Multiple Choice Questions: Prepared by

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DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY,
Opposite to Salem Airport, Salem - 636 309
DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
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pa
VII SEMESTER
GE8077 – Total Quality Management

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Regulation – 2017 (Batch: 2017 -2021)
Academic Year 2020 – 21

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Prepared by
Course Coordinator
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Mr.G.Madhankumar., AP/MECH
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Module Coordinator
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Mr.M.Chandru., SAP/MECH
Overall Coordinator
Dr.P.Senthilkumar., Prof & HOD/MECH
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1. ______________ is not a process tools for TQM systems
A. process flow analysis

B. histograms
C. pliers
D. control charts
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Correct answer: (C)
2. Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of ______________
A. internal costs
B. external costs
C. costs of dissatisfaction
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D. societal costs
Correct answer: (A)
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3. Customers are primarily concerned with ______________
A. Communication, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person

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B. Competence, courtesy, and security of the sales person
C. Competence, responsiveness, and reliability of the sales person
D. Communication, responsiveness, and cleverness of the sales person
Correct answer: (A)

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4. Assured quality is necessary for building customer confidence.
A. correct
B. correct to some extent
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C. correct to great extent

D. incorrect
Correct answer: (A)

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5. ______________ is the areas that will be covered by the organization's processes
A. process areas
B. product Areas
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C. private areas
D. preset areas
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Correct answer: (A)

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6. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
A. customer dissatisfaction costs

B. inspection costs
C. maintenance costs
D. warranty and service costs
Correct answer: (C)
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7. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
A. An unrealistic definition of quality

B. A user-based definition of quality
C. A manufacturing-based definition of quality
D. A product-based definition of quality
.c
Correct answer: (B)
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8. TQM stands for ______________
A. Total Quality Management

B. Total Quantity Management pa
C. Total Qualitative Management
D. To question management
Correct answer: (A)

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9. After E.deming, who is considered to have the greatest impact in quality management?
A. Kauro Ishikawa
B. Joseph M. Juran
C. W.E. Deming
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D. Genichi Tagucchi
Correct answer: (B)
10. Deming's 4 step cycle for improvement is______________

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A. plan, do, check, act

B. schedule, do, act, check
C. do, act, check, monitor
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D. plan, control, act, sustain
Correct answer: (A)

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11. Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to ______________
A. Overall improvement
B. Continuous improvement
C. Permanent improvement
D. Immediate improvement
Correct answer: (B)
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12. Quality practices must be carried out ______________
A. at the start of the project

B. throughout the life of the project
C. at the end of the project
D. no need to carry out quality practices
.c
Correct answer: (B)
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13. Quality circles work best if employees are initially trained in ______________
A. Group dynamics
B. Motivation principles pa
C. Communications
D. All of the three. (Not sure)
Correct answer: (D)

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14. Quality Trilogy includes
A. Quality planning
B. quality improvement
C. quality control
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D. All the three
Correct answer: (D
15. Inspection is part of the ______________

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A. quality control (not sure)

B. Quality Planning
C. Quality improvement
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D. Quality circle
Correct answer: (A)

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16. Elements of quality management system are ______________
A. organizational structure
B. responsibilities
C. procedures
D. all the three (not sure)
Correct answer: (D)
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17. Based on his 14 Points, Deming is a strong proponent of ______________
A. inspection at the end of the production process

B. an increase in numerical quotas to boost productivity
C. looking for the cheapest supplier
D. training and knowledge
.c
Correct answer: (D)
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18. According to Deming most of the problems are related to systems and it is the responsibility
of the management to improve the systems
A. correct pa
D. Taguchi
Correct answer: (A)

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19. Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a qualitative
goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in ______________
A. A project completed in shortest possible time.

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B. A product or service that conforms to the required specifications.

C. an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project
D. an innovative project that establishes qualification of the project team
Correct answer: (B)

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20. Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of better quality.
A. Maintenance costs
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B. Inspection costs
C. Scrap costs
D. Warranty and service costs
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Correct answer: (A)

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21. Processes that operate with "six sigma quality" over the short term are assumed to produce
long-term defect levels below ______________ defects per million opportunities (DPMO).
A. 2
B. 2.4
C. 3
D. 3.4
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Correct answer: (D)
22. ______________ are used in six sigma
A. black belt
B. green belt
C. both black belt and green belt
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D. none of the Above
Correct answer: (C)
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23. Customers are primarily concerned with ______________
A. Communication, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person

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B. Competence, courtesy, and security of the sales person
C. Competence, responsiveness, and reliability of the sales person
D. Communication, responsiveness, and cleverness of the sales person
Correct answer: (A)

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24. Assured quality is necessary for building customer confidence.
A. correct
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D. incorrect
Correct answer: (A)

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25. ______________ is about supplying customers with what they want when they want it.
A. JUT
B. HET
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C. JAT
D. JIT
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Correct answer: (D)

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26. ______________ are the areas that will be covered by the organization's processes
A. process areas
B. product Areas
C. private areas
D. preset areas
Correct answer: (A)
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27. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
______________
A. customer dissatisfaction costs

B. inspection costs
C. maintenance costs
.c
D. warranty and service costs
Correct answer: (C)
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28. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
A. An unrealistic definition of quality

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B. A user-based definition of quality
C. A manufacturing-based definition of quality
D. A product-based definition of quality
Correct answer: (B)

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29. In Six Sigma, a ______________ is defined as any process output that does not meet
customer specifications
A. error
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B. cost
C. quality
D. defect
Correct answer: (D
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30. Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to ______________
A. Overall improvement
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C. Permanent improvement
D. Immediate improvement
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Correct answer: (B)

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31. –––––––– are the charts that identify potential causes for particular quality problems.
A. Control Chart
B. Flow chart
C. Cause and Effect Diagram
D. Pareto chart
Correct answer: (C)
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32. Quality circles work best if employees are initially trained in ______________
A. Group dynamics
B. Motivation principles
C. Communications
.c
D. All of the three. (Not sure)
Correct answer: (D)
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33. Quality Trilogy includes
A. Quality planning pa
C. quality control
D. All the three
Correct answer: (D)

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34. Production issues should be addressed early
A. correct (not sure)

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D. incorrect
Correct answer: (A)

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35. QFD stands for ______________
A. Quantity for deployment

B. Quality for deployment
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C. Quality function deployment

D. Quality for decision
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Correct answer: (C)

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36. Reliability is the degree to which a unit of equipment performs its intended function under
______________ for ______________ of time.
A. specified conditions; specified period

B. any condition; specified period
C. specified conditions; all periods
D. any condition; any period
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Correct answer: (A)
37. Kaizen is a ______________ process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple productivity
improvement.
A. weekly
B. daily
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C. monthly
D. annual
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Correct answer: (B)
38. Elements of quality management system are ______________
A.
B.
C.
organizational structure
responsibilities
procedures
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D. all the three (not sure)
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Correct answer: (D)
39. At the time of making a purchase agreement with a vendor, what is important to mention
about inspection?
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A. the characteristics of the product that are to be inspected

B. the tolerances that would be allowed
C. the reputation of the vendor
D. a & b both (not sure)
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Correct answer: (D)
40. "Poka-yoke" is the Japanese term for ______________

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A. Card
B. Fool proof
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C. Continuous improvement
D. Fishbone diagram
Correct answer: (B)

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41. Based on his 14 Points, Deming is a strong proponent of ______________
A. inspection at the end of the production process

B. an increase in numerical quotas to boost productivity
C. looking for the cheapest supplier
D. training and knowledge
Correct answer: (D)
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42. A fishbone diagram is also known as a .______________
A. cause-and-effect diagram
B. poka-yoke diagram
C. Kaizen diagram
D. Taguchi diagram
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Correct answer: (A)
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43. According to Deming most of the problems are related to systems and it is the responsibility
of the management to improve the systems
A. correct pa
D. Taguchi
Correct answer: (A)

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44. A maturity model can be used as a benchmark for comparison and as an aid to understanding
A. TRUE
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B. FALSE
C. depends
D. can't say
Correct answer: (A)

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45. Fourteen points framework for quality and productivity improvement was suggested by
______________
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A. Crosby
B. Ishikawa
C. Deming
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D. Juran
Correct answer: (C)

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46. Juran's Quality trilogy emphasizes the roles of quality planning, quality control and
______________
A. Quality Definition
B. Quality enhancement
C. Quality improvement
D. quality maintenance
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Correct answer: (C)
47. Quality Circles members are ______________
A. Paid according to their contribution to quality

B. External consultants designed to provide training in the use of Quality tools
C. Always machine operators
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D. None of the three.
Correct answer: (D)
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48. Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of better quality.
A.
B.
C.
Maintenance costs
Inspection costs
Scrap costs
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D. Warranty and service costs
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Correct answer: (A)
49. Costs of dissatisfaction, repair costs, and warranty costs are elements of cost in the
______________
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A. Taguchi Loss Function

B. Pareto Chart
C. ISO 9000 Quality Cost Calculator
D. Process Chart
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Correct answer: (A)
50. Kaizen is a Japanese term meaning ______________

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A. continuous improvement
B. Just-in-time (JIT)
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C. a fishbone diagram
D. setting standards
Correct answer: (A)

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51. Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a qualitative
goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in ______________
A. A project completed in shortest possible time.

B. a product or service that conforms to the required specifications.
D. an innovative project that establishes qualification of the project team
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Correct answer: (B)
52. Establishing measurements based on customer needs for optimizing product design is known
as ______________
A. Quality planning
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C. quality control
D. Quality planning (Actual answer is Quality planning roadmap)
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Correct answer: (D)
53. DMAIC is ______________
A.
B.
C.
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develop, multiply, analyze, improve, check
define, muliply, analyze, improve, control
define, measure, analyze, improve, control
D. define, manufacture, analyze, improve, control
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Correct answer: (C)
54. Quality fulfills a need or expectation that is:
A. Explicitly stated
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B. Implied
C. Legally required
D. All of the above
Correct answer: (D)

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55. The taste of burgers across all McDonald outlets should be same. This is an example of
______________.
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A. Sensory critical to quality Characteristic

B. Physical critical to Quality Characteristic
C. Time Orientation critical to Quality Characteristic
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D. None of the above
Correct answer: (A)

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56. Check Sheet is used during ______________ stage of DMAIC.
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Analyze
D. Improve
Correct answer: (B)
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57. ______________ is the set of activities that ensures the quality levels of products and
services are properly maintained and that supplier and customer quality issues are properly
resolved.
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Planning
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C. Quality Control
D. Quality Management
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Correct answer: (A)
58. Presence of ______________ after every stage of DMAIC allows for review of project and
incorporation of suggestions. pa
A. Review gate
B. Toll gate
C. Decision gate
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Correct answer: (B)
59. The Toyota Production System is based on two pillars namely ______________ and
______________.
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A. Kaizen, Six Sigma

B. Lean, Six Sigma
C. Just in Time, Jidoka
D. Just in Time, Kaizen
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Correct answer: (C)
60. Which of the following is not a target of Total Quality Management:

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A. Customer Satisfaction
B. Reducing manpower
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C. Continuous Cost Reduction

D. Continuous Operational Improvement
Correct answer: (B)

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61. Let there be a data set {200,201,202,203,204,205,206,207,208}. This data set can be
represented using stem and leaf where the ______________ is 20 and the ______________ is
{0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}.
A. Stem, Leaf
B. Leaf, Stem
C. Tree, Stem
D. Tree, Leaf
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Correct answer: (A)
62. A ______________ diagram shows the location of defects in any unit. This diagram is used
in the analyze step of DMAIC.
A. Affinity
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B. Relations
C. Defect Concentration
D. Scatter
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Correct answer: (C)
63. The ______________ is used to identify what might go wrong in a plan under development.
pa
A. Pareto Chart
B. PDPC
C. Arrow Diagram
D. Matrix Diagram
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Correct answer: (B)
64. The defect concentration diagram can be used in the ______________ stage of the DMAIC.
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A. Define
B. Measure
C. Analyze
D. Improve
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Correct answer: (C)
65. The taste of the burger can be categorized as good or bad This is an example of which type of
data:
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A. Variable
B. Attribute
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C. Cannot be determined
Correct answer: (A)

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66. For a given sample size (n) and number of defects acceptable ©, the Average Total
Inspection (of units) should ______________ with increase in N (lot size).
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain Constant
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Correct answer: (A)
67. The pattern of continuous movement in one direction in a control chart is termed as:
A. Mixture
B. Cyclic Pattern
C. Trend
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D. Stratification
Correct answer: (C)
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68. Juran's quality management philosophy is based on three pillars namely planning, control and
______________.
A.
B.
C.
Implementation
Improvement
Monitor
pa
D. Design
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Correct answer: (B)
69. For a point in the control chart to be out of control, it must lie
A. Above UCL or Below LCL

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B. Between Central Line and LCL

C. Between Central Line and UCL
Correct answer: (A)

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70. X bar should never be interpreted when:
A. R chart shows out of control points

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B. X bar chart shows out of control points

C. The process mean is not known
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Correct answer: (A)

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71. The average run length can be defined as:
A. The beta risk for an x bar chart

B. The expected number of samples taken before any shift in process quality is detected
C. The number of samples used in the construction of x bar chart
D. The number of items per sample
Correct answer: (B)
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72. Consider the first method of p bar estimation where each sample is of varying size. If the 3rd
sample has p bar =.01, and the sample size of the 3rd sample is 10, what will be the upper control
limit for the 3rd sample?
A. 0.5
B. 0.6
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C. 0.1 ((p bar + 3∗ √p bar∗(1-p bar)/n) is a measure of the upper control limit)
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Correct answer: (C)
73. A major assumption for p chart is that all units produced are ______________.
A.
B.
C.
Independent
Dependent
None of the above
pa
D. Cannot be determined
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Correct answer: (A)
74. Apart from Poisson distribution, another distribution that can be applied to events data is:
A. Normal Distribution
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B. Geometric Distribution
C. Lognormal Distribution
D. Continuous Distribution
Correct answer: (B)

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75. Which of the following is not true regarding when to select a p, c or u chart?
A. The process is a complex assembly operation and product quality is measured in terms of
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the occurrence of nonconformities, successful or unsuccessful product function, and so

forth.
B. Process control is necessary, but measurement data cannot be obtained.
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C. A historical summary of process performance is necessary.

D. Destructive testing (or such other expensive testing procedures) is required.
Correct answer: (D)

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76. The dimension of reliability is concerned with:
A. How easy it is to repair the product

B. How long does the product last
C. Will the product do the intended job
D. How often does the product fail
Correct answer: (D)
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77. From a consumer perspective quality is determined by ______________ while from a
producers perspective quality is determined by ______________.
A. Variability, Cost
B. Cost, Price
C. Price, Cost
.c
D. Cost, Variability
Correct answer: (C)
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78. The probability distribution function corresponding to tossing of a coin will be a:
A. Probability Density function pa

B. Probability Mass function
C. Probability Measurement function
D. Probability Cumulative Function
Correct answer: (B)
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79. While the first generation of Six sigma focused on ______________, the third generation of
six sigma focused on ______________.
A. Variability reduction, creating value

B. Variability reduction, improved business performance
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C. Creating value, Improved business performance

Correct answer: (A)

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80. The standard normal distribution has mean= ______________ and standard deviation=
______________.
A. 1,0
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B. 0,1
C. 0,0
D. 1,1
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Correct answer: (B)

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81. A ______________ chart can be used to identify the most frequently occurring defect.
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Histogram
D. Scatter
Correct answer: (A)
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82. The main aim of QFD is to
A. Listen to the voice of customer

B. Lower cost
C. Reduce errors
D. Reduce supplier defect
.c
Correct answer: (A)
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83. Average Total Inspection is defined as:
A. Average of rejected lots and accepted lots

B. Average number of units inspected per lot
pa
C. Average of rejected Lots
D. Average of accepted Lots
Correct answer: (B)

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84. R charts are used for controlling ______________ of a process.
A. Central Tendency
B. Dispersion
C. None of the above
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D. Both a and b
Correct answer: (B)
85. If the Average outgoing Quality is plotted against the Incoming Fraction Defective, the
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Average Outgoing Quality Limit is the ______________ point.
A. Highest
B. Lowest
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C. Middle
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Correct answer: (A)

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86. For the above table, what is the value corresponding to the central line for the x bar chart?
A. 10.08
B. 10.05
C. 9.89
D. 9.78
Correct answer: (A)
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87. The x bar chart monitors:
A. Between sample variability

B. Within sample variability
C. Instantaneous variability
D. Natural variability
.c
Correct answer: (A)
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88. In case someone is interested in process standard deviation, he should construct the
______________ chart.
A. X bar pa
B. R chart
C. S chart
Correct answer: (C)

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89. If data for MR chat shows non-normality, it is better to determine the control limits for the
individuals control chart based on the ______________ of the correct underlying distribution.
A. Percentage
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B. Percentiles
C. Rank
D. Mean
Correct answer: (B)

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90. A sample of size 10 contains 50 non-conformities. The average number of non-conformities

is:
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A. 7
B. 4
C. 5 (50/10 i.e. total non-conformities/sample size)
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D. 1
Correct answer: (C)

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91. When the number of defects is low, which of the following is true:
A. We should use c or u chart

B. Most samples will have non-zero defects
C. Create a time between occurrence control chart
Correct answer: (C)
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92. Bias reflects the:
A. The differences in observed accuracy and/or precision experienced over the range of
measurements made by the system.
B. The difference between observed measurements and a "true" value obtained from a
master or gold standard
.c
C. Different levels of variability in different operating regimes, resulting from warm-up
effects, environmental factors, inconsistent operator performance
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Correct answer: (B)
93. If variability of a product decreases, its quality ______________

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A. remains unchanged
B. decreases
C. increases
D. may increase or decrease
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Correct answer: (C)
94. The focal point of all quality control should be:

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A. Price focus
B. Cost Focus
C. Customer Focus
D. Manufacturing Focus
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Correct answer: (C)
95. The key process input variables (KPIV) and key process output variables are developed
during the ______________ phase.
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A. Define
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B. Analyze
C. Measure
D. Improve
Correct answer: (C)

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96. An unbiased dice is rolled once. The probability of getting a number greater than 4 is:
A. ¼
B. 1/6
C. ½
D. 1/3
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Correct answer: (D)
97. Which of the following statement is false:
A. Important step of strategic quality management is identification of those dimensions in
.c
which the organization will compete
B. Selection of suppliers should be based on quality, schedule, and cost, rather than on cost
alone
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C. All of the individuals in the organization must have an understanding of the basic tools of
quality improvement pa
D. Manufacturing Unit should be the unit focusing on Quality Improvement among all units
in an organization
Correct answer: (D)

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98. Cause and Effect Diagram can be used in the ____ and ____ step of DMAIC.
A. Define, Measure
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B. Analyze, Control
C. Analyze, Improve
D. Define, Improve
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Correct answer: (C
99. Which of the following is false regarding when acceptance sampling is useful:
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A. When testing is destructive
B. When 100% inspection cost is very low

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C. When there are potentially serious product liability risk
D. When 100% inspection is not technically feasible
Correct answer: (B)

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100. Let p0 be the incoming fraction defective and p1 be the outgoing fraction defective
(Assume both p1 and p0 is greater than 0). If rectifying inspection is performed then:
A. P0<p1
B. P1<p0
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Correct answer: (B)
101. A company wants to measure the length of a fan as a part of its quality control exercise. The
type of data collected will be:
.c
A. Variable
B. Attribute
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C. Cannot be determined
Correct answer: (B)

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102. If only ______________ causes of variation are present, the output of a process forms a
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distribution that is table over time and is predictable.
A. Assignable
B. Non-Random
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C. Natural
D. Cannot be said
Correct answer: (C)

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103. For an x bar chart, β risk can be defined as:

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A. The probability of detecting the shift in process mean from μo (in control value) to μ1
B. The probability of not detecting the shift in process mean from μ 0 (in control value) to μ1
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C. The probability of detecting the shift in process range from μ 0 (in control value) to μ1
D. The probability of not detecting the shift in process range from μ0 (in control value) to μ1
Correct answer: (B)

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104. Consider that for a process s bar (average standard deviation of 50 samples each of size 4) is
found to be 10.04. The value of c4 (corresponding to sample size of .4) is .92. What is the
estimated value of process standard deviation?
A. 10.91 (s bar/ c4 is an unbiased estimator of standard deviation)

B. 11.89
C. 12.67
D. 9.67
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Correct answer: (A)
105. The basic assumption of calculating the control limits based on average sample size (for a p
chart) will ______________ from/as those previously observed.
A. Greatly differ
.c
B. Will be exactly the same
C. Not greatly differ
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Correct answer: (C)
106. The g chart is the control chart for:

pa
A. Average number of events
B. Total number of events
C. Mean number of events
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Correct answer: (B)
107. Attribute charts may be used when:

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A. Several characteristics can be jointly measured

B. When one particular quality characteristic is of importance
C. Specific information like process mean is required
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Correct answer: (A)

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108. The thickness of the blade of a fan is specified to lie between 4 cm and 6 cm. The length of
the blades must lie between 10 cm and 20 cm. A fan blade randomly selected from a sample of
100 blades has a thickness of 5cm and a length of 21cm. The number of defect(s) the blade has is
______________.
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A. One
B. Two
C. There is no defect
D. Three
Correct answer: (A)

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109. The probability of getting a multiple of 2 on throwing a dice once is:
A. 1/6
B. ¼
C. ½
D. 1/3
Correct answer: (A)
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110. Inspection of incoming/outgoing items is an example of ______________.
A. Prevention Cost
B. Appraisal Cost
C. Internal Failure Cost
D. External Failure Cost
.c
Correct answer: (B)
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111. Four basic characteristics of an optimal process are:
A. Economy, efficiency, control, quality

B. Quality, Improvement, efficiency, productivity
pa
C. Economy, efficiency, productivity, cost
D. Economy, efficiency, productivity, quality
Correct answer: (D)

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112. ______________ diagram is used for identifying potential relationship between two
variables.
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
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C. Histogram
D. Scatter
Correct answer: (D)

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113. Lots for acceptance sampling should be ______________ and ______________.
A. Homogeneous, Large
B. Heterogeneous, Small
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C. Homogeneous, Small
D. Heterogeneous, Large
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Correct answer: (A)

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114. The roof of house of quality shows the interrelationship between:
A. Functional Requirements
B. Design Attributes
C. Service Process
D. Manufacturing Process
Correct answer: (B)
om
115. X bar charts are uses to control the ______________ of a process.
A. Dispersion
B. Central tendency
D. Both a and b
.c
Correct answer: (B)
ul
116. Given that for the three samples, the value of R bar is .66 and value of d2 corresponding to
three is1.128, what is the estimated standard deviation?
A. .43 pa
B. .67
C. .58
D. .75
Correct answer: (C)

jin
117. Given L=3 and p=.03, estimate the sample size that can be used for construction of a p
chart.
A. 534
.re
B. 321
C. 123
D. 291 ((1-p)∗L2/p gives us an estimate of sample size)
Correct answer: (D)

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118. The chart used for tracking number non-conforming is:

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A. P
B. Np
C. X bar
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Correct answer: (B)

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119. For a c chart, the OC curve plots the ______________ against ______________.
A. Probability of Type 2 error, true mean number of defects

B. Probability of Type 1 error, true mean number of defects
C. Probability of Type 1 error, true total number of defects
D. Probability of Type 2 error, true total number of defects
Correct answer: (A)
om
120. Identification of customers and listening to the Voice of Customer (VoC) are a part of:
B. Quality Planning
C. Quality Control and Improvement
D. Quality Execution
.c
Correct answer: (B)
ul
121. Ease of repair is associated with ______________ dimension of quality.
A. Serviceability
B. Performance pa
C. Durability
D. Perceived Quality
Correct answer: (A)

jin
122. SIPOC diagram, used for understanding the flow in a process is used in ______________
stage of DMAIC.
A. Define
B. Measure
.re
C. Analyze
D. Improve
Correct answer: (A)

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123. Two major components of fitness of use are Quality of Design and ______________.
A. Quality of Conformance
B. Quality of Service
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C. Quality of Specification
Correct answer: (A)

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124. For new product development, the chosen methodology should be
A. DMADV
B. DMAIC
C. Structured Design Methodology
D. DMIE
Correct answer: (A)
om
125. In DMAIC, redesigning of process to either remove bottlenecks or to reduce waste takes
place in the ______________ stage.
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Improve
.c
D. Control
Correct answer: (C)
ul
126. The critical path method determines the ______________ path from the beginning to the
end of the project.
A.
B.
C.
Shortest
Quickest
Longest
pa
D. Middle
jin
Correct answer: (C)
127. The Operating characteristic curve shows the relationship between the probability of
acceptance (on y axis) and ______________ (on x axis).
.re
A. Proportion defective
B. Proportion acceptable
C. Number of lots
D. Size of lot
w
Correct answer: (A)
128. In a double sampling plan, let d1 be the number of defects in the first sample and d2 be the
number of defects in the second sample. Let c2 be the acceptance number for both samples. The
w
condition for rejection is:
A. D1+d2<c2
w
B. D1+d2>c2
C. D1∗d2>c2
D. D1∗d2<c2
Correct answer: (B)

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129. While random variability in a system can be removed by ______________, non-random
variability requires ______________.
A. Operator or management action, Improvement in the system

B. Improvement in the system, operator or management action
C. Statistical Quality Control, Quality Checks
om
Correct answer: (B)
130. The concept of rational sub group means that subgroups or samples be selected such that if
assignable causes are present the chances for differences between subgroups will be
______________.
A. minimized
.c
B. maximized
C. neutralized
D. optimized
ul
Correct answer: (B)
131. Q-Q plot is used to check:/p> pa

A. Normality of the dataset
B. Number of defects
C. Process mean
D. Process standard deviation
jin
Correct answer: (A)
132. The OC curve provides a measure of the ______________ of the control chart.
.re
A. Sensitivity
B. Duality
Correct answer: (A)

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133. Which of the following is not a type of attribute chart?
A. P chart
B. C chart
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C. U char
D. X bar chart
w
Correct answer: (D)

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134. The thickness of aluminum sheet is specified to be of 6±2 mm. The Upper Specification
Limit and Lower Specification Limit for the sheet are:
A. 4mm, 8mm
B. 8mm, 4mm
C. 6mm, 8mm
D. 4mm, 6mm
om
Correct answer: (B)
135. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis, which prioritizes different sources of error, is used in
______________ stage.
A. Define
B. Measure
.c
C. Improve
D. Analyze
ul
Correct answer: (D)
136. In a six sigma improvement project the least experienced individuals are:
A.
B.
C.
Green Belt
Black belts
Red Belts
pa
D. Master Black Belts
jin
Correct answer: (A)
137. The ______________ diagram starts with one item which then branches of into two or more
items. This diagram is used to breakdown broad categories into finer levels of detail.
.re
A. Affinity
B. Tree
C. Relations
D. Matrix
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Correct answer: (B)
138. Lot tolerance percent defective (LTPD) is a level of lot quality specified by the
______________.
w
A. Consumer
B. Producer
w
C. Supplier
D. Sampling Plan
Correct answer: (A)

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139. Machine wear and tear is ______________ source of variation.
A. Random
B. Natural
C. Assignable
Correct answer: (C)
om
140. Pattern in control charts which show the tendency to cluster around central line is termed as:
A. Stratification
B. Mixture
C. Cyclic pattern
D. Shift in process level
.c
Correct answer: (A)
ul
141. When output product of several sources is fed into a common stream, the pattern of the
control chart expected is:
A. Stratification pa
B. Trend
C. Mixture
D. Cyclic Pattern
Correct answer: (C)

jin
142. A fan blade is specified by length and thickness. While sampling, it was found that for one
particular blade, the length was non-conforming while the thickness was as per specifications.
Should the blade be considered non-conforming for construction of a p chart?
.re
A. Yes
B. No
Correct answer: (A)

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143. Consider that for a particular process, the p has shifted to .4 and the process has gone out of
control. The corresponding value of beta is found to be .3356. The value of Average Run Length
is:
w
A. 2.5
B. 1.5 ((1/1-beta) provides us with average run length)
w
C. 1.0
D. 2.7
Correct answer: (B)

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144. Consider for a process in control, the value of alpha is .0015. What is the value of the
average run length?
A. 666 ( 1/alpha gives us an estimate of average run length)

B. 555
C. 444
om
Correct answer: (A)
145. Identify the charts which might give an indication of process going out of control (before
the process has actually changed)
A. X bar and c
B. P and c
.c
C. R and u
D. X bar and R
ul
Correct answer: (D)
146. The four phases of the Shewart cycle are:
A.
B.
C.
Plan, Do, Scan, Implement
Plan , Act , Do, Control
Plan, Do, Act, Check
pa
D. Implement, Design, Control, Plan
jin
Correct answer: (C)
147. For a process which is six sigma complaint, the percentage of products within specifications
is:
.re
A. 95.20%
B. 99.73%
C. 99.10%
D. 96.78%
w
Correct answer: (B)
148. Mistake proofing of process is done in the ______________ stage of DMAIC.

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A. Define
B. Measure
C. Improve
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D. Control
Correct answer: (C)

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149. In ______________ step of Quality Function Deployment, product or service requirements
are collected and analyzed through techniques like market research.
A. Identify Customer Attributes

B. Identify Design Attributes / Requirements
C. Conduct an Evaluation of Competing Products.
D. Evaluate Design Attributes and Develop Targets
om
Correct answer: (A)
150. For a double sampling plan the probability of acceptance on the combined samples is
calculated as:
A. Maximum of probability of acceptance of first and second sample

B. Product of probability of acceptance of first and second sample
.c
C. Average of probability of acceptance of first and second sample
D. Sum of probability of acceptance of first and second sample
ul
Correct answer: (D)
151. ______________ can be defined as small subset of a lot.
A.
B.
C.
Defect
Fraction Acceptable
Sample
pa
D. Acceptance Number
jin
Correct answer: (C)
152. If the value of D4 = 2.547, D3=0, then what is the UCL and LCL for the R chart?
A. UCL=1.5, LCL=.4
.re
B. UCL= 1.2, LCL=.2

C. UCL=1.5, LCL=0
D. UCL=1.6, LCL=0
Correct answer: (D)

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153. Process capability ratio is expressed as:

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A. USL+LSL/6σ
B. USL-LSL/6σ
C. USL-LSL/3σ
w
D. USL-LSL/σ
Correct answer: (B)

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154. Which of the following is the correct combination of specifications while designing a
control chart?
A. Sample size, Frequency of sampling, specification limit

B. Sample size, Frequency of sampling, Number of defects
C. Sample size, Specification limit, process standard deviation
D. Sample size, Process mean, specification limit
om
Correct answer: (A)
155. For a c chart, the LCL comes out to be -.7. The value of LCL that should be used is:
A. -.7
B. 0
C. 1
.c
Correct answer: (B)
ul
156. For a Poisson distribution:
A. The mean is greater than the variance

pa
B. The mean is less than variance
C. The mean is equal to the variance
Correct answer: (C)

jin
157. Effective quality control results in:
A. Increase in customer satisfaction

B. Lower cost
.re

D. Both a and b
Correct answer: (D)

w
158. Effective quality improvement can be instrumental in:

A. Increasing productivity
B. Reducing cost
C. Both a and b
w
Correct answer: (C)

w

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159. Typically in a cause and effect diagram, the ______________ is used for classification of
causes in the service industry.
A. 5Ms
B. 8Ps
C. 5Ss
D. 6Ps
om
Correct answer: (C)
160. Producers risk can be defined as:
A. The probability of rejecting a good lot

B. The probability of accepting a bad lot
C. The probability of accepting a good lot
.c
D. The probability of rejecting a bad lot
Correct answer: (A)
ul
161. In critical path method, earliest start is the:
A. The largest Earliest Finish leading to that task

pa
B. The smallest Earliest Finish leading to that task
C. Average of Earliest Finish leading to that task
D. Whenever the task can start
Correct answer: (A)

jin
162. Which of the following is not a use of arrow diagram:
A. Determining the best schedule for the entire project

B. Potential Scheduling problem and solution
.re
C. Calculate critical path of the project

D. Identifying defects in a process
Correct answer: (D)

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163. For an ideal OC curve the probability of acceptance for lot fraction defective less than .01 is
______________.
A. Equal to 1
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B. Less than 1
C. Greater than 1
D. 0
w
Correct answer: (A)

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164. If we want to detect small process shifts using x bar chart, we should use a sample size of:
A. Less than 5
B. 5-10
C. 10-15
D. 15-25
Correct answer: (D)
om
165. Factory A produces 100 pieces of wooden legs used in manufacturing tables in 1 hour. The
factory in total works for 3 hours. The quality manager decided to check the quality of the output
by measuring the length of the legs (in cms). He decides to collect three samples (one for each
hour). The sample size for each sample is fixed at 5. The data collected is present in the
following table:
.c
Leg 1 Leg 2 Leg 3 Leg 4 Leg 5
ul
Sample 1 10.2 10.5 9.8 9.7 10.3
Sample 2 10.4 9.9 10.1 10.2 9.8
Sample 3 9.9
pa
9.8
What is the mean and range of leg length in sample 1?
10.2 10.1 10.4
A. Mean=10.3;Range=.3
B. Mean=10.1;Range=.8
jin
C. Mean=10.2;Range=.6
D. Mean=9.9;Range=.5
Correct answer: (B)

.re
166. The parameters of s2 chart is specified using:
A. Normal Distribution
B. Geometric Distribution
C. Binomial Distribution
w
D. Chi-square distribution
Correct answer: (D)

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167. The focal point of all quality control should be:
A. Price focus
w
B. Cost Focus
C. Customer Focus
D. Manufacturing Focus
Correct answer: (C)

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168. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis, which prioritizes different sources of error, is used in
_________________ stage.
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Improve
D. Analyze
om
Correct answer: (D)
169. Which of the following is the correct combination of specifications while designing a
control chart?
A. Sample size, Frequency of sampling, specification limit

B. Sample size, Frequency of sampling, Number of defects
.c
C. Sample size, Specification limit, process standard deviation
D. Sample size, Process mean, specification limit
ul
Correct answer: (A)
170. The South African government is concerned about the high incidence of HIV/AIDS in
South Africa. They wish to estimate the true number of people in South Africa who are HIV
pa
positive. A random sample of 5000 people was tested and 1980 of them were HIV positive. What
is the statistic?
A. The 5000 people sampled

B. All the people in South Africa
jin
C. Impossible to calculate from the given information
D. The 1980 people sampled who were HIV positive
Correct answer: (D)

.re
171. The thickness of aluminum sheet is specified to be of 6±2 mm. The Upper Specification
Limit and Lower Specification Limit for the sheet are:
A. 4mm, 8mm
B. 8mm, 4mm
w
C. 6mm, 8mm
D. 4mm, 6mm
Correct answer: (B)

w
172. In case someone is interested in process standard deviation, he should construct the
______________ chart.
w
A. X bar
B. R chart
C. S chart
D. None of these
Correct answer: (C)

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173. The value of Var (3 - 4X) is:
A. 5120 / 9
B. 1280 / 81
C. 5120 / 81
D. 1280 / 9
Correct answer: (C)
om
174. Suppose box A contains 4 red and 5 blue coins and box B contains 6 red and 3 blue coins. A
coin is chosen at random from the box A and placed in box B. Finally, a coin is chosen at
random from among those now in box B. What is the probability a blue coin was transferred
from box A to box B given that the coin chosen from box B is red?
.c
A. 15/29
B. 14/29
C. 1/2
ul
D. 7/10
Correct answer: (A)

pa
175. A multiple-choice test has 30 questions. There are 4 choices for each question. A student
who has not studied for the test decides to answer all the questions randomly by guessing the
answer to each question. Which of the following probability distributions can be used to
calculate the student's chance of getting at least 20 questions right?
jin
A. Exponential
B. Normal
C. Poisson
D. Binomial
.re
Correct answer: (D)
176. Which of the following is NOT true about the standard error of a statistic?
A. The standard error measures, roughly, the average difference between the statistic and the
w
population parameter.
B. The standard error is the estimated standard deviation of the sampling distribution for the
statistic.
C. The standard error can never be a negative number.
w
D. The standard error increases as the sample size(s) increases.
Correct answer: (D)

w

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177. A two-tailed test is one where:
A. results in only one direction can lead to rejection of the null hypothesis
B. negative sample means lead to rejection of the null hypothesis
C. results in either of two directions can lead to rejection of the null hypothesis
D. no results lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis
Correct answer: (C)
om
178. The chi-square test can be too sensitive if the sample is:
A. very small
B. very large
C. homogeneous
D. predictable
.c
Correct answer: (B)
ul
179. The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE). If the true means of the k
populations are equal, then MSTR/MSE should be:
A. more than 1.00 pa

B. a positive number close to 1.00
C. a positive number close to 0.00
D. a negative value between 0.00 and - 1.00
Correct answer: (B)

jin
180. The error deviations within the residual sum of squares (SSE) statistic measure distances:
A. within groups
B. between groups
.re
C. between each value and the grand mean

D. none of these
Correct answer: (A)

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181. In one-way ANOVA, which of the following is used within the F-ratio as a measurement of
the variance of individual observations?
A. The Sum of Square of Treatments (SSTR)

w
B. The Treatment Mean Square (MSTR)

C. The Residual Sum of Squares (SSE)
D. The Mean Sum of Squares (MSE)
w
Correct answer: (C)

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182. You obtained a significant test statistic when comparing three treatments in a one-way
ANOVA. In words, how would you interpret the alternative hypothesis H(a)?
A. All three treatments have different effects on the mean response.

B. Exactly two of the three treatments have the same effect on the mean response.
C. At least two treatments are different from each other in terms of their effect on the mean
D. Response.
E. None of these
om
Correct answer: (C)
183. Two factors are said to interact when
A. The simple main effects of one factor are not homogeneous across all levels of the other.
B. The simple main effects of one factor are homogeneous across the levels of the other.
.c
C. There are neither main effects nor simple main effects.
D. There are no main effects.
Correct answer: (A)
ul
184. How many dependent variables does a two-way ANOVA have?
A.
B.
C.
One
Two
Three
pa
D. Four
jin
Correct answer: (A)
185. A simple experimental design with two levels of an independent variable cannot
A. Detect a curvilinear relationship between variables.

.re
B. Detect a monotonic relationship.

C. Reveal a positive relationship.
D. Show a negative relationship outcome.
Correct answer: (A)

w
186. If a researcher planned to have 20 participants in each condition of a 2 x 3 independent

group’s factorial design, how many participants would be needed for this experiment?
w
A. 40
B. 60
C. 80
w
D. 120
Correct answer: (D)

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187. What are the factors in a factorial design?
A. the independent variables

B. the dependent variables
C. the organism variables
D. the experimental variables
Correct answer: (A)
om
188. In a factorial design, a main effect is the ______________.
A. the combined effect of the independent variables on the dependent variable

B. interaction effect of the independent variables and their effect on the dependent
C. the effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable
.c
D. interaction of the independent variables
Correct answer: (C)
ul
189. During experimental design, a variable is defined as:
A. Treatment pa
B. Factor
C. Variance
D. None of these
Correct answer: (B)

jin
190. A researcher conducted a 2 x 2 completely repeated measures factorial design and planned
15 participants in each condition. How many participants would be required to conduct this
experiment?
.re
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60
w
Correct answer: (A)
191. For question 09 - 15, consider the model with the two factors, each at two levels:
w
A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
w
D. 5
Correct answer: (A)

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192. In a 3 x 3 factorial design, how many conditions are there in the experiment?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct answer: (D)
om
193. What is the Sum of Squares of Number of Fertilizers (B)?
A. 6.075
B. 39.48
C. 7.19
D. 3.89
.c
Correct answer: (C)
ul
194. What is the degree of freedom of B?
A. 1
B. 2 pa
C. 3
D. 4
Correct answer: (B)

jin
195. A serious problem can occur in multiple regression analysis if an important variable is
omitted from the list of independent variables. This can lead to
A. Unbiased least squares estimators.

B. Biased least squares estimators.
.re
C. A biased estimator of the variance.

D. All of these
Correct answer: (B)

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196. What does the Adjusted R squared value tells us?
A. The Adjusted R squared value tells us if there is a positive relationship

B. The Adjusted R squared value tells us if there is a significant difference
w
C. The Adjusted R squared value tells us if there is a significant relationship

D. The Adjusted R squared value tells us how much of the variance in the dependent
variable can be accounted for by the independent variable
w
Correct answer: (D)

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197. ______________ is the set of activities that ensures the quality levels of products and
services are properly maintained and that supplier and customer quality issues are properly
resolved.
B. Quality Planning
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Management
om
Correct answer: (A)
198. The South African government is concerned about the high incidence of HIV/AIDS in
South Africa. They wish to estimate the true number of people in South Africa who are HIV
positive. A random sample of 5000 people was tested and 1980 of them were HIV positive. What
is the parameter of interest?
.c
A. The number of people in South Africa
B. The 5000 people sampled
ul
C. The number of people in South Africa who are HIV positive
D. The 1980 people sampled who were HIV positive
Correct answer: (C) pa

199. Student's t-test is applicable only when:
A. n ≤ 30 and σ is known
B. n > 30 and σ is unknown
jin
C. n = 30 and σ is known
D. All of these
Correct answer: (A)

.re
200. An advertising executive is studying television-viewing habits of married men and women
during prime time hours. On the basis of past viewing records, the executive has determined that
during prime time, husbands are watching television 40% of the time. It has also been
determined that when the husband is watching television, 40% of the time the wife is also
watching. When the husband is not watching television, 30% of the time the wife is watching
w
television. Find the probability that the wife is watching television in prime time.
A. 0.36
w
B. 0.35
C. 0.34
D. 0.32
w
Correct answer: (C)

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201. A result is called "statistically significant" whenever
A. The null hypothesis is true.

B. The alternative hypothesis is true.
C. The p-value is less or equal to the significance level.
D. The p-value is larger than the significance level.
om
Correct answer: (C)
202. The ______________ sum of squares measures the variability of the observed values
around their respective treatment means.
A. treatment
.c
B. error
C. interaction
D. total
ul
Correct answer: (B)
203. What must you include when reporting an ANOVA?

pa
A. Standard deviations, Degrees of freedom, Means, F statistic, P value
B. Standard deviations, Means, F statistic, P value
C. Standard deviations, Degrees of freedom, Means, F statistic
D. Degrees of freedom, F statistic, P value
jin
Correct answer: (A)
204. As variability due to chance decreases, the value of F will

.re
A. increase
B. stay the same
C. decrease
D. can't tell from the given information
w
Correct answer: (A)
205. When conducting an ANOVA, the F-Value calculated from the data will always fall within
what ‘range?
w
A. between negative infinity and infinity

B. between 0 and 1
w
C. between 0 and infinity

D. between 1 and infinity
Correct answer: (C)

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206. Two factors are said to be orthogonal when:
A. they are correlated, that is, they cannot vary independently

B. there are equal numbers of participants in all groups
C. they are uncorrelated, that is, they vary independently
D. there is a single control group, with which all the other groups can be compared
om
Correct answer: (C)
207. If we add together the sums of squares for the simple main effects of one factor at all the
different levels of another factor, we shall obtain:
A. The interaction sum of squares for the complete experiment
.c
B. The main effect sum of squares for the second factor, plus the sum of squares for its
interaction with the first factor
C. The main effect sum of squares for the first factor
ul
D. The main effect sum of squares for the first factor, plus the sum of squares for its
interaction with the second factor
Correct answer: (D) pa

208. In a factorial design, a main effect is the ______________.
A. the combined effect of the independent variables on the dependent variable

B. interaction effect of the independent variables and their effect on the dependent variable
jin
C. the effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable
D. interaction of the independent variables
Correct answer: (C)

.re
209. You have carried out a Kruskal-Wallis test. There are significant differences between the
three groups you are testing. How might you conduct your pair wise comparisons?
A. Use the Mann Whitney test

B. Use the Wilcox on test
w
C. Use a t-test
D. None of the above. Post hoc analyses cannot be carried out with non parametric data
Correct answer: (A)

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210. A 2 X 2 factorial
w
A. Is essentially two designs that have been combined into a single study.
B. Contains four factors.
C. Does not have enough factors to show interactions.
D. Is extremely difficult to interpret if interactions are found.
Correct answer: (A)

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211. In factorial designs, the number of times a condition is noted is called:
A. Randomization
B. Factorization
C. Replication
D. None of These
om
Correct answer: (C)
212. A factorial design is one in ______________
A. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the dependent variable
B. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
.c
independent and interactive effects on the dependent variables
C. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable
ul
D. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects
Correct answer: (C)
A. 40
pa
213. What is the Interaction between memory and cache (MIPS)?
B. 20
C. 10
jin
D. 5
Correct answer: (D)
214. A researcher is conducting a 3 x 2 factorial experiment. In variable 1 participants are

.re
randomly assigned to one of 3 conditions. In variable 2 participants respond to both levels of the
independent variable. Which of the following best describes this study?
A. it is an independent groups design

B. it is a repeated measures group design
w
C. it is a mixed factorial design

D. it is a simple main effect design
Correct answer: (C)

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215. Dr. AB is conducting a 2 x 3 factorial experiment. He is interested in the impact of college

major and study method on exam performance. He found that study method effected exam
w
performance regardless of the participants' major. Which of the following is true?
A. Dr. AB found a main effect for study method.

B. Dr. AB found a main effect for college major.
C. Dr. AB found a significant interaction between college major and study method.
D. There is not enough information provided to answer this question.
Correct answer: (A)

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216. What is the value at the position of (III)?
A. 0.04
B. 0.85
C. 0.15
D. 0.033
om
Correct answer: (B)
217. What are residuals?
A. Residuals are the differences between the observed and expected dependent variable
scores
.c
B. Serendipitous findings
C. Extreme scores
D. Uncontrolled variables
ul
Correct answer: (A)
218. An unbiased dice is rolled once. The probability of getting a number greater than 4 is:
pa
A. 1/4
B. 1/6
C. 1/2
D. 1/3
jin
Correct answer: (D)
219. Which of the following statement is true?

.re
A. Only factor A is significant; factor B and the two-factor interaction are not significant.
B. Only factor B is significant; factor A and the two-factor interaction are not significant.
C. Only the two-factor interaction is significant; factor A and factor B are not significant.
D. Factor A and factor B is significant; the two-factor interaction is not significant.
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Correct answer: (B)
220. What is the purpose of a simple linear regression?

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A. To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on a single independent variable

B. To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on a single dependent variable
C. To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on multiple dependent variables
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D. To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
Correct answer: (A)

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221. Attribute charts may be used when:
A. Several characteristics can be jointly measured

B. When one particular quality characteristic is of importance
C. Specific information like process mean is required
D. None of these
om
Correct answer: (A)
222. Two events, A and B, are said to be mutually exclusive if:
A. P(A | B) = 1
B. P(B | A) = 1
.c
C. P(A ∩ B) = 1
D. P(A ∩ B) = 0
Correct answer: (D)
ul
223. Assume the cholesterol levels in a certain population have mean μ = 200 and standard
deviation σ = 24. The cholesterol levels for a random sample of n = 9 individuals are measured
pa
and the sample mean x-bar is determined. What is the z-score for a sample mean x = 180?
A. -3.75
B. -2.50
C. -0.83
jin
D. 2.50
Correct answer: (D)
224. In hypothesis testing, a Type 2 error occurs when

.re
A. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
B. The null hypothesis is rejected when the null hypothesis is true.
C. The null hypothesis is not rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
D. The null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative hypothesis is true.
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Correct answer: (C)
225. Student's t-statistic is applicable in case of:

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A. Equal number of samples

B. Unequal number of samples
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C. Small samples
D. All of the above
Correct answer: (D)

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226. Which of the following assumptions must be met to use an ANOVA?
A. There is only one dependent variable

B. The data must be normally distributed
C. There is homogeneity of variance
D. All of these
Correct answer: (D)
om
227. Which of the following is an assumption of one-way ANOVA comparing samples from
three ‘or more experimental treatments?
A. All the response variables within the k populations follow Normal distributions.
B. The samples associated with each population are randomly selected and are independent
from all other samples.
.c
C. The response variable within each of the k populations has equal variances.
D. All of the above.
ul
Correct answer: (D)
228. When conducting a one-way ANOVA, the ______________ the between-treatment

variability is when compared to the within-treatment variability, the ______________ the F-
pa
Value calculated from the data will tend to be.
A. smaller, larger
B. smaller, smaller
C. larger, larger
jin
D. smaller, larger
Correct answer: (B)
229. You carried out an ANOVA on a preliminary sample of data. You then collected additional
.re
data from the same groups; the difference being that the sample sizes for each group were
increased by a factor of 10, and the within-group variability has decreased substantially. Which
of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. The degrees of freedom associated with the error term has increased
w
B. The degrees of freedom associated with the treatment term has increased
C. The Residual Sum of Squares (SSE) has decreased
D. The F-Value calculated from the data (F-Value) has changed
w
Correct answer: (B)
230. In the two-factor, between subjects (or two-way) ANOVA:

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A. The three F tests always have the same power to reject the null hypothesis.
B. The test for an interaction always has more power than the test for a main effect.
C. The power of the F test is not necessarily increased by having larger samples.
D. The three F tests do not always have the same power to reject the null hypothesis.
Correct answer: (D)

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231. A ______________ effect(s) analysis examines mean differences at each level of the
independent variable.
A. main
B. simple main
C. interaction
D. simple interaction
om
Correct answer: (B)
232. Factorial designs allow us to study both ______________ effects of the independent
variables on the dependent variables.
A. main and interactive

B. dependent and independent
.c
C. symbiotic and dichotomous
D. rank order and correlation
ul
Correct answer: (A)
233. A researcher conducted a 2 x 2 completely repeated measures factorial design and planned
15 participants in each condition. How many participants would be required to conduct this
pa
experiment?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
jin
D. 60
Correct answer: (A)
234. Consider two factors A and B, each with two levels. If there is no interaction between these
.re
two factors, the difference in the response variable between the two levels of factor A would be
______________ the difference between the two levels of factor B.
A. unrelated to
B. equal to
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C. half
D. twice
Correct answer: (B)

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235. Dr. RNS conducted a ______________ factorial design to examine the effects of music and
room temperature on participant's memory. Participants were randomly assigned to study a list of
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nonsense words either listening or not listening to music in either a warm or cold room.
A. 1x2
B. 2x4
C. 2x2
D. 4x4
Correct answer: (B)

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236. In factorial designs, the response produced when the treatments of one factor interact with
the treatments of another in influencing the response variable is known as
A. the main effect

B. interaction
C. replication
D. none of these
om
Correct answer: (B)
237. What is the Variation due to Cache?
A. 84%
B. 76%
C. 19%
.c
D. 5%
Correct answer: (C)
ul
238. A three-way interaction is said to occur when:
A. All three possible two-way interactions, plus main effects of all three factors, are present
pa
in the data
B. There are simple main effects of each factor at every level of either of the other two
factors
C. The simple interactions between two factors are not homogeneous across all levels of the
third factor
jin
D. All three possible two-way interactions are present in the data
Correct answer: (C)
239. What is the value at the position of (V)?

.re
A. 0.85
B. 0.15
C. 0.97
D. 0.33
w
Correct answer: (D)
240. The standard error of regression is

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A. the square root of the variance of the error term

B. an estimate of the square root of the variance of the error term
w
C. the square root of the variance of the dependent variable

D. the square root of the variance of the predictions of the dependent variable
Correct answer: (D)

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241. What is the purpose of a multiple regression?
A. To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on a single independent variable

B. To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on a single dependent variable
C. To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on multiple dependent variables
D. To predict scores on a dependent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
Correct answer: (C)
om
242. A ______________ chart can be used to identify the most frequently occurring defect.
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Histogram
D. Scatter
.c
Correct answer: (A)
ul
243. Two events, A and B, are said to be independent if:
A. P(A ∩ B) = P(A).P(B)
B. P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B) pa
C. P(A | B) = P(B)
D. P(B | A) = P(A)
Correct answer: (A)

jin
244. The value of E[X] is:
A. 52/18
B. 28/9
C. 52/9
.re
D. 28/18
Correct answer: (C)
245. A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:
w
A. Rejection region
B. Acceptance region
C. Both (a) and (b)
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D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct answer: (A)

w

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246. The chi-square goodness-of-fit test can be used to test for:
A. significance of sample statistics

B. difference between population means
C. normality
D. probability
Correct answer: (C)
om
247. What do ANOVA calculate?
A. Z-scores
B. F ratios
C. Chi square
D. T-scores
.c
Correct answer: (B)
ul
248. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be
compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical
value?
A.
B.
C.
Sample size, number of groups
pa
Mean, sample standard deviation
Expected frequency, obtained frequency
D. MSTR The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE)
jin
Correct answer: (A)
249. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control, experimental A,
or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three groups are compared. The
appropriate statistical test for comparing these means is:
.re
A. the correlation coefficient

B. chi square
C. the t-test
D. the analysis of variance
w
Correct answer: (D)
250. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 0.9, the result is statistically significant
w
A. Always
B. Sometimes
w
C. Never
D. Illogical Question
Correct answer: (C)

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251. Which statement is true of an experiment of factorial design?
A. Independence or orthogonality is unaffected by the sizes of the participant samples in the

various treatment combinations.
B. There are always at least two control groups.
C. Control over an independent variable is achieved by orthogonal variation with respect to
the other independent variables.
om
D. There is always a single control group.
Correct answer: (C)
252. What would the levels of the independent variables be for a two-way ANOVA investigating
the effect of four different treatments for depression and gender?
.c
A. 4 and 1
B. 2
C. 4 and 2
D. 6
ul
Correct answer: (C)
A. Dependent variable.
pa
253. In ANOVA, a factor is defined as the:
B. Independent variable.
C. Both (a) and (b)
jin
D. None of these
Correct answer: (A)
254. A 2 X 2 factorial design

.re
A. Is called a one-way ANOVA.

B. Results in a four-cell matrix.
C. Cannot yield interactions.
D. Must include an organism independent variable.
w
Correct answer: (B)
255. The critical path method determines the ______________ path from the beginning to the
w
end of the project.
A. Shortest
w
B. Quickest
C. Longest
D. Middle
Correct answer: (C)

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256. Two events, A and B, are said to be independent if:
A. P(A ∩ B) = P(A).P(B)
B. P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B)
C. P(A | B) = P(B)
D. P(B | A) = P(A)
Correct answer: (A)
om
257. Which of the following distributions is suitable to model the length of time that elapses
before the first employee passes through the security door of a company?
A. Exponential
B. Normal
C. Poisson
.c
D. Binomial
Correct answer: (A)
ul
258. A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:
A. Rejection region pa
B. Acceptance region
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct answer: (A)

jin
259. Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in support of:
A. the null hypothesis

B. the alternative hypothesis
.re
C. the quality of the researcher

D. further testing
Correct answer: (B)

w
260. Analysis of variance is a statistical method of comparing the ______________ of several

populations.
A. standard deviations
w
B. variances
C. means
D. proportions
w
Correct answer: (C)

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261. If the Mean Square Error MSE of an ANOVA for six treatment groups is known, you can
compute
A. degrees of freedom, df1

B. the standard deviation of each treatment group
C. the pooled standard deviation
D. all answers are correct
om
Correct answer: (C)
262. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control, experimental A,
or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three groups are compared. The
appropriate statistical test for comparing these means is:
A. the correlation coefficient
.c
B. chi square
C. the t-test
D. the analysis of variance
ul
Correct answer: (D)
pa
A. Always
B. Sometimes
C. Never
jin
Correct answer: (B)
264. What is the Effect of Memory (MIPS)?

.re
A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
Correct answer: (B)
w
265. Two factors are said to interact when
A. The simple main effects of one factor are not homogeneous across all levels of the other.
w
B. The simple main effects of one factor are homogeneous across the levels of the other.
C. There are neither main effects nor simple main effects.
D. There are no main effects.
w
Correct answer: (A)

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266. Which of these characterizes a factorial design?
A. One in which there is a single independent variable.

B. One in which there is more than one independent variable
C. One in which the researcher wants to investigate the interactions between variables
D. Both B and C
Correct answer: (D)
om
267. What statistic is used to check the significance of the Kruskal-Wallis test?
A. Mean rank
B. Partial
C. t-value
D. Chi squared
.c
Correct answer: (D)
ul
268. What is the appropriate statistical test for a factorial design?
A. the Modes test

B. ANOVA pa
C. t-test
D. chi-square
Correct answer: (B)

jin
269. Give the F test for the interaction effect of factors A and B.
A. F = (SSABB )/MSE
B. F = (SSA)/MSE + (SSB)/MSE
C. F = (MSA)/MSE + (MSB)/MSE
.re
D. F = (MSAB)/MSE
Correct answer: (D)
270. The Kruskal-Wallis is based upon the ______________ test.

w
A. Pearson's r
B. Wilcoxon
C. Mann Whitney
w
D. Friedman
Correct answer: (C)

w

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271. In a factorial experiments, we
A. test one factor at a time

B. cannot estimate interactions
C. test all possible combination of factor levels are tested
D. all of these
Correct answer: (C)
om
272. What is the Variation due to Memory?
A. 84%
B. 76%
C. 19%
D. 5%
.c
Correct answer: (B)
ul
273. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables indicates that
the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels of the other independent
variable.
A.
B.
C.
main effect
factorial effect
interaction
pa
D. moderation
jin
Correct answer: (C)
274. The chi-square goodness-of-fit test can be used to test for:
A. significance of sample statistics

.re
B. difference between population means

C. normality
D. probability
Correct answer: (C)

w
275. What is the Sum of Squares of the interaction (AB)?

w
A. 6.075
B. 39.48
C. 7.19
w
D. 3.89
Correct answer: (D)

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276. How many replicates of the experiment were performed?
A. 1 Replicate
B. 2 Replicates
C. 3 Replicates
D. 4 Replicates
Correct answer: (C)
om
277. You conduct a hypothesis test and you observe values for the sample mean and sample
standard deviation when n = 25 that do not lead to the rejection of Ho (null hypothesis). You
calculate a p-value of 0.0667. What will happen to the p-value if you observe the same sample
mean and standard deviation for a sample n>25?
A. Increase
.c
B. Decrease
C. Stay the same
D. May either increase or decrease
ul
Correct answer: (B)
278. What does a beta of 0.478 mean? pa

A. That the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is not linear
B. That the regression is not significant
C. That the correlation is significant
D. This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent
jin
variable increases by 0.478 units
Correct answer: (D)
279. Which of the following points are not true when conducting a multiple regression?
.re
A. Multiple regression can be used to assess quadratic relationships

B. Data must be homogeneous for a multiple regression
C. Data must be normally distributed for multiple regression
D. Multiple regression can be used to assess linear relationships
w
Correct answer: (A)

w
280. Which of the following definitions is correct?
A. An activity, which results in an outcome, is called an event.

w
B. The probability of an event is expressed in decimal form ranging from -1 to +1.

C. The sample space refers to all possible outcomes of an experiment.
D. The probability that an event will occur is called the experiment.
Correct answer: (C)

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281. The discrete random variable X has the probability function (k is a constant): Answer
question 8 - 10 based on the information given above. The value of k is:
A. 1 point
B. 1/18
C. 1/12
D. 1/6
om
Correct answer: (B)
282. The value of E[X] is:
A. 52/18
B. 28/9
.c
C. 52/9
D. 28/18
ul
Correct answer: (C)
283. A larger standard deviation for a normal distribution with an unchanged mean indicates that
pa
‘the distribution becomes:
A. narrower and more peaked

B. flatter and wider
C. more skewed to the right or left
jin
D. a change in the standard deviation does not change the shape of the distribution
Correct answer: (B)

.re
284. When the k population means are truly different from each other, it is likely that the average
error deviation:
A. Is relatively large compared to the average treatment deviations.

B. Is relatively small compared to the average treatment deviations.
w
C. Is about equal to the average treatment deviation.

D. Differ significantly between at least two of the populations.
w
Correct answer: (B)
w
A. Always
B. Sometimes
C. Never
Correct answer: (C)

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286. ______________ designs are research designs with more than one independent variable.
A. Simple
B. Monotonic
C. Factorial
D. Multi
om
Correct answer: (C)
287. What statistical procedure is used to assess the statistical significance of the main effects
and the interaction(s) in a factorial design?
A. t-test
B. correlation
.c
C. analysis of covariance
D. analysis of variance
ul
Correct answer: (D)
288. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables indicates that
the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels of the other independent
pa
variable.
A. main effect
B. factorial effects
C. interaction
jin
D. collaboration
Correct answer: (C)
289. Scatter diagrams show the relationship between:

.re
A. Two variables
B. The dependent variable along the y axis
C. The dependent variable along the x axis
D. None of these
w
Correct answer: (A)
290. How would an interaction be indicated in a line graph? 2/5

w
A. as parallel lines
B. as intersecting lines
w
C. as overlapping lines
D. as diagonal lines
Correct answer: (B)

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291. What is the Effect of Cache (MIPS)?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
Correct answer: (C)
om
292. What is the Variation due to Interaction?
A. 84%
B. 76%
C. 19%
D. 5%
.c
Correct answer: (D)
ul
293. Dr. AB is designing a 3 x 7 factorial experiment. Which of the following is true about AB's
study?
A. Dr. AB has 21 subjects. pa

B. Dr. AB's study has 2 independent variables: one with 3 levels and one with 7 levels
C. Dr. AB's study has 21 independent variables.
D. Dr. AB's study has 3 independent variables: one with 3 levels, one with 7 levels, and one
with 21 levels.
jin
Correct answer: (B)
294. How many levels were used for factor B?
A. 1 Level
.re
B. 2 Levels
C. 3 Levels
D. 4 Levels
Correct answer: (C)

w
295. This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent
variable increases b 0.478 units What degrees of freedom do you report in a multiple regression?
w
A. Residual degree of freedom

B. Error and residual degree of freedom
C. Regression and residual degrees of freedom
w
D. Adjusted R squared and regression degrees of freedom
Correct answer: (C).

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296. Our forecasted value of y is
A. 7
B. 9
C. 25
D. impossible to determine
Correct answer: (B)
om
297. What do ANOVA calculate?
A. Z-scores
B. F ratios
C. Chi square
D. T-scores
.c
Correct answer: (B)
ul
298. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be
compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical
value?
A.
B.
C.
pa
Sample size, number of groups
Mean, sample standard deviation
Expected frequency, obtained frequency
D. MSTR The treatment mean square (MSTR), Mean Square Error (MSE)
jin
Correct answer: (A)
299. The mean square is the sum of squares divided by
A. the total number of observations

.re
B. its corresponding degrees of freedom - 1

C. its corresponding degrees of freedom
D. none of these
Correct answer: (C)

w
300. Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA)

w
A. Total Quality Management

B. International Standard Organization
C. Total Productive Maintenance
w
D. Total Quality Control
Correct answer: (A)

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301. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?
A. Top level management

B. Middle level management
C. Frontline management
D. All of the above
Correct answer: (A)
om
302. Match The Following
A. TQM promotes 1. Small change

B. Kaizen is
2. Continuous improvement
C. Quality circle can solve problem
related to 3. Employee participation
.c
D. Quality circle benefit to
4. Employee
ul
The correct order is
a. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

b. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 pa
c. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
d. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Correct answer: (A)

jin
303. Match the following
A. Dr. Deming believes 1. Common causes

B. Ishikawa development 2. To prevent defect
.re
C. Type of variation is due to 3. Cause & effect diagram

D. Crosby’s objective of quality 4. Histogram

w
a. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

b. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
c. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
w
d. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Correct answer: (C)

w

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304. Service Assurance is
A. Confidence with customer

B. Customer has trust
C. Employee has knowledge
D. All of the above
Correct answer: (D)
om
A. ISO emphasis on 1. ISO - 9000 -2000

B. ISO 2. Qualified personnel
C. International organization for standard 3. Employee participation
.c
D. Prevention 4. Employee
ul
a. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
b. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
c. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 pa
d. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Correct answer: (C)

jin
306. Common elements of winners are
i. Senior management was actively involved

ii. Control of overall process
iii. Focus on customer
.re
A. i only
B. i & ii
w
C. i, ii & iii
w
Correct answer: (C)
307. For Cpk (Process capability index) value of 1.33, the PPM is
w
A. 1
B. 63
C. 2700
D. 45500
Correct answer: (B)

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308. Continual improvement is in
i. Environmental objective
ii. Audit Result
iii. Corrective action
om
A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (C)
.c
309. The process mapping is a ______________ diagram.
A. Data flow
ul
B. Work flow
C. Circular
D. Audit
Correct answer: (B)

pa
310. By applying basic principle the process improvement will be in organizations
i. Focus on work process

jin
ii. Maintain self esteem of other
iii. Tone initiative

.re
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
w
Correct answer: (B)
311. Diamond represents ______________ while plotting flow chart.

w
A. Step in activity
B. Decision making
C. Direction of flow
w
Correct answer: (B)

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312. PP & PPK is calculated for
i. Initial production run

ii. Future production
iii. Initial process setting
om
A. i & ii
B. ii & iii
C. i & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (C)
.c
313. According to Deming, Quality problems are
A. Due to management
ul
B. Due to method
C. Due to machine
D. Due to material
Correct answer: (A)

pa
314. Common features of CMM is how to produce software product which are
i. Consistence
jin
ii. Repeatable
iii. Predictable

.re
A. i only
B. ii only
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
w
Correct answer: (D)
315. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.

w
A. Customer need
B. Organizational need
C. Supplier need
w
D. Worker need
Correct answer: (A)

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316. Match The Following
A. Bureaucratic 1. Satisfy all customer need

B. Leadership from top 2. Working together for excellence
C. Excellence mean 3. Provide consistent vision direction
D. Team work mean 4. Unlimited thinking
om
a. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

b. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
c. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
d. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
.c
Correct answer: (B)
317. When cpk is less than one
ul
A. Process is not capable
B. Process is stable
C. Process if highly capable pa
Correct answer: (A)

jin
A. Quality approach 1. Productivity quality - cost -Delivery
B. Pillar of TQM 2. Continual improvement management
C. Need for TQM is due 3. Employee
D. TQM focuses on 4. Cut throat competition
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a. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

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b. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

c. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
d. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
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Correct answer: (A)
319. ISO emphasis on

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A. Prevention
B. Inspection
C. Rejection
D. All of the above
Correct answer: (A)

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A. Dr. Deming believes 1. Histogram

B. Ishikawa development 2. Common causes
C. Type of variation is due to 3. Cause #38; effect diagram
D. Crosby’s objective of quality 4. To prevent defect
om
a. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

b. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
c. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
d. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
.c
Correct answer: (C)
ul
A. Circle symbol 1. Data analysis told
B. Pareto analysis is 2. Average of reading
C. X bar means pa 3. Binging or end of operation
D. LCT means 4. Lower control limit

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a. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
b. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
c. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
d. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
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Correct answer: (B)
322. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.
A. Material quality
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B. Customer need
C. Market demand
D. All of the above
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Correct answer: (B)
323. The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is

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A. Customer satisfaction
B. Employee satisfaction
C. Skill enhancement
D. Environmental issues
Correct answer: (A)

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324. Control chart is
i. Process monitoring tool

ii. Process control tool
iii. Process planning tool
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A. i only
B. i & ii
C. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
.c
325. Employee should be involved in
i. Decision making
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ii. Participation
iii. Union
The correct order is pa

A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. i, ii & iii
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Correct answer: (A)
326. Does TQM approach have relevance to Indian industry in context to

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i. Customer satisfaction
ii. People involvement
iii. Policy management

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A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
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D. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
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327. The following is (are) the machine down time.
A. Waste
B. No material
C. Breakdown
D. All of the above
Correct answer: (D)

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328. Special characteristic means
i. Product characteristic which affect fit/ function / Regulation

ii. Characteristic of product which are regulatory requirement
iii. Characteristic in Specification
om
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
.c
329. HRD at organizational level talks of
i. Organization’s manpower planning
ul
ii. Training
iii. Performance appraisal

A. i only
B. I & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
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Correct answer: (D)

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A. How TQM helps in reducing cost 1. By reducing external sale

B. Calibration activity carried in company is 2. Prevention cost
C. Quality planning is 3. Appraisal cost
D. Vender assessment is 4. Appraisal cost
w

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a. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

b. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
c. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
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d. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Correct answer: (D)

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331. The main business process objective(s) are
i. Customer service
ii. Profit & loss
iii. Employee satisfaction
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A. i only
B. i & ii
C. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
.c
332. Benefit(s) of model based improvement is (are)
i. Establish common language
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ii. Models are comprehensive
A.
B.
C.
i only
ii only
i & ii
pa
jin
Correct answer: (C)
333. Reliability of product means
i. Consistency of performance
.re
ii. Performance over period

iii. Free of technical errors

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A. i & iii
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
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Correct answer: (D)

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334. Which of the following is for Environment management?
A. ISO-9000
B. ISO-14000
C. ISO-26000
D. ISO-31000
Correct answer: (B)

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335. Rectangle represents ______________ While plotting flow chart.
A. Step in activity
B. Decision making
C. Direction of flow
Correct answer: (A)
om
336. ISO - 14001 gives stress on
A. Plan - Do -check -Act

B. Environmental protection
C. Prevention rather than detection
D. All of the above
.c
Correct answer: (D)
ul
A. MBQA is eligible for 1. Quality & productivity

B. Malcolm balding award seeks improvement
pa 2. Manufacturing organization
in 3. Senior management was activity involved
C. European quality award is for 4. Improving efficiency
D. Common elements of winners are
jin
a. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

b. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
c. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
.re
d. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Correct answer: (A)
338. The customer requirement to be reviewed

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i. Before supply of product

ii. After supply of product
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iii. Before commitment of supply of product

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A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)

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339. Process evaluation is to identify
i. Validation of product
ii. Potential failure prevention
iii. Correctness of product
om
A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
Correct answer: (C)
.c
340. The competence of the employee means
i. Competence of personnel performing work effective quality
ul
ii. Evaluate the effectiveness of action taken
iii. Maintain appropriate Record

A. i only
B. i & ii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
jin
Correct answer: (D)

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A. Dimension 1. To assess customer satisfaction

B. Service characteristic 2. Inadequate resource
C. Customer satisfaction survey 3. Vary from time to time
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D. Poor service is due to 4. Physical facility

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A. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

B. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
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C. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Correct answer: (C)

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342. Cause & Effect diagram used to
i. Identify & organize possible causes of problem

ii. Identify possible causes of solution
iii. Identify possible causes of problem & determining its relation
om
A. i only
B. i & iii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Correct answer: (B)
.c
343. CIP is:
A. Continuous improvement process
ul
B. A sustained, gradual change
C. Includes constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focus
D. a and b pa
E. all of the above
Correct answer: (E)
344. Cost of quality includes:

jin
A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
B. Training programs
C. Cost of all work resulting from nonconformance to the requirements
.re
D. a and b
E. all of the above
Correct answer: (E)

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345. Cost of quality includes:
A. Cost of all work to build a product or service that conforms to the requirements
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B. Training programs
C. Cost of all work resulting from nonconformance to the requirements
D. a and b
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E. all of the above
Correct answer: (E)

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346. Control chart theory is based on the differences of the causes of variations in
quality. Variations in quality may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following
are examples of assignable causes except:
A. Differences among machines

B. Differences among workers
C. Differences among materials
D. Differences in each of these factors over time
om
E. None of the above (all are examples)
Correct answer: (E)
347. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?
.c
A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and
specifications
B. The costs of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are
ul
manufacturing the product
C. Quality control programs should only be implemented when the costs of quality
is low
D. A and B
E. A and C
pa
Correct answer: (A)
jin
348. In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality control
is:
A. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time" to avoid
.re
quality problems
B. The company's quality control manager who must work with the project
members to ensure the quality control program is effective
C. The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control
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responsibility for all the company's projects

D. The project manager who has ultimately responsibility for the entire project
E. The customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the
w
vendor
Correct answer: (D)

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349. Most quality problems
A. originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality
rests
B. originate on the shop floor because of waste and product rework
C. are the result of management's lack of attention to potential quality
improvement ideas
D. could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their workers more closely
om
E. A and B
Correct answer: (C)
350. Quality assurance is
.c
A. top management's intention regarding quality
B. functions determining implementation of the quality policy
C. actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements
ul
D. responsibilities and processes which implement quality management
E. all of the above
Correct answer: (C)

pa
351. Quality planning is:
A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining
jin
how to satisfy them
B. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant
quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance
.re
C. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence

that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards
D. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to
provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project
w
customer
E. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury
Correct answer: (A)

w
w

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352. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
A. increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased cost risk

B. reduced productivity and no change to cost effectiveness or cost risk
C. reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost
D. increased productivity and cost-effectiveness
E. increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness and increased cost risk
om
Correct answer: (A)
353. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
A. increased productivity, increased costeffectiveness, and decreased cost risk

B. reduced productivity and no change to costeffectiveness or cost risk
.c
C. reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost
D. increased productivity and cost-effectiveness
E. increased productivity, decreased costeffectiveness and increased cost risk
ul
Correct answer: (A)
pa
354. Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation, can be
directly reduced by:
A. improving the overall system of production

B. increasing the number of quality inspectors
jin
C. making use of run charts
D. making better use of Pareto charts
E. identifying patterns of variance using control charts
.re
Correct answer: (E)
355. Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ______________ costs.
A. manufacturing / building
w
B. advertising
C. overhead
D. post-completion support
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E. A and D
Correct answer: (E)

w

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356. Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ______________ costs.
A. manufacturing / building
B. advertising
C. overhead
D. post-completion support
E. A and D
om
Correct answer: (E)
357. The primary components of quality management are quality ______________.
A. inspections, certifications, and validations

B. philosophy, assurance, and control
.c
C. form, fit, and function
D. reliability, maintainability, and availability
E. insurance, assurance, and warranty
ul
Correct answer: (B)
pa
358. Self-inspection by the individual performing the work is used to achieve quality in a
product. The advantages of self-inspection include ______________.
A. immediate feedback to permit adjustments to the process

B. early identification of errors prior to further integration
jin
C. minimization of end product repairs and material waste
D. reduction in the number of end product inspections and tests
E. all of the above
.re
Correct answer: (E)
359. Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirement for

some element or product of a project. The advantage of statistical sampling is that it
______________.
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A. does not require an expenditure of resources

B. is accurate enough with a sampling of less than one percent
w
C. does not require 100 percent sampling of the elements to achieve a satisfactory
inference of the population
D. needs to be conducted only when there is a problem discovered with the end
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product or when the customer has some rejects

E. is a good tool o gain customer confidence during a period of high rejects
Correct answer: (C)

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360. In a project, the common parameters are cost, schedule, and quality. In relationship
to the others, quality should be ranked ______________.
A. first as the prime driver for a project

B. second behind cost but ahead of schedule
C. second behind schedule but ahead of cost
D. equal to cost and schedule
E. third behind cost and schedule
om
Correct answer: (D)
361. In computing the cost of producing a quality product, the major areas of costs
contribute to the sale price of the product. The ratio of the ______________ costs
.c
determine whether an effective program is fully implemented.
A. direct, indirect, and overhead

B. one-time, recurring, and variable
ul
C. variable, fixed, and semi-fixed
D. prevention, appraisal, and failure
E. build, repair, and test
Correct answer: (D)

pa
362. Recognition of personnel achievements is an important building block to the
attainment of a superior quality program. The form of recognition should be
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______________.
A. an annual bonus increase paid at the end of the year

B. an immediate cash award that is commensurate with the deed
.re
C. a non-monetary award presented in a public forum as soon as the deed is

identified
D. a non-monetary award presented in private
E. a combination of monetary and non-monetary award presented in private
w
Correct answer: (C)
363. Quality control includes inspections to ensure the standards of performance are
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being met. Inspection includes ______________ examinations of ______________.
A. visual and non-visual; processes and components

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B. visual and aural; processes and materials

C. visual and technical; material and end products
D. aural and tactile; materials and end products
E. aural and tactile; processes and procedures
Correct answer: (C)

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364. Process control is distinct and separate from the data gathering function in a
quality program. While process control regulates the functions, data gathering is used to
______________.
A. collect information on the relative performance standards of the process so the

output can be enhanced through continuous adjustments to the input functions
B. validate the controlling function as performing correctly and provide information
on equipment servicing intervals
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C. provide the historical records for production lots as to the specifications and
actual measurements of a product
D. generate the control charts to determine the variances in the product and the
number on nonconforming products
E. ensure the products are within tolerances and to identify those products that
.c
require reworking or crapping
Correct answer: (B)
ul
365. The key to quality is to design and build to the requirements and avoid attempts to
inspect quality into the product. There is a need, however, to conduct inspections a
critical junctures in the assembly process to ensure defective items are identified prior to
pa
making a costly interface or concealing a physical attribute that cannot be inspected at a
later time. Inspection plan will identify the points at which examinations of processes,
materials, or assemblies are required. However, inspection plans normally do not include
______________.
jin
A. examining the vendor's quality procedures
B. examining surfaces
C. testing personnel skills
.re
D. checking dimensions
E. witnessing destructive and nondestructive tests
Correct answer: (E)

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366. Which of the following is not part of the Total Quality Approach?
A. holistic thinking
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B. focus on short-term financial performance

C. focus on desirability
D. team thinking
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Correct answer: (A)

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367. The majority of advertisers appeal the public on thebasis of which of the following?
A. Quality of product
B. Quality of staff
C. Inferiority of product
D. Inferiority of service
Correct answer: (A)
om
368. Learn how to tell when nothing can be gained from further discussion. This refers
to which of the following discussion skills in meetings?
A. Acting as gatekeepers
B. Closing the discussion
.c
C. Asking for clarification
D. Testing for consensus
ul
Correct answer: (B)
369. The job characteristic of quality professionals is:

pa
A. Educating others
B. Achieving personal targets
C. Consultative work with other departments
jin
Correct answer: (D)
370. ______________ is a graphic tool for defining the relationship between customer
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desires and the firm/product capabilities.
A. House of Quality
B. Affinity diagram
C. Arrow diagram
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D. None of the give option
Correct answer: (A)

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371. Tools and techniques used during the Quality Planning process include:
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A. Benefit / cost analysis

B. Benchmarking
C. Quality audits
D. a and b
E. all of the above
Correct answer: (D)

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372. Quality is:
A. Zero defects found

B. Conformance to requirements
C. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its
ability to satisfy stated or implied needs
D. b and c
E. all the above
om
Correct answer: (D)
373. 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of:
A. Edward Deming
.c
B. Philip Crosby
C. Juran
D. Pareto
ul
Correct answer: (D)
pa
374. All of the following statements about control charts are true except:
A. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process control

B. Control charts are used to determine acceptance limits when no limits are
stipulated by the product specification; otherwise, one should use the limits
jin
dictated by the specification
C. All data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained by
D. A and B
E. B and C
.re
Correct answer: (E)
375. The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in
many ways. Which of the following represents the most important motivation for the QC
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circle participant?
A. Improving the performance of the company

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B. Self-Improvement
C. Financial Incentives
D. Recognition among co-workers
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E. Strengthening of relationships between co-workers
Correct answer: (A)

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376. Which are the best two charts to show trends in a process?
A. Pareto and Control

B. Control and Run
C. Histogram and Run
D. Gantt and Pert
E. Gantt and CPM
om
Correct answer: (B)
377. The process of determining that technical processes and procedures are being
performed in conformance with scope requirements and quality plans is called quality:
A. management
.c
B. assurance
C. process review
D. control
ul
E. checks

378. You are sampling items from a batch and plotting the results on a control chart.
How will an increase in the number of items sample affect the value of the standard
deviation used to set the control limit?
jin
A. increase it
B. decrease it
C. no effect on it
D. first increase it, then decrease it
.re
E. first decrease it, then increase it
Correct answer: (B)
379. From a high level perspective, quality:

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A. is ensured by having inspectors

B. cannot be quantitatively measured
w
C. and productivity are inconsistent objectives

D. is primarily (85 - 95%) a management problem
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Correct answer: (D)

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380. The project management teams for quality should:
A. extend beyond the completion of the project

B. stop at the point of delivery
C. be significantly reduced by a good warranty
D. be ignored by the project manager
E. A and C
om
Correct answer: (A)
381. From the project manager's viewpoint, quality assurance involves:
A. conducting studies to determine if design methods will support quality

requirements
.c
B. identifying applicable laws, ordinances and regulations that the project must
comply with
C. monitoring inspection activities to ensure that the work is performed as specified
ul
D. A, B, and C
E. A and C
Correct answer: (E)

pa
382. The quality management tool that can be described as "a diagram that rank and
displays defects in order of frequency of occurrence (from left to right)" is a:
jin
A. control chart
B. vertical bar chart
C. histograms
D. Pareto chart
.re
E. run chart
Correct answer: (D)
383. The ISO 9000 series is:

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A. a set of instructions for preparing control charts

B. a set of guidelines for quality
w
C. a set of forms and procedures to ensure quality

D. an international standard that describes a recommended quality system
E. intended to be applied only to manufactured products
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Correct answer: (D)

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384. Quality control is the technical processes that ______________ the project's progress
against the performance standards.
A. inspect, certify, and verify

B. examine, analyze, and report
C. inspect, examine, and determine
D. identify, measure, and report
E. reveal, establish, and record
om
Correct answer: (B)
385. When data is plotted on the control charts, the data is of two types: R and -bar.
The R data represent points of a ______________ while the X-bar data represent points of a
.c
(n) ______________.
A. random sample; cross-matrix sample

B. real sample; simulated sample
ul
C. 100 percent sampling; 10 percent sampling
D. sampling run; average of several runs
E. random sampling; continuous sampling
Correct answer: (D)

pa
866. A quality program within a project should be based on ______________ of errors to
improve productivity along with quality levels.
jin
A. early detection
B. early correction
C. late detection
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D. late correction
E. prevention
Correct answer: (E)

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877. Trend charts reflect the relative status of a program. Trend charts are effective
means of ______________.
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A. visibility reinforcing the growth of quality improvements to the workers

B. reflecting the precise status of quality failures
C. identifying to customers the failure rates of products
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D. setting standards and goals for acceptable levels of quality

E. showing that all goals have been achieved
Correct answer: (A)

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388. As one of its goal the project organization has quality to specified performance
measures. When compared with the functional organization, the project organization
______________.
A. achieves higher levels of quality

B. is always tailored to meet the specific quality goals
C. is less disciplined in the implementation of quality
D. is more disciplined in the implementation of quality
om
E. none of the above
Correct answer: (C)
389. In a quality management information system, there is a need to collect data and
.c
format such data into an information output that is useful to the project manager. In
developing such an information system, it is good to remember that an optimum
system does not supply all the information because ______________.
ul
A. there is never enough information collected
B. the system is incapable of processing all the required information
C. some information costs more to collect than it is worth
D.
E.
pa
some information is not available for collection and input
most information relies on related data to generate the proper output
Correct answer: (E)

jin
390. Which of the following is typically viewed to lie between fully vertically integrated
firms?
A. Supply chain management

.re
B. Production chain management

C. Value chain management
D. Demand chain management
Correct answer: (A)

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391. What was the primary concern of managers during 1980s?

w
A. Detection
B. Strategic impact
C. Control
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D. Coordination
Correct answer: (B)

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392. The use of CAD (computer-aided design) is emerging as a new technology with the
goal of reducing the time and money spent to produce and update design drawings. In
some cases, the CAD is being used to control other computers and machines to
manufacture basic components of equipment. Because the CAD software has the
capability to perform checks of the design and make changes to designs as they are
approved, there has been ______________.
A. a significant reduction in engineering errors
om
B. less rework required because of design errors
C. improved updating of designs over the former manual methods
D. more timely posting of changes to designs
E. all of the above
.c
Correct answer: (C)
A. of when the test will be conducted and to provide a certificate of completion

within seven days following the test
ul
B. notify the project manager, in writing, of the date and time for witnessing the test
C. retain the residue of the item destroyed for a period of one year following
completion of the project
pa
D. have present at the test at least three independent sources (individuals) who are
qualified in destructive testing procedures
E. report the results of the testing to an independent laboratory for confirmation
and validation of the procedures
jin
Correct answer: (B)
393. All of the following are the elements of a TQM system EXCEPT:
.re
A. Leadership
B. Communications
C. Measurement
D. Detentions
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Correct answer: (D)
394. The 'Father' of statistical quality control is:

w
A. F. W. Taylor
B. Joseph M. Juran
w
C. Philip Crosby
D. Walter Shewhart
Correct answer: (D)

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395. Crosby’s approach to management is
A. A problem that can never be solved

B. Absolutes of Quality Management
C. Interim Management
D. ISO
Correct answer: (B)
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396. The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is
credited to:
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
.c
C. Juran
D. Pareto
ul
Correct answer: (A)
397. The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities
pa
and under different conditions determines its:
A. Usability
B. Flexibility
C. Operability
jin
D. Availability
Correct answer: (B)

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398. All of the following statements about acceptance sampling plans are true except:
A. Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspections is high
and the resulting loss of passing non-conforming units is not great
B. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are
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required
C. Acceptance sampling plans are never as effective at rejecting non-conforming
units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious
w
D. Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots;
they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality
E. Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of
w
custom-made products
Correct answer: (C)

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399. Quality management deals with all of the following topics except:
A. Conformance to requirements / specifications

B. Satisfying the needs of the customer
C. Making products more desirable and luxurious
D. A and C
E. B and C
om
Correct answer: (C)
400. The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if

manufacturers would do the following:
A. Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma
.c
control charts
B. Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the
design stage
ul
C. Create a quality control department
D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct answer: (B)

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401. In order to achieve long-term quality improvements, management must do the
following:
jin
A. Motivate the employees with seminars, contests, and institution of programs such
as "Quality Improvement" day
B. Create a quality control department and give the head of the department
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ultimate responsibility for quality improvement

C. Implement a formal quality control program with worker and management
involvement
D. Establish financial incentive packages for workers
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E. A and D
Correct answer: (C)

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402. The ______________ of a product or service mostly affects its reliability and
maintenance characteristics.
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A. design
B. concept
C. fabrication
D. performance
E. cost
Correct answer: (A)

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403. The primary driver(s) behind the demand for continual qualify improvements is /
are:
A. an increase in the number of projects being worked

B. the government cost improvement reports that have created widespread public
interest in quality
C. the prevalence of media reports on quality circles and other quality improvement
techniques
om
D. the need to both reduce costs and ensure consistency in the performance of
products and services
E. B and D
Correct answer: (E)
.c
404. Quality control is:
A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining
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how to satisfy them
B. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant
quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory
performance
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C. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence
that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards
D. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to
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provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project
customer
E. assuming the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury
Correct answer: (B)

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405. Of the following statements, which one(s) is / are true?
A. Quality is the usual result when skilled designers and skilled implementers work
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on the project
B. Quality is 10% skill and 90% luck
C. Quality can be achieved with the proper combination of personnel, materials,
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methods, and time to do the work

E. A and C
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Correct answer: (E)

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406. Which of the following statements best characterizes the quality management
practice called benchmarking?
A. The ISO term for progress measurement

B. Comparing planned project practices to those of other projects
C. A technique used to test certain types of electronic equipment
D. The difference between grade and quality
E. The measurement of customer satisfaction
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Correct answer: (B)
407. Zero Defects is an element of the quality management philosophy that is a

______________ for all workers to be achieved ______________.
.c
A. slogan; whenever possible
B. slogan; most of the time
C. standard; at all times
ul
D. standard; whenever possible
E. standard; during critical operations
Correct answer: (C)

pa
408. Statistical sampling methods are valid for most projects, regardless of the lack of
repetitive processes, because ______________.
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A. projects rely on external vendors for products that must meet contractual
specifications to conform to the requirements
B. purchased materials will never meet the requirements of the project
C. services are amenable to statistical sampling even for small lots
.re
D. it looks good to the customer when there is a mathematical approach to quality

E. statistics provide a basis for customer acceptance of the projects
Correct answer: (A)

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409. Customers are the driving force in any project and determine the requirements to
be met. In dealing with customers' complaints, it is important to ______________.
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A. avoid commitment to correction on an "out of warranty" item

B. talk to them until they see the reason the complaints are trivial
C. give them something more than they contracted to receive to suppress any
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feelings of dissatisfaction
D. provide them with the full scope of the contracted product or service
E. realize that customers ask for too much and to change their perceptions about
the product or service requirements
Correct answer: (D)

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410. One of the advantages of team work is:
A. It breaks down barriers between internal

B. customers and suppliers
C. It results in promotion
D. It results in salary increment
E. None of the given options
om
Correct answer: (A)
411. Crosby’s approach to management is:
A. A problem that can never be solved

B. Absolutes of Quality Management
.c
C. Interim Management
D. ISO
ul
Correct answer: (B)
412. A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results
pa
were generated by each identified cause is:
A. Statistical Histogram
B. Juran Histogram
C. Fishbone Diagram
jin
D. Pareto Diagram
Correct answer: (B)

.re
413. A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called:
A. Run
B. Trend
C. Outliers
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D. Cycle
Correct answer: (A)

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414. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of
required steps has been performed is called:
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A. Quality Policy
B. Check list
C. Trend analysis
D. Pareto diagram
Correct answer: (B)

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415. Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the following
management theories or programs?
A. Zero Defects program

B. Theory X management
C. Theory Y management
D. Quality Control Circles
E. A and C
om
Correct answer: (B)
416. The Pareto Principle is a technique used by quality managers to determine which
quality control problems concerning a particular service or manufacturing process
.c
should be corrected. Which of the following statements best represents the philosophy
employed by this principle?
A. In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems
ul
which have a measurable cost associated with them should be corrected
B. The majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable
problems. Improvement efforts should be reserved for those few vital problems
pa
C. In order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those
which do not have a direct financial cost should be corrected
D. Generally, 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via
cost benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially worthy of
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improvement efforts
E. A and D
Correct answer: (B)

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417. The pillars of quality is (are)
A. Quality is free
B. Doing it right the first time
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C. Zero defects
D. Process improvement
E. B and C
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Correct answer: (E)

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418. According to current quality management thinking, which of the following
approaches to quality improvement is least likely to produce positive results?
A. increased inspection
B. continuous improvement
C. quality circles
D. statistical quality control
E. use of worker suggestion systems
om
Correct answer: (A)
419. Which is not a commonly used quality management tool?
A. Fishbone diagram
.c
B. CSSR report
C. Pareto chart
D. Control chart
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E. None of the above (all are commonly used)
Correct answer: (E) pa

420. 100% inspection for defects may be neither possible nor desirable, When is
sampling for defects likely to be most useful?
A. When destructive testing is required

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B. When the cost of 100% inspection is high
C. When we believe there are not many defects
D. A, B, and C
E. A and B
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Correct answer: (E)
421. From the project manager's perspective, quality management is ______________

limited to assessing the attributes of the tools provided to do the work.
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A. always
B. usually
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C. not
D. seldom
E. intermittently
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Correct answer: (C)

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422. Quality assurance is defined as the managerial process that determines
______________ that provide the customers with performance standards and feedback on
the performance.
A. time, scope, cost, and resources

B. human resources, dollars, materials, and duration
C. time, location, duration, and completion
D. organization, design, objectives, and resources
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E. management, staff, workers, and contractors
Correct answer: (D)
423. Statistical Decision Making includes Pareto Analysis as a means of reducing errors
.c
in the total project process. Pareto Analysis ______________.
A. is a method of rejecting errors or variances from standards following self-
ul
inspection
B. is a procedure for ranking the errors to identify those contributing the most to
failures [PMBOK p. B-2]
C. counts errors or failures to determine the added cost of all operations that do not
meet the requirements
pa
D. compares the error rate with the pass rate to determine the allowable number of
errors per 1,000
E. compares the error rate of individuals to determine the compensation for
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bonuses
Correct answer: (B)

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424. When errors that affect quality are discovered, the procedure to improve the
situation should be to ______________.
A. identify the specific error

B. correct the specific error
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C. determine the root causes of the error

D. correct the root cause of the error
E. all of the above
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Correct answer: (E)

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425. Which of the following models value stability?
A. Organism model
B. Mechanistic model
C. Cultural model
D. Total Quality model
Correct answer: (B)
om
426. Quality in a project's product is essential for the enhancement of the project
manager and the selling organization. To ensure that the customer perceives a quality
product, the project manager must inform the ustomer of the ______________ to be used
so the customer will not have a perception of ______________.
.c
A. materials; inferior fabrication
B. standards; gold plating
C. practices; poor workmanship
ul
D. pricing; gouging
E. warranty; poor service after product sale
Correct answer: (B)

pa
427. In the quality area, process control is becoming an important element of the
manufacturing to rigorous specifications to provide a consistently uniform output. The
jin
control of a process is divided into controlling temperatures, pressures, flows,
______________, and levels in terms of rates and time.
A. directions, elasticity’s
B. volumes, distances
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C. speeds (velocities), volumes

D. distances, speeds (velocities)
E. lengths, widths
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Correct answer: (D)
428. Reworking ______________ the cost of quality.

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A. Decreases
B. Increases
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C. Neutralizes
Correct answer: (B)

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429. The inspection of the project through the implementation phase is critical to
ensure that quality standards are being met. The use of vendors is most often required
to obtain critical materials, components, or sub-assemblies. To determine a vendor's
capabilities to produce to the specifications, a "shop survey" or audit of the vendor may
be required. e areas for the audit should include ______________.
A. facilities and shop space

B. experience and capability with similar work
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C. quality assurance an control procedures
D. organization and quality of work in process
E. all of the above
Correct answer: (C)
.c
430. Taguchi suggested that loss in a process is'increased with increase in which of the
following?
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A. Specifications
B. Standards
C. Competition
D. Variability
pa
Correct answer: (D)
jin
431. Some organizations emphasizes the use of quality tools but failed to do which of
the following?
A. Focus on what is truly important to the distributors

B. Incorporate continuous improvement efforts
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C. Make fundamental changes in their processes and culture

D. Focus on what is truly important to the customer
Correct answer: (B)

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432. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Deming’s philosophy?
A. It is based on improving products and services by reducing uncertainty and

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variability in the design and manufacturing processes

B. Quality is either or not present in the whole organization; that quality is the
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responsibility of everyone in the organization

C. Increasing conformance to specifications through elimination of defects,
supported extensively by statistical tools for analysis
D. Increasing loss, for the producer, the customer, and society, associated with
increasing variability from a target value
Correct answer: (B)

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433. Nonconformance is an expense of:
A. Profit of quality
B. Defects of quality
C. Quality of product
D. Cost of quality
Correct answer: (D)
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434. Best price or zero cost is
A. To keep defective products aside, ensuring they

B. do not reach the customers
C. Prerogative cost
.c
D. To count, grade, and rework
E. Cost leadership
ul
Correct answer: (C)
435. The concept that it is easier and less costly to do the work right the first time is
pa
called:
A. Zero defects
C. DTRTRTFT
jin
D. The customer is the next person in the process
Correct answer: (C)

.re
436. Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?
A. Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.

B. The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.
C. Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can
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adequately determine conformance and nonconformance.

D. If the number of defects found in the sample exceeds the predetermined amount,
the entire lot is rejected.
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E. All of the above are true
Correct answer: (E)

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437. Japanese quality control has improved dramatically in the last 30 years for all of the
following reasons except:
A. The use of quality control circles

B. Small, continuous improvements in quality control
C. The use of worker suggestion systems
D. The use of quality control charts
E. Focusing quality control efforts on production output
om
Correct answer: (E)
438. Quality attributes
A. are used to determine how effectively the organization accomplishes its goals
.c
B. can be objective or subjective in nature
C. are specific quality characteristics for which a product is designed, built, and
tested
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D. A and B
E. B and C
Correct answer: (E)

pa
439. When a product or service completely meets a customer's requirements:
A. quality is achieved
jin
B. cost of quality is high
C. cost of quality is low
D. the customer pays the minimum price
E. A and B
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Correct answer: (A)
440. The concept that states: "the optimal quality level is reached at the point where the
incremental revenue from product improvement equals the incremental cost to secure
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it" comes from:
A. quality control analysis

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B. marginal analysis
C. standard quality analysis
D. conformance analysis
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E. systems analysis
Correct answer: (B)

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441. An assignable variance tells us:
A. our equipment is becoming obsolete

B. top management should initiate increased worker training
C. there is an identifiable problem that must be fixed
D. schedule variances will be reduced
E. our use of quality circles is inadequate
om
Correct answer: (C)
442. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most
likely to be achieved:
A. by planning it into the project
.c
B. by developing careful mechanisms to inspect for quality
C. by developing prestigious products and processes
D. by striving to do the best job possible
ul
E. by conducting quality circle activities
Correct answer: (A) pa

443. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to developing an effective
project team supportive of quality?
A. Commitment to the project

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B. Team member flexibility
C. Frequent turnover of personnel
D. Team interest in workmanship
E. Clearly defined goals
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Correct answer: (C)
444. Quality management is defined as the process of ensuring that a project meets the
______________ of the project's clients, participants, and shareholders.
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A. specifications and statements of work

B. legal and financial obligations
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C. expectations and desires

D. needs and expectations
E. legal and moral requirements
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Correct answer: (D)

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445. Statistical Process Control is used in quality programs to determine whether
repetitive operations meet predictable standards. The process uses ______________ to
permit accurate monitoring of the operation.
A. 100 percent inspection and random rejection

B. acceptance sampling and automatic rejection
C. continuous sampling and error detection methods
D. random sampling and corrective procedures
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E. statistical sampling and control procedures
Correct answer: (E)
446. Quality control methods extend beyond the external characteristics of the product
.c
or components of the product. The types of testing of the product or components
include ______________.
A. operator, maintainer, and environmental
ul
B. stress, destructive, and operating
C. in-house, public, and private
D. laboratory, destructive, and non-destructive
E.
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laboratory, fabrication, and product
Correct answer: (C)
447. In the area of quality, project managers are struggling with the training and
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indoctrination of individuals in the need to do the work right the first time to conform to
the requirement. Occasionally, the project manager will discover an individual, either in
the planning or actual work, doing more than is called for in the specification. These
individuals need training to reduce the level of "over building" because ______________.
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A. the extra value given to the customer is not recognized or needed to complete
the project
B. the increase to the system specifications place that portion out of balance with
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the other system components

C. it leads to increased customer requirements for other parts of the system
D. exceeding the specified requirement is asting time and money at no value added
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to the project
E. the project must be reworked in other areas to increase the level of "goodness"
to the same as the "over build"
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Correct answer: (D)

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448. The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as
formally expressed by top management is a:
A. Quality Plan
B. Quality Statement
C. Quality Policy
D. TQM
om
Correct answer: (C)
449. Which of the following is not considered a cost of nonconformance to quality?
A. Scrap
B. Rework
.c
C. Expediting
D. Process control
E. all of the above are considered nonconformance costs
ul
Correct answer: (D)
pa
450. The same quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from
three to six. The size of the control band will:
A. Increase
B. Decrease
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C. Remain unchanged
D. Not determinable from given data
E. None of the above
.re
Correct answer: (B)
451. An acceptance control chart has limits that are based on the specification limits for
the product rather than limits which differentiate between random and assignable
causes. Under which if the following circumstance should a QC manager consider using
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an acceptance control chart?
A. When the engineering tolerance on a dimension greatly exceeds the natural

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dispersion of the manufacturing process

B. When the number of samples outside the current control chart limits become too
costly and cumbersome to investigate
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C. When a process is subject to constant but stable tool wear

D. A and B
E. A and C
Correct answer: (E)

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452. Cost of quality is a concept that includes:
A. the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements

B. the life cycle cost of the project
C. al research and development costs related to the project
D. only the cost of the quality control function
E. A and B
om
Correct answer: (A)
453. Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a
qualitative goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in:
A. a project completed in the shortest possible time
.c
B. a product or service that conforms to the requirement specification
D. an innovative project that establishes the qualifications of the project team
ul
E. B and C
Correct answer: (B) pa

454. If the level of confidence directly increases as a result of new processes, different
resources, or changed methods, the required cost of monitoring is likely to:
A. increase as well
jin
B. remain the same
C. decrease
D. decrease initially then increase slightly
E. increase then tend to level off
.re
Correct answer: (C)
455. A project manager notices that all the measurements recorded on a control chart
lie within the control band range. However, most of the measurements are below the
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midpoint (negative variance). Quality management practice offers us what guidance in

dealing with this situation?
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A. The project manager should apply the "rule of seven"

B. There is no problem as long as the variances lie within the control band
C. Negative variance indicates a problem which should be remedied
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D. These variances are most likely caused by random factors

E. Increased worker ownership should be encouraged
Correct answer: (A)

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456. Just-in-time (JIT) is the concept of reducing inventories to:
A. 25% of former stock

B. Less than half of former stock
C. 75% of peak stock
D. zero stock
E. 15% of the cost of the product for a planned stock
om
Correct answer: (D)
457. Unless evidence indicates otherwise, a process is assured to be:
A. in control
.c
B. out of control
C. working at full capacity
D. working at less than full capacity
E. operating within required engineering tolerances
ul
Correct answer: (A)
pa
458. Statistical Process Control uses diagrams called "Control Charts." These charts
depict horizontal, parallel lines to represent ______________ standard deviations.
A. six
B. five
jin
C. four
D. three
E. two
.re
Correct answer: (D)
459. A quality audit is a powerful tool in any quality improvement program. For a
project that is starting a quality improvement program, the initial audit is used to
______________.
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A. identify all the faculty work that has been completed

B. identify all the work that has been correctly accomplished
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C. determine the single most urgent area for improvement

D. determine the quality baseline from which improvements will be made
E. evaluate the quality audit's effectiveness in identifying errors
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Correct answer: (D)

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460. The 14-step process to quality improvement is a progressive to total involvement
of everyone in a company toward the production of quality products and services. The
14-steps do not include ______________.
A. management commitment
B. quality improvement team
C. quality measurement
D. goal achievement measures
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E. supervisor training
Correct answer: (D)
461. Each project needs a quality program plan to define the parameters of the overall
.c
approach to meeting quality requirements. As a minimum, the quality program plan
addresses ______________.
A. the required processes and procedures
ul
B. the inspection plan
C. the types of test to be conducted
D. The documentation requirements for actions (testing, inspections, etc.)
E. all of the above
pa
Correct answer: (D)
462. Which of the following is not a benefit of long-term suppler relationships?

jin
A. supplier involvement in design
B. information system linkages to customer facilities
C. capacity and facility plans favorable to their customers
.re
D. all of the above are benefits
Correct answer: (D)
463. Which of the following models has the viewpoint that change and learning are
w
valued in themselves?
A. Organism mode
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B. Mechanistic model
C. Cultural model
D. Total Quality model
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Correct answer: (C)

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464. The standards for output based on quality and customer- service requirements that
originate at the organizational and process levels include requirements for all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Accuracy
B. Innovation
C. Timeliness
D. Turnover
om
Correct answer: (D)
465. Why the factory managers created inspection departments?
A. To keep defective products aside, ensuring
.c
B. they do not reach the customers
C. To ensure quantity of goods/services
D. To count, grade, and rework
ul
E. All of the above
Correct answer: (A) pa

466. Nonconformance is an expense of
A. Profit of quality
B. Defects of quality
jin
C. Quality of product
D. Cost of quality
Correct answer: (D)

.re
467. The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with
relevant quality standards is called:
w
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Planning
D. Quality Review
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Correct answer: (B)

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468. What percentage of sales is estimated to be the cost of non-quality?
A. 3-5%
B. 12-20%
C. 30-40%
D. 6-8%
Correct answer: (B)
om
469. The zero defects concept
A. is a performance standard for management

B. is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time"
.c
C. is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should
do things right the first time
D. A and C
ul
E. B and C

470. Which of the following statements regarding quality is false?
A. Quality improvements depends upon better definition and increased awareness

of the requirements specifications
jin
B. Future gains in quality will often rely on advanced technology
C. Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet
quality objectives
D. Computer-aided design systems can improve quality, but only a the expense of
.re
an increase in the cost of design

E. A and C
Correct answer: (B)

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471. Quality is often influenced by all of the following except:
A. fabrication processes and methods

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B. supervision
C. inspection
D. cost of materials
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E. design
Correct answer: (C)

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472. From the project perspective, quality attributes:
A. are used to determine how effectively the performing organization supports the
project
B. can be objective or subjective in nature
C. are specific characteristics for which a product is designed, built, and tested
D. B and C
E. A and B
om
Correct answer: (D)
473. Primary responsibility for quality management in the project rests with the:
A. project engineer
.c
B. purchasing agent
C. quality manager
D. project manager
ul
E. company president

474. The cost of quality has been argued as being primarily driven by the workers.
When items were produced that did not meet the customers' expectations, the workers
were "found" to be at fault. Current thinking is that management has at least
______________ percent of the responsibility for the cost of quality.
jin
A. 85
B. 75
C. 65
.re
D. 55
E. 50
Correct answer: (A)

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475. The technical performance of the project is derived from the quality program
instituted by the project manager. Quality control is one part of the uality program that
______________.
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A. defines requirements and performance standards

B. measures results of operations
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C. compares measured results to performance standards

D. initiates corrective actions for variances
E. all of the above
Correct answer: (E)

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476. Quality is one part of the three major parameters of a project. When the quality in
a project exceeds the specifications, that is called ______________.
A. excellence
B. superior quality
C. deviation plus quality
D. gold plating
E. silver plating
om
Correct answer: (C)
477. During which century, the manufacturers began to include quality processes in
quality practices?
.c
A. 17th century
B. 18th century
C. 19th century
ul
D. 20th century

478. Which of the following was developed by Motorola to improve its processes by
minimizing defects?
A. ISO 9000
jin
B. Six sigma
C. QS 9000
D. TQM
.re
Correct answer: (B)
479. You can ask direct questions to quiet people'and try to control talkative people",
for which of the following purpose?
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A. Mobilizing the group

B. Keeping the group focused
C. Restating purpose
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D. Starting punctually
Correct answer: (A)

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480. Total quality costs include:
A. Prevention costs
B. Appraisal costs
C. Failure costs
D. All of the given options
Correct answer: (D)
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481. Example of prevention costs is:
A. Quality improvement projects

B. Downgrading
C. To link outcomes to uses
.c
D. Warranty claims
Correct answer: (A)
ul
482. The concept of making a giant leap forward followed by a period of maturity is:
A.
B.
Innovation
Continuous improvement
pa
C. Just in time
D. Paradigm
jin
Correct answer: (A)
483. The concept of zero inventory is called:

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A. Six sigma
C. Just in Time
D. Zero defects
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Correct answer: (C)
484. Quality is
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A. zero defects
B. a problem
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C. a specification
D. a cost
E. A, C, and D
Correct answer: (C)

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485. On a project, quality should generally be of
A. equal priority with cost and schedule

B. lower priority than cost and schedule
C. equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule
D. equal priority with schedule, but higher priority than cost
E. higher priority than cost and schedule
om
Correct answer: (A)
486. Some organizations today are using "six sigma", to set the upper and lower limits
on control charts rather than the traditional sigmas.
A. two
.c
B. three
C. four
D. five
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E. twelve
Correct answer: (B) pa

487. Responsibility within the project for quality must be defined and promulgated to
everyone contributing to the end product. First and foremost, the ______________ has the
ultimate responsibility for conformance to requirements when provided with the tools,
skills, knowledge, and opportunities.
jin
A. corporate president
B. director of project management
C. quality assurance manager
.re
D. project manager
E. individual
Correct answer: (E)

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DEPARTMENT OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

GE8077 – Total Quality Management

Academic Year 2020 – 21

Dr.P.Senthilkumar., Prof & HOD/MECH

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A. process flow analysis

2. Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of ______________

Correct answer: (A)

A. Communication, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person

Correct answer: (A)

C. correct to great extent

Correct answer: (A)

5. ______________ is the areas that will be covered by the organization's processes

Correct answer: (A)

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A. customer dissatisfaction costs

Correct answer: (C)

A. An unrealistic definition of quality

A. Total Quality Management

Correct answer: (A)

Correct answer: (B)

10. Deming's 4 step cycle for improvement is______________

A. plan, do, check, act

D. plan, control, act, sustain

Correct answer: (A)

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Correct answer: (B)

A. at the start of the project

Correct answer: (D)

D. All the three

15. Inspection is part of the ______________

A. quality control (not sure)

Correct answer: (A)

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Correct answer: (D)

A. inspection at the end of the production process

Correct answer: (A)

A. A project completed in shortest possible time.

B. A product or service that conforms to the required specifications.

Correct answer: (B)

Correct answer: (A)

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22. ______________ are used in six sigma

Correct answer: (C)

A. Communication, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person

Correct answer: (A)

C. correct to great extent

Correct answer: (A)

Correct answer: (D)

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Correct answer: (A)

A. customer dissatisfaction costs

Correct answer: (C)

A. An unrealistic definition of quality

Correct answer: (B)

30. Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to ______________

Correct answer: (B)