CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following laptop features allows users to overcome keyboard size restrictions?

• Touchpad

• Numeric keypad

• Fn key

• Digitizer

Which of the following is a type of internal hard drive used in laptop computers? (Select all that apply)

• Flash drives

• SSHDs

• USB drives

• Magnetic disks

• SSDs

Which of the following can be used to describe the features of Solid-State Drives (SSDs)? (Select 3 answers)

• Low performance

• Relatively high device cost

• Lower capacity in comparison to magnetic drives

• High performance

• Relatively low device cost

• Higher capacity in comparison to magnetic drives

Which type of internal laptop hard drive combines high performance and capacity at a relatively low device cost?

• SSD

• Flash drive

• Magnetic drive

• USB drive

• SSHD

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following are characteristic features of traditional magnetic drives? (Select 3 answers)

• High capacity

• Low device cost

• High performance

• Low capacity

• High device cost

• Low performance

Which of the following sizes is the most common magnetic hard disk drive form factor used in laptops?

• 3.5 inch

• 5.25 inch

• 1.8 inch

• 2.5 inch

Which of the following are SSD form factors used in laptop computers? (Select 2 answers)

• 1.5 inch

• 5.25 inch

• 1.8 inch

• 2.5 inch

• 1.3 inch

Which of the following memory module form factors are used in laptop computers? (Select 2 answers)

• SODIMM

• ECC RAM

• DIMM

• MicroDIMM

• C-RIMM

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

What is the function of a laptop's smart card reader?

• Storage expansion

• Access control

• Theft prevention

• Data encryption

Due to size restrictions and the compact nature of laptop devices, this type of storage media has become less
commonly found on new laptops.

• Flash drives

• Optical drives

• Solid-state drives

• Magnetic drives

Which type of expansion card enables communication on 802.11 networks?

• WLAN

• Riser card

• WPAN

• WWAN

A laptop’s Bluetooth module enables communication over:

• WWAN

• VLAN

• WLAN

• WPAN

A type of expansion card that enables communication over a cellular network is called a:

• WPAN card

• WAN card

• WWAN card

• WLAN card

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Due to the compact nature of laptop devices, all laptop GPUs come in the form of CPU-integrated graphics.

• True

• False

A type of laptop expansion slot characterized by a much smaller form factor when compared to its desktop
counterpart is known as:

• mITX

• MicroSD

• mini PCIe

• PCI-X

What type of power jack can be found on a laptop case?

• AC

• PFC

• DC

• A/V

What is the most common battery type that can be found in modern portable devices?

• Alkaline

• Nickel–metal hydride

• Lithium-ion

• Nickel-cadmium

Which of the following is the name of a laptop component that functions as a pointing device?

• Fn key

• Touchpad

• Mouse

• KVM switch

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following hardware components is the most difficult to replace on a laptop computer?

• Optical drive

• Primary storage

• System board

• Integrated GPU

• Secondary storage

Which of the following describes the display technology most commonly used in modern laptops?

• LCD

• OLED

• Plasma

• CRT

What are the characteristic features of an OLED display? (Select 3 answers)

• Works without backlight

• Inferior contrast ratio and color representation in comparison to LCDs

• Lower light output (brightness) in comparison to LCDs

• Display type commonly used in modern laptop devices

• Better contrast ratio and color representation in comparison to LCDs

• Requires backlight to illuminate the screen

• Lower cost in comparison to LCDs

• Higher light output (brightness) in comparison to LCDs

A type of backlight technology most commonly used in modern laptop devices is called:

• CCFL

• CRT

• OLED

• LED

Which of the following describes the location of a laptop Wi-Fi antenna?

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

• On the WLAN module

• Near the top, inside display case

• Inside laptop's case

• Typically attached via external expansion port

Which of the following describes the function of a laptop inverter? (Select 2 answers)

• Converts AC power into DC power

• Supplies voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels

• Converts DC power into AC power

• Supplies voltage to backlights in OLED displays

Which of the following describes the function of a digitizer? (Select 3 answers)

• A device that translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing

• A type of output device

• A component of a mobile device's screen that allows users to control the device with a fingertip

• An example of a media converter

• A type of input device

A portion of a laptop's keyboard consists of special function keys, i.e. keys that allow to control additional displays,
volume settings, or screen brightness. The functionality offered by such keys can be activated by pressing and
holding the:

• Win key

• Fn key

• Ctrl key

• Alt key

Docking stations:

• Offer identical features as port replicators

• Provide additional interfaces for smaller mobile devices, such as tablets or smartphones

• Usually offer additional ports and capabilities compared to port replicators

• Typically offer less ports and capabilities than port replicators

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following physical security controls provide protection against laptop theft? (Select 2 answers)

• Encryption

• Cable lock

• LoJack for laptops

• Smart card reader

• Laptop lock

Which of the following devices offers the fewest amount of options for hardware upgrades that can be installed by a
device user?

• Laptop

• Workstation

• Desktop

• Tablet

Portable devices combining the capabilities of mobile phones and handheld PCs are commonly called:

• Phablets

• Smartphones

• PDAs

• Thick clients

Which of the following are examples of wearable technology devices? (Select 3 answers)

• Phablets

• Smart watches

• Fitness monitors

• Smartphones

• VR/AR headsets

A type of portable device primarily designed for document access is known as a(n):

• Phablet

• E-reader

• Subnotebook

• Digitizer

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

A mobile device's built-in functionality enabling the usage of locator applications is called:

• WPS

• GSM

• IMEI

• GPS

Examples of USB ports that can be found on mobile devices include: (Select 3 answers)

• USB-C

• Micro-USB

• USB Type-A

• Mini-USB

• USB Type-B

What is the name of a proprietary connector type used by Apple mobile devices?

• 8P8C connector

• Lightning connector

• BNC connector

• Lucent Connector (LC)

Which of the following are technologies that enable wireless mobile connectivity? (Select 3 answers)

• NFC

• IEEE 802.3

• Bluetooth

• IR

• Thunderbolt

Which type of technology enables contactless payment transactions?

• NFC

• SDN

• PED

• WAP

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

A popular, short-range wireless technology used for connecting various personal devices in a WPAN is known as:

• 802.11

• NFC

• Bluetooth

• Z-Wave

Which of the following is a short distance, line-of-sight technology used in products such as home remote controls?

• NFC

• 802.3

• IR

• Z-Wave

A wireless network Access Point (AP) or site offering public wireless Internet access is commonly called a:

• Hotspot

• Proxy

• Hub

• Gateway

Which of the following refers to the capability of a mobile device to share its Internet connection with other
devices?

• Pairing

• Clustering

• Tethering

• Bonding

The term "Airplane mode" refers to a device function that allows a user to disable wireless transmission capability.

• True

• False

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following are ways of creating a wireless/cellular data network by using a mobile device? (Select 3
answers)

• Hotspot

• Channel bonding

• Tethering

• Link aggregation

• Bluetooth

The process of establishing a connection between Bluetooth devices (e.g. between a Bluetooth enabled headset and
a Bluetooth-enabled phone) is known as:

• Linking

• Tethering

• Three-way handshake

• Pairing

Which of the following is a security feature used in Bluetooth device pairing?

• PIN code

• Multi-factor authentication

• Biometrics

• Cleartext credentials

POP3 is used for:

• Name resolution

• Sending email messages

• File exchange

• Email retrieval

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following describe IMAP? (Select 2 answers)

• Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3

• Serves the same function as POP3

• Enables sending email messages from client devices

• Offers less functions than POP3

• Enables email exchange between mail servers

POP3S uses: (Select all that apply)

• TCP port 993

• Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

• TCP port 995

• Transport Layer Security (TLS)

• TCP port 110

What are the characteristic features of the secure version of IMAP (IMAPS)? (Select all that apply)

• TCP port 143

• Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

• TCP port 993

• Transport Layer Security (TLS)

• TCP port 995

What are the basic settings required for configuring a POP3 connection? (Select all that apply)

• TCP port 995

• POP3 server name

• SSL/TLS encryption

• POP3 username

• Password

• TCP port 110

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

What are the basic settings required for configuring an IMAP connection? (Select all that apply)

• TCP port 143

• Password

• IMAP username

• SSL/TLS encryption

• IMAP server name

• TCP port 993

Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME) specifications extend an email message format beyond simple text,
enabling the transfer of graphics, audio, and video files over Internet mail systems. A Secure MIME (S/MIME) is an
enhanced version of the MIME protocol that enables email security features by providing encryption, authentication,
message integrity, and other related services.

• True

• False

Which of the following integrated email services does not provide support for Post Office Protocol (POP)?

• iCloud Mail

• Gmail

• Yahoo! Mail

• Exchange Online

What is the name of the cloud-based email service provided by Apple?

• Exchange Online

• Gmail

• iCloud Mail

• Yahoo! Mail

Gmail is a web-based email service provided by:

• Yahoo

• Microsoft

• Google

• Apple

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Exchange Online (a cloud-based version of the Exchange Server) is an email service from:

• Apple

• Google

• Yahoo

• Microsoft

Which of the following can be used as a reference during a mobile device update process?

• PRI

• RIS

• PII

• PRL

A database on a mobile device containing bands, sub-bands and service provider IDs allowing the device to establish
connection with the right cell phone tower is called:

• PRL

• RIS

• PRI

• PII

Which of the following is the unique number used to identify a physical mobile device?

• MAPI

• IMEI

• SSID

• IMSI

A unique number used to identify a mobile network phone user is a(n):

• SSID

• MAPI

• IMSI

• IMEI

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following is a way to create private encrypted network connections on a mobile device?

• WLAN

• VPN

• WPAN

• VLAN

The term "Mobile device synchronization" refers to the process of making the same data available on multiple
devices. Synchronized data might include contacts, applications, emails, pictures, music, video, calendars,
bookmarks, documents, location data, social media data, e-books, or passwords. Examples of synchronization
methods include synchronizing mobile devices to the cloud, desktop, or automobile console.

• True

• False

An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as
separate hosts on a network) after a single login on only one of the components is commonly called:

• Single Sign-On (SSO)

• AAA framework

• Network Access Control (NAC)

• Multi-factor authentication

Examples of mobile device synchronization methods for Apple iOS devices include: (Select all that apply)

• iTunes

• OneDrive

• Remote Disk

• iCloud

• Dropbox

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following are examples of universal connection types that enable mobile device synchronization?

• IEEE 802.11

• USB-C

• Cellular

• Bluetooth

• IEEE 802.3

• All of the above

Which of the following are Apple-proprietary connector types that can be used for iOS mobile device
synchronization? (Select 2 answers)

• USB-C connector

• 30-pin dock connector

• USB Type-A connector

• 8-pin dock connector (a.k.a. Lightning connector)

• USB Type-B connector

Which USB connector type can be used on an Android device for mobile device synchronization?

• USB Mini-B

• USB Type-A

• USB Micro-B

• USB Mini-A

• USB Type-B

What is the function of FTP?

• Email service

• Directory access

• Serving of web pages

• File exchange

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote
command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers is known as:

• TFTP

• SSH

• Telnet

• RDP

Telnet: (Select 3 answers)

• Encrypts network connection

• Provides username & password authentication

• Transmits data in an unencrypted form

• Does not provide authentication

• Enables remote login and command execution

The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers)

• Sending email messages between mail servers

• Providing name resolution services

• Serving of web pages

• Retrieving email messages from mail servers

• Sending email messages from a client device

Which of the following describes a system that maps domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP
addresses?

• TCP/IP

• DNS

• SQL

• DHCP

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which network protocol enables users to retrieve the contents of an Internet page from a web server?

• SNMP

• HTTP

• SMTP

• IMAP

What is the function of POP3?

• Email retrieval

• File exchange

• Directory access

• Name resolution

IMAP is used for:

• Serving web pages

• Translating domain names into IP addresses

• Retrieving email messages from a mail server

• Sending email messages

What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption?

• SFTP

• HTTPS

• FTPS

• SNMP

Which of the following is a Microsoft-proprietary remote-access protocol providing users with a graphical interface
that allows them to connect to another computer on a network?

• RDP

• SSH

• VNC

• Telnet

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following is used when a WINS server tries to resolve a host name into an IP address on a Windows-
based LAN?

• DNS

• TCP/IP

• NetBIOS

• DHCP

The function of the NetBT protocol is to allow NetBIOS services to be used over TCP/IP networks.

• True

• False

Which of the following are characteristic features of SMB/CIFS? (Select 2 answers)

• Used mainly by computers running Linux distributions

• Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices

• Enables connectivity over SAN

• Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems

• Enables voice and multimedia communications over IP networks

Which of the following protocols permits automated discovery of networked services on Local Area Networks
(LANs)?

• SMB

• AFP

• CIFS

• SLP

Which of the following is a file sharing network protocol?

• RDP

• SSH

• AFP

• SLP

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

A network protocol providing an alternative solution to the manual allocation of IP addresses is known as:

• DNS

• SNMP

• NAT

• DHCP

LDAP is an example of a(n):

• Authentication protocol

• Address resolution protocol

• Directory access protocol

• File exchange protocol

A type of protocol used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices is called:

• SMB

• NTP

• SNMP

• RDP

Which port enables FTP's Data Connection to send file data?

• UDP port 20

• TCP port 20

• UDP port 21

• TCP port 21

FTP's Control Connection for administering a session is established through:

• TCP port 20

• UDP port 20

• TCP port 21

• UDP port 21

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

SSH protocol runs on:

• TCP port 21

• UDP port 22

• TCP port 20

• TCP port 22

Which of the following TCP ports does Telnet use?

• 20

• 21

• 22

• 23

TCP port 25 is used by:

• SNMP

• Telnet

• FTP

• SMTP

Which of the following UDP ports is assigned to DNS?

• 53

• 67

• 110

• 389

TCP port 80 is assigned to:

• Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

• Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

• Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

• Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

POP3 uses:

• TCP port 110

• UDP port 123

• TCP port 143

• UDP port 161

Which of the following TCP port numbers is assigned to IMAP?

• 143

• 389

• 443

• 636

Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS?

• TCP port 80

• TCP port 443

• UDP port 53

• TCP port 143

A network technician wishes to use an RDP client on their Windows OS to remotely troubleshoot a problem on
another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to
allow this type of network connection?

• TCP port 1720

• TCP port 636

• TCP port 3389

• TCP port 445

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following port numbers are reserved for NetBIOS services? (Select 3 answers)

• 136

• 161

• 137

• 162

• 138

• 139

Port 445 is used by: (Select 2 answers)

• RDP

• SMB

• CIFS

• HTTPS

• IMAP

Which port number is used by SLP?

• 143

• 427

• 548

• 443

AFP runs by default on TCP port:

• 427

• 443

• 445

• 548

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

DHCP runs on: (Select 2 answers)

• UDP port 63

• UDP port 65

• UDP port 67

• UDP port 68

• UDP port 69

TCP port 389 is the default network port for:

• RDP

• LDAP

• SMB

• LDAPS

An SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port:

• 161

• 138

• 162

• 139

An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications on which of the following UDP ports?

• 161

• 137

• 162

• 138

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. Because TCP doesn't support a
three-way handshake while establishing a network connection, it is referred to as an unreliable or best-effort
protocol.

• True

• False

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connection-oriented protocol using a three-way handshake, a set of initial steps
required to establish a network connection. UDP supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the
amount of data that is being sent), and sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order).

• True

• False

A device designed to filter and transfer IP packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called a:

• Proxy

• Hub

• Switch

• Router

Which device improves network performance by dividing a given network segment into separate collision domains?

• Hub

• Repeater

• Switch

• Router

A network switch with configuration features that can be modified via a user interface is a:

• Virtual switch

• Multilayer switch

• PoE switch

• Managed switch

An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is known as a(n):

• Captive portal

• Access Point (AP)

• Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

• Active hub

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet and either blocks it or allows it to pass
through depending on the applied configuration settings is called:

• Antivirus

• Firewall

• NAC

• Antispyware

Which of the following is a computer hardware component designed to enable network access?

• CPU

• PSU

• NIC

• GPU

Which of the following is a simple network device that amplifies a received signal so it can be transmitted over
greater distance without loss of quality?

• Patch panel

• Multiplexer

• Repeater

• Passive hub

The main disadvantage of using this device is its negative impact on network performance, resulting from the fact
that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports.

• Router

• Switch

• Bridge

• Hub

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Network connections implemented with the use of a cable modem take advantage of: (Select 3 answers)

• Cabling that carries TV signals

• Telephone lines

• Coaxial cabling

• Shared bandwidth

• Twisted-pair copper cabling

• Dedicated bandwidth

Which of the following describe characteristics of DSL modems? (Select 3 answers)

• Dedicated bandwidth

• Cabling that carries TV signals

• Shared bandwidth

• Twisted-pair copper cabling

• Telephone lines

• Coaxial cabling

Which of the following describe the features of a network bridge? (Select 3 answers)

• Forwarding decisions made in hardware (ASIC)

• Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

• Typically capable of connecting more network segments than switch (more physical ports)

• Forwarding decisions made in software

• Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports)

• Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

What are the characteristic traits of a network switch? (Select all that apply)

• Forwarding decisions made in hardware (ASIC)

• Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports)

• Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge

• Forwarding decisions made in software

• Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge

• Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge

• Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than bridge (fewer physical ports)

A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable management is a:

• Media converter

• Demarc

• Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

• Patch panel

Which of the following acronyms describes using a single twisted-pair Ethernet cable to carry both data and
electrical power?

• EPP

• PoE

• ECP

• PLC

Which of the following is a dedicated device designed to supply power to PoE equipment?

• Inverter

• Power Supply Unit (PSU)

• Injector

• Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

A type of technology that enables sending data over wiring used for transmission of electrical power is known as:

• PLC

• ECP

• PoE

• EPP

In addition to its native routing functionality, a SOHO router is an all-in-one device that can serve the same purposes
as many other devices. It can provide the functionality of a network switch and an Access Point (AP). A SOHO router
can also provide extensive network configuration options that include a DHCP, firewall, and wired/wireless security
settings.

• True

• False

A unique WLAN identifier (a.k.a. wireless network name) is called a(n):

• EUI

• SSID

• OUI

• CNAME

Which of the following acronyms is used in an emerging field of new technologies, such as wearable tech or home
automation?

• SoC

• NFC

• IoT

• ESN

Which of the following best describes the disabling of an SSID broadcast?

• It is one of the measures used in the process of securing wireless networks

• It makes a WLAN harder to discover

• It blocks access to a WAP

• It prevents wireless clients from accessing the network

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is
known as:

• VPN

• Extranet

• VLAN

• DMZ

Which of the following solutions will allow a server with a private IP address to handle requests from an outside
(public) network?

• Port bonding

• Port labeling

• Port forwarding

• Port mirroring

What is the name of a router configuration feature that allows to open an inbound port based on the outbound
requests made by hosts placed inside a private network?

• Port triggering

• Port bonding

• Port forwarding

• Port mirroring

Which of the following solutions alleviates the depletion of IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the
same private LAN to share a single public IP address?

• DNS

• APIPA

• NAT

• DHCP

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following solutions hides internal IP addresses by modifying the IP address information in IP packet
headers while it is in transit across a traffic routing device?

• QoS

• DHCP

• NAT

• DNS

Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) provides a permanent mapping between an individual private IP
address and a public IP address.

• True

• False

Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between an individual private IP address and any of
the IP addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool.

• True

• False

Which of the following is a Network Address Translation (NAT) method that takes a combination of a private IP
address and a port number, then binds them with the corresponding public IP address and port information?

• PAT

• NAC

• RAS

• EAP

A type of architecture that simplifies networking by allowing devices to dynamically join a network, autoconfigure,
and learn about the presence and capabilities of other devices is known as:

• DHCP

• UPnP

• S.M.A.R.T.

• UEFI

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following describes zero-configuration networking?

• WAP

• UPnP

• TKIP

• PnP

Which of the following is a set of firewall entries containing information on traffic considered safe enough to pass
through?

• Whitelist

• Routing table

• Blacklist

• Rainbow table

Which one of the following is a network security access control method in which a 48-bit physical address assigned
to each network card is used to determine access to the network?

• MAC filtering

• Network Address Translation (NAT)

• Static IP addressing

• Network Access Control (NAC)

Which of the following solutions allows network administrators to prioritize certain types of network traffic?

• NAC

• UAC

• NAT

• QoS

Which of the following wireless security protocols has been discouraged in favor of newer standards due to known
vulnerabilities resulting from implementation flaws?

• EAP

• AES

• WPA2

• WEP

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
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 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) are encryption standards designed for securing
wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and is not recommended because of its vulnerabilities. WPA was
designed as an interim replacement for WEP, and WPA2 was introduced as the official standard that offers the
strongest security of the three.

• True

• False

Which of the following is the best method to secure a small network lacking an authentication server?

• WPA-PSK

• WPA2-Enterprise

• WPA2-PSK

• WPA-Enterprise

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) simplifies the configuration of new wireless networks by enabling non-technical users
to easily set up new networks, configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network.
However, due to its known security vulnerabilities, WPS is not recommended and should be disabled.

• True

• False

What are the characteristic features of a WPA/WPA2 Enterprise mode? (Select 2 answers)

• Suitable for large corporate networks

• Does not require an authentication server

• Suitable for all types of wireless LANs

• Requires RADIUS authentication server

Setting up a wireless network to operate on a non-overlapping channel allows multiple networks to coexist in the
same area without causing interference.

• True

• False

Which of the following IEEE standards provides the basis for implementing most modern WLANs?

• IEEE 802.11

• IEEE 802.1x

• IEEE 802.3

• IEEE 802.1q
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following answers apply to the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard? (Select 2 answers)

• 2.4 GHz frequency band

• Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps

• 5.0 GHz frequency band

• Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

• 5.4 GHz frequency band

• Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps

What are the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard? (Select 2 answers)

• Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps

• 2.0 GHz frequency range

• Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps

• 5.0 GHz frequency range

• Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

• 2.4 GHz frequency range

Which of the following answers apply to the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard? (Select 2 answers)

• Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

• 5.4 GHz frequency band

• Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps

• 2.4 GHz frequency range

• Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps

• 5.0 GHz frequency range

The IEEE 802.11g standard is backwards compatible with:

• 802.11n

• 802.11a

• 802.11b

• 802.11ac

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following are characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard? (Select all that apply)

• Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)

• Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps

• 2.4 GHz frequency band

• Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

• 5.0 GHz frequency band

• Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

The IEEE 802.11n standard offers backward compatibility with: (Select all that apply)

• 802.11g

• 802.11ac

• 802.11b

• 802.11a

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) is a wireless technology that allows for significant increase in data
throughput due to the use of multiple antennas and multiple data streams.

• True

• False

Which of the following answers describe features of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard? (Select 3 answers)

• Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)

• Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

• 5.0 GHz frequency band

• Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.77 Gbps

• Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

• 2.4 GHz frequency band

Which of the following frequency bands can be used by IEEE 802.11 networks? (Select all that apply)

• 2.0 GHz

• 2.4 GHz

• 5.0 GHz

• 5.4 GHz

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

What is the channel bandwidth specified in the IEEE 802.11a standard?

• 20 MHz

• 22 MHz

• 40 MHz

• 80 MHz

Which of the following is a channel bandwidth used in 802.11b networks?

• 20 MHz

• 22 MHz

• 40 MHz

• 80 MHz

Which of the following channel bandwidths is specified in the IEEE 802.11g standard?

• 20 MHz

• 22 MHz

• 40 MHz

• 80 MHz

The term "Channel bonding" refers to a technique that allows for combining adjacent channels to increase the
amount of available bandwidth.

• True

• False

The IEEE 802.11n standard specifies available channel bandwidth options of: (Select 2 answers)

• 20 MHz

• 22 MHz

• 40 MHz

• 80 MHz

• 160 MHz

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following describes the IEEE 802.11ac channel bandwidth option(s)?

• 20 MHz

• 40 MHz

• 80 MHz

• 160 MHz

• Any of the above

Which of the following channel options would allow three Wireless Access Points (WAPs) to be set up on non-
overlapping channels?

• 1

• 5

• 6

• 9

• 11

Which of the following wireless technologies enables identification and tracking of tags attached to objects?

• WMN

• RFID

• GPS

• WTLS

Which of the following refer to IoT technologies designed to permit communication between appliances in a home
automation network? (Select 2 answers)

• Ant+

• RFID

• Z-Wave

• NFC

• Zigbee

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a wireless communications standard for mobile devices and wireless hotspots. LTE is
much faster than the older generation of 2G and 3G cellular networks. Both LTE and its later upgrade, LTE-Advanced
(LTE-A), are often marketed as 4G standards.

• True

• False

What is the function of an HTTP server?

• File storage

• Serving of web pages

• Name resolution

• Email handling

A dedicated file server is also known as a(n):

• SMTP server

• DNS server

• HTTP server

• FTP server

IPP, LPD/LPR, and SMB/CIFS are examples of protocols that enable:

• Name resolution

• Printing

• Email handling

• IP address allocation

Which of the following server types is used for automatic allocation of IP addresses on a network?

• DNS server

• DHCP server

• FTP server

• HTTP server

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

To connect to a website on the Internet and display its contents, a URL entered in a web browser address bar needs
to be translated into an IP address. Which of the following servers handles this type of request?

• ICS server

• Web server

• DNS server

• DHCP server

Which of the following is a computer system or an application/service that acts as an intermediary between a
network host and the Internet?

• Bridge

• Active hub

• Switch

• Proxy

What is the function of an SMTP server?

• Authentication

• File storage & sharing

• Name resolution

• Email handling

Which of the following is one of the functions provided by RADIUS and TACACS servers?

• Name resolution

• Email handling

• Authentication

• File storage & sharing

Which of the following is a type of server used to collect diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices?

• Proxy server

• UC server

• Syslog server

• ICS server

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

The term "Unified Threat Management" (UTM) refers to a network security solution, commonly in the form of a
dedicated device (called a UTM appliance or a web security gateway), which combines the functionality of a firewall
with additional safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection,
IDS/IPS functionality, or malware inspection.

• True

• False

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDSs) are devices or software applications designed to detect malicious activities or
violations of security policies on a network or computer host. An IDS designed to monitor networks is known as a
Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS); an IDS monitoring a single host is called a Host Intrusion Detection
System (HIDS). An IDS does not take any active steps to prevent or stop intrusions, relying on passive responses such
as sending an alert to a management console or recording information about an event in logs.

• True

• False

Which of the following reflects differences between passive and active network security breach responses?

• HIPS vs. NIPS

• UTM vs. Firewall

• NIPS vs. UTM

• IDS vs. IPS

Which of the following refers to the permanent assignment of an IP address?

• Private IP address

• Dynamic IP address

• Public IP address

• Static IP address

What type of server handles the assignment of dynamic IP addresses?

• DHCP server

• Authentication server

• DNS server

• Proxy server

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) allows a Windows host to self-configure an IP address and subnet mask
when a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is unavailable. APIPA uses an address block range between
169.254.0.0 and 169.254.255.255. APIPA-assigned addresses are valid only for communications within the network
segment that a given host is connected to (i.e. a host with an APIPA-assigned address cannot connect to the
Internet).

• True

• False

Which of the following relate to IPv4 link-local addresses? (Select 3 answers)

• FE80::/10

• Non-routable IP address

• Public IP address

• APIPA address

• 169.254.0.0/16

• Routable IP address

Which of the following is an IPv6 link-local address?

• 2002::/16

• ::1/128

• FE80::/10

• 2001::/32

What type of service performs an FQDN-to-IP resolution?

• SLP

• DHCP

• DNS

• SNMP

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows for static allocation of an IP address based on an IP-to-MAC
address mapping.

• True

• False

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following terms is used to describe a permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server?

• Scope

• Reservation

• DHCP relay

• Lease

Networked clients not residing on the same subnet as a DHCP server can still obtain an IP address from the server
through a DHCP relay agent (a.k.a. IP helper).

• True

• False

An IPv4 address consists of:

• 32 bits

• 48 bits

• 64 bits

• 128 bits

IPv4 addresses are expressed by using:

• Octagonal numbers

• Binary numbers

• Hexadecimal numbers

• Decimal numbers

An IPv6 address consists of:

• 32 bits

• 48 bits

• 64 bits

• 128 bits

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

IPv6 addresses are expressed by using:

• Decimal numbers

• Hexadecimal numbers

• Binary numbers

• Octagonal numbers

A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that one part of the address, containing only zeros, has been
compressed to make the address shorter.

• True

• False

Which of the following determines which network segment an IP address will belong to?

• Physical address

• Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

• Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

• Subnet mask

Which of the following is a networked device providing an entry point into another network or onto the Internet?

• Hub

• Switch

• Proxy server

• Default gateway

A system that uses a public network (such as the Internet) to create a private encrypted connection between
remote locations is called:

• WWAN

• VPN

• PAN

• VLAN

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which type of VPN enables connectivity between two networks?

• Point-to-point

• Site-to-site

• Remote-access

• Client-to-site

Which of the following is a dedicated device designed to manage encrypted connections established over an
untrusted network such as the Internet?

• VPN concentrator

• Proxy server

• Distributed switch

• UTM appliance

Which of the following VPN types is used to connect computers to a network? (Select 2 answers)

• Remote-access

• Client-to-site

• Site-to-site

• Point-to-point

An SSL VPN connection typically requires a dedicated VPN client application.

• True

• False

Which of the following terms describes a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they
were attached to the same broadcast domain, regardless of their physical location?

• VLAN

• DMZ

• SNMP community

• VPN

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Network Address Translation (NAT) provides an IP proxy between a private LAN and a public network such as the
Internet.

• True

• False

Using cable modems for Internet access within a standard cable television infrastructure is known as:

• Dial-up

• Cable broadband

• Frame relay

• Metro-Ethernet

Which of the following is the most common type of DSL Internet access?

• VDSL

• ADSL

• SDSL

• UDSL

Which of the following types of Internet access uses traditional analog telephone lines?

• WiMAX

• Ethernet

• Cable broadband

• Dial-up

Which of the following are characteristics of fiber-optic network cabling? (Select 3 answers)

• Immunity to electromagnetic interference

• Used for last-mile cable runs

• Less suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling

• High signal attenuation

• Limited bandwidth and maximum cable segment length in comparison to copper cabling

• More suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling

• Used for network backbone cabling

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

What are characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select 3 answers)

• High signal latency

• Lack of signal interference

• Cheaper in comparison to terrestrial links

• Interference (weather dependent)

• Low signal latency

• Relatively high cost in comparison to terrestrial links

Which of the following solutions enables simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network
services over a PSTN?

• VoIP

• WiMAX

• NFC

• ISDN

Which of the following WAN technologies uses cell towers that provide wireless signal coverage for mobile devices?

• WAP

• WWAN

• Satellite

• WLAN

Examples of tethering methods used in mobile Internet connection sharing include: (Select all that apply)

• Bluetooth

• DSL connection

• Wi-Fi

• Ethernet

• USB cable

The term "Mobile hotspot" refers to a type of WLAN that enables network access through a mobile device that acts
as a portable WAP.

• True

• False

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
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 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following is a long-distance line-of-sight Internet service?

• WiMAX

• IEEE 802.11

• IR

• Bluetooth

Which of the following is a network connecting computers within a small geographical area, such as within a single
building or between a group of buildings?

• PAN

• LAN

• MAN

• WAN

The Internet is an example of a large public WAN.

• True

• False

A computer network that connects multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is called a:

• PAN

• LAN

• MAN

• WAN

A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices is
known as:

• PAN

• LAN

• SAN

• MAN

In terms of its size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN.

• True

• False

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

A computer network connecting multiple LANs within a city or a campus is known as a:

• PAN

• LAN

• MAN

• WAN

A type of network topology in which each node directly connects to every other node is called a:

• Star

• Bus

• Mesh

• Ring

Which type of network topology provides the most redundancy?

• Ring

• Mesh

• Bus

• Star

Which wireless network type has a design that uses mesh topology?

• MAN

• WMN

• VLAN

• WAN

Which of the following tools should be used to attach an RJ-45 connector to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable?

• Wire cutters

• Cable stripper

• Needle-nose pliers

• Crimper

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following tools should be used to remove electrical insulation covers from electric wires?

• Needle-nose pliers

• Crimper

• Snips

• Cable stripper

Which of the following tools should be used to test power supply voltage output?

• Torx screwdriver

• Loopback plug

• Toner and probe kit

• Multimeter

Which of the following tools should be used to locate a cable in a cabling bundle, or to trace individual wires in a
cable?

• Spectrum analyzer

• Toner and probe kit

• Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR)

• Multimeter

What is the function of a Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR)?

• Finding breaks in copper network cables

• Locating the beginning and the end of a cable in a cabling bundle

• Checking network installation for compliance with TIA or ISO standards

• Finding breaks in fiber-optic network cables

An Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is a type of specialized cable tester that locates faults and breaks in
fiber-optic cabling.

• True

• False

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following are characteristic features of a signal that can be carried through a VGA cable? (Select 2
answers)

• Audio

• Video and audio

• Digital

• Video

• Analog

Which of the following interfaces can transmit both video and audio data? (Select 2 answers)

• S/PDIF

• DVI

• VGA

• HDMI

• DisplayPort

Which of the following are characteristic features of signals that can be carried through an HDMI cable? (Select 2
answers)

• Analog signal

• Video only

• Digital signal

• Audio only

• Video and audio

Which interface uses a 19-pin Type A connector?

• USB

• Thunderbolt

• FireWire

• DisplayPort

• HDMI

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following is a Mini-HDMI connector used with portable devices such as camcorders and digital
cameras?

• Type A

• Type B

• Type C

• Type D

DisplayPort allows for transmission of:

• Analog video

• Audio only

• Digital audio/video

• Video only

• Analog audio

Which of the following Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types does not support digital signal transmission?

• DVI-D

• DVI-A

• DVI-I

• DVI-A/D

Which of the following DVI connector types does not support analog signal transmission?

• DVI-D

• DVI-A

• DVI-I

• DVI-A/D

The DVI-I connector supports both digital and analog video signal transmissions.

• True

• False

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

Which of the following is a proprietary 8-pin power connector for iOS devices?

• Thunderbolt

• DisplayPort

• Molex

• Lightning

What are the characteristic features of Thunderbolt 1? (Select all that apply)

• Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps

• Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector

• Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable

• Support for up to 6 devices on a single port

• Data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps

• USB-C connector

Which of the following describe(s) Thunderbolt 2? (Select all that apply)

• USB-C connector

• Data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps

• Support for up to 6 devices on a single port

• Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable

• Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector

• Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps

Thunderbolt 3: (Select all that apply)

• Provides support for up to 6 devices on a single port

• Uses Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector

• Enables data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps

• Uses USB-C connector

• Enables data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps

• Provides the capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

What is the maximum allowable length for a Thunderbolt copper cable?

• Up to 3 meters

• Up to 6 meters

• Up to 10 meters

• Up to 15 meters

Fiber-optic Thunderbolt interfaces have a maximum cable length of:

• 30 meters

• 40 meters

• 50 meters

• 60 meters

USB version 1.1 specifies two data transfer rates: 1.5 Mbps (sometimes referred to as "Low Speed USB"), and 12
Mbps (also known as "Full Speed USB").

• True

• False

USB 2.0 (a.k.a. "High Speed USB") has a maximum data transfer rate of:

• 120 Mbps

• 240 Mbps

• 480 Mbps

• 960 Mbps

Which of the following apply to the USB 3.0 standard? (Select 3 answers)

• High Speed USB

• Backward compatibility with all preceding USB standards

• 3 Gbps data transfer rate

• Full Speed USB

• 5 Gbps data transfer rate

• SuperSpeed USB

• 10 Gbps data transfer rate

• No backward compatibility with the preceding USB standards

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

USB 3.1 offers an improvement over its predecessors by enabling a maximum data transfer rate of up to:

• 6 Gbps

• 10 Gbps

• 20 Gbps

• 40 Gbps

What is the maximum data transfer rate for USB 3.2?

• 10 Gbps

• 20 Gbps

• 30 Gbps

• 40 Gbps

Which of the following USB variants have a practical cable length limitation of 3 meters? (Select 2 answers)

• Low Speed USB

• Full Speed USB

• High Speed USB

• SuperSpeed USB

What is the maximum allowable cable length for both Full Speed USB and High Speed USB?

• 3 meters

• 4.5 meters

• 5 meters

• 10 meters

The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type A connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers)

• Target devices

• Devices that supply power

• Host devices

• Any type of device

• Devices that receive power

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)
 CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)

Mod 00 Apresentacao
Mod 02 Installing and Configuring PC Components

What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?

• 31

• 63

• 127

• 255

The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type B connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers)

• Target devices

• Devices that supply power

• Host devices

• Any type of device

• Devices that receive power

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
CompTia A+ (220-1001 and 220-1002)