Introductory Lab
Now we need to prepare a buffer that
1. Which hazard sign warns you about the
potential corrosiveness of strong acids
or strong bases?
- Image 1
2. What do you think will happen, if we add
a strong acid into a beaker of water?
- The strong acid will completely
dissociate into [H+] and [A-]
3. What is the formula to calculate pH?
- pH = -log[H3O+]
4. What is the pH of a 0.00125 M HCl
solution? Remember that hydrochloric
acid is a strong acid.
- pH = -log[H3O+] = 2.9
5. What is the pH of the 0.00125 M NaOH
solution? Remember that NaOH is a
strong base.
- pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 2.9 = 11.1
6. Which of the solutions below is a strong
acid?
- H2SO4
7. What is the pH of a 0.15 M NH4OH
solution with a KKB of 1.78 x 10-5 molar
ammonium hydroxide solution with a
base dissociation constant of one point
seventy eight times ten to the power of
minus five?
- 11.21
8. How can we calculate the equilibrium
concentration of [H3O+] hydronium of a
weak acid?
- Use the ICE chart
9. What is the Bronsted-Lowry definition of
base?
- Proton acceptor
10.
has a pH of 7.4. We need this specific
pH to maintain our blood cells in culture.
How should you prepare this buffer?
- By mixing weak base with its
conjugate acid and then adjusting
the pH with strong acid
11. Which of the following properties does
NOT influence the rate of diffusion?
- Color of the particle
12. Water potential is the potential energy
for water to move from one area to
another. Water always moves from a
high water potential area to a lower
water potential area. According to the
water potential formula, which factors
affect the water potential?
- Pressure and the amount of solute
13. The solute potential can be calculated by
As = act, where I is the ionization
constant, C is the molar concentration, R
is the pressure constant (0.00831 liter
bars/(mole °K)) and T is the temperature
in °K. Calculate the solute potential of a
2.0 M sucrose solution at 20°C under
standard atmospheric condition. Take into
account that sucrose doesn’t ionize in
water, so its ionization constant (I) is 1.
- -4.87 bars
14. What do you think will happen if you add
a hypotonic solution to the cells?
- The cells will swell
15. What do you think will happen if you add
a hypertonic solution to the cells?
- The cells will shrink
16. The substance that is dissolved in a
mixture is called?
- A solute
17. The substance in which something is
dissolved to make a solution is called?
- A solvent
18. What is the most common solvent in
cellular activities?
- Water
19. How is it called the concentration of a
solute inside and outside of the cell is
equal?
- Isotonic
Diabetes
20. How are called membranes like the cell
membrane that allow some molecules to
pass through it?
- Semipermeable
21. We need to take a blood sample. What
should we do first?
- Use ethanol to disinfect the skin
22. What is the blood group of a person who
has antigen A in their blood?
- A
23. What is the blood group of a person that
has neither antigen A nor B, and is
positive for antigen D?
- O positive
24. Which antibodies can be found in a
person with blood group O?
- Antibodies for both antigen A and
B - Because our body needs glucose
25. A person with blood group AB positive
can receive blood transfusions from…
- All of these
26. There are hazards associated with
handling human or animal material, such
as blood samples. Which symbol warns
you for potential biological hazards?
- Image 2
27. What kind of protection should you use,
when you are working with biohazard
level 1 materials – for example human
blood samples for routine blood typing
tests.
- Gloves and some sort of facial
protection
28. Which blood type does our patient
belong to?
- O positive
1. Which of the following behaviors is
associated with a higher risk of diabetes?
- Feeling overwhelmed with stress
because of your job
2. Does diabetes run in families?
- Yes
3. When someone has high blood sugar,
which of the following is a common
symptom?
- Increased thirst and urinating often
4. In the metabolism of sugar in the human
system, what sugar is found in your
blood after consuming carbohydrates?
- Glucose
5. Why do the human system needs
glucose?
as a source of energy
6. What hormone in the human system
works as a key to let glucose into
muscle cells?
- Insulin
7. The glucose meter shows the value 0
because we haven’t measured anything
yet. What’s written in small letters
underneath the 0?
- mg/dL
8. What is the first thing to do in measuring
your blood glucose?
- Wash your hands, and insert a
clean needle and fresh test strip
9. What’s the best area for testing your
blood glucose?
- Side of the fingertips
10. What is the range of a normal blood
glucose levels when fasting?
- 70-130 mg/dL
11. What happened to your blood glucose
after eating the donut?
- It’s higher than the fasting level
12. In which activity from the choices can
make your blood glucose rise?
- Snack high in carbohydrates
13. How do exercise change blood glucose
level in the human system?
- It decreased blood glucose
14. What is a clear symptom of low blood
glucose?
- Shakiness
15. What is the best choice for a healthy
snack?
- Vegetables or fruits
16. What is the third food group on the plate
besides ‘Protein’ and ‘Grain and starchy
food’ according to the food plate method?
- Non-starchy vegetables
17. What food item in the food corner has
the highest amount of fat per serving?
- French fries
18. Which information is NOT found on a
food label?
- Cooking instructions
19. How many units of insulin has Tracy
filled into the syringe?
- 10 units
20. How can you remember to take your
diabetes medication in your daily life?
- All options are correct
21. Where region of the human anatomy is
NOT a good region to inject insulin?
- Hands
22. Which supplies are NOT needed when
injecting insulin into the body?
- A thermometer
Carbohydrates
1. In which journal was this article
published?
- International Journal of Sport
Nutrition
2. What is the difference between the high-
CHO and the control group?
- Carbohydrate intake before trial
3. Carbohydrates are one of the main
types of nutrients. The term describes
molecules consisting of…
- Carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen
4. When dissolved in water, most glucose
molecules form into 6-membered ring
structures. What do the red spheres
represent?
- Oxygen atoms
5. What is the chemical formula of fructose?
- C6H12O6
6. What is the difference between glucose
and fructose?
- Arrangement of functional groups
7. Which of the following drinks contains a
lot of sucrose?
- Freshly squeezed orange juice
8. Sucrose is a disaccharide. The “di”
stands for two; disaccharides consist of
two simple sugars. What are the two
building blocks of sucrose?
- Fructose and glucose
9. By what factor does the surface area
increase from the single cube to the 27
cubes on the right?
- 3
10. Which of the following sentence is NOT
true about enzymes?
- …exclusively involved in digestion
11. What did your taste buds sense after
chewing for a while?
- Sweetness
12. Which organ follows after the
esophagus?
- Stomach
13. Where is most of the sugar absorbed?
- Small intestine
14. What do the percentages on the right
side mean? Percentage of…
- …recommended daily intake, per
serving
15. How many grams of starch are
contained in one serving?
- 146 g
16. How much rice do we need to feed to our
virtual test subject if we want to measure
the effect of 50 g carbohydrates?
- 63 g
17. How long does it take until the blood
glucose level peaks?
- 25 min
18. The glycemic index of carrots is quite
high. Why is the glycemic index
sometimes misleading?
- It’s relative to the amount of
carbohydrate
19. Which of the following is the chemical
formula of glucose?
- C6H12O6
20. What is the fasting level of blood
glucose?
- 4 mM
21. What could be the reason that person
A’s (blue line) blood sugar is acting so
differently than that of person B (red
line)?
- Person A is not capable of
producing insulin
Protein Denaturation
1. What is the secondary structure known
as alpha helix within this tertiary
structure?
- It’s depicted in yellow
2. What do you expect would happen to
the distilled water?
- Nothing, as it doesn’t contain
protein
3. How do acids denature proteins?
- They modify the pH, disrupting the
salt bridges
4. What levels of protein structure are
affected when adding strong bases to
them?
- Secondary, tertiary, and
quaternary levels
5. What kind of protein interactions are
disrupted by the addition of an alcohol?
- The Hydrogen bonds
6. How can a highly concentrated salt
denature a protein?
- Due to the interactions of cations
and anions with the salt bridges
7. What kind of protein interactions are
disrupted by the addition of metals?
- The disulfide bonds
8. Why do salts need to be at a high
concentration to affect the protein
structure?
- To have enough ions to interact
with the salt bridges in the proteins
9. What is protein coagulation?
- The formation of new interactions
among denatured proteins
10. Casein is one of the most abundant
proteins in milk
- Diluted saline solution
 11. What happens when proteins in egg
white are denatured?
- They lose their 3D functional
structure
12. What happens when you fry an egg?
- Denatured proteins form new
interactions
13. What is gelatin?
- A food ingredient produced by a
denaturation process
14. Which of these is NOT a food that
contains gelatin?
- Cookies
15. Imagine that we vortex the tubes after
adding citric acid to some egg whites.
What would happen?
- More lumps would have formed in
less time
16. What would it happen if you whisk some
egg whites in a copper bowl instead of a
crystal or plastic one?
- The copper ions will stabilize
already denatured proteins from
egg whites
Protein Synthesis
1. DNA is the molecule of heredity that
contains instructions to build proteins. In
1958, Francis Crick described the central
dogma of molecular biology explaining the
process of gene expression. What do A
and B represent in the image?
- ‘A’ is transcription and ‘B’ is
translation
2. You can observe the main differences
between DNA and RNA. Which
statement is true?
- DNA has no hydroxyl group on the
second carbon
Which statement is NOT correct?
- RNA is less reactive
3. The mRNA strand is synthesized in the 5’
to 3’ direction. The circles in the image
indicate the chemical group to which the
next base is attached. Which image has
the circle in the correct position?
- C
4. DNA and mRNA synthesis proceeds in
the 5’ to 3’ direction. What do 5’ and 3’
refer to?
- The position of a carbon atom in
the sugar backbone
5. Protein synthesis is performed by an
RNA-protein complex called the
ribosome. A ribosome is composed of 3
sites called E, P and A. To which site
does tRNA add its amino acid to the
polypeptide chain?
- P
6. Where do eukaryotic cells synthesize
proteins and which number represents
this organelle in the image?
- Ribosomes, 2
7. What is the name of each sequence of
three nitrogen-containing bases of RNA
that codes for one amino acid?
- Codon
8. The biosafety cabinet is important for
physical containment. Who or what does
a level II biosafety cabinet protect?
- The personnel, the experiment,
and the environment
9. The tRNA shown in the diagram will be
able to form a base-pair interaction with
which mRNA?
- 5’-AGU
10. Three types of RNA cooperate to
perform translation.
A: Read codons and deliver the amino
acids.
B: Carry the genetic information from
DNA.
C: Catalyze the assembly of polypeptide
chains.
Which type of RNA matches the A, B,
and C descriptions, respectively?
- tRNA, mRNA, rRNA
11. Which strand is the template strand?
- Bottom
12. Which is the correct mRNA sequence
resulting from the EPO gene
transcription process?
- 5’-AUU ACA AUG GGG GUG CAC
GAA UGU CCU-3’
13. What is the correct amino acid
translated from the resulting mRNA?
- MGVHECP
14. The erythropoietin protein is 193 amino
acids long. With this information, how
many nucleotides are there in the mRNA
including the initiator and terminator
codons?
- 582
15. An EPO gene is 582 bp long. This is the
downstream section of the coding
sequence for the erythropoietin mRNA:
‘5-ACA GGG GAC AGA UGA-3’
Downstream means near the 3’ end, so
notice that the first codon is not
methionine. What is the correct amino
acid sequence?
- TGDR
16. Amino acids are linked by a specific type
of covalent bond. The reaction of this
bond produces one water molecule. This
bond links multiple amino acids together,
what is it called?
- Peptide bonds
17. A sequence of amino acids, or a
polypeptide, grows from the N-terminus
to the C-terminus. This polypeptide
chain represents the primary structure of
a protein. The linear sequence of amino
acids within a protein is considered
the…structure of the protein.
- Primary
18. Which level of protein structure is
formed by the weak bonds between
oxygen and hydrogen atoms within the
polypeptide backbone?
- Secondary structure
19. Two basic types of protein secondary
structures are α-helix and β-sheet. The
alpha helix is a right-handed coil. The beta
sheet can be formed be two or more
segments of the polypeptide chain lying
side by side. The entire folded protein 3D
structure is known as tertiary structure.
The main two secondary structures of
proteins are alpha helix and beta sheet
which are represented respectively by
which two letters in the image?
- B and A
20. Based on the mass spectrometer result,
what is the mass difference between
rhEPO expressed in CHO and E.coli?
- 12 kDa
21. Glycosylation sites are marked with a
diagram of glycan. Based on the mass
spectrometry results, rhEPO is
glycosylated in which expression
system?
- CHO
22. The glycosylation site are marked with
glycan diagram. Based on the mass
spectrometry results, how many
glycosylation sites exist in rhEPO-CHO?
- 4
23. Bacterial cells often cannot produce
recombinant proteins that are identical to
their wild type. Why is this?
- Bacteria lack the machinery for
making post-translational
modifications
24. Recombinant proteins produced by
E.coli cells are not glycosylated. This is
because E.coli cells do not possess
which organelle?
- Golgi apparatus
25. Based on the mass spectrometry result,
the masses of rhEPO expressed in CHO
and E.coli are 30 kDa and 18 kDa,
respectively. We also know that the EPO
proteins expressed in mammalian cells
are glycosylated. Therefore, we can say
that what weight percentage of rhEPO
expressed in CHO are polysaccharides.
- 40% / 0.4
26. Are mammalian expression systems
better than bacterial systems for the
production of biologically active and
stable erythropoietin?
- Yes, erythropoietin is best
expressed in mammalian cells
27. Mass spectrometry identifies molecules
based on what?
- Mass and charge
28. MALDI is an abbreviation for what?
- Matrix-assisted laser
desorption/ionization
29. The macromolecule ionization method,
such as MALDI MS, allows us to obtain
a peptide mass fingerprint, or PMF, that
can be used to do what?
- Predict the identity of an unknown
protein
30. If X, Y, and Z refer to the parts of a mass
spectrometer that perform different
processes such that:
X detects the number of different ions.
Y is where ion production from the
sample takes place.
Z separates ions with different mass-to-
charge ratios.
In which order do X, Y and Z occur?
- Y, Z, then X
31. Protein samples are mixed with a matrix
prior to analysis. What is the function of
a matrix in MALDI MS analysis?
- Ensures ionization of protein
molecules
32. In mass spectrometry, protein molecules
are separated based on their mass to
charge ratio. The data is recorded in a
histogram for analysis. Which of these
histograms are NOT coherent with the
mass spectrometry principle?
- II, III, IV
33. Compare the sample results from each
athlete with the control results. There
are two controls: a positive control that
contains rhEPO only and a negative
control that contains only urine.
Which athlete is using rhEPO?
(between 1760 and 2200, the line
doesn’t have a “hole” HAHA compared
sa other two, see attached pic below)
34. EPO can increase production of energy
(ATP) by increasing production of what?
- Red blood cells
Introductory Polymerase Chain Reaction
1. What is the function of DNA?
- DNA stores information
2. Which cell contains DNA?
- A white blood cell
3. DNA is located inside the…
- Nucleus
4. What type of structure does DNA have?
- Double helix
5. The DNA molecule consists of a range
of nucleotide pairs. The two chains of
the double helix are complementary.
 What is the complementary DNA
sequence for the following sequence: 5’-
AATTCGCGG-3’
- 3’-TTAAGCGCC-5’
6. Which of the following nucleotides is not
part of DNA?
- Uracil
7. Where is uracil used?
- In RNA
8. What approach would you take to find
out which blood sample came from the
murderer?
- DNA profiling
9. Before a blood sample can be used for a
DNA profiling analysis, …
- DNA should be extracted from the
cells
10. You can extract DNA from the following
samples, except for…
- Red blood cells
11. To extract DNA from a cell, first we must
break it open to release the DNA and
other cell contents. This process of
breaking the outer cell membrane is
known as…
- Lysis
12. An enzyme that synthesizes DNA
molecules is called…
- DNA polymerase
13. What are the building blocks that DNA
polymerase uses to build new DNA
molecules?
- Nucleotides
14. Before using a pipette to collect liquid, it
is important to…
- Put on a new and sterile pipette tip
15. Primers bind to a specific site of DNA
and serve as a starting point for DNA…
- Synthesis
16. Why are we adding 13 different primers?
- Because it is the minimum
required for DNA profiling
17. It is important to change the tip in order
to?
- Avoid cross-contamination
18. Nucleotides are the building blocks of…
- DNA
19. What is the template for a PCR?
- DNA
20. The main function of DNA polymerase is
to…
- Synthesize new DNA
21. The purpose of PCR is…
- To make many copies of a specific
region of DNA
22. At this step in the PCR process, the
DNA was…
- Separated into two strands
23. This separation was caused by…
- The high temperature (95 C)
24. This step in a PCR is called the…step
- Annealing
25. Which reagent acts as a template for
DNA polymerase?
- DNA from a blood sample
26. Which part of the PCR product does the
area where the primers bind represent?
- Beginning
27. What would happen if polymerase was
not added to the PCR? New DNA
would…
- Not be generated
28. At this point, the DNA polymerase has…
- Attached to the primer and DNA
29. A PCR cycle is repeated 30 times to…
- Generate enough DNA
30. PCR is modeled on the replication of
DNA inside a living organism’s cells.
Both PCR and in vivo DNA replication use
what to assemble new DNA strands?
- DNA polymerases
31. Both PCR and in vivo DNA replication
use a short nucleic acid which is known
as a? It serves as a starting point of the
DNA synthesis.
- Primer
32. Both PCR and in vivo DNA replication
use what as a template to synthesize a
new DNA strand?
- DNA
33. PCR and in vivo DNA replication have
different strategies to separate the two
DNA strands’ double helix. Which two
methods do they use?
- Heat, helicase
34. Which of the primer arrangements will
result in a 700 bp long PCR product?
- C (720-20 = 700)
35. In the lab, I collect liquid by…
- Using a pipette
36. What does a DNA ladder identify?
- The length of a DNA fragment
37. We can see bands on the E-gel because
there are how many copies of DNA?
- Millions of copies
38. DNA moves towards the positive pole of
the E-gel because it has what type of
charge?
- Negative
39. Using 13 sets of primers for the DNA
profile instead of 10 does what to the
probability of a 100% match between
two different individuals?
- Decreases
40. STR analysis involves the examination of
PCR products using electrophoresis. Which
of the following is the correct
electrophoresis result?
- B
41. So, who is the murderer? (I chose him but
it does not matter ata?)
- Rival scientist
42. What is the function of primers in a PCR?
- They bind to specific sites on the
template DNA to initiate and direct
DNA synthesis
43. It is the ability to…that makes the Taq
polymerase special compared to most other
polymerases
- Resist high temperatures
44. Contamination of reagents often leads to…
- Unreliable results
45. How many sets of primers are needed for
DNA profiling?
- 13
46. What can a DNA ladder help to determine?
- The length of a DNA fragment
47. It is possible to distinguish between
individuals by running these PCR products
on a gel because the PCR products…
- Have different lengths
48. Choose the correct order of procedures you
have completed for the CSI Lab
- Collect blood sample, extract DNA,
PCR, gel electrophoresis, and STR
analysis
Cell Structure Benedict’s Test for Simple Carbohydrates

1. Which of the following is the first 1. Which of these is an aldehyde?

principle of cell theory?
- All organisms are made up of
cells

2. What was the second principle of cell

theory that they postulated?
- Cells are the structural and
organizational unit of life
3. The presence of this organelle is also
the main difference between eukaryotes
and prokaryotes. Which organelle?
- Nucleus
4. The storm made the organism with cell
membranes disappear, while the
organisms with cell wall remains. Why
might this be?
- Cell walls protect organisms
from harsh environmental conditions
2. What forms after the glycosidic linkage
reaction between glucose and galactose
is complete?
- Water and lactose
3. Benedict’s reagent detects the presence
of simple sugars in food. What color
indicates the presence of a high level of
simple sugars?
- Red
4. What is a common property of glucose,
galactose, and fructose?
- They have the same chemical
formula

5. What is the main purpose of the 5. What sugar give a negative result in
extracellular matrix surrounding Benedict’s test?
osteocytes? - Sucrose
- Bone strength
Iodine Test for Complex Carbohydrates
6. Which of the following combinations
include only organelles present in ALL 1. Which of the following is a
animal cells? carbohydrate?
- Nucleus, Golgi apparatus, and - Sucrose
lysosome
2. What is the different between the two?
7. Which of the following internal cellular - The position of the hydroxyl
structures is unique to myocytes? group on carbon 1
- Sarcomeres
3. On these labels, what molecule does
8. Which type of cell junction are tight insoluble fiber refer to?
junctions? - Cellulose
- Occluding junctions
4. What do you call a sample, for which no
response is expected?
- Negative control

5. Does Alice’s salad contain complex

carbohydrates?
- Yes
Biuret’s Test for Protein

1. What type of bond links amino acids

together in a chain?
- Peptide bond

2. The linear sequence of amino acids

within a protein is considered
the…structure of the protein
- Primary

3. Which level of protein structure is

formed by the weak bonds between
oxygen and hydrogen atoms within the
polypeptide backbone?
- Secondary structure

4. Which of the following is a secondary

protein structure?
- Alpha-helix

5. What is the purpose of a positive

control?
- Verify that the negative results
are valid

6. Does Alice’s salad contain proteins?

- No