INDIAN NATIONAL MATHEMATICAL OLYMPIAD MOCK TEST-2

INDIAN NATIONAL MATHEMATICAL

Maximum Marks : 102 OLYMPIAD (MOCK TEST–2)
TARGET INMO – 2020
SOLUTIONS
1. Let A, B, C be points on a circle whose centre is O and whose radius is 1, such that ÐBAC = 45°.
Lines AC and BO (possible extended) intersect at D, and lines AB and CO (possibly extended)
intersect at E. prove that BD · CE = 2.
Sol. Solution-1 :Consider the figure :

G 45° F
1–x
1–y
D
E x
y
2 2
O
1 1

B C
2

Figure 1

Put x = OD and y = OE. Let BO extended meet the circle again in F (so that DF = 1 – x).
Since ÐBFC = 45° and BF is a diameter of the circle, we have ÐBCF = 90° and

BC = CF = 2 . Similarly, if CE extended meets the circle again in G, we have GE = 1 – y,

and CG and BF are the diagonals of square BCFG that intersect perpendicularly at O. Therefore,

from the right triangles BOE and COD, we have CD = 1 + x 2 and BE = 1 + y2 .

AD BD
By the similarity of triangles BDA and CDF, we have = ,
DF CD

AD 1+ X 1 - x2
i.e., = , so that AD = .
1- X 1 + X2 1 + x2

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 INDIAN NATIONAL MATHEMATICAL OLYMPIAD MOCK TEST-2

AD + DC CE
Then, by the similarity of triangles BEG and CEA, = i.e.,
GB BE

1 - x2
+ 1 + x2
1+ x 2 1+ y
= .
2 1 + y2

1- y
Simplifying and solving for x gives x = , so that
1+ y

æ 1- y ö
BD · CE = (1 + x) (1 + y) = ç 1 + ÷ (1 + y) = 2
è 1+ y ø
Note that we have solved here the case where A lies strictly between G and F on the
» . The case where A = F or A = G follows trivially, because here BD · CE
short arc FG
reduces to either BF · CO = 2 · 1 = 2 or CG · BO = 2. The case where A lies between C
» is shown in Figure 2.
and F on the short arc CF

D
x
G F

1 1 A
D
45°
2 y
O
1 E
1–y

B C
2

Figure 2

In a way similar to the first case, using the similarity between triangles BDA and CDF,

CD 1 + (1 + x)2 x x(2 + x)
we see that = = , so that AD = . The similarity
2+x 2+x AD 1 + (1 + x) 2
between triangles BEG and CEA gives

x(2 + x)
1 + (1 + x) 2 -
1- y CA CD - AD 1 + (1 + x) 2
= = = .
1 + y2 2 2 2

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2y
From this equation we solve x = and it follows that BD · CE = (2 + x) (1 – y)
1- y

æ 2y ö
= ç2 + ÷ (1 - y) = 2 .
è 1 - y ø
» follows symmetrically
Finally, the case where A lies between B and G on the short arc BG
from the above.
Solution-2 :We can also follow a trigonometric approach : We first consider the case where O is
inside triangle ABC. See Figure 3.
A

45°

E
y D
x
O
1 1
a
b

B C

Figure 3
We have ÐBOC = 90° (twice ÐBAC = 45°). Put x = OD, y = OE, a = ÐACE,
b = ÐABD. Then tan a = x and tan b = y. Furthermore, a + b = 45° (using 180° =
ÐBAD + ÐABD + ÐBDA = 45° + b + (90° + a)), so that
tan a + tan b x+y
1 = tan(a + b) = = .
1 - tan a tan b 1 - xy
Hence, x + y = 1 – xy, and we have BD · CE = (1 + x) (1 + y) = 1 + x + y + xy = 1 + 1 = 2.
In Figure 4 we have O outside triangle ABC.
E

y
A
45°
O
x
D 1
1–x a
b
B C

Figure 4
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 INDIAN NATIONAL MATHEMATICAL OLYMPIAD MOCK TEST-2

In this case we have b – a = 45° (using 180° = ÐBAC + ÐABC + ÐBCA = 45°
+ (b + 45°) + (45° – a)), so that
tan b - tan a y-x
1 = tan(b - a) = = .
1 + tan a tan b 1 + xy
Hence, y – x = 1 + xy, and we have BD · CE = (1 – x) (1 + y) = 1 – x + y – xy = 1 + 1 = 2.
Finally, there are the cases where O is either on AB or on AC. In the former case we
have D = A and E = O, so that BD · CE = BA · CO = 2 · 1 = 2, and in the latter case,
D = O and E = A. so that BD · CE = BO · CA = 1 · 2 = 2.
2. Given n(n > 3) points on a plane, no three of them are collinear, x pairs of these points are connected
n(n - 1) (n - 2) + 3
by line segments. Prove that if x ³ , then there is at least one triangle having these
3(n - 2)

n(n - 1) (n - 2) + 3
line segments as edges. Find all possible values of integers n > 3 such that is an
3(n - 2)
integer and the minimum number of line segments guaranteeing a triangle in the above situation is this
integer.
Sol. For every three distinct points A, B, C, from a pigeonhole containing the three segments AB, BC, CA.
(Each segment may be in more than one pigeonholes.)
There are C3n pigeonholes. For each segment joining a pair of endpoints, that segment will be in

n – 2 pigeonholes. So if x(n – 2) ³ 2 C3n + 1, that is

2C 3n + 1 n(n - 1)(n - 2) + 3
x³ = ,
n-2 3(n - 2)
then by the pigeonhole principle, there is at least one triangle having these line segments as edges.
If f(n) = (n(n – 1)(n – 2) + 3)/(3(n – 2)) is an integer, then 3(n – 2)f(n) = n(n – 1)(n – 2) + 3 implies 3
is divisible by n – 2. Since n > 3, we must have n = 5. Then f(5) = 7. For the five vertices A, B, C, D,
E of a regular pentagon, if we connected the six segments BC, CD, DE, EA, AC, BE, then there is no
triangle. So a minimum of f(5) = 7 segments is needed to get a triangle.
3. Prove that if the real numbers p1, p2, q1, q2 satisfy
(q1 – q2)2 + (p1 – p2) (p1q2 – p2q1) < 0,
then the quadratic equations
x2 + p1x + q1 = 0 and x2 + p2x + q2 = 0
have real roots and between the roots of one there is a root of the other.
Sol. If a = b = 0 the equations is of first degree, with unique solution x0 = 0. Otherwise we have that a ¹ 0
or b ¹ 0. The equation is
(a2 + b2)x2 – (4ab + 1)x + a2 + b2 = 0;
a quadratic function with roots x1, x2 where x1 Î ¢ . From
x1 = (ax1 – b)2 + (bx1 – a)2,
we deduce that x1 > 0. Now, since the roots are real, the discriminant will be non-negative,
(4ab + 1)2 – 4(a2 + b2)2 ³ 0.

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This is equivalent to
(1 – 2(a – b)2(1 + 2(a – b)2 ³ 0
which means that 1 – 2(a – b)2 ³ 0. Since (a – b)2 Î ¢ we must have that (a – b) = 0, or equivalently,
a = b. Taking this into account the original expression becomes
2a2 – (4a2 + 1)x + 2a2 = 0
and using Viete's relations we obtain

1
x1 + x2 = 2 + , x1x2 = 1.
2a 2
We observe that x1 being a non-negative integer, neither x1 = 0 nor x1 = 1 can be roots of the above
1
quadratic equation. Therefore x1 ³ 2. Now, since x2 = > 0 , it follows that
x1

1
x1 < x1 + x2 = 2 + < 3.
2a 2

1
Hence 2 £ x1 < 3, but since x1 is an integer this implies that x1 = 2. x2 = . By substituting the values
2
1
of x1 and x2 we obtain a2 = 1, thus a = b = ± 1 and the roots are 2 and .
2
4. Determine all ordered pairs (a, b) of positive integers such that a ¹ b, b2 + a = pm (where p is a prime
number, m is a positive integer) and a2 + b is divisible by b2 + a.

a2 + b b4 + b
Sol. For such (a, b), =a–b +
2
a + b2 a + b2
implies pm = a + b2 | b4 + b = b(b3 + 1). From a ¹ b, we get b < 1 + b < a + b2. As gcd(b, b3 + 1) = 1,
so pm divides b3 + 1 = (b + 1)(b2 – b + 1).
Next, by the Euclidean algorithm, we have gcd(b + 1, b2 – b + 1) = gcd(b + 1, 3) | 3.
Assume we have gcd(b + 1, b2 – b + 1) = 1. Then b2 + a = pm divides only one of b + 1 or b2 – b + 1.
However, both b + 1, b2 – b + 1 < b2 + a = pm. Hence, b + 1 and b2 – b + 1 must be divisible by p. Then
the assumption is false and
p = gcd(b + 1, b2 – b + 1) = 3. (*)
If m = 1, then b2 + a = 3 has no solution. If m = 2, then b2 + a = 9 yields (a, b) = (5, 2).
For m ³ 3, by (*), one of b + 1 or b2 – b + 1 is divisible by 3, while the other one is divisible by
3m–1. Since

b+1< b 2 + a + 1 = 3m / 2 + 1 < 3m -1 .
so 3m – 1 | b2 – b + 1. Since m ³ 3, we have b2 – b + 1 º 0 (mod 9). Checking b º –4, –3, –2,
–1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 (mod 9) shows there cannot be any solution.

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5. ABC is a triangle with BC > CA > AB. D is a point on side BC and E is a point on ray BA beyond
A so that BD = BE = CA. Let P be a point on side AC such that E, B, D, P are concyclic. Let Q
be the intersection point of ray BP and the circumcircle of D ABC different from B. Prove that
AQ + CQ = BP.
Sol. Since A, B, C, Q are concyclic and E, P, D, B are concyclic, we have
ÐAQC = 180° – ÐABC = ÐEPD
and ÐPED = ÐPBD = ÐQAC.
E
A

P Q
B D C

Hence, DAQC and DEPD are similar.

So we have AQ/AC = PE/DE and CQ/AC = PD/DE. Cross-multiplying and adding these two
equations, we get
(AQ + CQ) × DE = (PE + PD) × AC. (*)
For cyclic quadrilateral EPDB, by the Ptolemy theorem, we have
BP × DE = PE × BD + PD × BE
= (PE + PD) × AC (**)
Comparing (*) and (**), we have AQ + CQ = BP.
6. Let ¢ denotes the set of all integers. Determine (with proof) all function f : ¢ ® ¢ such that for all
x, y in ¢ , we have f(x + f(y)) = f(x) – y.
Sol. Assume there is a function f satisfying
f(x + f(y)) = f(x) – y. (*)
If f(a) = f(b), then
f(x) – a = f(x + f(a)) = f(x + f(b)) = f(x) – b,
which implies a = b, i.e. f is injective.
Taking y = 0 in (*), f(x + f(0)) = f(x). By injectivity, we see f(0) = 0. Taking x = 0 in (*),
we get f(f(y)) = – y (**) applying f to both sides of (*) and using (**), we have
f(f(x) – y) = f(f(x + f(y)) = – x – f(y).
Taking x = 0 in this equation, we get
f(–y) = – f(y). (***)
Using (**), (*) and (***), we get
f(x + y) = f(x + f(f(–y)) = f(x) – f(–y) = f(x) + f(y).
Thus, f satisfies the Cauchy equation. By mathematical induction and (***), f(n) = nf(1) for every
integer n. Taking n = f(1) in the last equation and y = 1 into (**), we get f(1)2 = – 1. This yields a
contradiction.

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