1.

An evocative effect refers to:

B. An increase in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some
stimulus, object, or event

2. An abative effect refers to:

A. A decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some
stimulus, object, or event

3. A stimulus or condition that increases the effectiveness of a stimulus as a reinforcer is known as a

B. establishing operation

4. Deprivation __________ the effectiveness of a reinforcer

A. increases

5. The effect that can increase or decrease the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus, object, or event is
the ___________________.
A. value-altering effect

6. What is the BEST example of an unconditioned motivating operation (UMO) for an adult human?
C. eating dinner after a week of not eating

7. _____________ are value-altering events that are a result of a person’s learning history.
A. conditioned motivating operations

8. A decrease in operant behavior due to continued consumption of a reinforcer is known as a

__________
D. satiation

9. Discriminative stimuli are events that have been associated with the availability or non-availability of
reinforcement in the past.
True

10. A therapist knowingly provides a child with a bag of M&M’s that the child cannot open, so that they
use the mand, “open!”. This is an example of:
C. CMO-T

11. When a reinforcer is continuously available, its reduced effectiveness is also known as satiation
True

12. Motivating operations are events that have been associated with the availability or non-availability
of reinforcement in the past.
False
13. __________ are events that have been associated with the availability or non-availability of
reinforcement in the past
B. Discriminative stimuli

14. A child in Mrs. Smith’s classroom hates to cut out shapes. When she see the yellow cardstock come
out of the teacher’s drawer, she begins to tantrum. The yellow cardstock has become what kind of
stimulus?
A. CMO-R

15. Discriminative stimuli alter the value of a reinforcer.

False

16. Motivating operations alter the value of a reinforcer.

True

17. A discriminative stimulus is:

A. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be reinforced

18. A stimulus delta is:

B. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced

19. Operant stimulus control has been achieved when:

C. A response occurs more frequently in the presence of a specific stimulus, but rarely occurs in
the absence of the stimulus.

20. Stimulus generalization has occurred when:

B. The same response occurs in the presence of two different, but similar stimuli

21. Concept formation:

A. Requires both stimulus discrimination across different classes and stimulus generalization
within a class

22. Which of the following would be included in the feature stimulus class for ducks:
B. Webbed feet

23. Stimuli in an arbitrary stimulus class:

B. Do not share similar stimulus features

24. Stimulus equivalence:

C. Means that a person responds accurately to untrained and nonreinforced
stimulus-stimulus relations following training on different stimulus-stimulus relations.
25. The critical test for stimulus equivalence is:
C. Transitivity

26. Stimulus salience:

D. All of the above
(can affect the development of stimulus control, refers to the prominence of the
stimulus in the person’s environment, can depend on the sensory capabilities of
the learner).

27. Which of the following constitutes a prompt?

A. Physically helping an individual perform a task

28. Which is the BEST example of an arbitrary stimulus class?

D. a painting of a sailor, the word man, and a picture of a man

29. Which is the BEST example of stimulus control?

B. Joseph bites his mom when she asks him to stand up, and at no other time

30. Direct measurement refers to the ongoing assessment of an individual's performance obtained in a
real situation.
True

31. Direct measurement requires that inferences be made concerning an individual's performance.
False

32. Many ineffective interventions are continued because direct and frequent measures are not
gathered.
True

33. The crucial question for determining whether to continue an intervention is, "Is the program actually
producing the skill development it claims to produce?"
True

34. When direct and frequent measurements are not collected, which of the following judgment error(s)
commonly result?
Both A and B
(ineffective interventions are continued, effective programs are discontinued)

35. Measurement of permanent products is desirable because:

All of these are desirable characteristics of a permanent product
 (the behavior does not have to be observed as it occurs, permanent products can be
translated into numbers, permanent products are outcomes of academic instruction)

36. Counting or tallying behaviors as they occur is called:

A. event recording

37. What type of recording should be used when the length of time a client engages in a behavior is the
concern?
A. Duration recording

38. Measuring the length of elapsed time between the onset of a stimulus and the occurrence of a
behavior is called ________ recording?
A. latency

39. Measuring the presence or absence of behavior within intervals is called _______ recording:
C. interval

40. Which observational recording procedure requires the observer to record whether the behavior was
present or absent at any time during the time interval?
A. partial-interval

41. Which observational recording procedure requires the presence of the behavior throughout the
entire interval?
B. whole-interval

42. Which observational recording procedure OVER-estimates the occurrence of the behavior?
A. Partial-interval

43. Which observational recording procedure UNDER-estimates the occurrence of the behavior?
A. whole-interval

44. What recording procedure is concerned with recording the presence or absence of behaviors
immediately following specified time intervals?
C. momentary time-sampling

45. Tallying the number of individuals engaged in specified behaviors and comparing this to the total
number of individuals in the group is an example of:
D. PLACHECK

46. What term refers to the number of behaviors occurring in a unit of time?
B. frequency (or rate)
47. Which procedure refers to the report of the number of times response opportunities are presented
before an individual achieves a pre-established accuracy or proficiency level?
A. trials to criterion

48. A strength, force, or intensity of a response is called the:

B. magnitude

49. The form or shape of the behavior is called the:

A. topography

50. Hersen and Barlow (1976) recommend that observers continue training until they achieve a
minimum of _______ agreement.
C. 80%

51. Collecting interobserver agreement on the independent variable is called:

B. procedural reliability

52. The most common convention for reporting interobserver agreement measures in ABA is:
A. percent agreement

53. What term refers to differences in agreement that result when observers are aware that their
observations will be checked as opposed to how they record when their observations are not checked?
A. reactivity

54. When observers change the way they employ the definition of behavior over the course of an
investigation it is called:
B. observer drift

55. Making agreement measures unobtrusive or covert is a method for minimizing:

C. reactivity

56. In doing an observation of out-of-seat behavior, two observers agreed that the student was out of
his seat 24 out of 30 times (i.e., they agreed 24 times and disagreed 6 times). This does not meet the
minimum agreement for IOA.
False

57. What time intervals should be used with momentary time sampling?
A. 60 seconds or less

58. Test and Heward (1984) recommend the number of sessions for data collection using momentary
time sampling be ________ other data collection techniques.
B. longer than
59. It is important to collect interobserver agreement on the independent variable to
B. demonstrate procedural reliability

60. Applied Behavior Analysis is set apart from other disciplines devoted to the understanding and
improvement of human behavior with respect to its:
D. All of the above (goals, focus, methodology)

61. The term "applied" in ABA means that technology is applied to a research question.
False

62. S-R psychology is a paradigm for modern behaviorism

False

63. Different types of scientific investigations yield 1 or more of three levels of understanding of
phenomena under study. These are:
C. prediction, description, and control

64. Scientific “attitudes” as described by Skinner include:

C. experimentation, philosophic doubt, and parsimony

65. Which characteristic of ABA refers to the commitment to affecting improvements in behaviors that
enhance and improve people's lives?
C. Applied

66. Which characteristic of ABA refers to clarity in its methodology?

D. Technological

67. In a functional relation, the ______________ is the behavior that was changed.
B. dependent variable

68. In a functional relation, the ______________ is the intervention

A. independent variable

69. Free will is compatible with determinism.

False

70. The independent variable is the intervention in a functional relation.

True

71. The dependent variable is the intervention in a functional relation.

 False

72. Radical behaviorism is a philosophical position that considers behavioral events that cannot be
publicly observed to be outside the realm of the science.
False

73. Behavior that is elicited by antecedent stimuli is referred to as:

B. respondent behavior

74. When certain stimuli increase the future probability of a behavior when they are terminated
immediately following a response, what has occurred is termed:
B. negative reinforcement
75. Respondent behavior is:
D. elicited by antecedent events

76. Your sister can be an unconditioned punisher.

False

77. Reading a book is a response.

False

78. Automatic reinforcement

A. involves the reinforcement occurring independent of another person delivering it

79. __________ reinforcers are established based on a history of pairing with established reinforcers.
D. conditioned

80. Stimuli that do not require a learning history to acquire reinforcing qualities are known as
C. unconditioned reinforcers

81. Arranging high-frequency (ie., high preference) activities to follow low-frequency (ie., low
preference) activities is an application of
D. the Premack Principle

82. In addition to increasing the future frequency of the behavior it follows, reinforcement changes the
function of antecedent stimuli.
True

83. An antecedent stimulus that evokes behavior because it has been correlated with the availability of
reinforcement is called a(n) ________.
A. discriminative stimulus
84. Humans must be able to connect the behavior and the reinforcing consequence in order to be
effective, due to their language ability. Other organisms do not need to connect the behavior and the
reinforcing consequence.
False

85. A _________ is a conditioned reinforcer that does not depend on a current establishing operation
for any particular form of reinforcement for its effectiveness.
D. generalized conditioned reinforcer

86. Removal and reduction of ongoing stimulation typically produce behavior that is called
_____________ whereas postponement and prevention of stimulus presentation produce behavior that
is called _____________.
C. escape; avoidance

87. To avoid shaping more dangerous escape maintained behaviors in educational settings, the person
intervening should:
D. do all of the above (ensure teaching technique is varied and not aversive, demand not too
difficult, demand is not too easy)

88. According to Osborne’s 1969 study, Iwata indicated that free time could either be defined as the
availability of preferred activities or the termination of non-preferred activities.
True

89. When a student exhibits an undesirable, but not dangerous behavior when presented with a
demand, it is recommended that you ignore the minor behavior and prevent escape in order to
extinguish the behavior.
False

90. Positive reinforcement for compliance alone does not suppress avoidance-motivated self-injury.
True

91. According to the matching law, as reinforcer deliveries increase along the x-axis, proportional
increases in behavior are depicted along the y-axis.
True

92. By applying the matching law, you can utilize differential reinforcement without employing
extinction on the inappropriate behavior.
True

93. Herrnstein found a near-perfect, ________ correlation between one unit increase in ________ with
one unit increase in behavior.
A. positive; reinforcement
94. This graph best represents:

D. Herrnstein’s Matching Law

95. Neef et al. (1994) described (4) reinforcer dimensions. What were they?
B. rate, quality, delay, and effort

96. Positive punishment can best be defined as:

C. delivery of a stimulus after a behavior that decreases the occurrence of the
behavior

97. According to Sidman (1993), ineffective teaching produces and exacerbates problem behavior.
True

98. Punishment is defined neither by the actions of the person delivering the consequences nor by the
nature of those consequences (e.g., time-out).
True
99. ____________ has occurred when the frequency of responding has been decreased by the
presentation of a stimulus.
A. positive punishment

100. Which of the following is an example of an unconditioned punisher?

C. A shock