BYJU's All India Mock Board Exams ICSE - X

BYJU’S‌‌All‌‌India‌‌Mock‌‌Board‌‌Exams‌ ‌
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ICSE‌‌Grade‌‌X‌‌-‌‌Term‌‌1 ‌ ‌
Mock‌‌Papers‌‌Set‌‌-1‌‌
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TABLE‌‌OF‌‌CONTENTS‌ ‌
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SAMPLE‌‌PAPERS‌ 2‌ ‌
MATHEMATICS‌ 3‌ ‌
PHYSICS‌ 14‌ ‌
CHEMISTRY‌ 26‌ ‌
BIOLOGY‌ 36‌ ‌
HISTORY‌‌&‌‌CIVICS‌ 45‌ ‌
GEOGRAPHY‌ 53‌ ‌
ANSWER‌‌KEYS‌ 73‌ ‌
SOLUTIONS‌ 80‌ ‌
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1‌ ‌
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SAMPLE‌‌PAPERS‌ ‌
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2‌ ‌
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MATHEMATICS‌ ‌
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Maximum‌‌Marks:‌‌40‌ ‌
Time‌‌allowed:‌‌One‌‌and‌‌a‌‌half‌‌hours‌‌(inclusive‌‌of‌‌reading‌‌time)‌ ‌
ALL‌‌QUESTIONS‌‌ARE‌‌COMPULSORY‌ ‌
The‌‌marks‌‌intended‌‌for‌‌questions‌‌are‌‌given‌‌in‌‌brackets‌‌[‌‌].‌ ‌
________________________________________________________‌ ‌
Select‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌option‌‌for‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions.‌ ‌
________________________________________________________‌ ‌
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SECTION‌‌I‌‌(16‌ ‌Marks)‌ ‌
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Question‌‌1 ‌‌ ‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌order‌‌of‌‌matrix‌ ‌(k‌‌is‌‌any‌‌real‌‌number)?‌ ‌
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A. 1‌‌x‌‌1‌ ‌ ‌
B. 3‌‌x‌‌1 ‌‌ ‌
C. 1‌‌x‌‌3‌ ‌
D. 2‌‌x‌‌1 ‌ ‌
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The‌‌
tax‌‌
invoice‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌company‌‌
shows‌‌
the‌‌
cost‌‌
of‌‌
services‌‌
provided‌‌
by‌‌ it‌‌
as‌‌
₹1,200.‌‌
If‌‌
the‌‌
rate‌‌
of‌‌

GST‌‌is‌‌18%,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌total‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bill‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. ₹216‌‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹1,216‌ ‌ ‌
C. ₹1,316‌‌ ‌ ‌
D. ₹1,416‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
3‌ ‌
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In‌‌
the‌‌
following‌‌ figure,‌‌
DE‌‌
is‌‌
parallel‌‌
to‌‌
BC,‌‌
AD‌‌
= ‌‌1 ‌‌cm,‌‌
BD‌‌
= ‌‌3 ‌‌cm,‌‌
and‌‌
BC‌‌
= ‌‌6 ‌‌cm.‌‌
The‌‌
length‌‌

of‌‌DE‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to:‌ ‌
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A. 1‌‌cm‌ ‌
B. 1.5‌‌cm‌‌
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C. 2‌‌cm‌ ‌
D. 2.5‌‌cm‌ ‌
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The‌‌fourth‌‌proportion‌‌of‌‌the‌‌numbers‌‌7,‌‌28,‌‌and‌‌4‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. 8‌ ‌ ‌
B. 12‌ ‌
C. 16‌ ‌
D. 20‌ ‌
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Reema‌ ‌deposited‌ ‌₹300‌ ‌per‌ ‌month‌ ‌for‌ ‌15‌ ‌months‌ ‌in‌ ‌a ‌ ‌bank's‌‌
recurring‌‌
deposit‌‌
account.‌‌
If‌‌
the‌‌

bank‌‌pays‌‌interest‌‌at‌‌the‌‌rate‌‌of‌‌10%‌‌per‌‌annum,‌‌the‌‌amount‌‌she‌‌gets‌‌on‌‌maturity‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. ₹300‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹3,800‌‌ ‌
C. ₹4,500‌ ‌
D. ₹4,800‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
4‌ ‌
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‌If‌‌x∈N,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌of‌‌the‌‌inequation‌1 − 2x < 5 ‌is:‌ ‌
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A. {-1,‌‌0,‌‌1,‌‌2,…}‌‌ ‌
B. {0,‌‌1,‌‌2,‌‌3,...}‌‌ ‌
C. {1,‌‌2,‌‌3,…}‌‌ ‌
D. {-2,‌‌-1,‌‌0,...}‌ ‌
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Find‌‌ the‌‌
sum‌‌ of‌‌ the‌‌
first‌‌
20‌‌ terms‌‌ of‌‌
an‌‌
arithmetic‌‌
progression‌‌
whose‌‌
first‌‌
term‌‌
is‌‌
5 ‌‌and‌‌
last‌‌
term‌‌

is‌‌295.‌ ‌
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A. 30‌ ‌ ‌
B. 300‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. 3,000‌ ‌ ‌
D. 30,000‌‌ ‌
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If‌‌the‌‌ratio‌‌between‌‌the‌‌corresponding‌‌sides‌‌of‌‌two‌‌similar‌‌triangles‌‌is‌‌4‌‌:‌‌5,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌ratio‌‌
between‌‌the‌‌areas‌‌of‌‌these‌‌triangles‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. 2‌‌:‌‌3 ‌ ‌
B. √4 : √5 ‌
C. 4‌‌:‌‌5 ‌ ‌
D. 16‌:‌‌‌25‌ ‌
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Question‌‌9
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The‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌representing‌‌the‌‌following‌‌number‌‌line‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 ≤ x ≤ 7 }‌ ‌
B. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 < x ≤ 7 }‌
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C. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 ≤ x < 7 }‌
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D. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 < x < 7 }‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
5‌ ‌
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Question‌‌10‌‌ ‌
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The‌‌roots‌‌of‌‌the‌‌quadratic‌‌equation‌‌2x2 + 6x + 7 = 0 ‌are‌‌
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A. Real‌‌and‌‌unequal‌ ‌
B. Real‌‌and‌‌equal‌‌ ‌
C. Imaginary‌ ‌ ‌
D. Cannot‌‌be‌‌determined‌ ‌
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If‌‌ ba = c
d ,‌‌‌then‌‌by‌‌using‌‌componendo‌‌and‌‌dividendo,‌‌find‌‌ 3a + 2b
3a − 2b . ‌
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3c − 2d
A. 3c + 2d ‌
3c + 2d
B. 3c − 2d ‌
3c + d
C. 3c − d ‌
c + 2d
D. c − 2d ‌
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If‌ (x − 2) ‌is‌‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌f (x) = x2 − 8x + 3k ,‌
‌then‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌k ‌is‌‌equal‌‌to:‌ ‌
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A. 1‌ ‌ ‌
B. 2‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. 3‌ ‌ ‌
D. 4‌ ‌
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The‌‌(n‌‌-‌‌1)‌th‌‌ ‌term‌‌of‌‌the‌‌A.P‌‌5,‌‌7,‌‌9,…‌‌is‌‌given‌‌by:‌ ‌
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A. 2n‌‌+‌‌1‌ ‌ ‌
B. n‌‌+‌‌1 ‌ ‌ ‌
C. 2n‌‌-‌‌1‌ ‌
D. n‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
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6‌ ‌
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If‌‌the‌‌roots‌‌of‌‌the‌‌quadratic‌‌equation‌‌x2 − 2x + k ‌are‌‌equal,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌‘‌k ’‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. -1‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌ ‌
C. 2‌ ‌
D. -2‌ ‌
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Two‌‌matrices‌‌A‌‌and‌‌B‌‌can‌‌be‌‌added‌‌only‌‌if:‌‌ ‌
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A. Number‌‌of‌‌columns‌‌of‌‌A‌‌=‌‌Number‌‌of‌‌columns‌‌of‌‌B ‌ ‌
B. Both‌‌are‌‌rectangular.‌‌ ‌
C. Both‌‌have‌‌the‌‌same‌‌order.‌ ‌
D. Number‌‌of‌‌rows‌‌of‌‌A‌‌=‌‌Number‌‌of‌‌columns‌‌of‌‌B ‌ ‌
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‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌are‌‌factors‌‌of‌‌the‌‌cubic‌‌polynomial,‌ ‌f (x) = 3x3 – 5x2 – 11x – 3 ?‌ ‌
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A. (x + 1), (x − 3), (x + 31 ) ‌ ‌
B. (x − 1), (x − 3), (x + 31 ) ‌ ‌
C. (x + 1), (x + 3), (x + 31 ) ‌
1
D. (x + 1), (x − 3), (x − 3 ) ‌
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SECTION‌‌II‌‌(12‌‌Marks)‌ ‌
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A‌‌company‌‌sells‌‌its‌‌television‌‌sets‌‌at‌‌a‌‌price‌‌that‌‌involves‌‌18%‌‌GST.‌‌If‌‌it‌‌sells‌‌TV‌‌sets‌‌across‌‌

states‌‌and‌‌the‌‌GST‌‌per‌‌set‌‌being‌‌collected‌‌is‌‌₹1,260,‌‌what‌‌would‌‌be‌‌the‌‌total‌‌amount‌‌charged‌‌
for‌‌each‌‌television‌‌set?‌ ‌
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A. ₹7,000‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹9,520‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. ₹8,260‌‌ ‌ ‌
D. ₹7,740‌ ‌
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7‌ ‌
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Malini‌‌opens‌‌a‌‌recurring‌‌deposit‌‌account‌‌and‌‌deposits‌‌₹600‌‌per‌‌month‌‌for‌‌5‌‌years.‌‌If‌‌the‌‌rate‌‌of‌‌

interest‌‌is‌‌8%‌‌per‌‌annum,‌‌the‌‌value‌‌she‌‌receives‌‌at‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌the‌‌maturity‌‌period‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. ₹43,320‌‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹‌‌43,330‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. ₹45,320‌‌ ‌ ‌
D. ₹45,330‌ ‌
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Question‌‌19‌‌
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The‌‌number‌‌line‌‌that‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌of‌‌the‌‌inequation‌‌− 8 ≤ 2x < 4; x ∈ R ‌is:‌ ‌
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A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
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The‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌of‌‌quadratic‌‌equation‌‌x2 + 2x − 63 = 0 is‌
‌represented‌‌by‌ ‌
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A. {7,‌‌9}‌ ‌
B. {-7,‌‌9}‌
C. {7,‌‌-9}‌
D. {-7,‌‌-9}‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
8‌ ‌
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What‌‌number‌‌must‌‌be‌‌added‌‌to‌‌each‌‌of‌‌13,‌‌25,‌‌69,‌‌and‌‌113‌‌so‌‌that‌‌they‌‌are‌‌in‌‌proportion?‌ ‌
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A. 10‌‌ ‌ ‌
B. 9‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. 8‌‌ ‌ ‌
D. 7‌ ‌
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Question‌‌22‌ ‌
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If‌‌27,‌‌24,‌‌21,...‌‌are‌‌in‌‌A.P‌‌and‌‌the‌‌sum‌‌of‌‌the‌‌first‌‌n‌‌terms‌‌is‌‌zero,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌n‌‌is:‌ ‌ ‌
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A. 27‌ ‌
B. 19‌ ‌
C. 24‌ ‌
D. 17‌ ‌
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SECTION‌‌III‌‌(12‌‌Marks)‌ ‌
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When‌‌a‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) = x3 + px + q ‌is‌‌divided‌‌by‌ (x − a) ,‌ ‌the‌‌remainder‌‌is‌‌f (a) .‌‌If‌‌the‌‌

remainder‌‌is‌‌zero,‌‌then‌‌(x − a) ‌is‌‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌the‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) .‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌If‌‌(x − 2) is‌ ‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) = x3 + px + q ,‌‌then,‌ ‌
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A. 2p − q = 8 ‌
B. 2p + q = − 8 ‌
C. 2p + q = 8 ‌
D. p + q = − 8 ‌
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(ii)‌‌If‌‌it‌‌is‌‌given‌‌that‌‌(x − 2) ‌and‌‌(x − 3) ‌are‌‌factors‌‌of‌‌the‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) ,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌
′p + q ’‌‌is:‌ ‌
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A. -11‌ ‌ ‌
B. -19‌ ‌
C. 11‌‌ ‌
D. 20‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
9‌ ‌
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(iii)‌‌If‌‌the‌‌given‌‌polynomial‌‌is‌‌divided‌‌by‌‌x2 − 1, ‌then‌‌it‌‌leaves‌‌the‌‌remainder‌‌as‌‌zero.‌‌Find‌‌q . ‌ ‌
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A. -2‌ ‌
B. -1‌ ‌
C. 1‌ ‌
D. 0‌ ‌
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(iv)‌‌If‌‌it‌‌is‌‌given‌‌that‌‌(x − 2) ‌and‌‌(x − 3) ‌are‌‌factors‌‌of‌‌the‌‌polynomial‌‌f(x),‌‌then‌‌its‌‌third‌‌factor‌‌is‌‌

given‌‌by:‌ ‌
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A. (x + 5) ‌
B. (x − 5) ‌
C. (x + 6) ‌
D. (x − 6) ‌
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In‌‌the‌‌given‌‌figure,‌‌AB,‌‌CD,‌‌and‌‌EF‌‌are‌‌parallel‌‌lines.‌‌If‌‌AB = 10 cm, EF = 15 cm, ‌AC = 6 cm, ‌
and‌‌C E = 21 cm ,‌‌then‌‌find‌‌the‌‌following:‌ ‌
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(i)‌‌C F ‌
‌
A. 10 cm ‌
B. 9 cm ‌
C. 8 cm ‌
D. 12 cm ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
10‌ ‌
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(ii)‌‌‌C D ‌
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A. 6 cm ‌
B. 2 cm ‌
C. 9 cm ‌
D. 5 cm ‌
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(iii)‌B C ‌
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A. 12 cm ‌
B. 14 cm ‌
C. 16 cm ‌
D. 18 cm ‌
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Area of ΔF BE
(iv)‌‌ Area of ΔDBC ‌
5
A. 2 ‌
B. 4‌ ‌
25
C. 4 ‌
25
D. 2 ‌
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‌
Let‌‌ ,‌‌ ,‌‌and‌‌ ‌

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(i)‌‌Find‌‌A2 . ‌
‌
A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
11‌ ‌
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(ii)‌‌Find‌‌AC .‌ ‌
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A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
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(iii)‌‌Find‌‌5B .‌ ‌
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A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
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(iv)‌‌Find‌‌A2 + AC − 5B .‌
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A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
12‌ ‌
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ICSE‌‌Grade‌‌X‌‌-‌‌Semester‌‌1 ‌ ‌
2021‌–‌2022‌ ‌
PHYSICS‌ ‌
‌
SCIENCE‌‌Paper‌‌–‌‌1 ‌ ‌
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Maximum‌‌Marks:‌4
‌ 0‌ ‌
Time‌‌allowed:‌‌One‌‌hour‌‌(inclusive‌‌of‌‌reading‌‌time)‌ ‌
The‌‌intended‌‌marks‌‌for‌‌questions‌‌or‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌questions‌‌are‌‌given‌‌in‌‌brackets‌‌[‌‌].‌ ‌
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Question‌‌1 ‌ ‌
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(a)‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement‌‌for‌‌a‌‌ray‌‌of‌‌light‌‌passing‌‌through‌‌a ‌‌ [1]‌ ‌

rectangular‌‌glass‌‌slab.‌ ‌
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A. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌parallel‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌inclined‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray.‌ ‌
C. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌coincides‌‌with‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray.‌ ‌
D. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌perpendicular‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray.‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
13‌ ‌
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(b)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌ray‌‌diagrams‌‌correctly‌‌depicts‌‌the‌‌refraction‌‌of‌‌
[1]‌ ‌
light‌‌from‌‌air‌‌to‌‌glass?‌ ‌
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(c)‌ ‌ Where‌‌will‌‌the‌‌image‌‌be‌‌formed‌‌for‌‌an‌‌object‌‌placed‌‌at‌‌25‌‌cm‌‌from‌‌the‌‌ [1]‌ ‌

optical‌‌centre‌‌of‌‌the‌‌convex‌‌lens,‌‌if‌‌the‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌is‌‌12.5‌‌

cm?‌ ‌
‌
A. At‌‌25‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌same‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌ ‌
B. At‌‌12.5‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌ ‌
C. At‌‌25‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌ ‌
D. At‌‌12.5‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌same‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌ ‌
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(d)‌ ‌ A‌‌ray‌‌of‌‌light‌‌passing‌‌from‌‌one‌‌medium‌‌to‌‌another‌‌will‌‌pass‌‌undeviated‌‌in‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌cases?‌ ‌
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A. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌45°.‌ ‌
B. Ray‌‌passes‌‌from‌‌a‌‌medium‌‌of‌‌higher‌‌optical‌‌density‌‌to‌‌a‌‌medium‌‌
of‌‌lower‌‌optical‌‌density.‌ ‌
C. Refractive‌‌index‌‌is‌‌the‌‌same‌‌for‌‌both‌‌mediums.‌ ‌
D. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌90°.‌ ‌
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(e)‌ ‌ The‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌glass‌‌with‌‌respect‌‌to‌‌water‌‌is‌‌1.125.‌‌If‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌ [2]‌ ‌

of‌‌light‌‌in‌‌glass‌‌is‌‌2‌‌×‌‌10‌8‌‌ ‌ms‌-1‌,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌absolute‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌water‌‌

is‌‌___.‌‌(speed‌‌of‌‌light‌‌=‌ ‌2‌‌×‌‌10‌8‌‌ ‌ms‌-1‌)‌ ‌
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A. 1.5‌ ‌
B. 1.7‌ ‌
C. 1.3‌ ‌
D. 1.9‌ ‌
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14‌ ‌
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(f)‌ ‌ An‌‌object‌‌is‌‌placed‌‌at‌‌a‌‌distance‌‌of‌‌20‌‌cm‌‌from‌‌the‌‌optical‌‌centre‌‌of‌‌a ‌‌ [4]‌ ‌

convex‌‌lens‌‌of‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌15‌‌cm,‌‌as‌‌shown‌‌in‌‌the‌‌figure.‌ ‌
‌ ‌
Answer‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions‌‌based‌‌on‌‌the‌‌given‌‌details.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (i)‌ ‌ What‌‌will‌‌happen‌‌to‌‌the‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌if‌‌we‌‌move‌‌the‌‌object‌‌
‌
away‌‌from‌‌the‌‌lens?‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌will‌‌increase.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌will‌‌first‌‌decrease‌‌and‌‌then‌‌
increase.‌ ‌
C. There‌‌will‌‌be‌‌no‌‌change‌‌in‌‌the‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image.‌‌ ‌
D. The‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌will‌‌decrease.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ If‌‌instead‌‌of‌‌this‌‌lens,‌‌we‌‌use‌‌a‌‌lens‌‌of‌‌twice‌‌the‌‌focal‌‌length,‌‌
‌
what‌‌effect‌‌will‌‌there‌‌be‌‌on‌‌the‌‌power‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens?‌ ‌
‌
A. Power‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌would‌‌increase‌‌by‌‌2‌‌times.‌ ‌
B. Power‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌would‌‌become‌‌half.‌ ‌
C. Power‌‌will‌‌not‌‌change.‌ ‌
D. Power‌‌will‌‌be‌‌squared.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iii)‌ ‌ If‌‌the‌‌object‌‌is‌‌placed‌‌at‌‌32‌‌cm‌‌from‌‌the‌‌lens,‌‌what‌‌will‌‌be‌‌the‌‌
‌
image‌‌position?‌ ‌
‌
A. At‌‌2F‌2‌ ‌
B. Between‌‌F2‌ ‌ ‌ ‌and‌‌2F‌2‌ ‌
C. At‌‌infinity‌ ‌
D. Beyond‌‌2F‌2‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
15‌ ‌
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‌ (iv)‌ ‌ What‌‌will‌‌be‌‌the‌‌characteristic‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌if‌‌the‌‌object‌‌is‌‌at‌‌32‌‌
‌
cm‌‌distance?‌ ‌
‌
A. Enlarged,‌‌real,‌‌and‌‌inverted‌ ‌
B. Enlarged,‌‌virtual,‌‌and‌‌erect‌ ‌
C. Diminished,‌‌real,‌‌and‌‌inverted‌ ‌
D. Same‌‌size,‌‌real,‌‌and‌‌inverted‌ ‌
‌
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(a)‌ ‌ The‌‌energy‌‌possessed‌‌by‌‌a‌‌body‌‌in‌‌a‌‌deformed‌‌state‌‌due‌‌to‌‌change‌‌in‌‌its‌‌
[1]‌ ‌
configuration‌‌(shape)‌‌is‌‌known‌‌as‌‌______.‌ ‌
‌
A. Vibrational‌‌kinetic‌‌energy‌ ‌
B. Gravitational‌‌potential‌‌energy‌ ‌
C. Elastic‌‌potential‌‌energy‌ ‌
D. Rotational‌‌kinetic‌‌energy‌ ‌
(b)‌ ‌ What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌relationship‌‌between‌‌the‌‌SI‌‌unit‌‌of‌‌power‌‌(watt)‌‌and‌‌the‌‌
[1]‌ ‌
C.G.S‌‌unit‌‌of‌‌power‌‌(erg‌‌s-1‌‌ )?‌ ‌
‌
A. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌6‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌
‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌7‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌
‌ ‌
C. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌10‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌
‌ ‌
D. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌12‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌
‌ ‌
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(c)‌ ‌ A‌‌monkey‌‌of‌‌mass‌‌10‌‌kg‌‌climbs‌‌up‌‌a‌‌10‌‌m‌‌rope‌‌in‌‌10‌‌s.‌‌Calculate‌‌the‌‌
[1]‌ ‌
2‌
power‌‌spent‌‌by‌‌the‌‌monkey‌‌(g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌ ).‌ ‌
‌
A. 20‌‌W ‌ ‌
B. 50‌‌W ‌ ‌
C. 100‌‌W ‌ ‌
D. 150‌‌W ‌ ‌
‌
(d)‌ ‌ Mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌and‌‌velocity‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌a‌‌first-class‌‌lever:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

‌
A. is‌‌always‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌1 ‌ ‌
B. can‌‌be‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌1‌‌or‌‌less‌‌than‌‌1‌‌or‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌1 ‌ ‌
C. is‌‌always‌‌less‌‌than‌‌1 ‌ ‌
D. can‌‌never‌‌be‌‌less‌‌than‌‌1 ‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
16‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌ ‌ [2]‌ ‌
(e)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌car‌ ‌of‌ ‌mass‌ ‌1,200‌ ‌kg‌ ‌is‌ ‌moving‌ ‌with‌ ‌a ‌ ‌uniform‌ ‌speed‌ ‌of‌ ‌10‌ ‌m/s.‌ ‌At‌‌

point‌ ‌P,‌ ‌it‌ ‌increases‌ ‌its‌ ‌speed‌ ‌to‌ ‌15‌ ‌m/s‌ ‌and‌ ‌moves‌ ‌with‌ ‌a ‌ ‌constant‌‌
speed.‌‌ At‌‌ point‌‌
Q,‌‌
the‌‌
car‌‌ throws‌‌ out‌‌ some‌‌ objects‌‌ of‌‌ a ‌‌total‌‌
mass‌‌ of‌‌
200‌‌
kg‌‌and‌‌maintains‌‌the‌‌previous‌‌speed.‌‌ ‌
‌
‌ (i)‌ ‌ ‌Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌
‌ ‌
‌
A. after‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌1,22,500‌‌J.‌ ‌
B. before‌‌P‌‌is‌‌1,35,000‌‌J.‌‌
‌
C. remains‌‌constant‌ ‌between‌‌P‌‌and‌‌Q.‌
D. at‌‌any‌‌point‌‌between‌‌P‌‌and‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌1,12,500‌‌J.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ The‌ ‌momentum‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌ ‌ ‌

‌
A. before‌‌point‌‌P‌‌is‌‌10,000‌‌kg.m/s.‌ ‌
B. after‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌18,000‌‌kg.m/s.‌ ‌
C. before‌‌point‌‌P‌‌and‌‌after‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌are‌‌equal.‌ ‌
D. at‌ ‌any‌ ‌point‌ ‌between‌ ‌point‌ ‌P ‌ ‌and‌ ‌point‌ ‌Q ‌ ‌is‌ ‌18,000‌‌

kg.m/s.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
17‌ ‌
‌
(f)‌ ‌ [4]‌ ‌
‌
‌
A‌ ‌ball‌ ‌falls‌ ‌from‌ ‌point‌ ‌A ‌ ‌to‌ ‌point‌ ‌B,‌ ‌as‌ ‌shown‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌figure.‌‌
Answer‌‌
the‌‌

following‌‌questions‌‌based‌‌on‌‌the‌‌given‌‌details.‌ ‌
(gravitational‌‌acceleration‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌)‌ ‌
‌
‌ (i)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌is‌‌correct?‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌=‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌B ‌ ‌
B. Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌>‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌B ‌ ‌
C. Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌<‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌B ‌ ‌
D. Sufficient‌‌data‌‌not‌‌available‌‌to‌‌compare‌‌the‌‌potential‌‌

energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌A‌‌and‌‌point‌‌B ‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ball‌‌at‌‌point‌‌B?‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. √100 ‌m/s‌ ‌
B. √10 m/s‌ ‌
C. √1 ‌m/s‌ ‌
D. None‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iii)‌ ‌ If‌‌the‌‌mass‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ball‌‌is‌‌10‌‌g,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌change‌‌in‌‌kinetic‌‌energy‌‌
‌
from‌‌point‌‌A‌‌to‌‌point‌‌B‌‌is‌ ‌
‌
A. 0.1‌‌J ‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌J ‌ ‌
C. 5‌‌J ‌ ‌
D. 100‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
18‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iv)‌ ‌ If‌‌C‌‌is‌‌the‌‌midpoint‌‌of‌‌AB‌‌and‌‌the‌‌mass‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ball‌‌is‌‌10‌‌g,‌‌the‌‌
‌
kinetic‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ball‌‌at‌‌C‌‌is‌ ‌
‌
A. 0.05‌‌J ‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌J ‌ ‌
C. 5‌‌J ‌ ‌
D. 100‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
(a)‌ ‌ For‌‌an‌‌ideal‌‌machine,‌‌mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌is‌‌numerically‌‌equal‌‌to:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

‌
A. Efficiency‌ ‌
B. Velocity‌‌ratio‌ ‌
C. Effort/Load‌ ‌
(b)‌ ‌ In‌‌a‌‌first-class‌‌lever,‌‌the‌‌load‌‌of‌‌12‌‌kgf‌‌is‌‌at‌‌a‌‌distance‌‌of‌‌1.5‌‌m‌‌from‌‌the‌‌
[1]‌ ‌
fulcrum,‌‌and‌‌the‌‌effort‌‌of‌‌9‌‌kgf‌‌is‌‌applied‌‌at‌‌some‌‌distance‌‌from‌‌the‌‌
fulcrum.‌‌At‌‌what‌‌minimum‌‌distance‌‌should‌‌the‌‌effort‌‌be‌‌applied‌‌to‌‌lift‌‌the‌‌
load?‌ ‌
‌
A. 1.2‌‌m ‌ ‌
B. 1.5‌‌m ‌ ‌
C. 2‌‌m ‌ ‌
D. 2.2‌‌m ‌ ‌
(c)‌ ‌ What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌for‌‌the‌‌given‌‌arrangement‌‌of‌‌
[1]‌ ‌
ideal‌‌pulleys?‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
A. 6‌ ‌
B. 8‌ ‌
C. 4‌ ‌
D. 2‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
19‌ ‌
‌
‌
(d)‌ ‌ A‌‌boy‌‌pulls‌‌up‌‌a‌‌box‌‌of‌‌1‌‌kg‌‌mass‌‌from‌‌5‌‌m‌‌to‌‌10‌‌m‌‌height.‌‌A‌‌girl‌‌further‌‌
[1]‌ ‌
pulls‌‌up‌‌the‌‌box‌‌from‌‌10‌‌m‌‌to‌‌20‌‌m‌‌height.‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌difference‌‌in‌‌the‌‌
amount‌‌of‌‌work‌‌done‌‌by‌‌the‌‌boy‌‌and‌‌the‌‌girl‌‌(g‌‌=‌‌10m/s‌2‌)?‌ ‌
‌
A. 100‌‌J ‌ ‌
B. 200‌‌J ‌ ‌
C. 50‌‌J ‌ ‌
D. 0‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
(e)‌ ‌ Why‌‌can't‌‌echoes‌‌be‌‌heard‌‌clearly‌‌in‌‌a‌‌small‌‌room?‌‌(Note:‌‌This‌‌question‌‌ [2]‌ ‌

can‌‌have‌‌multiple‌‌correct‌‌answers)‌ ‌
‌
A. Because‌‌small‌‌rooms‌‌absorb‌‌more‌‌sound‌ ‌
B. Because‌‌the‌‌time‌‌gap‌‌between‌‌direct‌‌sound‌‌and‌‌reflected‌‌sound‌‌
is‌‌too‌‌low‌‌to‌‌be‌‌perceptible‌‌by‌‌the‌‌human‌‌ear‌ ‌
C. Because‌‌small‌‌rooms‌‌reflect‌‌less‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌energy‌ ‌
D. Because‌‌the‌‌minimum‌‌distance‌‌required‌‌to‌‌hear‌‌an‌‌echo‌‌is‌‌17.2‌‌
m,‌‌which‌‌is‌‌larger‌‌than‌‌the‌‌dimension‌‌of‌‌the‌‌room‌ ‌
‌
(f)‌ ‌ A‌‌man‌‌is‌‌riding‌‌a‌‌vehicle‌‌towards‌‌a‌‌vertical‌‌cliff‌‌with‌‌a‌‌velocity‌‌of‌‌36‌‌km/h.‌‌
[4]‌ ‌
He‌‌fires‌‌a‌‌gunshot‌‌and‌‌hears‌‌its‌‌echo‌‌after‌‌4‌‌sec.‌‌The‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌sound‌‌in‌‌
air‌‌is‌‌320‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (i)‌ ‌ The‌‌distance‌‌between‌‌the‌‌cliff‌‌and‌‌the‌‌position,‌‌where‌‌he‌‌shot‌‌
‌
the‌‌gun‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. 640‌‌m ‌ ‌
B. 680‌‌m ‌ ‌
C. 620‌‌m ‌ ‌
D. 660‌‌m ‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ If‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌vehicle‌‌increases‌‌by‌‌4‌‌times,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌time‌‌
‌
taken‌‌to‌‌hear‌‌the‌‌echo‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. 11/3‌‌seconds‌ ‌
B. 10/3‌‌seconds‌ ‌
C. 3‌‌seconds‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
20‌ ‌
‌
‌
(a)‌ ‌ The‌‌power‌‌of‌‌a‌‌converging‌‌lens‌‌of‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌150‌‌cm‌‌is:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

‌
A. +0.66‌‌D ‌ ‌
B. +0.5‌‌D ‌ ‌
C. -0.66‌‌D ‌ ‌
D. -0.5‌‌D ‌ ‌
(b)‌ ‌ When‌‌an‌‌electric‌‌bulb‌‌glows:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

‌
A. light‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌heat‌‌and‌‌electrical‌‌energy.‌ ‌
B. heat‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌light‌‌and‌‌electrical‌‌energy.‌ ‌
C. electrical‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌heat‌‌and‌‌light‌‌energy.‌ ‌
D. electrical‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌heat‌‌energy‌‌only.‌ ‌
‌
(c)‌ ‌ [2]‌ ‌
‌
‌
The‌‌ highest‌‌
position‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌
bob‌‌
of‌‌
an‌‌
ideal‌‌
pendulum‌‌ is‌‌
5 ‌‌cm‌‌ higher‌‌
than‌‌

the‌‌lowest‌‌position.‌‌The‌‌mass‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌1‌‌g.(g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌)‌ ‌
‌ (i)‌ ‌ ‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statementS‌‌is‌‌correct?‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌maximum‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌3‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌maximum‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌1‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
C. The‌‌minimum‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌1‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
D. At‌‌ some‌‌ point‌‌
in‌‌
its‌‌
oscillation,‌‌
the‌‌
speed‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌
bob‌‌
is‌‌
3 ‌‌
m/s.‌ ‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌is‌‌incorrect?‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. Kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌is‌ ‌maximum‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌ ‌lowest‌ ‌point‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌

oscillation.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌total‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌0.0005‌‌J.‌ ‌
C. Potential‌ ‌energy‌ ‌is‌ ‌maximum‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌ ‌highest‌‌
point‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌

oscillation.‌ ‌
D. The‌‌total‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌0.05‌‌J.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
21‌ ‌
‌
(d)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌the‌‌condition‌‌for‌‌the‌‌occurrence‌‌of‌‌total‌‌internal‌ [2]‌ ‌

reflection?‌(‌ Note:‌‌This‌‌question‌‌can‌‌have‌‌multiple‌‌correct‌‌answers)‌ ‌
‌
A. Light‌‌travels‌‌from‌‌a‌‌rarer‌‌medium‌‌to‌‌a‌‌denser‌‌medium.‌ ‌
B. Light‌‌travels‌‌from‌‌denser‌‌medium‌‌to‌‌rarer‌‌medium.‌ ‌
C. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌the‌‌critical‌‌angle.‌ ‌
D. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌smaller‌‌than‌‌the‌‌critical‌‌angle.‌ ‌
‌
(e)‌ ‌ The‌‌diagram‌‌shows‌‌a‌‌ray‌‌of‌‌light‌‌passing‌‌through‌‌a‌‌total‌‌reflecting‌‌prism‌‌
[4]‌ ‌
with‌‌a‌‌critical‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌42°.‌ ‌
Observe‌‌the‌‌diagram‌‌and‌‌answer‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions:‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌ (i)‌ ‌ Why‌‌does‌‌the‌‌ray‌‌of‌‌light‌‌pass‌‌undeviated‌‌through‌‌the‌‌face‌‌AB‌‌
‌
of‌‌the‌‌prism?‌ ‌
‌
A. Because‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌light‌‌is‌‌constant‌ ‌
B. Because‌‌the‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌both‌‌the‌‌mediums‌‌is‌‌the‌‌

same‌ ‌
C. Because‌‌the‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌90°‌ ‌
D. Because‌‌the‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌0°‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ What‌‌angle‌‌does‌‌the‌‌ray‌‌QR‌‌make‌‌with‌‌the‌‌surface‌‌AC?‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. 30°‌ ‌
B. 45°‌ ‌
C. 60°‌ ‌
D. 75°‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
22‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iii)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌path‌‌of‌‌light‌‌after‌‌refraction‌ ‌ ‌
from‌‌the‌‌surface‌‌BC?‌ ‌
‌
A. ST‌1‌ ‌
B. ST‌2‌ ‌
C. ST‌3‌ ‌ ‌
D. ST‌4‌ ‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ (iv)‌ ‌ In‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌will‌‌there‌‌be‌‌a‌‌decrease‌‌in‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌ ‌ ‌
light?‌ ‌
‌
A. PQ‌‌to‌‌QR‌ ‌
B. QR‌‌to‌‌RS‌‌ ‌
C. RS‌‌to‌‌ST‌1‌‌ ‌
D. RS‌‌to‌‌ST‌2‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
23‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
ICSE‌‌SEMESTER‌‌1‌‌EXAMINATION‌ ‌
SPECIMEN‌‌QUESTION‌‌PAPER‌ ‌
CHEMISTRY‌ ‌
________________________________________________________‌ ‌
ALL‌‌QUESTIONS‌‌ARE‌‌COMPULSORY.‌ ‌
_______________________________________________________‌ ‌
________________________________________________________‌ ‌
‌
Two‌‌elements‌‌P‌‌and‌‌Q‌‌with‌‌atomic‌‌radii‌‌231‌‌pm‌‌and‌‌186‌‌pm,‌‌respectively,‌‌ [‌1]‌ ‌
belong‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌same‌ ‌group.‌ ‌If‌ ‌element‌ ‌P ‌ ‌belongs‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌4th‌ ‌period,‌ ‌which‌ ‌period‌‌

does‌‌element‌‌Q‌‌belong‌‌to?‌ ‌
‌
A. 3rd‌‌period‌ ‌
B. 4th‌‌period‌ ‌
C. 5th‌‌period‌ ‌
D. 6th‌‌period‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌electrodes‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y,‌‌respectively,‌‌in‌‌the‌‌image‌‌for‌‌the‌ ‌[1]‌‌

electrorefining‌‌of‌‌copper.‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. Copper,‌‌Platinum‌ ‌
B. Platinum,‌‌Copper‌ ‌
C. Platinum,‌‌Platinum‌ ‌
D. Copper,‌‌Copper‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
24‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌option‌‌that‌‌represents‌‌halogens‌‌and‌‌their‌‌position‌‌in‌‌the‌‌modern‌‌periodic‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
table.‌ ‌
‌
A. O,‌‌S,‌‌Se,‌‌Te‌‌[Group‌‌16]‌ ‌
B. F,‌‌Cl,‌‌Br,‌‌I‌‌[Group‌‌17]‌ ‌
C. N,‌‌O,‌‌S,‌‌F‌‌[Group‌‌17]‌ ‌
D. N,‌‌P,‌‌As,‌‌Sb‌‌[Group‌‌15]‌ ‌
‌
A‌‌compound‌‌contains‌‌20%‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌80%‌‌carbon‌‌(by‌‌mass).‌‌If‌‌the‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌of‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
the‌‌compound‌‌is‌‌15,‌‌calculate‌‌its‌‌molecular‌‌formula.‌ ‌
‌
A. C‌2‌H‌2‌ ‌
B. C‌2‌H‌6‌ ‌
C. C‌3‌H‌4‌ ‌
D. C‌6‌H‌6‌ ‌
‌
Dilute‌‌hydrochloric‌‌acid‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌calcium‌‌carbonate‌‌to‌‌produce‌‌a‌‌gas‌‌that‌‌turns‌‌moist‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
blue‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌red.‌‌Identify‌‌the‌‌gas.‌ ‌
‌
A. Cl‌2‌ ‌
B. CO‌2‌ ‌
C. CO‌ ‌
D. H‌2‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌salt‌‌solution‌‌can‌‌be‌‌used‌‌to‌‌distinguish‌‌between‌‌sodium‌‌hydroxide‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
and‌‌ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌solutions?‌ ‌
‌
A. FeCl‌3‌ ‌
B. CuCl‌2‌ ‌
C. ZnCO‌3‌ ‌
D. CaCl‌2‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌ion‌‌will‌‌be‌‌discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode‌‌during‌‌the‌‌electrolysis‌‌of‌‌aqueous‌‌NaCl‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
solution?‌ ‌
‌
A. H‌+‌‌ ‌
B. OH‌-‌ ‌
C. Cl‌-‌ ‌
D. Na‌+‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
25‌ ‌
‌
‌
Read‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements:‌‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
● Element‌‌P‌‌contains‌‌7‌‌valence‌‌electrons‌‌and‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌the‌‌3rd‌‌period.‌ ‌
● Element‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌the‌‌most‌‌electronegative‌‌element‌‌in‌‌the‌‌periodic‌‌table.‌ ‌
● Element‌‌R‌‌is‌‌a‌‌lustrous‌‌solid‌‌non-metal.‌ ‌
● Element‌‌S‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌the‌‌4th‌‌period‌‌and‌‌is‌‌a‌‌liquid‌‌non-metal.‌ ‌
‌
Arrange‌‌the‌‌elements‌‌in‌‌the‌‌increasing‌‌order‌‌of‌‌their‌‌electron‌‌affinity.‌ ‌
‌
A. P‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌R‌‌<‌‌S ‌ ‌
B. R‌‌<‌‌S‌‌<‌‌P‌‌<‌‌Q ‌ ‌
C. R‌‌<‌‌S‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌P ‌ ‌
D. S‌‌<‌‌R‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌P ‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌compound‌‌that‌‌contains‌‌only‌‌single‌‌covalent‌‌bonds‌‌is:‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. CCl‌4‌ ‌
B. C‌2‌H‌4‌ ‌
C. O‌2‌ ‌
D. N‌2‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌options‌‌is‌n
‌ ot‌‌‌correct‌‌about‌‌the‌‌anode‌‌in‌‌an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell?‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. It‌‌is‌‌connected‌‌to‌‌the‌‌positive‌‌terminal‌‌of‌‌the‌‌battery.‌ ‌
B. Anions‌‌present‌‌in‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌migrate‌‌to‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
C. Current‌‌enters‌‌into‌‌the‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell‌‌through‌‌the‌‌anode.‌‌ ‌
D. Reduction‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌at‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌best‌‌oxidising‌‌agent‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌would‌‌be:‌‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. F‌ ‌
B. H‌ ‌
C. O‌ ‌
D. N‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
26‌ ‌
‌
An‌‌ionic‌‌bond‌‌is‌‌formed‌‌between‌‌two‌‌elements‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y‌‌such‌‌that‌‌the‌‌formula‌‌
‌[1]‌ ‌
obtained‌‌is‌‌XY‌3‌.‌‌Determine‌‌the‌‌total‌‌number‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌transferred‌‌from‌‌X→Y.‌ ‌
‌
A. 1‌ ‌
B. 2‌ ‌
C. 3‌ ‌
D. 4‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌given‌‌table‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌observations‌‌recorded‌‌during‌‌an‌‌experiment‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
conducted‌‌between‌‌metal‌‌sulphates‌‌and‌‌caustic‌‌soda‌‌(excess).‌‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌ ‌
elements‌‌can‌‌form‌‌the‌‌hydroxide‌‌B?‌ ‌
‌
Metal‌‌hydroxide‌ ‌ Observation‌ ‌
A‌ ‌ Forms‌‌precipitate‌ ‌
B‌ ‌ No‌‌precipitate‌ ‌
‌
A. Zn‌ ‌
B. Cu‌ ‌
C. Ca‌ ‌
D. Fe‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌is‌‌not‌‌suitable‌‌for‌‌the‌‌manufacture‌‌of‌‌a‌‌container‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
required‌‌to‌‌store‌‌copper‌‌sulphate‌‌solution?‌ ‌
‌
A. Silver‌ ‌
B. Gold‌‌ ‌
C. Platinum‌ ‌
D. Iron‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌conversion‌‌of‌‌forms‌‌of‌‌energy‌‌in‌‌an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Heat‌‌→‌‌Light‌ ‌
B. Chemical‌‌→‌‌Electrical‌ ‌
C. Light‌‌→‌‌Heat‌ ‌
D. Electrical‌‌→‌‌Chemical‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
27‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌two‌‌groups‌‌in‌‌the‌‌modern‌‌periodic‌‌table‌‌are‌‌most‌‌likely‌‌to‌‌form‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
an‌‌ionic‌‌bond?‌ ‌
‌
A. Group‌‌IA‌‌and‌‌IIIA‌ ‌
B. Group‌‌VA‌‌and‌‌VIA‌ ‌
C. Group‌‌IVA‌‌and‌‌VA‌ ‌
D. Group‌‌IA‌‌and‌‌VIIA‌ ‌
‌
Determine‌‌the‌‌molecular‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌a‌‌compound‌‌having‌‌an‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
as‌‌A2‌
‌ B.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌given‌‌that‌‌the‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌its‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌weight.‌ ‌
‌
A. A‌4‌B‌2‌ ‌
B. A‌2‌B‌4‌ ‌
C. A‌3‌B‌6‌ ‌
D. A‌2‌B‌ ‌
‌
An‌‌ionic‌‌compound‌‌AB‌‌is‌‌electrolysed‌‌in‌‌its‌‌molten‌‌form.‌‌Which‌‌ion‌‌will‌‌be‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode?‌ ‌
‌
A. A‌+‌ ‌
B. A‌-‌ ‌
C. B‌+‌ ‌
D. B‌-‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌ionisation‌‌energy‌‌(in‌‌kJ‌‌mol‌-1‌)‌‌of‌‌some‌‌elements‌‌is‌‌given.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
● M‌‌→‌‌520‌ ‌
● N‌‌→‌‌498‌ ‌
● O‌‌→‌‌419‌ ‌
● P‌‌→‌‌403‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌these‌‌elements‌‌will‌‌undergo‌‌an‌‌oxidation‌‌reaction‌‌at‌‌the‌‌fastest‌‌rate?‌ ‌
‌
A. M‌ ‌
B. N‌ ‌
C. O‌ ‌
D. P‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
28‌ ‌
‌
For‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌compounds‌‌will‌‌the‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌be‌‌equal‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
to‌‌the‌‌molecular‌‌formula?‌ ‌
‌
A. H‌2‌O‌2‌ ‌
B. P‌2‌O‌5‌ ‌
C. B‌2‌H‌6‌
D. C‌2‌H‌4‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌is‌‌best‌‌suited‌‌to‌‌be‌‌used‌‌as‌‌a‌‌cathode‌‌in‌‌
‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell?‌ ‌
‌
A. Lithium‌ ‌
B. Aluminium‌ ‌
C. Boron‌ ‌
D. Potassium‌ ‌
‌
What‌‌will‌‌be‌‌the‌‌colour‌‌of‌‌the‌‌precipitate‌‌formed‌‌when‌‌zinc‌‌sulphate‌‌is‌‌treated‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
with‌‌excess‌‌ammonium‌‌hydroxide?‌
‌
A. White‌ ‌
B. Colourless‌ ‌
C. Blue‌ ‌
D. Green‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌atom‌‌of‌‌an‌‌element‌‌present‌‌in‌‌group‌‌VA‌‌of‌‌the‌‌modern‌‌periodic‌‌table‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
contains‌‌3‌‌shells.‌‌Find‌‌its‌‌valency‌‌and‌‌electronic‌‌configuration.‌ ‌
‌
A. 3,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌5)‌ ‌
B. 5,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌5)‌‌
‌
C. 3,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌3)‌ ‌
D. 5,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌3)‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
29‌ ‌
‌
Select‌‌the‌i‌ncorrect‌‌‌statement‌‌in‌‌terms‌‌of‌‌ionic‌‌and‌‌covalent‌‌bonds.‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌have‌‌high‌‌melting‌‌and‌‌boiling‌‌points.‌ ‌
B. In‌‌the‌‌aqueous‌‌state,‌‌ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌better‌‌conductors‌‌than‌‌covalent‌‌compounds.‌ ‌
C. Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌insoluble‌‌in‌‌water,‌‌while‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌highly‌‌soluble‌‌in‌‌
water.‌ ‌
D. Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌formed‌‌by‌‌the‌‌transfer‌‌of‌‌electrons,‌‌while‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌
formed‌‌by‌‌the‌‌sharing‌‌of‌‌electrons.‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌exhibits‌‌a‌‌diagonal‌‌relationship‌‌with‌‌beryllium?‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Sodium‌ ‌
B. Magnesium‌ ‌
C. Aluminium‌ ‌
D. Silicon‌ ‌
‌
Dry‌‌blue‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌turns‌‌red‌‌in‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of:‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. HCl(g)‌ ‌
B. NaOH(aq)‌ ‌
C. C‌6‌H‌6‌(aq)‌ ‌
D. H‌2‌CO‌3‌(aq)‌ ‌
‌
Electrolytic‌‌dissociation‌‌of‌‌AlCl‌3‌‌ ‌will‌‌produce:‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
+‌‌ -‌
A. AlCl‌2‌ ‌and‌‌Cl‌ ‌
B. AlCl‌+‌‌ ‌and‌‌2Cl‌-‌ ‌
C. Al‌3+‌and‌
‌
‌3Cl‌-‌ ‌ ‌
D. Al‌‌and‌‌Cl‌2‌ ‌
‌
A‌‌compound‌‌of‌‌carbon,‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌nitrogen‌‌contains‌‌these‌‌elements‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
in‌‌the‌‌ratio‌‌18:2:7.‌‌Calculate‌‌the‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌the‌‌compound.‌ ‌
‌
A. C‌3‌H‌4‌N‌ ‌
B. C‌2‌H‌3‌N‌ ‌
C. CH‌4‌N‌ ‌
D. CH‌2‌N‌2‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
30‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌colours‌‌correctly‌‌denotes‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌ferric‌‌ions‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
in‌‌a‌‌solution?‌ ‌
‌
A. Pale‌‌blue‌
B. Dirty‌‌green‌ ‌
C. Reddish-brown‌ ‌
D. Gelatinous‌‌white‌ ‌
‌
‌
Study‌‌the‌‌given‌‌information‌‌about‌‌atoms‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
‌ X‌ ‌ Y‌ ‌
Number‌‌of‌‌protons‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌
Number‌‌of‌‌neutrons‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌ 8‌ ‌
Period‌ ‌ 2‌ ‌ 2‌ ‌

‌
To‌‌which‌‌group‌‌does‌‌atom‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y‌‌belong?‌ ‌
‌
A. 8,‌‌7 ‌ ‌
B. 7,‌‌8 ‌ ‌
C. 15,‌‌15‌ ‌
D. 16,‌‌15‌ ‌
‌
‌ O‌+‌,‌‌respectively‌‌are:‌
The‌‌bonds‌‌involved‌‌in‌‌the‌‌formation‌‌of‌‌H2‌‌ O‌‌and‌‌H3‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Covalent‌‌and‌‌ionic‌ ‌
B. Ionic‌‌and‌‌covalent‌ ‌
C. Co-ordinate‌‌and‌‌covalent‌ ‌
D. Covalent‌‌and‌‌co-ordinate‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌of‌‌oxygen‌‌gas‌‌is:‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. 8‌ ‌
B. 16‌ ‌
C. 32‌ ‌
D. 64‌ ‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
31‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌pairs‌‌of‌‌oxidising‌‌and‌‌reducing‌‌agents,‌‌respectively.‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. MnO‌2‌,‌‌PbO‌2‌ ‌
B. O‌3‌,‌‌H2‌‌ S‌ ‌
C. Na,‌‌SnCl‌4‌ ‌
D. PbO‌2‌,‌‌O2‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Study‌‌the‌‌given‌‌reaction:‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
2Na(s)‌‌+‌‌2HCl(aq)‌‌→‌‌2NaCl(aq)‌‌+‌‌H2‌‌ (g)‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌most‌‌suitable‌‌indicator‌‌to‌‌determine‌‌the‌‌nature‌‌of‌‌the‌‌product‌‌formed.‌ ‌
‌
A. Phenolphthalein‌ ‌
B. Blue‌‌litmus‌ ‌
C. Red‌‌litmus‌ ‌
D. Universal‌‌indicator‌ ‌
‌
Determine‌‌the‌‌oxidation‌‌state‌‌and‌‌valency,‌‌respectively,‌‌of‌‌a‌‌sodium‌‌atom.‌‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. 0,‌‌0 ‌ ‌
B. 0,‌‌1 ‌ ‌
C. 1,‌‌0 ‌ ‌
D. 1,‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌metal‌‌oxides‌‌is‌‌not‌‌amphoteric‌‌in‌‌nature?‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. ZnO‌ ‌
B. CuO‌ ‌
C. Al‌2‌O‌3‌ ‌
D. PbO‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
32‌ ‌
‌
Answer‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions‌‌based‌‌on‌‌the‌‌understanding‌‌of‌‌ionic‌‌and‌‌covalent‌‌bonds.‌ ‌[4]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌W
‌ hich‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌compounds‌‌can‌‌be‌‌placed‌‌in‌‌the‌‌beaker‌‌to‌‌complete‌‌the‌‌circuit?‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. NaCl(aq)‌ ‌
B. NaOH(s)‌ ‌
C. CCl‌4‌(l)‌ ‌
D. C‌4‌H‌10‌(l)‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌ ‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌compounds‌‌will‌‌undergo‌‌the‌‌given‌‌dissociation‌‌reaction?‌ ‌
MX(aq)‌‌→‌‌M+‌ ‌ (aq)‌‌+‌‌X-‌‌(aq)‌ ‌
‌
A. ICl‌ ‌
B. NaH‌ ‌
C. CO‌ ‌
D. NO‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌general‌‌physical‌‌state‌‌in‌‌which‌‌ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌mostly‌‌found?‌ ‌
‌
A. Solid‌ ‌
B. Liquid‌
C. Gas‌ ‌
D. Plasma‌‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌The‌‌nature‌‌of‌‌the‌‌compound‌‌formed‌‌when‌‌hydrogen‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌lithium‌‌and‌‌chlorine,‌‌
respectively:‌ ‌
A. Ionic,‌‌Covalent‌ ‌
B. Covalent,‌‌Covalent‌ ‌
C. Covalent,‌‌Ionic‌ ‌
D. Ionic,‌‌Ionic‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
33‌ ‌
‌
‌
BIOLOGY‌ ‌
________________________________________________________‌ ‌
__________________________________________________‌ ‌
________________________________________________________‌ ‌
‌
SECTION‌‌I‌‌(15‌‌Marks)‌ ‌
Name‌‌the‌‌following‌‌by‌‌choosing‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌option:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌A‌‌pair‌‌of‌c‌ hromosomes‌‌that‌‌contain‌‌the‌‌same‌‌genes‌‌in‌‌the‌‌same‌‌order‌‌along‌‌their‌‌
chromosomal‌‌arms:‌ ‌
‌
A. Heterologous‌‌chromosomes‌ ‌
B. Parental‌‌chromosomes‌ ‌
C. Homologous‌‌chromosomes‌ ‌
D. Sister‌‌chromatids‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌The‌‌agent‌‌that‌‌can‌‌affect‌‌the‌‌rate‌‌of‌‌transpiration‌‌by‌‌the‌‌closure‌‌of‌‌stomata:‌ ‌
‌
A. O‌2‌ ‌
B. CO‌2‌ ‌
C. H‌2‌O‌ ‌
D. N‌2‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
34‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌The‌‌process‌‌by‌‌which‌‌molecules‌‌move‌‌from‌‌a‌‌region‌‌of‌‌higher‌‌concentration‌‌to‌‌a‌‌region‌‌of‌‌
lower‌‌concentration:‌ ‌
‌
A. Diffusion‌ ‌
B. Active‌‌transport‌ ‌
C. Imbibition‌ ‌
D. Osmosis‌ ‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌The‌‌primary‌‌constriction‌‌at‌‌the‌‌centre‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chromosome:‌ ‌
‌
A. Centrosome‌ ‌
B. Centromere‌ ‌
C. Centriole‌ ‌
D. Tetrad‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌ ‌A ‌ ‌plant‌ ‌is‌ ‌kept‌ ‌in‌ ‌a ‌ ‌dark‌ ‌closed‌ ‌room‌ ‌for‌ ‌48‌ ‌hours‌ ‌before‌ ‌conducting‌ ‌any‌ ‌experiment‌ ‌on‌‌
photosynthesis‌‌to‌‌remove:‌ ‌
‌
A. Protein‌ ‌
B. Starch‌ ‌
C. DNA‌ ‌
D. Carbon‌‌dioxide‌ ‌
‌
Complete‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌by‌‌choosing‌‌the‌‌appropriate‌‌option‌‌for‌‌each‌‌blank:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌Chiasmata‌‌formation‌‌is‌‌a‌‌characteristic‌‌feature‌‌of‌‌______.‌ ‌
‌
A. prophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
B. metaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
C. anaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
D. telophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌ ‌__________‌‌is‌‌an‌‌example‌‌of‌‌imbibition.‌ ‌
‌
A. Swelling‌‌of‌‌wooden‌‌doors‌ ‌
B. Opening‌‌of‌‌stomata‌ ‌
C. Uptake‌‌of‌‌water‌‌by‌‌root‌‌hair‌ ‌
D. Loss‌‌of‌‌water‌‌through‌‌hydathodes‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
35‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌The‌‌pressure‌‌required‌‌to‌‌prevent‌‌the‌‌entry‌‌of‌‌water‌‌into‌‌an‌‌osmotically‌‌active‌‌solution‌‌is‌‌
known‌‌as‌‌___________.‌ ‌
‌
A. turgor‌‌pressure‌ ‌
B. solvent‌‌pressure‌ ‌
C. solute‌‌pressure‌ ‌
D. osmotic‌‌pressure‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Guttation‌‌in‌‌plants‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌during‌‌___________.‌ ‌
‌
A. warm,‌‌humid‌‌nights‌ ‌
B. heavy‌‌rainy‌‌days‌ ‌
C. hot,‌‌sunny‌‌days‌ ‌
D. cold‌‌winter‌‌nights‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌The‌‌green‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌a‌‌variegated‌‌leaf‌‌contain‌‌_______‌‌molecules‌‌that‌‌produce‌‌starch.‌‌ ‌
‌
A. water‌ ‌
B. chlorophyll‌ ‌
C. carbon‌‌dioxide‌ ‌
D. sunlight‌ ‌
‌
Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌answer‌‌from‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌four‌‌options‌‌given‌‌below:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌state‌‌of‌‌a‌‌cell‌‌wall‌‌when‌‌it‌‌is‌‌rigid‌‌and‌‌stretched‌‌due‌‌to‌‌an‌‌increase‌‌in‌‌volume?‌ ‌
‌
A. Turgidity‌ ‌
B. Diffusion‌ ‌
C. Plasmolysis‌ ‌
D. Flaccidity‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌During‌‌anaphase,‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌pulls‌‌the‌‌chromosomes‌‌to‌‌the‌‌opposing‌‌poles?‌ ‌
‌
A. Nucleolus‌ ‌
B. Spindle‌‌fibres‌ ‌
C. Cell‌‌membrane‌ ‌
D. Centromere‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
36‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌What‌‌other‌‌substance,‌‌besides‌‌parchment‌‌paper,‌‌could‌‌be‌‌used‌‌as‌‌a‌‌semipermeable‌‌

membrane‌‌during‌‌osmosis?‌ ‌
‌
A. Animal‌‌bladder‌ ‌
B. Woollen‌‌cloth‌ ‌
C. Cotton‌‌cloth‌ ‌
D. Net‌‌mesh‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌What‌‌happens‌‌during‌‌the‌‌dark‌‌reaction‌‌of‌‌photosynthesis?‌ ‌
‌
A. Photolysis‌‌of‌‌water‌‌into‌‌oxygen‌‌and‌‌hydrogen‌ ‌
B. Formation‌‌of‌‌starch‌‌from‌‌the‌‌polymerisation‌‌of‌‌glucose‌ ‌
C. Reduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌to‌‌make‌‌ATP‌ ‌
D. Oxidation‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌to‌‌produce‌‌glucose‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌an‌‌alternative‌‌form‌‌of‌‌a‌‌specific‌‌gene?‌ ‌
‌
A. Chromatin‌‌fibre‌ ‌
B. Chromatid‌ ‌
C. Allele‌ ‌
D. DNA‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Explain‌‌the‌‌following‌‌terms:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌Osmosis:‌ ‌
‌
A. Transfer‌‌ of‌‌
solvent‌‌ molecules‌‌ from‌‌ a ‌‌region‌‌
of‌‌
lower‌‌
concentration‌‌
to‌‌
a ‌‌region‌‌ of‌‌
higher‌‌
concentration‌‌through‌‌a‌‌semipermeable‌‌membrane‌ ‌
B. Transfer‌‌ of‌‌
of‌‌
lower‌‌
concentration‌‌
to‌‌
higher‌‌
concentration‌‌without‌‌a‌‌semipermeable‌‌membrane‌ ‌
C. Movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌substances‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌higher‌ ‌concentration‌ ‌to‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌‌
concentration‌ ‌
D. Diffusion‌ ‌of‌ ‌substances‌ ‌through‌‌ a ‌‌semipermeable‌‌ membrane‌‌ against‌‌ the‌‌ concentration‌‌
gradient‌‌by‌‌the‌‌utilisation‌‌of‌‌energy‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
37‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Photolysis‌‌of‌‌water:‌ ‌
‌
A. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌oxygen‌‌in‌‌the‌‌absence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
B. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌ozone‌‌in‌‌the‌‌absence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
C. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌oxygen‌‌in‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
D. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌ozone‌‌in‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Law‌‌of‌‌segregation:‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌ ‌dominant‌ ‌trait‌ ‌is‌ ‌visible‌ ‌in‌‌ the‌‌
phenotype‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ organism‌‌ in‌‌ a ‌‌cross‌‌ between‌‌ pure‌‌

contrasting‌‌characteristics,‌‌whereas‌‌the‌‌recessive‌‌trait‌‌is‌‌hidden.‌ ‌
B. A‌‌group‌‌of‌‌genes‌‌(or‌‌more)‌‌is‌‌sorted‌‌into‌‌gametes‌‌in‌‌a‌‌completely‌‌unrelated‌‌manner.‌ ‌
C. Only‌‌ a ‌‌single‌‌ gene‌‌ copy‌‌ is‌‌
allocated‌‌ in‌‌
a ‌‌gamete‌‌ cell,‌‌ and‌‌ this‌‌ is‌‌ carried‌‌ out‌‌ in‌‌
a ‌‌random‌‌
manner.‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Guttation:‌ ‌
‌
A. Movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solvent‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌through‌ ‌a ‌ ‌selectively‌ ‌permeable‌ ‌membrane‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌‌
region‌‌of‌‌lower‌‌concentration‌‌to‌‌a‌‌region‌‌of‌‌higher‌‌concentration‌ ‌
B. Loss‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌‌ water‌‌ droplets‌‌ by‌‌ plants,‌‌ from‌‌ the‌‌ margins‌‌ of‌‌
their‌‌
leaves,‌‌
through‌‌special‌‌pores‌‌known‌‌as‌‌hydathodes‌ ‌
C. Same‌‌concentration‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌and‌‌solute‌‌on‌‌either‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌cell‌‌membrane‌ ‌
D. Movement‌‌ ‌of‌‌
molecules‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌substance‌‌ from‌‌ a ‌‌region‌‌ of‌‌ higher‌‌ concentration‌‌ to‌‌
a ‌‌region‌‌
of‌‌lower‌‌concentration‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Active‌‌transport:‌ ‌
‌
A. Forceful‌ ‌and‌ ‌inward‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solvent‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌‌
concentration‌‌ to‌‌
the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌
higher‌‌ concentration‌‌ through‌‌ a ‌‌living‌‌ cell‌‌
membrane‌‌ using‌‌
ATP‌ ‌
B. Spontaneous‌‌ movement‌‌ of‌‌
solvent‌‌ molecules‌‌ from‌‌ the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌ higher‌‌ concentration‌‌ to‌‌

the‌‌region‌‌of‌‌lower‌‌concentration‌‌through‌‌a‌‌living‌‌cell‌‌membrane‌‌without‌‌using‌‌ATP‌ ‌
C. Spontaneous‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solute‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌like‌ ‌ions‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌higher‌‌
the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌ lower‌‌ concentration‌‌ through‌‌ a ‌‌living‌‌ cell‌‌ membrane‌‌ without‌‌
using‌‌ATP‌ ‌
D. Forceful‌ ‌and‌ ‌inward‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solute‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌like‌ ‌ions‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌‌
the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌
ATP‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
38‌ ‌
‌
Question‌‌5‌ ‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
State‌‌the‌‌exact‌‌location‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following:‌‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌Chromosomes‌‌during‌‌metaphase:‌ ‌
‌
A. Move‌‌towards‌‌the‌‌poles‌ ‌
B. Disappear‌‌during‌‌metaphase‌ ‌
C. Lie‌‌along‌‌the‌‌equatorial‌‌plane‌ ‌
D. Scattered‌‌throughout‌‌the‌‌cell‌ ‌
‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Root‌‌hair:‌ ‌
‌
A. Outgrowths‌‌of‌‌epidermal‌‌cells‌ ‌
B. Outgrowths‌‌of‌‌xylem‌‌tissue‌ ‌
C. Outgrowths‌‌of‌‌stem‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Grana:‌ ‌
‌
A. In‌‌the‌‌inner‌‌membrane‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chloroplast‌‌
‌
B. Wall‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chloroplast‌‌ ‌
C. In‌‌the‌‌chlorophyll‌‌ ‌
D. In‌‌the‌‌stroma‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chloroplast‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Guard‌‌cells:‌ ‌
‌
A. More‌‌on‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌surface‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves‌ ‌
B. More‌‌on‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌surface‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves‌ ‌
C. On‌‌upper‌‌and‌‌lower‌‌surfaces‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves‌ ‌
D. None‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Spongy‌‌parenchyma:‌ ‌
‌
A. Between‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌and‌‌lower‌‌epidermis‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
B. Between‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌epidermis‌‌and‌‌palisade‌‌parenchyma‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
C. Between‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌epidermis‌‌and‌‌palisade‌‌parenchyma‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
D. Between‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌and‌‌lower‌‌epidermis‌‌of‌‌monocot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
39‌ ‌
‌
Question‌‌6‌ ‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
State‌‌the‌‌function‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following:‌‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌Dark‌‌reaction:‌ ‌
‌
A. Fixation‌‌and‌‌reduction‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌to‌‌make‌‌glucose‌ ‌
B. Conversion‌‌of‌‌water‌‌into‌‌oxygen‌‌to‌‌generate‌‌ATP‌ ‌
C. Reduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌to‌‌make‌‌light‌‌energy‌ ‌
D. Fixation‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌to‌‌make‌‌chemical‌‌energy‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Stomata:‌ ‌
‌
A. Absorption‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌from‌‌the‌‌atmosphere‌ ‌
B. Absorption‌‌of‌‌sunlight‌ ‌
C. Absorption‌‌of‌‌water‌‌from‌‌the‌‌soil‌‌through‌‌the‌‌roots‌
D. Exudation‌‌of‌‌water‌‌droplets‌ ‌
(iii)‌‌Xylem:‌ ‌
‌
A. Translocation‌‌of‌‌food‌‌from‌‌the‌‌leaves‌‌to‌‌the‌‌other‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌the‌‌plant‌ ‌
B. Storage‌‌of‌‌food‌‌synthesised‌‌in‌‌the‌‌leaves‌‌during‌‌photosynthesis‌ ‌
C. Conduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌from‌‌the‌‌other‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌the‌‌plant‌‌to‌‌the‌‌roots‌ ‌
D. Conduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌from‌‌the‌‌roots‌‌to‌‌the‌‌other‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌the‌‌plant‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Chromosomes:‌ ‌
‌
A. Involve‌‌in‌‌the‌‌synthesis‌‌of‌‌protein‌‌directly‌ ‌
B. Carry‌‌the‌‌genetic‌‌material‌ ‌
C. Serve‌‌as‌‌a‌‌food‌‌reservoir‌‌of‌‌the‌‌cell‌ ‌
D. Provide‌‌the‌‌site‌‌for‌‌cellular‌‌respiration‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Hydathodes:‌ ‌
‌
A. Help‌‌in‌‌the‌‌removal‌‌of‌‌water‌‌in‌‌the‌‌form‌‌of‌‌droplets‌‌along‌‌the‌‌margins‌‌of‌‌leaves‌‌of‌‌all‌‌

plants‌‌on‌‌humid‌‌mornings‌ ‌
B. Help‌‌in‌‌the‌‌removal‌‌of‌‌water‌‌in‌‌the‌‌form‌‌of‌‌droplets‌‌along‌‌the‌‌stems‌‌of‌‌all‌‌plants‌‌on‌‌

humid‌‌mornings‌ ‌
C. Help‌‌in‌‌the‌‌removal‌‌of‌‌water‌‌in‌‌the‌‌form‌‌of‌‌droplets‌‌along‌‌the‌‌stems‌‌of‌‌some‌‌plants‌‌on‌‌
D. Help‌‌in‌‌the‌‌removal‌‌of‌‌water‌‌in‌‌the‌‌form‌‌of‌‌droplets‌‌along‌‌the‌‌margins‌‌of‌‌leaves‌‌of‌‌some‌‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
40‌ ‌
‌
‌
Question‌‌7‌ [‌5]‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌diagram‌‌represents‌‌a‌‌stage‌‌during‌‌meiotic‌‌cell‌‌division.‌‌Answer‌‌the‌‌following‌‌

questions:‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌ ‌ ‌
‌
‌
(i)‌‌Identify‌‌the‌‌stage.‌ ‌
‌
A. Telophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
B. Prophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
C. Metaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
D. Anaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Label‌‌the‌‌part‌‌marked‌‌‘X’.‌ ‌
‌
A. Centriole‌ ‌
B. Centrosome‌ ‌
C. Centromere‌ ‌
D. Chiasma‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Name‌‌the‌‌stage‌‌that‌‌follows‌‌the‌‌one‌‌shown‌‌here.‌ ‌
‌
A. Interphase‌ ‌
B. Anaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
C. Telophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
D. Metaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌diploid‌‌number‌‌of‌‌chromosomes‌‌shown‌‌in‌‌the‌‌diagram?‌ ‌
‌
A. 6‌ ‌
B. 2‌ ‌
C. 4‌ ‌
D. 8‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
41‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌significance‌‌of‌‌this‌‌stage?‌ ‌
‌
A. Gene‌‌duplication‌ ‌
B. Gene‌‌isolation‌ ‌
C. Gene‌‌recombination‌ ‌
D. Gene‌‌repair‌ ‌
‌
Question‌‌8‌ ‌‌[5]‌ ‌
Observe‌‌the‌‌given‌‌diagram‌‌and‌‌answer‌‌the‌‌questions:‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(i)‌‌Name‌‌the‌‌physiological‌‌process‌‌that‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌in‌‌the‌‌given‌‌organelle.‌ [‌1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Photosynthesis‌ ‌
B. Imbibition‌ ‌
C. Diffusion‌ ‌
D. Transpiration‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Label‌‌the‌‌parts‌‌marked‌‌a,‌‌b,‌‌c,‌‌and‌‌d.‌ ‌[3]‌ ‌
‌
A. a.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌b.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌c.‌‌Grana‌ ‌d.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌ ‌
B. a.‌‌Grana‌ ‌b.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌c.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌d.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌ ‌
C. a.‌‌Grana‌ ‌b.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌c.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌d.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌ ‌
D. a.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌b.‌‌Grana‌ ‌c.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌d.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌ ‌
‌ ‌
(iii)‌‌Which‌‌phase‌‌of‌‌the‌‌mentioned‌‌physiological‌‌process‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌in‌‌the‌‌part‌‌labelled‌‌c?‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Dark‌‌reaction‌ ‌
B. Light‌‌reaction‌ ‌
C. Active‌‌transport‌ ‌
D. Osmosis‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
42‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
HISTORY‌‌&‌‌CIVICS‌ ‌
‌
Time‌‌Allowed:‌‌60‌‌minutes‌ ‌Maximum‌‌Marks:‌‌40‌ ‌
‌
Instructions:‌ ‌
1.‌‌All‌‌questions‌‌are‌‌compulsory.‌ ‌
2.‌‌The‌‌marks‌‌intended‌‌for‌‌questions‌‌are‌‌given‌‌in‌‌brackets.‌ ‌
3.‌‌Select‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌option‌‌for‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions.‌ ‌
4.‌‌Part‌‌I‌‌comprises‌‌20‌‌questions‌‌of‌‌1‌‌mark‌‌each.‌‌Part‌‌II‌‌comprises‌‌6‌‌questions‌‌of‌‌2‌‌marks‌‌each‌‌

and‌‌Part‌‌III‌‌comprises‌‌2‌‌questions‌‌of‌‌4‌‌marks‌‌each.‌ ‌
‌
Part‌‌I ‌ ‌
Q1‌ ‌ I‌dentify‌‌the‌‌system‌‌in‌‌which‌‌the‌‌legislature‌‌has‌‌two‌‌chambers.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
‌A.‌‌Unicameralism‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Bicameralism‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Tricameralism‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Quadricameralism‌ ‌
Q2‌ ‌ What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌current‌‌maximum‌‌strength‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
‌A.‌‌245‌‌members‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌250‌‌members‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌255‌‌members‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌260‌‌members‌ ‌
Q3‌ ‌ Elections‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌are‌‌conducted‌‌in‌‌territorial‌‌constituencies,‌‌wherein‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
the‌‌candidate‌‌with‌‌the‌‌highest‌‌number‌‌of‌‌votes‌‌in‌‌a‌‌constituency‌‌wins‌‌the‌‌

election.‌‌What‌‌is‌‌this‌‌system‌‌known‌‌as?‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌Proportional‌‌representation‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Referendum‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌First‌‌past‌‌the‌‌post‌‌system‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌None‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
43‌ ‌
‌
Q4‌ ‌ The‌‌allocation‌‌of‌‌seats‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌‌to‌‌different‌‌States‌‌and‌‌Union‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
Territories‌‌is‌‌mentioned‌‌in‌‌which‌‌schedule‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌Constitution?‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌First‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Second‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Third‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Fourth‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
Q5‌ ‌ Both‌‌the‌‌Union‌‌and‌‌State‌‌Governments‌‌have‌‌the‌‌power‌‌to‌‌make‌‌laws‌‌on‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
subjects‌‌mentioned‌‌in‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌lists?‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌Union‌‌List‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌State‌‌List‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Concurrent‌‌List‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Residuary‌‌List‌ ‌
Q6‌ ‌ Which‌‌chamber‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌‌can‌‌be‌‌dissolved‌‌by‌‌the‌‌President‌‌through‌‌a ‌‌ (1)‌ ‌

no-confidence‌‌motion?‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌and‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Neither‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌and‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
Q7‌ ‌ Who‌‌has‌‌the‌‌power‌‌to‌‌impeach‌‌the‌‌President‌‌of‌‌India?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
‌A.‌‌Chief‌‌Justice‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Supreme‌‌Court‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Chief‌‌Election‌‌Commissioner‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Speaker‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Parliament‌ ‌
Q8‌ ‌ If‌‌I‌‌am‌‌the‌‌Defence‌‌Minister‌‌and‌‌I‌‌introduce‌‌a‌‌Bill‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Parliament,‌‌what‌‌will‌‌it‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
be‌‌called?‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌A‌‌Public‌‌Bill‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌A‌‌Private‌‌Member’s‌‌Bill‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌A‌‌Service‌‌Bill‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌A‌‌Legal‌‌Bill‌ ‌
Q9‌ ‌ Identify‌‌the‌‌first‌‌session‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌‌in‌‌a‌‌calendar‌‌year.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
‌A.‌‌Winter‌‌Session‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Budget‌‌Session‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Monsoon‌‌Session‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
44‌ ‌
‌
Q10‌ ‌ If‌‌the‌‌strength‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌is‌‌550‌‌seats,‌‌what‌‌is‌‌the‌‌minimum‌‌number‌‌of‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
seats‌‌my‌‌party‌‌should‌‌win‌‌for‌‌me‌‌to‌‌be‌‌the‌‌Leader‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Opposition?‌ ‌
‌
A. 40‌ ‌
B. 45‌ ‌
C. 50‌ ‌
D. 55‌ ‌
‌
Q11‌ ‌ Who‌‌introduced‌‌an‌‌annexation‌‌policy‌‌called‌‌the‌‌Doctrine‌‌of‌‌Lapse?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
A. Lord‌‌Canning‌ ‌
B. Lord‌‌Dalhousie‌ ‌
C. Lord‌‌Linlithgow‌ ‌
D. Lord‌‌Mountbatten‌ ‌
Q12‌ ‌ The‌‌Lex‌‌Loci‌‌Act‌‌of‌‌1850‌‌allowed‌‌a‌‌____,‌‌who‌‌had‌‌converted‌‌to‌‌a‌‌different‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
faith,‌‌to‌‌inherit‌‌his‌‌ancestral‌‌property.‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. Christian‌ ‌ ‌
B. Hindu‌ ‌ ‌
C. Muslim‌ ‌
D. Adivasi‌ ‌
Q13‌ ‌ Which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌not‌‌a‌‌land‌‌revenue‌‌system‌‌introduced‌‌by‌‌the‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
British?‌ ‌
A. Permanent‌‌Settlement‌ ‌
B. Mahalwari‌‌Settlement‌ ‌
C. Ryotwari‌‌Settlement‌ ‌
D. General‌‌Service‌‌Enlistment‌‌Act‌ ‌
Q14‌ ‌ Who‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌passed‌‌the‌‌General‌‌Service‌‌Enlistment‌‌Act?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
A. Lord‌‌Mountbatten‌ ‌
B. Lord‌‌Linlithgow‌ ‌
C. Lord‌‌Canning‌ ‌
D. Lord‌‌Dalhousie‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
45‌ ‌
‌
Q15‌ ‌ The‌‌34th‌‌Regiment‌‌of‌‌Bengal‌‌Native‌‌Infantry‌‌of‌‌the‌‌British‌‌Army‌‌was‌‌stationed‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
at‌‌a‌‌garrison‌‌in‌‌____.‌ ‌
A. Mohanpur‌ ‌
B. Chak‌‌Kanthalia‌ ‌
C. Barrackpore‌ ‌
D. Patuliya‌ ‌
Q16‌ ‌ Who‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌was‌‌reinstated‌‌as‌‌the‌‌emperor‌‌after‌‌the‌‌sepoys‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
reached‌‌the‌‌Red‌‌Fort‌‌in‌‌Delhi?‌ ‌
A. Bahadur‌‌Shah‌‌II‌ ‌
B. Bakht‌‌Khan‌ ‌
C. Nana‌‌Saheb‌ ‌
D. Birjis‌‌Qadr‌ ‌
Q17‌ ‌ Which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌transferred‌‌all‌‌powers‌‌of‌‌the‌‌English‌‌East‌‌India‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
Company‌‌to‌‌the‌‌British‌‌Crown?‌ ‌
A. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1830‌ ‌
B. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1833‌ ‌
C. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1853‌ ‌
D. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1858‌ ‌
Q18‌ ‌ Which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌wars‌‌shattered‌‌the‌‌image‌‌that‌‌the‌‌British‌‌were‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
invincible?‌ ‌
A. First‌‌Afghan‌‌War‌ ‌
B. Crimean‌‌War‌ ‌
C. Opium‌‌War‌ ‌
D. Anglo-Persian‌‌War‌ ‌
Q19‌ ‌ Why‌‌did‌‌the‌‌British‌‌realise‌‌the‌‌urgent‌‌need‌‌of‌‌the‌‌support‌‌of‌‌Indians‌‌during‌‌the‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
Second‌‌World‌‌War?‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌British‌‌did‌‌not‌‌want‌‌to‌‌involve‌‌themselves‌‌in‌‌the‌‌war.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌British‌‌wanted‌‌to‌‌divert‌‌the‌‌attention‌‌of‌‌Indians.‌ ‌
C. Japan‌‌was‌‌aggressively‌‌winning‌‌Asian‌‌countries,‌‌and‌‌the‌‌British‌‌
anticipated‌‌an‌‌attack‌‌on‌‌India.‌ ‌
D. The‌‌British‌‌wanted‌‌to‌‌divide‌‌the‌‌Indians.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
46‌ ‌
‌
Q20‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌was‌‌not‌‌a‌‌part‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Proclamation‌‌of‌‌Queen‌‌Victoria‌‌in‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
1858?‌ ‌
A. Policy‌‌of‌‌non-intervention‌ ‌
B. Imperial‌‌Civil‌‌Services‌ ‌
C. Policy‌‌of‌‌intervention‌ ‌
D. Moral‌‌and‌‌material‌‌advancement‌‌of‌‌people‌ ‌
Part‌‌-‌‌II‌ ‌
‌
Q21‌ ‌ If‌‌I‌‌am‌‌a‌‌Member‌‌of‌‌Parliament,‌‌I‌‌can‌‌be‌‌disqualified‌‌under‌‌the‌‌anti-defection‌‌ (2)‌ ‌
law:‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌If‌‌I‌‌abstain‌‌from‌‌voting‌‌contrary‌‌to‌‌the‌‌order‌‌of‌‌my‌‌political‌‌party‌ ‌
B.‌‌If‌‌I‌‌vote‌‌in‌‌the‌‌House‌‌against‌‌my‌‌party’s‌‌orders‌ ‌
C.‌‌If‌‌I‌‌vote‌‌in‌‌the‌‌House‌‌as‌‌per‌‌my‌‌party’s‌‌orders‌ ‌
D.‌‌If‌‌I‌‌am‌‌an‌‌independent‌‌member‌‌and‌‌join‌‌a‌‌political‌‌party‌‌within‌‌six‌‌
months‌ ‌
Q22‌ ‌ If‌‌I‌‌am‌‌a‌‌Member‌‌of‌‌Parliament‌‌in‌‌the‌‌17th‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha,‌‌what‌‌parliamentary‌‌
(2)‌ ‌
privileges‌‌am‌‌I‌‌likely‌‌to‌‌enjoy?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Freedom‌‌of‌‌speech‌‌inside‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌ ‌
B.‌‌Freedom‌‌from‌‌arrest‌‌in‌‌civil‌‌cases‌ ‌
C.‌‌Freedom‌‌from‌‌jury‌‌service‌ ‌
D.‌‌Power‌‌to‌‌make‌‌rules‌‌of‌‌procedure‌ ‌
‌
Q23‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌option(s)‌‌is‌‌true‌‌about‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌ (2)‌ ‌

‌
A.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌permanent‌‌body.‌ ‌
B.‌‌One-third‌‌of‌‌its‌‌members‌‌retire‌‌every‌‌two‌‌years.‌ ‌
C.‌‌Elections‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌‌are‌‌conducted‌‌on‌‌the‌‌basis‌‌of‌‌proportional‌‌

representation.‌ ‌
D.‌‌A‌‌member‌‌of‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌‌serves‌‌for‌‌a‌‌term‌‌of‌‌five‌‌years.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
47‌ ‌
‌
Q24‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌developments‌‌can‌‌be‌‌attributed‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Swadeshi‌‌
‌(2)‌ ‌
Movement?‌ ‌
A. Development‌‌of‌‌large-scale‌‌chemical‌‌and‌‌pharmaceutical‌‌industries‌‌in‌‌
India‌ ‌
B. Competition‌‌against‌‌the‌‌monopoly‌‌of‌‌the‌‌British‌‌Indian‌‌Steam‌‌
Navigation‌‌Company‌ ‌
C. Permanent‌‌erosion‌‌of‌‌British‌‌textile‌‌and‌‌spices‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌market‌ ‌
D. Rise‌‌of‌‌local‌‌banking‌‌and‌‌insurance‌‌companies‌ ‌
Q25‌ ‌ Pick‌‌the‌‌names‌‌of‌‌the‌‌British‌‌officials‌‌behind‌‌the‌‌Morley–Minto‌‌Reforms‌‌from‌ ‌(2)‌ ‌

the‌‌following:‌ ‌
A. Secretary‌‌of‌‌State‌‌for‌‌India,‌‌Joseph‌‌Morley‌ ‌
B. Secretary‌‌of‌‌State‌‌for‌‌India,‌‌John‌‌Minto‌ ‌
C. Viceroy‌‌of‌‌India,‌‌Minto‌ ‌
D. Secretary‌‌of‌‌State‌‌for‌‌India,‌‌John‌‌Morley‌ ‌
Q26‌ ‌ Why‌‌did‌‌Gandhi‌‌support‌‌the‌‌Khilafat‌‌Movement?‌ ‌ ‌(2)‌ ‌
A. To‌‌establish‌‌a‌‌united‌‌Hindu–Muslim‌‌front‌ ‌
B. He‌w‌ as‌‌highly‌‌concerned‌‌about‌‌Turkey’s‌‌politics‌ ‌
C. To‌‌counter‌‌the‌‌effect‌‌of‌‌British‌‌policies,‌‌which‌‌were‌‌increasing‌‌

communal‌‌divisions‌ ‌
D. To‌‌stand‌‌in‌‌solidarity‌‌with‌‌the‌‌Ottoman‌‌Empire‌‌in‌‌exchange‌‌for‌‌their‌‌

support‌‌in‌‌the‌‌National‌‌Movement‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
48‌ ‌
‌
Part‌‌-‌‌III‌ ‌
‌
‌
Read‌‌the‌‌passage‌‌given‌‌below‌‌and‌‌answer‌‌the‌‌questions‌‌that‌‌follow.‌ ‌ ‌
Q27‌‌
‌
As‌‌
per‌‌ Article‌‌ 81‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌ Constitution,‌‌ the‌‌ composition‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ Lok‌‌
Sabha‌‌ should‌‌
represent‌ ‌changes‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌population‌ ‌of‌ ‌India.‌ ‌Thus,‌ ‌the‌ ‌ratio‌ ‌between‌ ‌the‌‌
number‌‌ of‌‌
seats‌‌ in‌‌
a ‌‌state‌‌ and‌‌ the‌‌ population‌‌ should‌‌ be‌‌ nearly‌‌ the‌‌
same‌‌ for‌‌
all‌‌

the‌‌ states,‌‌ such‌‌ that‌‌ every‌‌ state‌‌ in‌‌
India‌‌ is‌‌ equally‌‌ represented.‌‌ Smaller‌‌ states,‌‌
which‌‌ have‌‌ a ‌‌population‌‌ of‌‌
less‌‌ than‌‌ 60‌‌
lakh,‌‌ are‌‌
exempted‌‌ from‌‌
this‌‌
rule.‌‌ So,‌‌
as‌‌
the‌‌ population‌‌ of‌‌
India‌‌ increases,‌‌ the‌‌ strength‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ Lok‌‌ Sabha‌‌ should‌‌ also‌‌
increase.‌ ‌However,‌ ‌the‌ ‌strength‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌Lok‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌has‌ ‌remained‌‌ constant‌‌ as‌‌
the‌ ‌delimitation‌ ‌exercise,‌ ‌i.e.,‌ ‌a ‌ ‌process‌ ‌of‌ ‌redrawing‌‌ Lok‌‌ Sabha‌‌ boundaries,‌‌
was‌ ‌last‌ ‌completed‌ ‌in‌ ‌1976.‌ ‌There‌ ‌has‌ ‌been‌ ‌a ‌ ‌freeze‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌ ‌delimitation‌‌
exercise‌ ‌till‌ ‌2026.‌ ‌So,‌ ‌when‌ ‌the‌ ‌delimitation‌ ‌exercise‌ ‌would‌ ‌be‌ ‌carried‌‌ out‌‌ in‌‌

2026,‌‌ the‌‌ strength‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ Lok‌‌ Sabha‌‌ would‌‌ increase.‌‌ The‌‌ government‌‌ wants‌‌ to‌‌

build‌ ‌a ‌ ‌new‌ ‌Parliament‌ ‌complex‌ ‌to‌ ‌accommodate‌ ‌the‌ ‌MPs‌ ‌as‌ ‌the‌ ‌old‌‌
Parliament‌‌building‌‌would‌‌be‌‌insufficient‌‌to‌‌accommodate‌‌them.‌ ‌
What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌maximum‌‌strength‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌at‌‌present?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌(ⅰ)‌ ‌ ‌
A.‌‌550‌‌members‌ ‌
B.‌‌552‌‌members‌ ‌
C.‌‌545‌‌members‌ ‌
D.‌‌560‌‌members‌ ‌
‌(ⅱ)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌option(s)‌‌are‌‌true‌‌about‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌ (2)‌ ‌

‌
A. Maharashtra,‌‌ being‌‌
the‌‌
most‌‌ populous‌‌
state,‌‌ has‌‌
the‌‌
highest‌‌
number‌‌
of‌‌

representatives‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha.‌ ‌
B. A‌‌maximum‌‌of‌‌13‌‌seats‌‌are‌‌reserved‌‌for‌‌the‌‌Union‌‌Territories.‌ ‌
C. 84‌‌seats‌‌are‌‌reserved‌‌for‌‌the‌‌Scheduled‌‌Castes.‌ ‌
D. 47‌‌seats‌‌are‌‌reserved‌‌for‌‌the‌‌Scheduled‌‌Tribes.‌ ‌
‌(ⅲ)‌ To‌‌be‌‌a‌‌member‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha,‌‌you:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
A.‌‌Should‌‌be‌‌a‌‌citizen‌‌of‌‌India‌ ‌
B.‌‌Should‌‌not‌‌be‌‌insolvent‌ ‌
C.‌‌Should‌‌not‌‌hold‌‌an‌‌office‌‌of‌‌profit‌‌under‌‌the‌‌government‌ ‌
D.‌‌All‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
49‌ ‌
‌
Q28‌ ‌ The‌‌following‌‌questions‌‌are‌‌based‌‌on‌‌this‌‌case‌‌study.‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌(ⅰ)‌ ‌ ‌
In‌‌which‌‌year‌‌was‌‌the‌‌Simon‌‌Commission‌‌set‌‌up? ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌ ‌ ‌
‌ A. 1919 ‌ ‌ ‌
B. 1905‌ ‌
‌ ‌
C. 1935‌ ‌
‌ D. 1928‌ ‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌(ⅱ)‌ ‌ When‌‌the‌‌commission‌‌arrived‌‌in‌‌India,‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌did‌‌they‌‌aim‌‌to‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
‌ do? ‌ ‌ ‌
‌ ‌ ‌
‌ A. To‌‌evaluate‌‌the‌‌functioning‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1919 ‌ ‌
‌
‌ B. To‌‌discuss‌‌India’s‌‌partition‌ ‌
C. To‌‌discuss‌‌India’s‌‌independence‌ ‌ ‌
‌ ‌
D. To‌‌discuss‌‌the‌‌First‌‌World‌‌War‌‌with‌‌Indian‌‌leaders.‌ ‌
‌ (2)‌ ‌
‌
‌(ⅲ)‌ ‌
Why‌‌did‌‌the‌‌Indians‌‌protest‌‌against‌‌the‌‌Simon‌‌Commission? ‌ ‌
‌
A. They‌‌did‌‌not‌‌want‌‌independence‌‌immediately.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌Commission‌‌had‌‌only‌‌British‌‌members.‌ ‌
C. No‌‌Indians‌‌were‌‌included‌‌as‌‌members‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Commission.‌ ‌
D. They‌‌were‌‌against‌‌the‌‌Second‌‌World‌‌War.‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
50‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
GEOGRAPHY‌ ‌
‌
‌
Time‌‌Allowed:‌‌60‌‌minutes‌ M
‌ aximum‌‌Marks:‌‌40‌ ‌
‌
Instructions:‌ ‌
1.‌‌All‌‌questions‌‌are‌‌compulsory.‌‌ ‌
2.‌‌The‌‌marks‌‌intended‌‌for‌‌questions‌‌are‌‌given‌‌in‌‌brackets.‌ ‌

3.‌‌Select‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌option‌‌for‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions.‌‌ ‌
Part‌‌I ‌ ‌
Topography‌ ‌
Q1‌ ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
Give‌‌the‌‌six‌‌figure‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌of‌‌the‌‌hill‌‌with‌‌a‌‌spot‌‌height‌‌of‌‌280‌‌metres‌‌as‌‌

shown‌‌in‌‌the‌‌map.‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌879589‌ ‌
B.‌‌872591‌ ‌
C.‌‌872582‌ ‌
D.‌‌882582‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
51‌ ‌
‌
Q2‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
Name‌‌the‌‌feature‌‌represented‌‌in‌‌the‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌number:‌‌6131.‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌A‌‌delta‌‌with‌‌an‌‌area‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌square‌‌metres.‌ ‌
B.‌‌A‌‌town‌‌with‌‌a‌‌population‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌persons.‌
C.‌‌A‌‌hill‌‌with‌‌a‌‌triangulated‌‌height‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌metres.‌ ‌
D.‌‌A‌‌hill‌‌with‌‌a‌‌spot‌‌height‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌metres.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
52‌ ‌
‌
Q3‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
Ramnadi‌‌is‌‌a‌‌________‌‌bank‌‌tributary‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Kalinadi.‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Central‌ ‌
B.‌‌Right‌ ‌
C.‌‌Left‌ ‌
D.‌‌None‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌ ‌
Q4‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌contour‌‌feature‌‌represented‌‌here.‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌A‌‌conical‌‌hill‌ ‌
B.‌‌A‌‌plateau‌ ‌
C.‌‌A‌‌waterfall‌ ‌
D.‌‌A‌‌ridge‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
53‌ ‌
‌
Q5‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌area enclosed‌‌by‌‌Eastings‌‌81‌‌and‌‌82‌‌and‌‌Northings‌‌31‌‌and‌‌33?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌18km²‌ ‌
B.‌‌19km²‌ ‌
C.‌‌10km²‌ ‌
D.‌‌2km²‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
54‌ ‌
‌
Q6‌ ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌
What‌‌would‌‌be‌‌the‌‌distance‌‌between‌‌A‌‌and‌‌B‌‌when‌‌measured‌‌along‌‌the‌‌

route?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌3.65km‌ ‌
B.‌‌3.65m‌ ‌
C.‌‌5.65km‌ ‌
D.‌‌5.65m‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
55‌ ‌
‌
Q7‌ ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌feature‌‌represented‌‌in‌‌the‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌number:‌‌8030.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Metalled‌‌road‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Unmetalled‌‌road‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Cart‌‌track‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Broad-gauge‌‌railway‌‌line‌ ‌
‌ ‌ ‌
Q8‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌drainage‌‌pattern‌‌shown‌‌in‌‌the‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌number:‌‌7212.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Dendritic ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Radial‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Trellis‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
56‌ ‌
‌
Q9‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
The‌‌highlighted‌‌region‌‌indicated‌‌by‌‌B‌‌represents:‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Cultivable‌‌land‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Forest‌‌area‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Uncultivable‌‌land‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌River‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
57‌ ‌
‌
Q10‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌type‌‌of‌‌settlement.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Scattered‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Nucleated‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Linear‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
58‌ ‌
‌
‌Part‌‌II‌ ‌
‌
Q11‌ ‌ Arrange‌‌the‌‌following‌‌layer‌‌of‌‌evergreen‌‌forest‌‌in‌‌an‌‌order‌‌from‌‌top‌‌to‌‌bottom.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌1.‌‌Emergent‌‌layer‌ ‌
‌2.‌‌Canopy‌ ‌
‌3.‌‌Understorey‌ ‌
‌4.‌‌Shrub‌‌layer‌ ‌
‌5.‌‌Forest‌‌floor‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌1-->3-->2-->4-->5‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌1-->2-->3-->4-->5‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌1-->2-->4-->3-->5‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌4-->2-->3-->1-->5‌ ‌
Q12‌ ‌ With‌‌respect‌‌to‌‌tropical‌‌deciduous‌‌forest,‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
is/are‌‌right?‌ ‌
‌
1. This‌‌type‌‌of‌‌forest‌‌is‌‌widespread‌‌in‌‌montane‌‌regions.‌ ‌
2. They‌‌spread‌‌over‌‌regions‌‌which‌‌receive‌‌very‌‌low‌‌rainfall.‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌Only‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Only‌‌2 ‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2 ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Neither‌‌1‌‌nor‌‌2 ‌ ‌
Q13‌ ‌ Photoperiod‌‌is‌‌an‌‌important‌‌aspect‌‌that‌‌affects‌‌the‌‌type‌‌of‌‌vegetation‌‌found‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
‌ in‌‌a‌‌place.‌‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌describes‌‌photoperiod.‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌the‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌plants‌‌pause‌‌their‌‌photosynthesis‌ ‌ ‌
‌process‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌the‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌plants‌‌shed‌‌their‌‌leaves‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌the‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌plants‌‌receive‌‌sunlight‌‌during‌‌the‌‌day.‌‌
‌
‌D.‌‌None‌‌of‌‌above‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
59‌ ‌
‌
Q14‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌regarding‌‌biodiversity‌‌of‌‌flora‌‌and‌‌fauna‌‌in‌‌ (1)‌ ‌

India:‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌India‌‌has‌‌a‌‌huge‌‌biodiversity‌‌of‌‌flora,‌‌but‌‌it‌‌lacks‌‌diversity‌‌in‌‌terms‌‌of‌ ‌ ‌
‌fauna.‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌India's‌‌biodiversity‌‌increased‌‌rapidly‌‌during‌‌colonial‌‌times.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌India‌‌has‌‌a‌‌huge‌‌biodiversity‌‌in‌‌terms‌‌of‌‌both‌‌flora‌‌and‌‌fauna.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌All‌‌above‌‌are‌‌true‌ ‌
‌
‌Identify‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement.‌ ‌
Q15‌ ‌ Why‌‌are‌‌tank‌‌irrigation‌‌systems‌‌considered‌‌non-perennial?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
‌A.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌fed‌‌by‌‌non-perennial‌‌rivers‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Not‌‌suitable‌‌for‌‌perennial‌‌crops‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Rain-fed‌‌nature‌ ‌
Q16‌ ‌ Which‌‌quantitative‌‌aspect‌‌is‌‌responsible‌‌for‌‌water‌‌scarcity?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
‌A.‌‌Overexploitation‌‌of‌‌water‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Rainwater‌‌Harvesting‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Water‌‌pollution‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌None‌‌of‌‌Above‌ ‌
Q17‌ ‌ 1. El‌‌Nino‌‌is‌‌characterised‌‌by‌‌warm‌‌ocean‌‌surface‌‌waters‌‌near‌‌the‌‌coast‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
of‌‌Peru.‌ ‌
2. El‌‌Nino‌‌causes‌‌lower‌‌than‌‌normal‌‌monsoon‌‌rainfall‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌
Read‌‌the‌‌above‌‌given‌‌statements‌‌carefully‌‌and‌‌select‌‌the‌‌option‌‌that‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Statement‌‌1‌‌is‌‌correct.‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Statement‌‌2‌‌is‌‌correct.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌statements‌‌are‌‌correct.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Both‌‌statements‌‌are‌‌false.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
60‌ ‌
‌
Q18‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌given‌‌pair(s)‌‌is/are‌‌correctly‌‌matched? ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌Phases‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌ ‌ ‌Characteristics‌ ‌
Withdrawal‌‌of‌‌Easterly‌‌Jet‌‌Stream‌‌from‌‌the‌‌Northern‌ ‌
1.‌‌Onset‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌ ‌ Plains‌‌of‌‌India.‌ ‌
2.‌‌Break‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌ ‌ October‌‌heat‌‌phenomenon.‌ ‌
3.‌‌Retreat‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌ ‌ Clear‌‌skies‌‌and‌‌rise‌‌in‌‌temperature.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌1‌‌and‌‌3‌‌only‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌2‌‌and‌‌3‌‌only‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌3‌‌only‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌2‌‌only‌ ‌
Q19‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌1.‌‌Delhi‌‌generally‌‌receives‌‌monsoon‌‌showers‌‌from‌‌the‌‌Bay‌‌of‌‌Bengal‌‌ ‌
‌branch‌‌of‌‌monsoon.‌ ‌
‌2.‌‌Monsoon‌‌winds‌‌come‌‌from‌‌the‌‌North-west‌‌direction‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌3.‌‌Withdrawal‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌‌is‌‌a‌‌rapid‌‌process‌‌all‌‌over‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌4.‌‌During‌‌winter,‌‌some‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌rainfall‌‌occurs‌‌on‌‌the‌‌Tamil‌‌Nadu‌‌coast‌‌ ‌
‌due‌‌to‌‌northeast‌‌trade‌‌winds.‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌‌given‌‌statement(s)‌‌is/are‌‌correct?‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌Only‌‌1‌‌and‌‌4 ‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Only‌‌2 ‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Only‌‌1,‌‌2,‌‌and‌‌4 ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Only‌‌2‌‌and‌‌4 ‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
61‌ ‌
‌
Q20‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌about‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌monsoon:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
1. India‌‌receives‌‌most‌‌of‌‌its‌‌rainfall‌‌during‌‌the‌‌advancing‌‌monsoon‌‌
season.‌ ‌
2. Kerala‌‌is‌‌the‌‌first‌‌state‌‌on‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌mainland‌‌to‌‌receive‌‌rainfall‌‌during‌‌

the‌‌advancing‌‌monsoon‌‌season.‌ ‌
‌A.‌‌Statement‌‌1‌‌is‌‌correct.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌Statements‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌correct.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Both‌‌Statements‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌incorrect.‌ ‌
‌
Q21‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌not‌‌a‌‌characteristic‌‌associated‌‌with‌‌climatic‌‌controls?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Temperature‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Humidity‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Precipitation‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Landform‌ ‌
Q22‌ ‌ What‌‌do‌‌you‌‌understand‌‌by‌‌the‌‌term‌‌retreating‌‌monsoon?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌entering‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌start‌‌of‌‌winter.‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌leaving‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌the‌‌monsoon‌‌ ‌
‌season.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌entering‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌summer.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌leaving‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌start‌‌of‌‌summer.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
62‌ ‌
‌
Q23‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
For‌‌a‌‌normal‌‌monsoon‌‌season‌‌in‌‌India,‌‌which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌conditions‌‌
facilitates‌‌the‌‌movement‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌from‌‌the‌‌ocean‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌land?‌ ‌
1. Presence‌‌of‌‌high‌‌pressure‌‌conditions‌‌around‌‌the‌‌island‌‌of‌‌Madagascar.‌ ‌
2. Intense‌‌heating‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Tibetan‌‌plateau,‌‌resulting‌‌in‌‌low‌‌pressure‌‌

conditions‌‌over‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌mainland.‌ ‌
A
‌D.‌‌Both‌‌statements‌‌are‌‌incorrect.‌ ‌
Q24‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statements‌‌with‌‌reference‌‌to‌‌monsoon‌‌troughs.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌1.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌zone‌‌of‌‌low-pressure‌‌located‌‌just‌‌below‌‌the‌‌ITCZ‌‌in‌‌summer‌‌in‌ ‌ ‌
‌India.‌ ‌
‌2.‌‌ITCZ‌‌helps‌‌in‌‌attracting‌‌the‌‌southwest‌‌monsoon‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌ ‌
‌subcontinent.‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Only‌‌statement‌‌1‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Only‌‌statement‌‌2‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌statements‌‌are‌‌true.‌ ‌
Q25‌ ‌ Which‌‌is‌‌the‌‌most‌‌widely‌‌used‌‌type‌‌of‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌‌in‌‌India?‌‌
‌ (1)‌ ‌
A. Drip‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
B. Sprinkler‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
C. Tube‌‌well‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
D. Canal‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
63‌ ‌
‌
Q26‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statements‌‌regarding‌‌monsoon‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
1. Every‌‌region‌‌in‌‌India‌‌receives‌‌rainfall‌‌from‌‌June‌‌to‌‌September.‌ ‌
2. Monsoon‌‌is‌‌the‌‌climate‌‌associated‌‌with‌‌a‌‌seasonal‌‌reversal‌‌in‌‌direction‌‌

of‌‌winds.‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Only‌‌1‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Both‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌false.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌true.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌1‌‌is‌‌false‌‌and‌‌2‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
Q27‌ ‌ Match‌‌the‌‌following.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

‌
‌
‌ Location‌ ‌ Annual‌‌rainfall‌‌(in‌‌cm)‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ a)‌‌Bengaluru‌ ‌ 1)‌‌225.3‌‌cm‌‌(Very‌‌high‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ b)‌‌Shillong‌ ‌ 2)‌‌88.9‌‌cm‌‌(Low‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
c)‌‌Mumbai‌ ‌ 3)‌‌8.5‌‌cm‌‌(Very‌‌low‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
d)‌‌Leh‌ ‌ 4)‌‌183.4‌‌cm‌‌(High‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌a‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌a‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌a‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌3 ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌a‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
64‌ ‌
‌
Q28‌ ‌ Match‌‌the‌‌following:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
1)‌‌Equatorial‌‌regions‌ ‌ a)‌‌Cold‌‌climate‌ ‌
2)‌‌Polar‌‌regions‌ ‌ b)‌‌Hot‌‌climate‌ ‌
3)‌‌Retreating‌‌monsoon‌ ‌ c)‌‌Early‌‌June‌‌to‌‌mid-September‌ ‌
4)‌‌Advancing‌‌monsoon ‌ ‌ d)‌‌October‌‌to‌‌November‌ ‌

‌
‌A.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌b,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌c,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌d ‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌d,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌c,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌b,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌a ‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌b,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌d,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌c ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌d,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌c ‌ ‌
Q29‌ ‌ The‌‌following‌‌events‌‌can‌‌be‌‌noticed‌‌in‌‌which‌‌season? ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
1. The‌‌Northern‌‌Hemisphere‌‌is‌‌oriented‌‌away‌‌from‌‌the‌‌sun.‌ ‌
‌ f‌‌northeast‌‌trade‌‌winds.‌ ‌
2. Origin‌o
3. A‌‌high-pressure‌‌region‌‌develops‌‌over‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌subcontinent.‌
‌ .‌‌Summer‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Winter‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Rainy‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Both‌‌(A)‌‌and‌‌(C)‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
65‌ ‌
‌
Q30‌ ‌ The‌‌climate‌‌of‌‌India‌‌has‌‌been‌‌described‌‌as‌‌: ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Tundra‌‌type‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Desert‌‌type‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Mediterranean‌‌type‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Monsoon‌‌type‌ ‌
Q31‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌N
‌ OT‌‌‌true‌‌with‌‌regard‌‌to‌‌laterite‌‌soil?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
A. Laterite‌‌soil‌‌develops‌‌under‌‌tropical‌‌and‌‌subtropical‌‌climates‌‌with‌‌
alternate‌‌wet‌‌and‌‌dry‌‌seasons.‌ ‌
B. Heavy‌‌rainfall‌‌causes‌‌leaching‌‌of‌‌silica‌‌and‌‌lime,‌‌while‌‌iron‌‌oxide‌‌and‌‌

aluminium‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌left‌‌behind.‌ ‌
C. It‌‌is‌‌very‌‌fertile‌‌and‌‌supports‌‌a‌‌wide‌‌variety‌‌of‌‌crops.‌ ‌
D. It‌‌is‌‌deficient‌‌in‌‌humus‌‌content.‌ ‌
Q32‌ ‌ There‌‌are‌‌certain‌‌methods‌‌to‌‌conserve‌‌soil‌‌in‌‌plain‌‌areas‌‌as‌‌we‌‌do‌‌on‌‌hill‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
slopes,‌‌mulching‌‌is‌‌one‌‌of‌‌them.‌‌In‌‌this‌‌context,‌‌choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement‌‌

which‌‌explains‌‌the‌‌process‌‌of‌‌‘mulching’.‌ ‌
A. Carving‌‌broad‌‌flat‌‌steps‌‌along‌‌steep‌‌slopes‌‌to‌‌reduce‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌running‌‌
water‌‌
‌
B. Digging‌‌trenches‌‌in‌‌front‌‌of‌‌man-made‌‌barriers‌‌to‌‌collect‌‌water‌‌and‌‌
arrest‌‌soil‌‌erosion‌ ‌
C. Planting‌‌strips‌‌of‌‌grass‌‌in‌‌between‌‌crops‌‌to‌‌break‌‌the‌‌flow‌‌of‌‌wind‌ ‌
D. Covering‌‌of‌‌soil‌‌with‌‌organic‌‌matter‌‌to‌‌help‌‌in‌‌moisture‌‌retention‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
66‌ ‌
‌
Q33‌ ‌ Cotton‌‌is‌‌a‌‌crop‌‌that‌‌requires‌‌the‌‌following‌‌conditions‌‌to‌‌be‌‌grown:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Ample‌‌sunshine‌‌with‌‌fairly‌‌dry‌‌conditions. ‌ ‌
1
‌2.‌‌Nutrient-rich‌‌soil.‌ ‌
‌3.‌‌Soil‌‌which‌‌is‌‌well‌‌aerated.‌ ‌
‌4.‌‌Soil‌‌which‌‌can‌‌hold‌‌a‌‌lot‌‌of‌‌water.‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌soil‌‌is‌‌best‌‌suited‌‌for‌‌cultivating‌‌cotton?‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Red‌‌soil‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Laterite‌‌soil‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Black‌‌soil‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Alluvial‌‌soil‌ ‌
Q34‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌layers‌‌of‌‌soil‌‌is‌‌a‌‌mixture‌‌of‌‌sand,‌‌silt,‌‌and‌‌clay‌‌and‌‌
(1)‌ ‌
consists‌‌mainly‌‌of‌‌minerals‌‌and‌‌leached‌‌materials‌‌such‌‌as‌‌iron‌‌and‌‌aluminium‌‌
compounds?‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Topsoil‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Bedrock‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Subsoil‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Weathered‌‌rocks‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
67‌ ‌
‌
Q35‌ ‌ Match‌‌the‌‌following‌‌items‌‌given‌‌in‌‌Column‌‌A‌‌with‌‌those‌‌in‌‌Column‌‌B.‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Column‌‌A ‌ ‌ ‌Column‌‌B ‌ ‌
I. Black‌‌soil ‌ ‌ 1.‌‌Fine‌‌clayey‌‌material‌‌with‌‌deep‌‌horizon‌ ‌
II. Khadar ‌ ‌ 2.‌‌New‌‌alluvium‌ ‌
III. Bangar ‌ ‌ 3.‌‌Old‌‌alluvium‌ ‌
IV. Mountain‌‌soil‌ ‌ 4.‌‌Coarse‌‌material‌‌with‌‌thin‌‌soil‌‌profile‌ ‌
Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌answer‌‌from‌‌the‌‌following‌‌options:‌ ‌
A. I‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
B. I‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
C. I‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
D. I‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
68‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
Q36‌ ‌ Identify‌‌the‌‌region‌‌‘B’‌‌marked‌‌on‌‌the‌‌map‌‌of‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Malwa‌‌Plateau‌ ‌
B.‌‌Bari‌‌Doab‌ ‌
C.‌‌Vidarbha ‌ ‌
D.‌‌Rann‌‌of‌‌Kutch‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
69‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌ On‌‌the‌‌map‌‌of‌‌India.‌‌‘A’‌‌is‌‌marked‌‌as‌‌a‌‌mountain‌‌range.‌‌Identify‌‌A‌‌using‌‌the‌‌

‌ following‌‌options.‌ ‌
‌ ‌
Q37‌ ‌ A.‌‌Karakoram‌‌Range‌ ‌
B.‌‌Baba‌‌Budan‌‌Hills‌ ‌
C.‌‌Patkai‌‌Bum‌ ‌
D.‌‌Lushai‌‌Hills‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
70‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
ANSWER‌‌KEYS‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
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‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
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‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
71‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
MATHEMATICS‌ ‌
‌
‌
1‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ 18‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
2‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 19‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
3‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ 20‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
4‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 21‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
5‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 22‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
6‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 23(i)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
7‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 23(ii)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
8‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 23(iii)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
9‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 23(iv)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
10‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 24(i)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
11‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ 24(ii)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
12‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 24(iii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
13‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ 24(iv)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
14‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ 25(i)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
15‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 25(ii)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
16‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 25(iii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
17‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 25(iv)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌

‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
72‌ ‌
‌
PHYSICS‌ ‌
‌
Question‌‌1 ‌ ‌ (a)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Question‌‌3 ‌ ‌ (a)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
‌ (b)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ (b)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
‌ (c)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ (c)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
‌ (d)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ (d)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
‌ (e)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ (e)‌ ‌ B,D‌ ‌
‌ (f)‌ ‌ (i)‌‌
‌ D‌ ‌ ‌ (f)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
‌ ‌ (ii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ (ii)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
‌ ‌ (iii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Question‌‌4 ‌ ‌ (a)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
‌ ‌ (iv)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ (b)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
Question‌‌2 ‌ ‌ (a)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ (c)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
‌ (b)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ (ii)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
‌ (c)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ (d)‌ ‌ B,C‌ ‌
‌ (d)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ ‌ (e)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
‌ (e)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ (ii)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
‌ ‌ (ii)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ (iii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
‌ (f)‌ ‌ (i)‌‌
‌ B‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ (iv)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
‌ ‌ (ii)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
‌ ‌ (iii)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
‌ ‌ (iv)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
73‌ ‌
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CHEMISTRY‌ ‌
‌
1. ‌ A‌ ‌ 21.‌‌
‌ A‌ ‌
2. ‌ D‌ ‌ 22.‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
3. ‌ B‌ ‌ 23.‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
4. ‌ B‌ ‌ 24.‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
5. ‌ B‌ ‌ 25.‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
6. ‌ D‌ ‌ 26.‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
7. ‌ A‌ ‌ 27.‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
8. ‌ C‌ ‌ 28.‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
9. ‌ A‌ ‌ 29.‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
10. ‌ D‌ ‌ 30.‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
11. ‌ A‌ ‌ 31.‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
12. ‌ C‌ ‌ 32.‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
13. ‌ A‌ ‌ 33.‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
14. ‌ D‌ ‌ 34.‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
15. ‌ D‌ ‌ 35.‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
16. ‌ D‌ ‌ 36.‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
17. ‌ A‌ ‌ 37.‌‌(i)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
18. ‌ A‌ ‌ 37.‌‌(ii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
19. ‌ D‌ ‌ 37.‌‌(iii)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
20. ‌ B‌ ‌ 37.‌‌(iv)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
74‌ ‌
‌
‌
BIOLOGY‌ ‌
‌
1(i)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌ 5(i)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌
1(ii)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌ 5(ii)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌
1(iii)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌ 5(iii)‌ ‌ D.‌ ‌
1(iv)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌ 5(iv)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌
1(v)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌ 5(v)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌
2(i)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌ 6(i)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌
2(ii)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌ 6(ii)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌
2(iii)‌ ‌ D.‌ ‌ 6(iii)‌ ‌ D.‌ ‌
2(iv)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌ 6(iv)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌
2(v)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌ 6(v)‌ ‌ D.‌ ‌
3(i)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌ 7(i)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌
3(ii)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌ 7(ii)‌ ‌ D.‌ ‌
3(iii)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌ 7(iii)‌ ‌ D.‌ ‌
3(iv)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌ 7(iv)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌
3(v)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌ 7(v)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌
4(i)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌ 8(i)‌ ‌ A.‌ ‌
4(ii)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌ 8(ii)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌
4(iii)‌ ‌ C.‌ ‌ 8(iii)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌
4(iv)‌ ‌ B.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
4(v)‌ ‌ D.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
75‌ ‌
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‌
Q1‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q13‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q25‌ ‌ C,‌‌D ‌ ‌
Q2‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q14‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q26‌ ‌ A,‌‌C ‌ ‌
Q3‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q15‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q27‌‌(ⅰ)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
Q4‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q16‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q27‌‌(ⅱ)‌ ‌ C,‌‌D ‌ ‌
Q5‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q17‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q27‌‌(ⅲ)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
Q6‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q18‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q28‌‌(ⅰ)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
Q7‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q19‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q28‌‌(ⅱ)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
Q8‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q20‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q28‌‌(ⅲ)‌ ‌ B,‌‌C ‌ ‌
Q9‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q21‌ ‌ A,‌‌B ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
Q10‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q22‌ ‌ A,‌‌B,‌‌D ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
Q11‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q23‌ ‌ A,‌‌B,‌‌C ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
Q12‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q24‌ ‌ A,‌‌B ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌

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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
76‌ ‌
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‌
‌
GEOGRAPHY‌ ‌
‌
‌
Q1‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q11‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q21‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q31‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
Q2‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q12‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q22‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q32‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
Q3‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q13‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q23‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q33‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
Q4‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q14‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q24‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ Q34‌ ‌ C‌ ‌
Q5‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q15‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q25‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q35‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
Q6‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q16‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q26‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q36‌ ‌ D‌ ‌
Q7‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ Q17‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q27‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q37‌ ‌ A‌ ‌
Q8‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q18‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q28‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
Q9‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q19‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ Q29‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
Q10‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q20‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ Q30‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
77‌ ‌
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‌
‌
SOLUTIONS‌ ‌
‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
78‌ ‌
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‌
MATHEMATICS‌ ‌
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‌
Question‌‌1
‌‌ ‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌order‌‌of‌‌matrix‌‌ ‌(k‌‌is‌‌any‌‌real‌‌number)?‌ ‌
‌
A. 1‌‌x‌‌1‌ ‌ ‌
B. 3‌‌x‌‌1 ‌‌ ‌
C. 1‌‌x‌‌3‌ ‌
D. 2‌‌x‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
‌
Matrix‌‌ ‌has‌‌order‌‌1‌‌× ‌3,‌‌and‌‌matrix‌‌ ‌has‌‌order‌‌3‌‌× ‌1.‌ ‌

‌
Therefore,‌‌the‌‌order‌‌of‌‌matrix‌ ‌ ‌‌is‌1‌ ‌‌× ‌1.‌ ‌ ‌

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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
79‌ ‌
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‌
The‌‌ tax‌‌ invoice‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌company‌‌ shows‌‌ the‌‌ cost‌‌
of‌‌
services‌‌ provided‌‌ by‌‌
it‌‌
as‌‌
₹1,200.‌‌ If‌‌
the‌‌
rate‌‌
of‌‌

GST‌‌is‌‌18%,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌total‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bill‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. ₹216‌‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹1,216‌ ‌ ‌
C. ₹1,316‌‌ ‌ ‌
D. ₹1,416‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
Cost‌‌of‌‌services‌‌=‌ ‌₹1,200‌ ‌
Rate‌‌of‌‌GST‌‌=‌‌18%‌ ‌
GST‌‌=‌‌18%‌‌of‌‌1,200‌ ‌
‌=‌‌₹216‌ ‌
Total‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌bill‌‌=‌‌1,200‌‌+‌‌216‌‌=‌‌₹1,416‌ ‌
‌
‌
In‌‌
the‌‌ following‌‌ figure,‌‌ DE‌‌
is‌‌
parallel‌‌
to‌‌
BC,‌‌ AD‌‌ = ‌‌1 ‌‌cm,‌‌
BD‌‌ = ‌‌3 ‌‌cm,‌‌
and‌‌ BC‌‌ = ‌‌6 ‌‌cm.‌‌
The‌‌ length‌‌

of‌‌DE‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to:‌ ‌
‌
A. 1‌‌cm‌ ‌
B. 1.5‌‌cm‌‌
‌
C. 2‌‌cm‌ ‌
D. 2.5‌‌cm‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌B
‌ .‌‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
80‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
In‌‌△ADE ‌and‌‌△ABC ,‌ ‌
∠A = ∠A ‌
∠ADE = ∠ABC ‌
⇒ △ADE ~ △ABC ‌[AA‌‌similarity‌‌criterion]‌ ‌
⇒ AD DE
AB = BC ‌
⇒ 1
4 = DE
6 ‌
⇒ DE = 46 = 1.5 cm ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
The‌‌fourth‌‌proportion‌‌of‌‌the‌‌numbers‌‌7,‌‌28,‌‌and‌‌4‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. 8‌ ‌ ‌
B. 12‌‌ ‌
C. 16‌ ‌
D. 20‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌C ‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌numbers‌‌are‌‌7,‌‌28,‌‌and‌‌4.‌ ‌
Let‌‌the‌‌fourth‌‌proportion‌‌be‌‌‘‌k ’.‌ ‌
7
⇒ 28 4 ⇒
= k 7k = 28 × 4 ⇒ k = 16 ‌
‌
‌
Reema‌ ‌deposited‌ ‌₹300‌ ‌per‌ ‌month‌ ‌for‌ ‌15‌ ‌months‌ ‌in‌ ‌a ‌ ‌bank's‌‌
recurring‌‌
deposit‌‌
account.‌‌
If‌‌
the‌‌

bank‌‌pays‌‌interest‌‌at‌‌the‌‌rate‌‌of‌‌10%‌‌per‌‌annum,‌‌the‌‌amount‌‌she‌‌gets‌‌on‌‌maturity‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. ₹300‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹3,800‌‌ ‌
C. ₹4,500‌ ‌
D. ₹4,800‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌D ‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
81‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
P‌‌=‌‌₹300,‌‌n‌‌=‌‌15,‌‌r‌‌=‌‌10%‌ ‌
n(n+1) r
I = P × 2 × 12 × 100 ‌
15(15+1)
⇒ I = 300 × 2 × 12 × 100 10
‌
⇒ I = 300 × 15×16 1
24 × 10 ‌
⇒ I = 300 × 240 1
24 × 10 ‌
⇒ I = 300 ‌
Total‌‌amount‌‌deposited‌‌by‌‌Reema‌‌=‌‌300‌× 15‌‌=‌‌₹4,500‌ ‌
Therefore,‌‌the‌‌amount‌‌that‌‌Reema‌‌will‌‌get‌‌on‌‌maturity‌‌=‌‌4,500‌‌+‌‌300‌‌=‌‌₹4,800‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌If‌‌x∈N,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌of‌‌the‌‌inequation‌1 − 2x < 5 ‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. {-1,‌‌0,‌‌1,‌‌2,…}‌‌ ‌
B. {0,‌‌1,‌‌2,‌‌3,...}‌‌ ‌
C. {1,‌‌2,‌‌3,…}‌‌ ‌
D. {-2,‌‌-1,‌‌0,...}‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌C ‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
1 − 2x < 5 ⇒ 1 − 5 < 2x ⇒ − 4 < 2x ⇒ − 2 < x ‌ ‌
Since,‌‌x > − 2 ‌and‌ ‌x∈‌‌N ‌ ‌
Therefore,‌‌x = {1, 2, 3, …} ‌ ‌
‌
‌
Find‌‌ the‌‌ sum‌‌ of‌‌ the‌‌
first‌‌
20‌‌ terms‌‌ of‌‌
an‌‌
arithmetic‌‌
progression‌‌
whose‌‌
first‌‌
term‌‌
is‌‌
5 ‌‌and‌‌
last‌‌
term‌‌

is‌‌295.‌ ‌
‌
A. 30‌ ‌ ‌
B. 300‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. 3,000‌ ‌ ‌
D. 30,000‌‌ ‌
‌
Answer‌:‌‌C.‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
82‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
First‌‌term,‌‌a‌‌=‌‌5 ‌ ‌
Last‌‌term,‌‌l‌‌=‌‌295‌ ‌
Number‌‌of‌‌terms,‌‌n‌‌=‌‌20‌ ‌
S 20 = 2n (a + l) = 202 (5 + 295) = 10 × 300 = 3, 000 ‌
‌
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‌
‌
If‌‌the‌‌ratio‌‌between‌‌the‌‌corresponding‌‌sides‌‌of‌‌two‌‌similar‌‌triangles‌‌is‌‌4‌‌:‌‌5,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌ratio‌‌

between‌‌the‌‌areas‌‌of‌‌these‌‌triangles‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. 2‌‌:‌‌3 ‌ ‌
B. √4 : √5 ‌
C. 4‌‌:‌‌5 ‌ ‌
D. 16‌:‌‌‌25‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌D
‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌
‌
The‌‌ratio‌‌between‌‌the‌‌corresponding‌‌sides‌‌of‌‌two‌‌similar‌‌triangles‌‌is‌‌4‌‌:‌‌5.‌ ‌
The‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌areas‌‌of‌‌two‌‌similar‌‌triangles‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌the‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌the‌‌squares‌‌on‌‌their‌‌

corresponding‌‌sides.‌ ‌
= 16 : 25 ‌
2
∴‌‌Ratio‌‌between‌‌the‌‌areas‌‌of‌‌these‌‌triangles‌‌=‌‌542 = 16
25
‌
Question‌‌9
‌‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌representing‌‌the‌‌following‌‌number‌‌line‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 ≤ x ≤ 7 }‌ ‌
B. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 < x ≤ 7 }‌
‌
C. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 ≤ x < 7 }‌
‌
D. {‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 < x < 7 }‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌D
‌ .‌‌
‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
83‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌number‌‌line‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌for‌‌all‌‌real‌‌numbers‌‌lying‌‌between‌‌-1‌‌and‌‌7,‌‌

excluding‌‌these‌‌values.‌ ‌
Therefore,‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌representing‌‌the‌‌number‌‌line‌‌is:‌‌ ‌
{‌x : x ∈ R, − 1 < x < 7 }‌ ‌
‌
‌
The‌‌roots‌‌of‌‌the‌‌quadratic‌‌equation‌‌2x2 + 6x + 7 = 0 ‌are‌‌
‌
‌
A. Real‌‌and‌‌unequal‌ ‌
B. Real‌‌and‌‌equal‌‌ ‌
C. Imaginary‌ ‌ ‌
D. Cannot‌‌be‌‌determined‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌C ‌ .‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌equation‌‌is‌‌2x2 + 6x + 7 ‌=‌‌0 ‌ ‌
Here,‌‌a = 2, b = 6, c = 7 ‌
Discriminant,‌‌D = b2 − 4ac = 62 − 4 × 2 × 7 = − 20 < 0 ‌
Hence,‌‌the‌‌roots‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌equation‌‌are‌‌imaginary.‌ ‌
‌
‌
If‌‌ ba = c
d ,‌‌‌then‌‌by‌‌using‌‌componendo‌‌and‌‌dividendo,‌‌find‌‌ 3a + 2b
3a − 2b . ‌
‌
3c − 2d
A. 3c + 2d ‌
3c + 2d
B. 3c − 2d ‌
3c + d
C. 3c − d ‌
c + 2d
D. c − 2d ‌
‌
Answer:‌B‌ .‌‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
a c
Given,‌‌ b = d ‌
Multiplying‌‌both‌‌the‌‌sides‌‌by‌ 23 ,‌w
‌ e‌‌get,‌ ‌
3a 3c
2b = 2d ‌
‌By‌‌using‌‌componendo‌‌and‌‌dividendo,‌‌ 3a + 2b = 3c + 2d
3c − 2d ‌
3a 2b −
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
84‌ ‌
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‌
‌
If‌ (x − 2) ‌is‌‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌f (x) = x2 − 8x + 3k ,‌
‌then‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌k ‌is‌‌equal‌‌to:‌ ‌
‌
A. 1‌ ‌ ‌
B. 2‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. 3‌ ‌ ‌
D. 4‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌D ‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
(x − 2) ‌is‌‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌(x2 − 8x + 3k ) ‌
∴ ‌Remainder‌‌= f (2) = 22 − 8(2) + 3k = 0 ⇒ 4 − 16 + 3k = 0 ‌ ‌
⇒ ‌− 12 + 3k = 0 ‌
⇒ ‌3k = 12 ‌
⇒ ‌k = 4 ‌
‌
‌
The‌‌(n‌‌-‌‌1)‌th‌‌ ‌term‌‌of‌‌the‌‌A.P‌‌5,‌‌7,‌‌9,…‌‌is‌‌given‌‌by:‌ ‌
‌
A. 2n‌‌+‌‌1‌ ‌ ‌
B. n‌‌+‌‌1 ‌ ‌ ‌
C. 2n‌‌-‌‌1‌ ‌
D. n‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌A ‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌A.P‌‌is‌‌5,‌‌7,‌‌9,…‌ ‌
Here,‌‌a‌‌=‌‌5,‌‌d‌‌=‌‌2 ‌ ‌
tn−1 = a + ((n − 1) − 1)d ‌
tn−1 = 5 + ((n − 1) − 1) × 2 ‌
tn−1 = 5 + ((n − 2) × 2 ‌
tn−1 = 5 + 2n − 4 ‌
tn−1 = 2n + 1 ‌
‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
85‌ ‌
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‌
‌
If‌‌the‌‌roots‌‌of‌‌the‌‌quadratic‌‌equation‌‌x2 − 2x + k ‌are‌‌equal,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌‘‌k ’‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. -1‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌ ‌
C. 2‌ ‌
D. -2‌ ‌
‌
‌
Answer:‌B ‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌equation‌‌is‌‌x2 − 2x + k =‌‌0 ‌ ‌
Since‌‌the‌‌roots‌‌are‌‌equal,‌‌b2 − 4ac = 0 ⇒ (− 2)2 − 4(1)(k) = 0 ‌⇒ 4 − 4k = 0 ⇒ ‌k = 1 ‌
‌
‌
Two‌‌matrices‌‌A‌‌and‌‌B‌‌can‌‌be‌‌added‌‌only‌‌if:‌‌ ‌
‌
A. Number‌‌of‌ ‌columns‌‌of‌‌A‌‌=‌‌Number‌‌of‌‌columns‌‌of‌‌B ‌ ‌
B. Both‌‌are‌‌rectangular.‌‌ ‌
C. Both‌‌have‌‌the‌‌same‌‌order.‌ ‌
D. Number‌‌of‌‌rows‌‌of‌‌A‌‌=‌‌Number‌‌of‌‌columns‌‌of‌‌B ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
Two‌‌matrices‌‌A‌‌and‌‌B‌‌can‌‌be‌‌added‌‌only‌‌if‌‌they‌‌have‌‌the‌‌same‌‌order.‌ ‌
For‌‌example,‌‌ ‌
A‌‌=‌‌ ‌and‌‌B‌‌=‌‌ ‌can‌‌be‌‌added‌‌as‌‌both‌‌have‌‌the‌‌same‌‌order,‌‌i.e.,‌‌2‌‌x‌‌2.‌ ‌

‌
‌
‌
‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
86‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
Factors‌‌of‌‌cubic‌‌polynomial‌ ‌f (x) = 3x3 – 5x2 – 11x – 3 ‌is‌‌
‌
‌
A. (x + 1)(x − 3)(x + 31 ) ‌ ‌
B. (x − 1)(x − 3)(x + 31 ) ‌ ‌
1
C. (x + 1)(x + 3)(x + 3) ‌
1
D. (x + 1)(x − 3)(x − 3) ‌
‌
Answer:‌A ‌ .‌‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
f (x) = 3x3 – 5x2 – 11x – 3 ‌
f (x) = (x + 1)(3x2 − 8x − 3) ‌
f (x) = (x + 1)(x − 3)(x + 31 ) ‌
‌
‌
A‌‌company‌‌sells‌‌its‌‌television‌‌sets‌‌at‌‌a‌‌price‌‌that‌‌involves‌‌18%‌‌GST.‌‌If‌‌it‌‌sells‌‌TV‌‌sets‌‌across‌‌

states‌‌and‌‌the‌‌GST‌‌per‌‌set‌‌being‌‌collected‌‌is‌‌₹1,260,‌‌what‌‌would‌‌be‌‌the‌‌total‌‌amount‌‌charged‌‌
for‌‌each‌‌television‌‌set?‌ ‌
‌
A. ₹7,000‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹9,520‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. ₹8,260‌‌ ‌ ‌
D. ₹7,740‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌C ‌ .‌‌₹8,260‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Let‌‌the‌‌selling‌‌price‌‌of‌‌a‌‌television‌‌set‌‌be‌‌₹x.‌ ‌
⇒‌‌Taxable‌‌value‌‌=‌‌₹x‌ ‌ ‌
Rate‌‌of‌‌GST‌‌=‌‌18%‌ ‌
GST‌‌paid‌‌=‌‌₹1,260‌‌(given)‌ ‌
⇒‌‌18%‌‌of‌‌x‌‌=‌‌₹1,260‌ ‌
⇒‌‌x‌‌=‌‌ 1260 × 100
18 ‌=‌ ‌‌₹7,000‌ ‌
Total‌‌amount‌‌charged‌‌for‌‌each‌‌television‌‌set‌‌=‌‌Price‌‌of‌‌the‌‌television‌‌set‌‌+‌‌GST‌ ‌
‌=‌‌₹7,000‌‌+‌‌₹1,260‌‌=‌‌₹8260‌ ‌
‌
∴‌‌The‌‌total‌‌amount‌‌charged‌‌for‌‌each‌‌television‌‌set‌‌is‌‌₹8,260.‌‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
87‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
Malini‌‌opens‌‌a‌‌recurring‌‌deposit‌‌account‌‌and‌‌deposits‌‌₹600‌‌per‌‌month‌‌for‌‌5‌‌years.‌‌If‌‌the‌‌rate‌‌of‌‌

interest‌‌is‌‌8%‌‌per‌‌annum,‌‌the‌‌value‌‌she‌‌receives‌‌at‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌the‌‌maturity‌‌period‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. ₹43,320‌‌ ‌ ‌
B. ₹43,330‌‌ ‌ ‌
C. ₹45,320‌‌ ‌ ‌
D. ₹45,330‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌A ‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌
‌
The‌‌amount‌‌she‌‌invests‌‌per‌‌month,‌‌P‌‌=‌‌₹600‌ ‌
Number‌‌of‌‌months,‌‌n‌‌=‌‌5 × 12 = 60 months‌‌

‌
Rate‌‌of‌‌interest,‌‌r‌‌=‌‌8%‌‌per‌‌annum‌ ‌
Total‌‌amount‌‌invested‌‌=‌‌P × n ‌
‌=‌ 600 × 60 ‌
‌=‌‌₹36,000‌ ‌
n × (n+1)
Interest‌‌=‌‌P × 2 ×12
r
× 100
60 × (60+1) 8
‌=‌600 × 2 ×12 × 100 =‌‌7,320‌ ‌
Maturity‌‌amount‌‌=‌‌Amount‌‌invested‌‌+‌‌Interest‌‌
‌
‌=‌‌₹36,000‌ ‌+‌‌₹7,320‌ ‌
‌=‌‌₹43,320‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
88‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
The‌‌number‌‌line‌‌that‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌of‌‌the‌‌inequation‌‌− 8 ≤ 2x < 4; x ∈ R ‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
‌
Given,‌‌− 8 ≤ 2x < 4 ‌
‌
Rule:‌‌If‌‌both‌‌sides‌‌of‌‌an‌‌inequation‌‌are‌‌multiplied‌‌or‌‌divided‌‌by‌‌the‌‌same‌‌positive‌‌number,‌‌then‌‌

the‌‌sign‌‌of‌‌the‌‌inequality‌‌remains‌‌the‌‌same.‌ ‌
On‌‌dividing‌‌the‌‌inequation‌‌by‌‌2,‌‌we‌‌get‌ ‌
‌
‌⇒ − 4 ≤ x < 2 ‌
Also,‌‌a‌‌darkened‌‌circle‌‌indicates‌‌that‌‌the‌‌number‌‌is‌‌included,‌‌and‌‌a‌‌hollow‌‌circle‌‌indicates‌‌that‌‌

the‌‌number‌‌is‌n ‌ ot‌‌‌included‌‌in‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌set.‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌same‌‌solution‌‌is‌‌represented‌‌on‌‌the‌‌number‌‌line‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
89‌ ‌
‌
‌
The‌‌solution‌‌set‌‌of‌‌quadratic‌‌equation‌‌x2 + 2x − 63 = 0 is‌
‌represented‌‌by‌ ‌
‌
A. {7,‌‌9}‌ ‌
B. {-7,‌‌9}‌
C. {7,‌‌-9}‌
D. {-7,‌‌-9}‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌C ‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌equation‌‌is‌‌x2 + 2x − 63 = 0 ‌
Using‌‌the‌‌quadratic‌‌formula,‌ ‌
x = −b ± √ b − 4ac ‌
2
2a
⇒x= √22 × 1
−2 ±
2
− 4(1)(−63)
‌
⇒x= −2 ± √4 + 252
2 ‌
⇒x= −2 ± √ 256
2 ‌
⇒x= −2 ± 16 ‌
2
⇒ x = 7, − 9 ‌
‌
‌
‌
What‌‌number‌‌must‌‌be‌‌added‌‌to‌‌each‌‌of‌‌13,‌‌25,‌‌69,‌‌and‌‌113‌‌so‌‌that‌‌they‌‌are‌‌in‌‌proportion?‌ ‌
‌
A. 10‌‌ ‌ ‌
B. 9‌‌
‌ ‌
C. 8‌‌
‌ ‌
D. 7‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
90‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
Let‌‌x‌‌be‌‌added‌‌to‌‌each‌‌of‌‌13,‌‌25,‌‌69,‌‌and‌‌113‌‌so‌‌that‌‌the‌‌resulting‌‌numbers‌‌are‌‌in‌‌proportion.‌‌It‌‌

means,‌ ‌
(13 + x) : (25 + x) :: (69 + x) : (113 + x) ‌
⇒‌‌ ‌13 + x 69 + x
25 + x = 113 + x ‌
⇒ (13 + x)(113 + x) = (25 + x)(69 + x) ‌
⇒ 1469 + 13x + 113x + x2 = 1725 + 25x + 69x + x2 ‌
⇒ 1469 + 126x + x2 = 1725 + 94x + x2 ‌
⇒ 126x − 94x + x2 − x2 = 1725 − 1469 ‌
⇒ 32x = 256 ‌
⇒ x = 256
32 = 8 ‌
‌
‌
If‌‌27,‌‌24,‌‌21,...‌‌are‌‌in‌‌A.P‌‌and‌‌the‌‌sum‌‌of‌‌the‌‌first‌‌n‌‌terms‌‌is‌‌zero,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌n‌‌is:‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. 27‌ ‌
B. 19‌ ‌
C. 24‌ ‌
D. 17‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌AP‌‌is‌‌27,‌‌24,‌‌21,…‌ ‌
a‌‌=‌‌27;‌‌d‌‌=‌‌24‌‌-‌‌27‌‌=‌‌-3‌ ‌
S n = 2n [2a + (n − 1)d] ‌
Since‌‌the‌‌sum‌‌is‌‌0,‌ ‌
⇒ 2n [2 × 27 + (n − 1)(− 3)] = 0 ‌
⇒ n ( 54 − 3n + 3) = 0 ‌
⇒ n ( 57 − 3n ) = 0 ‌
⇒ n = 0 ‌or‌‌57 − 3n = 0 ‌
⇒ n = 0 or‌
‌n = 57
3 ‌
⇒ n = 0 or‌
‌n = 19 ‌
Since‌‌the‌‌number‌‌of‌‌terms‌‌cannot‌‌be‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌0,‌‌n = 19 ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
91‌ ‌
‌
‌
When‌‌a‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) = x3 + px + q ‌is‌‌divided‌‌by‌ (x − a) ,‌ ‌the‌‌remainder‌‌is‌‌f (a) .‌‌If‌‌the‌‌

remainder‌‌is‌‌zero,‌‌then‌‌(x − a) ‌is‌‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌the‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) .‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌If‌‌(x − 2) is‌ ‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) = x3 + px + q ,‌‌then,‌ ‌
‌
A. 2p − q = 8 ‌
B. 2p + q = − 8 ‌
C. 2p + q = 8 ‌
D. p + q = − 8 ‌
‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
(x − 2) ‌is‌‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌the‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) = x3 + px + q ‌
∴ f (2) = 0 ‌
⇒ 23 + p(2) + q = 0 ‌
⇒ 8 + 2p + q = 0 ‌
⇒ 2p + q = − 8 ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌If‌‌it‌‌is‌‌given‌‌that‌‌(x − 2) ‌and‌‌(x − 3) ‌are‌‌factors‌‌of‌‌the‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) = x3 + px + q ,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌

value‌‌of‌‌′p + q ’‌‌is:‌ ‌ ‌
‌
A. -11‌ ‌ ‌
B. -19‌ ‌
C. 11‌‌ ‌
D. 20‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
⇒ f (2) = 0 ‌
⇒ 23 + p(2) + q = 0 ‌
⇒ 8 + 2p + q = 0 ‌
⇒ 2p + q =− 8 …(1)‌ ‌
Also,‌‌ ‌
⇒ f (3) = 0 ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
92‌ ‌
‌
⇒ 33 + p(3) + q = 0 ‌
⇒ 27 + 3p + q = 0 ‌
⇒ 3p + q =− 27 …(2)‌‌ ‌
Subtracting‌‌equation‌‌(2)‌‌from‌‌equation‌‌(1),‌‌we‌‌get,‌ ‌
p = − 19 ‌
Substituting‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌‘p’‌‌in‌‌equation‌‌(1),‌‌we‌‌get,‌ ‌
2(− 19) + q =− 8 ‌
⇒ q − 38 =− 8 ‌
⇒ q = 38 − 8 = 30 ‌
∴ p + q =− 19 + 30 = 11 ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌If‌‌the‌‌given‌‌polynomial‌‌is‌‌divided‌‌by‌‌x2 − 1 ,‌‌then‌‌it‌‌leaves‌‌the‌‌remainder‌‌as‌‌zero.‌‌Find‌‌q .‌‌ ‌
‌
A. -2‌ ‌
B. -1‌ ‌
C. 1‌ ‌
D. 0‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
When‌‌f (x) ‌is‌‌divided‌‌by‌‌x2 − 1, ‌it‌‌leaves‌‌the‌‌remainder‌‌as‌‌zero.‌ ‌
∴‌‌x2 − 1 = (x − 1)(x + 1) ‌is‌‌a‌‌factor‌‌of‌‌f(x).‌ ‌
∴‌ ‌f (1) = 0 ‌and‌‌f (− 1) = 0 ‌
⇒− 1 − p + q = 0 ‌and‌‌1 + p + q = 0 ‌
⇒ p − q = − 1… (1) ‌and‌‌p + q = − 1… (2) ‌
Subtracting‌‌equation‌‌(1)‌‌from‌‌equation‌‌(2),‌‌we‌‌get,‌ ‌
q = 0 ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌If‌‌it‌‌is‌‌given‌‌that‌‌(x − 2) ‌and‌‌(x − 3) ‌are‌‌factors‌‌of‌‌the‌‌polynomial‌‌f (x) ,‌‌then‌‌its‌‌third‌‌factor‌‌is‌‌

given‌‌by:‌ ‌
‌
A. (x + 5) ‌
B. (x − 5) ‌
C. (x + 6) ‌
D. (x − 6) ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
93‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
We‌‌have,‌‌ ‌
f (x) = x3 + px + q ‌
In‌‌(ii),‌‌we‌‌get‌‌the‌‌values‌‌of‌‌‘p’‌‌and‌‌‘q’‌‌as‌‌p = − 19 ‌and‌‌q = 30 ‌
Substituting‌‌the‌‌values‌‌of‌‌‘p’‌‌and‌‌‘q’,‌‌we‌‌get,‌ ‌
f (x) ‌=‌‌x3 − 19x + 30 ‌
Since‌‌(x − 2) ‌and‌‌(x − 3) ‌are‌‌factors‌‌of‌‌f (x) ,‌ ‌
(x − 2) (x − 3) ‌=‌‌x2 − 5x + 6 ‌will‌‌completely‌‌divide‌‌f (x) .‌ ‌
f (x) ‌=‌‌x3 − 19x + 30 ‌
x3 19x + 30 (x−2)(x2 +2x−15) (x2 +2x−15) (x−3)(x + 5)
Therefore,‌‌the‌‌third‌‌factor‌‌=‌ x2− − 5x +6 = (x−2)(x−3) = (x−3) = (x−3) = (x + 5) ‌
‌
‌
In‌‌the‌‌given‌‌figure,‌‌AB,‌‌CD,‌‌and‌‌EF‌‌are‌‌parallel‌‌lines.‌‌If‌‌AB = 10 cm, EF = 15 cm, ‌AC = 6 cm, ‌
and‌‌C E = 21 cm ,‌‌then‌‌find‌‌the‌‌following‌ ‌
‌
‌
(i)‌‌C F ‌
A. 10‌‌cm‌ ‌
B. 9‌‌cm‌ ‌
C. 8‌‌cm‌ ‌
D. 12‌‌cm‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌
In‌‌ΔACB ‌and‌‌ΔF CE, ‌
∠ACB = ∠F CE ...(Vertically‌‌opposite‌‌angles)‌ ‌
∠CAB = ∠CF E ...(Alternate‌‌angles)‌ ‌
ΔACB ~ ΔF CE ...(AA‌‌similarity)‌ ‌
AC
Therefore,‌‌ CF ‌=‌ FABE ‌
6 10
CF ‌=‌ 15 ‌
C F = 9 cm ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
94‌ ‌
‌
‌
(ii)‌‌‌C D ‌
‌
A. 6 cm ‌
B. 2 cm ‌
C. 9 cm ‌
D. 5 cm ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌
‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
In‌‌ΔF BA and‌‌ΔF DC ,‌ ‌
∠F BA = ∠F DC (Corresponding‌‌angles)‌ ‌
∠AF B = ∠CF D (Common‌‌angles)‌ ‌
ΔF BA ~ ΔF DC (AA‌‌similarity)‌ ‌
AF AB
Therefore,‌‌ CF ‌=‌ CD ‌
AC + CF AB
CF ‌=‌ CD ‌
6+9 10
9 ‌=‌ CD ‌
C D = 6 cm ‌
‌
(iii)‌B C ‌
‌
A. 12 cm ‌
B. 14 cm ‌
C. 16 cm ‌
D. 18 cm ‌
‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
In‌‌ΔF BE and‌‌ΔDBC ,‌ ‌
∠BEF = ∠BCD (Corresponding‌
‌angles)‌ ‌
∠F BE = ∠DBC (Common‌‌angles)‌ ‌
ΔF BE ~ ΔDBC (AA‌‌similarity)‌ ‌
BE EF
Therefore,‌‌ BC ‌=‌ CD ‌
BC+21 15
BC ‌=‌ 6 ‌
(BC + 21) × 6 = 15BC ‌
B C = 14 cm ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
95‌ ‌
‌
Area of ΔF BE
(iv)‌‌ Area of ΔDBC ‌
‌
5
A. 2 ‌
B. 4‌ ‌
25
C. 4 ‌
25
D. 2 ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Area of ΔF BE EF 2
Area of ΔDBC ‌=‌( CD ) ‌
=‌( 15
6
)2 ‌=‌ 25
4
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
Let‌‌ ,‌‌ ,‌‌and‌‌ ‌

‌
(i)‌‌Find‌‌A2 . ‌
‌
A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
‌
Answer:‌D
‌ .‌‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
96‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Find‌‌AC. ‌
‌
A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
‌
Answer:‌C‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Find‌‌5B. ‌
‌
A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
‌
Answer:‌B
‌ ‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
97‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Find‌‌A2 + AC − 5B. ‌
A. ‌
B. ‌
C. ‌
D. ‌
‌
Answer:‌A‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
98‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
PHYSICS‌ ‌
(Question‌‌+‌‌Correct‌‌answer‌‌+‌‌Solution)‌ ‌
‌
‌
(a)‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement‌‌for‌‌a‌‌rectangular‌‌glass‌‌slab.‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌parallel‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray‌ ‌
B. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌inclined‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray‌ ‌
C. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌coincides‌‌with‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray‌ ‌
D. The‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌perpendicular‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
For‌‌
refraction‌‌
of‌‌
light‌‌
by‌‌
a ‌‌rectangular‌‌
glass‌‌
slab,‌‌
the‌‌
extent‌‌
of‌‌
bending‌‌ is‌‌
equal‌‌
and‌‌
opposite‌‌at‌‌the‌‌opposite‌‌ends.‌‌So,‌‌the‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌parallel‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray.‌‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
When‌‌a‌‌light‌‌ray‌‌enters‌‌the‌‌glass‌‌slab‌‌from‌‌the‌‌air‌‌medium,‌‌ ‌
sin i
‌⇒ ‌ ‌ sin r ‌=‌air‌
‌ μ‌glass‌‌ ‌(‌‌i‌‌=‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence,‌‌r1‌‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌refraction)‌ ‌
1
‌
When‌‌a‌‌light‌‌ray‌‌enters‌‌the‌‌air‌‌medium‌‌from‌‌the‌‌glass‌‌slab,‌ ‌
‌
sin r
‌⇒ ‌ ‌ sin e2 ‌=‌glass‌
‌ μ‌air‌‌ ‌(‌‌r2‌‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence,‌‌e‌‌=‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌emergence)‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
99‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌ ⇒ ‌r1‌‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌r2‌‌ ‌ ‌(alternate‌‌angle)‌ ‌
1
⇒
‌ ‌ ‌air‌μ‌glass‌‌ ‌=‌ ‌
glass μair
sin i sin e
‌⇒ ‌ ‌ sin r =‌sin r ‌
1 2
‌⇒ s ‌ in‌‌i‌‌=‌‌sin‌‌e‌ ‌(as,‌‌sin‌‌r1‌‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌sin‌‌r2‌‌ )‌ ‌
‌⇒ ‌i‌‌=‌‌e ‌ ‌
‌
Therefore,‌ ‌we‌ ‌can‌ ‌see‌ ‌that‌ ‌the‌ ‌incidence‌ ‌angle‌ ‌and‌ ‌emergence‌ ‌angle‌ ‌are‌ ‌equal.‌
Hence,‌‌the‌‌emergent‌‌ray‌‌is‌‌parallel‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incident‌‌ray.‌ ‌
‌
(b)‌ ‌ Which‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌

following‌‌
ray‌‌
diagrams‌‌
correctly‌‌
depicts‌‌
the‌‌
refraction‌‌
of‌‌
light‌‌
from‌‌
air‌‌

to‌‌glass?‌ ‌
A. ‌ ‌
‌
B. ‌ ‌
‌ ‌
C. ‌ ‌
‌
D. ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
100‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
When‌ ‌a ‌ ‌ray‌ ‌of‌ ‌light‌ ‌travels‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌rarer‌ ‌medium‌ ‌to‌ ‌a ‌ ‌denser‌ ‌medium,‌ ‌it‌ ‌bends‌‌
towards‌ ‌the‌ ‌normal.‌ ‌The‌ ‌light‌ ‌ray‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌given‌ ‌case‌ ‌is‌ ‌travelling‌ ‌from‌ ‌air‌ ‌(rarer‌‌

medium)‌‌to‌‌glass‌‌(denser‌‌medium).‌‌So,‌‌it‌‌must‌‌bend‌‌toward‌‌the‌‌normal.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
(c)‌ ‌ Where‌‌ will‌‌

the‌‌ image‌‌
be‌‌
formed‌‌ for‌‌ an‌‌ object‌‌ placed‌‌ at‌‌
25‌‌
cm‌‌ from‌‌ the‌‌
optical‌‌ centre‌‌
of‌‌the‌‌convex‌‌lens,‌‌if‌‌the‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌is‌‌12.5‌‌cm?‌ ‌
‌
A. At‌‌25‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌same‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌ ‌
B. At‌‌12.5‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌ ‌
C. At‌‌25‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌ ‌
D. At‌‌12.5‌‌cm‌‌on‌‌the‌‌same‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌as‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object‌‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given:‌‌The‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌is‌‌12.5‌‌cm.‌ ‌
‌The‌‌object‌‌is‌‌placed‌‌at‌‌25‌‌cm.‌ ‌
‌
This‌ ‌means‌ ‌the‌ ‌object‌ ‌is‌ ‌placed‌ ‌at‌ ‌2F‌1‌,‌ ‌so‌ ‌the‌ ‌image‌ ‌will‌ ‌be‌ ‌formed‌ ‌at‌ ‌an‌ ‌equal‌‌

distance‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens,‌‌i.e.,‌‌at‌‌2F‌2‌.‌‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
101‌ ‌
‌
(d)‌ ‌ A‌‌
ray‌‌ of‌‌ light‌‌ passing‌‌ from‌‌
one‌‌
medium‌‌ to‌‌
another‌‌ will‌‌
pass‌‌ undeviated‌‌ in‌‌
which‌‌ of‌
the‌‌following‌‌cases?‌ ‌
‌
A. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌45°.‌ ‌
B. Ray‌ ‌passes‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌medium‌ ‌of‌ ‌higher‌ ‌optical‌ ‌density‌ ‌to‌ ‌a ‌‌medium‌‌ of‌‌
lower‌
optical‌‌density.‌ ‌
C. Refractive‌‌index‌‌is‌‌the‌‌same‌‌for‌‌both‌‌mediums.‌ ‌
D. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌90°.‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌When‌‌ the‌‌
refractive‌‌
index‌‌
of‌‌
both‌‌ the‌‌
mediums‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌
same,‌‌
the‌‌ speed‌‌ of‌‌

light‌ ‌in‌ ‌both‌ ‌the‌ ‌mediums‌ ‌remains‌ ‌the‌ ‌same.‌ ‌Hence,‌ ‌when‌ ‌light‌ ‌passes‌ ‌from‌ ‌one‌‌
medium‌ ‌to‌ ‌another‌ ‌with‌ ‌the‌ ‌same‌ ‌speed,‌ ‌there‌ ‌is‌ ‌no‌ ‌deviation,‌ ‌i.e.,‌ ‌there‌ ‌is‌ ‌no‌‌

change‌‌of‌‌path‌‌even‌‌for‌‌a‌‌non-zero‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence.‌ ‌
‌
(e)‌ ‌ The‌ ‌refractive‌ ‌index‌ ‌of‌ ‌glass‌ ‌with‌ ‌respect‌ ‌to‌‌

water‌‌
is‌‌
1.125.‌‌
If‌‌
the‌‌ speed‌‌ of‌‌
light‌‌
in‌‌

glass‌‌is‌‌2‌‌×‌‌10‌8‌‌ ‌ms‌-1‌,‌‌then‌‌the‌‌absolute‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌water‌‌is‌‌___.‌‌ ‌
(speed‌‌of‌‌light‌‌=‌ ‌3‌‌×‌‌10‌8‌‌ ‌ms‌-1‌)‌‌
‌
‌
A. 1.5‌ ‌
B. 1.7‌‌ ‌
C. 1.33‌ ‌
D. 1.9‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
Here,‌‌the‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌glass‌‌with‌‌respect‌‌to‌‌water‌‌i.e.,‌w‌ ‌ μ‌g‌‌ ‌=‌‌1.125.‌‌ ‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌light‌‌in‌‌glass‌‌=‌‌2‌‌×‌‌10‌8‌‌ ‌ms‌-1‌ ‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌light‌‌in‌‌air‌‌=‌‌3‌‌×‌‌10‌8‌‌ ‌ms‌-1‌ ‌
Speed of light in air
‌ ‌ ‌=‌ speed of light in glass ‌ ‌
Absolute‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌glass‌‌μg‌
8
‌μg‌‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌ 3 × 10 8 ‌ ‌
2 × 10
‌
∴‌ ‌μg‌
‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌1.5.‌ ‌
‌
As‌‌we‌‌know‌‌that‌‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌glass‌‌with‌‌respect‌‌to‌‌water‌w‌ ‌ μ‌g‌is‌
‌ ‌given‌‌as:‌ ‌
‌
w‌μ‌g‌‌ ‌=‌‌Ref ractive index of glass/Ref ractive index of water ‌
‌
a μg
μ‌ =‌‌ μ
w‌ g‌‌ ‌
a w
a μg 1.5
‌ ‌ a μw ‌
a‌μ‌w‌=‌ =‌ ‌1.125 = 1.33 ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
102‌ ‌
‌
(f)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ What‌‌ will‌‌

happen‌‌ to‌‌
the‌‌
size‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌
image‌‌ if‌‌
we‌‌
move‌‌ the‌‌
object‌‌
away‌‌ from‌‌
the‌‌lens?‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌will‌‌increase.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌will‌‌first‌‌decrease‌‌and‌‌then‌‌increase.‌ ‌
C. There‌‌will‌‌be‌‌no‌‌change‌‌in‌‌the‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image.‌ ‌
D. The‌‌size‌‌of‌‌the‌‌image‌‌will‌‌decrease.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ As‌‌ the‌‌
object‌‌ moves‌‌ away‌‌ from‌‌
the‌‌ focus‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
convex‌‌ lens,‌‌
the‌‌

size‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌image‌ ‌keeps‌ ‌on‌ ‌decreasing‌ ‌and‌ ‌becomes‌ ‌point‌ ‌size‌ ‌as‌ ‌the‌‌

object‌‌reaches‌‌an‌‌infinite‌‌distance‌‌from‌‌the‌‌lens.‌‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ If‌‌
instead‌‌ of‌‌
this‌‌
lens‌‌
we‌‌
use‌‌
a ‌‌lens‌‌
of‌‌
twice‌‌
the‌‌ focal‌‌
length,‌‌ what‌‌ effect‌‌
will‌‌

there‌‌be‌‌on‌‌the‌‌power‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens?‌ ‌
‌
A. Power‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌would‌‌increase‌‌by‌‌2‌‌times.‌ ‌
B. Power‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌would‌‌become‌‌half.‌ ‌
C. Power‌‌will‌‌not‌‌change.‌ ‌
D. Power‌‌will‌‌be‌‌squared.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Power‌‌of‌‌a‌‌lens‌‌is‌‌inversely‌‌related‌‌to‌‌the‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens.‌ ‌
‌
P‌‌∝‌ ‌ 1f
‌ ‌ ‌
‌
So,‌‌as‌‌the‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌is‌‌doubled,‌‌the‌‌power‌‌of‌‌the‌‌lens‌‌will‌‌be‌‌halved.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iii)‌ ‌ If‌ ‌the‌ ‌object‌ ‌is‌ ‌placed‌ ‌at‌ ‌32‌ ‌cm‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌lens,‌ ‌what‌ ‌will‌ ‌be‌ ‌the‌ ‌image‌‌
position?‌ ‌
‌
A. At‌‌2F‌2‌‌ ‌
B. Between‌‌F2‌ ‌ ‌ ‌and‌‌2F‌2‌ ‌
C. At‌‌infinity‌ ‌
D. Beyond‌‌2F‌2‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
As‌‌ the‌‌ object‌‌ is‌‌
moved‌‌ away‌‌ from‌‌
the‌‌ lens,‌‌ the‌‌
distance‌‌ at‌‌
which‌‌ the‌‌ image‌‌
is‌ ‌formed‌ ‌keeps‌ ‌on‌ ‌decreasing,‌ ‌and‌ ‌as‌ ‌the‌ ‌object‌ ‌moves‌ ‌beyond‌ ‌2F‌‌
distance,‌ ‌the‌ ‌image‌ ‌is‌ ‌formed‌ ‌between‌ ‌F ‌ ‌and‌ ‌2F‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌‌ other‌‌ side‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌

lens.‌‌ ‌
Since‌‌ in‌‌
this‌‌ case‌‌ the‌‌ focal‌‌
length,‌‌
i.e.,‌‌
F ‌‌= ‌‌15‌‌
cm,‌‌
that‌‌
means‌‌ 2F‌‌ = ‌‌30‌‌
cm.‌‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
103‌ ‌
‌
When‌ ‌the‌ ‌object‌ ‌is‌ ‌at‌ ‌32‌ ‌cm,‌ ‌it‌ ‌is‌ ‌just‌ ‌beyond‌ ‌2F.‌ ‌So,‌ ‌the‌ ‌image‌ ‌will‌ ‌be‌‌

formed‌‌between‌‌F‌‌and‌‌2F‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌side,‌‌i.e.,‌‌between‌‌F2‌ ‌ ‌ ‌and‌‌2F‌2‌.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iv)‌ ‌ What‌ ‌will‌ ‌be‌ ‌the‌ ‌characteristic‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌image‌ ‌if‌ ‌the‌ ‌object‌ ‌is‌ ‌at‌ ‌32‌ ‌cm‌‌
distance?‌ ‌
‌
A. Enlarged,‌‌real,‌‌and‌‌inverted‌ ‌
B. Enlarged,‌‌virtual,‌‌and‌‌erect‌ ‌
C. Diminished,‌‌real,‌‌and‌‌inverted‌ ‌
D. Same‌‌size,‌‌real,‌‌and‌‌inverted‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌image‌ ‌formed‌ ‌when‌ ‌the‌ ‌object‌ ‌is‌ ‌placed‌ ‌beyond‌ ‌2F‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌‌
diminished,‌‌real,‌‌and‌‌inverted‌‌image‌‌between‌‌F‌‌and‌‌2F‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌side.‌‌ ‌
‌
‌
(a)‌ ‌ The‌ ‌energy‌ ‌possessed‌ ‌by‌ ‌a ‌ ‌body‌ ‌in‌ ‌deformed‌ ‌state‌ ‌due‌ ‌to‌ ‌change‌ ‌in‌ ‌its‌‌
configuration‌‌(shape)‌‌is‌‌known‌‌as‌‌______.‌ ‌
‌
A. Vibrational‌‌kinetic‌‌energy‌ ‌
B. Gravitational‌‌potential‌‌energy‌ ‌
C. Elastic‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌ ‌
D. Rotational‌‌kinetic‌‌energy‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
When‌‌ an‌‌
external‌‌ force‌‌ is‌‌
applied‌‌ on‌‌
a ‌‌body,‌‌
its‌‌
shape‌‌
changes.‌‌ By‌‌
the‌‌
property‌‌ of‌‌

elasticity,‌ ‌the‌ ‌body‌ ‌regains‌ ‌its‌ ‌shape‌ ‌when‌ ‌the‌ ‌force‌ ‌is‌ ‌removed.‌ ‌The‌ ‌energy‌‌

possessed‌‌ by‌‌
the‌‌
body‌‌ in‌‌ its‌‌
deformed‌‌ state‌‌
is‌‌
known‌‌ as‌‌
the‌‌ elastic‌‌
potential‌‌
energy‌‌
and‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌the‌‌work‌‌done‌‌to‌‌deform‌‌the‌‌body.‌ ‌
(b)‌ ‌ What‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌relationship‌ ‌between‌ ‌SI‌ ‌unit‌ ‌of‌ ‌power‌ ‌(watt)‌ ‌and‌ ‌C.G.S‌ ‌unit‌ ‌of‌ ‌power‌‌

(erg‌‌s-1‌
‌ ).‌ ‌
‌
A. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌6‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌ ‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌7‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌ ‌ ‌
C. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌10‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌ ‌ ‌ ‌
12‌‌ -1‌
D. 1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌10‌ ‌erg‌‌s‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌ ‌
1‌‌W‌‌=‌‌1‌‌J‌‌s-1‌
‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌10‌7‌‌ ‌erg‌‌s-1‌
‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
104‌ ‌
‌
(c)‌ ‌ A‌‌
monkey‌‌ of‌‌
mass‌‌ 10‌‌
kg‌‌
climbs‌‌
up‌‌
a ‌‌10‌‌
m ‌‌rope‌‌ in‌‌
10‌‌
s.‌‌
Calculate‌‌
the‌‌
power‌‌
spent‌‌

by‌‌the‌‌monkey‌‌(g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌).‌ ‌
‌
A. 20‌‌W ‌ ‌
B. 50‌‌W ‌ ‌
C. 100‌‌W ‌ ‌
D. 150‌‌W ‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
Given,‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌monkey,‌‌m‌‌=‌‌10‌‌kg‌ ‌
Height,‌‌h‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m ‌ ‌
Acceleration‌‌due‌‌to‌‌gravity,‌‌g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌ ‌
Time‌‌taken‌‌=‌‌10‌‌s ‌ ‌
We‌‌know,‌‌work‌‌done‌‌by‌‌the‌‌monkey‌‌=‌ ‌mgh‌ ‌
‌=‌‌10‌‌× 10‌‌× 10‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌=‌‌1000‌‌J ‌‌ ‌
work done
We‌‌know,‌‌Power‌‌=‌‌ time taken ‌
1000
‌=‌‌ 10 ‌W‌ ‌=‌‌100‌‌W ‌ ‌
(d)‌ ‌ Mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌and‌‌velocity‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌a‌‌first-class‌‌lever:‌ ‌
‌
A. is‌‌always‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌1 ‌ ‌
B. can‌‌be‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌1‌‌or‌‌less‌‌than‌‌1‌‌or‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌1 ‌ ‌
C. is‌‌always‌‌less‌‌than‌‌1 ‌ ‌
D. can‌‌never‌‌be‌‌less‌‌than‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌
‌
Some‌‌important‌‌points‌‌about‌‌Class‌‌I‌‌level‌‌are‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
‌
● When‌‌ the‌‌
effort‌‌
arm‌‌ is‌‌
longer‌‌ than‌‌ the‌‌ load‌‌ arm,‌‌ the‌‌ mechanical‌‌ advantage‌‌
and‌‌ the‌‌ velocity‌‌
ratio‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌
ideal‌‌
first-class‌‌ lever‌‌ are‌‌
greater‌‌
than‌‌ 1.‌‌
Such‌‌
levers‌‌serve‌‌as‌‌force‌‌multipliers.‌ ‌
‌
● When‌ ‌the‌ ‌effort‌ ‌arm‌ ‌is‌ ‌equal‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌load‌ ‌arm,‌ ‌the‌‌ mechanical‌‌ advantage‌‌
and‌‌the‌‌velocity‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ideal‌‌first-class‌‌lever‌‌are‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌1.‌ ‌ ‌
‌
● When‌ ‌the‌ ‌effort‌ ‌arm‌ ‌is‌ ‌shorter‌ ‌than‌ ‌the‌ ‌load‌ ‌arm,‌ ‌the‌ ‌mechanical‌‌
advantage‌ ‌and‌ ‌the‌ ‌velocity‌‌ ratio‌‌
of‌‌ the‌‌
ideal‌‌ first-class‌‌ lever‌‌
are‌‌ less‌‌ than‌‌

one.‌‌Such‌‌levers‌‌are‌‌used‌‌to‌‌obtain‌‌gain‌‌in‌‌speed.‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
105‌ ‌
‌
Hence,‌‌
the‌‌
mechanical‌‌ advantage‌‌ and‌‌ the‌‌ velocity‌‌
ratio‌‌
of‌‌
a ‌‌first-class‌‌
lever‌‌
can‌‌
be‌‌

greater‌‌than‌‌1,‌‌less‌‌than‌‌1,‌‌or‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌1.‌ ‌
‌
(e)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ ‌Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌ ‌ ‌

‌
A. after‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌1,22,500‌‌J.‌ ‌
B. before‌‌P‌‌is‌‌1,35,000‌‌J.‌‌ ‌
C. remains‌‌constant‌ ‌between‌‌P‌‌and‌‌Q.‌
D. at‌‌any‌‌point‌‌between‌‌P‌‌and‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌1,12,500‌‌J.‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌

Given,‌‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌car‌‌=‌‌1,200‌‌kg‌‌ ‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌ ‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌ ‌
‌
Kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌(K.E.)‌ ‌before‌ ‌point‌ ‌P ‌ ‌= ‌ ‌½ ‌ ‌mv‌2‌ ‌= ‌ ‌½ ‌ ‌x ‌ ‌(1200‌× 10‌× 10)‌ ‌= ‌‌
60,000‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌in‌‌between‌‌the‌‌point‌‌P‌‌to‌‌Q‌‌=‌‌15‌‌m/s‌‌ ‌
‌
Kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌(K.E.)‌ ‌from‌ ‌point‌ ‌P ‌ ‌to‌ ‌Q ‌ ‌= ‌ ‌½ ‌ ‌mv‌2‌ ‌= ‌ ‌½ ‌‌x ‌‌(1200‌× 15‌× 15)‌‌
= ‌‌
1,35,000‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
As‌‌ from‌‌
P ‌‌to‌‌
Q ‌‌there‌‌
is‌‌
no‌‌
change‌‌ in‌‌
speed‌‌ and‌‌
mass,‌‌ there‌‌
is‌‌
no‌‌
change‌‌

in‌‌Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌and‌‌hence‌‌it‌‌remains‌‌constant.‌ ‌
‌
After‌‌point‌‌Q,‌‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌=‌‌(1,200‌‌-‌‌200)‌‌kg‌‌=‌‌1,000‌‌kg‌ ‌
Kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌(K.E.)‌ ‌after‌ ‌point‌ ‌Q ‌ ‌is‌ ‌= ‌ ‌½ ‌ ‌mv‌2‌ ‌= ‌ ‌½ ‌ ‌x ‌ ‌(1000‌× 15‌× 15)‌ ‌= ‌‌
1,12,500‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ The‌ ‌momentum‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌ ‌

‌
A. before‌‌point‌‌P‌‌is‌‌10,000‌‌kg.m/s.‌ ‌
B. after‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌18,000‌‌kg.m/s.‌ ‌
C. before‌‌point‌‌P‌‌and‌‌after‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌are‌‌equal.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
106‌ ‌
‌
D. at‌‌any‌‌point‌‌between‌‌point‌‌P‌‌and‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌18,000‌‌kg.m/s.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌=‌‌1,200‌‌kg‌ ‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌ ‌
‌
Momentum‌‌of‌‌car‌‌before‌‌point‌‌P‌‌=‌‌mv‌‌=‌‌(1200‌× 10)‌‌kg.m/s‌‌ ‌
‌=‌‌12,000‌‌kg.m/s‌‌ ‌
‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌in‌‌between‌‌the‌‌point‌‌P‌‌to‌‌Q‌‌=‌‌15‌‌m/s‌‌ ‌
Momentum‌‌of‌‌body‌‌between‌‌point‌‌P‌‌to‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌=‌‌mv‌‌=‌‌(1200‌× 15)‌‌kg.m/s‌‌ ‌
‌=‌‌18,000‌‌kg.m/s‌ ‌
‌
As‌‌ from‌‌
P ‌‌to‌‌
Q ‌‌there‌‌
is‌‌
no‌‌
change‌‌
in‌‌
speed‌‌ and‌‌
mass,‌‌ there‌‌ is‌‌
no‌‌
change‌‌
in‌‌momentum‌‌and‌‌it‌‌remains‌‌constant.‌ ‌
‌
After‌‌point‌‌Q,‌‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌‌=‌‌(1200‌‌-‌‌200)‌‌kg‌‌=‌‌1,000‌‌kg‌ ‌
Momentum‌‌of‌‌car‌‌after‌‌point‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌=‌‌mv‌‌=‌‌(1000‌× 15)‌‌kg.m/s‌ ‌
‌=‌‌15,500‌‌kg.m/s‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
107‌ ‌
‌
(f)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌
‌
‌
A‌‌ball‌‌falls‌‌from‌‌point‌‌A‌‌to‌‌point‌‌B‌‌(gravitational‌‌acceleration‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌).‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌is‌‌correct?‌ ‌
‌
A. Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌=‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌B ‌ ‌
B. Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌>‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌B ‌ ‌
C. Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌<‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌B ‌ ‌
D. Sufficient‌‌ data‌‌ not‌‌
available‌‌ to‌‌
compare‌‌ the‌‌ potential‌‌ energy‌‌ at‌‌
point‌‌

A‌‌and‌‌point‌‌B ‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
We‌‌know,‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌mass‌‌× ‌gravitational‌‌acceleration‌‌× ‌height‌ ‌
As‌ ‌we‌ ‌can‌ ‌see‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌diagram,‌ ‌the‌ ‌height‌ ‌of‌ ‌point‌ ‌A ‌ ‌is‌ ‌greater‌ ‌than‌ ‌the‌‌

height‌‌of‌‌point‌‌B.‌ ‌
Therefore,‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌>‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌B.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ball‌‌at‌‌point‌‌B?‌ ‌
‌ ‌
A. √100 ‌m/s‌ ‌
B. √10 ‌m/s‌ ‌
C. √1 ‌m/s‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
108‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
We‌‌know‌‌that‌‌energy‌‌is‌‌conserved‌‌at‌‌all‌‌points.‌ ‌
Total‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌A‌‌=‌‌Total‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌B ‌ ‌
Kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌at‌ ‌point‌ ‌A ‌‌+ ‌‌Potential‌‌ energy‌‌
at‌‌
point‌‌
A ‌‌= ‌‌Kinetic‌‌
energy‌‌
at‌‌

point‌‌B‌‌+‌‌Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌B ‌ ‌
‌
⇒ ‌(½‌‌mv‌2‌)‌A‌‌ ‌+(mgh)‌A‌‌ ‌=‌‌(½‌‌mv‌2‌)‌B‌‌ ‌+(mgh)‌B‌ ‌
‌
⇒ ‌(mgh)‌A‌‌ ‌=‌‌(½‌‌mv‌2‌)‌B‌‌ ‌(As‌‌speed‌‌at‌‌point‌‌A‌‌is‌‌0‌‌m/s‌‌and‌‌height‌‌of‌‌point‌‌B‌‌is‌ ‌
‌0‌‌m)‌ ‌
‌
⇒ m‌ (10‌× 1)‌‌=‌‌½‌‌mv‌2‌B‌ ‌
‌
⇒ v‌ 2‌
‌ B‌‌ ‌=‌‌20‌
‌
‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌√20 ‌
⇒ v‌ B‌
‌
‌ (iii)‌ ‌ If‌‌
the‌‌
mass‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
ball‌‌
is‌‌
10‌‌
g,‌‌
then‌‌
the‌‌
change‌‌
in‌‌
kinetic‌‌
energy‌‌
from‌‌
point‌‌

point‌‌A‌‌to‌‌B‌‌is‌ ‌
‌
A. 0.1‌‌J ‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌J ‌ ‌
C. 5‌‌J ‌ ‌
D. 100‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌ball,‌‌m‌‌=‌‌10‌‌g‌‌=‌‌0.01‌‌kg,‌ ‌
Gravitational‌‌acceleration,‌‌g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌ ‌
‌
We‌‌know‌‌that‌‌energy‌‌is‌‌conserved‌‌at‌‌all‌‌points.‌ ‌
‌
Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌A‌‌is‌‌0‌‌J.‌ ‌
‌
Total‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌A‌‌=‌‌Total‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌B ‌ ‌
Kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌at‌ ‌point‌ ‌A ‌‌+ ‌‌Potential‌‌ energy‌‌
at‌‌
point‌‌
A ‌‌= ‌‌Kinetic‌‌
energy‌‌
at‌‌

point‌‌B‌‌+‌‌Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌B ‌‌ ‌
‌
⇒ ‌(½‌‌mv‌2‌)‌A‌‌ ‌+(mgh)‌A‌‌ ‌=‌‌(½‌‌mv‌2‌)‌B‌‌ ‌+(mgh)‌B‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
109‌ ‌
‌
⇒ ‌(mgh)‌A‌‌ ‌=‌‌(½‌‌mv‌2‌)‌B‌‌ ‌(As‌‌speed‌‌at‌‌point‌‌A‌‌is‌‌0‌‌m/s‌‌and‌‌height‌‌of‌‌point‌‌B ‌

‌is‌ ‌0‌‌m)‌ ‌
‌
⇒ m‌ (10‌× 1)‌‌=‌‌½‌‌mv‌2‌B‌ ‌
‌
⇒ v‌ 2‌
‌ B‌‌ ‌=‌‌20‌‌
‌
‌
‌ ‌ ‌=‌‌√20 ‌
⇒ v‌ B‌
‌
Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌point‌‌B‌‌is‌(‌ ½‌‌mv‌2‌)‌B‌‌ ‌=‌‌½‌‌(0.01‌× 20‌)‌‌J‌‌=‌‌0.1‌‌J.‌ ‌
‌ (iv)‌ ‌ If‌‌
C ‌‌is‌‌
the‌‌ midpoint‌‌ of‌‌
AB‌‌
and‌‌
the‌‌ mass‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
ball‌‌
is‌‌
10‌‌
g,‌‌
the‌‌
kinetic‌‌
energy‌‌

of‌‌the‌‌ball‌‌at‌‌C‌‌is‌ ‌
‌
A. 0.05‌‌J ‌ ‌
B. 1‌‌J ‌ ‌
C. 5‌‌J ‌ ‌
D. 100‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
Given,‌‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌ball,‌‌m‌‌=‌‌10‌‌g‌‌=‌‌0.01‌‌kg,‌ ‌
Gravitational‌‌acceleration,‌‌g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌ ‌
‌
At‌‌point‌‌A,‌ ‌
Height‌‌of‌‌A‌‌=‌‌1‌‌m ‌‌ ‌
Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌A‌‌=‌‌mgh‌‌=‌‌0.01‌× 10‌× 1‌‌J‌‌=‌‌0.1‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌½‌‌mv‌2‌‌ ‌=‌‌0‌‌J‌‌(v‌‌is‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ball‌‌=‌‌0‌‌m/s)‌ ‌
Total‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌+‌‌kinetic‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌0‌‌+‌‌0.1‌‌J‌‌=‌‌0.1‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
Height‌‌of‌‌C,‌‌h‌‌=‌‌½‌ ‌× ‌height‌‌of‌‌AB‌‌=‌‌0.5‌‌m ‌ ‌
Potential‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌mgh‌‌=‌‌(0.01‌× 10‌‌× 0.5)‌‌J‌‌=‌‌0.05‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
We‌‌know‌‌that‌‌total‌‌energy‌‌is‌‌conserved.‌‌ ‌
Total‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌0.1‌‌J ‌ ‌
Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌Total‌‌energy‌‌-‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌(0.1‌‌-‌‌0.05)‌‌J‌‌=‌‌0.05‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
110‌ ‌
‌
‌
(a)‌ ‌ For‌‌an‌‌ideal‌‌machine,‌‌mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌is‌‌numerically‌‌equal‌‌to:‌ ‌
‌
A. Efficiency‌ ‌
B. Velocity‌‌ratio‌ ‌
C. Effort/Load‌ ‌
D. None‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
For‌ ‌an‌ ‌ideal‌ ‌machine‌ ‌(free‌ ‌from‌‌
friction,‌‌
etc.),‌‌
the‌‌
work‌‌
output‌‌
is‌‌
equal‌‌
to‌‌
the‌‌
work‌‌

input.‌‌So,‌‌the‌‌efficiency‌‌is‌‌1‌‌for‌‌such‌‌machines.‌ ‌
As‌‌mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌is‌‌the‌‌product‌‌of‌‌efficiency‌‌and‌‌velocity‌‌ratio,‌ ‌
‌M.A‌‌=‌‌V.R‌‌×‌‌η ‌‌ ‌
As‌‌η‌ ‌=‌‌1‌‌for‌‌an‌‌ideal‌‌machine.‌ ‌
So,‌‌the‌‌mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌is‌‌numerically‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌the‌‌velocity‌‌ratio.‌ ‌
‌
(b)‌ ‌ In‌‌
a ‌‌first-class‌‌ lever,‌‌ the‌‌ load‌‌
of‌‌ 12‌‌ kgf‌‌
is‌‌
at‌‌
a ‌‌distance‌‌
of‌‌
1.5‌‌
m ‌‌from‌‌ the‌‌
fulcrum,‌‌
and‌‌

the‌ ‌effort‌ ‌of‌ ‌9 ‌ ‌kgf‌ ‌is‌ ‌applied‌ ‌at‌ ‌some‌ ‌distance‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌‌
fulcrum.‌‌ At‌‌
what‌‌
minimum‌‌

distance‌‌should‌‌the‌‌effort‌‌be‌‌applied‌‌to‌‌lift‌‌the‌‌load?‌ ‌
‌
A. 1.2‌‌m ‌ ‌
B. 1.5‌‌m ‌ ‌
C. 2‌‌m ‌‌ ‌
D. 2.2‌‌m ‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
111‌ ‌
‌
Given,‌‌load‌‌=‌‌12‌‌kgf,‌‌effort‌‌=‌‌9‌‌kgf,‌‌and‌‌load‌‌arm‌‌=‌‌1.5‌‌m ‌ ‌
‌
Applying‌‌the‌‌Principle‌‌of‌‌Moments‌‌about‌‌fulcrum:‌ ‌
‌
⇒ load × load arm = ef f ort × ef f ort arm ‌
‌
⇒ 12 × 1.5 = 9 × ef f ort arm ‌
‌
⇒ ef f ort arm = 2 m ‌
‌
(c)‌ ‌ What‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌value‌ ‌of‌ ‌mechanical‌ ‌advantage‌ ‌for‌ ‌the‌ ‌given‌ ‌arrangement‌ ‌of‌ ‌ideal‌‌
pulleys?‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
A. 6‌ ‌
B. 8‌‌
‌
C. 4‌ ‌
D. 2‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
In‌ ‌general,‌ ‌if‌ ‌there‌ ‌are‌ ‌n ‌movable‌ ‌pulleys‌ ‌with‌ ‌one‌ ‌fixed‌ ‌pulley,‌ ‌the‌ ‌mechanical‌‌

advantage‌‌is‌‌written‌‌as:‌‌ ‌
⇒ M .A. = 2n ‌
‌
In‌‌the‌‌given‌‌diagram,‌‌there‌‌are‌‌three‌‌movable‌‌pulleys.‌‌So,‌‌ ‌
⇒ M .A. = 23 = 8 ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(d)‌ ‌ A‌‌
boy‌‌
pulls‌‌
up‌‌
a ‌‌box‌‌
of‌‌
1 ‌‌kg‌‌
mass‌‌
from‌‌
5 ‌‌m ‌‌to‌‌
10‌‌
m ‌‌height.‌‌
A ‌‌girl‌‌
further‌‌
pulls‌‌
up‌‌
the‌‌

____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
112‌ ‌
‌
box‌‌ from‌‌ 10‌‌ m ‌‌to‌‌

20‌‌
m ‌‌height.‌‌
What‌‌
is‌‌
the‌‌
amount‌‌ of‌‌
excess‌‌
work‌‌
done‌‌
by‌‌
the‌‌
girl‌‌
(g‌‌

=‌‌10m/s‌2‌)?‌ ‌
‌
A. 100‌‌J ‌ ‌
B. 200‌‌J ‌ ‌
C. 50‌‌J ‌ ‌
D. 0‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
‌
We‌‌know,‌‌potential‌‌energy‌‌=‌‌mgh‌ ‌
‌
Where‌‌m‌‌is‌‌the‌‌mass‌‌of‌‌an‌‌object,‌ ‌
g‌‌is‌‌the‌‌gravitational‌‌acceleration,‌‌and‌ ‌
h‌‌is‌‌the‌‌height‌‌of‌‌the‌‌object.‌ ‌
Work‌‌done‌‌=‌‌change‌‌in‌‌potential‌‌energy‌ ‌
‌=‌‌mg(change‌‌in‌‌h)‌ ‌
‌
For‌‌1st‌‌case,‌ ‌
Work‌‌done‌‌=‌‌mg(change‌‌in‌‌h)‌ ‌
‌=‌‌1‌× 10‌× (10‌‌-‌‌5)‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌=‌ ‌50‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
For‌‌2nd‌‌case,‌ ‌
Work‌‌done‌‌=‌‌m‌‌×‌‌g‌‌×‌‌(change‌‌in‌‌h)‌ ‌
‌=‌‌1‌× 10‌× (20‌‌-10)‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌=‌ ‌100‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
Difference‌‌in‌‌work‌‌done‌‌by‌‌the‌‌girl‌‌and‌‌the‌‌boy‌‌=‌‌(100‌‌-‌‌50)‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌=‌‌50‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
(e)‌ ‌ Why‌‌can't‌‌echoes‌‌be‌‌heard‌‌clearly‌‌in‌‌a‌‌small‌‌room?‌ ‌
‌
A. Because‌‌small‌‌rooms‌‌absorb‌‌more‌‌sound‌ ‌
B. Because‌‌ the‌‌ time‌‌ gap‌‌ between‌‌ direct‌‌ sound‌‌ and‌‌ reflected‌‌ sound‌‌ is‌‌
too‌‌ low‌‌ to‌‌

be‌‌perceptible‌‌by‌‌the‌‌human‌‌ear‌ ‌
C. Because‌‌small‌‌rooms‌‌reflect‌‌less‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌energy‌ ‌
D. Because‌‌ the‌‌ minimum‌‌ distance‌‌ required‌‌ to‌‌
hear‌‌ an‌‌ echo‌‌ is‌‌
17.2‌‌ m ‌‌which‌‌ is‌‌

larger‌‌than‌‌the‌‌dimension‌‌of‌‌the‌‌room‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌ ‌B‌‌and‌‌D ‌‌ ‌
‌
For‌‌
an‌‌ echo‌‌ to‌‌ be‌‌ heard‌‌ distinctly,‌‌ the‌‌ time‌‌ interval‌‌ between‌‌ the‌‌
original‌‌ sound‌‌ and‌‌
the‌ ‌reflected‌ ‌one‌ ‌must‌ ‌be‌ ‌at‌ ‌least‌ ‌0.1‌ ‌seconds.‌ ‌This‌ ‌happens‌ ‌when‌ ‌the‌ ‌distance‌‌
between‌‌ the‌‌ obstacle‌‌ and‌‌
the‌‌
source‌‌ is‌‌
more‌‌ than‌‌ 17.2‌‌ m.‌‌ In‌‌ small‌‌ rooms,‌‌ reflected‌‌
sound‌‌ comes‌‌ back‌‌ before‌‌ 0.1‌‌
seconds‌‌ as‌‌
the‌‌ distance‌‌ between‌‌ the‌‌ source‌‌ and‌‌ the‌‌

obstacle‌ ‌is‌‌ less‌‌ than‌‌ 17.2‌‌
m.‌‌
So,‌‌
we‌‌ are‌‌ not‌‌ able‌‌ to‌‌
hear‌‌ echoes‌‌ distinctly‌‌ in‌‌
small‌‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
113‌ ‌
‌
rooms.‌ ‌
‌
(f)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ The‌‌distance‌‌between‌‌the‌‌cliff‌‌and‌‌the‌‌position‌‌where‌‌he‌‌shot‌‌the‌‌gun‌‌is:‌ ‌

‌
A. 640‌‌m ‌ ‌
B. 680‌‌m ‌ ‌
C. 620‌‌m ‌ ‌
D. 660‌‌m ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌ ‌D ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
‌
Given,‌ ‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌sound‌‌=‌‌320‌‌m/s‌‌ ‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌vehicle‌‌=‌‌36‌‌km/h‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌ ‌
Time‌‌taken‌‌to‌‌hear‌‌the‌‌echo‌‌=‌‌4‌‌seconds‌ ‌
Distance‌‌travelled‌‌by‌‌sound‌‌in‌‌4‌‌seconds‌‌=‌‌320 × 4 = 1, 280 m ‌
Distance‌‌moved‌‌forward‌‌by‌‌vehicle‌‌in‌‌4‌‌seconds‌‌=‌‌10 × 4 = 40 m ‌
Total‌‌distance‌‌between‌‌the‌‌cliff‌‌and‌‌first‌‌position‌‌=‌‌ 1280+40
2 = 660 m ‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ If‌‌
the‌‌
speed‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
vehicle‌‌
increases‌‌ by‌‌
4 ‌‌times,‌‌
then‌‌
the‌‌
time‌‌
taken‌‌
to‌‌
hear‌‌

the‌‌echo‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. 11/3‌‌seconds‌ ‌
B. 10/3‌‌seconds‌‌ ‌
C. 3‌‌seconds‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
In‌‌2nd‌‌case,‌ ‌
Speed‌‌of‌‌vehicle‌‌=‌36 × 4 = 144 km/h = 40 m/s ‌
‌
Let‌‌the‌‌time‌‌taken‌‌to‌‌listen‌‌to‌‌the‌‌echo‌‌be‌‌t ‌seconds.‌ ‌
Distance‌‌travelled‌‌by‌‌sound‌‌in‌‌t‌‌seconds‌‌=‌‌320 × t = 320 t ‌
Distance‌‌moved‌‌forward‌‌by‌‌vehicle‌‌in‌‌t‌‌seconds‌‌=‌‌40 × t = 40 t ‌ ‌
Total‌‌distance‌‌between‌‌the‌‌cliff‌‌and‌‌first‌‌position‌‌is‌‌=‌‌ 320t + 40t
2 = 180 t ‌
‌
According‌‌to‌‌the‌‌question,‌ ‌
⇒ 180 t = 660 ‌
⇒t= 11
3
seconds ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
114‌ ‌
‌
(a)‌ ‌ Power‌‌of‌‌a‌‌converging‌‌lens‌‌of‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌150‌‌cm‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. +0.66‌‌D ‌ ‌
B. +0.5‌‌D ‌ ‌
C. -0.66‌‌D ‌ ‌
D. -0.5‌‌D ‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
1
Power‌‌of‌‌a‌‌spherical‌‌lens‌‌is‌‌inverse‌‌of‌‌the‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌in‌‌metres,‌‌i.e.,‌P ‌=‌ ‌ f (in m) ‌
Here,‌‌f = + 150 cm = + 1.5 m ‌
∴‌‌P ‌=‌ ‌ 1f = 1
‌ ‌‌ 1.5 ‌=‌ ‌‌0.66 D ‌
‌ ‌
(b)‌ ‌ When‌‌an‌‌electric‌‌bulb‌‌glows:‌ ‌
‌
A. Light‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌heat‌‌and‌‌electrical‌‌energy.‌ ‌
B. Heat‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌light‌‌and‌‌electrical‌‌energy.‌ ‌
C. Electrical‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌heat‌‌and‌‌light‌‌energy.‌ ‌
D. Electrical‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌heat‌‌energy‌‌only.‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
‌an‌‌
In‌‌ electric‌‌ bulb,‌‌ the‌‌ current‌‌ flowing‌‌ through‌‌ the‌‌ filament‌‌ generated‌‌ a ‌‌vast‌‌ amount‌‌
of‌‌
heat.‌‌ However,‌‌ due‌‌ to‌‌ the‌‌ lack‌‌ of‌‌ air‌‌ inside‌‌ the‌‌ bulb,‌‌ it‌‌ does‌‌ not‌‌ burn.‌‌ The‌‌ filament‌‌
has‌ ‌a ‌ ‌high‌ ‌melting‌ ‌point‌ ‌as‌ ‌well,‌ ‌due‌ ‌to‌ ‌which‌ ‌the‌ ‌filament‌ ‌does‌ ‌not‌ ‌melt,‌ ‌but‌ ‌it‌‌
glows.‌Hence,‌‌electrical‌‌energy‌‌gets‌‌converted‌‌into‌‌heat‌‌energy‌‌and‌‌light‌‌energy.‌‌ ‌
‌
(c)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ ‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌is‌‌correct.‌ ‌

‌
A. The‌‌maximum‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌3‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌maximum‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌1‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
C. The‌‌minimum‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌1‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
D. At‌‌some‌‌point‌‌in‌‌its‌‌oscillation,‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌3‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob,‌‌m‌‌=‌‌1‌‌g‌‌=‌‌0.001‌‌kg‌ ‌
g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌ ‌ ‌
‌
At‌ ‌the‌ ‌highest‌ ‌point‌ ‌and‌ ‌lowest‌ ‌point‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌bob,‌ ‌the‌ ‌total‌ ‌energy‌ ‌is‌‌

____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
115‌ ‌
‌
conserved.‌‌ ‌
‌
At‌‌
the‌‌
highest‌‌ point,‌‌
the‌‌
bob‌‌
changes‌‌ direction‌‌
of‌‌
motion‌‌
so‌‌
it‌‌
comes‌‌ to‌‌
rest‌‌

at‌‌that‌‌point‌‌and‌‌so‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌0‌‌m/s.‌‌ ‌
‌
Hence,‌‌there‌‌is‌‌no‌‌kinetic‌‌energy‌‌(K.E).‌‌So,‌‌K.E‌‌at‌‌highest‌‌point‌‌is‌‌zero.‌ ‌
‌
Thus,‌‌Total‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌at‌‌highest‌‌point‌‌= ‌ ‌
Potential‌‌energy(P.E)‌‌at‌‌highest‌‌point‌‌+‌‌Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌(K.E)‌‌at‌‌highest‌‌point‌‌
=‌‌mgh‌‌+‌‌0 ‌ ‌
‌=‌‌mgh‌ ‌
‌
At‌‌
the‌‌
lowest‌‌ point,‌‌
the‌‌
speed‌‌ is‌‌ maximum‌‌ and‌‌
potential‌‌
energy‌‌ is‌‌ minimum‌‌
(P.E‌‌=‌‌0,‌‌as‌‌height‌‌at‌‌lowest‌‌point‌‌is‌‌assumed‌‌to‌‌be‌‌0).‌ ‌
‌
Thus,‌‌Total‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌lowest‌‌point‌‌= ‌‌ ‌
Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌lowest‌‌point‌‌+‌‌Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌lowest‌‌point‌
=‌‌½‌‌mv‌2‌‌ ‌+‌‌0 ‌ ‌
‌=‌‌½‌‌mv‌2‌ ‌
‌
Therefore,‌ ‌by‌ ‌conservation‌ ‌of‌ ‌energy‌ ‌between‌ ‌the‌ ‌highest‌ ‌and‌‌ the‌‌
lowest‌‌

point.‌ ‌
mgh‌‌=‌‌½mv‌2‌ ‌
‌
v‌‌=‌‌√2gh ‌
‌=‌‌√2 × 10 × 0.05 ‌m/s‌ ‌
‌=‌‌1‌‌m/s‌ ‌
‌
Hence,‌ ‌the‌ ‌maximum‌ ‌speed‌ ‌is‌ ‌1 ‌ ‌m/s‌ ‌and‌ ‌minimum‌ ‌speed‌ ‌is‌ ‌0 ‌ ‌m/s.‌‌
Therefore,‌‌there‌‌is‌‌no‌‌position‌‌where‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌3‌‌m/s.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
116‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌is‌‌incorrect.‌ ‌
‌
A. Kinetic‌‌energy‌‌is‌‌maximum‌‌at‌‌the‌‌lowest‌‌point‌‌of‌‌the‌‌oscillation.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌total‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌0.0005‌‌J.‌ ‌
C. Potential‌‌energy‌‌is‌‌maximum‌‌at‌‌the‌‌highest‌‌point‌‌of‌‌the‌‌oscillation.‌ ‌
D. The‌‌total‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌0.05‌‌J.‌ ‌
‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌
Given,‌ ‌
Mass‌‌of‌‌bob,‌‌m‌‌=‌‌1‌‌g‌‌=‌‌0.001‌‌kg‌ ‌
g‌‌=‌‌10‌‌m/s‌2‌ ‌ ‌
‌
At‌ ‌the‌ ‌highest‌ ‌point‌ ‌and‌ ‌lowest‌ ‌point‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌bob,‌ ‌the‌ ‌total‌ ‌energy‌ ‌is‌‌
conserved.‌‌ ‌
‌
At‌‌
the‌‌
highest‌‌ point,‌‌ the‌‌
bob‌‌ changes‌‌ direction‌‌ of‌‌
motion‌‌ so‌‌ it‌‌
comes‌‌ to‌‌
rest‌‌

at‌‌that‌‌point‌‌and‌‌so‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bob‌‌is‌‌0‌‌m/s.‌‌ ‌
‌
Hence,‌ ‌there‌ ‌is‌ ‌no‌ ‌kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌and‌‌ potential‌‌
energy‌‌ is‌‌
maximum‌‌ at‌‌
the‌‌

highest‌‌point.‌ ‌
‌
At‌ ‌the‌ ‌lowest‌ ‌point,‌ ‌the‌ ‌speed‌ ‌is‌ ‌maximum,‌ ‌so‌ ‌the‌ ‌kinetic‌ ‌energy‌ ‌is‌‌
maximum‌ ‌and‌ ‌potential‌ ‌energy‌ ‌is‌ ‌minimum‌ ‌(P.E‌ ‌= ‌ ‌0,‌ ‌as‌ ‌height‌ ‌at‌ ‌lowest‌‌
point‌‌is‌‌assumed‌‌to‌‌be‌‌0).‌‌ ‌
‌
Total‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌top‌‌point=‌‌Potential‌‌energy‌‌at‌‌top‌‌point‌‌=‌‌mgh‌ ‌
‌=‌‌(0.001‌× 10‌× 0.05)‌‌J ‌‌
‌=‌‌0.0005‌‌J ‌ ‌
‌
As‌ ‌total‌‌
energy‌‌ is‌‌
conserved,‌‌ so‌‌
total‌‌
energy‌‌
will‌‌
be‌‌
the‌‌ same‌‌ at‌‌
all‌‌
points‌‌
of‌‌oscillation.‌ ‌
(d)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌the‌‌condition‌‌for‌‌the‌‌occurrence‌‌of‌‌total‌‌internal‌‌reflection?‌ ‌
‌
A. Light‌‌travels‌‌from‌‌rarer‌‌medium‌‌to‌‌denser‌‌medium.‌ ‌
B. Light‌‌travels‌‌from‌‌denser‌‌medium‌‌to‌‌rarer‌‌medium.‌ ‌
C. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌the‌‌critical‌‌angle.‌ ‌
D. Angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌smaller‌‌than‌‌the‌‌critical‌‌angle.‌ ‌
‌
‌
Answer:‌B ‌ ‌‌and‌‌C ‌ ‌
‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
117‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌
Total‌ ‌internal‌ ‌reflection‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌phenomenon‌ ‌in‌ ‌which‌ ‌a ‌ ‌light‌ ‌ray‌ ‌gets‌ ‌completely‌‌
reflected‌ ‌back‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌same‌ ‌medium‌ ‌and‌ ‌no‌ ‌part‌ ‌of‌ ‌it‌ ‌gets‌ ‌refracted.‌ ‌This‌ ‌occurs‌‌

when‌‌ a ‌‌ray‌‌ of‌‌
light‌‌
travels‌‌ from‌‌
a ‌‌denser‌‌ to‌‌
rarer‌‌
medium,‌‌ and‌‌ the‌‌ angle‌‌
of‌‌
incidence‌‌
is‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌the‌‌critical‌‌angle.‌ ‌
‌
Critical‌ ‌angle‌ ‌for‌ ‌a ‌ ‌medium-air‌ ‌boundary‌ ‌depends‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌ ‌refractive‌ ‌index‌ ‌of‌ ‌that‌‌
medium‌‌and‌‌is‌‌given‌‌as:‌ ‌
‌⇒ ‌sin‌‌C‌‌=‌‌1/μ‌ ‌
‌
Where‌‌C‌‌=‌‌critical‌‌angle,‌ ‌
‌μ‌‌=‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌the‌‌medium.‌ ‌
‌
(e)‌ ‌ (i)‌ ‌ Why‌ ‌does‌ ‌the‌ ‌ray‌ ‌of‌ ‌light‌ ‌pass‌ ‌undeviated‌ ‌through‌ ‌the‌ ‌face‌ ‌AB‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌
prism?‌ ‌
‌
A. Because‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌light‌‌is‌‌constant‌ ‌
B. Because‌‌the‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌both‌‌the‌‌mediums‌‌is‌‌the‌‌same‌ ‌
C. Because‌‌the‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌90°‌ ‌
D. Because‌‌the‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌is‌‌0°‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌D ‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution‌‌: ‌ ‌
When‌‌ a ‌‌ray‌‌ of‌‌ light‌‌ passes‌‌ from‌‌ one‌‌ medium‌‌ to‌‌
another‌‌
of‌‌
different‌‌ optical‌‌

density,‌ ‌it‌ ‌deviates‌ ‌from‌ ‌its‌ ‌original‌ ‌path,‌ ‌depending‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌ ‌mediums‌ ‌the‌‌
deviation‌‌varies.‌ ‌
‌
For‌‌a‌‌light‌‌to‌‌pass‌‌undeviated,‌‌either‌‌of‌‌the‌‌two‌‌conditions‌‌must‌‌be‌‌there:‌ ‌
● Either‌‌ the‌‌ mediums‌‌ must‌‌ have‌‌ the‌‌
same‌‌ optical‌‌
density,‌‌ causing‌‌ no‌‌

change‌‌ in‌‌ the‌‌ speed‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ ray‌‌
of‌‌
light‌‌
and‌‌ hence,‌‌
no‌‌ deviation‌‌ from‌‌

the‌‌original‌‌path.‌ ‌
● The‌ ‌ray‌ ‌must‌ ‌strike‌ ‌the‌ ‌surface‌ ‌normally,‌ ‌i.e.,‌ ‌with‌ ‌an‌ ‌angle‌ ‌of‌‌
incidence‌‌of‌‌0°.‌ ‌
In‌‌
this‌‌
case,‌‌ the‌‌ second‌‌ condition‌‌ is‌‌
satisfied‌‌ and‌‌ because‌‌ of‌‌
this,‌‌
the‌‌
light‌‌

passes‌ ‌undeviated‌ ‌even‌ ‌though‌ ‌it‌ ‌goes‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌medium‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌ ‌optical‌‌
density‌‌to‌‌a‌‌medium‌‌of‌‌higher‌‌optical‌‌density.‌ ‌ ‌
‌
‌ (ii)‌ ‌ What‌‌angle‌‌does‌‌the‌‌ray‌‌QR‌‌make‌‌with‌‌the‌‌surface‌‌AC?‌ ‌
‌
A. 30°‌ ‌
B. 45°‌ ‌
C. 60°‌ ‌
D. 75°‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌A‌ ‌ ‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
118‌ ‌
‌
‌
The‌‌ray‌‌strikes‌‌the‌‌surface‌‌AC‌‌at‌‌an‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌of‌‌60°.‌‌
‌
The‌‌angle‌‌it‌‌makes‌‌with‌‌the‌‌surface‌‌=‌‌90°‌‌-‌‌the‌‌angle‌‌of‌‌incidence‌‌ ‌
‌=‌‌90°‌‌-‌‌60°‌ ‌
‌=‌‌30°‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iii)‌ ‌ Which‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌following‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌correct‌ ‌path‌ ‌of‌ ‌light‌ ‌after‌ ‌refraction‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌‌

surface‌‌AC?‌ ‌
‌
A. ST‌1‌ ‌
B. ST‌2‌ ‌
C. ST‌3‌ ‌ ‌
D. ST‌4‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌B ‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution‌‌: ‌‌ ‌
The‌‌ ray,‌‌ after‌‌ striking‌‌
the‌‌
surface‌‌ AC,‌‌
deviates‌‌ through‌‌ an‌‌ angle‌‌ of‌‌
60°‌‌
and‌‌
hence,‌‌ emerges‌‌ normally‌‌
from‌‌
the‌‌
surface‌‌ BC.‌‌ Therefore,‌‌ it‌‌
follows‌‌ the‌‌ ray‌‌

ST‌2‌.‌ ‌
‌
‌ (iv)‌ ‌ In‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌will‌‌there‌‌be‌‌a‌‌decrease‌‌in‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌light?‌ ‌
‌
A. PQ‌‌to‌‌QR‌ ‌
B. QR‌‌to‌‌RS‌ ‌
C. RS‌‌to‌‌ST‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌A ‌ ‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌ speed‌‌ of‌‌ light‌‌
is‌‌
inversely‌‌ related‌‌
to‌‌
the‌‌ refractive‌‌ index‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌medium‌‌ so‌‌

when‌ ‌light‌ ‌moves‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌denser‌ ‌medium‌ ‌to‌ ‌a ‌ ‌rarer‌ ‌medium,‌ ‌its‌ ‌speed‌‌
increases‌ ‌and‌ ‌its‌ ‌speed‌ ‌decreases‌ ‌as‌ ‌it‌ ‌moves‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌rarer‌ ‌to‌ ‌denser‌‌

medium.‌‌ In‌‌
the‌‌ given‌‌ cases‌‌
this‌‌
condition‌‌
is‌‌
only‌‌
satisfied‌‌ when‌‌ ray‌‌ moves‌‌
from‌‌PQ‌‌to‌‌QR.‌ ‌
Hence,‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌the‌‌ray‌‌will‌‌increase‌‌in‌‌this‌‌case.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
119‌ ‌
‌
CHEMISTRY‌ ‌
‌
Two‌‌elements‌‌P‌‌and‌‌Q‌‌with‌‌atomic‌‌radii‌‌231‌‌pm‌‌and‌‌186‌‌pm,‌‌respectively,‌‌ [‌1]‌ ‌
belong‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌same‌ ‌group.‌ ‌If‌ ‌element‌ ‌P ‌ ‌belongs‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌4th‌‌
period,‌‌
which‌‌
period‌‌

does‌‌element‌‌Q‌‌belong‌‌to?‌ ‌
‌
A. 3rd‌‌period‌ ‌
B. 4th‌‌period‌ ‌
C. 5th‌‌period‌ ‌
D. 6th‌‌period‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌3rd‌‌period‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌As‌‌we‌‌move‌‌from‌‌left‌‌to‌‌right‌‌across‌‌a‌‌period,‌‌the‌‌atomic‌‌radius‌‌decreases,‌‌whereas‌‌
it‌‌increases‌‌as‌‌we‌‌go‌‌down‌‌a‌‌group.‌‌As‌‌per‌‌the‌‌information‌‌provided‌‌in‌‌the‌‌question,‌‌elements‌‌P ‌‌
and‌‌Q‌‌belong‌‌to‌‌the‌‌same‌‌group‌‌and‌‌the‌‌atomic‌‌radius‌‌of‌‌P‌‌(231‌‌pm)‌‌is‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌that‌‌of‌‌Q ‌‌
(186‌‌pm).‌‌Following‌‌the‌‌general‌‌trend‌‌for‌‌atomic‌‌radius,‌‌we‌‌can‌‌conclude‌‌that‌‌the‌‌position‌‌of‌‌Q ‌‌
is‌‌higher‌‌than‌‌that‌‌of‌‌P‌‌within‌‌the‌‌group.‌‌Given‌‌that‌‌P‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌the‌‌4th‌‌period,‌‌the‌‌only‌‌
possible‌‌option‌‌is‌‌the‌‌3rd‌‌period.‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌electrodes‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y,‌‌respectively,‌‌in‌‌the‌‌image‌‌for‌‌the‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
electrorefining‌‌of‌‌copper.‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. Copper,‌‌Platinum‌ ‌
B. Platinum,‌‌Copper‌ ‌
C. Platinum,‌‌Platinum‌ ‌
D. Copper,‌‌Copper‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌‌Copper,‌‌Copper‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
120‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌T‌ he‌‌process‌‌of‌‌electrorefining‌‌involves‌‌the‌‌purification‌‌of‌‌impure‌‌metals‌‌using‌‌the‌‌
principle‌‌of‌‌electrolysis.‌‌During‌‌the‌‌electrorefining‌‌of‌‌copper,‌‌the‌‌electrodes‌‌used‌‌at‌‌both‌‌ends‌‌
are‌‌made‌‌of‌‌copper.‌‌The‌‌cathode‌‌is‌‌made‌‌up‌‌of‌‌a‌‌thin‌‌strip‌‌of‌‌pure‌‌copper,‌‌while‌‌the‌‌anode‌‌is‌‌

composed‌‌of‌‌impure‌‌copper.‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌option‌‌that‌‌represents‌‌halogens‌‌and‌‌their‌‌position‌‌in‌‌the‌‌modern‌‌periodic‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
table.‌‌
‌
‌
A. O,‌‌S,‌‌Se,‌‌Te‌‌[Group‌‌16]‌ ‌
B. F,‌‌Cl,‌‌Br,‌‌I‌‌[Group‌‌17]‌ ‌
C. N,‌‌O,‌‌S,‌‌F‌‌[Group‌‌17]‌ ‌
D. N,‌‌P,‌‌As,‌‌Sb‌‌[Group‌‌15]‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌F ‌ ,‌‌Cl,‌‌Br,‌‌I‌‌[Group‌‌17]‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌T‌ he‌‌word‌‌‘halogen’‌‌comes‌‌from‌‌the‌‌Greek‌‌language;‌‌it‌‌means‌‌‘salt-forming’.‌‌This‌‌
name‌‌is‌‌given‌‌to‌‌the‌‌elements‌‌present‌‌in‌‌group‌‌17‌‌of‌‌the‌‌modern‌‌periodic‌‌table.‌‌The‌‌elements‌
fluorine‌‌(F),‌‌chlorine‌‌(Cl),‌‌bromine‌‌(Br),‌‌and‌‌iodine‌‌(I)‌‌are‌‌known‌‌as‌‌halogens‌‌as‌‌they‌‌combine‌‌
with‌‌metals‌‌to‌‌produce‌‌salts.‌ ‌
‌
A‌‌compound‌‌contains‌‌20%‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌80%‌‌carbon‌‌(by‌‌mass).‌‌If‌‌the‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌of‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
the‌‌compound‌‌is‌‌15,‌‌calculate‌‌its‌‌molecular‌‌formula.‌ ‌
‌
A. C‌2‌H‌2‌ ‌
B. C‌2‌H‌6‌ ‌
C. C‌3‌H‌4‌ ‌
D. C‌6‌H‌6‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌C2‌‌ H‌6‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Let‌‌us‌‌calculate‌‌the‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌hydrocarbon.‌ ‌
Element‌ ‌ Percentage‌‌
Atomic‌‌ Atomic‌‌ratio‌ ‌ Simplest‌‌ratio‌ ‌
composition‌ ‌ mass‌ ‌
80 6.67
C‌ ‌ 80‌ ‌ 12‌ ‌ 12 = 6.67 ‌ 6.67 = 1 ‌
20 20
H‌ ‌ 20‌ ‌ 1‌ ‌ 1 = 20 ‌ 6.67 = 3 ‌
‌
From‌‌the‌‌calculations,‌‌we‌‌obtained‌‌the‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌as‌C
‌ H‌3‌.‌ ‌
Empirical‌‌formula‌‌mass‌‌=‌‌12‌‌u‌‌+‌‌3‌‌u‌‌=‌‌15‌‌u ‌ ‌
‌
From‌‌the‌‌relation‌‌between‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌and‌‌molecular‌‌formula‌‌mass,‌‌we‌‌know‌‌that,‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
121‌ ‌
‌
M olecular f ormula mass = 2 × V apour density ‌…………...(i)‌ ‌

‌
Also,‌‌
‌
M olecular f ormula mass = n × E mpirical f ormula mass ,‌‌where‌n
‌ ‌‌is‌‌a‌‌natural‌‌number.‌
………….…(ii)‌ ‌
‌
Putting‌‌the‌‌relations‌‌(i)‌‌and‌‌(ii)‌‌together,‌‌we‌‌get,‌ ‌
2 × V apour density = n × E mpirical f ormula mass ‌
⇒ 2 × 15 = n × 15 ‌
⇒ n = 2 ‌
‌
Now,‌‌molecular‌‌formula‌‌=‌‌(CH‌3‌)‌n‌‌ ‌=‌‌(CH‌3‌)‌2‌ ‌
The‌‌molecular‌‌formula‌‌is‌‌C2‌
‌ H‌6‌.‌ ‌
‌
Dilute‌‌hydrochloric‌‌acid‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌calcium‌‌carbonate‌‌to‌‌produce‌‌a‌‌gas‌‌that‌‌turns‌‌moist‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
blue‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌red.‌‌Identify‌‌the‌‌gas.‌ ‌
‌
A. Cl‌2‌ ‌
B. CO‌2‌ ‌
C. CO‌ ‌
D. H‌2‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌CO‌2‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Acids‌‌react‌‌with‌‌metal‌‌carbonates‌‌and‌‌metal‌‌bicarbonates‌‌to‌‌produce‌‌salt,‌‌water‌‌and‌‌
liberate‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌gas.‌ ‌
‌
Chemical‌‌reaction:‌ ‌
Calcium‌‌carbonate‌‌+‌‌Hydrochloric‌‌acid‌‌→‌‌Calcium‌‌chloride‌‌+‌‌Water‌‌+‌‌Carbon‌‌dioxide‌ ‌
‌CaCO‌3‌(s)‌‌+‌‌HCl(aq)‌‌→‌‌CaCl‌2‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌H2‌ ‌ O(l)‌‌+‌‌CO‌2‌(↑)‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌released‌‌when‌‌tested‌‌against‌‌a‌‌moist‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌the‌‌moisture‌‌
to‌‌produce‌‌carbonic‌‌acid‌‌and‌‌turns‌‌blue‌‌litmus‌‌red.‌ ‌
‌
Chemical‌‌reactions:‌ ‌
H‌2‌O(l)‌‌+‌‌CO‌2‌(g)‌‌→‌‌H2‌‌ CO‌3‌(aq)‌ ‌
H‌2‌CO‌3‌(aq)‌‌‌ ‌→‌‌2H‌+‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌CO‌3‌2-‌(aq)‌ ‌
(H‌+‌‌ ‌ions‌‌released‌‌are‌‌responsible‌‌for‌‌turning‌‌blue‌‌litmus‌‌red.)‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌salt‌‌solution‌‌can‌‌be‌‌used‌‌to‌‌distinguish‌‌between‌‌sodium‌‌hydroxide‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
and‌‌ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌solutions?‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
122‌ ‌
‌
A. FeCl‌3‌ ‌
B. CuCl‌2‌ ‌
C. ZnCO‌3‌ ‌
D. CaCl‌2‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌‌CaCl‌2‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌solutions‌‌of‌‌ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌and‌‌sodium‌‌hydroxide‌‌can‌‌be‌‌distinguished‌‌by‌‌
using‌‌any‌‌salt‌‌solution‌‌of‌‌calcium.‌‌ ‌
Ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌is‌‌a‌‌weak‌‌base;‌‌thus,‌‌the‌‌concentration‌‌of‌‌hydroxide‌‌ions‌‌in‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌is‌‌
low‌‌as‌‌compared‌‌to‌‌that‌‌in‌‌case‌‌of‌‌sodium‌‌hydroxide.‌‌Upon‌‌treatment‌‌of‌‌sodium‌‌hydroxide‌‌
solution‌‌with‌‌a‌‌salt‌‌solution‌‌of‌‌calcium,‌‌a‌‌white‌‌precipitate‌‌of‌‌calcium‌‌hydroxide‌‌is‌‌obtained‌‌due‌‌
to‌‌a‌‌double‌‌displacement‌‌reaction.‌ ‌
CaCl‌2‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌NaOH(aq)‌‌→‌‌2NaCl(aq)‌‌+‌‌Ca(OH)‌2‌(↓)‌ ‌
‌
On‌‌the‌‌other‌‌hand,‌‌there‌‌is‌‌no‌‌precipitation‌‌when‌‌a‌‌salt‌‌solution‌‌of‌‌calcium‌‌is‌‌treated‌‌with‌‌
ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌solution.‌ ‌
CaCl‌2‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌NH‌4‌OH(aq)‌‌→‌‌No‌‌precipitate‌‌formation‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌ion‌‌will‌‌be‌‌discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode‌‌during‌‌the‌‌electrolysis‌‌of‌‌aqueous‌‌NaCl‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
solution?‌ ‌
‌
A. H‌+‌‌ ‌
B. OH‌-‌ ‌
C. Cl‌-‌ ‌
D. Na‌+‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌H ‌ +‌
‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌dissociation‌‌of‌‌aqueous‌‌NaCl‌‌solution‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌as‌‌follows:‌
NaCl‌‌→‌‌Na‌+‌‌ ‌+‌‌Cl‌-‌ ‌
H‌2‌O‌‌→‌‌H+‌ ‌ ‌ ‌+‌‌OH‌-‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌cations‌‌(Na‌+‌‌ ‌and‌‌H+‌ ‌ )‌‌migrate‌‌towards‌‌the‌‌cathode,‌‌while‌‌the‌‌anions‌‌(Cl‌-‌‌ ‌and‌‌OH‌-‌)‌‌move‌‌
towards‌‌the‌‌anode.‌‌Out‌‌of‌‌Na‌+‌‌ ‌and‌‌H+‌ ‌ ,‌‌H+‌
‌ ‌ ‌lies‌‌at‌‌a‌‌position‌‌lower‌‌to‌‌Na‌+‌‌ ‌in‌‌the‌‌electrochemical‌‌
+‌‌
series.‌‌This‌‌means‌‌that‌‌H‌ ‌will‌‌get‌‌discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode.‌‌So,‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode,‌ ‌
2H‌+‌‌ ‌+‌‌2e‌-‌‌ ‌→‌‌H2‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Similarly,‌‌between‌‌the‌‌anions,‌‌Cl‌-‌‌ ‌will‌‌get‌‌preferably‌‌discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
‌
Read‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements:‌‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
● Element‌‌P‌‌contains‌‌7‌‌valence‌‌electrons‌‌and‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌the‌‌3rd‌‌period.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
123‌ ‌
‌
● Element‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌the‌‌most‌‌electronegative‌‌element‌‌in‌‌the‌‌periodic‌‌table.‌ ‌
● Element‌‌R‌‌is‌‌a‌‌lustrous‌‌solid‌‌non-metal.‌ ‌
● Element‌‌S‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌the‌‌4th‌‌period‌‌and‌‌is‌‌a‌‌liquid‌‌non-metal.‌ ‌
‌
Arrange‌‌the‌‌elements‌‌in‌‌the‌‌increasing‌‌order‌‌of‌‌their‌‌electron‌‌affinity.‌ ‌
‌
A. P‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌R‌‌<‌‌S ‌ ‌
B. R‌‌<‌‌S‌‌<‌‌P‌‌<‌‌Q ‌ ‌
C. R‌‌<‌‌S‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌P ‌ ‌
D. S‌‌<‌‌R‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌P ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(C)‌R‌ ‌‌<‌‌S‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌P ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌given‌‌statements‌‌can‌‌be‌‌analysed‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
● Element‌‌P‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌the‌‌third‌‌period.‌‌Thus,‌‌it‌‌should‌‌have‌‌3‌‌shells.‌‌Further,‌‌the‌‌element‌‌
has‌‌7‌‌electrons‌‌in‌‌its‌‌valence‌‌shell.‌‌So,‌‌its‌‌electronic‌‌configuration‌‌should‌‌be‌‌2,‌‌8,‌‌7.‌‌

Therefore,‌‌element‌P ‌ ‌‌is‌‌chlorine.‌ ‌
● Element‌‌Q‌‌is‌‌the‌‌most‌‌electronegative‌‌element‌‌in‌‌the‌‌periodic‌‌table.‌‌Thus,‌‌element‌Q ‌ ‌‌is‌‌

fluorine‌. ‌ ‌
● Non-metals‌‌are‌‌generally‌‌non-lustrous‌‌in‌‌nature.‌‌A‌‌solid‌‌lustrous‌‌non-metal‌‌is‌‌iodine.‌‌
Thus,‌‌element‌R ‌ ‌‌is‌‌iodine‌. ‌
● Element‌‌S‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌the‌‌fourth‌‌period‌‌and‌‌is‌‌a‌‌liquid‌‌non-metal.‌‌Thus,‌‌element‌S ‌ ‌‌is‌‌

bromine.‌ ‌
Now,‌‌electron‌‌affinity‌‌is‌‌defined‌‌as‌‌the‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌energy‌‌released‌‌when‌‌an‌‌electron‌‌is‌‌added‌‌to‌‌
the‌‌outermost‌‌shell‌‌of‌‌an‌‌isolated‌‌gaseous‌‌atom.‌‌As‌‌we‌‌move‌‌down‌‌the‌‌group,‌‌the‌‌value‌‌of‌‌
electron‌‌affinity‌‌decreases.‌‌Thus,‌‌for‌‌the‌‌given‌‌elements,‌‌the‌‌increasing‌‌order‌‌of‌‌electron‌‌affinity‌‌
should‌‌be‌‌R‌‌<‌‌S‌‌<‌‌P‌‌<‌‌Q.‌‌H
‌ owever,‌‌t‌he‌‌electron‌‌affinity‌‌of‌‌chlorine‌‌is‌‌greater‌‌than‌‌that‌‌of‌‌fluorine‌‌

due‌‌to‌‌the‌‌small‌‌size‌‌of‌‌fluorine.‌‌So,‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌order‌‌is:‌R
‌ ‌‌<‌‌S‌‌<‌‌Q‌‌<‌‌P ‌ ‌
The‌‌compound‌‌that‌‌contains‌‌only‌‌single‌‌covalent‌‌bonds‌‌is:‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. CCl‌4‌ ‌
B. C‌2‌H‌4‌ ‌
C. O‌2‌ ‌
D. N‌2‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌CCl‌4‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌There‌‌are‌‌three‌‌different‌‌types‌‌of‌‌covalent‌‌bonds,‌‌namely:‌ ‌
● Single‌‌covalent‌‌bond:‌‌Formed‌‌by‌‌sharing‌‌one‌‌pair‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌between‌‌the‌‌two‌‌bonding‌‌
atoms‌ ‌
● Double‌‌covalent‌‌bond:‌‌Formed‌‌by‌‌sharing‌‌two‌‌pairs‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌between‌‌the‌‌two‌‌
bonding‌‌atoms‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
124‌ ‌
‌
● Triple‌‌covalent‌‌bond:‌‌Formed‌‌by‌‌sharing‌‌three‌‌pairs‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌between‌‌the‌‌two‌‌

bonding‌‌atoms‌ ‌
The‌‌nature‌‌of‌‌bonds‌‌in‌‌the‌‌given‌‌molecules‌‌is‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
1‌‌triple‌‌covalent‌‌bond‌‌between‌‌the‌‌two‌‌N ‌‌
4‌‌single‌‌covalent‌‌bonds‌‌between‌‌C‌‌and‌‌Cl‌‌
atoms‌ ‌
atoms‌ ‌
‌
1‌‌double‌‌covalent‌‌bond‌‌between‌‌the‌‌two‌‌O ‌ ‌
atoms‌ ‌ 1‌‌double‌‌covalent‌‌bond‌‌between‌‌the‌‌two‌‌C ‌‌
atoms‌‌and‌‌4‌‌single‌‌covalent‌‌bonds‌‌between‌‌
C‌‌and‌‌H‌‌atoms‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌options‌‌is‌‌not‌‌correct‌‌about‌‌the‌‌anode‌‌in‌‌an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell?‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. It‌‌is‌‌connected‌‌to‌‌the‌‌positive‌‌terminal‌‌of‌‌the‌‌battery.‌ ‌
B. Anions‌‌present‌‌in‌‌the‌‌solution‌‌migrate‌‌to‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
C. Current‌‌enters‌‌into‌‌the‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell‌‌through‌‌the‌‌anode.‌‌ ‌
D. Reduction‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌at‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌R ‌ eduction‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌at‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌An‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell‌‌consists‌‌of‌‌two‌‌electrodes‌‌and‌‌an‌‌electrolytic‌‌solution,‌‌all‌‌placed‌‌in‌‌
a‌‌non-conducting‌‌vessel.‌‌The‌‌electrode‌‌connected‌‌to‌‌the‌‌negative‌‌terminal‌‌of‌‌the‌‌battery‌‌is‌‌
known‌‌as‌‌cathode,‌‌while‌‌the‌‌electrode‌‌connected‌‌to‌‌the‌‌positive‌‌terminal‌‌of‌‌the‌‌battery‌‌is‌‌known‌‌
as‌‌anode.‌ ‌
Upon‌‌passage‌‌of‌‌electricity‌‌through‌‌the‌‌solution,‌‌the‌‌anions‌‌migrate‌‌towards‌‌the‌‌anode‌‌where‌‌
oxidation‌‌takes‌‌place.‌‌The‌‌cations,‌‌on‌‌the‌‌other‌‌hand,‌‌migrate‌‌towards‌‌the‌‌cathode‌‌where‌‌
reduction‌‌takes‌‌place.‌‌The‌‌current‌‌enters‌‌into‌‌the‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell‌‌through‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌best‌‌oxidising‌‌agent‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌would‌‌be:‌‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. F‌ ‌
B. H‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
125‌ ‌
‌
C. O‌ ‌
D. N‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌F ‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌best‌‌oxidising‌‌agent‌‌would‌‌be‌‌the‌‌element‌‌that‌‌can‌‌readily‌‌remove‌‌electrons‌‌from‌‌
other‌‌elements.‌‌For‌‌this‌‌to‌‌happen,‌‌the‌‌element‌‌should‌‌be‌‌highly‌‌electronegative.‌‌We‌‌know‌‌that‌‌
the‌‌electronegativity‌‌of‌‌an‌‌element‌‌increases‌‌from‌‌left‌‌to‌‌right‌‌across‌‌a‌‌period‌‌and‌‌decreases‌‌
from‌‌top‌‌to‌‌bottom‌‌in‌‌a‌‌group.‌ ‌
Out‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌elements,‌‌fluorine‌‌is‌‌located‌‌at‌‌the‌‌extreme‌‌right‌‌and‌‌top‌‌of‌‌the‌‌periodic‌‌table‌‌
(2nd‌‌period‌‌and‌‌group‌‌17).‌‌Thus,‌‌F‌‌is‌‌the‌‌best‌‌oxidising‌‌agent.‌ ‌
‌
An‌‌ionic‌‌bond‌‌is‌‌formed‌‌between‌‌two‌‌elements‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y‌‌such‌‌that‌‌the‌‌formula‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
obtained‌‌is‌‌XY‌3‌.‌‌Determine‌‌the‌‌total‌‌number‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌transferred‌‌from‌‌X→Y.‌ ‌
‌
A. 1‌ ‌
B. 2‌ ‌
C. 3‌ ‌
D. 4‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(C)‌3 ‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌An‌‌ionic‌‌bond‌‌is‌‌formed‌‌when‌‌the‌‌electrons‌‌lost‌‌by‌‌an‌‌electropositive‌‌element‌‌are‌‌
gained‌‌by‌‌an‌‌electronegative‌‌element.‌‌Analysing‌‌the‌‌given‌‌chemical‌‌formula,‌‌we‌‌can‌‌
understand‌‌that‌‌atom‌‌X‌‌loses‌‌1‌‌electron‌‌each‌‌to‌‌3‌‌atoms‌‌of‌‌Y‌‌to‌‌form‌‌XY‌3‌.‌‌Hence,‌‌the‌‌number‌‌
of‌‌electrons‌‌transferred‌‌from‌‌X‌‌to‌‌Y‌‌is‌‌3.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
The‌‌given‌‌table‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌observations‌‌recorded‌‌during‌‌an‌‌experiment‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
conducted‌‌between‌‌metal‌‌sulphates‌‌and‌‌caustic‌‌soda‌‌(excess).‌‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌ ‌
elements‌‌can‌‌form‌‌the‌‌hydroxide‌‌B?‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
126‌ ‌
‌
Metal‌‌hydroxide‌ ‌ Observation‌ ‌
A‌ ‌ Forms‌‌precipitate‌ ‌
B‌ ‌ No‌‌precipitate‌ ‌
‌
A. Zn‌ ‌
B. Cu‌ ‌
C. Ca‌ ‌
D. Fe‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌Zn‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Caustic‌‌soda‌‌is‌‌the‌‌common‌‌name‌‌for‌‌sodium‌‌hydroxide‌‌(NaOH).‌‌ ‌
Metal‌‌sulphate‌‌+‌‌Sodium‌‌hydroxide‌‌→‌‌Metal‌‌hydroxide‌‌+‌‌Sodium‌‌sulphate‌ ‌
Among‌‌the‌‌given‌‌elements,‌‌all‌‌the‌‌metal‌‌hydroxides‌‌except‌‌zinc‌‌hydroxide‌‌form‌‌a‌‌precipitate‌‌
upon‌‌reacting‌‌with‌‌caustic‌‌soda‌‌(NaOH).‌ ‌
‌
ZnSO‌4‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌2NaOH(aq)‌‌→‌‌Zn(OH)‌2‌(s)‌‌+‌‌Na‌2‌SO‌4‌(aq)‌ ‌
[White]‌ ‌
Zinc‌‌hydroxide‌‌dissolves‌‌in‌‌excess‌‌NaOH‌‌to‌‌form‌‌soluble‌‌sodium‌‌zincate.‌ ‌
‌
Zn(OH)‌2‌(s)‌‌+‌‌2NaOH(aq)‌‌→‌‌Na‌2‌ZnO‌2‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌2H‌2‌O(l)‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌is‌‌not‌‌suitable‌‌for‌‌the‌‌manufacture‌‌of‌‌a‌‌container‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
required‌‌to‌‌store‌‌copper‌‌sulphate‌‌solution?‌ ‌
‌
A. Silver‌ ‌
B. Gold‌‌ ‌
C. Platinum‌ ‌
D. Iron‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌‌Iron‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌According‌‌to‌‌the‌‌electrochemical‌‌series,‌‌the‌‌metals‌‌placed‌‌at‌‌the‌‌higher‌‌positions‌‌are‌‌
more‌‌reactive‌‌and‌‌can‌‌easily‌‌displace‌‌the‌‌metals‌‌lying‌‌at‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌positions‌‌from‌‌their‌‌salt‌‌

solutions.‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌elements‌‌can‌‌be‌‌arranged‌‌in‌‌the‌‌decreasing‌‌order‌‌of‌‌their‌‌reactivity‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
Iron‌‌(Fe)‌‌>‌‌Copper‌‌(Cu)‌‌>‌‌Silver‌‌(Ag)‌‌>‌‌Gold‌‌(Au)‌‌>‌‌Platinum‌‌(Pt)‌ ‌
Out‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌elements,‌‌only‌‌iron‌‌is‌‌more‌‌reactive‌‌than‌‌copper.‌‌Thus,‌‌iron‌‌can‌‌displace‌‌

copper‌‌from‌‌its‌‌solution.‌‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
127‌ ‌
‌
Fe(s)‌‌+‌‌CuSO‌4‌(aq)‌‌→‌‌FeSO‌4‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌Cu(s)‌ ‌
Thus,‌‌it‌‌is‌‌not‌‌safe‌‌to‌‌store‌‌copper‌‌sulphate‌‌in‌‌an‌‌iron‌‌vessel.‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌conversion‌‌of‌‌forms‌‌of‌‌energy‌‌in‌‌an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Heat‌‌→‌‌Light‌ ‌
B. Chemical‌‌→‌‌Electrical‌ ‌
C. Light‌‌→‌‌Heat‌ ‌
D. Electrical‌‌→‌‌Chemical‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌E ‌ lectrical‌‌→‌‌Chemical‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌An‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell‌‌is‌‌a‌‌setup‌‌that‌‌uses‌‌electrical‌‌energy‌‌to‌‌dissociate‌‌the‌‌electrolytes‌‌
and‌‌obtain‌‌products‌‌at‌‌the‌‌electrodes.‌‌Thus,‌‌there‌‌is‌‌a‌‌conversion‌‌of‌‌electrical‌‌energy‌‌to‌‌
chemical‌‌energy.‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌two‌‌groups‌‌in‌‌the‌‌modern‌‌periodic‌‌table‌‌are‌‌most‌‌likely‌‌to‌‌form‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
an‌‌ionic‌‌bond?‌ ‌
‌
A. Group‌‌IA‌‌and‌‌IIIA‌ ‌
B. Group‌‌VA‌‌and‌‌VIA‌ ‌
C. Group‌‌IVA‌‌and‌‌VA‌ ‌
D. Group‌‌IA‌‌and‌‌VIIA‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌G ‌ roup‌‌IA‌‌and‌‌VIIA‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌formation‌‌of‌‌an‌‌ionic‌‌bond‌‌is‌‌favoured‌‌by‌‌a‌‌large‌‌difference‌‌in‌‌the‌‌
electronegativity‌‌of‌‌the‌‌bonding‌‌atoms.‌‌The‌‌elements‌‌in‌‌group‌‌IA‌‌are‌‌the‌‌most‌‌electropositive‌‌
elements,‌‌while‌‌the‌‌elements‌‌in‌‌group‌‌VIIA‌‌are‌‌the‌‌most‌‌electronegative‌‌elements‌‌in‌‌their‌‌
respective‌‌periods.‌‌Thus,‌‌the‌‌electronegativity‌‌difference‌‌when‌‌these‌‌elements‌‌combine‌‌with‌‌
each‌‌other‌‌is‌‌the‌‌maximum.‌‌Hence,‌‌they‌‌are‌‌the‌‌most‌‌likely‌‌to‌‌form‌‌an‌‌ionic‌‌bond.‌ ‌
Example:‌ ‌
Element‌‌from‌‌group‌‌IA:‌‌Na‌ ‌
Element‌‌from‌‌group‌‌VIIA:‌‌Cl‌ ‌
The‌‌resultant‌‌compound‌‌formed‌‌is‌‌NaCl‌‌(ionic).‌ ‌
‌
Determine‌‌the‌‌molecular‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌a‌‌compound‌‌having‌‌an‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
as‌‌A2‌
‌ B.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌given‌‌that‌‌the‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌is‌‌equal‌‌to‌‌its‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌weight.‌ ‌
‌
A. A‌4‌B‌2‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
128‌ ‌
‌
B. A‌2‌B‌4‌ ‌
C. A‌3‌B‌6‌ ‌
D. A‌2‌B‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌A4‌‌ B‌2‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌G‌ iven,‌ ‌
Empirical‌‌formula‌‌=‌‌A2‌ ‌ B‌ ‌
Also,‌‌
‌
V apour density = Empirical f ormula weight ‌
‌
From‌‌the‌‌relation‌‌between‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌and‌‌molecular‌‌formula‌‌weight,‌‌we‌‌know‌‌that,‌ ‌
M olecular f ormula weight = 2 × V apour density ‌
⇒ M olecular f ormula weight = 2 × E mpirical f ormula weight …………...(i)‌ ‌
‌
Also,‌‌
‌
M olecular f ormula weight = n × E mpirical f ormula weight …………...(ii)‌
Where‌n ‌ ‌‌is‌‌a‌‌natural‌‌number‌ ‌
‌
From‌‌(i)‌‌and‌‌(ii),‌ ‌
n = 2 ‌
‌
Now,‌‌ ‌
M olecular f ormula = (Empirical f ormula)n = (A2 B)2 = A4 B 2 ‌
‌
An‌‌ionic‌‌compound‌‌AB‌‌is‌‌electrolysed‌‌in‌‌its‌‌molten‌‌form.‌‌Which‌‌ion‌‌will‌‌be‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode?‌ ‌
‌
A. A‌+‌ ‌
B. A‌-‌ ‌
C. B‌+‌ ‌
D. B‌-‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌A+‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌As‌‌AB‌‌is‌‌an‌‌ionic‌‌compound,‌‌it‌‌is‌‌formed‌‌by‌‌A+‌
‌ ‌ ‌and‌‌B-‌‌‌ ‌ions.‌‌During‌‌electrolysis,‌‌the‌‌
dissociation‌‌of‌‌molten‌‌AB‌‌will‌‌take‌‌place‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
AB‌‌→‌‌A+‌ ‌ ‌ ‌+‌‌B-‌‌ ‌
‌
In‌‌an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell,‌‌cations‌‌are‌‌discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode‌‌and‌‌anions‌‌at‌‌the‌‌anode.‌‌So,‌‌A+‌ ‌ ‌ ‌will‌‌

be‌‌discharged‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode‌‌and‌‌B-‌‌‌ ‌at‌‌the‌‌anode.‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
129‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌ionisation‌‌energy‌‌(in‌‌kJ‌‌mol‌-1‌)‌‌of‌‌some‌‌elements‌‌is‌‌given.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
● M‌‌→‌‌520‌ ‌
● N‌‌→‌‌498‌ ‌
● O‌‌→‌‌419‌ ‌
● P‌‌→‌‌403‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌these‌‌elements‌‌will‌‌undergo‌‌an‌‌oxidation‌‌reaction‌‌at‌‌the‌‌fastest‌‌rate?‌ ‌
‌
A. M‌ ‌
B. N‌ ‌
C. O‌ ‌
D. P‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌‌P ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Ionisation‌‌energy‌‌is‌‌the‌‌energy‌‌required‌‌to‌‌remove‌‌an‌‌electron‌‌from‌‌the‌‌outermost‌‌
shell‌‌of‌‌an‌‌isolated‌‌gaseous‌‌atom.‌‌Lower‌‌the‌‌ionisation‌‌energy‌‌of‌‌an‌‌atom,‌‌the‌‌easier‌‌it‌‌is‌‌to‌‌

remove‌‌an‌‌electron‌‌from‌‌its‌‌outermost‌‌shell.‌ ‌
An‌‌oxidation‌‌reaction‌‌involves‌‌the‌‌loss‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌from‌‌an‌‌atom.‌‌Thus,‌‌the‌‌element‌‌with‌‌the‌
least‌‌ionisation‌‌energy‌‌will‌‌undergo‌‌oxidation‌‌reaction‌‌at‌‌the‌‌fastest‌‌rate.‌ ‌
Out‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌elements,‌‌P‌‌has‌‌the‌‌least‌‌ionisation‌‌energy‌‌and‌‌will‌‌undergo‌‌oxidation‌‌at‌‌the‌‌
fastest‌‌rate.‌ ‌
‌
For‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌compounds‌‌will‌‌the‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌be‌‌equal‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
to‌‌the‌‌molecular‌‌formula?‌ ‌
‌
A. H‌2‌O‌2‌ ‌
B. P‌2‌O‌5‌ ‌
C. B‌2‌H‌6‌
D. C‌2‌H‌4‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌P2‌‌ O‌5‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌a‌‌compound‌‌gives‌‌the‌‌simplest‌‌whole‌‌number‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌atoms‌‌
present‌‌in‌‌one‌‌molecule‌‌of‌‌the‌‌compound.‌ ‌
‌
Molecular‌‌formula‌ ‌ Ratio‌‌of‌‌atoms‌ ‌ Simplest‌‌whole‌‌ Empirical‌‌formula‌ ‌
number‌‌ratio‌ ‌
H‌2‌O‌2‌ ‌ 2:2‌ ‌ 1:1‌ ‌ HO‌ ‌
P‌2‌O‌5‌ ‌ 2:5‌ ‌ 2:5‌ ‌ P‌2‌O‌5‌ ‌
B‌2‌H‌6‌ ‌ 2:6‌ ‌ 1:3‌ ‌ BH‌3‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
130‌ ‌
‌
C‌2‌H‌4‌ ‌ 2:4‌ ‌ 1:2‌ ‌ CH‌2‌ ‌

‌
Thus,‌‌the‌‌molecular‌‌formula‌‌and‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌are‌‌the‌‌same‌‌only‌‌for‌‌P2‌‌ O‌5‌.‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌is‌‌best‌‌suited‌‌to‌‌be‌‌used‌‌as‌‌a‌‌cathode‌‌in‌‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell?‌ ‌
‌
A. Lithium‌ ‌
B. Carbon‌ ‌
C. Boron‌ ‌
D. Oxygen‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌L ‌ ithium‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌In‌‌an‌‌electrolytic‌‌cell,‌‌reduction‌‌occurs‌‌at‌‌the‌‌cathode.‌‌This‌‌means‌‌that‌‌the‌‌cathode‌‌
should‌‌be‌‌made‌‌up‌‌of‌‌an‌‌element‌‌that‌‌can‌‌easily‌‌lose‌‌electrons‌‌to‌‌the‌‌incoming‌‌cation.‌‌For‌‌an‌‌
element‌‌to‌‌easily‌‌lose‌‌electrons,‌‌it‌‌should‌‌have‌‌a‌‌lower‌‌ionisation‌‌energy.‌ ‌
Ionisation‌‌energy‌‌increases‌‌from‌‌left‌‌to‌‌right‌‌across‌‌a‌‌period‌‌and‌‌decreases‌‌from‌‌top‌‌to‌‌bottom‌‌
in‌‌a‌‌group.‌ ‌
Out‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌elements,‌‌lithium‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌group‌‌1‌‌and‌‌has‌‌the‌‌least‌‌ionisation‌‌energy.‌‌So,‌‌it‌‌
is‌‌most‌‌suitable‌‌to‌‌be‌‌used‌‌as‌‌a‌‌cathode.‌ ‌
‌
What‌‌will‌‌be‌‌the‌‌colour‌‌of‌‌the‌‌precipitate‌‌formed‌‌when‌‌zinc‌‌sulphate‌‌is‌‌treated‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
with‌‌excess‌‌ammonium‌‌hydroxide?‌
‌
A. White‌ ‌
B. Colourless‌ ‌
C. Blue‌ ‌
D. Green‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌Colourless‌‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌‌Zinc‌‌sulphate‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌to‌‌form‌‌a‌‌white‌‌gelatinous‌‌precipitate‌‌
of‌‌zinc‌‌hydroxide‌‌and‌‌ammonium‌‌sulphate.‌ ‌
ZnSO‌4‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌2NH‌4‌OH(aq)‌‌→‌‌Zn(OH)‌2‌(↓)‌‌+‌‌(NH‌4‌)‌2‌SO‌4‌(aq)‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌precipitate‌‌dissolves‌‌in‌‌excess‌‌ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌to‌‌form‌‌a‌‌colourless‌‌solution‌‌of‌‌
tetraamminezinc(II)‌‌sulphate.‌ ‌
Zn(OH)‌2‌(↓)‌‌+‌‌(NH‌4‌)‌2‌SO‌4‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌2NH‌4‌OH(aq)‌‌→‌‌[Zn(NH‌3‌)‌4‌]SO‌4‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌4H‌2‌O(l)‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌atom‌‌of‌‌an‌‌element‌‌present‌‌in‌‌group‌‌VA‌‌of‌‌the‌‌modern‌‌periodic‌‌table‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
131‌ ‌
‌
contains‌‌3‌‌shells.‌‌Find‌‌its‌‌valency‌‌and‌‌electronic‌‌configuration.‌ ‌
‌
A. 3,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌5)‌ ‌
B. 5,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌5)‌‌
‌
C. 3,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌3)‌ ‌
D. 5,‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌3)‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌3,‌‌‌(2,‌‌8,‌‌5)‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌elements‌‌present‌‌in‌‌the‌‌group‌‌VA‌‌have‌‌5‌‌valence‌‌electrons.‌‌The‌‌valency‌‌of‌‌an‌‌
atom‌‌having‌‌electrons‌‌more‌‌than‌‌8‌‌is‌‌given‌‌by‌‌(8‌‌-‌‌number‌‌of‌‌valence‌‌electrons).‌ ‌
Hence,‌‌the‌‌valency‌‌of‌‌the‌‌atom‌‌=‌‌8‌‌-‌‌5‌‌=‌‌3
‌‌ ‌
As‌‌the‌‌atom‌‌consists‌‌of‌‌3‌‌shells,‌‌its‌‌electronic‌‌configuration‌‌is‌‌2,‌‌8,‌‌5.‌ ‌
‌
Select‌‌the‌‌incorrect‌‌statement‌‌in‌‌terms‌‌of‌‌ionic‌‌and‌‌covalent‌‌bonds.‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌have‌‌high‌‌melting‌‌and‌‌boiling‌‌points.‌ ‌
B. In‌‌the‌‌aqueous‌‌state,‌‌ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌better‌‌conductors‌‌than‌‌covalent‌‌compounds.‌ ‌
C. Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌insoluble‌‌in‌‌water,‌‌while‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌highly‌‌soluble‌‌in‌‌
water.‌ ‌
D. Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌formed‌‌by‌‌the‌‌transfer‌‌of‌‌electrons,‌‌while‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌
formed‌‌by‌‌the‌‌sharing‌‌of‌‌electrons.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(C)‌I‌onic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌insoluble‌‌in‌‌water,‌‌while‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌highly‌‌
soluble‌‌in‌‌water.‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌formed‌‌by‌‌the‌‌transfer‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌between‌‌atoms‌‌with‌‌a ‌‌
significant‌‌difference‌‌in‌‌their‌‌electronegativities.‌‌Thus,‌‌ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌generally‌‌polar‌‌in‌‌

nature.‌‌On‌‌the‌‌other‌‌hand,‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌formed‌‌by‌‌mutual‌‌sharing‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌
between‌‌atoms.‌‌Thus,‌‌they‌‌are‌‌majorly‌‌non-polar‌‌in‌‌nature.‌ ‌
As‌‌water‌‌is‌‌a‌‌polar‌‌solvent,‌‌ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌generally‌‌soluble‌‌in‌‌water,‌‌while‌‌covalent‌‌

compounds‌‌are‌‌generally‌‌insoluble‌‌in‌‌water.‌ ‌
‌
Some‌‌properties‌‌of‌‌ionic‌‌and‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
‌
Property‌ ‌ Ionic‌‌compounds‌ ‌ Covalent‌‌compounds‌ ‌
Complete‌‌transfer‌‌of‌‌

Bond‌‌formation‌ ‌ Sharing‌‌of‌‌electrons‌ ‌
electrons‌ ‌
Melting‌‌and‌‌boiling‌‌points‌ ‌ High‌ ‌ Low‌ ‌
Good‌‌conductors‌‌in‌‌molten‌‌

Electrical‌‌conductance‌ ‌ Poor‌‌conductors‌ ‌
and‌‌aqueous‌‌state‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
132‌ ‌
‌
Solubility‌‌in‌‌water‌ ‌ Highly‌‌soluble‌ ‌ Scarcely‌‌soluble‌ ‌

‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌elements‌‌exhibit‌‌a‌‌diagonal‌‌relationship‌‌with‌‌beryllium?‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Sodium‌ ‌
B. Magnesium‌ ‌
C. Aluminium‌ ‌
D. Silicon‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌(‌ C)‌‌Al‌ ‌
Solution:‌E ‌ lements‌‌in‌‌the‌‌second‌‌period‌‌exhibit‌‌similarity‌‌in‌‌properties‌‌with‌‌the‌‌elements‌‌of‌‌the‌‌
next‌‌group‌‌of‌‌the‌‌third‌‌period.‌‌These‌‌elements‌‌are‌‌known‌‌as‌‌bridge‌‌elements,‌‌and‌‌they‌‌lead‌‌to‌‌
a‌‌diagonal‌‌relationship.‌ ‌
‌
‌
Thus,‌‌aluminium‌‌exhibits‌‌a‌‌diagonal‌‌relationship‌‌with‌‌beryllium.‌ ‌
‌
Dry‌‌blue‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌turns‌‌red‌‌in‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of:‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. HCl(g)‌ ‌
B. NaOH(aq)‌ ‌
C. C‌6‌H‌6‌(aq)‌ ‌
D. H‌2‌CO‌3‌(aq)‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌‌H2‌ ‌ CO‌3‌(aq)‌‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Blue‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌can‌‌be‌‌used‌‌as‌‌a‌‌visual‌‌indicator‌‌to‌‌detect‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌an‌‌acid.‌‌
In‌‌an‌‌aqueous‌‌solution,‌‌an‌‌acidic‌‌substance‌‌furnishes‌‌H+‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ions‌‌that‌‌turn‌‌blue‌‌litmus‌‌red.‌‌
‌
Since‌‌the‌‌given‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌is‌‌dry,‌‌the‌‌acidic‌‌substance‌‌should‌‌be‌‌in‌‌aqueous‌‌form‌‌in‌‌order‌‌to‌‌
carry‌‌out‌‌the‌‌colour‌‌change.‌ ‌
Out‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌substances:‌ ‌
● HCl(g)‌‌→‌‌Present‌‌in‌‌gaseous‌‌form;‌‌thus,‌‌cannot‌‌release‌‌H+‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ions‌ ‌
-‌‌
● NaOH(aq)‌‌→‌‌Basic‌‌in‌‌nature,‌‌furnishes‌‌OH‌ ‌ions‌‌in‌‌solution‌ ‌
● C‌6‌H‌6‌(aq)‌‌→‌‌Covalent‌‌compound,‌‌does‌‌not‌‌furnish‌‌any‌‌ions‌‌in‌‌aqueous‌‌solution‌ ‌
● H‌2‌CO‌3‌(aq)‌‌→‌‌Furnishes‌‌H+‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ions‌‌in‌‌solution,‌‌turns‌‌dry‌‌blue‌‌litmus‌‌paper‌‌red‌ ‌
Chemical‌‌reaction:‌‌H2‌ ‌ CO‌3‌(aq)‌‌→‌‌2H‌+‌(aq)‌‌+‌‌CO‌3‌2-‌(aq)‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
133‌ ‌
‌
Electrolytic‌‌dissociation‌‌of‌‌AlCl‌3‌‌ ‌will‌‌produce:‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌

‌
A. AlCl‌2‌+‌‌ ‌and‌‌Cl‌-‌ ‌
B. AlCl‌+‌‌ ‌and‌‌2Cl‌-‌ ‌
C. Al‌3+‌and‌
‌
‌3Cl‌-‌ ‌ ‌
D. Al‌‌and‌‌Cl‌2‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(C)‌A ‌ l‌3+‌‌ ‌and‌‌3Cl‌-‌ ‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌‌Electrolytic‌‌dissociation‌‌of‌‌AlCl‌3‌‌ ‌produces:‌ ‌
AlCl‌3‌‌ ‌→‌‌Al‌3+‌‌ ‌+‌‌3Cl‌-‌ ‌
‌
A‌‌compound‌‌of‌‌carbon,‌‌hydrogen,‌‌and‌‌nitrogen‌‌contains‌‌these‌‌elements‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
in‌‌the‌‌ratio‌‌18:2:7.‌‌Calculate‌‌the‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌the‌‌compound.‌ ‌
‌
A. C‌3‌H‌4‌N‌ ‌
B. C‌2‌H‌3‌N‌ ‌
C. CH‌4‌N‌ ‌
D. CH‌2‌N‌2‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌C3‌‌ H‌4‌N‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌the‌‌compound‌‌can‌‌be‌‌calculated‌‌as‌‌shown:‌ ‌
Atomic‌‌
Relative‌‌number‌‌of‌‌
Simplest‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌

Element‌‌
‌ Ratio‌‌
‌
weight‌ ‌ atoms‌ ‌ whole‌‌numbers‌ ‌
18 1.5
C‌ ‌ 18‌ ‌ 12‌ ‌ 12
= 1.5 ‌ 0.5
= 3 ‌
2 2
H‌ ‌ 2‌ ‌ 1‌ ‌ 1
= 2 ‌ 0.5
= 4 ‌
7 0.5
N‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌ 14‌ ‌ 14
= 0.5 ‌ 0.5
= 1 ‌
‌
⇒‌‌The‌‌empirical‌‌formula‌‌of‌‌the‌‌compound‌‌is‌‌C3‌
‌ H‌4‌N.‌ ‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌colours‌‌correctly‌‌denotes‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌ferric‌‌ions‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
in‌‌a‌‌solution?‌ ‌
‌ ‌
A. Pale‌‌blue‌
B. Dirty‌‌green‌ ‌
C. Reddish-brown‌ ‌
D. Gelatinous‌‌white‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(C)‌R ‌ eddish-brown‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
134‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌treatment‌‌of‌‌a‌‌ferric‌‌salt‌‌with‌‌an‌‌alkaline‌‌solution‌‌of‌‌sodium‌‌hydroxide‌‌or‌‌
ammonium‌‌hydroxide‌‌results‌‌in‌‌the‌‌formation‌‌of‌‌a‌‌reddish-brown‌‌precipitate‌‌of‌‌ferric‌‌hydroxide,‌‌
Fe(OH)‌3‌.‌‌This‌‌is‌‌an‌‌analytical‌‌test‌‌that‌‌verifies‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌Fe‌3+‌‌ ‌ions‌‌in‌‌a‌‌solution.‌ ‌
‌
Study‌‌the‌‌given‌‌information‌‌about‌‌atoms‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y.‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
‌ X‌ ‌ Y‌ ‌
Number‌‌of‌‌protons‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌
Number‌‌of‌‌neutrons‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌ 8‌ ‌
Period‌ ‌ 2‌ ‌ 2‌ ‌

‌
To‌‌which‌‌group‌‌do‌‌atoms‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y‌‌belong?‌ ‌
‌
A. 8,‌‌7 ‌ ‌
B. 7,‌‌8 ‌ ‌
C. 15,‌‌15‌ ‌
D. 16,‌‌15‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(C)‌‌15,‌‌15‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y‌‌have‌‌the‌‌same‌‌number‌‌of‌‌protons‌‌and‌‌different‌‌number‌‌of‌‌neutrons.‌‌Hence,‌‌
these‌‌are‌‌isotopes.‌‌ ‌
Atomic‌‌numbers‌‌of‌‌both‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y‌‌=‌‌Number‌‌of‌‌protons‌‌=‌‌7 ‌‌ ‌
Further,‌‌for‌‌a‌‌neutral‌‌atom,‌‌number‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌=‌‌atomic‌‌number‌‌=‌‌7 ‌‌ ‌
So,‌‌the‌‌electronic‌‌configuration‌‌of‌‌both‌‌X‌‌and‌‌Y‌‌is‌‌2,‌‌5.‌‌
‌
The‌‌given‌‌atoms‌‌are‌‌of‌‌the‌‌same‌‌element,‌‌nitrogen,‌‌which‌‌belongs‌‌to‌‌group‌‌15.‌ ‌
‌
The‌‌respective‌‌bonds‌‌involved‌‌in‌‌the‌‌formation‌‌of‌‌H2‌ ‌ O‌‌and‌‌H3‌ ‌ O‌+‌‌ ‌are:‌ ‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Covalent‌‌and‌‌ionic‌‌bonds‌ ‌
B. Ionic‌‌and‌‌covalent‌‌bonds‌ ‌
C. Coordinate‌‌and‌‌ionic‌‌bonds‌ ‌
D. Covalent‌‌and‌‌coordinate‌‌bonds‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌C ‌ ovalent‌‌and‌‌coordinate‌‌bonds‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌formation‌‌of‌‌H2‌ ‌ O‌‌or‌‌water‌‌involves‌‌two‌‌covalent‌‌bonds‌‌between‌‌an‌‌oxygen‌‌atom‌‌
and‌‌two‌‌hydrogen‌‌atoms.‌‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
135‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
The‌‌hydrogen‌‌ion‌‌suspended‌‌in‌‌water‌‌is‌‌quite‌‌unstable.‌‌Thus,‌‌it‌‌forms‌‌a‌‌coordinate‌‌bond‌‌with‌‌

water,‌‌accepting‌‌an‌‌electron‌‌pair‌‌from‌‌the‌‌lone‌‌pair‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌on‌‌the‌‌oxygen‌‌atom.‌‌
‌
‌
‌
The‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌of‌‌oxygen‌‌gas‌‌is:‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. 8‌ ‌
B. 16‌ ‌
C. 32‌ ‌
D. 64‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌16‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌‌We‌‌know‌‌that,‌‌
‌
Vapour‌‌density‌‌=‌‌21 × M olecular mass ‌ ‌
Now,‌‌molecular‌‌mass‌‌of‌‌oxygen‌‌=‌‌32‌‌u ‌ ‌
Thus,‌‌
‌
V apour density of oxygen gas = 21 × 32 ‌
Hence,‌‌vapour‌‌density‌‌of‌‌oxygen‌‌=‌‌16‌ ‌
‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌pairs‌‌of‌‌oxidising‌‌and‌‌reducing‌‌agents,‌‌respectively.‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. MnO‌2‌,‌‌PbO‌2‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
136‌ ‌
‌
B. O‌3‌,‌‌H2‌‌ S‌ ‌
C. Na,‌S ‌ nCl‌4‌ ‌
D. PbO‌2‌,‌‌O2‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌O3‌‌ ,‌‌H2‌‌ S‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Oxidising‌‌agent:‌‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌substance‌‌that‌‌has‌‌the‌‌ability‌‌to‌‌get‌‌reduced‌‌and‌‌thereby‌‌
oxidise‌‌other‌‌substances.‌‌Examples:‌‌PbO‌2‌,‌‌MnO‌2‌,‌‌O3‌ ‌ ,‌‌O2‌
‌ ,‌‌etc.‌ ‌
Reducing‌‌agent:‌‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌substance‌‌that‌‌reduces‌‌other‌‌substances‌‌and‌‌gets‌‌oxidised.‌‌Examples:‌‌
H‌2‌S,‌‌Na,‌‌etc.‌ ‌
‌
Study‌‌the‌‌given‌‌reaction:‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
2Na(s)‌‌+‌‌2HCl(aq)‌‌→‌‌2NaCl(aq)‌‌+‌‌H2‌ ‌ (g)‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌most‌‌suitable‌‌indicator‌‌to‌‌determine‌‌the‌‌nature‌‌of‌‌the‌‌product‌‌formed.‌ ‌
‌
A. Phenolphthalein‌ ‌
B. Blue‌‌litmus‌ ‌
C. Red‌‌litmus‌ ‌
D. Universal‌‌indicator‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(D)‌‌Universal‌‌indicator‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌products‌‌formed‌‌in‌‌the‌‌given‌‌reaction‌‌are‌‌sodium‌‌chloride‌‌and‌‌hydrogen‌‌gas,‌‌
which‌‌are‌‌neutral‌‌in‌‌nature.‌‌The‌‌indicators,‌‌phenolphthalein‌‌and‌‌litmus‌‌solutions,‌‌do‌‌not‌‌show‌‌
any‌‌change‌‌in‌‌colour‌‌in‌‌a‌‌neutral‌‌medium.‌‌Thus,‌‌these‌‌indicators‌‌are‌‌not‌‌suitable‌‌to‌‌determine‌‌
the‌‌nature‌‌of‌‌the‌‌products‌‌in‌‌the‌‌given‌‌reaction.‌‌The‌‌universal‌‌indicator‌‌gives‌‌different‌‌colours‌‌at‌‌
different‌‌pH‌‌values.‌‌Thus,‌‌it‌‌can‌‌be‌‌used‌‌to‌‌detect‌‌the‌‌nature‌‌of‌‌products‌‌formed.‌ ‌
‌
Determine‌‌the‌‌oxidation‌‌state‌‌and‌‌valency,‌‌respectively,‌‌of‌‌a‌‌sodium‌‌atom.‌‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
A. 0,‌‌0 ‌ ‌
B. 0,‌‌1 ‌ ‌
C. 1,‌‌0 ‌ ‌
D. 1,‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌0 ‌ ,‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌oxidation‌‌state‌‌of‌‌an‌‌atom‌‌represents‌‌the‌‌charge‌‌on‌‌the‌‌atom‌‌in‌‌its‌‌combined‌‌
state.‌‌A‌‌sodium‌‌atom‌‌(in‌‌its‌‌elemental‌‌state)‌‌is‌‌neutral.‌‌Thus,‌‌its‌‌oxidation‌‌state‌‌is‌‌0.‌‌
‌
The‌‌valency‌‌of‌‌an‌‌atom‌‌is‌‌the‌‌number‌‌of‌‌electrons‌‌it‌‌can‌‌lose,‌‌gain,‌‌or‌‌share‌‌to‌‌achieve‌‌the‌‌
nearest‌‌noble‌‌gas‌‌configuration.‌‌The‌‌electronic‌‌configuration‌‌of‌‌a‌‌sodium‌‌atom‌‌is‌‌2,‌‌8,‌‌1.‌‌It‌‌
tends‌‌to‌‌lose‌‌one‌‌electron.‌‌Thus,‌‌its‌‌valency‌‌is‌‌1.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
137‌ ‌
‌
‌
Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌metal‌‌oxides‌‌is‌‌not‌‌amphoteric‌‌in‌‌nature?‌ ‌ ‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. ZnO‌ ‌
B. CuO‌ ‌
C. Al‌2‌O‌3‌ ‌
D. PbO‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌CuO‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Amphoteric‌‌oxides‌‌can‌‌react‌‌with‌‌both‌‌acids‌‌and‌‌bases‌‌to‌‌produce‌‌salt‌‌and‌‌water.‌‌
Oxides‌‌of‌‌zinc,‌‌aluminium,‌‌and‌‌lead‌‌are‌‌amphoteric‌‌as‌‌they‌‌react‌‌with‌‌both‌‌acids‌‌and‌‌bases‌‌to‌‌
produce‌‌salt‌‌and‌‌water.‌ ‌
CuO‌‌is‌‌a‌‌basic‌‌oxide‌‌as‌‌it‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌acids‌‌to‌‌form‌‌salt‌‌and‌‌water‌‌but‌‌does‌‌not‌‌react‌‌with‌‌a ‌‌
base.‌ ‌
CuO‌‌+‌‌HCl‌‌→‌‌CuCl‌2‌‌ ‌+‌‌H2‌‌ O‌ ‌
‌
Answer‌‌the‌‌following‌‌questions‌‌based‌‌on‌‌the‌‌understanding‌‌of‌‌ionic‌‌and‌‌covalent‌‌bonds.‌ ‌[4]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌W
‌ hich‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌compounds‌‌can‌‌be‌‌placed‌‌in‌‌the‌‌beaker‌‌to‌‌complete‌‌the‌‌circuit?‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. NaCl(aq)‌ ‌
B. NaOH(s)‌ ‌
C. CCl‌4‌(l)‌ ‌
D. C‌4‌H‌10‌(l)‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌NaCl(aq)‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌release‌‌ions‌‌when‌‌dissolved‌‌in‌‌water.‌‌These‌‌ions‌‌are‌‌responsible‌‌
for‌‌the‌‌conduction‌‌of‌‌electricity.‌‌On‌‌the‌‌other‌‌hand,‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌like‌‌CCl‌4‌‌ ‌and‌‌C4‌
‌ H‌10‌‌ ‌do‌‌

____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
138‌ ‌
‌
not‌‌dissociate‌‌and‌‌exist‌‌as‌‌molecules‌‌in‌‌the‌‌solution.‌‌Thus,‌‌these‌‌covalent‌‌compounds‌‌will‌‌not‌‌
conduct‌‌electricity.‌‌ ‌
Also,‌‌NaOH‌‌conducts‌‌electricity‌‌only‌‌in‌‌an‌‌aqueous‌‌solution‌‌and‌‌not‌‌in‌‌the‌‌solid‌‌state.‌
Thus,‌‌the‌‌bulb‌‌will‌‌only‌‌glow‌‌when‌‌NaCl(aq)‌‌is‌‌placed‌‌in‌‌the‌‌beaker.‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌ ‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌compounds‌‌will‌‌undergo‌‌the‌‌given‌‌dissociation‌‌reaction?‌ ‌
MX(aq)‌‌→‌‌M+‌ ‌ (aq)‌‌+‌‌X-‌‌(aq)‌ ‌
‌
A. ICl‌ ‌
B. NaH‌ ‌
C. CO‌ ‌
D. NO‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(B)‌‌NaH‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Ionic‌‌compounds‌‌dissociate‌‌into‌‌constituent‌‌ions‌‌(cation‌‌and‌‌anion)‌‌when‌‌dissolved‌‌in‌‌
water.‌‌Out‌‌of‌‌the‌‌given‌‌compounds,‌‌NaH‌‌is‌‌an‌‌ionic‌‌compound.‌‌Thus,‌‌NaH‌‌will‌‌undergo‌‌a ‌‌
dissociation‌‌reaction‌‌to‌‌form‌‌Na‌+‌and‌
‌
‌H-‌‌‌ ‌ions‌‌in‌‌the‌‌aqueous‌‌solution.‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌general‌‌physical‌‌state‌‌in‌‌which‌‌ionic‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌mostly‌‌found?‌ ‌
‌
A. Solid‌ ‌
B. Liquid‌
C. Gas‌ ‌
D. Plasma‌‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌‌Solid‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌I‌nterparticle‌‌forces‌‌within‌‌an‌‌ionic‌‌compound‌‌are‌‌stronger‌‌as‌‌compared‌‌to‌‌covalent‌‌
compounds.‌‌As‌‌a‌‌result,‌‌the‌‌particles‌‌in‌‌an‌‌ionic‌‌compound‌‌stay‌‌close‌‌to‌‌each‌‌other.‌‌Thus,‌‌they‌‌
are‌‌usually‌‌found‌‌in‌‌a‌‌solid‌‌state.‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌The‌‌nature‌‌of‌‌the‌‌compounds‌‌formed‌‌when‌‌hydrogen‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌lithium‌‌and‌‌chlorine,‌‌
respectively,‌‌is:‌ ‌
‌
A. Ionic,‌‌Covalent‌ ‌
B. Covalent,‌‌Covalent‌ ‌
C. Covalent,‌‌Ionic‌ ‌
D. Ionic,‌‌Ionic‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌(A)‌I‌onic,‌‌Covalent‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
139‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌I‌onic‌‌bonds‌‌are‌‌formed‌‌when‌‌an‌‌electropositive‌‌element‌‌combines‌‌with‌‌an‌‌
electronegative‌‌element.‌‌Alkali‌‌metals‌‌are‌‌highly‌‌electropositive,‌‌and‌‌the‌‌electronegativity‌‌
difference‌‌between‌‌Li‌‌and‌‌H‌‌is‌‌quite‌‌high.‌‌Thus,‌‌LiH‌‌is‌‌an‌‌ionic‌‌compound.‌ ‌ ‌
Covalent‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌formed‌‌between‌‌atoms‌‌with‌‌a‌‌low‌‌difference‌‌in‌‌their‌‌
electronegativities.‌‌As‌‌the‌‌electronegativity‌‌difference‌‌between‌‌H‌‌and‌‌Cl‌‌is‌‌low,‌‌HCl‌‌is‌‌a ‌‌
covalent‌‌compound.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
BIOLOGY‌ ‌
‌
Name‌‌the‌‌following‌‌by‌‌choosing‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌option:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌ ‌A ‌ ‌pair‌ ‌of‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌that‌ ‌contain‌ ‌the‌ ‌same‌ ‌genes‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌same‌ ‌order‌ ‌along‌ ‌their‌‌
chromosomal‌‌arms:‌ ‌
‌
A. Heterologous‌‌chromosomes‌ ‌
B. Parental‌‌chromosomes‌ ‌
C. Homologous‌‌chromosomes‌ ‌
D. Sister‌‌chromatids‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌H ‌ omologous‌‌chromosomes‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Homologous‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌are‌ ‌chromosome‌ ‌pairs‌ ‌(one‌ ‌from‌ ‌each‌ ‌parent)‌‌ that‌‌
are‌‌
similar‌ ‌in‌ ‌length,‌ ‌gene‌ ‌position,‌ ‌and‌ ‌centromere‌ ‌location.‌ ‌The‌ ‌position‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌genes‌ ‌on‌ ‌each‌‌
homologous‌‌chromosome‌‌is‌‌the‌‌same.‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌The‌‌agent‌‌that‌‌can‌‌affect‌‌the‌‌rate‌‌of‌‌transpiration‌‌by‌‌the‌‌closure‌‌of‌‌stomata:‌ ‌
‌
A. O‌2‌ ‌
B. CO‌2‌ ‌
C. H‌2‌O‌ ‌
D. N‌2‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌CO‌2‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ Stomata‌‌ are‌‌ small‌‌ openings‌‌ on‌‌ the‌‌
lower‌‌ epidermis‌‌
of‌‌
a ‌‌leaf‌‌
that‌‌ help‌‌
in‌‌ transpiration.‌‌
When‌ ‌the‌ ‌CO‌2‌ level‌
‌ i
‌n‌ t
‌he‌
o
‌ utside‌
a
‌ ir‌
e
‌ xceeds‌ t
‌he‌ n
‌ ormal‌
0
‌ .03%,‌ i
‌t‌
c
‌ auses‌ t
‌he‌ c
‌ losure‌ o
‌ f‌‌

stomata.‌‌Therefore,‌‌the‌‌rate‌‌of‌‌transpiration‌‌decreases.‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌The‌‌process‌‌by‌‌which‌‌molecules‌‌move‌‌from‌‌a‌‌region‌‌of‌‌higher‌‌concentration‌‌to‌‌a‌‌region‌‌of‌‌
lower‌‌concentration:‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
140‌ ‌
‌
A. Diffusion‌ ‌
B. Active‌‌transport‌ ‌
C. Imbibition‌ ‌
D. Osmosis‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌Diffusion‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Diffusion‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌free‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌‌ molecules‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌substance‌‌ from‌‌
higher‌‌
concentration‌ ‌to‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌ ‌concentration‌ ‌when‌ ‌the‌ ‌two‌ ‌are‌ ‌in‌‌ direct‌‌
contact‌‌ with‌‌ each‌‌
other.‌ ‌This‌ ‌movement‌ ‌continues‌ ‌until‌ ‌the‌ ‌concentration‌‌ of‌‌
molecules‌‌ becomes‌‌ the‌‌ same‌‌ in‌‌
all‌‌

the‌‌available‌‌space.‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌The‌‌primary‌‌constriction‌‌at‌‌the‌‌centre‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chromosome:‌ ‌
‌
A. Centrosome‌ ‌
B. Centromere‌ ‌
C. Centriole‌ ‌
D. Tetrad‌ ‌
‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌Centromere‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌A ‌ ‌centromere‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌‌constricted‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌chromosome‌‌ that‌‌ separates‌‌ it‌‌
into‌‌ a ‌‌short‌‌
arm‌‌ (p)‌‌ and‌‌
a ‌‌long‌‌ arm‌‌
(q).‌‌
The‌‌
centromere‌‌ of‌‌
each‌‌ chromosome‌‌ is‌‌
located‌‌ at‌‌
a ‌‌particular‌‌ site.‌‌

It‌‌
is‌‌
a ‌‌point‌‌
on‌‌ a ‌‌chromosome‌‌ where‌‌ mitotic‌‌
spindle‌‌ fibres‌‌ attach‌‌
to‌‌
pull‌‌ sister‌‌
chromatids‌‌ apart‌‌
during‌‌cell‌‌division.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
(v)‌ ‌A ‌ ‌plant‌ ‌is‌ ‌kept‌ ‌in‌ ‌a ‌ ‌dark‌ ‌closed‌ ‌room‌ ‌for‌ ‌48‌ ‌hours‌ ‌before‌ ‌conducting‌ ‌any‌ ‌experiment‌ ‌on‌‌

photosynthesis‌‌to‌‌remove:‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
141‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. Protein‌ ‌
B. Starch‌ ‌
C. DNA‌ ‌
D. Carbon‌‌dioxide‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌Starch‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Starch‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌are‌ ‌produced‌ ‌by‌ ‌the‌ ‌process‌ ‌of‌ ‌photosynthesis.‌ ‌When‌ ‌a ‌ ‌plant‌ ‌is‌‌
kept‌ ‌in‌ ‌a ‌ ‌dark‌ ‌region,‌ ‌i.e.,‌ ‌away‌ ‌from‌ ‌sunlight,‌ ‌for‌ ‌around‌ ‌48‌ ‌hours,‌ ‌the‌ ‌process‌ ‌of‌‌
photosynthesis‌‌halts,‌‌and‌‌the‌‌plant‌‌is‌‌destarched.‌‌ ‌
‌
Complete‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌by‌‌choosing‌‌the‌‌appropriate‌‌option‌‌for‌‌each‌‌blank:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌ ‌Chiasmata‌‌formation‌‌is‌‌a‌‌characteristic‌‌feature‌‌of‌‌______.‌ ‌
‌
A. prophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
B. metaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
C. anaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
D. telophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌prophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌C ‌ hiasmata‌‌is‌‌the‌‌point‌‌of‌‌contact‌‌between‌‌two‌‌non-sister‌‌chromatids‌‌that‌‌belong‌‌to‌‌
the‌‌homologous‌‌chromosomes.‌‌When‌‌an‌‌exchange‌‌of‌‌genetic‌‌content‌‌at‌‌a‌‌particular‌‌chiasma‌‌
can‌‌take‌‌place‌‌between‌‌both‌‌chromatids,‌‌it‌‌is‌‌known‌‌as‌‌chromosomal‌‌crossover.‌‌This‌‌
chiasmata‌‌formation‌‌is‌‌observed‌‌in‌‌prophase‌‌I‌‌of‌‌meiosis.‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌ ‌__________‌‌is‌‌an‌‌example‌‌of‌‌imbibition.‌ ‌
‌
A. Swelling‌‌of‌‌wooden‌‌doors‌ ‌
B. Opening‌‌of‌‌stomata‌ ‌
C. Uptake‌‌of‌‌water‌‌by‌‌root‌‌hair‌ ‌
D. Loss‌‌of‌‌water‌‌through‌‌hydathodes‌ ‌
‌
Answer‌:‌‌A.‌‌Swelling‌‌of‌‌wooden‌‌doors‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Imbibition‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌phenomenon‌ ‌in‌ ‌which‌ ‌living‌ ‌or‌ ‌dead‌ ‌plant‌ ‌cells‌ ‌absorb‌ ‌water‌ ‌by‌‌
surface‌‌attraction.‌‌It‌‌causes‌‌an‌e ‌ normous‌‌increase‌‌in‌‌the‌‌volume‌‌of‌‌the‌‌substance.‌‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌ ‌The‌ ‌pressure‌ ‌required‌ ‌to‌ ‌prevent‌ ‌the‌ ‌entry‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌into‌ ‌an‌ ‌osmotically‌ ‌active‌ ‌solution‌ ‌is‌‌

known‌‌as‌‌________.‌ ‌
‌
A. turgor‌‌pressure‌ ‌
B. solvent‌‌pressure‌ ‌
C. solute‌‌pressure‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
142‌ ‌
‌
D. osmotic‌‌pressure‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌‌osmotic‌‌pressure‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌An‌ ‌osmotically‌ ‌active‌ ‌solution‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌solution‌ ‌that‌ ‌allows‌ ‌the‌ ‌osmotic‌ ‌entry‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌‌

through‌ ‌a ‌ ‌semipermeable‌ ‌membrane.‌ ‌If‌ ‌we‌ ‌apply‌ ‌some‌ ‌pressure‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌solution‌ ‌side‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌
semipermeable‌ ‌membrane,‌ ‌it‌ ‌will‌ ‌halt‌ ‌the‌ ‌osmosis‌ ‌of‌ ‌water,‌ ‌which‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌pure‌ ‌solvent.‌ ‌This‌ ‌is‌‌

known‌ ‌as‌ ‌osmotic‌ ‌pressure.‌ ‌It‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌minimum‌ ‌pressure‌ ‌that‌ ‌must‌ ‌be‌ ‌exerted‌ ‌to‌ ‌prevent‌ ‌the‌‌
passage‌ ‌of‌ ‌pure‌ ‌solvent‌ ‌into‌ ‌the‌ ‌solution‌ ‌when‌ ‌the‌ ‌two‌ ‌are‌ ‌separated‌ ‌by‌ ‌a ‌ ‌semipermeable‌‌
membrane.‌‌ ‌
‌
In‌‌
the‌‌
given‌‌
illustration,‌‌ it‌‌
can‌‌
be‌‌
observed‌‌
that‌‌
the‌‌
solvent‌‌ molecules‌‌
tend‌‌
to‌‌ pass‌‌ through‌‌ the‌‌
semipermeable‌ ‌membrane‌ ‌into‌ ‌the‌ ‌solution‌ ‌side‌ ‌until‌ ‌the‌‌ osmotic‌‌
pressure‌‌ (of‌‌
the‌‌
solution)‌‌ is‌‌

applied‌‌there.‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Guttation‌‌in‌‌plants‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌during‌‌___________.‌‌ ‌
‌
A. warm,‌‌humid‌‌nights‌ ‌
B. heavy‌‌rainy‌‌days‌ ‌
C. hot,‌‌sunny‌‌days‌ ‌
D. cold‌‌winter‌‌nights‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌warm,‌‌humid‌‌nights‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ Guttation‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌ loss‌‌
of‌‌
water‌‌
from‌‌ hydathodes‌‌ (small‌‌ pores)‌‌
on‌‌
the‌‌ leaf‌‌ edge‌‌
of‌‌
a ‌‌tiny‌‌
herbaceous‌ ‌plant‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌droplets.‌ ‌A ‌ ‌warm,‌ ‌humid‌ ‌atmosphere‌ ‌decreases‌‌
transpiration,‌ ‌while‌ ‌the‌ ‌plant’s‌ ‌root‌ ‌system‌ ‌absorbs‌ ‌excess‌ ‌water.‌ ‌As‌ ‌a ‌ ‌result,‌ ‌hydrostatic‌‌
pressure‌ ‌develops‌ ‌within‌ ‌the‌ ‌plant‌ ‌which‌ ‌forces‌ ‌water‌ ‌upwards.‌ ‌This‌ ‌excess‌ ‌water‌ ‌gets‌‌
exudated‌‌through‌‌the‌‌tip‌‌of‌‌veins‌‌in‌‌the‌‌leaves.‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌ ‌The‌‌green‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌a‌‌variegated‌‌leaf‌‌contain‌‌_______‌‌molecules‌‌that‌‌produce‌‌starch.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
143‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. water‌ ‌
B. chlorophyll‌ ‌
C. carbon‌‌dioxide‌ ‌
D. sunlight‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌chlorophyll‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ A ‌‌variegated‌‌ leaf‌‌ contains‌‌ non-green‌‌ parts‌‌ along‌‌ with‌‌
green‌‌
parts.‌‌ Green‌‌ parts‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌

leaf‌‌ possess‌‌ chlorophyll.‌‌ Therefore,‌‌ they‌‌
carry‌‌ out‌‌ photosynthesis‌‌ and‌‌
produce‌‌ starch.‌‌ This‌‌ can‌‌

be‌ ‌confirmed‌ ‌with‌‌ the‌‌
help‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
iodine‌‌ test.‌‌
In‌‌
the‌‌
iodine‌‌ test,‌‌
when‌‌
iodine‌‌ solution‌‌ is‌‌
poured‌‌
on‌‌ the‌‌ leaf‌‌
after‌‌
removing‌‌ the‌‌
chlorophyll‌‌ molecules‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
leaf,‌‌
the‌‌
part‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌ leaf‌‌
that‌‌ is‌‌
green‌‌
in‌ ‌colour‌ ‌turns‌ ‌blue-black.‌ ‌The‌ ‌non-green‌ ‌parts‌ ‌do‌ ‌not‌ ‌change‌ ‌their‌ ‌colour.‌ ‌The‌ ‌bluish‌‌ colour‌‌

confirms‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌starch‌‌because‌‌it‌‌turns‌‌blue-black‌‌when‌‌it‌‌reacts‌‌with‌‌iodine.‌ ‌
‌
‌
Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌answer‌‌from‌‌each‌‌of‌‌the‌‌four‌‌options‌‌given‌‌below:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌state‌‌of‌‌a‌‌cell‌‌wall‌‌when‌‌it‌‌is‌‌rigid‌‌and‌‌stretched‌‌due‌‌to‌‌an‌‌increase‌‌in‌‌volume?‌ ‌
‌
A. Turgidity‌ ‌
B. Diffusion‌ ‌
C. Plasmolysis‌ ‌
D. Flaccidity‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
144‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌Turgidity‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌Turgidity‌‌ is‌‌
a ‌‌state‌‌
of‌‌
a ‌‌cell‌‌
in‌‌
which‌‌ the‌‌
cell‌‌
wall‌‌
is‌‌
rigid‌‌
and‌‌ stretched‌‌ by‌‌
an‌‌
increase‌‌
in‌ ‌the‌ ‌volume‌ ‌of‌ ‌vacuoles‌ ‌due‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌absorption‌ ‌of‌ ‌water.‌‌
The‌‌ cell‌‌
is‌‌
then‌‌ said‌‌
to‌‌
be‌‌
turgid.‌‌
It‌‌

provides‌ ‌rigidity‌ ‌to‌ ‌plants‌ ‌such‌ ‌as‌ ‌stretching‌ ‌shoots‌ ‌and‌ ‌keeping‌ ‌leaves‌ ‌erect‌ ‌and‌ ‌fully‌‌
expanded.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(ii)‌‌During‌‌anaphase,‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌pulls‌‌the‌‌chromosomes‌‌to‌‌the‌‌opposing‌‌poles?‌ ‌
‌
A. Nucleolus‌ ‌
B. Spindle‌‌fibres‌ ‌
C. Cell‌‌membrane‌ ‌
D. Centromere‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌Spindle‌‌fibres‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ Anaphase‌‌ is‌‌
a ‌‌stage‌‌
of‌‌
mitosis.‌‌ During‌‌
this‌‌
stage,‌‌ centromeres‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
chromosomes‌‌
split‌‌and‌‌are‌‌pulled‌‌to‌‌the‌‌poles‌‌with‌‌the‌‌help‌‌of‌‌proteins‌‌known‌‌as‌‌spindle‌‌fibres.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(iii)‌‌What‌‌other‌‌material,‌‌besides‌‌parchment‌‌paper,‌‌can‌‌be‌‌used‌‌as‌‌a‌‌semipermeable‌‌membrane‌‌

during‌‌osmosis?‌ ‌
‌
A. Animal‌‌bladder‌ ‌
B. Woollen‌‌cloth‌ ‌
C. Cotton‌‌cloth‌ ‌
D. Net‌‌mesh‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌Animal‌‌bladder‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
145‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌Parchment‌ ‌paper‌ ‌is‌ ‌used‌ ‌as‌ ‌a ‌ ‌semipermeable‌ ‌membrane‌ ‌during‌ ‌osmosis.‌ ‌A ‌‌
semipermeable‌ ‌membrane‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌layer‌ ‌that‌ ‌only‌ ‌certain‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌can‌ ‌pass‌ ‌through.‌ ‌Semi‌‌
permeable‌ ‌membranes‌ ‌can‌ ‌be‌ ‌both‌ ‌biological‌ ‌and‌ ‌artificial.‌ ‌As‌ ‌an‌ ‌alternative‌ ‌to‌ ‌parchment‌‌
paper,‌‌an‌‌animal‌‌bladder‌‌can‌‌be‌‌used.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌What‌‌happens‌‌during‌‌the‌‌dark‌‌reaction‌‌of‌‌photosynthesis?‌ ‌
‌
A. Photolysis‌‌of‌‌water‌‌into‌‌oxygen‌‌and‌‌hydrogen‌ ‌
B. Formation‌‌of‌‌starch‌‌from‌‌the‌‌polymerisation‌‌of‌‌glucose‌ ‌
C. Reduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌to‌‌make‌‌ATP‌ ‌
D. Oxidation‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌to‌‌produce‌‌glucose‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌Formation‌‌of‌‌starch‌‌from‌‌the‌‌polymerisation‌‌of‌‌glucose‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Dark‌ ‌reaction‌ ‌involves‌ ‌the‌ ‌fixation‌ ‌and‌ ‌reduction‌ ‌of‌ ‌carbon‌ ‌dioxide,‌ ‌resulting‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌
formation‌ ‌of‌ ‌glucose.‌ ‌Most‌ ‌plants‌ ‌convert‌ ‌this‌ ‌glucose‌ ‌into‌ ‌starch‌ ‌through‌ ‌a ‌ ‌process‌ ‌called‌‌
polymerisation.‌ ‌In‌ ‌this‌ ‌process,‌ ‌several‌ ‌glucose‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌combine‌ ‌to‌ ‌form‌ ‌one‌ ‌molecule‌ ‌of‌‌
starch.‌‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌an‌‌alternative‌‌form‌‌of‌‌a‌‌specific‌‌gene?‌ ‌
‌
A. Cell‌ ‌
B. Nucleus‌ ‌
C. Allele‌ ‌
D. DNA‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌Allele‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌Alleles‌‌
are‌‌
a ‌‌pair‌‌
of‌‌ genes‌‌ that‌‌
occupy‌‌
a ‌‌specific‌‌ location‌‌ on‌‌ a ‌‌particular‌‌ chromosome‌‌
and‌ ‌control‌ ‌the‌ ‌same‌ ‌trait.‌ ‌Alleles‌ ‌may‌ ‌appear‌ ‌in‌ ‌pairs‌ ‌or‌ ‌in‌ ‌multiple‌ ‌forms,‌ ‌which‌ ‌affect‌ ‌a ‌‌
specific‌‌trait‌‌of‌‌the‌‌offspring.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
Explain‌‌the‌‌following‌‌terms:‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
146‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌Osmosis:‌ ‌
‌
A. Transfer‌‌ of‌‌
of‌‌
lower‌‌ concentration‌‌ to‌‌
higher‌‌
concentration‌‌through‌‌a‌‌semipermeable‌‌membrane‌ ‌
B. Transfer‌‌ of‌‌
of‌‌
higher‌‌
concentration‌‌without‌‌a‌‌semipermeable‌‌membrane‌ ‌
C. Movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌substances‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌higher‌ ‌concentration‌ ‌to‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌‌
concentration‌ ‌
D. Diffusion‌ ‌of‌ ‌substances‌ ‌through‌‌ a ‌‌semipermeable‌‌ membrane‌‌ against‌‌ the‌‌ concentration‌‌
gradient‌‌by‌‌the‌‌utilisation‌‌of‌‌energy‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌ ‌A.‌ ‌Transfer‌ ‌of‌ ‌solvent‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌‌ concentration‌‌ to‌‌

higher‌‌concentration‌‌through‌‌a‌‌semipermeable‌‌membrane‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Osmosis‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solvent‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌through‌ ‌a ‌ ‌selectively‌ ‌permeable‌‌
membrane‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌ ‌concentration‌ ‌to‌ ‌a ‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌higher‌ ‌concentration‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌‌
direction‌‌that‌‌tends‌‌to‌‌equalise‌‌the‌‌solute‌‌concentrations‌‌on‌‌the‌‌two‌‌sides.‌‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Photolysis‌‌of‌‌water:‌ ‌
‌
A. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌oxygen‌‌in‌‌the‌‌absence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
B. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌ozone‌‌in‌‌the‌‌absence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
C. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌oxygen‌‌in‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
D. Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌ozone‌‌in‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌Splitting‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌into‌‌hydrogen‌‌and‌‌oxygen‌‌in‌‌the‌‌presence‌‌of‌‌light‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Photolysis‌ ‌is‌ ‌defined‌ ‌as‌ ‌the‌ ‌decomposition‌ ‌of‌ ‌substances‌ ‌on‌ ‌exposure‌ ‌to‌ ‌light.‌‌
Photolysis‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌breakdown‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌into‌ ‌hydrogen‌ ‌and‌ ‌oxygen‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌
presence‌ ‌of‌ ‌sunlight.‌ ‌During‌ ‌the‌ ‌first‌ ‌step‌ ‌of‌ ‌photosynthesis,‌ ‌the‌‌ chlorophyll‌‌ gets‌‌ activated‌‌ by‌‌
absorbing‌ ‌light‌‌ energy.‌‌ This‌‌
energy‌‌ helps‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌
splitting‌‌ of‌‌
water‌‌ molecules‌‌ into‌‌ hydrogen‌‌ and‌‌
oxygen.‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Law‌‌of‌‌segregation:‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌dominant‌‌trait‌‌is‌‌visible‌‌in‌‌the‌‌phenotype‌‌of‌‌the‌‌organism‌‌in‌‌a‌‌cross‌‌between‌‌pure‌‌
contrasting‌‌characteristics,‌‌whereas‌‌the‌‌recessive‌‌trait‌‌is‌‌hidden.‌ ‌
B. A‌‌group‌‌of‌‌genes‌‌(or‌‌more)‌‌is‌‌sorted‌‌into‌‌gametes‌‌in‌‌a‌‌completely‌‌unrelated‌‌manner.‌ ‌
C. Only‌‌a‌‌single‌‌gene‌‌copy‌‌is‌‌allocated‌‌in‌‌a‌‌gamete‌‌cell,‌‌and‌‌this‌‌is‌‌carried‌‌out‌‌in‌‌a‌‌random‌‌
manner.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌Only‌‌a‌‌single‌‌gene‌‌copy‌‌is‌‌allocated‌‌in‌‌a‌‌gamete‌‌cell,‌‌and‌‌this‌‌is‌‌carried‌‌out‌‌in‌‌a ‌‌
random‌‌manner.‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌law‌ ‌of‌ ‌segregation‌ ‌states‌ ‌that‌ ‌during‌ ‌the‌ ‌production‌ ‌of‌‌ gametes,‌‌ two‌‌ copies‌‌ of‌‌

each‌ ‌hereditary‌ ‌factor‌ ‌segregate‌ ‌so‌ ‌that‌ ‌an‌‌ offspring‌‌ acquires‌‌ one‌‌ factor‌‌ from‌‌ each‌‌ parent.‌‌ In‌‌

____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
147‌ ‌
‌
other‌ ‌words,‌ ‌allele‌ ‌(alternative‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌ ‌gene)‌ ‌pairs‌ ‌segregate‌ ‌during‌ ‌the‌ ‌formation‌ ‌of‌ ‌gamete‌‌
and‌‌re-unite‌‌randomly‌‌during‌‌fertilisation.‌‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Guttation:‌ ‌
‌
A. Movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solvent‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌through‌ ‌a ‌ ‌selectively‌ ‌permeable‌ ‌membrane‌ ‌from‌ ‌a ‌‌
region‌‌of‌‌lower‌‌concentration‌‌to‌‌a‌‌region‌‌of‌‌higher‌‌concentration‌ ‌
B. Loss‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌droplets‌ ‌by‌ ‌plants‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌margins‌ ‌of‌‌ their‌‌ leaves‌‌
through‌‌special‌‌pores‌‌known‌‌as‌‌hydathodes‌ ‌
C. Same‌‌concentration‌‌of‌‌water‌‌molecules‌‌and‌‌solute‌‌on‌‌either‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌cell‌‌membrane‌ ‌
D. Movement‌‌ ‌of‌‌
molecules‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌substance‌‌ from‌‌ a ‌‌region‌‌ of‌‌
higher‌‌ concentration‌‌ to‌‌
a ‌‌region‌‌
of‌‌lower‌‌concentration‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌L ‌ oss‌‌of‌‌water‌‌in‌‌the‌‌form‌‌of‌‌water‌‌droplets‌‌by‌‌plants‌‌from‌‌the‌‌margins‌‌of‌‌their‌‌
leaves‌‌through‌‌special‌‌pores‌‌known‌‌as‌‌hydathodes‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌Guttation‌‌ is‌‌ the‌‌ loss‌‌
of‌‌
water‌‌ from‌‌ hydathodes‌‌ (small‌‌ pores)‌‌ on‌‌ the‌‌ leaf‌‌
edge‌‌ of‌‌ a ‌‌tiny‌‌

herbaceous‌ ‌plant‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌droplets.‌ ‌At‌ ‌the‌ ‌end‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌veins,‌ ‌plants‌ ‌develop‌‌
hydathodes‌‌that‌‌allow‌‌excess‌‌water‌‌to‌‌escape‌‌in‌‌the‌‌form‌‌of‌‌droplets.‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Active‌‌transport:‌ ‌
A. Forceful‌ ‌and‌ ‌inward‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solvent‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌‌
concentration‌‌ to‌‌ the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌
ATP‌ ‌
B. Spontaneous‌‌ movement‌‌ of‌‌
solvent‌‌ molecules‌‌ from‌‌ the‌‌
region‌‌ of‌‌
higher‌‌ concentration‌‌ to‌‌

the‌‌region‌‌of‌‌lower‌‌concentration‌‌through‌‌a‌‌living‌‌cell‌‌membrane‌‌without‌‌using‌‌ATP‌ ‌
C. Spontaneous‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solute‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌like‌ ‌ions‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌higher‌‌
concentration‌‌ to‌‌ the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌ lower‌‌ concentration‌‌ through‌‌ a ‌‌living‌‌ cell‌‌ membrane‌‌ without‌‌
using‌‌ATP‌ ‌
D. Forceful‌ ‌and‌ ‌inward‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌solute‌ ‌molecules‌ ‌like‌ ‌ions‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌region‌ ‌of‌ ‌lower‌‌
concentration‌‌ to‌‌ the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌
ATP‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌ D.‌‌ Forceful‌‌ and‌‌ inward‌‌ movement‌‌ of‌‌
solute‌‌ molecules‌‌ like‌‌ ions‌‌ from‌‌ the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌ their‌‌
lower‌ ‌concentration‌ ‌to‌‌ the‌‌ region‌‌ of‌‌
ATP‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Active‌ ‌transport‌ ‌is‌ ‌defined‌ ‌as‌ ‌a ‌ ‌process‌ ‌that‌ ‌involves‌ ‌the‌ ‌movement‌ ‌of‌ ‌molecules‌‌
from‌‌ a ‌‌region‌‌ of‌‌
higher‌‌ concentration‌‌ against‌‌ a ‌‌gradient‌‌ with‌‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
148‌ ‌
‌
the‌ ‌use‌ ‌of‌ ‌external‌ ‌energy.‌ ‌Certain‌ ‌nutrients‌‌ like‌‌

ions‌‌
of‌‌
sulphates,‌‌ potassium,‌‌ zinc,‌‌
and‌‌
more‌‌
enter‌‌the‌‌membrane‌‌of‌‌root‌‌cells‌‌from‌‌soil‌‌by‌‌active‌‌transportation.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
Question‌‌5‌ ‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
State‌‌the‌‌exact‌‌location‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following:‌‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌Chromosomes‌‌during‌‌metaphase:‌ ‌
‌
A. Move‌‌towards‌‌the‌‌poles‌ ‌
B. Disappear‌‌during‌‌metaphase‌ ‌
C. Lie‌‌along‌‌the‌‌equatorial‌‌plane‌ ‌
D. Scattered‌‌throughout‌‌the‌‌cell‌ ‌
‌
Answer‌:‌‌C.‌‌Lie‌‌along‌‌the‌‌equatorial‌‌plane‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Metaphase‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌stage‌ ‌of‌ ‌mitosis‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌eukaryotic‌‌ cell‌‌
cycle‌‌
in‌‌
which‌‌ chromosomes‌‌
are‌ ‌at‌ ‌their‌ ‌second-most‌ ‌condensed‌ ‌and‌ ‌coiled‌ ‌stage.‌ ‌These‌ ‌chromosomes,‌ ‌carrying‌ ‌genetic‌‌
information,‌‌ align‌‌
in‌‌
the‌‌
equator‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ cell‌‌ before‌‌ being‌‌ separated‌‌ into‌‌
each‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ two‌‌
daughter‌‌
cells.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Metaphase‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Root‌‌hair:‌ ‌
‌
A. Outgrowths‌‌of‌‌epidermal‌‌cells‌ ‌
B. Under‌‌the‌‌surface‌‌of‌‌leaves‌ ‌
C. Outgrowths‌‌of‌‌stem‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
149‌ ‌
‌
‌
Answer‌:‌‌A.‌O ‌ utgrowths‌‌of‌‌epidermal‌‌cells‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Root‌ ‌hair‌ ‌or‌ ‌absorbent‌ ‌hair‌ ‌are‌ ‌tubular‌ ‌outgrowths‌ ‌of‌ ‌an‌ ‌epidermal‌ ‌cell‌ ‌of‌ ‌a ‌ ‌root,‌‌

which‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌hair-forming‌ ‌cell‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌ ‌epidermis‌ ‌of‌ ‌a ‌ ‌plant‌ ‌root.‌ ‌These‌ ‌structures‌ ‌are‌ ‌lateral‌‌

extensions‌‌of‌‌a‌‌single‌‌cell‌‌and‌‌are‌‌rarely‌‌branched.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Grana:‌‌ ‌
‌
A. In‌‌the‌‌inner‌‌membrane‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chloroplast‌‌ ‌
B. Wall‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chloroplast‌‌ ‌
C. In‌‌the‌‌chlorophyll‌‌ ‌
D. In‌‌the‌‌stroma‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chloroplast‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌‌In‌‌the‌‌stroma‌‌of‌‌the‌‌chloroplast‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Grana‌ ‌are‌ ‌found‌ ‌within‌ ‌the‌ ‌stroma‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌chloroplast.‌ ‌Grana‌‌
are‌‌
made‌‌
of‌‌
stacks‌‌
of‌‌

thylakoids,‌‌which‌‌are‌‌pancake-shaped‌‌sacs‌‌of‌‌membrane‌‌within‌‌the‌‌chloroplast.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Guard‌‌cells:‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
150‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. More‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌surface‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves‌ ‌
B. More‌‌on‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌surface‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves‌ ‌
C. On‌‌upper‌‌and‌‌lower‌‌surfaces‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves‌ ‌
D. None‌‌of‌‌the‌‌above‌‌
‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌More‌‌on‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌surface‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Stomata‌ ‌are‌ ‌the‌ ‌tiny‌ ‌openings‌‌
present‌‌ on‌‌
the‌‌
epidermis‌‌
of‌‌
leaves.‌‌ They‌‌
help‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌

exchange‌ ‌of‌ ‌gases‌ ‌and‌ ‌photosynthesis.‌ ‌They‌ ‌are‌ ‌surrounded‌ ‌by‌ ‌a ‌ ‌pair‌ ‌of‌ ‌guard‌ ‌cells.‌ ‌The‌‌

abundance‌‌ of‌‌
stomata‌‌ is‌‌
on‌‌ the‌‌
lower‌‌
surface‌‌
of‌‌
dorsiventral‌‌ leaves.‌‌
Therefore,‌‌ guard‌‌ cells‌‌ can‌‌
be‌‌found‌‌more‌‌on‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌surface‌‌of‌‌dorsiventral‌‌leaves.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌Structure‌‌of‌‌stomata‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Spongy‌‌parenchyma:‌ ‌
‌
A. Between‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌and‌‌lower‌‌epidermis‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
B. Between‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌epidermis‌‌and‌‌palisade‌‌parenchyma‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
C. Between‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌epidermis‌‌and‌‌palisade‌‌parenchyma‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
D. Between‌‌the‌‌upper‌‌and‌‌lower‌‌epidermis‌‌of‌‌monocot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌Between‌‌the‌‌lower‌‌epidermis‌‌and‌‌palisade‌‌parenchyma‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Spongy‌ ‌parenchyma‌ ‌can‌ ‌be‌ ‌found‌ ‌in‌ ‌between‌ ‌the‌ ‌lower‌ ‌epidermis‌ ‌and‌ ‌palisade‌‌

parenchyma‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaves.‌‌They‌‌aid‌‌in‌‌the‌‌exchange‌‌of‌‌gases‌‌in‌‌plants.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
151‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌T.S‌‌of‌‌dicot‌‌leaf‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Question‌‌6‌ ‌ ‌[5]‌ ‌
State‌‌the‌‌function‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following:‌ ‌
‌
(i)‌‌Dark‌‌reaction:‌ ‌
‌
A. Fixation‌‌and‌‌reduction‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌to‌‌make‌‌glucose‌ ‌
B. Conversion‌‌of‌‌water‌‌into‌‌oxygen‌‌to‌‌generate‌‌ATP‌ ‌
C. Reduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌to‌‌make‌‌light‌‌energy‌ ‌
D. Fixation‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌to‌‌make‌‌chemical‌‌energy‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌Fixation‌‌and‌‌reduction‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌to‌‌make‌‌glucose‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Fixation‌‌ and‌‌ reduction‌‌ of‌‌
carbon‌‌
dioxide‌‌ result‌‌
in‌‌
the‌‌
creation‌‌
of‌‌
glucose‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌ dark‌‌
reaction.‌‌ This‌‌
reaction‌‌ does‌‌ not‌‌ require‌‌ the‌‌
use‌‌ of‌‌
light.‌‌
The‌‌ fixation‌‌ requires‌‌ energy‌‌ that‌‌ comes‌‌
from‌‌the‌‌energy‌‌currency‌‌ATP,‌‌which‌‌is‌‌formed‌‌during‌‌the‌‌light‌‌reaction.‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Stomata:‌ ‌
‌
A. Absorption‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌from‌‌the‌‌atmosphere‌ ‌
B. Absorption‌‌of‌‌sunlight‌ ‌
C. Absorption‌‌of‌‌water‌‌from‌‌the‌‌soil‌‌through‌‌the‌‌roots‌
D. Exudation‌‌of‌‌water‌‌droplets‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌A.‌‌Absorption‌‌of‌‌carbon‌‌dioxide‌‌from‌‌the‌‌atmosphere‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Stomata‌ ‌allow‌ ‌the‌ ‌exchange‌ ‌of‌ ‌gases‌ ‌(CO‌2‌ ‌and‌ ‌O2‌‌ )‌ ‌with‌ ‌the‌ ‌atmosphere.‌ ‌The‌‌
evaporation‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌leaf‌ ‌surface‌‌ occurs‌‌ through‌‌ the‌‌
stomata.‌‌ Thus,‌‌
they‌‌ help‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌
process‌ ‌of‌ ‌transpiration.‌ ‌Based‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌ ‌climatic‌ ‌conditions,‌ ‌they‌ ‌close‌ ‌or‌ ‌open‌ ‌their‌ ‌pores‌ ‌to‌‌
maintain‌‌the‌‌moisture‌‌balance.‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
152‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Xylem:‌ ‌
‌
A. Translocation‌‌of‌‌food‌‌from‌‌the‌‌leaves‌‌to‌‌the‌‌other‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌the‌‌plant‌ ‌
B. Helps‌‌in‌‌opening‌‌and‌‌closing‌‌of‌‌stomata‌ ‌
C. Conduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌from‌‌the‌‌other‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌the‌‌plant‌‌to‌‌the‌‌roots‌ ‌
D. Conduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌from‌‌the‌‌roots‌‌to‌‌the‌‌other‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌the‌‌plant‌‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌‌Conduction‌‌of‌‌water‌‌from‌‌the‌‌roots‌‌to‌‌the‌‌other‌‌parts‌‌of‌‌the‌‌plant‌‌
Solution:‌ ‌Xylem‌ ‌tissue‌ ‌transports‌ ‌water‌ ‌and‌ ‌nutrients‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌roots‌ ‌to‌ ‌different‌ ‌parts‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌
plant‌‌and‌‌also‌‌provides‌‌structural‌‌support‌‌to‌‌the‌‌stem.‌‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
(iv)‌‌Chromosomes:‌ ‌
‌
A. Involve‌‌in‌‌the‌‌synthesis‌‌of‌‌protein‌‌directly‌ ‌
B. Carry‌‌the‌‌genetic‌‌material‌ ‌
C. Serve‌‌as‌‌a‌‌food‌‌reservoir‌‌of‌‌the‌‌cell‌ ‌
D. Provide‌‌the‌‌site‌‌for‌‌cellular‌‌respiration‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌B ‌ .‌‌Carry‌‌the‌‌genetic‌‌material‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌main‌ ‌function‌ ‌of‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌is‌ ‌to‌ ‌carry‌ ‌the‌ ‌genetic‌ ‌material‌ ‌from‌ ‌one‌‌
generation‌ ‌to‌ ‌another.‌ ‌Chromosomes‌ ‌play‌ ‌an‌ ‌important‌ ‌role‌ ‌and‌ ‌act‌‌ as‌‌ a ‌‌guiding‌‌ force‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌
growth,‌‌reproduction,‌‌repair,‌‌and‌‌regeneration‌‌which‌‌are‌‌important‌‌for‌‌survival.‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌Hydathodes:‌ ‌
‌
A. Help‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌removal‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌ ‌droplets‌ ‌along‌ ‌the‌‌ margins‌‌ of‌‌
leaves‌‌ of‌‌
all‌‌

B. Help‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌removal‌ ‌of‌ ‌water‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌ ‌droplets‌ ‌along‌ ‌the‌ ‌stems‌ ‌of‌ ‌all‌ ‌plants‌ ‌on‌‌
C. Help‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌removal‌‌ of‌‌
water‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌ form‌‌ of‌‌
droplets‌‌ along‌‌ the‌‌
stems‌‌ of‌‌
some‌‌ plants‌‌ on‌‌

D. Help‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌
removal‌‌ of‌‌
water‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌ form‌‌ of‌‌
droplets‌‌ along‌‌ the‌‌ margins‌‌ of‌‌
leaves‌‌ of‌‌
some‌‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌‌Help‌‌in‌‌the‌‌removal‌‌of‌‌water‌‌in‌‌the‌‌form‌‌of‌‌droplets‌‌along‌‌the‌‌margins‌‌of‌‌leaves‌‌of‌‌
some‌‌plants‌‌on‌‌humid‌‌mornings‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Hydathodes‌ ‌are‌ ‌structures‌ ‌that‌ ‌discharge‌ ‌water‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌form‌ ‌of‌ ‌droplets‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌‌
interior‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌ leaf‌‌ to‌‌
its‌‌
surface‌‌ in‌‌
a ‌‌process‌‌ known‌‌ as‌‌
guttation.‌‌
This‌‌ process‌‌ occurs‌‌ in‌‌
some‌‌
plants‌‌ on‌‌
humid‌‌ mornings.‌‌ This‌‌ happens‌‌ because‌‌ the‌‌ rate‌‌
of‌‌
transpiration‌‌ is‌‌
lower‌‌ than‌‌ the‌‌ rate‌‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
153‌ ‌
‌
of‌‌
absorption‌‌
of‌‌
water‌‌
in‌‌
humid‌‌
conditions.‌‌
This‌‌
creates‌‌
a ‌‌big‌‌
hydrostatic‌‌
pressure‌‌
in‌‌
the‌‌
plant,‌‌

which‌‌forces‌‌the‌‌extra‌‌water‌‌to‌‌be‌‌released‌‌as‌‌droplets‌a
‌ long‌‌the‌‌margins‌‌of‌‌leaves.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
154‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Question‌‌7‌ [‌5]‌ ‌
The‌‌given‌‌diagram‌‌represents‌‌a‌‌stage‌‌during‌‌meiotic‌‌cell‌‌division.‌‌Answer‌‌the‌‌following‌‌

questions:‌‌
‌
‌ ‌ ‌
‌ ‌
(i)‌‌Identify‌‌the‌‌stage.‌ ‌
‌
A. Telophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
B. Prophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
C. Metaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
D. Anaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌Prophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌In‌ ‌this‌ ‌image,‌ ‌we‌ ‌can‌ ‌see‌ ‌the‌ ‌crossing‌ ‌of‌ ‌non-sister‌ ‌chromatids‌ ‌of‌ ‌homologous‌‌
chromosomes.‌ ‌The‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌remain‌ ‌linked‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌ ‌sites‌ ‌where‌ ‌they‌ ‌cross.‌ ‌This‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌‌
characteristic‌‌of‌‌the‌‌pachytene‌‌stage‌‌of‌‌prophase‌‌I.‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Label‌‌the‌‌part‌‌marked‌‌‘X’.‌ ‌
‌
A. Centriole‌ ‌
B. Centrosome‌ ‌
C. Centromere‌ ‌
D. Chiasma‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌‌Chiasma‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌During‌ ‌the‌ ‌pachytene‌ ‌stage‌ ‌of‌ ‌prophase‌ ‌I,‌ ‌the‌ ‌crossing‌ ‌of‌‌
non-sister‌‌
chromatids‌‌
of‌‌

homologous‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌occurs.‌ ‌The‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌remain‌ ‌linked‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌ ‌sites‌ ‌where‌ ‌they‌‌
cross.‌‌This‌‌site‌‌is‌‌known‌‌as‌‌chiasma.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
155‌ ‌
‌
(iii)‌‌Name‌‌the‌‌stage‌‌that‌‌follows‌‌the‌‌one‌‌shown‌‌here.‌ ‌
‌
A. Interphase‌ ‌
B. Anaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
C. Telophase‌‌I ‌ ‌
D. Metaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌D.‌‌Metaphase‌‌I ‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌This‌ ‌image‌ ‌depicts‌ ‌a ‌ ‌stage‌ ‌during‌ ‌prophase‌ ‌I ‌ ‌of‌ ‌meiosis.‌ ‌Hence,‌ ‌the‌ ‌next‌‌ stage‌‌
is‌‌

metaphase‌ ‌I.‌ ‌During‌ ‌metaphase‌ ‌I,‌ ‌the‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌align‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌ ‌equatorial‌ ‌plate‌ ‌and‌‌
microtubules‌‌from‌‌the‌‌opposite‌‌poles‌‌attach‌‌to‌‌the‌‌pairs‌‌of‌‌homologous‌‌chromosomes.‌‌ ‌
‌
(iv)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌diploid‌‌number‌‌of‌‌chromosomes‌‌shown‌‌in‌‌the‌‌diagram?‌ ‌
‌
A. 6‌ ‌
B. 2‌ ‌
C. 4‌ ‌
D. 8‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌4 ‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌diploid‌ ‌number‌ ‌of‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌total‌ ‌number‌ ‌of‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌present‌‌
inside‌‌ the‌‌
nucleus‌‌
of‌‌
a ‌‌cell.‌‌
This‌‌
number‌‌ is‌‌
depicted‌‌ as‌‌ 2n,‌‌ whose‌‌ value‌‌ is‌‌
different‌‌ for‌‌
different‌‌
diploid‌‌organisms.‌‌Clearly,‌‌the‌‌diploid‌‌number‌‌of‌‌chromosomes‌‌shown‌‌in‌‌this‌‌image‌‌is‌‌4.‌ ‌
‌
(v)‌‌What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌significance‌‌of‌‌this‌‌stage?‌ ‌
‌
A. Gene‌‌duplication‌ ‌
B. Gene‌‌isolation‌ ‌
C. Gene‌‌recombination‌ ‌
D. Gene‌‌repair‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌Gene‌‌recombination‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌During‌ ‌the‌ ‌pachytene‌ ‌stage‌ ‌of‌ ‌prophase‌ ‌I,‌ ‌the‌ ‌crossing‌ ‌of‌‌ non-sister‌‌ chromatids‌‌ of‌‌

homologous‌ ‌chromosomes‌ ‌occurs.‌ ‌Thus,‌ ‌the‌ ‌recombination‌ ‌of‌ ‌genetic‌ ‌materials‌ ‌between‌‌
non-sister‌ ‌chromatids‌ ‌takes‌ ‌place.‌ ‌This‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌very‌ ‌important‌ ‌process‌ ‌that‌ ‌results‌ ‌in‌ ‌genetic‌‌
variation.‌‌ ‌
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156‌ ‌
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Question‌‌8‌ ‌‌[5]‌ ‌
Observe‌‌the‌‌given‌‌diagram‌‌and‌‌answer‌‌the‌‌questions:‌ ‌
‌
‌
(i)‌‌Name‌‌the‌‌physiological‌‌process‌‌that‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌in‌‌the‌‌given‌‌organelle.‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
A. Photosynthesis‌ ‌
B. Imbibition‌ ‌
C. Diffusion‌ ‌
D. Transpiration‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌A ‌ .‌‌Photosynthesis‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌Photosynthesis‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌ process‌‌
by‌‌ which‌‌ green‌‌ plants‌‌
prepare‌‌ their‌‌
own‌‌
food‌‌
with‌‌ the‌‌
help‌ ‌of‌ ‌sunlight,‌ ‌minerals,‌ ‌and‌ ‌water.‌ ‌Plants‌ ‌release‌ ‌oxygen‌ ‌as‌ ‌a ‌ ‌by-product‌ ‌during‌‌
photosynthesis.‌ ‌
The‌‌balanced‌‌equation‌‌for‌‌photosynthesis‌‌is:‌ ‌
6CO‌2‌‌ ‌+‌‌6H‌2‌O‌‌+‌‌Sunlight‌‌→‌‌C6‌‌ H‌12‌O‌6‌‌ ‌+‌‌6O‌2‌ ‌
Photosynthesis‌ ‌is‌ ‌the‌ ‌only‌ ‌biological‌ ‌process‌ ‌that‌ ‌releases‌ ‌oxygen‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌atmosphere‌ ‌which‌‌
supports‌‌all‌‌life‌‌forms‌‌on‌‌Earth.‌ ‌
‌
(ii)‌‌Label‌‌the‌‌parts‌‌marked‌‌a,‌‌b,‌‌c,‌‌and‌‌d.‌ ‌[3]‌ ‌
‌
A. a.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌b.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌c.‌‌Grana‌ ‌d.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌ ‌
B. a.‌‌Grana‌ ‌b.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌c.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌d.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌ ‌
C. a.‌‌Grana‌ ‌b.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌c.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌d.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌ ‌
D. a.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌b.‌‌Grana‌ ‌c.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌d.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌C.‌‌a.‌‌Grana‌ ‌b.‌‌Inner‌‌membrane‌ ‌c.‌‌Thylakoid‌ ‌d.‌‌Stroma‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌A ‌‌chloroplast‌‌
is‌‌
an‌‌ organelle‌‌
within‌‌ the‌‌
cells‌‌
of‌‌
plants‌‌
and‌‌ certain‌‌
algae‌‌
which‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌
site‌ ‌of‌ ‌photosynthesis.‌ ‌These‌ ‌are‌ ‌minute‌ ‌oval‌ ‌bodies‌ ‌bounded‌ ‌by‌ ‌a ‌ ‌double‌ ‌membrane.‌‌ Their‌‌
interior‌ ‌contains‌ ‌closely‌ ‌packed‌ ‌flattened‌ ‌sacs‌ ‌known‌ ‌as‌ ‌thylakoids‌ ‌that‌ ‌are‌ ‌arranged‌‌ in‌‌
piles‌‌
(grana)‌‌lying‌‌in‌‌a‌‌colourless‌‌ground‌‌substance‌‌known‌‌as‌‌the‌‌stroma.‌‌ ‌
‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
157‌ ‌
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(iii)‌‌Which‌‌phase‌‌of‌‌the‌‌mentioned‌‌physiological‌‌process‌‌takes‌‌place‌‌in‌‌the‌‌part‌‌labelled‌‌c?‌ ‌[1]‌ ‌
‌
A. Dark‌‌reaction‌ ‌
B. Light‌‌reaction‌ ‌
C. Active‌‌transport‌ ‌
D. Osmosis‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌‌B.‌‌Light‌‌reaction‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ Light‌‌
reaction‌‌
occurs‌‌
in‌‌
the‌‌
thylakoids‌‌ of‌‌
chloroplast.‌‌
‌Light‌‌
reaction‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌
process‌‌
of‌‌

photosynthesis‌ ‌that‌ ‌converts‌ ‌energy‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌sun‌‌
into‌‌
chemical‌‌ energy‌‌
in‌‌
the‌‌
form‌‌ of‌‌
NADPH‌‌

and‌‌ATP.‌
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____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
158‌ ‌
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Q1‌ ‌ Identify‌‌the‌‌system‌‌in‌‌which‌‌the‌‌legislature‌‌has‌‌two‌‌chambers.‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Unicameralism‌ ‌
B.‌‌Bicameralism‌ ‌
C.‌‌Tricameralism‌ ‌
D.‌‌Quadricameralism‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌‌‌Bicameralism‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ The‌‌ system‌‌
of‌‌
having‌‌ two‌‌ chambers‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌ legislature‌‌ is‌‌
called‌‌
bicameralism.‌‌

India‌ ‌follows‌ ‌bicameralism‌ ‌as‌ ‌its‌ ‌Union‌ ‌legislature,‌ ‌i.e.,‌ ‌the‌‌
Parliament‌‌
comprises‌‌
two‌‌

chambers:‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌and‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha.‌
Q2‌ ‌ What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌current‌‌maximum‌‌strength‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌245‌‌members‌ ‌
B.‌‌250‌‌members‌ ‌
C.‌‌255‌‌members‌ ‌
D.‌‌260‌‌members‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ A)‌‌‌245‌‌members‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌maximum‌ ‌strength‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌Rajya‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌is‌ ‌250‌‌
members.‌‌
However,‌‌
the‌‌

current‌‌strength‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌‌is‌‌245‌‌members.‌ ‌
Q3‌ ‌ Elections‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌Lok‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌are‌ ‌conducted‌ ‌in‌ ‌territorial‌ ‌constituencies,‌ ‌wherein‌ ‌the‌‌
candidate‌‌ with‌‌
the‌‌
highest‌‌ number‌‌ of‌‌
votes‌‌
in‌‌
a ‌‌constituency‌‌ wins‌‌ the‌‌
election.‌‌
What‌‌
is‌‌

this‌‌system‌‌known‌‌as?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Proportional‌‌representation‌ ‌
B.‌‌Referendum‌ ‌
C.‌‌First‌‌past‌‌the‌‌post‌‌system‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌First‌‌past‌‌the‌‌post‌‌system‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌Elections‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌Lok‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌are‌ ‌conducted‌ ‌in‌ ‌territorial‌ ‌constituencies,‌‌
wherein‌ ‌the‌ ‌candidate‌ ‌with‌ ‌the‌ ‌highest‌ ‌number‌ ‌of‌ ‌votes‌ ‌in‌ ‌a ‌ ‌constituency‌ ‌wins‌ ‌the‌‌
election.‌‌ This‌‌
system‌‌ is‌‌
called‌‌
first‌‌
past‌‌ the‌‌
post‌‌ system.‌‌
In‌‌
this‌‌
system,‌‌
the‌‌
proportion‌‌

of‌‌
votes‌‌
gained‌‌ by‌‌
a ‌‌party‌‌ does‌‌ not‌‌
matter.‌‌
The‌‌ candidate‌‌ who‌‌ secures‌‌ the‌‌
majority‌‌
of‌‌

votes‌‌in‌‌his‌‌constituency‌‌wins‌‌the‌‌election.‌ ‌
Q4‌ ‌ The‌ ‌allocation‌ ‌of‌ ‌seats‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌Rajya‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌to‌‌
different‌‌
States‌‌
and‌‌
Union‌‌
Territories‌‌
is‌‌

mentioned‌‌in‌‌which‌‌schedule‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌Constitution?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌First‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
159‌ ‌
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B.‌‌Second‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
C.‌‌Third‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
D.‌‌Fourth‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ D)‌‌‌Fourth‌‌Schedule‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌Fourth‌ ‌Schedule‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌Indian‌ ‌Constitution‌ ‌contains‌ ‌the‌ ‌provisions‌ ‌in‌‌

relation‌‌to‌‌the‌‌allocation‌‌of‌‌seats‌‌for‌‌States‌‌and‌‌Union‌‌Territories‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha.‌ ‌
Q5‌ ‌ Both‌ ‌the‌ ‌Union‌ ‌and‌ ‌State‌ ‌Governments‌ ‌have‌ ‌the‌ ‌power‌ ‌to‌ ‌make‌ ‌laws‌ ‌on‌ ‌subjects‌‌
mentioned‌‌in‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌lists?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Union‌‌List‌ ‌
B.‌‌State‌‌List‌ ‌
C.‌‌Concurrent‌‌List‌
D.‌‌Residuary‌‌List‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌Concurrent‌‌List‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌Indian‌ ‌Constitution‌ ‌provides‌ ‌for‌ ‌the‌ ‌distribution‌ ‌of‌ ‌legislative‌ ‌and‌‌
executive‌ ‌powers‌ ‌between‌ ‌the‌ ‌Centre‌ ‌and‌ ‌the‌ ‌States‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌‌ form‌‌
of‌‌
three‌‌
lists:‌‌
Union‌‌

List,‌ ‌State‌ ‌List,‌ ‌and‌ ‌the‌ ‌Concurrent‌ ‌List.‌ ‌The‌ ‌Union‌ ‌List‌ ‌contains‌‌ subjects‌‌ over‌‌ which‌‌

only‌‌ the‌‌ Parliament‌‌ has‌‌ the‌‌
power‌‌
to‌‌
make‌‌ laws.‌‌
The‌‌ State‌‌ List‌‌
contains‌‌ subjects‌‌ over‌‌

which‌‌ the‌‌ State‌‌ Government‌‌ has‌‌
the‌‌ power‌‌ to‌‌ make‌‌
laws.‌‌ However,‌‌ both‌‌ the‌‌
Union‌‌ and‌‌

the‌ ‌State‌ ‌Governments‌ ‌have‌ ‌the‌ ‌power‌ ‌to‌ ‌make‌ ‌laws‌ ‌on‌ ‌subjects‌ ‌mentioned‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌‌
Concurrent‌‌List.‌ ‌
Q6‌ ‌ Which‌ ‌chamber‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌Parliament‌ ‌can‌ ‌be‌ ‌dissolved‌ ‌by‌ ‌the‌ ‌President‌ ‌through‌ ‌a ‌‌
no-confidence‌‌motion?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
B.‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
C.‌‌Both‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌and‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
D.‌‌Neither‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌and‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ A)‌‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌‌ Lok‌‌
Sabha‌‌ functions‌‌
as‌‌
a ‌‌temporary‌‌ body‌‌
that‌‌
serves‌‌
for‌‌ a ‌‌term‌‌ of‌‌
five‌‌

years.‌ ‌However,‌ ‌the‌ ‌Lok‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌can‌ ‌be‌ ‌dissolved‌ ‌by‌ ‌the‌ ‌President‌ ‌even‌ ‌before‌ ‌it‌‌
completes‌ ‌its‌ ‌term‌ ‌if‌ ‌a ‌ ‌no-confidence‌ ‌motion‌ ‌is‌ ‌successfully‌ ‌passed‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌House.‌ ‌A ‌‌
no-confidence‌‌motion‌‌can‌‌be‌‌passed‌‌only‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha.‌ ‌
Q7‌ ‌ Who‌‌has‌‌the‌‌power‌‌to‌‌impeach‌‌the‌‌President‌‌of‌‌India?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Chief‌‌Justice‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Supreme‌‌Court‌ ‌
B.‌‌Chief‌‌Election‌‌Commissioner‌
C.‌‌Speaker‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
160‌ ‌
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D.‌‌Parliament‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ D)‌‌‌Parliament‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ The‌‌ Parliament‌‌ has‌‌
a ‌‌gamut‌‌ of‌‌
judicial‌‌
powers‌‌ vested‌‌
with‌‌
it.‌‌
These‌‌
include‌‌

the‌‌
power‌‌
to‌‌
impeach‌‌ the‌‌
President,‌‌ the‌‌
Chief‌‌
Justice‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌
Supreme‌‌ Court,‌‌
the‌‌ Chief‌‌

Election‌‌Commissioner,‌‌judges‌‌of‌‌the‌‌High‌‌Courts‌‌and‌‌the‌‌Supreme‌‌Court,‌‌etc.‌ ‌
Q8‌ ‌ If‌ ‌I ‌ ‌am‌ ‌the‌ ‌Defence‌ ‌Minister‌ ‌and‌ ‌I ‌ ‌introduce‌ ‌a ‌ ‌Bill‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌Parliament,‌ ‌what‌ ‌will‌ ‌it‌ ‌be‌‌

called?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Public‌‌Bill‌ ‌
B.‌‌Private‌‌Member’s‌‌Bill‌ ‌
C.‌‌Service‌‌Bill‌ ‌
D.‌‌Legal‌‌Bill‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ A)‌‌‌Public‌‌Bill‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌ Based‌‌ on‌‌ the‌‌
parliamentarian‌‌ who‌‌ introduces‌‌ the‌‌ Bill‌‌
to‌‌
the‌‌
House,‌‌ a ‌‌Bill‌‌
may‌‌
be‌ ‌broadly‌ ‌classified‌ ‌as‌ ‌Government‌ ‌or‌ ‌Public‌ ‌Bill‌ ‌and‌ ‌Private‌ ‌Member’s‌ ‌Bill.‌ ‌If‌ ‌you‌‌
introduce‌‌ a ‌‌Bill‌‌
in‌‌
the‌‌
House‌‌ and‌‌
are‌‌ also‌‌ a ‌‌part‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌ political‌‌ executive,‌‌ the‌‌
Bill‌‌
will‌‌ be‌‌
called‌‌a‌‌Government‌‌Bill‌‌or‌‌a‌‌Public‌‌Bill.‌ ‌
Q9‌ ‌ Identify‌‌the‌‌first‌‌session‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌‌in‌‌a‌‌calendar‌‌year.‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌Winter‌‌Session‌ ‌
B.‌‌Budget‌‌Session‌ ‌
C.‌‌Monsoon‌‌Session‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌‌‌Budget‌‌Session‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌Parliament‌ ‌convenes‌ ‌for‌ ‌three‌ ‌sessions‌ ‌in‌ ‌a ‌ ‌calendar‌ ‌year.‌ ‌The‌ ‌first‌‌
session‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ Parliament‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌ Budget‌‌ Session‌‌ and‌‌
it‌‌
runs‌‌ from‌‌ February‌‌
to‌‌
May.‌‌ The‌‌

Union‌ ‌Budget‌ ‌is‌ ‌presented‌ ‌in‌ ‌this‌‌ session.‌‌ Then‌‌ comes‌‌ the‌‌ Monsoon‌‌ Session.‌‌
It‌‌
runs‌‌

from‌ ‌July‌ ‌to‌ ‌August.‌ ‌The‌ ‌last‌ ‌session‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌Parliament‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌
Winter‌‌
Session.‌‌
It‌‌
runs‌‌

from‌‌November‌‌to‌‌December.‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
161‌ ‌
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Q10‌ ‌ If‌‌the‌‌strength‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha‌‌is‌‌550‌‌seats,‌‌what‌‌is‌‌the‌‌minimum‌‌number‌‌of‌‌seats‌‌my‌‌
party‌‌should‌‌win‌‌for‌‌me‌‌to‌‌be‌‌the‌‌Leader‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Opposition?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌40‌ ‌
B.‌‌45‌ ‌
C.‌‌50‌ ‌
D.‌‌55‌ ‌
‌
Answer‌:‌(‌ D)‌‌‌55‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌leader‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌largest‌ ‌opposition‌ ‌party‌ ‌is‌ ‌called‌ ‌the‌ ‌Leader‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌‌
Opposition.‌ ‌In‌ ‌order‌ ‌to‌ ‌get‌ ‌the‌ ‌formal‌ ‌recognition‌ ‌in‌ ‌either‌ ‌the‌ ‌Upper‌ ‌or‌ ‌the‌ ‌Lower‌‌
House,‌‌ the‌‌ concerned‌‌ party‌‌
must‌‌ have‌‌
at‌‌
least‌‌
10%‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌ total‌‌
strength‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
House.‌‌
A‌‌
single‌‌ party‌‌ has‌‌
to‌‌
meet‌‌ the‌‌ 10%‌‌ seat‌‌
criterion,‌‌ not‌‌
an‌‌ alliance.‌‌ So,‌‌
if‌‌
I ‌‌want‌‌ to‌‌
be‌‌ the‌‌

Leader‌‌ of‌‌ the‌‌
Opposition‌‌ and‌‌ the‌‌
strength‌‌ of‌‌ the‌‌
Lok‌‌
Sabha‌‌ is‌‌
550‌‌ seats,‌‌ my‌‌ party‌‌ must‌‌
secure‌‌at‌‌least‌‌55‌‌seats‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha.‌ ‌
‌
Q11‌ ‌ Who‌‌introduced‌‌an‌‌annexation‌‌policy‌‌called‌‌the‌‌Doctrine‌‌of‌‌Lapse?‌ ‌
A.‌‌Lord‌‌Canning‌ ‌
B.‌‌Lord‌‌Dalhousie‌ ‌
C.‌‌Lord‌‌Linlithgow‌ ‌
D.‌‌Lord‌‌Mountbatten‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌‌‌Lord‌‌Dalhousie‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ Lord‌‌
Dalhousie‌‌ introduced‌‌ an‌‌
annexation‌‌
policy‌‌
called‌‌
the‌‌
Doctrine‌‌
of‌‌
Lapse.‌‌
The‌‌ policy‌‌
specified‌‌
that‌‌
the‌‌ East‌‌
India‌‌ Company‌‌ would‌‌ take‌‌ over‌‌
any‌‌
province‌‌
that‌‌
was‌‌

in‌‌a‌‌subsidiary‌‌alliance‌‌if‌‌the‌‌ruler‌‌of‌‌the‌‌province‌‌did‌‌not‌‌leave‌‌behind‌‌a‌‌natural‌‌heir.‌ ‌
Q12‌ ‌ The‌‌Lex‌‌Loci‌‌Act‌‌of‌‌1850‌‌allowed‌‌a‌‌____,‌‌who‌‌had‌‌converted‌‌to‌‌a‌‌different‌‌faith,‌‌to‌‌

inherit‌‌his‌‌ancestral‌‌property.‌
A.‌‌Christian‌ ‌
B.‌‌Hindu‌ ‌
C.‌‌Muslim‌ ‌
D.‌‌Adivasi‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(B)‌‌‌Hindu‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
162‌ ‌
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Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌Lex‌‌Loci‌‌Act‌‌of‌‌1850‌‌allowed‌‌a‌‌Hindu,‌‌who‌‌had‌‌converted‌‌to‌‌a‌‌different‌‌
faith,‌‌to‌‌inherit‌‌his‌‌ancestral‌‌property.‌‌Many‌‌felt‌‌that‌‌it‌‌went‌‌against‌‌the‌‌Hindu‌‌religious‌‌

law‌‌of‌‌property.‌
Q13‌ ‌ Which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌not‌‌a‌‌land‌‌revenue‌‌system‌‌introduced‌‌by‌‌the‌‌British?‌ ‌
‌
‌
A.‌‌Permanent‌‌Settlement‌ ‌
‌
B.‌‌Mahalwari‌‌Settlement‌ ‌
‌
C.‌‌Ryotwari‌‌Settlement‌ ‌
‌
D.‌‌General‌‌Service‌‌Enlistment‌‌Act‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ Answer:‌‌(‌ D)‌‌‌General‌‌Service‌‌Enlistment‌‌Act‌ ‌
‌
‌ Solution:‌‌ ‌Permanent‌‌
Settlement,‌‌ Mahalwari‌‌ Settlement,‌‌
and‌‌
Ryotwari‌‌
Settlement‌‌ were‌‌

‌ land‌‌revenue‌‌systems‌‌introduced‌‌by‌‌the‌‌British‌‌to‌‌extract‌‌revenue‌‌from‌‌Indians.‌ ‌
‌
Q14‌ ‌ Who‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌passed‌‌the‌‌General‌‌Service‌‌Enlistment‌‌Act?‌ ‌
A.Lord‌‌Mountbatten‌ ‌
B.‌‌Lord‌‌Linlithgow‌ ‌
C.‌‌Lord‌‌Canning‌ ‌
D.‌‌Lord‌‌Dalhousie‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌Lord‌‌Canning‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Lord‌ ‌Canning‌ ‌passed‌ ‌the‌ ‌General‌‌ Service‌‌ Enlistment‌‌ Act.‌‌ It‌‌
created‌‌ a ‌‌great‌‌

deal‌‌ of‌‌
resentment,‌‌ since‌‌ the‌‌
Act‌‌
mandated‌‌ the‌‌
sepoys‌‌ to‌‌
be‌‌
ready‌‌ to‌‌ serve‌‌ on‌‌
foreign‌‌
soil.‌ ‌This‌ ‌went‌ ‌against‌ ‌the‌ ‌religious‌ ‌sentiments‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌natives,‌ ‌who‌ ‌believed‌ ‌it‌ ‌was‌‌
forbidden‌‌for‌‌them‌‌to‌‌pursue‌‌sea‌‌voyages.‌ ‌
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163‌ ‌
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Q15‌ ‌ The‌‌34th‌‌Regiment‌‌of‌‌Bengal‌‌Native‌‌Infantry‌‌of‌‌the‌‌British‌‌Army‌‌was‌‌stationed‌‌at‌‌a ‌‌
garrison‌‌in‌‌____.‌ ‌
A. Mohanpur‌ ‌
B. Chak‌‌Kanthalia‌ ‌
C. Barrackpore‌ ‌
D. Patuliya‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌Barrackpore‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ The‌‌ 34th‌‌

Regiment‌‌ Bengal‌‌ Native‌‌
Infantry‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌
British‌‌
Army‌‌
was‌‌ stationed‌‌
at‌‌

a‌‌
garrison‌‌ in‌‌
Barrackpore‌‌ located‌‌
in‌‌
West‌‌
Bengal,‌‌
India.‌‌
Mangal‌‌ Pandey,‌‌
who‌‌
was‌‌
one‌
of‌‌the‌‌first‌‌soldiers‌‌to‌‌rise‌‌against‌‌the‌‌British,‌‌belonged‌‌to‌‌this‌‌regiment.‌ ‌
Q16‌ ‌ Who‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌was‌‌reinstated‌‌as‌‌the‌‌emperor‌‌after‌‌the‌‌sepoys‌‌reached‌‌the‌‌

Red‌‌Fort‌‌in‌‌Delhi?‌ ‌
A. Bahadur‌‌Shah‌‌II‌ ‌
B. Bakht‌‌Khan‌ ‌
C. Nana‌‌Saheb‌ ‌
D. Birjis‌‌Qadr‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ A)‌‌‌Bahadur‌‌Shah‌‌II‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌In‌ ‌1857,‌ ‌Bahadur‌ ‌Shah‌ ‌II‌ ‌was‌ ‌reinstated‌ ‌as‌ ‌the‌ ‌emperor‌ ‌after‌ ‌the‌ ‌sepoys‌‌

crossed‌‌the‌‌river‌‌Yamuna‌‌and‌‌reached‌‌Red‌‌Fort‌‌in‌‌Delhi.‌ ‌
Q17‌ ‌ Which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌transferred‌‌all‌‌powers‌‌of‌‌the‌‌English‌‌East‌‌India‌‌Company‌‌to‌‌

the‌‌British‌‌Crown?‌ ‌
A. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1830‌ ‌
B. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1833‌ ‌
C. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1853‌ ‌
D. Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1858‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ D)‌‌‌Government‌‌of‌‌India‌‌Act,‌‌1858‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌British‌ ‌Parliament‌ ‌passed‌ ‌the‌ ‌Government‌ ‌of‌ ‌India‌ ‌Act‌ ‌in‌ ‌1858‌ ‌and‌‌
transferred‌ ‌all‌ ‌powers‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌Company‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌British‌ ‌Crown.‌ ‌Queen‌ ‌Victoria,‌ ‌the‌ ‌then‌‌

monarch‌‌of‌‌Britain,‌‌became‌‌the‌‌administrative‌‌head‌‌of‌‌India.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
164‌ ‌
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Q18‌ ‌ Which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌wars‌‌shattered‌‌the‌‌image‌‌that‌‌the‌‌British‌‌were‌‌invincible?‌ ‌
A. First‌‌Afghan‌‌War‌ ‌
B. Crimean‌‌War‌ ‌
C. Opium‌‌War‌ ‌
D. Anglo–Persian‌‌War‌ ‌
Answer‌:‌(‌ A)‌‌‌First‌‌Afghan‌‌War‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌The‌‌
First‌‌
Afghan‌‌ War‌‌ shattered‌‌ the‌‌
image‌‌ that‌‌ the‌‌ British‌‌ were‌‌ invincible‌‌
after‌‌

they‌ ‌faced‌ ‌defeat‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌Afghans.‌ ‌It‌ ‌was‌ ‌one‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌incidents‌ ‌that‌ ‌encouraged‌ ‌the‌‌

Indian‌‌sepoys‌‌to‌‌rise‌‌against‌‌the‌‌British.‌
Q19‌ ‌ Why‌‌did‌‌the‌‌British‌‌realise‌‌the‌‌urgent‌‌need‌‌of‌‌the‌‌support‌‌of‌‌Indians‌‌during‌‌the‌‌Second‌‌

World‌‌War?‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌British‌‌did‌‌not‌‌want‌‌to‌‌involve‌‌themselves‌‌in‌‌the‌‌war.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌British‌‌wanted‌‌to‌‌divert‌‌the‌‌attention‌‌of‌‌Indians.‌ ‌
C. Japan‌‌was‌‌aggressively‌‌winning‌‌Asian‌‌countries,‌‌and‌‌the‌‌British‌‌anticipated‌‌an‌‌
attack‌‌on‌‌India.‌ ‌
D. The‌‌British‌‌wanted‌‌to‌‌divide‌‌the‌‌Indians.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌Japan‌‌was‌‌aggressively‌‌winning‌‌Asian‌‌countries,‌‌and‌‌the‌‌British‌‌

anticipated‌‌an‌‌attack‌‌on‌‌India‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Japan‌ ‌joined‌ ‌the‌ ‌Second‌ ‌World‌ ‌War‌ ‌in‌ ‌1941‌ ‌and‌ ‌captured‌ ‌the‌ ‌Philippines,‌‌
Malaya‌ ‌and‌ ‌Burma‌ ‌immediately.‌ ‌It‌ ‌was‌ ‌standing‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌ ‌gates‌ ‌of‌ ‌India,‌ ‌and‌ ‌rapidly‌‌

advancing‌‌ towards‌‌ Assam.‌‌ In‌‌
such‌‌
circumstances,‌‌ the‌‌
British‌‌
realised‌‌ that‌‌
they‌‌ needed‌‌
urgent‌‌support‌‌from‌‌the‌‌Indians.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
165‌ ‌
‌
Q20‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌was‌‌not‌‌a‌‌part‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Proclamation‌‌of‌‌Queen‌‌Victoria‌‌in‌‌1858?‌ ‌
A. Policy‌‌of‌‌non-intervention‌ ‌
B. Imperial‌‌Civil‌‌Services‌ ‌
C. Policy‌‌of‌‌intervention‌ ‌
D. Moral‌‌and‌‌material‌‌advancement‌‌of‌‌people‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌Policy‌‌of‌‌intervention‌ ‌
Solution‌: ‌ ‌Before‌ ‌the‌ ‌Sepoy‌ ‌Mutiny‌ ‌of‌ ‌1857,‌ ‌the‌ ‌East‌ ‌India‌ ‌Company‌ ‌had‌ ‌introduced‌‌
several‌‌ reformatory‌‌ laws,‌‌ such‌‌
as‌‌
the‌‌ prohibition‌‌ of‌‌
Sati‌‌
and‌‌ female‌‌ infanticide,‌‌
and‌‌ the‌‌

recognition‌ ‌of‌ ‌widow‌ ‌remarriage.‌ ‌Liberal‌ ‌Indians‌ ‌welcomed‌ ‌such‌ ‌measures‌ ‌against‌‌
social‌ ‌evils.‌ ‌However,‌ ‌the‌ ‌majority‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌population‌ ‌felt‌ ‌that‌ ‌these‌ ‌reformatory‌ ‌laws‌‌

endangered‌ ‌their‌ ‌customs‌ ‌and‌ ‌traditions.‌ ‌Hence,‌ ‌the‌ ‌‘Policy‌ ‌of‌ ‌non-intervention’‌‌
recognised‌‌the‌‌need‌‌to‌‌stop‌‌interference‌‌in‌‌such‌‌matters.‌ ‌
‌
Q21‌ ‌ If‌‌I‌‌am‌‌a‌‌Member‌‌of‌‌Parliament,‌‌I‌‌can‌‌be‌‌disqualified‌‌under‌‌the‌‌anti-defection‌‌law:‌ ‌
‌
A. If‌‌I‌‌abstain‌‌from‌‌voting‌‌contrary‌‌to‌‌the‌‌order‌‌of‌‌my‌‌political‌‌party‌ ‌
B. If‌‌I‌‌vote‌‌in‌‌the‌‌House‌‌against‌‌my‌‌party’s‌‌orders‌ ‌
C. If‌‌I‌‌vote‌‌in‌‌the‌‌House‌‌as‌‌per‌‌my‌‌party’s‌‌orders‌ ‌
D. If‌‌I‌‌am‌‌an‌‌independent‌‌member‌‌and‌‌join‌‌a‌‌political‌‌party‌‌within‌‌six‌‌months‌ ‌
‌
Answer:(A)‌‌‌If‌‌I‌‌abstain‌‌from‌‌voting‌‌contrary‌‌to‌‌the‌‌order‌‌of‌‌my‌‌political‌‌party‌ ‌
‌(B)‌‌‌If‌‌I‌‌vote‌‌in‌‌the‌‌House‌‌against‌‌my‌‌party’s‌‌orders‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌To‌ ‌prevent‌ ‌legislators‌ ‌from‌ ‌joining‌ ‌another‌ ‌political‌‌ party,‌‌ the‌‌
Anti-Defection‌‌
Law‌‌ was‌‌
passed‌‌ in‌‌
1985‌‌ and‌‌
added‌‌
to‌‌
the‌‌
10th‌‌ Schedule‌‌ of‌‌ the‌‌
Constitution.‌‌ Under‌‌ this‌‌
law,‌‌the‌‌legislators‌‌can‌‌be‌‌disqualified‌‌under‌‌the‌‌following‌‌grounds:‌ ‌
● If‌‌a‌‌member‌‌abstains‌‌from‌‌voting‌‌contrary‌‌to‌‌the‌‌order‌‌of‌‌his‌‌political‌‌party.‌ ‌
● If‌‌a‌‌member‌‌votes‌‌in‌‌the‌‌House‌‌against‌‌his‌‌party’s‌‌orders.‌ ‌
● If‌ ‌an‌ ‌independent‌ ‌member‌ ‌joins‌ ‌a ‌ ‌political‌ ‌party‌ ‌after‌ ‌six‌ ‌months‌ ‌of‌ ‌filing‌ ‌his‌‌

nomination.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
166‌ ‌
‌
Q22‌ ‌ If‌‌
I ‌‌am‌‌
a ‌‌Member‌‌ of‌‌
Parliament‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌
17th‌‌ Lok‌‌ Sabha,‌‌ what‌‌ parliamentary‌‌ privileges‌‌ am‌‌
I‌‌likely‌‌to‌‌enjoy?‌ ‌
‌
A. Freedom‌‌of‌‌speech‌‌inside‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌‌ ‌
B. Freedom‌‌from‌‌arrest‌‌in‌‌civil‌‌cases‌ ‌
C. Freedom‌‌from‌‌jury‌‌service‌ ‌
D. Power‌‌to‌‌make‌‌rules‌‌of‌‌procedure‌ ‌
‌
Answer‌:‌(‌ A)‌F ‌ reedom‌‌of‌‌speech‌‌inside‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌‌ ‌
(‌ B)‌F
‌ reedom‌‌from‌‌arrest‌‌in‌‌civil‌‌cases‌ ‌
(‌ D)‌P
‌ ower‌‌to‌‌make‌‌rules‌‌of‌‌procedure‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌To‌ ‌make‌ ‌sure‌ ‌that‌ ‌the‌ ‌parliamentarians‌ ‌are‌ ‌able‌ ‌to‌ ‌perform‌ ‌their‌ ‌duties‌‌
without‌‌any‌‌hindrance,‌‌they‌‌enjoy‌‌certain‌‌privileges‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
‌
● Freedom‌‌of‌‌speech‌‌inside‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌ ‌
To‌‌ ensure‌‌ that‌‌
free‌‌
debate‌‌ and‌‌
discussion‌‌ takes‌‌
place‌‌ in‌‌ the‌‌
Parliament,‌‌ the‌‌
Members‌‌
of‌ ‌Parliament‌ ‌enjoy‌ ‌Freedom‌ ‌of‌ ‌Speech‌ ‌inside‌ ‌the‌ ‌Parliament.‌ ‌So,‌ ‌no‌ ‌action‌ ‌can‌ ‌be‌‌
taken‌‌by‌‌a‌‌court‌‌for‌‌anything‌‌said‌‌by‌‌the‌‌MP‌‌during‌‌a‌‌session.‌ ‌
‌
● Freedom‌‌from‌‌arrest‌‌in‌‌civil‌‌cases‌ ‌
To‌‌ ensure‌‌ the‌‌
safe‌‌
arrival‌‌
and‌‌
regular‌‌ attendance‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌ MPs,‌‌ they‌‌ enjoy‌‌
freedom‌‌ from‌‌
arrest‌‌in‌‌civil‌‌cases‌‌for‌‌40‌‌days‌‌before‌‌and‌‌after‌‌a‌‌session‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Parliament.‌ ‌
‌
● Power‌‌to‌‌make‌‌rules‌‌of‌‌procedure‌ ‌
The‌ ‌members‌ ‌of‌ ‌Lok‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌and‌ ‌Rajya‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌have‌ ‌the‌ ‌power‌ ‌to‌ ‌control‌ ‌the‌‌ rules‌‌ of‌‌

procedure‌‌of‌‌the‌‌House.‌‌Each‌‌House‌‌is‌‌the‌‌guardian‌‌of‌‌its‌‌own‌‌proceedings.‌ ‌
‌
The‌ ‌Parliamentarians‌ ‌also‌ ‌used‌ ‌to‌ ‌enjoy‌ ‌the‌ ‌freedom‌ ‌from‌ ‌jury‌‌ service.‌‌
However,‌‌ the‌‌
abolition‌‌of‌‌jury‌‌trials‌‌in‌‌1959‌‌has‌‌rendered‌‌this‌‌privilege‌‌redundant.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
167‌ ‌
‌
Q23‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌option(s)‌‌is‌‌true‌‌about‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌
‌
A. ‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌permanent‌‌body.‌‌ ‌
B. ‌One-third‌‌of‌‌its‌‌members‌‌retire‌‌every‌‌two‌‌years.‌ ‌
C. Elections‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌Rajya‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌are‌ ‌conducted‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌ ‌basis‌ ‌of‌ ‌proportional‌‌
representation.‌ ‌
D. ‌A‌‌member‌‌of‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌‌serves‌‌for‌‌a‌‌term‌‌of‌‌five‌‌years.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(A)‌‌‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌permanent‌‌body.‌ ‌
‌(B)‌‌‌One-third‌‌of‌‌its‌‌members‌‌retire‌‌every‌‌two‌‌years.‌ ‌
‌(C)‌‌‌Elections‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha‌‌are‌‌conducted‌‌on‌‌the‌‌basis‌‌of‌‌ ‌
‌proportional‌‌representation.‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌‌ Rajya‌‌
Sabha‌‌ is‌‌
a ‌‌deliberative‌‌ body‌‌ and‌‌
acts‌‌
as‌‌
the‌‌ second‌‌ chamber‌‌ of‌‌

the‌‌
Indian‌‌ Parliament.‌‌ It‌‌
is‌‌
a ‌‌permanent‌‌ body‌‌
and‌‌ is‌‌
not‌‌
subject‌‌ to‌‌
dissolution.‌‌ However,‌‌
one-third‌ ‌of‌‌ its‌‌
members‌‌ retire‌‌ every‌‌ two‌‌
years.‌‌
The‌‌ members‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
Rajya‌‌ Sabha‌‌
are‌‌

elected‌ ‌by‌ ‌an‌ ‌electoral‌ ‌college‌ ‌that‌ ‌comprises‌ ‌the‌ ‌elected‌ ‌members‌ ‌of‌ ‌a ‌ ‌state‌‌
legislature.‌ ‌Thus,‌ ‌Rajya‌ ‌Sabha‌ ‌MPs‌ ‌are‌ ‌elected‌ ‌by‌ ‌a ‌ ‌system‌ ‌of‌ ‌proportional‌‌
representation‌‌by‌‌means‌‌of‌‌a‌‌single‌‌transferable‌‌vote.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
168‌ ‌
‌
Q24‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌developments‌‌can‌‌be‌‌attributed‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Swadeshi‌‌Movement?‌ ‌
A. Development‌‌of‌‌large-scale‌‌chemical‌‌and‌‌pharmaceutical‌‌industries‌‌in‌‌India‌ ‌
B. Competition‌‌against‌‌the‌‌monopoly‌‌of‌‌the‌‌British‌‌Indian‌‌Steam‌‌Navigation‌‌ ‌
‌Company‌ ‌
C. Permanent‌‌erosion‌‌of‌‌British‌‌textile‌‌and‌‌spices‌‌in‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌market‌ ‌
D. Rise‌‌of‌‌local‌‌banking‌‌and‌‌insurance‌‌companies‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ A)‌D‌ evelopment‌‌of‌‌large-scale‌‌chemical‌‌and‌‌pharmaceutical‌‌industries‌‌in‌ ‌

‌India‌ ‌
‌(B)‌‌‌Competition‌‌against‌‌the‌‌monopoly‌‌of‌‌the‌‌British‌‌Indian‌‌Steam‌‌Navigation‌ ‌ ‌
‌Company‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌Swadeshi‌ ‌and‌ ‌British‌ ‌boycott‌ ‌movements‌ ‌gave‌ ‌rise‌ ‌to‌ ‌many‌ ‌national‌‌
institutions.‌ ‌The‌ ‌National‌ ‌Soap‌ ‌Factory‌ ‌and‌ ‌TISCO‌ ‌were‌ ‌established‌ ‌during‌ ‌the‌‌
Swadeshi‌ ‌movement‌ ‌to‌ ‌encourage‌ ‌national‌ ‌institutions.‌ ‌The‌ ‌Swadeshi‌ ‌Steam‌‌
Navigation‌‌ Company‌‌ gave‌‌ stiff‌‌
competition‌‌ to‌‌ the‌‌
British‌‌ monopoly‌‌ on‌‌
navigation.‌‌ Local‌‌

banking‌‌ and‌‌ insurance‌‌ companies‌‌ were‌‌ set‌‌ up‌‌ by‌‌
merchants‌‌ and‌‌ zamindars.‌‌ However,‌‌
the‌ ‌decline‌ ‌of‌ ‌British‌ ‌goods‌ ‌was‌‌ for‌‌
a ‌‌short‌‌ period‌‌ of‌‌
time.‌‌
There‌‌ was‌‌
a ‌‌dip‌‌
in‌‌
imports‌‌

during‌ ‌the‌‌
movement,‌‌ but‌‌
it‌‌
was‌‌ limited‌‌ to‌‌
products‌‌ generally‌‌ consumed‌‌ by‌‌
the‌‌ middle‌‌

class,‌‌and‌‌was‌‌regionally‌‌limited‌‌to‌‌Bengal.‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
169‌ ‌
‌
GEOGRAPHY‌ ‌
‌
Q1‌ ‌ ‌
‌
Give‌‌the‌‌six‌‌figure‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌of‌‌the‌‌hill‌‌with‌‌a‌‌spot‌‌height‌‌of‌‌280‌‌metres‌‌as‌‌shown‌‌

in‌‌the‌‌map.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌879589‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌872591‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌872582‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌882582‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌8 ‌ 72582‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
170‌ ‌
‌
Q2‌ ‌
‌
Name‌‌the‌‌feature‌‌represented‌‌in‌‌the‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌number:‌‌6131.‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌A‌‌delta‌‌with‌‌an‌‌area‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌square‌‌metres.‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌A‌‌town‌‌with‌‌a‌‌population‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌persons.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌A‌‌hill‌‌with‌‌a‌‌triangulated‌‌height‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌metres.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌A‌‌hill‌‌with‌‌a‌‌spot‌‌height‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌metres.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌A ‌ ‌‌hill‌‌with‌‌a‌‌triangulated‌‌height‌‌of‌‌1080‌‌metres.‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌symbol‌‌that‌‌shows‌‌the triangulated‌‌height‌‌of‌‌a‌‌feature. ‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
171‌ ‌
‌
Q3‌ ‌ ‌
Ramnadi‌‌is‌‌a‌‌________‌‌bank‌‌tributary‌‌of‌‌Kalinadi.‌ ‌

‌
‌ .‌‌Central‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Right‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Left‌ ‌
‌
‌ ight‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌R
‌
Solution:‌ ‌As‌ ‌we‌ ‌can‌ ‌see‌ ‌that‌ ‌the‌ ‌spot‌ ‌height‌ ‌is‌ ‌decreasing‌ ‌as‌ ‌we‌ ‌are‌ ‌moving‌ ‌from‌‌
northwest‌ ‌to‌ ‌southeast‌ ‌(280,‌ ‌264,‌ ‌181,‌ ‌100).‌ ‌This‌ ‌shows‌ ‌that‌ ‌the‌ ‌elevation‌ ‌is‌‌
decreasing,‌‌and‌‌we‌‌know‌‌that‌‌a‌‌river‌‌flows‌‌from‌‌higher‌‌to‌‌lower‌‌elevation.‌ ‌
Now,‌ ‌if‌ ‌the‌‌
flow‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌
river‌‌
is‌‌
from‌‌ northwest‌‌ to‌‌ southeast,‌‌ then‌‌ it‌‌
makes‌‌ Ramnadi‌‌ its‌‌

right‌‌bank‌‌tributary.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
172‌ ‌
‌
Q4‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌contour‌‌feature‌‌represented‌‌here.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌A‌‌conical‌‌hill‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌A‌‌plateau‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌A‌‌waterfall‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌A‌‌ridge‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌A
‌ ‌‌plateau‌ ‌
‌
Solution‌: ‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
173‌ ‌
‌
Q5‌ ‌
What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌area enclosed‌‌by‌‌Eastings‌‌81‌‌and‌‌82‌‌and‌‌Northings‌‌31‌‌and‌‌33?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌18‌‌km²‌ ‌
B.‌‌19‌‌km²‌ ‌
C.‌‌10‌‌km²‌ ‌
D.‌‌2‌‌km²‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(A)‌1 ‌ 8‌‌km²‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌A ‌ rea‌‌of‌‌grid‌‌1=‌‌1*1‌‌=‌‌1‌‌cm‌2‌,‌‌
‌
Scale‌‌given,‌‌1‌‌cm‌‌=‌‌3‌‌km‌ ‌
Actual‌‌area‌‌of‌‌grid‌‌1‌‌on‌‌ground‌‌=1*3*3‌‌=‌‌9‌‌km‌2‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
174‌ ‌
‌
Area‌‌of‌‌grid‌‌1+2‌‌=‌‌9+9‌‌=‌‌18‌‌km‌2‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
175‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
Q6‌ ‌
What‌‌would‌‌be‌‌the‌‌distance‌‌between‌‌A‌‌and‌‌B‌‌when‌‌measured‌‌along‌‌the‌‌route?‌ ‌
‌
A.‌‌3.65‌‌km‌ ‌
B.‌‌3.65‌‌m ‌ ‌
C.‌‌5.65‌‌km‌ ‌
D.‌‌5.65‌‌m ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌5‌ .65‌‌km‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌A ‌ C‌‌=‌‌2+2‌‌=‌‌4‌‌cm‌ ‌
BC‌‌=‌‌2+2‌‌=‌‌4‌‌cm‌ ‌
In‌‌ABC,‌‌AB2‌‌=‌‌AC2‌‌+‌‌BC2‌‌(Pythagoras‌‌Theorem)‌ ‌
AB=‌‌√42+42‌‌=‌‌√32‌‌=‌‌5.65‌‌cm‌ ‌
‌
Scale‌‌given,‌‌1:1000000,‌ ‌
‌
Therefore,‌‌Actual‌‌distance‌‌=‌‌5.65‌‌*‌‌1000000‌‌=‌‌5.65‌‌km‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
176‌ ‌
‌
‌
Q7‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌feature‌‌represented‌‌in‌‌the‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌number‌‌8030.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Metalled‌‌road‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Unmetalled‌‌road‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Cart‌‌track‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Broad-gauge‌‌railway‌‌line‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ D)‌B ‌ road-gauge‌‌railway‌‌line‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌symbol‌‌of‌‌a‌‌broad-gauge‌‌railway‌‌line.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
177‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌
‌ Identify‌‌the‌‌drainage‌‌pattern‌‌shown‌‌in‌‌the‌‌grid‌‌reference‌‌number:‌‌7212.‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌ ‌A.‌‌Dendritic ‌ ‌
Q8‌ ‌ ‌B.‌‌Radial‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Trellis‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ A)‌D‌ endritic ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌I‌t‌‌is‌‌a‌‌symbol‌‌of‌‌dendritic‌‌drainage‌‌pattern.‌‌The‌‌tributaries‌‌resemble‌‌the‌‌

branches‌‌of‌‌a‌‌tree.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
178‌ ‌
‌
Q9‌ ‌
The‌‌highlighted‌‌region‌‌indicated‌‌by‌‌B‌‌represents:‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Cultivable‌‌land‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Forest‌‌area‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Uncultivable‌‌land‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌River‌ ‌
‌
Answer: (C)‌U‌ ncultivable‌‌land‌ ‌
‌
‌ n‌‌a‌‌topographical sheet,‌‌uncultivable‌‌areas‌‌are‌‌shown‌‌in‌‌white‌‌colour. ‌ ‌
Solution:‌O
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
179‌ ‌
‌
Q10‌ ‌ ‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌type‌‌of‌‌settlement.‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Scattered‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Nucleated‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Linear‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌ L ‌ inear‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌As‌‌we‌‌can‌‌see,‌‌the‌‌red-coloured‌‌symbol‌‌of‌‌permanent‌‌huts‌‌arranged‌‌along‌‌

the‌‌line‌‌of‌‌a‌‌stream,‌‌and‌‌hence,‌‌they‌‌represent a‌‌linear‌‌settlement‌‌pattern.‌ ‌
‌
‌

‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
180‌ ‌
‌
Q11‌ ‌ Arrange‌‌the‌‌following‌‌layer‌‌of‌‌evergreen‌‌forest‌‌in‌‌an‌‌order‌‌from‌‌top‌‌to‌‌bottom.‌ ‌
1. Emergent‌‌layer‌ ‌
2. Canopy‌ ‌
3. Understorey‌ ‌
4. Shrub‌‌layer‌ ‌
5. Forest‌‌floor‌
‌
A. 1-->3-->2-->4-->5‌ ‌
B. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5‌ ‌
C. 1-->2-->4-->3-->5‌ ‌
D. 5-->2-->3-->1-->5‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(B)‌1
‌ -->2-->3-->4-->5‌ ‌
Solution:‌E ‌ vergreen‌‌forest‌‌has‌‌a‌‌wide‌‌variety‌‌of‌‌vegetation.‌‌Creepers,‌‌shrubs‌‌and‌‌
giant‌‌trees‌‌that‌‌seem‌‌to‌‌reach‌‌the‌‌sky‌‌!‌‌This‌‌variety‌‌results‌‌in‌‌a‌‌multilayered‌‌structure.‌‌
At‌‌the‌‌bottom,‌‌you‌‌have‌‌the‌‌forest‌‌floor.‌‌This‌‌layer‌‌is‌‌dark‌‌and‌‌damp‌‌and‌‌receives‌‌
less‌‌than‌‌2%‌‌of‌‌the‌‌sunlight.‌‌Above‌‌this‌‌layer‌‌is‌‌the‌‌shrub‌‌layer.‌‌This‌‌layer‌‌receives‌‌
about‌‌5%‌‌of‌‌the‌‌sunlight‌‌and‌‌extends‌‌from‌‌1.5‌‌m‌‌to‌‌5‌‌m‌‌from‌‌the‌‌forest‌‌floor.‌‌After‌‌this‌‌
layer,‌‌comes‌‌the‌‌understory.‌‌The‌‌understory‌‌extends‌‌upto‌‌a‌‌height‌‌of‌‌20‌‌m‌‌from‌‌the‌‌
forest‌‌floor.‌‌Above‌‌this‌‌layer‌‌is‌‌the‌‌canopy‌‌layer.‌‌The‌‌canopy‌‌layer‌‌forms‌‌a‌‌thick‌‌layer‌‌
above‌‌the‌‌rest‌‌of‌‌the‌‌trees‌‌and‌‌eats‌‌up‌‌about‌‌95%‌‌of‌‌the‌‌sunlight.‌‌Finally,‌‌you‌‌have‌‌
the‌‌emergent‌‌layer.‌‌These‌‌trees‌‌tower‌‌over‌‌the‌‌rest‌‌of‌‌the‌‌forest‌‌and‌‌extend‌‌to‌‌
heights‌‌of‌‌up‌‌to‌‌60‌‌m.‌ ‌
Q12‌ ‌ With‌‌respect‌‌to‌‌tropical‌‌deciduous‌‌forest,‌‌which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌is/are‌
right?‌ ‌
‌
1. This‌‌type‌‌of‌‌forest‌‌is‌‌widespread‌‌in‌‌montane‌‌regions.‌ ‌
2. They‌‌spread‌‌over‌‌regions‌‌which‌‌receive‌‌very‌‌low‌‌rainfall.‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌Only‌‌1 ‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Only‌‌2 ‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2 ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Neither‌‌1‌‌nor‌‌2 ‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(D)‌N ‌ either‌‌1‌‌nor‌‌2 ‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Tropical‌‌deciduous‌‌forests‌‌are‌‌the‌‌most‌‌widespread‌‌forests‌‌in‌‌India.‌‌They‌‌
are‌‌also‌‌called‌‌monsoon‌‌forests.‌‌They‌‌spread‌‌over‌‌regions‌‌which‌‌receive‌‌sufficiently‌‌
high‌‌rainfall‌‌in‌‌the‌‌range‌‌of‌‌70-200‌‌cm.‌‌This‌‌type‌‌of‌‌forest‌‌is‌‌widespread‌‌in‌‌peninsular‌‌

India.‌‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
181‌ ‌
‌
Q13‌ ‌ Photoperiod‌‌is‌‌an‌‌important‌‌aspect‌‌that‌‌affects‌‌the‌‌type‌‌of‌‌vegetation‌‌found‌‌in‌‌a ‌‌
place.‌‌Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌describes‌‌photoperiod.‌ ‌
A. It‌‌is‌‌the‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌plants‌‌pause‌‌their‌‌photosynthesis‌‌process‌ ‌
B. It‌‌is‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌plants‌‌shed‌‌their‌‌leaves‌
C. It‌‌is‌‌the‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌plants‌‌receive‌‌sunlight‌‌during‌‌the‌‌day.‌‌
‌
D. None‌‌of‌‌above‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌I‌t‌‌is‌‌the‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌plants‌‌receive‌‌sunlight‌‌during‌‌the‌‌day.‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌‌The‌‌photoperiod‌‌affects‌‌the‌‌vegetation‌‌of‌‌a‌‌place.‌‌Photoperiod‌‌is‌‌the‌‌

duration‌‌of‌‌time‌‌when‌‌an‌‌organism‌‌receives‌‌sunlight‌‌during‌‌a‌‌day.‌‌
‌
We‌‌all‌‌know‌‌that‌‌sunlight‌‌is‌‌essential‌‌for‌‌the‌‌growth‌‌of‌‌plants.‌‌So,‌‌in‌‌places‌‌that‌‌

receive‌‌sunlight‌‌for‌‌a‌‌longer‌‌duration,‌‌trees‌‌grow‌‌faster.‌‌In‌‌places‌‌that‌‌receive‌‌
sunlight‌‌for‌‌a‌‌lesser‌‌duration‌‌of‌‌time,‌‌we‌‌often‌‌see‌‌stunted‌‌growth‌‌in‌‌plants.‌ ‌
Q14‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌regarding‌‌biodiversity‌‌of‌‌flora‌‌and‌‌fauna‌‌in‌‌India:‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌India‌‌has‌‌a‌‌huge‌‌biodiversity‌‌of‌‌flora,‌‌but‌‌it‌‌lacks‌‌diversity‌‌in‌‌terms‌‌of‌‌fauna.‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌India's‌‌biodiversity‌‌increased‌‌rapidly‌‌during‌‌colonial‌‌times.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌India‌‌has‌‌a‌‌huge‌‌biodiversity‌‌in‌‌terms‌‌of‌‌both‌‌flora‌‌and‌‌fauna.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌All‌‌above‌‌are‌‌true‌ ‌
‌
Identify‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌‌‌India‌‌has‌‌a‌‌huge‌‌biodiversity‌‌in‌‌terms‌‌of‌‌both‌‌flora‌‌and‌‌fauna.‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌‌Our‌‌country‌‌houses‌‌around‌‌49,000‌‌plant‌‌species.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌the‌‌eighth‌‌most‌‌
diverse‌‌country‌‌in‌‌the‌‌world.‌‌There‌‌are‌‌about‌‌18,500‌‌flowering‌‌plants‌‌in‌‌India.‌‌This‌‌
accounts‌‌for‌‌6%‌‌of‌‌the‌‌world’s‌‌flowering‌‌plants.‌‌We‌‌also‌‌have‌‌many‌‌non-flowering‌
plants‌‌such‌‌as‌‌ferns,‌‌algae‌‌and‌‌fungi.‌‌ ‌
In‌‌addition‌‌to‌‌all‌‌this,‌‌we‌‌have‌‌a‌‌wide‌‌variety‌‌of‌‌wildlife‌‌within‌‌our‌‌borders‌‌as‌‌well.‌‌
India‌‌is‌‌home‌‌to‌‌nearly‌‌91,000‌‌species‌‌of‌‌animals,‌‌and‌‌a‌‌rich‌‌variety‌‌of‌‌fish‌‌in‌‌its‌‌fresh‌‌
and‌‌marine‌‌waters.‌ ‌
Indian‌‌forests‌‌were‌‌exploited‌‌by‌‌Britishers‌‌during‌‌colonial‌‌times‌‌hence‌‌India’s‌‌
biodiversity‌‌suffered‌‌negatively‌‌in‌‌that‌‌time‌‌period.‌‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
182‌ ‌
‌
Q15‌ ‌ Why‌‌are‌‌tank‌‌irrigation‌‌systems‌‌considered‌‌non-perennial?‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌fed‌‌by‌‌non-perennial‌‌rivers‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Not‌‌suitable‌‌for‌‌perennial‌‌crops‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Rain-fed‌‌nature‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌R ‌ ain-fed‌‌nature‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌‌P ‌ erennial‌‌systems‌‌are‌‌those‌‌in‌‌which‌‌flowing‌‌or‌‌non-flowing‌‌surface‌‌water‌‌

is‌‌present‌‌continuously‌‌throughout‌‌the‌‌year.‌‌We‌‌do‌‌not‌‌receive‌‌rainwater‌‌throughout‌‌
the‌‌year.‌‌Hence,‌‌tank‌‌systems‌‌are‌‌non-perennial‌‌because‌‌they‌‌are‌‌dependent‌‌on‌‌
rainwater.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
Q16‌ ‌ Which‌‌qualitative‌‌aspects‌‌are‌‌responsible‌‌for‌‌water‌‌scarcity?‌ ‌
A. Overexploitation‌‌of‌‌water‌ ‌
B. Unequal‌‌distribution‌‌of‌‌water‌ ‌
C. Water‌‌pollution‌ ‌
D. Unequal‌‌access‌‌to‌‌water‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌W
‌ ater‌‌pollution‌ ‌
Solution:‌W ‌ ater‌‌pollution‌‌affects‌‌the‌‌quality‌‌of‌‌water‌‌available.‌‌That‌‌is‌‌the‌‌qualitative‌‌

aspect‌‌of‌‌water‌‌scarcity.‌‌Overexploitation‌‌of‌‌water‌‌resources,‌‌reduces‌‌the‌‌quality‌‌of‌‌
available‌‌water‌‌and‌‌causes‌‌unequal‌‌access‌‌to‌‌water‌‌among‌‌different‌‌social‌‌groups.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
183‌ ‌
‌
Q17‌ ‌ 1. El‌‌Nino‌‌is‌‌characterised‌‌by‌‌warm‌‌ocean‌‌surface‌‌waters‌‌near‌‌the‌‌coast‌‌of‌‌

Peru.‌ ‌
2. El‌‌Nino‌‌causes‌‌lower‌‌than‌‌normal‌‌monsoon‌‌rainfall‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌
Read‌‌the‌‌above‌‌given‌‌statements‌‌carefully‌‌and‌‌select‌‌the‌‌option‌‌that‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
A
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌Both‌‌Statement‌‌A‌‌and‌‌B‌‌are‌‌correct.‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌‌El‌‌Nino‌‌is‌‌the‌‌name‌‌given‌‌to‌‌the‌‌periodical‌‌development‌‌of‌‌warm‌‌ocean‌‌
currents‌‌along‌‌the‌‌coast‌‌of‌‌Peru.‌‌It‌‌occurs‌‌as‌‌a‌‌temporary‌‌replacement‌‌of‌‌the‌‌cold‌‌

Peruvian‌‌Current.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌associated‌‌with‌‌lower‌‌than‌‌normal‌‌monsoon‌‌rainfall‌‌in‌‌India.‌‌
This‌‌is‌‌because‌‌it‌‌affects‌‌the‌‌flow‌‌of‌‌moisture-bearing‌‌winds‌‌from‌‌the‌‌cooler‌‌ocean‌‌

towards‌‌India.‌‌Thus,‌‌it‌‌negatively‌‌impacts‌‌the‌‌summer‌‌monsoon.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
184‌ ‌
‌
Q18‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌given‌‌pair(s)‌‌is/are‌‌correctly‌‌matched? ‌ ‌
Phases‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌ Characteristics‌ ‌
1.‌‌Onset‌‌of‌‌monsoon.‌ Withdrawal‌‌of‌‌Easterly‌‌Jet‌‌Stream‌‌from‌‌the‌‌Northern‌ ‌
Plains‌‌of‌‌India.‌ ‌
2.‌‌Break‌‌of‌‌monsoon.‌ October‌‌heat‌‌phenomenon.‌ ‌
3.‌‌Retreat‌‌of‌‌
Clear‌‌skies‌‌and‌‌rise‌‌in‌‌temperature.‌ ‌
monsoon.‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌1‌‌and‌‌3‌‌only‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌2‌‌and‌‌3‌‌only‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌3‌‌only‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌2‌‌only‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌3‌‌only‌ ‌
Solution:‌T ‌ he‌‌onset‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌‌in‌‌India‌‌occurs‌‌in‌‌May.‌‌The‌‌ITCZ‌‌(Intertropical‌‌

Convergence‌‌Zone)‌‌is‌‌related‌‌to‌‌the‌‌withdrawal‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Westerly‌‌Jet‌‌Stream‌‌from‌‌its‌‌
position‌‌over‌‌the‌‌Northern‌‌Plains‌‌of‌‌India.‌‌During‌‌the‌‌southwest‌‌monsoon,‌‌if‌‌rain‌‌fails‌‌

to‌‌occur‌‌for‌‌one‌‌or‌‌more‌‌weeks,‌‌it‌‌is‌‌known‌‌as‌‌break‌‌in‌‌the‌‌monsoon,‌‌whereas‌‌

October‌‌heat‌‌is‌‌related‌‌to‌‌retreating‌‌monsoon.‌‌By‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌September,‌‌the‌‌
southwest‌‌monsoon‌‌becomes‌‌weak‌‌and‌‌is‌‌marked‌‌by‌‌clear‌‌skies‌‌and‌‌warm‌‌
temperature. ‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
185‌ ‌
‌
Q19‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements:‌ ‌
‌1.‌‌Delhi‌‌generally‌‌receives‌‌monsoon‌‌showers‌‌from‌‌the‌‌Bay‌‌of‌‌Bengal‌‌branch‌‌of‌ ‌ ‌
‌monsoon.‌ ‌
‌2.‌‌Monsoon‌‌winds‌‌come‌‌from‌‌the‌‌North-west‌‌direction‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌3.‌‌Withdrawal‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌‌is‌‌a‌‌rapid‌‌process‌‌all‌‌over‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌4.‌‌During‌‌winter,‌‌some‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌rainfall‌‌occurs‌‌in‌‌the‌‌coastal‌‌regions‌‌of‌‌Tamil‌ ‌ ‌
‌Nadu‌‌due‌‌to‌‌northeast‌‌trade‌‌winds.‌ ‌
‌
‌
A. Only‌‌1‌‌and‌‌4 ‌
B. Only‌‌2 ‌ ‌
C. Only‌‌1,‌‌2,‌‌and‌‌4 ‌ ‌
D. Only‌‌2‌‌and‌‌4 ‌
‌
‌ nly‌‌1‌‌and‌‌4 ‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ A)‌O
Solution:‌ ‌Delhi‌ ‌receives‌ ‌rainfall‌ ‌generally‌ ‌from‌ ‌the‌ ‌Bay‌ ‌of‌ ‌Bengal‌ ‌branch‌ ‌of‌‌
monsoon.‌‌ Monsoon‌‌ winds,‌‌
unlike‌‌ trade‌‌
winds,‌‌ are‌‌
not‌‌
steady‌‌ winds‌‌ and‌‌
are‌‌ pulsating‌‌
in‌‌
nature.‌‌ Monsoon‌‌ withdrawal‌‌ is‌‌
a ‌‌gradual‌‌
process‌‌ in‌‌
the‌‌
northern‌‌ part‌‌
of‌‌
the‌‌ country‌‌
while‌ ‌it‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌rapid‌ ‌process‌ ‌in‌ ‌southern‌ ‌India.‌ ‌During‌ ‌winter,‌ ‌some‌ ‌amount‌‌ of‌‌
rainfall‌‌

occurs‌‌in‌‌the‌‌coastal‌‌regions‌‌of‌‌Tamil‌‌Nadu‌‌due‌‌to‌‌northeastern‌‌trade‌‌winds.‌ ‌
Q20‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌about‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌monsoon:‌ ‌
1. India‌‌receives‌‌most‌‌of‌‌its‌‌rainfall‌‌during‌‌the‌‌advancing‌‌monsoon‌‌season.‌ ‌
2. Kerala‌i‌s‌‌the‌‌first‌‌state‌‌on‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌mainland‌‌to‌‌receive‌‌rainfall‌‌during‌‌the‌‌

advancing‌‌monsoon‌‌season.‌ ‌
A. Statement‌‌1‌‌is‌‌correct.‌ ‌
B. Statement‌‌2‌‌is‌‌correct.‌ ‌
C. Both‌‌Statements‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌correct.‌ ‌
D. Both‌‌Statements‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌incorrect.‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌‌‌Both‌‌Statements‌‌A‌‌and‌‌B‌‌are‌‌correct.‌ ‌
Solution‌: ‌‌India‌‌ receives‌‌ more‌‌ than‌‌

75%‌‌ of‌‌ its‌‌
rainfall‌‌
during‌‌ the‌‌ advancing‌‌ southwest‌‌
monsoon‌‌ season.‌‌ The‌‌ onset‌‌ of‌‌
monsoon‌‌ is‌‌
characterised‌‌ by‌‌
a ‌‌sudden‌‌ spurt‌‌
of‌‌
rainfall‌‌

activity.‌‌
It‌‌
progresses‌‌ inland‌‌ in‌‌
stages‌‌
and‌‌ covers‌‌ the‌‌
entire‌‌
country‌‌
by‌‌
the‌‌
middle‌‌
of‌‌

July.‌‌Kerala‌‌is‌‌the‌‌first‌‌state‌‌to‌‌receive‌‌rainfall‌‌during‌‌this‌‌season. ‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
186‌ ‌
‌
Q21‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌not‌‌a‌‌characteristic‌‌associated‌‌with‌‌climatic‌‌controls?‌ ‌
A. Temperature‌ ‌
B. Humidity‌ ‌
C. Precipitation‌ ‌
D. Landform‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ D)‌‌‌Landform‌ ‌
Solution‌: ‌‌Factors‌‌ such‌‌
as‌‌ temperature,‌‌ pressure‌‌ and‌‌
wind‌‌ system,‌‌ precipitation,‌‌ and‌‌
humidity‌ ‌are‌ ‌associated‌ ‌with‌ ‌climatic‌ ‌controls.‌ ‌Although‌ ‌the‌ ‌landform‌ ‌of‌ ‌a ‌ ‌place‌ ‌is‌‌

characterised‌‌by‌‌climate,‌‌it‌‌is‌‌not‌‌a‌‌characteristic‌‌of‌‌climate.‌ ‌
Q22‌ ‌ What‌‌do‌‌you‌‌understand‌‌by‌‌the‌‌term‌‌retreating‌‌monsoon?‌ ‌
‌
A. The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌entering‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌start‌‌of‌‌winter.‌ ‌
B. The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌leaving‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌‌season.‌ ‌
C. The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌entering‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌summer.‌ ‌
D. The‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌leaving‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌start‌‌of‌‌summer.‌ ‌
‌ he‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌leaving‌‌the‌‌country‌‌at‌‌the‌‌end‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌‌season.‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌T
Solution:‌ ‌From‌ ‌June‌ ‌all‌ ‌the‌ ‌way‌ ‌till‌ ‌October,‌ ‌there‌ ‌is‌ ‌rainfall‌ ‌seen‌ ‌throughout‌ ‌the‌‌
country.‌ ‌Around‌ ‌mid-October,‌ ‌these‌‌ monsoon‌‌ winds‌‌ retreat‌‌ from‌‌ the‌‌
country.‌‌
This‌‌
is‌‌

what‌‌we‌‌call‌‌‘retreating‌‌monsoon’.‌ ‌
Q23‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement.‌ ‌
For‌‌a‌‌normal‌‌monsoon‌‌season‌‌in‌‌India,‌‌which‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌conditions‌‌
facilitates‌‌the‌‌movement‌‌of‌‌monsoon‌‌winds‌‌from‌‌the‌‌ocean‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌land?‌ ‌
1. Presence‌‌of‌‌high‌‌pressure‌‌conditions‌‌around‌‌the‌‌island‌‌of‌‌Madagascar.‌ ‌
2. Intense‌‌heating‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Tibetan‌‌plateau,‌‌resulting‌‌in‌‌low‌‌pressure‌‌conditions‌‌

over‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌mainland.‌ ‌
A
‌D.‌‌Both‌‌statements‌‌are‌‌incorrect.‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌‌‌Both‌‌statements‌‌are‌‌correct.‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Heating‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌Tibetan‌ ‌plateau‌ ‌and‌ ‌the‌ ‌subsequent‌ ‌formation‌ ‌of‌ ‌a ‌ ‌low‌‌

pressure‌‌ zone‌‌ over‌‌
the‌‌ Indian‌‌ subcontinent‌‌ and‌‌
the‌‌ presence‌‌ of‌‌
a ‌‌high‌‌
pressure‌‌
zone‌‌
on‌‌
the‌‌
coast‌‌
of‌‌
Madagascar,‌‌ facilitate‌‌
the‌‌
movement‌‌ of‌‌
air‌‌
from‌‌ high‌‌
pressure‌‌
to‌‌
low‌‌

____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
187‌ ‌
‌
pressure‌‌ region.‌‌
These‌‌
winds‌‌
enter‌‌
from‌‌
the‌‌
south-west‌‌
direction‌‌
and‌‌
bring‌‌
monsoon‌‌

in‌‌India.‌ ‌
Q24‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statements‌‌with‌‌reference‌‌to‌‌monsoon‌‌trough.‌ ‌
1. It‌‌is‌‌a‌‌zone‌‌of‌‌low-pressure‌‌located‌‌just‌‌below‌‌the‌‌ITCZ‌‌in‌‌summer‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌
2. ITCZ‌‌helps‌‌in‌‌attracting‌‌the‌‌southwest‌‌monsoon‌‌to‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌subcontinent.‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Only‌‌statement‌‌1‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Only‌‌statement‌‌2‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌statements‌‌are‌‌true.‌ ‌
‌
‌ nly‌‌statement‌‌2‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌O
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌ITCZ‌ ‌(Intertropical‌ ‌Convergence‌ ‌Zone)‌ ‌located‌ ‌at‌ ‌the‌ ‌equator‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌‌
low-pressure‌ ‌zone‌ ‌where‌ ‌trade‌ ‌winds‌ ‌converge.‌ ‌In‌ ‌summers‌ ‌(July),‌ ‌the‌ ‌ITCZ‌ ‌is‌‌
located‌‌ around‌‌ 20°‌‌
N–
‌2‌ 5°‌‌
N ‌‌latitudes‌‌
(over‌‌ the‌‌
Gangetic‌‌ plain),‌‌
sometimes‌‌ called‌‌
the‌‌
monsoon‌ ‌trough.‌ ‌Monsoon‌ ‌trough‌ ‌is‌ ‌not‌ ‌located‌‌ below‌‌
ITCZ,‌‌
but‌‌
as‌‌
part‌‌
of‌‌
ITCZ.‌‌ It‌‌

helps‌‌in‌‌attracting‌‌the‌‌southwest‌‌monsoon‌‌towards‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌subcontinent. ‌ ‌
Q25‌ ‌ Which‌‌is‌‌the‌‌most‌‌widely‌‌used‌‌type‌‌of‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌‌in‌‌India?‌‌
‌
A. Drip‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
B. Sprinkler‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
C. Tube‌‌well‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
D. Canal‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌T
‌ ube‌‌well‌‌irrigation‌‌system‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Wells‌ ‌are‌ ‌of‌ ‌two‌ ‌types-‌ ‌open‌ ‌well‌ ‌and‌ ‌tube‌ ‌wells.‌‌ Out‌‌
of‌‌
these‌‌ two,‌‌
tube‌‌

well‌ ‌irrigation‌ ‌has‌ ‌become‌ ‌widespread‌ ‌in‌ ‌India.‌ ‌It‌ ‌is‌ ‌largely‌ ‌practised‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌Ganga‌‌
plains‌‌including‌‌Punjab,‌‌Haryana,‌‌Uttar‌‌Pradesh‌‌and‌‌West‌‌Bengal.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
188‌ ‌
‌
Q26‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statements‌‌regarding‌‌monsoon‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌
1. Every‌‌region‌‌in‌‌India‌‌receives‌‌rainfall‌‌from‌‌June‌‌to‌‌September.‌ ‌
2. Monsoon‌‌is‌‌the‌‌climate‌‌associated‌‌with‌‌a‌‌seasonal‌‌reversal‌‌in‌‌direction‌‌of‌‌

winds.‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Only‌‌1‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Both‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌false.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Both‌‌1‌‌and‌‌2‌‌are‌‌true.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌1‌‌is‌‌false‌‌and‌‌2‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(D)‌‌‌1‌‌is‌‌false‌‌and‌‌2‌‌is‌‌true.‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ Most‌‌ parts‌‌

of‌‌ the‌‌
country‌‌ get‌‌ rainfall‌‌ during‌‌
June‌‌ and‌‌
September,‌‌ but‌‌
in‌‌
the‌‌
coastal‌ ‌areas‌ ‌of‌ ‌Tamil‌ ‌Nadu,‌ ‌it‌ ‌rains‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌beginning‌‌ of‌‌
winter‌‌
season.‌‌
Monsoon‌‌ is‌‌

associated‌ ‌with‌ ‌a ‌ ‌seasonal‌ ‌reversal‌ ‌in‌ ‌the‌ ‌direction‌ ‌of‌ ‌winds.‌ ‌India‌ ‌has‌ ‌a ‌ ‌hot‌‌
monsoon‌‌climate,‌‌which‌‌is‌‌prevalent‌‌in‌‌South‌‌and‌‌Southeast‌‌Asia.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
189‌ ‌
‌
Q27‌ ‌ Match‌‌the‌‌following.‌ ‌
Location‌ ‌ Annual‌‌rainfall‌‌(in‌‌cm)‌ ‌
a)‌‌Bengaluru‌ ‌ 1)‌‌225.3‌‌cm‌‌(Very‌‌high‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
b)‌‌Shillong‌ ‌ ‌2)‌ ‌88.9‌‌cm‌‌(Low‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
c)‌‌Mumbai‌ ‌ ‌3)‌‌8.5‌‌cm‌‌(Very‌‌low‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
‌d)‌‌Leh‌ ‌ ‌4)‌‌183.4‌‌cm‌‌(High‌‌rainfall)‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌a‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌a‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌a‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌3 ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌a‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌b‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌c‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌d‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌‌‌a-2,‌‌b-1,‌‌c-4,‌‌d-3‌,
‌‌ ‌
Solution:‌T
‌ he‌‌average‌‌rates‌‌of‌‌rainfall‌‌in‌‌the‌‌places‌‌mentioned‌‌above‌‌are‌‌as‌‌follows:‌ ‌
‌
‌Stations‌ ‌ Annual‌‌rainfall‌ ‌
a) Bengaluru‌ ‌ 1)‌‌88.9‌ ‌
b) Shillong‌ ‌ 2)‌‌225.3‌ ‌
c) Mumbai‌ ‌ 3)‌‌183.4‌ ‌
d) Leh‌ ‌ 4)‌‌8.5‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
190‌ ‌
‌
Note:‌‌‌Even‌‌without‌‌knowing‌‌the‌‌exact‌‌numbers‌‌one‌‌can‌‌make‌‌an‌‌estimated‌‌guess‌‌
about‌‌the‌‌amount‌‌of‌‌rainfall‌‌a‌‌place‌‌receives:‌ ‌
Shillong‌‌is‌‌in‌‌North-East‌‌of‌‌India‌‌which‌‌receives‌‌very‌‌high‌‌rainfall‌ ‌
Leh‌‌is‌‌cold‌‌desert‌‌which‌‌lies‌‌in‌‌rain‌‌shadow‌‌area‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Himalayas‌‌thus‌‌receives‌‌very‌‌

low‌‌rainfall‌ ‌
Mumbai‌‌lies‌‌on‌‌west‌‌side‌‌of‌‌the‌‌western‌‌ghat‌‌thus‌‌receives‌‌high‌‌rainfall.‌ ‌
‌
Q28‌ ‌ Match‌‌the‌‌following.‌ ‌
1)‌‌Equatorial‌‌regions‌ ‌ a)‌‌Cold‌‌climate‌ ‌
2)‌‌Polar‌‌regions‌ ‌ b)‌‌Hot‌‌climate‌ ‌
3)‌‌Retreating‌‌monsoon‌ ‌ c)‌‌Early‌‌June‌‌to‌‌mid-September‌ ‌
4)‌‌Advancing‌‌monsoon ‌ ‌ d)‌‌October‌‌to‌‌November‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌b,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌c,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌d ‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌d,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌c,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌b,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌a ‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌b,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌d,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌c ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌1‌‌-‌‌d,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌c ‌ ‌
‌
‌ ‌‌-‌‌b,‌‌2‌‌-‌‌a,‌‌3‌‌-‌‌d,‌‌4‌‌-‌‌c ‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ C)‌1
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌Earth‌ ‌is‌ ‌divided‌ ‌into‌ ‌different‌ ‌regions‌ ‌on‌ ‌the‌ ‌basis‌ ‌of‌‌
their‌‌
latitudinal‌‌

positions.‌ ‌Areas‌ ‌near‌ ‌the‌ ‌equator‌ ‌experience‌ ‌hot‌ ‌climate‌ ‌and‌ ‌those‌ ‌near‌ ‌the‌ ‌poles‌‌
experience‌ ‌cold‌ ‌climate.‌ ‌India‌ ‌has‌ ‌a ‌ ‌monsoon‌ ‌type‌ ‌of‌ ‌climate.‌ ‌The‌ ‌advancing‌‌
monsoon‌ ‌season‌ ‌lasts‌ ‌from‌ ‌early‌ ‌June‌ ‌to‌ ‌mid-September,‌ ‌and‌ ‌the‌ ‌retreating‌‌
monsoon‌‌lasts‌‌from‌‌October‌‌to‌‌November.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
191‌ ‌
‌
Q29‌ ‌ The‌‌following‌‌events‌‌can‌‌be‌‌noticed‌‌in‌‌which‌‌season? ‌ ‌
1. The‌‌Northern‌‌Hemisphere‌‌is‌‌oriented‌‌away‌‌from‌‌the‌‌sun.‌ ‌
‌ f‌‌northeast‌‌trade‌‌winds.‌ ‌
2. Origin‌o
3. A‌‌high-pressure‌‌zone‌‌develops‌‌over‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌subcontinent.‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Summer‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Winter‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Rainy‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Both‌‌(A)‌‌and‌‌(C) ‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(‌ B)‌‌‌Winter‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌In‌ ‌India,‌ ‌the‌ ‌cold‌‌

weather‌‌ season‌‌ starts‌‌ in‌‌
mid-November.‌‌ December‌‌ and‌‌
January‌ ‌are‌ ‌the‌ ‌coldest‌ ‌months‌ ‌in‌ ‌northern‌ ‌India.‌ ‌During‌ ‌this‌ ‌season,‌ ‌the‌‌
Northern‌‌
Hemisphere‌‌ is‌‌
oriented‌‌ away‌‌ from‌‌
the‌‌ sun,‌‌
and‌‌ a ‌‌high-pressure‌‌ zone‌‌
develops‌‌ over‌‌
the‌ ‌Indian‌ ‌subcontinent,‌ ‌and‌ ‌the‌ ‌northeast‌ ‌trade‌ ‌winds‌ ‌dominate‌ ‌the‌ ‌region.‌‌ These‌‌
winds‌ ‌are‌ ‌dry,‌ ‌as‌ ‌they‌ ‌move‌ ‌away‌ ‌from‌ ‌land‌ ‌towards‌ ‌the‌ ‌ocean,‌ ‌and‌ ‌they‌ ‌do‌ ‌not‌‌

cause‌‌rainfall.‌ ‌
Q30‌ ‌ The‌‌climate‌‌of‌‌India‌‌has‌‌been‌‌described‌‌as‌‌: ‌ ‌
A. Tundra‌‌type‌ ‌
B. Desert‌‌type‌ ‌
C. Mediterranean‌‌type‌ ‌
D. Monsoon‌‌type‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(D)‌M
‌ onsoon‌‌type‌ ‌
Solution:‌T ‌ he‌‌climate‌‌of‌‌India‌‌has‌‌broadly‌‌been‌‌described‌‌as‌‌monsoon‌‌type.‌‌Due‌‌to‌‌
India’s‌‌location‌‌in‌‌the‌‌tropical‌‌region,‌‌most‌‌of‌‌the‌‌rain‌‌is‌‌brought‌‌by‌‌the‌‌monsoon‌‌

winds.‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
192‌ ‌
‌
Q31‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌NOT‌‌true‌‌with‌‌regard‌‌to‌‌laterite‌‌soil?‌ ‌
A. Laterite‌‌soil‌‌develops‌‌under‌‌tropical‌‌and‌‌subtropical‌‌climates‌‌with‌‌alternate‌‌

wet‌‌and‌‌dry‌‌seasons.‌ ‌
B. Heavy‌‌rainfall‌‌causes‌‌leaching‌‌of‌‌silica‌‌and‌‌lime,‌‌while‌‌iron‌‌oxide‌‌and‌‌

aluminium‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌left‌‌behind.‌ ‌
C. It‌‌is‌‌very‌‌fertile‌‌and‌‌supports‌‌a‌‌wide‌‌variety‌‌of‌‌crops.‌ ‌
D. It‌‌is‌‌deficient‌‌in‌‌humus‌‌content.‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌I‌t‌‌is‌‌very‌‌fertile‌‌and‌‌supports‌‌a‌‌wide‌‌variety‌‌of‌‌crops.‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌Laterite‌‌
soil‌‌
develops‌‌ under‌‌ tropical‌‌
and‌‌
subtropical‌‌ climates‌‌ with‌‌ alternate‌‌
wet‌ ‌and‌ ‌dry‌ ‌seasons.‌ ‌Heavy‌ ‌rainfall‌ ‌causes‌ ‌leaching‌ ‌of‌ ‌silica‌ ‌and‌ ‌lime,‌ ‌while‌ ‌iron‌‌

oxide‌‌and‌‌aluminium‌‌compounds‌‌are‌‌left‌‌behind.‌ ‌
The‌ ‌soil‌ ‌is‌ ‌deficient‌ ‌in‌ ‌humus‌ ‌content‌ ‌and‌ ‌there‌ ‌is‌ ‌a ‌ ‌specific‌ ‌reason‌‌
for‌‌
it.‌‌
Bacteria‌‌

which‌ ‌thrive‌ ‌well‌‌ in‌‌
warm‌‌ tropical‌‌
climates‌‌
are‌‌ responsible‌‌ for‌‌
removing‌‌ humus‌‌ from‌‌

the‌‌soil.‌‌
‌
Laterite‌‌
soil‌‌
is‌‌
found‌‌
on‌‌
hill‌‌
slopes,‌‌
which‌‌
makes‌‌
it‌‌
prone‌‌
to‌‌
erosion‌‌
and‌‌
degradation,‌‌

and‌‌generally‌‌not‌‌suitable‌‌for‌‌cultivation.‌ ‌
Q32‌ ‌ There‌‌are‌‌certain‌‌methods‌‌to‌‌conserve‌‌soil‌‌in‌‌plain‌‌areas‌‌as‌‌we‌‌do‌‌on‌‌hill‌‌slopes,‌‌

mulching‌‌is‌‌one‌‌of‌‌them.‌‌In‌‌this‌‌context,‌‌choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement‌‌which‌‌explains‌‌
the‌‌process‌‌of‌‌‘mulching’.‌
‌A.‌‌Carving‌‌broad‌‌flat‌‌steps‌‌along‌‌steep‌‌slopes‌‌to‌‌reduce‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌of‌‌running‌ ‌ ‌
‌water.‌ ‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Digging‌‌trenches‌‌in‌‌front‌‌of‌‌man-made‌‌barriers‌‌to‌‌collect‌‌water‌‌and‌‌arrest‌‌soil‌‌
‌
‌erosion.‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Planting‌‌strips‌‌of‌‌grass‌‌in‌‌between‌‌crops‌‌to‌‌break‌‌the‌‌flow‌‌of‌‌wind.‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Covering‌‌soil‌‌with‌‌organic‌‌matter‌‌to‌‌aid‌‌moisture‌‌retention.‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(D)‌‌‌Covering‌‌of‌‌soil‌‌with‌‌organic‌‌matter‌‌to‌‌aid‌‌moisture‌‌retention.‌ ‌
Solution:‌‌ ‌Mulching‌‌ is‌‌

a ‌‌method‌‌ of‌‌
soil‌‌
conservation‌‌ wherein‌‌
organic‌‌ matter‌‌
is‌‌
used‌‌ to‌‌

cover‌‌ the‌‌
soil‌‌
and‌‌ help‌‌ the‌‌
soil‌‌
to‌‌
retain‌‌ moisture.‌‌ This‌‌
forms‌‌
a ‌‌layer‌‌
between‌‌ the‌‌
soil‌‌
and‌‌
atmosphere‌‌ to‌‌
reduce‌‌ evaporation.‌‌ Over‌‌
time,‌‌
the‌‌
mulch‌‌ decays‌‌ and‌‌
becomes‌‌ a ‌‌
part‌‌of‌‌the‌‌soil,‌‌increasing‌‌its‌‌fertility‌‌and‌‌organic‌‌content.‌ ‌
Q33‌ ‌ Cotton‌‌is‌‌a‌‌crop‌‌that‌‌requires‌‌the‌‌following‌‌conditions‌‌to‌‌be‌‌grown:‌ ‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
193‌ ‌
‌
‌ .‌‌Ample‌‌sunshine‌‌with‌‌fairly‌‌dry‌‌conditions. ‌ ‌
1
‌2.‌‌Nutrient-rich‌‌soil.‌ ‌
‌3.‌‌Soil‌‌which‌‌is‌‌well‌‌aerated.‌ ‌
‌4.‌‌Soil‌‌which‌‌can‌‌hold‌‌a‌‌lot‌‌of‌‌water.‌ ‌
Which‌‌soil‌‌is‌‌best‌‌suited‌‌for‌‌cultivating‌‌cotton?‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Red‌‌soil‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Laterite‌‌soil‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Black‌‌soil‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Alluvial‌‌soil‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌‌‌Black‌‌soil‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌Black‌ ‌soil‌ ‌is‌ ‌made‌ ‌up‌ ‌of‌ ‌clayey‌ ‌material,‌ ‌and‌ ‌hence,‌ ‌it‌‌
has‌‌
an‌‌
extremely‌‌
fine‌‌
texture.‌‌
It‌‌
has‌‌
a ‌‌high-moisture‌‌ holding‌‌ capacity.‌‌ It‌‌
is‌‌
rich‌‌ in‌‌
soil‌‌
nutrients,‌‌
such‌‌ as‌‌

calcium‌‌ carbonate,‌‌ magnesium,‌‌ potash,‌‌ and‌‌
lime,‌‌
but‌‌
poor‌‌ in‌‌
phosphoric‌‌ contents.‌‌ It‌‌

cracks‌ ‌when‌ ‌the‌ ‌weather‌ ‌gets‌ ‌hotter‌ ‌and‌ ‌this‌ ‌helps‌ ‌in‌ ‌proper‌ ‌aeration‌ ‌of‌ ‌the‌ ‌soil.‌‌

Hence,‌‌this‌‌makes‌‌it‌‌ideal‌‌for‌‌cultivating‌‌cotton‌‌and‌‌is‌‌also‌‌known‌‌as‌‌black‌‌cotton‌‌soil.‌ ‌
Q34‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌layers‌‌of‌‌soil‌‌is‌‌a‌‌mixture‌‌of‌‌sand,‌‌silt,‌‌and‌‌clay‌‌and‌‌consists‌‌

mainly‌‌of‌‌minerals‌‌and‌‌leached‌‌materials‌‌such‌‌as‌‌iron‌‌and‌‌aluminium‌‌compounds?‌ ‌
‌ .‌‌Topsoil‌ ‌
A
‌B.‌‌Bedrock‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Subsoil‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Weathered‌‌rocks‌ ‌
‌ ubsoil‌
Answer:‌‌(C)‌S
Solution:‌ ‌The‌ ‌uppermost‌ ‌layer‌ ‌of‌ ‌soil‌ ‌is‌ ‌called‌ ‌the‌ ‌topsoil.‌ ‌Below‌ ‌the‌ ‌topsoil‌‌ is‌‌ the‌‌
subsoil,‌‌ which‌‌
is‌‌
a ‌‌mixture‌‌
of‌‌ sand,‌‌ silt,‌‌
and‌‌ clay‌‌ and‌‌ consists‌‌ mainly‌‌ of‌‌
minerals‌‌ and‌‌
leached‌ ‌materials‌ ‌such‌ ‌as‌ ‌iron‌ ‌and‌ ‌aluminium‌‌ compounds.‌‌ Below‌‌ the‌‌
subsoil‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌
third‌‌
layer‌‌
made‌‌ of‌‌
weathered‌‌ rock‌‌
materials.‌‌ The‌‌ fourth‌‌
and‌‌ final‌‌
layer‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
soil‌‌ is‌‌

the‌‌bedrock‌‌or‌‌parent‌‌rock‌‌from‌‌which‌‌the‌‌soil‌‌is‌‌formed.‌ ‌
‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
194‌ ‌
‌
Q35‌ ‌
Match‌‌the‌‌following‌‌items‌‌given‌‌in‌‌Column‌‌A‌‌with‌‌those‌‌in‌‌Column‌‌B.‌ ‌
‌
Column‌‌A ‌ ‌ ‌Column‌‌B ‌ ‌
I. Black‌‌soil ‌ ‌ 1.‌‌Fine‌‌clayey‌‌material‌‌with‌‌deep‌‌horizon‌ ‌
II. Khadar ‌ ‌ 2.‌‌New‌‌alluvium‌ ‌

‌
III. Bangar ‌ ‌ 3.‌‌Old‌‌alluvium‌ ‌
IV. Mountain‌‌soil‌ ‌ 4.‌‌Coarse‌‌material‌‌with‌‌thin‌‌soil‌‌profile‌ ‌
Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌answer‌‌from‌‌the‌‌following‌‌options‌ ‌
A. I‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
B. I‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
C. I‌‌-‌‌4,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌1 ‌ ‌
D. I‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
Answer:‌‌(A)‌I‌‌‌-‌‌1,‌‌II‌‌-‌‌2,‌‌III‌‌-‌‌3,‌‌IV‌‌-‌‌4 ‌ ‌
Solution:‌ ‌
● Black‌ ‌soil‌ ‌is‌ ‌made‌ ‌up‌ ‌of‌ ‌fine‌ ‌clayey‌ ‌material,‌ ‌and‌ ‌this‌ ‌facilitates‌‌
its‌‌
increased‌‌
water‌‌retention‌‌capacity.‌ ‌
● Mountain‌‌ soil‌‌ is‌‌
usually‌‌
thin,‌‌ because‌‌ of‌‌
the‌‌
slope‌‌
that‌‌ the‌‌ fine‌‌
sediments‌‌ were‌‌

transported‌‌to‌‌down‌‌slope,‌‌leaving‌‌behind‌‌the‌‌coarser‌‌material.‌ ‌
● Bangar‌ ‌and‌ ‌khadar‌ ‌are‌ ‌two‌ ‌different‌ ‌types‌ ‌of‌ ‌alluvial‌ ‌soil.‌ ‌Bangar‌‌ is‌‌
relatively‌‌

older.‌ ‌Both‌ ‌the‌ ‌Khadar‌ ‌and‌ ‌Bhangar‌ ‌soils‌ ‌contain‌ ‌calcareous‌ ‌concretions‌‌
(Kankars). ‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
195‌ ‌
‌
Q36‌ ‌

Identify‌‌the‌‌region‌‌‘B’‌‌marked‌‌on‌‌the‌‌map‌‌of‌‌India.‌ ‌
‌
‌A.‌‌Malwa‌‌Plateau‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Bari‌‌Doab‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Vidarbha ‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Rann‌‌of‌‌Kutch‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(D)‌‌‌Rann‌‌of‌‌Kutch‌ ‌
‌
Solution:‌T ‌ he‌‌Rann‌‌of‌‌Kachchh‌‌is‌‌a‌‌white‌‌salty‌‌&‌‌sandy‌‌desert.‌‌It‌‌is‌‌located‌‌in‌‌the‌‌

Kutch‌‌peninsular‌‌of‌‌Gujarat‌. ‌ ‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
196‌ ‌
‌
Q37‌ ‌

On‌‌the‌‌map‌‌of‌‌India.‌‌‘A’‌‌is‌‌marked‌‌as‌‌a‌‌mountain‌‌range.‌‌Identify‌‌A‌‌using‌‌the‌‌following‌‌

options.‌ ‌
‌A.‌‌Karakoram‌‌Range‌ ‌
‌B.‌‌Baba‌‌Budan‌‌Hills‌ ‌
‌C.‌‌Patkai‌‌Bum‌ ‌
‌D.‌‌Lushai‌‌Hills‌ ‌
‌
Answer:‌‌(A)‌K ‌ arakoram‌‌Range‌ ‌
‌
Solution‌: ‌‌Karakoram‌‌ is‌‌
the‌‌
northernmost‌‌
range‌‌
in‌‌
India.‌‌
Baba‌‌
Budan‌‌ Hills‌‌
is‌‌
located‌‌
in‌‌

the‌‌western‌‌ghats.‌‌Patkai‌‌Bum‌‌and‌‌Lushai‌‌hills‌‌are‌‌located‌‌in‌‌North-East‌‌India‌ ‌
‌ ‌
‌
‌
____________________________________________________________________________‌ ‌
197‌ ‌

BYJU's All India Mock Board Exams ICSE - X

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Let‌‌ ,‌‌ ,‌‌and‌‌ ‌

(a)‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement‌‌for‌‌a‌‌ray‌‌of‌‌light‌‌passing‌‌through‌‌a ‌‌ [1]‌ ‌

(c)‌ ‌ Where‌‌will‌‌the‌‌image‌‌be‌‌formed‌‌for‌‌an‌‌object‌‌placed‌‌at‌‌25‌‌cm‌‌from‌‌the‌‌ [1]‌ ‌

(d)‌ ‌ A‌‌ray‌‌of‌‌light‌‌passing‌‌from‌‌one‌‌medium‌‌to‌‌another‌‌will‌‌pass‌‌undeviated‌‌in‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

(e)‌ ‌ The‌‌refractive‌‌index‌‌of‌‌glass‌‌with‌‌respect‌‌to‌‌water‌‌is‌‌1.125.‌‌If‌‌the‌‌speed‌‌ [2]‌ ‌

(f)‌ ‌ An‌‌object‌‌is‌‌placed‌‌at‌‌a‌‌distance‌‌of‌‌20‌‌cm‌‌from‌‌the‌‌optical‌‌centre‌‌of‌‌a ‌‌ [4]‌ ‌

(d)‌ ‌ Mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌and‌‌velocity‌‌ratio‌‌of‌‌a‌‌first-class‌‌lever:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

‌ (ii)‌ ‌ The‌ ‌momentum‌‌of‌‌the‌‌car‌ ‌ ‌

(a)‌ ‌ For‌‌an‌‌ideal‌‌machine,‌‌mechanical‌‌advantage‌‌is‌‌numerically‌‌equal‌‌to:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

(e)‌ ‌ Why‌‌can't‌‌echoes‌‌be‌‌heard‌‌clearly‌‌in‌‌a‌‌small‌‌room?‌‌(Note:‌‌This‌‌question‌‌ [2]‌ ‌

(a)‌ ‌ The‌‌power‌‌of‌‌a‌‌converging‌‌lens‌‌of‌‌focal‌‌length‌‌150‌‌cm‌‌is:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

(b)‌ ‌ When‌‌an‌‌electric‌‌bulb‌‌glows:‌ ‌ [1]‌ ‌

(d)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌the‌‌condition‌‌for‌‌the‌‌occurrence‌‌of‌‌total‌‌internal‌ [2]‌ ‌

Number‌‌of‌‌protons‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌

Number‌‌of‌‌neutrons‌ ‌ 7‌ ‌ 8‌ ‌

Period‌ ‌ 2‌ ‌ 2‌ ‌

Q1‌ ‌ I‌dentify‌‌the‌‌system‌‌in‌‌which‌‌the‌‌legislature‌‌has‌‌two‌‌chambers.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q2‌ ‌ What‌‌is‌‌the‌‌current‌‌maximum‌‌strength‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q6‌ ‌ Which‌‌chamber‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌‌can‌‌be‌‌dissolved‌‌by‌‌the‌‌President‌‌through‌‌a ‌‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q7‌ ‌ Who‌‌has‌‌the‌‌power‌‌to‌‌impeach‌‌the‌‌President‌‌of‌‌India?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q9‌ ‌ Identify‌‌the‌‌first‌‌session‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Parliament‌‌in‌‌a‌‌calendar‌‌year.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q11‌ ‌ Who‌‌introduced‌‌an‌‌annexation‌‌policy‌‌called‌‌the‌‌Doctrine‌‌of‌‌Lapse?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q14‌ ‌ Who‌‌among‌‌the‌‌following‌‌passed‌‌the‌‌General‌‌Service‌‌Enlistment‌‌Act?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q23‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌option(s)‌‌is‌‌true‌‌about‌‌Rajya‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌ (2)‌ ‌

Q25‌ ‌ Pick‌‌the‌‌names‌‌of‌‌the‌‌British‌‌officials‌‌behind‌‌the‌‌Morley–Minto‌‌Reforms‌‌from‌ ‌(2)‌ ‌

Q26‌ ‌ Why‌‌did‌‌Gandhi‌‌support‌‌the‌‌Khilafat‌‌Movement?‌ ‌ ‌(2)‌ ‌

‌(ⅱ)‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌option(s)‌‌are‌‌true‌‌about‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha?‌ ‌ (2)‌ ‌

‌(ⅲ)‌ To‌‌be‌‌a‌‌member‌‌of‌‌the‌‌Lok‌‌Sabha,‌‌you:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q14‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌regarding‌‌biodiversity‌‌of‌‌flora‌‌and‌‌fauna‌‌in‌‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q15‌ ‌ Why‌‌are‌‌tank‌‌irrigation‌‌systems‌‌considered‌‌non-perennial?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q16‌ ‌ Which‌‌quantitative‌‌aspect‌‌is‌‌responsible‌‌for‌‌water‌‌scarcity?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q18‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌given‌‌pair(s)‌‌is/are‌‌correctly‌‌matched? ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q19‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q20‌ ‌ Consider‌‌the‌‌following‌‌statements‌‌about‌‌the‌‌Indian‌‌monsoon:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q21‌ ‌ Which‌‌of‌‌the‌‌following‌‌is‌‌not‌‌a‌‌characteristic‌‌associated‌‌with‌‌climatic‌‌controls?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q22‌ ‌ What‌‌do‌‌you‌‌understand‌‌by‌‌the‌‌term‌‌retreating‌‌monsoon?‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q23‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statement.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q24‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statements‌‌with‌‌reference‌‌to‌‌monsoon‌‌troughs.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q26‌ ‌ Choose‌‌the‌‌correct‌‌statements‌‌regarding‌‌monsoon‌‌in‌‌India.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q27‌ ‌ Match‌‌the‌‌following.‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q28‌ ‌ Match‌‌the‌‌following:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q29‌ ‌ The‌‌following‌‌events‌‌can‌‌be‌‌noticed‌‌in‌‌which‌‌season? ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q30‌ ‌ The‌‌climate‌‌of‌‌India‌‌has‌‌been‌‌described‌‌as‌‌: ‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

Q33‌ ‌ Cotton‌‌is‌‌a‌‌crop‌‌that‌‌requires‌‌the‌‌following‌‌conditions‌‌to‌‌be‌‌grown:‌ ‌ (1)‌ ‌

II. Khadar ‌ ‌ 2.‌‌New‌‌alluvium‌ ‌

III. Bangar ‌ ‌ 3.‌‌Old‌‌alluvium‌ ‌

IV. Mountain‌‌soil‌ ‌ 4.‌‌Coarse‌‌material‌‌with‌‌thin‌‌soil‌‌profile‌ ‌

2‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 19‌ ‌ B‌ ‌

3‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ 20‌ ‌ C‌ ‌

4‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 21‌ ‌ C‌ ‌

5‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 22‌ ‌ B‌ ‌

6‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 23(i)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌

7‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 23(ii)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌

8‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 23(iii)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌

9‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 23(iv)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌

10‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 24(i)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌

11‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ 24(ii)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌

12‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 24(iii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌

13‌ ‌ A‌ ‌ 24(iv)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌

14‌ ‌ B‌ ‌ 25(i)‌ ‌ D‌ ‌

15‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 25(ii)‌ ‌ C‌ ‌

16‌ ‌ D‌ ‌ 25(iii)‌ ‌ B‌ ‌

17‌ ‌ C‌ ‌ 25(iv)‌ ‌ A‌ ‌