Ise I With Answers

ISE I task specifications
ISE I
Format: A reading and writing exam with four tasks
Timing: 2 hours
Level: B1 of the CEFR
Task 1 — Long reading

Task type and format One reading text followed by 15 questions.
Input text Genre: The text is of a factual, descriptive nature of the kind that would be
familiar to the candidate from their own educational context.
Subject areas:
◗◗ Travel
◗◗ Money
◗◗ Fashion
◗◗ Rules and regulations
◗◗ Health and fitness
◗◗ Learning a foreign language
◗◗ Festivals
◗◗ Means of transport
◗◗ Special occasions
◗◗ Entertainment
◗◗ Music
◗◗ Recent personal experiences
Textual features: The language is of B1 (of the CEFR) level with few low-
frequency words. Any topic-specific, low-frequency words will be glossed
(their meaning explained through the text).
The text is of the kind that would be familiar to candidates through their
educational context, for example the kind of texts used in schools and
colleges (eg textbook, article, review)
Input text length 400 words divided into five paragraphs.
Number of items 15 items in three sections of five items each.
Item types Questions 1–5 — Title matching. These require the candidate to choose the
most appropriate titles for each paragraph of the text. The text has five
paragraphs and there are six titles to choose from.
Questions 6–10 — Selecting the true statements. These require the
candidate to select the five true statements from a list of eight possible
answers. In the list, five statements will be true according to the text and
three will be false.
Questions 11–15 — Completing sentences (gap fill). These require the
candidate to complete sentences with a word or phrase taken from the text
(up to three words).
Task focus Each set of five items is testing a different reading skill (also known as a
construct).
Questions 1–5 are testing the ability to understand the main idea of each
paragraph.
Questions 6–10 are testing the ability to understanding specific, factual
information at the sentence level.
Questions 11–15 are testing the ability to understand specific, factual
information at the word and/or phrase level.
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Task focus Each set of five items is testing a different reading skill (also known as a
construct).
Questions 1–5 are testing the ability to understand the main idea of each
paragraph.
information at the word and/or phrase level.
Assessment Objectively scored according to the number of correct items out of a total
of 30. Each question is worth one mark.
Marking All items are objectively/clerically marked.
Timing Candidates are recommended to spend 20 minutes on this part of the exam.
Task 2 — Multi-text reading

Task type and format Four reading texts followed by 15 questions.
Input text Genre: The texts are of a factual, descriptive nature of the kind that would
be familiar to the candidate from their own educational context. One text
is a graphic representation of information with some writing (for example
a diagram, drawing, map, table).
Subject areas:
◗◗ Travel
◗◗ Money
◗◗ Fashion
◗◗ Festivals
◗◗ Music
All four texts are on the same topic and should be thematically linked.
Textual features: The language is of A2 (of the CEFR) level with very few
low-frequency words. Any topic-specific, low-frequency words will be glossed
(their meaning explained through the text).
The texts are of the kind that would be familiar to candidates through their
educational context, for example the kind of texts used in schools and colleges.
Input text length A total of 400 words across four texts.

One text is mainly graphical with some written language.
Number of items 15 items in three sections of five items each
36
Item types Questions 16–20 — Multiple matching. These require the candidate to
choose the most appropriate sentence to describe each text. There are
five sentences and each will refer to one text only. As there are five
sentences and four texts, the same text can be the correct answer for
up to two questions.
Questions 21–25 — Selecting the true statements. These require the
candidate to select the five true statements from a list of eight possible
answers. In the list, five statements will be true according to the text and
three will be false.
Questions 26–30 — Completing summary notes from a bank of options (gap
fill). These require the candidate to complete a summary with a word or
phrase taken from the text (up to three words).
The completed task represents a summary in note form of all the texts in
the task.
Task focus Each set of five items is testing a different reading skill (also known as
a construct).
Questions 16–20 are testing the ability to understand the main idea and
purpose of each text.
information at the word and/or phrase level across the texts and using this
to create a simple text-level representation.
Assessment Objectively scored according to the number of correct items out of a total
of 30. Each question is worth one mark.
Marking All items are objectively/clerically marked.
Task 3 — Reading into writing

Task type and format A writing task in which the four texts from task 2 are used to respond
to a prompt.
The prompt will have three content points that the candidate should
address in their response.
The response should only take information from the texts in task 2.
There is space for planning the response and a prompt to go back and
check the response once it is finished.
Task focus This section assesses the ability to:

◗◗ identify straightforward information that is relevant to the writing task
and the main conclusions, significant points and common themes across
multiple texts
◗◗ paraphrase/summarise short pieces of information
◗◗ incorporate such information to produce a short and simple response to
suit the purpose for writing
Output length 100–130 words
Output genre The output genre will be one of the following:

◗◗ descriptive essay
◗◗ discursive essay
◗◗ article (magazine or online)
37
Task 4 — Extended writing

Task type and format A writing task in which the candidate responds to a prompt.
The prompt will have two content points that the candidate should address
in their response.
There is space for planning the response and a prompt to go back and
check the response once it is finished.
Task focus This section assesses the ability to produce a narrative, descriptive or
instructional text following the instructions. The target language function
that the candidates are expected to use is to express simple facts and
personal opinions in some detail coherently.
Output length 100–130 words
Output genre The output genre will be one of the following:

◗◗ descriptive essay
◗◗ discursive essay
◗◗ article (magazine or online)
◗◗ informal email
◗◗ informal letter
◗◗ formal letter or email
◗◗ review
Subject areas The writing prompt will be on one of the subjects for ISE I. The suggested
subjects for ISE I are:
◗◗ Travel
◗◗ Money
◗◗ Fashion
◗◗ Festivals
◗◗ Music
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ISE I sample exam paper
ISE I
Integrated Skills in English I

Time allowed: 2 hours
This exam paper has four tasks. Complete all tasks.

Read the following text about transport and answer the 15 questions on page 3.
The first underground train

Paragraph 1
Today there are underground train systems in over 40 countries. For example, you can take
underground trains in Paris, New York and Tokyo. Modern underground systems use electric
trains, and they are clean, safe and quiet. They usually arrive on time. There are no traffic jams.
Most people are happy to use them. But the first underground train systems were quite different
from the modern systems we see in big cities all around the world.
Paragraph 2
The first underground trains ran in London in 1863. It was a very busy city and the streets were
full of traffic. There were too many people, horse carriages, houses and buildings. There just
wasn’t enough space above ground, and so people decided to put the trains underground. But
unlike today, there were no electric trains in 1863 and all of the trains used steam engines —
which made power from fire and water.
Paragraph 3
In 1863, all of the trains used steam engines. Because these engines were powered by very hot water
and fire, the tunnels were smoky, steamy, and noisy. People wanted some fresh air, but it was difficult
to get it into the tunnels and stations. The tunnels were dark, too. The train cars and stations were
made of wood, and lighted with gas. Sometimes there were accidents because of fires.
Paragraph 4
Before the London Underground opened, people were very scared about the idea of going into
underground tunnels. Many were afraid of the tunnels full of the smoke, the steam and the noise
from the train engines. And indeed, travelling in the tunnels of the first underground system was
a very noisy, dark, and smelly experience. But on the first day, the new London Underground
carried 40,000 passengers. It was very quick, and the trains ran every 10 minutes. The people of
London fell in love with their new train system.
Paragraph 5
The London Underground had three classes of travel. First class was the most expensive and
most comfortable. Second class was less expensive but still comfortable. Third class was the
opposite of first class. When the London Underground opened, the third class tickets were the
most popular. About 70% of the tickets sold were these cheap tickets for ordinary working
people. Nowadays the prices have gone up, but the underground experience around the world is
definitely cleaner and quieter!
page 2 This exam paper has four tasks. Complete all tasks.
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ISE I
Questions 1–5
The text on page 2 has five paragraphs (1–5). Choose the best title for each paragraph from A–F
below and write the letter (A–F) on the lines below. There is one title you don’t need.
1. Paragraph 1
A Why the first underground train system was built
2. Paragraph 2
B Tickets for the first underground system
3. Paragraph 3 C People’s feelings about the first underground train system
4. Paragraph 4 D What the first underground system was like
5. Paragraph 5 E Railroads of the first underground system

F Modern underground train systems
Questions 6–10
Choose the five statements from A–H below that are TRUE according to the information given in
the text on page 2. Write the letters of the TRUE statements on the lines below (in any order).
6.
A The stations and tunnels of the first underground system were smoky.
7.
B The first underground trains were late because of traffic jams.
8.
C There were three types of tickets for the first underground trains.
9.
D The first underground trains were built in Paris.
10. E At first, people were worried about using the first underground trains.
F The first underground train stations were made of wood.
G Ordinary working people could not buy first class underground tickets.
H The ticket prices today are still cheap for ordinary working people.
Questions 11–15
Complete sentences 11–15 with a word, phrase or number from the text (maximum three words).
Write the word, phrase or number on the lines below.
11. In 1863, there weren’t any trains.
12. Steam engines used the power of .
13. Thousands of people used the London Underground on .
14. The old London Underground used lights.
15. When the London Underground opened, most of the tickets sold were the
Turn over page page 3
40
ISE I
In this section there are three short texts for you to read and some questions for you to answer.
Questions 16–20
Read questions 16–20 first and then read texts A, B, C and D below the questions.
As you read each text, decide which text each question refers to. Choose one letter — A, B, C or D —
and write it on the lines below. You can use any letter more than once.
Which text
16. makes negative comments about the activities of local people and businesses?
17. reports a good news story about recent improvements to a river environment?
18. shares lots of practical ideas from different people about how to improve a local river?
19. calls for more political action and public education to protect a nearby river?
20.shows some changing patterns in the state of health of a particular river?
Text A
From: Eva
Sent: 11 November 2014 19:37
To: editor@eveningnews.co.uk
Subject: River Mêle
Dear Editor
The River Mêle causes health problems in the city, so we need to take action. Although the other local
factories have stopped putting waste into the river, the paper factory is still breaking pollution laws,
and should have to pay big fines.
The mud of the riverbed needs to be taken away because it’s polluted with chemicals. Politicians are
scared to say this, because it brings jobs to the city, but it is obvious that the paper company should pay.
Also, people need to be educated: drinks bottles and plastic bags wouldn’t be such a problem if
people reused or recycled them.
Yours
Eva Strauss
Text B
The River Tollen: Yearly report on the results of pollution
20
Waste from Oxygen (O2) Fish numbers Water birds Rubbish Chemicals from
factories levels in water down 3% down 2.4% up 14% farms in riverbed
up 6.4% down 3.5% up 5.5%
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ISE I
Text C
The city is getting millions from the government to improve the River Lamm! How should it
spend the money?
Paul: I’ve always thought that the river would be great for kayaking so how about a
watersports centre for people to do things like that?
Marcus: It would be great to see people using the river for transport, like in the old days.
Divna: Fear stops a lot of people going to the river! Even a little lighting along the
riverbank would help people to feel safe.
Alex: I’d like to see one of the old factories become a museum of the city’s
industrial history.
Inge: @Alex And some quality waterside cafés would attract visitors too.
Simone: @Divna I agree – security cameras too, to protect people from criminals!
Alex: @Inge Hopefully they’ll close that fast food place – that would mean less litter
on the ground!
Text D
GREEN CITY — NEWS

In the yearly Big Clean-up on the River Vico, 50 Science student Martina Keller took part in the
students picked up rubbish from the banks of the Clean-up. She told us, ‘In the five years since this
river, and several local companies got together started, you can see the change — the river’s clear
to clear the river of fridges, bikes and other large again now, not black, like it used to be! Plants
items! We criticise supermarkets on this site are growing on the bottom of the river again, and
sometimes, but they let staff have time off work to we’ll see a lot more fish and birds, I’m sure.’
plant trees along the river, so well done to them!
Questions 21–25
Choose the five statements from A–H below that are TRUE according to the information given
in the texts above. Write the letters of the TRUE statements on the lines below (in any order).
21. A The Big Clean-up and tree-planting projects are improving the
River Vico.
22. B Waste paper and cardboard are causing serious pollution in the
23. River Mêle.
C Some people don’t go to the River Lamm because they are worried
24. about safety.
25. D The water quality on the River Tollen has continued to improve.
E The Big Clean-up Project on the River Vico takes place once a year.
F On the River Tollen rubbish has increased more than farm or
factory pollution.
G Money needs to be raised for improvements to the River Lamm.
H The paper factory near the River Mêle is an important local employer.
42
ISE I
Questions 26–30
The summary notes below contain information from the texts on pages 4 and 5. Find a word or
phrase (maximum three words) from texts A–D to complete the missing information in gaps 26–30.
Write your answers on the lines below.
Summary notes
The main causes of river pollution:
• industrial pollution, eg waste from factories
• agricultural pollution, eg (26.)

• dumping large domestic items, eg fridges, bikes
• household rubbish, eg (27.)
Ideas for improving the riverside environment:
• developing sporting facilities, eg (28.)

• encouraging transportation, eg pleasure boats, canal boats
• creating public eating places, eg (29.)

• designing visitor attractions , eg museum of industrial history
• making the riverside a safer place, eg (30.)

• getting local community involved, eg Big Clean-up, plant trees
43
ISE I
Task 3 — Reading into writing
Write a short essay for your teacher (100–130 words) about the problem of river pollution in a city
or town.
Use the information you read in Task 2 (pages 4–6) to:
w describe some problems from river pollution in a town or city
w explain some steps that can be taken to help clean up a polluted river and
w suggest how you think people can be encouraged to look after their local river better.
You should plan your essay before you start writing. Think about what you want to say and make
some notes to help you in this box:
Planning notes
(No marks are given for these planning notes)
Now write your essay of 100–130 words on the lines below. Try to use your own words as far as
possible — don’t just copy sentences from the reading texts.
44
ISE I
45
ISE I
When you have finished your essay, spend 2–3 minutes reading through what you have written.
Make sure you have covered all three bullet points. Remember to check how you made use of the
reading texts, as well as the language and organisation of your writing.
46
ISE I
Task 4 — Extended writing

Write an article (100–130 words) for a website for students about different ways to study.
You should:
w give examples of ways you prefer to study and
w explain why these ways work for you.
You should plan your article before you start writing. Think about what you want to say and
make some notes to help you in this box:
Planning notes
(No marks are given for these planning notes)
Now write your article of 100–130 words on the lines below.
47
ISE I
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ISE I
When you have finished your article, spend 2–3 minutes reading through what you have written.
Make sure you have covered both bullet points and remember to check the language and
organisation of your writing.
End of exam
Copyright © 2015 Trinity College London
49
Sample paper answer key

1. F
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. B
6–10 can appear in any order

6. A
7. C
8. E
9. F
10. G
11. electric
12. fire and water
13. the first day
14. gas
15. third class tickets / cheap tickets

16. A
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. B
21–25 can appear in any order

21. A
22. C
23. E
24. F
25. H
26. chemicals from farms

27. drinks bottles OR plastic bags
28. kayaking OR a watersports centre
29. (quality) waterside cafes
30. lighting OR security cameras
50

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ISE I task specifications

ISE I task specifications

Task 1 — Long reading

Input text length 400 words divided into five paragraphs.

Number of items 15 items in three sections of five items each.

Marking All items are objectively/clerically marked.

Task 2 — Multi-text reading

Input text length A total of 400 words across four texts.

Number of items 15 items in three sections of five items each

Marking All items are objectively/clerically marked.

Task 3 — Reading into writing

Task focus This section assesses the ability to:

Output length 100–130 words

Output genre The output genre will be one of the following:

Task 4 — Extended writing

Output length 100–130 words

Output genre The output genre will be one of the following:

ISE I sample exam paper

Integrated Skills in English I

Task 1 — Long reading

The first underground train

5. Paragraph 5 E Railroads of the first underground system

11. In 1863, there weren’t any trains.

12. Steam engines used the power of .

13. Thousands of people used the London Underground on .

14. The old London Underground used lights.

Turn over page page 3

Task 2 — Multi-text reading

20.shows some changing patterns in the state of health of a particular river?

The River Tollen: Yearly report on the results of pollution

GREEN CITY — NEWS

Turn over page page 5

• agricultural pollution, eg (26.)

• household rubbish, eg (27.)

Ideas for improving the riverside environment:

• developing sporting facilities, eg (28.)

• creating public eating places, eg (29.)

• making the riverside a safer place, eg (30.)

Task 3 — Reading into writing

(No marks are given for these planning notes)

Turn over page page 7

Turn over page page 9

Task 4 — Extended writing

(No marks are given for these planning notes)

Now write your article of 100–130 words on the lines below.

Turn over page page 11

Sample paper answer key

6–10 can appear in any order

Task 2 — Multi-text reading

21–25 can appear in any order

26. chemicals from farms

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