES- hydrochloric acid
THEORETICAL CALCULATION c) It combines with oxygen to form hydrogen
OF CALORIFIC VALUE per oxide
d) It gets converted into steam
1. On which property of fuel it’s calorific Answer: d
value is based? Explanation: After combustion of hydrogen,
a) Specific heat it gets converted into water vapour which
b) Efficiency then settles down as steam. After this process
c) Cost the products of combustion are cooled down.
d) Ignition temperature
5. How does the latent heat of condensation is
Answer: b included in gross calorific value?
Explanation: The calorific value is the total a) By the steam produced by the combustion
amount of heat liberated by complete of hydrogen
combustion a unit amount of fuel, which is b) By the combustion of products other than
the total efficiency of the fuel. carbon and hydrogen
c) By the combustion of carbon
2. What is the unit of calorific value in d) By the total heat produced in the system
fps(foot pound sec)?
a) Gram calorie (g cal) Answer: a
b) Pound calorie Explanation: The steam generated after
c) British thermal unit/ft3 combustion gets condensed into water and
d) Calorie/gram2 latent heat is evolved. The latent heat so
liberated is included in gross calorific value.
Answer: b
Explanation: B.T.U. is the amount of heat 6. What’s the basic formulae for calculating
required to rise the temperature of 1 lb of gross calorific value?
water through 1 0F. Centigrade heat unit a) [8080 %C + 3450(%H – %O⁄8) + 2240
(CHU) can also be used in fps system. %S]⁄100 cal/gm
b) [8080 %C + 34500(%H – %O⁄24) + 2240
3. At how much temperature does the %S]⁄100 cal/gm
products of combustion should be cooled c) [8080 %C + 34500(%H – %O⁄16) + 2240
down to get Gross Calorific Value?
62
%S]⁄100 cal/gm TOPIC 4.14 IGNITION

d) [8080 %C + 34500(%H⁄1 – %O⁄8) + 2240
%S]⁄100 cal/gm TEMPERATURE
Answer: d 1. A good fuel should possess ______

Explanation: This formulae is also called as calorific value.
Dulong’s formula. With the help of a) high
%C,%H,%O and %S present in fuel gross b) low
calorific value can be calculated. c) very low
d) moderate
7. Net Calorific Value is greater than Gross
Calorific Value. Answer: a
a) True Explanation: Calorific value is the total
b) False amount of heat liberated on combustion of
unit mass or unit volume of fuel in the
Answer: b presence of air or oxygen. A good fuel should
Explanation: NCV = [GCV – 0.09%H×587] possess high calorific value since the amount
cal/gm, since both GCV and % H are positive of heat liberated and the temperature attained
the value of NCV will be less than GCV. thereby depends upon this property of a fuel.
8. Which of the following properties a good 2. How should be the ignition temperature of
fuel should have? an ideal fuel?
a) Low Calorific value a) moderate
b) Moderate Calorific value b) low
c) High Calorific value c) very low
d) High ignition temperature d) very high
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Calorific value is the total Explanation: The lowest temperature to
amount of heat liberated by complete which the fuel must be preheated so that it
combustion of fuel, therefore the more the starts burning smoothly is called ignition
calorific value will be, the good the fuel will temperature. Low ignition temperature can
be. cause fire hazards during storage and
transportation of fuel. In case of high ignition
9. Which of the fuel has the highest calorific temperature, there might be some difficulty
value? during ignition of fuel. So, an ideal fuel
a) Butane should have moderate ignition temperature.
b) Wood
c) Kerosene 3. Fuel should have low moisture content.
d) Natural gas a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: The calorific value of butane is Answer: a
118 MJ/kg, this is due to the saturation of Explanation: Moisture if present in the fuel,
carbon bonding in butane, where as the reduces the heating value of the fuel. This
calorific value of wood is lowest which is 16 ultimately leads to loss of money as moisture
MJ/kg. is paid at the same rate as that of fuel. Hence,
63
an ideal fuel should have low moisture Answer: a

content. Explanation: Handling cost of solid fuel is
high because labour is required in their
4. In which type of fuel given below, risk of storage, transport, etc. Whereas liquid and
fire hazard is greatest? gaseous fuel can be easily transported through
a) Solid fuel pipes.
b) Gaseous fuel
c) Liquid fuel 8. The lowest temperature to which the fuel
d) Peat must be preheated so that it starts burning
smoothly is called ______ temperature.
Answer: b a) Ignition
Explanation: Risk of fire hazards in gaseous b) Combustion
fuel is very high because these fuels are c) Boiling point of fuel
highly inflammable. Peat is a type of solid d) Preheating
fuel.
Answer: a
5. _____ is easy in terms of storage. Explanation: The lowest temperature to
a) Solid fuel which the fuel must be preheated so that it
b) Liquid fuel starts burning smoothly is called ignition
c) Gaseous fuel temperature. An ideal fuel should have
d) Natural gas moderate ignition temperature.
Answer: a 9. Which of the following fuel cannot be used
Explanation: Solid fuel is easy to store. in the internal combustion engine?
Liquid fuel should be stored in closed a) gasoline
containers only. Gaseous fuel must be stored b) diesel
in leak proof storage tanks. Natural gas is a c) fuel oil
type of gaseous fuel. d) anthracite coal
6. Rate of combustion should be ______ Answer: d

a) Very rapid Explanation: Anthracite is a type of solid
b) Moderate fuel. It is not possible to use solid fuel in
c) Slow internal combustion engine. Only liquid or
d) Very slow gaseous fuels are possible to be used in the
internal combustion engine.
Answer: b
Explanation: If the rate of combustion is low, 10. In which of the following, smoke is
then a part of heat liberated may get radiated produced maximum?
instead of raising the temperature. If a) Solid fuel
combustion rate is too high, reaction gets out b) Liquid fuel
of control. So, good fuel should have c) Gaseous fuel
moderate rate of combustion. d) Coal gas
7. Handling cost of solid fuel is high Answer: a

compared to liquid and gaseous fuel. Explanation: In solid fuel, smoke is
a) True invariably produced. In liquid fuel burning is
b) False clean however high carbon and aromatic
64
liquid fuels may produce smoke. Smoke is Answer: c

not produced in gaseous fuels. Explanation: None.
5. Auto-ignition temperature is
TOPIC 4.15 SPONTANEOUS a) maximum temperature to which oil is
IGNITION TEMPERATURE heated in order to give off inflammable
vapour in sufficient quantity to ignite
1. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase momentarily when bought in contact with a
in air inlet temperature, will flame
a) increase linearly b) that at which it catches fire without
b) decrease linearly external aid
c) increase parabolically c) indicated by 90% distillation temperature
d) decrease parabolically d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: Auto-ignition temperature is
defined as that temperature at which it
2. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to catches fire without external aid while
a) instantaneous and rapid burning of the first volatility of diesel fuel is indicated by 90%
part of the charge distillation temperature.
b) instantaneous auto ignition of last part of
charge 6. Ignition lag is
c) reduction of delay period a) the time taken by fuel after injection to
d) none of the mentioned reach upto auto-ignition temperature
b) time before actual fuel injection and the
Answer: a pump plinger starts to pump fuel
Explanation: None. c) time corresponding to actual injection and
top dead center
3. Volatility of diesel fuel is d) none of the mentioned
a) maximum temperature to which oil is
heated in order to give off inflammable Answer: a
vapour in sufficient quantity to ignite Explanation: None.
momentarily when bought in contact with a
flame 7. The delay period in petrol engine is of the
b) it catches fire without external aid order of
c) indicated by 90% distillation temperature a) 0.001 sec
d) none of the mentioned b) 0.002 sec
c) 0.01 sec
Answer: c d) 0.1 sec
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
4. Violent sound pulsations within the Explanation: None.
cylinder of an I.C. engine are caused due to
a) heavy turbulence 8. Detonation is caused by the following
b) improved scavenging unstable compounds
c) detonation a) peroxides, aldehydes and ketones
d) pre-ignition b) peroxides, aldehydes, oxides and sulphides
65
c) aldehydes, oxides and ketones 13. Ignition quality of diesel fuel oil is
d) none of the mentioned expressed by an index called
a) octane number
Answer: a b) cetane number
Explanation: Detonation is caused by c) calorific value
peroxides, aldehydes and ketones. d) none of the mentioned
9. In order to prevent knock in the S.I. Answer: b

engines, the charge away from the spark plug Explanation: Cetane number is defined as the
should have ignition quality of diesel fuel oil is expressed
a) low temperature by an index.
b) low density
c) rich mixture
d) all of the mentioned TOPIC 4.16 EXPLOSIVE RANGE
Answer: d 1. In presence of which gas is the fuel burnt

Explanation: None. to generate energy in the form of heat?
a) Oxygen
10. To reduce the possibility of knock in C.I. b) Hydrogen
engines, the first elements of fuel and air c) Methane
should have d) Nitrogen
a) high temperature
b) high density Answer: a
c) short delay Explanation: The fuel is burnt in the
d) all of the mentioned presence of oxygen to generate energy in the
form of heat. This heat energy can be used for
Answer: d electrical power generation in steam power
Explanation: None. plants and for propelling ships, automobiles
and locomotives, etc.
11. The detonation tendency in petrol engines
for specified conditions of fuel rating, 2. Which are the main constituents of fuel
compression ratio, speed etc, can be from given options?
controlled by having a) Carbon and Nitrogen
a) smaller cylinder bore b) Oxygen and Hydrogen
b) bigger cylinder bore c) Carbon and Hydrogen
c) medium cylinder bore d) Helium and Oxygen
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Carbon and Hydrogen are the
Explanation: None. main constituents of a fuel. In addition to
them, fuel also contains sulfur, oxygen and
12. A fuel will detonate less if it has nitrogen in minimal quantities. Depending on
a) higher self ignition temperature the fuel, the percentage of carbon ranges from
b) lower self ignition temperature 50-95%, hydrogen (H2) 2-6%, oxygen (O2) 2-
c) proper self ignition temperature
4%, sulfur (S2) 0.5-3% and Nitrogen (N) 5-
7%. A solid fuel may also contain 2-30% ash.
Answer: a In a fuel carbon, hydrogen and sulfur are
Explanation: None. combustible elements whereas nitrogen and
66
ash are incombustible elements. Since the Answer: d

major combustible elements in fuel are Explanation: The coal is classified on the
carbon and hydrogen it can also be called as basis of its physical and chemical
Hydrocarbon fuel. composition. The proximate and ultimate
analyses are the common tests which are used
3. Which fuel is used widely in steam power to find the commercial value of the coal. The
plants? proximate analysis gives characteristics of
a) Oil coal such as percentage of moisture, ash and
b) Gas volatile matter. Analysis of coal gives an
c) Coal indication about fusion temperature and
d) Petroleum heating value of the coal.
Answer: c 6. What is the use of electrostatic

Explanation: Coal is the oldest form of fuel precipitations in steam power plant?
and is still used in a large scale throughout a) To remove the steam
the world by steam power plants as well as all b) To draw the coal powder into boiler
power generation plants. Coal is a c) To remove the feed water
heterogeneous compound and its constituents d) To remove fly ash
are always carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur,
nitrogen and certain mineral non Answer: d
combustibles. Explanation: The electrostatic precipitators
are extensively used in the steam power plant
4. What is the phenomenon of the formation for removal of fly ash from the electric utility
of coal called? boiler emission. Since the water inside the
a) Metamorphism boiler is converted into steam, the fire for
b) Diagenis’ converting is fuelled by burning the coal
c) Photosynthesis which produces high amount of fly ash, so
d) Protolith that the ash’ can be reused. The use of
electrostatic precipitators is growing rapidly
Answer: a because of the new strict air code and
Explanation: The phenomenon by which the environmental laws. An electrostatic can be
buried vegetation consisting wood, grass, designed to operate at any desired efficiency.
shrubs etc, transformed into coal is known as
metamorphism. The nature of coal will 7. Why is ‘make-up water’ added to drum
depend upon the type of vegetation buried continuously?
and nature and duration of metamorphism. a) To remove the impurities in tube
There are different types of metamorphism b) To replace the water that has been
namely contact metamorphism, regional converted into steam
metamorphism, cataclastic metamorphism, c) To keep the system cool externally
hydrothermal metamorphism, burial d) To compensate for water loss trough blow
metamorphism and shock metamorphism. down
5. On what basis is the coal classified? Answer: d

a) Period of formation Explanation: Make-up water is added to
b) Depending on capacity to burn compensate for the losses of water incurred
c) Region/area where is it formed by blow downs or leakages occurring in
d) Physical and chemical composition boiler, and also to maintain desired water
level in boiler steam drum. Blow down and
67
leakages are common since there is Answer: d

continuous flow of condensate from Explanation: This type of furnaces are used
condenser to boiler. for efficient combustion of coal since these
convert the heat into thermal energy which
8. What causes failure of boiler tube? are then used for generation of power.
a) Heating the tubes, when desired water level Pudding furnace and open hearth furnaces are
is not maintained types of steelmaking furnaces.
b) Induced pressure in the water
c) Over use of boiler 3. Which of the following is calculated by
d) Hardness of water flue gas analysis?
a) Amount of air used in combustion
Answer: d b) Rate of combustion
Explanation: Hardness of water causes c) Time required for combustion
failure of boiler tube. Hard water consists of d) Amount of air present after combustion
calcium and magnesium salts. Hardness in
water will form deposits on the tube water Answer: a
surfaces which will lead to overheating and Explanation: The only practical way for
failure of tubes. Thus the salts have to be determining the amount of air used in furnace
removed from the water. is to analyse the flue gas for the constituents
CO2, CO an O2. The control of air is by
TOPIC 4.17 LUE GAS ANALYSIS means of dampers.
(ORSAT METHOD). 4. What happens when carbon monoxide is
obtained in flue gas analysis?
1. Which of the following is the correct a) Combustion is complete
condition for the efficient combustion of b) Combustion does not take place
coal? c) Combustion is incomplete
a) Coal should be of high calorific value d) It increases the rate of combustion.
b) Intimate mixing of air with the
combustible matter Answer: c
c) The ignition temperature should be high Explanation: If the analysis shows the
d) The volatile matter should be low presence of free CO, it means that the
combustion is incomplete which calls for an
Answer: b intermediate increase in the amount of air
Explanation: For efficient combustion, it is used for combustion. Also, a diminution in
essential that the coal and its distillation the rate of supply of coal is required.
products are brought into intimate contact
with sufficient quantity of air to burn all 5. Which of the following compound other
combustible material. Also, sufficient time than CO2, CO an O2 can be determined by
should be allowed to complete the the flue gas analysis?
combustion process. a) C2H6
b) C6H6
2. Which of the following furnace is best
suitable for the efficient combustion of coal? c) C6H11O22
a) Blast furnace d) Ethylene
b) Pudding furnace
c) Open hearth furnace Answer: a
d) Boiler furnace Explanation: Sometimes N2, H2 and
68
hydrocarbons like CH4 and C2H6 are results in competent hands. The precision
obtained by flue gas analysis of coal. If N2 is orsat assemblies are mounted on substantial
stands.
obtained after the analysis, the combustion
will be incomplete. 9. At what temperature does the CO is
converted to CO2 in orsat apparatus for
6. What happens when too much excess air is
supplied to the furnace in the process of analysis of flue gas?
combustion of coal? a) 280-295 0C
a) There is a gain in heat in the furnace b) 250-265 0C
b) No change occurs in the furnace c) 350-365 0C
c) There is loss in heat in the furnace
d) The excess air escapes out d) Less than 100 0C
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: In ordinary furnaces, 50 to 100 Explanation: At the temperature range of
% excess air is generally supplied. If the 280-295 0C, the CO is converted into CO2.
excess air is supplied above this amount, Also the hydrogen present is oxidised to
there is a loss of heat in the furnace. In such water. The diminution in the volume of gas
cases, the supply of air to the hearth is cut sample indicates the volume of hydrogen.
short or the rate of fuel supply is increased.
10. Which of the following apparatus cannot
7. If both CO and O2, both are indicated in be used for flue gas analysis?
the appreciable amount in the flue gas a) Ambler’s apparatus
analysis, which type of combustion is seen? b) Hemple’s apparatus
a) Regular and non-uniform combustion c) Able’s apparatus
b) Irregular and non-uniform combustion d) Bunte’s apparatus
c) Regular and uniform combustion
d) Irregular and uniform combustion Answer: c
Explanation: Able’s apparatus is used for
Answer: b calculation of flash point and fire point of an
Explanation: If both CO and O2 are present oil. Flash point is the minimum temperature
in an appreciable amount, then the of oil, at which the vapours of oil produces
combustion is irregular and non-uniform. flash in a burning match stick when brought
That means, in some parts of the furnace, close to the vapours of oil.
there is an excess of air and in some other
parts, the supply of air is insufficient.
8. Short orsat apparatus gives more precise

results than long orsat in the analysis of flue UNIT V ENERGY
gas. SOURCES AND STORAGE
a) True
b) False DEVICES
Answer: b
Explanation: Long orsat or precision model
TOPIC 5.1 NUCLEAR FISSION -
orsat is used for analysis of quite complicated CONTROLLED NUCLEAR
mixtures and which gives very accurate FISSION, NUCLEAR FUSION,
69
DIFFERENCES BETWEEN should be capable of causing fission. Only

NUCLEAR FISSION AND neutrons can result in sustained reaction as
two or three neutrons are released for each
FUSION one absorbed by fission.
1. In which of the following process are 4. What happens when a neutron is absorbed
Neutrons emitted? by a nucleus of an atom of U235?
a) Inverse beta Decay a) Mass number of atom increases
b) Nuclear fission b) One electron is let out
c) Spontaneous Fission c) U236 isotope is formed
d) Nuclear fusion d) Nucleus becomes unstable
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fission is the process in Explanation: When a neutron is absorbed by
which a heavy nucleus is split into two or
a nucleus of an atom U235, a U236 isotope is
more lighter nuclei. This result in decrease in
formed. This isotope is highly unstable which
mass and consequent exothermic energy and
lasts for one millionth of a second and splits
emission of neutrons take place. Two to three
into two equal parts releasing energy of
neutrons are emitted per nucleuses which are
200MeV.
known as fission elements.
5. Who invented nuclear fission?
2. Heavy nuclei must be such that they can be
a) Rutherford
fissioned by neutrons of an energy such
b) Hans Bethe
substance are called?
c) Otto Hahn
a) Fission fragments
d) Marie Curie
b) Fission Neutrons
c) Fission species
Answer: c
d) Fission elements
Explanation: Nuclear fission of heavy metals
was discovered by German Otto Hahn on
Answer: c
December 17, 1938 and was explained
Explanation: Heavy nuclei must be such that
theoretically by Lise Meitner and her nephew
they can be fissioned by neutrons of energy
Otto Robert Frisch on 1939. Frisch named
such substance are called Fission species. All
Frisch names the process by analogy with
fission species should have long half lives so
biological fission of living cells.
that the rate of decay is not so fast.
3. Why neutrons with lower energy should be 6. Atoms of different chemical elements that
have the same number of nucleons are called
capable of causing fission?
as?
a) For faster reaction process
b) For sustained reaction process a) Isobars
c) For Safety purpose b) Isotones
c) Isomers
d) In order to not waste the nuclear fuel
d) Isotopes
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to collisions with various Answer: a
Explanation: Atoms of different chemical
nuclei, initial high kinetic energy of fission
elements that have the same number of
neutron decreases. Thus for a sustained
nucleons are called as isobars. The term
reaction, eve neutrons with lower energy
isobar was suggested by Alfred Walter
70
Stewart in 1918. It is derived from Greek million tons of hydrogen is converted into
word ‘isos’ meaning EQUAL and ‘baros’ helium. The reaction releases tremendous
meaning WEIGHT. amount of heat and energy.
7. Most of the energy released in fission 10. How many number of nuclei of hydrogen
process is in process of __________ fuse in a series of reaction involving other
a) Kinetic Energy particles that continually appear and
b) Thermal Energy disappear?
c) Light Energy a) 1
d) Heat Energy b) 2
c) 3
Answer: a d) 4
Explanation: Most of the energy released is
in the form of kinetic energy and is absorbed Answer: d
by fission products. The fission products Explanation: Four nuclei of hydrogen fuse in
formed are fission fragments, neutrons and a series of reaction involving other particles
electromagnetic or gamma radiation. As the that continually appear and disappear such as
fragments collide, the kinetic energy is He3, nitrogen, carbon and other nuclei.
converted into heat energy. 41H1 → 2He4 + 2+1e0 (Positrons)
Mass decreases to about 0.0276amu releasing
8. Combining of two light nuclei of low mass
25.7MeV. The heat liberated during this result
to produce a heavy nucleus is called
in temperature of the order of the million
___________
degrees and sustains the succeeding reactions.
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
11. Why is it necessary to accelerate
c) Spontaneous fission
positively charged nuclei to high kinetic
d) Double beta decay
energies to cause fusion?
a) To overcome electrical repulsive forces
Answer: a
b) To result in high amount of energy in short
Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process
period of time
which involves fusion of two light nuclei of
c) To get the isobars and isotopes
low mass to produce a heavy nucleus which
d) To get a sustainable reaction
results in decrease of mass and release of
enormous amount of energy. All atomic
Answer: a
bombs prefer nuclear fission process.
Explanation: To cause fusion, it is necessary
to accelerate positively charged nuclei to high
9. What type of Reaction takes place in sun?
kinetic energies to overcome electrical
a) Nuclear fusion
repulsive forces. This is done by rising their
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous fission temperatures to hundreds of millions of
d) Double beta decay degree resulting in plasma.
Answer: a 12. Fusion reactions are called __________

Explanation: Nuclear fusion reaction takes a) Thermonuclear
place in sun as well as stars. The process is b) Thermoduric
c) Thermo Uric
carried by proton-proton chain. The sun starts
d) Compound reactions
with protons, and through a series of steps,
turns them into helium. Every second 600
71
Answer: a element?
Explanation: To eradicate repulsive forces a) Z
temperature of positively charged nuclei is b) A
raised to millions of degree resulting in c) A+Z
plasma. The plasma should be prevented from d) A-Z
contacting the walls of the container confined
for a period of time of the order of a second at Answer: d
a minimum density. Fusion reactions are Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic
called thermonuclear because of the higher weight – Atomic number.
temperature requirement to trigger and
sustain the reaction. 2. The time required for half of the
__________ of a radioactive isotope to decay
13. Which of the following element is readily is called its half-life.
available in the ordinary water? a) neutron
a) Cesium b) electron
b) Thorium c) proton
c) Deuterium d) nuclei
d) Astatine
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: The time required for half of
Explanation: Deuterium used in fusion the nuclei of a radioactive isotope to decay is
reaction is readily available in ordinary water called its half life.
(Out of 6500 molecules). Deuterium is also
known as heavy hydrogen. The nucleus of 3. Thermal nuclear reactors using enriched
deuterium is called as deuteron, Contains one uranium as fuel contains a maximum of
proton and one neutron. __________ percent fissile material i.e. U-
235.
14. How is tritium made from sea water? a) 1
a) By bombarding lithium b) 2
b) By bonding with carbon c) 3
c) By bombarding Beryllium d) 6
d) By reacting with oxygen
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Thermal nuclear reactors using
Explanation: Tritium is made by seawater by enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum
bombarding with lithium. Lithium is a of 6 percent fissile material i.e. U-235.
chemical element with Atomic number: 3 and
Mass number: 6.941 u ± 0.002 u. Because of 4. __________ moderator is used in a fast
its relative nuclear instability, lithium is less breeder reactor.
common in the solar system. a) Heavy water
b) Graphite
c) No
TOPIC 5.2 NUCLEAR CHAIN d) Beryllium
REACTIONS
Answer: c
1. The atomic weight and atomic number of Explanation: A fast breeder reactor doesn’t
an element are A and Z respectively. What is employ any moderator.
the number of neutrons in the atom of that
72
5. Nuclides having the same atomic number 9. The half-life period of a radioactive
are termed as? element depends on its __________
a) Isobars a) temperature
b) Isotones b) pressure
c) Isotopes c) amount
d) Isomers d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Isomers are nuclides having the Explanation: The half-life is independent of
same atomic number. the mentioned factors.
6. Main source of __________ is monazite 10. Which is radioactive in nature?

sand. a) Helium
a) Uranium b) Deuterium
b) Polonium c) Tritium
c) Halfnium d) Heavy Hydrogen
d) Thorium
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: Tritium is a radioactive
Explanation: Thorium is the main source of element.
Monazite Sand.
11. Which is the most commonly used
7. Emission of β-particles during radioactive nuclear fuel in boiling water reactor?
decay of a substance is from __________ a) enriched uranium
a) nucleus b) plutonium
b) innermost shell c) natural uranium
c) outermost shell d) monazite sand
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Enriched uranium is the most
Explanation: Emission of β-particles during commonly used nuclear fuel in boiling water
radioactive decay of a substance is from the reactor.
nucleus as all emissions are nuclear
phenomenon. 12. Enrichment of uranium is done to increase
the concentration of __________ in the
8. A fertile material is the one, that can be natural uranium.
__________ a) U-235
a) converted into fissile material on b) U-233
absorption of neutron c) U-238
b) fissioned by either slow or fast neutrons d) PU-239
c) fissioned by slow (thermal) neutrons
d) fissioned by fast neutrons Answer: a
Explanation: Enrichment of uranium is done
Answer: a to increase the concentration of U-235 in the
Explanation: A fertile material is the one, natural uranium.
which can be converted into fissile material
on absorption of neutron. 13. Fuel for a nuclear reactor (thermal) is
_____________
73
a) Uranium c) 10000 tonnes of high grade coal

b) Plutonium d) 3000 tonnes of high grade coal
c) Radium
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: One of the main attention for
Answer: a nuclear fuel is the huge amount of energy that
Explanation: Uranium is the fuel for a can be released from a small quantity of
thermal reactor. active nuclear fuel. The energy obtainable by
completely using 1 kg of Uranium would give
14. The first underground nuclear test was energy equivalent 3000 tons of high grade
conducted by India at _____________ coal i.e. Uranium has three millions times the
a) Pokhran energy of coal.
b) Kalpakkam
c) Jaisalmer 3. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for
d) Narora ________________
a) more than 5 months
Answer: a b) few weeks
Explanation: Pokhran had the very first c) few days
underground nuclear test. d) more than 5 years
Answer: d
TOPIC 5.3 NUCLEAR ENERGY Explanation: Very small amount of nuclear
fuel can produce very high amount of energy.
1. The best capable alternative source which Nuclear fuel may remain in a reactor for more
can meet the future energy demand is than 5 years.
_____________
a) thermal power plant 4. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant
b) nuclear power plant economics is considered as __________
c) hydroelectric power plant a) running cost
d) geothermal power plant b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
Answer: b d) development cost
Explanation: Demand of electrical energy is
increasing at fast rate owing to booming Answer: c
increase in the population and industrial Explanation: Nuclear fuel in a nuclear
growth. The reserves of fossil fuel i.e., coal, reactor may remain for more than 5 years. So
oil and gas are fast depleting. There are many the cost of fuel injected initially is taken as
alternative sources of energy but they are not capital cost and may be a few crore rupees.
enough to supply such huge demand, only
nuclear power plants are capable of doing 5. In economics of nuclear power plant taxes
that. and insurance charges are taken as _______
a) operating cost
2. How much coal is required to generate b) maintenance cost
energy equivalent to the energy generated by c) capital cost
1 kg of uranium? d) fixed cost
a) 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
b) 300 tonnes of high grade coal Answer: d
Explanation: The life of reactor plant may be
74
taken as between 15 to 20 years. For the other coal fired steam power plant of same
parts of the plant equipment the life may be generation capacity needs 250 acres of land.
taken as 30 years. The fixed cost would be
interest, depreciation, taxes and insurance 9. All of the nuclear fuel reserve will be
charges. ended in about 400 years.
a) True
6. Which of the following are not taken as b) False
operation and maintenance cost in economics
of nuclear power plant? Answer: b
a) Taxes and insurance Explanation: There are larger deposits of
b) Salaries and wages of staff nuclear fuel available all over the world.
c) Cost of waste disposal Therefore, such plants can ensure continued
d) Cost of processing materials supply of electrical energy for thousands of
years.
Answer: a
Explanation: Taxes and insurance are taken 10. With respect to the load centre which
as fixed costs. Salaries and wages of location is suitable for stablishment of nuclear
operation and maintenance staff, cost of power plant?
waste disposal and cost of processing a) Load centre
materials are the operation and maintenance b) Near load centre but at reasonable distance
cost. c) Far away from load centre
d) Near chemical industries
7. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear
power plant? Answer: b
a) 20 to 25% Explanation: These plants can be located
b) 25 to 30% near the load centre because of the negligible
c) 30 to 40 % cost of transportation of fuel. But there should
d) 50 to 70 % be a reasonable distance between the nuclear
power plant and the nearest populated areas
Answer: c from point of view of safety against danger of
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a radioactivity. It is highly undesirable to
nuclear power plant is around 30 to 40%. choose a site adjacent to chemical industries
Efficiency is higher at high road factors. oil refineries PWD works hospitals and
Therefore, a nuclear power plant is always schools.
operated as a base load plant.
11. Operating cost of nuclear power plant is
8. The land area required for installation of less than thermal power plant.
nuclear power plant is ________ a) True
a) more than thermal power plant b) False
b) less than thermal power plant
c) equel to thermal power plant Answer: a
d) depends on type of construction Explanation: Cost of fuel in nuclear power
plant is taken as the capital cost. The the total
Answer: c operating cost involves wages and the salaries
Explanation: Nuclear power plants need less of operating and maintenance staff only, cost
area as compared to any other plant of same of disposal of waste etc.. The cost of transport
generation capacity. A 2000MW nuclear and handling of coal for conventional thermal
power plant needs about 80 acres whereas the
75
power plant is much higher than the cost of Answer: c

nuclear fuel. Explanation: PWR uses enriched fuel
making the reactor more compact in size. And
due to high negative temperature coefficient,
TOPIC 5.4 LIGHT WATER a PWR is stable. Water is used as the coolant.
NUCLEAR POWER PLANT It does have positive power demand
coefficient and responds greatly to more
1. PWR stands for ________ power demand.
a) Power
b) Partially weathered rock 4. Select the incorrect statement about PWR.
c) Pressurized water Reactor a) High primary circuit pressure requires a
d) Packaging waste regulations strong pressure vessel
b) Corrosion is less in PWR
Answer: c c) During fuel charging in PWR, the reactor
Explanation: PWR stands for pressurized has to be shut down at least for a month
water reactor. A PWR power plant consists of d) PWR results in uneven heating
two loops in series. One is the coolant loop
called primary loop and other is the water Answer: b
steam or working fluid loop. Pressurized Explanation: Presence of high temperature
water reactor falls under the category of light and high pressure water, the corrosion is
water reactor. severe. This means use of stainless steel adds
to further costing. When γ- radiations pass
2. What does the top of the pressurizer in through the pressure vessel it results in
pressurized water reactor consists of at uneven heating which induces thermal
primary system pressure? stresses on vessels.
a) Steam
b) Air 5. LWR stands for _________
c) Water a) Lower water reactor
d) Fluids b) Line water reactor
c) Liquefied water reactor
Answer: a d) Light water reactor
Explanation: The pressurizer is a pressure
vessel with a heater at the bottom and water Answer: d
spray at the top. The top of the pressurizer is Explanation: The light water reactor is a type
filled with steam at primary system pressure. of thermal-neutron reactor that uses normal
If the primary loop pressure drops, the heater water, as opposed to heavy water, as both its
is energized to increase the steam content in coolant and neutron moderator – furthermore
the pressurizer and thus increases the pressure a solid fissile element is used as fuel. These
of primary cooling system. are most common type of Thermal-neutron
reactors.
3. Select the incorrect statement which
supports PWR. 6. In which reactor is the coolant in direct
a) Water is used as coolant contact with the heat producing nuclear fuel?
b) PWR is stable in operation a) Fast breeder reactor
c) Uses natural fuel b) Pressurized water reactor
d) PWR has positive power demand c) Boiling water reactor
coefficient d) Heavy water reactor
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Answer: c 9. In which of the Following reactor is heavy

Explanation: In boiling water reactor, the hydrogen isotope H-2 is used as moderator?
coolant is in direct contact with the heat a) Boiling water reactor
producing nuclear fuel and boils in the same b) Pressurized water reactor
compartment in which the fuel is located. The c) Candu reactor
reactor pressure is maintained at 70bar. The d) Thermal reactor
coolant thus serves the triple function of
coolant, moderato and working fluid. Answer: c
Explanation: Heavy water composed of
7. How many types of Boiling water reactor heavy hydrogen isotope H-2 is used as a
cycles are there? moderator and coolant in some power and
a) 2 research reactors. These reactors use heavy
b) 3 water as a moderator and primary coolant and
c) 4 light water as secondary coolant.
d) 5
10. CANDU stands for ____________
Answer: b a) Canadian Natural Darmstadtium Uranium
Explanation: There are three different types b) Canadian Natural Deuterium Uranium
of BWR cycles commonly used: c) Canadian Natural Dubnium Uranium
Single cycle internal circulation: This system d) Canadian Natural Dysprosium Uranium
uses internal recirculation system to generate
power ranging from 50- 100 MW. Answer: b
Single cycle forced circulation: This type uses Explanation: The CANDU, for Canada
a forced circulation system using a circulation Deuterium Uranium, is a Canadian
system using a circulating pump. The heat in pressurized heavy water reactor design used
the reactor is used to generate steam. to generate electricity. The acronym refers to
Dual cycle forced circulation: this its deuterium oxide (heavy water) moderator
arrangement has two cycles, steam cycle and and its use of (originally natural) Uranium
gas cycle. fuel.
8. Which country invented CANDU heavy 11. Which reactor consists of both fertile and
water reactor? fissile material?
a) Canada a) Fast breeder reactor
b) Germany b) Pressurize water reactor
c) Russia c) Boiling Water reactor
d) Bolivia d) Converter reactor
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The CANDU is a Canadian Explanation: If the reactor produces more
pressurized heavy water reactor design used fissionable material than it consumes, it is fast
to generate electric power. Heavy water breeder reactor. The breeder fuel consists of
nuclear reactors and light water nuclear both fertile and fissile material. The number
reactors differ in how they create and manage of neutrons released is sufficient to propagate
the complex physics of nuclear fission or the fission reaction and to produce more
atom-splitting which produces the energy and fissionable material by conversion of fertile
heat to create steam to drive generators. isotopes to fissile isotopes.
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12. What is acronym of LMFBR? Answer: c

a) Liquid molecular fast boiling reactor Explanation: Organic substance cooled
b) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor reactor uses enriched uranium as fuel and a
c) Liquefied metal fast boiling reactor mixture of orthometaterhenyl and
d) Liquid metal fast boiling reactor paratherphenyl as coolant and moderator, and
boron control rods, generating 11.4 MW
Answer: b capacities with an overall efficiency of 25%.
Explanation: LMFBR stands for Liquid
metal fast breeder reactor. The fuel consists of 16. Nuclear plant is located near the area
80% by weight of UO2 by weight of PuO2 in where cooling water is available.
small diameter stainless steel clad tubes a) True
operating at temperature of 670oC – 700oC. b) False
13. GCFBR stands for ____________ Answer: a

a) Gas conditioned fast breeder reactor Explanation: Some of the major factors to
locate a nuclear station considered are,
b) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor
Availability of cooling water, transportation
c) Gas conditioned fast boiling reactor
facilities, Distance from load centre, safety,
d) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor
radioactive waste, disposal facility and
Answer: b foundation requirement.
Explanation: The GCFBR stands for Gas
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning
cooled fast breeder reactor; it is cooled by
Series – Energy Engineering.
helium gas at 85bar. Also helium doesn’t
become radioactive under neutron
bombardment AND hence secondary coolant TOPIC 5.5 BREEDER REACTOR
is not needed.
1. Which of the following may be used to
14. Using Helium gas in GCFBR has many
measure the rate of nuclear disintegration?
advantages.
a) Geiger-Muller Counter
a) True
b) Cold Chamber
b) False
c) Cyclotron
Answer: a d) Van De Graph Generator
Explanation: Using helium as coolant posses
Answer: a
less severe metallurgical and safety problems.
Explanation: Geiger-Muller Counter is used
Heat transfer coefficient of helium is much
to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration.
superior than sodium with artificial
roughening of fuel rod surfaces. Low 2. The second underground nuclear test was
doubling time as compared to sodium cooled conducted by India at __________
reactors. a) Pokhran
b) Narora
15. Which reactor uses orthometaerhenyl and
c) Jaisalmer
paratherphenyl as coolant and moderator?
d) Kalpakkam
a) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
b) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor Answer: a
c) Organic substance cooled reactor Explanation: Pokhran was the place where
d) CANDU Heavy water reactor
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the second underground nuclear test was 7. One amu is equivalent to?
conducted by India. a) 931 MeV
b) 93.1 eV
3. Which of the following may not need a c) 9.31 eV
moderator? d) 931 J
a) Candu Reactor
b) Fast Breeder Reactor Answer: a
c) Homogeneous Reactor Explanation: 91 MeV constitutes one amu.
8. Fast breeder reactors do not __________
Answer: b a) use molten sodium as coolant
Explanation: Fast Breeder Reactor may not b) use fast neutrons for fission
need a moderator. c) use Th-232 as fissile fuel
d) convert fertile material to fissile material
4. The mass number of an element is not
changed, when it emits __________ Answer: c
radiations. Explanation: Fast breeder reactors do not use
a) α & γ Thorium-232 as fuel.
b) α, β, & γ
c) α & β 9. A boiling water reactor is the one, in which
d) β & γ the __________
a) pressurised water is pumped into the core.
Answer: d b) coolant water, after being heated in the
Explanation: The mass number of an element reactor core, generates steam in a boiler
is not changed when it emits β & γ radiations. c) fuel and the coolant are thoroughly mixed
to form a homogeneous solution
5. Which of the following is not a naturally d) coolant water is allowed to boil in the core
occurring nuclear fuel? of the reactor
a) Uranium-238
b) Thorium-233 Answer: d
c) Plutonium-239 Explanation: A boiling water reactor is the
d) None of the mentioned one, in which the coolant water is allowed to
boil in the core of the reactor.
Answer: c
Explanation: Plutonium-239 is an artificial 10. Commercial power generation from
nuclear fuel. fusion reactor is not yet possible, because
__________
6. Which is the most commonly used molten a) it is difficult to initiate fusion reaction
metal for cooling of nuclear reactors? b) the fuel required (e.g. deuterium and
a) Zinc tritium) is scarce
b) Sulphur c) it is difficult to control fusion reaction
c) Sodium d) quantity of fuel required for initiating
d) Manganese fusion reaction is prohibitively high
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: Sodium is the most commonly Explanation: As fission reactions are hard to
used molten metal for cooling of nuclear be controlled, the commercial power
reactors. generation is not yet possible.
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11. Which is a fertile nuclear fuel? 2. What is the rate of solar energy reaching
a) U-233 the earth surface?
b) U-235 a) 1016W
c) Pu-239 b) 865W
d) Th-232 c) 2854W
d) 1912W
Answer: d
Explanation: Th-232 is the only fertile Answer: a
nuclear fuel amongst all the mentioned Explanation: The solar energy reaching the
nuclear fuel. surface of the earth is about 1016W whereas
the worldwide power demand is 1013W. That
12. Thermal shield is used in high powered means solar energy gives us 1000 times more
nuclear reactors to __________ energy than our requirement.
a) absorb the fast neutrons
b) protect the walls of the reactor from 3. What is total amount of solar energy
radiation damage received by earth and atmosphere?
c) slow down the secondary neutrons a) 3.8 X 1024 J/year
d) protect the fuel element from coming in b) 9.2 X 1024 J/year
contact with the coolant c) 5.4 X 1024 J/year
d) 2.1 X 1024 J/year
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal shield is used in high Answer: a
powered nuclear reactors to protect the walls Explanation: Even if we use 5% of this
of the reactor from radiation damage. energy, it is more than 50 times our
requirement. The total solar radiation
absorbed by the earth and its atmosphere is
TOPIC 5.6 SOLAR ENERGY 3.8 X 1024 Joules/year. Except that it is
CONVERSION distributed over the area of earth.
1. Which of the following energy has the 4. Which is most common source of energy
greatest potential among all the sources of from which electricity is produced?
renewable energy? a) Hydroelectricity
a) Solar energy b) Wind energy
b) Wind Energy c) Coal
c) Thermal energy d) Solar energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Coal is the most common
Explanation: Solar energy has the greatest source of energy that is being used since
potential of all the sources of renewable industrialization. Modern steam boilers can
energy which comes to the earth from sun. burn coal in any of its form as a primary fuel.
This energy keeps the temperature of the Different ranks of coal available are peat,
earth above that in colder space, causes wind lignite, bituminous and anthracite.
currents in the ocean and the atmosphere,
causes water cycle and generates 5. Oil is estimated to last for ________ more.
photosynthesis in plants. a) 100 years
b) 500 years
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c) A decade Answer: a
d) 800 years Explanation: Magneto hydro dynamic is a
generator which is used for direct conversion
Answer: a of thermal energy into electrical energy. They
Explanation: Almost 40% of energy needs is work on faraday principle. When an electric
met by oil alone. With present consumption conductor moves across a magnetic field,
and a resource of 250,000 million tonnes of electric current is produced.
oil, it is estimated to be last for only 100
years, unless more oil is discovered. Major 9. Solar radiation which reaches the surface
chunk of oil comes from petroleum. without scattering or absorbed is called
_____________
6. Complete the following reaction. a) Beam Radiation
H2O + CO2 → _______ b) Infrared radiation
a) CH2O + O2 c) Ultraviolet radiation
b) CO2 + O2 d) Diffuse radiation
c) H + CO2 + O2 Answer: a
d) CH2O + H2O + O2 Explanation: Solar radiation that has not
been absorbed or scattered and reaches the
Answer: a ground from the sun is called direct radiation
Explanation: H2O + CO2 → CH2O + O2 or beam radiation. It is the radiation which
∵under solar energy CH2O is stable at low produces a shadow when interrupted by an
opaque object.
temperature but breaks at higher temperature
releasing heat equal to 469 Kj/mole.
10. The scattered solar radiation is called
____________
7. In what form is solar energy is radiated
a) Direct Radiation
from the sun?
b) Beam Radiation
a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation c) Diffuse radiation
d) Infrared Radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
Answer: c
Explanation: Diffuse radiation received from
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar energy is radiated from the sun after its direction has been changed by
the sun in the form of electromagnetic waves reflection and scattering by the atmosphere.
of shorter wavelength of 0.2 to 0.4 Since the solar radiation is scattered in all
micrometers. Out of all the solar energy direction in the atmosphere, diffuse radiation
radiations reaching the earth’s atmosphere, comes to the earth from all parts of the sky.
8% is ultraviolet radiation, 40% is visible 11. Solar radiation received at any point of
range light and 46% is by infrared radiation.
earth is called ______________
8. What does MHD stands for in the energy a) Insolation
field? b) Beam Radiation
a) Magneto Hydro Dynamic c) Diffuse Radiation
b) Metal Hydrogen Detox d) Infrared rays
c) Micro Hybrid Drive
Answer: a
d) Metering Head Differential
Explanation: Insolation is the total solar
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radiation received at any point on any point ions/cm3 of air -> 86.9 ergs of energy
on the earth’s surface. In other words absorbed/gm of air.
insolation is the sum of the direct and diffuse
radiation. More specifically insolation is 15. Which type of fuel is removed from the
defined as the total solar radiation energy reactor core after reaching end of core life
received on a horizontal surface of unit area service?
on the ground in unit time. a) Burnt Fuel
b) Spent fuel
12. Insolation is less ____________ c) Engine oil
a) when the sun is low d) Radioactive fuel
b) when the sun right above head
c) at night Answer: b
d) at sun rise Explanation: Spent fuel is the unprocessed
fuel that is removed from the reactor core
Answer: a after reaching end of core life service. It is
Explanation: The insolation at a given point removed and then stored for 3 to 4 months
or location on the earth’s surface depends under water in the plant site to give time for
among other factors, on the altitude of the sun the most intense radioactive isotopes to
in the sky. As a result of absorption and decay.
scattering, the insolation is less when the sun
is low in the sky than when it is higher.
TOPIC 5.7 SOLAR CELLS
13. HHW stands for ____________
a) High and Low water 1. A solar cell is a ___________
b) High Level Waste a) P-type semiconductor
c) Heated Low Level water b) N-type semiconductor
d) High and Low Waste c) Intrinsic semiconductor
d) P-N Junction
Answer: b
Explanation: These are generated in Answer: d
reprocessing of spent fuel. They contain all Explanation: A p-n junction which generated
fission products and contain of the EMF when solar radiation is incident on it is
transuranium elements not separated during called a solar cell. The material used for
reprocessing. Such wastes are to be disposed fabrication of solar cell should have a band
of carefully. gap of around 1.5 eV.
14. What is unit of nuclear radiation? 2. Which of the following materials cannot be
a) Reaumur used as solar cells materials?
b) Roentgen a) Si
c) Rankine b) GaAs
d) Pascal c) CdS
d) PbS
Answer: b
Explanation: Units of nuclear radiation is Answer: d
Roentgen- amount of radiation which will on Explanation: If we use PbS as the solar cell
passing through pure air under standard material, then most of the solar radiation will
condition produce 1 electrostatic unit of be absorbed on the top-layer of the solar cell
and will not reach in the depletion zone.
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3. The principle of a solar cell is same as the

photodiode.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar cell works on the
same principle as the photodiode, except that
no external bias is applied and the junction
area is kept much larger.
4. What is the difference between Photodiode

and Solar cell? a) Voltage Breakdown
a) No External Bias in Photodiode b) RMS Voltage
b) No External Bias in Solar cell c) Open Circuit Voltage
c) Larger surface area in photodiode d) Short Circuit Voltage
d) No difference
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: In the given figure, the point
Explanation: The Solar Cell does not need an where the graph touches the X-axis shows the
external bias. It simply works on the incident open circuit voltage while the point where it
solar radiation, which causes the creation of touches the Y-axis shows the short circuit
electron hole pairs. current.
5. During the collection of e-h pairs, holes are 7. The I-V characteristics of a solar cell are
collected by _________ drawn in the fourth quadrant.
a) Front contact a) True
b) Back contact b) False
c) Si-wafer
d) Finger electrodes Answer: a
Explanation: The I-V characteristics of a
Answer: b solar cell is drawn in the fourth quadrant of
Explanation: As the electron-hole pairs the coordinate axis because a solar cell does
move, the electrons are collected by the front not draw current but supplies the same to the
contact and the holes reaching p-side are load.
collected by the back contact.
8. What should be the band gap of the
6. What is the point where the graph touches semiconductors to be used as solar cell
the X-axis Indicate? materials?
a) 0.5 eV
b) 1 eV
c) 1.5 eV
d) 1.9 eV
Answer: c
Explanation: Semiconductors with band gap
close to 1.5 eV are ideal materials for solar
83
cell fabrication. They are made with a) Thermo line circulation

semiconductors like Si, GaAs, CdTe, etc. b) Radiation currents
c) Convection currents
9. Which of the following should not be the d) Conduction currents
characteristic of the solar cell material?
a) High Absorption Answer: c
b) High Conductivity Explanation: Wind energy can be
c) High Energy Band economically used for the generation of
d) High Availability electrical energy. Heating and cooling of the
M
atmosphere generates convection currents.
Answer: c Heating is caused by the absorption of solar
O
Explanation: The Energy Band of the energy on the earth surface.
semiconductor should not be too high. It
C
should be around 1.5 eV so that the incident 2. How much is the energy available in the
solar radiation can cause the generation of e-h winds over the earth surface is estimated to
T.
pairs. be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
10. Which of the following region is coated b) 1.6 X 107 MW
O
with a metal? c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
SP
Answer: b
Explanation: The energy available in the
G
winds over the earth surface is estimated to be
1.6 X 107 MW which is almost the same as
LO
the present day energy consumption. Wind

energy can be utilized to run wind mill which
in turn, is used to drive the generators.
.B
3. How much wind power does India hold?

a) 20,000 MW
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a) A b) 12,000 MW
b) B c) 140,000 MW
c) C d) 5000 MW
-R
d) D
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: India has a potential of 20,000
SE
Explanation: In the given figure, A is the MW of wind power. Wind power accounts
back contact which is coated with a metal, B nearly 9.87% of India’s total installed power
is the p-Si wafer, C is the n-Si wafer and D is generation capacity. Generation of wind
the front contact which has metallized finger power in India mainly account from southern
C
electrodes. state of India.
4. What is the main source for the formation

TOPIC 5.8 WIND ENERGY of wind?
a) Uneven land
1. What does Heating and cooling of the b) Sun
atmosphere generates?
84
c) Vegetation by the sun than the land near the north and
d) Seasons south poles. Wind energy is mainly used to
generate electricity.
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind is free and renewable 8. What type of energy is wind energy?
form of energy, which throughout history has a) Renewable energy
been used to grind grain, power ships, and b) Non-renewable energy
pump water. Wind is created when the sun c) Conventional energy
unevenly heat the earth surface. d) Commercial energy
M
5. Which country created wind mills? Answer: a
O
a) Egypt Explanation: Wind is called a renewable
b) Mongolia energy source because the wind will blow as
C
c) Iran long as the shines. Wind power, as an
d) Japan alternative to burning fossil fuels, is plentiful,
T.
renewable, widely distributed, clean,
Answer: c produces no greenhouse gas emissions during
Explanation: The earliest known wind mills operation, consumes no water, and uses little
O
were in Persia (Iran). These early wind mills land.
looked like large paddle wheels. Centuries
later, the people of Holland improved the
basic design of wind mill. Holland is famous
for its wind mills.
SP
9. What are used to turn wind energy into
electrical energy?
a) Turbine
G
b) Generators
6. “During the day, the air above the land c) Yaw motor
LO
heats up more quickly than the air over d) Blades

water”.
a) True Answer: a
b) False Explanation: Wind turbine blades capture
.B
wind energy, a form of mechanical energy,

Answer: a and put it to work turning a drive shaft,
17
Explanation: During the day, the air above gearbox, and generator to produce electrical
the land heats up more quickly than the air energy. Many factors affects wind turbine
over water. The warm air over the land efficiency including turbine blade
expands and raises, and the heavier, cooler air
-R
aerodynamics.
rushes in to take its place, creating winds.
10. What is the diameter of wind turbine
SE
7. What happens when the land near the blades?

earth’s equator is heated? a) 320 feet
a) All the oceans gets heated up b) 220 feet
b) Small wind currents are formed c) 80 feet
C
c) Rise in tides d) 500 feet

d) Large atmospheric winds are created
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: Large utility-scale wind
Explanation: The large atmospheric winds turbines can now generate more than a MW
that circle the earth are created because the of electrical power each and deliver
land near the earth’s equator is heated more electricity directly in to the electric grid, these
85
turbines are placed at 200 feet height at the b) Solar energy

rotor hub and have blades which are 220 feet c) Electrical energy
or more in diameter. d) Potential energy
11. At what range of speed is the electricity Answer: c

from the wind turbine is generated? Explanation: A fuel cell is used to convert
a) 100 – 125 mph chemical energy into electrical energy
b) 450 – 650 mph through a chemical reaction of positively
c) 250 – 450 mph charged hydrogen ions with oxygen or
M
d) 30-35 mph another oxidizing agent.
O
Answer: d 2. Select the incorrect statement from the
Explanation: Wind turbines are designed following option.
C
with cut-in wind speeds and cut-out speeds a) Fuel cells have high efficiency
i.e. the wind speeds when the turbines start b) The emission levels of fuel cells are far
T.
turning or shut off to prevent drive train below the permissible limits
damage. Typically, maximum electric c) Fuel cells are modular
generations occurs at speeds of 30-35mph. d) The noise levels of fuel cells are high
O
12. When did the development of wind power Answer: d
in India began?
a) 1965
b) 1954
SP
Explanation: The noise levels of fuel cells
are low. They have high efficiency and are
modular but the emission levels of fuel cells
G
c) 1990 are far below the permissible limits.
d) 1985
LO
3. ______________ and suitable catalyst are

Answer: c required to promote high rate of electrode
Explanation: The development of wind processes.
power in India began in 1990s. Presently a) Lower temperature
.B
India is the world’s fourth largest wind power b) Higher temperature

generator. The Indian energy sector has an c) Moderate temperature
17
installed capacity of 32.72 GW. Today India d) Very low temperature

is a major player in the global wind energy
market. Answer: b
Explanation: Higher temperature and
-R
suitable catalyst are required to promote the

TOPIC 5.9 BATTERIES - FUEL high rate of electrode processes. The reaction
CELLS - PRIMARY BATTERY
SE
at the anode produces electricity and water as

(DRY CELL) SECONDARY by-products. The catalyst lowers the
BATTERY (LEAD ACID activation energy required, allowing the
reaction to proceed more quickly or at a lower
C
BATTERY, LITHIUM-ION- temperature.

BATTERY) FUEL CELLS H2-O2
FUEL CELL. 4. Fuel cells are free from vibrations, heat
transfer and thermal pollution.
1. A fuel cell is used to convert chemical a) True
energy into ____________ b) False
a) Mechanical energy
86
Answer: a in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is 25% KOH

Explanation: Fuel cells are free from solution by volume.
vibrations, heat transfer and thermal
pollution. The first commercial use of fuel 8. The standard emf of the hydrogen-oxygen
cells came more than a century later in NASA fuel cell is ____________
space programs to generate power for a) 1.23 V
satellites and space capsules. b) 2.54 V
c) 3.96 V
5. A stable interface between solid d) 0.58 V
_________ liquid ____________ and gaseous
___________ promotes high rate of electrode Answer: a
processes. Explanation: The standard emf of the
a) Fuel, electrolyte, electrode hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is 1.23 V. This
b) Electrode, fuel, electrolyte type of cell operates efficiently in the
c) Electrode, electrolyte, fuel temperature range 343 K to 413 K.
d) Fuel, electrode, electrolyte
9. The residual product discharged by the
Answer: c hydrogen-oxygen cell is ____________
Explanation: A stable interface between a) Hydrogen peroxide
solid electrode, liquid electrolyte and gaseous b) Alcohol
fuel promotes high rate of electrode c) Water
processes. Electrodes are always solid and d) Potassium permanganate
electrolyte is always in liquid phase.
Answer: c
6. Which of the following is not an example Explanation: The residual product
of a fuel cell? discharged by the hydrogen-oxygen cell is
a) Hydrogen-oxygen cell water. It is formed by the oxidation reaction
b) Methyl-oxygen-alcohol cell taking place at electrodes and combining the
c) Propane-oxygen cell hydrogen and oxygen molecules.
d) Hexanone-oxygen cell
10. Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell can produce
Answer: d drinking water of potable quality.
Explanation: Hydrogen-oxygen cell, methyl- a) True
oxygen-alcohol cell and propane-oxygen cell b) False
are some of the examples of fuel cells.
Hexanone-oxygen cell is not an example of a Answer: a
fuel cell. Explanation: Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell can
produce drinking water of potable quality
7. The electrolytic solution used in a because the residual product discharged by
hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is ____________ the hydrogen-oxygen cell is water which is in
a) 75% KOH solution its pure form.
b) 25% KOH solution
c) 75% NaOH solution TOPIC 5.10 SUPERCAPACITORS
d) 25% NaOH solution
Answer: b 1. Capacitor is a device used to__________

Explanation: The electrolytic solution used a) store electrical energy
b) vary the resistance
87
c) store magnetic energy of 1.77*10-11 C. What is the voltage across

d) dissipate energy the capacitor?
a) 1V
Answer: a b) 2V
Explanation: Capacitor is used to store the c) 3V
charge. It stores electrical energy between the d) 4V
plates.
Answer: a
2. Capacitor stores which type of energy?
M
Explanation: C=€0A/d
a) kinetic energy
On substituting values of d, A, we get C=2€0.
b) vibrational energy
O
c) potential energy Q=CV
d) heat energy V=1 V.
C
Answer: c 6. Which of the following is a passive device?
T.
Explanation: Capacitor store charge in a) Transistor
between the plates. This charge is stationary b) Rectifier
so we can say capacitor store potential c) Capacitor
O
energy. d) Vaccuum Tubes
3. Capacitor blocks__________ after long

time.
a) alternating current
SP
Answer: c
Explanation: Capacitor is a passive device as
it consumes power rest all generate power so,
G
b) direct current they are active devices.
c) both alternating and direct current
LO
d) neither alternating nor direct current 7. What is the value of capacitance of a

capacitor which has a voltage of 4V and has
Answer: b 16C of charge?
Explanation: Capacitor blocks direct current a) 2F
.B
at steady state and pass alternating current. b) 4F

c) 6F
17
4. Why does capacitor block dc signal at d) 8F

steady state?
a) due to high frequency of dc signal Answer: b
b) due to zero frequency of dc signal Explanation: Q is directly proportional to V.
-R
c) capacitor doesnot pass any current at The constant of proportionality in this case is
steady state C, that is, the capacitance. Hence Q=CV.
From the relation, C=Q/V= 16/4=4F.
SE
d) due to zero frequency of dc signal
Answer: d 8. For which medium capacitance is high?

Explanation: Frequency of dc signal is zero. a) Air
C
So, Capacitive reactance XC=1/2πfc becomes b) Mica

c) Water
infinite and capacitor behaves as open circuit
d) Metal
for dc signal. Hence, capacitor block dc
signal. Answer: d
Explanation: Metals are assumed to have a
5. If a parallel plate capacitor of plate area
high value of dielectric constant so they have
2m2 and plate separation 1m store the charge high capacitance.
88
89

Cy8151 Engineering Chemistry MCQ

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Department of Science and Humanities MCQ for Regulations 2017

2. Select the incorrect statement from the

Reg. 2017 Explanation: Due to the presence of

presence of bicarbonate, carbonate and a) 60

11. How many grams of MgCO3 dissolved c) Acidic soap

2. Total hardness of water can be determined Answer: b

c) 2 to 4 drops 1. Water is mainly used in boilers for the

b) Scale, sludges c) Corrosion

Answer: a is a very effective method to reduce the

8. The regeneration of acids and alkalis in ion Answer: a

9. In ion exchange process, the cation Answer: d

15. The mineral free water is not used in Answer: c

Answer: d 4. The color of the artificial zeolite permutit

Explanation: In the zeolite process, calcium d) Red sand

water? value than artificial zeolite.

Explanation: The color of the natural zeolite

7. The chemical formula of Permutit is the zeolite particles

Answer: c TOPIC 1.6 DESALINATION OF

Answer: a 6. In electrodialysis cell, the pressure is about

b) The EDR process and conventional ED Answer: d

a) True upper limit is 40°C. RO systems operate at

Answer: a 10. What is the design temperature of RO

a) Increases reduce scaling on the surface and chemical

required for the following data:

Explanation: When the water viscosity is

9. What is the maximum acceptable limit of

calculated based on the flow and area. Flux is

Product Flow: 535 m3/h. a) 30-40 LMH

3. The desorption curve is higher than the

approach to Henry’s law at vanishing q = Kd C(1/n)

6. Calculate the adsorption of a dye on Answer: c

2. Physical adsorption increase with

4. Adsorbent is a solid surface on which gas

which gas or liquid molecules condense to c) N2

7. The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid TOPIC 2.3 KINETICS OF

2. The rate law for a reaction between the

5. The rate of reaction, A + B Products, is

b) 1 b) Its half-life is inversely proportional to its

9. The rate of decomposition of a substance

So, the reactant A will disappear when A is

Explanation: Rate = k [A]α

b) temperature k(1.5A)n = 2.25*k*[A]n

n log (1.5) = log (2.25)

Answer: b molecularity greater than three are not

So, varies inversely as (n – 4. Which of the following statement is

7. Concentration of the reactants is b) Catalyst is used to decrease the rate of

3. The desorption curve is higher than the

7. Which of the following statements p = 0.16 bar-1

d) Heat of adsorption is about 400kj Substitute in the corresponding equation

Explanation: Chemisorption involves

valency is satisfied, the adsorbent molecules

9. For an adsorbant-adsorbate system obeying

bar-1 and p = 0.16 bar-1. At what pressure TOPIC 2.6 CATALYSIS:

1. Which of the following is not a c) Bromine

Answer: c the formula s*c/12. So here we have

8. Which of the following is used as a 1. Some vectors carry a mutant form of

b) It activates both E. coli polymerase and T7 Answer: b

1. A __________is a biocatalyst that Answer: a

8. Name the enzyme which catalyzes the Answer: a

Km+[S] site distinct from the substrate active site.

Answer: d TOPIC 3.1 ALLOYS:

3. Steels containing up to 3% to 4% of one or

b) temperature k(1.5A)n = 2.25k[A]n